Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC

refresher]
1.

Which best describe the sound wave?

a.

It may be longitudinal

b.

It is always transverse

c.

It is always longitudinal

d.

All of the above

2.

Which of the following can not travel through a vacuum?

a.

Electromagnetic wave

b.

Radio wave

c.

Soundwave

d.

Light wave

3.

Through which medium does sound travel fastest?

a.

Air

b.

Water

c.

Steel

d.

Mercury

4.

Speed that is faster than that of sound.

a.

Ultrasonic

b.

Supersonic

c.

Subsonic

d.

Transonic

5.

What is the speed of sound in air at 20C?

a.

1087 ft/s

b.

1100 ft/s

c.

1126 ft/s

d.

200 ft/s

6.

Calculate a half wavelength sound for sound of 16000 Hz

a.

35 ft

b.

10 ft

c.

0.035 ft

d.

100 ft

7.

The lowest frequency that a human ear can hear is

a.

5 Hz

b.

20 Hz

c.

30 Hz

d.

20 Hz

8.

Sound that vibrates at frequency too high for the human ear to hear (over 20

kHz)
a.

Subsonic

b.

Ultrasonic

c.

Transonic

d.

Stereo

9.

The frequency interval between two sounds whose frequency ratio is 10

a.

Octave

b.

Half octave

c.

Third-octave

d.

Decade

10.

A 16 KHz sound is how many octaves higher than a 500 Hz sound

a.

b.

c.

d.

11.

Sound waves composed of but one frequency is a/an

a.

Infra sound

b.

Pure tone

c.

Structure borne

d.

Residual sound

12.

Sound wave has two main characteristics which are

a.

Highness and loudness

b.

Tone and loudness

c.

Pitch and loudness

d.

Rarefactions and compressions

13.

When waves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called

a.

Reflection

b.

Diffraction

c.

Rarefaction

d.

Refraction

14.

The amplitude of sound waves, the maximum displacement of each air particle,

is the property which perceive as _____ of a sound

a.

Pitch

b.

Intensity

c.

Loudness

d.

Harmonics

15.

It is the weakest sound that average human hearing can detect.

a.

SPL = 0 dB

b.

Threshold of hearing

c.

Reference pressure = 2 x 10-5N/m2

d.

A, b, c

16.

What is a device that is used to measure the hearing sensitivity of a person?

a.

Audiometer

b.

OTDR

c.

SLM

d.

Spectrum analyzer

17.

What is the device used in measuring sound pressure levels incorporating a

microphone, amplification, filtering and a display.

a.

Audiometer

b.

OTDR

c.

SLM

d.

Spectrum analyzer

18.

What weighted scale in a sound level meter gives a reading that is most closely

to the response of the human ear?

a.

Weighted scale A

b.

Weighted scale B

c.

Weighted scale C

d.

Weighted scale D

19.

For aircraft noise measurements, the weighting scale that is used is _____.

a.

Weighted scale A

b.

Weighted scale B

c.

Weighted scale C

d.

Weighted scale D

20.

It is the device used to calibrate an SLM?

a.

Microphone

b.

Pistonphone

c.

Telephone

d.

Filter

21.

_____ is the sound power measured over the area upon which is received.

a.

Sound pressure

b.

Sound energy

c.

Sound intensity

d.

Sound pressure level

22.

A measure of the intensity of sound in comparison to another sound intensity

a.

Phon

b.

Decibel

c.

Pascal

d.

Watts

23.

Calculate the sound intensity level in dB of a sound whose intensity is 0.007

W/m2.
a.

95 dB

b.

91 dB

c.

98 dB

d.

101 dB

24.

What is the sound pressure level for a given sound whose RMS pressure is

200/m2?
a.

200 dB

b.

20 dB

c.

140 dB

d.

14 dB

25.

What is the sound intensity for an RMS pressure of 200 Pascal?

a.

90 W/m2

b.

98 W/m2

c.

108 W/m2

d.

88 W/m2

26.

The sound pressure level is increased by _____ dB if the pressure is doubled.

a.

b.

c.

d.

27.

The sound pressure level is increased by _____ dB if the intensity is doubled.

a.

b.

c.

d.

28.

If four identical sounds are added what is the increase in level in dB?

a.

b.

c.

d.

29.

The transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room, via common

walls, floors or ceilings.

a.

Flanking transmission

b.

Reflection

c.

Refraction

d.

Reverberation

30.

_____ is the continuing presence of an audible sound after the sound source

has stop.
a.

Flutter echo

b.

Sound concentration

c.

Sound shadow

d.

Reverberation

31.

Required time for any sound to decay to 60 dB

a.

Echo time

b.

Reverberation time

c.

Delay time

d.

Transient time

32.

A room containing relatively little sound absorption

a.

Dead room

b.

Anechoic room

c.

Live room

d.

Free-field

33.

A room in which the walls offer essentially 100% absorption, therefore simulating

free field conditions.

a.

Dead room

b.

Anechoic room

c.

Live room

d.

Closed room

34.

Calculate the reverberation time of the room, which has a volume of 8700 ft3

and total sound absorption 140 sabins.

a.

0.3 sec

b.

3.5 sec

c.

3 sec

d.

0.53 sec

35.

It is an audio transducer that converts acoustic pressure in air into its equivalent

electrical impulses
a.

Loudspeaker

b.

Amplifier

c.

Baffle

d.
36.

Microphone
_____ is a pressure type microphone with permanent coil as a transducing

element.
a.

Dynamic

b.

Condenser

c.

Magnetic

d.

Carbon

37.

A microphone which has an internal impedance of 25 k is _____ type.

a.

High impedance

b.

Low impedance

c.

Dynamic

d.

Magnetic

38.

A microphone that uses the piezoelectric effect

a.

Dynamic

b.

Condenser

c.

Crystal

d.

Carbon

39.

_____ is a type of loudspeaker driver with an effective diameter of 5 inches used

at midrange audio frequency.

a.

Tweeter

b.

Woofer

c.

Mid-range

d.

A or C

40.

_____ is measure of how much sound is produced from the electrical signal.

a.

Sensitivity

b.

Distortion

c.

Efficiency

d.

Frequency response

41.

It describes the output of a microphone over a range of frequencies.

a.

Directivity

b.

Sensitivity

c.

Frequency response

d.

All of the above

42.

A loudspeaker radiates an acoustic power of 1 mW if the electrical input is 10 W.

What is its rated efficiency?

a.

-10 dB

b.

-20 dB

c.

-30 dB

d.

-40 dB

43.

An amplifier can deliver 100 W to a loudspeaker. If the rated efficiency of the

loudspeaker is -60 dB. What is the maximum intensity 300 ft from it?
a.

10 dB

b.

20 dB

c.

30 dB

d.

40 dB

44.

Speaker is a device that

a.

Converts sound waves into current and voltage

b.

Converts current variations into sound waves

c.

Converts electrical energy to mechanical energy

d.

Converts electrical energy to electromagnetic energy

45.

The impedance of most drivers is about _____ ohms at their resonant

frequency.
a.

b.

c.

d.

10

46.

It is a transducer used to convert electrical energy to mechanical energy.

a.

Microphone

b.

Baffle

c.

Magnetic assemble

d.

Driver

47.

It is an enclosure used to prevent front and back wave cancellation.

a.

Loudspeaker

b.

Driver

c.

Baffle

d.

Frame

48.

A circuit that divides the frequency components into separate bands in order to

have individual feeds to the different drivers.

a.
b.

Suspension system
Dividing network

c.

Magnet assembly

d.

Panel board

49.

_____ is early reflection of sound.

a.

Echo

b.

Pure sound

c.

Reverberation

d.

Intelligible sound

50.

Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie.

a.

Dolby

b.

DBx

c.

dBa

d.

dBk

51.

Using a microphone at less than the recommended working distance will create

a _____ which greatly increases the low frequency signals.

a.

Roll-off

b.

Proximity effect

c.

Drop out

d.

None of the choices

52.

What is the unit of loudness?

a.

Sone

b.

Phon

c.

Decibel

d.

Mel

53.

A unit of noisiness related to the perceived noise level

a.

Noy

b.

dB

c.

Sone

d.

Phon

54.

What is the loudness level of a 1KHz tone if its intensity is

a.

100 phons

b.

105 phons

c.

110 phons

d.

100 phons

55.

What is the process of sending voice, speech, music or image intended for

1 x 10-5W/cm2?

reception by the general public?

a.

Navigation

b.

Telephony

c.

Broadcasting

d.

Mixing

56.

What is the frequency tolerance for the RF carrier in the standard AM radio

broadcast band?
a.

Zero

b.

20 Hz

c.

10 Hz

d.

20 KHz

57.

The transmitting antenna for an AM broadcast station should have a _____

polarization.
a.

Vertical

b.

Horizontal

c.

Circular

d.

Elliptical

58.

The part of a broadcast day from 6 PM to 6 AM local time

a.

Daytime

b.

Nighttime

c.

Bed time

d.

Experimental period

59.

The service area where the signal is not subject to fading and co-channel

interference.
a.

Primary Service Area

b.

Secondary Service Area

c.

Intermittent Service Area

d.

Quarternary Service Area

60.

It is a resistive load used in place of an antenna to test a transmitter under

normal loaded condition without actually radiating the transmitters output signal.
a.

Auxiliary Tx

b.

Main Tx

c.

Secondary Tx

d.

Artificial Antenna

61.

The operating power of the auxiliary transmitter shall not be less than _____%

or never greater than the authorized operating power of the main transmitter.
a.

b.

10

c.

15

d.

20

62.

What are the frequency limits of the MF BC band?

a.

300-3000 kHz

b.

3-30 MHz

c.

535-1605 kHz

d.

88-108 MHz

63.

The center to center spacing between two adjacent stations in the Phil. AM BC

band is ____.
a.

9 kHz

b.

200 kHz

c.

36 kHz

d.

800 kHz

64.

How many AM stations can be accommodated in a 150-kHz bandwidth if the

highest modulating frequency is 10 kHz?

a.

10

b.

15

c.

d.

14

65.

Short wave broadcasting operates in what band?

a.

MF

b.

HF

c.

VHF

d.

VLF

66.

What does the acronym STL stand for?

a.

Station-to-link

b.

Signal-to-loss-ratio

c.

Shout-to-live

d.

Studio-to-transmitter-link

67.

One of the main considerations in the selection of antenna site is (AM)

a.

Conductivity of the soil

b.

Height of the terrain

c.

Elevation of the site

d.

Accessibility

68.

One of the broadcast transmission auxiliary services is:

a.

Remote pick-up

b.

STL

c.

Communication, Coordination and Control

d.

All of the above

69.

What is the spacing between any two adjacent channels in the FM broadcast

band?
a.

20 KHz

b.

36 KHz

c.

200 KHz

d.

800 KHz

70.

The first channel in the FM BC band has a center frequency of

a.

88 MHz

b.

88.1 MHz

c.

88.3 MHz

d.

108 MHz

71.

What is the radio transmission of two separate signals, left, and right, used to

create a multidimensional effect on the receiver?

a.

SCA

b.

Stereo system

c.

Pilot transmission

d.

Monophonic transmission

72.

The carrier frequency tolerance for FM broadcasting is _____.

a.

25 kHz

b.

2 kHz

c.

20 kHz

d.

30 kHz

73.

What is the modulation used by the stereophonic subcarrier?

a.

FM

b.

PM

c.

ISB

d.

DSB

74.

What is the pilot signal for stereo FM?

a.

4.25 MHz

b.

10 kHz

c.

19 KHz

d.

38 KHz

75.

With stereo FM transmission, does a monaural receiver produce all the sounds

that a stereo does?

a.

Yes

b.

No

c.

Either a or b

d.

Neither a or b

76.

Where is de-emphasis added in a stereo FM system?

a.

Before the matrix at the TX

b.

Before the matrix at the RX

c.

After the matrix at the TX

d.

After the matrix at the RX

77.

Where is the pre-emphasis added in a stereo FM system?

a.

Before the matrix at the TX

b.

Before the matrix at the RX

c.

After the matrix at the TX

d.

After the matrix at the RX

78.

The normal frequency for an SCA subcarrier is _____ KHz.

a.

67

b.

76

c.

38

d.

19

79.

A monaural FM receiver receives only the _____ signal of a stereo multiplex

transmission.
a.

L+R

b.

LR

c.

Both a & b

d.

67 KHz

80.

When fed to the stereo FM modulator, in what form are the L R signals?

a.

AF

b.

DSBSC

c.

19 kHz

d.

38 kHz

81.

An additional channel of multiplex information that is authorized by the FCC for

stereo FM radio stations to feed services such as commercial-free programming to

selected customers.
a.

STL

b.

EBS

c.

EIA

d.

SCA

82.

The class of FM station, which has an authorized radiated power not exceeding

125 KW:
a.

Class C

b.

Class A

c.

Class D

d.

Class B

83.

An FM broadcast station, which has an authorized transmitter power not

exceeding 10 KW and ERP not exceeding 30 KW:

a.

Class D

b.

Class C

c.

Class A

d.

Class B

84.

A class of FM station which is limited in antenna height of 500 ft. above average

terrain
a.

Class D

b.

Class C

c.

Class A

d.

Class B

85.

What type of broadcast service might have their antennas on top of hills?

a.

FM

b.

AM

c.

TV

d.

A&C

86.

How are guardbands allocated in commercial FM stations?

a.

25 kHz on either sides of the transmitting signal

b.

50 kHz on each side of the carrier

c.

75 kHz deviation

d.

15 kHz modulation

87.

How many commercial FM broadcast channels can fit into the bandwidth

occupied by a commercial TV station?

a.

10

b.

20

c.

30

d.

40

88.

How many international commercial AM broadcast channels can fit into the

bandwidth occupied by a commercial TV station?

a.

100

b.

200

c.

125

d.

600

89.

What kind of modulation is used for the sound portion of a commercial broadcast

TV transmission?
a.

PM

b.

FM

c.

C3F

d.

AM

90.

Estimate the bandwidth occupied by the sound portion of a TV transmission in

US.
a.

25 kHz

b.

800 kHz

c.

80 kHz

d.

200 kHz

91.

What is the main reason why television picture signal uses amplitude

modulation, while voice is frequency modulated?

a.

Better efficiency

b.

Eliminate attenuation of both video and audio

c.

Maintain synchronized scanning between transmit and received video

d.

To minimize interference between signals at received end

92.

The picture and sound carrier frequencies in a TV receiver are _____

respectively.
a.

41.25 MHz, 45.75 MHz

b.

45.25 MHz, 41.75 MHz

c.

41.75 MHz, 45.25 MHz

d.

45.75 MHz, 41.25 MHz

93.

What is the separation between visual and aural carrier in TV broadcasting?

a.

1.25 MHz

b.

4.5 MHz

c.

5.75 MHz

d.

0.25 MHz

94.

What is the separation between the lower limit of a channel and the aural

carrier?
a.

1.25 MHz

b.

4.5 MHz

c.

5.75 MHz

d.

0.25 MHz

95.

What is the visual carrier for channel 12?

a.

205.25 MHz

b.

55.25 MHz

c.

65.75 MHz

d.

59.75 MHz

96.

What is the aural carrier for channel 3?

a.

61.25 MHz

b.

55.25 MHz

c.

65.75 MHz

d.

59.75 MHz

97.

What is color subcarrier for channel 2?

a.

68.83 MHz

b.

211.25 MHz

c.

58.83 MHz

d.

214.83 MHz

98.

If the sound carrier for UHF channel 23 is 529.75 MHz, what is the frequency of

the tuners local oscillator, when turned to this channel?

a.

571 MHz

b.

511 MHz

c.

498 MHz

d.

500 MHz

99.

What is the frequency tolerance in the color carrier of TV broadcasting?

a.

2 kHz

b.

20 Hz

c.

10 Hz

d.

1 kHz

100.

What is the exact picture carrier frequency for frequency for channel 7 offset by

10 KHz?
a

175.25 MHz

175.26 MHz

174 MHz

175.24 MHz

101.

TV channels 7, 11 and 13 are known as _____.

a.

Mid band UHF

b.

Low band UHF

c.

High band VHF

d.

low band UHF

102.

What is eliminated by using interlaced scanning?

a.

Noise

b.

Excessive BW

c.

Frame

d.

Flicker

103.

the brightest white?

a.

30% red, 59% green, 11% blue

b.

33% red, 33% green, 33% blue

c.

50% red, 28% green, 22% blue

d.

58% red, 20% green, 22% blue

104.

a.
b.

What percentage of the primary colors used in color TV are needed to produce

The color with the most luminance is

Red
Yellow

c.

Green

d.

Blue
105.

Suppose the signal from a color camera has R=0.8, G=0.4 and B=0.2, where 1

represents the maximum signal possible. Determine the value at the luminance signal
a.

0.498

b.

0.254

c.

0.1325

d.

1.4

106.

In the previous problem, calculate the chrominance signal

a.

0.305

b.

0.304

c.

0.498

d.

0.022

107.

The three complementary colors are:

a.

White, yellow, cyan

b.

Black, white, gray

c.

Yellow, magenta, cyan

d.

Violet, indigo, fushcia

108.

When the colors Magenta and Yellow are mixed the resultant color is:

a.

Red

b.

White

c.

Blue

d.

Green

109.

Which of the following consist of two of the three primary colors in television

signal? a) red, b) violet, c) yellow, and d) blue

a.

A and B

b.

B and C

c.

C and D

d.

A and D

110.

The studio camera produces a luminance signal that contains information about

a.

The musical content

b.

The speech content

c.

The brightness of the scene

d.

The color content of the scene

111.

Brightness variations of the picture information are in which signal?

a.

b.

c.

d.

112.

Which of the following is the color video signal transmitted as amplitude

modulation of the 3.58 MHz C signal with bandwidth of 0 to 1.3 MHz?

a.

I signal

b.

Q signal

c.

Y signal

d.

X signal

113.

Which of the following is the color video signal transmitted as amplitude

modulation of the 3.58 MHz C signal in quadrature with bandwidth of 0 to 0.5 MHz?

a.

I signal

b.

Q signal

c.

Y signal

d.

Z signal

114.

The _____ affects the difference between black and white on the picture tube

and controls the gain of the video amplifier

a.

Brightness control

b.

Volume control

c.

Power control

d.

Contrast control

115.

Which of the following is not a requirement for a color TV signal?

a.

compatibility with b lack and white receivers

b.

Within 6 MHz bandwidth

c.

Simulate a wide variety of colors

d.

Functional with baron super antenna

116.

How many electron beams actually leave the electron gun of a single-gun color

CRT?
a.

b.

c.

d.

1/3

117.

What is the difference between the sound carrier and color subcarrier

frequencies?
a.

1.25 MHz

b.

3.58 MHz

c.

4.5 MHz

d.

0.92 MHz

118.

What does aspect ratio mean?

a.

Ratio of the screen width to its height

b.

Ratio of the screen height to its width

c.

Ratio of the screen diagonal to its width

d.

Ratio of the screen diagonal to its height

119.

What is the aspect ratio for HDTV system?

a.

4/3

b.

9/7

c.

19/6

d.

16/9

120.

The signal that will give the exact color wavelength is _____.

a.

Hue

b.

Saturation

c.

Carrier

d.

Monochrome

121.

Which of the following represents the intensity of a given color?

a.

Hue

b.

Saturation

c.

Carrier

d.

Monochrome

122.

The _____ ensures that the electron beam will strike the correct phosphor dot

on the TV screen.
a.

Coating

b.

Aperture Mask

c.

Diplexer

d.

Duplexer

123.

In a TV receiver, what is the horizontal signal frequency?

a.

30 Hz

b.

60 Hz

c.

15750 Hz

d.

157625 Hz

124.

In a TV receiver, what is the vertical signal frequency?

a.

30 Hz

b.

60 Hz

c.

15750 Hz

d.

157625 Hz

125.

What scheme is employed to cause the electron beam in the TV receiver and

the electron beam in the studio camera to track identically?

a.

Interlacing

b.

NTSC

c.

Interleaving

d.

Transmission of sync pulses

126.

Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during

a.

Horizontal blanking

b.

Vertical blanking

c.

The serrations

d.

Equalizing intervals

127.

What is the return of the electron beam in a CRT from right to left or from bottom

to top?
a.

Relay

b.

Flyback

c.

Utilization

d.

Resolution

128.

What is the North American TV standard video?

a.

PAL

b.

SECAM

c.

NTSC

d.

FCC

129.

What is the maximum allowable frequency deviation in the audio section of a TV

signal for PAL/SECAM?

a.

25 kHz

b.

50 kHz

c.

75 kHz

d.

100 kHz

130.

What is the frame frequency in the US TV system?

a.

30 Hz

b.

60 Hz

c.

15750 Hz

d.

157625 Hz

131.

What is the highest video frequency set by the FCC for commercial TV?

a.

4.2 MHz

b.

15 MHz

c.

6 MHz

d.

5.5 MHz

132.

What determines the maximum number of vertical picture elements?

a.

Number of frames per second

b.

Number of lines on the screen

c.

Number of pixels

d.

Number of fields per second

133.

How many horizontal lines are used to develop a TV raster?

a.

615

b.

525

c.

750

d.

15750

134.

The channel width in the U.S. TV system is :

a.

2 MHz

b.

6 MHz

c.

7 MHz

d.

8 MHz

135.

It is the popular TV camera designed with much smaller package and lower cost

than its earlier designs

a.

Image orthicon

b.

Iconoscope

c.

Vidicon

d.

Plumbicon

136.

In a composite video signal, what is the relationship between the amplitude of

the signal and the intensity of the electron beam in the receiver picture tube?
a.

The greater the amplitude the darker the picture

b.

The lower the amplitude the darker the picture

c.

The greater the amplitude the lighter the picture

d.

No effect

137.

If there are 625 lines per TV picture then the number of lines per field are:

a.

1250

b.

312.5

c.

625

d.

2500

138.

What is the process of placing the chrominance signal in the band space

between portions of the luminance signal?

a.

Interlacing

b.

Fitting

c.

Sneaking

d.

Interleaving

139.

How much time elapses between the start of one horizontal sync pulse and the

next?
a.

10.2 s

b.

63.5 s

c.

16.67 s

d.

100 s

140.

Which of the following frequencies is wrong?

a.

15,750 Hz for horizontal sync and scanning

b.

60 Hz for vertical sync and scanning

c.

31,500 Hz for the equalizing pulses and serrations in the vertical sync pulse

d.

31,500 Hz for the vertical scanning frequency

141.

The camera tube that uses selenium, arsenic and tellurium

a.

Plumbicon

b.

Vidicon

c.

Saticon

d.

Silicon Vidicon

142.

The components of composite video signal are:

a.

Chroma signal

b.

Blanking pulse

c.

Synchronizing pulse

d.

All of these

143.

What is the smallest amount of information that can be displayed on a television

screen?
a.

Blip

b.

Burst

c.

Pixel

d.

Bits

144.

It is the quality of the TV picture after imperfections

a.

Aspect ratio

b.

Utilization ratio

c.

A1

d.

Monochrome

145.

What section of a TV receiver determines the bandwidth and produces the most

signal gain?
a.

RF amplifier

b.

Audio amplifier

c.

IF amplifier

d.

Tuned circuit