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PRACTICE TEST 2 (MAIN)

PHYSICS (PART A)
SECTION I: (SINGLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3)
and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1.

A person sitting in the rear end of the compartment throws a ball towards the front end. The ball
follows a parabolic path. The train is moving with velocity of 20 ms1 . A person standing outside on
the ground also observes the ball. How will the maximum heights y m attained and the ranges R
seen by the thrower and the outside observer compare with each other?
(1) same y m different R
(2) Same y m and R
(3) Different y m same R

(4) Different y m and R

2.

Two trains are moving with equal speed in opposite directions along two parallel railway tracks, if
the wind is blowing with speed u along the track so that the relative velocities of the trains with
respect to the wind are in the ratio 1:2, then the speed of each train must be.
(1) 3 u
(2 ) 2 u
(3) 5 u
(4) 4 u

3.

A person moves along OABC as shown in the figure. What is the magnitude of displacement from
the initial position? OA 30m, AB 20m and BC 30 2 m

Y
A
x'

B
B' x

C O
Y'

(1) 10 m

(2) 20 m

(3) 30 m

(4) 30 2 m

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4.

Graph below shows the force F in N versus time t in s curve. The impulse of the force in the
interval 0 to 1.2 is nearest to

(1) 16 Ns
5.

6.

(2) 8 Ns

(3) 7 Ns

(4) 5 Ns

A ladder is leaned against a smooth wall and it is allowed to slip on a frictionless floor. Which figure
represents path of its centre of mass?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Figure shows the force versus displacement for a particle in motion. The increase of kinetic energy in
travelling over s 0 to 20 m will be
15
10
F in N

5
0

10

20

s in m

(1) 250 J

(2) 200 J

(3) 150 J

(4) 10 J

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7.

Two balls of same mass each m are moving with same velocities v on a smooth surface as shown in
figure. If all colissions between the masses and with the wall are perfectly elastic the possible
number of collisions between the bodies and wall together is

(1) 1
8.

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) inifnity

A thin disc of mass 9M and radius R from which a disc of radius R/3 is cut. Moment of inertia of the
disc about an axis passing through O and perpendicular to the plane of disc is
2R
3

R
O

(A)

40
MR 2
9

(2)

37
MR 2
9

(3) 9 MR 2

(4) 4 MR 2

9.

A roller coaster is designed such that riders experience weightlessness as they go round the top of
a hill whose radius of curvature is 20m. The speed of the car at the top of the hill is between
(1) 15m / s and 16 m / s
(2) 16 m / s and 17 m / s
(3) 13m / s and 14 m/s
(4) 14 m/s and 15 m/s

10.

Given that for a gas Bi isothermal bulk modulus, Ba adiabatic bulk modulus , p pressure and
ratio of the specific heat at constant pressure to that at constant volume. Which of the following
relation is correct?
(1) Ba p
(2) Bi p
(3) Bi Ba
(4) None of these
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11.

Two rods of different materials having coefficients of linear expansion 1 and 2 . Youngs
modulus Y1 and Y2 respectively are fixed between two rigid massive walls. The rods are heated

2
such that they undergo same increase in temperature. There is no bending of the rods. If 1 , the
2 3
thermal stresses developed in the two rods are equal provided Y1 / Y2
2
3
4
(1)
(2) 1
(3)
(4)
3
2
9

12.

Which of the following is true of the following P V diagram?

(1) Temperature is constant T1 T2


(2) Temperature increases T2 T1
(3) Temperature decreases T2 T1
(4) Temperature first increases and then decreases
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13.

An ideal gas is expanding such that PT 2 constant. The co-efficient of volume expansion of the gas
is
(1)

14.

1
T

(2)

2
T

(3)

3
T

(4)

4
T

A wooden block performs SHM on a frictionless surface with frequency v 0 . The block carries a
charge Q on its surface. If now a uniform electric field E is switched on as shown, then the SHM
of the block will be

(1) of the same frequency and with shifted mean position


(2) of the same frequency and with same mean position
(3) of changed frequency and with shifted mean position
(4) of changed frequency and with same mean position
15.

Two gases of different densities are mixed in proportions V1 and V2 by volume. If v1 and v 2 be the
velocities of sound in pure gases respectively then, the velocity of sound in mixture is(Assume
same )
(1) v v1v 2

V1 V2
v12 v 22

(2) v

(3) v v1v 2

v1 v 2
V12 V22

(4) v v1v 2

v1v 2
V1 V2
V1 V2
V1v12 V2 v12

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16.

C
for a r b
r
where C is a constant. A point charge q lies at the centre of the sphere at r 0 . Which of the
following is the condition for the electric field to have a constant magnitude in the region a r b ?
The figure below shows spherical distribution of the charge density varies as r

(1) C 0
17.

(2) C q

(3) C

q
4a 2

(4) C

q
2a 2

Two equal positive point charges q are held at a distance a-apart. A point test charge is located in a
plane that is normal to the line joining these charges and midway between them. What is the radius r
of the circle in this plane for which the force on the test particle has maximum value?

(1) a / 2

(2) a / 2 2

(3) a / 2

(4)

2a

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18.

19.

A battery of e.m.f V , resistors R 1 and R 2 , a capacitor C and switches S1 and S2 are connected in
the circuit as shown in figure below. The capacitor will get fully, charged to V volts when

(1) S1 and S2 are both open

(2) S1 and S2 are both closed

(3) S1 is closed and S2 is open

(4) S1 is open and S2 is closed

In the circuit given here, the points A,B and C are at 70 V, zero and 10 V respectively. Then

(1) currents in the paths AD, DB and DC are in the ratio of 3:2:1
(2) currents in the paths AD,DB and DC are in the ratio of 1:2:3
(3) the point D will be at a potential of 20 V
(4) the point D will be at potential of 60 V
20.

In the circuit the battery is assumed to be ideal (no internal resistance) and has emf of 3.0 V. The
resistor that dissipated most power is

(1) R 1

(2) R 2

(3) R 3

(4) R 4

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21.

Circular loop of a wire and a long straight wire carry currents I c and I e respectively as shown in
figure. Assuming that these are placed in the same plane, the magnetic field will be zero at the centre
of the loop when separation H is

(1)
22.

Ie R
Ic

(2)

Ie R
Ic

(3)

I c
Ie R

(4)

Ie
Ic R

In the inductive circuit given in the figure, the currents rises after the switch is closed. At instant
when the currents is 15 mA, then potential difference across the inductor will be

(1) zero

(2) 240 V

(3) 180 V

(4) 60 V

23.

A luminous object is lying in front of a screen at a distance D from it. What is the maximum focal
length of a converging lens, which can be mounted between the object and the screen to cast the real
image of the object on the screen?
(1) 2D
(2) D
(3) D/2
(4) D/4

24.

A parallel beam of white light falls on a convex lens. Images of blue, yellow and red light are formed
on other side of the lens at a distance 20 cm, 20.5 cm and 21.4 cm respectively. The dispersive power
of the material of the lens will be
619
9
14
5
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
205
1000
200
214
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25.

A point object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a thin plano-convex lens of focal length 15 cm.
If the plane surface is silvered. The system will act as

(1) concave mirror

(2) complex mirror

(3) convex mirror

(4) concave lens

26.

The fusion of hydrogen into helium is more likely to take place


(1) at high temperature and high pressure
(2) at high temperature and low pressure
(3) at low temperature and low pressure
(4) at low temperature and high pressure

27.

When 90 Th 228 transforms to 83 Bi 212 , then the number of the emitted and particles is
respectively
(1) 8, 7
(2) 4,7
(3) 4, 4
(4) 4,1

28.

In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8eV , the kinetic energy of most
energetic electrons is 0.5eV . The corresponding stopping potential is
(1) 1.8eV
(2) 1.3V
(3) 0.5V
(4) 2.3V
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29.

The given plot of binding energy per nucleus E b , against the nuclear mass M; A,B,C,D,E,F
correspond to different nuclei. Consider four reactions

(i) A B C
(ii) C A B
(iii) D E F (iv) F D E
Where is the energy released in the which reaction is positive
(1)(i) and (iv)
(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)
30.

Which of the following is the graph between the frequency (v) of the incident radiations and the
stopping potential?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
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CHEMISTRY (PART B)
SECTION I: (SINGLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3)
and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

31.

The amount of energy required to remove an electron from a Li 2 ion from its ground state is how
many times the amount of energy required to remove the electron from a hydrogen atom fro
m its ground state
(1) 9
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 5

32.

In an H 2 ion
(1) One electron is bound to two protons
(2) Two electrons are bound to two protons
(3) Three electrons are bound to two protons
(4) Bond does not exist

33.

The shape of PCl4 , PCl4 and AsCl5 are respectively


(1) square planar, tetrahedral and see-saw
(2) tetrahedral, see-saw and trigonal bipyramidal
(3) tetrahedral, square planar and pentagonal bipyramidal
(4) trigonal bipyramidal , tetrahedral and square pyramidal

34.

At constant pressure what would be the percentage decrease in the density of an ideal gas for a 10%
increase in the temperature.
(1) 10%
(2) 9.1%
(3) 11%
(4) 12.09%

35.

A cylinder with a movable piston is filled at 25 C with a gas that occupies a volume of 30.5cm3 . If
the maximum capacity of the cylinder is 45.8cm3 , what is the highest temperature to which the
cylinder can be heated at constant pressure without having the piston come out?
(1) 50 C
(2) 147.5 C
(3) 174.5 C
(4) 120 C
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36.

For the following gaseous equilibria X,Y and Z at 300 K


X : 2SO2 O2
2SO3

PCl3 Cl2

Y : PCl5
Z : 2HI

H2 I2

ratio of K p and K c in the increasing order is


(1) X Y Z
(2) X Y Z
(3) X Z Y

(4) Z Y X

37.

A weak acid HX has K a 1.0 105 and its forms a salt NaX when treated with caustic soda. The
percentage hydrolysis of a 0.1M NaX solution is
(1) 1%
(2) 0.01%
(3) 0.001 %
(4) 1%

38.

0.1 millimole of CdSO4 is present in 10 mL acid solution of 0.08N HCl . Now H 2S is passed to
precipitate all the Cd 2 ions. The pH of the solution after filtering off precipitate, boiling off H 2S
and making the solution 100 mL by adding H 2 O is approximately
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

39.

40.

When poly atomic gas undergoes an adiabatic process, its temperature and volume are related by the
equation TV n constant, the value of n will be
(1) 1.33
(2) 0.33
(3) 2.33
(4) 1
The standard heat of formation values of SF6 g ,S g and F g are : 1100, 275 and 80 kJ mol1
respectively. Then the average S F bond energy in SF6
(1) 301kJ mol1

41.

(2) 320kJ mol1

(3) 309kJ mol1

(4) 280 kJ mol1

A mixture contains 1 mole of volatile liquid A PA 100 mm Hg and 3 moles of volatile liquid
B PB 80 mm Hg . If solution behaves ideally, the total vapour pressure of the distillate is

(1) 85 mm Hg

(2) 85.88 mm Hg

(3) 90 mm Hg

(4) 92 mm Hg

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42.

In a galvanic cell, if salt bridge is replaced by inert platinum sheet, the cell will
(1) not work further; as positive and negative charges will accumulate on respective sides
(2) not work further; as platinum performs poorly as salt-bridge
(3) work as previous; as platinum performs will as salt-bridge
(4) produce less potential; as platinum performs poorly as salt-bridge

43.

The solubility of hydroxide of alkaline earth metal increases down the group because
(1) the decrease in lattice energy is more predominant than the decrease in hydration energy
(2) the decrease in lattice energy is less predominant than the decrease in hydration energy
(3) the salts become less ionic.
(4) lattice energy increases and hydration energy decreases as we move from Be2 to Ba 2

44.

Which one of the following oxides is neutral?


(1) CO
(2) SnO2
(3) ZnO

45.

46.

(4) SiO2

The true statement for the acids of phosphorus,


H3PO2 , H3PO3 and H3PO4 is
(1) The order of their acidity is H3PO4 H 3PO3 H3PO2
(2) All of them are reducing in nature
(3) All of them are tribasic acids
(4) The geometry of phosphorus is tetrahedral in all the three.
The number of S-S bonds in cyclic trimer of sulphur trioxide S3O9 is
(1) three
(2) two
(3) one
(4) zero
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47.

Which of the given statements in not true for the following reaction?
2

Cu H2O 4 4NH3
Cu NH3 4 4H 2O
(1) It is a ligand- substitution reaction.
(2) NH3 is a relatively strong field ligand while H 2 O is a weak field ligand
(3) During the reaction, there is a change in colour from light blue to dark blue.
2

(4) Cu NH3 4 has a tetrahedral structure and is paramagnetic.


48.

49.

50.

The IUPAC name of the complex Ni C4 H7 O2 N 2 2 formed from the reaction of Ni 2 with
dimethyl glyoxime is
(1) Bis methylgloxal nickel(II)
(2) Bis dimethyloxime nickelate(IV)
(3) Bis 2,3- butanedioldioximato nickel(II) (4) Bis bu tan e 2,3- dionedioximato nickel(II)
The actual reducing agent of haematite in blast furnace is
(1) C
(2) CO
(3) Al
(4) CO2
Forth floatation process for the concentration of ores is a practical application of
(1) Adsorption
(2) Absorption
(3) Coagulation
(4) Sedimentation

51.

The value of N and n are


(1) 6, 6
(2) 6,4

(3) 4,4

(4) 3,3

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52.

During debromination of meso-dibromobutane, the major compound formed is


(1) n- butane
(2) 1 butene
(3) cis 2 butene (4) trans 2 butene

53.

on hydrolysis in presence of aqueous

acetone gives

(1) (K) and (L)


54.

(2) (K) only

(3) (K) and (M)

(4) (M) only

Heating a particular ether with HBr yielded a single organic product. Which of the following
conclusions may be reached?
(1) The reactant was a methyl ether
(2) The reactant was a symmetrical ether
(3) The reactant was a cyclic ether
(4) Both (2) and (3) may be correct.
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55.

dil.NaOH
In the reaction, HO CH2 CHO
how many distinct products(saturated) are possible?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

56.

(A)

(2)

(3)

(4)
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57.

Consider the following reaction,


H /H2O

C6 H5 NH2 CHCl3 KOH


A

B C
The compounds (B) and (C) are
(A) C6 H5COOH and NH3 respectively
(2) C6 H5 NH2 and HCOOH respectively
(3) C6 H5 NH2 and H 2 O respectively

58.

(4) none of these

When aniline is treated with benzene diazonium chloride at low temperature in weakly acidic
medium, the final product obtained is

NH 2

N=N

N=N

(1)

NH 2

(2)

NH 2

N=N NH

N=N

(3)

59.

(4)

Consider following reagents


(I) Br2 water (II) Tollens reagent and (III) Fehlings solution.
Which reagent (s) can be used to make distinction between an aldose and a ketose?
(1) (I), (II) and (III) (2) (II) and (III)
(3) (I) only
(4) (II) only

60.

H NCH 2 CO (zwitter ion)


This structure of glycine (amino acid) is 3
Select the correct statement of the following
(A) Glycine, as well as other amino acids are amphoteric

(B) The acidic functional group in amino acids is N H3


(C) The basic functional group in amino acids is CO2
(D) All the statements are correct

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MATHEMATICS (PART C)
SECTION I: (SINGLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3)
and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61.

Total number of positive integral solutions of x1 x 2 3x 3 15 is equal to..


(1) 63
(2) 64
(3) 65
(4) None of these

62.

If A 1,1,1 and C 0,1 1 are given vectors, then a vectors B satisfying the equation A B C
and A.B 3 is
5 2 2
(1) , ,
3 3 3

5 2 2
(2) , ,
3 3 3

5 2 2
(3) , ,
3 3 3

(4) none of these

If f x 0 be a quadratic equation such that f f 0 and f


, then
4
2
f x
is equal to
lim
x sin sin x
(1) 0
(2)
(3) 2
(4) none of these
2

63.

64.

65.

1
1
1
1

is
lim

....
2
2
2
2
2
n
2
n
n 1
n 2
n n 1

(1)
(2)
(3) does not exist
4
2
The value of
(1) 0

3
4

(4) none of these

4x
sin x dx where . denotes greatest integer function

5
7
3
sq units (3)
sq units
sq units
(2)
(4)
4
4
4
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66.

The system of equations a b x ay bz 0 ,

b c x by cz 0

a b y b c z 0 has non-trivial solution, if


(1) a, b,c are in A.P.
(3) a,b,c are in H.P.
67.

If z 1 z 3 8 , then the range of values of z 4 is


(1) 0,8

68.

70.

(2) 0,8

(3) 1,9

(4) 5,9

In the binomial exp 1 x x 2 ......x 27 1 x x 2 ...... x14 , the coefficient of x 28


2

(1) 220
69.

(2) a,b,c are in G.P.


(4) None of these

(2) 222

(3) 224

(4) 226

How many real solutions does the system x 2 y2 25 and xy 10 have


(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) none of these
If the family of lines x a 2b y a 3b a b passes through the point for all values of a and b,
then the coordinates of the point are
(1) 2,1
(2) 2, 1
(3) 2,1
(4) None of these

71.

The diagonals of a parallelogram PQRS are along the lines x 3y 4 and 6x 2y 7 . Then PQRS
must be a
(1) rectangle
(2) square
(3) cyclic quadrilateral
(4) rhombus

72.

S and T are the foci of an ellipse and B is an end of the minor axis. If STB is an equilateral triangle,
the eccentricity of the ellipse is
1
1
1
2
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
4
3
2
3
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73.

t
t

If P 1
,2
be any point on a line, then the values of t for which the point P lies between
2
2

parallel lines x 2y 1 and 2x 4y 15 may belong to the interval

4 2 5 2
(1)
,

3
6

74.

75.

77.

4 2 5 2
(3)
,

3
6

(4) None of these

5c
3b
a
If log , log and log are in AP, where a,b,c are in GP, then a,b,c, are the lengths of
a
5c
3b
sides of
(1) an isosceles triangle
(2) an equilateral triangle
(3) a scalene triangle
(4) None of the above
The integral value of k for which the inequality x 2 2 4k 1 x 15k 2 2k 7 0 holds for all

x R is
(1) 0
76.

2 5
(2) 0,

(2) 1

(3) 2

(4) 3

a
a
a
n
If a1 ,a 2 ,a 3 ,....a n are in HP and f k a r a k , then 1 , 2 ,......, n are in
f 1 f 2
f n
r 1
(1) AP
(2) GP
(3) HP
(4) None of the above
General solution of sin x cos x min 1,a 2 4a 6 is
aR

n
n
1
2
4
n 1
(3) n 1
4
(1)

(2) 2n 1

(4) n 1

4 4

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78.

C1 C2 C3
Cn
1 1
1
..... 1
is equal to
C0 C1 C2 Cn 1

n 1
(1)
n!

79.

80.

n 1
n 1!
n

(2)

(3)

n 1

n!

(4)

n 1

n!

sin x
,

x0
x

2,
x 0 ( where . denotes the greatest integer function) if f x is
If f x

sin x x x 0

3

x
continuous at x 0 , then is equal to
(1) 1
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 2
a4 5
The set of all values of a for which the function f x
1 x 3x log 5 decreases for all
1 a

real x, is

3 21 3 21
(1) ,
(2) ,
,

2 2

5 27
3 21
(3) 3,
(4) 4,
2,
1,
2
2

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CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA / PUNE # 21

PRACTICE TEST 2 (MAIN)


81.

82.

e x x 1 x ln x
dx is equal to

x2
x ln x
(1) e x
c
x
x ln x
(3) e x
c
2
x

The solution of the differential equation

x2
c
2
x2
2
(3) sin y x sin y c
2

(2) sin 2 y x sin y

Let A C denotes the complement of an event A. Let A,B,C be three pair wise dependent events.
Given P A / C =0.2, P B / C 0.4 and P A B / C 0.1 , then P AC BC / C is
(1) 0.5

84.

dy
sin y x
is

dx sin 2y x cos y

x2
c
2
x2
2
(4) sin y x sin y c
2

(1) sin 2 y x sin y

83.

x ln x 1
(2) e x
c
x

x ln x 1
(4) e x
c
x

(2) 0.6

(3) 0.8

If 1, z1 , z 2 ,....., z n 1 are the nth roots of unity, then the value of

(4) 0.4
1
1
1
is equal

.......
3 z1 3 z 2
3 z n 1

to

n.3n 1 1

(1) n
3 1 2

n.3n 1
1
(2) n
3 1

n.3n 1
1
(3) n
3 1

(4) none of these

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA / PUNE # 22

PRACTICE TEST 2 (MAIN)

1 a2x
85.

If a 2 b2 c2 2 ,and f x 1 a 2 x

1 a x
2

(1) 0

86.

87.

88.

1 b x 1 c x
1 b x 1 c x then f x is a polynomial of degree
1 b x 1 c x

(2) 1

(3) 2

(4) 3

x2
f
f x f x
1
ln
4
If f x and g x are continuous functions, then 2
dx is 0
ln
x
g g x g x
4
(1) depend on
(2) a non-zero constant
(3) zero
(4) None of these
3x

1
1
1
1x
x
x
x
p

s
lim
x
4

(1) pqrs

(2) pqrs

where p,q, r,s 0 is equal to


3

(3) pqrs 2

1000
m
x k
, then k is m 101
If k lim k 1m
1000
x
x 10

(1) 10
(2) 102

(4) pqrs 4

(3) 103

(4) 104

x y
z

makes an isosceles triangle with the planes 2x y 3z 1 0 and
k 2 12
x 2y 3z 1 0 , then value of k is
(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 0

89.

The line

90.

If A and B are two events such that P A


(1) P A B

2
3

(2) P A B

1
3

1
2
and P B , then which of the following is correct?
2
3
(3) Both (1) & (2)

(4) Only (1)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA / PUNE # 23

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