Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
Non-Alpha Only
M.SC. INVESTMENTS
RISK MANAGEMENT
A00151
3 HOURS
ANSWER 3 QUESTIONS
ANSWER AT LEAST ONE QUESTION FROM EACH SECTION
ALL QUESTIONS CARRY EQUAL MARKS
CALCULATORS MAY BE USED IN THIS EXAMINATION PROVIDED THEY ARE NOT CAPABLE OF
BEING USED TO STORE ALPHABETICAL INFORMATION OTHER THAN HEXADECIMAL NUMBERS
07 02697
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A00151
Non-Alpha Only
SECTION A
1.
(33.3%)
a. Hedging using derivatives can be difficult. Discuss reasons why [35
marks]
this is so.
[30
marks]
2.
(33.3%)
a. Compare
and
contrast
the
Creditmetrics
and
the
KMV [40
marks]
b. Stress testing and back testing of models are important elements [35
of risk management. Explain why this is the case and provide marks]
illustrative example(s) where their application is critically
important.
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A00151
Non-Alpha Only
3.
(33.3%)
a. Discuss the characteristics of the sound risk management [45
system suggested by JP Morgan Investment Analytics. Give marks]
reasons for their importance.
b. Discuss the lessons for risk management that have been drawn [30
marks]
from the recent financial crisis.
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A00151
Non-Alpha Only
SECTION B
4.
(33.3%)
a. Suppose a US bank has a three-month forward contract with a
European bank to deliver 100 million Sterling for $150 million US
dollars. The current annualised three-month interest rate for the
US dollar is 2.00% and the corresponding rate for Sterling is
3.00%.
The daily standard deviations in per cent terms for the spot
exchange rate is 0.5, for the sterling interest rate is 0.06 and for
US dollar interest rate is 0.05. The following correlation matrix is
available.
Spot FX
Sterling
US$
Spot FX
0.10
0.15
Sterling
0.10
0.25
US $
0.15
0.25
i. Estimate the daily Value-at-Risk for the contract at the 99% [45
marks]
confidence level.
b. Discuss
the
strengths
and
[10
marks]
weakness
of
Value-at-Risk. [20
marks]
c. Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of the methods that might [25
marks]
be employed to estimate Value-at-Risk
Total 100 marks
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A00151
Non-Alpha Only
5.
(33.3%)
a. Assume a bank has assets of $1 billion and debt type liabilities of [25
$900 million. The duration of the assets is estimated to be 5 marks]
years and that of the liabilities to be 2 years. Assume the zero
coupon yield curve is flat at 3 per cent. What is your estimated
impact on the market value of the banks equity capital caused by
an upward shift in the yield curve of 1 per cent?
i.
c.
ii.
iii.
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A00151
Non-Alpha Only
6.
(33.3%)
a. A US securities firm is planning to return Yen 2000mn to the US [40
in 3 months time. The firm is concerned that the Bank of Japan marks]
might intervene in the currency market to prevent the yen from
rising against the US dollar. The firm is considering hedging Yen
1500mn of its exposure with one of two option strategies.
The first strategy is a put spread, and the second, a range
forward. Under the put spread the firm will buy a put option at a
premium of 4 per cent and an exercise price of Yen 90/$ and sell
a put option at a premium of 2 per cent and an exercise price of
Yen 95/$.
The second strategy is a range forward and is a zero cost
strategy where the firm will buy a put option at an exercise price
of Yen95/$ and sell a call option, at an exercise price of yen85/$.
For illustrative purposes assume the current spot exchange rate
is yen 88/$ and that the exchange rate in three months time is
either Yen 84/$, yen90/$ or yen96$. Show all calculations and
plot the payoff diagrams for the hedged position. .
b. Discuss the roles that duration and convexity might play in bond [30
marks]
portfolio risk management.
[30
marks]
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A00151
Non-Alpha Only
7.
(33.3%)
a. You manage 50 million bonds that were issued by a UK retail [50
company some six years ago. The bonds now have a remaining marks]
life of 4 years. Due to government austerity measures you are
concerned that consumer confidence will fall further increasing
the likelihood that the bonds will default within the next four
years. As a result you are considering transferring the credit risk
associated with the bonds via a named credit default swap.
You estimate the recovery rates in the event of a default will be
60%, 55% 50% and 45% in years 1, 2, 3, and 4 respectively.
Further you estimate the probability of default in each year will be
2 per cent conditional on no prior year default.
Assume any
default will occur mid-year and that the risk-free zero curve is flat
at 5 % , and further that, for illustration the bonds have a zero
risk premium. What premium would you expect to pay for the
four year credit default swap?
c. Briefly explain a total return swap and a credit linked note. [30
marks]
Total 100 marks
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End of exam