Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
Weights
Recall
Compreh
ension
Applic
ation
4
6
2
3
2
1
1
5
2
1
2
2
1
1
2
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
4
5
3
4
5
3
2
1
1
3
1
3
2
3
2
5
2
2
2
2
7
1
1
4
1
1
2
100
57
36
B. Monochorionic, monoamnionic
C. Monochorionic, diamnionic
D. Dichorionic, diamnionic
10. For external version to be performed, for it to be successful, which of the following should
be given?
A. IVF
C. antacids
B. Tocolytic agent
D. Xylocaine
11. Mrs. R.B., G3P2, is in active labor. AOG 39 weeks. Had prior CS for fetal distress. Uterine
contractions 60-90 sec, 2-3 min intervals. IE: 8 cm, cephalic, intact membranes, station +2. FHT:
RLQ, 150/min. The thing to do is:
A. VBAC
C. Low forceps delivery
B. C.S.
D. Mid forceps extraction
12. To help in the delivery of the aftercoming head for a successful partial breech extraction, what
particular maneuver should be performed?
A. forward roll
C. abdominal rescue
B. Brachts maneuver
D. Pinards maneuver
13. Mrs. B.R. is for her regular prenatal check-up. She is 25 weeks gestation. On abdominal
palpation, her fetus is found to be in breech presentation. The thing to do is:
A. do an external cephalic version
B. get an UTZ
C. allay the mothers fear that such finding is expected at that time
D. tell her she will have a C.S. at term
14. Which of the following is a possible sign of pelvic inlet contraction?
A. premature rupture of membranes
B. Arrest of station +2
C. Bishop score of 9
D. Transverse Diameter of 12.0 cm.
15. At what plane of the pelvis do you find the narrowest pelvic diameter?
A. pelvic inlet
C. midpelvis
B. pelvic outlet
D. plane of the greatest pelvic dimensions
16. What effect does epidural anesthesia have on the progress of labor?
A. lengthening of both 1st & 2nd stage of labor
B. slowing fetal heart rate
C. hastens both the 1st & 2nd stage of labor
D. increased fetal heart rate variability
17. What do H. Mole and multifetal pregnancy have in common?
A. uterine compatible to missed period
B. uterine size in smaller re; missed period
C. in 50% of cases, uterine size is larger re: missed period
D. no change in uterine size
18. Bilateral large lutein cysts are usually observed in large H. Moles. The thing to do is:
A. Do a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
B. Do a bilateral oophorectomy
C. Do a TAHBSO
D. Just leave it after evacuation of H. Mole
19. Mrs. E.M., 32 y.o. multipara, came in for sudden onset of profuse painless vaginal bleeding. She
is 30 weeks AOG. On admission, bleeding has stopped. No uterine contractions. The thing to do is:
A. do an internal exam
C. do an abdominal UTZ
B. do a TVS
D. do a C.S.
20. A 27 y.o. multipara came to the prenatal office with a recent UTZ result of placenta occupying
the entire internal os. She is 38 weeks AOG. Patient is not in labor. The thing to do is:
A. do a pelvic evaluation
B. do a C.S.
21. A primigravida came in with severe on and
vaginal bleeding. She is 12 weeks gestation. IE: 3
do is:
A. give a tocolytic agent
B. give oxytocic
22. Which of the following surgical procedures is a conservative management of tubal pregnancy?
A. Salpingostomy
C. Salpingooophorectomy
B. Salpingiectomy
D. Hysterectomy
23. Presence of Arias-Stella phenomenon in endometrial scrapings is a pathognomonic finding of:
A. Abortion
C. Pregnancy
B. Ectopic pregnancy
D. H. Mole
24. A primigravida came in hypovolemic shock with a pregnancy at 35 weeks AOG. Uterus
hypertonic, dilated cervix at 8 cm. The thing to do is:
A. Vaginal delivery
C. Forceps Extraction
B. Cesarean section
D. Oxytocin administration
25. What do abruption placenta and missed abortion have in common?
A. risk of future infertility
B. higher incidence of OB complications in future pregnancies
C. risk of development of DIC
D. Hypertonic Uterine Contractions
26. Which of the following is a procedure for the management of incompetent cervix?
A. Hungtintons
C. Mc Donalds
B. Hauttains
D. Porros
27. Which of the following is used to ripen the cervix before labor induction?
A. Syntocinon
C. Methylergonovine
B. Ergonovine
D. Misoprostol
28. Which of the following is a surgical induction method used to augment labor?
A. Oxytocin infusion
C. Stripping of the membranes
B. Amniotomy
D. Misoprostol administered vaginally
29. Which of the following is a criterion for outlet forceps extraction?
A. Fetal skull has reached the pelvic floor
B. Rotation is greater than 45 degrees
C. Leading point of fetal skull is station +1
D. Fetal skull has not reached the pelvic floor
30. Gridiron feel of the ribs signifies that the presentation is:
A. face
C. shoulder
B. breech
D. vertex
31. In what instances is a classical cesarean section performed?
A. posteriorly located placenta previa
B. ill formed lower uterine segment, shoulder presentation
C. breech presentation
D. Repeat cesarean section
32 In what type of cesarean section are post-operative adhesions usually encountered?
A. LTCS
C. Kronigs incision
B. Classical C.S.
D. T-incision
33. An abnormal condition which develops with the extreme thinning of the lower uterine segment in
obstructed labor:
A. Bandl ring
B. Physiologic retraction ring
C. Contraction ring
D. Cervical effacement
34. This phase of the active phase of labor is reflective of the fetopelvic relations:
A. Latent phase
C. Deceleration phase
B. Acceleration phase
D. Phase of maximum slope
35. What mechanism of placental extrusion starts at the periphery and the maternal surface is the
first to appear at the vulva:
A. Ritgen mechanism
C. Schultze mechanism
B. Duncan mechanism
D. Sheep mechanism
36. The relationship of the long axis of the fetus to that of the mother, either longitudinal or
transverse is called:
A. Fetal presentation
C. Fetal Position
B. Fetal lie
D. Fetal attitude
37. The lateral deflection of the fetal to a more anterior or posterior position in the pelvis is called:
A. Rotation
C. Engagement
B. Extension
D. Asynclitism
38. The edematous swelling of a portion of the fetal scalp over the cervical os before complete
cervical dilatation following prolonged labor is:
A. Caput Succedaneum
C. Cephalhematoma
B. Molding
D. Crowning
39. This maneuver allows control of the delivery of the head by exerting forward pressure on the
chin while exerting pressure superiorly against the occiput:
A. Mauriceau maneuver
C. Ritgen maneuver
B. Pinard maneuver
D. Zavanelli maneuver
40. Which of the following is not a presumed benefit of amniotomy during labor?
A. More rapid progress of labor
B. Prevents prolapse of the umbilical cord
C. Opportunity to apply electrode for fetal monitoring
D. Early detection of amniotic fluid staining.
41. During the "Fourth Stage" of labor, the patient should be closely monitored for postpartum
hemorrhage most likely due to :
A. Vulvar hematoma
C. Uterine atony
B. Perineal bleeding
D. Uterine inversion
42. An episiotomy is performed when the head is visible during a contraction to a diameter of:
A. 3-4 cm.
C. 7-8 cm.
B. 5-6 cm
D. 9-10 cm.
43. In external electronic fetal monitoring, the characteristic of baseline fetal heart activity that
serves as an important index of cardiovascular function is:
A. rate
C. fetal arrhythmia
B. accelerations
D. beat to beat variability
44. The most common deceleration patterns encountered during labor attributed to umbilical cord
occlusion would be:
A. early deceleration
C. prolonged deceleration
B. late deceleration
D. variable deceleration
45. All of the following are clinical areas for the use of amnioinfusion EXCEPT:
A. in an attempt to dilute of wash out thick meconium
B. to avoid cord prolapse in PROM
C. treatment of variable or prolonged decelerations
D. prophylactically in cases of known oligohydramnios
46. A normal response to vibroacoustic stimulation in assessing fetal well-being would be:
A. fetal movement of at least 2 kicks in 15 seconds
B. deceleration momentarily of fetal heart rate with a fetal movement
C. acceleration of at least 15 bpm for at least 15 sec.
D. increased beat to beat variability 10-30
47. Vaginal discharges in the puerperium described as white to yellowish-white in color after about
the 10th day from delivery:
A. lochia rubra
C. lochia alba
B. lochia serosa
D. show
48. Mastitis during lactation and the puerperium is most commonly caused by this organism:
A. Streptococcus
C. Clostridium
B. Staphylococcus
D. Bacteroides
49. The following are the most common pathogens causing puerperal pelvic infections EXCEPT
A. Streptococci
C. Enterococcus
B. Peptococcus
D. Candida
50. What is the most common organism, particularly in parenteral drug abusers, with acute
endocarditis?
A. Staphylococcus aureus, coagulase positive
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Neisseria gonorrheae
D. Group B Streptococcus
51. How should non-pregnant patients under the age of 35 who are tuberculin-positive but x-ray
negative be treated?
A. Rifampicin 10 mg/kg daily for 12 months
B. Streptomycin for 12 months
C. Isoniazid 300 mg daily for 12 months
D. Pyridoxine for 12 months
52. What is the most common presenting symptom of renal stones in pregnant women?
A. flank pain
C. hematuria
B. abdominal discomfort
D. infection
53. What is the caloric requirement per ideal body weight of a woman with gestational diabetes?
A. 20-25 kcal/kg
C. 40-45 kcal/kg
B. 30-35 kcal/kg
D. 50-55 kcal/kg
54. Which of the following is relatively contraindicated in pregnancy for the management of
gallstones?
A. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
B. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
C. Laparotomy at 12 weeks gestation
D. Intraoperative Cholangiography
55. Outcomes of postterm pregnancies include the following, EXCEPT:
A. Meconium aspiration
C. Polyhydramnios
B. Fetal macrosomia
D. Shoulder dystocia
56. Postterm infants may present with:
A. unusual alertness
B. increased subcutaneous fat
C. long nails
D. Shiny skin
57. A 40 year old G1P0, married for 10 years, came in for decreased fetal movement. Menses
claimed to be regular, computed AOG is 41 weeks, a known diabetic. Pertinent P.E.: FH 40 cm, FHT
150/min, cephalic, cervix closed, CTG revealed poor beat-to-beat variability. The best thing to do is:
A. induce labor
C. do C-section
B. do BPS
D. do NST
83. The most common and earliest mode of spread in ovarian cancer is
A. retroperitoneal lymphatic channels
C. transcoelomic
B. pelvic and para-aortic lymph nodes
D. Hematogenous
84. A 55 y.o. female, 4 years menopause, presents with 5 cm cystic-solid mass. You will
A. observe for 3-6 months
C. suppress with oral contraceptives
B. remove mass surgically
D. radical surgery
85. The standard primary therapy for Sex Cord-Stromal tumors is/are
A. surgery alone
C. surgery, radiotherapy
B. surgery, chemotherapy
D. surgery. Chemotherapy, radiotherapy
86. A 55 y.o. post-menopausal woman presents with pelvic discomfort, irregular vaginal bleeding
and breast tenderness. She is not on any medications. On pelvic exam, her vagina is moist, the
uterus is slightly enlarged, and a 7 cm mobile mass was palpated at the right adnexa. Your most
likely diagnosis is:
A. Mature cystic teratoma
C. Endometrial cancer
B. Granulosa cell tumor
D. Dysgerminoma
87. Associated histologic feature or tumor marker with serous ovarian tumors
A. Psammoma body
C. Call-Exner body
B. CA 125
D. alpha-feto protein
88. The most common presentation of ovarian cancer is
A. pelvic mass
C. abdominal pain
B. pressure symptom
D. no symptoms
89. An important pre-operative procedure for all ovarian carcinoma is
A. Barium enema
C. bowel cleansing
B. Intravenous pyelography
D. renal function studies
90. The most common physical finding in early tubal carcinoma is
A. hydrops tubae profluens
C. pelvic mass
B. pelvic pain
D. abnormal bleeding
91. Patients with atypical hyperplasia will subsequently develop invasive cancer in ____% of
patients:
A. 1
C. 8
B. 4
D. 29
92. The advantage of myomectomy over hysterectomy is:
A. decreased post-operative infection rate
B. low risk recurrence
C. preservation of hormonal function
D. preservation of reproductive function
93. In endometrial hyperplasia, the most important determinant of malignant potential is
A. mitotic rate
C. Obesity
B. grading
D. Cellular atypia
94. Therapeutic amenorrhea for the treatment of endometrial hyperplasia without atypia may be
achieved with
A. Cyclic OCPs
C. NSAIDS
B. Continuous progestins
D. Clomiphene Citrate
95. The most common tumor of the uterus is:
A. leiomyoma
B. adenomyosis
C. Endometrial Polyp
D. teratoma