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1) The auricle develops from A) 1st

branchial cleft B) 1st branchial arch C)
1st and 2nd branchial arch D) 1st, 2nd
and 3rd branchial arch
2) Fibro-cartilage has the
predominance of collagen type A) B)
C) D) V
3) Facial nerve has all the neural
column as major functional
components except A) Special visceral
afferent B) General visceral efferent C)
General visceral afferent D) Special
visceral efferent
4) Fundus of gall bladder lies in the
angle between lateral border of rectus
abdominis and tip of ninth costal
cartilage. The vertebral level is lower
border of a) T-11 b) T-12 c) L-1 d) L-2
5) Which of the following is true Left
lung is heavier than right lung
Thoracic duct is related to mediastinal
surface of right lung Recurrent
laryngeal nerve is related to
mediastinal surface of right lung
Azygos vein is related to mediastinal
surface of right lung
6) False regarding autonomic nervous
system A) Lateral horns of spinal cord
mainly harbour cell bodies of the
sympathetic nerves B) Preganglionic
para sympathetic fibers are usually
longer than preganglionic sympathetic
fibers C) Occulomotor nerve carries
the post-ganglionic parasympathetic
fibers D) Acetylcholine is the
neurotransmitter at sympathetic and
parasympathetic ganglia
7) Referred pain from the cervix is felt
in the region of A) Hypogastrium B)
Anterior genitalia C) Medial thigh D)
Posterior thigh
8) Composite muscles include the
following except A) Pectineus B)
Adductor magnus C) Flexor carpi
ulnaris D) Flexor pollicis brevis
9) All is true about Triangle of Doom
except A) Vas deferens lies medially
B) Testicular vessels lie laterally C)
Surgical staples are avoided here D)

Apex is directed towards superficial

10) All is true about zona pellucida
except A) Acellular glycoprotein
membrane B) Contributed by
granulosa cells C) Present till morula
stage D) Sperm attractant membrane
turns sperm-repellent after zona
1.C 2.A 3.C 4,C 5.D 6.C 7.D 8.C 9.D
11) Incorrect statement about allantois
is A) An endodermal diverticulum B)
Its mesoderm expands to form the
blood vessels to serve the placenta C)
Urachus is the remnant lying in the
medial umbilical ligament D) Patent
allantois leads to Urachal fistula
12) Choose the incorrect statement
regarding structures constituting the
anatomical angina pectoris: The pain
fibres from heart run in the middle and
inferior cervical cardiac branches of
sympathetic trunk The superficial
cardiac plexus receives left superior
cervical cardiac branch from vagus
nerve Sympathetic fibres come from
cervical and upper thoracic ganglia of
sympathetic trunk to carry pain fibres
Thoracic splanchnic nerve carry the
pain fibres from diaphragmatic surface
of heart
13) All are neural crest cell derivatives
except A) Vomer bone B) Choroid &
sclera of eye C) Tunica media of great
vessels D) Olfactory epithelium
14) A middle aged woman complains
of weakness in extension and laterally
rotation of her thigh. The muscle
paralysed is A) Semimembranosus B)
Sartorius C) Obturator internus D)
Gluteus maximus
15) Wrong statement regarding
oogenesis is A) Meiosis converts
primary to secondary oocyte B)
Primary oocyte is arrested in
metaphase- 1 till puberty C) Polar
body one is released 24 hours prior to
ovulation D) Ovulated cell is


secondary oocyte arrested in
metaphase- 2
16) A patient who has suffered severe
chest trauma in an automobile
accident is found to have fluid in the
right pleural space. A thoracentesis
reveals the presence of chylous fluid in
the pleural space, suggesting a
rupture of the thoracic duct. In which
regions of
the thorax is the thoracic duct found.
Anterior and middle mediastinum
Anterior and superior mediastinum
Middle and superior mediastinum
Posterior and superior mediastinum
17) 2nd constriction in oesophagus is
seen at the following site Where
crossed by left main bronchus
Crossing of aorta At
pharyngoesophageal junction Where it
pierces the diaphragm
18) All is true about development &
maturation of sperms except A)
Primordial germ cells are dormant till
puberty B) Spermatogonium becomes
mature sperm in 74 days C)
Progressive motility is gained in the
epididymis D) Stored in the seminal
vesicle before ejaculation
19) Correct statement concerning
sexual development is A) Gonadal
ridge appear at week 5 B) Absence of
SRY gene leads to male phenotype C)
Testes develop later than ovaries D)
External genitalia are well developed
by week 10
20) Gitter cell is A) Microglia B)
Modified macrophage C) Astrocyte D)
11.C 12.B 13,D 14,D 15,B 16.D 17.
B 18,D 19,A 20,A
21) Correct pair for type of synovial
joints A) Incudo-stapedial : Saddle B)
Spheno-vomerine : Schindylesis C)
Atlanto-occipital : Trochoid D)
Metacarpo-phalangeal : Condylar

22) Atypical synovial joint is A) Knee

B) Temporo-mandibular C) 1st carpometacarpal D) Calcaneo-cuboid
23) All are the actions of Tensor fascia
lata except A) Hip flexion B) Hip
adduction C) Knee flexion D) Knee
24) Untrue about knee menisci is A)
Menisci are fibrocartilage B) Are
vascular structures C) Coronary
ligament connects menisci to the tibia
D) Reconstructive surgery is
recommended in the central part of
25) Movements of pronation &
supination occurs in all the following
joints except A) Superior radio ulnar
B) Middle radio ulnar C) Inferior radio
ulnar D) Radio carpal
26) Incorrect statement about
posterior cruciate ligament is A)
Attached to the medial femoral
condyle B) Not lined by synovial
membrane C) Prevents posterior
dislocation of tibia D) Damaged in
Dash board injuries
27) Incorrect statement about
Morgagnis hernia A) Less common
than the Bochdalek variety B)
Common on right side C) Stomach is
the most common content D) Contents
herniate through Larrys space
28) A 52-year-old man comes to the
emergency department complaining of
severe abdominal pain. He is
diagnosed with cancer involving the
abdominal oesophagus and fundus of
the stomach. Which of the following
neural structures is most likely
associated with the pain fibers
involved with this symptom A) Greater
splanchnic nerves B) Lumbar
splanchnic nerves C) Postganglionic
fibers from the celiac ganglion D)
Nerves from spinal cord levels T1 to T4
29) Injury to the male urethra at the
level of perineal membrane, causes
urine to accumulate in all of the
following except A) Superficial perineal


pouch B) Deep perineal pouch C)
Space of Retzius D) Pouch of Douglas
30) All are true about the trigone of
the urinary bladder except A) Mucosa
is tightly adherent to the underlying
musculature B) Mucosa is smooth C) It
is lined by transitional epithelium D) It
is derived from the urogenital sinus
21.B 22.B 23.B 24,D 25.B26.B 27.C
28.A 29.D 30.D
31) Supports of the uterus are all
except A) Sacro-cervical ligament
B) Round Ligament C) Transverse
cervical ligament D) Levator ani
32) Duct of Balini is present in? A)
Kidney B) Pancreas C) Intestine D)
Salivary gland
33) Blood supply of breast is from all
except Internal mammary Intercostal
Thoracodorsal branch of subscapular
Superior Thoracic
34) Cells of the adrenal medulla are
derived from the same embryonic cells
as those that form A) Kidney collecting
tubules B) Preganglionic sympathetic
neurons C) Mandible D) Thymus
35) Segmental resection was
performed removing part of liver lying
left of the falciform ligament. The
segments still retained in the left
surgical liver are A) 2, 3 B) 1, 4 C) 2, 4
D) 1, 4, 5
36) Wrong about neuroepithelium A)
Simple cuboidal epithelium B) Present
in cochlea & vestibule C) Present in
nasal mucosa D) Are sensory cells for
the reception of taste
37) Which of the following is least
vascular structure in the Temporomandibular joint A) Articular cartilage
B) Posterior part of Articular disc C)
Middle part of articular disc D)
Mandibular fossa
38) In pemphigus vulgaris structure of
desmosomes is damaged. The wrong
statement is A) Autoantibodies disrupt
macula adherens B) Cadherin
disruption lead to severe blistering of

skin C) Zona occludens & gap

junctions are normal D) Epithelium
separates from the basal lamina
39) Axillary skin glands producing
viscous secretion are A) Eccrine sweat
glands B) Apocrine sweat glands C)
Mucous gland
D) Holocrine sebaceous glands
40) Gall bladder is lined by A) Brush
bordered columnar epithelium B)
Striated columnar epithelium C)
Pseudostratified columnar cells D)
Ciliated columnar cells
31.B 32.A 33.C 34.C 35.B 36.A
37.C 38.D 39.B 40.A
41) Osteoclast cells are derived from
which cell type A) Monocyte B)
Osteoprogenitor C) Osteoblast D)
42) All of the following are examples
of traction epiphysis except A) Mastoid
process B) Greater trochanter of femur
C) Lesser trochanter of femur D)
Deltoid tuberosity
43) A young player receives lateral
blow to his knee and undergoes a
twisting fall while playing Football.
Which of the following conditions has
occurred A) Ruptured medial collateral
ligament B) Posterior cruciate
ligament tear C) Evulsion of the
intracapsular origin of popliteus D)
Lateral meniscal tear
44) Epiphysio-diaphyseal joint is A)
Primary cartilaginous B) Synostosis C)
Syndesmosis D) Schindylesis
45) Flexor pollicis longus has the same
innervation as of the following muscle
A) Flexor digitorum superficialis B)
Palmaris longus C) Pronator teres D)
Flexor digitorum profundus of middle
46) All of the following statements are
true concerning vertebral body and
spina bifida defects except A) Missing
component of ventral sclerotome can
lead to scoliosis B) Failure of fusion of
dorsal sclerotome components lead to
spina bifida C) Spina bifida is


frequently associated with Arnold
Chiari malformation D) Spina bifida
with myeloschisis is the least severe
47) Gustatory cortex is situated in A)
Superior Temporal Gyrus B) Inferior
Frontal Gyrus C) Superior Frontal Gyrus
D) Inferior Parietal Gyrus
48) Which of the following reach
Ventro postero-medial thalamic nuclei
A) Solitario-thalamic B)
Dentatothalamic C) Spinothalamic D)
Medial lemniscus
49) Optic radiation arises from A)
Lateral geniculate body B) Superior
colliculus C) Inferior colliculus D)
Medial geniculate body
50) Which of the following is not true
about thymus Lies in the anterior and
superior mediastinum Has maximum
size by 5 years of age and then it
regresses It is a primary lymphoid
organ It also produces hormones
41. 42.D 43.A 44.A 45.D 46.D
47.D48.A49.A 50.B
51) The accessory obturator artery is a
branch of A) Inferior epigastric B)
External iliac C) Internal iliac D)
52) Afferents of cremasteric reflex are
present in nerve A) Ilioinguinal B)
Genitofemoral C) Iliohypogastric D)
53) In homonymous hemianopia due
to occipital lobe infarction there is
macular sparing because of blood
supply from A) Posterior cerebral B)
Opposite posterior cerebral C) Middle
cerebral D) Anterior choroidal
54) Which of the following fibers dont
pass through the posterior limb of
internal capsule A) Sublentiform B)
Retrolentiform C) Corticonuclear D)
Dorsal column
55) Which nerve carries special
visceral efferent fibers A) 3rd B) 4th C)
6th D) 7th
56) All of the following statements
about the vagus nerve are true except

that it A) Carries the GVE neural

column B) Carries postganglionic
parasympathetic fibers
C) Innervates right two third of
transverse colon D) Stimulates
peristalsis & relaxes sphincters
57) The auditory pathway consists of
all of the following except A) Spiral
ganglion B) Superior olivary nucleus C)
Medial lemniscus D) Inferior colliculus
58) A patient has the ability to stand
erect with eyes open but falls with
closed eyes. The axonal pathway
lesioned is A) Dorsal spino-cerebellar
B) Ventral spino-cerebellar C) Medial
lemniscus D) Spinal lemniscus
59) The centre for vertical gaze is A)
Abducent nucleus B) Nucleus
prepositus C) Rostral interstitial
nucleus D) Para-pontine reticular
60) What is incorrect regarding
parasympathetic nervous system A)
The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is
responsible for pupillary dilation B)
Cholinergic drugs may cause
frequency of micturition C) Cholinergic
activity induces salivation D)
Anticholinergic drugs may cause
51.A 52.B 53.C 54.C 55.D 56.B
57.C 58.C 59.C 60.A
61) Which of the following statements
concerning the lateral horn of the
spinal cord is true A) It contains
postganglionic parasympathetic
neurons B) It gives rise to a
spinothalamic tract C) It is present at
all spinal cord levels D) It gives rise to
preganglionic para-sympathetic fibers
62) All of the following are features of
large intestine, Except A) Large
intestine secretes acidic mucus which
helps in formation of stools B) It is a
site of mucocutaneous junction C) Its
epithelium contains goblet cells in
large numbers D) Absorbs salt and


63) Which of the following pathway is
involved in the ability to recognize an
unseen familiar object placed in the
hand A) Dorsal spinocerebellar tract B)
Anterior spinothalamic tract C)
Posterior spinothalamic tract
D) Dorsal column
64) Efferents in superior cerebellar
peduncle arise mostly from A) Purkinje
cells B) Stellate neurons C) Deep
nuclei D) Grade III fibers
65) Not a branch of basilar artery A)
Posterior cerebral artery B)
Labyrinthine artery C) Posterior
inferior cerebellar artery D) Superior
cerebellar artery
66) All of the following features are
seen in neurons from dorsal root
ganglia, except A) They have centrally
located nuclei B) They are derived
from neural crest cells C) They are
multipolar D) Situated in the
intervertebral foramina
67) In polio contracture of the iliotibial
tract leads to all except Hip flexion
and abduction Lateral rotation of tibia
Knee flexion Varus deformity at knee

71) Tactile discrimination from lower

limb is carried by A) Ipsilateral gracile
fasciculus B) Contralateral cuneatus
fasciculus C) Anterior spinothalamic
tract D) Dorsal spinocerebellar tract
72) Brodmann number of Wernickes
sensory speech area is A) 3 b B) 22 C)
39 D) 44
73) Pupillary light reflex includes all
except A) Ganglion cells of retina B)
Lateral geniculate body C) Pre-tectal
nucleus D) Edinger Westphal nucleus
74) Choose the incorrect statement
regarding cerebellum A) Coordinates
motor activity & Maintains posture,
equilibrium and muscle tone B) Middle
peduncle sends dentatothalamic tract
to VL thalamic nucleus C) Dorsal
spinocerebellar tract passes through
Inferior peduncle D) In children, 70%
of brain tumours are found in posterior
fossa, originating mostly from
75) Pudendal nerve supplies which
part of the urinary bladder? Detrusor
muscle Internal sphincter External
sphincter All of the above

68) Injection of hypertonic saline into

the carotid artery causes activation of
the hypothalamus via which of the
following A) Medial nucleus of the
hypothalamus B) Supraoptic nucleus
of hypothalamus C) Preoptic nucleus
of the hypothalamus D)
Paraventricular nucleus of the
69) True about sympathetic chain is A)
Totally it has 31 ganglia B) Myelinated
post ganglionic fibers C) Passes from
skull to coccyx D) White rami are
present at all levels
70) Fibers of the accessory cuneate
nucleus terminate in the A) Spinal cord
B) Medulla C) Midbrain D) Cerebellar

76) Arterial supply of motor area of

cerebral cortex is by A) Anterior
cerebral artery B) Middle cerebral
artery C) Posterior cerebral artery D)
Anterior and middle cerebral artery

61.D 62.A 63.D 64.C 65.C 66.C

67.D 68.C 69.C 70.D

77) While doing surgery for

meningioma on cerebral hemisphere,
there occurred injury to left
paracentral lobule; it will lead to
paresis of A) Left face B) Right neck
and scapular region C) Right leg and
perineum D) Right shoulder and trunk
78) Untrue about pharyngeal arch
derivatives A) Anterior 2/3 tongue
develops from 1st pharyngeal arch
B) Laryngeal cartilages are derived
from 4th & 6th arch C) Branchial cyst
is persistent cervical sinus D)
Buccinator is mesodermal derivative
of first arch


79) Injury to which nerve during a
herniorrhaphy may cause paresthesia
at the root of scrotum and base of
penis. A. Ilioinguinal B. Pudendal C.
Genitofemoral D. Iliohypogastric
80) True about upper end of tibia are
all except Ossification centre at the
upper end fuses by 20 years It gives
attachment to medial collateral
ligament It gives attachment to semimembranous Posterior aspect of
patella articulates with upper end of
tibia laterally

External carotid B) Facial C) Maxillary

D) Ophthalmic
85) A thyroid mass usually moves with
swallowing because the thyroid gland
is enclosed by which of the following
fascia A) Carotid sheath B) Investing
layer of the deep cervical fascia C)
Pretracheal fascia D) Prevertebral
86) All of the following pass behind
ischial spine except Obturator nerve
Pudendal nerve Internal pudendal
vessels Nerve to obturator internus

71. 72.B 73.B 74.B 75.C 76.D 77.C

78.D 79.A 80.D
81) Typical cervical vertebra can be
differentiated from thoracic by all of
the following except A) Oval body B)
Foramen transversarium C) Superior
articular facet directed backwards &
upwards D) Small body
82) Choose the correct statement
regarding the endodermal derivatives
of branchial arch pouches A) First :
Tympanic antrum B) Second :
Tubotympanic recess C) Third : Ultimo
branchial body D) Fourth : Inferior
83) A newborn baby is noted to have a
left unilateral cleft lip. There are no
abnormalities of the babys palate.
Which of the following developmental
defects accounts for this occurrence A)
Failure of the left lateral palatine
process to fuse with the median
palatine process B) Failure of the left
maxillary prominence to unite with the
left medial nasal prominence C) Failure
of the right and left medial nasal
prominences to merge D) Failure of
the left maxillary process to fuse with
the left medial nasal process
84) A patient presents with a chief
complaint of chronic nose-bleeds. To
control the severity of these
nosebleeds, his physician decides to
ligate the sphenopalatine artery. From
which of the following arteries does
the sphenopalatine artery arise A)

87) Subdural haemorrhage has

occurred due to venous bleeds. Which
veins are involved A) Bridging B)
Middle meningeal C) Subarachnoid D)
88) Obstruction to the flow of CSF at
the aqueduct of Sylvius will most likely
lead to the enlargement of which
ventricles? A) Only lateral ventricle B)
Only third ventricle C) Both lateral and
third ventricles D) Fourth ventricle
89) Cuneus is separated from the
lingual gyrus by the sulcus A) Rhinal
B) Parieto-occipital C) Calcarine D)
90) Transverse arch of foot is
maintained by A. Flexor digitorum
brevis B. Adductor hallucis C. Abductor
hallucis brevis D. Peroneus brevis
81.C 82.A 83.B 84.C 85.C 86.A
87.A 88.C 89.C 90.B
91) Following are the pairs describing
skull foramina and the nerves related.
Choose the correct pair A) Foramen
rotundum: Mandibular nerve B)
Foramen ovale: Maxillary nerve C)
Foramen spinosum: ophthalmic nerve
D) Internal acoustic meatus: Nerves
92) Kiesselbachs area has been
damaged in a fist fight. The main
artery to the area is A) Anterior
ethmoidal B) Posterior ethmoidal
C) Spheno-palatine D) Greater palatine


93) Nerve carrying sense of taste from
circumvallate papillae placed on the
anterior 2/3 of the tongue is: A)
Chorda tympani B) Lingual C)
Glossopharyngeal D) Vagus
94) Muscles of the anterior
compartment of the leg are innervated
primarily by A. Deep peroneal nerve B.
Superficial peroneal nerve C. Sural
nerve D. Saphenous nerve
95) The following statements
concerning chorda tympani nerve are
true except that it A) Carries
secretomotor fibers to the parotid
gland B) Joins lingual nerve in
infratemporal fossa C) Is a branch of
facial nerve D) Contains preganglionic
parasympathetic fibers
96) In the fracture of middle cranial
fossa, loss of taste sensations from
palate would be due to lesion in A)
Trigeminal ganglion B) Deep petrosal
nerve C) Greater petrosal nerve D)
Cervical ganglion
97) A patient has a dry eye and
reduced nasal secretions. The location
of a lesion might be in the A) Otic
ganglion B) Sphenopalatine ganglion
C) Ciliary ganglion D) Superior cervical
98) Contraction of the tensor tympani
and the stapedius prevents damage to
the eardrum and inner ear. These
muscles are controlled by which of the
following nerves A) Tympanic and
chorda tympani nerve B) Trigeminal
and facial nerves C) Facial and
auditory nerves D) Trigeminal and
accessory nerves
99) A patient arrives in the emergency
room after having suffered severe
head trauma in a motorcycle accident.
Radiographic studies of the head
reveal a basilar skull fracture in the
region of the foramen ovale. Which of
the following functional losses would
most likely be related to this injury A)
Loss of abduction of the eye
B) Loss of sensation over the forehead
C) Loss of sensation over the zygoma

D) Paralysis of anterior belly of

100) All is true about accessory nerve
except A) Cranial part belongs to SVE
column B) Spinal part supplies
sternomastoid and trapezius C) Cranial
part supplies all pharyngeal muscles
except palatopharyngeus D) Cranial
part supplies all palatal muscles
except tensor veli palate
91.D 92.C 93.C 94.A 95.A 96.C
97.B 98.B 99.D 100.C
101) The subtalar joint is formed
between Talus, malleoli and lower tibia
Talus and calcaneum Talus and
navicular Calcaneum and cuboid
102) Pain felt between great toe and
2nd toe is due to involvement of which
nerve root A. L5 B. S1 C. S2 D. S3
103) A benign tumour in the pterygoid
canal would spare which of the
following nerve fibers A)
Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers
B) Taste fibers from the palate C)
Postganglionic sympathetic fibers D)
General visceral afferent (GVA) fibers
104) A patient with crocodile tears
syndrome has spontaneous
lacrimation during eating due to
misdirection of regenerating
autonomic nerve fibers. Which of the
following nerves has been injured A)
Facial nerve proximal to the geniculate
ganglion B) Chorda tympani in the
infratemporal fossa C) Facial nerve at
the stylomastoid foramen D) Lacrimal
105) Excessive contraction of following
muscle causes dislocation of jaw A)
Temporalis B) Lateral pterygoid C)
Medial pterygoid D) Zygomaticus
106) Medial medullary syndrome is
commonly due to lesion of the artery
A) Posterior inferior cerebellar B)
Anterior inferior cerebellar C) Vertebral
D) Basilar


107) Safety muscle of larynx A) Lateral
cricoarytenoid B) Posterior
cricoarytenoid C) Thyroarytenoid D)
108) Extradural haematoma occurs
commonly due to the rupture of a
vessel , which passes through A)
Foramen rotundum B) Foramen
spinosum C) Foramen lacerum D)
Inferior orbital fissure
109) If a patient is unable to tense the
vocal cords during high pitch singing,
which of the following muscles is
paralyzed A) Lateral cricoarytenoid
muscle B) Cricothyroid muscle C)
Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle D)
Thyroarytenoid muscle
110) Lymph from heel and lateral
aspect of foot first drains into A.
Popliteal lymph nodes B. Deep inguinal
C. Superficial inguinal D. Obturator
101.B 102.A 103.A 104.A 105.B
106.C 107.B 108.B 109.B110.A
111) A patient is unable to invert the
foot, indicating lesions of which of the
following nerves Superficial and deep
peroneal Deep peroneal and tibial
Superficial peroneal and tibial Medial
and lateral plantar
112) Which of the following cranial
nerves exit/enter through the foramina
in posterior cranial fossa A) 3rd to
12th B) 4th to 12th C) 5th to 12th D)
7th to 12th
113) The narrowest part of ureter is A.
Uretero pelvic Junction B. Iliac vessel
crossing C. Pelvic ureter D. Uretero
vesical junction
114) The cranial nerve with the
longest intra-cranial course is A)
Abducens nerve B) Trochlear nerve
C) Optic nerve D) Trigeminal nerve
115) Which of the following is not
supplied by hypoglossal nerve A)
Genio-hyoid B) Thyrohyoid C) Genioglossus D) Palato-glossus

116) Hemivertebra is a defect of A)

Body B) Transverse process C) Spine
D) Posterior vertebral arches
117) A newborn baby has a prominent
defect at the base of his spine through
which his meninges and spinal cord
protrude. A failure of which of the
following processes is the most
common cause of this type of defect
A) Development of primary vertebral
ossification centers B) Development of
the pedicle C) Development of the
superior articular process D) Fusion of
the vertebral arches
118) True regarding common bile duct
is all except A. Opens 10 cm distal to
the pylorus B. Lies anterior to I.V.C. C.
Portal vein lies posterior to it D.
Usually opens into duodenum
separate from the main pancreatic
119) These ventral spinal rootlets are
less prone to injury during
decompressive operations because
they are longer and exit in a more
oblique direction A) C5 B) C6 C) T5 D)
120) The cardiac jelly formed around
the heart tube during early
development, contributes to the
formation of A) Pericardium B)
Mesocardium C) Myocardium D)
111.B 112.D 113.D 114.B 115.D
116.A 117.D 118.D 119.D 120.D
121) Absence of conotruncal septum
gives rise to A) Tetralogy of Fallot B)
Patent truncus arteriosus C)
Transposition of great vessels D)
Coarctation of aorta
122) Intercostobrachial nerve is a
branch of thoracic nerve A) First B)
C) Third D) Fourth
123) True about right phrenic nerve is
A) Arise from the dorsal rami of C3,4,5
B) Descends posterior to the hilum of
lungs C) Supplies diaphragmatic


peritoneum D) Passes through
oesophageal opening
124) A patient has aspiration
pneumonitis develops chest pain with
dullness on percussion in area medial
to the medial border of scapula on the
elevation of arm. Which part of lung is
most likely to be affected A) Right
medial basal lobe B) Right superior
lobe C) Right apical lobe D) Right
Posterior basal lobe
125) Ligamentum arteriosum
attachment is between A) Left
pulmonary artery and arch of aorta B)
Arch and descending thoracic aorta C)
Ascending and descending thoracic
aorta D) Pulmonary trunk and left
principal bronchus
126) Middle part of interventricular
septum is supplied by the artery A)
Posterior interventricular B) Left
anterior descending C) Circumflex
artery D) Acute marginal artery
127) All are hybrid muscles except A)
Brachioradialis B) Pectoralis major C)
Brachialis D) Flexor digitorum
128) In C-5,6 lesion following pair of
muscles may not be paralyzed A)
Coraco-brachialis B) Biceps brachii C)
Brachialis D) Brachio-radialis
129) All of the following muscles
strictly receive nerve supply from
anterior interosseous nerve except A)
Pronator quadratus B) Flexor pollicis
longus C) Flexor digitorum profundus
of index finger D) Flexor digitorum
profundus of middle finger
130) Following pairs describe the
muscles producing flexion at elbow
joint & their respective nerve. Choose
the wrong pair A) Biceps brachii:
Musculocutaneous nerve
B) Brachioradialis: Median nerve C)
Flexor carpi ulnaris: Ulnar nerve D)
Flexor carpi radialis: Median nerve
121.B 122.B 123.C 124.C 125.A
126.B 127.A 128.A 129.D 130.B

131) During knife fight a person gets

injured in the neck region and
presents to emergency department
with weakness in raising right arm
above head. On further examination
winging of right scapula is noted. The
injury has damaged A) Spinal
accessory nerve B) Long thoracic
nerve of Bell C) Suprascapular nerve
D) Dorsal scapular nerve
132) The weight of the upper limb is
transmitted to the axial skeleton by A)
Coracoclavicular ligament B)
Coracoacromial ligament C)
Costoclavicular ligament D)
Coracohumeral ligament
133) Regarding the anatomical
snuffbox which of the following is true
A) Abductor Pollicis longus forms the
posterior wall B) Abductor pollicis
longus and Extensor Pollicis brevis
form the lateral wall C) Basilic vein
forms the roof D) Floor is formed by
Extensor carpi radialis longus and
134) Ante-verted Position of uterus is
maintained by ligament A. Cardinal B.
Uterosacral C. Pubo-cervical D. Round
135) A patient is brought to the
emergency with history of trauma to
his right upper limb. Extension of
metacarpo-phalangeal is lost. There is
no wrist drop and extension of IP joint
is normal. The most likely nerve
involved is A) Ulnar nerve B) Median
nerve C) Radial nerve D) Posterior
interosseous nerve
136) All of the following are features of
musculocutaneous nerve injury at
axilla except A) Loss of flexion at
shoulder B) Loss of flexion at elbow C)
Loss of supination of forearm D) Loss
of sensation on radial side of forearm
137) If the greater tuberosity of the
humerus is lost which of the following
movements will be affected A)
Adduction and flexion
B) Abduction and lateral rotation C)
Medial rotation and adduction D)
Flexion and medial rotation


138) C8,T1 supplies following muscles
except A) Extensor indicis B) 3rd & 4th
lumbrical(s) C) Abductor pollicis brevis
D) Palmar interossei
139) Sensory innervation of index
finger is by A) T2 B) Tl C) C8 D) C7
140) Attached to radial styloid process
is A) Brachioradialis B) Pronator
quadratus C) Pronator teres D) Lateral
collateral ligament
131.A 132.A 133.B 134.B 135.D
136.A 137.B 138.A 139.D 140.D
141) Injury to radial nerve at wrist
leads to A) Wrist drop B) Sensory loss
on dorsum of 1st web space C)
Paralysis of adductor pollicis D) Loss of
supination in extended position
142) Injury of ulnar nerve at the wrist
would cause all except A) Paralysis of
3rd and 4th lumbrical(s) B) Paralysis of
dorsal interossei C) Adductor pollicis
paralysis D) Flexor pollicis brevis
143) Which bronchopulmonary
segment is not present in the left lung
A) Antero-basal B) Postero-basal C)
Medial basal D) Lateral basal
144) A 56-year-old man is undergoing
a cardiac operation. During the
procedure, a ligature is passed into
the transverse pericardial sinus. Which
of the following vascular structures
can now be easily secured by tying the
ligature, thus stopping the flow of
blood A) Superior vena cava and
inferior vena cava B) Superior vena
cava and right pulmonary veins
C) Aorta and superior vena cava D)
Aorta and pulmonary trunk
145) True about lumbricals is A) Flex IP
joints and extends MCP joint B) 1st
and 2nd supplied by radial nerve C) 3
and 4 supplied by superficial branch of
ulnar D) Origin from tendons of flexor
digitorum profundus
146) Which is true about axillary
artery A) Pectoralis major divides it
into three parts B) Thoracoacromial is
a branch of 2nd part C) Superior

thoracic is a branch of 3rd part D)

Subscapular is a branch of 1st part
147) All are true except A) Midpalmar
space communicates with facial
sheath of third lumbrical B) Midpalmar
space communicates with forearm
space C) Thenar space communicates
with fascial sheath of first lumbrical D)
Midpalmar space drained through
3/4th web space
148) Posterior interosseous nerve runs
under which compartment of extensor
retinaculum A) 1st B) 2nd C) 3rd D)
149) Pronation is lost in lesions of A)
Median nerve B) Ulnar nerve C) Radial
nerve D) Posterior interosseous nerve
150) Supinator has the same
innervation as of the following muscle
A) Biceps brachii B) Pronator
quadratus C) Extensor digitorum D)
141.B 142.D 143.C 144.D 145.D
146.B 147.B 148.D 149.A 150.C
151) A patient arrives in the
emergency room after having
attempted suicide by lacerating his
wrist. No major artery was damaged,
but the nerve that is immediately
lateral to the flexor digitorum
superficialis tendon is cut. Which of
the following actions will no longer be
possible A) Abduction of the second
digit B) Adduction of the second digit
C) Flexion at the interphalangeal joint
of the thumb D) Opposition of the
152) True statement about upper half
of anal canal is A. Insensitive to pain
B. Drained by superficial inguinal
lymph node C. Lined by squamous
epithelium D. Supplied by superior
mesenteric artery
153) de Quervains disease is
characterized by A) Compression of
the median nerve at the wrist B)
Stenosing tenovaginitis of peroneus
tendon C) Compression of ulnar nerve
at the wrist D) Stenosing vaginitis of


abductor pollicis longus and extensor
pollicis brevis
154) A patient came with history of fall
and on examination there was
tenderness between the extensor
pollicis longus and brevis. The likely
lesion is A) Scaphoid # B) 1st
metacarpal # C) Lower end of radius #
D) Trapezoid #
155) All is true about splenic artery
except A) Is a branch of celiac artery
B) Lies along superior border of
pancreas C) Is an end artery D) Runs
in Spleno-renal ligament
156) At birth, an infant presents with a
stomach that has herniated into the
diaphragm. Where is the defect that
resulted in the herniation A)
Oesophageal hiatus B)
Pleuroperitoneal membrane C) Septum
transversum D) Right crus
157) The greater omentum is derived
from which of the following embryonic
structures A) Dorsal mesogastrium B)
Pericardio-peritoneal canal C) Pleuropericardial membranes D) Ventral
158) Regarding Gastroschisis and
omphalocele, which one is false A)
Intestinal obstruction is common in
gastroschisis B) Liver is the content of
omphalocele C) Gastroschisis is
associated with multiple anomalies D)
Umbilical cord is attached in normal
position in gastroschisis
159) Vitelline vein forms A)
Ligamentum venosum B) Ligamentum
teres C) Portal vein D) Superior vena
160) Ventral pancreatic bud forms A)
Head of pancreas and uncinate
process B) Head and body of pancreas
C) Inferior part of pancreas D) Tail of
151.D 152.A 153.D 154.A 155.C
156.B 157.A 158.C 159.C 160.A
161) An infant presents with
gastroschisis at birth. Which of the
following applies to this condition a) It

is also seen in patients with

aganglionic megacolon b) It results
from herniation at the site of
regression of the right umbilical vein
c) It is caused by a failure of
recanalization of the midgut part of
the duodenum d) It is caused by
failure of the midgut to return to the
abdominal cavity after herniation into
the umbilical stalk
162) Which of the following structure
in glomerulus has pores? Parietal
epithelial cell Basement membrane
Capillary endothelium B + C
163) Untrue about Hirschsprung
disease A) Occurs due to nonmigration of neural crest cells B)
Developmental failure Auerbach and
Meissners plexus in the gut C) Distal
large intestine is aperistaltic and
spastic D) Absent sympathetic activity
in the affected region
164) Untrue about ureteric bud A)
Endodermal derivative B) Arises from
Wolffian duct C) Forms collecting
tubules D) Penetrates metanephric
165) Following statements describe
the development of diaphragm.
Choose the incorrect statement A) The
dorsal mesentery of the oesophagus
gives rise to the crura B) Defect in the
pleuro-peritoneal membrane leads to
Morgagnis hernia C) Body wall
contributes for the peripheral
muscular component D) The septum
transversum descends to T8 from C3-5
following rapid growth of neural tube
166) Following are the boundaries of
epiploic foramen except A) Free
margin of lesser omentum B) Inferior
vena cava C) Quadrate lobe of liver D)
Right adrenal
167) A 38-year-old woman with a
history of heartburn suddenly
experiences excruciating pain in the
epigastric region of the abdomen.
Surgery is performed immediately
upon admission to the emergency
room. There is evidence of a ruptured


ulcer in the posterior wall of the
stomach. Where will a surgeon first
find the stomach contents A) Pouch of
Morrison B) Cul-de-sac of Douglas C)
Omental bursa D) Paracolic gutter
168) Most common muscle to be
congenitally absent is A) Pectoralis
major B) Teres minor C)
Semimembranosus D) Gastrocnemius
169) All is true about Trochlear nerve
except A) Longest intracranial course
B) Arise from dorsal aspect C) Supplies
ipsilateral superior oblique D) Arises
from out side the common tendinous
170) Urogenital diaphragm is
contributed by all except A) Sphincter
urethra B) Perineal body C) Colles
fascia D) Perineal membrane
161.B 162.C 163.D 164,A 165.B
166.C 167.C 168.A 169.C 170.C
171) All are the contents of deep
perineal pouch except A) Bulb/Root of
penis B) Dorsal nerve of penis C)
Sphincter urethra D) Bulbo urethral
172) Which of the following is not a
content of the pudendal canal A.
Pudendal nerve B. Internal pudendal
artery C. Internal pudendal vein D.
Nerve to obturator internus
173) All of the following arteries
supply medulla except a. Post inferior
cerebellar b. Basilar c. Anterior spinal
d. Bulbar
174) GALT (Gut Associated Lymphoid
tissue) is present in a. Submucosa b.
Lamina propria c. Muscularis mucosa
d. Adventitia/Serosa
175) Most common site of subclavian
artery stenosis is in part A. 1st B. 2nd
C. 3rd D. Terminal
176) Spongy part of the male urethra
drains via which lymph nodes A)
Superficial inguinal B) External Iliac C)
Deep inguinal D) Aortic
177) Which structure is just lateral to
anterior perforated substance A)

Uncus B) Limen insulae C) 3rd

Ventricle D) Optic chiasma
178) Auerbachs ganglia in the
muscularis externa contain the
autonomic neurons bodies of the type
A) Pre-ganglionic sympathetic B) Preganglionic para-sympathetic C) Postganglionic sympathetic D) Postganglionic para-sympathetic
179) Popliteal pulse is not felt clearly
because A) It is not over prominent
bone B) Pulse is weak C) It is deep
seated D) It is both deep seated and
not over prominent bone
180) Chief Cells are found in a) Fundus
b) Pit c) Neck d) Body
171.A 172.D 173.D 174.B 175.A
176.C 177.B 178.D 179.C 180.A
181) Thoracic duct receives tributaries
from all the following except A)
Bilateral ascending lumbar ducts B)
Bilateral descending thoracic ducts C)
Left upper intercostal ducts
D) Right bronchomediastinal lymphatic
182) Which of the following structures
does not penetrate perineal
membrane A. Dorsal N of penis B.
Dorsal Artery of penis C. Internal
pudendal artery D. Urethra
183) All the following are branches of
cavernous part of Internal carotid
artery except A) Ophthalmic Artery B)
Branches to cavernous sinus C)
Hypophyseal artery D) Meningeal
184) Venous return of lower limb on
standing from the supine posture
depends on all except A) Deep fascia
sleeve B) Arterial pressure C) Valves of
perforators D) Calf muscle contraction
185) Which of the following
movements doesnt not happen in
abduction of shoulder A) Medial
rotation of scapula B) Elevation of
humerus C) Rotation of Clavicle at the
sterno clavicular joint D) Rotation at
the axis of acromioclavicular joint


186) Which of the following brainstem
nuclei is not derived from alar plate A)
Dentate B) Inferior olivary C)
Hypoglossal D) Substantia nigra
81.D 182.A 183.A 184.B 185.A
186.C 187.B 188.A 189.C 190.D
191) All the true about inguinal canal
except A) Conjoint tendon forms part
of the posterior wall B) Superficial ring
is found in external oblique
aponeurosis C) Deep ring is an
opening in transversalis abdominis D)
Internal oblique forms both anterior
and posterior wall
192) All of the followings are true
regarding the pudendal nerve, except
A) Sensory and motor B) Derived from
S2, 3, 4 C) Comes out through the
lesser sciatic foramen D) Main nerve
supply of pelvic organs
193) Left spinal lemniscus contains
which fibers? A) Ipsilateral pain touch
temperature B) Ipsilateral position
vibration sense C) Contralateral
position vibration sense D)
Contralateral pain touch temperature
194) A missile hits the body just above
the pubic ramus through the ant
abdominal wall it will pierce which of
the following structure A. Urinary
bladder B. Spinal cord C. Left renal
vein D. Abdominal aorta
195) What is false regarding dentate
line A) Glands of Morgagni open below
the line B) Anal glands open at the line

C) Dentate line lies 2 cm(s) above the

anal verge. D) Transitional epithelium
lies above the dentate line
196) Boundaries of ovarian fossa are
A. Posterior obliterated umbilical
artery B. Ureter posteriorly C. Uterine
tube anteriorly D. Internal iliac artery
197) Teratomas may arise from the
aberrant migration of A) Epiblast B)
Hypoblast C) Cytotrophoblast D)
198) The following statements are true
about Cauda equina syndrome except
A) Spinal segments affected are L-3 to
Co B) Saddle shaped Anaesthesia is
observed C) Knee and ankle reflexes
are lost D) Bladder/bowel & sexual
functions are damaged severely
199) Superior rectal vein continues as
A. Superior mesenteric B. Inferior
mesenteric C. Internal iliac D. External
200) In a patient with a tumor in
superior mediastinum compressing the
superior vena cava, all of the following
veins would serve as alternate
pathways for the blood to return to the
right atrium, except A) Lateral thoracic
vein B) Internal thoracic vein C)
Hemiazygos vein D) Vertebral venous
191.C 192.D 193.D 194.A 195.D
196.B 197.A 198.D 199.B 200.D