Plates, minor connectors, guiding plates, and proximal -1

contacts of natural teeth all contribute to

Reciprocation.A
Esthetics.B
Good oral hygiene.C
The United Fund.D
Rigidity.E

Which of the following is/are true concerning Kennedys/ -2

?Applegates rules
Kennedy class 1 involves bilateral edentulous areas posterior to .1
the natural teeth while a Class II has a unilateral edentulous
.area posterior to the natural teeth
Kennedy Class 3 always has one unilateral edentulous area .2
with teeth posterior to it. A Class 4 has a single edentulous
.area crossing the midline and anterior to natural teeth
.You may have up to 2 mods only in a Kennedy Class 4 case .3
If a second or third molar is missing and is not to be replaced it .4
is not considered in Applegate's rules. If to be replaced it will
.determine the class
Modifications are those areas other than those that determine .5
.the classification and are designated by their number

a) All the above are true

b) None are true
c) 1,2,3 are true
d) 1,4,5 are true
e) 3,4,5 are true
f) 1, 4 are true.

After surveying your diagnostic casts you determine your RPD -3

design and the necessary alterations. The design is then drawn on
the cast and you are now ready to make tooth modifications. In
?what sequence will you follow
Heights of contour / guiding planes / rest seats / impression .A
Guiding planes/ impression / heights of contour / rest seats .B
Guiding planes / heights of contour / rest seats / impression .C
Guiding planes/ heights of contour / impression / rest seats .D

What is the main purpose of a cast distal extension posterior -4

?metal stop
.Provides for a more rigid RPD framework .A
.Increases overall retention of the RPD to resist displacement .B
Provides a positive apical seat (tissue stop) for the RPD in .C
.function
Provide stability of the distal extension framework during .D
.acrylic processing

Which one of the following is true regarding components of -5

?upper removable partial denture
Major connectors should be flexible so that functional chewing .A
forces are properly transmitted to the teeth and other
.tissues
A minor connector is the unit of the partial denture that .B
connects the parts of the prosthesis located on one side of
.the arch with those on the other side
.The linguoplate can in itself serve as an indirect retainer .C
Each direct retainer and each occlusal rest are joined to the .D
.major connector by a minor connector

The investment cast upon which a removable partial denture -6

:wax pattern is formed is called a __________________ cast
Reformed.A
Refractory.B
Reformatted.C
Blocked out.D

The channel which allows molten metal to flow from the - 7

crucible to the mold cavity during the casting procedure is
.__________ called a
Cannula.A
Barrel.B

Peanut.C
Sprue.D

8-Which of the following major clinical appointments for

construction of an RPD can be safely skipped?
A. Diagnosis and treatment planning
B. Mouth preps and final impressions
C. Post-preparation endodontic testing
D.Delivery
I-bar is most often located in .01 undercut on the -9
A.Cemento-enamel junction
B. Greatest distal curvature of the buccal surface
C.Mesio-buccal line angle
D. Disto-buccal line angle
Dislodging movement of a RPD is resisted by - 10
A.Stabilizing clasps
B. Mechanical retainers
C.Reciprocating clasps
D. Denture base retainers
E. Denture base mesh
A master cast is placed in the cast holder and aligned at the -11
zero degree tilt. A 0.02 undercut is found on the mesiolingual
of the mandibular right second molar. Tilting the cast to the
anterior will

A.Increase the undercut

B.Decrease the undercut
C.Not affect the undercut
D.None of the above. The cast should not be tilted since all
RPDs are designed at the zero degree tilt.
The rests of a RPD must be free to move in function (except -12
gingivally) in Kennedy Class
A.I, II, IV
B. I, II, III, IV
C.I, III, IV
D. II, III, IV
E. None. Rests should never move in function
All of the following are sites of arbitrary blockout of the -13
mandibular RPD master except
A.All gingival crevices
B. Gross tissue undercuts situated below areas involved in design of
denture framework
C.Labial and buccal tooth and tissue undercuts not involved in
denture design
D.Tissue undercuts to be crossed by origin of bar clasps
E.All of the above are sites of arbitrary blockout
All of the following features describe the proximal -14
plate/guiding plate area needed for proper functioning of the
RPI clasp assembly, except
A. A guiding plane is prepared on the distal surface of the
abutment tooth in the occlusal one-third
B. The guiding plane is approximately 2 3 mm in height
occlusogingivally
C. An undercut should exist below the guiding plane to permit
movement of the proximal plate

D.The proximal plate contacts approximately 1-2 mm of the

occlusal portion of the guiding plane
E. The proximal plate contacts approximately 1 mm of the
gingival portion of the guiding plane
distal extension removable partial denture, the jaw relations -15
should be recorded ____________ the secondary impression is
.made and __________ the framework in place

In

A. before; with
B. before; without
C. after; with
D.after; without
E. as; with
16-The only indication for use of box shape occlusal rest in
A. class I
B. class II
C. class II modification I
D. class III
E. class IV
17-Final impression for RPD can be made at
A. At impression stage with custom tray
B. At framework stage
C. At delivery stage
D. All of above

18-During designing direct retention for upper RPD class

III and you found that the posterior abutment was
severely tilted, what is the most satisfactory option
A. Make a new undercut on the tooth
B. Make telescopic crown on abutment
C. Ring clasp
D. Extraction of abutment
E. Orthodontically abrightening tooth
19-Patient who has un-modified class II Kennedy
classification with good periodontal condition and no
carious lesion, the best clasp to use on the other side is
A. Reciprocal clasp
B. Ring clasp
C. Embrasure clasp
D. Gingivally approaching clasp
E. No need to clasp at dentate side
20-Guiding planes prepared on enamel surfaces should be
A. Flat occlusogingivally
B. Rounded occlusogingivally
C. Should not parallel to long axis of abutment
D. Should not prepared
21- The seat for occlusal rest on abutment should be
A. On proximal surface of abutment

B. On the marginal ridge at 900 to long axis of abutment

C. Parallel to pontic
D. Parallel to long axis of the tooth
23- Beading should
approximately

have

depth

and

width

of

A. 0.25 to 0.5 mm
B. 0.5 to 1 mm
C. 1 to 1.5 mm
D. 1.5 to 2 mm
E. 2 to 2.5 mm
24- For tooth supported partial dentures, denture base
flange is kept
A. Just short of reflection of soft tissue
B. Too short of reflection of soft tissue
C. Just extended of reflection of soft tissue
D. All of above
E. Non of above
25- The best path of insertion of RPD is one
A. That is having right or left tilt
B. That is perpindicular to occlusal plane
C. That having anterior tilt
D. That having posterior tilt

26- Tissue stops is made by removing approximately

A. 1 square mm of relief wax
B. 2 square mm of relief wax
C. 6 square mm of relief wax
D. 4 square mm of relief wax
E. Non of above
27- Minimal width of finish line of RPD is
A. 0.5 mm
B. 1mm
C. 1.5 mm
D. 2 mm
E.2.25 mm
28- During waxing up of mandibular major connector it
must be cut at
A. 45 degree
B. 90 degree
C. Obtuse angle
D. Non of above
29- Ring clasp is most often indicated in
A. Tipped canine

B. Tipped incisor
C. Tipped molar
D. Untilted canine
E. Any of them
30- Which of the following is an indication for an RPI?
A. Adjacent to a free distal extension
B. Guide plane only on the distal
C. Rest area only on the mesial occlusal
D. All of the above are indications.