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GENERAL GEOLOGY - GEOL 1113

EXAM I WITH ANSWERS - Spring 2002


1. Which of the following is not among the 8 most abundant elements on Earth? a) hydrogen, b)
potassium, c) sodium, d) iron, e) aluminum.
2. The most abundant element on Earth is a) silicon, b) water, c) aluminum, d) iron, e) oxygen.
3. Any substance where the atoms are arranged in a regular geometric pattern is a) a naturally
occurring solid, b) a mineral, c) a substance formed through inorganic processes, d) a crystalline
substance, e) a compound.
4. All matter in the Universe is composed of a) molecules, b) atoms, c) crystals, d) minerals, e)
substances.
5. Which of the following is not a basic component of an atom? a) electron, b) neutron, c)
proton, d) positron.
6. Which of the following is a part of the definition of a mineral? a) a liquid that may become
solid, b) man-made, c) definite chemical composition, d) unorganized structure, e) OOPS! All
of these are parts of the definition of a mineral.
7. The silica tetrahedron is composed of a) 1 silicon and 4 aluminum atoms, b) 1 silicon and 4
oxygen atoms, c) silicon chips, d) silicon only, e) silicon, iron and aluminum atoms.
8. The physical characteristic of some minerals whereby they fracture along preferred planes
related to the crystalline structure of the mineral is known as a) cleavage, b) fracture, c)
breakage, d) planarity, e) all of these.
9. Which of the following is a physical property of minerals? a) breakage, b) tint and hue, c)
luster, d) roughness, e) roundness.
10. An example of a sheet silicate mineral is a) olivine, b) quartz, c) augite, d) hornblende, e)
none of these.
11. In the single-chain silicates, the silica tetrahedra are bound to each other at a) two corners, b)
three corners, c) four corners, d) one corner, e) not bounded to each other.

12. The color of a powdered mineral is a) the same as the color of the mineral specimen, b) its
streak, c) determined by the types of impurities in the mineral, d) is not a reliable physical
property, e) none of these.
13. Which of the following minerals are arranged in order of increasing hardness? a) talc,
apatite, corundum, diamond, b) topaz, quartz, fluorite, corundum, c) talc, quartz, calcite,
diamond, d) quartz, topaz, diamond, fluorite, e) fluorite, calcite, gypsum, talc.
14. What type of silicate is Muscovite? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d)
sheet, e) framework.
15. What type of silicate is Biotite? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d)
sheet, e) framework.
16. What type of silicate is Augite? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d)
sheet, e) framework.
17. What type of silicate is Olivine? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d)
sheet, e) framework.
18. What type of silicate is Quartz? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d)
sheet, e) framework.
19. What type of silicate is Hornblende? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain,
d) sheet, e) framework.
20. What type of silicate is Feldspar? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d)
sheet, e) framework.
21. How do the crystal structures of micas and feldspars differ from each other? a) feldspars are
framework silicates, micas are double chain silicates, b) feldspars are double chain silicates,
micas are sheet silicates, c) micas and feldspars have the same crystalline structure, d) feldspars
are single chain silicates, micas are double chain silicates, e) micas are sheet silicates, feldspars
are framework silicates.
22. Cubic zirconia are synthetic stones that are manufactured as inexpensive substitutes for
diamonds in jewelry. Are cubic zirconia minerals? a) yes, b) no, c) maybe, d) it depends on your
point of view, e) none of these.
23. Hypsometry is a) the average elevation of Earth, b) the highest elevation on Earth, c) the
lowest elevation on Earth, d) the percent area at different elevations on Earth, e) none of
these.

24. Which of the following is not a terrestrial planet? a) Earth, b) Mars, c) Venus, d), the Moon,
e) all of these are considered terrestrial planets.
25. Earths atmosphere is different from other planets because a) it contains abundant nitrogen,
b) it contains abundant oxygen, c) it contains only small amounts of carbon dioxide, d) it
contains abundant water vapor, e) all of these.
26. The atmospheres of Venus and Mars contain mostly a) oxygen, b) methane, c) hydrogen
sulfide, d) carbon dioxide, e) argon.
27. The planet that is most dense is a) Mars, b) Earth, c) Venus, d) the Moon, e) Mercury.
28. Is life abundant in the Universe? a) yes, b) no, c) no one can say, d) it is highly likely, e) it is
highly unlikely.
29. True or False: The terrestrial planet with the smallest diameter also has the smallest mass. a)
true, b) false, c) maybe, d) it depends on how you define "mass", e) it depends on how you
define "diameter".
30. The hypsometry of Earth is a) bimodal, b) unique among the terrestrial planets, c) due to the
presence of continents and ocean basins, d) different than the other terrestrial planets, e) all of
these.
31. The hypsometry of Earth resulted from a) a collision with an asteroid, b) random chance, c)
the gravitational attraction of the Sun, d) geologic processes of differentiation, e) all of these.
32. Rocks of the continents are enriched in the elements a) silicon and iron, b) iron and
magnesium, c) silicon and aluminum, d) magnesium and aluminum, e) magnesium and silicon.
33. Rocks of the ocean basins are enriched in the elements a) silicon and iron, b) iron and
magnesium, c) silicon and aluminum, d) magnesium and aluminum, e) magnesium and silicon.
34. Geologic processes that resulted in the formation of continents and ocean basins a) were only
active during Earths early history, b) are still active today, c) cannot be observed by scientists,
d) have occurred on the other terrestrial planets, e) all of these.
35. "Sima" is a general term used to refer to a) rocks of the ocean basins, b) rocks of the
continents, c) all rocks that compose Earths crust, d) rocks that compose the crust of terrestrial
planets, e) none of these.
36. "Sial" is a) found only on Earth, b) found in the crust of all other terrestrial planets, c)
found only in the ocean basins of Earth, d) found only in rocks of the Moon, e) none of these.

37. The largest terrestrial planet is a) Mercury, b) Venus, c) Earth, d) Mars, e) Jupiter.
38. The concentration of carbon dioxide in Earths atmosphere is a) 97%, b) 78%, c) 20%, d) 3%,
e) 0.035%.
39. The planet with the highest surface temperature is a) Venus, b) Earth, c) Mars, d) the Moon,
e) Mercury.
40. Since 1960, how many of the nine planets of our solar system have been visited by space
probes? a) two, b) four, c) six, d) eight, e) nine.

EXAM II WITH ANSWERS - SPRING 2002


1. Which of the following parameters influences the viscosity of magma? a) temperature of the
magma, b) oxygen content of the magma, c) depth of the magma beneath Earths surface, d)
quantity of minerals in the magma, e) all of these affect the viscosity of magma.
2. You discover a rock with aphanitic texture containing amphibole, biotite, and sodium feldspar.
This is a) gabbro, b) granite, c) basalt, d) andesite, e) diorite.
3. The rock in #2 above is a) volcanic, b) plutonic, c) porphyritic, d) highly weathered, e) none
of these.
4. The magma giving rise to the rock in #2 had a temperature of about a) 1200oC, b) 1000oC, c)
800oC, d) 451oF, e) none of these.
5. The viscosity of magma yielding the rock in #2 is a) relatively low, b) somewhat
intermediate, c) relatively high, d) non-existent, e) none of these.
6. The Continuous Series of Bowens Reaction Series is composed of minerals a) with different
chemical compositions but the same mineral structures, b) with different chemical
compositions and different mineral structures, c) with similar chemical compositions and
different mineral structures, d) with similar chemical compositions and similar mineral
structures, e) none of these.
7. Bowens Reaction Series shows the relations between a) temperature, viscosity, and mineral
composition, b) temperature, chemical composition, and mineral structure, c) viscosity,
temperature, silica content, and volatile content, d) temperature, pressure, and viscosity, e) none
of these.
8. The two important criteria used for igneous rock classification are a) temperature and texture,
b) mineral composition and temperature, c) mineral composition and texture, d) temperature
and viscosity, e) Bowens Reaction Series and texture.

9. Basalt and andesite a) have the same minerals, b) formed from magma with the same
temperature, c) formed from magma with the same viscosity, d) formed from magma with the
same silica content, e) none of these.
10. An igneous rock with minerals that can be seen with the unaided eye exhibits a) porphyritic
texture, b) aphanitic texture, c) pyroclastic texture, d) phaneritic texture, e) visible texture.
11. Root wedging a) is a rare weathering phenomenon, b) occurs only in rain forests, c) occurs
whenever plants germinate in rocks, d) is a theoretical weathering phenomenon, e) has never
been observed in nature.
12. Root wedging is common in a) polar climates, b) temperate climates, c) tropical climates, d)
any climate, e) none of these.
13. True or False: Granite headstones typically weather more rapidly than limestone headstones.
a) true, b) false, c) maybe, d) it depends how you look at it, e) I shouldve been in class on
Friday.
14. True or False: Our beloved Senior Walk is being mechanically weathered by skateboarders
and in-line skaters. a) true, b) false, c) maybe, d) it depends how you look at it, e) SLACKERS!
15. Which of the following is a form of mechanical weathering? a) dissolution, b) chemical
weathering, c) oxidation, d) hydrolysis, e) none of these is a form of mechanical weathering.
16. Caves form as a result of a) mechanical weathering of limestone, b) oxidation of limestone,
c) dissolution of limestone, d) hydrolysis of limestone, e) frost wedging in limestone.
17. Plutonic igneous rocks always have a) olivine, calcium feldspar, pyroxene, b) amphibole,
sodium feldspar, biotite, c) quartz, muscovite, potassium feldspar, d) phaneritic texture, e) none
of these.
18. Explosive volcanoes always have a) relatively low silica magmas, b) relatively low volatile
contents, c) relatively high temperature magmas, d) relatively low viscosity magmas, e) none of
these.
19. Hawaiian volcanic eruptions are not too dangerous because a) the magma viscosity is high,
b) the silica content of the magma is low, c) the temperature of the magma is low, d) the gas
content of the magma is low, e) all of these.
Use your knowledge of Bowens Reaction Series and igneous rock classification to complete the
table below:
SILICA
CONTENT

MINERAL
COMPOSITION

PHANERITIC
TEXTURE

APHANITIC
TEXTURE

HIGH

20

21

22

INTERMEDIATE

23

24

25

LOW

26

27

28

20. a) gabbro, basalt, granite, b) sodium feldspar, pyroxene, muscovite, c) muscovite, quartz,
potassium feldspar, d) olivine, pyroxene, calcium feldspar, e) none of these.
21. a) gabbro, b) diorite, c) granite, d) basalt, e) andesite.
22. a) rhyolite, b) gabbro, c) granite, d) basalt, e) diorite.
23. a) olivine, calcium feldspar, pyroxene, b) calcium feldspar, sodium feldspar, potassium
feldspar, c) quartz, granite, muscovite, d) pyroxene, amphibole, biotite, e) hornblende, biotite,
sodium feldspar.
24. a) andesite, b) rhyolite, c) granite, d) basalt, e) diorite.
25. a) andesite, b) rhyolite, c) granite, d) basalt, e) diorite.
26. a) quartz, biotite, olivine, b) olivine, quartz, sodium feldspar, c) quartz, muscovite, potassium
feldspar, d) quartz, pyroxene, sodium feldspar, e) none of these.
27. a) gabbro, b) rhyolite, c) granite, d) basalt, e) diorite.
28. a) gabbro, b) rhyolite, c) granite, d) basalt, e) diorite.
Answer the questions below regarding Bowens Reaction Series.
29. The first mineral to form in the Discontinuous Series: a) calcium feldspar, b) biotite, c)
hornblende, d) olivine, e) quartz.
30. A high-temperature framework silicate: a) calcium feldspar, b) biotite, c) hornblende, d)
olivine, e) quartz.
31. A single chain silicate: a) olivine, b) amphibole, c) pyroxene, d) biotite, e) hornblende.
32. An intermediate temperature framework silicate: a) calcium feldspar, b) potassium feldspar,
c) biotite, d) muscovite, e) none of these.
33. The double chain silicate: a) quartz, b) muscovite, c) biotite, d) hornblende, e) sodium
feldspar.

34. A low temperature sheet silicate: a) biotite, b) muscovite, c) quartz, d) calcium feldspar, e)
olivine.
35. An intermediate temperature sheet silicate: a) biotite, b) muscovite, c) quartz, d) calcium
feldspar, e) olivine.
36. A low temperature framework silicate: a) hornblende, b) potassium feldspar, c) augite, d)
olivine, e) none of these.
37. The last mineral to form in Bowens Reaction Series: a) hornblende, b) quartz, c) augite, d)
olivine, e) none of these.
38. Weathering processes a) only affect igneous rocks, b) only affect sedimentary rocks, c) affect
all rocks at Earths surface, d) do not adversely affect rocks, e) cannot be observed directly at
Earths surface.
39. Rates of rock weathering are fastest a) in polar climates, b) in temperate climates, c) in
tropical climates, d) in arid climates, e) none of these.
40. A rock with aphanitic texture and low temperature minerals is a) gabbro, b) rhyolite, c)
andesite, d) diorite, e) basalt.

EXAM III WITH ANSWERS - Spring 2002


"It is our attitude at the beginning of a difficult undertaking which more than anything else, will
determine its outcome"-- William James
1. Which of the following is a class of rocks? a) sedimentary rocks, b) igneous rocks, c)
metamorphic rocks, d) all of these are classes of rocks.
2. The process whereby rocks are changed to sediment is called a) lithification, b) deposition, c)
weathering, d) compaction, e) solidification.
3. A sedimentary rock composed of rounded particles of gravel is a) breccia, b) sandstone, c)
particle stone, d) gravelstone, e) conglomerate.
4. A sedimentary rock composed of angular particles of sand is called a) sandstone, b)
conglomerate, c) breccia, d) siltsone, e) soapstone.
5. Sedimentary particles with a size range larger than 256mm a) pebbles, b) silt, c) sand, d)
boulders, e) cobbles.
6. A layer in which the grain size becomes smaller vertically through the layer is called a)
foliated, b) graded bedding, c) cross-bedded, d) is not observed in nature, e) none of these.

7. The principal agents of metamorphism are a) heat and chemical composition, b) texture and
composition, c) pressure and texture, d) heat and pressure, e) volcanoes and earthquakes.
8. Mud cracks preserved in sedimentary rocks a) are indicative of arid environments
characterized by occasional rain, b) occur only in rain forests, c) occur whenever plants
germinate in rocks, d) have never been observed in nature.
9. Sedimentary rocks provide clues about a) Earth surface conditions at the time the sediment
formed, b) temperate climates, c) tropical climates, d) polar climates, e) all of these.
10.Cross-bedding observed in river sand can be used a) to determine the direction the water
was flowing, b) to determine the speed of the river, c) determine the height of the waves in the
river, d) to determine the temperature at the time the ripples formed, e) none of these.
11. As one goes deeper beneath Earths surface, a) pressure increases, b) temperature increases,
c) rocks become more dense, d) the mechanical behavior of rocks changes, e) all of these.
12. A sedimentary rock composed of clay-sized particles is called: a) siltstone, b) shale, c)
breccia, d) diatomaceous earth, e) none of these.
13. Chemical sedimentary rocks are a) formed from weathered remains of other rocks, b) never
found at Earths surface, c) precipitated from various solutions, d) formed only in arid
environments, e) formed only in marine environments.
14. On the diagram at left, what are the pressure and temperature conditions in the section
labeled 15? a) low pressure, low temperature, b) high pressure, high temperature, c) low
pressure, high temperature, d) high pressure, low temperature, e) none of these.
15. On the diagram at left, in which fields would you expect to find gneiss? a) 14, b) 15 and 17,
c) 16, 18, 20, d) 19,21,22, e) 22 only.
16. On the diagram at left, which region is one of intermediate pressure and low temperature? a)
17, b) 19, c) 15, d) 21, e) 22
17. On the diagram at left, where would phyllite form? a) 18, b) 22, c) 14, d) 15, e) phyllite is not
on this diagram.
18. On the diagram at left, where would shale form? a) 22, b) shale is not on this diagram, c)
14, d) 16, e) 20
19. On the diagram at left, the region of high pressure and high temperature is a) 20, b) 22, c) 16,
d) 14, e) 16

20. On the diagram above, the metamorphic grade increases from a) 20 to 14, b) 14 to 22, c) 16
to 14, d) all of these, e) metamorphic grade is not represented on this diagram.
21. On the diagram above, the trajectory representing burial metamorphism is a) 14 to 20, b) 14
to 22, c) 14 to 16, d) 20 to 22, e) 15 to 21.
22. On the diagram above, the trajectory representing tectonic metamorphism is a) 14 to 20, b)
14 to 22, c) 14 to 16, d) 20 to 22, e) 15 to 21.
23. On the diagram above, the trajectory representing contact metamorphism is a) 14 to 20, b) 14
to 22, c) 14 to 16, d) 20 to 22, e) 15 to 21.
24. Which of the following lists is arranged in order from lowest to highest grade of
metamorphic rock? a) gneiss, slate, schist, phyllite, b) gneiss, schist, phyllite, slate, c) slate,
gneiss, phyllite, schist, d) slate, phyllite, schist, gneiss, e) phyllite, gneiss, slate, schist.
25. Which of the following is not a mechanical layer of the Earth? a) lithosphere, b) mantle, c)
inner core, d) outer core, e) asthenosphere.
26. The outermost mechanical layer of Earth is a) the mantle, b) the sima, c) the sial, d) the crust,
e) the lithosphere.
27. Which of the following is not a class of mechanical behavior of Earth materials? a) soft
solids, b) hard solids, c) cold solids, d) hot solids, e) none of these are mechanical behaviors of
Earth materials.
28. The asthenosphere is a) that portion of Earth where rocks behave as brittle solids, b) that
portion of Earth where rocks behave as plastic solids, c) that portion of Earth where rocks
behave as fluids, d) that portion of Earth where rocks can be found, e) none of these.
29. The asthenosphere is composed of a) the crust only, b) the crust and upper mantle, c) the
mantle only, d) the sial only, e) the sima only.
30. The lithosphere is composed of a) the crust and upper mantle, b) the mantle only, c) the
sima, d) the sial, e) none of these.
31. The lithosphere is nearly isothermal because a) there is convection, b) there is heat produced
everywhere in the asthenosphere, c) temperature has risen to the maximum that it can in the
asthenosphere, d) Earth is a sphere, e) the lithosphere is not isothermal.

32. Large magnitude damaging earthquakes occur a) at transform plate boundaries, b) at oceancontinent convergent boundaries, c) at continent-continent convergent boundaries, d) at oceanocean convergent boundaries, e) all of these.
33. Which of the following is not a type of plate boundary a) transform, b) divergent, c)
convergent, d) subductive, e) all of these are types of plate boundaries.
34. Volcanoes at convergent plate boundaries generally produce a) basalt, b) rhyolite, c) granite,
d) andesite, e) diorite.
35. Which of the following is associated with continent-continent convergent plate boundaries?
a) explosive volcanism, b) andesite volcanism, c) large, damaging earthquakes, d) volcanic
mountain chain, e) all of these.
36. Differentiation of Earth a) is an ongoing process, b) resulted in compositional layering of
Earths interior, c) resulted in density layering of Earths interior, d) began early in Earths
history, e) all of these.
37. Earthquakes usually occur at a) convergent plate boundaries, b) divergent plate boundaries,
c) transform plate boundaries, d) all of these.
38. An example of a transform plate boundary is a) the Ouachita Mountains, b) the Appalachian
Mountains, c) the Mid-Ocean Ridge, d) the San Andreas Fault, e) the Hawaiian Islands.
39. An example of a convergent plate boundary is a) the Ouachita Mountains, b) the Appalachian
Mountains, c) the Himalaya Mountains, d) the Cascade Mountains, e) all of these are examples
of convergent plate boundaries.
40. The island of Iceland is located on what type of plate boundary? a) ocean-ocean convergent
boundary, b) ocean-continent convergent boundary, c) continent-continent convergent boundary,
d) transform boundary, e) divergent boundary.

EXAM IV WITH ANSWERS - SPRING 2002


1. A fault where the footwall is displaced downward relative to the hanging wall is a) a normal
fault, b) a reverse fault, c) a right-slip strike slip fault, d) a left-slip strike slip fault, e) a
structure that is entirely my fault.
2. The footwall of a fault is always a) on the right of the fault, b) on the left of the fault, c) under
the fault, d) displaced downward, e) none of these.

3. The strike of a layer is a) the angle at which that layer intercepts a horizontal surface, b) the
degree to which the layer has compressed during mountain building, c) a line formed by the
intersection of the layer with the Earth's surface, d) usually horizontal, e) all of these.
4. In a syncline, the oldest rocks will be found a) on top of the structure, b) in the middle of the
structure, c) dipping within of the structure, d) along the axis of the structure, e) none of these.
5. A reverse fault is one where a) the hanging wall is displaced upward relative to the
footwall, b) the footwall is displaced upward relative to the hanging wall, c) the dip of the fault
plane is vertical, d) there is no relative displacement of the hanging wall and footwall, e) the
footwall moves to the right of the hanging wall.
6. An anticline is a structure in which a) the oldest rock layers are located at the top of the
structure, b) the rock layers dip away from the axis of the structure, c) rock layers are
downwarped, d) all of the above are correct, e) none of these are correct.
7. For rocks to be folded, they must a) behave as brittle solids, b) behave as fluids, c) behave as
plastic solids, d) be metamorphic, e) be volcanic.
8. Folding of rocks is usually associated with a) divergent plate boundaries, b) transform plate
boundaries, c) convergent plate boundaries, d) old plate boundaries, e) the middle of plates.
9. Strike-slip faults are a) the same as transform faults, b) the same as normal faults, c) the
same as reverse faults, d) the same as thrust faults, e) all of these.
10. When extreme forces are applied to brittle rocks, a) folds form, b) anticlines form, c) faults
form, d) synclines form, e) none of these form.
11. A plunging syncline is one that a) has the oldest rocks near the axis, b) is upwarped, c) has an
inclined axis, d) is the same as an anticline, e) plunges into a magma chamber.
12. The V-shaped outcrop pattern of a plunging syncline will a) be tilted, b) close in the direction
of plunge, c) open in the direction of plunge, d) not be observed, e) point toward the axis.
13. In a simple anticline, all rock layers a) dip away from the axis, b) are horizontal, c) dip
toward the axis, d) are downwarped, e) are faulted.
14. In a simple anticline, the oldest rock layers occur a) on the flanks of the fold, b) near the
axis of the fold, c) where the axis plunges, d) anticlines contain only young rocks, e) none of
these.
15. The San Andreas Fault in California is a) a strike-slip fault, b) a transform plate boundary, c)
a right-lateral strike slip fault, d) a fault that generates many earthquakes, e) all of these.

16. The angle of inclination formed by a rock layer and the Earth's surface is a) the dip of the
layer, b) the azimuth of the layer, c) the strike of the layer, d) the orientation of the layer, e) the
line of the layer.
17. An anticline is a) a downwarped fold, b) an upwarped fold, c) I don't know what an
anticline is.
18. A syncline is a) a downwarped fold, b) an upwarped fold, c) I don't know what an anticline
is.
19. Anticlines and Synclines can be observed in Arkansas. a) true, b) false, c) maybe, d) I don't
know, e) did we cover this in class?
20. Faults characterized by vertical displacement are known as a) left-lateral strike slip faults, b)
right lateral strike slip faults, c) strike slip faults, d) dip slip faults, e) none of these.
21. Faults characterized by horizontal displacement are known as a) normal faults, b) reverse
faults, c) strike slip faults, d) dip slip faults, e) none of these.
22. Which of the following is NOT a feature of an anticline? a) youngest rocks on the flanks, b)
oldest rocks near the axis, c) layers dip toward the axis, d) upwarped rock layers, e) all of these
are features of an anticline.
23. Which of the following is a feature of a syncline? a) youngest rocks on the flanks, b) oldest
rocks near the axis, c) layers dip toward the axis, d) upwarped rock layers, e) all of these are
features of an anticline.
24. The Fayetteville Fault on the corner of Dickson Street and Arkansas Avenue is a) a normal
fault, b) a reverse fault, c) an anticline , d) a synclines, e) none of these.
25. In central Arkansas, there are a) anticlines, b) synclines, c) plunging anticlines, d) plunging
synclines, e) all of these.

26. This picture shows a fence offset by a fault. This is an example of


a) a normal fault, b) a reverse fault, c) a right-lateral strike slip fault,
d) a left-lateral strike slip fault, e) my fault.
27. The displacement on this fault is a) north-south, b) east-west, c)
up-down, d) over-under, e) cannot determine without additional
information.
28. a) Fill in letter "A" on your answer sheet, b) if you don't fill in
"A", you won't get credit for #28, c) so fill in letter "A" d) no, really,
fill in "A", e) you can fill in a letter other than "A" if you wish, but it

will be the wrong answer!

29. If the oldest rocks are near the axis of the structure on the right, it is
a) a syncline, b) an anticline, c) a plunging syncline, d) a plunging
anticline, e) none of these.
30. If the youngest rocks are near the axis of this structure, it is a) an
anticline, b) a plunging syncline, c) an anticline, d) a plunging anticline,
e) none of these.
31. If this is a syncline, a) it plunges toward the top, b) it plunges
toward the bottom, c) it does not plunge, d) none of these.
32. If this is an anticline, a) it plunges toward the bottom, b) it plunges
toward the top, c) it does not plunge, d) none of these.
33. If this is an anticline, a) the layers dip toward the axis, b) the layers
dip away from the axis, c) the layers do not dip, d) the layers are upside
down, e) none of these.
34. If this is a syncline, a) the layers dip toward the axis, b) the layers
dip away from the axis, c) the layers do not dip, d) the layers are upside
down, e) none of these.
35. This is a syncline. a) the layers dip toward the axis, b) the youngest
rocks are near the axis, c) the oldest rocks are on the flanks, d) it plunges
to the top, e) all of these.
36. This is an anticline. a) the layers dip toward the axis, b) the youngest
rocks are near the axis, c) the oldest rocks are on the flanks, d) it
plunges to the bottom, e) none of these.

EXAM V WITH ANSWERS - SPRING 2002


1. Geologists have recently determined the oldest rock on Earth to be about a) 4.4 billion years,
b) 44 billion years, c) 440 million years, d) 4.4 million years, e) 3.8 billion years.
2. Which of the following is not a principle used in relative dating? a) the Principle of
Superposition, b) the Principle of Original Horizontality, c) the Principle of Faunal Succession,
d) the Principle of Cross-Cutting Relationships, e) The Theory of Evolution.

3. Charles Darwin thought the Principle of Faunal Succession worked because a) organisms had
evolved through time, b) God had placed the organisms in their proper order in the rocks , c) it
was a lucky coincidence, d) everyone else thought it worked, too, e) William Smith said so.
4. The first geologist to suggest that Earth was very ancient was a) Charles Darwin, b) William
Smith, c) Archbishop Ussher, d) James Hutton, e) Thomas Huxley.
5. Eons are a) millions of years long, b) tens of millions of years long, c) hundreds of millions of
years long, d) billions of years long, e) none of these.
6. Epochs are a) millions of years long, b) tens of millions of years long, c) hundreds of millions
of years long, d) billions of years long, e) none of these.
7. Periods are a) millions of years long, b) tens of millions of years long, c) hundreds of
millions of years long, d) billions of years long, e) none of these.
8. Eras are a) millions of years long, b) tens of millions of years long, c) hundreds of millions of
years long, d) billions of years long, e) none of these.
9. The oldest geological evidence of life on Earth is a) 545 million years old, b) 3.8 billion years
old, c) 6,000 years old, d) 2 billion years old, e) 8 billion years old.
10. The oldest known human fossils are a) 6,000 years old, b) 600,000 years old, c) 4 billion
years old, d) 4 million years old, e) have never been found.
11. Measurement of radioactive elements in rocks a) provides the relative age of the rock, b) is
no longer feasible because of contamination due to nuclear testing, c) provides the absolute age
of the rock, d) never works because rocks contain only trace quantities of radioactivity, e) none
of these.
12. What is the half-life of a radioactive element? a) the time required for one-half of a given
quantity of the element to decay to its daughter element, b) the time required for all of the
radioactive element to decay to its daughter element, c) half of the time required for a given
quantity of the element to decay to its daughter element, d) the time required for the radioactive
element to decay half of the time, e) if you observe a radioactive element, half the time it decays,
half the time it doesn't.
13. Sometime in the geologic past, a rock formed which contained 16 grams of a radioactive
element. Presently, only 2 grams of that element remain. The other 14 grams have decayed to the
daughter element. How many half-lives of the original element have passed since the rock
formed? a) 5, b) 4, c) 3, d) 2, e) 1.

14. Suppose the radioactive element above has a half-life of 5 million years. How old is the
rock? a) half as old as a rock that contains 32 grams of the radioactive element, b) 2.5 million
years, c) 1 million years, d) 20 million years, e) 15 million years
15. Plants introduced oxygen into Earth's atmosphere a) 4.5 billion years ago, b) 3.8 billion years
ago, c) 2 billion years ago, d) 440 million years ago, e) 66 million years ago.
16. Geologically, which came first: a) the "Age of Mammals", b) dinosaur extinction.
17. Plants first colonized land a) about 2 billion years ago, b) about 3.8 billion years ago, c)
about 440 million years ago, d) about 245 million years ago.
18. What percentage of Earth's history had elapsed before plants colonized land? a) 90%, b)
10%, c) 50%, d) 25%, e) 5%.
19. Approximately what percentage of Earth's history elapsed before the first humans walked? a)
90%, b) 95%, c) 97.5%, d) 99%, e) 99.9%
20. Unconformities in the geologic record represent a) gaps in the geologic record, b) an interval
when no sediment was deposited, c) an interval where erosion removed a portion of the geologic
record, d) an interval of mountain building, e) all of these.
21. How much time can be represented by unconformities? a) a few years, b) thousands of years,
c) millions of years, d) billions of years, e) all of these are possible.
22. Relative dating methods are used to determine a) the age in years of a geologic event, b) the
chronological sequence of geological events, c) the age in millions of years of a geological
event, d) the age in billions of years of a geological event, e) none of these.
23. Which of the following phenomena will affect the half-life of a radioactive element? a) high
temperatures deep within Earth, b) high pressures deep within the Earth, c) changes in climate, d)
increase in cosmic rays in Earth's atmosphere, e) none of these affect the half-life - it is
constant.
24. The Principle of Faunal Succession states that a) fossils preserved in rock layers are less
complex in older rocks, b) the Theory of Evolution is proven by the succession of fossils
observed in rocks, c) the fossil record of life proves that life has succeeded on Earth, d) it is
unlikely that life could have succeeded on other planets, e) none of these.
25. The Principle of Faunal Succession a) was first stated by Charles Darwin, b) was developed
for the first time in Darwin's "Origin of Species", c) was outlined prior to Darwin's hypothesis
of Evolution, d) has been disproved by modern geological research, e) none of these.

26. What percentage of Earth history do some geologists estimate is actually preserved by the
sedimentary rock record? a) 90%, b) 50%, c) 25%, d) 10%, e) 5%.
27. With respect to the question above, what is the remainder of Earth history composed of? a)
unconformities, b) igneous rocks, c) metamorphic rocks, d) magma, e) none of these.
28. Aten asteroids are those a) which will not strike Earth, b) whose orbits have diameters
smaller than Earth's and which cross our path, c) whose orbits have diameters greater than
Earth's and which cross our path, d) the largest asteroids in our solar system, e) the smallest
asteroids in our solar system.
29. Apollo asteroids are those a) which will not strike Earth, b) whose orbits have diameters
smaller than Earth's and which cross our path, c) whose orbits have diameters greater than
Earth's and which cross our path, d) the largest asteroids in our solar system, e) the smallest
asteroids in our solar system.
30. Asteroids and other space debris in the vicinity of Earth are called a) Trouble, b) Thunder
Stones, c) Near Earth Objects, d) Magic Bullets, e) none of these.
31. The minimum diameter asteroid which can cause a world-wide catastrophe is believed to be
a) 1-2 kilometers, b) 60-70 meters, c) two tons, d) about the size of Ozark Hall, e) none of these.
32. The energy released from an asteroid impact causing a global catastrophe must be at least a)
100 megatons of TNT, b) 1,000 megatons of TNT, c) 10,000 megatons of TNT, d) 100,000
megatons of TNT, e) 1 million megatons of TNT.
33. Compared to being killed by a tornado, you are a) 100 times more likely to be killed by an
asteroid, b) 20 times more likely to be killed by an asteroid, c) 1 million times more likely to be
killed by an asteroid, d) 1000 times more likely to be killed by an asteroid, e) much more likely
to be killed by a tornado than an asteroid.
34. Since 1995, how many asteroids have astronomers identified? a) fewer the two dozen, b)
about 170, c) 1,000, d) 10,000, e) over 37,000.
35. True or False: Humans have never witnessed an impact of a comet or asteroid with Earth. a)
True, b) False, c) maybe, d) it depends on how you look at it, e) Humans have never seen this,
but we do see craters around the world.
36. True or False: An asteroid or comet struck a remote area of Siberia in 1908. a) True, b) False,
c) maybe, d) it depends on how you look at it, e) this event has been proven to be a hoax.

37. The geologist highlighted in the one of the videos on asteroid impacts was a) James Hutton,
b) Stephen Boss, c) Alfred Wegener, d) Archbishop Ussher, e) Eugene Shoemaker.
38. The extraterrestrial object responsible for the extinction of dinosaurs struck Earth a) in
northern Canada, b) in Italy, c) in Mexico, d) in Siberia, e) in Iceland.
39. The asteroid impact responsible for dinosaur extinction occurred approximately a) 66 million
years ago, b) 1 billion years ago, c) 4 thousand years ago, d) 200 million years ago, e) never
happened.
Q40.During which era did the initial opening of the present-day Atlantic Ocean most likely
occur?
1. Cenozoic
2. Mesozoic
3. Paleozoic
4. Late Proterozoic
Q 41.The absolute age of a rock is the approximate number of years ago that the rock formed.
The absolute age of an igneous rock can best be determined by
5. comparing the amounts of decayed and undecayed radioactive isotopes in the rock
6. comparing the sizes of the crystals found in the upper and lower parts of the rock
7. examining the rocks relative position in a rock outcrop
8. examining the environment in which the rock is found
9.
Q42.In which type of environment were the sediments that formed these sedimentary rock layers
most likely deposited?
1 glacial 2 mountainous 3 marine 4 terrestrial plateau
Q43.sedimentary rock layers at the three locations can be most accurately correlated by
comparing the
thickness of the sedimentary rock layers
2 foliation bands in the metamorphic basement rocks
1

3 fossils in the sedimentary rocks


4 minerals in the igneous rocks
Q44 Which feature is represented by the symbol along the edges of the dike and sills?
1 contact metamorphic rock 2 an unconformity 3 a glacial moraine 4 index fossils
Q45 Which radioactive isotope is most useful for determining the age of mastodont bones found
in late Pleistocene sediments?
1 uranium-238
2 carbon-14
3 potassium-40
4 rubidium-87
Q46 What does the presence of the fossils suggest about the Hamilton area during the Devonian?
2
2
3
4

It had a terrestrial environment sometime between 443 and 418 million years ago.
It had a terrestrial environment sometime between 418 and 362 million years ago.
It had a marine environment sometime between 443 and 418 million years ago.
It had a marine environment sometime between 418 and 362 million years ago.

Multiple Choice Questions Introduction to Geology Chapter 1


Introduction to the Earth

Which of the following statements regarding the scientific


methods is true?
A hypothesis must be agreed upon by more than one scientist
100

A theory is a hypothesis that has withstood many


100

scientifi c tests
A theory is proven to be true, and therefore may not be
100

discarded
A hypothesis cannot predict the outcome of scientific
100

experiments

According to the principle of uniformatarianism,


geologic processes we observe today have operated in the past

100

geologic process in the past operated at the same rate as they do today
100

all of the planets formed from a uniform solar nebula


100

early Earth was covered by a uniform magma ocean


100

Approximately how long ago did the Big Bang take place?
10-15 thousand years ago

100

10-15 million years ago


100

100-150 million years ago


100

10-15 billion years ago


100

Under intense pressure and high temperature, hydrogen atoms combine to form
helium. This process is called:
nuclear fusion

100

nuclear fission
100

metamorphism
100

convection
100

Referring to the diagram what factor(s) are responsible for path C?


melting

100

crystallization
100

heat and pressure


100

burial and lithification


100

What are the two most abundant elements in nebula (gas clouds) in the universe?
nitrogen and oxygen

100

oxygen and silicon


100

hydrogen and helium


100

iron and nickel


100

What are the two most abundant elements in nebula (gas clouds) in the universe?
nitrogen and oxygen

100

oxygen and silicon


100

hydrogen and helium


100

iron and nickel


100

The process by which an originally homogeneous Earth developed a dense core and a
light crust is called:
metamorphism

100

differentiation
100

accretion
100

compression
100

The heat that caused melting in the Earth's early history was supplied from which of
the following events or causes?
volcanic activity and radioactivity

100

solar heating and volcanic activity


100

a large impact event and radioactivity


100

a large impact event and solar heating


100

How thick is the crust of the Earth?


about 4 miles

100

about 4 km
100

about 40 km
100

about 400 km
100

10 The layer that separates crust from core is the?

magma layer
100

lithosphere
100

mantle
100

continent
100

11 What drives the Earth's internal heat engine?


radioactivity
100

solar energy
100

volcanoes
100

ocean tides
100

12 In general, igneous rocks:


form at relatively high temperatures
100

form by crystallization of solids from a liquid


100

form at high and low pressures


100

all of the above


100

13 Minerals:
can form by life-processes -- organic
100

are crystalline solids


100

have a unique chemical composition


100

can be any state (solid, liquid, or gas) as long as that state occurs naturally
100

14 Metamorphic rocks are changed rocks. Which of the following rock types could be
the "parent" of a metamorphic rock?
sedimentary
100

igneous
100

metamorphic
100

all of the above


100

15 _______involves transfer of heat by the physical movement of the material:


conduction
100

convection
100

metamorphism
100

radiation
100

16 __________is called the "father" of geology.


John Butler
100

Art Smith
100

James Hutton
100

Alfred Wegner
100

17 New seafloor is created at a ____________?


deep-sea trench
100

mid-ocean ridge
100

subduction zone
100

transform fault
100

18 The descent of oceanic lithosphere into the mantle is the process of _______?
accretion
100

subduction
100

divergence zone
100

contraction fault
100

19 Which of the following features is not associated with a convergent plate boundary?
a mid-ocean ridge
100

earthquakes
100

a deep-sea trench zone


100

volcanic activity
100

20 The greatest threat to our environment is ___________?


volcanoes
100

earthquakes
100

humans
100

bacteria
100

21 Earth materials always trace the complete rock cycle from sediment through igneous
rocks.
True
100

False
100

22 The terms crust and lithosphere are synonymous.


True
100

False
100

23 The terms mantle and asthenosphere are synonymous.


True
100

False
100

24 Because we rarely witness dramatic changes in the Earth, we can conclude that the
Earth is not changing very much.
True
100

False
100

25 The motions of the three types of plate boundaries would be described as divergent,
convergent, and static.

True
100

False
100

26 The crust of the Earth is static and stable.


True
100

False
100

27 Features useful in defining plate boundaries include all except:


shorelines between continents and oceans
100

distribution of volcanoes
100

distribution of earthquakes
100

distribution of mountain ranges


100

all are correct


100

28 The age of the Earth is currently thought to be


about 6,000 years old
100

about 6 billion years old


100

about 4,500,000,000 years old


100

29 The contribution made to geology by James Hutton was:


the recognition that processes still active today could produce almost any
100

known rock type.


the description of plausible processes for converting one rock type to
100

another.
a change in outlook on Earth processes from a catastrophic to a
100

uniformitarian one.
all of the above
100

none of the above


100

30 One of geology's greatest contributions to human thought is:


the realization that the world is round
100

the realization that the sun not the Earth is the center of the solar system
100

the recognition of the long span of time involved in Earth history


100

the recognition that the Earth is the center of the solar system
100

31 Evidence of uniformitarian change includes:


glacial deposits in areas where no glaciers are presently found.
100

fossils of marine animals found at high elevation


100

continents covered by sediments deposited in an ocean


100

wide canyons cut by small streams


100

all of the above


100

none of the above


100

32 Living organisms have been on Earth for ______ of Earth's history?


less than 1%
100

about 20%
100

about 50%
100

about 80%
100

33 Humans have been on Earth for _________ of Earth;s history?


less than 1%
100

about 20%
100

about 50%
100

about 80%
100

34 What caused dust and condensing material to accrete into planetesimals?


heating of gases
100

gravitational attraction and collisions


100

nuclear fusion
100

rotation of the proto-sun


100

35 Which of the following is not one of the four inner planets?


Mars
100

Earth
100

Neptune
100

Mars
100

36 The outer planets are composed mostly of ?

rocks and ice


100

oxygen and nitrogen


100

hydrogen and helium


100

helium and krypton


100

37 The moon is ?
older than the sun
100

older than most meteorites


100

older than the Earth


100

none of these
100

38 The name of the layer of the Earth that separates the crust from the core is the ___?
magma
100

lithosphere
100

asthenosphere
100

mantle
100

39 What powers the Earth's internal heat engine?

radioactivity
100

solar energy
100

volcanoes
100

ocean tides
100

40 The Earth's external heat engine is not responsible for which of the following:
climate
100

erosion
100

tides
100

winds
100

41 Oxygen built up in the Earth's atmosphere because:


the oceans separated from the crust
100

rocks weathered and released their oxygen


100

algae and other organisms employed photosynthesis


100

oxygen settled on Earth from planets further from the sun


100

42 Which of the planets is not geologically active?


Mars
100

Mercury
100

Venus
100

Earth
100

43 When did geologists develop the theory of plate tectonics

in the mid 1800s


100

in the early 1900s


100

in the 1950s
100

in the 1960s
100

44 The lithosphere is approximately ______ kilometers thick.


1-2
100

5-10
100

50-100
100

100-200
100

45 The asthenosphere is _________.


cool and strong
100

cool and weak


100

hot and strong


100

hot and weak


100

46 The Earth's lithosphere is broken into approximately ______ large, rigid plates.
2
100

12
100

50
100

100
100

47 A __________ plate boundary is illustrated in the figure show above.


transform fault
100

divergent
100

convergent - subduction
100

convergent - continent/continent collision


100

48 Which of the following statements about convection is true?


heat is transferred from hot material to cool material without inducing a
100

flow.
cool material flows upward and displaces hot material
100

hot material flows upward and displaces cool material


100

random circulation occurs


100

49 Approximately how fast does an Earth lithospheric plate move?

several centimeters per year


100

several centimeters per day


100

several centimeters per hour


100

several centimeters per second


100

50 Which of the following is not a type of plate boundary?


convergent
100

divergent
100

transform fault
100

all of these are plate boundaries


100

51 New seafloor is created at a ________.


deep sea trench
100

mid-ocean ridge
100

subduction zone
100

transform fault
100

52 The descent of oceanic lithosphere into the mantle is the process of ______.
subduction
100

accretion
100

divergence
100

contraction
100

53 Approximately how deep (below sea level) are deep-sea trenches?


1 km
100

10 km
100

100 km
100

1000 km
100

54 Which of the following features is not associated with a transform plate boundary?
a mid-ocean ridge
100

earthquakes
100

a deep sea-trench
100

volcanic activity
100

55 Volcanism is associated with which of the following types of plate boundaries?


convergent plate boundaries
100

divergent plate boundaries


100

transform fault plate boundaries


100

divergent and convergent plate boundaries


100

56 The Andes Mountains of South America are a result of which type of plate
boundary?
convergent
100

divergent
100

transform
100

they are not related to a plate boundary


100

57 Mount St. Helen's. a part of the Cascade Range of volcanoes, result from the
subduction of which plate?
Pacific
100

Cocos
100

Juan de Fuca
100

North American
100

58 What is the name of the large supercontinent that existed 200 million years ago when
all of the continents were together?
San Andreas
100

2 Andian

3 Indian

4 pangea

100

59 Why is our vulnerability to natural disasters growing?


because the frequency of volcanic eruptions is increasing
100

because the human population is increasing


100

because the number of earthquakes each year is increasing


100

because the number of floods each year is increasing


100

60 The theory of plate tectonics was not initially widely accepted because ______..

land bridges would have blocked plate movement


100

rocks of the Earth's crust were considered too stiff for continents to move
100

through them
fossils on South America and Africa did not match
100

ocean floor mapping showed that older rocks occur away from mid-ocean
100

ridges
61 Referring to the diagram above, path A is _______
cooling and crystallization
100

burial and lithification


100

weathering and deposition


100

cooling and uplift


100

62 Referring to the diagram above, path B is _______


uplift, weathering and erosion, deposition
100

deposition, heat and pressure, weathering


100

melting, crystallization, heat and pressure


100

deposition, lithification and crystallization


100

63 Referring to the diagram what factor(s) are responsible for path C?


melting
100

crystallization
100

heat and pressure


100

burial and lithification


100