Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
http://www.irvingcrowley.com/cls/maturation.htm
Identify the sites of haemopoeitic tissue in fetal, neonate and adult life
Sites of haemopoiesis.
Fetus
02 months (yolk sac)
27 months (liver, spleen)
59 months (bone marrow)
Infant
Bone marrow (practically all bones)
Adults
Vertebrae, ribs, sternum, skull, sacrum and pelvis, proximal
ends of femur
List the cell lines in the bone marrow that are derived from the pluripotential
stem cells
Outline the development of red cells, granulocytes and platelets from the
pluripotential stem cell to the end cell.
Identify the growth factors (including cytokines) which infl uence the
development of various cell lines
Haemopoietic tissue growth factors
This is a diagram of the role of growth factors in normal haemopoiesis. Multiple growth factors
act on the earlier marrow stem and progenitor cells. EPO, erythropoietin; PSC, pluripotential stem
cell; SCF, stem cell factor; TPO, thrombopoietin.
Structural support
The connective tissues serve several functions, of which the most prominent function is structural
support to enable maintenance of anatomical form of organs and organ systems. Examples include
the connective tissue capsules surrounding organs (such as the kidney, lymph nodes). The loose
connective tissue acts to fill the spaces between organs. The tendons (connecting muscles to bone)
and the elastic ligaments (connecting bones to bones) are examples of specialized orderly forms of
connective tissue. The skeletal tissues (cartilage and bone) are special forms of connective tissue.
Metabolic functions
The connective tissues serve a nutritive role. All the metabolites from the blood pass from
capillary beds and diffuse through the adjacent connective tissue to cells and tissues. Similarly
waste metabolites from the cells and tissues diffuse through the loose connective tissue before
returning to the blood capillaries.
The adipose tissue (especially that of the hypodermis) serves as an energy store and also provides
thermal insulation. Surplus calories can be converted into lipid and stored in adipocytes.
The hematopoietic tissues (blood-forming tissues) are a further specialized form of connective
tissue. These include the myeloid tissue (bone marrow) and the lymphoid (lymphatic) tissue. The
lining of the blood and lymphatic vessels (endothelial cells) as well as the peripheral blood, are
also specialized forms of connective tissue.
Defensive functions
Various components of the connective tissue play roles in the defense or protection of the body
including many of the components of the vascular and immune systems (plasma cells,
lymphocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells). The various macrophages of the body
are also categorized as connective tissue cells. These all develop from monocytes and are grouped
as part of the Mononuclear Phagocyte System of the body. Macrophages are important in tissue
repair as well as defense against bacterial invasion. The fibroblasts of connective tissue proliferate
in response to injury of organs and migrate to and deposit abundant new collagen fibers, resulting
in the formation of fibrous scar tissue.
Cell type
Chief function
Mesenchyme
Fibroblasts
Chondroblasts
Osteoblasts
Structural support
Plasma cells
Lymphocytes
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
Mast cells
Macrophages
Adipocytes
Metabolic
Energy storage
Thermal insulation
The formed elements of the blood. List the cellular components in peripheral
blood.
This is a
diagrammatic representation of the bone marrow pluripotent stem cell and the cell lines that
arise from it.
Various progenitor cells can be identified by culture in semi-solid medium by the type of colony
they form.
Baso, basophil; BFU, burst-forming unit; CFU, colony-forming unit; E, erythroid; Eo, eosinophil;
GEMM, granulocyte, erythroid, monocyte and megakaryocyte; GM, granulocyte, monocyte; Meg,
megakaryocyte; NK, natural killer.
List the parameters in the CBC/FBC. Discuss the importance of the CBC/FBC.
To determine general health status and to screen for a variety of disorders, such as anaemia and infection,
inflammation nutritional status and exposure to toxic substances
White blood cell (WBC, leukocyte) count. White blood cells protect the body against infection. If an infection
develops, white blood cells attack and destroy the bacteria, virus, or other organism causing it. White blood cells are
bigger than red blood cells but fewer in number. When a person has a bacterial infection, the number of white cells rises
very quickly. The number of white blood cells is sometimes used to find an infection or to see how the body is dealing with
cancer treatment.
White blood cell types (WBC differential). The major types of white blood cells are neutrophils, lymphocytes,
monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils. Immature neutrophils, called band neutrophils, are also part of this test. Each type
of cell plays a different role in protecting the body. The numbers of each one of these types of white blood cells give
important information about the immune system. Too many or too few of the different types of white blood cells can help
find an infection, an allergic or toxic reaction to medicines or chemicals, and many conditions, such as leukemia.
Red blood cell (RBC) count. Red blood cells carry oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body. They also carry
carbon dioxide back to the lungs so it can be exhaled. If the RBC count is low (anemia), the body may not be getting the
oxygen it needs. If the count is too high (a condition called polycythemia), there is a chance that the red blood cells will
clump together and block tiny blood vessels (capillaries). This also makes it hard for your red blood cells to carry oxygen.
Hematocrit (HCT, packed cell volume, PCV). This test measures the amount of space (volume) red blood cells
take up in the blood. The value is given as a percentage of red blood cells in a volume of blood. For example, a hematocrit
of 38 means that 38% of the blood's volume is made of red blood cells. Hematocrit and hemoglobin values are the two
major tests that show if anemia or polycythemia is present.
Hemoglobin (Hgb). The hemoglobin molecule fills up the red blood cells. It carries oxygen and gives the blood
cell its red color. The hemoglobin test measures the amount of hemoglobin in blood and is a good measure of the blood's
ability to carry oxygen throughout the body.
Red blood cell indices. There are three red blood cell indices: mean corpuscular volume (MCV), mean
corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH), and mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC). They are measured by a
machine and their values come from other measurements in a CBC. The MCV shows the size of the red blood cells. The
MCH value is the amount of hemoglobin in an average red blood cell. The MCHC measures the concentration of
hemoglobin in an average red blood cell. These numbers help in the diagnosis of different types of anemia. Red cell
distribution width (RDW) can also be measured which shows if the cells are all the same or different sizes or shapes.
Platelet (thrombocyte) count. Platelets (thrombocytes) are the smallest type of blood cell. They are important in
blood clotting. When bleeding occurs, the platelets swell, clump together, and form a sticky plug that helps stop the
bleeding. If there are too few platelets, uncontrolled bleeding may be a problem. If there are too many platelets, there is a
chance of a blood clot forming in a blood vessel. Also, platelets may be involved in hardening of the arteries
(atherosclerosis).
Mean platelet volume (MPV). Mean platelet volume measures the average amount (volume) of platelets. Mean
platelet volume is used along with platelet count to diagnose some diseases. If the platelet count is normal, the mean
platelet volume can still be too high or too low
Gently mix specimen by inverting 5-10 times and place it on a rocker for up to 30 minutes, then refrigerate at 28C. When a differential is required as part of a CBC, slides must be prepared within 12 hours of blood
collection.
Refrigerated EDTA blood is stable for CBC for up to 24 hours. Clotted or hemolyzed specimens are
unacceptable. Check for clots by using a clean wooden applicator stick and gently swirling blood in tube.
EDTA microtainers must be shaken 10-15 times to overcome the surface tension within the tube
Serum Chemistry:
Both plain and SST tubes must be allowed to clot at 4C for 30 minutes - 60 minutes. Then the samples must
be centrifuged at 7000rpm for 10 minutes and the serum decanted and frozen at -80C for clinical chemistry
analysis.
Gently mix specimen by inverting 8-10 times and place immediately on at 4C for 30 minutes - 60 minutes
before spinning in a centrifuge, although the exact time allowable may be protocol specific.
Coagulation:
Gently mix specimen by inverting at least 5-6 times and place immediately at 4C for up to 30 minutes before
spinning in a centrifuge.
Blood Glucose:
Gently mix specimen by inverting 5-6 times and place immediately at 4C for up to 30 minutes before spinning
in a centrifuge
If blood is placed into tubes after removing the tube tops, care must be taken not to cross contaminate tubes
containing anticoagulant. It is best to remove the needle before filling the tubes.
Capillary tubes:
Take capillary tube and place finger on the end of tube that has the blue or red fill line mark on it.
Place other end of the capillary tube into the tip of a blood filled syringe, in a drop of blood on Parafilm, or along
the edge of a tube of blood (being careful not to spill it!).
Release finger and allow blood to fill the capillary tube (If possible to the blue or red line) by capillary action. If
less blood is available, fill as full as is possible.
Green-Top Tube (Sodium Heparin): This tube contains sodium heparin -- used for collection of heparinized plasma or whole blood
for special tests. Note: After tube has been filled with blood, immediately invert tube several times to prevent coagulation.
Grey-Top Tube (Potassium Oxalate/Sodium Fluoride): This tube contains potassium oxalate as an anticoagulant and sodium
fluoride as a preservative -- used to preserve glucose in whole blood and for some special chemistry tests. Note: After tube has been
filled with blood, immediately invert tube several times to prevent coagulation.
Lavender-Top Tube (EDTA): This tube contains EDTA as an anticoagulant -- used for most hematological procedures. Note: After
tube has been filled with blood, immediately invert tube several times to prevent coagulation.
Light Blue-Top Tube (Sodium Citrate): This tube contains sodium citrate as an anticoagulant -- used for drawing blood for
coagulation studies. Note: It is imperative that the tube be completely filled. The ratio of blood to anticoagulant is critical for valid
prothrombin time results. Immediately after draw, invert tube 6 to 10 times to activate the anticoagulant.
Red-Top Tube: This tube is a plain VACUTAINER containing no anticoagulant -- used for collection of serum for selected
chemistry tests as well as clotted blood for immunohematology.
Royal Blue-Top Tube: There are two types of royal bluetop Monoject tubes -- one with the anticoagulant EDTA and the other plain.
These are used for collection of whole blood or serum for trace element analysis. To determine tube type necessary, refer to individual
metals in individual test listings.
Serum Gel Tube: This tube contains a clot activator and serum gel separator -- used for various laboratory tests. Note: Invert tube to
activate clotting; let stand for 20 to 30 minutes before centrifuging for 10 minutes. If frozen serum is required, pour off serum into
plastic vial and freeze. Do not freeze VACUTAINER(S).
Special Collection Tubes: Some tests require specific tubes for proper analysis. To obtain correct tubes for metal analysis or other
tests as identified in individual test listings. Yellow-Top Tube (ACD): This tube contains ACD -- used for drawing whole blood for
special tests
List the major blood group antigens (e.g. ABO), discuss rhesus blood group
systems in humans and just make note of other systems
Keep in mind that only the Rh+ children (Dd) are likely to have medical complications. When both the mother
and her fetus are Rh- (dd), the birth will be normal.
The first time an Rh- woman becomes pregnant, there usually are not incompatibility difficulties for her Rh+
fetus. However, the second and subsequent births are likely to have life-threatening problems for Rh+ fetuses.
The risk increases with each birth. In order to understand why first born are normally safe and later children are
not, it is necessary to understand some of the placenta's functions. It is an organ that connects the fetus to the
wall of the uterus via an umbilical cord. Nutrients and the mother's antibodies regularly transfer across the
placental boundary into the fetus, but her red blood cells usually do not (except in the case of an accidental
rupture). Normally, anti-Rh+ antibodies do not exist in the first-time mother unless she has previously come in
contact with Rh+ blood. Therefore, her antibodies are not likely to agglutinate the red blood cells of her Rh+
fetus. Placental ruptures do occur normally at birth so that some fetal blood gets into the mother's system,
stimulating the development of antibodies to Rh+ blood antigens. As little as one drop of fetal blood stimulates
the production of large amounts of antibodies. When the next pregnancy occurs, a transfer of antibodies from
the mother's system once again takes place across the placental boundary into the fetus. The anti-Rh+
antibodies that she now produces react with the fetal blood, causing many of its red cells to burst or
agglutinate. As a result, the newborn baby may have a life-threatening anemia because of a lack of oxygen in
the blood. The baby also usually is jaundiced, fevered, quite swollen, and has an enlarged liver and spleen.
This condition is called erythroblastosis fetalis . The standard treatment in severe cases is immediate
massive transfusions of Rh- blood into the baby with the simultaneous draining of the existing blood to flush
out Rh+ antibodies from the mother. This is usually done immediately following birth, but it can be done to a
fetus prior to birth. Later, the Rh- blood will be replaced naturally as the baby gradually produces its own Rh+
blood. Any residual anti-Rh+ antibodies from the mother will leave gradually as well because the baby does not
produce them.
Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented for women at high risk (i.e., Rh- women with Rh+ mates or mates whose blood
type is unknown) by administering a serum (Rho-GAM) containing anti-Rh+ antibodies into the mother around the 28th
week of pregnancy and again within 72 hours after the delivery of an Rh+ baby. This must be done for the first and all
subsequent pregnancies. The injected antibodies quickly agglutinate any fetal red cells as they enter the mother's blood,
thereby preventing her from forming her own antibodies. The serum provides only a passive form of immunization and will
shortly leave her blood stream. Therefore, she does not produce any long-lasting antibodies. This treatment can be 99%
effective in preventing erythroblastosis fetalis. Rho-GAM is also routinely given to Rh- women after a miscarriage, an
ectopic pregnancy, or an induced abortion. Without the use of Rho-GAM, an Rh- woman is likely to produce larger
amounts of Rh+ antibodies every time she becomes pregnant with an Rh+ baby because she is liable to come in contact
with more Rh+ blood. Therefore, the risk of life-threatening erythroblastosis fetalis increases with each subsequent
pregnancy.
Anti-Rh+ antibodies may be produced in an individual with Rh- blood as a result of receiving a mismatched blood
transfusion. When this occurs, there is likely to be production of the antibodies throughout life. Once again, Rho-GAM can
prevent this from happening.
Mother-fetus incompatibility problems can result with the ABO system also. However, they are very rare--less than .1% of
births are affected and usually the symptoms are not as severe. It most commonly occurs when the mother is type O and
her fetus is A, B, or AB. The symptoms in newborn babies are usually jaundice, mild anemia, and elevated bilirubin levels.
These problems in a baby are usually treated successfully without blood transfusions.
NOTE: Identifying someone as being Rh+ or Rh- is a simplification. There are many variations of Rh blood types
depending on which of the 45 Rh antigens are present. The most important of these antigens for mother-fetus
incompatibility and transfusion problems apparently are D, C, c, E, and e. When an individual is identified as being Rh+ or
Rh-, it is usually is in reference to the D antigen. In other words, the individual is RhD+ or RhD-.
Other blood grouping systems
http://faculty.matcmadison.edu/mljensen/BloodBank/lectures/other_blood_group_systems.htm
Blood Transfusions
Blood that has antibodies on it that is not recognized by the
body will be attacked by your immune system
O is the Universal Donor because a person with this type of
blood does not have antigens on the surface of the blood cells
- hence will not cause an immune reaction in the patient.
AB is the universal Acceptor because this person will not have
an immune reaction to A, B, AB, or O
*Just remember, the antigens on the surface of your cells (or
donated cells) will cause a reaction if your immune system does not recognize them as being part of
you. Hence, if you are Type A, and transfused with Type B, your body will mobilize a massive immune
response against the "invading" blood. This will cause coagulation of blood and death.
----- AGGLUTINATION (the clumping of red blood cells following a transfusion reaction; likely fatal)
Blood Safety
Blood can carry diseases and health care professionals must be careful when working with blood. A
bloodborne pathogen is any disease causing agent that is present in the blood and can be transferred
from one person to another.
HEPATITIS B (HBV)
HEPATITIS C (HCV)
HUMAN IMMUNODEFICIENCY VIRUS (HIV)
MALARIA
List the white blood cells present in peripheral blood giving their functions and
identify them on a blood fi lm
Normal peripheral blood
The usual diagnostic approach to blood disorders is blood counting and blood film examination. Blood films on glass
slides are stained with a Romanowsky stain (usually Wright's, Giemsa, or May-Grnwald). Red cells in normal
peripheral blood are circular and fairly uniform in size. Mild variation in shape (poikilocytosis) and size (anisocytosis) is
seen. Platelets appear as small bluish-purple discs. During blood film examination, the individual types of white blood
cells are enumerated; this is referred to as the differential count.
Band neutrophils
Basophil
Eosinophil
Lymphocyte
Monocytes
Platelets
Segmented neutrophils
Band neutrophil
Band neutrophils comprise approximately 1 to 3% of the peripheral leukocytes. They are usually 9 to 15 m in
diameter. The nucleus forms a "U" or curled rod prior to segmentation. The chromatin pattern is coarse and clumped.
The cytoplasm is moderate to abundant with a few nonspecific granules and many specific granules.
Basophil
Basophils are granulocytes that contain purple-blue granules that contain heparin and vasoactive compounds. They
comprise approximately 0.5% of the total leukocyte count. Basophils participate in immediate hypersensitivity
reactions, such as allergic reactions to wasp stings, and are also involved in some delayed hypersensitivity reactions.
Basophils are the smallest circulating granulocytes, averaging 10 to 15 m in diameter. The nucleus to cytoplasm ratio
is about 1:1, and the nucleus is often unsegmented or bilobed, rarely with three or four lobes. The chromatin pattern
is coarse and patchy, staining a deep blue to reddish-purple. The cytoplasm is a homogenous pale blue, but this is
often obscured by the large dark granules.
Eosinophil
Eosinophils are the mature granulocytes that respond to parasitic infections and allergic conditions. Eosinophils
comprise about 1 to 4% of the peripheral leukocytes. They are usually 9 to 15 m in diameter. Granules stain a bright
reddish-orange with Wright's or Giemsa stains. The nucleus contains one to three lobes. The chromatin pattern is
coarse and clumped. The cytoplasm is abundant with a full complement of bright reddish-orange specific granules.
to the lungs. The protein hemoglobin is responsible for most of this exchange. Normal red blood cells are round, have
a small area of central pallor, and show only a slight variation in size. A normal red cell is 6-8 m in diameter. As the
relative amount of hemoglobin in the red cell decreases or increases, the area of central pallor will decrease or
increase accordingly.
Lymphocyte
Lymphocytes in the peripheral blood have been described on the basis of size and cytoplasmic granularity. Small
lymphocytes are the most common, ranging in size from 6 to 10 m. The nucleus is usually round or slightly oval,
occasionally showing a small indentation due to the adjacent centrosome. Except in the smallest cells, the nucleus is
about 7 m in diameter, a size that has been convenient for estimating the size of the surrounding erythrocytes.
Nuclear chromatin stains a dark reddish-purple to blue with large dark patches of condensed chromatin. The nuclear
cytoplasm ratio is 5:1 to 3:1, and the cytoplasm is often seen only as a peripheral ring around part of the nucleus.
Platelets
Platelets are the cytoplasmic fragments of megakaryocytes, circulating as small discs in the peripheral blood. They are
responsible for hemostasis (the stoppage of bleeding) and maintaining the endothelial lining of the blood vessels.
During hemostasis, platelets clump together and adhere to the injured vessel in this area to form a plug and further
inhibit bleeding. Platelets average 1 to 4 m in diameter. The cytoplasm stains light blue to purple, and is very
granular. There is no nucleus present. Normal blood concentrations range from 130,000 to 450,000/L.
List the features of the blood count and blood fi lm that are associated with:
acute bacterial infection, viral infection, parasitic infestations and chronic
infection.
White cells
Acute Bacterial infection: increase neutrophils
Parasitic infestation: increase eosinophils
Acute Viral infection: increase lymphocytes
Normal values vary with age. White counts are highest in children under one year of age and then decrease
somewhat until adulthood. The increase is largely in the lymphocyte population. Adult normal values are shown
below.
Infectious mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, a DNA herpes-type
virus that infects B lymphocytes. Patients present with mild to severe
adenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, fever, malaise, pharyngitis, and a
characteristic peripheral blood smear demonstrating reactive lymphocytes.
Malaria
Malaria is a disease caused by the parasite Plasmodium. The four species most
commonly found in man are vivax, malariae, falciparum, and ovale.
"Malaria
is mainly transmitted from person to person through the bite of the female
Anopheles mosquito. Other means of transmission are through the use of
contaminated needles, by congenital means, and through blood transfusions.
When the infected Anopheles mosquito bites a human, sporozoites are injected
the peripheral blood of the individual. The sporozoites then invade the liver.
When the red blood cell has been penetrated by the merozoite, the parasite
develops into the trophozoite ring form and thence to a mature schizont. The merozoites rupture from the mature
schizonts and penetrate other red blood cells. Fever and chills are associated with the rupture of the red blood cells.
into
Pelger-Hut Anomaly
Pelger-Hut anomaly is a benign hereditary condition characterized by
decreased segmentation in the neutrophils. These neutrophils usually
contain two lobes, but appear to function normally.
c. The released ADP binds other circulating platelets in close proximity to activated platelets and this binding to surface
receptors initiates the release reaction in these recruited platelets.
d. The release reaction is mediated by means of Thromboxane A2. Arachidonate is integrated in the phospholipids in the
cell wall and is freed by a phospholipase, activated during the process of adhesion or by binding of certain ligands to
receptors on the platelet surface.
e. Cyclo-oxygenase converts arachidonate to an intermediate, prostaglandin H2.
f. In the platelets, PGH2 is acted upon by thromboxane synthetase to form thromboxane A2. Thromboxane A2 promotes
the release reaction, change in shape, and aggregation. In the endothelial cell, the pathway is different from that of the
platelet.
g. Following the formation of PGH2, prostacyclin synthetase produces PGI2, which inhibits adhesion, aggregation and the
release reaction, forces that oppose those of Thromboxane A2.
h. Aspirin blocks cyclo-oxygenase and therefore the pathway that leads to both Thromboxane A2 and PGI2. In the platelet,
the block is permanent for the life of the platelet, because the platelet does not have a nucleus to direct the formation of
more cyclo-oxygenase. This yields a platelet that cannot function. Since the life of the platelet is about 7-10 days, the
effect of the aspirin on bleeding will gradually decrease over a week, as new platelets replace those that were exposed to
aspirin. In the endothelial cell, however, cyclo-oxygenase is regenerated.
C. Platelet aggregation occurs as platelets are "recruited" from the immediate area by the released contents, for
example, ADP. This process is accomplished by fibrinogen, binding to the GP IIb-IIIa complex on separate platelets, and
bridging the gap between platelets When the release of ADP, or other aggregating agents, is minimal, the local
concentration of these agents do not reach a high level, this aggregation may be reversible; with higher concentrations,
aggregation is irreversible.
Associated with the change of shape of the platelet and the release reaction, is the appearance of clotting promoting sites
(historically referred to as platelet factor 3) on the platelet membranes. The receptor sites for the coagulation proteins
serve as a catalytic site for the clotting proteins and assists in initiating the clotting mechanism. Important coagulation
proteins that are bound to the surface include factors V and VIII among others.
E. Clot retraction occurs when platelets are trapped within the enlarging blood clot. During the release reaction,
pseudopodia like structures extend some distance from the surface of the platelet, and attach to similar structures on
adjacent platelets. With time, these structures retract, pulling the body of the clot together, and sealing the vessel wall at
the site of injury.
Identify the diff erence between plasma and serum. List the components of
plasma. Describe the functions of the diff erent plasma proteins
Blood serum; the clear liquid that separates from blood when it is allowed to clot completely, and is therefore blood
plasma from which fibrogen has been removed during clotting.
Blood plasma; the fluid portion of the blood in which the particulate components are suspended.
calcium, and phospholipid which is provided by the platelet surface, where this reaction usually takes place. The precise role of
factor VIII in this reaction is not clearly understood. Its presence in the complex is obviously essential, as evidenced by the
serious consequences of factor VIII deficiency experienced by haemophiliacs. Factor VIII is modified by thrombin, a reaction
that results in greatly enhanced factor VIII activity, promoting the activation of factor X.
The extrinsic pathway is an alternative route for the activation of the clothing cascade. It provides a very rapid response to tissue
injury, generating activated factor X almost instantaneously, compared to the seconds or even minutes required for the intrinsic
pathway to activate factor X. The main function of the extrinsic pathway is to augment the activity of the intrinsic pathway.
There are two components unique to the extrinsic pathway, tissue factor or factor III, and factor VII. Tissue factor is present in
most human cells bound to the cell membrane. The activation process for tissue factor is not entirely clear. Once activated, tissue
factor binds rapidly to factor VII which is then activated to form a complex of tissue factor, activated factor VII, calcium, and a
phospholipid, and this complex then rapidly activates factor X.
The intrinsic and extrinsic systems converge at factor X to a single common pathway which is ultimately responsible for the
production of thrombin (factor IIa).
Clot formation. The end result of the clotting pathway is the production of thrombin for the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
Fibrinogen is a dimer soluble in plasma. Exposure of fibrinogen to thrombin results in rapid proteolysis of fibrinogen and the
release of fibrinopeptide A. The loss of small peptide A is not sufficient to render the resulting fibrin molecule insoluble, a proces
that is required for clot formation, but it tends to form complexes with adjacent fibrin and fibrinogen molecules. A second
peptide, fibrinopeptide B, is then cleaved by thrombin, and the fibrin monomers formed by this second proteolytic cleavage
polymerize spontaneously to form an insoluble gel. The polymerized fibrin, held together by noncovalent and electrostatic forces,
is stabilized by the transamidating enzyme factor XIIIa, produced by the action of thrombin on factor XIII. These insoluble fibrin
aggregates (clots), together with aggregated platelets ( thrombi), block the damaged blood vessel and prevent further bleeding.
There is an interrelationships between the coagulation pathway and other plasma enzyme systems. Contact activation of the
coagulation pathway, in addition to promoting blood clotting, results in the generation of plasminogen activator activity, which is
involved in fibrinolysis or clot removal. Activated Hageman factor and its peptides can also initiate the formation of kallikrein
from plasma prekallikrein, and this triggers the release of bradykinin from kininogens in the plasma. Kinins are responsible for
dilating small blood vessels, inducing a fall in blood presssure, triggering smooth muscle contraction, and increasing the
permeability of vessel walls. In addition, activation of the coagulation pathway produces a vascular permeability factor, as well as
chemotactic peptides for professional phagocytes.
Describe the vascular epithelium and its role in haematostasis as a procoagulant and anti-coagulant surface
Growth factor
PDGF found in the specific granules of platelets stimulates vascular smooth muscle cells to multiply and this may hasten vascular healing following
injury.
Natural inhibitors of platelet function
Nitric oxide (NO) is constitutively released from endothelial cells and also from macrophages and platelets. It has a short half-life of 3-5 s. It inhibits
platelet activation and promotes vasodilatation. Prostacyclin synthesized by endothelial cells also inhibits platelet function (Fig. 22.8) and causes
vasodilatation by raising cyclic guanosine monophosphate (GMP) levels. The transmembrane protein PECAM-1 is expressed also on endothelial
cells. It is its own ligand and inhibits platelet activation by collagen.
Defi ne bleeding time (BT), prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin
time (PTT). State the importance of each test and the relevant specimen tube/
anticoagulant.
Bleeding Time is a crude test of hemostasis (the arrest or stopping of bleeding). It indicates how well platelets interact
with blood vessel walls to form blood clots.
Bleeding time is used most often to detect qualitative defects of platelets, such as Von Willebrand's disease. The test
helps identify people who have defects in their platelet function. This is the ability of blood to clot following a wound or
trauma. Normally, platelets interact with the walls of blood vessels to cause a blood clot. There are many factors in the
clotting mechanism, and they are initiated by platelets. The bleeding time test is usually used on patients who have a
history of prolonged bleeding after cuts, or who have a family history of bleeding disorders. Also, the bleeding time test is
sometimes performed as a preoperative test to determine a patient's likely bleeding response during and after surgery.
However, in patients with no history of bleeding problems, or who are not taking anti-inflammatory drugs, the bleeding
time test is not usually necessary.
Prothrombin time (PT) The rate at which prothrombin is converted to thrombin in citrated blood with added calcium;
used to assess the extrinsic coagulation system of the blood
The PT test is used to monitor patients taking certain medications as well as to help diagnose clotting disorders.
Diagnosis
Patients who have problems with delayed blood clotting are given a number of tests to determine the cause of the
problem. The prothrombin test specifically evaluates the presence of factors VIIa, V, and X, prothrombin, and fibrinogen.
Prothrombin is a protein in the liquid part of blood (plasma) that is converted to thrombin as part of the clotting process.
Fibrinogen is a type of blood protein called a globulin; it is converted to fibrin during the clotting process. A drop in the
concentration of any of these factors will cause the blood to take longer to clot. The PT test is used in combination with the
partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test to screen for hemophilia and other hereditary clotting disorders.
Monitoring
The PT test is also used to monitor the condition of patients who are taking warfarin (Coumadin). Warfarin is a drug that is
given to prevent clots in the deep veins of the legs and to treat pulmonary embolism. It interferes with blood clotting by
lowering the liver's production of certain clotting factors.
Partial Thromboplastin Time
A test for detecting coagulation defects of the intrinsic system by adding activated partial thromboplastin to a sample of
test plasma and to a control sample of normal plasma. The time required for the formation of a clot is compared with the
normal plasma. It is also used to monitor the activity of heparin in patients who are being treated for a variety of
cardiovascular disorders.
The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test is a blood test that is done to investigate bleeding disorders and to monitor
patients taking an anticlotting drug (heparin).
Diagnosis
Blood clotting (coagulation) depends on the action of substances in the blood called clotting factors. Measuring the partial
thromboplastin time helps to assess which specific clotting factors may be missing or defective.
Monitoring
Certain surgical procedures and diseases cause blood clots to form within blood vessels. Heparin is used to treat these
clots. The PTT test can be used to monitor the effect of heparin on a patient's coagulation system.
Light blue: A reversible anticoagulant Sodium citrate in measured amount is present. Used for
coagulation assays (Prothrombin time, Partial Thromboplastin Time). Full draw is essential since
dilution factor with liquid citrate should be maintained.
List the anticoagulants used in the laboratory and state their mechanisms of
action
Describe naturally occurring anticoagulants and outline their role in health and
disease