Review Questions

REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. What is the sample for compressive

strength determination of a structural
concrete?
Answer: concrete cylinder sample
2. What is the test to determine the
consistency of concrete?
Answer: Slump test
3. What is the length required for RSB
sample for quality test?
Answer:
1.0
m/10,000kg/size/shipment
4. How many samples should be taken for
every 75 cu.m fresh concrete?
Answer: 1 set consist of 3-pcs
sample
5. What is the required size of test
specimen for G.I. sheets?
Answer: 3 pcs-60mm x 60mm in 1
sht/100shts
6. What kind of paint that has
reflectance or beads?
Answer: Reflectorized paint
7. What is that construction material that

has a property of being a dark brown to
black cementitious material in which the
predominating substance is bitumen?
Answer: asphalt
8. For how long or how many hours shall a
bituminous
prime
coat
be
left
undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours
9. What is the rate of application of
bituminous tack coat?
Answer: 0.2 to 0.7 L/sq. m
10. What is the penetration grade of blown
asphalt?
Answer: 0 to 30 penetration grade
11. What kind of sample is taken for
flexural test?
Answer: concrete beam sample
12. What are the tests needed for the 2.650
cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate Base
Course)?
Answer: CBR, abrasion, GPCD
13. How many grading tests are required

for a 3,200 cu.m selected borrow
topping (Item 104)?
Answer: 3 grading tests
14. As a materials Engineer, what will you
recommend if you find out that the
materials to be used as Item 200 if finer
than the required materials?
Answer: blend Item 200 with
coarser materials
15. What is the standard specification for LL
and PI of Item 201?
Answer: maximum of 25% and
maximum of 6% respectively
16. What is the CBR requirement for Item
201?
Answer: 80% maximum
17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken
plane joint of concrete pavement?
Answer: Blown Asphalt
18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH
Specification (Blue Book)?
Answer: Portland Cement Concrete
Pavement
19. What is the machine used for abrasion
test?
Answer: Los Angeles Abrasion
Machine
20. How to determine the degree of
compaction of Items 104, 200, & 201?
Answer: by Field Density Test
21. What is the formula in obtaining the
value of PI?
Answer: Liquid Limit minus Plastic
Limit
22. What are the other terms for sieve
analysis?
Answer: Grading Test, Particle Size
Distribution Test, Mechanical
Analysis
23. What is the degree of compaction of
the soil if the wet density is 2,200
kg/m3, with an actual moisture content
of 10.2% and a maximum dry density of
1,960 kg/m3?
Answer: 101.86% dry den = wet
den/mc+1 deg c =dd/mdd
24. How many concrete cores shall be

taken
for
one
(1) kilometer
concrete
pavement?
Answer: 5 holes/km/lane
25. What is the moisture content of the soil
having an original weight of 162.5
grams and an oven dried weight of
138.2 grams?
162.5-138.2/138.2
Answer: 17.58%
26. If the group index of a soil is high, what
indication does it mean?
Answer: the soil is clayey
27. As a Materials Engineer, how can you
determine that the sample placed in the
oven is already oven dried?
Answer: if the sample reaches its
constant weight
28. In oven drying a sample for test, what
temperature shall be maintained?
Answer: 110 5C
29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried
sample before weighing is advisable?
Answer: because it can affect its
weight
30.
What is the difference between

hygroscopic moisture content from
natural moisture content?
Answer: HYGROSCOPIC MOISTURE
CONTENT is the moisture content
of an air dried sample while
NATURAL MOISTURE CONTENT is
the moisture content of the original
sample from the field.
31. For how many bags of cement does a

10 kgs sample arepresents?
Answer: 2000 bags
32. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many
samples shall be submitted for Quality
Test?
Answer: 2 pcs 1 m sample
33. An admixture is being introduced to the
fresh concrete mixture for heavily
reinforced concrete structure using a
pump Crete to pump out the fresh
concrete mix, what admixture should it
be?
Answer: Super plasticizer
34. What is the use of blown asphalt?

Answer: as joint filler and water
proofing
35. What asphalt is commonly known as
hot asphalt or penetration grade
asphalt?
Answer: Asphalt Cement
36. How many days does the sample for
Immersion Compression Test be
soaked in water?
Answer: 4 days @ 50C
37. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is
for cement?
Answer:
Magnesium
Oxide,
Insoluble Residue, Loss on Ignition
38. Paint is composed of _____
Answer:
35%
vehicle,
pigment, 15% beads
50%
39. What is the size of tamping rod used in

tamping concrete sample?
Answer: 16 mm and 610 mm long
with hemispherical tip
40.
What is the temperature to be

maintained when curing sample after its
initial curing?
Answer: 23C 1.7C
41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready

for test. Temperature between 63F to
85F are permitted for a period not to
exceed _____ hours immediately prior
to test if free moisture is maintained on
the surface of the specimen at all times.
Answer: three (3)
42. The molds of specimen not to be
transported shall be removed after initial
curing of _____ hours and should be
cured
to
the
standard
curing
temperature of 73.4 F 3F
Answer: Twenty four (24)
43. High plasticity index means _____ of a
soil?
Answer:
high
degree
of
compressibility
44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and
plastic limit tests should pass to what
sieve?
Answer: No. 40 (0.425 mm)
45. What compaction rammer shall used if

the specs given for Moisture Density
Relation Test (MDR) is T 180?
Answer: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop
46. A bean mold measuring 6 x 6 x 20 is
to be used for sampling concrete, how
many blows/tamps per layer shall be
applied?
Answer:
60
blows/layer
if
21in=63blows
47. If asphalt mix having a weight of
3,020g and an aggregate weighing
2,865.98g, what is the % asphalt by
weight of mix?
Answer: 5.10%
48.
What is the material used

Bituminous Prime Coat?
Answer: Cut back asphalt
for
49. In Item 303, application of cover

aggregates shall be evenly spread over
the surface at the rate of approximately
_____?
Answer: 0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2
50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for
asphalt content to your answer in prob.
47, what is the acceptable range of
asphalt content?
Answer: 4.7% to 5.5%
51. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL
of 40% and GI of 0, what is the degree
of compaction for this kind of soil?
Answer:
95%
degree
of
compaction
52.
The minimum cement factor for

concrete Class A is 9 bags/cu.m, how
about for concrete Class B?
Answer: 8 bags/cu.m
53. Quality control testing in a DPWH

project is the responsibility of the_____?
Answer: Contractor
54. As Materials Engineer, when is the right
time to start sampling and testing
aggregates?
Answer: Once the source is
identified
55. The minimum compressive strength for
concrete Class P is 5,000 psi, what is
the minimum compressive strength for

concrete Class C?
Answer: 3,000 psi
56. The volume of concrete mixer per batch
shall not exceed the mixers nominal
capacity in cu.m as shown on the
manufacturers standard plate on the
mixer, except that an overload up to
_____ percent above the mixers
nominal capacity may be permitted
provided concrete test data for strength,
segregation, and uniform consistency
are satisfactory, and provided that no
spillage of concrete takes place.
Answer: Ten (10)
57. Where do we take additional cores
when the measurement of any core
taken from pavement is deficient in
thickness by more than 25 mm?
Answer: at no less than 5 meter
intervals parallel to the centerline
in each direction from the affected
location
58. Under what climatic condition do we
use lower penetration grade or hard
asphalt?
Answer: hot climate (cold climate
higher penetration grade or soft
asphalt)
59. What is the basis for the acceptance or
rejection of any construction material?
Answer:
Materials
test
results/reports
60. Penetration test is for asphalt: cement
is to _____?
Answer: consistency
61. Slump test is a very important test in
fresh concrete to determine _____?
Answer: consistency of concrete
62. How many samples should be taken for
an asphalt mix for each full days
operation?
Answer: at least one but not to
exceed three samples
63. The thickness of asphalt core using a
caliper is based on how many
measurements?
Answer: four (4)
64. The thickness of concrete core using a

caliper is based on how many
measurements?
Answer: nine (9)
65. Failed samples do not necessarily mean
that the structure it represents is
defective, why?
Answer: may be the sampling is
incorrect
66. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4
concrete mix. In a one bagger mixer,
which of the following amount of water
is most likely required for the mix?
Answer: 20 liters
67. The spot test on asphalt is used to
determine ______.
Answer: overheating during the
process of manufacture
68. How many samples shall be submitted
for test if 315 pails of flat wall enamel
paint are to be used in the project?
Answer: four (4) pails
69. Aggregate Sub base course has a
volume of 5, 000 cu.m and to be laid in
a 15cm compacted depth. How many
samples shall be submitted for CBR test
and for sieve analysis?
Answer: 2 samples for CBR and 17
samples for sieve analysis
70. How many samples shall be submitted
for quality test if 60 tons of Bituminous
Prime Coat is to be used in the project?
Answer: Two (2) samples
71. How many compaction tests shall be
conducted for Item 201 having a volume
of 8,250 cu.m?
Answer: Six (6) compaction tests
72. What composed of Materials Quality
Control Monthly Reports?
Answer: Summary of field tests and
status of test
73. What is the required mixing of mortar
for Item 505 (Stone Masonry)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts
sand by volume with sufficient
water
74. What is the required mixing of mortar
for Item 500 (Pipe Culverts and Storm
Drains)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts

sand by volume with sufficient
water
75. Before the project starts, the materials
Engineer or the technician must have a
program on how many samples for each
item of work should be tested based on
the minimum testing requirements.
What program or report is this?
Answer: Quality Control Program
76. If sample splitter is not available for use
in reducing samples for test, what is the
alternative way of reducing sample for
testing size?
Answer: apply quartering method
and get two opposite sides as
sample
77. The road will not be opened to traffic
until test specimens molded and cured
have attained the minimum strength
requirements. If such tests are not
conducted prior to the specified age the
pavement shall not be operated to
traffic until _____ days after the
concrete was placed.
Answer: Fourteen (14)
78. As the work progresses, the Materials
Engineer should know how many
sample has been submitted and tested
and how many samples are to be
submitted, in other words the ME must
refer to what report so that he/she may
be updated on the balance and on file
quality test of the construction materials
being used in the project?
Answer: Status of Test
79. It is the minimum moisture content at
which the soil can be molded without
breaking or crumbling up to 1/8 (3.2
mm).
Answer: Plastic Limit
80. The _____ is expressed as the moisture
content corresponding to 25 blows.
Answer: Liquid Limit
81. The concrete has been tested for
consistency by the use of a slump cone
with base and tamping rod. After the
test, the height of concrete measured is
178 mm. what is the slump of the
concrete?
Answer: 127 mm
82. What is the rate of revolution per

minute of an abrasion Machine used for
testing the mass percent of wear?
Answer: 30 33 rpm
83. If the design of concrete mix has the
following corrected batch weights:
cement = 40 kgs, fine aggregates = 65
kgs, coarse aggregate = 115 kgs, and
water = 15 liters. What is your actual
batch weights for 1 cu.m Class A
concrete?
Answer: 360 bags of cement; 585
kgs of fine aggregates; 1035 kgs
coarse aggregates; 130 liters water
84. After the soil has been tested in an
Abrasion Machine, the mass % of wear
computed is equal to 21%. If this
material is for Item 201, does it pass the
DPWH specs?
Answer: Yes, because the specs is
50% maximum
85.
Quality Control Assurance Report

should be submitted every _____?
Answer: week
86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer

is to see to it that all the construction
materials be tested:
Answer: before it is incorporated
into work
87. What is the maximum depth or roadway
embankment per horizontal layer in
loose measurement?
Answer:
200
mm
loose
measurement
88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for
quality test of concrete masonry?
Answer: 3 samples for compressive
strength and 3 samples for
absorption
89. Sample submitted for test should have
a tag bearing the name of the project,
the quantity represented, kind of
sample, original source, who sampled
and who submitted it, the date sampled
and date submitted and etc. What is the
common name of that tag for you as
Materials Engineer?
Answer: Sample Card
90. If course aggregate like embankment is
to be placed in layers, how many layers
should a 40 cm thick Aggregate Base

Course is placed?
Answer: Three (3)
91. The ME should always be alert of his
schedule with regards to the number of
days of a quality test that takes place.
Since not all construction materials can
be tested just for a day or even a week
so, what is the lead time should he
consider for a quality test of a cement
sample?
Answer: One (1) month
92.
CBR Sample for test has been

compacted but it should be soaked for
how many days before testing?
Answer: Four (4)
93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are

used for Soil Classification, what test
that its result be used in field density
test?
Answer:
Compaction
Test
or
Moisture Density Relation Test
94. Heavy rains occur the night before prior
to your scheduled field density test, are
you going to pursue your schedule?
Why?
Answer: No, because the moisture
content is high and can affect the
result
95. Checking the gradation of composite
aggregates and asphalt content of
asphalt mix can be done by what test?
Answer: Extraction Test
96. What is the device used in testing for
liquid limit test?
Answer: liquid limit device with
grooving tool
97. What apparatus is used in plastic limit
test?
Answer: glass plate
98. How long does a vibrator be inserted in
a concrete mix?
Answer: not to exceed 15 seconds
at 50 60 cm interval
99. Along the slope of high embankment
_____ is provided as an erosion control
measures and also to improve the
stability of the slope.
Answer: Berm
100. In soil and sub surface explorations

for flood control design of foundation
condition, a soil sample was taken for
field and laboratory tests. The test
required for soil was taken, except
Answer: specific gravity, abrasion,
water content, Atterberg Limits,
gradation, compaction, relative
density
101. Structure crossing above such covered
underground drainage conduit shall be
laid at least _____ above the top of the
conduit.
Answer: 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m
102. Class of stones for riprap ranging from
30 kgs to a maximum of 70 kgs with at
least 50% of the stones weighing more
than 50 kgs.
Answer: Class B
than 20 kgs.
Answer: Class A
than 80 kgs.
Answer: Class C
100 kgs to a maximum of 200 kgs with
at least 50% of the stones weighing
more than 1500 kgs.
Answer: Class D
106. The maximum size of stone for stone
masonry.
Answer: 150 mm
107. The maximum size of aggregate for
item 300.
Answer: 1 inch
108. Required maximum liquid limit for
Item 300.
Answer: 35%
109. Required plasticity index range on
Item 300.
Answer: 4% to 9%
110. Range of sand size.
Answer: 2.0 mm to 0.050 mm
111. The ratio of the volume of voids to

volume of solids.
Answer: void ratio
112. The ratio of the weight of water to the
weight of solids.
Answer: moisture content
113. Significance of grading test are, except
Answer:
Gives
particle
size
distribution,
measures
permeability, capillarity, measures
the potential cohesion of soil
114. Significance of plasticity index are,
except
Answer: indicates compressibility,
permeability, indicates the clay
fraction of a binder material,
measures the shearing resistance
of soil
115. Properties of concrete are, except
Answer:
workability,
strength,
durability, cracking
116. In roadway construction test on sub
grade, the following will determine the
economical thickness, except
Answer:
embankment,
base,
surfacing, sub-base
117. The relative consistency of a cohesive
soil in natural state.
Answer: Liquidity Index
118. In Atterberg limit, the following are
determined, except
Answer: shrinkage limit, liquid
limit, plastic limit, group index
119. Minimum time for removal of forms
and false works for centering under
girders, beams, frames and arches.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of
design strength 80%)
and false works for floor slabs.
and false works for walls.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of
and false works for columns.

and false works for side of beams and
all other vertical surfaces.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of
Answer: + 15 mm and 5 mm
134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of
air voids with range of _____.
Answer: 3% to 5 %
135. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be _____.
Answer: plain bars
124. A mass of solid reinforced concrete

cast around the head of a group of piles
to ensure that act as a unit to support
the imposed load.
Answer: Pile cap
136. Concrete beam sample when tested by

Third Point Method shall have a
flexural strength of _____ when tested
in 14 days.
Answer: 3.80 MPa
125. An embankment shall be compacted

layer by layer.
Answer: 150 mm
137. When the required thickness of Item

200 is more than 150 mm, the
aggregate sub base shall spread and
compacted in ____
` Answer: two or more layers
126. Class of concrete deposited in water.

Answer: Class Seal
127. Class of concrete used in all
superstructures and heavily reinforced
substructures. The important parts of
the structure included are slabs, beams,
girders, columns, arch ribs, box culverts,
reinforced abutments, retaining walls,
and reinforced footings.
Answer: Class A
128. Class of concrete used in footings,
pedestal, massive pier shafts, pipe
bedding and gravity walls, unreinforced
or w/ only a small amount of
reinforcement.
Answer: Class B
129. Class of concrete used in thin
reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast
piles, cribbing, and for filler in steel grid
floors.
Answer: Class C
130. Class of concrete used in
prestressed concrete structures and
members.
Answer: Class P
131. Height of dropping concrete to the
point of deposit.
Answer: 1.50 m
132. Reflectorized Thermoplastic Pavement
Markings. What Item ______?
Answer: Item 612
133. Permitted variation from the design
thickness of layer for Item 300.
138. Item 202 shall have a minimum

soaked CBR value of _____.
Answer: 80%
139. Permitted variation from
thickness of layer for Item 201.
Answer: 10 mm
design
140. Sieve designation standard (in mm)

for 0.425 mm to alternate US standard
Answer: No. 40
141. If slag is used as course aggregate for
Item 311, the minimum density is _____
Answer: 1,120 kg/m3
142. Minimum price allowed of contract for
deficiency in strength of concrete
specimens for PCCP which 10% to less
than 15%.
Answer: 70%
143. This joint is also called cold joint. It is
constructed
when
there
is
an
interruption of more than 30 minutes in
the concreting operation.
Answer: Transverse Construction
Joint
144. Minimum variation of the surface from
the testing edge of the straight edge
between contacts with the surface in
Item 310
Answer: 6.0 mm
145. Portland Cement Treated Plant Mix
Base Course (Item 206) after the
completion of the final rolling, the
surface will be treated with bituminous

curing seal, how much is the rate of
application?
Answer: 0.5 L/m2 to 1.0 L/m2
146. In Item 201, the volume required in
the project is 10,000 cu.m. The required
number of CBR test is _____
Answer: four (4)
147. Slump test of concrete determines the
following, except
Answer:
workability,
fluidity,
consistency, job density
148. The significance of liquid limit are the
ff., except
Answer: measures the shearing
resistance of soil, measures the
potential cohesion of soil, fineness
and shape of grain, Atterberg limits
149. In soil classification, 35% or less
passing No. 200 sieve are the ff., except
Answer: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4
150. To evaluate the performance quality of
a soil as a highway subgrade material.
Answer: Group Index
157. The liquid limit is determined in

accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 89
158.
The
required
compaction
embankment, layer by layer
Answer: 95%
of
159. The minimum compaction trial of

embankment.
Answer: 10 m wide by 50 m long
160. At least how many days in situ
density tests should be carried out for
each 500 m2 of each layer of
compacted fill?
Answer: three (3)
161. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200
Answer: 12%
162. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200
Answer: 35%
164. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for
aggregate
sub-base
course
is
determined in accordance with.
Answer: AASHTO T 96
151. If the paving of concrete pavement

will be done at the rate 200 ln.m, half
width per paving day, how many sets of
concrete beam samples shall be
required. Given: A = 115,000 sq.m,
width = 6.50 m, thickness = 230 mm
Answer: 353 sets
165. The required abrasion loss for Item

200
Answer: 50%
152. The required liquid limit for selected

borrow toppings.
Answer: 30%
167. The required soaked CBR

aggregate
sub-base
course
determined by
Answer: AASHTO T 193
153. The maximum plastic limit for selected

borrow toppings.
Answer: 6%
154. Soil is considered unsuitable material
when the liquid limit and plastic limit
exceeds
Answer:
80%
and
55%
respectively
155. Soil is considered unsuitable when the
material density is ______________.
Answer: 800 kg/cu.m or lower
156. The plasticity index is determined in
accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 90
166. The minimum CBR required for Item

200
Answer: 25%
for
is
168. Minimum required percent compaction

of each layer of aggregate sub-base
course.
Answer: 100%
169. In place density determination of
aggregate sub-base course material
shall be made in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 191
170. In some areas where the conventional
base course materials are scarce or non
available, the use _____ allowable
percent weathered limestone (anapog)
blended with crushed stones or gravel.
Answer: 40% (60%

stones or gravel)
crushed
172. Maximum required percent abrasion

loss for Item 202.
Answer: 45%
173. Maximum required mass percent shall
have at least one (1) fractured face of
Item 202.
Answer: 50%
174. Minimum required soaked CBR for
Item 202.
Answer: 80%
183. In Item 203, how much is the required

mass percent of lime to be added to the
soil aggregate?
Answer: 3% to 12%
184. Minimum soaked CBR for Item 203
Answer: 100%
185. Required percent compaction for
Item 203
Answer: 100%
186. Equipment to be used for initial rolling
Answer: Pneumatic tire roller
163. Maximum size of grading requirement

for Item 200
Answer: 2
187. Equipment to be used for final rolling

Answer: 3 wheel tandem type
steel wheel roller
171. Maximum size of aggregate for base

course material under grading B
Answer: 1 inch
188. The test on asphalt cement consisting

of heating the asphalt in an open cup
and passing a small test flame.
Answer: flash point
176. Maximum size of aggregate for Item

201 under grading A
Answer: 2
202 under grading A
Answer: 1 inch
202 under grading B.
Answer: 1 inch
178. This item consists of a foundation for
surface course composed of soil
aggregate, lime, water in proper
proportion,
road
mixed
and
constructed
on
a
prepared
subgrade/subbase.
Answer: Lime Stabilized Road Mix
Base Course (Item 203)
179. The required plasticity index for Item
203
Answer: 4% to 10%
180. Maximum required mass percent of
wear for the aggregate on Item 203
Answer: 50%
203 under grading A and B
Answer: 2
182. Item number for water?
Answer: Item 714
189. It is a manually operated device for

deriving a measurement of roughness
from the surface profile which may be
expressed in terms of International
Roughness Index.
Answer: Merlin Road Roughness
Measuring Device
190. It is used for the rapid in situ
measurement
of
the
structural
properties of existing pavement with
unbound granular properties.
Answer:
Dynamic
Cone
Penetrometer
191. What is the thinnest cut back
asphalt?
Answer: MC 3000
192. In the construction of bridges projects,
what is the method used to determine
the casting length of the regular piles?
Answer: Test Pitting
193. It is an equipment which is used to
measure differential deflection between
joints of a concrete pavement, to
determine the modulus of the existing
slabs for use in the design of an overlay,
and to determine the remaining life of
existing pavement.
Answer:
Falling
Deflectometer
Weight
194. What is the equipment used to

pinpoint rebars, conduits, pipes, nails
and other metals embedded in concrete
before cutting or drilling?
Answer: Rebar Locator
195. What is the instrument or equipment
used to measure for surface test of
concrete and asphalt pavements as
soon as the concrete has hardened
sufficiently or as soon as the asphalt mix
has been initially compacted?
Answer: 3 meter straight edge
196. What is the latest state of the art
equipment
consuming
radioactive
material which is commonly used in the
compaction control of earth and asphalt
road
construction
and
in
the
measurement of moisture content?
Answer: Nuclear Density Gauge
197. It is an instrument used to measure
pavement deflections resulting from
vehicle wheel loadings. The results of
the elastic deformation tests are used to
evaluate the structural condition of
roads, and to help in the design of road
strengthening measures and road
capacity improvement.
Answer: Benkelman Beam and
Deflection Logger
198. What is the instrument that is used for
examining the quality of rigid materials
such as rocks and concrete? This
instrument is a non destructive
portable instrument with dimensions of
110 mm x 180 mm x 160 mm and its
main uses includes the determination of
concrete strength (either in situ or pre
cast),also to determine the presence
of voids, cracks and other imperfections.
Answer: Pundit Ultrasonic Concrete
Tester
199. Soil stabilizing agent
Answer:
Lime for silty and
clayey soil
Cement for sandy
soil
200. Water content at which soil passes
from plastic to liquid state.
Answer: LIQUID LIMIT

from semi solid to plastic state.
Answer: PLASTIC LIMIT
from solid to semi solid.
Answer: SHRINKAGE LIMIT
203. Steel bars placed along longitudinal
joints to hold the adjoining slabs
together are called _____.
Answer: tie bars
204. The concrete pavement surface shows
high spots of 15 mm in a 3 m
straight edge. The concrete in the
area represented by these high spots
_____.
Answer: shall be removed and
replaced (but if high spots being
noted exceeds 3 mm but not
exceeding 12 mm, it shall be
ground down only.
205. The calibration of the Universal testing
machine is conducted _____
Answer: Once a year
206. What is the sampling requirement of
bituminous mixture?
Answer: 1 sample per 130 tonnes
207. What is the depth of the thermometer
inserted in the bituminous mixture?
Answer: 2
208. In the design of bituminous mix, the
design criteria for stability under the
Marshall Stability Method for heavy
traffic is ____
Answer: 1800 lbs
209. The stability criteria of the Marshall
Stability Method is the maximum load
resistance that a specimen will develop
at _____
Answer: 60
210.
Bituminous mix specimens are

compacted at how many blows at each
end for a heavy traffic design under
the Marshall Stability Method?
Answer: 75 blows
211. In a penetration test, if the

penetration
is 9. What is the grade of the asphalt?
Answer: 85 100
212. In case of scarcity or non availability

of Type I Portland cement, what type
of pozzolan shall be used?
Answer: Portland Pozzolan Cement
Type 1P
213. The required flexural strength of
concrete beam sample of Item 311
when tested by the midpoint method.
Answer: 4.50 MPa
214. The required forms to be used in
concrete pavement are _____.
Answer: Steel forms of an approved
section
215. Sowing of the weakened plane joints
shall be done usually at _____.
Answer: Within 24 hours
216. Removal of forms of concrete
pavement __________.
Answer: 24 hours
217. The required slump of concrete using
slip form method of paving is _____.
Answer: 1 inches
218. Deficiency in strength of concrete
specimen wherein no payment of
contract price allowed is _____.
Answer: 25% or more
219. What is the length of a lot of
pavement
when a single traffic lane is poured?
Answer: 1,000 ln.m
220. What is the length of a lot of
pavement when two lanes lane are
poured concurrently?
Answer: 500 ln.m
221. What is the required size of concrete
beam sample?
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm x 525
mm
222. What is the required number of set of

concrete beam specimens to be taken
from each 330 sq. m of pavement of
fraction thereof placed each day?
Answer: 1 set
223. What is the required compressive

strength that concrete piles be moved?
Answer:
80% of the designed 28 day
compressive strength
224. The required circular pin diameter
used to bend 10 20 mm reinforcing
steel. Answer: 6d (20 mm 25 mm
= 8d: 28 mm and above = 10d)
226. What is the slump of concrete Class A
deposited in water?
Answer: 10 to 20 cm
228. What item no. is Bituminous Surface
Treatment?
Answer: Item 304
229. What is the required tolerance for
bituminous material in job mix
formula for Item 310?
Answer: 0.4%
227. This item shall consist of preparing
and treating an aggregate base course
preparatory to the construction of a
bituminous surface course.
Answer: Prime Coat
230. This item consists of an application of
bituminous material with or without
the application of aggregate on
existing bituminous surface?
Answer: Seal Coat
239. This item shall consist of preparing
and bearing an existing bituminous or
cement
concrete
surface
with
bituminous materials preparatory to
the construction of bituminous surface
course.
Answer: Tack Coat
232. What is the size of the sample in Item
310 taken for each full days operation?
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm or
100mm
231. Job mix tolerance for temperature in
the mixture for Item 310.
Answer: 10C
233. What is the required temperature of
mix in item 310 when placed?
Answer: 107C
225. The mixing speed of the transit mixer

during batching.
Answer: 4 to 6 rpm
234. The required speed in rolling in Item
310.
Answer: 5 kph
235. It is the resulting difference in
elevation across a joint or crack.
Answer: faulting
236.
In core specimen asphalt mix

thickness determination, it shall have a
diameter of at least ______.
Answer: 100 mm
237. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy

of cement content shall be _____.
Answer: 1.0 mass %
238.
Minimum
thickness
measured
perpendicular to the slope using Class
D stones for riprap.
Answer: 800 mm
(Class A 300 mm; Class B 500 mm;
Class C 600 mm)
bituminous seal coat using asphalt
cement? Answer: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m2
bituminous seal coat using cut back
asphalt? Answer: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m2
242. What is the maximum tolerance of the
variation of the surface of Item 310
from the testing edge of the straight
edge between any two contacts with
the surface?
Answer: 6 mm
243. What is the minimum dry compressive
of Item 310? Answer: 1.40 MPa
244. What is the required Index of Retained
Strength of Item 310 when tested by
AASHTO T 65?
Answer: 70% minimum
245. Job mix tolerance in Item 310 for
grading, passing No. 4 and larger sieve.
Answer: 7
246. Job mix tolerance in Item 310 for
grading, passing No 8 to No. 100
(inclusive). Answer: 4
247. .Job mix tolerance in Item 310 for

grading, passing No. 200 sieve.
Answer: 2
248. The property of asphalt mix to resist
deformation from imposed load.
Answer: stability
249. The property of asphalt mix to resist
the detrimental effects of air, water,
temperature and traffic.
Answer: durability
250. The property of asphalt mix to
withstand repeated flexing caused by
the passage of wheel loads.
Answer: fatigue resistance
251. The property of asphalt mix to bend
slightly without cracking and to
conform to gradual settlements and
moments of the base and subgrade.
Answer: flexibility
252. The range of aggregates composition
in Item 310.
Answer: 92% to 95%
253. What is the test on asphalt in order to
determine the effect of water on the
cohesion of the mix?
Answer:
Immersion
Compression Test
254.
In temperate countries like the

Philippines, what is the most
commonly used grade of asphalt
cement?
Answer: 60 70 and 85 100
255. To determine the thickness _____ of

asphalt, Immersion Compression
Test is performed.
Answer: stability
256. Percent air voids will _____ as percent
asphalt increases in Marshall Stability.
Answer: decrease
257. To determine the temperature of
delivered asphalt mix, what apparatus is
used?
Answer: armored thermometer
258. Peat and muck soils are considered as:
Answer: highly organic soils
259. Why is it that a trial section is

conducted in sub base or base
course construction?
Answer: to check the suitability of
materials,
efficiency
of
the
equipment
used
and
the
construction method.
260. What does it mean when there is
bleeding in a newly paved asphalt road?
Answer: excessive asphalt content
prior to the application of asphalt mix?

Answer: tacky
270. The use of sea water in reinforced
concrete may _____
Answer: induce risk of corrosion in
reinforcing steel
or
261. A good subgrade soil should have the

following:
Answer: low liquid limit and low
plastic limit
less is considered _____

Answer: weak subgrade
272. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15%
or more is considered _____
Answer: very stable
262. Concrete samples may be tested at an

earlier stage in order to _____
Answer: determine the trend of its
strength development
263. What is the test criterion for reinforced
concrete pipe tested in a three edge
bearing test machine?
Answer: 0.3 mm crack
271. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2%
273. Subgrade other than those defined in

the two above categories is considered.
Answer: normal
of
274. What are the three (3) major groups

soil?
Answer: granular soil, fine grained
soil, organic soil
264. In testing concrete cylinder sample,

the applied load should be continuous
without shock at a constant rate within
the range of _____
Answer: 20 to 50 psi/second
(compression); 125
175 psi/second (flexural)
275. What is the significance of field density

test?
Answer: to determine the degree of
compaction of soil. It is also a
control
test
in
embankment
construction to ensure adequate
compaction.
265. Cement which has been in storage for

a long period of time and that there is
already doubt as to its quality should:
Answer: be retested prior to use
276. Weighing hot sample is not advisable

because it affects the accuracy of the
result. True or false?
Answer: true
266. It is a process of improving the

properties of soil to make it more
suitable for a particular purpose.
Answer: Stabilization
277. How to prepare or to come up with an

air dried sample?
Answer: air dry the sample under
the heat of the sun
267. Two tests are done in one lot sample.

The test differs from each other, third
test is taken. What will be this
test? Answer: referee test
278. If it is impossible to air dry the

sample under the heat of the sun,
what alternative should be used?
Answer: oven dry the sample @
60C
268. If no beam sample taken to determine

the strength of concrete pavement, is
it allowed in DPWH specs to use core
samples to determine the strength.
What is the required compressive
strength?
Answer: Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days
269. Tact coat must be at what condition
279. Sample for compaction test should

pass to what sieve size?
Answer: Method A & B use
sample passing No. 4
Method C & D use sample
passing inch
280. What is the difference between T 99
and T 180 compaction test method?

Answer: T 99 uses 2.5kg (5.5lbs)
rammer with a 12 drop while T
180 uses 4.54 kg (10lbs) rammer
with an 18 drop.
281. What is particle size analysis?
Answer: It is the determination of
particle size distribution in soils by
sieve, hydrometer or a combined
analysis
282. What kind of water shall be used in
laboratory test especially if it deals
with chemicals?
Answer: distilled water
283. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is
raised and allowed to drop sharply on
the base through a height of _____?
Answer: 10 mm
284. How many rotations per second will
the crank of a liquid limit be rotated?
Answer: 2 rps
285. In doing a plastic limit test, to what
will the soil thread begin to break?
Answer: 3.2 mm (1/8)
286. What is specific gravity?
Answer; It is used in a gravimetric
volumetric relationship in soils
(or defined as the ratio of the wt. in
air of an equal volume of water at a
stated temperature)
287. What is the approximate area for
density control strips?
Answer: 335 sq. m
288. What Item of work is embankment?
Answer: Item 104
289. What kind of material for Item 200?
Answer: Aggregate sub base
course
290. What is the required particle size for

selected borrow for toppings under
Item 104?
Answer: All particle size will pass
sieve 75 mm or 3 openings and
not more than 15 mass % will pass
0.075 mm. (AASHTO T 11)
291. What is the minimum degree of

compaction for Item 200 and 201?
Answer: 100%
292. What is the highest point in the
moisture density curve of the moisture
density relation test or compaction test?
Answer: Maximum dry density
(MDD) and Optimum moisture
content (OMC)
293. What is the required size of calibrated
sand used for field density test (FDT)?
Answer: Any clean, dry, free
flowing, uncemented sand passing
No. 10 and retained No. 200 sieve
294. What is the standard diameter of an
orifice of an FDT sand cone?
Answer: inch (12.7 mm)
295. What are the apparatus used in FDT?
Answer: sand cone, jug (at least 4
liters), guide plate, moisture cans,
calibrated sand, weighing scale,
oven with temperature control,
chisel or digging tool, plastic bags
and labeling materials (tag name)
296. How many hours does a fine
aggregate tested for specific gravity and
absorption be soaked in water?
Answer: 15 to 19 hours
297. How to determine if the fine aggregate
reaches the saturated dry condition?
Answer: It is determined by the use
of cone test for surface moisture. If
the molded shape of fine aggregate
slumps slightly, it indicates that it
has reached a surface dry condition
298. What are the tests required for
concrete aggregates?
Answer: Fine aggregate = grading,
specific gravity, absorption, dry
unit weight: Coarse aggregate =
grading,
specific
gravity,
absorption, dry unit weight and
abrasion. Note: Soundness test is
also performed as per request
299. What are the size or diameter and
weight of cast iron spheres used in
abrasion test?
Answer: Approximately 46.8 mm
and each weighing between 390 455
grams
300. What is the required total weight of

sample for abrasion test of coarse
aggregate, grading A with 12 as number
of spheres?
Answer: 5,000 grams 25 grams
Answer:
Individual = 3.45 MPa (500
psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) =
4.5 MPa (600 psi) minimum
301. What is significance of abrasion test?

Answer: It evaluates the structural
strength of coarse aggregate. It
gives an indication of quality as
determined by resistance to impact
and wear. It also determines
whether the aggregates will have
degradation
during
traffic
or
rolling.
310. What is the significance of testing

reinforcing steel bars?
Answer: To determine the yield
and tensile strength of the bar as
well as its elongation and is used
to classify the bars into grade.
302. What is the sieve used in sieving

materials for abrasion test?
Answer: No. 12 (1.70 mm)
303. At what age should a concrete beam
sample be tested for flexural test?
Answer: 14 days
304. How to compute the flexural strength
of concrete beam sample tested at third
point?
Answer:
R = PL
bd2
305. How to compute the flexural strength
of concrete beam sample tested at
center point?
Answer:
R = 3PL
2bd2
306. What is the size of the tamping rod
used is sampling concrete?
Answer: 16 mm and 610 mm long
with the tamping end rounded to a
hemispherical tip of the same as
the rod.
307. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if
subject to test, how many samples are
required?
Answer: 6 pcs/10,000 units (12 pcs
if more than 10,000 units)
308. What is the strength requirement for
load bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer:
Individual = 5.5 MPa
(800 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) =
6.9 MPa (1000 psi) minimum
309. What is the strength requirement for
non load bearing concrete masonry units?
311. What is the significance of bending

test for RSB?
Answer: To evaluate the ductile
properties of RSB
312.
What is the required testing

requirement for paints?
Answer: 1 can (gal or pail)/ 100
cans (gal or pail)
313. SS l or SS lh is what kind of

asphalt?
Answer: slow setting emulsified
asphalt
314. For how many hours or how long shall
a bituminous prime coat be left
undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours
315. What kind of asphalt is used as tack
coat?
Answer: cut back asphalt
316. One (1) set of concrete cylinder
sample shall be taken for every how
many pieces of RCCP?
Answer: 25 pieces
317. What is being determined in a core
sample from asphalt pavement?
Answer: thickness and density of
pavement
318. All records regarding quality control
such
as
accomplishment,
daily
activities, weather, etc. are recorded
in a _____
Answer: Materials logbook
319. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT)
is
an in situ test that measures what?
Answer: depth of soil layer
320. The main problem associated with

wrong practice of conveying concrete is
called _____
Answer: segregation
329. If concrete cylinder is not available for

a 300 pcs RCCP, how many pipes shall
be subjected to test?
Answer: 6 pcs RCCP
321. A one lane road with a pavement

width of 3.5 m and shoulder width of
0.5 m on each side of the pavement
was designed to have sub-base and
base courses with a combined
thickness of 300 mm. If the thickness
of the sub-base is 125 mm, the
spreading and compaction of the base
and sub-base courses shall be carried
out in?
Answer: three (3) layers over the
full width of 4.5 m
330. If there is a necessity to add water to

the concrete mix in order to increase its
workability (provided concrete does not
excced specified slump), how many
minutes after the initial time of mixing
does adding water be permitted?
Answer: not exceeding 45 minutes
and that water cement ratio is
not exceeded.
322. During the application of the first half

of the anticipated load a _____ rate of
loading shall be permitted?
Answer: higher
331. What are the two (2) types of bitumen

that are commonly used in the
bituminous mixture?
Answer:
TAR is a viscous liquid obtained
from the distillation of coal or
wood.
PETROLEUM ASPHALT are
the products of the distillation of
crude oil.
323. Quality of factory produced RCCP

may be best established through what?
Answer: Test of concrete pipe
samples
324. Soft and unstable soils were
encountered during the course of
subgrade preparation. If you were the
ME assigned to the project, what is the
most effective and cheaper method
that you would recommend to stabilize
the soil prior to the construction of the
sub base course?
Answer: geotextiles
325. How many times per layer should a
concrete specimen molded in a 6 x 6
x 21 beam mold be rodded?
Answer: 63 blows/layer
326. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be
discontinued whenever it begins to
produce
excessive
_______
or
_______. Answer: pulverizing of
the aggregate, displacement of the
mixture
327. In placing concrete, the required
temperature should be less than ____
Answer: 29C
328. How many concrete cylinder samples
is required for a 300 pcs RCCP?
Answer: 12 sets
332. What are the three (3) major

petroleum asphalts?
Answer: Asphalt cement, cut
back asphalt, emulsified asphalt
333. What are the solvents of cut back
asphalts?
Answer:
GASOLINE for rapid curing type
KEROSENE for medium curing type
DIESEL for slow curing type
334. Emulsified asphalts are either _____ or
_____.
Answer:
CATIONIC
EMULSION
works better with wet aggregates

and
in cold weather.
It is a positively charge electron.
ANIONIC
EMULSION
adheres better to aggregates
which have positive charge. It is
a negatively charge electron.
335. What is the bituminous material used
in Item 310?
Answer: asphalt cement
336. What greatly affects the service of
asphalt cement?
Answer: grade and quantity of
asphalt
337. What influences primarily the grade of
asphalt selected?
Answer: climatic condition
347. The compacted pavement shall have

a density equal to or greater than
_____
Answer: 95% of the laboratory
compacted density
338. How many weeks do the producer of

asphalt mix or the contractor shall
submit the job mix formula?
Answer: three (3) weeks
348. When will the traffic be permitted to

utilize the pavement?
Answer: when the pavement has
cooled
to
atmospheric
temperature
339. Who will approve the job mix

formula?
Answer: DPWH PE and ME
340. The job mix formula contains
provisions the following:
Answer:
a. grading of aggregates
b. percentage and type of
asphalt
c. temperature
of
aggregates and asphalt
d. temperature of mixture
upon delivery or time of
compaction
341. When tar is used, what is the
temperature that the mixture shall be
placed? Answer: 66C to 107C
342. When is the right time to compact in
order to attain the required density?
Answer: when the mixture is still
hot and workable
343. What is to be done in order to
determine the number of passes that
would attain the required density?
Answer: trial section
344. What needs to be controlled during
the mixing and compaction and is of
great significance in the strength of the
resulting pavement?
Answer: temperature
345. In Item 310, how is rolling be done?
Answer: It should begin from the
sides and proceed longitudinally
parallel towards the center line,
each trip overlapping one half the
rollers width.
346. After the final rolling, what will be
checked?
Answer: degree of compaction
349. How do we take sample from the

finish pavement?
Answer: by the use of core drill or
saw
350. What is the allowable slump of a
workable concrete if not vibrated?
Answer: 40 mm 75 mm
351. What is the allowable slump of a
workable concrete if vibrated?
Answer: 10 mm 40 mm
352. When concrete is mixed in a central
mixing plant, what is the time of
mixing?
Answer: not less than 50 seconds
or more than 90 seconds
353. In transporting concrete, what is the
time elapsed from the time water is
added to the mix until the concrete is
deposited in place at the site?
Answer: It shall not exceed 45
minutes if hauled in non
agitating trucks and 90 minutes if
hauled in truck mixers or agitators
354. How is concrete consolidated?
Answer: by the use of vibrator
inserted in the concrete vertically
355. If the lanes are concreted separately,
what kind of joint in a form of a
keyway is used?
Answer: longitudinal construction
joint
356. What kind of bar is placed
perpendicular to the joint stated in the
preceding problem?
Answer: deformed steel tie bars
357. What is the depth of the weaken
plane joint when sawed with a concrete
saw? Answer: not less than 50 mm
is
358. The width of the weaken plane joint

_____. Answer: not less than 6 mm
Answer: the placement of stone or

boulders and the ratio of cement
and fine sand
359. What shall be done if cracks appear

at or near the joint prior to the time of
sawing?
Answer: sawing shall be omitted
369. The ME of the contractor is directly

under the supervision of the _____?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the
DPWH
360. Tie bars shall not be coated or

painted with _____
Answer: asphalt or other materials
370. The requisites in transporting samples

of the laboratory is _____
Answer: Well packed in durable
containers to avoid damages in
transit, accompanied by a sample
card filled up in detail and duly
signed by the ME
361. What is the material that is used as a

load transfer device held in a position
parallel to the surface and center line
of the slab of pavement?
Answer: dowel
362. To protect dowels from corrosion and
to facilitate sliding in concrete, it shall
be coated with _____
Answer: thin film of bitumen
371. Who has the power to recommend

the acceptance or rejection of
construction materials for use in the
project based on test results?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the
DPWH
363. The surface of the pavement shall be

roughened by means of _____
Answer: brooming
372. It is a chemical composition of

asphalt that gives color and hardness.
Answer: asphaltene
364. What is the depth of corrugation

produced by brooming in the surface
of the pavement?
Answer: 1.5 mm
373. The mineral filler which is used in the

bituminous mix is passing sieve?
Answer: No. 200
365. The surface of a newly put concrete

when has sufficiently set shall be
cured for a period of _____
Answer: 72 hours
366. The curing of the pavement is done
by means of the following:
Answer:
a. by covering the concrete
with mats saturated with
water
b. by thoroughly wetting the
pavement
c. by ponding
d. by
applying
curing
compound
immediately
after finishing of the
surface
374. Cold mix asphalt is used in _____

Answer: pothole patching
375. VMA means
Answer:
Voids
Aggregates
in
Mineral
376. The compaction temperature in

molding
the
bituminous
mixture
specimen
Answer: 124C
377.
The
mixing
bituminous mix is
Answer: 163C
temperature
of
of
367. When is the right time to seal the

joints?
Answer: after the curing period or
before it is opened to traffic
378. The heating temperature

bituminous mix is
Answer: 121C - 188C
379. The heating temperature
aggregates ranges from
Answer: 177C - 191C
of
368. What is the difference between Item

504 and Item 505 (bluebook 95)?
380. The maximum absorption content of

CHB
Answer: 240 kg/m3

381. The maximum moisture content of
CHB
Answer: 45%
382. SPT means
Answer: Standard Penetration Test
383. A tube sampler is used in sampling
undisturbed sample
Answer: Shelby tube
384. Used in sealing undisturbed sample
Answer: wax
385. A tube sampler used in sampling
disturbed sample
Answer: split spoon sampler
386. It is a dynamic test used in the field
to obtain rapid empirical results which
can be used to estimate shear strength
and bearing capacity
Answer: Standard Penetration Test
387. A type of coring bit used in rock
coring
Answer: diamond bit
388. CQCA means
Answer: Certificate
Control
Assurance
weekly)
of Quality
(submitted
389. The specific gravity of asphalt ranges

from
Answer: 1.01 1.04
390. The type of electron present in rapid
curing emulsified asphalt?
Answer: cationic
391. How many group of three in situ
densities are required if the compacted
volume of embankment laid was
estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with a
thickness of 200 mm/layer?
Answer: fifteen (15)
392. The allowable % variation in mass of
deformed reinforcing steel is
Answer: 6% maximum under
nominal stress
393.
The
maximum
allowable
%
phosphorous content of a deformed
and plain billet steel bar is
Answer: 0.06%
394. Tensile and yield strengths of steel

bars?
Answer:
TENSILE STRENGTH YIELD POINT
GRADE 40
483
MPa
276 MPa
GRADE 60
621
MPa
414 MPa
GRADE 75
689
MPa
517 MPa
395. Plasticity index is an indication of
percent. Answer: clay content
396. The condition of the soil to be tested
in the laboratory compaction test is
Answer: air dried condition
397. The method in the determination of
density of soil in place
Answer: Sand cone method
398. Air dry sand used in the density
apparatus is passing
Answer: sieve No. 10 retained No.
200
399. Which of the following items does not
need CBR?
Answer:
a. subbase materials
b. surfacing materials
c. base course materials
400. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge
shall consist of cast iron spheres or
steel spheres.
Answer:
GRADING A 12 spheres
GRADING B 11 spheres
GRADING C 8 spheres
GRADING D 6 spheres
401. In truck mixing, the minimum number
of revolutions after all ingredients
including water is in the drum is
Answer: 100 rpm
402. A maximum time of _____ shall be
permitted for wet mixing, lay down and
finishing when this method is used
(Item 206)
Answer: two (2) hours
403. Traffic shall be prohibited from
traveling at the speeds in excess of
_____ until the asphaltic material has
set. Answer: 40 kph
404. Mortar shall be used within _____

after its preparation.
Answer: 90 minutes
405. In placing concrete for slab, using
buggies, the correct method that
should be followed is
Answer:
concrete
should
be
dumped into the face of the
previously placed concrete.
406. There is a failure of flexural strength
in the pavement, if you are the ME of your
firm, what will you recommend?
Answer: conduct recoring
407. When loads have been arriving at the
spreader with the material peaked or
doomed up and a load suddenly appears in
which the material lies flat, it indicates
Answer: excessive asphalt
408. Where and when was the first use of
Portland cement?
Answer: Bellafontaine,Ohio (1893)
409. The curve in the logarithmic scale
where the 25th blow is projected in order
to determine the liquid limit of the soil.
Answer: Flow curve
410. Percentage of wear represents the
value of _____. Answer: abrasion loss
411. In the design of concrete mix, what is
the volume of water in the concrete mix
that produces a slump of 76.2 mm?
Answer: 24.7 liters
412. The standard fineness modulus of
sand is about _____. Answer: 2.75
413. The standard packaging weight of
cement. Answer: 40 kg/bag
414. It is an impervious membrane applied
to concrete pavement before its initial
setting that prevents rapid evaporation of
water from the mix.
Answer: curing compound
415. The type of paint that is used for
zone marking, traffic lanes and parking
spaces which is rapid drying, resistant to
abrasion and weather conditions and
possess improved visibility at night.
Answer: reflectorized paint
416. An ingredient in the paint that gives

reflection during night time.
Answer: glass beads
417. The paint which is used on concrete
or masonry units. Answer: Latex
418. The average loss in weight of three
specimens in zinc coating test.
Answer: Triple spot test
419. One the three specimens in the triple
spot test with lightest coating.
Answer: Single spot test
420. The type of paint that is used in wood
surfaces. It is a special type of paint made
with varnish as the vehicle.
Answer: Enamel
421. Group index is an empirical number
ranging from 0 to 20 under average
conditions of good drainage and adequate
compaction. The supporting value of a
material as subgrade may be assumed as
an inverse ratio to its group index, that is a
group index of zero indicates
Answer: good subgrade material
422. It determines the target density
which is constructed at the beginning of
the work on each course of material to be
compacted.
Answer: Control strips
423. The instrument used in placing
concrete in water in a compact mass in its
final position.
Answer: tremie with 250 mm
424. The maximum specific gravity of
thermoplastic paint. Answer: 2.15
425. The softening point of a thermoplastic
paint. Answer: 102.5C
426. The maximum
thermoplastic paint.
minutes
drying time of
Answer: 10
427. The rate of application of traffic paint.

Answer: 0.33 lit/m2
428. The maximum drying time of traffic
paint. Answer: 15 30 minutes
429. The minimum weight of sample for
reflectorized paint. Answer: 10 kg
430. The apparatus used to measure the

thickness or height of compacted
bituminous paving mixture.
Answer: vernier caliper
442. How many gradation ranges for Cold

Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there
in the blue book?
Answer: two (2)
431. It is used in calculating the unit

weight of the mixture of the degree of
compaction of the asphalt pavement.
Answer: Bulk specific gravity of
compacted
bituminous
mixtures
using
saturated
surface
dry
specimens.
443. The cored sample of asphalt

pavement is measured at
Answer: approximately quarter
points
432. The solvent in the extraction of

bitumen. Answer: gasoline
433. The percent of bitumen is computed
based on
Answer: mass of dry aggregates
434. The method used to determine the
grading of aggregate extracted from
bituminous mixture.
Answer: Mechanical analysis of
extracted aggregates
435. A device used to determine the
relative hardness of asphalt.
Answer: penetrometer
436. Volatization test which measures the
relative proportion of asphalt to oil.
Answer: Distillation
437. The measurement wherein
asphalt begins to melt.
Answer: Softening point
the
438. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS)

is computed through the formula
Answer:
(Wet
Stability/Dry
Stability) x 100%
439. The temperature requirement in initial
rolling for Item 310.
Answer: 200F to 225F
440. What is the color of asphalt when it is
overcooked?
Answer: yellowish brown
441. How many gradation ranges for Hot
Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there
in the blue book?
Answer: seven (7)
444. Too much asphalt in the bituminous

mixes causes
Answer: bleeding
445. What is the plasticity index of mineral
filler?
Answer: not greater than 4
446. The wearing away of pavement
surface caused by dislodging of aggregate
particle.
Answer: raveling
447. The interconnected cracks forming a
series of small blocks resembling an
alligators skin or chicken wire.
Answer: alligator cracking
448. It is prescribed in each project based
on estimated quantities and specifies the
kind and number of test of each item of
work.
Answer:
Minimum
Testing
Requirements
449. If the coarse aggregates are
subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate
soundness test, the weighted loss shall not
exceed
Answer: 10 mass %
450. If the fine aggregates are subjected
to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness
test, the weighted loss shall not exceed
Answer: 12 mass %
451. Additives used in concrete mixing.
Answer: admixtures
452. The test that determines the
resistance of aggregates to disintegration
by saturated solutions of sodium sulfate or
magnesium sulfate.
Answer: Soundness test
453. The design of concrete mix specified
in the bluebook is based on
Answer: Absolute Design Method
454. The initial setting time of Portland

cement is not less than
Answer: 45 minutes
455. The final setting time of Portland
cement
Answer: 10 hours
456. The standard sand used in testing the
mortar strength of Portland cement
Answer: Ottawa sand
457. The apparatus used to determine the
fineness of Portland cement by air
permeability
Answer: Blaine Air Permeability
Apparatus
458. A mixture of cement and water is
Answer: cement paste
459. The apparatus used to determine the
initial and final setting of Portland cement
in the laboratory.
Answer: Gillmore needle
460. The compressive strength of cement
mortar samples in 7 days is
Answer: 19.3 MPa
461. What is the appearance of the
molded cement paste which fails to meet
the autoclave?
Answer: crumbled
462. The critical number of days of curing
of concrete
Answer: first seven (7) days
463. It is equally as important as testing,
and the sampler shall use every precaution
to obtain samples that will show the nature
and condition of the materials which they
represent.
Answer: sampling
464. A soil sample received from the field
for subsequent tests by reducing
aggregations of particles into sizes which
will pass certain sieves.
Answer: disturbed samples
465. A procedure to recover relatively
undisturbed
soil
samples
suitable
laboratory tests of structural properties.
Answer: thin walled tube
sampling
467. The representative who will witness

the testing of materials in an accredited
laboratory.
Answer: government
468. Samples obtained from the field with
minimum disturbance by using any drilling
equipment that provides clean hole before
insertion of thin walled tubes that is,
both the natural density and moisture
content are preserved as much as
practicable.
Answer: undisturbed samples
469. The type of additive that is used to
delay the setting of fresh concrete.
Answer: retarder
470. The type of additive that is used to
attain
maximum
early
compressive
strength of concrete.
Answer: accelerator
471. The best enemy of construction.
Answer: water
472. The following are considered
unsuitable materials:
Answer:
a. Materials
containing
detrimental quantities of
organic materials such as
grass, roots and sewage
b. Highly organic soils such
as peat and muck
c. Soils with LL exceeding
80% and/or PL exceeding
55%
d. Soils
with
a
natural
moisture
content
exceeding 100%
e. Soils with very low natural
density, 800kg/m3
f. Soils that cannot be
properly compacted as
determined
by
the
engineer
473. What is the spec of mass % passing
in sieve No. 200, grading A for
aggregate base course?
Answer: 0 12%
474. The rate of application of special
curing agent
Answer: 4 liter per 14 sq. m
475. The method of measurement for
determining the depth of the river
channel.
Answer: sounding
476. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non

plastic, what Atterberg limit test can
be performed?
Answer: Liquid limit test
477. The minimum penetration of the
preservatives into the surface of timber is
Answer: 20mm
478. The engineer shall be notified at
least _____ before the treating
process of
timber.
Answer: 10 days
479. All grout shall pass through a screen
with a _____ maximum clear opening.
Answer: 2mm
480. The allowable height of fall in driving
piles to avoid injury using gravity
hammer.
Answer: 2.5m 3.5 (concrete)
4.5m (timber)
481. This increases the shearing strength
of aggregates of any size, shape and
gradation.
Answer: Compaction
482. In general, soils high value of this
and plasticity index are poor as
engineering materials.
Answer: liquid limit of fines
483. The recommended thickness of Hot
Mix asphalt overlay depending on the
expected traffic and the modulus of
the cracked and seated pavement
section.
Answer: 3 to 5
484. Stabilization and under sealing are
recommended if the mean deflection is
____ or the differential deflection is
____.
Answer: greater than 0.14,
greater than 0.002
485. Super plasticizers can reduce the
water content by _____ and increase
the 24 hour strength by _____.
Answer: 25% to 35%,
50% to 70%
486. Loose material is removed from all
joints, cracks and areas that have
previously patched by asphalt by
_____ with nominal _____ air

pressure.
Answer: power sweeping and air
blowing, 100 psi
487. Admixtures which can help
incorporate a controlled amount of air
on the form moist in concrete during
mixing without significantly altering
the setting or the rate of characteristic
of concrete.
Answer: air entraining admixtures
488. It is the activity of monitoring
planned scheduled against actual and
by speed task to make up for the
past or future loss of time.
Answer: Delivery control
489. Bowl shaped holes of various sizes
in the pavement surface.
` Answer: potholes
490. A form of plastic movement typified
by ripples (surface waves) across the
pavement.
Answer: corrugation
491. A form of plastic movement resulting
in localized bulging of the pavement.
Answer: shoving
492. Longitudinal surface depression in
the wheel paths.
Answer: rutting
492. It is the chief load bearing of
gravel road?
Answer: base or subbase course
493. The maximum distance of the
discharge point from the point of
deposit by pneumatic means.
Answer: 3 meters
494. It reduces the vertical compressive
stress induced by traffic in the
subbase and subgrade.
Answer: base course
495. Minimum separation of splices when
staggered.
Answer: 40 times bar
496. Consist of furnishing, placing and
finishing concrete in all structures
except pavements conforming to the
lines, grade and dimension.
Answer: Structural concrete
497. Minimum grouting pressure

bonding tendons.
Answer: 0.6984 MPa (100 psi)
of
Answer:
60m
spacing,
30m
intermediate along centerline
Depth = times base
width
498. The main cross member of Bailey

bridge that carry the roadway
structure.
Answer: transom
509. For ports and harbors projects:

Answer: 30m to 150m; 1m below
dredged bottom (12m minimum
for piers & wharves)
499. Coring sampling shall be done at

_____ interval by using split spoon
sampler and the depth needed is
_____.
Answer: one (1) meter,. 30m
510. For buildings (large area greater

than 930 m2):
Answer: 1 bore hole at each corner
of the structure and one on the
interior
(9m
below
lowest
foundation)
500. What is the diameter of split spoon

sampler?
Answer: 50mm
501. The uniform sampling run in core
drilling.
Answer: 1.50m length
502. The initial diameter of bore hole.
Answer: 76mm
503. What is the core bit diameter?
Answer: 67mm
504. The required spacing of bore holes
along centerline of roads for 300 VPD
traffic.
Answer:
250m
(1.5m
below
subgrade)
along centerline of roads for less than
300 VPD traffic.
Answer: 500m (along centerline)
along centerline for new road on
swampy or marshy ground.
Answer: 100m (2m along the
centerline of new road)
for bridge project
Answer:
1
deep
drill
for
each
abutment (30m run)
1 boring for each pier for
multi span (3m into the bed
rocks)
508. The required spacing and depth of
bore holes over foundation area of
dam.
511. For buildings less than 930 m2

Answer: two (2) boring
opposite corners
at
512. This reflector shall be the short type

having a minimum base area of
180mm x 140mm.
Answer: Flush Surface Reflector
513. Occurs on PCCP when the cutting of
weakened plane is delayed.
Answer: shrinkage cracking
514. What is the primary purpose in
establishing design criteria in design?
Answer: consistency
515. Positional tolerance of duct tubes
during casting operations.
Answer: 4mm
516. This method is usually adopted when
there is no visible evidence of termite
infestation.
Answer: Cordoning
517. This method is used when soil shows
termite infestation.
Answer: Drenching
518. Moisture content of rough lumber
should not exceed _____
Answer: 22%
519. Moisture content of dressed lumber
should not exceed _____
Answer: 14%
520. Design pressure of glass in glazed
position.
Answer: 244 kg/m2
521. The minimum pressure of testing

water tank.
Answer: 1,033.50 KPa
522. The minimum energy per blow of
diesel hammer on concrete/steel pile
at each stroke.
Answer: 831.48 kg/m
523. The minimum distance allowed for
the top portion of the splice below
ground line or seabed.
Answer: 2.5 meters
524. Consist of the excavation of river
beds, bottom of creeks or esteros and
other bodies of water.
Answer: dredging
525. The slope of batter piles
Answer: 1:6
526. Longitudinal gutter grades shall not
be flatter than ____
Answer: 0.12%
527. Allowance for sediments or debris
provided in design
Answer: 20%
534. Gabion dimensions are subject to

tolerance limit of _____ of the
manufactured state.
Answer: 3%
535. A field density result of 88% degree
of compaction obtained on the
subgrade indicates that
Answer:
compaction
of
the
subgrade fails the compaction
specs
and
needs
additional
compaction
536. Liquid limit is usually
Answer: greater than plastic limit
537. The blue book requires that the base
course be compacted at least
Answer: 100% modified proctor
538. As construction work progresses, you
noticed that the delivered materials
are different from the on tested
passed. If you are in doubt, what will
you do?
Answer: conduct immediate re
testing for verification
529. It requires wide excavation of total

extraction bearing capacity.
Answer: footing
539. Which of the following is not the

responsibility
of
the
Materials
Engineer?
Answer:
a. sampling of material
b. analysis of test result of
material
c. scheduling of delivery of
materials
d. design of concrete mix
530. This shall be conducted for buildings

three (3) storey and above.
Answer: Boring test
540. Measure of construction materials for

concrete structure shall be
Answer: volume
531. The minimum depth of CHB wall

footing of other minor structure on the
ground.
Answer: 700mm
541. The moisture density curve if

different from each soil. Which of the
ff statement is true?
Answer:
a. granular, well graded soil
generally have fairly high
maximum density at low
optimum moisture content
b. clay soil have lower densities
at OMC than granular, well
graded soil
c. granular, well graded soil
have greater densities than
uniform soil at OMC
d. none of the above
528. It is the digging of soil after the final

marking of the building outline has
been established on the ground.
Answer: Minor excavation
532. The minimum depth of footing on a

well compacted fill.
Answer: 100mm
533. Typically a plain or reinforced
concrete that is usually provided to
support a column.
Answer: Spread footing
Answer: 0.002124 m3
542. What should be done on the subbase

course with existing moisture content
of 10% higher than the optimum
moisture content?
Answer: dry out to reduce
moisture, spread to the required
thickness and compact
553. A material resulting from the

disintegration, grinding or crushing of
rock and which will pass 2.00mm sieve
and be retained on the 0.075mm sieve
Answer: sand
543. The DPWH specs provide _____

tolerance for asphalt pavement thickness
Answer: - 5mm
554. What is ASTM?

Answer: American
Testing & Materials
544. Geosynthetics may be used for

Answer: filtration or drainage,
reinforcement, erosion control
555. What is AASHTO?

Answer: American Association of
State Highway &
Transportation Officials
545. Which of the ff. is not included in

determining moisture content?
Answer:
a. beam balance
b. oven
c. moisture can
d. extruder
546. Steel bars are considered undersize
if
Answer: its nominal diameter as
determined by caliper doesnt
meet the manufactured size
547. Samples of aggregates for base
course when tested for quality the
requirements
except grading. What will you
recommend?
Answer: reprocess the materials
by blending
548. Concrete curing refers to
Answer:
procedure
done
maximize concrete strength
to
549. What is the most inferior type of soil

as to its engineering properties?
Answer: organic
550. What is the testing soil that involves
the application of energy and addition
of water as lubricant?
Answer:
Moisture
Density
relation test
551. The dividing line between gravel and
sand in concrete pavement is
Answer: No. 10
552. What is the volume of the mold
using 6 for AASHTO T 180 D
method in compaction test?
Society
for
556. DPWH thru Bureau of Research &

Standards has prepared a revised
laboratory
testing procedure manual, in order to
have be consistent with the latest
methods as prescribed under
Answer: ASTM & AASHTO
557. What is the category of contractor
that are required by DPWH to have
laboratory equipments or apparatus in
pre bidding qualifications?
Answer: large
558. What is the maximum size of
aggregate used in Item 104?
Answer: of the thickness
559. What kind of material that passes
.001mm sieve?
Answer: colloids
560. In soaking sample for CBR, the
water should at least _____ above the
specimen
Answer: 25mm
561. A natural or prepared mixture
consisting predominantly of stone,
gravel or sand and containing silt
clay materials
Answer: soil aggregates
562. A rock fragment usually rounded or
semi rounded with an average
dimension between 75mm 305mm
Answer: boulders
563. The process of cutting the branches
around a tree on the roadside to make
them denser and grow straight.
Answer: Pruning
564. The road near or abutting a bridge.

Answer: Approach
565. Settlement of right of way problems
should be done
Answer: before the construction
work
566. Material that has the greatest load
carrying capacity
Answer: sand and gravel
567. In hydrographic survey, sounding
joints should be made at a maximum
interval of
Answer: 20 meters
568. The use of geofabric material to
increase the strength of the subgrade
material for road construction is
classified as
Answer: Soil Reinforcement
Method
569. What to recommend if the surface
test of newly asphalted which showed
a lump
Answer: remove and replace the
pavement area with irregularity
570. Controlled Density Method in
embankment construction involves
Answer: Depositing and spreading
materials in layers of not more
than
225mm
depth,
loose
materials and extending to the
full width of the embankment
571. What type of cracks will appear on
concrete if it was not cured
immediately after final placement
especially during the first seven days?
Answer: Plastic shrinkage cracks
572. What is commonly used as curing
media for fresh concrete?
Answer: Liquid membrane forming
573. What is the work sequence on
cylinder specimen?
Answer:
cylinder
shall
be
prepared, cured and tested at the
specified date
574. When to remove the false work of
continuous structure?
Answer: when the 1st and 2nd
adjoining span on each side have
reached the specified strength
575. It is generally either a soft soil

composed largely of silt, clay, organic
deposit or loose sand having high void
rather and usually not high water
content
Answer: Weak Subgrade
576. What is Twelve Inch Layer Method
Embankment?
Answer: the material shall be
deposited and spread in layers
not more than 300 mm in depth
(12) loose measure, parallel to
the finished grade and extending
to the full width of the
embankment
577. What is Rock Embankment Method?
deposited on the fill and push
over the end of the fill by means
of bulldozer. This method is only
applicable to fill 1.2 m in depth.
It shall not be placed within 600
mm of the other grade
578. What is Hydraulic Fill Method

Embankment?
taken from borrow locations and
shall be deposited so as to form
the grade and cross section and
shall be thoroughly compacted
579. What is the principal factor used in
determining the thickness of the
pavement?
Answer: STRENGTH OF SUBGRADE
(deterioration due to frustration
move also be considered)
580. What is Placing and Removing
Surcharge Method Embankment?
Answer: were unsuitable material
is present under the embankment
corrective
work
consists
of
placing a surcharge constructed
to the full width of the road bed.
The surcharge shall remain in
place until the embankment has
reached stability or the required
settlement
581. What is Hydraulic Construction
Method Embankment?
Answer:
this
involves
the
introduction of water into the
embankment
consideration
to
accelerate
582. Mixture of fine grained aggregates,

bituminous binder and water for
surface sealing
Answer: slurry seal (bituminous
slurry)
583. What is the formula for percentage
of wear?
Answer:
Percentage of wear, % =
(orig wt. wt. retained @ sieve #
12) x 100
original wt.
584. Free bitumen on the surface of the
pavement which creates a shiny, glass
like reflecting surface that usually
becomes quite sticky
Answer: bleeding
585. Occurring usually at the transverse
cracks joint caused by excessive
expansion of the slabs during hot
weather
Answer: buckling
586. The splitting of concrete surface
material from the concrete pavement
Answer: crushing
587. The authorized hauling of materials
in excess of the free haul distance
Answer: Overhaul
588. If slurry (wet) lime is employed,
what is the typical slurry ratio?
Answer: 1 tonne lime : 2 cubic
meter of water
589. What is the amount of cement to be
added to the soil aggregates in Item 204?
Answer: 6 10 mass % of the dry
soil
590. Who is the father of Soil Mechanics?
Answer: Dr. Karl Terzhagi
591. What is quality?
Answer: It the degree of
excellence
592. What is control?
Answer: Is to regulate
593. What is quality control?
Answer: It
requirements
is
conformance
to
594. What is assurance?

Answer: it the degree of certainty
595. What are the two kinds of control
activities?
Answer: Inspection and Testing
596. What is the minimum distance of
water table from subgrade level?
Answer: 4 5 feet
597. What is the process of combining
two or more soil in suitable properties
to produce good grading on gravel,
sand, silt and clay?
Answer: Mechanic Stabilization
598. What is the common material
employed in stabilizing the moisture
content of soil or liquid and
hydroscope in nature? It is an aid in
the compaction process by slowing the
rate of evaporation of moisture from
the soil
Answer: Calcium chloride or rock
salt
599. When do clay and granular soils
become unstable?
Answer:
Clay
soil
becomes
unstable if moisture content
increases.
Granular
material
becomes unstable if it has dried
600. Why do liquid asphalt was
introduced in road construction aside
from asphalt cement?
Answer: It was introduced in order
to save heating costs and from
convenience in road mixing or
priming
601. The theory of concrete design mix is
to
Answer:
Optimize
aggregate
packing and optimizes properties
of cement mortar
602. To optimize the properties of the
cement mortar, one has to depend on
Answer: cement type, cement
content and water content
603. What type of cement is the Ordinary
Portland Cement (OPC)?
Answer: Type I
604. What type of cement is the Moderate

Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
Answer: Type II
605. What type of cement is the Rapid
Hardening Portland Cement?
Answer: Type III
606. What type of cement is the Low Heat
Portland Cement?
Answer: Type IV
607. What type of cement is the High
Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
Answer: Type V
617. Pozzolan cement is composed of a

raw material called
Answer: volcanic earth
618. The 75% compressive strength of
Portland cement is composed of
Answer: C3S and C2S
619. The 25% setting time of Portland
cement is controlled by
Answer: C3A and C4AF
620. When water is added to Portland
cement, _____ process is developed
Answer: hydration
608. What type of cement is the Portland

Blast Furnace Slag Cement?
Answer: Type 1S
621. Calcium Silicate Gel (CSH) and

lime [Ca(OH)2] are developed when
_____ is added to Portland cement
Answer: water
609. What type of cement is the Portland

Pozzolan Cement?
Answer: Type 1P
622. When Portland cement contains a

low C3A, it means
Answer: the setting time is larger
610. Type I is for general use such as

Answer: pavements & sidewalks,
buildings & bridges and tanks &
water pipes
623. Surplus lime [Ca(OH)2] in Portland

cement when mixed with water takes
care of the concretes
Answer: alkalinity
611. Type III cement is used for

Answer: early stripping of forms &
high early strength
624. Coarse aggregates can be taken

from
Answer: crushed rock, slags and
river gravel
612. Type IV is used for

Answer: massive structures such
as dams
613. Type V cement is used for
Answer: when sulphate content of
groundwater is very high
614. The inventor of Portland cement was
Answer: Joseph Aspdin
615. Portland cement is composed of
blended materials containing
Answer: calcium, alumina, iron
and silica
616. The simple recipe of Portland cement
is
Answer: 2 parts of crushed
limestone, 1 part clay/pulverized
shale, 1 pinch of iron ore, then 1
pinch of gypsum added to clinker
625. The water required for concrete mix

should be
Answer: fresh water
626. Sea water is deleterious to concrete
mix unless on admixture is added
because it contains
Answer: chloride
627. The entrapped air in concrete is
Answer: accidental and unwanted
628. The entrained air in concrete is
Answer: deliberate and desirable
629. We use aggregate in concrete as
Answer: filler materials in concrete
630. Aggregates are important in concrete
because they strongly influence:
Answer:
the
properties
of
concrete, its mix proportion and
its economy
631. Which of the following is not

deleterious material to concrete?
Answer:
a. calcium
b. chloride
c. coal
d. sulphate
632. Over sanded and under sanded
mixture require more water to be
workable, but
making it so will
only result to sacrifice in
Answer: strength
633. Concrete in the area represented by
the cores will be considered adequate
if the average strength of the cores is
equal to or at least _____ of the
specified strength, fc and no single
core is less than _____
Answer: 85% of fc, 75% of fc
634. Fine aggregate shall be rejected
when it fails in the _____ for organic
impurities
Answer: Colormatic Test
635. Portland cement may be/shall be
rejected if:
Answer: it has partially set, it
contains lumps of cake cement
and it comes from a discarded or
used bag
636. A measurement of the coarseness or
fineness of aggregates
Answer: fineness modulus
637. An excess water needed for
absorption of coarse aggregates
Answer: free water
638. What do you mean by SSD?
Answer: Saturated Surface Dry
639. A general term relating to the
character of a mix with respect to its
fluidity
Answer: consistency
640. More silt and clay content to fine
aggregates is
Answer: objectionable
641. Type A admixture is classified by
ASTM C494 as
Answer:
Water
reducing
admixture
642. For core specimens, each lot will be

divided into how many equal
segments?
Answer: five (5)
643. The unit pressure greater than which
progressive settlement occur leading
to failure
Answer: bearing capacity
644. The recommended thickness of hot
mixed asphalt overlay. Answer: 2
645. In the test to determine the moisture
content of samples, the beam balance
should be sensitive up to. Answer: 0.1g
646. If a sample can not be weighed
within the prescribed time after being
removed from the oven, it will placed
inside a
Answer: dessicator
647. Plastic and finely grain soil will
require at least how many hours to dry
at constant weight/mass
Answer: 4 hours
648. A sample may be cooled at room
humidity and must be weighed after it
has been removed from the oven
within
Answer: 1 hour
649. Drying the material sample in the
oven to constant weight at a prescribe
temperature; the drying time depends
on the kind of soil and size of sample.
A 25-gram sample of sandy material
will be dried in about
Answer: 2 hours
650. Test conducted for buildings 3
storeys and above
Answer: Boring Test
651. A test to determine the moisture
content of soil
Answer: calcium tri chloride
652. The aggregate crushing value of
strong aggregate is. Answer: low
653. The kind of asphalt used in
overlaying seated pavement
Answer: hot mix asphalt
654. The minimum width of paved
sidewalk. Answer: 1.5 m
655. The limit of water cement ratio of
concrete. Answer: 0.50 0.60
656. A cement which has a cementitious
effect. Answer: Portland cement
657. A concrete where compression is
induced before the application of
working load so that tension under
these loads is reduced
Answer: Pre stressing
658. What laboratory test is used in

determining the phosphorus content of
steel materials?
Answer: Phospho - molydate
659. What chemical property in the
composition of steel material that will
cause brittleness or cold shortness
when its content goes beyond 0.05%
to 0.10%. Answer: phosphorous
660. Base or sub base is extended beyond
each edge of proposed concrete pavement
Answer: 0.60 m
661. If you want to adjust the slump and
the air content, how do you it?
Answer:
10 mm slump = 2 kg/m3
from (water)
air entrapment = 3 kg/
m3 of average (water)
662. In non entrained concrete, what is
the range of % air entrained?
Answer: 3% - 0.2% (small bigger
aggregates)
663. In air entrained concrete, what is
the range of air entrained?
Answer: 8% - 3% (small bigger
aggregates)
664. For a constant water cement ratio,
what will happen if air content is involved?
Answer: the strength of concrete
is reduced
665. What will happen if you lower the
water cement ratio and maintaining
other values of its ingredients?
Answer: it will acquire strength
666. What is the mixing time of concrete?
Answer:
1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T
60 seconds
3
Above1.5 m capacity mixer,
T 90 seconds
667. When cement is in contact with moist
aggregates, batch made by mix will be
disallowed beyond ____
Answer: 1 hours
668. How many hours should an aggregate
be washed and stockpiled before
batching starts?
Answer: 12 hours prior to
batching shall be stockpiled or
binned for draining
669. When will truck mixing start?
Answer: mixing shall begin within
30 minutes upon cement has due
added
15
minutes
when
wet
aggregates
is
used,
as
32C
temperature is present
670. Concrete delivered by agitation of

truck mixer must be discharged within
1 hour or 250 revolutions of the drum
or Olader. Why?
Answer: to avoid over mixing and
initial setting of concrete
671. In final computation of concrete in
road to be paid, what is the maximum
size of pipe that is negligible in the
volume computation?
Answer: pipes with of 4 or less

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REVIEW QUESTIONS

1. What is the sample for compressive

7. What is that construction material that

13. How many grading tests are required

24. How many concrete cores shall be

What is the difference between

31. For how many bags of cement does a

34. What is the use of blown asphalt?

39. What is the size of tamping rod used in

What is the temperature to be

41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready

45. What compaction rammer shall used if

What is the material used

49. In Item 303, application of cover

The minimum cement factor for

53. Quality control testing in a DPWH

the minimum compressive strength for

64. The thickness of concrete core using a

Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts

82. What is the rate of revolution per

Quality Control Assurance Report

86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer

should a 40 cm thick Aggregate Base

CBR Sample for test has been

93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are

100. In soil and sub surface explorations

111. The ratio of the volume of voids to

Answer: 2 days (minimum % of

124. A mass of solid reinforced concrete

136. Concrete beam sample when tested by

125. An embankment shall be compacted

137. When the required thickness of Item

126. Class of concrete deposited in water.

138. Item 202 shall have a minimum

140. Sieve designation standard (in mm)

surface will be treated with bituminous

157. The liquid limit is determined in

159. The minimum compaction trial of

151. If the paving of concrete pavement

165. The required abrasion loss for Item

152. The required liquid limit for selected

167. The required soaked CBR

153. The maximum plastic limit for selected

166. The minimum CBR required for Item

168. Minimum required percent compaction

Answer: 40% (60%

172. Maximum required percent abrasion

183. In Item 203, how much is the required

163. Maximum size of grading requirement

187. Equipment to be used for final rolling

171. Maximum size of aggregate for base

188. The test on asphalt cement consisting

176. Maximum size of aggregate for Item

189. It is a manually operated device for

194. What is the equipment used to

201. Water content at which soil passes

Bituminous mix specimens are

211. In a penetration test, if the

212. In case of scarcity or non availability

222. What is the required number of set of

223. What is the required compressive

225. The mixing speed of the transit mixer

In core specimen asphalt mix

237. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy