Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
f2 (x, y, z) = sin(xyz) + z.
f1
(1, 0, 1) = 1,
y
f2
(1, 0, 1) = 1,
y
f1
(1, 0, 1) = 0,
z
f3
(1, 0, 1) = 1.
z
g(x, y, z) = x2 eyz ,
1
1
[df (1)] = 2t = 2 .
3
3t2 t=1
2 = 2e + 2e + 3e = 7e.
h (1) = [dg(f (1))][df (1)] = 2e e e
3
We have
3. Define f : R2 R by
f (x, y) =
x4/3 sin(y/x) if x 6= 0,
0
if x = 0.
Where is f is differentiable?
Solution.
The function f is differentiable at every point of R2 .
By the chain and product rules, the partial derivatives of f ,
f
4
(x, y) = x1/3 sin(y/x) yx2/3 cos(y/x),
x
3
f
(x, y) = x1/3 cos(y/x),
y
exist and are continuous in the open set
U = {(x, y) R2 : x 6= 0}.
Therefore f is differentiable in U.
We claim that the partial derivatives of f also exist if x = 0 and are
equal to 0.
For the partial derivative with respect to x, we have
f
f (h, y) f (0, y)
(0, y) = lim
h0
x
h
h4/3 sin(y/h)
= lim
h0
h
1/3
= lim h sin(y/h)
h0
= 0,
where we use the squeeze theorem and the inequality
|h1/3 sin(y/h)| |h|1/3 .
Since f (0, y) = 0 for every y R, for the partial derivative with respect
to y, we have
f
d
(0, y) = f (0, y) = 0.
y
dy
.
It follows that if f is differentiable at (0, y), then its derivative
[df (0, y)] = (f /x(0, y), f /y(0, y))
must be zero. We prove that this is indeed the case from the definition
of the derivative.
Consider the difference between f and its affine approximation at (0, y):
r(h, k) = f (h, y + k) f (0, y) df (0, y) (h, k).
To prove that f is differentiable at (0, y) with derivative df (0, y), we
need to show that
|r(h, k)|
= 0.
lim
(h,k)(0,0) k(h, k)k
Supposing that [df (0, y)] = (0, 0) and using the fact that f (0, y) = 0,
we get r(h, k) = f (h, y + k). Therefore,
|r(h, k)| |h|4/3 ,
since either h = 0 and r(h, k) = 0, or h 6= 0 and
|r(h, k)| = h4/3 sin((y + k)/h) |h|4/3 .
It follows that
|r(h, k)|
|h|4/3
2
|h|1/3 0
k(h, k)k
(h + k 2 )1/2
as h 0.
5. The mean value theorem from one-variable calculus states that if a function f : [a, b] R is continuous on the closed interval [a, b] and differentiable
in the open interval (a, b), then there is a point a < c < b such that
f (b) f (a) = (b a)f (c).
Does this theorem remain true for a vector-valued function f : [a, b] R2 ?
Solution.
It doesnt remain true. The reason is that if f = (f1 , f2 ), we may need
to use different points c1 , c2 to satisfy the mean value theorem for the
real-valued component functions f1 , f2 : [a, b] R.
To give an explicit counter-example, define f : [0, 1] R2 by
f (x) = x(1 x), x2 (1 x) , f1 (x) = x(1 x), f2 (x) = x2 (1 x).
Optional remark. Frequently, we use the mean value theorem for a realvalued function in the following way: if |f (x)| M for a < x < b, then
|f (b) f (a)| M|b a|. Although the mean value theorem itself fails for
vector-valued functions, there is a useful generalization of this estimate that
can often be used instead. If f : Rn Rm is continuously differentiable, and
a, b Rn , then the chain rule implies that for t R,
d
f (a + t(b a)) = df (a + t(b a)) (b a).
dt
Suppose that kdf (a + t(b a)) k M for 0 t 1, where kAk 0 denotes
the norm of a linear map A : Rn Rm (i.e., the smallest constant such that
kAhk kAkkhk for all h Rn ). Then the fundamental theorem of calculus
implies that
Z 1
Z 1
d
f (a + t(b a)) dt =
df (a + t(b a)) (b a) dt,
f (b) f (a) =
0
0 dt
and this gives the estimate
Z 1
kf (b) f (a)k
kdf (a + t(b a)) (b a)k dt Mkb ak.
0