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02/02/2014

Roll No.:

Test Date:

Centre Code:

Test Booklet Code

TEST No. 6
for

JEE (Main) 2014

ES
RI

ALL

S
H TE
A
K
A
A
ST
IA

SE

IN

PAPER - I

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE


1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use Black Ball point PEN to darken the
appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other
material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should
ensure that the test paper contains all pages and no page
is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator,
candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code and
Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.

9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over,


the answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
10. There are three parts in the question paper A, B and C
consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each
question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct
response.
11. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum
marks are 360.
12. One fourth () marks will be deducted for indicating
incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for
any question in the answer sheet.
13. Pattern of the questions are as under:
Section I : Straight Objective Type Questions
Section II : Assertion Reason Type Questions

Test No. 6
Paper I

TOPICS OF THE TEST

Physics

Moving Charges and Magnetism, Magnetism & Matter, Electromagnetic


Induction, Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves

Chemistry

Organic Chemistry (Some Basic Principles and Techniques),


Hydrocarbons, Environmental Chemistry, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes,
Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Mathematics

Application of Derivatives, Integrals, Applications of Integrals

Test - 6 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Time : 3 Hrs.

MM : 360

TEST - 6 (Paper-1)
PART - A (PHYSICS)
2.

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Figure shows a regular hexagon made of uniform


wire. If a battery is connected across the ends AB,
magnetic field at O is B0. If the same battery is
connected across A and C, the magnetic field at O
will be
E
D

Choose the correct answer :


1.

Which one of the following circulation is correct?

C3

(1) Equal to B0
(2) Greater than B0
(3) Less than B0

i1

i2

C1

C2

(4) May be less or greater than B0


3.

Figure shows two coils carrying equal currents. The


ratio of magnetic field at P due to coil-1 to coil-2 is

R
(1)

 

2R

 B.dl 0i1

C1

 
(3)  B.dl 0 (i 2 i1)

(1)

 
(4)  B.dl 0 (i1 i 2 )

1
(3)
4

C3

C3

1
2

 
(2)  B.dl 0i 2
C2

(2) 1 : 2
1

1 4
(4)
2

Space for Rough Work

1/16

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014


4.

The arrangement shown here is a Faraday's disc of


radius a which is rotating in a uniform magnetic field
B perpendicular to the plane of disc. The current
passing through the resistance is

Test - 6 (Paper-I)
6.

(1)

5.

B a
R
Ba
2R

(3)

B2a
2R

(4)

B a 2
R

(1)

L
ln2
2R

(2)

2L
ln3
R

(3)

L
ln 2
R

(4)

L
ln3
R

(2)

A solenoid has an inductance L and a resistance R.


If the solenoid is connected to a battery, the time it
will take to reach half of its final equilibrium value is

7.

A wire forms a closed circular loop of radius 2 m and


resistance 6 . The circle is centred on a long
straight wire. (The straight wire is insulated). The
current changes according to i = (5 2t 2 )A.
The magnitude of current induced in the loop at
t = 1 s is

In the cylindrical region shown, magnetic field is


diminishing at the rate of (T/s). The force on the
electron at a distance r along y-axis is

Y
B

e P

(1)

(3)

r
e( i)
2

(2)

r2
e(i)
2

(4)

8.

r
e(i)
2

r2
e(i)
2

(1) 1 A

(2) 2 A

(3) 3 A

(4) Zero

Wire AB is moved with a velocity 2 m/s. Wire is


kept near a long current carrying conductor, as
shown. Emf induced in the wire is
(1)

0
ln3
2

(2)

5 0
ln3
2

5 0
ln3
(3)

(4) Zero
Space for Rough Work

2/16

2 m/s
5A

1m
3m

Test - 6 (Paper-I)
9.

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

EMF of the battery shown in the circuit varies with


time, so that the current is given by i = 3 + 5t,
where i is in ampere and t is in second. The
expression for battery emf as a function of time is

12. If a direct current of value "a" ampere is


superimposed on an ac i = bsint flowing through a
wire, the effective value of resulting current in the
circuit is
(1)

b
2

(3)

a2

R=4
L=6H

(2) a

b2
2

(4)

b
2

a2 b 2
2

13. An electron moves in a uniform magnetic field and


follows a spiral path as shown in figure. Which of the
following statement is incorrect?
(1) 10t + 32
(2) 20t + 42
(3) 20t + 18
(4) 10t + 22
10. The current density J inside a long, solid cylindrical
wire of radius a is along central axis and its
magnitude varies linearly with r as J J0
magnetic field at r

r
. The
a

a
is
2

(1) Angular velocity of electron remains constant


(2) Magnitude of velocity of electron decreases
continuously
(3) Net force on the particle is always perpendicular
to direction of motion
(4) Magnitude of net force on the electron
decreases continuously

(1)

0 J 0 a
3

(2)

0J0a
6

(3)

0 J 0 a
9

(4)

0 J 0 a
12

14. A bar magnet is moved between two circular coils A


and B with a constant velocity v as shown. Then the
coils
A
B

11. An ideal choke takes a current of 8 A when


connected to an a.c. source of 100 V and 50 Hz. A
pure resistance under the same conditions takes a
current of 10 A. If two are connected in series to an
a.c. supply of 100 V and 40 Hz, then current in the
circuit is
(1) 10 A

(2) 8 A

(3) 5 2 A

(4) 10 2 A

(1) Repel each other


(2) Attract each other
(3) Neither attract nor repel each other
(4) May attract or repel depending upon size of coils

Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014


15. Slider of length 1 m moves with velocity 2 m/s in a
uniform magnetic field of 2T. Resistance of the slider
is 2 . The magnitude of external force required to
maintain the velocity is

B
6

(1) 1 N

(2) 2 N

(3) 4 N

(4) 6 N

16. A copper rod is bent into a semicircle of radius a and


is being rotated with an angular velocity in the
magnetic field shown. Resistance of the circuit is
negligible. Amplitude of current through the circuit is

Test - 6 (Paper-I)
17. A particle of mass m and charge q is released from
rest at the origin as shown in figure. The speed of
the particle when it has travelled a distance d along
the z axis is given by
z
2qE0 d
(1)
m
(2)

E0 d
B0

(3)

m
qE0 d

(4)

2m
qE0 d

E0
B0

18. A magnetic needle of negligible width and thickness


as compared to its length oscillates in horizontal
plane with period T. If it is broken into n equal parts,
then the time period of each part in same field
will be
(1) T n

(3)

(4)

T
n

19. Current in R3 just after closing the switch and in


steady state respectively, will be

R1

1
B a2C 2
2

R3
C

1
Ba 2C2
(2)
4

R2

1
Ba2C2
(3)
8

(1) 0, 0

(4) 2Ba 2C2

(3) 0,
Space for Rough Work

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(2) nT

T
n

(1)

m, q

E
R3

E
(2) R ,0
3

(4) Indeterminate

Test - 6 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

20. In the arrangement shown, maximum current that will


flow in the circuit is
(1) V0

6C
L

(2) V0

C
L

(3)

V0
2

(1) E0k = B0

4V0
+

V0
+

2C

(2) E0B0 = k

L
6C

V0
2

(3) E0 = B0k
(4) E0 = B0
24. A paramagnetic material is kept in a magnetic field.
The field is increased till the magnetization becomes
constant. If the temperature is now decreased, the
magnetization

L
(4)

23. An E.M. wave going through vacuum is described by


E = E0sin(kx t); B = B0sin(kx t) then

6C
L

(1) Will increase

21. In the figure shown IL = 0.8 A and IC = 0.6 A. The


current drawn from the source is

(2) Will decrease


(3) Remains constant

(4) May increase or decrease

IL
C

25. A toroid has a mean radius R

IC

20
cm and a total

(1) 0.2 A

(2) 0.4 A

of 400 turns of wire carrying a current of 2 A.


A metallic ring at 300 K inside the toroid provides
the core. If the magnetization I = 4.8 102 A/m,
the susceptibility of metal at this temperature is

(3) 0.6 A

(4) 1 A

(1) 2.4 105

(2) 4.2 105

(3) 2.4 104

(4) 4.2 104

~
V

22. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and


separation between the plates d, is charged by a
constant current i. Consider a plane surface of area
A
parallel to the plates and drawn symmetrically
2
between plates. The displacement current through
this area is
(1) i
(3)

(2)
i
4

i
2

(4) Zero

SECTION - II
Assertion Reason Type Questions
Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are AssertionReason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.

Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014


26. Statement-1 : Co-axial cable containing equal and
opposite current in wire and hollow conducting
cylinder is used to produce zero magnetic fields
outside the cable.
and
Statement-2 : Net current enclosed for the cable by
a concentric outer circular loop is zero.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
27. Statement-1 : In an a.c. series circuit, the applied
instantaneous voltage is not equal to the algebraic
sum of instantaneous voltage across the different
elements of the circuit.
and
Statement-2 : The RMS voltage across different
elements are not in phase, only their phasor sum is
equal to the applied RMS voltage.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
28. Consider two small elements of current carrying wire
as shown.

i2
i1
Statement-1 : The force on 1 due to 2 is downwards
in the plane of paper but the force on 2 due to 1 is
zero.
and
Statement-2 : Electromagnetic waves carry
momentum with them.

Test - 6 (Paper-I)
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
29. An inductor is connected to a battery through a
switch.
Statement-1 : The emf induced in the inductor is
much larger when the switch is opened as
compared to the emf induced when the switch is
closed.
and
Statement-2 : When the switch is opened, the current
suddenly tends to drop to zero. But when the switch
is closed, due to finite resistance of the circuit, the
current does not suddenly build up to the maximum
value.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
30. Statement-1 : In electromagnetic waves energy is
equally shared between electric field and magnetic
field.
and
 
Statement-2 : Unit vector of E B gives the
direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Space for Rough Work

6/16

Test - 6 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - I

33.

Straight Objective Type Questions


This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

CH3 CH CH2

HOCl
KOH
2 5

(A)
(B)
(C)
in C H OH
C H ONa
2 5

The product (C) formed in the given sequence of


reactions will be
(1) CH3 CH = CH OC2H5

OH
Cl

(2) CH3 CH CH2

+ OH

31.

OC2H5

(X)

H3O

(Y)

OC2H5

NO2

(3) CH3 CH CH2

OH

Identify the product (Y)

(4) CH3 CH2 CH = O

OH

Cl
(2)

(1)

OH

O2N

NO2

34. Which of the following hydrocarbon gives the


following compounds on ozonolysis followed by
reductive hydrolysis?
I.

CH3 CO CH3

II.

CH3CHO

III. CH3 CO CHO

NO2

CH3

OH
(3)

(1) CH3 CH = C C = CH CH3

(4)

CH3
NO2

NO2

CH3

32. In which of the molecules all the effects namely


inductive, resonance and hyperconjugation operate?

(2) CH3 C = C CH = CH CH3

CH3

(1) CH3 CH = CH2


(2) ClCH2CH2OH

(3) CH3 CH = C CH = C CH3

CH3

(3) CH3 CH = CH CHO


(4) CH2 = CH CH = CH2

CH3

(4) Both (2) & (3)


Space for Rough Work

7/16

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Test - 6 (Paper-I)

35. Arrange the following compounds in the decreasing


order of their basic strength

18

O CH2

(1) HOCH2 CH

CH2

NH2

CH2

CH2 O
C2H5 NH C2H5

18

(2) CH2 CH CH2 CH2OH

H
I

II

III

O18

(3)

IV

(1) IV > I > III > II

(4)

(2) II > III > IV > I

38. Find out the reagent (X) used in the following


reaction

(3) I > IV > II > III

Me

(4) IV > II > III > I


36. Consider the following base induced elimination
reactions

CH3 CO CH CH3
(X)

B /

CH3 CO CH = CH2
(Z)

(Y)

Reagent

B /

O
(2) (i) O3, (ii) Zn/H2O

(3) K2Cr2O7/H+

(4) NH2 NH2/KOH

CH3 CH CH2 CH2 CH CH3


Cl

+ alcoholic Na2S

Br

(1) CH3 CH CH2 CH2 CH CH3


SH

(1) (X) reacts faster than (Y)

(3) Both (X) and (Y) react at the same rate

(2) CH3 CH CH CH3


CH2 CH2

(4) Both (X) and (Y) do not react


37. Identify the product (B) in the following reaction

(3) CH3 CH

H /

(A) (B)
Catalyst

CH CH3

18

HOCH2 C C CH2 CH2 OH H2

SH

CH2 CH2

(2) (Y) reacts faster than (X)

(4) CH3 CH CH2 CH2 CH CH3


SH
Space for Rough Work

8/16

(A)

Me
OH

(1) NaBH4

Cl

Which one of the following statements is true?

Lindlar 's

(X)

39. Name the product formed in the following reaction

Br

CH3 CO CH2 CH2

Baeyer's

Cl

Test - 6 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

40. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing


order of their acidic strength
HCOOH

CH3 COOH

II

C6H5 COOH
III

45. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?


(1) m-cresol when treated with Br 2(H 2O) gives
tribromoderivative

(1) II < III < I

(2) II < I < III

(2) Picric acid and phenol can be distinguished by


FeCl3

(3) III < II < I

(4) III < I < II

(3) o-nitrophenol is steam volatile

41. (+) mandelic acid has a specific rotation of +158.


What would be the specific rotation of a solution
containing 35% of () mandelic acid and 65% of (+)
mandelic acid?

(4) Phenol and benzyl alcohol can be separated by


NaOH
46. Identify the missing reactant in the following reaction

(1) () 55.3

(2) (+) 47.4

CH3CH2NH2 + (X) + KOH CH3CH2NC + KCl + H2O

(3) (+) 102.7

(4) () 102.7

(1) CH3Cl

(2) CH2Cl2

(3) CHCl3

(4) CCl4

42. Identify the reagent (X) in the following reaction

CH3

(X)

47. What is the major product formed in the following


reaction?

CH3

OH

OH
(1) PBr3

Br
(2) SOBr2

(3) HBr

(4) Both (1) & (2)

+ K2S2O8

43. Arrange the following compounds in the decreasing


order of their reactivity towards SN2 reaction
I.

CH3 CH2 CH2 Cl

II.

CH2 = CH CH2 Cl
(2) I > II > III

(3) II > III > I

(4) I > III > II

OH
(1)

OH

COOH

OH

OH

C
HO

(4)

SO3 H

OH

(1) Insecticides

(2) Herbicides

(3) Fungicides

(4) All of these

49. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

O
(4)

OH

48. Pesticides consist of

(2)

SO3H
(2)

(3)

44. Which one of the following compounds is most


acidic?

(3)

OH

OH

(1) II > I > III

Major product

OH

III. CH3 CH = CH Cl

(1)

OH
H2O

OH

(1) CO2

(2) N2O

(3) CO

(4) CH4

Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014


50. Which of the following free radicals is most stable?
CH3

CH2

CH3

CH CH CH

II.

CH O CH

CH2 CH C CH HBr A(Major) ,

(1) III > II > I

(2) II > III > I

(3) I > III > II

(4) I > II > III

54. Which one of the following compounds gives instant


precipitate with aqueous AgNO3?
Cl

The product 'A' is

CH

Br

CH2

III. CH S CH

(4)

(1) CH3 CH C

I.

CH3

(3)

(2)

53. The decreasing order of stability of carbocations is

(2)

(1)

51.

Test - 6 (Paper-I)

(1)

CH2 C

(2)

Cl

CH
Cl

Br
(3) CH2

CH

CH2

(3) CH2 = CH Cl

(4)

Br
(4) CH 2

CH

CH

55. Identify the major product formed in the following


reaction

CH
Br

OH

52. The number of optically active isomers of the following


compound is

H+

CH3 C CH = CH C CH3
Cl

Cl

Major product

(1)

(2)

(1) 2

(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

(3)
Space for Rough Work

10/16

(4)

Test - 6 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

SECTION - II
Assertion Reason Type Questions
Directions : Questions number 56 to 60 are AssertionReason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
56. Statement-1 : Neopentyl chloride undergoes
nucleophilic substitution by SN1 mechanism only.
and
Statement-2 : Neopentyl chloride is a primary alkyl
halide.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
57. Statement-1 : Dipole moment of CH3 F is greater
than that of CH3 Cl.
and
Statement-2 : C F bond is more polar than C Cl
bond.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

58. Statement-1 : Butan-1-ol and butan-2-ol can be


differentiated by I2/NaOH.
and
Statement-2 : Butan-2-ol is more acidic than
butan-1-ol.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
59. Statement-1 : If BOD level of water in a reservoir is
greater than 5 ppm, it is highly polluted.
and
Statement-2 : High biological oxygen demand
means low activity of bacteria in water.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
60. Statement-1 : The nitro group of nitrobenzene is
deactivating and mata directing towards electrophilic
aromatic substitution.
and
Statement-2 : Nitrobenzene reacts with CH3 Cl in
presence of AlCl3 to give m-nitrotoluene.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Test - 6 (Paper-I)

PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - I

Straight Objective Type Questions

64. If

This section contains 25 multiple choice questions


numbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
4

61. If

x 4
dx log , then
x2

(1) + 2 is irrational number

3 cos t dt

x2
3 x ,
62. If f ( x )

a 14 x 48 , x 2

3 cos2 x

(2)

1
2y .sin( y 2 )

(3)

3 cos2 x
2sin( y 2 )

(1) Least value of 'a' is 2011

(3) 1 : 1

(2) 2 : 1
(4) 2 : 3

66. For the curve y = a


a2), where a is positive
number. The algebraic sum of the tangent and
subtangent at any point on curve is

(3) a can not be determined


(4) The greatest value of 'a' may be 2345
x loge (1 e x )
dx f ( x ) c , then f(x) =
1 e x

(1)

xy
a

(2)

2xy
a

(3)

xy
2a

(4)

xy
a

67. On the interval [ 2, 2] , one of the value of 'c' in

(2)

x
1 ex

(3)

1
log(1 e x )
2

(4)

1
log(1 e x )
2

Rolle's theorem for f(x) = 2x3 + x2 4x 2 is

(1)

3
5

(2)

4
5

(3)

2
3

(4)

2
3

Space for Rough Work

12/16

2y sin( y 2 )

log(x2

(2) Greatest value of 'a' may be 2011

(1) log(1 + ex)

3 cos2 x

(1) 1 : 2

and f(x) has a local maxima at x = 2, then

dy

dx

65. Tangent to a curve xy = a2 at point P meets the


x-axis in A and y-axis in B. Then, the ratio AP : PB
is

63. If

then

(1)

(4)

(4) (, ) lies on x2 4y2 = 4(x + 1)

sin tdt 0,

(2) = 2 (1 )
(3) (, ) lies on x2 4y2 = 2(x 1)

y2

Test - 6 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

68. The sum of an infinitely decreasing geometric


progression is equal to the least value of the function

25
and the first term of the
12
progression is equal to the square of its common
ratio. Then, the common ratio is
f ( x ) 3 x2 x

(1)

(2)

2 1

3 1

(1)

x
loge ( x y )2 1 c
2

(2)

1
loge ( x y )2 1 c
2

12
of the maximum and minimum values of f on 0,
is
5

74. The value of

sec x(2 sec x )

(1 2sec x )2
(1) 2cosecx + cotx + c

(2) 5

(3) 2cosecx cotx + c

13
(3)
2

11
(4)
2

(4) (2cosecx + cotx)1 + c

log x

x 2 2 dx
0

loge 5

75. The value of


(2)

(3) loge ( )

(4) 22

71. The area bounded by


(1)

x3

4
sq. units
5

(2)

(3) 1 sq. unit


72. If

1/3

and x = 1 is

(1) 3 +

(2) 3

(3) 4 +

(4) 4

76. The maximum value of


attained at

2
sq. units
5

e ( x 1) dx , aR, is

a 1

(1) a = 2

(2) a = 1

(3) a = 1

(4) a = 0

77. If [t] stands for the integral part of t, then the value of

dx k ( x 4 1)4/3 (4 x 4 3) c , then

the value of k is equal to

ex ex 1
dx is equal to
ex 3

a 1

(4) 2 sq. unit

= 4(x

y)2

is equal to

(1) loge()2

dx is equal to

(2) (2cotx + cosecx)1 + c

(1) 6

70. The value of

equals

2
(4) loge ( x y ) 1 c

12
69. Let f(x) = |x2 5x + 6|, x 0, . Then, the sum
5

dx

x 3y

1
2
(3) x loge ( x y ) 1 c
2

2 2
(4)
3

(3) 2 3

73. If y(x y)2 = x, then the value of

5 /12

[tan x ] dx equals

(1)

1
112

(2)

1
28

(1)

(2)

(3)

3
112

(4)

1
56

(3)

(4) 2

Space for Rough Work

13/16

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014


78. The function F ( x )

(4 sin t 3 cos t )dt

attains

Test - 6 (Paper-I)
82. The graph of y = f(x), where f(x) 0, meets x-axis
in two points (0, 0) and (2, 0) and encloses an area

/6

of

3
least value on ,
at x equals
4 4
(1)

(3)

3
3
4

(2)

(4)

xf ( x ) dx, equals to
0

79. The area bounded by the curve y = 2x x2 and the


straight line y = x is
(1) 3

(3)

9
2

(2)

7
2

8a 2
3

19a 2
(3)
3

(2)

(3)

3
4

(4) 1

1 n

1
2 2n

.....

1
n n2

, then the

84. The number of critical points for the function

1
1
and x is loge2 p, then p equals to
x
2

7
(3)
24

(4)

7
24

(2) 2 + 2loge2

(4) 2loge2

13a 2
(4)
3

5
(2)
24

(1) loge2

(3) 2 + loge2

16a 2
3

5
(1)
24

2
1

f ( x ) sin tan3 x (sin 1)tan x


,
8
3

where < < 2, x 2n 1 , where n is a integer, is


2
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

Space for Rough Work

14/16

3
4

81. The area of the region bounded by the curves y = x2,


y

3
2

value of lim Sn is equal to

(4) 4

(2)

(1)

83. If Sn

80. The area bounded by the curve y2 = 4a(a |x a|),


a > 0, is
(1)

3
square units with the axes. Then the value of
4

Test - 6 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

2 cos x
85. For x(0, ), the least value of f ( x )

sin x

is

and
Statement-2 : If f x does not exist at a point x0
but f x exists in a neighbourhood of x 0 and
changes its sign at x0, then x0 may be a point of
local extremum for f(x).

(1) 2
(2) 3

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(3) 4
(4)

87. Statement-1 : The function f(x) = 2 (x 1) 2/3


attains maximum value 2 at x = 1.

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

SECTION - II
Assertion Reason Type Questions

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are AssertionReason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
86. Statement-1 : The function f(x) = x3 + bx2 + cx + d,
where 0 b2 < 3c, is strictly increasing in (, ).

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True


88. Statement-1 : The function

1
2
2 x 2 sin ,
f (x)
x

2,

x 0
x 0

has local maximum at x = 0.


and

and
Statement-2 : If f is continuous on [a, b],
differentiable in (a, b) and f(x) > 0 x (a, b),
then f is strictly increasing in (a, b).
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

Statement-2 : If f(x) is a real valued function such


that f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) then
2

f x f x dx 4

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Space for Rough Work

15/16

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Test - 6 (Paper-I)

89. Statement-1

e x tan x sec
x

x tan x dx f x c,

90. Statement-1 : If [ ] represents the greatest integer

then

function then

f(0) = 2

and
Statement-2 :

4 sin 4 cos 4 cos 2 dx 0

and

x 1
x
x 1 2 dx e f x c
x

20

Statement-2 :

10

then f(1) = 2.

x
x
2 sin cos dx 30
2
2

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Space for Rough Work

16/16

Test Booklet Code

Test No. 5

for

ES
RI

ALL

KASH TE
A
A
ST
IA

SE

IN

Paper I

JEE (Main) 2014

Test - 5 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014

TEST - 5 (Paper-I)
ANSWERS
PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

MATHEMATICS

1.

(4)

31.

(2)

61.

(1)

2.

(3)

32.

(4)

62.

(4)

3.

(1)

33.

(2)

63.

(3)

4.

(1)

34.

(2)

64.

(4)

5.

(2)

35.

(1)

65.

(3)

6.

(2)

36.

(3)

66.

(2)

7.

(3)

37.

(4)

67.

(1)

8.

(3)

38.

(4)

68.

(4)

9.

(4)

39.

(1)

69.

(2)

10.

(2)

40.

(4)

70.

(1)

11.

(3)

41.

(2)

71.

(2)

12.

(2)

42.

(3)

72.

(1)

13.

(2)

43.

(2)

73.

(4)

14.

(1)

44.

(1)

74.

(2)

15.

(1)

45.

(4)

75.

(2)

16.

(2)

46.

(2)

76.

(1)

17.

(1)

47.

(4)

77.

(4)

18.

(2)

48.

(3)

78.

(3)

19.

(2)

49.

(3)

79.

(3)

20.

(3)

50.

(3)

80.

(2)

21.

(4)

51.

(4)

81.

(3)

22.

(3)

52.

(3)

82.

(4)

23.

(3)

53.

(2)

83.

(2)

24.

(2)

54.

(1)

84.

(3)

25.

(2)

55.

(4)

85.

(1)

26.

(1)

56.

(3)

86.

(2)

27.

(1)

57.

(1)

87.

(2)

28.

(1)

58.

(1)

88.

(4)

29.

(3)

59.

(2)

89.

(3)

30.

(1)

60.

(1)

90.

(3)

1/7