FULL LENGTH MOCK

MAT TEST SERIES 2007

NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 200 (FOR EACH CORRECT, 4 MARKS; FOR EACH WRONG,
-1)TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS

1. A sum of Rs. 25 was paid for a work which A can do in 32 days, B in 20 days, B and C in 12
days and D in 24 days How much did C Receive if all the four work together?
(1)
Rs.14/3
(2) Rs. 16/3
(3)
Rs.15/3
(4) Rs. 17/3
2. A can build up a wall in 8 days while B can break it in 3 days A has worked for 4 days and then
B joined to work with A for another 2 days only. In how many days will A alone build up the
remaining part of the wall?
(1)
13 1/3 days
(2) 6 1/3 days
(3)
7 1/3 days
(4) 7 days
3. A cistern can filled by two pipes filling separately in 12 and 16 min respectively. Both pipes are
opened together for a certain time but being clogged, only 7/8 of the full quantity of water
flows through the former and only 5/6 through the latter pipe. The obstructions, however,
being suddenly removed, the cistern is filled in 3 min form that moment. How long was it
before the full flow began?
(1)
2.5 min
(2) 4.5 min
(3)
3.5 min
(4) 5.5 min
4. A man sold two steel chairs for Rs. 500 each. On one, he gains 20% and on other, he loses
12%. How much does he gain or lose in the whole transaction?
(1)
1.5% gain
(2) 2% gain
(#) 1.5% loss
(4) 2% loss
5. A sum of money lent out at simple interest amounts to Rs.720 after 2 years and to Rs.1,020
after a further period of 5 years. The sum and the rate % are.
(1)
Rs. 500, 5%
(2) Rs. 400, 15%
(3)
Rs. 600, 10%
(4) Rs. 700, 20%
Directions (Qs. 6-9) : For the verbal analogies pick the pair that exhibits the most similar
relationship to the given analogy :
6. Autumn; Wither
(1) Fall; Digress
(2) Winter; Retreat
(3) Spring; Flower
(4) Season; Change
7. Augur; Future
(1) Knigh; Medieval
(2) Poet; Century
(3) Vanguard; Pack
(4) Historian; Past
8. Stately; Demeanour
(1) Ascetic; Deportment
(2) Narrow; Vessel
(3) Fertile; Nature
(4) Sober; Mein
9. Rash; Stoic
(1) Articulate; Oraor
(2) Dubious; Scoundrel
(3) Dolorous; Spouse
(4) Agnostic; Cleric
10. Two runners, A and B, running around a circular Track, complete one round each in 7 and 14
minutes respectively. They take a simultaneous start from the starting point. During the first 30
minutes, how many times has A crossed B on the track?
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1
11. A river flows west to east and on the way turns left and goes in a semicircle round a hillock,
and then turns left at right-angles. In which direction is the river finally flowing?
(1) North
(2) South
(3) East
(4) West

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12. A clock seen through a mirror shows quarter past three. What is the correct time shown by the
clock?
(1) 03.15
(2) 08.45
(3) 09.15
(4) 09.45
13. Tony was not at school on Saturday last. He was first absent for four days before that. Today is
Monday, the 31st of October. When was Tony first absent? Give the day and date?
(1) Monday, October 24
(2) Tuesday, October 25
(3) Wednesday, October 26
(4) Thursday, October 27
14. What is the angel that the Hour hand of a clock makes with the minute hand when the time is
15.40?
(1) 1100
(2) 1200
0
(3) 125
(4) 1300
Directions (Qs. 15-19): Each item is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each
question using the following instructions:
Mark your answer as:
1. If the question can be answered by one of the statements alone and not by the
other.
2. If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
3. If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but
cannot be answered by using either statement alone.
4. If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements
together.
15. A rectangular floor that the 4 meters wide is to be completely covered with square tiles, each
with the side of length 0.25 meter. What is the least number of such tiles required?
a. The length of the floor is three times the width.
b. The area of the floor is 48 square meters.
16. Each student in class of 40 students voted for exactly one of the three candidates A. B or C for
the post of class representative. Did candidate A receive the maximum votes from the 40
votes cast?
a. Candidates A received 11 of the votes.
b. Candidate C received 14 of the votes.
17. I1, I2 and I3 are lines in a plane. Is I1 perpendicular to I3?
a. I1 is perpendicular to I2.
b. I2 is perpendicular to I3.
18. Was 70 the average grade on a class test?
a) On the test, half of the class had grades below 70 and half of the class had grades above
70.
b) The lowest grade on the test was 45 and the highest grade on the test was 95.
19. If x is an integer, then what is the value of x2?
a) 1/5 < 1/x +1 <
b) (x - 3) (x - 4) = 0

Direction (Qs. 20-29) : Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions
given at the end of each passage :

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Passage I
One of the basic principles of people management for most of the 20 th century was to narrow
an individuals task down to a small, heavily monitored, transparently cost-effective unit of
work. This was particularly the case in many areas of manufacturing, where it was felt to be a
necessary route to greater competitiveness. It left the individual with little chance to show any
initiative. Today, that tenet is being turned largely on its head. Much more is expected from
employees; their value to a companys well-being is increasingly acknowledged, even if not
necessarily properly recognized. This transition has been accompanied by the emergence of
human resource management, a term not universally acknowledged as representing much
more than personnel management, but one which does signify a broader ambit than in the
past. Just how much broader is discussed here, along with the widely differing attitudes of
trade unions to human resource management and the issues that management must confront.
Also examined are the issue that have been preoccupying human resource managers
themselves. An example is the rapid emergence of new technology, which puts pressures on
workers that cannot always be easily resolved. It is on the nature of good management
practice that nothing, in isolation, provides the answer to every prayer. As john Grapper
relates, British Airways, which lays claim to being the worlds favourite airline, has embraced
human resource management to what is generally considered to be good effect. It sees its
employees as frontline troops in the competitive battle with other airlines. It sees its
employees as front line troops in the competitive battle with other airlines. Its overall success
is acknowledged; witness its ability to produce profit while rivals notch up huge losses. Graper
traces the pressure to re-think heavily monitored, narrowly defined work patterns as having
come from Japan, where the team approach, with decisions made by the consensus is
acknowledged to be a potent competitive weapon. Much of the shift is due to the fact that
traditionally structured principles are incompatible with rapid technological change. This is
especially so in service industries, where labour accounts for a large majority of total costs,
and where employees can be at the forefront of enhancing standards of service. The mixed
attitudes of unions to HRM emerge against a background of distrust Inevitably, if responsibility
is pushed further down the organization, with established lines of authority being eroded, he
unions traditional role is called into question. This suspicion is exemplified by a national officer
of the Transport and General Workers Union, who also accuses employers of often having as
their real motivation, a desire to weaken collective strength. An academics view is that HRM
sits uncomfortably with industrial relations, since among other things, managers will
endeavour to bypass unions achieve their ends. But not all unions are opposed to ends but no
all unions are opposed to HRM, one particularly perceptive view being that it is inevitably an
acknowledgement by management that workers should be more involved in decision-making.
A rider to this is that it brings managers under greater pressure to deliver and opens them to
accusations of merely playing lip-service to the concept if they prove unhappy about being
challenged. A further view is that HRM in the United Kingdom is a pale shadow of the that exist
in Continental Europe, since the power offered to workers is rather illusory and allows little
scope for feedback from the workers to the upper echelons of management. This argument
could well be supported by the attitudes which are reported in Chrisopher Lorenzs article
about whether or not a value can be put on human resources and if, indeed, management
really wishes to do so. Larenz points to the growing number of chief executives who are at
least paying attention to concepts which enhance the status of employees. But he question is
whether this has any more substances than is revealed by the perfunctory acknowledgement
in so many company annual reports of how valuable employees are to the organization. One of
the inevitable outcomes of empowerment of employees is that they will make mistakes and
that they should be left (or helped) to learn by them. Yet this prospect help make some
managements draw back from delegating real power of decision further down the line and
thus from taking HRM to its proper conclusion. In a world of rapid technological advance,
human resources play a crucial role but not just in ensuring that the latest piece of
technology performs. They are also a barometer of what is achievable and what is not, as
Michael Dixon illustrates. What is particularly clear is that employees are happy or can be
persuaded to work with. Even in companies where HRM becomes very much the chief

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executives remit, much of the responsibility for ensuring that employees views are
understood by management still falls to the human resource manager. Many managers still
feel vulnerable in the organizational hierarchy. However, Simon Holberton suggests that while
they know what their role should be, many human resource managers find themselves
insufficiently informed by their companies to design programmes to meet managers demands.
Significantly, training is at the top of the list of their priorities. And while the economic climate
has changed considerably for the worse with budgets slashed or put on hold, training is still
widely perceived to be one of the most pressing requirements if a wide swathe of companies is
not to be left unprepared to take advantage of an economic upturn.
20.
1.
2.
3.
4.
21.
1.
2.
3.

The author would agree with which of the following ?

The individuals value in any organization is today properly recognized.
The individuals value in any organization was always recognized.
The individuals value is not recognized even today in any organization.
The individual is expected to do much less today than what he used to do earlier.
The success of British Airways can be attributed to
Its adaptation of human resource management principles.
Its superior service and timely running of flights.
Its consideration that its employees are combatant in a battle, thus giving them more
responsibility.
4.
Both (1) and (3)
22.
One of the salient features of the Japanese work pattern is that
1. All the Japanese regard work as worship
2. The decisions are usually taken by the top management, thus leading to success.
3. The belief in teamwork and taking decisions by consensus.
4. The respect for elders and their style of working.
23.
The trade unions oppose human resource management policies because
1.
If workers become more responsible, the traditional role of unions is jeopardized.
2.
It is the tendency of the unions to oppose anything new.
3.
It will lead to greater interference by the management in union activity.
4.
None of these.
24.
Why do some management not allow seeping down of responsibility?
1.
They want to take all the decisions themselves.
2.
Employees may make mistakes and hence giving them responsibility would to be beneficial.
3.
They have a basic attitude problem
4.
Both (1) and (3)
Passage II
Definitions of culture are contested. In anthropological usage, the word refers to a system of
shared meanings through which collective existence becomes possible, however, as many
recent critiques of this position point out, this sense of culture gives no place to the idea of
judgment, and hence to the relations of power by which the dominance of ideas and tastes is
established. As said says about Mathew Arnolds view of culture :
What is at stake in society is not merely the cultivation of individuals, or the development of a
class of finely tuned sensibilities, or the renaissance of interests in the classics, but rather the
assertively achieved and won hegemony of an identifiable set of ideas, which Arnold
honorifically calls, culture, over all other ideas in society.
The implications of Arnolds view of culture are profound; they lead us towards a position in
which culture must be seen in terms of that which it eliminates as much as that when culture is
consecrated by the state, it becomes a system of discriminations and evaluations through
which a series of exclusions can be legislated from above. By the enactment of such
legislation, the state comes to be the primary giver of values. Anarchy, disorder, irrationality,
inferiority, bad taste and immorality are, in this way, defined and then located outside culture
and civilization by the state and its institutions. The exclusion of alterity is an important device
by which the hegemony of the state, especially to the notion that the state is the sole giver of

Page | 4

values. At the same time, the danger is that we may in the process be tempted to valourise
the community as somehow representing a more organic mode, and therefore a more
authentic method of organizing culture. Many scholars feel that culture is more organically
related to the traditions of groups, whereas traditions are falsely invented by the hands of
state. The issues are by no means as simple, for culture and tradition are not instituted in
society once and forever, but are subject tot eh constant change and flux which are an
essential feature of every society. Indeed, the very attempt to freeze and fix cultural traditions
may be inimical to their survival. Finally, in the contests between state, communities and
collectivities of different kinds on one hand and the individual on the other, we can see the
double life of culture: Its potential to give radical recognition to the humanity of its subjects as
well as its potential to keep the individual within such tightly defined bounds that the capacity
to experiment with selfhood which is also a mark of humanity may be jeopardized.
So, we arrive at this double definition of culture. By this I mean that the word culture refers to
both a system of shared meanings which defines the individuals collective life, as well as a
system for the formulation of judgments which are used to excluded alterities, and which thus
keep the individual strictly within the bounds defined by the society. It is in view of this that the
question of cultural rights seems to me to be placed squarely within the question of passions
rather than interest. It is time now to define passion.
After the classical work of Hirschman on political passions, it was usual to think of passions as
obstructions in the path of reason Passions had to be overcome for enlightened interet to
emerge. This view of passions is extremely limited. Indeed, certain kinds of revolations,
including he recognition of oneself as human, become possible only through passion. If the self
is constituted only through the other so that desire, cognition, memory and imagination
become possible through the play of passion then the revelatory role of passion must be
acknowledged not only in the life of the individual but also in the life of the collective. Passion
then must play a role in politics.
As we have seen, the demand for cultural rights at this historical moment is in a context,
where cultural symbols have been appropriated by the state, which tries to establish a
monopoly over ethical pronouncements. The state is thus experienced as a threat by smaller
units, who fell that their ways of life are penetrated, if not engulfed, by this larger unit. The
situation is quite the opposite of the relation between the part and the whole in hierarchical
systems, a relation seen as the characteristics mark of traditional politics in South Asia. In a
hierarchical system, differences between constituent units were essential for the whole to be
constituted.
In other worlds, small units came to be defined by being bearer of special marks in a
hierarchical entilty. And although by definition they could not be equal in such a system, the
very logic of hierarchy assured that they could not be simply engulfed into the higher totality
not be simply engulfed into the higher totality. This was both a source of heir oppression as
well as a guarantee of their acceptance (through not a radical acceptance) of their place in the
world. My argument is not an appeal for a return to hierarchy as a principle of organization.
Rather, it is an effort to locate the special nature of the threat which smaller groups fell.
25.
Culture referes to the
1.
Shared meanings and collective existence.
2.
Idea of judgment
3.
Relations of power
4.
All of the above
26.
Culture is established through
1.
Achievement of hegemony of an identifiable set of ideas over other ideas
2.
Consecration by the state
3.
Institutionalisation of a system of discriminations and evaluations
4.
Exclusion of alterity
27.
Which of he following is true ?
1.
Passion contributes to the life of the collective.
2.
Passion contributes to the life of the collective but only after playing a role in the life
of the individual

Page | 5

3.

28.

29.

Passions contributes of the life of the collective can be appreciated only if a broader
view is adopted.
4.
Passions contribution to culture can be enhanced if it is not allowed to obstruct the
path of reason.
Achieving selfhood involves
1.
Balancing ones own desires with the boundaries of the state
2.
Jeopardising humanity
3.
Leading a double life
4.
All of the above
The role of he stare is to
1.
Establish a monopoly over ethical pronouncements
2.
Appropriate cultural symbols
3.
Become the primary giver of the values
4.
All of the above

30. A man takes 6 hours 30 min. in going by a cycle and coming back by scooter. He should have
lost 2 hours 10 min by going on cycle both ways. How long would it take him to go by scooter
both ways?
(1)
2 hrs
(2) 4 1/3 hrs
(3)
3 1/3 hrs
(4) 5 1/3 hrs
31. A train with 90 km/h crosses a bridge in 36 seconds. Another train 100 metres shorter crosses
the same bridge at 45 km/h. What is the time taken by the second train to cross the bridge?
(1)
61 seconds
(2) 63 seconds
(3)
62 seconds
(3) 64 seconds
32. Two pipes A and B can fill tank in 20 and 30 hours respectively. Both the pipes are opened to fill
the tank but when the tank is 1/3rd full, a leak develops in the tank through which one-third
water supplied by both the pipes goes out. The total time taken to fill the tank.
(1)
12 hours
(2) 16 hours
(3)
14 hours
(4) 18 hours
33. Ramesh travels 760 km to his home, partly by train and partly by car. He takes 8 hours, if he
travels 160 km by train and the rest by car. He takes 12 minutes more, if he travels 240 km by
train and the rest by car. What are the speeds of the train and the car?
(1)
Speed of Car = 90 km/h
(2) Speed of car = 100 km/h,
Speed of train = 60 km/h
Speed of train = 80 km/h.
(3)
Speed of car = 80 km/h
(4) Speed of car = 100 km/h
Speed of train = 70 km/h
Speed of train = 90 km/h
34. Some students planned a picnic. The budget for food was Rs.5000. But, 5 of them failed to go
and thus the cost of food for each member increased by Rs.5. How many students attended
the picnic?
(1)
15
(2) 25
(3)
20
(4) 30
Directions (Qs. 35 to 38): Answer these questions based on the following table which gives
the circulation in thousands of five English dailies in the four States during 2002-2003.
Newspa
per
A
B
C
D
E

Kerala

Punjab

UP

MP

123
105
12.2
82.4
24.4

227
220
14.6
44
23

96
117.2
9.7
145
10

78
97
17.2
9.3
100

35. Of the five dailies, which has the highest number of circulation?
(1)
A
(2)
B
(3)
D
(4)
E

Page | 6

36. What is the difference in the circulation among the top two newspapers?
(1)
14200
(2)
15200
(3)
13200
(4)
12200
37. The newspaper As circulation in Punjab is x times that of the newspaper Bs circulation in HP.
What is x?
(1)
2.35
(2)
2
(3)
2.75
(4)
2.25
38. The ratio of the circulation of newspaper D in Punjab and HP is
(1)
5.5 : 2
(2)
5:2
(3)
6 : 3.14
(4)
5.5 : 1.16
39. Ina college, fifteen student of a class are members of the Spicmacy Association and twelve
students are members of the Dhyan Association. If out of these students a total of thirteen
belong to only one of the two associations, then how many students belong to both the
associations?
(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 12
40. Geeta is taller than Seeta but not taller than Radha. Radha and Rani are of the same height.
Geeta is shorter than Paru. Amongst all the girls, who is the shortest?
(1) Geeta
(2) Seta
(3) Radha ad Rani
(4) Paru
41. Directions (Questions 48 to 50) : A missing term in the series given in each of these questions
is marked by a question marked(?). Choose the correct term to complete the series:
1/2, 3/5, 5/8, 7/16, ?
(1) 9/32
(2) 10/17
(3) 11/34
(4) 12/35
42. ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL ?
(1) ZKW
(2) ZKU
(3) ZAB
(4) XKW
43. P 3 C, R 5 F, T 8 I, V 12 L, ?
(1) Y 17 O
(2) X 17 M
(3)X170
(4) X160
44. British Petroleum recently signed an agreement with _____ for jointly building a refinery and
rolling out retail outlets in the Indian Oil refining and marketing industry.
(1)
Bharat Petrleum
(2) Indian Oil
(3)
HPCL
(4) IBP
45. Which country launched its second manned space mission recently?
(1)
China
(2) India
(3)
Korea
(4) Singapore
46. Aquaguard water purification systems are products from
(1)
Kenstar
(2) Voltas
(3)
Bluestar
(4) None of these
47. The ad-line Good people to bank with is associated with
(1)
Punjab National Bank
(2) State Bank of India
(3)
Citi Bank
(4) Union Bank of India
48. Telecom company Nokia belongs to which country?
(1)
Denmark
(2) USA
(3)
Sweden
(4) Finlan
49. The famous book Two Lives has been written by
(1)
Anurag Mathur
(2) Arundhati Roy
(3)
Vikram Seth
(4) Shiv Khera
50. Fair and Lovely range of products was launched by
(1)
Procter and Gamble
(2) Lakme

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(3)
Vikram Seth
(4) Shiv Khera
51. MTML provides which one of the following quality services?
(1)
Garuda
(2) Trump
(3)
Dolphin
(4) All of these
52. The slogan What you dream is associated with which company?
(1)
Sony
(2) Honda
(3)
Phillips
(4) Suzuki
53. Data One Broadband service have been launched by which organisation?
(1)
BSNL
(2) MTNL
(3)
Tata Walky
(4)
Reliance india mobile
54. In a flight of 6000 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. The average speed for
the trip was reduced by 4000 kmph and the time of flight increased by 30 minutes. The
original planned duration of the flight was.
(1)
1h
(2) 3 h
(3)
2h
(4) 4 h
55. After being set up, a company manufactured 6000 scoters in the third year and 7000 scooters
in the seventh year. Assuming that the production increases uniformly by the fixed number
every year, what is the production in the tenth year?
(1)
7850
(2) 7650
(3)
7750
(4) 7950
56. Soma purchases National Savings Certificates every year whose value exceeds the previous
years purchase by Rs.400. After 8 years, she finds that she has purchased certificates whose
total face value is Rs. 48,000. What is the face value of the certificates purchased by her in the
first year?
(1)
Rs.4,300
(2) Rs.4,500
(3)
Rs.4,400
(4) Rs.4,600
57. A computer is available for Rs.39000 each or Rs.17000 as cash down payment followed by five
monthly installments of Rs. 4,800 each. What is the rate of interest under the installment plan?
(1)
35.71% p.a.
(2) 37.71% p.a.
(3)
36.71% p.a.
(4) 38.71% p.a.
58. Under the Rural Housing Scheme, the Delhi Development Authority (DDA) allotted a house of
Kamal Raj for Rs. 1,26,100. This payment is to be made in three equal annual installments. If
the money is reckoned at 5% per annum compound interest, then how much is to be paid by
Kamal Raj in each installment?
(1)
Rs. 45,205
(2) Rs. 47,405
(3)
Rs. 46,305
(4) Rs. 48,505
Directions (Qs. 59-63) : From the alternatives provided, choose the one that best fills the
blank :
59. They lament and express their despair ____ the way Gandhi has been forgotten in his own
land.
(1) Over
(2) Of
(3) In
(4) With
60. The government ____ on this issue.
(1) Is divide
(2) Are divided
(3) Is being
(4) Divide
61. After having sought my help, _______
(1) My friend left me all alone
(2) I was left all alone by my fiend
(3) I was alone
(4) I asked her to leave me alone
62. I have known her ____ the end of he World War II.
(1) From
(2) Since
(3) During
(4) Towards
63. The landlady _____ since morning.
(1) Has gossiped
(2) Has been gossiping
(3)
Gossiped
(4)
Has gossiping

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Directions (Questions 64-68) : Study the following information carefully to answer these
questions:
There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F. C is the sister of F. B is the brother of Es
Husband. D is the father of A and grandfather of F. There are two fathers, three brothers
and a mother in the group.
64. Who is the mother?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) D
(4) E
65. Who is Es husband?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) A
(4) F
66. How many male members are there in the group?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
67. How is F related to E?
(1) Uncle
(4) Husband
(3) Son
(4) Daughter
68. Which of the following is a group of brothers?
(1) ABF
(2) ABD
(3)BFC
(4)
BDF
Directions (Qs. 69 - 72): Answer these questions on the basis of the following graph
which shows the production of items A, B and C during the months: April, May & June.
300
250
200
150

Product A

Product B

Product C

100
50
0
April

M ay

June

69. The percentage increase of production of item A from April to May is

(1)
33%
(2)
66%
(3)
74%
(4)
25%
70. Which item has maintained a rise over the three months?
(1)
A
(2)
B
(3)
C
(4)
B and C
71. The overall production of items A, B & c during April and May is in the ratio
(1)
1:1
(2)
3:4
(3)
9 : 11
(4)
11 :9
72. The total production during the months of April, May & June of the three items A, B and C are
in the ratio.
7 : 5 :7
7 : 5 :5
7 : 4.5 : 4
4.5 : 6 : 5

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Direction (Qs. 73 - 75): Refer to the graph given below which gives the circulation growth of
GRAMSSEWA magazine from July to December 2003.
21300
20000

200189

19300
18300
17300
JUL

211885

204933

189277
173182

175395
AUG

SEP

OCT

NOV

DEC

73. During November and December, there was an even growth rate, the average of which is
(1)
2.36%
(2)
2%
(3)
2.88%
(4)
3.36%
74. The circulation in October is times then that of July.
(1)
1.5
(2)
2%
(3)
1
(4)
1.15
75. The growth rate is every marginal during the month of
(1)
August
(2)
October
(3)
November
(4)
December
76. Which company has recently introduced Dura Technology in building cars?
(1)
Ford
(2) Mitsubishi
(3)
GM
(4) None of these
77. Real Juice are products of which company?
(1)
Nestle
(2) Dabur
(3)
ITC
(4) None of these
78. In the recently concluded World Chees Championship held in San Luis, Indias Vishwanathan
Anand stood of _________ position.
(1)
Fifth
(2) Third
(3)
Second
(4) First
79. Rahul Dravid is associated with the advertising campaign of which bank?
(1)
Bank of Baroda
(2) Bank of India
(3)
HSBC
(4) HDFC
80. Mittal Steel, the largest steel maker in the world, has signed a MOU with which State
Government for setting up a steel plant as well as undertaking mining operations?
(1)
Chattisgarh
(2) Bihar
(3)
West Bengal
(4) None of these
81. Which airline displays the tag line There is no better way to fly?
(1)
Lufthansa
(2) British Airways
(3)
Singapore Airlines
(4) Air India
82. Indian Formula-1 driver Narain Kathikeyan was associate with which team?
(1)
Mercedes
(2) Ferrari
(3)
Honda
(4) Jordan
83. Georgia Gold brand of hot or cold beverages belongs to which company?
(1)
Pepsi
(2) Nestle
(3)
HLL
(4) Coca-Cola
84. Apple computers Inc. was started by which of the following entrepreneurs?
(1)
Jack Walsch
(2) Bill Gages
(3)
Steva Jobs
(4) None of the above

Page | 10

85. Procter and Gamble took over which famous brand recently?
(1)
Revlon
(2) Vicks
(3)
Steve Jobs
(4) None of the above
86. A pole 5 miters high is fixed on the top of the tower. The angle of elevation of the top of the
pole observed from a point A on the ground is 600 and the angle of depression of the point A
from the top of the towers is 450. The height of the tower is.
(1)
5.83 m
(2) 7.83 m
(3)
6.83 m
(4) 4.83 m
87. A tent is in the form of a right circular cylinder surmounted by a cone. The Diameter is the
cylinder is 24m. The height of the cylindrical portion is 11 m while the vertex of the cone is 16
m above the ground. The area of the canvas required for the tent is
(1)
1300 m2
(2) 1320 m2
2
(3)
1310 m
(4) 1330 m2
88. The average score of boys in an examination in a school is 71 and that of the girls is 73. The
average score of the school is 71.8. The ratio of the number of boys to that of the girls that
appeared in the examination is.
(1)
1:2
(2) 3 : 2
(3)
2:2
(4) 4 : 2
89. The mean monthly salary paid to 75 workers in a factory is Rs. 5680. The mean salary of 25 of
them is Rs. 5400 and that of 30 others is Rs. 5700 and that of 30 others is Rs.5700. The mean
salary of the remaining workers is
(1)
Rs. 5000
(2) Rs. 7000
(3)
Rs. 6000
(4) Rs. 8000
90. It is known that a box of 200 electric bulbs contains 16 defective bulbs. One bulb is taken out
at random from the box. What is the probability that the bulb drawn is (i) defective (ii) nondefective?
(1)
(i) 2/25 (ii) 23/25
(2) (i) 4/25 (ii) 21/25
(3)
(i) 3/25 (ii) 22/25
(3) (i) 1/25 (ii) 20/25
91. A polygon has 25 sides, the lengths of which starting from the smallest side are in A.P If the
perimeter of the polygon s 2100 cm and the length of he larges side is 20 times that of the
smallest, then the length of the smallest side and the common difference of the A.P. are
(1)
8 cm and 61/3 cm respectively (2) 8 cm and 51/3 cm respectively
(3)
6 cm and 61/3 cm respectively (4) None of these
92. A car travels 25 km an hour faster than a bus for a journey of 500 km. If the bus takes 10 hours
more than the car, then the speeds of the bus and the car are
a. 25 km /hr and 40 km/hr respectively
b. 25 km /hr and 60 km/hr respectively
c. 25 km /hr and 50 km/hr respectively
d. None of these
93. When a group photograph is taken, all the seven teachers should be in the first row and all the
twenty students should be in the second row. If the two corners of the second row are reserved
for the two tallest students, interchangeable only between them, and if the middle seat of the
front row is reserved for the principal, then the number of such possible arrangements is
(1)
72018!
(2) 144018!
(3)
137018!
(4) None of these
94. In a certain city, all telephone numbers have six digits, the first two digits always being 41 or
42 or 46 62 or 64. The number of telephone numbers having all the six digits distinct is
(1)
8400
(2) 9200
(3)
7200
(4) None of these
Directions (Qs. 95 - 99) : In each of these questions, you are given a sentence. A part of
the sentence. A part to the sentence is underlined. This is followed by your ways of
phrasing the underlined part. Choice (1) repeats the original; the other three are
different. Select the version the best rephrases the underlined part :
95. Many employers now believe that the advancement in technology has improved he
environment for the workers who can now work up to 18 hours a day and still does not fell
physically ties.

Page | 11

(1) Advancements in technology has improved the environment for the workers who can now
work up to 18 hours a day and still does.
(2) Advancement in technology have improved the environment for the workers who can now
work up to 18 hours a day and still does.
(3) Advancements in technologies have improved the environment for the workers who can
now work up to 18 hours a day and still does.
(4) Advancements in technology have improved the environment for the workers who can now
work up to 18 hours a day and still do.
96. It is difficult to diagnose malaria because its first symptoms are similar to any viral fever.
(1)
Are similar to any viral fever.
(2)
Are similar to those of any viral fever.
(3)
Are similar to those of any other viral fever.
(4)
Are similar to those of any viral fevers.
97. To create a new game means expending lot of sweat, and calls for all the members of he
development team to play its with aplomb throughout the long-drawn-out procedure before
the game sees the light of the day.
(1)
For all the members of the development team to play its role with aplomb
throughout.
(2)
For all the members in the development team to play their role with aplomb
throughout
(3)
For all the members of he development team to play their roles with aplomb
throughout.
(4)
All the members of the development team to play their roles with aplomb
throughout.
98. The state has at least twenty college of whom only six are officially recognized.
(1)
Of whom only six are officially recognized
(2)
Of whom only six have been officially recognized.
(3)
Of which only six have official recognition.
(4)
Of which only six are officially recognized.
99. The all-pervasiveness of he internet has led to a joke, that a few bored homo sapiens left to
themselves in a single room with a couple of computers for some days, would eventually
produce something that would either make Shakespeare jealous or plain wild.
(1)
Either make Shakespeare jealous or plain wild.
(2)
Make either Shakespeare jealous or plain wild
(3)
Made Shakespeare either jealous or plain wild.
(4)
Either make Shakespeare jealous or make him plain wild.
Directions (Qs. 100-103) : Each of the sentences against these questions has two blanks,
each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each
blank that best fits the meaning of he sentence as a whole:
100. The term rare earths is in fact a _____, for paradoxically, the rareearth elements are in
actuality ______, being present in low concentration in virtually as the minerals.
(1)Trusim essential
(2) Misnomer ubiquitous
(3)Disclaimer ephemeral
(4) Metaphor figurative
101. According to the 12th century cosmologies, the natural philosopher must strive to ____ a
State of detached objectivity in order to free his capacity for constructing useful hypothesis
form the _____ of unquestioned assumptions and accepted opinions about nature.
(1) Capture Contemplation
(2) Achieve tyranny
(3) Disclaimer ephemeral
(4) Metaphor figurative
According to the 12th century cosmologies, the natural philosopher must strive to _____ a state
of detached objectivity in order to free his capacity for constructing useful hypothesis from the
____ of unquestioned assumptions and accepted opinions about nature.
(1) Capture contemplation
(2) Achieve tyranny
(3) Imitate discipline
(4) Attain confusion
102. The columnist was very gentle when he mentioned his friends, but was bitter and even ____
when he discussed people who ___ him.

Page | 12

(1) Laconic infuriated

(2) Acerbic irritated
(3) Remorseful encouraged
(4) Militant distressed
103. She conducted the interrogation not only with dispatch but with _____, being a person who
is ____ in manner yet subtle in discrimination.
(1) Elan enthusiastic
(2) Equanimity abrupt
(3) Finesse expeditious
(4) Zeal doctrinaire
Direction (Qs. 104 - 108) Read the following information carefully to answer these
questions;
In a car exhibition, seven cares of seven different companies, viz. Cadillac, Ambassador,
Fiat, Maruti, Mercedes, Bedford and Fargo were displayed in a fow, facing east, such that
(A) Cadillac car was to the immediate right of Fargo
(B) Fargo was fourth to the right of fiat
(C) Maruti was between Ambassador and Bedford
(D) Fiat, which was the third to the left of Ambassador car, was at one of the
ends.
104. Which of the following was the correct position of the Mercedes?
(1)Immediate right of Cadillac
(2) Immediate left of Bed ford
(3)Between Bedford and Fargo
(4) Fourth to the right of Maruti
105. Which of the following is definitely true?
(5)
Fargo car is between Ambassador and Fiat.
(6)
Cadilalc is to the immediate left of Mercedes.
(7)
Fargo is to the immediate right of Cadillac
(8)
Maruti is fourth to the right of Mercedes.
106. Which cars are on the immediate either sides of the Cadillac car?
(1)Ambassador and Maruti
(2) Maruti and Fiat
(3)Fiat and Mercedes
(4) Ambassador and Fargo
107. Which of he following is definitely true?
(9)
Maruti is to the immediate left of Ambassador
(10) Bedford is to the immediate left of fiat
(11) Bedford is at one of the ends
(12) Fiat is second to the right of Maruti.
108. Which of the following groups of cars is to the right of the Ambassador car?
(1)adilalc, Fargo and Maruti
(2) Maruti, Bedford and Fiat
(3)Mercedes, Cadillac and Fargo
(4) Bedford, Cadilalc and Fargo
Direction (Qs 109 to 113) : Read the following information carefully to answer these
questions:
(A)Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and
U.
(B)Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S
(C)S and U get diagonally Opposite flats.
(D) R, next to U, gets a south facing flat and T gets a North facing flat.
109. Which of the following combinations gets Sourth facign flats?
(1)QTS
(2) UPT
(3)URP
(4) Data inadequate
110. Whose flat is between Q and S ?
(1)T
(2) U
(3)R
(4) P
111. If the flats of T and P are interchanged, then whose flat will be the next of that of U?
(1)P
(2) Q
(3)R
(4) T
112. The flats of which of the other paris, than SU, is diagonally opposite to each other?
(1)QP
(2) QR
(3)PT
(4) TS

Page | 13

113. To arrive at the answers to the above questions, which of the following statements can be
dispensed with?
(1)None
(2) (A) only
(3)(B) Only
(4)
(C) only

Directions (Qs. 114 to 116): Answer these questions based on the information in the
table given below:
EMPLOMYMENT DATA:
1991-1997
(Figures in Millions)
Years ->
199
199
1993
199
1995
1996
1997
Employment
1
2
4
1. In organized
25.6
28.2
21.7
30.5
35.2
40.2
45.3
sector
2. In unorganized
35.7
41.5
29.1
42.5
50.2
59.8
75.1
sector
3.Unemployed
15.4
17.1
25.5
22.5
24.8
22.9
24.8

114.
(1)

The rate of unemployment was the highest in

1991 (2)
1993 (3)
1995 (4)
1997

115.
(1)
(3)

The number of employable showed the highest percentage increase in the year
1996-97
(2)
1995-96
1993-94
(4)
1991-92

116.
From 1994 to 1997
1) Employment numbers have fluctuated
2) Employment in organized sector has shown steady increase
3) Figures in all the three categories have shown a steady increase
4) Cannot each any of the above conclusions.
Directions (Qs. 117 - 119): Study the table given below to answer these questions.
The table gives the sales data of four branches of a paint company in the three
months of a year.
Branch

1.Chennai
2.Bangalo
re
3.Cochin
4.Hydera
bad

117.

Octob
er
First
Bill
No.
2864
4051
3469
2644

Noveber
Last
Bill
No.

Sale
(Rs)

First
Bill No.

2942
4101
3601
2703

3456
41
1473
45
2694
73
1654
42

2943
4102
3602
2704

Decem
er
Last
Bill
No.
3106
4204
3704
2787

Sale
(Rs)
46175
0
23146
9
20894
7
18792
8

First
Bill No.
3107
4205
3705
2788

Last
Bill
No.

Sale
(Rs.)

328
0
429
6
376
2
284
1

4850
97
2218
95
2104
94
1754
27

The total number of bills raised by the company from October to December is
(1)
1045
(2)
1155

Page | 14

(3)
118.

119.
A.
B.
C.
D.

777

(4)

1662

The average sale per bill in the given period was the highest in
(1)
Hyderabad
(2)
Cochin
(3)
Bangalore
(4)
Chennai
Which of the following statements is/are true?
All branches show increase in the sale every month in the period shown.
Bangalore branch raised the highest number of bills in December.
Sale of Hyderabad branch in March was approximately its average sale for the
three months shown.
Ranking the branches by sale in the lead and Hyderabad coming last.
(1)
(3)

A, B and C
A and B

(2)

B, C and D
(4)
C and D

120.
A person standing on the bank of a river finds that the angel of elevation of the top of a
tower on the opposite bank is 450. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Breadth of the river is twice the height of the tower.
b. Breadth of the river is half of the height of the tower.
c. Breadth of the river and the height of the tower are the same.
d. None of these
121.
Three groups A, B and C are contesting for a position on the Board of directors of a
company. The probabilities of their winning are 0.05, 0.3 and 0.2 respectively. If the group A
wins, then the probability of introducing a new product is 0.7 and the corresponding
probabilities for group B and C are 0.6 and 0.5respectively. The probability that the new
product will be introduced is
(1)
0.52
(2) 0.74
(3)
0.63
(4) None of these
122.
An article manufactured by a company consists of two parts A and B. In the process of
manufacture of part A, 9 out of 100 are likely to be defective. Similarly 5 out of 100 are likely
to be defective in the process of manufacture of part B. The probability that the assembled
apart will not be defective is
(1)
0.8645
(2) 0.9645
(3)
0.6243
(4) None of these
123.
A firm of readymade garments make both mens and womens shirts. Its average profit is
6% of the sales. Its sales and womens shirts comprise 60% of the output. The average profit
per sales rupee in womens shirts is
(1)
0.0466
(2) 0.0666
(3)
0.0166
(4) None of these
124.
In a certain town, 25% families own a phone, 15% own a car and 65% families own both
a car and a phone. Consider the following statements in this regard:
i. 10% families own both a car and a phone.
ii. 35% families own either a car or a phone.
iii. 40,000 families live in the town. Which of the above statements are correct?
(1)
I and II
(2) II and III
(3)
I and III
(4) I, II and III
125.
The hands of a clock are 10 cm ad 7 cm respectively. The difference between the
distance traversed by their extremities in 3 days 5 hours is
(1)
4552.67 cm
(2) 4557.67 cm
(3)
4555.67 cm
(4) 4559.67 cm
126.
A circular grass plot, whose diameter is 70m, contains a gravel walk 5 m wide round it,
15 m from the edge The cost is turf the grass plot at Rs. 2 per m2 is.
(1)
Rs. 6000
(2) Rs. 6400
(3)
Rs. 6200
(4) RS. 6600

Page | 15

127.
The trunk of a tree is a right cylinder 1.5 m in radius and 10 m high. The volume of he
timber which remains when the trunk is trimmed just enough to reduce it to a rectangular
parallelepiped on a square base is
(1)
44 m3
(2) 46 m3
3
(3)
45 m
(4) 47 m3
128.
A semicircular sheet of paper of diameter 28 cm is bent to cover the exterior surface of
an open conical ice cream cup. The depth of the ice cream cup is
(1)
10.12 cm
(2) 8.12 cm
(3)
12.12 cm
(4) 14.12 cm
1
129.
If loga b= , logb c= /3 and logc a = k/5, then the value of K is
(1)
25
(2) 35
(3)
30
(4) 20
130.
The H.C.F. and L.C.M of two numbers are 21 and 4641 respectively. If one of the numbers
lies between 200 and 300, then the two numbers are
(1)
273, 357
(2) 273, 361
(3)
273, 359
(4) 273, 363
Directions (Qs. 131-134) : In these questions, find out the part of the sentence that has
an error. Choose D if there is no error.
131. They cook meals, lay the table and wash up (A), / clean the house (B)/ and the morrow (C).
(1)A
(2) B
(3)C
(4) D
132. He seemed distracted (A), / thinking less about what he was doing tonight (B)/ Than what
he would be doing on the morrow (C).
(1)A
(2) B
(3)C
(4) D
133. For an educated man of the time, virtually the only way to gain power and prestige (A), /
was studying the Confucian classics (B)/ and work his way up the ladder (C) / as a scholar
official
(1)A
(2) B
(3)C
(4) D
134. For several reasons (A), / Social psychologists have been studying (B)/ the effects of
competition (C) / on performance and productivity
(1)A
(2) B
(3)C
(4) D
Directions (Qs. 135-139) : Each of these questions of a word, given in CAPITAL, followed
by four words. Choose the word that is most nearly the same in meaning to the word
given in CAPITALS. Since some of the questions require you to distinguish the fine shades
of meaning, be sure to consider all the choices before deciding which one is the best :
135. DESULTORY
(1)Organized
(2) Disorganized
(3)Drive
(4) Romantic
136. SACCHARINE
(1)Clumsy
(2) Carriage
(3)Syrupy
(4) Caustic
137. TENACIOUS
(1)Determined
(2) Peevish
(3)Syrupy
(4) Caustic
138. TENACIOUS
(1)Determined
(2) Peevish
(3)Brazen
(4) Impious
139. CONJURER
(1)Wicked
(2) Entertainer
(3)Jester
(4) Palpable

Page | 16

140.
Toyota Motors manufactures small cars with which one of the following joint venture
partners?
(1)Nissan
(2) Suzuki
(3)Daihatsu
(4) Daewoo
141.
Sellers market denotes a situation where
(1)Demand exceeds supply
(2) Supply exceeds demand
(3)Demand and supply are
(4) None of the above
evenly balanced
142.
Which of the following companies is also present in other sectors like FMCG, Electrical
equipment, etc. apart from IT?
(1)Polaris
(2) Infosys
(3)Wipro
(4) Patni Computers
143.
Which Indian business man brought back the Sword of Tipu Sultan to India?
(1)Kumarmanglam Birla
(2) Ratan Tata
(3)Noveen Jindal
(4) Vijay Mallya
144.
Which among the following states was not under the British rule?
(1)Goa
(2) Tamil Nadu
(3)J & K
(4) None of these
145.
Which Indian state was renked as the No. 2 tourist destination in the world by Lonely
Planet?
(1)Himachal Pradesh
(2) Tamil Nadu
(3)Kerala
(4) Uttranchal
146.
Unicorn motorbike model has been launched by which company?
(1)Hero
(2) TVS
(3)Honda
(4) Yamaha
147.
Octavia Brand belongs to which car manufacturer?
(1)BMW
(2) Skoda
(3)Hyundai
(4) None of these
148.
Which of the following is a neighbouring state of Uttranchal?
(1)Himachal Pradesh
(2) UP
(3)Haryana
(4) All of these
149.
Where are the headquarters of Asian Development Bank located?
(1)Singapore
(2) New Delhi
(3)Manila
(4) Mumbai
150.
Which country is the largest importer of gold?
(1)China
(2) USA
(3)Canada
(4) None of these
Directions (Qs. 51-52): Study the following graph and the table carefully to answer these
questions:
POPULATION: DATA OF DIFFERENT STATES IN 1998
(Total Population of all the States = 25 lakh)

Page | 17

A.P.

Darnataka

Maharashtra

T.N.

Kerala

Bihar

U.P.

SEX AND LITERACYWISE

POPULATION RATIO
STATES
Sex
Uttar Pradesh
Bihar
Andra Pradesh
Karnataka
Maaharashtra
Tamil Nadu
Kerala

Literacy

Male : Female
5 :
3
3 :
1
2 :
3
3 :
5
3 :
4
3 :
2
3 :
4

Literale
2
1
2
3
5
7
9

: Illiterale
:
7
:
4
:
1
:
2
:
1
:
2
:
4

151.
Approximately, what is the number of literate people in Maharashtra and Karnataka
together?
(1)
4.5 lakh
(2)
6.5 lakh
(3)
3 lakh
(4)
3.5 lakh
152.
In tamil Nadu, if we suppose that 70% of the females and 75%of the males become
literate, than what is the total number of illiterates in the State?
(1)
75,000
(2)
85,000
(3)
71,000
(4)
81,000
Directions (Qs. 53 & 54): Refer the following table to answer these questions:
DISTRIBUTION OF MARKS OBTAINED BY 100 STUDENTS TWO PAPERS
MATHEMATICS
Paper
Marks out
of 50
I
II
Average
(Aggregat
e)
153.

40
&
ab
ov
e
5
8
5

30
&
ab
ov
e
22
31
27

20
&
ab
ov
e
67
79
71

10
&
ab
ov
e
82
91
88

(I & II ) IN
Be
lo
w
10
18
9
12

How many students have scored less than 40% marks in the aggregate?
(1)
30
(2)
12
(3)
17
(4)
29

Page | 18

154.
What is the percentage of students who obtained 60% and more marks in paper II over
the number of students who obtained 40% and more marks in the aggregate (approximately)?
(1)
44
(2)
40
(3)
48
(4)
Data inadequate
Directions (Question 155 to 159): Study the following table to answer these questions:
TABLE OF INTELLIGENCE CLASSIFICATION
I.Q.

Classifica
tion

130
and
above
120129
110119
90109
80
109
80
89
70
79
69
and
below

Very
Superior
Superior
Bright
Normal
Average
Dull
normal
Border line
Mentally
Defective

%
includ
ed
2.2
6.7
16.1
50.0
16.1
6.7
2.2
-

155.
Following the above table, in which category will you classify the given data for I.Q.
scores?
Data : 20, 47, 24, 51, 55, 42, 38, 61, 65.
1. Superior
2.
Average
3. Mentally Defective
4.
No given Category
156.
In which category will you classify the given data for I.Q. scores?
Data : 140, 127, 135, 120, 125, 131, 139,144, 138.
1. Superior and very superior
2.
Bright and superior
3. Average and Dull
4.
No given category
157.
Accordingly to the given table, in which category will you classify the given data for I.Q.
scores?
Data : : 99, 100, 101, 105, 95, 92, 90, 108, 98, 103, 93.
1. Very Superior
2.
Bright normal
3. Average
4.
Border line
158.
Accordingly to the given table which of the following category with the highest percentage
of cases include in it?
1. Very Superior
2.
Bright normal
3. Average
4.
Border line
159.
What is the similarity between very Superior and Mentally Defective categories in terms of
percentage of cases included in each?

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1.
2.
3.
4.

Both are different categories for intelligence classifications.

Both are extreme categories for differentiating maximally between.
No similarity at all.
Smallest percentage of cases belongs to both of these categories.

160.
When the price of a commodity is decreased by 10%, its consumption increase by 10%.
The change in the revenue derived from it is K% The value of K is
(1)
0
(2) -1
(3)
1
(4) 2
161.
The average monthly expenditure of a family was Rs.2200 during the first 3 months; Rs.
2250 during the next 4 months and Rs. 3120 during the last 5 months of a year. If the total
saving during he year were Rs. 1260, then the average monthly income was
(1)
Rs. 2605
(2) Rs. 2805
(3)
Rs. 2705
(4) Rs. 2905
162.
In an express train, the number of passengers traveling in A.C. sleeper class, First class
and Sleeper class are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3, and the fares to each of these classes are in the
ration 5 : 4 : 2 of these classes are in the ration 5 : 4 : 2. If the total income form this train is
Rs. 54000, then the income from the A. C. sleeper class is
(1)
Rs.8000
(2) Rs. 12000
(3)
Rs. 10000
(4) Rs. 6000
163.
Five liters of water is added to a certain quantity of pure milk costing Rs.3 per liter. If by
selling the mixture at the same price as before, a profit of 20% is made, then what is the
amount of pure milk in the mixture?
(1)
20 liters
(2) 30 liters
(3)
25 liters
(4) 35 liters
164.
A dishonest hair dresser uses a mixture having 5 parts pure Aftershave lotion and 3 parts
of pure water. After taking out some portion of the mixture, he adds equal amount of pure
water to the remaining portion of the mixture such that the amount of Aftershave lotion and
water become equal. The part of the mixture taken out is
(1)
1/3
(2) 1/5
(3)
1/4
(4) 1/6
Directions (Qs. 165-168) : Each of these questions consists of a word, followed by four
words. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite I meaning to the word given in
questions :
165. REDICAL
(1) Fashionable
(2) Diabolic
(3) Conservative
(4) Myopic
166. FLAMBOYANT
(1) Lateral
(2) Dull
(3) Moverick
(4) Antique
167. TANTALISING
(1) Toiling
(2) Sance
(3) Repulsive
(4) Seamy
168. INEFFABLE
(1) Describable
(2) Frivolous
(3) Eclectic
(4) Blasphemy
Direction (A) and a reason (R) are given in each of these questions :
Mark your answer as :
(1)
If both a and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(2)
If both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A

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(3)
If A is true but R is false
(4)
If A is false but R is true.
169. Assertion (A):
India has a tropical monsoon type climate.
Reason (R)
India is located exactly between the tropical latitudes.
170. Assertion (A):
Africa has one of the largest water power potential in the world
Reason (R)
A large number of hydel power projects have been constructed in Africa.
171. Assertion (A):
Mercury is the farthest planet from the Sun.
Reason (R)
Mercury is the smallest planet in the entire Solar System.
172. Assertion (A):
Ashoka pillars have retained their gloss on their surface.
Reason (R)
Moisture-laden winds do not blow in the areas where Ashoka pillars are located.
173. Assertion (A):
Forest cutting is undesirable from the point of view of soil erosion
Reason (R)
Cutting of forest reduces the interception of rain water.
Directions (Qs. 71 to 75): Each of these questions has two statements P and Q. They may look
factually absured. You have to ignore this absurdity and concentrate only upon the logic
involved therein:
Mark your answer as:
(1)
If both P and Q are true
(2)
If both P and Q are false or doubtful
(3)
If P is true and Q is false or doubtful
(4)
If P is false or doubtful and Q is true
174. P : Jackals live in forests. Cities are in forests. Therefore jackals live in cities.
Q : Some tables are grass. All stools are grass. Therefore all tables are stools.
175. P : Cups play chess. Chess is a difficult game. Therefore cups play a difficult game.
Q : Reena is a girl. All girls are timed. Therefore Reena is timid
176. P : Some musicians are not rich. All musicians are polite. Therefore not all polite persons
are rich.
Q : All musicians are rich. No rich person is polite. Therefore musicians are not polite.
177. P : Some mangoes are apples. All grapes are mangoes therefore all apples are grapes.
Q : Some mangoes are apples. All apples are grapes. Therefore some mangoes are grapes.
178. P : All fish can fly. Some fish are birds. All birds are naughty. Therefore some naughty can
fly.
Q : Some fish are birds. All birds are naughty. Therefore all fish are naughty.

179.
Which is the first public sector unit in India to be disinvested?
(1)
CMC Ltd.
(2) Modern Food Industries
(3)
BALCO
(4) Hindustan Zinc Ltd.
180.
Which is not a private Indian Bank?
(1)
UCO Bank
(2) ICICI
(3)
HDFC
(4) IDBI
181.
Which country has the worlds largest area under pulse crop production/
(1)
Australia
(2) China
(3)
USA
($) India
182.
Which company has announced its plans to launch an electric version of three-wheelers
by January 2006?

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(1)
(3)
183.
(1)
(3)
184.
(1)
(3)
185.
(1)
(3)
186.
(1)
(3)
187.
(1)

Tata Motors
(2) Bajaj
Mahindra & Mahindra
(4) None of these
Which company as introduced 91-Octane petrol EXTRAPREMIUM in India?
BPCL
(2) Hindustan Petroleum
Indian Oil
(4) IBP
Where are the headquarters of World Trade Organisation (WTO) located ?
New York
(2) Canberra
Geneva
(4) Buenos Aires
Indian Railways has been ogranised into how many zones?
17
(2) 15
14
(4) 16
Of which university, the Kellogg School of Management is a part ?
Columbia University
(2) New York University
North-Western University
(4) None of the above
Which is the top country in cotton production?
USA
(2) India
(3)
Pakistan
(4)
China
Direction (Questions 188-191): Study the Table and Pie Chart given below to answer these
questions:
S
.
N
o.
1
.
2
.
3
.
4
.
5
.
6
.
7
.
8
.
9
.
1
0
.
1
1
.

Nor
th

E
as
t

We
st

So
uth

Rising prices

87

74

83

Joblessness

57

69

69

Stagnating Salaries

18

5
6
5
8
1
4
6

11

1
1
1
1
2
1
2
8
3
2
4
4

19

13

19

39

49

25

48

24

15

51

Rental house

Scarcity of essential
times
Bad/very
bad
standard of living
Savings rate

17

Pollution

33

Education

41

Not living better than

5 years ago

41

House ownership

45

4
6

Total number of respondents is 5000, with percentage distribution among the different zones
as shown below:

Page | 22

South
30%

East
16%
West

14%

North
40%

188.
The number of person surveyed having house ownership worries is minimum in the ____
zones.
1. North
2.
South
3. West
4.
East
189.
What is the percentage of persons surveyed who do not have worries about increase in
savings or about pollution?
1. 9
2.
19
3. 29
4.
Cannot be determined
190.
What I the number of persons having worries regarding rising prices in the four zones put
together?
1. 3652
2.
3862
3. 3753
4.
3951
191.
1.
3.

What percentage of persons with jobs has worries of Stagnating salaries in the South?
35.5
2.
38.2
25.7
4.
Cannot be determined.

Directions (Qs. 192 to 194): Refer to the pie diagrams given below to answer these questions.
The annual average receipts and outlays of the government in 2001-2002 are given in percentage.

Page | 23

s ubs idies ; 7%

w ealth tax; 5% gift tax; 10%

health & s ecurity; 20%

excise; 10%
corporate income tax; 40%

defence; 20%

individual income tax; 14%

s pace programme; 13%

interes t; 15%
education; 13%

customs; 15%
miscellaneous; 6%

RECEIPTS

192.
(1)
(3)
193.
(1)
(3)

others ; 12%

OUTLAYS

The annual corporate income tax and gift tax was what fraction of the total receipts?
1/4
(2)
1/3
1/3
(4)
2/3
The ratio of the wealth tax and corporate tax receipts to the interest outlay is
3:1
(2)
1:3
3:2
(4)
2:3

194.
If the amount spent on subsides is Rs. 2403 crore, then the space programmer outlay is
approximately
1. Rs. 4463 crore
2. Rs. 445 crore
3. Rs. 6007 crore
4. Rs. 3204 crore
195.
If the annual receipt is Rs. 26256 crore, then the amount collected by way of customs
is approximately
1. Rs. 4000 crore
2. Rs. 3938 crore
3. Rs. 15754 crore
4. Rs. 1500 crore
Direction (Qs. 196 to 200) : Each of these questions consists of a statement followed
by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a
strong argument and which is a weak argument :

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Make your answer as :

(1)
If Only argument I is strong.
(2)
If only argument II is strong.
(3)
If either I or II is strong
(4)
If neither I nor II is strong.
196. Statement :
Should India give away Kashmir to Pakistan?
Arguments :
a. No, Kashmir is a beautiful state. It earns a lot of foreign exchange of India.
b. Yes. This would help settle conflicts.
197. Statement :
Should India have no military force at all?
Arguments :
a. No. Other countries in the world do not believe in non violence.
b. Yes. Many Indians believe in non-violence.
198. Should students union in universities be abolished?
Argument :
a. Yes. Students can pay full attention to their career development.
b. No. All the great leaders had been students union leaders.
199. Statement :
Should higher education be reserved for a deserving few?
Argument :
a. No. It will increase unemployment.
b. Yes. It will minimize wastage in higher education.
200. Statement :
Should those who received dowry despite the law prohibiting it, be punished?
a. Yes. Those who violate the law must be punished.
b. No. Dowry system is firmly rooted in the society since time immemorial.

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