Quiz Bank BRM

Chapter-1
35) Research is everything except ________.

A) systematic
B) politically biased
C) objective
D) useful for the purpose of improving decision-making
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 7
LO : 2
36) The procedures followed at each stage of research are methodologically sound, well
documented, and, as much as possible, planned in advance. The previous statement defines the
________ aspect of the definition of marketing research.
A) systematic
B) accuracy
C) identification of information
D) collection of information
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 7
LO : 2
37) Each phase of the research process is important. If in the first phase of the process the
problem is identified, what is done after that but before data is collected?
A) Determine the solution to the problem, identify relevant information sources and evaluate
data collection methods
B) Determine what information is needed, identify relevant information sources, and evaluate
data collection methods
C) Determine the solution to the problem, determine what information is needed, and identify
relevant information sources.
D) Determine what information is needed, evaluate data collection methods, and analyze the data
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 9
LO : 2
38) ________ is undertaken to help identify problems that are perhaps not apparent on the
surface and yet exist or are likely to arise in the future.
A) Problem identification research
B) Segmentation research
C) Problem solving research
D) Marketing information systems
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 7
LO : 2
39) ________ is a type of problem identification research.
A) Distribution research
B) Pricing research
C) Market characteristics research
D) Promotion research
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 8
LO : 2
40) Which of the issues listed below would be addressed using problem-solving research?
A) the need to understand market potential
B) the need to understand current cultural trends
C) the need to understand changes in consumer behavior
D) the need to determine where to locate retail outlets
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 8
LO : 2
42) ________ is conceptualized as consisting of six steps which include problem definition,
developing an approach to the problem, research design formulation, field work, data preparation
and analysis, and report generation and presentation.
A) Research process
B) Information systems
C) Research problem
D) A decision support system
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 9
LO : 2
44) Which of the tasks below might be conducted by the researcher during the "problem
definition," the "development of an approach to the problem," or the "research design
formulation" steps of the marketing research process?
A) analysis of secondary data
B) interviews with industry experts
C) qualitative research
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 10-11
LO : 2
Chapter-2
30) The ________ is a broad statement of the general problem and identification of the specific
components of the marketing research problem.
A) problem audit
B) management problem
C) problem definition
D) none of the above
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 37
LO : 1
31) According to the problem definition and approach development process as shown in Figure
2.1 in the text, the tasks involved in problem definition consist of all of the following except
________.
A) discussions with the decision makers
B) interviews with industry experts
C) analysis of project costs
D) analysis of secondary data
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 38
LO : 1
32) The components of the ________ consist of: objective/theoretical foundations, analytical
models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of the information needed.
A) approach to the problem
B) management decision problem
C) marketing research problem
D) environmental context of the problem
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 38
LO : 1
33) The need for the researcher to understand the nature of what decision managers face and
what they hope to learn from research is one of the reasons to conduct ________.
A) discussions with decision makers
B) interview with experts
C) secondary data analysis
D) qualitative research
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 38
AACSB: Communication
LO : 2
34) To identify the management problem, the researcher must possess considerable skill in
interacting with the DM. Which of the following is a factor that might complicate this
interaction?
A) Access to the DM may be difficult and some organizations have complicated protocols for
access to top executives.
B) The organizational status of the researcher or the research department may make it difficult to
reach the key DM in the early stages of the project.
C) There may be more than one key DM and meeting with them collectively or individually may
be difficult.
D) All of the above are correct.
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 38-39
LO : 2
35) The ________ provides a useful framework for interacting with the DM and identifying the
underlying causes of the problem.
A) problem audit
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 38
LO : 2
36) The ________ is a comprehensive examination of a marketing problem with the purpose of
understanding its origin and nature.
A) problem audit
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 38
LO : 2
37) It is important to perform a problem audit because ________.
A) the DM knows the cause of the problem
B) DMs tend to focus on symptoms rather than on causes
C) the DM, in most cases, has only a vague idea of what the problem is
D) both B and C are correct
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 39
LO : 2
38) The interaction between the DM and the researcher should be characterized by the seven Cs.
Which of the following is not one of the seven Cs?
A) continuity
B) communication
C) causality
D) candor
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 40
LO : 2
40) Interviews with industry expertsindividuals knowledgeable about the firm and the
industrymay help formulate the marketing research problem. Which of the following
statements is true about interviews with industry experts?
A) These experts may be found both inside and outside the firm.
B) Typically, expert information is obtained by unstructured personal interviews without
administering a formal questionnaire.
C) It is helpful to prepare a list of topics to be covered during the interview.
D) All of the above are true.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 40-41
LO : 2
41) Because of potential difficulties when seeking advice from experts, it is best to use
interviews with experts when conducting marketing research ________.
A) for industrial firms
B) for products of a technical nature
C) in situations where little information is available from other sources
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 40
LO : 2
42) Which of the following statements about secondary data is true?
A) Secondary data are originated by the researcher for the specific purpose of addressing the
research problem at hand.
B) Secondary data are an economical and quick source of background information.
C) Primary data should not be collected until the available secondary data have been fully
analyzed.
D) Both B and C are true.
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 41
LO : 2
43) ________ is an unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small samples
intended to provide insight and understanding of the problem setting.
A) Primary research
B) Qualitative research
C) Secondary research
D) Quantitative research
Answer: B
Diff: 2
LO : 2
Page Ref: 41-42
44) ________ is not a qualitative research technique.

A) Depth interview
B) Word association
C) Focus group
D) Conclusive research
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 41-42
LO : 2
45) ________ consists of the factors that have an impact on the definition of the marketing
research problem, including past information and forecasts, resources and constraints of the firm,
objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and
marketing and technological skills of the firm.
A) The approach to the problem
B) Research design
C) The environmental context of the problem
D) Problem definition
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 43
LO : 3
46) Many factors have an impact on the definition of the marketing research problem. These
factors encompass the environmental context of the problem. Which of the following is not one
of the factors?
A) marketing and technological skills of the firm
B) objectives
C) past information and forecasts pertaining to the industry and the firm
D) political environment
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 43
LO : 3
47) To formulate a marketing research problem of appropriate scope, it is necessary to take into
account both the resources available, such as money and research skills, and the constraints on
the organization, such as cost and time. These considerations refer to which of the factors related
to the environmental context of the problem?
A) resources and constraints
B) buyer behavior
C) legal environment
D) economic environment
Answer: A
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 44
LO : 3
51) ________ is the problem confronting the decision maker. It asks what the decision maker
needs to do.
A) The environmental context of the problem
B) The management decision problem
C) The marketing research problem
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 47
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
LO : 4
52) ________ is a problem that entails determining what information is needed and how it can be
obtained in the most feasible way.
A) The environmental context of the problem
B) The management decision problem
C) The marketing research problem
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 47
LO : 4
53) The management decision problem focuses on ________, while the marketing research
problem focuses on ________.
A) symptoms; solutions
B) symptoms; underlying causes
C) solutions; underlying causes
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 48
LO : 4
54) Based on Table 2.1 in the text, which statement is true about the management decision
problem?
A) It asks what information is needed and how it should be obtained.
B) It is information oriented.
C) It asks what the decision maker needs to do.
D) It focuses on the underlying causes.
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 48
LO : 4
55) Based on Table 2.1 in the text, which statement is true about the marketing research
problem?
A) It focuses on underlying causes.

B) It focuses on symptoms.
C) It is information oriented.
D) Both A and C are correct.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 48
LO : 4
57) Which statement is true concerning defining the marketing research problem?
A) The definition should allow the researcher to obtain all the information needed to address the
management decision problem.
B) The definition should guide the researcher in proceeding with the project.
C) The marketing research problem should be stated in broad, general terms with specific
components identified.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 49
LO : 5
58) The outputs of the approach development process should include all of the following
components except ________.
A) objective/theoretical framework
B) analytical models
C) hypotheses
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 51
AACSB: Analytic Skills
LO : 6
64) ________ are refined statements of the specific components of the problem.
A) Hypotheses
B) Research questions
C) Marketing research problems
D) Analytical models
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 52
LO : 6
65) Which statement about hypotheses is not true?

A) A hypothesis is an unproven statement or proposition about a factor or phenomenon that is of
interest to the researcher.
B) Hypotheses are declarative and can be tested empirically.
C) It is possible to formulate hypotheses in all situations.
D) An important role of a hypothesis is to suggest variables to be included in the research design.
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 53-54
LO : 6
Chapter-3
37) Which statement is not true about research design?
A) Research design is a framework for conducting the marketing research project.
B) Research design specifies the measurement and scaling procedures.
C) Research design is undertaken before developing the approach to the problem.
D) Research design is undertaken after the marketing research problem is defined.
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 69
LO : 1
38) ________ is a framework or blueprint for conducting the marketing research project. It
specifies the details of the procedures necessary for obtaining the information needed to structure
and/or solve marketing research problems.
A) Research classification
B) Research design
C) Design formulation
D) None of the above
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 70
LO : 1
39) Typically, a ________ involves the tasks of designing the information needed, specifying the
measurement and scaling procedures, and developing a plan of data analysis.
A) research classification
B) research design
C) design formulation
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 70
LO : 1
40) Which of the following tasks is not a component of research design?
A) Design the exploratory, descriptive, and/or causal phases of the research.
B) Construct and pretest a questionnaire (interviewing form) or an appropriate form for data
collection.
C) Specify the sampling process and sample size.
D) Develop hypotheses.
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 70
LO : 1
41) Research designs may be broadly classified as ________ or ________ (Figure 3.1 in the
text).
A) exploratory; causal
B) conclusive; causal
C) exploratory; conclusive
D) conclusive; descriptive
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 70-71
LO : 1
42) Exploratory research is used in all of the following cases except ________.
A) selecting the course of action to take in a given situation
B) when you must define the problem more precisely
C) when you must identify relevant courses of action
D) when you must gain additional insights before an approach can be developed
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 72
LO : 1
43) The primary objective of ________ is to provide insights into, and an understanding of, the
problem confronting the researcher.
A) exploratory research
B) conclusive research
C) causal research
D) descriptive research
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 72
LO : 1
44) ________ is research designed to assist the decision maker in determining, evaluating, and
selecting the best course of action to take in a given situation.
A) Exploratory research
B) Conclusive research
C) Complex research
D) Problem-identification research
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 70-72
LO : 1
46) Joan needs to determine which variables and relationships she should examine further as part
of the research she is conducting for the Flager Truck Company. Joan is about to embark on
what type of research?
A) simple research
B) exploratory research
C) descriptive research
D) causal research
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 70-73
LO : 1
47) Which of the objectives below would best represent exploratory research?
A) Describe market characteristics or functions.
B) Determine cause and effect relationships.
C) Provide insights and understanding.
D) Test specific hypotheses and examine relationships.
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 70-73
LO : 1
48) Which of the objectives below would best represent conclusive research?
A) Describe market characteristics or functions.
B) Determine cause and effect relationships.
C) Provide insights and understanding.
D) A and B are correct.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 70-73
LO : 1
49) If there were a need to isolate key variables and relationships for further examination, it
would be best to perform ________.
A) descriptive research
B) causal research
C) exploratory research
D) conclusive research
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 70-73
LO : 1
50) Which of the following statements is not true about exploratory research?
A) It is flexible.
B) It is a pre-planned and structured design.
C) It is versatile.
D) It is often the front end of total research design.
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 70-73
LO : 1
51) Which data collection method is used in causal research?
A) experiments
B) surveys
C) expert surveys
D) panels
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 81
LO : 2
52) Jerry and the team working on the Roger Tire Company marketing research project are
developing ways to test their hypothesis that drivers of larger trucks prefer dual belted radial
tires. What type of research are they conducting?
A) simple research
D) causal research
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 74
LO : 2
53) You work for Innovative Focus, an internationally recognized consulting firm. You are
working on the Waterpik account to help them with finding their next successful product. You
are meeting with the Waterpik marketing professionals tomorrow to conduct a trends meeting to
list and prioritize key consumer wants and needs. You have also scheduled a meeting with the
Waterpik engineers to uncover applicable technologies and the company's internal competencies.
What type of research are you conducting in your meetings with Waterpik?
A) simple research
D) causal research
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 71
LO : 2
54) ________ is a type of conclusive research that has as its major objective the description of
somethingusually market characteristics or functions.
A) Exploratory research
B) Conclusive research
C) Causal research
D) Descriptive research
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 74
LO : 2
55) Descriptive research is conducted for all of the following reasons except ________.
A) to describe the characteristics of relevant groups, such as consumers, salespeople,
organizations, or market areas
B) to determine the degree to which marketing variables are associated
C) to understand which variables are the cause and which variables are the effect of a
phenomenon
D) to determine the perceptions of product characteristics
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 74
LO : 2
56) A formal research design specifies the methods for selecting the sources of information and
for collecting data from those sources. A ________ design requires a clear specification of the
who, what, when, where, why, and way (the six Ws) of the research.
A) descriptive
B) causal
C) exploratory
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 74
LO : 2
57) Descriptive research, in contrast to exploratory research, is marked by all of the following
except ________.
A) a clear statement of the problem
B) specific hypotheses
C) detailed information needs
D) flexibility
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 72
LO : 2
58) ________ designs involve the collection of information from any given sample of population
elements only once.
A) Exploratory
B) Causal
C) Cross-sectional
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 76
LO : 2
59) ________ is a cross-sectional design in which one sample of respondents is drawn from the
target population and information is obtained from this sample once.
A) Multiple cross-sectional design
B) Single cross-sectional design
C) Cohort analysis
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 76
LO : 2
60) ________ is the most used descriptive design in marketing research.

A) Longitudinal design
B) Exploratory design
C) Cross-sectional design
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 76
LO : 2
61) Single cross-sectional designs are also called ________.
A) experiment designs
B) sample survey research designs
C) qualitative research designs
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 76
LO : 2
62) ________ is a cross-sectional design in which there are two or more samples of respondents
and information is obtained from each sample only once.
C) Cohort analysis
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 76
LO : 2
63) ________ is a multiple cross-sectional design consisting of a series of surveys conducted at
appropriate time intervals, where the cohort serves as the basic unit of analysis.
C) Cohort analysis
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 77
LO : 2
64) Which of the following statements is true about cohort analysis?
A) A cohort is a group of respondents who experience the same event within the same time
interval.
B) It is unlikely that any of the individuals studied at time one will also be in the sample at time
two.
C) The term cohort analysis refers to any study in which there are measures of some
characteristics of one or more cohorts at two or more points in time.
D) All are correct.
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 77
LO : 2
65) ________ is a type of research design involving a fixed sample of population elements that is
measured repeatedly. The sample remains the same over time thus providing a series of pictures
which, when viewed together, portray a vivid illustration of the situation and the changes that are
taking place over time.
A) Exploratory research design
B) Causal research design
C) Cross-sectional research design
D) Longitudinal research design
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 76
LO : 2
66) The question, "How did the American people rate the performance of George W. Bush
immediately after the war in Afghanistan?" would be addressed using a ________. However, a
________ would be used to address the question, "How did the American people change their
view of Bush's performance during the war in Afghanistan?"
A) longitudinal design; multiple cross-sectional
B) cross-sectional design; longitudinal design
C) longitudinal; cross-sectional design
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 78
LO : 2
67) Sometimes the term ________ is used interchangeably with the term longitudinal design.
A) experiment
B) panel
C) survey
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 78
LO : 2
68) ________ refers to a sample of respondents who have agreed to provide information at
specified intervals over an extended period.
A) Experiment
B) Survey
C) Panel
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 78
LO : 2
69) A major advantage of ________ over the cross-sectional design is the ability to detect change
as a result of repeated measurement of the same variables on the same sample.
A) longitudinal design
B) descriptive research design
C) causal research design
D) conclusive research design
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 79
LO : 2
70) All of the following are advantages of longitudinal designs over cross-sectional designs
(Table 3.4 in the text) except ________.
A) detecting change
B) accuracy
C) large amount of data collection
D) representative sampling
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 79
LO : 2
71) Which of these statements is true about panels?
A) Relatively large amounts of data can be collected.
B) Panel data can be more accurate than cross-sectional data.
C) Panels may not be representative.
D) All of the above statements are correct.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 78
LO : 2
72) According to your text, non-representativeness in panels may arise because of all of the
following except ________.
A) respondent intelligence
B) mortality
C) refusal to cooperate
D) payment
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 78-79
LO : 2
73) When trying to determine which research design is best to choose, it is best to begin with
exploratory research if the objective of the research is to ________.
A) test hypotheses
B) conduct an annual customer satisfaction survey
C) define the problem more precisely
D) quantify the relative salience of social causes that businesses should be concerned about
Answer: C
Diff: 2
LO : 2
Page Ref: 82-83
74) ________ is the variation between the true mean value in the population of the variable of
interest and the observed mean value obtained in the marketing research project.
A) Measurement error
B) Recording error
C) Total error
D) Cheating error
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 85
LO : 3
75) ________ is the error due to the particular sample selected being an imperfect representation
of the population of interest. It may be defined as the variation between the true mean value for
the sample and the true mean value of the population.
A) Random sampling error
B) Non-response error
C) Non-sampling error
D) Response error
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 85
LO : 3
76) ________ are errors that can be attributed to sources other than sampling, and they can be
random or nonrandom.
D) Response error
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 85
LO : 3
77) ________ is a type of non-sampling error arising from respondents who do respond but give
inaccurate answers, or their answers are mis-recorded or mis-analyzed. It may be defined as the
variation between the true mean value of the variable in the net sample and the observed mean
value obtained in the marketing research project.
D) Response error
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 86
LO : 3
78) ________ is a type of non-sampling error that occurs when some of the respondents included
in the sample do not respond. This error may be defined as the variation between the true mean
value of the variable in the original sample and the true mean value in the net sample.
D) Response error
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 86
LO : 3
79) The variation between the population defined by the researcher and the population as implied
by the sampling frame (list) used is ________.
A) questioning error
B) unwillingness error
C) sampling frame error
D) recording error
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 86
LO : 3
80) The error that arises from the respondent's unwillingness to provide accurate information is
________. Respondents may intentionally misreport their answers because of a desire to provide
socially acceptable answers, avoid embarrassment, or please the interviewer.
A) questioning error
B) unwillingness error
C) sampling frame error
D) recording error
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 87
LO : 3
81) In a recent study, the population of the affluent households was defined in four different
ways: (1) households with income of $50,000 or more; (2) the top 20 percent of households, as
measured by income; (3) households with net worth over $250,000; and (4) households with
spendable discretionary income 30 percent higher than that of comparable households. The
number and characteristics of the affluent households varied depending upon the definition,
underscoring the need to avoid ________.
A) sampling frame error
B) respondent selection error
C) measurement error
D) population definition error
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 86
LO : 3
83) ________ is defined as the official layout of the planned marketing research activity for
management. It describes the research problem, the approach, the research design, data
collection methods, data analysis methods, and reporting methods.
A) Research design
B) The critical path method
C) The marketing research proposal
D) The marketing research problem
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 88
LO : 5
84) The marketing research proposal consists of many sections. The ________ section is
normally a statement of the problem, including the specific components.
A) problem definition/objectives of the research
B) approach to the problem
C) executive summary
D) research design
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 88
LO : 5
85) The ________ section of the marketing research proposal should discuss how the data will be
collected and who will collect it. The ________ section of the proposal discusses the kind of
data analysis that will be conducted and how the results will be interpreted.
A) appendices; data analysis
B) fieldwork/data collection; reporting
C) research design; data analysis
D) fieldwork/data collection; data analysis
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 88
LO : 5
Chapter-7
46) The scientific concept of causality is complex. "Causality" means something very different to
the average person on the street than to a scientist. If the ordinary meaning of a statement is "X
is the only cause of Y," its related scientific meaning is: ________.
A) the occurrence of X makes the occurrence of Y
B) we can never prove that X is a cause of Y. At best, we can infer that X is a cause of Y
C) X is only one of a number of possible causes of Y
D) None of the above is correct.
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 218
LO : 1
47) The conditions that must be satisfied before making causal inferences include all of the
following except ________.
A) time order of occurrence of variables
B) role of evidence
C) concomitant variation
D) elimination of other possible factors
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 218
LO : 1
48) ________ is the extent to which a cause, X, and an effect, Y, occur together or vary together
in the way predicted by the hypothesis under consideration.
A) The time order of occurrence of variables
B) The role of evidence
C) Concomitant variation
D) The elimination of other possible factors
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 219-220
LO : 1
49) The statement 'An effect cannot be produced by an event that occurs after the effect has taken
place,' refers to ________.
A) the time order of occurrence of variables
B) the role of evidence
D) the elimination of other possible factors
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 219-220
LO : 1
50) Which of the following statements is not true concerning the time order of occurrence of
variables?
A) In an after-the-fact examination of the situation, we can never confidently rule out all other
causal factors.
B) The causing event must occur either before or simultaneously with the effect; it cannot occur
afterwards.
C) An effect cannot be produced by an event that occurs after the effect has taken place.
D) It is possible for each event in a relationship to be both a cause and an effect of the other
event.
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 219-220
LO : 1
51) ________ means that the factor or variable being investigated should be the only possible
causal explanation.
A) The time order of occurrence of variables
B) The role of evidence
C) Concomitant variation
D) The absence of other possible causal factors
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 219-220
LO : 1
52) When considering ________, accumulated evidence from several investigations increases
our confidence that a causal relationship exists.
A) the time order of occurrence of variables
B) the role of evidence
D) the elimination of other possible factors
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 219-220
LO : 1
53) Experimental design is the set of experimental procedures specifying the test units and
sampling procedures and all of the following except ________.
A) specifying the independent variables
B) specifying the dependent variables
C) specifying the plan for data analysis
D) specifying how to control the extraneous variables
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 221
LO : 1
54) In the New York coupon experiment mentioned in your text, the experiment was conducted
to test the effects of the face value of coupons on the likelihood of coupon redemption. Subjects
were randomly assigned to 2 treatment groups. One group was offered 15-cent coupons and the
other 50-cent coupons for four products. During the interviews, the respondents answered
questions about which brands they used and how likely they were to cash coupons of the given
face value the next time they shopped. In the preceding experiment, the dependent variable that
was ________.
A) brand usage
B) the value of the coupon (15-cent versus 50-cent coupon)
C) the likelihood of cashing the coupon
D) individual shoppers
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 221-222
LO : 1
face value the next time they shopped. In the preceding experiment, the independent variable
that was manipulated was ________.
A) brand usage
Answer: B
Diff: 2
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LO : 1
face value the next time they shopped. In the preceding experiment, the test units were
________.
A) brand usage
Answer: D
Diff: 2
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LO : 1
57) Using the set of symbols commonly used in marketing research to denote experimental
designs, which symbol below represents the exposure of a group to an independent variable,
treatment, or event the effects of which are to be determined?
A) T
B) O
C) R
D) X
Answer: D
Diff: 2
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LO : 1
designs, which symbol below represents the random assignment of test units or groups to
separate treatments?
A) T
B) O
C) R
D) X
Answer: C
Diff: 2
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LO : 1
designs, which symbol below represents the process of observation or measurement of the
dependent variable on the test units or group of units?
A) T
B) O
C) R
D) X
Answer: B
Diff: 2
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LO : 1
60) Which experimental design means that two groups of test units were randomly assigned to
two different treatment groups at the same time, and the dependent variable was measured in the
two groups simultaneously?
X1 O1
A) R
R X2 O2
X1 O1
B) R
O2 X2 O2
O1 O2
C) X
X O1 O2
X1 O1
D) R
R X1 O1
Answer: A
Diff: 3
LO : 1
Page Ref: 222
61) ________ is a measure of accuracy of an experiment. It measures whether the manipulation

of the independent variables, or treatments, actually caused the effects on the dependent
variable(s).
A) External validity
B) Extraneous validity
C) Internal validity
Answer: C
Diff: 2
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62) All of the following statements are true about external validity except ________.
A) threats to external validity arise when the specific experimental conditions do not realistically
take into account the interactions of other relevant variables in the real world.
B) external validity is the basic minimum that must be present in an experiment before any
conclusion about treatment effects can be made
C) factors that threaten internal validity may also threaten external validity, the most serious of
these being extraneous variables.
D) A and C are true
Answer: D
Diff: 3
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LO : 2
63) ________ is a determination of whether the cause-and-effect relationships found in the
experiment can be generalized. Can the results be generalized beyond the experimental situation
and if so, to what populations, settings, times, independent variables and dependent variables can
the results be projected?
A) External validity
B) Extraneous validity
C) Internal validity
Answer: A
Diff: 2
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LO : 2
64) ________ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to changes in the test units themselves
that occur with the passage of time.
A) Mortality
B) Interactive testing effect
C) Maturation
D) Main testing effect
Answer: C
Diff: 2
LO : 3
Page Ref: 223-224
65) ________ refers to an effect of testing occurring when a prior observation affects a latter
observation.
A) Mortality
C) Maturation
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 224
LO : 3
66) ________ refers to an effect in which a prior measurement affects the test unit's response to
the independent variable.
A) Mortality
C) Maturation
Answer: B
Diff: 3
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LO : 3
67) ________ refers to an extraneous variable involving changes in the measuring instrument or
in the observers or scores themselves.
A) Instrumentation
B) Statistical regression
C) Selection bias
Answer: A
Diff: 1
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LO : 3
68) ________ refers to an extraneous variable that occurs when test units with extreme scores
move closer to the average score during the course of the experiment.
A) Instrumentation
C) Selection bias
Answer: B
Diff: 3
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LO : 3
69) ________ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to the improper assignment of test
units to treatment conditions.
A) Instrumentation
C) Selection bias
Answer: C
Diff: 2
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LO : 3
70) ________ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to the loss of test units while the
experiment is in progress.
A) Mortality
C) Maturation
Answer: A
Diff: 3
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LO : 3
71) If the experimental design called for the respondents to be randomly assigned to one of three
experimental groups and for one of three versions of a test commercial to be randomly
administered to each group, this design would be using ________.
A) design control
B) statistical control
C) randomization
D) matching
Answer: C
Diff: 1
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LO : 3
72) ________ involves measuring the extraneous variables and adjusting for their effects through
statistical analysis.
A) Design control
B) Statistical control
C) Randomization
D) Matching
Answer: B
Diff: 1
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LO : 3
73) If in test marketing a new product, the researcher ensures that the product is positioned in the
correct aisle in each store and obtains the right level of store acceptance and all commodity
volume distribution, more than likely, the researcher used ________ to help control for
extraneous variables.
A) design control
B) statistical control
C) randomization
D) matching
Answer: A
Diff: 3
LO : 3
Page Ref: 226
74) The one-group pretest-posttest is a type of ________. These designs do not control for
extraneous factors by randomization.
A) quasi-experimental design
B) true experimental design
C) statistical design
D) preexperimental design
Answer: D
Diff: 2
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LO : 4
75) Pretest-posttest control group and Solomon four-group designs are ________ distinguished
by the fact that the researcher can randomly assign test units to experimental groups and also
randomly assign treatments to experimental groups.
A) quasi-experimental designs
B) true experimental designs
C) statistical designs
D) preexperimental designs
Answer: B
Diff: 2
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LO : 4
76) ________ result when the researcher is unable to achieve full manipulation of scheduling or
allocation of treatments to test units but can still apply part of the apparatus of true
experimentation.
A) Quasi-experimental designs
B) True experimental designs
C) Statistical designs
D) Preexperimental designs
Answer: A
Diff: 2
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LO : 4
77) ________ allow for the statistical control and analysis of external variables.
A) Quasi-experimental designs
B) True experimental designs
C) Statistical designs
D) Preexperimental designs
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 231-232
LO : 4
78) Which of the following is true of the one-shot case study preexperimental design (X O1)?
A) It does not provide a basis of comparing the level of O1 to what would happen when X was
absent.
B) There is no random assignment of test units.
C) Both A and B are correct.
D) In this design, a group of test units is measured twice.
Answer: C
Diff: 3
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LO : 4
79) The one-group pretest-posttest design may be symbolized as O1
design, a group of test units is measured ________.
A) once
B) twice
C) not at all
Answer: B
Diff: 2
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LO : 4
X2
O2. In this
80) A ________ design to measure the effectiveness of a test commercial for Sears would be
implemented as follows. Respondents are recruited to central theater locations in different test
cities. At the central location, respondents are first administered a personal interview to measure,
among other things, attitudes toward the store (O1). Then they watch a TV program, the
respondents are again administered a personal interview to measure attitudes towards the store
(O2). The effectiveness of the test commercial is measured as O2 - O1.
A) one-shot case study
B) pretest-posttest control group
C) static group
D) one-group pretest-posttest
Answer: D
Diff: 3
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LO : 4
81) A ________ design to measure the effectiveness of a test commercial for Sears would be
implemented as follows. Two groups of respondents would be recruited on the basis of
convenience. Only the experimental group would be exposed to the TV program containing the
test (Sears) commercial. Then attitudes toward the department store of both the experimental
and control group respondents would be measured. The effectiveness of the test commercial is
measured as O1 - O2.
A) one-shot case study
B) pretest-posttest control group
C) static group
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 228
LO : 4
82) The static group is a two-group experimental design. One group, called the ________, is
exposed to the treatment, and the other, called the ________, is not. Measurements on both
groups are made only after the treatment, and test units are not assigned at random.
A) experimental group (EG); control group (CG)
B) experimental group (EG); random group (RG)
C) pretest group (PG); control group (CG)
D) control group (CG); experimental group (EG)
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 228
LO : 4
83)
In the pretest-posttest control group design shown above, selection bias is eliminated by
________.
A) design control
B) randomization
C) matching
D) statistical control
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 228-229
LO : 4
84)
The true experimental design shown above is a ________ design.

A) pretest-posttest control group
B) one-shot case study
C) post-test-only control group
Answer: C
Diff: 3
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LO : 4
85) In the posttest-only control group design, the treatment effect (TE) is obtained by ________.
A) TE= O1 - O2
B) TE= (O1 - O2) - (O3 - O4)
C) TE= (O2 - O1) - (O4 - O3)
D) TE= O1
Answer: A
Diff: 3
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LO : 4
86) Which of the following statements is true about the Solomon four-group design?
A) The Solomon four-group design should be used to examine the changes in the attitudes of
individual respondents.
B) The Solomon four-group design explicitly controls for interactive testing effect.
C) The Solomon four-group design is expensive and time consuming to implement.
D) All of the above statements are true.
Answer: D
Diff: 3
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LO : 4
O2 O3
O4 O5 X
O6 O7
87) O1
The above design is an example of a ________.
A) one group pretest-posttest design
B) multiple time series design
C) pretest-posttest control group design
D) time series design
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 230
LO : 4
O8 O9 O10
88) The major weakness of the time series design is the failure to control ________.
A) mortality
B) history
C) selection bias
D) instrumentation
Answer: B
Diff: 3
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LO : 4
89) The effectiveness of a test commercial (X) may be examined by broadcasting the commercial
a predetermined number of times and examining the data from a preexisting test panel. Although
the marketer can control the scheduling of the test commercial, it is uncertain when or whether
the panel members are exposed to it. The panel members' purchases before, during, and after the
campaign are examined to determine whether the test commercial has a short-term effect, a longterm effect, or no effect. A ________ design was used in this research project.
A) pretest-posttest control group

B) time series
C) one-group pretest-posttest design
D) multiple time series design
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 230-231
LO : 4
90) Which of the following statements is an advantage of statistical designs?
A) The effects of more than one independent variable can be measured.
B) Specific extraneous variables can be statistically controlled.
C) Economical designs can be formulated when each test unit is measured more than once.
D) All of the statements are advantages.
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 232
LO : 4
91) ________ is a statistical design in which the test units are blocked on the basis of an external
variable to ensure that the various experimental and control groups are matched closely on that
variable.
A) Randomized block design
B) Latin square design
C) Factorial design
D) Solomon four-group design
Answer: A
Diff: 2
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LO : 4
92) What is the main limitation of randomized block designs?
A) They require an equal number of rows, columns, and treatment levels, which is sometimes
problematic.
B) They do not allow the researcher to examine interactions of the external variables with each
other or with the independent variable.
C) The researcher can control for only one external variable.
D) The number of treatment combinations increases multiplicatively with an increase in the
number of variables or levels.
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 233
LO : 4
93) ________ is a statistical design that allows for the statistical control of two non-interacting
external variables in addition to the manipulation of the independent variable.
C) Factorial design
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 233
LO : 4
94) Which of the following statements is a limitation of Latin square designs?
problematic.
D) Both A and B are correct.
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 233-234
LO : 4
95) ________ is a statistical experimental design that is used to measure the effects of two or
more independent variables at various levels and to allow for interactions between variables.
C) Factorial design
Answer: C
Diff: 2
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LO : 4
96) What is the main disadvantage of factorial designs?
problematic.
D) The number of treatment combinations increases multiplicatively with an increase in the
number of variables or levels.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 234-235
LO : 4
97) Which statement is not true about laboratory experiments?
A) The laboratory environment offers a high degree of control because it isolates the experiment
in a carefully monitored environment.
B) The artificiality of the environment may cause reactive error, in that the respondents react to
the situation itself, rather than to the independent variable.
C) Laboratory experiments are likely to have higher external validity than field experiments.
D) Laboratory experiments allow for more complex designs than field experiments.
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 235-236
LO : 5
98) Which of the following statements is true when considering experimental versus nonexperimental designs?
A) It is difficult in descriptive studies to establish the prior equivalence of the respondent groups
with respect to both the independent and dependent variables. However, experiments can
establish this equivalence.
B) Descriptive research offers little control over other possible causal factors.
C) In descriptive research, it is also difficult to establish time order of occurrence of variables.
However, in an experiment, the researcher controls the timing of the measurements and the
introduction of the treatment.
D) All of the above statements are correct.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 236
LO : 5
99) Which of the following is a reason why experiments may be hard to administer?
A) It may be impossible to control for the effects of the extraneous variables.
B) Competitors may deliberately contaminate the results of a field experiment.
C) Both A and B are reasons why experiments may be hard to administer.
D) Neither A nor B is a reason why experiments may be hard to administer.
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 237
LO : 5
100) A ________ is a test market in which the product is sold through regular distribution
channels.
A) Simulated test market
B) Partial test market
C) Controlled test market
D) Standard test market
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 237-239
LO : 6
101) Which statement is not true concerning a standard test market?
A) It is a one-shot case study.
B) Test markets are selected and the product is sold through regular distribution channels.
C) Where external validity is important, at least four test markets should be used.
D) All statements are correct.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 237-239
LO : 6
102) Which statement is not true concerning a standard test market?

A) One or more combinations of marketing mix variables (product, price, distribution, and
promotional levels) are employed.
B) While a firm's test marketing is in progress, competitors have an opportunity to beat it to the
national market.
C) Competitors often take actions such as increasing their promotional efforts to contaminate the
test marketing program.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 237-239
LO : 6
103) Which statement is not true about simulated test markets?
A) While a firm's test marketing is in progress, competitors have an opportunity to beat it to the
national market.
B) Competitors often take actions such as increasing their promotional efforts to contaminate the
test marketing program.
C) Both A and B are not true about simulated test markets.
D) They yield mathematical estimates of market share based on initial reaction of consumers to a
new product.
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 237-239
LO : 6
104) A ________ is a test marketing program conducted by an outside research company in field
experimentation. The research company guarantees distribution of the product in retail outlets
that represent a pre-determined percentage of the market.
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 237-239
LO : 6
105) A ________ is a quasi-test market in which respondents are pre-selected, then interviewed
and observed on their purchases and attitudes toward the product.
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 237-239
LO : 6
Chapter-9
46) In a ________, respondents rate the objects by placing a mark at the appropriate position on
a line that runs from one extreme of the criterion variable to the other.
A) semantic differential scale
B) Likert scale
C) continuous rating scale
D) Stapel scale
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 274
LO : 1
47) How would you rate Sears as a department store?
Version 1
Probably the worst - - - - - - I - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - Probably the best
Version 2
Probably the worst - - - - - - I - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - Probably the best
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
The above scales are all examples of a ________.
A) continuous rating scale
B) Stapel scale
C) Semantic differential scale
D) Likert scale
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 274-275
LO : 1
48) Scores assigned to continuous rating scales by the researcher are typically treated as
________ data.
A) nominal
B) ordinal
C) ratio
D) interval
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 274-275
LO : 1
49) Which non-comparative scale has the advantage of being easy to construct and the
disadvantage of cumbersome scoring unless the scoring is computerized (Table 9.1 in the text)?
B) Likert scale
D) Stapel scale
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 274
LO : 1
50) Which scale is not an itemized rating scale (Table 9.1 in the text)?
A) Stapel scale
B) semantic differential scale
C) Likert scale
D) continuous rating scale
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 274
LO : 1
51) Which of the following statements does not pertain to non-comparative scales?
A) Noncomparative scales are often referred to as monadic scales.
B) Respondents using a non-comparative scale employ whatever rating standard seems
appropriate.
C) Data must be interpreted in relative terms and have only ordinal or rank order properties.
D) Non-comparative techniques consist of continuous and itemized rating scales.
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 273-275
LO : 1
52) A ________ is a measurement scale with five response categories ranging from "strongly
disagree" to "strongly agree," which requires the respondents to indicate a degree of agreement
or disagreement with each of a series of statements related to the stimulus objects.
B) Likert scale
D) Stapel scale
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 276-277
LO : 1
53) The author of your text and his colleagues have developed a scale for measuring Internet
users' information privacy concerns. The Awareness (of Privacy Practices) scale uses sevenpoint scales anchored with "strongly disagree" and "strongly agree." This is an example of a
________.
B) Stapel scale
C) semantic differential scale
D) Likert scale
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 276-277
LO : 1
54)
Neither
agree
Strongly
nor
Strongly
disagree Disagree disagree Agree agree
1. Sears has poor in-store service 1
2X
3
4
5
2. I like to shop at Sears.
1
2X
3
4
5
The above scale is an example of a ________.
B) Stapel scale
D) Likert scale
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 276-277
LO : 1
55) Which non-comparative scale is analyzed using profile analysis?
A) Likert scale
B) semantic differential scale
C) Stapel scale
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 277-279
LO : 1
56) Which itemized rating scale takes longer to complete than other itemized rating scales
because respondents have to read each statement?
B) Likert scale
D) Stapel scale
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 277
LO : 1
57) The Likert scale has several advantages. Which of the following is not an advantage?
A) It does not require a pretest of the adjectives or phrases to ensure bipolarity.
B) Respondents readily understand how to use the scale.
C) It is suitable for mail, telephone, or personal interviews.
D) It is easy to construct and administer.
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 275
LO : 1
58) A ________ is a seven point rating scale with endpoints associated with bi-polar labels that
have semantic meaning.
B) Likert scale
D) Stapel scale
Answer: A
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 278-279
LO : 1
59) Sears is:
Powerful -:-:-:-:-X-:-:-: Weak
Unreliable -:-:-:-:-:-X-:-: Reliable
The above scale is an example of a ________ scale.
A) continuous rating
B) Stapel
C) semantic differential
D) Likert
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 278-279
LO : 1
60) The ________ is known for its versatility and is very popular with marketing researchers.
B) Stapel scale
D) Likert scale
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 278-279
LO : 1
61) A ________ is a scale for measuring attitudes that consists of a single adjective in the middle
of an even-numbered range of values, from -5 to +5, without a neutral point (zero).
B) Likert scale
D) Stapel scale
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 279
LO : 1
62) Which scale asks the respondent to indicate how accurately or inaccurately each term
describes the object by selecting an appropriate numerical response category?
B) Stapel scale
D) Likert scale
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 279
LO : 1
63) The data obtained by using a Stapel scale can be analyzed in the same way as a ________.
B) Constant sum scale
D) Ranking scale
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 279
LO : 1
64) The ________ is confusing and difficult to apply. It is the least used of the itemized scales.
B) Stapel scale
D) Likert scale
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 279
LO : 1
65) Which of the following statements is not a consideration when making non-comparative
itemized rating scale decisions?
A) the number of scale categories to use
B) forced versus non-forced choice
C) the order of the scale questions
D) balanced versus unbalanced scales
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 280
LO : 2
66) Which statement is not true if deciding on the number of scale categories to use in a noncomparative itemized rating scale?
A) Traditional guidelines suggest that the appropriate number of categories should be seven plus
or minus two: between five and nine.
B) The smaller the number of scale categories, the finer the discrimination among stimulus
objects that is possible.
C) If the respondents are not very knowledgeable or not involved with the task, fewer categories
should be used.
D) How the data are to be analyzed and used should also influence the number of categories.
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 280
LO : 2
67) Which statement is true if deciding on the number of scale categories to use in a noncomparative itemized rating scale?
A) If the respondents are interested in the scaling task and are knowledgeable about the objects, a
larger number of categories may be employed.
B) Space limitations may restrict the number of categories in mail questionnaires.
C) If telephone interviews are involved, many categories may confuse the respondents.
D) All of the statement above are true.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 280
LO : 2
68) Which statement is not true when deciding on whether to use balanced or unbalanced scales
when developing a non-comparative itemized rating scale?
A) The scale should be balanced to obtain objective data.
B) In a balanced scale, the number of favorable and unfavorable categories are equal.
C) If the distribution of responses is likely to be skewed, either positively or negatively, a
balanced scale with more categories in the direction of skewness may be appropriate.
D) If an unbalanced scale is used, the nature and degree of unbalance in the scale should be taken
into account in data analysis.
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 280
LO : 2
69) Which statement is not true when deciding on whether to use an odd or even number of
categories when developing a non-comparative itemized rating scale?
A) With an odd number of categories, the middle scale position is generally designated neutral or
impartial.
B) The decision to use an odd or even number of categories depends on whether some of the
respondents may be neutral on the response being measured.
C) A rating scale with an even number of categories should be used if the researcher wants to
force a response.
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 281
LO : 2
70) Deciding whether to present scales as vertical or horizontal is related to which of the non-
comparative itemized rating scale decisions?

A) number of scale categories
B) physical form or configuration
C) odd or even number of categories
D) nature and degree of verbal description
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 281
LO : 2
71) The scale descriptors "very bad," "bad," "neither bad nor good," "good," and "very good" are
commonly used when studying the ________ construct (Table 9.3 in the text).
A) attitude
B) satisfaction
C) purchase frequency
D) purchase intent
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 283
LO : 2
72) The scale descriptors "never," "rarely," "sometimes," "often," and "very often" are commonly
used when studying the ________ construct (Table 9.3 in the text).
A) attitude
B) satisfaction
C) purchase frequency
D) purchase intent
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 283
LO : 2
73) ________ is the first step in developing a multi-item scale. ________ is the last step.
A) Generate an initial pool of items; Prepare the final scale
B) Develop a theory; Prepare a final scale
C) Develop a theory; Develop a purified scale
D) Generate an initial pool of items; Develop a purified scale
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 284
LO : 2
74) A multi-item scale should be evaluated for accuracy and applicability. This involves an
assessment of all of the following except ________.
A) reliability
B) generalizability
C) stability
D) validity
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 284
LO : 2
75) Validity can be assessed by examining all of the following except ________.
A) item validity
B) content validity
C) criterion validity
D) construct validity
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 285
LO : 3
76) ________ is the variation in the information sought by the researcher and the information
generated by the measurement process employed.
A) Systematic error
B) Measurement error
C) Random error
D) Variable error
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 286
LO : 3
77) Which of the following is not an approach to assess multi-item scale reliability?
A) test-retest reliability
B) construct reliability
C) alternative forms reliability
D) internal consistency reliability
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 286
LO : 3
78) XO = XT + XS + XR
In the true score model shown above, XT represents ________.
A) random error
B) the observed score or measurement
C) the true score of the characteristic
D) systematic error
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 286
LO : 3
79) Situational factors, such as the lack of clarity of the scale, including the instructions or the
items themselves, and analysis factors, such as differences in scoring and statistical analysis are
both ________ in measurement.
A) random error
B) potential sources of reliability
C) potential sources of error

D) systematic error
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 286
LO : 3
80) ________ represents stable factors that affect the observed score in the same way each time
the measurement is made, such as mechanical factors (see Fig. 9.6 in the text).
A) Systematic error
C) Random error
D) Variable error
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 286
LO : 3
81) ________ is not constant. It represents transient factors that affect the observed score in
different ways each time the measurement is made, such as transient personal or situational
factors.
A) Systematic error
C) Random error
D) Variable error
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 286
LO : 3
82) ________ is the extent to which a scale produces consistent results if repeated measurements
are made on the characteristic.
A) Validity
B) Generalizability
C) Reliability
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 286
LO : 3
83) A measure is perfectly reliable if ________.
A) XO = 0
B) XT = 0
C) XS = 0
D) XR = 0
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 286
LO : 3
84) ________ is an approach for assessing reliability in which respondents are administered
identical sets of scale items at two different times under as nearly equivalent conditions as
possible.
A) Internal consistency reliability
B) Split-half reliability
C) Test-retest reliability
D) Alternative-forms reliability
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 286-287
LO : 3
85) In ________ the degree of similarity between two measurements is determined by computing
a correlation coefficient. The higher the correlation coefficient, the greater the reliability.
A) test-retest reliability
B) internal consistency reliability
C) coefficient alpha
D) coefficient beta
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 286-287
LO : 3
86) There are several problems associated with the test-retest approach to determining reliability.
If measuring respondents' attitude toward low-fat milk may cause them to become more health
conscious and develop a more positive attitude toward low-fat milk, then there is a problem with
________.
A) the time interval between testing
B) the initial measurement altering the characteristic being measured
C) it being impossible to make repeated measurements
D) the first measurement having a carryover effect to the second or subsequent measurements
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 286-287
LO : 3
87) Which of the following is not a problem with alternative-forms reliability?
A) The results will depend on how the scale items are split.
B) It is time consuming and expensive to construct an equivalent form of the scale.
C) It is difficult to construct two equivalent forms of a scale.
D) Both B and C are correct.
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 287
LO : 3
88) ________ is an approach for assessing the internal consistency of the set of items when
several items are summated in order to form a total score for the scale.
Answer: A
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 287
LO : 3
89) ________ is a form of internal consistency reliability in which the items constituting the
scale are divided into two halves and the resulting half scores are correlated.
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 287
LO : 3
90) ________ is a measure of internal consistency reliability that is the average of all possible
split-half coefficients resulting from different splittings of the scale items.
A) Coefficient delta
B) Coefficient alpha
C) Coefficient beta
D) Coefficient eta
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 287
LO : 3
91) ________ is the extent to which differences in observed scale scores reflect true differences
among objects on the characteristics being measured, rather than systematic or random errors.
A) Validity
B) Generalizability
C) Reliability
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 288
LO : 3
92) ________ is a type of validity, sometimes called face validity, that consists of a subjective
but systematic evaluation of the representativeness of the content of a scale for the measuring
task at hand.
A) Construct validity
B) Content validity
C) Criterion validity
D) Internal consistency validity
Answer: B
Diff: 3
LO : 3
Page Ref: 288
93) A scale designed to measure store image would be considered inadequate if it omitted any of
the major dimensions (quality, variety, assortment of merchandise, etc.). This inadequacy would
be reflected in the ________ of the scale.
A) construct validity
B) content validity
C) criterion validity
D) internal consistency validity
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 288
LO : 3
94) ________ is a type of validity that examines whether the measurement scale performs as
expected in relation to other variables selected as meaningful criteria.
B) Content validity
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 288
LO : 3
95) ________ is assessed when the data on the scale being evaluated on the criterion variables
are collected at the same time.
A) Convergent validity
B) Predictive validity
C) Concurrent validity
D) Discriminant validity
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 288
LO : 3
96) To assess ________, a type of criterion validity, the researcher collects data on the scale at
one point in time and data on the criterion variables at a future time.
A) convergent validity
B) predictive validity
C) concurrent validity
D) discriminant validity
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 288
LO : 3
97) ________ is a type of validity that addresses the question of what construct or characteristic
the scale is measuring. An attempt is made to answer theoretical questions of why a scale works
and what deductions can be made concerning the theory underlying the scale.
B) Content validity
Answer: A
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 288
LO : 3
98) ________ is a measure of construct validity that measures the extent to which the scale
correlates positively with other measures of the same construct.
B) Discriminant validity
C) Nomological validity
D) Concurrent validity
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 289
LO : 3
99) ________ is a type of construct validity that assesses the extent to which a measure does not
correlate with other constructs from which it is supposed to differ.
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 289
LO : 3
100) ________ is the a type of validity that assesses the relationship between theoretical
constructs. It seeks to confirm significant correlations between the constructs as predicted by
theory.
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 289
LO : 3
101) Which statement is not true regarding the relationship between reliability and validity?
A) If a measure is perfectly valid, it is also perfectly reliable.
B) Unreliability implies invalidity.
C) If a measure is perfectly reliable, it is perfectly valid.
D) Reliability is a necessary, but not sufficient, condition for validity.
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 289
LO : 3
102) ________ is the degree to which a study based on a sample applies to a universe of
generalizations.
A) Validity
B) Generalizability
C) Reliability
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 289-290
LO : 3
103) Which statement about generalizability is not true?
A) The set of all conditions of measurement over which the investigator wishes to generalize is
the universe of generalizations.
B) In generalizability studies, measurement procedures are designed to investigate the universes
of interest by sampling conditions of measurement from each of them.
C) To generalize to other universes, facet theory procedures must be employed.
D) Traditional reliability methods can be viewed as single-facet generalizability studies.
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 289-290
LO : 3
104) When choosing a scaling technique, which of the following factors should be considered?
A) the capabilities of the respondents
B) the levels of information needed (nominal, ordinal, interval, or ratio)
C) the method of administration
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 290
LO : 3
105) When developing scales for international research, the researcher must pay special attention
to details that can make the measurement instrument specific to the country in which the
instrument will be used. Which of the following should be of concern to the marketing
researcher when developing scales for international research?
A) Special attention should be devoted to determining equivalent verbal descriptors in different
languages and cultures.
B) Scale endpoints and the verbal descriptors should be employed in a manner that is consistent
with the culture.
C) It is critical to establish the equivalence of scales and measures used to obtain data from
different countries.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 290-291
AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity
LO : 4
106) A researcher developed scales using a 7-point scale with anchor descriptors of "horrible"
and "good." This researcher has created an ethical violation in the area of ________.
A) generalizability
B) bias
C) validity
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 291
AACSB: Ethical Reasoning
LO : 5
Chapter-10
54) According to your test, SurveySite recruited 87 American and Canadian Web sites to
participate in a study to determine what design features and experiences make visitors return to a
site. The results of the survey found that ________ was the most important factor in determining
whether or not a site would receive repeat visit visitors.
A) whether or not the respondent found the site visit enjoyable
B) content
C) quality of the organization of the site and its degree of uniqueness
D) frivolous content
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 302
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 6
55) Typically, a questionnaire is only one element of a data-collection package that might also
include all of the following except ________.
A) some reward
B) communication aids
C) a data code book
D) fieldwork procedures
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 303
LO : 1
56) Which of the following is not an objective of a questionnaire?
A) A questionnaire must translate the information needed into a set of specific questions that the
respondents can and will answer.
B) A questionnaire must be easy to use.
C) A questionnaire must uplift, motivate, and encourage the respondent to become involved in
the interview, to cooperate, and to complete the interview.
D) A questionnaire should minimize response error.
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 303
LO : 1
57) Which of the following is not a part of the questionnaire design process?
A) Specify the type of interviewing method.
B) Arrange questions in proper order.
C) Reproduce the questionnaire.
D) Develop sampling plan.
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 303
LO : 2
58) The great weakness of questionnaire design is lack of ________.

A) precision
B) accuracy
C) theory
D) consensus
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 303
LO : 2
59) The first step in the questionnaire design process is ________.
A) specify the type of interview method
B) identify the form and layout
C) specify the information needed
D) determine the content of individual questions
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 303
LO : 2
60) When developing a questionnaire, to ensure that the information obtained fully addresses all
components of the problem, the researcher should ________.
A) review components of the problem and the approach
B) prepare a set of dummy tables
C) have a clear idea of the target population
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 304
LO : 2
61) A ________ describes how the analysis will be structured once the data have been collected.
A) dummy table
B) analysis table
C) dummy plan
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 304
LO : 2
62) The type of method influences questionnaire design. Considering how the questionnaire is
administered under each method, which method is most appropriate if lengthy, complex, and
varied questions need to be asked?
A) mail questionnaire
B) telephone interview
C) personal interview
D) Internet questionnaire
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 305-306
LO : 2
63) If you are deciding between personal interviews or computer-assisted interviewing, you are
at which step of the questionnaire design process?
A) Specify the type of interviewing method.
B) Determine the content of individual questions.
C) Arrange the questions in proper order.
D) Eliminate bugs by pretesting.
Answer: A
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 305-306
LO : 2
64) Deciding if a question is necessary or if several questions are needed rather than one are
decisions involved with ________.
A) determining the order of scales
B) choosing question wording
C) choosing question structure
D) individual question content
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 306-307
LO : 2
65) "Do you think Coca-Cola is a tasty and refreshing soft drink?" is an example of a ________.
A) structured question
B) dichotomous question
C) double-barreled question
D) branching question
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 307
LO : 2
66) A ________ is a single question that attempts to cover two issues.
A) structured question
B) dichotomous question
C) double-barreled question
D) branching question
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 307
LO : 2
67) When determining if a question is necessary, in some situations it may be necessary to ask
questions that are not directly related to the information that is needed. Which of the reasons
stated below were given in your text as reasons why questions not related to the information
needed might be included in the questionnaire?
A) to establish involvement and rapport
B) to disguise the purpose or sponsorship of the project
C) to generate client support for the project
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 306-307
LO : 2
68) Most "why" questions about the use of a product or choice alternative involve two aspects:
________ and ________.
A) attributes of the product; influences leading to knowledge of the product
B) attributes of the product; how the product is used
C) how the product is used; influences leading to knowledge of the product
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 307
LO : 2
69) ________ that measure familiarity, product use, and past experience should be asked before
questions about the topics themselves.
A) Branching questions
B) Filler questions
C) Dichotomous questions
D) Filter questions
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 308
LO : 2
70) "Is the respondent informed?", "Can the respondent remember?", and "Can the respondent
articulate?", are all questions asked in the ________ stage of the questionnaire design process.
A) overcoming unwillingness to answer
B) specify the type of interviewing method
C) overcoming inability to answer
D) choosing question wording
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 308
LO : 2
71) Respondents' inability to remember leads to three types of error. Which of the errors listed
below is not mentioned in the text as one of the types of errors created by respondents?
A) telescoping
B) creation error
C) recall error
D) omission error
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 308-309
LO : 2
72) The respondents' ability to remember an event is influenced by all of the following
except________.
A) the event itself
B) the time elapsed since the event
C) the presence or absence of events that would aid memory
D) where you were when the event occurred
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 308-309
LO : 2
73) Which of the following is not a reason why a respondent might be unwilling to answer a
particular question?
A) The respondent may not be informed.
B) Too much effort is required.
C) The situation or context may not seem appropriate for disclosure.
D) No legitimate purpose or need for the information requested is apparent.
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 309-311
LO : 2
74) When trying to overcome respondents' unwillingness to answer, the researcher might list the
possible responses a respondent might make. More specifically, the list is an effort by the
researcher to ________.
A) increasing the unwillingness of respondents
B) obtain sensitive information
C) put the information request in context
D) reduce the effort required of the respondents
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 309-311
LO : 2
75) Sally was reluctant to answer questions about her personal hygiene until she saw that the
survey was sponsored by the American Medical Association. Sally's understanding of who
sponsored the survey helped with which aspect of "overcoming the respondent's unwillingness to
answer"?
A) legitimate purpose
B) context
C) sensitive information
D) increasing the willingness of the respondent
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 309-311
LO : 2
76) All of the statements below are ways in which the researcher can encourage respondents to
provide information they are unwilling to give except ________.
A) preface the question with a statement that the behavior of interest is common
B) provide response categories rather than asking for specific figures
C) use randomized techniques
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 309-311
LO : 2
77) ________ refer to open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words.
A) Dichotomous questions
B) Structured questions
C) Unstructured questions
D) Branching questions
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 311
LO : 2
78) "Describe your college experience" and "What is your occupation?" are ________ questions.
A) dichotomous
B) filter
C) structured
D) unstructured
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 311
LO : 2
79) Which of the following statements is not an advantage of unstructured questions?

A) Unstructured questions are good as first questions on a topic.
B) Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are more articulate.
C) Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than structured
questions.
D) Unstructured questions are useful in exploratory research.
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 311
LO : 2
80) Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of unstructured questions?
A) Unstructured questions are not suitable for self-administered questionnaires.
B) Coding of responses is costly and time consuming.
C) Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than structured
questions.
D) Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are more articulate.
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 311
LO : 2
81) Which of the following statements is not true about unstructured questions?
A) Open-ended questions are useful in exploratory research.
B) Precoding can overcome some of the disadvantages of unstructured questions.
C) Open-ended questions are useful as opening questions.
D) Unstructured questions can suffer from order or position bias.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 311-312
LO : 2
82) ________ specify the set of response alternatives and the response format.
A) Filter questions
B) Structured questions
C) Unstructured questions
D) Branching questions
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 312
LO : 2
83) Which of the following is not a type of structured question?
A) multiple choice
B) dichotomous
C) scale
Answer: D
Diff: 1
LO : 2
Page Ref: 312
84) When developing questionnaire questions, if you are considering order position bias and the
set of all possible response alternatives, you are developing ________ questions.
A) multiple choice
B) dichotomous
C) scale
D) branching
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 312
LO : 2
85) Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of structured questions?
A) Coding and processing of data are much less costly and time consuming.
B) Considerable effort is required to design effective multiple choice questions.
C) Showing respondents the list of possible answers produces biased responses.
D) It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.
Answer: A
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 312-313
LO : 2
86) What is the one acute problem of dichotomous questions?
A) There is potential for position bias.
B) It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.
C) The response can be influenced by the wording of the question.
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 312-313
LO : 2
87) ________ is the translation of the desired question content and structure into words that
respondents can clearly and easily understand.
A) The questionnaire design process
B) Question wording
C) Overcoming inability to answer
D) Determining the content of individual questions
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 314
LO : 2
88) When developing a questionnaire, the following guidelines: (1) use positive and negative
statements, (2) avoid implicit alternatives, and (3) avoid leading questions, are used when
________.
A) arranging questions in proper order

C) designing questions to overcome the respondent's inability to answer
D) determining the content of individual questions
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 314
LO : 2
89) When developing a questionnaire, the six Ws (who, what, when, where, why, and way) are
used when ________.
A) defining the issue
C) avoiding generalizations and estimates
D) determining the content of individual questions
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 314
LO : 2
90) Choosing between the questions "Do you think the distribution of soft drinks is adequate?"
(Incorrect) and "Do you think soft drinks are readily available when you want to buy them?"
(Correct) are examples of situations that pertain to ________.
A) avoiding leading questions
B) avoiding ambiguous words
C) using positive and negative statements
D) using ordinary words
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 315
LO : 2
91) Which of the words below is an ambiguous word?
A) once
B) never
C) often
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 315
LO : 2
92) When developing a questionnaire, if the researcher is asking him/herself if the word means
what he/she intended; if it has any other meanings; if the word has more than one pronunciation;
or if a simpler phrase is suggested, then he/she is probably concerned with ________.
A) avoiding leading questions
B) avoiding ambiguous words
C) using defining the issue
D) using ordinary words
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 315
LO : 2
93) A ________ is a question that gives the respondent a clue as to what answer is desired or
leads the respondent to answer in a certain way.
A) leading question
B) implicit alternative
C) filter question
D) structured question
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 316
LO : 2
94) Which of the following statements is correct about implicit alternatives?
A) Making an implied alternative explicit may increase the percentage of people selecting that
alternative.
B) When alternatives are close in preference or large in number, the alternatives at the end of the
list have a greater chance of being selected.
C) The split ballot technique should be used to rotate the order in which a list of alternatives
appear.
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 316
LO : 2
95) "Do you like to fly when traveling short distances?" is an example of a(n) ________.
A) implicit assumption
C) generalization
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 316
LO : 2
96) "Are you in favor of a balanced budget?" is an example of a(n) ________.
A) implicit assumption
C) generalization
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 316
LO : 2
97) The statement "Questions should be specific, not general." pertains to the ________ aspect of
questionnaire development.
A) avoid implicit assumptions
B) avoid implicit alternatives
C) avoid generalizations and estimates

D) use unambiguous words
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 317
LO : 2
98) The information that is of the most importance to the research project and should be obtained
first is ________.
A) qualifying information
B) identification information
C) basic information
D) classification information
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 317-319
LO : 2
99) ________ is information that relates directly to the research problem.
A) Qualifying information
B) Identification information
C) Basic information
D) Classification information
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 317-319
LO : 2
100) ________ is socioeconomic and demographic characteristics used to classify respondents.
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 317-319
LO : 2
101) ________ is a type of information obtained in a questionnaire that includes name, address,
and phone number.
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 317-319
LO : 2
102) Which of the following statements is true about difficult questions?
A) Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the section on basic information.
B) Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the identification section.
C) Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the classification section.

D) All of the statements are correct.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 317-319
LO : 2
103) Which statement is correct concerning the effect on subsequent questions?
A) As a rule of thumb, general questions should precede specific questions to prevent specific
questions from biasing responses to general questions.
B) The inverted funnel approach is useful when respondents have no strong feelings or have not
formulated a point of view.
C) The inverted funnel approach is particularly useful when information has to be obtained about
respondents' general choice behavior and their evaluations of specific products.
D) All are correct.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 317-319
LO : 2
104) ________ are questions used to guide an interviewer through a survey by directing the
interviewer to different spots on the questionnaire depending on the answers given.
A) Leading questions
B) Branching questions
C) Opening questions
D) Multiple choice questions
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 319
LO : 2
105) Experiments on mail questionnaires for census of population revealed what about
questionnaire form and layout?
A) Questions at the top of the page received more attention than those placed at the bottom.
B) Sensitive information placed at the end of the questionnaire was answered more frequently
than sensitive information placed elsewhere.
C) Instructions printed in red made little difference except that they made the questionnaire
appear more complicated to the respondents.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 320
LO : 2
106) Which of the following practices should be avoided when reproducing the questionnaire?
A) If the printed questionnaire runs to several pages, it should take the form of a booklet.
B) Sideways formatting and splitting should be done to conserve space.
C) Directions or instructions should be placed as close to the questions as possible.
D) Surveys directed at different respondent groups can be reproduced on different colored paper.
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 321
LO : 2
107) ________ is the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents for the
purpose of improving the questionnaire by identifying and eliminating potential problems.
A) Funneling
B) Telescoping
C) Posttesting
D) Pretesting
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 322
LO : 2
108) Which statement is not true about pretests?
A) To the extent possible, a pretest should involve administering the questionnaire in an
environment and context similar to that of the actual survey.
B) A variety of interviewers should be used for pretests.
C) The project director, the researcher who developed the questionnaire, and other key members
of the research team should conduct some pretest interviews.
D) It is a good practice to employ only experienced interviewers to conduct pretests.
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 322
LO : 2
109) Observational forms should specify the who, what, and when of the behavior to be
observed. The forms should also specify all of the items below except
A) where
B) whether
C) why
D) way
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 326
LO : 3
110) Which of the following statements are true concerning questionnaire design for
international marketing research?
A) The questionnaire may have to be suitable for administration by more than one method.
B) It is desirable to have two or more simple questions rather than a single complex question.
C) Unstructured or open-ended questions should be used with caution in countries with high
illiteracy rates.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 326-327
LO : 4
111) According to the guidelines of the Professional Marketing Research Society of Canada, with
the exception of ________, questionnaires that take more than ________ minutes to complete are
generally considered "overly" long.
A) in-home personal interviews; 60
B) computer-assisted personal interviews; 60
C) in-home personal interviews; 30
D) computer-assisted personal interviews; 30
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 327-328
LO : 5
Chapter-5
39) Baby boomers are a large consumer target for many products and "show and tell" focus
groups are being used by consumer researchers. Which of the following statements is not true
about "show and tell" focus groups?
A) Respondents' attitudes are uncovered by analyzing their responses to scenarios that are
deliberately unstructured, vague, and ambiguous.
B) They provide the needed insight into the core values boomers hold close to their hearts.
C) Participants bring in three or four items that represent their ideal environment.
D) Group discussion is centered on the items brought in for "show and tell."
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 137
LO : 1
40) Whenever a new marketing research problem is being addressed, ________ research must be
preceded by appropriate ________ research.
A) qualitative; quantitative
B) observational; experimental
C) quantitative; qualitative
D) experimental; observational
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 139
LO : 1
41) According to Table 5.1 in the text, which of the following does not apply to qualitative
research?
A) a small number of nonrepresentative cases
B) non-statistical data analysis
C) unstructured form of data collection
D) outcome is used to recommend a final course of action
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 139
LO : 1
42) There are several reasons to use qualitative research. Which of the following is not a reason
to use qualitative research?
A) It is not always possible, or desirable, to use fully structured or formal methods to obtain
information from respondents.
B) People may be unwilling or unable to answer certain questions.
C) People are unwilling to give truthful answers to questions that invade their privacy, embarrass
them, or have a negative impact on their ego or status.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 140
LO : 1
43) The ________ is one type of qualitative research in which the purposes of the project are
disclosed to the respondent or are obvious, given the nature of the interview.
A) indirect approach
B) direct approach
C) focus group approach
D) descriptive approach
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 140-141
LO : 2
44) An interview conducted by a trained moderator among a small group of respondents in an
unstructured and natural manner is a(n) ________.
A) depth interview
B) projective technique
C) association technique
D) focus group
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 140-141
LO : 2
45) Focus groups are a(n) ________ research procedure and projective techniques are a(n)
________ research procedure.
A) experimental; direct
B) indirect; direct
C) direct; experimental
D) direct; indirect
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 140-141
LO : 2
46) ________ are the most important qualitative research procedure.
A) Focus groups
B) Depth interviews
C) Projective techniques
D) Association techniques
Answer: A
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 141
LO : 3
47) Which of the following is not one of the key qualifications of focus group moderators?
A) joviality
B) kindness with firmness
C) flexibility
D) sensitivity
Answer: A
Diff: 2
LO : 3
Page Ref: 142-143
48) The procedure for planning and conducting focus groups is described in Figure 5.3 in the
text. Planning begins with ________.
A) specifying the objectives of qualitative research
B) writing a screening questionnaire
C) developing a moderator's guide
D) determining objectives of the marketing research project and defining the problem
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 143
LO : 3
49) Constructing a detailed moderator's outline for use during the focus group interviews
involves extensive discussions among the ________, ________, and ________.
A) researcher; moderator; and respondents.
B) researcher; client; moderator.
C) researcher; client; respondent.
D) client; respondent; moderator.
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 144
LO : 3
50) The Real Research Mall of Atlanta focus group example in the text used focus groups to
uncover ________.
A) information on the mall visit experience
B) information on mall brand identity versus other malls
C) information on the brand value of the mall
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 146-147
LO : 3
51) It is recommended that at least ________ focus groups be conducted.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 153
LO : 3
52) A focus group interview conducted by two moderators where one moderator is responsible
for the smooth flow of the session, and the other ensures that specific issues are discussed is
called a ________.
A) two-way focus group
B) dueling-moderator group
C) dual-moderator group
D) respondent-moderator group
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 148-149
LO : 3
53) Focus groups can use several variations of the standard procedure. Which of the following is
not one of the variations mentioned in your text?
A) respondent-moderator group
B) client-participant group
C) tag-team moderator group
D) mini-group
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 148-149
LO : 3
54) A focus group interview conducted by two moderators where the moderators deliberately
take opposite positions on the issues to be discussed is called a ________.
A) dueling-moderator group
B) two-way focus group
C) dual-moderator group
D) respondent-moderator group
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 148-149
LO : 3
55) One of the findings of the Mall of Atlanta focus group research mentioned in the text was
that respondents who go to the mall for entertainment try to hold costs to under $30, except for
special occasions. The client reviewed this information and decided to design a mall experience
package that would cost $29.95 The client has fallen victim to which disadvantage of focus
groups?
A) misuse
B) misrepresentation
C) messy
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 146-147
LO : 3
56) Which of the following is a methodological application of focus groups?
A) obtaining impressions of new product concepts
B) generating alternative courses of action

C) Both B and D are correct.
D) generating hypotheses that can be tested quantitatively
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 150
LO : 3
57) Focus groups can be used to address substantive issues such as ________.
A) defining a problem more precisely
B) generating new ideas about older products
C) developing an approach to a problem
D) interpreting previously obtained quantitative results
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 150
LO : 3
58) Which statement is not true about online focus groups?
A) The group interaction lasts for about an hour.
B) The general practice is for moderators to pose their questions in all capital letters and the
respondents to respond using upper and lower case.
C) The whole process is much faster than the traditional method.
D) To enter the online focus group, participants must supply the room name, user name, and
password to the moderator via email.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 150-152
LO : 3
59) Which of the following statements is not an advantage of online focus groups?
A) The researcher can reach segments that are usually hard to survey.
B) Researchers can re-contact group participants at a later date.
C) The cost of the online focus group is much less.
D) Only people that have and know how to use a computer can participate.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 150-152
LO : 3
60) Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of online focus groups?
A) Moderators may also be able to carry on side conversations with individual respondents,
probing deeper into interesting areas.
B) It can be difficult to verify that a respondent is a member of a target group.
C) Only audio and visual stimuli can be tested.
D) Only people that have and know how to use a computer can participate.
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 150-152
LO : 3
61) Which of the situations mentioned below is not suitable for online focus groups?
A) highly emotional issues
B) companies that use the Internet to sell products or services and want to either gain market
share or gather intelligence
C) corporations that want to gather feedback on workplace issues like downsizing, job changes,
and diversity
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 150-152
LO : 3
62) A ________ is an unstructured, direct, personal interview in which a single respondent is
probed by a highly skilled interviewer to uncover underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, and
feelings on a topic.
A) focus group
B) qualitative interview
C) projective interview
D) depth interview
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 153-154
LO : 4
63) Depth interviews are like focus group in all of the following ways except________.
A) both are unstructured interviews
B) both are direct ways of obtaining information
C) both are qualitative research methods
D) both are one-on-one interviews
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 153-154
LO : 4
64) "Why do you say that?", "That's interesting, can you tell me more?" or, "Would you like to
add anything else?" are examples of ________.
A) focusing
B) projecting
C) probing
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 153-154
LO : 4
65) ________ is a technique for conducting depth interviews in which a line of questioning
proceeds from product characteristics to user characteristics.
A) Hidden issue questioning
B) Symbolic analysis
C) Laddering
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154-155
LO : 4
66) In a study the researcher was investigating attitudes toward airlines among male middle
managers. Each airline attribute, such as wide-body aircrafts, was probed (why do you like to
travel in wide-body aircrafts?) to determine why it was important (I can get more work done) and
then that reason was probed (I accomplish more), and so on (I feel good about myself). The
depth interview techniques used in the study is called ________.
A) hidden issue questioning
B) symbolic analysis
C) laddering
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 154-155
LO : 4
67) In a study the researcher was investigating attitudes toward airlines among male middle
managers. Questions asked included, "What would it be like if you could no longer use
airplanes?" Responses like, "Without planes, I would have to rely on e-mail, letters, and
telephone calls" were received. This suggests that what airlines sell to the managers is face-toface communication. The depth interview techniques used in the study is called ________.
A) hidden issue questioning
B) symbolic analysis
C) laddering
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 154-155
LO : 4
68) ________ is a type of depth interview that attempts to locate personal sore spots related to
deeply felt personal concerns.
C) Laddering
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154-155
LO : 4
69) ________ is a technique for conducting depth interviews in which the symbolic meaning of
objects is analyzed by comparing them with their opposites.
C) Laddering
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154-155
LO : 4
70) In a depth interview, the interviewer should ________.
A) avoid appearing superior and put the respondent at ease
B) be detached and objective, yet personable
C) probe the respondent
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 153-156
LO : 4
71) In a depth interview, the interviewer should ________.
A) not accept brief "yes" or "no" answers
B) not probe the respondent
C) ask questions in an informative manner
D) A and C are both correct
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 153-156
LO : 4
72) Depth interviews suffer from many of the disadvantages of focus groups and often to a
greater extent. Which of the following disadvantages is not shared with focus groups?
A) Skilled interviewers capable of conducting depth interviews are expensive and difficult to
find.
B) The lack of structure makes the results susceptible to the interviewer's influence.
C) The data obtained are difficult to analyze and interpret.
D) All of the above are shared with focus groups.
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 156
LO : 4
73) A(n) ________ is an unstructured, indirect form of questioning that encourages respondents
to project their underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, or feelings regarding the issues of
concern.
A) projective technique
B) focus group
C) association technique
D) depth interview
Answer: A
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 158
LO : 5
74) In ________, an individual is presented with a stimulus and asked to respond with the first
thing that comes to mind.
A) completion techniques
B) focus groups
C) association techniques
D) depth interviews
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 158
LO : 5
75) Word association is the best known of the ________ techniques.
A) expressive
B) association
C) completion
D) construction
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 158
LO : 5
76) With ________ respondents are presented with a list of words, one at a time. After each
word, they are asked to give the first word that comes to mind.
A) word association
B) sentence completion
C) story completion
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 158
LO : 5
77) In word association, responses are analyzed by calculating ________.

A) the frequency with which any word is given as a response
B) the amount of time that elapses before a response is given
C) the number of respondents who do not respond at all to a test word within a reasonable period
of time
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 158
LO : 5
78) ________ is a projective technique that requires the respondent to complete an incomplete
stimulus situation.
A) Association technique
B) Expressive technique
C) Construction technique
D) Completion technique
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 159
LO : 5
79) ________ is a projective technique in which respondents are presented with a number of
incomplete sentences and asked to complete them.
A) Word association
B) Sentence completion
C) Story completion
D) Expression completion
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 159
LO : 5
80) ________ is a projective technique in which the respondents are provided with part of a story
and required to give the conclusion in their own words.
A) Word association
C) Story completion
D) Expression completion
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 159
LO : 5
81) ________ require the respondent to construct a response in the form of a story, dialogue, or
description.
A) Association techniques
B) Expressive techniques
C) Construction techniques
D) Impression techniques
Answer: C
Diff: 1
LO : 5
Page Ref: 160
82) In ________, cartoon characters are shown in a specific situation related to the problem. The
respondents are asked to indicate what one cartoon character might say in response to the
comments of another character.
A) picture response techniques
B) cartoon tests
C) third-person techniques
D) role playing
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 161
LO : 5
83) The two main expressive techniques are ________ and ________.
A) role playing; word association
B) role playing; third-person technique
C) word association; sentence completion
D) third-person technique; word association
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 161
LO : 5
84) ________ is a projective technique in which the respondent is presented with a verbal or
visual situation and asked to relate the beliefs and attitudes of a third person to the situation.
A) Role playing
C) Cartoon test
D) Third-person technique
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 162
LO : 5
85) In ________, respondents are asked to play the role or assume the behavior of someone else.
A) role playing
B) sentence completion
C) cartoon test
D) third-party technique
Answer: A
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 161
LO : 5
86) Projective techniques are used less frequently than unstructured direct methods (focus groups
and depth interviews). A possible exception may be ________, which is used commonly to test
brand names and occasionally to measure attitudes about particular products, brands, packages,
or advertisements.
A) story completion
B) word association
C) sentence completion
D) cartoon tests
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 163
LO : 5
87) Which of the following guidelines does not enhance the usefulness of projective techniques?
A) Projective techniques should be used because the required information cannot be accurately
obtained by direct methods.
B) Projective techniques should be used for exploratory research to gain initial insights and
understanding.
C) Given their complexity, projective techniques should not be used naively.
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 163
LO : 5
88) ________ is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analyzing
qualitative data. In this step, the researcher chooses which aspects of the data are emphasized,
minimized, or set aside for the project at hand.
A) Data display
B) Data reduction
C) Data determination
D) Conclusion drawing and verification
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 164
LO : 1
qualitative data. In this step, the researcher develops a visual interpretation of the data with the
use of such tools as a diagram, chart or matrix.
A) Data display
B) Data reduction
Answer: A
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 164
LO : 1
qualitative data. In this step, the researcher considers the meaning of analyzed data and assesses
its implications for the research question at hand.
A) Data display
B) Data reduction
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 164
LO : 1
91) When conducting international marketing research, focus group moderators should not only
be trained in focus group methodology but should also be familiar with the ________ of the
country.
A) language
B) culture
C) patterns of social interaction
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 166
LO : 6
92) Which of the following is not an ethical issue of concern to the researcher?
A) disguising the purpose of the research and the use of deceptive procedures
B) videotaping and recording the proceedings
C) comfort level of the respondents
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 167
LO : 7
93) The 2000, 2004 and 2008 presidential elections were cited in your text for negative attacks
by both the Republican and Democratic parties. The negative attacks were based on qualitative
marketing research used to help design the messages. Which ethical concern is this use of
marketing research related to?
A) disguising the purpose of the research and the use of deceptive procedures
B) using qualitative research for questionable purposes
C) comfort level of the respondents
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 167-168
LO : 7
Chapter-15
64) A mathematical distribution whose objective is to obtain a count of the number of responses
associated with different values of one variable and to express these counts in percentage terms is
a(n) ________.
A) t distribution
B) frequency distribution
C) chi-square distribution
D) distribution
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 452
LO : 2
65) Which of the research questions/hypotheses below is best answered using frequency
distribution?
A) What percentage of the market consists of heavy users, medium users, light users, and
nonusers?
B) The heavy and light users of a brand differ in terms of psychographic characteristics.
C) What is the income distribution of brand users? Is this distribution skewed toward low
income brackets?
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 452
LO : 2
66) A frequency distribution helps determine ________.
A) the extent of nonresponse
B) the extent of illegitimate responses
C) the presence of outliers or cases with extreme values
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 452
LO : 2
67) A frequency distribution helps ________.
A) determine how close a sample comes to the null hypothesis
B) us to understand how one variable, X, relates to another variable, Y
C) determine if a systematic association exists between two variables
D) determine the shape of the empirical distribution of the variable
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 452
LO : 2
68) A statistic that describes a location within a data set is a ________.
A) measure of variability
B) measure of shapes
C) measure of occasion
D) measure of location
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 454
LO : 2
69) The value obtained by summing all elements in a set and dividing by the number of elements
is the ________.
A) mean
B) median
C) mode
D) range
Answer: A
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 454
LO : 2
70) The ________ is the value that occurs most frequently.
A) mean
B) median
C) mode
D) range
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 454
LO : 2
71) A measure of central tendency given as the value above which half of the values fall and
below which half of the values fall is the ________.
A) mean
B) median
C) mode
D) range
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 454
LO : 2
72) The median is an appropriate measure of central tendency for ________ data.
A) interval
B) ratio
C) ordinal
D) nominal
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 454
LO : 2
73) As a general rule to follow to determine which of the different measures of location to use, if
the variable is measured on a nominal scale, ________ is the appropriate measure of central
tendency that should be used.
A) mean
B) median
C) mode
D) range
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 454
LO : 2
74) A statistic that indicates the distribution's dispersion is a ________.
A) measure of variability
B) measure of shape
C) measure of occasion
D) measure of location
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 455-456
LO : 2
75) The ________ is the most appropriate measure of central tendency for interval or ratio data.
A) mean
B) median
C) mode
D) range
Answer: A
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 454-455
LO : 2
76) ________ include the range, interquartile range, variance or standard deviation, and
coefficient of variation.
A) Measures of variability
B) Measures of shape
C) Measures of occasion
D) Measures of location
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 455-456
LO : 2
77) The difference between the smallest and the largest values in a distribution is the ________.
A) mean
B) median
C) mode
D) range
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 455-456
LO : 2
78) The ________ is the difference between the 75th and 25th percentile.
A) standard deviation
B) coefficient of variation
C) variance
D) interquartile range
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 455-456
LO : 2
79) The mean squared deviation of all the values from the mean is the ________.
C) variance
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 455-456
LO : 2
80) The square root of the variance is the ________.
C) variance
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 455-456
LO : 2
81) The ________ is the ratio of the standard deviation to the mean, expressed as a percentage,
and it is a unitless measure of relative variability.
C) variance
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 455-456
LO : 2
82) The tendency of the deviations from the mean to be larger in one direction than in the other is
called ________.
A) kurtosis
B) type I error
C) skewness
D) type II error
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 456-457
LO : 2
83) ________ is a measure of the relative peakedness or flatness of the curve defined by the
frequency distribution.
A) Kurtosis
B) Type I error
C) Skewness
D) Type II error
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 456-457
LO : 2
84) Which of the research questions/hypotheses below is best answered using hypothesis testing?
A) Is familiarity with a new product related to age and education levels after controlling for
income?
B) The department store is being patronized by more than 10 percent of households.
C) One hotel has a more upscale image than its close competitor.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 457
LO : 4
85) Which statement is not correct about the null hypothesis?
A) It is always the hypothesis tested.
B) Accepting the null hypothesis will lead to some changes in opinions or action.
C) It can never be accepted based on a single statistical test.
D) In marketing research, the null hypothesis is formulated in such a way that rejection leads to
the acceptance of the desired conclusion.
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 457-458
LO : 4
86) Which of the following statements is not correct about the alternative hypothesis?
A) There is no way to determine whether the alternative hypothesis is true.
B) The alternative hypothesis represents the conclusion for which evidence is sought.
C) The alternative hypothesis is the opposite of the null hypothesis.
D) None of the statements are correct.
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 457-458
LO : 4
87) The alternative hypothesis: the percentage of Internet users who use the Internet for shopping
is greater than .40, is a ________.
A) Type I error
B) two-tailed test
C) Type II error
D) one-tailed test
Answer: D
Diff: 2
LO : 4
Page Ref: 457-458
88) What is the correct expression of the null hypothesis for the alternative hypothesis: the
percentage of Internet users who use the Internet for shopping is greater than .40?
A) H0: < .40
B) H1: > .40
C) H0: = .40
D) H1: .40
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 457-458
LO : 4
89) ________ occurs when the sample results lead to the rejection of a null hypothesis that is in
fact true.
A) Type I error
B) Two-tailed error
C) Type II error
D) One-tailed error
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 459
LO : 4
90) Also known as beta error, ________ occurs when the sample results lead to the nonrejection
of a null hypothesis that is in fact false.
A) Type I error
B) Two-tailed error
C) Type II error
D) one-tailed error
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 459
LO : 4
91) The ________ is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is in fact false, and
should be rejected.
A) Type I error
B) level of significance
C) Type II error
D) power of a test
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 459
LO : 4
92) To balance the two types of errors, alpha (), also known as ________, is often set at .01 or .
05.
A) type I error
B) level of significance
C) type II error
D) A and B are correct
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 459
LO : 4
93) The last step involved in hypothesis testing is ________.
A) reject or do not reject the null hypothesis
B) draw a marketing research conclusion
C) compare the probability with level of significance alpha ()
D) determine the probability associated with the test statistic under the null hypothesis
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 461
LO : 4
94) Hypothesis tests can be related to ________.
A) tests of strength
B) tests of association
C) tests of differences
D) B and C are correct
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 461
LO : 4
95) Which of the research questions/hypotheses below is best answered using cross-tabulations?
A) Is familiarity with a new product related to age and education levels?
B) The department store is being patronized by more than 10 percent of households.
C) One hotel has a more upscale image than its close competitor.
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 461
LO : 3
96) A statistical technique that describes two or more variables simultaneously and results in
tables that reflect the joint distribution of two or more variables that have a limited number of
categories or distinct values is a ________.
A) t test
B) non-parametric test
C) parametric test
D) cross-tabulation
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 461-462
LO : 3
97) Which statement is not correct about cross-tabulations?

A) The margins of a cross-tabulation show the same information as the frequency tables for each
of the variables.
B) Cross-tabulation tables are also called contingency tables.
C) The data are considered to be qualitative or categorical data.
D) Cross-tabulations provide inferences for making statements about the means of parent
populations.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 462-463
LO : 3
98) Which of the following statements is true concerning cross-tabulations with two variables?
A) Cross-tabulation with two variables is also known as bivariate cross-tabulation.
B) Because two variables have been cross-classified, percentages could be computed either
column-wise, based on column totals, or row-wise, based on row totals.
C) The general rule is to compute the percentages in the direction of the independent variable,
across the dependent variable.
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 462-463
LO : 3
99) The introduction of a third variable in cross-tabulation can result in which of the following
possibilities?
A) refined association between the two original variables
B) no association between the two original variables
C) no change in the initial pattern
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 463
LO : 3
100) In cross-tabs, the introduction of a third variable can ________.
A) refine the association observed between the two original variables
B) indicate no association between the two variables, although an association was initially
observed
C) indicate no change in the initial association
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 463
LO : 3
101) Which of the following statements is not true concerning cross-tabulation?
A) No more than three variables can be cross-tabulated.
B) As a general rule, there should be at least five expected observations in each cell for the
statistics computed to be reliable.
C) Cross-tabulation examines association between variables, not causation.

D) None of the above statements are untrue.
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 466
LO : 3
102) Which statement is not related to statistics associated with cross-tabulation?
A) The statistical significance of the observed association is commonly measured by the chisquare statistic.
B) The t test could be conducted on the mean of one sample or two samples of observations.
C) Generally, the strength of association is of interest only if the association is statistically
significant.
D) The strength of association can be measured by the phi correlation coefficient, the
contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and the lambda coefficient.
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 466-467
LO : 4
103) The ________ is used to test the statistical significance of the observed association in crosstabulation.
A) contingency coefficient
B) Cramer's V
C) phi coefficient
D) chi-square statistic
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 467
LO : 4
104) The ________ is a skewed distribution whose shape depends solely on the number of
degrees of freedom. As the number of degrees of freedom increases, the distribution becomes
more symmetrical.
A) t distribution
D) F distribution
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 467-468
LO : 4
105) The ________ is used as a measure of the strength of association in the special case of a
table with two rows and two columns (a 2 2 table).
B) Cramer's V
C) phi coefficient
D) chi-square coefficient
Answer: C
Diff: 3
LO : 4
Page Ref: 468-470
106) The ________ can be used to assess the strength of association in a table of any size.
C) phi coefficient
D) chi-square coefficient
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 468-470
LO : 4
107) ________ is a measure of the strength of association used in tables larger than 2 2.
A) coefficient of variation
B) Cramer's V
C) Phi coefficient
D) Chi-square coefficient
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 468-470
LO : 4
108) ________ is a modified version of the phi correlation coefficient, .
A) Cramer's V
C) Asymmetric lambda
D) Chi-square statistic
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 468-470
LO : 3
109) ________ is a measure of the percentage improvement in predicting the value of the
dependent variable, given the value of the independent variable in contingency table analysis.
A) Tau b
B) Symmetric lambda
C) Asymmetric lambda
D) Tau c
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 468-470
LO : 3
110) ________ is an average of the two asymmetric lambda values. It does not make an
assumption about which variable is dependent.
A) Tau b
B) Symmetric lambda
C) Tau c
D) Gamma
Answer: B
Diff: 2
LO : 3
Page Ref: 468-470
111) ________ is a test statistic that measures the association between two ordinal-level
variables. It makes an adjustment for ties and is most appropriate when the table of variable is
square.
A) Tau b
B) Symmetric lambda
C) Tau c
D) Gamma
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 468-470
LO : 3
112) Tau b, tau c, and gamma are available to measure association between two ________-level
variables.
A) nomimal
B) ordinal
C) interval
D) ratio
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 468-470
LO : 3
variables. It makes an adjustment for ties and is most appropriate when the table of variables is
not square but a rectangle.
A) Tau b
B) Symmetric lambda
C) Tau c
D) Gamma
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 468-470
LO : 3
variables. It does not make an adjustment for ties.
A) Tau b
B) Symmetric lambda
C) Tau c
D) Gamma
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 468-470
LO : 3
115) ________ are hypothesis testing procedures that assume that the variables of interest are
measured on at least an interval scale.

A) Parameter tests
B) Parametric tests
C) Nonparametric tests
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 471
LO : 4
116) ________ are hypothesis testing procedures that assume that the variables are measured on
a nominal or ordinal scale.
A) Parameter tests
B) Parametric tests
C) Nonparametric tests
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 471
LO : 4
117) The ________ is a statistic that assumes that the variable has a symmetric bell-shaped
distribution and the mean is known (or assumed to be known) and the population variance is
estimated from the sample.
A) F statistic
B) t statistic
C) z statistic
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 472
LO : 4
118) The ________ is a univariate hypothesis test using the t distribution, which is used when the
standard deviation is unknown and the sample size is small.
A) z test
B) t test
C) paired samples test
D) F test
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 472
LO : 4
119) Which of the following statements is not true about parametric tests?
A) Parametric tests are used when the independent variables are non-metric.
B) The t test is a commonly used parametric test.
C) The t statistic assumes that the variable is normally distributed and the mean is known (or
assumed to be known) and the population variance is estimated from the sample.
D) B and C are not correct.
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 471-472
LO : 4
120) The ________ is a symmetric bell-shaped distribution that is useful for small sample (n <
30) testing.
A) t distribution
D) F distribution
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 472
LO : 4
121) Which statement is not true concerning the t distribution?
A) Compared to the normal distribution, the t distribution has more area in the tails and less in
the center.
B) As the number of degrees of freedom increases, the t distribution approaches the normal
distribution.
C) The t distributions are skewed to the left.
D) The population variance is unknown and is estimated by the sample variance s2.
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 472
LO : 4
122) Suppose we wanted to test the hypothesis that the mean familiarity rating exceeds 4.0, the
neutral value on a seven-point scale. The hypotheses may be formulated as ________.
A) H0:1 = 2
H1:1 2
B) H0:12 = 22
H1:12 22
C) H0: 4.0
H1: > 4.0
D) H0: 1 = 2
H1: 1 2
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 472-473
LO : 4
123) The degrees of freedom for the t statistic to test hypotheses about one mean are ________.
A) n
B) n - 1
C) n1 + n2
D) n1 +n2 - 2
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 472-473
LO : 4
124) If the population standard deviation was assumed to be known, rather than estimated from
the sample, a ________ would be appropriate rather than a ________.
A) z test; t test
B) t test; F test
C) t test; z test
D) z test; F test
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 472-473
LO : 4
125) In the parametric case of means for two independent samples, the hypotheses take which
form?
A) H0:1 = 2
H1:1 2
B) H0:12 = 22
H1:12 22
C) H0: 4.0
H1: > 4.0
D) H0: 1 = 2
H1: 1 2
Answer: A
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 473-475
LO : 4
126) The degrees of freedom for the t statistic to test the hypothesis about two independent
samples is ________.
A) n
B) n - 1
C) n1 + n2
D) n1 +n2 - 2
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 473-475
LO : 4
127) The F test of sample variance may be performed if it is not known whether the two
populations have equal variance. In this case the hypotheses are ________.
A) H0:1 = 2
H1:1 2
B) H0:12 = 22
H1:12 22
C) H0: 4.0
H1: > 4.0
D) H0: 1 = 2
H1: 1 2
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 473-475
LO : 4
128) The ________ is a statistical test of the equality of the variances of two populations.
A) z test
B) t test
C) paired samples test
D) F test
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 473-475
LO : 4
129) The ________ is a frequency distribution that depends upon two sets of degrees of freedom,
the degrees of freedom in the numerator and the degrees of freedom in the denominator.
A) t distribution
B) Z statistic
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 473-475
LO : 4
130) If the probability of F is greater than the significance level , ________ and ________
should be used.
A) H0 is rejected; t based on "equal variances not assumed"
B) H0 is not rejected; t based on "equal variances assumed"
C) H0 is rejected; t based on "equal variances assumed"
D) H0 is not rejected; t based on "equal variances not assumed"
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 473-475
LO : 4
131) For the parametric case, involving proportions for two independent samples, the null and
alternative hypotheses are ________.
A) H0:1 = 2
H1:1 2
B) H0:12 = 22
H1:12 22
C) H0: 4.0
H1: > 4.0
D) H0: 1 = 2
H1: 1 2
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 475-476
LO : 4
132) The degrees of freedom for the t statistic to test hypotheses about paired samples are
________.
A) n
B) n - 1
C) n1 + n2
D) n1 + n2 - 2
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 476
LO : 4
133) For the parametric case involving the means of paired samples, the null and alternative
hypotheses are ________.
A) H0:1 = 2
H1:1 2
B) H0:12 = 22
H1:12 22
C) H0:D = 0
H1:D 0
D) H0: 1 = 2
H1: 1 2
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 476
LO : 4
134) In the context of the Internet usage example, suppose we wanted to test whether the
probability of observing a K value of .222, as determined by the normalized z statistic, is 0.103.
Because this is more than the significance level of 0.05, the null hypothesis cannot be rejected.
What do the results mean?

A) The distribution of the Internet usage does deviate significantly from the normal distribution.
B) The distribution of the Internet usage does not deviate significantly from the normal
distribution.
C) The proportion of users for males and for females is not significantly different for the two
samples.
D) The proportion of users for males and for females is significantly different for the two
samples.
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 478
LO : 5
135) A one-sample nonparametric goodness-of-fit test to determine whether the observations for
a particular variable could reasonably have come from a particular distribution is the ________.
A) Kolmogorov-Smirnov one-sample test
B) runs test
C) binomial test
D) Mann-Whitney U test
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 478
LO : 5
136) A Kolmogorov-Smirnov one-sample test was conducted. The largest absolute difference
between the observed and normal distribution was K = 0.222. The sample size was only 30
therefore, the approximate formula was used and the critical value for K was 0.248. Because the
calculated value of K is ________ than the critical value, the null hypothesis ________ be
rejected.
A) smaller; cannot
B) larger; cannot
C) smaller; can
D) larger; can
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 478
LO : 5
137) The test statistic used in the Kolmogorov-Smirnov one-sample test is ________.
A) K = Max |Oi, Ai |
B) K = Min | Ai - Oi |
C) K = Max | Ai - Oi |
D) K = Min | Oi , Ai |
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 478
LO : 5
138) Which of the following tests is not a non-parametric one-sample test?

B) runs test
C) binomial test
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 478-479
LO : 5
139) When the difference in the location of two populations is to be compared based on
observations from two independent samples, and the variable is measured on an ordinal scale, the
________ can be used.
B) runs test
C) binomial test
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 478-479
LO : 5
140) A ________ is a test conducted by determining whether the order or sequence in which
observations are obtained is random.
A) Mann-Whitney U test
B) sign test
C) binomial test
D) runs test
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 478
LO : 5
141) The ________ tests the goodness of fit of the observed number of observations in each
category to the number expected under a specified binomial distribution.
B) sign test
C) binomial test
D) runs test
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 478
LO : 5
142) If the samples used in the Mann-Whitney U test are from the same population, the
distribution of scores from the two groups in the rank list should be ________.
A) random
B) u-shaped
C) normal
D) uniform
Answer: A
Diff: 3
LO : 5
Page Ref: 478-479
143) Which test is not an independent samples test?

A) Kolmogorov-Smirnov two-sample test
B) Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed-ranks test
C) Mann-Whitney U test
D) two-sample median test
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 478-479
LO : 5
144) The test statistic used in the Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed-ranks test is ________.
A) t
B) chi-square
C) alpha
D) z
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 480
LO : 5
145) A nonparametric test that analyzes the differences between the paired observations, taking
into account the magnitude of the differences is the ________.
A) Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed-ranks test
B) sign test
C) McNemar test
D) runs test
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 480
LO : 5
146) The ________ test is a nonparametric test for examining differences in the location of two
populations, based on paired observations, that compares only the signs of the differences
between pairs of variables without taking into account the magnitude of the differences.
B) sign test
C) binomial test
D) runs test
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 481
LO : 5
Chapter-16
34) A statistical technique for examining the differences among means for two or more
populations is called ________.
A) chi-square
B) analysis of variance (ANOVA)
C) cross-tabulation
D) independent samples t test
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 497
LO : 1
35) Categorical independent variables are ________. The independent variables must all be
categorical (nonmetric) to use ________.
A) factors; ANOVA
B) covariates; ANOVA
C) parameters; regression
D) items; ANOVA
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 499-500
LO : 1
36) Which statement is correct concerning one-way ANOVA?
A) Only one categorical variable is involved.
B) A treatment is the same as a particular combination of factor levels.
C) The set of independent variables consists of both categorical and metric variables.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 499-500
LO : 1
37) An advanced analysis of variance procedure in which the effects of one or more metricscaled extraneous variables are removed from the dependent variable before conducting the
ANOVA is called ________.
A) analysis of covariance (ANCOVA)
B) one-way analysis of variance
C) n-way analysis of variance
D) decomposition of the total variation
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 499-500
LO : 1
38) The null hypothesis for ANOVA typically is that all ________.
A) proportions are equal
B) means are unequal
C) proportions are unequal
D) means are equal
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 499-500
LO : 1
39) A covariate is a ________ independent variable used in ________.
A) metric; ANOVA
B) categorical; ANCOVA
C) metric; ANCOVA
D) categorical; ANOVA
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 499-500
LO : 1
40) Which of the statistical techniques below does not involve a metric independent variable
(Figure 16.1 in the text)?
A) t test
B) ANOVA
C) regression
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 499-500
LO : 1
41) How consumers' "intentions to buy the brand" varies with different price levels is best
analyzed via ________.
A) t tests
B) one-way ANOVA
C) ANCOVA
D) regression
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 500
LO : 2
42) The strength of the effects of X (independent variable or factor) on Y (dependent variable) is
measured by ________.
A) eta2 (2)
B) SSx
C) SSy
D) SSwithin
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 503
LO : 2
43) Also referred to as SSerror, ________ is the variation in Y due to the variation within each of
the categories of X. This variation is not accounted for by X.
A) SSx
B) SSwithin
C) SSbetween
D) SSy
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 501-502
LO : 2
44) The total variation in y is ________.
A) SSx
B) SSwithin
C) SSbetween
D) SSy
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 501-502
LO : 2
45) In one-way ANOVA, separation of the variation observed in the dependent variable into the
variation due to the independent variables plus the variation due to error is called ________.
A) decomposition of the total variation
B) one-way analysis of variance
C) n-way analysis of variance
D) analysis of covariance (ANCOVA)
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 501-502
LO : 2
46) The total variation in Y, denoted by SSy, can be decomposed into which two components?
A) SSy = SSx - SSerror
B) SSy = SSbetween + SSwithin
C) SSy = SSx + SSerror
D) B and C are correct.
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 501-502
LO : 2
47) Which step are you on in the procedure for conducting one-way analysis of variance if you
are decomposing SSy into two components using the equation SSy = SSbetween + SSwithin?
A) decompose the total variation
B) measure the effects
C) test the significance
D) interpret the results
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 501-502
LO : 2
48) Which statement is correct concerning the decomposition of the total variation?
A) Because it is not known that all the groups have the same mean, we cannot calculate the
variance of all the observations together.
B) If the population mean is the same in all the groups, then the variation in the sample means
and the sizes of the sample groups can be used to estimate the variance of Y.
C) By comparing the Y variance estimates based on between-group and within group variation,
we can test the null hypothesis.
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 501-503
LO : 2
49) If you are estimating 2, you are at which step in the procedure for conducting one-way
analysis of variance?
A) decompose the total variation
B) measure the effects
C) test the significance
D) interpret the results
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 503
LO : 2
50) The effects of X on Y is measured by ________.

A) SSerror
B) SSx
C) SSy
D) SSwithin
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 503
LO : 2
51) ________ is a measure of variation in Y that is explained by the independent variable X.
A) eta2 (2)
B) SSx
C) SSy
D) SSwithin
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 503
LO : 2
52) In one-way ANOVA, the null hypothesis may be tested by ________.
A) the t statistic
B) F statistic
C) chi-square
D) eta2
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 503
LO : 2
53) Which statement is correct if the null hypothesis for a one-way ANOVA is rejected?
A) The effect of the independent variable is significant.
B) The mean value of the dependent variable will be the same for different categories of the
independent variable.
C) The independent variable does not have a significant effect on the dependent variable.
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 503
LO : 2
54) The ________ refers to the fact that ordinarily the assumption in analysis of variance that the
categories of the independent variable are fixed.
A) fixed-effects model
B) random-effects model
C) mixed-effects model
D) standard-effects model
Answer: A
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 508
LO : 2
55) In the ________, the categories or treatments are considered to be random samples from a
universe of treatments. Inferences are made to other categories not examined in the analysis.
A) fixed-effects model
B) random-effects model
C) mixed-effects model
D) standard-effects model
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 508
LO : 2
56) How consumers' intentions to buy a brand vary with different levels of price and different
levels of distribution is best analyzed via ________.
A) n-way ANOVA
B) one-way ANOVA
C) ANCOVA
D) regression
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 508-509
LO : 3
57) A major advantage of ________ is that it enables the researcher to examine interactions
between the factors.
A) one-way ANOVA
B) n-way ANOVA
C) t tests
D) F tests
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 508-509
LO : 3
58) The strength of the joint effect of two (or more) factors or the overall effect is known as
________.
A) significance of the overall effect
B) significance of the main effect
C) multiple 2
D) significance of the interaction effect
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 509
LO : 3
59) A test finding that some differences exist between some of the treatment groups is a test of
the ________.
C) multiple 2
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 509
LO : 3
60) Which F test is used to test the significance of the overall effect?
SS
x1x2/ df n
SS
A) F =
error /df d
( SS
x1 SS x2 SS x1x 2)/df n
SS
B) F =
SS
SS
C) F =
x1/ df n
error /df d
SS
SS
error /df d
x1x2/(c - 1)
error /(N - c)
D) F =
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 509
LO : 3
61) A test of the significance of the interaction between two or more independent variables is a
test of the ________.
C) multiple 2
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 509
LO : 3
62) A test of the significance of the main effect for each individual factor is a test of the
________.
C) multiple 2
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 510
LO : 3
63) In determining how different price levels will affect a household's cereal consumption, it may
be essential to take household size into account. This is best analyzed by ________.
A) n-way ANOVA
B) one-way ANOVA
C) ANCOVA
D) regression
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 513
LO : 4
64) Analysis of covariance includes at least one ________ independent variable and at least one
________ independent variable.
A) categorical; interval
B) ordinal; categorical
C) metric; interval
D) parametric; interval
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 513
LO : 4
65) Important issues involved in the interpretation of ANOVA results include all of the following
except ________.
A) interactions
B) determining the appropriateness of the test
C) relative importance of factors
D) multiple comparisons
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 513
LO : 5
66) Which statement is not true concerning interactions resulting from ANOVA?
A) In disordinal interactions of a crossover type, the relative effect of the levels of one factor
changes with the levels of the other.
B) Because it involves a change in rank order, disordinal interaction is stronger than ordinal
interaction.
C) Disordinal interactions of a crossover type represent the weakest interactions.
D) In ordinal interaction, the rank order of the effects related to one factor does not change
across the levels of the second factor.
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 513-515
LO : 5
67) At what point does 2 begin to represent a larger experimental effect?
A) .25
B) .15
C) .10
D) .06
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 515--516
LO : 5
68) ________ are used to examine differences among two or more means of the treatment
groups.
A) Nonmetric ANOVA
B) Contrasts
C) Repeated measures ANOVA
D) Multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA)
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 516
LO : 5
69) In ANOVA the relative contribution of a factor X is calculated as ________.
SS
x - ( df x MS error)
2
A) x =
SS
( SS
total MS error
x1 SS x2 SS x1x 2)/df x1
SS
2
B) x =
( SS
SS
C) x =
D) x =
x /df x
error
SS
SS
total /MS error
x /(c 1)
error /(N - c)
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 515
LO : 5
70) ________ are determined before conducting the analysis, based on the researcher's
theoretical framework.
A) Single comparison contrasts
B) Multiple comparison contrasts
C) A priori contrasts
D) A posteriori contrasts
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 516
LO : 5
71) ________ are contrasts made after the analysis.
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 516
LO : 5
72) ________ are contrasts that enable the researcher to construct generalized confidence
intervals that can be used to make pairwise comparisons of all treatment means.
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 516
LO : 5
73) ________ is an ANOVA technique used when respondents are exposed to more than one
treatment condition and repeated measurements are obtained.
A) Nonmetric ANOVA
B) Contrasts
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 516-517
LO : 6
74) Repeated measures analysis of variance may be thought of as an extension of the ________
to the case of more than two related samples.
A) z test
B) F test
C) t test
D) paired samples t test
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 516-517
LO : 6
75) ________ is an ANOVA technique for examining the difference in the central tendencies of
more than two groups when the dependent variable is measured on an ordinal scale.
A) Nonmetric ANOVA
B) Contrasts
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 518-519
LO : 6
76) ________ is an ANOVA technique using two or more metric dependent variables.
A) Nonmetric ANOVA
B) Contrasts
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 519
LO : 6
77) Suppose that four groups, each consisting of 100 randomly selected individuals, were
exposed to four different commercials about Tide detergent. After seeing the commercial, each
individual provided ratings on preference for Tide, preference for Proctor and Gamble (the
company making Tide), and preference for the commercial itself. Because these three preference
variables are correlated, ________ should be conducted to determine which commercial is the
most effective (produced the highest preferences across the three variables).
A) MANOVA
B) one-way ANOVA
C) n-way ANOVA
D) regression
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 519
LO : 6
78) Which statement about MANOVA is not true?
A) MANOVA examines group differences across multiple dependent variables simultaneously.
B) In MANOVA, the null hypothesis is that the vectors of means on multiple dependent variables
are equal across groups.

C) MANOVA is most appropriate if there are multiple dependent variables that are uncorrelated
or orthogonal.
D) Multivariate analysis of variance is appropriate when there are two or more dependent
variables that are correlated.
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 519
LO : 6
79) When using SPSS Windows one-way ANOVA can be efficiently performed using the
________ program.
A) GENERAL LINEAR MODEL
B) NONPARAMETRIC TESTS
C) COMPARE MEANS
D) UNIVARIATE
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 521
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 2
80) When using SPSS Windows, for nonmetric analysis of variance, including the k-sample
median test and Kruskal-Wallis one way analysis of variance, the program ________ should be
used.
A) general linear model
B) nonparametric tests
C) compare means
D) univariate
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 521
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 6
Chapter-17
44) The product moment correlation is also known as the Pearson correlation coefficient and as
________.
A) simple correlation
B) bivariate correlation
C) correlation coefficient
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 530
LO : 1
45) ________ is best to use to determine how strongly sales are related to advertising
expenditures.
A) Multiple regression analysis
B) Partial correlation coefficient
C) ANOVA
D) Product moment correlation (r)
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 530
LO : 1
46) The ________ is a statistic summarizing the strength of association between two metric
variables.
A) multiple regression analysis
B) partial correlation coefficient
C) ANOVA
D) product moment correlation
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 530
LO : 1
47) The equation for r involves dividing the ________ by ________.
A) COVxy; the product of the variance of X and Y (Sx2Sy2)
B) product of the standard deviation of X and Y (SxSy); COVxy
C) COVxy; the product of the standard deviation of X and Y (SxSy)
2S 2
D) product of the variances of X and Y (Sx y ); COVxy
Answer: C
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 531
LO : 1
48) The equation for r is represented as ________.
A) COV / S 2S 2
xy x y
B) SxSy/COV
C) COVxy/ SxSy
D) Sx2Sy2/COV
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 531
LO : 1
49) In the equation COVxy/ SxSy, Sx and Sy represent ________.
A) the standard deviation of X and Y
B) the variances of X and Y
C) the means of X and Y
D) the strength of the effects of X and Y
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 531
LO : 1
50) r2 measures ________.
A) the proportion of variation in one variable that is explained by the other
B) the proportion of error variation
C) the proportion of variation in Y related to the variation of the categories of X
D) the proportion of variation in Y due to the variation within each of the categories of X
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 532-533
LO : 1
51) r = 0 indicates ________.
A) X and Y have a relationship
B) X and Y don't have a linear relationship
C) X and Y are unrelated
D) X and Y have a linear relationship
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 532-533
LO : 1
52) Which statement about the correlation coefficient, r, is true?
A) The calculation of r assumes that X and Y are metric variables whose distributions have the
same shape.
B) The correlation coefficient computed for a population is denoted by (rho).
C) Data obtained by using rating scales with a small number of categories tends to deflate r.
D) All of the statements are true.
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 532-533
LO : 1
53) Which statement is not true about correlation matrices?
A) Usually only the lower portion of the matrix is considered.
B) The diagonal elements all equal 0.
C) A correlation matrix indicates the coefficient of correlation between each pair of variables.
D) The upper triangular portion of the matrix is a mirror image of the lower triangular portion.
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 533-534
LO : 1
54) The ________ is a measure of the association between two variables after controlling or
adjusting for the effects of one or more additional variables.
A) regression analysis
C) ANOVA
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 534-536
LO : 3
55) The question of "How strongly are sales related to advertising expenditures when the effect
of price is controlled?" is best answered via ________.
A) bivariate regression analysis
C) ANOVA
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 534-536
LO : 3
56) Which statement is not correct about the partial correlation coefficient?
A) Partial correlations can be helpful for detecting spurious relationships.
B) The partial correlation coefficient is generally viewed as more important than the part
correlation coefficient.
C) The partial correlation coefficient represents the correlation between Y and X when the linear
effects of the other independent variables have been removed from X but not from Y.
D) The partial correlation coefficient can be calculated by a knowledge of the simple correlations
alone.
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 534-536
LO : 1
57) Partial correlations have an order associated with them. The order indicates how many
variables are being adjusted or controlled. The simple correlation coefficient, r, has a ________,
as it does not control for any additional variables when measuring the association between two
variables. The coefficient rsy.z is a ________ partial correlation coefficient, as it controls for the
effect of one additional variable, Z.
A) zero-order; first-order
B) zero-order; second-order
C) first-order; second-order
D) first-order; third-order
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 534-536
LO : 1
58) The relationship between X and Y is spurious if ________.
A) Y increases exponentially with increases in X
B) the correlation between X and Y disappears when the effect of Z is controlled
C) Y decreases exponentially with decreases in X
D) both A and C are correct
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 534-536
LO : 1
59) ry(x.z) represents the ________.
A) partial correlation
B) Pearson correlation
C) part correlation
D) partition correlation
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 534-536
LO : 1
60) Which of the following is a measure of nonmetric correlation?
A) Pearson product moment correlation
B) Spearman's rho
C) Kendall's tau
D) both B and C
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 536
LO : 5
61) When considering nonmetric correlation, as a rule of thumb, ________ is to be preferred
when a large number of cases fall into a relatively small number of categories (thereby leading to
a large number of ties).
A) Spearman's rho
B) Kendall's tau
C) chi-square
D) Pearson product moment correlation

Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 536
LO : 5
62) ________ is a statistical procedure for analyzing associative relationships between a metric
dependent variable and one or more independent variables.
A) Regression analysis
B) Partial correlation coefficient
C) ANOVA
D) Product moment correlation
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 536-537
LO : 2
63) ________ is a procedure for deriving a mathematical relationship, in the form of an equation,
between a single metric dependent variable and a single metric independent variable.
A) Chi-square
B) Part correlation
C) Multiple regression
D) Bivariate regression
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 536-537
LO : 2
64) Which of the following situations is best addressed by regression?
A) Is there an association between market share and the size of the sales force?
B) Is there an association between market share and size of the sales force after adjusting for the
effect of sales promotion?
C) Determine how much of the variation in the dependent variable (store sales) can be explained
by the independent variables (price and level of advertisement).
D) Are consumers' perceptions of quality related to their perceptions of prices when the effect of
brand image is controlled?
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 536-537
LO : 2
65) Which statement is not true about regression analysis?
A) The terms dependent or criterion variables, and independent or predictor variables in
regression analysis do not imply that the criterion variable is dependent on the independent
variables in a causal sense.
B) Regression analysis can be used to determine if color preference is related to product size and
price.
C) Regression can be used to predict the values of the dependent variable.
D) Regression analysis is a powerful and flexible procedure for analyzing associative
relationships between a metric dependent variable and one or more independent variables.
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 536-537
LO : 2
66) A technique for fitting a straight line to a scattergram by minimizing the square of the vertical
distances of all the points from the line is known as the ________.
A) least-square procedure
B) scatter diagram plot
C) sum of square errors procedure
D) maximum residual procedure
Answer: A
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 538
LO : 2
67) The bivariate regression model that accounts for the probabilistic or stochastic nature of the
relationship between X and Y is ________.
A) = a + b1X1 + b2X2
B) Y = 0 + 1 Xi
C) Yi =0 + 1 Xi + ei
D) i = a + bXi
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 540
LO : 2
68) What is the bivariate regression equation if sample observations are used to predict Y?
A) = a + b1X1 + b2X2
B) = 0 + 1 Xi
C) i =0 + 1 Xi + ei
D) i = a + bxi
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 540
LO : 2
69) Which statement is not true about the constant b in the bivariate regression equation i = a
+ bXi?
A) It is usually referred to as the non-standardized regression coefficient.
B) It is the slope of the regression line and it indicates the expected change in Y when X is
changed by one unit.
C) It is the intercept of the regression line and it indicates the value of Y when X is zero.
D) It may be computed as b=COVxy/Sx2.
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 540
LO : 2
70) Which equation depicts the relationship between the standardized and non-standardized
regression coefficients?
A) Byx = byx(S2x/S2y)
B) B2yx = byx(Sx/Sy)
C) Byx = byx(Sx/Sy)
D) B2yx = byx(S2x/S2y)
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 541
LO : 2
71) The standard deviation of b, or the standard error, is denoted as ________.
A) SEb
B) SDb
C) SSYb
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 541-542
LO : 2
72) In bivariate regression, which statement is true concerning the coefficient of determination,
r2?
A) r2 is the square of the simple correlation coefficient obtained by correlating the two variables.
B) r2 varies between 0 and 1.
C) r2 signifies the proportion of the total variation in Y accounted for by the variation in X.
D) All are correct.
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 542-544
LO : 2
73) ________ is the appropriate test statistic to use to determine the significance of the
coefficient of determination in bivariate regression.
A) F statistic
B) T statistic
C) Z statistic
D) 2
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 542-544
LO : 2
74) To estimate the accuracy of predicted values, , found in bivariate regression, it is useful to
calculate the ________, the standard deviation of the actual Y values for the predicted values.
A) coefficient of determination
B) standard error of the estimate
C) covariance
D) standard error
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 544
LO : 2
75) ________ is a statistical technique that simultaneously develops a mathematical relationship
between two or more independent variables and an interval-scaled dependent variable.
A) Chi-square
B) The least-squares procedure
C) Multiple regression
D) Bivariate regression
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 545
LO : 3
76) The general form of the multiple regression model is estimated by which equation?
A) i = a + bXi
B) i =0 + 1 Xi + ei
C) =a + b1 X1 + b2 X2 + b3X3 + ... + bkXk
D) = a + b1X1 + b2X2
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 546
LO : 3
77) Which statistic is associated only with multiple regression and not with bivariate regression?
A) adjusted R2
B) partial F test
C) estimated or predicted value ()
D) both A and B
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 546
LO : 3
78) The ________ denotes the change in the predicted value, , per unit change in X1 when the
other independent variables, X2 to Xk, are held constant.
A) partial regression coefficient

C) part correlation coefficient
D) part regression coefficient
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 546
LO : 3
79) Which statement is not true about partial regression coefficients?
A) The combined effects of X1 and X2 on Y are additive. In other words, if X1 and X2 are each
changed by one unit, the expected change in Y would be (b1 + b2).
B) The beta coefficients are the partial regression coefficients obtained when all the variables (Y,
X1, X2...Xk) have been standardized to a mean of 0 and a variance of 1 before estimating the
regression equation.
C) Partial regression coefficients have an order associated with them.
D) Both A and B are not true.
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 546
LO : 3
80) In multiple regression, if the overall null hypothesis is rejected, ________.
A) the mean value of the dependent variable will be different for different categories of the
independent variable
B) the means of the independent variables are not equal
C) there is an association between the independent variables
D) one or more population partial regression coefficients have a value different from 0
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 549-550
LO : 3
81) In multiple regression, if the overall null hypothesis is rejected, which statement is true?
A) We know which specific s are nonzero.
B) We can use t = b/SEb to determine which s are nonzero.
C) We do not know which s are nonzero.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 549-550
LO : 3
82) ________ is a regression procedure in which the predictor variables enter or leave the
regression equation one at a time.
A) Multiple regression
B) Bivariate regression
C) Dummy variable regression
D) Stepwise regression
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 553
LO : 4
83) ________ is a state of very high intercorrelations among independent variables.
A) Hypercollinearity
B) Partial collinearity
C) Multicollinearity
D) Variable collinearity
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 554
LO : 4
84) Which of the following is not a problem associated with multicollinearity?
A) The partial regression coefficients may not be estimated precisely. The standard errors are
likely to be high.
B) It becomes difficult to assess the relative importance of the independent variables in
explaining the variation in the dependent variables.
C) Predictor variables may be incorrectly included or removed in stepwise regression.
D) It becomes difficult to compute the correct test statistic.
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 554
LO : 4
85) Which statement is true about cross-validation.
A) It can be used for evaluating the model for chance variations in the data and other problems
associated with regression.
B) It examines whether the regression model continues to hold on comparable data not used in
the estimation.
C) A special form of validation is called double cross-validation where the sample is split into
halves.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 556-557
LO : 4
86) ________ variables may be used as predictors or independent variables by coding them as
dummy variables.
A) Interval
B) Categorical
C) Ratio
D) All of the above
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 557
LO : 4

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Chapter-1

35) Research is everything except ________.

Page Ref: 41-42

44) ________ is not a qualitative research technique.

A) It focuses on underlying causes.

65) Which statement about hypotheses is not true?

60) ________ is the most used descriptive design in marketing research.

Page Ref: 82-83

Page Ref: 222

61) ________ is a measure of accuracy of an experiment. It measures whether the manipulation

Page Ref: 223-224

Page Ref: 226

The true experimental design shown above is a ________ design.

A) pretest-posttest control group

102) Which statement is not true concerning a standard test market?

comparative itemized rating scale decisions?

C) potential sources of error

Page Ref: 288

58) The great weakness of questionnaire design is lack of ________.

79) Which of the following statements is not an advantage of unstructured questions?

Page Ref: 312

B) choosing question wording

C) avoid generalizations and estimates

C) Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the classification section.

Page Ref: 142-143

B) generating alternative courses of action

77) In word association, responses are analyzed by calculating ________.

Page Ref: 160

Page Ref: 457-458

97) Which statement is not correct about cross-tabulations?

C) Cross-tabulation examines association between variables, not causation.

Page Ref: 468-470

Page Ref: 468-470

measured on at least an interval scale.

What do the results mean?

138) Which of the following tests is not a non-parametric one-sample test?

Page Ref: 478-479

143) Which test is not an independent samples test?

50) The effects of X on Y is measured by ________.

total /MS error

are equal across groups.

D) Pearson product moment correlation

Page Ref: 542-544

B) partial correlation coefficient

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