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1.

These rod shaped bacteria, growing on the simple nutrient medium are Gram
positive, non spore forming, non motile. Volutin granules are found inside of the
cells. In the smears often have parallel - fence appearance:
A) Corynebacterium xerosis
B) Bacillus anthrasis
C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D) Bacillus cereus
E) Streptococcus mitis
2. In the treatment of disbacteriosis in order to restore the normal microflora apply:
A) bacteriophages
B) eubiotics
C) nutrient medium
D) antimetabolites
E) antibiotics
3. Belong to the bacteria, not fermenting carbohydrates:
A) Shigella sonnei
B) Clostridium perfringens
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis
D) Vibrio cholerae
E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
4. The mechanism of the appearance of the rash in measles is associated with:
A) a reproduction of the virus in the epidermis
B) cutaneous tropism of the virus
C) the hemolytic activity of the virus under action of T-lymphocytes
D) hemagglutinating properties of the virus
E) interaction of T-lymphocytes with infected endothelial cells
5. Is opportunistic bacteria:
A) Shigella sonnei
B) Bordetella pertussis
C) Neisseria meningitidis
D) Salmonella Typhi

E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
6. It is characteristic of Giardia lamblia trophozoites:
A) is not motile
B) has an apical complex
C) has pseudopodia
D) has four nucleus
E) is motile
7. Is not used in microbiological diagnosis of leptospirosis:
A) microscopic technique
B) skin-allergic method
C) serological method
D) bacteriological method
E) biological method
8. Is used for treatment of diseases, caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa:
A) Penicillin
B) metronidazole
C) quinolone drugs
D) sulfonamides
E) fluconazole
9. DNA contains:
1.Hepatitis A virus;
2.The hepatitis B virus;
3.Hepatitis C virus;
4.Hepatitis D virus;
5.Hepatitis E virus;
A) 2, 4
B) 2, 5
C) 2, 3
D) 2, 5
E) only 2

10. In the hemolyse zone of staphylococci, isolated after blood agar cultivation of
specimen, taken from the nasal cavity a small, semi-transparent satellit colonies
were observed. These colonies may be belong to:
A) Klebsiella pneumoniae
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Bordetella pertussis
D) Haemophilus influenzae
E) Staphylococcus epidermidis
11. gG detection to Toxoplasma gondii (in the absence of appropriate gM) in
newborn blood serum confirms:
A) the presence of appropriate antibodies in the mother
B) infection through the birth canal
C) infection through breast milk
D) intrauterine infection
E) postvaccinal immunity
12. In the diagnosis of coccidioidomycosis in skin-allergic test is used:
A) blastomycin
B) histoplasmin
C) spherulin
D) mycotoxin
E) trichophytin
13. Is used in diagnosis of Haemophilus influenzae infections:
A) biological method
B) skin-allergic test
C) bacteriological method
D) radioimmune method
E) molecular genetics method
14. Are used for diagnosis of tuberculosis:
1.Widal reaction;
2.Mantoux test;
3.Wright reaction;

4.Ziehl-Neelsen method;
5.Fernandes test;
6.Prays method;
A) 2, 4, 5
B) 1, 2, 4
C) 1, 4, 6
D) 2, 3, 6
E) 2, 4, 6
15. The causative agent of chancroid is:
A) Treponema pallidum
B) Clostridium perfringens
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
E) Haemophilus ducreyi
16. It is characteristic of picornavirus:
A) reproduction occurs in the nucleus of the host cell
B) the genomic RNA acts as a ribosomal RNA in the reproduction
C) genome contains double-stranded, non-segmented DNA
D) has a helical capsid
E) the genomic RNA acts as a messenger RNA in the reproduction
17. The main features of pathogens of nosocomial infections:
1.Antibiotic resistance;
2.Acid resistance;
3.High virulence;
4.The antigenic variability;
5.Antagonism;
6.Tropism to certain organs;
A) 1, 3, 4
B) 4, 5, 6
C) 1, 5, 6
D) 2, 3, 5

E) 1, 2, 5
18. Does not belong to the clinical manifestations of diseases, caused by
Gardnerella:
A) chancroid
B) bacterial vaginosis
C) salpingo-oophoritis
D) non-specific urethritis
E) endometritis
19. Is used in the diagnosis of trachoma:
A) skin-allergy test
B) microscopic technique
C) complement fixation test
D) agglutination test
E) bacteriological method
20. Is causative agent of whooping cough:
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Klebsiella pneumoniae
C) Bordetella pertussis
D) Burkholderia mallei
E) Chlamydia trachomatis
21. Is applied to determine of Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxicity:
A) agglutination reaction
B) immunofluorescence reaction
C) Coombs reaction
D) complement fixation test
E) the gel precipitation test
22. The main reason of absence of effective vaccines against acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome is:
A) the duration of the incubation period of the disease
B) the difficulties of the virus obtaining
C) the difficulties of the virus cultivation

D) the ability to integrate viral genome into the host cell


E) the impossibility of biological modeling of disease
23. Exotoxin of this bacterium has a high dermonecrotic effect, causes limfositosis,
insulin production, increases sensitivity to histamine and serotonin:
A) Bacillus anthrasis
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Brucella melitensis
E) Bordetella pertussis
24. Rotavirus infection is transmitted with:
A) fecal-oral mechanism
B) air-drop way
C) vector borne mechanism
D) parenteral mechanism
E) air-dust way
25. After this disease continuous immunitet is formed, reinfection is observed
rarely:
A) whooping cough
B) syphilis
C) brucellosis
D) gonorrhea
E) tuberculosis
26. Is used for treatment of leprosy:
A) isoniazid
B) sulfonamides
C) dapsone
D) metronidazole
E) penicillin G
27. In which case may develop the primary bubonic form of tularemia?
A) when infected through all ways
B) when infected with air-drop

C) when infected with contact


D) when infected through food
E) when infected with air-dust
28. Is used for treatment of whooping cough:
A) erythromycin
B) toxoid
C) the immune serum containing antibodies against causative agents
D) the immune serum containing antibodies against pertussis-toxin
E) the combined vaccine (DTP vaccine)
29. Belong to the paramyxoviruses:
1.Rubella virus;
2.Mumps virus;
3.Cytomegalovirus;
4.RS-virus;
5.Measles virus;
A) 1, 2, 5
B) 3, 4, 5
C) 2, 4, 5
D) 2, 3, 5
E) 1, 2, 3
30. Is used for differentiation of Brucella species:
A) the breakdown of carbohydrates
B) the capsule
C) the growth on simple nutrient media
D) formation of hydrogen sulfide
E) antimicrobial susceptibility
31. Respiratory infections, caused by this virus, in children in many cases
accompanied by conjunctivitis:
A) cytomegalovirus
B) RS-virus
C) rubivirus

D) adenovirus
E) influenza virus
32. The pathogenicity factors of Brucella include:
A) capsule and endotoxin
B) capsule and exotoxin
C) endotoxin and hydrogen sulfide
D) endotoxin and exotoxin
E) plasma coagulase v hyaluronidase
33. Does not belong to the normal flora of the human organism:
A) Listeria
B) lactobacilli
C) enterococci
D) streptococci
E) Candida
34. Used in the diagnosis of sepsis:
A) bacteriological examination of blood
B) microscopy of thick smear of blood
C) serological examination of blood
D) microscopy of thin smear of blood
E) dark-field microscopy of blood
35. Is used in diagnosis of brusellosis:
1.Microscopic method;
2.Wright reaction;
3.ELISA;
4.Burne test;
5.Widal reaction;
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 2, 3, 5
C) 3, 4, 5
D) 2, 4, 5
E) 2, 3, 4

36. Coxsackie virus is transmitted with:


A) transplacental route
B) parenteral mechanism
C) vector borne mechanism
D) fecal-oral route
E) air-dust route
37. Is used for treatment of brusellosis:
A) tetracyclin and streptomycin
B) flukonazole and metronidazole
C) fluconazole and chloramphenicol
D) seftriaxone and erythromysin
E) seftriaxone and metronidazole
38. Morphological characters that are visible in smear from culture Leishmania
obtained in the NNN medium:
A) crescent shape, without flagella
B) rounded shape, without flagella
C) has pseudopodia, changeable shape
D) elongated fusiform, have flagella
E) coiled shape, have flagella
39. Is not transmission way of tularemia:
A) through aerogenic
B) through placenta
C) by vector
D) through contact
E) through food
40. Is used in the diagnosis of psittacosis:
A) immunoblotting
B) detection of antibodies in blood serum
C) biological method
D) ring presipitation test
E) microscopy of sputum

41. Used in the diagnosis of hepatitis B:


A) immunofluorescence
B) enzyme immunoassay
C) complement fixation test
D) passive hemagglutination reaction
E) hemagglutination inhibition test
42. Is used in serological diagnosis of tularemia:
A) neutralization reaction
B) agglutination reaction
C) precipitation reaction
D) immunoblotting
E) Coombs reaction
43. It is used for the prevention of poliomyelitis:
A) live vaccine
B) toxoid
C) subvirion vaccine
D) antitoxin
E) immune serum
44. Legionella pneumophila is cultivated on:
A) charcoal yeast extract agar
B) Sabourauds medium
C) bile broth
D) liver agar
E) charcoal-casein agar
45. Determine X, Y and Z microorganisms:

A) X-Mucor musedo, Y-Candida albicans, Z-Madurella


B) X-Penicillum notatum, Y-Aspergillus fumigatus, Z-Mucor musedo

C) X-Cryptococcus neoformans, Y-Malassezia furfur, Z-Madurella


D) X-Aspergillus flavus, Y-Malassezia furfur, Z-Madurella
E) X-Aspergillus terreus, Y-Piedraia hortae, Z-Histoplasma capsulatum
46. Is used for diagnosis of nocardiosis:
A) bacteriological and serological method
B) serological and biological method
C) microscopic and bacteriological method
D) Montenegro test
E) Frey test
47. Drug of choice in treatment of legionellosis:
A) penicillin G
B) erythromysin
C) immune serum
D) metronidazole
E) antitoxin
48. In the smear from culture, growing on penicillin containing nutrient medium,
protoplast chains have necklace appearance. This feature is characteristic for:
A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B) Bordetella pertussis
C) Bacillus anthrasis
D) Yersinia pestis
E) Listeria monocytogenes
49. Colonies of Bacillus anthrasis on solid nutrient medium:
A) red colonies with metallic shine
B) a lions mane or medusa head appearance
C) molar teeth appearance
D) fried egg appearance
E) bordered towel appearance
50. Is correct for the genome of hepatitis B virus:
A) consists of a circular single-stranded RNA
B) consists of a linear double-stranded DNA

C) consists of a circular single-stranded DNA


D) consists of a linear single-stranded DNA
E) consists of a circular double-stranded DNA
51. Exotoxin of Bacillus anthrasis include:
A) tracheal toxin
B) protective antigen
C) pertussis toxin
D) scarlatina toxin
E) capsule antigen
52. On the neck skin of 18-year-old boy appeared hypo- or hyperpigmented discrete
spots. In microscopy of scraping from skin lesion were detected round and oval
yeast cells, short, curved, not branching hyphae. The estimated disease is:
A) white piedra
B) tinea corporis
C) psoriasis
D) pityriasis versicolor
E) black piedra
53. Do not belong to opportunistic fungi:
1.Histoplasma;
2.Candida;
3.Cryptococcus;
4.Aspergillus;
5.Blastomyces;
6.Mucor;
A) 1, 5
B) 2, 3
C) 3, 6
D) 1, 3
E) 2, 4
54. Is not correct for anthrax:
A) skin form of disease is more common

B) can be disseminate in all of the disease forms


C) the source of infection is human
D) clinical signs depend on transmission way
E) the source of infection are animals
55. Exotoxin of Pseudomonas aeruginosa:
A) increases the glycogen amount in cells
B) inhibits the synthesis of cyclic AMF in cells
C) increases the of cyclic AMF amount in cells
D) increases amount of aromatic amino acids in cells
E) inhibits of protein synthesis in cells
56. On the hands back surface of the of 40-year-old butcher is formed covered with
black colored carbuncle, around the carbuncle red color edema is observed.
Microscopic examination of the carbuncle exudate Gram positive rod shaped
bacteria have been found. The estimated causative agent is:
A) Borrelia burgdorferi
B) Yersinia pestis
C) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D) Bacillus anthrasis
E) Listeria monocytogenes
57. Cryptococcus neoformans:
A) has a septate mycelium and arthroconidia
B) has a septate mycelium and sporangiospores
C) is rounded yeast cells with capsule
D) has a septate mycelium and airy spores
E) has a mycelium with macroconidia covered with spikes
58. The herpes simplex viruses type II persist in:
A) sacral ganglions
B) trigeminal ganglions
C) dorsal ganglions
D) Peyers patch
E) skin and mucosa

59. Opportunistic Corynebacterium spp. is called:


A) basili
B) Clostridium
C) Listeria
D) diphtheroids
E) Pseudomonas
60. The mitis type of Corynebacterium diphtheriae forms on nutrient medium:
A) a lions mane resembling colonies
B) colonies with bordered towel appearance
C) red colonies with a metallic brightness
D) small-sized S-colonies with hemolysis zone
E) grayish black color large-size R-colonies
61. Selective medium for Corynebacterium diphtheriae is:
A) casein-coal agar
B) Endo medium
C) Klaubergs medium
D) Lovenstein-Jensens medium
E) Sabourauds medium
62. Which statement is true?
A) hepatitis D virus contain HBs antigen
B) hepatitis D virus contain DNA
C) hepatitis D virus is nonenveloped
D) hepatitis D virus infection complicates hepatitis C
E) hepatitis D virus contain HBc antigen
63. The most common complication of measles:
A) pleuritis
B) splenomegaly
C) hepatitis
D) pneumonia
E) nephritis
64. Is not transmission way of diphtheria:

A) through air-drop
B) through indirect contact
C) through air-dust
D) by vector
E) through direct contact
65. Clinical signs of giardiasis:
A) jaundice
B) dyspeptic disorders
C) lymphadenopathy
D) stomatitis
E) fever
66. Is the most dangerous complications of diphtheria:
A) dermatitis
B) hepatitis
C) rhinitis
D) myocarditis
E) conjunctivitis
67. Is accompanied by toxemia:
A) dysenteriae
B) anthrax
C) listeriosis
D) scarlet fever
E) diphtheria
68. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is:
A) Gram positive, non motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria
B) Gram positive, non motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
C) Gram negative, motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria
D) Gram positive, non motile, non spore forming spherical shaped bacteria
E) Gram negative, motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria
69. Is applied to determine of Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin in clinical
specimens:

A) immunochromatographic method
B) coagglutination reaction
C) Eleks test
D) immune lysis reaction
E) the gel precipitation test
70. In the diagnosis of this disease is used agglutination of sheep erythrocytes with
patient sera:
A) infectious mononucleosis
B) all the bacterial infections
C) ricketsiosis
D) actinomycosis
E) all the viral infections
71. After application of diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis vaccine (DTP vaccine) is
formed:
A) antibacterial immunity against diphtheria
B) toxoid against pertussis
C) antibacterial immunity against tetanus
D) antitoxic immunity against diphtheria
E) antitoxic immunity against pertussis
72. Listeria monocytogenes is:
A) Gram positive, non motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria
B) Gram negative, motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria
C) Gram positive, non motile, non spore forming spherical shaped bacteria
D) Gram negative, motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria
E) Gram positive, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
73. The result of mutations, occurring in the gene KatG of Mycobacterium
tuberculosis:
A) resistance to streptomycin
B) resistance to isoniazid
C) formation of non acid fast mycobacteria
D) destruction of mycobacteria

E) appearance of atypical mycobacteria


74. Listeriolysin-O, which is the main pathogenicity factors of Listeria
monocytogenes:
A) neutralizes free oxygen radicals inside of phagosome
B) inactivates elongation factor EF-2 in ribosome
C) forms the pores in cytoplasmic membrane of cells
D) causes destruction of neuromediators inside of synapses
E) destroys of phagolysosome membrane
75. Belong to diseases, caused by Haemophilus influenzae:
1.Gas gangrene;
2.Chancroid;
3.Erysipelas;
4.Epiglottitis;
5.Meningitis;
A) 4, 5
B) 1, 3
C) 3, 4
D) 2, 4
E) 2, 5
76. Clostridium botulinum is:
A) Gram, negative, anaerobic, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
B) Gram positive, anaerobic, non motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria
C) Gram negative, aerobic, motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria
D) Gram positive, aerobic, non motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
E) Gram positive, anaerobic, motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria
77. This bacteria has subterminal spores giving the bacilli "tennis racket"
appearance:
A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B) Clostridium tetani
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Clostridium botulinum

E) Bacillus anthracis
78. Pathogenetic mechanism of infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus:
A) Epstein-Barr virus suppresses the ability of B-lymphocytes proliferate
B) infected T-lymphocytes contribute to the lymphoma
C) T-killer cells contribute to the proliferation of infected B-lymphocytes
D) T-killer contribute to the proliferation of infected macrophages
E) virus-infected B-lymphocytes become a target for T-killer cells
79. The pathogenicity factors of Clostridium botulinum include:
A) enotoxin
B) exotoxin
C) flagella
D) plasma coagulase
E) capsule
80. Is used in the specific prevention of diphtheria:
A) triple vaccine (DTP vaccine)
B) antitoxin
C) BCG vaccine
D) interferon
E) bakteriophage
81. Is used for detection of Clostridium botulinum exotoxin in pathological
specimens and food products:
A) Elek test
B) gel precipitation reaction
C) biological probe
D) coagglutination reaction
E) immune lysis reaction
82. Is used for the specific prevention of botulism:
A) immunoglobulin
B) recombinant vaccine
C) antitoxin
D) interferon

E) bakteriophage
83. Picornaviruses genome consist of:
A) a segmented, single-stranded, negative RNA
B) a segmented, single-stranded, positive RNA
C) non-segmented, double-stranded DNA
D) non-segmented, single-stranded, positive RNA
E) a segmented, double-stranded DNA
84. Is Gram positive, anaerobic, motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria:
A) Listeria monocytogenes
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Clostridium tetani
D) Haemophilus influenzae
E) Bacillus anthracis
85. For diagnosis of the amebiasis is used:
A) complement fixation test
B) microscopic technique
C) inhibition of hemagglutination
D) skin-allergic test
E) bacteriological method
86. The pathogenicity factors of Clostridium tetani include:
A) enotoxin
B) capsule
C) flagella
D) plasma coagulase
E) exotoxin
87. Mechanism of tetanospasmin action:
A) blockade of neuromediators production at synapses
B) polyclonal stimulation of T-helpers
C) inactivation of elongation factor EF-2 in ribosomes
D) activation of adenyle cyclase inside the cells
E) osmotic lysis of cells

88. HBs antigen of hepatitis B virus is located:


A) in envelope
B) in the core
C) in the capsid
D) between the capsid and envelope
E) in the nucleocapsid
89. Why is not formed immunity after tetanus?
A) due to lack of immunogenicity of toxin
B) due to lack of antigenicity of toxin
C) toxigenic dose of toxin is less than immunogenic dose
D) immunogenic dose of toxin is less than toxigenic dose
E) due to the formation of infectious immunity
90. Papillomaviruses are:
A) RNA-containing, non enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
B) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
C) RNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
D) DNA-containing, nonenveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
E) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
91. Is used in the specific prevention of tetanus:
A) tetanolysin
B) tetanospasmin
C) penicillin G
D) bakteriophage
E) antitoxin
92. Clostridium perfringens is:
A) Gram positive, anaerobic, non motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria
B) Gram, negative, anaerobic, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
C) Gram positive, anaerobic, non motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria
D) Gram negative, aerobic, motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria
E) Gram positive, aerobic, non motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
93. Paramyxoviruses include:

1.RS-virus;
2.Cytomegalovitus;
3.Rubella virus;
4.Measles virus;
5.Parainfluenza virus;
6.Mumps virus;
A) 2, 3, 4, 6
B) 1, 2, 3, 4
C) 3, 4, 5, 6
D) 2, 3, 4, 5
E) 1, 4, 5, 6
94. It is not biological action effect of Clostridium perfringens toxin:
A) lethal effect
B) necrotic effect
C) cytotoxic effect
D) contraction of muscles
E) hemolytic effect
95. Enteroviruses include:
A) foot and mouth disease virus
B) rotavirus
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) ECHO viruses
E) hepatitis C virus
96. Is used in diagnosis of gas gangrene:
A) Wright and Coombs reaction
B) microscopic and bacteriological methods
C) gel precpitation reaction
D) serological and skin-allergic methods
E) bacteriological and skin-allergic tests
97. Is used in the specific prevention of gas gangrene:
A) intrferon

B) antitoxin
C) tetanospasmin
D) tuberculin
E) bakteriophage
98. Is correct for mycoplasma:
A) is membrane parasites
B) forms a spore and capsule
C) is obligate intracellular parasites
D) does not grow on artificial nutrient media
E) grows on simple nutrient media
99. The pathogenicity factors of Clostridium difficile include:
A) exotoxin
B) flagella
C) endotoxin
D) spora
E) keratinase
100. The main transmission way of botulism:
A) through contact
B) by vector
C) through air-drop
D) through placenta
E) through food
101. 35-year-old man went to the doctor complaining of attacks of abdominal pain,
diarrhea, and temperature, which have developed on the 12th day after taking
antibiotics. When stool microscopy were identified a large Gram positive bacteria. In
the routine bacteriological examination detected no pathogens. The estimated
causative agent is:
A) Salmonella Enteritidis
B) enteroviruslar
C) Clostridium difficile
D) rotaviruslar

E) Shigella dysenteriae
102. Is used for treatment of psevdomembranous colitis:
A) ceftriaxone
B) clindamycin
C) ampicillin/sulbactam
D) metronidazole
E) amoxicillin/clavulanic acid
103. For the prevention of poliomyelitis administered orally:
A) toxoid
B) recombinant vaccine
C) subvirion vaccine
D) live vaccine
E) inactivated vaccine
104. Is environmental tier of Bacteroides fragilis group bacteria:
A) oral cavity
B) the upper respiratory tract
C) large intestine
D) lower respiratory tract
E) the skin surface
105. It is motile microorganism, the body is coiled in 8-12 regular spiral:
A) Borrelia
B) Campylobacter
C) Treponema
D) Helicobacter
E) Leptospira
106. The distinguishing cultural character of Mycobacterium tuberculosis:
A) is exacting to nutrient medium, grows rapidly
B) is not exacting to nutrient medium, grows slowly
C) grows slowly on cell culture
D) is exacting to nutrient medium, grows slowly
E) is not exacting to nutrient medium, grows on simple medium

107. The cultivation medium for Mycobacterium tuberculosis::


1.Klaubergs medium;
2.Lowensteyn-Jensens medium;
3.Wilson-Bleur medium;
4.Middlebrook medium;
5.Kitt-Tarotsi medium.
A) 4, 5
B) 2, 5
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2
E) 2, 3
108. Detection in blood serum of the patients with hepatitis B, spherical and
filamentous particles is due to:
A) productive infection
B) malignancy
C) integrative infection
D) vaccination
E) abortive infection
109. The 6 weeks culture filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in glycerol broth
R.Koh evaporated at 70C to 1/10 of the original volume. As a result:
A) virulence of tubercle bacilli is weakened
B) virulence of tubercle bacilli is increased
C) cord factor was obtained
D) tuberculin was obtained
E) BCG vaccine was obtained
110. On the structure scheme of influenza virus with number 1 is designated:

A) glycoprotein spikes
B) nucleocapsid
C) M protein
D) envelope
E) capsid
111. Is not transmission way of tuberculosis:
A) through placenta
B) through contact
C) by vector
D) through air-drop
E) through food
112. In microscopic examination of Ziehl-Neelsen stained sputum smear of the
patient with pneumonia acid fast bacteria have been found. The estimated causative
agent is:
A) Legionella pneumophila
B) Bordetella pertussis
C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E) Streptococcus pneumoniae
113. Is not used for diagnosis of tuberculosis:
A) microscopic method
B) serological method
C) complement fixation test
D) skin-allergic method
E) polymerase chain reaction
114. From urine of the patient with cystitis have been obtained Gram negative,
motile rod shaped bacteria, which forms bluish colonies on meat-peptone agar. The
estimated causative agent is:
A) Proteus mirabilis
B) Escherichia coli
C) Clostridium perfringens

D) Klebsiella oxytoca
E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
115. Rabies virus enters the central nervous system:
A) with the blood
B) with macrophages
C) through the lymph
D) through the peripheral nerves
E) with red blood cells
116. Is not correct for Mantoux test:
A) is positive in healthy people
B) is negative in immunosuppression case that accompanied tuberculosis
C) is positive in people, infected with tuberculosis
D) tuberculin positive patient are at risk of devoloping disease from reactivation of the
primary infection
E) is positive after BCG vaccination
117. Is not used for specific chemotherapy of tuberculosis:
A) rifampin
B) tetracyclin
C) ethambutol
D) isoniazid
E) pyrazinamide
118. Is used for differentiation Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium
bovis:
A) bile sencitivity test
B) antibiotic sensitivity test
C) niacin test
D) catalase test
E) opthochin test
119. Is used in the treatment of diseases, caused by Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma:
A) tetracyclines and macrolides
B) beta-lactam antibiotics

C) metronidazole and amoxicillin


D) acyclovir and interferon
E) ampicillin and streptomycin
120. Mycobacterium leprae is:
A) spore forming, non motile, rod shaped bacteria
B) non spore forming, motile, rod shaped bacteria
C) non spore forming, non motile, sherical shaped bacteria
D) non spore forming, non motile, rod shaped bacteria
E) non spore forming, motile, helical bacteria
121. Entamoeba histolytica:
A) has only the trophozoite form
B) is not motile
C) has the trophozoite and cyst forms
D) does not form cysts
E) has an apical complex
122. The source of leprosy is:
A) infected animals
B) midge
C) infected people
D) armadillo
E) the objects of the environment
123. Is correct for leprosy:
A) the lepromatous type develops in persons with normal immunity
B) is infected fecal-oral mechanism
C) is not infected from human to human
D) source of infection is the objects of the environment
E) the tuberculoid type develops in persons with normal immunity
124. The distinguishing cultural character of Mycobacterium leprae:
A) is exacting to nutrient medium, grows slowly
B) is not exacting to nutrient medium, grows on simple medium
C) is not exacting to nutrient medium, grows slowly

D) does not grow on nutrient medium


E) is exacting to nutrient medium, grows rapidly
125. Is used for diagnosis of leprosy:
A) bacteriological method
B) Wright reaction
C) Widal reaction
D) Mantoux test
E) microscopic method
126. Used to detect of non treponemal antibodies in diagnosis of syphilis:
1.Indirect immunofluorescence reaction;
2.Indirect hemagglutination reaction;
3.mmunoelectrophoresis;
4.VDRL-test;
5.RPR-test;
A) 1, 3
B) 3, 4
C) 4, 5
D) 2, 4
E) 3, 5
127. Gram positive, spore forming, non motile rod shaped bacteria. After breeding
did not disperse, as a result form a branched mycelium similar structures:
A) actinomycetes
B) mycobacteria
C) mycoplasma
D) bacilli
E) fungi
128. Around of the causative agents entering through mucus membrane and
damaged skin is formed specific granuloma. After destruction of this granuloma
form hearths and the roads connecting of the pathological process with external
environment and allowing to an outflow of pus .What disease pathogenesis is
described here?

A) leprosy
B) anthrax
C) venereal lymphogranuloma
D) tuberculosis
E) actinomycosis
129. Which statement is not true?
A) hepatitis C virus has 6 genotypes
B) hepatitis C virus does not replicate in chicken embryos
C) hepatitis C virus is transmitted by parenteral
D) hepatitis C virus contain DNA
E) hepatitis C virus is enveloped
130. Is used for diagnosis of actinomycosis:
A) biological method
B) serological method
C) Fernandes test
D) bacteriological method
E) Ascoli test
131. In the scalp of schoolchild observed baldness with flaking. In microscopic
examination the mycelium with septa and gas bubbles were found inside hair. This
process is called:
A) crusted ringworm
B) pityriasis versicolor
C) psoriasis
D) onychomycosis
E) sporotrichosis
132. Ecology of Nocardia spp:
A) human
B) carnivorous animals
C) environmental objects
D) herbivore animals
E) birds

133. Localisation of the pathological process in nocardiosis:


A) liver
B) hair and nails
C) lungs
D) gastro-intestinal tract
E) kidneys
134. Brazilian purpuric fever caused by:
A) Chlamydia trachomatis D-K type
B) aegypticus biotype of Haemophilus influenzae
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Haemophilus influenzae b type
E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
135. The causative agent of syphilis is:
A) Haemophilus ducreyi
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Nocardia brasiliensis
D) Treponema pallidum
E) Chlamydia trachomatis
136. Human immunodeficiency virus is:
A) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
B) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped
C) DNA containing, with helical capsid, nonenveloped
D) RNA containing, with helical capsid, enveloped
E) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
137. The virulent strains of Treponema pallidum:
A) is cultivated on Lowenstein-Jensens medium
B) is cultivated on Kitt-Tarotsi medium
C) is cultivated on blood agar
D) does not grow on nutrient medium
E) is cultivated on Klaubergs medium
138. Syphilis is transmitted:

A) with air-drop mechanism


B) with contact mechanism
C) with alimentary way
D) by vector
E) with fecal-oral mechanism
139. Is dameged by Epidermophyton:
1.The skin;
2.Hair;
3.Nails;
4.Subcutaneous connective tissue;
A) only 1
B) 1, 2, 3
C) only 1 and 3
D) only 2 and 3
E) 1, 2, 4
140. Is characteristic for secondary syphilis:
A) rashes
B) gummas
C) gentle chancre
D) hard chancre
E) chancroid
141. Bacteriological examination of stool of the patient with symptoms of bloody
diarrhea were not isolated pathogenic and opportunistic microorganisms. Correct
physicians tactics in this case, would be:
A) microscopic examination of stool
B) repeated bacteriological examination of stool
C) confirmation of the diagnosis by the biological method
D) determination of serum antibodies to the causative agent of bacillary dysentery
E) confirmation of the diagnosis by the skin-allergic test
142. Is not correct for immunity after syphilis:
A) when re-infection of the disease begins with symptoms of second period

B) there are no cases of re-infection


C) is not possible development of superinfection in active periods of the disease
D) is not possible development of superinfection in latent syphilis
E) when re-infection does not develop a chancre
143. Is diagnostic method in primary syphilis:
A) bacteriological
B) microscopic and biological
C) microscopic
D) serological and skin-allergic
E) microscopic and bacteriological
144. Does not form cyst:
A) Toxoplasma gondii
B) Entoamoeba histolytica
C) Trichomonas vaginalis
D) Balantidium coli
E) Giardia lamblia
145. Used to confirm the diagnosis of syphilis in RPR (rapid plasma reagin)-test
positive patients:
A) bacteriological investigation of blood for detection causative agent
B) dark-field microscopy of blood for detection causative agent
C) detection of antibodies in blood serum using of indirect hemagglutination reaction
D) detection of antibodies in blood serum using VDRL-test
E) immunofluorescence reaction for detection causative agent
146. The most sensitive method for diagnosis of whooping cough:
A) Elek test
B) Mantoux test
C) polymerase chain reaction
D) immunoblotting
E) Wright reaction
147. It is motile microorganism, the body is coiled in 3-10 large, irregular spiral:
A) Leptospira

B) Treponema
C) Helicobacter
D) Borrelia
E) Campylobacter
148. Borrelia is cultivated on:
A) Kitt-Tarotsi medium
B) Klaubergs medium
C) Lowenstein-Jensen medium
D) chicken embryo
E) casein-charcoal agar
149. Does not belong to human papillomavirus infection:
A) cutaneous warts
B) cervical papilloma
C) verrucous laryngitis
D) infectious erythema
E) skin papilloma
150. Is correct for the transmission mechanism of epidemic relapsing fever:
A) rubbing of the infected lice hemolymph to damaged skin
B) rubbing of the infected lice feces to damaged skin
C) sucking blood by infected mosquitoes
D) sucking blood by infected ticks
E) sucking blood by infected flies
151. The source of infection in mycetoma is:
A) infected birds
B) infected people
C) soil
D) mosquitoes
E) infected animals
152. The main clinical symptom of relapsing fever:
A) atypical pneumonia
B) ulcerative colitis

C) attacks of fever
D) erythema migrans
E) maculopapular rash
153. The causative agent of Lyme disease:
A) Borrelia recurrentis
B) Borrelia duttoni
C) Borrelia persica
D) Borrelia burgdorferi
E) Coxiella burnetii
154. Pathogenicity factors of Bordetella pertussis include:
1.Pili;
2.Pertussis-toxin;
3.Scarlatina toxin;
4.Tracheal toxin;
5.Protein A;
A) 1, 2, 4
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 3, 4, 5
D) 1, 3, 4
E) 2, 4, 5
155. Leptospira interrogans is:
A) helical, motile, spore forming microorganism
B) rod shaped, non motile, non spore forming microorganism
C) helical, non motile, non spore forming microorganism
D) spherical shaped, non motile, non spore forming microorganism
E) helical, motile, non spore forming microorganism
156. What can be caused the daily malaria attacks?
A) low resistance of the organism
B) a multiplicity of infection
C) the virulence of the pathogen
D) hemoglobinopathies

E) tropical malaria
157. Is not correct for leptospirosis:
A) sick animals are secreted pathogen with urine
B) people is infected through water contaminated by urine of infected animals
C) the entrance gate of infection are damaged skin and mucous membranes
D) the source of infection are sick animals, is transmitted with contact
E) the source of infection are sick animals, is transmitted by lice
158. Is used in the microbiological diagnosis of leptospirosis:
A) microscopy of blood smears stained by Giemsa method
B) microscopy of sputum smears stained by Ziehl-Neelsen
C) microscopy of sputum smears stained by Giemsa method
D) microscopy of the spot elements stained by Giemsa method
E) microscopy of smears prepared from wound secretions
159. Biological action effect of Clostridium botulinum exotoxin is:
A) paralysis of muscles
B) cell necrosis
C) contraction of muscles
D) osmotic lysis of cells
E) immunostimulation
160. Is used in the treatment of leptospirosis:
A) immune serum
B) metronidazole
C) antitoxic serum
D) Penicillin G
E) azidothymidine
161. Determine X, Y and Z microorganisms:

A) X-Salmonella Typhi; Y-Shigella flexneri; Z-Yersinia enterocolitica;

B) X-Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Y-Helicobacter pylori; Z-Clostridium diffisile;


C) X-Clostridium diffisile; Y-Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Z-Yersinia pseudotuberculosis;
D) X-Clostridium diffisile; Y-Helicobacter pylori; Z-Shigella flexneri
E) X-Shigella flexneri; Y-Helicobacter pylori; Z-Salmonella Typhimurium;
162. Does not belong to the pathogenicity factors of Rickettsia:
A) a microcapsule
B) exotoxin
C) lipopolysaccharide
D) pili
E) Omp-protein
163. Is correct for epidemic spotted fever:
A) the source of infection are sick animals, is transmitted by flies
B) the source of infection are sick birds, is transmitted with air-drop way
C) the source of infection are sick people, is transmitted by lice
D) the source of infection are sick people, is transmitted by mosquitoes
E) the source of infection are sick people, is transmitted with fecal-oral mechanism
164. In the saliva of mosquitoes infected with Plasmodium parasites are found:
A) schizonts
B) oocyst
C) merozoites
D) ookinete
E) sporozoites
165. The causative agent of endemic spotted fever is:
A) Coxiella burnetii
B) Borrelia recurrentis
C) Rickettsia typhi
D) Rickettsia prowazekii
E) Borrelia duttoni
166. The clinical manifestations of brusellosis include:
A) polyarthritis
B) pyelonephritis

C) dermatitis
D) pneumonia
E) conjunctivitis
167. Coxiella burnetii is:
A) Gram-negative bacteria, is cultivated on simple nutrient media
B) Gram-positive bacteria, is cultivated on simple nutrient media
C) the bacteria without cell walls, is cultivated on simple nutrient media
D) the bacteria without cell walls, is cultivated on enriched nutrient media
E) an obligate intracellular parasite, is cultivated in chicken embryo
168. Is not correct for Q-fever:
A) the source of infection are infected animals, is transmitted through alimentary way
B) the source of infection are infected animals, is transmitted with aerogenic mechanism
C) is infected by eating meat and milk of infected animals
D) the source of infection are infected animals, is transmitted by the bite of ticks
E) the source of infection are environmental objects, is transmitted with aerogenic
mechanism
169. In the scalp of schoolchild appeared scaling, itching and symptoms of
alopecia. In order to confirm the diagnosis, damaged hair:
A) treated with acid and inoculated on lecithin meat-extract agar
B) treated with acid and inoculated on agar Endo
C) treated with acid and examined under microscope
D) treated with alkali and examined under microscope
E) treated with acid and inoculated on meat-extract agar
170. Is not a correct for trachoma:
A) the source of infection are sick people, transmitted through contact
B) is caused by A, B, Ba and C serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis
C) is accompanied by conjunctivitis
D) is observed intracellular inclusion in the conjunctiva epithelium
E) the source of infection are infected animals, transmitted by vector
171. Mycelial form of Histoplasma capsulatum:
A) are oval capsulated yeast cells

B) have macroconidia similar to banana


C) have pseudomycelia
D) have macroconidia with spikes on the surface
E) are represented the mycelium and yeast cells
172. What serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis cause urogenital chlamydiosis?
A) L1, L2, L3
B) A-D
C) A, B, Ba, C
D) K-L
E) D-K
173. When passing through the birth canal of infected mother, newborn may
become infected with:
A) inclusion conjuctivitis
B) poliomielit
C) rubella
D) toxoplasmosis
E) mumps
174. In the human organism rabies virus can be detected in:
A) feces
B) urine
C) blood
D) sputum
E) saliva
175. What serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis causes lymphogranuloma
venereum?
A) K-L
B) D-K
C) L1, L2, L3
D) A, B, Ba, C
E) A-D
176. The main pathogenicity factors of Haemophilus influenzae is:

A) extoxin
B) spora
C) fibrinolysin
D) lecithinase
E) capsule
177. Chlamydia psittaci causes:
A) chicken pox
B) poliomyelitis
C) infectious mononucleosis
D) Q-fever
E) psittacosis
178. Chlamydia psittaci causes:
A) lobar pneumonia
B) atypical pneumonia
C) lymphogranuloma venereum
D) urogenital chlamydiosis
E) pneumocystic pneumonia
179. Is not character for tetanus:
A) muscular spasms
B) opisthotonus
C) sardonic smile
D) trismus
E) rashes
180. Mycoplasma is cultivated on:
A) simple medium
B) meat-peptone broth supplemented with glucose
C) brain-heart agar supplemented with serum
D) blood agar with glucose
E) Kitt-Tarotsi medium
181. Paramyxoviruses dont include:
A) parainfluenza virus

B) mumps virus
C) RS-virus
D) influenza virus
E) measles virus
182. Pathogenicity of mycoplasma is due to:
A) blockage of protein synthesis in the host cell
B) accumulation of cyclic AMP in the host cell
C) destruction of neurotransmitters at the synapse
D) polyclonal stimulation of T-helper cells
E) damaging of the host cell membrane
183. Causes urogenital infection:
A) Leptospira interrogans
B) Coxiella burnetii
C) Mycoplasma hominis
D) Chlamydia psittaci
E) Borrelia burgdorferi
184. The causative agent of relapsing fever is:
A) Borrelia
B) Nocardia
C) Treponema
D) Neisseria
E) Chlamydia
185. Is used for detection of mycoplasmas in smears, prepared from the
pathological material:
A) simple stain
B) Gram stain
C) wet microscopy
D) immunofluorescence
E) Neisser stain
186. Determine the X, Y, Z viruses:

A) X-herpes simplex virus type II; Y-herpes simplex virus type I; Z-Epstein-Barr virus;
B) X-herpes simplex virus type I; Y-herpes simplex virus type II; Z-cytomegalovirus;
C) X-Epstein-Barr virus; Y-herpes simplex virus type I; Z- herpes simplex virus type II;
D) X-herpes simplex virus type I; Y-herpes simplex virus type II; Z-Epstein-Barr virus;
E) X-herpes simplex virus type I; Y-herpes simplex virus type II; Z-varicella zoster virus
187. Ureaplasmas differ from other mycoplasmas:
A) the ability to grow on simple nutrient media
B) the ability to break down urea
C) the lack of cell wall
D) a capsule
E) intracellular parasitism
188. Is used for detection of Ureaplasma in smears, prepared from pathological
material:
A) immunofluorescence
B) wet microscopy
C) Neisser stain
D) Gram stain
E) dark-field microscopy
189. Used for prevention of influenza:
A) toxoid
B) inactivated vaccine
C) immune serum
D) immunoglobulin
E) antitoxic serum
190. The causative agent of pityriasis versicolor is:
A) Trichophyton rubrum

B) Piedraia hortae
C) Epidermophyton floccosum
D) Malassezia furfur
E) Aspergillus flavus
191. Is pathogenetic mechanism of psevdomembranous colitis:
A) normal intestine microflora disbalance as a result of antibiotic treatment
B) Candida fungi growing inside of intestine as a result of antibiotic treatment
C) necrosis of the intestines mucous membrane as a result of siga-toxin action of Shigella
dysenteriae
D) psevdomembrane formation as a result of the multiplication of enteroviruses in the
intestinal epithelium
E) invasiveness of enteroinvasive Escherichia coli to intestinal epithelium
192. Causes flaking of the scalp:
A) Epidermophyton floccosum
B) Malassezia furfur
C) Piedraia hortae
D) Trichophyton rubrum
E) Aspergillus flavus
193. Is caused by Gardnerella vaginalis:
A) venereal lymphogranuloma
B) gonorrhea
C) suppurative conjunctivitis
D) bacterial vaginosis
E) chancroid
194. The cultivation conditions of dermatophytes:
A) at 250C, a few weeks
B) at 370C, 1-2 days
C) at 370C, a few weeks
D) at 250C, 1-2 days
E) for 370C, a few months
195. The most surface proteins of human immunodeficiency virus:

A) p17 and p24


B) p17 and p10
C) gp41 and gp120
D) gp141, p17 and p24
E) gp40 and gp141
196. Does not belong to Herpesviridae family:
A) herpes simplex virus
B) cytomegalovirus
C) varicella zoster virus
D) measles virus
E) Epstein-Barr virus
197. Is dameged by Microsporum:
1.The skin;
2.Hair;
3.Nails;
4.Subcutaneous connective tissue;
A) 3, 4
B) only 4
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 4
E) 2, 3
198. Middle-aged woman addressed to the doctor with the complaint to dimness and
fragility of fingers nail plate. A microscopic examination of the nail plate showed
mycelium with septa. This process is called:
A) tinea pedis
B) tinea cruris
C) tinea capitis
D) onychomycosis
E) ectothrix

199. On the plantar skin of middle-aged woman appeared cracks accompanied by


itching and flaking. In microscopy of scraping from skin lesion were found
mycelium with septa. This process can be caused by:
A) Trichophyton, Microsporum and Sporothrix
B) Trichophyton, Microsporum and Candida
C) Trichophyton, Microsporum and Aspergillus
D) Microsporum and Candida
E) Trichophyton and Epidermophyton
200. Microscopic examination of the stool allows diagnosis in the case:
A) rotavirus infection
B) enteric fever
C) amoebic dysentery
D) bacillary dysentery
E) escherichiosis
201. The causative agent of crusted ringworm is:
A) Epidermophyton mentagrophytes
B) Trichophyton tonsurans
C) Trichophyton violaseum
D) Microsporum canis
E) Trichophyton schoenleini
202. The most common complications of mumps:
A) Reye's syndrome
B) sinusitis
C) orchitis and oophoritis
D) conjunctivitis
E) deafness and blindness
203. The main reason of the new subtype occurrence of influenza virus is:
A) complementation
B) transduction
C) drift
D) shift

E) phenotypic mixture
204. The damage of the subcutaneous tissue, muscle and fascia is typical for:
A) superficial mycosis
B) tinea
C) subcutaneous mycosis
D) pityriasis versicolor
E) mycotoxicoses
205. The main clinical symptom of Lyme disease:
A) erythema migrans
B) atypical pneumonia
C) ulcerative colitis
D) maculopapular rash
E) attacks of fever
206. In a smear from the sporotrichosis lesion can be detected:
A) branched mycelium without septa
B) branched mycelium with microconidia
C) small cigar-like yeast cells
D) branched mycelium with macroconidia
E) branched mycelium with septa
207. Used in prevention of AIDS:
A) subvirion vaccine
B) toxoid
C) recombinant vaccine
D) antitoxic serum
E) there is not any specific prevention
208. In which case, the bacteria isolated from the bacteriological examination of
sputum play an etiologic role?
A) bacteria isolated from a 100-fold dilution of sputum
B) bacteria isolated from 103-104 fold dilutions of sputum
C) bacteria isolated from 106-107 fold dilutions of sputum
D) bacteria isolated from a 10-fold dilution of sputum

E) all of the isolated bacteria


209. Causative agents of chromomycosis penetrate into the body through:
A) mucosa of the gastrointestinal tract
B) the bites of infected animals
C) the bites of bloodsucking insect
D) mucosa of the respiratory tract
E) skin microtrauma
210. Belong to systemic mycosis:
1.Aspergillosis;
2.Tinea;
3.Pneumocystosis;
4.Coccidioidomycosis;
5.Histoplasmosis;
6.Blastomycosis;
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 3, 4, 5
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 4, 5
E) 4, 5, 6
211. In middle-aged men was observed disease, that began with a painful swelling
of the left leg, and subsequently led to the deformation and formation of fistula with
purulent content. In suppurative content were found solid consistency granules
with diameter about 2 mm. The estimated disease is:
A) mycetoma
B) leishmaniasis
C) histoplasmosis
D) blastomycosis
E) chromomycosis
212. Is used for differentiation Mycobacterium tuberculosis and opportunistic
mycobacteria:
A) niasin test

B) bile sencitivity test


C) antibiotic sensitivity test
D) opthochin test
E) catalase test
213. Patogenesis of whooping cough:
A) as a result of destruction of causative agents in the blood pertussis-toxin is released
B) the causative agents enter to bronchial epithelium and multiplies
C) the causative agents enter to blood from bronchial mucous
D) the causative agents adheres to epithelial surface of bronchi and multiplies
E) the causative agents adheres to epithelial surface of intestine and multiplies
214. Coccidioides immitis spherules:
A) are formed on nutrient media
B) are formed in the external environment
C) are tissue form of the fungus
D) contain ingested leucocytes
E) contain ingested erythrocytes
215. Main causative agents of opportunistic infection in acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome:
1.Pneumocystis jiroveci;
2.Trichomonas vaginalis;
3.Candida albicans;
4.Virus rubella;
5.Cytomegalovirus;
6.Cryptosporidium hominis;
A) 2, 3, 4, 6
B) 3, 4, 5, 6
C) 1, 3, 5, 6
D) 1, 2, 5, 6
E) 1, 2, 4, 5
216. The primary focus of infection in coccidioidomycosis is formed in:
A) the intestine

B) the central nervous system


C) the skin
D) the lung
E) the liver
217. Is used in the treatment of spotted fever:
A) penicillin G
B) toxoid
C) acyclovir
D) antitoxic serum
E) tetracycline
218. Progressing as a result of the epidermal tissue hyperplasia in place of the
introduction of the pathogen through the skin microtrauma, and tend to the spread
of granulomatous nodes similar to cauliflower observed in:
A) leishmaniasis
B) histoplasmosis
C) chromomycosis
D) gas gangrene
E) blastomycosis
219. Infection with Histoplasma capsulatum happens:
A) by vector borne
B) as a result of inhalation of spores
C) through the bites of infected animals
D) through the milk and meat from infected animals
E) by ingestion of spherules
220. Cause acute intestinal infection:
1.Rubivirus;
2.Rotavirus;
3.Adenovirus;
4.Morbillivirus;
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3

C) 3, 4
D) 2, 3
E) 2, 4
221. Microscopic examination of sputum in histoplasmosis allows to reveal:
A) mycelium with septa and macroconidia
B) oval yeast cells
C) aseptate mycelium with arthroconidia
D) pseudomycelium
E) mycelium with septa and arthroconidia
222. Is cultivation medium for Clostridium perfringens:
A) Klaubergs medium
B) Sabourauds medium
C) Kitt-Tarotsi medium
D) casein-charcoal medium
E) bile broth
223. During the multiplication of malaria parasites in human organism tissue the
schizogony occurs in:
A) macrophages
B) liver
C) lymph
D) neutrophils
E) erythrocytes
224. Does not form pseudomycelia:
A) Candida tropicalis
B) Candida parapsilosis
C) Candida krusei
D) Candida albicans
E) Candida glabrata
225. Is used in serological diagnosis of brusellosis:
A) ELISA
B) Wassermann reaction

C) immunoblotting
D) radial immunodiffusion
E) Widal reaction
226. Does not belong to pathogenetic factors of candidiasis:
A) prolonged use of antibiotics
B) dysbiosis
C) immunodeficiencies
D) cardiac failure
E) use of cytotoxic drugs
227. In hepatitis A diagnosis is confirmed by:
A) the presence of specific gG in serum
B) the presence of specific gE in serum
C) the presence of specific gM in serum
D) the presence of specific sgA in serum
E) the presence of specific gA in serum
228. The pathogenetic features of influenza:
A) toxic effect of virus-specific proteins on the central nervous system
B) the destruction of upper respiratory tract epithelium
C) an inflammation of lung alveoli under the action of the virus capsid proteins
D) superantigen features of viral proteins
E) a toxic effect of the virus capsid proteins on upper respiratory epithelium
229. Is not used in the diagnosis of candidiasis:
A) the cultural method
B) microscopic technique
C) determination of mannan polysaccharides in the blood
D) determination of beta-glucan polysaccharides in the blood
E) determination of specific antibodies in the blood
230. In the smear from Histoplasma capsulatum culture, which has grown on the
Sabourauds medium is observed:
A) elongated cigar-shaped cells
B) septate mycelium and macroconidia, covered with spikes

C) mycelium and yeast cells


D) elongated budding yeast cells
E) oval yeast cells
231. It is found as encapsulated yeast cells in smears of pathological material:
A) Cryptococcus neoformans
B) Aspergillus flavus
C) Coccidioides immitis
D) Sporothrix schenckii
E) Candida albicans
232. Rabies is transmitted:
A) the fecal-oral route
B) by vector borne
C) through air-drop route
D) through animal products
E) through the bites of infected animals
233. Are located intracellularly in the infected organism:
A) staphylococci
B) borrelia
C) Candida
D) mycoplasma
E) brusella
234. The main clinical manifestation of cryptococcal infection in humans with
immune deficiencies is:
A) hepatitis
B) endocarditis
C) dermatitis
D) arthritis
E) meningitis
235. The causative agent of cutaneous leishmaniasis is:
A) Entamoeba histolytica
B) Trichomonas vaginalis

C) Balantidium coli
D) Leishmania tropica
E) Toxoplasma gondii
236. As a result of bronchial colonization by Aspergillus fungi hyphae without
invasion in human with atopy can be developed:
A) aspergilloma
B) aflatoxicosis
C) sarcoma
D) invasive aspergillosis
E) allergic broncho-pulmonary aspergillosis
237. Is used in the diagnosis of urogenital chlamydiosis:
A) immunoelectrophoresis
B) immunofluorescence
C) complement fixation test
D) precipitation reaction
E) agglutination test
238. Diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis vaccine (DTP vaccine) include:
A) immune serum against tetanus
B) tetanus toxoid
C) immune serum against diphtheria
D) pertussis toxoid
E) immune serum against pertussis
239. The pathogenesis of Pneumocystis pneumonia:
A) an inflammation of the bronchial mucosa
B) the formation of cavities in the lungs
C) atopic reactions to Pneumocystis jirovecii
D) respiratory failure, due to bronchospasm
E) blockade of gas exchange in the alveoli
240. In bacteriological examination 0.005 ml urine was inoculated with a loop on a
solid nutrient medium. Determine the degree of bacteriuria, if after incubation had
grown 100 colonies:

A) 2x104
B) 5x103
C) 105
D) 5x102
E) 2x105
241. Used in the treatment of Pneumocystis pneumonia:
A) ketoconazole
B) penicillin G
C) fluconazole
D) metronidazole
E) biseptol
242. Is used for treatment of anthrax:
A) antitoxin
B) fluconazole
C) ciprofloxacin
D) azidothymidine
E) metronidazole
243. Tissue cysts of Toxoplasma gondii:
A) consist of trophozoite clusters without special envelope
B) excreted with cats feces
C) located intracellularly in the intestinal epithelium of cats
D) located extracellularly in the intestinal epithelium of cats
E) consist of sporozoite clusters surrounded with a special envelope
244. Is not characteristic for Giardia lamblia:
1.The sucking disc;
2.Apical complex;
3.Cyst;
4.Pseudopodia;
5.Pseudocysts;
6.Flagella;
A) 1, 3, 4

B) 4, 5, 6
C) 2, 5, 6
D) 2, 4, 5
E) 1, 3, 6
245. In this disease the source of infection is water:
A) tularemia
B) brusellosis
C) diphtheria
D) leptospirosis
E) legionellosis
246. For diagnosis of the giardiasis is used:
A) microscopic technique
B) complement fixation test
C) bacteriological method
D) skin-allergic test
E) hemagglutination reaction
247. The main causative agent of pharyngitis:
A) Clostridium perfringens
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Clostridium diffisile
248. The syncytia formation of paramyxoviruses in cell culture due to:
A) NP-protein
B) F-protein
C) H-protein
D) HN-protein
E) G-protein
249. Entamoeba histolytica are localized in:
A) the mucosa of the large intestine
B) the gastric mucosa

C) the the biliary tract


D) the mucosa of the small intestine
E) the mucosa of duodenum
250. Clinical manifestation of mucous membrane candidiasis is:
A) leukoplakia
B) Koplik's spots
C) herpangina
D) blastomycosis
E) thrush
251. Native feces microscopy of patient with blood-mucous diarrhea detected motile
parasites 30m in size having pseudopodia, ecto- and endoplasm, containing
absorbed erythrocytes. The estimated causative agent is:
A) Toxoplasma gondii
B) Giardia lamblia
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Balantidium coli
E) Trichomonas vaginalis
252. RS-virus is detected in cell culture:
A) using enzyme immunoassay
B) on the base of the cytopathic effect
C) using precipitation reaction
D) using haemagglutination reaction
E) using the polymerase chain reaction
253. Human immunodeficiency virus is cultivated on:
A) chorionic-allantois membrane of chicken embryo
B) Hela cell culture
C) the culture of T-cells and monocytes
D) Vero cell culture
E) the culture of B cell and hybridomas
254. Drag of choice for treatment of amebiasis:
A) metronidazole

B) ofloxacin
C) fluconazole
D) tetracycline
E) chloramphenicol
255. Herpesviruses are:
A) DNA-containing, non enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
B) RNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
C) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
D) RNA-containing, non enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
E) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
256. Trichomonas vaginalis:
A) is not motile
B) is binuclear
C) has sucking disc
D) is motile
E) forms a cyst
257. Causes intestinal infestation:
A) Giardia lamblia
B) Trypanosoma cruzi
C) Toxoplasma gondii
D) Trichomonas vaginalis
E) Leishmania donovani
258. Clostridium difficile is:
A) Gram positive, anaerobic, non motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria
B) Gram positive, anaerobic, motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria
C) Gram negative, aerobic, motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria
D) Gram positive, aerobic, non motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
E) Gram, negative, anaerobic, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
259. The causative agent of urogenital trichomoniasis:
A) Trichomonas hominis
B) Trichomonas tenax

C) Toxoplasma gondii
D) Tripanosoma cruzi
E) Trichomonas vaginalis
260. The measles virus is different from the other paramyxoviruses with:
A) hemagglutinating ability
B) containing F-protein
C) cultivation conditions
D) transmission ways
E) the ability to form intranuclear inclusion
261. Drag of choice for treatment of trichomoniasis:
A) tetracycline
B) fluconazole
C) ofloxacin
D) chloramphenicol
E) metronidazole
262. Pneumocystis jirovecii:
A) causes cytopathic changes in the cell culture
B) is obligate intracellular parasite
C) is cultivated on Sabourauds medium
D) is cultivated on simple nutrient media
E) is a part of the normal microflora
263. Sexual reproduction of plasmodium called:
A) merulation
B) sporogony
C) mitosis
D) meiosis
E) schizogony
264. Leptospira is cultivated on:
A) coal-casein agar
B) liquid media supplemented with glucose
C) liquid media supplemented with serum

D) Kitt-Tarotstsi medium
E) glycerol broth
265. Is not transmission way of anthrax:
A) through air-dust
B) through contact
C) through food
D) through air-drop
E) by vector
266. The causative agent of tropical malaria is:
A) Plasmodium malariae
B) Plasmodium gondii
C) Plasmodium ovale
D) Plasmodium falciparum
E) Plasmodium vivax
267. Infectious mononucleosis is transmitted by:
A) air-drop
B) fecal-oral
C) vector-borne
D) alimentary
E) parenteral
268. Malaria is transmitted:
A) through contact
B) through all ways
C) by vector
D) through fecal-oral route
E) through airborne droplets
269. Paramyxoviruses include:
A) influenza virus
B) Epstein-Barr virus
C) mumps virus
D) Coxsackie virus

E) parainfluenza virus
270. Which cell component of tubercle bacilli gives to him antigenic property and
causes antibodies production and delayed type hypersensitivity?
A) lipids
B) lipopolysaccharide
C) capsule
D) flagella
E) proteins
271. Sexual reproduction of Toxoplasma occurs in:
A) the environment
B) the midges body
C) the human body
D) the mosquito body
E) the cats body
272. Is used in diagnosis of Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections:
A) biological method
B) skin-allergic test
C) serological method
D) molecular genetics method
E) bacteriological method
273. Trophozoites of Toxoplasma gondii:
A) have the crescent shape
B) have sucking disc
C) heart-shaped, have flagella
D) have pseudopodia
E) are found in promastigotes and amastigote forms
274. In the serum of 28 year-old woman with signs of prolonged fever and
lymphadenopathy were detected antibodies to human immunodeficiency virus by
ELISA. Tactics of a doctor in this case:
A) clarification of the diagnosis by immunoblotting
B) antiretroviral therapy

C) to conduct repeat testing


D) clarification of the diagnosis using of hemagglutination inhibition test
E) clarification of the diagnosis using virus neutralization test
275. Used in the diagnosis of toxoplasmosis:
A) agglutination of parasites
B) serologic method
C) the hemeabsorption reaction
D) the Ascoli thermoprecipitation reaction
E) bacteriological method
276. Does not belong to the diseases, caused by the Epstein-Barr virus:
A) infectious mononucleosis
B) oral hairy leukoplakia
C) infectious erythema
D) oropharyngeal carcinoma
E) Burkitts lymphoma
277. Grayish-white pseudomembrane froming at the entrance gate of infection is
hardly breaked from mucous membrane with swab and occurs bleeding in this time.
This sign is characteristic for:
A) listeriosis
B) scarlet fever
C) influenza
D) candidiasis
E) diphtheria
278. They are characteristic for Leishmania tropica:
1.Pseudopodia;
2.Apical complex;
3.Cyst;
4.The sucking disc;
5.Pseudocysts;
6.Flagella;
A) 3, 4, 5

B) 1, 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 6
D) only 4
E) only 6
279. The main causative agent of urinary tract infections:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Salmonella Typhimurium
D) Clostridium septicum
E) Escherichia coli
280. Amastigote forms of Leishmania:
A) are rounded shape
B) have pseudopodia
C) located intracellularly in the mosquito organism
D) are motile
E) form a cyst
281. Reoviruses are:
A) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
B) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped
C) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
D) DNA containing with spiral capsid, enveloped
E) RNA containing, with spiral capsid nonenveloped
282. In the cheek of 16-year-old boy appeared infiltrative node which has turned to
wound with granulomatous tissue after 2 months. In Giemsa-stained smear
prepared from the ulcer were identified rounded parasites 2-5 m in size. The
estimated causative agent is:
A) Trypanosoma cruzi
B) Plasmodium ovale
C) Leishmania tropica
D) Leishmania donovani
E) Toxoplasma gondii

283. They are characteristic for Entamoeba histolytica:


1.Pseudopodia;
2.Apical complex;
3.Cyst;
4.The sucking disc;
5.Pseudocysts;
6.Flagella;
A) 1, 4
B) 1, 5
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 5
E) 3, 4
284. Is used in the microbiological diagnosis of spotted fever:
A) serological method
B) bacteriological method
C) skin-allergic method
D) toxin neutralization reaction
E) microscopic technique
285. Belongs to Herpesviridae family:
1.Rubella virus;
2.Varicella Zoster virus;
3.Cytomegalovirus;
4.Poxvirus;
5.Epstein-Barr virus;
A) 1, 2, 5
B) 3, 4, 5
C) 2, 3, 5
D) 2, 4, 5
E) 1, 2, 3
286. In the serum of patients with hepatosplenomegaly found gM to the hepatitis A
virus. What does find this condition?

A) infection with hepatitis A through airborne-droplets


B) chronic hepatitis A
C) a complication of hepatitis A
D) currently hepatitis A
E) parenteral infection with hepatitis A
287. It is cytopathic effect for Herpesviruses:
A) Guarnieri bodies
B) Negri bodies
C) vacuolization
D) giant cells, or symplasts
E) have not cytopathic effect
288. Detection of IgM in the newborn blood against cytomegalovirus indicates:
A) intrauterine infection of the fetus
B) the presence of appropriate antibodies in the mothers blood
C) immune serum are injected to mother
D) immunization of mother
E) mother is infected by medical staff
289. Clinically significant bacteriuria:
A) the presence of 105 and more bacteria in 1 ml urine
B) the presence of bacteria in the urine
C) the presence of 10 and more bacteria in 1 ml of urine
D) the presence of 1 and more bacteria in 100 ml urine
E) the presence of 2 or more bacteria in urine
290. The herpes simplex viruses type II are transmitted by:
A) sexual way
B) vector-borne way
C) air-drop way
D) parenteral way
E) fecal-oral mechanism
291. Does not belong to atypical mycobacteria:
A) Mycobacterium scorfulaceum

B) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex


C) Mycobacterium smegmatis
D) Mycobacterium kansasii
E) Mycobacterium africanum
292. Does not belong to clinical findings of herpes simplex virus type II infection:
A) sevical cancer
B) aseptic meningitis
C) neonatal herpes
D) infectious mononucleosis
E) genital herpes
293. Drug of choice in treatment of tularemia:
A) streptomycin
B) antitoxin
C) penicillin G
D) immune serum
E) immunoglobulin
294. Hepatitis A virus is:
A) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped
B) RNA containing, with helical capsid, nonenveloped
C) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
D) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
E) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped
295. Varicella-Zoster virus causes:
A) infectious mononucleosis
B) checken-pox
C) herpes simplex
D) smallpox
E) measles
296. Human immunodeficiency virus is infected with:
A) fecal-oral route
B) parenteral route

C) vector-borne
D) air-drop route
E) products of animal origin
297. After a childhood varicella, which causative agent persists in the body, in
adulthood may develop:
A) semi-acute encephalitis
B) zoster
C) Burkitt's lymphoma
D) measles
E) Q-fever
298. Is not transmission way of listeriosis:
A) through contact
B) by vector
C) through placenta
D) through food
E) through air-dust
299. Typically for acute gonorrhea:
A) detection of diplococci inside of numerous leucocytes in the smear
B) detection of "clue cells" in the smear
C) detection of intracellular inclusions in the smear
D) detection of motile causative agents in the native smear
E) detection of numerous leukocytes and gram positive bacteria in the smear
300. Epstein-Barr virus causes:
A) infectious mononucleosis
B) mumps
C) herpes simplex
D) gerpangina
E) herpes zoster
301. Poliovirus infection is transmitted with:
A) transplacental way
B) vector borne mechanism

C) parenteral mechanism
D) fecal-oral mechanism
E) air-dust way
302. Detection of heterophile antibodies in the blood serum in infectious
mononucleosis is associated with:
A) cytotoxic effect of T-lymphocytes to infected B-lymphocytes
B) the antigenicity of the causative agent
C) polyclonal stimulation of infected B-lymphocytes
D) characteristics of the reproduction of pathogenic virus
E) polyclonal stimulation of infected T-lymphocytes
303. Does not belong to normal microflora of human organism:
A) Actynomyces
B) Nocardia
C) Neisseria
D) Bacteroides
E) streptococci
304. Entering with water aerosoles through of respiratory tract causes heavy, local,
or lobar pneumonia, which accompanied with high mortality:
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Chlamydia psittaci
C) Legionella pneumophila
D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
E) Bordetella pertussis
305. Causes congenital infection:
A) influenza virus
B) cytomegalovirus
C) rabies virus
D) mumps virus
E) smallpox virus
306. An early indicator of hepatitis B infection:
A) HBc antigen

B) HBc and HBe antigen


C) HBe antigen
D) HBe antigen
E) HBs antigen
307. Adenoviruses are:
A) RNA-containing, non enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
B) DNA-containing, nonenveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
C) RNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
D) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
E) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
308. Polyomaviruses are:
A) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
B) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
C) RNA-containing, non enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
D) DNA-containing, nonenveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
E) RNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
309. Used for the treatment of candidiasis:
1.Metronidazole;
2.Chloramphenicol;
3.Amphotericin B;
4.Fluconazole;
5.Nystatin;
6.Acyclovir;
A) 3, 4, 5
B) 2, 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 6
D) 1, 2, 3
E) 4, 5, 6
310. Adenoviruses persist in:
A) trigeminal ganglions
B) bone marrow

C) tonsils
D) T-lymphocytes
E) dorsal ganglions
311. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is:
A) Gram negative, non motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
B) Gram negative, non motile, non spore forming spherical shaped bacteria
C) Gram positive, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
D) Gram positive, non motile, non spore forming curved bacteria
E) Gram negative, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
312. Impossibility of the cultivation of papillomaviruses in cell culture is associated:
A) with helical capsid
B) with dermo tropism of viruses
C) the ability of the virus to tumor transformation
D) with the passing of viral replication phase in different layers of the epidermis
E) to the fact that they are RNA-containing viruses
313. Determine the virus according to the structures scheme:

A) 1-poliovirus; 2-rabies virus; 3-bacteriophage;


B) 1-adenovirus; 2-rabies virus; 3-bacteriophage;
C) 1-human immunodeficiency virus; 2-rabies virus; 3-bacteriophage;
D) 1-human immunodeficiency virus; 2-parvovirus; 3-measles virus;
E) 1-herpesvirus; 2-adenovirus; 3-rotavirus;
314. The intranuclear Cowdry inclusion is characteristic for:
A) herpes simplex virus
B) cytomegalovirus
C) varicella zoster virus

D) Epstein-Barr virus
E) human herpes virus type 8
315. Parvoviruses are:
A) RNA-containing, non enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
B) RNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
C) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
D) DNA-containing, nonenveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
E) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
316. In microscopic examination of the urethral discharge smear from patients with
urethritis were observed in a small number leukocytes and epithelial cells. The
estimated causative agent is:
A) Borrelia burgdorferi
B) Coxiella burnetii
C) Chlamydia psittaci
D) Mycoplasma hominis
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
317. Caused by Parvovirus:
1.Skin papilloma;
2.Aplastic anemia;
3.Infectious erythema;
4.Zoster;
5.Hydrops fetalis;
A) 1, 2, 5
B) 2, 4, 5
C) 2, 3, 5
D) 3, 4, 5
E) 1, 2, 4
318. The genotypes of hepatitis C virus is determined using:
A) polymerase chain reaction
B) immunofluorescence
C) passive hemagglutination reaction

D) enzyme immunoassay
E) hemagglutination inhibition test
319. Causes endotoxin shock:
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) Escherichia coli
E) Bacillus cereus
320. After removal of the surface H-glycoprotein by detergent, influenza virus:
A) loses the ability to budding through the membrane
B) the virus reproduction is broken at the level of nucleic acid synthesis
C) after entering to the host cell, the virus loses the ability to deprotenization
D) can not interact with the host cell
E) stops the viral proteins synthesis
321. Does not belong to pathologies caused by Trichomonas vaginalis:
A) prostatitis
B) gastritis
C) urethritis
D) vesiculitis
E) cervicitis
322. Which subtype of influenza viruses causes the Avian influenza?
A) H2N2
B) H3N2
C) H5N2
D) H5N1
E) H1N1
323. Is characteristic for primary syphilis:
A) gentle chancre
B) gummas
C) rashes
D) chancroid

E) hard chancre
324. In which case is developed skin form of anthrax?
A) when infected with air-dust
B) when infected with contact
C) when infected through food
D) when infected through all ways
E) when infected with air-drop
325. The most serious complication of influenza is:
A) Reyes syndrome
B) bronchitis
C) antritis
D) conjunctivitis
E) Reyno syndrome
326. Hepatitis C virus is:
A) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped
B) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
C) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped
D) DNA containing, with helical capsid, enveloped
E) RNA containing, with helical capsid, nonenveloped
327. The detection method of the influenza virus in chicken embryos:
A) an enzyme immunoassay
B) immunoblotting
C) polymerase chain reaction
D) hemagglutination reaction
E) precipitation reaction
328. Is dameged by Trichophyton:
1.The skin;
2.Hair;
3.Nails;
4.Subcutaneous connective tissue;
A) only 1

B) 1, 2, 4
C) only 1and 3
D) only 2 and 3
E) 1, 2, 3
329. Is not correct for the diagnosis of aspergillosis:
A) microscopic detecting of Aspergillus mycelium in the sputum smear is possible
B) detection of Aspergillus in the sputum in all cases confirms the diagnosis of invasive
aspergillosis
C) serological diagnosis of invasive aspergillosis in patients with immune deficiency is not
informative
D) contamination of the pathological material by Aspergillus species should be excluded
E) for obtaining of Aspergillus cultures can be used Sabourauds medium
330. The characteristic cytopathic effect of paramyxoviruses:
A) Paschen bodies
B) Guarnieri inclusion
C) Negri bodies
D) vacuolization
E) syncytia formation
331. Requires for growth X and V factors:
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Clostridium perfringens
332. The surface proteins of paramyxoviruses are:
1.P-protein;
2.HN-protein;
3.L-protein;
4.G-protein;
5.F-protein;
6.NP-protein;

A) 1, 5, 6
B) 1, 3, 5
C) 3, 4, 6
D) 2, 5, 6
E) 2, 4, 5
333. The reason of hydrophobia in rabies is:
A) paralysis of the thirst centers
B) damaging of the oral mucosa
C) fear of wild animals
D) painful spasms of the pharynx muscles
E) anuresis
334. For prevention of persons, who had contact with hepatitis A is used:
A) inactivated vaccine
B) recombinant vaccine
C) live vaccine
D) toxoid
E) immunoglobulin
335. Is detection method of parainfluenza virus in cell culture:
A) polymerase chain reaction
B) hemadsorption
C) precipitation reaction
D) complement fixation test
E) enzyme immunoassay
336. Tinea affects:
A) the epidermis of the skin, nails, hair
B) hairs, internal organs, muscles
C) the skin, subcutaneous tissue, fascia
D) fascia, muscle, horny layer of the epidermis
E) subcutaneous tissue, muscles, nails
337. The main clinical manifestations of respiratory-syncytial infection include:
A) rhinitis and runny nose

B) meningoencephalitis
C) bronchiolitis and pneumonia
D) false croup and laryngitis
E) pleuritis
338. Is correct for nosocomial infections:
A) mainly are caused by pathogenic fungi
B) mainly are caused by pathogenic protozoa
C) mainly are caused by opportunistic pathogens
D) mainly are caused by pathogenic anaerobes
E) mainly are caused by pathogenic viruses
339. What changes can occur in reovirus under the action of antiviral drugs:
A) denaturation of the sigma-1 protein
B) a thickening of external capsid
C) loss of -1 protein
D) loss of external capsid
E) association of the genome segments
340. Early reproduction of mumps virus occurs in:
A) lower respiratory tract
B) alveolus of lung
C) upper respiratory tract
D) central nervous system
E) gastrointestinal system
341. Cause the invasion of Entamoeba histolytica in the intestinal epithelium:
A) pseudopods
B) proteolytic enzymes of amoebae
C) quadrinuclear amoebae cysts
D) precystic form of amoebae
E) uninuclear amoebae cysts
342. For prevention of mumps is used:
A) toxoid
B) immune serum

C) recombinant vaccine
D) antitoxic serum
E) live vaccine
343. Bordetella pertussis is cultivated on:
A) coal-casein agar
B) alkaline peptone medium
C) meat-peptone agar
D) Endo medium
E) Sabouraud medium
344. Paramyxoviruses include:
A) measles virus
B) influenza virus
C) rubella virus
D) Epstein-Barr virus
E) poliovirus
345. Is correct for Corynebacterium diphtheriae exotoxin:
A) forms the pores in sytoplasmic membrane of cells
B) causes polyclonal stimulation of T-helpers
C) inactivates the elongation factor EF-2 in ribosome
D) activates the adenyle cyclase inside the cells
E) causes destruction of neuromediators inside of synapses
346. Adenoviruses bind to host cell:
A) with hexons
B) with pentons
C) with grans
D) with fibers
E) with verticals
347. Is characteristic for measles:
A) jaundice
B) diarrhea
C) vesicular rash

D) pustular rash
E) rashes step by step
348. It is characteristic of sporotrichosis:
A) damage of subcutaneous tissue
B) damage of hair
C) damage of nails
D) damage of scalp
E) alopecia
349. Used for prevention of measles:
A) inactivated vaccine
B) toxoid
C) antitoxic serum
D) immune serum
E) live vaccine
350. What is the reason of peripheral neuritis and anesthesia in the tuberculoid form
of leprosy disease:
A) multiplication of causative agents inside in neurons
B) meningoencephalitis
C) destruction of presynaptic membrane by causative agents
D) multiplication of causative agents inside of lemmocytes
E) toxic effects of cell components of causative agents to nerve cells
351. In vaginal discharge smear, staining by Gram "clue cells" has been detected.
The estimated causative agent is:
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Haemophilus ducreyi
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Gardnerella vaginalis
E) Treponema pallidum
352. It is characteristic of reoviruses:
A) a segmented double-stranded DNA
B) double-layer icosahedral capsid

C) single-layer helical capsid


D) non-segmented single-stranded RNA
E) a single-layer icosahedral capsid
353. The intermediate hosts of malaria parasites are:
A) lice
B) humans
C) mosquitoes
D) ticks
E) fleas
354. Rotaviruses genome consist of:
A) a segmented, double-stranded, negative RNA
B) non-segmented, single-stranded, negative RNA
C) non-segmented, single-stranded, positive RNA
D) a segmented, double-stranded DNA
E) non-segmented, double-stranded DNA
355. Forms owl eyes-like intranuclear inclusion in cell culture:
A) cytomegalovirus
B) herpes simplex virus
C) Epstein Barr virus
D) rabies virus
E) small pox virus
356. Is characteristic for rotavirus infections:
A) jaundice
B) rash
C) pharyngitis
D) pneumonia
E) diarrhea
357. From serebrospinal fluid of the newborn with meningeal signs Gram positive,
motile, non spore forming bacteria have been obtained. This bacteria grows on
simple nutrient agar and forms translucent colonies with weak hemolysis zone on
blood agar. The estimated causative agent is:

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Haemophilus influenzae
E) Neisseria meningitidis
358. The causative agents of food poisoning:
1.Clostridium perfringens;
2.Salmonella Enteritidis;
3.Salmonella Typhi;
4.Salmonella Choleraesuis;
5.Coxiella burnetii;
A) 2, 4, 5
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
E) 2, 4, 5
359. Polioviruses are:
A) DNA containing, icosahedral capsid, enveloped
B) RNA containing, helical capsid, non enveloped
C) DNA containing, icosahedral capsid, non enveloped
D) RNA containing, icosahedral capsid, non enveloped
E) RNA containing, icosahedral capsid, enveloped
360. The poliovirus is the causative agent of:
A) suppurative meningitis
B) pyelitis
C) aseptic meningitis
D) radiculitis
E) pneumonia
361. Polio virus released out of the patient into the environment with:
A) urine
B) tear

C) feces
D) sputum
E) the sweat and sebaceous glands
362. Native microscopy of pus from the urethra of 30-year-old man with urethritis
motile parasites 10-15m in size were detected. The estimated causative agent is:
A) Balantidium coli
B) Giardia lamblia
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Trichomonas vaginalis
E) Toxoplasma gondii
363. Immunity after poliomyelitis:
A) is transmitted transplacentally
B) does not protect against reinfection
C) is type-specific lifelong
D) is type specific short
E) is natural passive
364. The main etiological factors of viral meningoencephalitis:
1.Enteroviruses;
2.Mumps virus;
3.Papillomaviruses;
4.Parainfluenza virus;
5.Epstein-Barr virus;
A) 3, 4
B) 4, 5
C) 1, 2
D) 1, 3
E) 2, 5
365. Detection of HBx antigen in serum of patients confirms:
A) hepatitis B vaccination
B) hepatitis B in the past
C) chronic hepatitis B

D) primary liver cancer


E) remission of the disease
366. For the prevention of poliomyelitis administered orally:
A) toxoid
B) subvirion vaccine
C) recombinant vaccine
D) live vaccine
E) antitoxin
367. The causative agent of infectious erythema is:
A) rubella virus
B) varicella zoster virus
C) parvovirus B19
D) SV-40 virus
E) RS-virus
368. Caused by Coxsackie viruses:
1.Herpangina;
2.Poliomyelitis;
3.Aseptic meningitis;
4.Rubella
5.Myocarditis;
6.Hepatitis;
A) 3, 4, 5
B) 4, 5, 6
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 3, 5
E) 1, 5, 6
369. In affected tissues forms spherules containing endospores:
A) Mucor musedo
B) Histoplasma capsulatum
C) Coccidioides immitis
D) Cryptococcus neoformans

E) Paracoccidioides braziliensis
370. Presence of the sulfur granules in the pus is characteristic for:
A) leprosy
B) chancroid
C) tuberculosis
D) anthrax
E) actinomycosis
371. Rabies virus is:
A) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
B) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
C) RNA containing, with helical capsid, nonenveloped
D) RNA containing, with helical capsid, enveloped
E) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped
372. What would happen in intracerebral infection of rabbits with fixed type of rabies
virus (virus-fixe):
A) the animal gets sick with rabies
B) fixed type of rabies virus is not pathogenic for rabbits
C) will develop a latent infection
D) the animals become virus carrier
E) the animal is not get sick with rabies, but he would have a immunity
373. Is not correct for the wild type of rabies virus:
A) is cultivated in cell culture
B) is not pathogenic for animals and humans in natural conditions
C) is RNA containing, enveloped
D) is pathogenic for animals and humans in natural conditions
E) is cultivated in chicken embryo
374. Used for the prevention of malaria:
A) immunoglobulin
B) chemical vaccine
C) chemoprophylaxis
D) anatoxin (toxoid)

E) recombinant vaccine
375. The main etiological factors of bacterial meningitis in children:
1.Mycoplasma pneumoniae;
2.Clostridium perfringens;
3.Streptococcus pneumoniae;
4.Haemophilus influenzae;
5.Bordetella paraparapertussis;
A) 3, 4
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 5
D) 4, 5
E) 1, 3
376. The rabies virus enters the body through:
A) the mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract
B) the upper respiratory tract
C) the mucous membranes of the oral cavity
D) damaged skin
E) in all possible ways
377. The antitoxin against botulism include:
A) botulinum toxoid
B) antibodies against Clostridium botulinum
C) antibodies against Clostridium botulinum toxin
D) yeast fungi, included Clostridium botulinum toxin genes
E) inactivated Clostridium botulinum
378. What is the location of the rabies virus in the human organism?
A) lung
B) thymus
C) central nervous system
D) liver
E) spleen
379. Double serum is used in serological diagnosis of influenza for determination:

A) the antibody avidity


B) the antibody affinity
C) the growth of viral antigens titer
D) the specificity of antibodies
E) the dynamics of antibody titer increase
380. Caused by ECHO viruses:
A) glomerulonephritis
B) lobar pneumonia
C) tubootitis
D) aseptic meningitis
E) hemorrhagic cystitis
381. Intracellular inclusion, indicated in the figure is observed in:

A) poliomyelitis
B) smallpox
C) cytomegalovirus infections
D) arbovirus infections
E) rabies
382. Which period of syphilis is contagious?
A) secondary and tertiary
B) tertiary and quaternary
C) primary and secondary
D) only primary
E) all periodes
383. For specific prevention of rabies:
A) immunized of persons with rabies vaccine bitten by a rabid dog
B) the observation a rabid dog for 10 days

C) washing the wound with the soap


D) isolation of suspected rabies dogs
E) the observation a rabid dog for 3 days
384. Is optimal cultivation medium for causative agents of tularemia:
A) liver agar
B) coal-casein agar
C) Sabourauds medium
D) bile broth
E) Frencis medium
385. Surface proteins of hepatitis C:
A) NS1 and NS2
B) NS5A and NS5B
C) NS4A
D) E1 and E2
E) NS4B
386. Types of interaction of retroviruses with sensitive cells:
A) an integrative and abortive types
B) only an integrative type
C) only an abortive type
D) an integrative and productive types
E) only a productive type
387. Main causative agents of secondary bacterial infections in influenza are:
A) S.aureus, S.pneumoniae, H.influenzae
B) S.epidermidis, S.viridans, B.pertussis
C) S.epidermidis, E.coli, B.catarrhalis
D) S.epidermidis, S.viridans, H.influenzae
E) P.aeruginoza, S.agalactiae, B.fragilis
388. The antigenic variability of human immunodeficiency virus is associated with:
A) p17
B) p10
C) gp120

D) gp 41
E) p24
389. These bacteria, which is an indicator of soil pollution, is widespread in the
environment, is found in the intestines of animals and humans, causes gas
gangrene and food poisoning:
A) Clostridium hystoliticum
B) Clostridium difficile
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) Clostridium novyi
E) Clostridium septicum
390. Chlamydia pneumoniae causes:
A) pneumocystic pneumonia
B) atypical pneumonia
C) giant cell pneumonia
D) lobar pneumonia
E) bronchopneumonia
391. The human immunodeficiency virus in the patient is detected:
A) only from the blood and breast milk
B) only from the blood and urine
C) only from the blood and urogenital secrets
D) from all body fluids
E) only from the blood and saliva
392. Used in the diagnosis of rabies:
A) detection of Paschen bodies in the brain cells
B) detection of Negri bodies in the brain cells
C) direct detection of the virus in blood
D) the detection of Guarnieri bodies in the cornea of the eye
E) the detection of Negri bodies in the salivary glands
393. Main causative agent of opportunistic infection in acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome is:
A) Bordetella pertussis

B) Malassezia furfur
C) Parainfluenza virus
D) Candida albicans
E) Brusella melitensis
394. Leishmania promastigotes:
A) form a cyst
B) are elongated spindle-shaped form
C) located extracellularly in the patient organism
D) have pseudopodia
E) located intracellularly in the patient organism
395. The transmission mechanism of tinea:
A) the fecal-oral
B) vector borne
C) contact
D) transplacental
E) air-droplet
396. Used in serological diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome:
A) enzyme immunoassay
B) inhibition of hemagglutination test
C) precipitation reaction
D) complement fixation test
E) virus neutralization test
397. Determine X, Y and Z microorganisms:

A) X-Streptococcus pneumoniae; Y-Streptococcus pyogenes; Z-Mycoplasma pneumoniae


B) X-Koronavirus; Y-Streptococcus pneumoniae; Z-Corynebacterim diphteriae
C) X-Streptococcus pyogenes; Y-Mycoplasma pneumoniae; Z-Adenovirus
D) X-Streptococcus pneumoniae; Y-Chlamydia psittaci; Y-Morbillivirus

E) X-Haemophilus influenzae; Y-Streptococcus pneumoniae; Z-Staphylococcus aureus


398. Allows to determine the "viral load" in the diagnosis of AIDS:
A) enzyme immunoassay
B) polymerase chain reaction
C) reaction of hemagglutination inhibition
D) neutralization of the virus
E) precipitation reaction
399. Which glycoprotein spikes are characteristic of respiratory-syncytial virus?
A) glycoproteins N
B) glycoproteins H
C) glycoproteins G
D) HN-glycoproteins
E) NP-glycoproteins
400. Belong to the TORCH infections:
1.Rubella;
2.Hepatitis C;
3.Cytomegalovirus infection;
4.Herpesvirus infection;
5.Toxoplasmosis;
6.Measles;
7.Scarlet fever;
A) 2, 3, 5, 7
B) 2, 4, 5, 7
C) 1, 3, 4, 5
D) 2, 3, 4, 6
E) 1, 2, 3, 6
401. The main reason of absence of effective vaccines against acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome is:
A) danger for life while working with the virus
B) in the presence of the virus enzyme reverse transcriptase
C) the inability of neutralizing antibodies to provide of the virus elimination

D) difficulties of the virus cultivation


E) the complexity of the virus structure
402. Borrelia recurrentis causes:
A) epidemic spotted fever
B) endemic spotted fever
C) epidemic relapsing fever
D) endemic relapsing fever
E) Lyme disease
403. Transmitted by the parenteral route:
1.Hepatitis A virus;
2.The hepatitis B virus;
3.Hepatitis C virus;
4.Hepatitis D virus;
5.Hepatitis E virus;
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 3, 4, 5
C) 3, 4, 5
D) 2, 3, 4
E) 2, 3, 5
404. Main causative agent of opportunistic infection in acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome is:
A) Chlamydia pneumoniae
B) Coxsackie virus
C) influenza virus
D) herpes simplex virus
E) Leptospira interrogans
405. The causative agent of lobar pneumonia:
A) Haemophilus influenzae type b
B) respiratory syncytial virus
C) Legionella pneumophila
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
406. The reason for lysis of hepatocytes in hepatitis A is:
A) interaction of T-lymphocytes with infected hepatocytes
B) interaction of the specific antibody with infected hepatocytes
C) presence of specific gM and gG in the serum
D) the active reproduction of the virus in infected hepatocytes
E) direct cytolytic effect of the virus on infected hepatocytes
407. Yeast (tissue) form is represented in rounded brown cells and mycelial form is
represented in dark brown branched mycelium and different type conidia:
A) causative agents of cryptococcosis
B) causative agents of zygomycosis
C) causative agents of chromomycosis
D) causative agents of aspregillosis
E) causative agents of sporotrichosis
408. In the serum of patients with hepatosplenomegaly found gG to the hepatitis A
virus. What does find this condition?
A) currently hepatitis A
B) a complication of hepatitis A
C) hepatitis A in the past
D) the initial development of the hepatitis A
E) chronic hepatitis A
409. Do not belong to Gram negative, anaerobic, non spore forming rod shaped
bacteria:
A) Prevotella
B) Porphyromonas
C) Fusobacterium
D) Clostridium
E) Bacteroides
410. Is drug of choice for the treatment of bacterial vaginosis:
A) metronidazole
B) tetracycline

C) gentamicin
D) fluconasole
E) ofloksacin
411. In the serological diagnosis of hepatitis A is used:
A) complement fixation test
B) hemagglutination reaction
C) neutralization of viruses
D) immunofluorescence
E) enzyme immunoassay
412. Chicken pox is transmitted by:
A) vector-borne
B) air-drop
C) alimentary
D) fecal-oral
E) parenteral
413. Hepatitis B virus is:
A) RNA containing, with helical capsid, nonenveloped
B) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
C) DNA containing, with helical capsid, enveloped
D) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
E) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped
414. The causative agent of epidemic spotted fever is:
A) Rickettsia prowazekii
B) Borrelia recurrentis
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Borrelia burgdorferi
E) Coxiella burnetii
415. Belong to the diseases, caused by Chlamydia trachomatis:
1.Urogenital infections;
2.Gastroenteritis;
3.Meningoencephalitis;

4.Trachoma;
5.Dermatitis;
6.Hepatitis;
7.Lymphogranuloma venereum;
A) 1, 4, 7
B) 4, 5, 7
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 4, 6
E) 3, 4, 5
416. Surface antigen of hepatitis B virus, interacting with hepatocytes:
A) HBs and HBe antigen
B) HBc antigen
C) HBe antigen
D) HBs antigen
E) HBc and HBe antigen
417. Etiological factors of dental caries are:
A) streptococci and yeast fungi
B) yeast fungi and Fusobacterium
C) Neisseria and Fusobacterium
D) streptococci and lactobacilli
E) spirochetes and Fusobacterium
418. Detection of HBe antigen in serum of patients confirms:
A) acute hepatitis E
B) currently hepatitis B
C) hepatitis B vaccination
D) hepatitis B and E
E) hepatitis B in the past
419. Measles virus can be transmitted by:
A) fecal-oral route
B) transmission route
C) air-drop route

D) alimentary route
E) parenteral route
420. Used in diagnosis of the trichomoniasis:
A) complement fixation test
B) hemagglutination test
C) bacteriological method
D) skin allergic test
E) microscopic method
421. Detectable in the serum of the patients with hepatitis B, spherical and
filamentous particles consist of:
A) HBx antigen
B) HBc and HBe antigens
C) HBs antigen
D) HBc antigen
E) HBe antigen
422. Infection source of brucellosis:
A) domestic animals
B) the objects of the environment
C) ticks
D) humans
E) flies
423. As a result of hepatitis B virus replication, the viral DNA integrates into the
genome of hepatocytes, which leads to:
A) detection in blood serum of HBc and HBe antigens
B) abortive infection
C) productive infection
D) detection in blood serum HBx antigen
E) detection in the serum of spherical and filamentous particles
424. The main reason of absence of effective vaccines against acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome is:
A) in the presence of the virus enzyme reverse transcriptase

B) difficulties of the virus cultivation


C) the complexity of the virus structure
D) danger for life while working with the virus
E) difficulties in the experimental testing of vaccines
425. Used in specific prevention of Hepatitis B:
A) live vaccine
B) there is no specific prevention
C) toxoid
D) recombinant vaccine
E) inactivated vaccine
426. On the structure scheme of influenza virus with numbers 1 and 2 are
designated:

A) envelope
B) M protein
C) nucleocapsid
D) capsid
E) glycoprotein spikes
427. The causative agent of coccidioidomycosis enters the body:
A) with food
B) with transplacental way
C) by vector borne
D) with aerogenic way
E) with sexually way
428. Used in the diagnosis of hepatitis C:
A) complement fixation test
B) passive hemagglutination reaction

C) immunofluorescence
D) hemagglutination inhibition test
E) enzyme immunoassay
429. Common feature of toxoplasmosis, rubella and cytomegalovirus infection is:
A) transplacental infection
B) sexual transmission
C) parenteral infection
D) appearance of a rash on the body
E) infection through airborne droplets
430. Used in specific prevention of hepatitis C:
A) recombinant vaccine
B) live vaccine
C) chemical vaccine
D) inactivated vaccine
E) there is no specific prevention
431. For prevent of this disease children are vaccinated in a planned manner:
A) enteric fever
B) anthrax
C) whooping cough
D) scarlet fever
E) rheumatic fever
432. It is characteristic of Toxoplasma gondii:
A) found only in trophozoite form
B) has two nucleus
C) has sucking disc
D) does not form cysts
E) the presence of an apical complex
433. Is part of the normal flora of the nasal cavity:
A) Clostridium perfringens
B) Corynebacterim diphteriae
C) Chlamydia psittaci

D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E) Streptococcus pneumoniae
434. HBc and HBe antigens of hepatitis B virus are located:
A) on the surface of envelope
B) in the core
C) between the capsid and envelope
D) on the surface of M-protein
E) in envelope
435. Causes nasopharyngitis:
A) Legionella pneumophila
B) Bacillus cereus
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) Brusella abortus
E) Neisseria meningitidis
436. Is cultivation medium for Clostridium tetani:
A) Sabourauds medium
B) Endo medium
C) Wilson-Blairs medium
D) Lovenstein-Jensens medium
E) Klaubergs medium
437. Cause atypical pneumonia:
1.Streptococcus pneumoniae;
2.Haemophilus influenzae;
3.Staphylococcus aureus;
4.Mycoplasma pneumoniae;
5.Chlamydia psittaci;
A) 1, 5
B) 2, 6
C) 2, 3
D) 4, 5
E) 3, 4

438. As a result the herpes simplex virus replication in cell culture are formed:
A) Negri bodies
B) Guarnieri bodies
C) Paschen bodies
D) Bollinger bodies
E) Cowdry bodies
439. On the tongue surface and soft palate mucous membrane of 65-old-women with
diabetes, appeared a whitish-gray curdy plaque. On microscopic examination were
found budding yeast cells and pseudomycelia. The estimated causative agent is:
A) the herpes simplex virus
B) measles virus
C) Candida fungi
D) Epstein-Barr virus
E) Blastomyces dermatitidis
440. Determine X, Y and Z diseases:

A) X-lobar pneumonia; Y-scarlet fever; Z-psittacosis


B) X-pertussis; Y-atypical pneumonia; Z-scarlet fever
C) X-rheumatism; Y-lobar pneumonia; Z-pertussis
D) X-lobar pneumonia; Y-angina; Z-trachoma
E) X-lobar pneumonia; Y-rheumatism; Z-pertussis
441. To identify type of pathogen in the microscopic diagnosis of malaria is used:
A) the "hanging drop" method
B) agglutination test
C) the "crushed drops" method
D) thin blood smear
E) thick" blood smear

442. Is part of the normal flora of the oral cavity:


A) Bordetella spp.
B) Coxiella burnetii
C) Borrelia burgdorferi
D) alpha hemolytic streptococci
E) influenza virus type B
443. After this disease, long-term, sometimes lifelong immunity is formed:
A) syphilis
B) tularemia
C) tuberculosis
D) brusellosis
E) gonorrhea
444. Microscopic examination of the stool allows make a diagnosis in the case of:
A) giardiasis
B) enteric fever
C) escherichiosis
D) bacillary dysentery
E) rotavirus infection
445. Used in the diagnosis of hepatitis A:
A) hemadsorption reaction
B) detection of specific antibodies in serum
C) cultivation in chick embryos
D) hemagglutination reaction
E) virological method
446. The express diagnostic method of influenza is:
A) serologic method
B) biological method
C) virology method
D) immunofluorescence method
E) skin-allergic test
447. Clostridium diffisile causes:

A) pseudomembranous colitis
B) hepatitis
C) gas gangrene
D) stomach ulcer
E) nonspecific ulcerative colitis
448. Candida albicans pseudomycelia:
A) has a septum
B) consists of a sequentially arranged elongate cells
C) has aseptate mycelium with a common cytoplasm
D) has not septum
E) has aseptate mycelium with a common nucleus
449. Is not the diagnostic criteria of disbacteriosis:
A) the number of E.coli in 1 g stool
B) the number of bifidobacteria
C) the number of lactobacilli
D) the total number of bacteria in 1 g stool
E) the relative number of hemolytic E.coli
450. In microbiological investigation of wound tissue:
A) detection of 105 or more micro-organisms in 1 g tissue is a diagnostic indicator
B) detection of 100 or more microorganisms in 1 g of tissue is a diagnostic indicator
C) detection of Pseudomonas aeruginosa in 1 g of tissue is a diagnostic indicator
D) detection of any microorganisms in the tissue is a diagnostic indicator
E) detection of Staphylococcus aureus in 1 g of tissue is a diagnostic indicator
451. The mechanism of action of anti-rabies vaccine:
A) activates the rabies virus
B) provides the penetration of the rabies virus in peripheral nerves
C) prevents the introduction of rabies virus to the central nervous system
D) activates the immune system
E) prevents the penetration of viruses into the salivary glands
452. Determine X, Y and Z diseases:

A) X-pseudomembranous colitis; Y-cholera; Z-ulcerative colitis


B) X-botulism; Y-gastric ulcer; Z-dysentery
C) X-typhoid; Y-gastric ulcer; Z-pseudomembranous colitis
D) X-pseudomembranous colitis; Y-gastric ulcer; Z-ulcerative colitis
E) X-food poisoning; Y-gastric ulcer; Z-necrotic enteritis
453. Used for the cultivation of Leishmania:
A) Endo medium
B) Sabuoraud medium
C) Hiss medium
D) Clauberg medium
E) NNN medium
454. Belong to the obligate normal flora of the vaginal flora:
A) enterococci
B) bifidobacteria
C) Mycoplasma
D) lactobacilli
E) Escherichia coli
455. Exotoxin of Bacillus anthrasis include:
A) scarlatina toxin
B) transfer factor
C) pertussis toxin
D) enterotoxin
E) edema factor
456. It is characteristic of Candida albicans:
A) arthrospores
B) spherules
C) pseudomycelia

D) macroconidia
E) sporangiospore
457. The presence of 105 and more bacteria in 1 ml urine indicates:
A) obtaining of urine without using a catheter
B) transient bacteriuria
C) asymptomatic bacteriuria
D) incorrect obtaining of urine
E) clinically significant bacteriuria
458. The mechanism of intestinal amebiasis pathogenesis:
A) ulcerative lesion of the small intestine
B) atrophy of the villi of the small intestine
C) ulcerative lesion of the large intestine
D) mesenteric lymphadenitis
E) ulcerative lesion of the duodenum
459. Toxoplasmosis, rubella, cytomegalovirus and herpesvirus infections belong to
the group of:
A) infections, transmitted through environmental objects
B) parenteral infections
C) zoonotic infections
D) TORCH infections
E) sexually transmitted diseases
460. The pathogenetic mechanism of aspergilloma:
A) benign tumor, caused by the introduction of the fungus into the tissues
B) granuloma caused by the delayed-type hypersensitivity to the fungi antigens
C) formation of rounded substance consisting of fungi hyphae
D) a malignant tumor caused by the introduction of the fungus into the tissues
E) productive inflammation, caused by the immediate hypersensitivity to the fungi antigens
461. The source of endemic relapsing fever:
A) rodents
B) human
C) lice

D) ticks
E) flies
462. Typically for bacterial vaginosis:
A) detection of motile causative agents in the native smear
B) detection of numerous leukocytes and lactobacilli in the smear
C) detection of "clue cells" in the smear
D) detection of intracellular inclusions in the smear
E) detection of diplococci inside numerous leucocytes in the smear
463. Gram positive, non motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria:
A) Yersinia pestis
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Bordetella pertussis
D) Brucella melitensis
E) Bacillus anthrasis
464. Typically for genital chlamydiosis:
A) detection of "clue cells" in the smear
B) detection of nuclear-free epithelial cells in the smear
C) detection of intracellular inclusions in the smear
D) detection of motile causative agents in the native smear
E) detection of "owl eyes" inclusions inside of epithelial cells in the smear
465. Is prokaryotic microorganism, which has not a cell wall and causes sexually
transmitted disease:
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Gardnerella vaginalis
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Trichomonas vaginalis
E) Ureaplasma urealyticum
466. The most pathogenic Brucella species for humans is:
A) Brucella ovis
B) Brucella canis
C) Brucella rangiferi

D) Brucella neotome
E) Brucella melitensis
467. In bacteriological examination of cerebrospinal fluid:
A) all the bacteria, isolated from the cerebrospinal fluid, play a role as etiologic factors
B) bacteria isolated from a 105 fold dilution of cerebrospinal fluid, play a role as etiologic
factors
C) bacteria isolated from a 103 fold dilution of cerebrospinal fluid, play a role as etiologic
factors
D) only the bacteria, growing on chocolate agar, play a role as etiologic factor
E) only the bacteria, growing on blood agar play a role as etiologic factor
468. They are acid fast, non spore forming, non motile, non-capsulated, aerobic rod
shaped bacteria:
A) Mycobacterium
B) Corynebacterium
C) Clostridium
D) Fusobacterium
E) Escherichia
469. Cause the diseases accompanied by bacteremia:
1.Shigella dysenteria;
2.Salmonella Typhi;
3.Neisseria meningitidis;
4.Bordetella pertussis;
5.Klebsiella pneumoniae;
A) 4, 5
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 5
D) 2, 3
E) 1, 3
470. For Pseudomonas aeruginosa culture is characteristic:
A) gold pigment
B) white pigment

C) bluish green pigment


D) brown pigment
E) yellow pigment
471. Is correct for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is:
A) is not transmitted transplacentally
B) virus is found only in the blood
C) is developed in the decades after infection
D) is transmitted by vector-borne
E) occurs after an incubation period of 2-3 months
472. Is correct for bacteriological examination of blood:
A) only bacteria isolated from blood plasma play a role as etiologic factor
B) only bacteria isolated from the blood centrifugate play a role as etiologic factor
C) only bacteria isolated from blood serum play a role as etiologic factor
D) all of the isolated bacteria play a role as etiological factor
E) detection of 105 bacteria in 1 ml of blood is a diagnostic indicator
473. Cause atypical pneumonia:
1.Streptococcus pneumoniae;
2.Adenovirus;
3.Respiratory syncytial virus;
4.Mycoplasma pneumoniae;
5.Staphylococcus aureus;
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 2, 3, 5
C) 1, 4, 5
D) 2, 4, 5
E) 2, 3, 4
474. Detection of IgM and IgG antibodies to herpes simplex virus type II in the blood
serum of the patient indicates:
A) primary infection by cytomegalovirus
B) intrauterine infection
C) activation of genital herpes

D) congenital herpes virus infection


E) immunization against genital herpes