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GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No.

1569
VISION IAS ONLINE SYSTEM
www.visionias.in
1. With reference to Odisha school of architecture,
consider the following statements:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

1. In this school, the Shikhara, is vertical until


the top and then it suddenly curves sharply
inwards.
2. The ground plan of the main temple known
as jagamohana is almost square in shape.
3. Interior walls of the temples of this school
are lavishly decorated but exterior walls are
plain.
4. There is extensive use of stone pillars in the
temples of this school.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. class="Body">Which of the above is/are not a


genre of Hindustani music?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Dhamar
Khyal
Sadra
Thumri

Select the correct answer using the code given


below

(c) 3 and 4 only


(a)1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. v>With reference to Chola Kingdom of South
India, consider the following statements:

(c) 3 and 4 only


(d) None of the above

1. It was situated between the Pennar and the


Velar rivers.
2. Their chief center of political power was at
Uraiyur.
3. One of the main sources of their wealth was
trade in cotton cloth.
4. Romans set up two regiments at Muziris in
their kingdom.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

5. With reference to Harrapan Civilization, consider


the following statements:
1. Harrapan people buried their dead under the
floor of their house in north-south position.
2. Harrapan people in Gujarat produced rice
and domesticated elephants.
3. Harrapan people knew the use of spoked
wheel.
4. Unlike Mesopotamia, no temples have been
found at any Harrapan site.

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 4 only

Which of the statements given above is/are


incorrect?

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(a) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only


(b) 1 and 4 only
3. Consider following statements regarding rock
painting of Bhimbetka:
1. The paintings are linear representations of
huge animal figures besides stick-like human
figures.
2. Hunting scenes predominate in paintings
depicting people hunting in groups, armed
with barbed spears.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?

(c) 3 and 4 only


(d) 2 and 3only

6. class="Body" style="text-align: justify;" data-mcestyle="text-align: justify;">Buddhism spread to a


very large part of the world including China and
Japan, but declined in its place of origin- India.
Consider the following statements:

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1569


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1. Hostility of Brahmins towards Buddhism and
revival of Brahminical Philosophy.
2. Attacks by Turkish rulers from north west.
3. Admission of women in monasteries
accompanied with lavish lifestyle of monks.
4. Extreme asceticism practiced and
popularized by it was tough to follow.

about Indo-Islamic architecture?


(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only

Which of the above is/are reason(s) for the decline of


Buddhism in India?

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(a) 1 and 3 only

9. class="Body">The Natya Shastra mentions many


regional varieties, such as the south-eastern style
known as the Odhra Magadha which can be
identified as the earliest precursor of present day?

(b) 1 and 4 only


(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(a) Mohiniyattam
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) Bihu
7. class="Body">Nalanda was the most famous
centre of Buddhism. It maintained a great Buddhist
university meant for Buddhist monks. Which of the
following statement about it is/are incorrect?
1. They were taught Buddhist philosophy of all
schools - Mahayana, Hinayana and
Vajrayana.
2. It flourished the most during Harshas reign.
3. Financially it was supported by revenues
from the villages than Kings grace.
4. Secular subjects were also taught in the
school of religious origin.
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) Both Odissi and Bharatnatyam


(d) Odissi

10. class="Body">In the context of cultural history


of India an important aspect of dance, Kalasams is
famous. Which of the following statements best
describes this aspect of dance?
(a) It is a pure dance sequences where the actor is
at great liberty to express himself and display his
skills.
(b) Special type of ornaments worn by the artists
that are generally made of a light weight wood.

(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only

(c) It refers to that part of the performance when the


characters get an opportunity to demonstrate their
excellence in abhinaya.

(d) 1, 3 and 4

8. class="Default">Arrival of Muslim rulers


influenced almost all aspects of culture but its
impact on prevailing architecture is the most
significant. Consider the following statements in this
regard:
1. The distinctive features of Indo-Islamic
architecture were the dome, minarets, arch
and the vault.
2. Pietra dura is an important feature of IndoIslamic architecture.
3. Arabesque designs were prominent in IndoIslamic architecture.
4. Indo-Islamic architecture depicted images of
humans, birds and animals extensively in
wall paintings in their monuments.
What of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect

(d) It refers to the framework for the "margi" (panIndian classical) productions which are supposed to
spiritually enlighten the spectators, as opposed to
the "desi" productions which can only entertain the
spectators.

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(c) 3 only
11. What was the reason for emergence of the
Nehru Report?
(a) it came as a response to the appointment of
Simon Commission.
(b) it came as a reaction to the defeat of the Public
Safety Bill in 1928 in the Central
Legislative Assembly.
(c) it was brought to popularize the adoption of '
Purna Swaraj' at the Lahore Congress Session.
(d) None of the above

12. With regard to the basic premise / values held


by the Theosophical Society, consider the following
statements:
1. It rejected the philosophy of
Upanishads samkhya, yoga and Vedanta
school of thought.
2. It accepted the Hindu beliefs of karma and
rebirth.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct?

(d) 1, 2 and 3

14. Consider following statements about Dr.


Ambedkar:
1. He was in favour of separate electorate for
the Depressed Classes.
2. He signed Poona Pact with Gandhiji which
provided for separate electorate for the
Depressed Classes .
3. Ambedkar opposed partition of India along
religious lines.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

15. Consider the following statements regarding the


Deccan riots of 1875:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. With regard to the development of Education in


British India, consider the following statements:
1. The first beginnings with respect to
education was laid out by the Charter Act of
1833, which directed the Company to
sanction one lakh rupees annually for
promoting oriental knowledge in the country.
2. Lord Macaulay's Minute of 1835, settled the
Orientalist-Anglicist controversy in favour of
Orientalists.
3. Wood's Despatch of 1854 asked the
Government of India to assume the
responsibility to spread education.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct
?

1. The unrest was caused due to the increase of


land revenue followed by bad harvests.
2. Peasants used the tool of social boycott of
outside moneylenders.
3. The peasants seized and publicly burnt debt
bonds and deeds during the riots.
4. Mahalwari system was followed by British to
collect revenues from the cultivators of
agricultural land in Deccan region during
1870s.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 , 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

16. Consider the following statements land revenue


settlement system during British period:

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only

1. According to the Zamindari system of


revenue settlement, Zamindars had the right
to collect revenues from peasants but

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1569


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peasants retained the ownership of land.
2. As per the Ryotwari system of revenue
settlement, land ownership was vested with
village committees and the government
directly collected the revenue from Peasants.
3. In the Mahalwari system, the village
committee was responsible for tax collection
and the land ownership was vested with the
village community.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct?

(b) 3 and 4 only


(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d)

1, 2, 3 and 4

19. After sudden withdrawal of Non-cooperation


movement Swarajists wanted to join legislative
councils because
(a) They were feared that if they dont join
legislative councils their political career will vanish.

(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only

(b) They wanted to expose the weakness of


legislative councils and use councils for political
struggle.

(c) 1 and 3 only


(d) 2 and 3 only

(c) Work in legislative councils will help in


constructive work like promotion of Khadi, spread of
education, removal of untouchability.

17. Consider the following statements regarding the


Ilbert Bill:

(d) No-changers allowed them to make a new party


within the congress.

1. The bill aimed to curtail rights of Indian


magistrate to try Europeans.
2. The Indian National Congress effectively
protested against the passage of bill.
3. The bill was passed during the tenure of
viceroy Lord Lytton.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only

20. Consider the following statements regarding


Ground Source Heat Pumps (GSHP):
1. It harvests heat released from molten rock
systems.
2. It uses the earth as heat source in winter or
heat sink in summer.
3. It works on the principles of refrigeration
cycle.
4. In India, it is effective only in Himalayan
climate zone.

(b) 2 and 3 only


Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) None of the above
(b) 2 and 3 only
18. With respect to Nehru report 1928 consider the
following statements:

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only


(d) 1 and 4 only

1. Muslim league participated in framing Nehru


report.
2. Nehru report accepted separate electorate
on the basis of religion.
3. Nehru report recommended for fundamental
rights which included Universal Adult
Suffrage.
4. Nehru report demanded for complete
independence.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only

21. Which of the following statements is/are correct


regarding Kheda Satyagraha of 1918?
1. The demand of the Satyagraha was to
reduce the untimely increase of land
revenue.
2. Gandhiji undertook fast unto death to
support the Satyagraha.
3. The government finally agreed to the
demands and reduced the land revenues.
Select the correct answer using the codes given

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below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only

2. Central Customs Duty


3. Corporation Tax
4. State Entertainment Tax
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.

(c) 2 and 3 only


(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) None of the above
(b) 2 and 3 only
22. Consider the following statements regarding
Kharai Camel found in India:

(c) 1 and 4 only


(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

1. It is found in Rajasthan and some parts of


Haryana .
2. It is an eco-tonal breed which can survive in
both dry as well as coastal ecosystem.
3. They can feed on saline trees and shrubs.
4. They can swim in deep waters.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

25. Consider the following statements regarding


Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD):
In positive IOD ocean water off the Sumatra coast
becomes colder than normal.
The IOD is the difference in sea surface temperature
between the Arabian Sea and the eastern Indian
Ocean south of Indonesia.
3. An IOD can counter or worsen an El Ninos impact
on the monsoon.

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

23. Consider the following statements regarding


species diversity:
1. The number of fungi species in the world is
more than the combined total of the species
of fishes, amphibians, reptiles and mammals.
2. The share of animals in recorded species is
almost two fold higher than plants.
3. Insects are most species rich taxonomic
group in the biosphere.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

26. Which of the given ocean currents is/are cold


currents?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Labrador Current
Canary Current
Oyashio Current
Peru Current
Agulhas Current

Select the correct answer using the code given


below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

24. Which of the following taxes does the proposed


Goods and Services Tax intend to subsume :1. Central Excise Duty

27. Consider the following statements about


Geostrophic Winds:
1. They blow under the influence of both the

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1569


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pressure gradient force and Coriolis force.
2. These winds are free from the influence of
ground friction.
3. They flows perpendicular to the isobars.
4. These types of air flow are possible only at
higher altitudes in the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

30. Consider the following statements in context of


Chief minister (CM) of a state in India:

(a) 1 and 3 only


(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

28. Consider the following four principal lifting


mechanisms which operate in the atmosphere:
1. Convergent lifting operates when air flows
toward an area of high pressure.
2. Convectional lifting operates when air is
stimulated by local surface heating.
3. Orographic lifting operates when air is forced
over a barrier such as a mountain range.
4. Frontal lifting operates when air is displaced
upward along the leading edges of
homogenous air masses.
Which one of the statement() given above is/are
correct?

1. The representation of peoples act, 1951 is


the source for enabling or barring a
candidate from becoming CM
2. According to the the RPA act, if the CM is
convicted, he/she cannot contest elections
for 6 years from the date of conviction.
3. Normally, a non-member can be CM for a
maximum of six months only if he/she is
eligible for contesting an election
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

31. Consider the following statements regarding


passage of bills in the parliament:

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c)

3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

29. Consider the following statements about the


Scheduled Areas under Fifth Schedule of the
Constitution.

1. Amendments to a bill a can be introduced at


the stage of second reading only and not first
or third.
2. It is mandatory for every bill to be referred to
a parliamentary committee during second
reading.
3. A private member cannot introduce a bill
without the prior permission of President.
4. Defeat of Money Bill leads to resignation of
the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. President is empowered to declare that


Parliaments law is not applicable to a
scheduled area of the state.
2. Governor is empowered to declare that state
legislatures law is not applicable to a
scheduled area of the state.
3. President can direct a state to establish a
body similar to Tribes Advisory Council even
if it does not have scheduled area.

(a) 1 and 3 only


(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only

32. Which of the statements given below is correct


regarding the High Altitude Venus Operational

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1569


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Concept (HAVOC) mission?
(a) It will be launched by NASA and it aims at
exploring the surface of Venus for its suitability to
establish human colonies.
(b) It will be launched by ESA (European Space
Agency) and it aims at exploring the atmosphere of
Venus for traces of methane as an indicator of life.
(c) It will be launched by NASA and it aims at
exploring the atmosphere of Venus, with the aim of
establishing human presence in a floating cloud city.

35. Which of the following is true regarding Digital


India Mission?
1. It seeks to bridge the digital divide by
providing access to Internet to all citizens
2. It aims at boosting electronics manufacturing
in the country
3. It has subsumed under it various schemes
like National e-Governance Plan, etc.
4. It seeks to train citizens for jobs in IT sector
Select the correct answer using codes given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only

(d) It is an ambitious mission planned by China to


send a rover on Venus with an aim to explore the
atmosphere of Venus for traces of methane as an
indicator of life.

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only


(c) 2 and 4 only

33. India is a signatory to The Convention on the


Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against
Women (CEDAW). Which of the following statement
is incorrect about this convention?
(a) States parties may take temporary special
measures, so that women can enjoy all their human
rights.
(b) Countries that have signed the Convention are
not legally bound to put its provisions into practice.
(c) Countries are committed to submit national
reports, at least every four years, on measures they
have taken.
(d) It was the pioneer human rights treaty which
affirmed the reproductive rights of women.

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

36. Which of the following events encouraged


increasing peasant movements in 1930s and
1940's?
1. Launching of civil disobedience movement.
2. The economic depression of 1930.
3. Formation of congress ministries in provinces
in 1937
4. Outbreak of second world war.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below.
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only

34. Taking evidences from the texts of vedic age,


we know about the polity, society and religion of that
age. Consider the following statements.
1. Post of king was hereditary and he enjoyed
unlimited power.
2. Widow remarriage was allowed and there is
no instance of child marriage.
3. The most prominent Gods were Indra and
Agni.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only


(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

37. Consider the following statements regarding


particulate matter
1. Particulate Matter can be produced by
internal reactions within air.
2. Particulate Matter generally increases in
concentration during windy conditions.
3. Fine particles can remain suspended in air
and can travel large distances.
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect?

(c) 3 only
(a) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 Only

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1569


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(c) 2 and 3 only

(b) It decreases with increase in latitudes.

(d) 1 only

(c) It increases till 45o latitude and then decreases.


(d) It increases with increase in latitude.

38. Which one of the following pairs is/are


incorrectly matched?
41. Why does Karnataka receive more rainfall than
Maharashtra and Kerala?

Nutrient
Diffciency in Plants
1. Nitrogen
cotton

Red Leaf of

2. Magnesium
disease in tobacco

Sand drown

3. Molybdenum
disease of cauliflower

Whiptail

4. Copper
citrus

1. Mountain topography in Karnataka is broader


than the narrow topography of the Ghats in
Maharashtra while Kerala has isolated
mountains in the Western Ghats
2. Mountains in Karnataka are steeply sloping,
compared to the gentle slopes of the Ghats
in Maharashtra and Kerala
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Dieback of

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

Select the correct answer using the code given


below

(c) Both 1 and 2

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) 1, 2, and 4 only


42. Consider the following types of soil erosion:
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) None of the above.

39. Consider the following soil forming processes:


1. Gleization is associated with humid cold midlatitude climates & coniferous vegetation.
2. Laterization is common to soils found in
tropical and subtropical environments.
3. Calcification is common in the
temperate grasslands.
4. Podsolization is associated with poor
drainage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.
2.
3.
4.

Gully erosion
wind erosion
Surface erosion
Sheet Erosion

Most of the erosion in Chambal valley is through


which type of soil erosion?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

40. Which of the following is correct regarding the


speed of rotation of Earth?

43. class="Standard">Consider the following


statements
1. River Jhelum forms the boundary between
India and Pakistan.
2. Patkai Bum forms the international boundary
between Nagaland and Myanmar.
3. Manipur hills forms the boundary between
Manipur and Myanmar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) It remains constant across all the latitudes.

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1569


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(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Imposing Import Quotas


Administrative Barriers
Direct Subsidies by Government
Export Subsidies
TRIPS agreement

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Which of the measures given above is/are used for


Protectionism?

44. Which of the following statements is/are correct


about Mediterranean vegetation?

(a) 2 and 4 only


(b) 1, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1,2,3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3,4 and 5

1. Plants are not xerophytic or drought


resistant.
2. There is absence of shade.
3. Grass is in abundance.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

45. With regard to WTO and its functioning, consider


the following statements:
1. Most Favored Nation (MFN) status to a
country by another country ensures
preferential tratment,lower tariffs and
removal of other trade barriers between the
two member countries.
2. Dispute settlement process in WTO is rule
based and transparent and ensures
compliance of verdict on member countries.
3. Special Safeguard Mechanism (SSM) is a tool
for protecting interest of farmers and poor
from volatility of international trade in
agricultural commodities.
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect?

47. Which of the measures given below is/are part


of Directive Principles mentioned in Indian
Constitution:
1. The minimum Wages Act, child labor
Prohibition Act, the Factories Act etc. are
statutory provisions to give effect to
Directive Principles.
2. The Maternity Benefit Act and the Equal
Remuneration Act are there to protect the
interest of Women workers.
3. Aggrieved person can approach court for
implementation of Directive Principles.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

48. Federal Character of Indian Polity is maintained


by which of the following powers of the Judiciary?
1. Power to adjudicate disputes between the
central and state government.
2. Power to issue writs
3. Power of judicial review
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 3 only


49. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
matched?
46. In the context of International Trade,
Protectionism is the economic policy of restricting
trade and economic relations between countries.
Consider the following with regard to Protectionism

Zero hour
Sabha

: First hour of sitting session of Lok

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1569


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Question hour : First hour of sitting session of Rajya
Sabha

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Filbuster
: Delay in vote over legislation due
to extension of debate

52. Consider the following statements with regards


to SONAR (Sound navigation and Ranging) and
RADAR (Radio detection and Ranging):

Select the correct answer using the codes given


below:

1. SONAR uses sound waves because sound


waves have high penetration in water
2. If radio waves are used instead of sound
waves, range of SONAR will decrease
3. If sound waves are used instead of radio
waves, range of RADAR will increase

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(d) 2 and 3 only
(a)
50. In the context of Ireland recently legalizing
same sex marriage,consider the following
statements with respect to Section 377 in India :
1. Section 377 was drafted by Macaulay in
1861.
2. It violates articles 14, 15 and 21 of the Indian
constitution.
3. State governments can amend Section 377
subject to the approval of president.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below.

1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only


(c)

1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

53. Which of the following International Conventions


deals with wildlife conservation?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Bonn Convention
World Heritage Convention
IUCN
CITES

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 only

Select the correct answer from the codes given


below:

(c) 3 only

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4 only


(c) 2 and 3 only

51. Which of the following statement/s regarding fiat


money is/are correct?
1. Currency notes are called fiat money
because they don't have intrinsic value like a
gold or silver coin.
2. They cannot be refused by any citizen of the
country for settlement of any kind of
transaction.
3. Cheques and Demand deposits are the
example of fiat money.
Select the correct answer using codes given below.

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

54. Consider the following statements regarding the


impact of market rate of interest:
1. Price of a bond is inversely related to the
market rate of interest.
2. Speculative demand for money is inversely
related to the market rate of interest.
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1569


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(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) 3 and 4 only


(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

55. Consider the following statements with respect


to Waste-to-energy technologies:
1. Biomethanation is more suitable for wet
biodegradable waste
2. Gasification is incomplete combustion of dry
waste and it produces CO and H2
3. Pyrolysis is costlier than Biomethanation
4. Incineration produces dioxins which are POPs
(Persistent Organic Pollutants)

58. Consider the following statements with regards


to Global Innovation Index (GII) 2014:
1. The theme of 2014 GII is Human factor in
innovation
2. Political environment and infrastructure are
one the parameters used by GII
3. India is ranked lowest among the BRICS
countries on GII

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
56. Which of the following statements reflects the
limitations of National Income Estimation in India?
1. Output of agriculture involved in barter trade
is not included in the estimation.
2. Non-availability of data about the income of
household enterprises.
3. Black money.
Select the correct answer using codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

57. In April 2015, a new central scheme, namely


Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS) was
unveiled as a part of five year plan for lifting Indias
exports to the mark of $900 billion by 2019-20. MEIS
is set to replace which of the following Schemes

59. v>With reference to Special National Investment


Fund (SNIF), consider the following statements-

1. Like National Investment Fund, SNIF is also


maintained outside the Consolidated Fund of
India.
2. SNIF is aimed only at loss making central
public sector enterprises (CPSEs).
3. SNIF is managed by independent
professional fund managers.
4. The funds realized from the sale of shares
would be used for the redevelopment of loss
making CPSEs.
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only

1. Focus Product Scheme (FPS)


2. Niryat Bandhu Scheme (NBS)
3. Vishesh Krishi Gramin Udhyog Yojana
(VKGUY)
4. Focus Market Scheme (FMS)

(c) 2 and 3 only


(d) 1 and 4 only
60. Which of the following is incorrect?

Select the correct answer using the code given


below

(a) Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratios


are inversely related to base rate

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only


(b) Repo rate is directly related to base rate
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Open market operations are related to selling of

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1569


VISION IAS ONLINE SYSTEM
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government bonds by RBI
(d) Cut in repo rate may or may not lead to
monetary transmission

cropped area and total production of tea in


the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only

61. style="text-align: justify;" data-mce-style="textalign: justify;">Consider the following statements:


1. El Nino Modoki causes warm moist conditions
in the Central Pacific and dry cold conditions
in Eastern and western pacific.
2. El Nino Modoki is conducive for formation of
cyclones in the Arabian Sea while El Nino in
the Bay of Bengal.
3. El Nino suppresses the cyclone formation in
the Arabian Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

64. Consider the following statements.


1. Pulses are the legume crops which increase
the natural fertility of soils through nitrogen
fixation.
2. In India Pulses are largely grown in humid
regions of east and north eastern regions.
3. Fruits and vegetables are majorly grown
during Rabi season in India.
4. Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
are the leading producers of flowers in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

62. Consider the following statements regarding jet


streams:

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only


(c) 1 and 4 only

1. The westerly jet stream steers the tropical


cyclone depressions into India.
2. Western disturbance is steered into India by
the westerly jet stream.
3. The easterly jet stream is responsible for
sudden outbreak of the monsoons in North
India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

65. Consider the following statements:


1. PangongTso lake in Ladakh is an example of
Tectonic lake.
2. Lonar Lake of Buldhana (Maharashtra) is an
example of crater lake.
3. Bhojtal lake of Bhopal is an example of man
made wetalnd.

(b) 2 and 3 only


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
63. Consider the following statements:
(d) 1 and 3 only
1. In India, the Dryland farming is considered
confined to the regions having annual rainfall
less than 25 cm.
2. In Tamil Nadu farmers grow three crops of
rice annually called aus, aman and boro.
3. Assam accounts for more than half of total

66. Consider the following statements regarding


water bodies :

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1569


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1. Bay is larger than a gulf.
2. Strait is a waterway that connects two larger
bodies of water which could be
either naturally or artificially formed.
3. Bays can exist as the estuary of a river.

public office.
2. It cant be issued against a minister.
3. It can be issued against a judge of a High
Court if he has acquired office through
corrupt means.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 Only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 Only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

67. Which of the following organisms can be


classified as autotrophes:

70. Which of the following types of silks are included


under Vanya silks?

1. Algae
2. Zooplankton
3. Cyanobacteria
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below

1.
2.
3.
4.

Tasar
Mulberry
Muga
Eri

Select the correct answer using the code given


below.

(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
68. Consider the following statements regarding the
process of speciation:
1. Speciation is a process by which new species
are formed.
2. Evolution is the mechanism by which
speciation is brought.
3. Number of species surviving in the world is
the outcome of speciation and extinction.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

71. Which of the following can be considered as


reasons behind the shifting of sugar industries from
north to south in India?
1. The production of sugarcane per hectare is
higher in south India.
2. The sucrose content is higher in the tropical
variety of sugarcane grown in south India.
3. The crushing season in south India is longer
than in north India.
4. Cheap and abundant supply of power is
available in south India.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.

(c) 1 and 2 only


(d) 1, 2 and 3

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only

69. Consider the following statements regarding the


Writ of Quo-Warranto issued by the Supreme Court:
1. It can be issued only in case of a substantive

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only


(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1569


VISION IAS ONLINE SYSTEM
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(a) 1, 3 and 5 only
72. Consider the following characteristics of a
National Park in India:
It is known for the floating decomposed plant
materials called Phumdis.

(b) 2, 3 and 5 only


(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

This is the natural habitat of endangered browantlered deer.


This is included under Ramsar site.
Which of the following National Park having all these
characteristics?
(a) Phawngpui National Park
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
(c) Nameri National Park
(d) Balphakram National Park

75. With respect to All India Services consider the


following statement:

1. All India Services are controlled jointly by


State and Centre.
2. New All India service may be created only
when Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by
majority of all members.
3. Creation of new All India Service affects
interests of states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only

73. Consider the following statements:


(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Press Trust of India is a statutory quasijudicial authority mandated by the
Parliament to improve the standards of
newspapers and the news agencies in India.
2. Press Council of India has the additional
responsibility of Advisory institution to
Election Commission and other government
institutions.
3. NAM News Network is the news exchange
arrangement of the news agencies belonging
to non-aligned movement countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only


(d) 1, 2 and 3

76. Consider the following statement regarding the


federal system in India
1. Zonal councils which aimed at promoting
cooperation among states are constitutional
bodies.
2. Chairman of Zonal councils is Prime Minister.
3. Governor of state is empowered to direct
that an act of parliament does not apply to a
schedule area.

(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
(b) 3 only
74. Which of the below mentioned initiatives are
primarily focused on increasing transparency and
efficiency into the processes of governance?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

SEVOTTAM
Shram Suvidha Portal
eBiz scheme
Sagarmala Project
Udaan Scheme

Selcet the correct answer from the codes given


below:

(c) 2 and 3 only


(d) 1 and 3 only

77. style="text-align: justify;" data-mce-style="textalign: justify;">With reference to globally threatened


species, which of the following statement is
incorrect?
(a) In the IUCNs Red List, term threatened includes
only Critically Endangered and Endangered species.

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1569


VISION IAS ONLINE SYSTEM
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(b) Between 2008 and 2014, there is almost 50%
increase in the number of threatened species in
India, on account of better research work and
deforestation.
(c) Under Save Our Species (SOS) initiative, the
focus is only on protecting the threatened species,
their habitat and communities who depend on them.
(d) Indian vulture, Jerdon's Courser, Red crowned
roofed turtle and Rameshwaram Parachute Spider
are some of the threatened species from India.

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

81. An outdoor iron railing rusts after several years.


The rust on the railing is composed of:(a) The elemental iron that has separated from the
railing as the result of temperature fluctuations.
(b) An oxide of iron produced during the chemical
reaction of the railing with the atmosphere.

78. Which of the following statement is correct?

(c) The product of broken chemical bonds between


the iron and oxygen
atoms that make up the railing.

(a) Generally a substance dissolved in a liquid


increases its freezing point.

(d) A reduced form of iron produced by the chemical


reaction of water in the atmosphere with the railing.

(b) Generally a substance dissolved in a liquid


decreases its freezing point.
(c) Generally a substance dissolved in a liquid
decreases its boiling point.
(d) Generally, dissolving a substance in a liquid has
no effect on its boiling and freezing points.

82. The sun appears to rise in the east and set in the
west because
(a) It is a natural phenomenon
(b) The earth rotates on its axis from east to west
(c) The earth rotates on its axis from west to east

79. Which of the following methods can be used for


removing permanent hardness of water :
1. Distillation
2. Adding sodium carbonate
3. Boiling
4. Adding caustic soda

(d) The revolution of the earth around the sun

Select the correct answer using the code given


below

(b) Less than that of distance covered by the body

83. The magnitude of the displacement of a body is


(a) Equal to that of the distance covered by the body

(c) Greater than the distance covered by the body


(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only


(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

80. A lubricant is a substance introduced to reduce


friction between moving surfaces. Which of the
following is/are used as a lubricant :
1.
2.
3.
4.

Tungsten Disulfide
Graphite
Silica
Iron Oxide

Select the correct answer using the code given


below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) None of these

84. v>Which of the following is correct regarding


Special Leave Petitions (SLP) filed in the Supreme
Court?
(a) A party aggrieved by the judgment of High Court
in criminal matters, has the right to file SLP in
Supreme Court.
(b) SLP is a discretionary power that lies with the
Supreme Court.
(c) SLP can be granted against any court or tribunal,
and not necessarily against a high court.
(d) This power of Supreme Court to grant special
leave to appeal falls under its original jurisdiction.

(c) 3 and 4 only


85. v> According to the Constitution, which of the

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1569


VISION IAS ONLINE SYSTEM
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following is/are true with regards to the appointment
as a Governor of a state?

1. He should be eligible to be elected as a


member of Lok Sabha.
2. He should have completed the age of 35
years.
3. While appointing the governor, the president
should consult the chief minister of the state
concerned.
4. He should not belong to the state in which he
is appointed as a governor.
Choose from the options given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

88. Consider the following policy initiatives by


Government of India:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Indira Gandhi Matritya Sahyog Yojana


SABLA Scheme
National Mission for Empowerment of Women
Nirbhaya Fund
Integrated Child Development Services

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

Which of the above steps is/are essentially useful for


economic empowerment and skill development of
Indian Women?

(d) 1 and 3 only

(a) 1 and 3 only

86. v>Consider the following statements with


respect to the provisions of the Citizenship
(Amendmend) Act, 2015:

(b) 2 and 3 only


(c) 2,3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

1. It provides for Overseas Citizens of India(OCI)


cardholders to be considered as Persons of
Indian Origin(PIO) cardholders.
2. Both OCI and PIO cardholders shall be
provided a life-long visa.
3. Any person who is/has been a citizen of
Pakistan or Bangladesh will be ineligible to
apply for citizenship under this Act.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

89. Consider the following statements:


1. The World Intellectual Property Organization
(WIPO) is the specialized agency of the
United Nations to promote the protection of
intellectual property.
2. In India, Department of Industrial Policy and
Promotion is concerned with legislation
related to Patents, Trade Marks, Designs and
Geographical Indications.
3. Compulsory Licensing is a safeguard
provided in the TRIPS agreement which
allows companies to bypass licensing and
other legislative requirements.
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect?
(a) 2 only

87. Consider the following statements:


(b) 3 only
1. Pyramid of Biomass and pyramid of Energy in
an ocean-ecosystem are always upright.
2. In process of leaching, water soluble
inorganic nutrients go down into the soil
horizon.
3. Montreal Protocol is a protocol under Vienna
Convention to mitigate harmful effects of
Global Warming.

(c) 2 and 3 only


(d) 1 and 3 only

90. Given below is a list of initiatives taken by


Government of India:

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1569


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1. One Rank One Pension scheme.
2. Atal Pension Yojana and PM Jeevan Jyoti Bima
Yojana
3. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
4. Mission Indradhanush
Which of the above schemes is/are the part of policy
initiative(s) to bring more citizens under the domain
of social security net?

(a) 1and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

(a) 2 only

93. Which one of the following is categorized as a


parasite in true sense?

(b) 2 and 3 only

(a) The cuckoo lays its egg in crow's nest.

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from


humans.

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only


(c) Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws
nourishment from the mother.
91. What are the reasons behind India's continued
dependence on imports to meet the requirement of
oilseeds?

(d) Head louse living on the human scalp as well as


laying eggs on human hair.

94. Consider the following statements.


1. Farmers prefer to grow food grains with
highly remunerative support prices
2. Most of the cultivation of oilseed crops
continues to be dependent on rainfall
3. Oils from the seeds of tree origin and rice
bran have remained unexploited
4. It is far cheaper to import oilseeds than to
cultivate the oilseed crops
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.

1. Wetlands have highest species diversity of all


ecosystems
2. Species diversity is minimum at the mouth of
the river during its course
Which of the above mentioned statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

(a) 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

92. Consider the following statements in relation to


Green House Gas emissions:
1. According to Greenhouse gas protocol (GHG
Protocol),carbon emissions are classified into
direct and indirect emissions.
2. Automobile emissions are bigger contributor
of Greenhouse gases than industrial gas
emission.
3. Methane is bigger contributor to Greenhouse
effect as compared to Carbon dioxide.

95. In relation to Foreign Direct Investment


(FDI),consider the following statements:
1. FDI increases access to market in domestic
country and also reduces cost of production
if the labor market is cheaper.
2. FDI offers a source of external capital and
increased revenue.
3. FDI exposes local governments and
businesses to new technologies and
management practices.
4. Remittances received from NRIs constitute
one of the important source of FDI in India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are


incorrect ?

(a) 2 and 3 only

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1569


VISION IAS ONLINE SYSTEM
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(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

3. Karnataka, Kerela, and Tamil Nadu are its


major producers.
4. Nearly three-fourths of its production is
exported.

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Determine the Crop.
96. Consider the following statements regarding
rural electrification in India :
1. Integration of feeders (rural households &
agricultural) is one of the component of Deen
Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana
(DDUGJY).
2. Central Electricity authority is the nodal
agency to operationalize DDUGJY.
3. More than 90% of villages have been
electrified till march 2014.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

(a) Tea
(b) Natural Rubber
(c) Coffee
(d) Sugarcane

99. Consider the following statements regarding


GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat
Assessment):
1. It is a rating tool to evaluate environmental
performance of a building which quantifies
aspect like waste generation, energy
consumption among others.
2. GRIHA was developed by United Nation
Environment Program.
3. Indira Paryavaran Bhavan, Indias first Net
Zero Building has the largest rooftop solarpowered panel in the country.

(c) 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
97. Consider the following statements about Soil
alkalinity:

(b) 2 and 3 only


(c) 1 and 3 only

1. It is associated with the presence of sodium


carbonates in the soil.
2. Over irrigation in canal-irrigated areas is the
prominent reason behind Soil Alkalinity.
3. Alkalinity problems are more pronounced in
Silty or Sandy soils as compared to Clay soils.
4. These types of soils can be reclaimed by
adding acidifying minerals like pyrite and
Gypsum.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.

(d) 1, 2 and 3

100. Which of the following is not a reason for


increase in forest cover of India as per Forest Survey
of India report 2014-15?
(a) Coppice growth
(b) Growth of commercial plantation
(c) Favourable soil and climatic conditions

(a) 1 and 3 only


(d) Afforestation
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

98. Consider the following statements:


1. It grows in a well-drained soil.
2. It requires warm climate and moderate
rainfall.

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Q.1

Q.36 a

Q.71 a

Q.2

Q.37 a

Q.72 a

Q.3

Q.38 a

Q.73 a

Q.4

Q.39 a

Q.74 a

Q.5

Q.40 a

Q.75 a

Q.6

Q.41 a

Q.76 a

Q.7

Q.42 a

Q.77 a

Q.8

Q.43 a

Q.78 a

Q.9

Q.44 a

Q.79 a

Q.10 a

Q.45 a

Q.80 a

Q.11 a

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Q.81 a

Q.12 a

Q.47 a

Q.82 a

Q.13 a

Q.48 a

Q.83 a

Q.14 a

Q.49 a

Q.84 a

Q.15 a

Q.50 a

Q.85 a

Q.16 a

Q.51 a

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Q.17 a

Q.52 a

Q.87 a

Q.18 a

Q.53 a

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Q.19 a

Q.54 a

Q.89 a

Q.20 a

Q.55 a

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Q.21 a

Q.56 a

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Q.22 a

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Q.23 a

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