TBRPhysics2 PDF

S1CS
Part II
Sections VI-X
Section VI
Sound and
Doppler Effect
Section VII
Fluids and Solids
Section VIII
Electrostatics and
Electromagnetism
Section IX
Electricity and
Electric Circuits
Section X
Light and Optics
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Table of Contents
6. Sound and Doppler Effect
Production and Detection of Sound
page 6
Speed of Sound
page 7
Pitch and Intensity
page 9
Doppler Effect
page 12
Resonance in Strings and Pipes
page 16
Sound and Doppler Effect Review Questions
Detailed Answer Explanations

Sound and Doppler Effect Practice Exam
7.
page 23
page 28
page 33
page 44
Fluids and Solids

Fluid Properties
page 55
Fluids in Motion
page 66
Solids
page 78
Fluids and Solids Review Questions

Fluids and Solids Practice Exam
page 83
page 89
page 93
page 104
8. Electrostatics and Electromagnetism

Electrostatics
page 115
Electric Fields
page 120
Electromagnetism
page 131
Electrostatics and Electromagnetism Review Questions

Electrostatics and Electromagnetism Practice Exam
page 141
page 147
page 151
page 170
9. Electricity and Electric Circuits

Currents
page 173
Voltage and Resistance
page 176
Capacitors
page 184
Electric Circuits
page 188
Alternating Current
page 199
Electricity and Electric Circuits Review Questions
Electricity and Electric Circuits Practice Exam

page 201
page 206
page211
page 222
10. Light and Optics

Electromagnetic Radiation
page 233
Reflection and Refraction
page 238
Optics
page 246
Interference Phenomena
page 259
Light andOptics Review Questions

Light and Optics Practice Exam

page 267
page 272
page 277
page 288
Sound and
Doppler Effect
Physics Chapter 6
'source
A)
Compressed Wave:
Shorter X
Higher/
Elongated Wave:
Longer X
Lower/
Elongated Wave://;^^--^N^ComPrtesed Wave:

LongerK / / /O-0\\\ Shorter^
Lower/ / / / /0-=^\\\\ HiSher/
source
by
the
Berkeley Review
Sound and Doppler Effect

Selected equations, facts, concepts, and shortcuts from this section
O Important Equations
/shifted = /unshiftedVwaveVreceiver (Doppler shift)
6 = 10 log (Jsound/j )
vwave vsender
/beat =l/l - /2I (Heard as a"destructive beat")
Open Pipes: Xn =2L/n ' /n =nv/2L
Fixed Strings: Xn =2L/n .\ /n =nv/2L
closed P*!** ^n =4L/n ' /n =nv/4L> where nis 1. 3 5 etc Important Concept
Echolocation (Using the time to detect echoing sound waves to establish position of an object)
Echo Detector
If material is not uniform, refraction
of the waves can create blind spots.
IP
tj (time for reflection to return from 1st boundary):
used to determine distance to first interface
Waves normal to surface minimize te
the impact of refraction. Non-parallel IHSf
g^|Me|ir reflection to return from 2nd boundary):
surfaces are more difficult to analyze :M*s
than parallel ones.
FS^
.-. .v-;;
^;v:u|e3^Metermine distance to second interface
Doppler EffectCalculation Approach

1) First determine whether the objects are moving towards or away from one another
If the objects are moving towards one another, then the frequency of the wave will increase. This
will require either adding to the numerator in the Doppler equation (if the receiver is in motion) or
subtractingfrom the denominator in the Dopplerequation (if the sender is in motion). If the objects
are moving away from one another, then the frequency of the wave will decrease. This will
require either subtracting from the numerator in the Doppler equation (if the receiver is in motion)
or adding to the denominator in the Doppler equation (if the sender is in motion).
2) Second determine if the scenario involves one direction transmission or an echo
If it's a one-direction wave only, then you need only plug into the Doppler equation once. If it's
an echo, then you'll need to plug into the Doppler equation a second time, using the first solved
frequency as the input frequency and reversing the roles of the sender and receiver from the first
wave. In other words, the sender of the outbound wave becomes the receiver of the inbound wave.
Physics
Sound
Sound
In Chapter 5, we studied standing waves on a string. In this chapter, we shall
expand our coverage of waves to include sound waves, one example of a
longitudinal wave.

What is sound and how is it produced? Sound is simply a longitudinal wave that
can be produced from the disturbance of a solid, a liquid, or a gas. A sound wave
arises from the vibrations and collisions of molecules within a particular

substance. Even though these molecules maintain their same average position
within that substance, the collision of one molecule with another molecule results
in the transmission of energy in the form of a wave. Sound waves cannot travel
through a vacuum.
Sinusoidal waves are the simplest type of sound waves. They have a defined
wavelength, amplitude, and frequency. In order to detect a sound wave, the
mechanical vibrations of that wave must be analyzed in terms of intensity and

frequency.
The human ear is an excellent sound detector and can distinguish sounds that
differ in frequency from one another by as little as 0.3%. A simplified version of
the human ear is shown in Figure 6-1. The pinna (outer ear) collects sound waves
and funnels them into the auditory canal. As the sound waves press on the
tympanic membrane (eardrum), they cause the membrane to vibrate. This
vibrational energy is transmitted through the ossicles, three small bones
(hammer, anvil, and stirrup) connecting the tympanic membrane to the oval
window of the inner ear.
Pinna
Tytripinric
(outer car)
Codi Itii (iiiicni led)

I
(eardrum)
Oval ^_ Basilar
window/ membrane
Auditory
canal
High
frequencies
Low
frequencies
Figure 6-1
As the ossicles vibrate, they amplify the vibrational energy set in motion at the
tympanic membrane. This vibrational energy is passed from the oval window to
a fluid in the cochlea of the inner ear. The fluctuations in pressure in this fluid
cause hair cells in the basilar membrane of the cochlear duct to move. Movement
of the hair cells generates a nerve impulse that is sent to the brain and is
interpreted as sound. High frequency sounds are generated by nerves closest to
the oval window, while low frequency sounds are generated by nerves farthest
away from the oval window.
Copyright by The Berkeley Review
Exclusive MCAT Preparation
Physics
Speed of Sound
Sound
Speed of Sound
When a sound wave moves forward, it compresses the medium in front of it.
This results in compressional waves moving outward in all directions from the
source of the sound. Consider the compressional wave in Figure 6-2. Note that as
the wave moves outward, there are regions of high density (or high pressure)
and low density (or low pressure) within the medium. Also note that the volume
of space associated with the regions of high density decreases relative to the
volume of space associated with the regions of low density. The region of
reduced pressure is also called a rarefaction.
Propogation of wave
=>
high
density
/:
low
density
Figure 6-2
Solids, Liquids, and Gases
The speed with which particles can return to their original position following a
disturbance in the medium dictates the speed of sound in that medium. The
strength of the forces between the molecules in a given medium and the density
of the particles in that medium determine how fast sound will travel in that
medium. The forces between the molecules in a solid are greater than the forces
between the molecules in a liquid or a gas. The stronger the force between any
two molecules, the greater the restoring forcebetween those molecules. The more
rapidly molecules are restored to their original condition, the more rapidly they
can participate in another compression wave, and the faster the propagation of
sound in that particular medium. As a result, we see the general trend for speed
or sound as vsoun(j jn solid > vsouncj mliquid > vsouni jn gas.
The speed of longitudinal sound waves in various ideal gaseous media can be
calculated from the formula in equation (6.1):
(6.1)
In this equation, pis the density (of a gas), Pis the pressure (of a gas), yis Cp/Cv
(where Cp is the molar heat capacity at constant pressure, and Cv is the molar
heat capacity at constant volume for a gas), R is the ideal gas constant, T is
temperature in kelvins, and M is the molecular mass of the gas. For a monatomic
gas y = 1.67, for a diatomic gas y = 1.40, and for a polyatomic gas y = 1.33. This
means that for a given pressure and gas density, a monatomic gas will permit
sound to travel through it at a greater speed than a diatomic or polyatomic gas
will. For example, if the temperature of the air is 0 C, the pressure is 1 arm (or
1.01 x105 N/m2), and the density is1.29 kg/m3, then the speed ofsound inair is
331 m/s. In this case, we are making the assumption that the air is composed of
gases in the diatomicstate, becauseair is predominantly N2 and O2.
v =
(1.40)(1.01 xl05N/m2
1.29 kg/m3
=331 m/s
The Berkeley Review
Physics
Sound
Speed of Sound
In Table 6.1, we see the speed of longitudinal sound waves in various media.
These values may vary from textbook to textbook, depending on whether the
author assumed isothermal or adiabatic conditions. For the MCAT, knowing that
thespeed ofsoundin air at roomtemperature is about340 m/s is goodenough.
Table 6.1
Temperature / Pressure
Material
Speed (ms)
Air
(0C, 1 arm)
331
Air
(20Q 1 arm)
340
Air
(100C, 1 arm)
386
Hydrogen
(0C, 1 arm)
Helium
(0C, 1 arm)
1286
965
Water (lake)
1497
Water (sea)
1531
Aluminum
5100
Iron
5130
Glass
5500
Granite
6000
In Table 6-1, note that the speed of sound in metals and liquids is much greater
than the speed of sound in air. This is due to the fact that metals and liquids are
not as compressible as gases. Therefore, the restoring forces for a metal or a
liquidare much greater than they are for air.

Example 6.1a
Which of the following changes will increase the speed of sound in a fixed
volume of diatomic hydrogen gas that is enclosed in a fixed-volume container?
I. Increasethe temperature of the gas.
n. Replace the hydrogen molecules with diatomic oxygen molecules, while

holding the temperature constant.
III.
Increase the intermolecular attraction between the molecules.
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only

D. I, II, and HI
Solution
A general rule regarding the speed of sound is the following:

v
oc
Restoring Force or Molecular Kinetic Energy

Molecular Inertia
Increasing the temperature of the gas in this enclosed volume will increase the
molecular kinetic energy without changing the molecular inertia (i.e., mass
density). Thus, Statement I is true, and choice B is wrong. Replacing the
hydrogen with oxygen will noticeably increase the massbut, presumably, change
the molecular interaction forces little. This would reduce the speed of sound,
invalidating Statement II. We are left to conclude that choice C is the correct
choice. Statement III must be valid, if the above equation is to hold true.
The best answer is choice C.
PhysiCS
Sound
Speed of Sound
Example 6.1b
An acoustic scientist measures the properties of three unknown molecules,

labeled A, B, and C. He records the following relationships for the molecular
weights and cohesive forces of the molecules:
MWa > MWb = MWc and Fa < Fr < Fc
These relationships hold true, regardless of the state of the material. Noting these
results, which of the following relationships could he predict regarding the speed
of sound in these materials? (Assume all solids have the same lattice structure
and all gases have the same molarity.)

I. Speed of sound is greater in Gas A than Gas B, when both are at the same
temperature and pressure.
II. Speed of sound is greater in Solid C than Solid B, when both are at the
same temperature.
III. Speedof sound in Liquid C is greater than that in Liquid A, when Liquid A
is hotter than Liquid C.
A. II only
B. I and III only
C II and III only
D. I, II, and III
Solution
The speed ofsound within a medium depends on the ability ofthe particles that
make up the medium to quickly return to their original position following a
disturbance. The restoring speed of the particles depends on the force holding
particles together (cohesive force) and the mass of the particles. Lighter particles
move faster than heavier particles, so speed of sound is faster in mediums that
are made of lighter particles, assuming all other factors are equal. The question
also mentions forces. The stronger the forces between particles (stronger
intermolecular forces), the faster the particles can return to their original position
following a disturbance, which makes the speed of sound increase. Because
Particle Cis the lightest and has the strongest intermolecular forces, the speed of
sound will be fastest in Medium C when the temperature is uniform. This makes
Statement II a true statement, which eliminates choice B.
Statement III is invalid, because without knowing the temperature (or knowing
thatif s equal for all mediums), we do nothave enough information to determine
the relative speeds of sound. This eliminates choices Cand D, leaving only choice
A. Statement I is false, because Particle A has the weakest intermolecular forces
and is the heaviest particle, resulting inMedium A having the smallest speed of
sound. Thisfurther supports the elimination of choices Band D.

This makes choice A the best answer.
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Physics
Pitch and Intensity
Sound
Pitch and Intensity

There are many subjective terms used to describe sound, such as pitch. This
word is used to describe an individual's impression concerning the frequency of
a particular sound. For example, if a musical instrument has a high pitch, then
the sound waves coming from that instrument vibrate at a high frequency.
Conversely, if a musical instrument has a low pitch, then the sound waves
coming from that instrument vibrate at a low frequency. Human ears process
sound waves with a frequency between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz.
Sounds can be distinguished not only by their pitch, but also by their loudness.
The subjective loudness of a sound is usually expressed objectively in terms of its
intensity (I). Figure 6-3 shows a reference wave and four waves that represent
variation in the properties of a sound.
2A
Reference Sound
Frequency Pitch
Higher Pitch
Amplitude <* Loudness

Louder Sound
u
Lower Pitch
Quieter Sound
Figure 6-3
The intensity of a sound wave is the power (P) that the wave transports per unit
area (A) of its wavefront, as shown by equation (6.2). Remember, power is just
energy per unit time. This means that the intensity of a wave will have units of
energy (in joules) divided by the units of area (in m2) times the time (in seconds).
Therefore, the units of intensity are J/(m2s). However, recall that a watt is just a
J/s. This allows us to assign the units of intensity asthe W/m2.

1=
Energy
(Area)(Time)
_ Power
Area
(6.2)
We can also compare the intensity (I) of any particular sound with the intensity
(I0) of a reference sound, the minimum sound intensity an average human ear
can detect. The intensity of the reference sound is chosen to be 10"12 W/m2. This
comparison of I to IQ is referred to as the intensity level (f3) and is given by
equation (6.3). The reason that a logarithmic scale is used is because the human
ear is sensitive to a broad range of intensities that spans many powers of 10. The
unit used toexpress the intensity level ofa sound is the decibel (abbreviated dB).
C=10 log i
In
(6.3)
Physics
Pitch and Intensity
Sound
The intensity of sound dissipates with distance by a squared factor. As such, the
intensity of a sound drops off rapidly at first, it can still be heard from a long
distance away. You may have noticed this when stepping away from a loud
stereo speaker. It quickly goes from painfully loud to acceptable within a few
steps, but you can likely hear that speaker from blocks away. As a general rule,
every time the distance from the source is increased by a factor of 3.2, the
intensity drops by a factor of 10, so the dB-level decreases by 10. Figure 6-4
shows this relationship.
Distance (m)
Figure 6-4
Listed in Table 6.2 are theintensity and intensity levels ofsome common sounds.
Table 6.2
Sound
Intensity (W7i*2)
Intensity Level (dB)
103
150
Threshold of pain
120
Busy street traffic
10"5
70
Normal conversation
10"6
60
50
A whisper
10"7
10-10
Threshold ofhearing
10-12
Jet taking off
Quiet room
20
0
The data in the table confirms that for every drop in intensity by a factor of 10,
the decibel level decreases by 10. For instance, if the intensity of a sound'
increases by 1000 (three factors of 10), then the decibel level of that sound will
increase by 30 (3 x 10).
Copyright by TheBerkeley Review
10
The Berkeley Review
Physics
sound
Pitch and Intensity
Example 6.2a
An annoying neighbor who owns a stereo system has just heard his favorite song
begin to play. He turns up the stereo so that the intensity is now 16 times louder
than it was before the song started. By how much does the intensity level
increase?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The intensity level increases by

1.2 dB.
12 dB.
16 dB.
160 dB.
Solution
First, know that intensity and intensity level have different units. This rules out
choice C, since increasing the intensity of a sound by a factor of 16 would not
lead to a 16-dB increase. You can use equation (6.3), if you are good at calculating
base-ten logs. If not, here is an easy way to thinkabout these intensity scales:
If the intensity increases by a factor of 10, then the intensity level

increases by 10 dB. If the intensity increases by a factor of 100, then the
intensity level increases by 20 dB.
If the intensity decreases by a factor of 10, then the intensity level

decreases by 10 dB. If the intensity decreases by a factor of 100, then the
intensity level decreases by 20 dB.
Here, the intensity increases by a factor of 16. The corresponding intensity level
increase must be somewhere between +10 dB and +20 dB, but closer to 10 dB
than 20dB. Only choice Bis possible. To solve this more precisely,
AdB =10 log 16 =10 log 24 =10 (4 xlog 2)

10(4xlog 2) = 10(4 x 0.3) = 10(1.2) = 12dB
The best answer is choice B.
Example 6.2b
While you are discussing the virtues of antisound in a medical library, the
librarian asks you to be quiet. In going from a talk to a whisper, the intensity
level ofyour voice decreases from60dB to 20 dB. By what factor doesyour voice
correspondingly decrease in intensity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The intensity decreases by a factor of 30.

The intensity decreases by a factor of 10,000.
Solution
The sound drops by 40 dB, so we need to use the decibel relationship to

determine the magnitude of the drop. Because AdB = 10 log If/I0/ we can solve
for the magnitude by dividing by 10and then taking an analog.
AdB =10 log If/iQ.-- 40 =101ogIf/Ioso4 =logIf/Io.-. lO4^/^

This means that the intensity is greater by a factor of 10,000.
The best answer is choice D.
11
Physics
Doppler Effect
Sound
Doppler Effect
If you have ever been near a fast-moving car as it went whizzing past you, then
you have probably noticed that as the car approaches you, you hear a highpitched whining sound from the enginebut as soon as the car passes you, the
pitch quickly becomes much lower and fades out. There is a change in the
intensity of the sound with distance, as well as a perceived change in the

frequency of the sound. The change in pitch of a sound from a high frequency as
it approaches an observer to a low frequency as it moves away from the observer
is called the Doppler effect.
Let's consider what happens when the source of the sound is stationary and a
listener is moving towards that sound. Suppose that you are walking towards
an idling car. You move at a speed vl ("L" refers to the listener) towards the
stationary car. The engine of the car is emitting sound waves with frequency /s
(where the subscript "s" refers to the source). This scenario is depicted in Figure
6-5.
Note that the sound waves coming from the engine located near the back of the
car (Figure 6-5) have wave fronts all separated from one another by an equal
distance X.
wave front
/rTm////^//////////W)%////////////////////7/////^7/////////
X
Figure 6-5
As you approach the car, the wave fronts appear to move towards you with a
speed of v + vl- When the wave fronts arrive at your position, you encounter
each subsequent wave front at a point that is slightly closer to the source than
where you encountered the previous wave front. Although the wavelength of the
waves emitted from the source are constant, you perceive the wave fronts to be
closer together than they really are. This leads to a perceived shorter wavelength.
It also leads to a perceived increase in frequency that varies with your speed.
Equation (6.4) represents the relationship between the observed frequency (/jj
and the actual sender frequency (fs) for a scenario where the listener is moving
towards a stationary source.
fL =
v + vL
fs
(6.4)
Equation (6.4) is telling us that if you move towards the source of the sound (i.e.,
vl > 0), then you hear a higher pitch (corresponding to a greater frequency). If
you move away from the source ofthe sound (i.e., vl < 0), then you hear a lower
pitch (corresponding to a smaller frequency). This should match nicely with

what you've experienced inreal life interms of the Doppler shift.
12
The Berkeley Review
Physics
Sound
Doppler Effect
A good analogy to help comprehend the Doppler effect is to consider what

would happen if you were to toss jellybeans to a friend at a frequency of one
jellybean per second. If you were both stationary, then your friend would receive
one jellybean per second. Now if you were to walk towards them while still
throwing one jellybean per second at the same speed, your friend would receive
the jellybeans at a frequency greater than one per second, because each time you
released one, you would be a little closer to your friend than when you threw the
last one. While your throwing would have a frequency of one per second, your
friend's perceived reception frequency would be higher and would depend on
the speed with which you walked towards them.
Let's now consider what happens when the source of the sound is moving and
the listener is stationary. The source of the sound is the car's engine, and the car
moves with a velocity vs, as shown in Figure 6-6. Even though the car is now
moving, the speed of the sound waves does not change. The speed of those
sound waves is still v.
wave front
vL = 0
11
////////////////////////////////J////////////
Figure 6-6
As the car approaches you, each subsequent wave front initiates from a point
that is closer to you at the time it is released. When the wave fronts arrive at your
position, you encounter each subsequent wave front at a point that is slightly
closer to the source than where you encountered the previous wave front.
Although the wavelength of the waves emitted from thesource are constant, you
perceive the wave fronts to be closer together than they really are. This leads to a
perceived shorter wavelength. It also leads to a perceived increase in frequency
that varies with the speed of the car. Equation (6.5) represents the relationship
between the observed frequency (/l) and the actual sender frequency (/s) for a
scenario where the listener is moving towards a stationary source.
(6.5)
*-(r?d'
Equation (6.5) is telling us that the source of the sound moves towards you (i.e.,
vs > 0), then you hear a higher pitch (corresponding to a greater frequency). If
the source of the sound moves away from you (i.e., vs < 0), then you hear a lower
pitch (corresponding to a smaller frequency). Note that the relative displacement

of the source and the sound wave determines the wavelength between successive
wave fronts. If we combine equations (6.4) and (6.5), we get equation (6.6). This is
the general equation for the Doppler effect. It shows how the frequency of the
sound waves encountered by the observer (f\J is related to the frequency of
sound waves emitted by the source (/s).
(6.6)
13
Physics
Doppler Effect
Sound
Since this is an important equation, let's define its variables once again:
Definition of the variables in the Doppler equation

/L Frequency of sound waves encountered by the listener
/s Frequency of sound waves emitted by the source
Speedof the sound wave (in this casethrough air)
vl Speed of the listener relative to still air

vl is positive(+), if the listener is moving towards the source.
vl is negative (-), if the listeneris moving away from the source.

vs Speed of the source relative to still air
vs is negative (-), if the sourceis moving towards the listener.
vs is positive (+), if the sourceis moving away from the listener.
If the listener and the source ofa sound are moving toward one another, then fL
will always be greater than fs. However, if the listener and the source of a sound
are moving away from oneanother, then ft willalways be less than fs.
Example 63a
The spectra of starlight tell astronomers about the chemical makeup of stellar
bodies. However, the visible spectral lines may be shifted away from their usual
frequencies. A shift towards to lower frequencies (the red end of the visible
spectrum) isknown asa red shift. Ashift towards tohigher frequencies (the blue
end of the visible spectrum) is known as a blue shift. If an astronomer notices
that the spectrum ofa particular star isblue-shifted, then the:
I. star could be moving towards the Earth.

II. star could be moving away from the Earth.
III. Earth couldbe moving towards the star.
IV. Earth could be orbiting the star inperfectly circular path.

A.
B.
C.
D.
I only
II only
I and in only
II and IV only
Solution
To identify a Doppler effect problem, note the following:

1.
Any type of wave can undergo a Doppler shift-sound, light, water,
earthquake, anything whatever.
2.
Afrequency shift inany wave is probably dueto the Doppler effect.
3.
The Doppler effect requires that the wave source and wave detector be
approaching each otheror receding fromeach other, in relative terms.
When the source and detector approach each other, the detected
frequency is higher than the emitted one.
5.
When the source and detector recede from each other, the detected
frequency is lower than the emitted one.
The spectrum is blue-shifted, so the detected frequency must be higher than the
emitted one. The starand the Earth mustbe getting closer to one another.
14
The Berkeley Review
Physics
Sound
Doppler Effect
Example 6.3b
A bat emits an ultrasonic squeak in the direction of an insect and notices that the
reflected sound is of a lower frequency than the emitted pulse. What could BEST
explain this frequency shift?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The bat is moving towards a stationary insect.

The insect is moving away from a stationary bat.
Either the bat or insect is moving toward the other.
Either the bat or insect is moving away from the other.
Solution
The reflected ultrasonic wave has a lower frequency than the emitted ultrasonic
wave, so the pulse must have undergone a Doppler shift of some kind. A lower
frequency for the echo indicates that the bat and the insect must be getting
farther away from one another as the ultrasonic wave propagates. Both choices B
and D describe a scenario where the distance between the bat and the insect is
increasing. Under such a situation, it comes down to test-taking logic. You have
to ask yourself what the test writer wants you to pick. Choice D is more general
than choice B and accounts for more possibilities than choice B. In other words,
choice Bmight explain it while choice likely will explain it. The betterchoice here
is the answer that explains it under more scenarios.
Example 6.3b introduces the concept of a Doppler shift applied to an echo. In

such a case, the wave is actually doubly shifted rather than singly shifted. On
questions involving the Doppler effect, it is a good idea for you to ask yourself
two questions:
1) Is the wave being analyzed an echo or a single directionwave?

2) Are the senderand receiver moving towards or awayfrom one another?
Consider the bat and insectfrom Example 6.3b. The answer to the two questions
above is that ifs an echo that is being detected and that the two are moving away
from one another. Let's say for sake of argument that the bat is moving away
from a stationary insect at a speed of 17m/s. To determine the frequency of the

echo, we will do a two-step analysis determining first the frequency detected by
the insect, and then determine the frequency of the echo detected by the bat. We
shall use f0 to represent the emitted frequency by the bat, f\ to represent the
frequency detected by the stationary insect, and /2 to represent the frequency of
the echo detected by the moving bat.
Outbound pulse: f\ =(^ )/o

v
\340 + Vbat/
Echo pulse: f2 =(340 -vbat^

\
Overall: /2 =(^M/l
=^^)^^
V 340 /
V 340 / \340+ vba
vbat/
f-_(340-17W -(323W -(357-34W =/1._34.Wr
/2"l5io7r7)/o wr 1357 r r 357P
340
\340+ vbat/
.(l-0.1)/o = 0.9/o
You should note that the sign for the bafs speed changes from the outbound
equation to the echo equation, because the direction of the wave changed from
opposing the bafs motion to complementing the bafs motion. It ends up that for
an echo, we cansimply plug into the Doppler equation twice, which makes these
questions easier to solve than we may have initially imagined. Just be sure to
plug the numbers in such a way as to make the shifted frequency either higher or
lower, according to their relative motion.
15
Physics
Sound

There are many sources of sound in our environment. No matter what the
sources of the sound, most of them produce vibrational energy at frequencies

well within the range of human hearing (20 Hz to 20,000 Hz). Two possible
sources of the kinds ofsounds we will be considering in this section are stringed
musical instruments and wind musical instruments. These instruments can
produce sounds with numerous natural frequencies (also called resonant

frequencies) of vibration.
Resonance in Strings
Consider a guitar string of length L, which is fixed at two ends and is under a
certain tension. Byfixed, we mean that it is held in place so it cannot move. If we
were to pluck this guitar string, a wave pulse would be sentdown the length of
the string and reflect off of one ofthe fixed ends. The guitar string would begin
to vibrate. If the string vibrated at a particular natural frequency, a standing
wave would be produced (Figure 6-7). A standing wave is a wave that does not
appear tomove ineither direction along the length ofthe string. Standing waves
are produced from waves traveling in opposite directions along a string that
combine toproduce a wave disturbance, which appears to oscillate up and down
without propagating.
Figure 6-7
A point along the string thatis never displaced is called a node. In other words,
displacement of a string ata node is always zero. A point along the string that
reaches maximum displacement is called an antinode. The two ends of the string
in Figure 6-7 are nodes. Adjacent nodes along the string are always one-half
wavelength apartfrom each other. At a node, the pulses ofa wave interfere with
each other in a destructive fashion. If a node on a guitar string were suddenly

fixed in place (by pressing the string against a fret with a finger), the standing
waves that had already been produced along the string would notbe affected.
There are also regions along the string where the wave pulses add in a
constructive fashion. Those regions are called antinodes, and they are located
halfway between two nodes. Another way to look at this is to say that an
antinode and a node are one-quarter of a wavelength apart. Antinodes are
regions of maximum displacement of the vibrating string. In a standing wave

both the nodes and the antinodes are atfixed points along the string.
In Figure 6-8 are the first four natural frequencies for a string fixed at both ends.
In equations (5-17) and (5-18) of Section V, we derived the expression for both
the frequency and the wavelength of fixed-end strings. We can use these
equations to find the natural resonant frequencies of a fixed string and their
associated wavelengths. The n value in each equation describes the harmonic
number ofthe associated wave, and it must be a whole number. Every harmonic
frequency isalways a whole number multiple of the fundamental frequency, /n
= n/i.
Harmonics: Frequencies that are integer multiples ofthe fundamental frequency

(i.e., /i) are called harmonics. In musical terms, frequencies greater than f\ are
called overtones. Forexample, the frequency /2 is the second harmonic, but it is
the first overtone.
Copyrightby The Berkeley Review
16
The Berkeley Review
Physics
Sound
Frequency
Standing Wave
1st Harmonic
Wavelength
Xi=2L
(Fundamental)
2nd Harmonic
(1st Overtone)
>N Mi) *-f
Hi) *-f
3rd Harmonic
(2nd Overtone)
4th Harmonic
NN
(3rd Overtone)
Figure 6-8
Example 6.4a
What is the beat frequency created upon interference ofthe third harmonic with
the fifth harmonic of waves on a fixed string?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The beatfrequency would equal the frequency ofthe second harmonic.

The beat frequency would equal the frequency ofthe eighth harmonic.
The beat frequency would equal the frequency ofthe fourth harmonic.
The beatfrequency wouldnot correlate to any oftheharmonics.
Solution
A beat frequency equals the absolute value of the difference between the two
interfering frequencies. Because all of the harmonics are multiples of the
fundamental frequency (first harmonic), the beat frequency will also be a whole
number multiple of the fundamental frequency. This eliminates choice D. The
beat frequency is found as /beat = ' /5 - ft' = 15/i - 3ft I = 2/i = ft. The beat
frequency isthe second harmonic, making choice Acorrect.
The best answer is choice A.
Example 6.4b
What is the fundamental frequency for a string fixed at both ends that produces
consecutive harmonics of 114 Hz, 171 Hz, and 228 Hz?
A.
B.
C.
D.
114 Hz
228 Hz
57 Hz
19 Hz
Solution
Consecutive harmonics differ by the fundamental frequency, ft = /n - /(n-1)This means that we simply need to subtract 171 Hz from 228 Hz, or subtract 114
Hz from 171 Hz. The difference is 57 Hz, so the fundamental frequency is 57 rlz.
Copyright by The BerkeleyReview
17
Phy S1CS
Sound
Resonance in Pipes
The formation of standing waves in pipes is similar to the formation of standing
waves along a string. Instead of plucking the string as we did in the case of the
guitar, we blow air across an open end in the pipe. By blowing across this open
end, we produce a pressure pulse of air that travels down the pipe. There are two
types of pipes to consider: an open pipe, in which both ends are open; and a
closed pipe, in which one end is closed and the other end open..
Open Pipe: Suppose we have a pipe that is open at both ends (like a flute,
trumpet, or an oboe). If we blow across one of the open ends of the pipe shown
in Figure 6-9a, a pressure pulse of air will be sent down the length of the pipe.
When this pressure pulse reaches the right end of the open pipe, part of it will
leave the pipe and part ofit will be reflected back into the pipe (Figure 6-9b). The
pressure pulse thatis reflected intothe pipeis a pulse ofdecreased pressure, and
it travels back towards its origin. When it reaches the opening at the left end, part
of the pulse will leave the pipe and part of the pulse will again be reflected down
the pipe (Figure 6-9c). The reflected pressure pulse again changes direction and
becomes an increased pressure pulse traveling down the pipe to the right (Figure
6-9d). Upon reaching the right side, the pulse reflects again (Figure 6-9e); a low
pressure pulse now travels back to the left (Figure 6-9f). Upon reaching the left
side, the pulseagain reflects and repeats the cycle (Figure 6-9a).
Initiation of Pressure Pulse (High Pressure)
(a)
open
end
open
(d)
end
Reflection of Pressure Pulse (Low Pressure)

(b)
&1
reflects

(e)
- '- continues
Reflection of Pressure Pulse (High Pressure)

leaves
(c)
<=
reflects
(f)
!=>
'
11
Figure 6-9
If a new pressure pulse of air were to be sent down the pipe, it could interfere
with the initial pressure pulse in either a constructive or a destructive manner. If
the new pressure pulse interferes constructively, the pulse's amplitude increases.
If the new pressure pulse interferes destructively, the amplitude decreases.
Pressure pulses can be represented as waves. The waves for the first two normal
mode frequencies for an open pipe are shown in Figure 6-10. At both openings of
an open pipe there will be an antinode. All of the harmonics frequencies must
also meet the restriction of having antinodes at each end ofthe pipe. The distance
between two adjacent antinodes isalways one-half of a wavelength.
L =
2X
open
end
First normal mode: /j = rs-
2v
Second normal mode: ft =4f2ft
Figure 6-10
18
The Berkeley Review
1 iiySlCS
Sound
Thus, the length of an open pipe is one-half of the fundamental wavelength and
can be given by equation (6.7). Solving equation (6.7) for the wavelength and
then substituting into the basic equation for a wave (v = Xf) gives equation (6.8).
This is the lowest frequency mode (i.e., fundamental frequency mode) for a pipe
that is open at both ends.
L = h.
(6.7)
/ = JL
(6.8)
2L
Open pipes can vibrateat all multiples of the fundamental frequency. Therefore,
an open pipe can vibrate at the standing wave frequencies shown in equation
(6.9). In this equation, n = 1,2,3,...
Open Pipe
^-"(i)
(6.9)
Example 6.5a
Which of the following changes will NOT increase the frequency of a sound
wave produced by a pipe that is open at both ends?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increasing the temperature of the air in the pipe

Using pipe material with rhombic crystallization rather than monoclinic
Lengthening the pipe
Shortening the pipe
Solution
According to equation (6.8), the frequency of a wave in a pipe can be increased
by either decreasing the pipe'slength or by increasing the wave's speed. Choice

D increases the frequency, so it is eliminated. Conversely, lengthening a pipe will
decrease the frequency of the waves it produces. Lengthening the pipe does not
increase the frequency of the wave, so choice C results in a decreased frequency.
For choice A, the speed of a sound wave in a pipe increases as pipe temperature
increases. Choice B requires test-taking logic. There is no doubt that the crystal
structure of a material impacts the wave a pipe will propagate, but there's no
way 99.99% ofpeople taking the MCAT would know the details. It comes down
to knowing that it couldbe right and not gettinghung up on not knowing a fact.
Example 6.5b
What is the wavelength of the third harmonic produced on a 2 m open pipe?

A.
B.
C.
D.
6 m
1.33 m
lm
0.67 m
Solution
The wavelength of each harmonic is equal to 2L/n, where L is the length of the
string and n is the harmonic number. In this case, the harmonic is found as
2(2)/3 = 4/3 m. The best answer is 1.33 m. You could also have reached this
conclusion looking at Figure 6-10 and drawing the next wave in sequence.
Copyright byThe Berkeley Review
19
Physics
Sound
Closed Pipe: An example of a closed pipe is a clarinet. If we blow across the
open end of the pipe shown in Figure 6-lla, a pressure pulse of air will be sent
down the length of the pipe as it was in the open pipe. The difference with a
closed pipe compared to an open pipe is that the wave pulse will reflectoff of the
closed end. The pulse hits the closed end of the pipe (Figure 6-llb) and is
reflected toward the open end with no changein phase.
As the pulse reaches the open end of the pipe, it is reflected toward the closed
end again (Figure 6-llc). At this point, a change of phase has occurred; there has
been a decrease in pulse pressure (Figure 6-lld). The decreased pulse returns to
the closed end of the pipe and is reflected again (Figure 6-lle). Once the pulse
reaches the open end ofthe pipe, there is again a change in the phase ofthe pulse
(Figure 6-llf); the pressure increases, and we are back at Figure 6-lla. Therefore,
the phase ofthepulse isinverted once with each round trip.
Initiation of Pressure Pulse (High Pressure)
(a) open
end
closed
end
(b)
<="
(d)
hi
(e)
(0
(f)
Figure 6-11
The first two normal mode frequencies for a closed pipe are shown in Figure 612. At the opening of the pipe there will be an antinode, while at the closed end
of the pipe there will be a node. The antinodes are where the air pressure
fluctuates maximally; the nodes are where the air pressure does not vary at all
from atmospheric. The distance between a consecutive antinode and a node is

always one-quarter ofa wavelength.
closed
end
open
end
First normal mode: /j =
Second normal mode: /3=-ff-= 3f1

Figure 6-12
Therefore, the length of the closed pipe is one-quarter of the fundamental

wavelength and can be given by equation (6.10). A harmonic frequency can be
related to the corresponding harmonic wavelength by using the basic wave
equation, v = Xn-/n. Solving equation (6.10) for the wavelength and then
substituting into /n = v /Xn gives equation (6.12). As we see, the fundamental
frequency for a closed pipe turns outtobe one-half ofthe fundamental frequency
for a pipe of equal length that is open at both ends.

20
The Berkeley Review
Physics
Sound
L=^
(6.10)
/ = JL
(6.11)
4L
A closed pipe cannot vibrate at twice the fundamental frequency. Why? If we

were at twice the fundamental frequency, then a pressure pulse would have
traveled to the closed end of the pipe and back to the open end before another
pressure pulse couldbe initiated. Recall that the pressure pulse was inverted as it
came off of the closed end of the pipe. If this inverted pressure pulse encounters
a new pulse, there will be destructive interference. Even though a closed pipe
cannot vibrate at even multiples of the fundamental frequency, it can vibrate at
odd multiples of the fundamental frequency. Therefore, a closed pipe can vibrate
at the standing wave frequencies shown in equation (6.12). In this equation, n =
1,3,5,....
/n=n(i)
Closed Pipe
(6.12)
Example 6.6a
In a study of organ pipes, an engineer charts the frequencies of two equally long
pipes when they are made to resonate in various harmonic modes.
n
/PipeA(Hz)
/PipeB(Hz)
411
396
822
792
1233
1188
The MOST likelyexplanation for the data is that:

A.
B.
C.
D.
the air was warmer when Pipe A was tested.

the air was warmer when Pipe B was tested.
Pipe A was tested in a lower gravitational field.
Pipe B was tested in a lower gravitational field.
Solution
The frequency of a sound wave in both an open pipe and a closed pipe depends
on the speed of the wave and the length of the pipe. The question states that the
pipes are equally long, so the observed differences in frequencies must be due to
a difference in the speed of the waves. A variation in the gravitational field
would not impact the wave speed (or the wave frequency), eliminating choices C
and D. This means that the difference in wave speed stems from a difference in
temperature. Gases travel fasterin warmer air than cooler air,so the speed on the
sound wave through the pipe will be faster in the warmer pipe. Warmer air
producesa higher frequency sound wave, so Pipe A must have the warmer air.
For many of the questions dealing with harmonic frequencies, you will notice a
pattern in the numbers. Look for differences between numbers or common
denominators when dealing with harmonic frequencies of standing waves. If you
can find a highest common denominator, then you have likely found the
fundamental frequency.
21
1 JiySlCS
Sound
Example 6.6b
In studying the relationship between the variable lengths of two openresonating

pipes and the number of harmonics eachpipe can produceat different lengths, a
musicologist notices the following trends in her data:
4i
3
n
11
Pipe A
PipeB
L(m)
Pipes A and B are both telescoping pipes. What could explain the difference in
slopefor the lines representing eachpipe?
A. The speed ofsound is faster for Pipe A thanfor Pipe B.

B. The speed ofsound isslower for Pipe A than for Pipe B.
C.
D.
Pipe A is wider than Pipe B.

Pipe A is narrower than Pipe B.
Solution
Using the equation for the resonant frequencies of an open pipe (/n = nv/2L),
you can relate n and Lasn =/n(2L/v). You'll note thatthe width ofthe pipe has
no impact on the frequency of the resonance waves, so choice C and D are
eliminated. The pipewidth does notaffect frequencies and resonances other than
to decrease the overall intensity of the resulting sounds. If you didn't remember
the precise equation, atleast know the basic variables used init (e.g., realize that
width is not an important factor). This way, you've increased your chances of
guessing, should you need to. The equation shows that n and L are linearly
related, and more importantly thata bigger sound speed v results in a smaller
slope in the n-L line. This makes choice B correct and choice A incorrect.
22
The Berkeley Review
25 Sfjtind Met Doppler E$|e<b Reviiew Questions
I.
Violin Strings
(1-7)
II.
Train Whistle
(8-14)
III.
Submarine Sonar
(15 - 21)
Questions Not Based on a Descriptive Passage
(22 - 25)
The main purpose of this 25-question set is to serve as a review of the material
presented in the chapter. Do not worry about the timing for these questions.
Focus on learning. Once you complete these questions, grade them using the
answer key. For any question you missed, repeat it and write down your thought
process. Then grade the questions you repeated and thoroughly read the answer
explanation. Compare your thought process to the answer explanation and assess
whether you missed the question because of a careless error (such as misreading
the question), because of an error in reasoning, or because you were missing

information. Your goal is to fill in any informational gaps and solidify your
reasoning before you begin your practice exam for this section. Preparing for the
MCAT is best done in stages. This first stage is meant to help you evaluate how
well you know this subject matter.
4.
Passage I (Questions 1-7)
A violin produces sound because of the transverse

vibrations of its strings, which cause the air around them to
vibrate. These longitudinal waves generate the sound that is
associated with a resonating cord. The speed of the waves on
a violin string is given by the formula:
Equation 1
are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
higher in frequency and shorter in wavelength.

higher in frequency and longer in wavelength.
lower in frequency and shorter in wavelength.
lower in frequency and longer in wavelength.
V M
where T is the tension in the string, L is the length of the

string, and M is the mass of the string. This means that the
mass of the string actually affects the speed of the waves,
which is unusual in that mass usually has no effect on speed.
5.
Which of the following changes would double the

fundamental frequency produced by a violin string?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Each string of the violin produces standing waves with many

frequencies, given by:
Equation 2
Violin players can press down on the violin strings

effectively to shorten the length of a particular string.
The shorter string will produce standing waves which
f = ny_
2L
Doubling the tension on the string.

Quadrupling the tension on the string.
Halving the tension on the string.
None of the above changes would double the
fundamental frequency.
where n = 1, 2, 3,.... By adjusting the strings, one can alter

and control the sound generated by any stringed instrument,
such as the violin.
1.
6.
If the length of a typical violin string is 30 cm, what are

the wavelengths of the first three harmonics?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Two strings have the same length and fundamental

wavelength, but different fundamental frequencies.
What
could
account
for
the
difference
in
the
fundamental frequency of the two strings?
30 cm, 60 cm, 90 cm
30 cm, 15 cm, 10 cm
60 cm, 30 cm, 20 cm
60 cm, 40 cm, 20 cm
I. The two strings could have different tensions.

II. The two strings could have different masses.
III. The two strings could have different mounting

angles.
2.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the fundamental pitch of a string that has a

length of 30 cm, a mass of 30 g, and a tension of 9000
I only
II only
I and II only
I and III only
N?
A.
300 Hz
B.
400 Hz
C.
500 Hz
D.
600 Hz
7.
When comparing the standing waves produced on a

violin string with the sound waves produced by that
string, we find that:
A. the waves on the string and the sound waves are

transverse.
B. the waves on the string and the sound waves are

longitudinal.
3.
C. the waves on the string are longitudinal, while the
The pitch of a standing wave on a violin string:
sound waves are transverse.
A. increases as the tension is increased.

B. decreases as the tension is increased.
C. increases as the tension is decreased.
D. the waves on the string are transverse, while the

sound waves are longitudinal.
D. is unaffected by the tension in the string.
24
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
Passage II (Questions 8-14)
12. As the train approaches a station, it blows both whistles.

A person standing on the platform hears both whistles
with apparent frequencies f\% and ft. Which of the
A train that is approaching a station has two whistles.

The first whistle has frequency f\, while the second whistle
has frequency ft The whistles emit sound waves, which are
longitudinal waves. Sound waves, like any harmonic waves,
may interfere with each other, if they arrive at the same place
at the same time. The intensity level of a sound wave is given
by:
Equation 1
following would be TRUE?
A. fl<f2<fl'<ft
B. fl<f2>fl'>ft
C /i</i\/2</2'
D. f\<f\\fi>ft
6= 10-log10|
13.
where I = intensity, ID = reference intensity, and 6 is the

intensity level in dB. Assume that the speed of sound is 330
m/s in all questions and that f\<ft
If the train's whistles are treated as pipes that are open

at one end and closed at the other, which of the
following plots could represent the air column pressure

in the pipe as it oscillates in its fundamental mode?
A.
8.
If the train is in the station and blows Whistle 1 with
frequency f\ = 440 Hz, what is the wavelength of the

emitted sound?
9.
A.
0.75 m
B.
1.00 m
C.
1.33 m
D.
0.67 m
B.
Suppose /i = 440 Hz and /2 = 450 Hz. If both whistles

are blown at the same time while the train is in the
station, what is the beat frequency?

A.
445 Hz
B.
890 Hz
C.
-10 Hz
D.
10 Hz
10. Sound wave A has an amplitude of 1 mm and Sound

wave B has an amplitude of 3 mm. What are the
maximum and minimum possible amplitudes, if A and
D.
B interfere?
A.
3 mm and 1 mm
B.
2 mm and -2 mm
C.
3 mm and -1 mm
D.
4 mm and 2 mm
14.
11. Sound wave A has an amplitude of 1 mm and Sound

Whistle 1 has an intensity twice that of Whistle 2.
Whistle 1 has an intensity level that is how many dB
greater than the intensity level of Whistle 2?
The train approaches a tunnel at 20 m/s and blows

Whistle 1 when it is 660 m away. How much time
elapses between the moment when the whistle is blown
and the moment when its echo is heard by the engineer?
A.
2.0 s
B.
2.6 s
A.
3dB
C.
3.8 s
B.
10 dB
D.
4.0 s
C.
20 dB
D.
30 dB
25
17.
Passage III (Questions 15-21)
What is true of the sound?
I. The speed of sound is faster in water than in air.

Since radar is ineffective underwater, navies around the
II. When sound bounces off of an object that is
world use sonar (SOund NAvigating and Ranging) for

underwater detection. There are two types: passive and
moving away from the detector, the sound will

reflect with an increased frequency.
active. Passive sonar listens for underwater sounds. Active
III. For a fixed frequency, increasing wavelength

requires increasing the wave speed.
sonar emits a sound signal and listens for the echo from the
bottom of the ocean or another vessel. If your vessel or the
enemy vessel is moving, the frequency of the echo will be

Doppler-shifted. The Doppler shift equation for frequency
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
when both source and observer are moving is:
D.
I, II, and III
\v vs/
where v = speed of sound, v0 = speed of observer, vs =

speed of source, / = original frequency, and /' = observed
frequency. For ease in calculations and measurements
underwater, the speed of sound is taken to be 1500 m/s.
Active
Passive
Sonar
Sonar
18.
If Submarine CIS is moving at 20 m/s towards

stationary Submarine USA, and the passive sonar
operator in Submarine CIS is listening for Submarine
USA's active sonar pulse, what is the frequency f\ of
the active sonar pulse, as measured by passive sonar on
Submarine CIS?
19.
A.
491Hz
B.
496 Hz
C.
501Hz
D.
507 Hz
Submarine USA is moving at 10 m/s toward a second

active sonar source (SASS). Both Submarine USA and
SASS emit the same standard source frequency. If

Submarine USA sends out a signal to SASS and then
listens to the echo, how would the echo frequency
detected by Submarine USA compare to the source
Figure 1
In Figure 1, assume Submarine USA moves with speed
Va and has an active sonar that emits signals with frequency
500 Hz. Assume Submarine CIS moves with speed Vr and
frequency?
has a passive sonar.
A. /echo > /source
" /echo < /source
15. Submarine USA uses active sonar to measure its height
C. /echo = /source
h above the ocean floor. What is the value of h, if at

time t - 0 a sonar pulse is emitted, and four seconds
D. It will vary with water temperature.
later the echo is heard?

A.
1500 m
B.
3000 m
C.
4500 m
D.
6000 m
20.
Starting with Submarine USA on the left and

Submarine CIS on the right, which condition will lead
to the LOWEST observed frequency for Submarine
CIS?
16.
A. Submarine USA moving to the right at 10 m/s,

with Submarine CIS moving to the left at 20 m/s.
B. Submarine USA moving to the right at 10 m/s,
with Submarine CIS moving to the left at 10 m/s.
C. Submarine USA moving to the left at 10 m/s, with
Submarine CIS moving to the right at 10 m/s.
D. Submarine USA is stationary, with Submarine CIS
Bats use active sonar to detect small insects. How does
the bat's signal compare to the submarine's sonar?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Bat sonar must have

Bat sonar must have
Bat sonar must have
Bat sonar "musthave
a longer wavelength.
a shorter wavelength.
a lower frequency.
a higher frequency.
moving to the left at 10 m/s.
26
21. In Figure 1, Submarine CIS makes a sudden course

change so that now both vessels are moving in the same
direction with the same speed va = vjj = 10 m/s.
Submarine USA emits a sonar signal with frequency /,
and that signal is detected by Submarine CIS with
frequency f\. How does f\ compare to /?
Questions 22 through 25 are NOT based on a descriptive

passage.
22. The fundamental frequency of a pipe closed at one end

is equal to the third harmonic of a pipe open at both
ends. How are the lengths of the two pipes related?
A. />/i
A.
B. /!>/
C
ôpen = ""-closed
L open = L.
closed
B.
/ = /i
D. / and f\ are unrelated.
*-" ôpen ~ ^closed

D.
23.
'"open ~ "'"closed
The waves used in sonification can best be described

as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
traveling transverse waves.

standing traveling waves.
traveling longitudinal waves.
standing longitudinal waves.
24. The observed speed of sound is the SLOWEST in:

A.
a vacuum.
B.
air.
C.
water.
D.
salt water.
25. A surgical use for sound waves is to destroy gallstones

with the vibrations. Two ways to measure the loudness
of a sound wave are intensity, I in W/m2, and intensity

level, 6 in dB. The loudness in decibels is given by:
6=KMog10 [where I0 is a reference intensity. Ultrasonic surgical

tools operate at 170 decibels, whereas imagers operate
at 150 decibels. How much more or less intense are the
surgical devices than the imaging devices?

A.
About 1000 times more intense.
B.
C.
D. About Vioas intense.
1.
6. C
11. A
27
2.
7.
12. C
3. A
4. A
5.
9. D
10. D
13. B
14. C
15. B
16. B
17. C
18. D
19. A
20.
21. C
22. D
23.
24.
25.
YOU ARE DONE.
Answers to 25-Question Sound and Doppler Effect Review

Violin Strings
Passage I (Questions 1 - 7)
1.
Choice C is the best answer. If the length of a typical violin string is 30 cm, what are the wavelengths of the first three
harmonics? In the passage, we were given the formula for the frequencies, which is: / = nv/2L- Usin8 tne 8olden ru,e for
waves, v=fX, we can solve for the wavelengths: X=VU. We find that: vlf =2L/n, so the wavelengths are given by: X=
2L/n. Plugging in values for Land ngives:
Xi=2(30cm)=60cm
X3=2(30cm)=20cm
2(30cmi=30cm
Choice C is the best answer. What is the fundamental pitch of a string that has a length of 30 cm, a mass of 30 g, and a
tension of 9000 N? To start, pitch is just the perceptual correlate of what a physicist calls "frequency." Using the frequency
formula in the passage, / = nv/2L we can plug in the fundamental pitch value n = 1 and the length value of 0.3 m after we
calculate the speed v. To calculate that, we have to use the other formula given in the passage:
(9000)(.30)
_ JTL _
.-. v = V90,000 = 300 m/
.03
Now that we know the speed, we can calculate the fundamental pitch, where n is equal to one:
/=nv =300m/{5- = 500 Hz

2L
2(0.3) m
Choice A is the best answer. What happens to the pitch (frequency) of a standing wave on a violin string when the tension
on that string is changed? To answer that question, we must combine the two formulas given in the passage:
/ = nv and v 2L
T-L
M
/= ,
2L
I^= n
M
.-. / Vf
M-L
We can see from the formula that as the tension increases, the frequency must also increase. Notice that choices B and C give
the same relationship between/and T, invalidating both of them. The best answer is choice A.
Choice A is the best answer. Violin players can press down on the violin strings effectively to shorten the length of a
particular string. What happens to the frequency and wavelength of the standing waves when this occurs? According to the
rule for waves, X= vle. As/increases, Xmust decrease and vice versa. Since frequency is proportional to V^, decreasing
length means increasing frequency. Since the frequency is increasing, the wavelength must be decreasing. The best answer
is choice A.
Choice B is the best answer. What change would double the fundamental frequency produced by a violin string? All of our
answer choices involve changing the string tension, which means we need to know how frequency depends on tension. To
get this relation, we must combine the two formulas given in the passage. The result is:
T-L
2L
/ Vf"
In order to double the frequency, we must quadruple the tension. The best answer is choice B.
Choice C is the best answer. Two strings have the same length and fundamental wavelength, but different fundamental
frequencies. How is this possible? The wavelengths are given by X = 2L/n. The wavelengths are affected only by the length
VT'L
. The factors that influence the frequency are T, L, and M. Since L
is the same for both strings, a different T or a different M must be creating different frequencies, which is choice C. The
mounting angle of the string will have no bearing on the frequency, according to the equation. The mounting angle would
simply affect the ability of the string to be displaced. The best answer is choice C.
28
MINI-TEST EXPLANATIONS
Choice D is the best answer. Whether it's standing waves produced on a violin string or sound waves produced by that
7.
string, sound waves are longitudinal. As part of your general physics knowledge, you should know that sound waves are
longitudinal. This was alluded to in the first paragraph of the passage. Based on this, we can eliminate choices A and C. You
should also know that standing waves on strings are transverse. The best answer is choice D.
Passage II (Questions 8 -14)

8.
Train Whistle
Choice A is the best answer. If the train is in the station and blows Whistle 1 with frequency f\ = 440 Hz, what is the
wavelength of the emitted sound?This is a straightforward application of v = fX, where v is 330 m/s, and / is 440 Hz. This
means that: >. = (330 m/s)/(440 Hz) = 0.75 m. If you remembered the proper equation, v = fX, which you should have
memorized, you should have noticed that the wavelength had to be less than 1 m. The only two choices less than 1 m were
choices A and D. The best answer is choice A.
9.
Choice D is the best answer. Suppose f\ = 440 Hz and fi = 450 Hz. If both whistles are blown at the same time while the
rain is in the station, what is the beat frequency? The beat frequency is given by /b = I/] - ft\. This means that/b = I440 Hz
- 450 Hz I, which is 10 Hz. The equation for the beat frequency is another equation that should be tucked away in your
memory. Choice A, 445 Hz, is the average frequency. Choice B, 890 Hz, is the sum of the two frequencies. Choice C, - 10
Hz, is not possible, because frequency is by definition a positive quantity. The best answer is choice D.
10.
Choice D is the best answer. Sound wave A has an amplitude of 1 mm, and Sound wave B has an amplitude of 3 mm. What
are the maximum and minimum possible amplitudes, if A and B interfere? If A and B are in phase when they interfere, their
amplitudes will sum to give the maximum amplitude. If A and B are 180 out of phase when they interfere, their amplitudes
will cancel each other out.
A + B
=>
B-A
4 mm
2 mm
A and B interfering in-phase
A and B interfering out-of-phase
When we subtract the amplitudes, the result must be positive, because amplitude is by definition a positive quantity. Based
on that, choices B and C are eliminated. The math gives: Max = 3 mm + 1 mm = 4 mm, and Min = 3 mm - 1 mm = 2 mm.
11.
Choice A is the best answer. Whistle 1 has an intensity twice that of Whistle 2. Whistle 1 has an intensity level that is how
many dB greater than the intensity level of Whistle 2? The intensity level is given by:
B=10-log10
(l\
Let's say the intensity of Whistle 2 is I, which means the intensity of Whistle 1 is 21. The intensity level of Whistle 1 is:
6=10-log10 pi-
=>
B=10-logI0W+ 10-logI0(2)
*o/
v*o/
The first term is the intensity of Whistle 2. So Whistle 1 is 10 log 2 decibels greater than Whistle 2. Log 2 is 0.3, so Whistle 1
is about 3 decibels louder than Whistle 2. To increase the intensity level by +10dB, the intensity must be increased by a
factor of 10! The best answer is choice A.
12.
Choice C is the best answer. As the train approaches a station, it blows both whistles. A person standing on the platform
hears both whistles with apparent frequencies f\' and ft. How are the frequencies related? When the train is approaching the
station, the perceived frequencies heard by the listener are greater than the actual frequencies at the sound source because of
a Doppler shift. We can definitely conclude that f\ < f\' and f2 < ft, which is choice C. Choice A is not the best answer,
because we cannot say for sure that J2 < /l'- Choice B is not the best answer, because we can't say for sure that /2 > /]'.
Choice D is incorrect, because /2 < ft, not J2 > ft- The best answer is choice C.
13.
Choice B is the best answer. If the train's whistles are treated as pipes that are open at one end and closed at the other, which
could be a picture of the air column in one pipe, if it is oscillating in its fundamental mode? When a pipe is open at one end,
that means the particle displacement must be at a maximum at that end. When a pipe is closed at one end, that means the
particle displacement must be at a minimum at that end. The only picture among the answer choices that has a maximum at
the open end and a minimum at the closed end is choice B. The best answer is choice B.
29
14.
Choice C is the best answer. The engineer blows Whistle 1 when the train is 660 m away from the tunnel (see diagram
below). How much time elapses between the moment when the whistle is blown and the moment when its echo is heard by
the engineer? If the train were stationary, the sound of the whistle would take 2 seconds to reach the tunnel (660 maway),
and the echo would take another 2 seconds to return to the engineer (assuming that the speed of sound in air is 330 m/s). The
total time for the initial sound wave of the echo to reach the ear of the engineer sitting in a stationary train would be 4
seconds. But the train is not stationary. It is moving towards the tunnel at 20 m/s. Therefore, we can quickly figure out that
the echo will require fewer than 4 seconds but more than 2 seconds to reach the engineer. This allows us to eliminate choices
A and D.
Where will the train be when the sound of the whistle reaches the tunnel? Remember that the sound waves takes 2 seconds to
reach the tunnel, during which time the train travels (20 m/s x 2 s) or 40 m, placing it at a position 620 m from the opening of
the tunnel. The echo 1 second later will be 330 m away from the tunnel and approaching the oncoming train. The train will
be 20 m closer to the tunnel (i.e., 600 m away from the tunnel). The echo and the engineer are still 270 m apart from one
another-and exactly 3 seconds have elapsed. The echo time must be greater than 3 s, which allows us to eliminate choice B
and select choice C as the best answer.
The problem is also solved using algebra. When the echo and the engineer meet: (dwave - 660 m) + dlrain = 660 m, and:
dwave = vwave 'l > ^train = vtrain ** If vve let x eclua' tne l'me elaPsed untiI tne whistle is heard by the approaching
engineer, then: (330 m/s x) - 660 m + (20 m/s x) = 600 m. Solving for x, vve get:
x = '320 m = 377 s
350 m/s
While the algebraic answer may offer some reassurance that our intuition was correct, there is just not enough time to do this
math during the MCAT. As you prepare for your MCAT, be sure to emphasize visualization and intuition when determining
the best answers to your questions. The best answer is choice C.
Passage HI (Questions 15 - 21)

15.
Submarine Sonar
Choice B is the best answer. Four seconds is the total time it takes for the signal to leave the submarine, hit the ocean floor,
and travel back to the submarine.
d = vt = (1500 m/ )(4 S) =6000 m .-. h= i = 600Q m = 3000 m

2
Be wary of questions where the time for a round-trip is given. A standard trick question involves asking for one-way distance
after giving you the round-trip time. The best answer is choice B.
16.
Choice B is the best answer. Because the target for the bat is considerably smaller than for a submarine, the wavelength
must be shorter for the bat's radar signal than the submarine's sonar signal. The wavelength of the signal must be roughly
equal in size to or shorter than the object. Regarding the higher or lower frequency, remember that the frequency will also
depend upon the wave speed, which is considerably different for the sub's waterborne sonar and the bat's airborne sonar. The
best answer is choice B.
17.
Choice C is the best answer. The speed of sound is greater in water (the denser medium) than in air. 1500 m/s is roughly
3000 miles per hour. Mach I (the speed of sound in air) is just above 700 miles per hour. This makes statement I true.
According to the equation, when the object moves away from the observer, the frequency decreases, so statement II is false.
The speed of any wave depends on its wavelength and frequency. Specifically, v = fX requires that wave speed increase, if
the wavelength is to increase and the frequency is to remain fixed. This makes statement III valid. Choice C is the best
answer. Notice that statement I is part of every choice, so you do not need to spend time considering that statement. The best
answer is choice C.
30
18.
Choice Dis the best answer. There are two methods ofsolving this problem. Method #1: Plug the numbers into the Doppler
formula, noting that v0 = vb = +20 m/s (+ because the observer moves towards the source) and v$ = v^ =0 m/s.
f, =f(v+Ift.] =500 Hz(1500 m/s +20 m/s|m 507 Hz

v v
1500 m/s
Method #2: Understand the physics and eliminate the impossible answers. The physics: When an observer approaches the
source, the observer must measure a frequency f\ greater than the original frequency /. The impossible answers: 491 Hz and
496 Hz. The only answer significantly greater than 500 Hz is choice D, 507 Hz. The best answer is choice D.
19.
Choice A is the best answer. Submarine USA emits the signal with frequency / = 500 Hz. The active sonar source measures
the frequency to be:
f, =f(llo) =500 Hz (1500 m/s +10 m/s) a 503 Hz

v v
1500 m/s
1500
The active sonar source is now the source of the echo sent back to Submarine USA. The echo will undergo a second Doppler
shift as follows:
h =f1(*)
=503 Hz
V - Vc
1500 m/s
507 Hz
1500 m/s- 10 m/s
The standard emitted pulse is shifted only once: /echo > /source- The most difficult part of this problem is realizing that we
must apply the Doppler shift twice, with Submarine USA and the stationary source exchanging roles as source and observer
after the first Doppler shift. The best answer is choice A.
20.
Choice C is the best answer. The lowest frequency, according to the equation, is observed when the source and the observer
are moving away from each other at the greatest relative speed. In choices A and B, the two submarines are moving towards
each other, so in each case the Doppler shift will result in frequencies greater than 500 Hz. In choice D, the distance between
the two submarines is increasing (reducing the frequency), but the distance between the submarines does not increase at the
same rate as it does in choice C. Choice C is best.
500 Hz f1500 m/s + 10 m/s\ >^qq j_jz [1500 m/s + 10 m/s\ >*jqq ^z /
\ 1500 m/s - 20 m/s/
\ 1500 m/s - 10 m/s I
1500 m/s
\ >^qq j_jz /1500 m/s - 10 m/s \
M500 m/s + 10 m/s/
M500 m/s + 10 m/s/

21.
Choice C is the best answer. The Doppler shift depends on whether there is relative motion between the source and the
observer. Since both submarines are moving in the same direction with the same speed, there is no relative motion between
them. Thus, there is no Doppler shift; f\=f. Using the Doppler formula:
_ffv-vo\_f/i500
m/s- lOm/s =_ f
= f
fl=f
v - Vc
1500 m/s - 10 m/s
Since the observer is trying to move away from the source, you must choose the minus sign for v0. Since the source is trying
to move towards the observer, you must choose the minus sign for vs. The best answer is choice C.
Not Based on a Descriptive Passage
Questions 22 - 25
22.
Choice D is the best answer. For a pipe that is open at one end and closed at the other end, the possible frequencies are:
/ = JL- (pipe closed at one end)

4L
For a pipe that is open at both ends, the possible frequencies are:
/ = 1LY_ (pipe open at both ends)

2L
In the case where the pipe is closed at one end, n can only be an odd integer. The fundamental frequency occurs when n = 1.
For a pipe open at both ends, n can be any integer. The third harmonic occurs when n = 3. Setting these two equations equal
to each other, we solve for the relationship between the lengths of the pipes:
v
4 Lclosed
3v
2 L0pen
' Lopen 6 Lciosecj
Note that the wave speed is the same for both pipes, since the waves produced are sound waves in air. The best answer is
choice D.
31
23.
Choice Cis the best answer. If you are aware that sonification uses sound waves, then you can easily answer this knowing
that sound is alongitudinal wave that travels. Otherwise, we need to analyze each choice. Transverse waves cannot travel in
simple fluids, so choice Ais incorrect and thereby eliminated. Awave is either traveling or standing, but not both. This
allows us to eliminate choice B immediately. Traveling waves are those waves where the wave pattern moves through the
medium. This is what happens to a sound wave sent out by a sonification source. Standing waves are formed by the
interference oftwo traveling waves, traveling in opposite directions, usually because of boundary conditions. Sonification
employs sound waves traveling through mediums, so choice Cis the best answer and choice Dis eliminated. The best
answer is choice C.
24.
Choice B isthebest answer. Just like sound intensity, the speed ofsound also increases asa medium becomes denser. If we
are looking for the medium in which the speed of sound is the slowest, we would be looking for the medium with the least
density. The medium ofleast density might at first appear to be avacuum (zero density); but avacuum is the absence of any
medium. Sound waves need a medium in order to propagate, because sound is transferred via molecular vibrations and
collisions. After eliminating choice A(avacuum), we should then notice that air is the least dense ofthe remaining materials.
25.
Choice B is correct. This question tests your skills with logarithms more than your skill with conceptual physics. The
formula you are to decipher is:
B=KMog10(
We are told the intensities in decibels (dB) and are asked to find the intensities in W/m2.1 is in W/m2, and Bis in dB. We are
basically being asked tosolve for I. Recall the rules for logs: x= log y means y = 10*.
i=i0-io(b/io)
Now, if we want to find a ratio of intensities in W/m2, we just plug the given values into the equation. For the imager, we
have:
lj= Io1015 and for surgery: ls =Io1017

I = Io1017
The ratio ofIs to lj isjust: ^.
" _ 100i
li
Io1015
Notice that IQ dropped out of the equation. Try to avoid plugging in values for variables in a problem. The variable may just
drop out, saving you time and helping you avoid an error. The best answer is choice B.
32
52-Question Sound and Doppler Effect Practice Exam

I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
VI.
VII.
Sound Intensity
(1-6)
Propagation of Sound
(7 -11)
Bat Echolocation
(12 -17)
(18 - 21)
Sound Experiment
(22 - 27)
Jet Radar
(28 - 32)
(33 - 36)
Organ Pipes
(37 - 42)
Sound Resonance
(43 - 48)
(49 - 52)
Sound and Doppler Effect Exam Scoring Scale

Raw Score
MCAT Score
42-52
13-15
34-41
10-12
24-33
7-9
17-23
4-6
1-16
1-3
3.
Sound waves having which of the following frequencies

moved FASTEST through water?
A study was done in order testthechange in intensity of

sound waves in different media. A source capable of emitting
frequencies of 200, 1000, and 5000 Hz was placed in a

vacuum, air, water, and liquid mercury. At a fixed distance
from the source, a sound detector was also placed into the
A.
200 Hz
B.
1000 Hz
C.
5000 Hz
D. Sound waves of frequencies 200 Hz, 1000 Hz, and

5000 Hz move at the same speed through water.
medium. The detector was moved to different points for
various readings. Already knowing that the intensity of sound

waves in a liquid is higher than in a gas, the experimenters
were trying to confirm that Equation 1 accurately describes
the intensity of sound waves in a liquid.
Equation 1
I=i/pBo)2A2
4.
In addition to testing the intensity of the sound waves at

different points, the study was also meant to measure the
penetration depth of different frequencies. A commonly
accepted theory is that although sound is observed as a wave
phenomenon, it also has particle properties. Drawing a
As we move away from the source of a sound wave,

from a distance r to a distance 3r, the intensity of that
wave:
A. decreases by a factor of 3.
B. decreases by a factor of 9.
C. increases by a factor of 3.
D. increases by a factor of 9.
parallel to light theory, vve know that light can be broken

down into corpuscles called photons. Similarly, it is believed
that sound can be broken down into small units called
phonons. According to this theory, a single phonon has an

energy given by Equation 2, where h is Planck's constant
(6.63 x 10"34 J-s), and / isthe frequency of the sound wave.

Equation 2
5.
Ephonon - "f
A phonon is the smallest amount of energy that can be

carried by a sound of a particular frequency. The reason we
do not notice this quantization in life is because the amount
of energy of one phonon is minuscule, and it would be quite
difficult to isolate its energy.
1.
If all of the frequencies in this experiment were emitted

at the same time into air along with a frequency of 1010
Hz, which of the following frequencies would also be
detected?
A.
10 Hz
B.
810 Hz
C.
3990 Hz
D.
All of the above.
The intensity of sound at a particular distance from its

source will be GREATEST in:
A.
a vacuum.
B.
air.
C.
water.
D. mercury.
6.
If the known energy of a phonon with frequency 1500
Hz is about 1.0 x 10"30 J, which of the following

amounts of energy carried by a 1500-Hz sound wave
could NOT be observed?
2.
A.
B.
C.
D.
In a simple liquid thicker than air, a sound wave of a

fixed frequency is:
A. longitudinal with ^-Medium > Âir-
B. longitudinal with ^.Medium < Âir-
1.0xl0-30J
5.0xl0-30J
7.5xlO"30J
1.0xlO-20J
C. transverse with A-Medium > ÂirD. transverse with ^.Medium < Âir-
34
8.
Which of the following images would be MOST

difficult for an ultrasound device to "see"?
Sound travels in the form of a wave, and is therefore
governed by the laws of wave motion. One of these laws is

that the speed of a wave, v, is related to the sound wave's
frequency and wavelength by:
A.
Bone in flesh
B.
Gas-filled stomach and stomach wall
C.
Bladder wall and urine in bladder
D. Gallstones in the gallbladder
v = Xf
Another law of wave motion deals with how sound
waves reflect when they hit an interface between two

different media. The ratio of the reflected wave's intensity to
the incident wave's intensity is given by:
^reflected _
Plvl-P2v2\2
incident
Plvl + P2v2/
9.
water, and flesh?
A.
B.
C.
D.
where pi and p2 are the respective densities of the incident

and reflecting media, and vj and V2 are the respective speeds
of the sound waves in the two media. Typically, waves will
reflect more if pi < p2 or if P2 < pi, than if pi is
approximately equal to p2Sound waves come in a variety of frequencies, each
frequency range having a different degree of importance in
our lives. For instance, the frequency range between
approximately 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz is where human beings
10.
1.5 x 10-4 sec,3.4 x 10'5 sec, 3.2 x 10"5 sec.

3.2 x 10"5 sec,3.4 x 10"5 sec, 1.5 x 10"4 sec.
1.5 x 10"1 sec,3.4 x 10"2 sec, 3.2 x 10"2 sec.
3.4 x 10"5 sec,3.4 x 10"5 sec, 3.4 x 10-5 sec.
When applied to the side of the head, sound waves

bounce off of the sides of the skull, and off of the mid
line of the brain. Two oscilloscope traces show time

versus sound intensity in the detector, when the detector
is placed on the left side of a patient's head and on the
right side of a patient's head.
detect sounds.
Above 20,000 Hz, our ears fail us. However, this does
not mean
ultrasonic
doctors to
would be
Which list of numbers represents the respective times it

takes for a sound wave to travel through 5 cm of air,
that these sounds are useless. People use these

sounds in the medical field daily. They allow
"see" into the bodies of patients, where X-rays
useless and/or dangerous. The theory behind
detector on right side
detector on left side
ultrasound imaging is this: Send a sound pulse into the body

and measure how long it takes for a reflected pulse to return.
Knowing the sound wave's speed, a computer can turn these

echoes into pictures.
il
From these plots, a specialist was able to conclude:
Imaging depends upon a sound wave's speed, so it helps
A. that the left side of the brain was larger than the
right side of the brain.
B. that the right side of the brain was larger than the
to know how fast sound travels in a given medium. Some
typical numbersfor speed in various media are the following:

Medium
p (kg/m3)
v (m/s)
Air
1.05
344
Water
1000
1480
Flesh
1047
1570
left side of the brain.

C.
that both sides of the brain were the same size.
D. nothing about the relative sizes of the brain's

hemispheres.
Table 1
7.
If, when using an ultrasound imager on flesh, the
11.
reflected pulse is detected 10"^ sec after the emitted
If the ultrasonic imager operates at a frequency of

157,000 Hz, what is the size of the SMALLEST object
the imager could detect?
pulse is sent, the distance between the detector and the

reflecting medium is:
A.
About 1 mm
B.
About 1 cm
A.
.01570 m
B.
.03140 m
C.
About 1 m
C.
.007850 m
D.
There is no minimum size.
D.
.001570 m
35
15.
When a wave travels from air into water, its speed

increases by a factor of four. Compared to the wave in
air, the transmitted wave has:
Batsand dolphins are examples of animals that use sonar

to locate food in their environments. Sounds that a bat emits,
A.
B.
C.
D.
for example, reflect off nearby insects and return to the

animal. The elapsed time of these echoes allows the bat to
determine the distance to its food.
It is believed that bats know not only the distance to a
the same frequency, but a longer wavelength.

the same frequency, but a shorter wavelength.
the same wavelength, but a higher frequency.
the same wavelength, but a lower frequency.
given insect, but also the relative speed at which it moves.

Such information comes from a Doppler shift in the
frequency of the emitted sound. The relationship between

the reflected frequency fr and the emitted frequency fe is
shown in Equation 1.
16.
_(v +vt) f
All of the following play a role in echolocation when

determining position and speed of an object EXCEPT:
A. a difference in frequency between the emitted and

Equation 1
reflected waves.
when the target is moving at a speed vt relative to the bat.

Here, v, > 0 means that the bat and target are approaching
each other; v is the speed of sound. (Unless otherwise stated,
the speed of sound is 340 m/s.)
B. a difference in wave speed between the emitted and

reflected waves.
C. the speed of the object

D. a difference in wavelength between the emitted and
reflected waves.
12.
A bug and a bat are initially 17 m apart, when the bat

emits a sonic chirp. The creatures approach each other
at a relative speed of 0.5 m/s. How long after emitting
the chirp does the bat hear its reflection?
A.
0.0498 second
B.
0.0502 second
C.
0.0999 second
D.
0.1001 second
17. The HIGHEST reflected frequency is observed with a:

A. stationary bat and a bug flying towards it
B. stationary bat and a bug flying away from it.
C. bat flying towards a bug that is flying away from
the bat
D. bat flying towards a bug that is flying towards the

13. Assuming that the bat's ultrasonic chirp is emitted
uniformly in all directions, and that the sound intensity
lm from the bat is 25 dB, what is the approximate
bat
sound intensity 2m from the bat?

A.
6dB
B.
12 dB
C.
19 dB
D.
25 dB
14. A bug approaches a stationary bat at 0.1% of the speed

of sound. If the bat emits a chirp at some ultrasonic
frequency, the reflected frequency will be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
122.2% of the emitted frequency.

36
21. Which of the following graphs BEST represents the

frequency of a sound wave emitted from a closed pipe

passage.
as a function of the length of the pipe?

A.
18.
B.
For a sound wave traveling through air at room

temperature and pressure, which plot BEST represents
the relation between the wave's frequency and its
speed?
A.
B.
Length (L)
Length (L)
Length (L)
Length (L)
8.
C.
20
20,000
20
Frequency (Hz)
20,000
o
c
Frequency (Hz)
D.
C.
8.
20
20,000
Frequency (Hz)
19.
20
20,000
Frequency (Hz)
Which relationship BEST relates the pitch of the siren

for an ambulance relative to a stationary observer?
A.
B.
C
D.
20.
i"
/approaching > /stationary > /leaving

/leaving >* /stationary > /approaching
/stationary > /approaching > /leaving
/stationary > /leaving > /approaching
Two cars have identical horns with a frequency of 400

Hz.
Which situation will NOT generate a beat
frequency when both cars simultaneously honk their
horns?
A. Car I is stationary; car II is moving left at 20 m/s.

B. Car I moving right at 20 m/s; car II is stationary.
C. Car I moving left at 20 m/s; car II is moving right
at 20 m/s.
D. Car I moving right at 20 m/s; car II is moving right

at 20 m/s.
37
23. How would the experiment need to be changed, if one

desires to produce the same frequencies as those
Passage IV (Questions 22 - 27)
measured in the experiment, but when the room
In an experiment to demonstrate how resonances work,

physics students gather five tuning forks of frequencies 1020
temperature is 25 C? (Ignore thermal expansion of the
Hz, 850 Hz, 680 Hz, 510 Hz, and 340 Hz. The students also
pipe.)
have a glass tube of length 1 m and diameter 8 cm. The glass

tube is placed on a table and completely filled with water.
Starting with the tuning fork with the highest frequency, each
tuning fork is struck and placed over the open end of the
A. The frequencies of all of the tuning forks would

need to be increased.
B. The frequencies of all of the tuning forks would

need to be decreased.
water-filled tube, as in Figure 1. While each tuning fork is

held over the tube, the water level is slowly lowered until a
C. The water height would need to be lowered.

D. The water height would need to be raised.
loud resonance is heard. Once the resonance is heard, the

water height is recorded.
Tuning
fork
24.
How does the speed of sound in Trial 5, V5, compare

with the speed of sound in Trial 3, V3?
A. V5 = 2V3
hei ght
B. v5 = V2v3
Ti be
C. v5 = v3
Water
D. V5 = ^v3
height
h
>
25. The experiment will NOT work, if the tube space above
the water is filled with:
Figure 1. Experimental Apparatus

Theoretically, resonance should occur whenever the
following condition is met:
f _
nv
4L
A.
0Cair.
B.
0C ice.
C.
20C water.
D.
100C steam.
where n = 1,3,5,..., f is the frequency of the tuning fork, v is

the speed of sound in air, and L is the length of the air
26.
column. The students also measure the fundamental mode, n
= 1. The experimental data are summarized in Table 1.
In Trial 5, the height of the water was 75.0 cm. The

tuning fork from which other trial could be used to
produce a resonance for a water height of 75.0 cm?
Trial number
Frequency (Hz)
Water height (cm)
A.
Trial 1
1020
91.7
B.
Trial 2
850
90.0
C.
Trial 3
D.
Trial 4
680
87.5
510
83.3
340
75.0
27.
Table 1
The experiment was carried out with a constant room
temperature of 20 C.
22.
What is the wavelength of sound produced by the

tuning fork in Trial 3?
A.
87.5 cm
B.
50.0 cm
C.
25.0 cm
D.
12.5 cm
38
Suppose the tuning fork in Trial 4 were measured to

have an intensity level of 50 dB. If a second, identical
tuning fork were struck and brought near the first fork,
together they would have an intensity level of:
A.
50 dB.
B.
53 dB.
C.
60 dB.
D.
100 dB.
Passage V (Questions 28 - 32)
29.
Will radar function in a vacuum?
A. Yes, because longitudinal waves do not need a
In the landing of jets, radar systems are employed to

track and analyze the jet's pathway. In earlier years, this was
medium.
B. No, because longitudinal waves need a medium.

C. Yes, because electromagnetic waves do not need a
accomplished when the jet emitted a radio signal of the same

frequency as a stationary beacon positioned at some distance
from the runway. The motion of the jet affects the frequency
of the emitted signal, according to the Doppler equation:
medium.
D. No, because electromagnetic waves need a

medium.
Equation 1
v vs
In Equation 1, ft is the frequency received by the

listener, /s is the frequency emitted by the sender, v is the
velocity of the transmitted wave, vl is the velocity of the
listener, and vs is the velocity of the source. The varies
30. Radar guns emit radio waves. The radar gun measures
the beat frequency between the returning waves. How
does the radar gun determine velocity?
with the direction of the motion of the source and listener.
A. By measuring the beat frequency between two
Because the signal from the beacon is not shifted, the
consecutive reflected waves.
difference in frequency between the jet's emitted signal and

the beacon's emitted signal can be used to determine the
velocity of the jet. The difference in frequency between the
two signals is known as the beat frequency. This is given in
B. By measuring the beat frequency between a wave

reflected from a stationary object and one reflected
from a moving object.
Equation 2:
Equation 2
C. By measuring the beat frequency between a wave

reflected from two separate objects moving at the
/beat ='/1-/2'
same speed.
D. By measuring the beat frequency between a wave

reflected from two separate objects moving at
different speeds.
In Equation 2, /beat is me Deat frequency, f\ is the

frequency of Wave 1, and /2 is the frequency of Wave 2.
Combining the two equations for the airport scenario, with a
moving emitter and a stationary emitter, the beat frequency
for the jet signal and beacon signal is given in Equation 3:
Equation 3
/b eat
/l
31.
where f\ is the frequency of the beacon's and jet's emitted

wave, without accounting for Doppler-shifting.
Modern systems employ radar
sent out and the reflected signals
frequency is obtained when one
stationary object, while the other
moving object.
Using radar, for which object would it be hardest to

evaluate its velocity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
guns, where a signal is

are analyzed. The beat
wave reflects off of a
wave reflects off of a
28. When using active radar, where radio waves are emitted
from the same point at which the reflected waves are
detected, all of the following should be considered
32.
A moving train
A moving car
A flying bird
A flying insect
How can the frequency shift of a radio wave reflected

off of a moving object be determined?
EXCEPT:
A. A/ = /0(v)
A. the reflected wave is double Doppler-shifted by the
B. A/ = /0(c)
moving object.
C. A/ = /0(v/c)
B. a stationary reference beam is needed.

C. the gun operates when stationary and in motion.
D. the best electromagnetic radiation is in the
ultraviolet range.
D. A/ = /0(2v/c)
39
36.
A.
passage.
53 Hz, 159 Hz, 265 Hz, 371 Hz, etc...
D. either transverse or longitudinal, depending on the
A. They are from a closed pipe with a fundamental

frequency
B. They are
frequency
C. They are
frequency
D. They are
frequency
transverse.
B. longitudinal.
C. either transverse or longitudinal, depending on the
air temperature.
33. For the following harmonic frequencies, what is true?
34.
Sound waves are:
altitude.
of 53 Hz.
from an open pipe with a fundamental
of 53 Hz.
from a closed pipe with a fundamental
of 106 Hz.
from an open pipe with a fundamental
of 106 Hz.
The depth finder on a boat sends a pulse of sound

toward the bottom and measures the time for the echo
to return. Could such a depth finder distinguish between

the following three things?
I. A rocky sea floor
II. A rocky sea floor, covered with a watery silt

III. A school of fish, swimming near the bottom
A. I and II can be distinguished from III, but not from
each other.
B. I, II, and III can all be distinguished from each

other.
C. I, II, and III cannot be distinguished from each

other.
D. II and III cannot be distinguished from each other.
35. Red-shifting occurs when astronomers observe planets

moving away from their telescope. It is attributed to the
Doppler effect What causes a blue shift?
A. A planet moving towards the observer, where the
light is shifted to a lower frequency.
B. A planet moving away from the observer, where
the light is shifted to a lower frequency.
C. A planet moving towards the observer, where the
light is shifted to a higher frequency.
D. A planet moving away from the observer, where
the light is shifted to a higher frequency.
40
39. To most effectively increase the frequency in the pipe,

one should replace the N2 in the air with:
Passage VI (Questions 37 - 42)

Some organ pipes are open at both ends, while others are
open at one end and closed at the other. They amplify
selected frequencies (harmonics) based on the dimensions of
the pipe and speed of the wave. An open pipe is illustrated in
Figure 1 below.
A. He, and lengthen the pipe.

B. H2, and lengthen the pipe.
C. He, and shorten the pipe.
D. H2, and shorten the pipe.
^< lip
air in-
=r
40. If you increase the temperature of the air by 44%, the
speed of the sound wave increases by:
Figure 1
They emit sound when air is blown around a lip near one
end. This air turbulently enters one end of the pipe, and can
cause air in the pipe to resonate at various frequencies.
These frequenciesare given by Equation 1.
f
A.
6.6%
B.
20%
C.
44%
D.
107%
nv
41. For an open pipe that is 15 cm long, what is the

frequency associated with the third harmonic, assuming
the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s?
Equation 1
where n = 1,2,3... and v is the speed of sound in the pipe.
Pipes typically resonate at their fundamental frequency
A.
3.4 Hz
of n = 1, but can also resonate in higher modes depending
B.
34 Hz
C.
340 Hz
D.
3400 Hz
upon the turbulence of the incoming air. As a general rule,

the lowestresonantfrequency is of the highest intensity.
37. All of the following are true of harmonics in an open
pipe EXCEPT:
A. the beat frequency of any two harmonics is also a

harmonic.
42. The frequency spectrum of one organ pipe is measured

and plotted below. (The dominant frequencies and zero
B. that /n = n(/0), when n is the harmonic number and

/0 is the fundamental frequency of the pipe.
C. that X.n = n(XQ), when n is the harmonic number and
Xq is the fundamental wavelength of the pipe.
are enumerated.) What is the pipe's length?

dB
D. the length of a pipe impacts the harmonics more
lllll I
than the diameter of the pipe.
85
38. Two pipes with identical dimensions differ only at their

ends: pipe #1 is open on both ends and pipe #2 is open
only on one end. What is the ratio of the fundamental
frequency of pipe #1 to that of pipe #2?
A.
2:1
B.
3:2
C.
2:3
D.
1:2
41
A.
0.3 meter
B.
0.5 meter
C.
1.0 meter
D.
2.0 meter
170
.1.
255 Hz
In order to better understand sound waves, a group of
45. A pipe open at both ends produces a frequency of 440

Hz. A string tied a both ends vibrates with a frequency
of 430 Hz. Which of the following statements is true?
students performed a set of experiments using strings and

pipes of different lengths. All of the strings were tied down
A. The two waves will never produce a beat

frequency, since the waves come from different
Passage VII (Questions 43 - 48)
at both ends. Some of the pipes were open at both ends,

while some of the pipes were closed at one end and open at
the other end. To generate waves on the strings, the strings
were attached to a mechanical wave generator. Waves in the
pipes were generated by means of different tuning forks. The
forks and pipes were arranged so that they were parallel to
sources.
B. The waves will produce a beat frequency under

most circumstances.
C. A beat frequency of 10 Hz will be produced.

D. The two waves will exhibit almost completely
destructive interference.
one another.
For strings that are tied down at both ends and for pipes
that are open at both ends, the possible frequencies for
vibration are:
/= nv;n = l, 2,3,...
46. Which will produce the higher frequency, a string tied
2L
down at both ends or a pipe closed at one end?

A. The string.
B. The pipe.
For pipes that are closed at one end, the possible

frequencies for vibration are:
C. They produce waves with the equal frequencies.

D. Not enough information given.
/=nv;n = 1,3,5,...
4L
In all cases, v is used to represent wave speed and L is

used to represent the pipe length.
43. Consider a pipe open at both ends and a string tied at
47. How could thestudents generate a wave on a string that

had the same shape as the wave generated in a pipe
both ends. If the length of each is 1 meter, which of the

following statements is true about the waves generated
closed at one end?
in each?
A. It is not possible to generate an identical wave
A. The waves will have the same wavelength but
because the nodes and antinodes of the two waves
different frequencies.
would be reversed.
B. The waves will have the same wavelengths and the
B. The waves could be identical when the string is
same frequencies.
tied at one end, and untied at the other end.
C. The waves will have the same frequencies but
C. The waves could be identical when the string is

tied at both ends, and the string is the same length
different wavelengths.
D. The waves will always have different wavelengths
as the pipe.
and different frequencies.
D. The waves could be identical when the string is

tied at both ends, and the string is twice the length
of the pipe.
44. If the temperature of the room changes from 30C to

33C, which of the following statements is true?
(Ignore any thermal expansion of the pipe and string.)
48. If the students were able to perform their experiments in
A. The pitch of the wave produced by the string

changes; the pitch of the wave produced by the
a vacuum chamber:
A. wavescould be produced in the pipes.

B. wavescould be produced on the strings.
C. waves could be produced in the pipes and on the
pipe does not.
B. The pitch of the wave produced in the pipe

changes; the pitch of the wave produced by the
strings.
string does not.
D. waves could not be produced in eitherthe strings or
C. The pitch of both waves changes.

D. The pitch of neither wave changes.
Copyrightby TheBerkeley Review
the pipes.
42
52. A 450 Hz tuning fork shows a beat frequency of 12 Hz

with another tuning fork. The other tuning fork has:
49.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A 50-dB noise is how much farther away from its

sound source than a 100-dB noise?
A. 40 times farther away.
no definite frequency.
a frequency of 438 Hz and 462 Hz.
a frequency of 444 Hz or 456 Hz.
a frequency of 438 Hz or 462 Hz.
B. 160 times farther away.

C. 316 times farther away.
D. 10,000 times farther away.
50.
A bat uses a sonic chirp to echolocate nearby small

insects in the hopes of feeding upon them. What would
be the effect of putting a piece of glass between a bat
and its prey? The bat would:
A. not perceive a difference in the prey's location.

B. perceive the prey as farther away.
C. perceive the prey as closer.
D.
detect a reflection of itself.
51. When sound initially traveling from a source on the left

strikes the following barriers and echoes back, what is
observed for the various echoes?
ha*+
Air
Ro(
Water
AAAA/1mmmm
Echo I
Ef-;\
vAAA/fclK
Echo II
A. techo II = 2(techo i); echoes I and II have the same
1. D
intensity.
B. techo II = 2(techo l)5 echo I has a greater intensity

than echo II.
C. teCho II > 2(techo i); echo I has a greater intensity

than echo II.
D. techo II < 2(techo l)J echo I has a greater intensity

than echo II.
43
3. D
4.
5. D
6.
7. C
8.
9. A
10.
11. B
12.
13. C
14.
15. A
16.
17. D
18. D
19. A
20.
21. C
22.
23. C
24.
25. C
26.
27. B
28.
29. C
30.
31. D
32.
33. A
34. A
35. C
36.
37. C
38.
39. D
40.
41. D
42.
43. A
44.
45. C
46.
47. B
48.
51. D
52. D
49. C
2.
50.
YOU ARE DONE.
Answers to 52-Question Sound and Doppler Effect Exam

Sound Intensity
Choice D is the best answer. It was stated in the passage that the intensity of sound in a liquid is higher than the intensity of
the same sound in a gas. Since sound does not exist in a vacuum, there is no sound intensity in a vacuum, either. Taking both
statements into account, it is apparent that either choice C or choice D is the best answer, because they both involve liquids.
Looking at the intensity equation given in the passage, we should notice that sound intensity is proportional to the square root
of the density of the medium through which it travels. A medium with higher density transmits sound with a higher sound
intensity as well. Since mercury is denser than water, the intensity is greater in mercury than in water. The best answer is
choice D.
Choice A is the best answer. Sound waves are always longitudinal waves, so choices C and D can be eliminated
immediately. When sound (longitudinal) waves enter a medium that has a larger bulk modulus, the velocity of these waves
increases. If you recall the wave equation v = Xf, then you know that as the velocity of a wave increases, so does its
wavelength, assuming that frequency is constant. Both the speed and the wavelength of sound waves must be greater in the
liquid than in air. The best answer is choice A.
Choice D is the best answer. Although one frequency may penetrate farther into a medium than another, sound waves of all
frequencies move at the same speed in a given medium. For this reason, sound waves of all of the frequencies mentioned in
the question move at the same speed in water. The best answer is choice D.
Choice B is the best answer. The intensity of a sound wave decreases as the inverse squareof its distance from the source.
Looking at the equation I = P/A = P/4jrr2, you should be able to deduce that as the radius increases by a factor of 3, the
intensity decreases by a factor of 9. The best answer is choice B.
Choice D is the best answer. If a frequency of 1010 Hz were also emitted, all of the frequencies mentioned would be beat
frequencies: /Beat = l/l - ft- Typically, beat frequency problems discuss only waves of nearby frequency, which may have
led you to pick choice A. A beat is just an interference effect between two waves, regardless of their frequency. The best
answer is choice D.
Choice Cis the best answer. 7.5 x 10"30 Jof sound energy could not be measured in asound wave of 1500 Hz if the energy
of one phonon were 1.0 x lO'30 J, because 7.5 x 10"30 J is not a whole number multiple of 1.0 x 10"30 J. All of the other
amounts of energy are whole number multiples of the energy of one phonon, 1.0 x 10"30 J and thus could be measured in a
sound wave of 1500 Hz if the appropriate number of phonons were present. For instance, choice B is possible, because five
1500 Hz phonons collectively could sum to 5.0 x 10"30 J, making choice B a viable amount of total energy. The best
answer is choice C.

7.
Propagation of Sound
Choice C is the best answer. Let's consider what is happening when a sound wave, incident in some Medium 1, reflects off
of some Medium 2:
'incident ) J
Medium 1
Medium 2
((
'refelcted
-*
ci
We hear the echo after the reflected wave returns to the incident wave's starting point. By the time t has elapsed, the waves
have traveled a distance 2d at some speed v. We are told v = 1570 m/s (for flesh), and t = 10"5 s. We are solving for d in an
equation that reads: "total distance = speed x time." This is 2d = vt. Solving for d yields:
d_(l.57x ii;-'^3 "/sXl

m if) 5s) _(.0157 m)
2
The answer has to be less than .0157 m (choice A), so rule it out. The only possible remaining choices are C and D, but
choice D is .00157 (a factor of 10 smaller the .0157). Thus, choice D is also eliminated. The best answer is choice C.
44
REVIEW EXAM EXPLANATIONS
8.
Choice C is the best answer. In the passage, we are told that sound (incident in a Medium 1) will not reflect much from
Medium 2, if the densities of the two media are close in value to each other:
Reflected _[Plvl -P2V2

Wident Wl+P2V2
But we can answer this problem without resorting to the equation. The conceptual information in the passage is sufficient.
Why is choice C the best answer? Urine's density is close to that of water. The bladder's density is close to that of flesh.
From the chart in the passage, water and flesh also have densities that are close to each other. This should make sense, since
human bodies are just "bags of mostly water." Thus, the reflections between the urine and bladder wall are tiny (even though
they are detectable). All of the other choices have two media of very different densities: bone and flesh, gas and flesh, stone
and flesh. These media all give good reflections, so none of them is the best answer. The best answer is choice C.
9.
Choice A is the best answer. Sound waves travel faster through flesh than they do through water, and faster through water
than they do through air. Thus, the numbers we want are in decreasing order (for air, water, and flesh), eliminating choice D.
Choice B is incorrect, because the numbers are arranged in an increasing order. Choice C has the correct order, but the
magnitudes of the numbers are wrong. For example, it should take very little time for sound to travel 5 cm in air. This choice
says that it takes 1.5 x 10"1 sec. If that were true, it would take around 1 second for sound to travel 1 m. That violates
physical intuition. Thus, rule out choice C. We could have multiplied out all of the numbers, but it takes a longer time than
using physical intuition. The best answer is choice A.
10.
Choice B is the best answer. The oscilloscope traces look like this:
I
detector on left side
detector on right side
The detector on the left side of the head: We see the midline echoafter a short time. If the midline echo were in the middle of
the plot (i.e., halfof the time to hear the "right side of the skull echo"), then the midline would be in the middle of the head.
But since we see the echo sooner than that, the midline must be closer to the left side of the skull than to the right side.
The detector on the right side of the head: This plot confirms our suspicions about the first plot. Since vve see the midline
echo at a fairly late time in this plot, it must mean than the midline is farther from the right side than it is from the left side.
The conclusion is that the patient has brain hemispheres of unequal size, the right hemisphere being larger than the left
hemisphere. The best answer is choice B.
11.
Choice B is correct. To understand this answer, let's see how a wave behaves when it hits some object. Here are two cases:
a boat being hit by waves, where the wavelength of the waves is smaller than the size of the boat; and a buoy being hit by the
same waves, where the buoy size is smaller than the wavelength of the waves.
waves
buoy
O-
boat's
shadow
buoy's
shadow
6<X
d>X
Notice how you can see a "shadow" of the boat in the water, but you cannot see much of a "shadow" for the buoy. This
behavior applies to all waves: water, sound, or light. Ultrasonic waves do not allow you to see objects that are smaller than
the wavelength of the sound, which is found using the equation v = fX. Thus, X= \/f. Bysubstitution, we get:
X =
1570 m/s _ 1.57 x 103 m/s

157,000 Hz
0.01 m=
1 cm
L57x 105 1
Using the math works fine here. However, we could have eliminated some of the answers without math. Choice D is invalid.
It states that there is no limit to what the ultrasound at 157,000 Hz can "see." If that were true, you could see individual
atoms with your eyes. Your eyes see light with wavelengths of around 10"7 m, and atoms are about 10"10 min size.
Choice C is incorrect. It says that this typical ultrasound device cannot resolve anything with a diameter less than 1 m. If this
were true, then ultrasound devices at this frequency would be useless. The best answer is choice B.
45
Passage HI (Questions 12 -17)
Bat Echolocation
12. Choice C is the best answer. Let's find the approximate time by assuming the bat and bug are not moving. We ignore their
motion, because incorporating it into a calculation is hard, and because their slow motion (relative to the sound speed) won't
affect our answer much. Using Decho travels = Vsoundtecho travels- and noting that Dech0 travels = 2(17 m) = 34 m gives an echo
time of 0.1 sec. The actual time should be slightly shorter because the two creatures are approaching one another. This is
choice C. If you forgot that the echoing sound must travel to the bug and back, you probably picked choice A. The best
answer is choice C.
13. Choice C is the best answer. When doubling the distance r from an isotropic sound source, the intensity / becomes 74 as
strong because / 7r2. However, the intensity level, fi, does not drop by this amount. Because intensity should drop, choice
D is incorrect. To figure out the amount by which fi drops, recall that dividing the intensity by 10 is equivalent to subtracting
10 from the intensity level. If / became /io,h as its original value, fi would be 25dB - lOdB = 15dB. Since / doesn't drop
quite that much,fi should be larger than 15dB. This points to choice C. If you want to be a little more quantitative, we know
the intensity drops by a factor of four. Decibels are measured on a log scale, and log 4 is 0.6, which means 10 (log 4) = 6. The
intensity should drop by 6dB, resulting in an intensity of 19dB. The best answer is choice C.
14. Choice B is the best answer. Since the bug and bat approach each other, the reflected frequency should exceed the emitted
frequency. This rules out choices C and D. Since the bug speed is very small compared to the speed of sound, the increase in
the reflected frequency should be very small. This points to choice B. The math is as follows:
ft - (v +v0 fc ... L_ = v+vt = v+0.001 v = 1.001 v

(v-vt)
/e
v - v,
v - 0.001 v
1.002, a 0.2% increase
0.999 v
15. Choice A is the best answer. When arw. wave travels from one medium into another, its frequency remains the same. The
only case where the frequency of the wave changes is when the sender or receiver are moving relative to one another, which is
not the case here. This rules outchoices C and D. Since v =/A, an increased speed v means an increased wavelength A(when/
is fixed). The best answer is choice A.
16. Choice B is the best answer. Echolocation, as described in the passage for a bat, involves analyzing the reflected wave for
frequency shifts and echo time. Because the wave reflects off a moving target, it experiences a Doppler shift. This means that
the frequency and wavelength are varied. This eliminates choices A and D. The target must be in motion relative to the
analyzer, so the speed of the object definitely plays a role. This eliminates choice C. The only thing that does not occur is a
shift in the wave speed. That is observed when the medium changes, which is not the case in echolocation for a bat (which
remains in the air during the process). In reality, because temperature fluctuates in fluid mediums, wave speeds do change as
they pass through thermal pockets within a medium. However, that is not described in the echolocation procedure used by a
bat. The best answer is choice B.
17. Choice D is the best answer. The highest reflected frequency results from the largest Doppler shift. The Doppler shift is
greatest when the objects are moving towards one another at the highest possible speed. This eliminates choices A and B. In
choice D, the two creatures are flying towards one another, so their separation distance is decreasing faster than in choice C,
where they are flying in the same direction. The best answer is choice D.
Questions 18 - 21
18.
Choice D is the best answer. Using a bitof common sense and common experience will lead you directly to choice D. All
of the frequencies on the plots are within our hearing range, but they are different in describing how sounds of different
frequencies are propagated. Choice C is incorrect: It says that at some frequency ranges, v = 0 (i.e., sound waves do noteven
propagate). If that were the case, then as someone sang a series of notes ranging from a low pitch to a high pitch, there would
be a range of sounds not heard. This does not happen. Choice B is incorrect: It says that sounds of low pitch travel much
faster than sounds of high pitch. If this were true, then you would hear sounds having a higher frequency first when listening
to a distant sound. Since you can hear and usually recognize someone speaking from a distance, and since voices combine
several frequencies, this variation in wave speed with changing frequency must not happen. Choice A is also incorrect: It
says that the speed varies with frequency in some periodic fashion. This would garble talk and other sounds, and it is
therefore not likely to be a genuine physical phenomenon. The best answer is choice D.
46
19.
Choice A is the best answer. The pitch of a sound you hear is the perceptual correlate of the frequency of that sound wave.
The siren at rest has a fixed frequency for the sound it emits. When the source is approaching, the waves get compressed, and
thus its perceived frequency increases. This means that an approaching siren has the greatest frequency (highest pitch) of the
different frequencies in the question. Only choice A lists the approaching frequency as the highest. The best answer is
choice A.
20.
Choice D is the best answer. When the cars are moving in the same direction with the same speed, their relative speed is
zero. Therefore, each car hears 400 Hz coming from its own horn and also from the other car's horn. Because there is no
difference between the frequencies, there will be no beats. In choices A, B, and C, the cars have different speeds, so their
horns will emit waves that are shifted differently, and thus there would be beats and thus a beat frequency. The best answer
is choice D.
21.
Choice C is the best answer. The question asks for the graph that BEST represents the frequency of a sound wave emitted
from a closed pipe as a function of the length of the pipe? Let's consider the answer choices:
A.
B.
C.
D.
>>
a
u
3
~
-J
Length (L)
Length (L)
Length (L)
Length (L)
Frequency,/, and pipe length, L, are related through / = nv/4L- This means that/is proportional to 7^, so as one increases,
the other value must decrease, eliminating choice B. The relationship is an inverse one, which is represented by an
asymptotic curve, choice C. The best answer is choice C.
Sound Experiment

22.
Choice B is the best answer. What is the wavelength of the sound produced by the tuning fork in Trial 3? To get the
wavelength of this sound, we could resort to the golden rule for waves, v = fX. Solving for wavelength gives X= vlj. The
only problem is that vve do not know the sound speed, v. We could combine ?*. = v/f with / = nwl^.Taking n = 1and solving
for the wavelength gives X = 4L. L is the length of the air column, which is the height of the tube minus the height of the
water. For Trial 3, L = 12.5 cm. Therefore, the wavelength is X = 4L = 50 cm. The best answer is B.
23.
Choice C is the best answer. How would the experiment have to be changed, if the same results were desired in a room
heated to a temperature of 25 C? Since the same measured frequencies are desired, the same tuning forks should be used
(heating the forks by 5 C would not noticeably change their frequencies). This rules out choices A and B. Heating the room
increases the speed of sound in air. Using the equation given in the passage (/ = nv/4L, with n set equal to 1) shows that the
air column length L must increase by the same percentage as the sound speed, if the same frequencies are to resonate. This
means that the water height must be lowered. The best answer is choice C.
24.
Choice C is the best answer. How does the speed of sound in Trial 5, V5, compare with the speed of sound in Trial 3, V3?
The speed of sound is governed by the medium, which in this case is air. Since the air temperature is a constant 20C
throughout the experiment, we conclude that the speed of sound is also constant for the experiment. This means V5 = V3. The
only way to change the speed of sound in an ideal gas is to change its temperature or pressure. We are assuming air behaves
as an ideal gas at room temperature. The best answer is choice C.
25.
Choice C is the best answer. The important feature that allows the experiment to work is that there is a phase difference that
creates an interface at which the sound wave reflects. Choices A and D are both gases. The original experiment is carried out
with a gas (20 C air) above the water and should work whether the gas is 0 C or 100 C, invalidating both choices. If the
space above the water is filled with either a solid or liquid, sound can still propagate through both media. However, if the
medium is 20 C water, there will be no interface, and thus there will be no wave reflection at the water level measured in the
experiment. Wave reflection requires an interface between two media that propagate sound at different speeds. If that
difference is not present, there is no reflection, which precludes any resonance other than that involving the entire tube
length. The best answer is choice C.
47
26. Choice A is the best answer. In Trial 5, the height of the water was 75.0 cm. The tuning fork from which other trial could be
used to produce a resonance for a water height of 75.0 cm? If the water height is 75.0 cm, the height of the air column must be
25.0 cm. Which other tuning fork could have a resonance with an air column of 25.0 cm? The relation that must be satisfied is:
/ = nv/4j. The tuning fork for Trial 1 had an aircolumn of L = 8.3 cm. If this length were multiplied by 3, we would get 25
cm. This means the tuning fork for Trial 1 can resonate with a water height of 75.0 cm. A picture might clarify the situation:
air column vibrating
air column vibrating
in mode n = 1
in mode n = 3
The frequency in Trial 1 happens to be 3 times the frequency in Trial 5. The tuning fork in Trial 1 fits three-quarters of a
wavelength into the air column, while the tuning fork for Trial 5 fits one-quarter of a wavelength into the air column. The best
answer is choice A.
27. Choice B is the best answer. Suppose the tuning fork in Trial 4 were measured to have a sound intensity level of 50 dB. If a
second, identical tuning fork were struck and brought near the first fork, together they would have an intensity that is doubled
that of a single tuning fork. The question is how this will affect the intensity level in terms of decibels. Because their combined
intensity I is twice that of a single tuning fork, we can use a value twice as large in the intensity level calculation.
Intensity level = (10 dB) log f-L

Now we double the intensity and see how it changes the intensity level:
Intensity level =(10 dB) logftL] =(lOdB) (log-L+log 2)

Vol
'o
Intensity level = (10 dB) log-L + (10 dB) log 2

The intensity level for two tuning forks is the intensity level for one tuning fork plus (10 dB)(log 2), which is about 3 dB. So
the intensity level is 50 dB + 3 dB = 53 dB.
Such math can be avoided, ifyou remember the following trick regarding decibel levels: If the intensity of a sound increases by
a factor of 10, the decibel level increases by +10 dB. Since the intensity increases by a factor of only 2, the intensity level must
increase by less than +10 dB. This eliminates choices C and D. Choice A is out, because we know the intensity level had to
increase to some degree. The best answer is choice B.
28.
Jet Radar
Choice D is the best answer. When using active radar (such as a radar gun), the wave reflected from a moving object is in
fact doubly compressed, which leads to a double Doppler shift. This makes choice A valid, so eliminate it. A reference beam
is needed to compare how much the wave has shifted. This makes choice B valid, so eliminate it. The gun operates while
stationary or in motion. But when in motion, the speed of the emitter must be factored in. If the speed is analyzed by
comparing the wave reflected from a moving object with the wave reflected from a stationary object, then the motion of the
gun subtracts out. This makes choice C valid, so eliminate it. The best electromagnetic radiation is one that can travel far and
not be much affected by absorbance, refraction, or dispersion. The longer the EM wavelength, the better it is for use in radar.
This means that UV, with a short wavelength, would not work well. In addition, it would be expensive and dangerous to send
out a signal of such high energy. For practical purposes, communication bands and radar are found at the low-energy/longwavelength end of the electromagnetic spectrum. The best answer is D.
29.
Choice C is the best answer. As stated in the passage, radar uses radio waves, so radar waves they are electromagnetic
waves (which are transverse waves, not longitudinal waves). This eliminates choices A and B. Electromagnetic waves can
travel through a vacuum, so radarcan function in a vacuum. In fact, it will operate very well in a vacuum, because there is no
refraction, absorption, or reflection to affect the signal. The best answer is choice C.
48
30.
Choice B is the best answer. The velocity of an object reflecting the wave emitted by a radar gun can be determined by
comparing the frequency of the emitted wave with the frequency of the reflected wave. Note that the returning wave is
doubly compressed by the moving object when it is reflected. This means that the velocity can be found by knowing the
incident frequency and the reflected frequency. None of the choices say this outright, as they all refer to beat frequency. Two
consecutive reflected waves have the same frequency, so there is no beat frequency. This eliminates choice A. The wave
reflected from a stationary object will not be Doppler-shifted, so it will have the same frequency as the emitted signal. This
signal can be compared to the compressed reflected wave to obtain a beat frequency, and thus the velocity of the object.
Choice B is the best answer. Choice C is eliminated, because the beat frequency would again be zero. Choice D is
eliminated, because the velocity determined from the comparison of the waves reflected from two separate, moving sources
is the relative speed. This can also be applied to eliminate choice C. The best answer is choice B.
31.
Choice D is the best answer. The smallest object would be hardest to observe in motion, because the wavelength may be too
long to be reflected by the object. The smallest of the objects is the flying insect, so its velocity is the hardest to measure. As
a note, bats use a radar homing system: the squeak emitted by a bat has a frequency that is high enough to detect flying
insects. The best answer is choice D.
32.
Choice D is the best answer. This question requires memory, derivation, or intuition. The shift in frequency is going to be
less than the frequency itself in most cases, so choices A and B seem unreasonable. Choice D is better than choice C, given
that the wave is doubly compressed (double Doppler-shifted) when it is reflected from a moving object. If you do not buy
this approach, then a derivation must be used.
For the first shift, when the wave strikes the movingobject, the object will encounter a wave that has been shifted as follows:
_.
,.., c
First shift: /object =
vo + vobject r
/incident
vo
For the second shift, when the wave leaves the moving object, the object reflects a compressed wave that has been Dopplershifted as follows:
, ,-r r
Second shift: /detected =
vn
vo " vobject
J object =
vn
/v0 + Vobject\t
vo " vobject V
"
v0
_/vo + v0bject\ ,
J incident - (-
\ v0 - v0bject/
J incident
The shift in frequency is the difference between the doubly shifted frequency and /incident- where v0 is c, the /incident is /o.
and v is the speed of the object.
A/ =(^)/o-/o=/o(^-l)=/c(^-|tf) =/c(^)-/o(2f)
Questions 33 - 36
33.
Choice A is the best answer. This is a question of pattern recognition more than anything else. Let's start by considering the
differences between the frequencies rather than the frequencies themselves. 159 differs from 53 by 106 Hz, 265 differs from
159 by 106 Hz, and 371 differs from 265 by 106 Hz, so we see a repeated difference of 106 Hz. From this point, let's look
for a common denominator for the values as well as 106. All of the numbers are divisible by 53 and not 106, so 53 Hz must
be the fundamental frequency. This eliminates choice Cand D. If we divide 53 Hz into the four values listed, vve get 1, 3, 5,
and 7. These are all odd numbers, so we must be dealing with a closed pipe rather than an open pipe. Choice B is eliminated.
34.
Choice A is the best answer. The depth finder can detect differences in the objects, if their echoes are different in transit
time and duration. Bouncing off a rocky bottom, the signal will return to the boat with approximately the same duration as
the emitted sound. Rocky bottoms are hard, and they reflect sound waves well. The addition of a "watery silt" does not
change this reflection much. Remember that above the silt is water. Since sound reflections occur when there are abrupt
changes in the sound speed between two adjacent media, there is little reflection at the water-silt interface. Therefore, Objects
I and II cannot be easily distinguished, ruling out choice B. As for the school of fish, sound would reflect from all of them.
The echo, therefore, will be a diffuse reflection of the emitted pulse-now longer in duration and different in timbre. It will be
a noticeably different echo than that arriving from the rocky bottom. The best answer is choice A.
35.
Choice C is the best answer. Red shift implies that the visible light is shifted toward the red end of the visible spectrum,
radiation of a lower-energy frequency, and therefore a longer wavelength, than the light. As stated in the question, red shift is
attributed to a planet moving away from the observer. Blue shift implies that the light is shifted to a more energetic
frequency, which implies that the wavelength has been compressed. This is because the planet (object) is moving towards the
observer. The best answer is choice C.
49
36.
Choice B is the best answer. A longitudinal wave is one in which the vibrating motion of the particles in a medium is
parallel to the motion of the wave itself. For a sound wave in air, the air molecules vibrate back and forth in the same
direction as the direction in which the wave is traveling. The best answer is choice B.
Organ Pipes
Passage VI (Questions 37 42)

37.
Choice C is the best answer. The harmonics of a pipe are found as /n = n(/j), so harmonics are even multiples of the first
harmonic (fundamental frequency). A beat frequency is the difference in frequency between two waves, so if we subtract
multiples from one another, the resulting number is also a multiple. It comes down to this: /beat = '/a /b' = na(/l) - nb(/l)
= (na - nb)(/i). This means that the beat frequency is a whole number multiple of the fundamental frequency, so it too is a
harmonic. Choice A is a valid statement and thereby eliminated. Choice B is a valid statement, because it defines the
harmonics based on their fundamental frequency. Choice C is invalid, because as the harmonic number increases, the
wavelength gets shorter, not longer. The equation is incorrect for wavelength, so choice C is invalid and the best answer. As
seen in Equation 1, the length of the pipe definitely impacts the harmonics. The diameter may or may not according to the
lack of information in the passage, so we can only conclude that length means more than width.
statement, and thereby eliminated. The best answer is choice C.
38.
Choice D is a valid
Choice A is the best answer. The fundamental mode of a pipe open on both ends has a wavelength that is shorter than that
in a pipe of equal length open only at one end. Since v = /A, the doubly open-ended pipe (pipe //l) should have a higher
frequency than pipe 1/2. This rules out choices C and D. The wavelengths of the fundamental modes of the two pipes differ
by a factor of 2, so the ratio should be 2:1. Choice A is the bestanswer. You could also compare the formulas for closed and
open pipes and determine that /open : /closed = V/2L : V/4L = V2 : V4 =2 : 1, choice A. Athird method for solving this
question involves drawing the pictures. For a pipe open at both ends (like Pipe #1), a halfof a wave fits in the pipe. Fora
pipe open at one end and closed at the other end (like Pipe #2), a quarter of a wave fits in the pipe. Thus, the first harmonic
has a wavelength of 2L in Pipe #1 and a wavelength of 4L in Pipe #2. Having twice the wavelength results in half the
frequency, supporting choice A as the best choice of the four. The best answer is choice A.
39.
Choice D is the best answer. Changing the type of air could change the speed of sound. Lighter molecules (oratoms) lead
to a higher speed of sound, assuming all other factors remain unchanged. Being that H2 (2 amu) is lighter than He (4 amu),
sound travels faster in H2 than it travels in He. Since a higher speed of sound means a higher frequency, choices A and C are
incorrect. Based on v= /A, decreasing Awould tend to increase /. Since, shorter pipes result in a shorter sound wavelength,
choice D is the best answer. From the answer choices, you should conclude that using a less massive gas results in a faster
wave speed, because all of the choices involved a gas less massive than N2 and all of the choices dealt with a faster wave
speed (correlated with a high frequency). Perhaps you have experienced this when you breathed in helium and then talked as
you normally would talk. Your voice is of a higher pitch while it is mostly helium exiting your lung. The best answer is
choice D.
40.
Choice B is the best answer. For a gas, you might recall that v VTemperature . This comes from setting 3/2RT equal to
l/2mv2 and solving for the relationship between temperature and average particle speed. Given that the speed of sound
depends directly on the speed of the gas molecules, this means that the Tj:T2 ratio is equal to the vp:v22 ratio. Increasing
the temperature by 44% should lead to a new speed that is Vl + 0.44 (= 1.20) times the size of the original speed. This
means that the sound speed increases by .2 or 20%.
J_2 _ 1.44 _ v2
Tl
fX. =Vl.44 = 1.20
1.00
^ = 1.20, so v2 = 1.20(vi)
vl
41.
Choice D is the best answer. Meters!!! The length must be calculated using meters, not centimeters. That is the most
common mistake made on this problem. This question requires that you plug into Equation 1. The value are n = 3, v = 340
m/s, and L = 0.15 m. The math is solved as follows:
,-!> = 340^1 . 3400s-, = 3400 Hz
f m3^340m/s) m3-(340s-i)
2(0.15 m)
0.30
0.10
The best answer is choice D, 3400 Hz. The number seems viable, because 15 cm is pretty short, and from our experience,
shorter pipes generate sounds of a higher pitch. Sound ranges from about 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz, so a frequency of 3400 Hz
seems reasonable for something on the higherend of the musical rangeof pitches. The best answer is choice D.
50
42.
Choice D is the best answer. According to the data in the graph, the first three resonant frequencies are 85, 170, and 255 Hz.
To make the arithmetic as easy as possible, we use the equation / = nv/2h which can be manipulated to give: L= nv/2f =
Vhf r When the fundamental frequency // is85 Hz, v = 340 m/s, and n= 1, we get L= 2 m. The best answer ischoice D.

43.
Sound Resonance
Choice A is the best answer. If a string is held rigid at both ends, only standing waves with nodes at each end can be
generated on that string. The distance between consecutive nodes on a wave is half the wavelength, so the possible
wavelengths that can be generated on a string of length L can be written as:
n
where n is an integer. In a pipe open at both ends, the boundary condition is an antinode at each end of the pipe. The
distance between consecutive antinodes is half a wavelength, so the possible wavelengths for a pipe open at both ends are
also:
X = 2L
n
Thus, for a string tied at both ends and a pipe open at both ends with the same length, waves with the same wavelength will
be produced. Wavelength and frequency are related by wave speed, v = Xf. The wave speed for waves in pipes is the speed
of sound in air, -340 m/s. The wave speed of waves on a string depends on the tension in the string and the density of the
string. These two wave speeds are not necessarily equal. Therefore, the frequencies of the waves will likely be different.
44.
Choice B is the best answer. If the air temperature increases, the density of the air decreases (hot air is less dense than cold
air). In general, wave speed, v, is related to density, p by:
U -
The speed of sound therefore increases if the air temperature increases. However, the wave speed of a wave on a string is not
affected by temperature (thermal expansion of the string is being neglected). Wavelength, frequency, and wave speed are
related by v = Xf. If we ignore any thermal expansion of the pipe and the string, then the wavelength of the waves produced
in the string and the pipe do not change. For a string, the changing temperature does not affect the wave speed. The
wavelength remains the same, so the frequency does not change. For the pipe, the wave speed increases with increasing
temperature. The wavelength is unaffected, so the frequency must also increase. Note that you do not need to know the
exact relationship between wave speed and density to answer this question, but you do need to know that wave speed is in
some way inversely related to density of the medium. The best answer is choice B.
45.
Choice C is the best answer. Although the wave on the string was originally produced on the string, the reason such a wave
can be heard at all is because this wave causes the air to vibrate at the same frequency as the string wave. It is this wave that
reaches the ear. Thus, the wave on the string and the wave produced in the pipe will produce a beat frequency. The best
answer is choice C.
46.
Choice D is the best answer. For strings tied at both ends, and a pipe closed at one end, the respective possible frequencies
are:
/ = Jl-V- (string tied at both ends)
/ = -B-Y- (pipe closed at one end)

4L
2L
Because of the4 in the denominator for the pipeand the 2 in the denominator for the string, one might be tempted to say that
the pipe will always produce a higher frequency, but that is true if the wave speeds are equal, or if the wave speed on the
string is less than the speed of sound in air. We need to know something about the two wave speeds before we can answer
this question. Without knowing that information, it cannot besolved definitively. The best answer is choice D.
47.
Choice B is the best answer. Pipes closed at one end and open at the other must have a node at the closed end and an
antinode at the open end. Theses are the boundary conditions for the waves produced in pipes closed at one end. If a way
could be found to duplicate these same boundary conditions on a string, then the waves in the pipe and the waves on the
string would have the same shape. How could the boundary conditions be duplicated? Tie the string down at one end and
leave the other end free to move. The tied end has to be a node and the free end has to be an antinode. The best answer is
choice B.
Copyright by The Berkeley Review0
51
48.
Choice B is the best answer. A sound wave is a propagation of energy through a medium. The waves produced in pipes
travel through air. However, there is no air in a vacuum, so no wave can be produced in the pipe. A wave can be produced
on the string, however, because the string is the medium. The string can be plucked and set into vibrational motion. Could
you hear this wave? The best answer is choice B.
Questions 49 - 52
49.
Choice C is the best answer. The intensity of a sound is related to the distance r of one perceiving it from the sound source
by the equation I 1/r2. We know from the equation in the passage that the intensity of a 100-dB noise is 100,000 times
greater than the intensity of a 50-dB noise. V100,000 is 316.2, so choice C is the best answer. A good approximation to
follow is that the decibel level of a sound drops by 10 dB every time the distance from the source triples. A drop of 50 dB
results from anincrease indistance of approximately 35. The best answer is choice C.
50.
Choice C is the best answer. The bat detects its possible prey and the location of that prey by bouncing sound waves off it.
Since sound can bounce off glass, the bat could detect the glass and believe that the prey is actually at the location of the
glass. (Note that this assumes the obviously very hungry bat interprets the glass as prey.) Since the glass is closer than the
actual prey, the bat believes the prey is closer than it actually is. The best answer is choice C.
51.
Choice D is the best answer. This is a two-in-one question, which is quite common on the MCAT. First, let's consider the
intensity of the echo. Let's start by saying that the initial sound wave has 100% intensity. At the air-rock interface, someof
that wave reflects back (generating the first echo) and some refracts into the rock. The sound that enters the rock will
continue on and strikethe rock-water interface, where it will partially reflectand partlyrefract. The reflected wave will travel
back tothe rock-air interface, where again some ofthe wave will reflect and some will refract The portion that refracts goes
on to beEcho II. Because Echo I results from reflection offa surface with of greater density, thereflected wave will be more
intense than the refracted wave. As such, Echo I must be more intense than Echo II. This eliminates choice A.
Now letsconsider the travel timefor eachecho. The total distance traveled by Echo I is 2d while the total distance traveled
by Echo II is 4d. If both echoes travel at the same speed, then the time for Echo II should be exactly twice that of Echo I.
However, the speed of sound isfaster in a solid than it isin air, soEcho II will have a greater average speed than Echo I. So
despite traveling twice the distance, because Echo II travels at a greater average speed, it will take less time than double that
of Echo I. The best answer is choice D.
52.
Choice D is the best answer. A beat frequency results from the interference of two waves with different frequencies.
Fortunately, the math that goes with a beat frequency is simple. The beat frequency is simply the difference between the two
frequencies. Ifone tuning fork has afrequency of450 Hz and the beat frequency is 12 Hz, then the other tuning fork must be
either 12 Hzgreater OR 12Hzless. This would lead to potential frequencies of 438 Hzor 462 Hz, not 438 Hzand 462 Hz.If
you didn't read the answer choices carefully, which could happen when you're in a hurry oron your last question and ready
for it to be over, thenyou mighthave mistakenly chosen choice B. The best answer is choice D.
52
Fluids and
Solids
Physics Chapter 7
fc
fY"*Vw
Ruid flows fastest through

the middle of a pipe
"\ With same AP between ends of
1) _>
J pipe, there is less molecule-to-
vf"*^
_/
molecule pushing, so Q is reduced.
With same AP between ends of pipe,
and same L, there is a bigger wall of
fluid moving, so Q is increased.
by
the
Berkeley Review
Fluids and Solids

P2 = Pi + pgAh (for a standing fluid)

V displaced
__ Pobject
v^~7 " Pmedium (for afloating object)

APttr4
Q =
A1V1 = A2v2
8t|L
Ffiuoyant = Pmedium*Vmedium displaced by the objecfg

W _
Pobject
Pmedium (for a sunken object)
Pi + V2PV12 + pghi = P2 + !/2pv22 + pgh2
Important Concept
Poiseuille's law describes the flow of an ideal fluid through a pipe(many questions involve blood flow)
Point 1
Point 2
A1v1=A2v2 = A3v3
.". v2 is fastest and vj = v3
Point 3
k=Pagainst walls + /2Pv2 +Pgn

.. P2 is lowest and Pj = P3
IfAPf,thenQf and .*. v t
AS V1, "agajugt wajjs j
^ âgainst walls i too HlUCh, then

vessel can potentially collapse
Buoyancy Questions Approach

First determine whether the object floats or sinks in the medium
For an objectthat floats:
Relative densities =%Submerged

^displaced _ Pobject
object
Pmedium
<
11
*object > vdisplaced' Pobject < Pmedium
For an objectthat sinks:
Relative densities =W-to-FBuoyant ratio

W _ Pobject'Vpbject'g _ Pobject
B
Pmedium'Vobject'g
Pmedium
W > B; Pobject > Pmedium
r,_^
WJpfecfe
Physics
Fluids and Solids
Fluid Properties
Fluids and Solids

In chemistry we consider the physical state of matter when analyzing its
behavior. Rather than considering the phase of matter as we do in chemistry, in
physics we shall consider simply whether the material can flow or not. This is
what distinguishes a fluid from a solid.
Fluid Properties
By definition, a fluid is any matter that flows. This means that liquids (such as
water) and gases (such as air) are both considered to be fluids. On a macroscopic
scale, these two fluids are involved in the majority of the weather patterns in our
planet's atmosphere. On a microscopic scale, they are also involved in the
maintenance of living organisms. In this section, we will look at both fluid statics
(the physics of stationary fluids) and fluid dynamics (the physics of fluids in
motion). Newton's laws will help us obtain a firm understanding of the topics
that we will discuss.
Density and Specific Gravity

The density p (p is the Greek letter rho) of a material is defined as the mass m of a
material per unit volume V. This is shown in equation (7.1). The SI units for
density are kg/m3. When all other factors are held constant, the density ofa fluid
will remain the same as long as its volume does not change, given that the mass
of a material is constant unless some matter is gained or lost.
p _ mass _ m_
volume
(7.1)
Table 7-1 lists the densities of various substances (both solid and liquid) in
kg/m3. To express these values ing/cm3, divide by 103.
Liquids
Solids
Density
Material
Aluminum
(kg/m3)
2.70 x 103
Material
Gases
Density
Density
(kg/m3) Material
(kg/m3)
Ethyl alcohol 0.79 x 103 Hydrogen (0C)
0.09
Iron
7.88 x 103
Gasoline
0.82 x 103
Helium (0C)
Copper
8.96 x 103
Benzene
0.88 x 103
Nitrogen (0C)
1.25
Silver
10.5 xlO3
Water
1.00 xlO3
Air(30C)
1.16
Gold
19.3 x 103
Sea water
1.03 x 103
Air(20C)
1.21
Platinum
21.4 xlO3
Whole blood
1.06 x 103
Air (0C)
1.29
Osmium
22.6 x 103
Mercury
13.6 x 103
Oxygen
1.43
Moon
3.35 x 103
Earth
5.52 x 103
Neutron Star
Sun
0.18
1400
1.00 xlO17
Table 7-1
55
PhysiCS
Fluids and Solids
Fluid Properties
Example 7.1a
Two equal masses of liquid and solid water have volumes of 5.00 mL and 5.45
mL, respectively. The ratio of the density of the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
liquid water to that of the solid water is 0.083 to 1.

solid water to that of the liquid water is 0.083 to 1.
liquid water to that of the solid water is 0.917 to 1
solid water to that of the liquid water is 0.917 to 1.
Solution
Liquid water is denser than solid water, because it occupies less volume for an
equal mass as the solid. So the bigger number should be associated with liquid
water in the ratio. That rules out choices A and C. Next, is ice that much less
dense than liquid water? Not really. If you look into a cup of iced water, the ice
cubes do float (indicating they are less dense than the liquid), but they floatwith
a very small amount of ice above the liquid's surface. Therefore, liquid water
cannot be ten times denser then ice, as choice B indicates. Their densities must be
close to 1 to 1. This points to choice D as the best choice.
A more formal way to do any ratio problem is to use the ratio technique. Since we
want a ratio of densities, we identify the appropriate density formula and write it
once for each situation of interest. Here, the relevant formula is equation (7.1),
since we are told about mass and volume. Next, find the ratio by dividing one
equation into the other. Our division looks like this:
PflzPO) - ml\ _ Vs _ 5.45

ms/Vs
Vj
5.00
PH20(s)
The masses cancel each other out, because they are the same. At this point, look
to see which answer is the closest to the ratio here. 5.45 is bigger than 5.00,
indicating that the bigger number should be on the water side of the answer.
This, again, rules out choices A and C. Next, the two numbers are not all that
different, making choice D the more attractive of the remaining choices. Always
minimize the amount of arithmetic you do for a problem by conceptually
approximating the answer.
Example 7.1b
Ten mL each of pure water and saltwater have densities of 1.00 g/mL and 1.03
g/mL, respectively. The ratio ofthemass ofpure water to that ofsaltwater is:
A. 1 to 1.03.
B. 1.03 to 1.
C. 0.03 to 1.
D. 1 to 0.03.
Solution
Saltwater is denser than pure water, so an equal volume of saltwater is more
massive (weighs more) than an equal volume of pure water. So the bigger
number should be on the right side of the ratio. That rules out choices B and D.
Saltwateris just slightly denser than pure water, so the ratio of the masses should
be relatively close to 1:1. The ratio of the masses could not be as large as choice
C indicates, which points to choiceA as the best answer.
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Fluids and Solids
Fluid Properties
The specific gravity of a material is defined as the ratio of its density to the
density of water at 4 C. Specific gravity is also called the relative density
(probably due to the fact that "specific gravity" really has nothing to do with
gravity). If a given material has a density p, then its relative density prelative 0-e.,
specificgravity) can be given by equation (7.2):
Specific gravity
Prelative =-&&**&
(7.2)
PH2Q at 4C
Pressure and Pascal's Principle

Pressure is force exerted per unit area. More precisely, as shown in equation
(7.3), it is the componentof a force F that acts perpendicularly to a surface of area
A, divided by that surface area. This is because the parallel component of F does
not press into the surface, and therefore it applies no pressure.
P=^
(7.3)
For a given force, a smaller contact area produces a greater pressure. This is why
a sharp knife, with its smaller contact area, cuts (i.e., exceeds a critical pressure)
more easily than a dull knife. Needles are designed with this principle in mind.
The SI unit of pressure is the pascal (Pa), which is equivalent to N/m2. The
pascal is an extremely small unit, so it is impractical for describing atmospheric
conditions. We generally use the units of atmosphere and mmHg (also known as
a torr) to measure everyday pressures.
The pressure of a fluid can vary with elevation. For example, if you hike to the
top of a high mountain, you should notice a decrease in the air pressure.
Similarly, if you have ever been diving under water, you have surely felt an
increase in the water pressure on your body (especially in your ears and sinuses).
An analogy can be made between pressure variation with depth and the stacking
of pennies. Suppose that each penny represents a thin layer of air. If we place a
single penny on a table, then the only pressure on that penny comes from the air
above it. If we place a second penny on top of the first penny, then the first
penny is supporting not only the penny above it, but also the air above that
second penny. The more pennies we stack on top of the first penny, the greater
the pressure that first penny experiences (Figure 7-1). This simply tells us that
pressure is additive.
Column
of air
First penny
Figure 7-1
57
Physics
Fluid Properties
Fluids and Solids
Consider the shaded area of fluid shown in Figure 7-2. Suppose the bottom
surface of this area is at a height y\t while the top surface is at a height y2- We can
also define the positive y-axis to be pointed upward.
Y2
y2-yr
Lyi
Figure 7-2
The fluid below the surface at yi pushes up on the shaded fluid with a force Fi,
as given by equation (7.4). The fluid above the surface at y2 pushes down on the
shaded fluid with a force F2, given by equation (7.5).
Fj = PiA
(7.4)
F2 = P2A
(7.5)
Fj - F2 - w = 0
(7.6)
PjA - P2A - w = 0
(7.7)
There is also a third force acting on the shaded fluid. That third force is the
weight w ofthe shaded fluid itself. Ifourshaded area offluid isnotmoving, then
it must be in a state of equilibrium. This means that Fi, F2, and w must sum to
zero, as shown in equation (7.6). Substitution of equations (7.4) and (7.5) into
equation (7.6) gives equation (7.7).
The volume V of the shaded area of fluid can be given by equation (7.8). The
weight ofan object is given by equation (7.9). We can solve for the weight of the
shaded area of fluid by substituting equation (7.1) and (7.8) into equation (7.9).
This gives equation (7.10). In arriving at this equation, we areassuming that the
density of the fluid remains constantas elevationchanges.
V = area x height = A (y2 - yi)
(7.8)
w = mg
(7.9)
w = mg = pVg = p [A (y2 - y,)] g
(7.10)
We can now substitute equation (7.10) into equation (7.7), to produce equation
(7.11). Dividing by the area gives equation (7.12).
PlA-P2A-p(A(y2-y1))g = 0
Pi-Po =
Pascal's principle
58
(7.11)
(7.12)
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Physics
Fluids and Solids
Fluid Properties
Equation (7.12) tells us that if we increase the pressure on the upper surface of
the shaded area in Figure 7-3, then the pressure on the lower surface will
increase by exactly the same amount. This is called Pascal's principle. It states
thata pressure appliedto an enclosed fluid is transmitted equally throughoutthe
fluid and to the walls of the fluid's container.
Example 7.2a
At a specific depth in a swimming pool, a barometer measures the total pressure

to be twice that of atmospheric pressure. If the barometeris now submerged to a
depth that is twice its initial depth, by how much does the total pressure
increase?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The pressure increases by 50%.

Solution
We can use the ratio technique to handle this percentage change type of problem.
The relevant situation here is the relationship of pressure to depth:
Ptotal = Patm + Pgh
Applying this to the first depth implies that pghinitial=Patnv since me total
pressure there is 2Patm. If the second depth is twice that of the first, then
Pghfinal = 2Patm- This means that the total pressure at the second depth is SPatmTaking the ratio of the final to the initial situation gives:
Ptotal final
*total initial
3Patm
1.5
2-P.a tm
To complete this problem, just subtract 1 from the ratio to get the percentage
change of +0.5 (i.e., 50%.) Be careful of the wording in percentage questions.
Here, we want a "percentage change." If the question had asked instead, "What
percentage of the initial total pressure is the final total pressure?", the answer
would have been: "The final total pressure is 150% of the initial total pressure."
Example 7.2b
A swimmer is at the bottom of a 5-meter pool, where the gauge pressure (pgh) is
approximately 0.5Patm. If the swimmer rises to the surface, by how much does
the total pressure change?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The total pressure increases by 33%.

The total pressure increases by 66%.
The total pressure decreases by 33%.
The total pressure decreases by 66%.
Solution
As with 7.2a, the relevant situation here is the relationship of pressure to depth:
Ptotal = Patm + Pgh
Pinitial = 1*0arxn + 0.5 atm = 1.5 atm;
Pfinal = 1.0 atm;
AP = 0.5 atm
The total pressure is reduced, so choices A and B are eliminated. The ratio of AP
to Pinitial is 1:3, so the pressure drops by 33%.
59
Physics
Fluid Properties
Fluids and Solids
Buoyancy and Archimedes1 Principle

The inventions and testaments of the Greek mathematician Archimedes mark
him as a man of genius. Archimedes is the man who ran naked through the
streets of Syracuse shouting "Eureka, eureka!" (Greek for "I have found (it)!"),
after he discovered the principle of hydrostatics (buoyancy). King Hiero II had
asked Archimedes to determine whether a crown was pure gold or laced with
silver. While relaxing in the public baths, Archimedes realized that he could
determine the volume of the crown by placing it in a container of water and then
measuring the amount of water the crown displaced.This volume was compared
to an equal volume of pure gold. After a short calculation involving density,
Archimedes reported to Hiero that the crown contained some silver. The maker
of the crown was executed, and Archimedes made his place in history.
So, what was Archimedes' great insight about objects in fluids? He realized that
the water (or any fluid) below a floating object supports that object against
gravity. To get an idea of just how big this upward buoyant force B is, ask
yourself what the water beneath a battleship would be supporting, if the ship
were not there. The water would be supporting a column of water above it.
Figure 7-3a shows a filled tank, with an object resting on the bottom of the tank.
The objectappears to weigh less underwater than in air. Why? Because the water
surrounding it is trying to push the objectup and out of the way with some force
B. Since the object is stationary, the buoyant force and normal force combined
must be equal in magnitude to the weight of the object.
(b)
(a)
(c)
*-
tB
*-
B
r-.
Pobject> Pwater
img
iii
Pobject "^ Pwater
B
1
Pot ject== Pw ater
''M't
i
rmj
Figure 7-3
Whathappenswhenthe object has the samedensity as the surrounding water, as

in Figure 7-3b? If the object has the same volume and mass as the displaced
region of water, the object should hover in the water. After all, both the object
and the displaced water have the same weightand experience the same buoyant
force. With this in mind, we can state what Archimedes discovered in the tub:
The buoyant force acting upon an object is equal to the weight of the fluid it
displaces. Mathematically, thebuoyantforce B is found usingequation (7.13).
Archimedes' principle
B= pfluid Vfluid displaced g
(7.13)
where the mass of the displaced fluid is in terms of its density and volume.
How does the density of the object in Figure 7-3c compare with the water? If we
put an object of equal size, but of lesser density, into the water, as shown in
Figure 7-3c, it should float above the water line, because the buoyant force must
balance its weight. Since it has less weight than the object in Figure 7-3b, the
buoyant force necessary to make this object float will be smaller (i.e., it will
displace less water).
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Fluid Properties
What if an object's density exceeds that of the water? Its weight will exceed the
buoyant force, and it will sink (as shown in Figure 73a). As this object falls,
however, it will accelerate with an acceleration smaller than g (and appear to
weigh less), because the water still exerts an upward buoyant force on it. This
buoyant force is a property of any fluid (liquid or gas) in a gravitational field. Ifs
the reason helium balloons float in the air, ships sail on the surface of a body of
water, and submarines can ascend and descend in surrounding water by taking
on or bilging out water.
Example 7.3a
Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding weather balloons?
I.
Balloons rise when their total density is less than that of the air surrounding
them.
II. Balloons fall when the buoyant force of the air surrounding them exceeds
their weight.
III. Balloons stop falling when the air surrounding them is evacuated.
A.
B.
C.
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
D.
I, II, and III
Solution
To handle these multiple-concepts type of problems, go through the list

eliminating or accepting one item at a time. Then cross out the incorrect choices.
Let's say that you immediately decide Statement III is false. After all, balloons
floatbecause the surrounding air buoys them up. No air equates to no buoyancy.
This means that Statement III should be in the answer and that choice A is
incorrect.
Let'ssay further that you know Statement I is true and therefore should not be in
the answer. After all, helium is lighter than air, and helium balloons float. This
would rule out any choices that contained Statement I and leaves only choice C
as the correct choice. You are now done with this question, so you can move on.
Do only enough work on a problem to convince yourself you have the best
answer and then pick the choice and move on. You could also have considered
Statement n, knowing that an object will accelerate down when the downward
force exceeds the upward force. A balloon will not fall when the buoyant force of
the air surrounding them exceeds its weight.
Example 7.3b
Which of the following are TRUE regarding three balls of equal size that are fully
submerged in water, if Ball A sinks, Ball B is stationary, and Ball C rises?
I.
II.
The density of Ball C is less than that of BallB.

The buoyant force on Ball C is greater than that on
Ball A.
III. The density of Ball A is greater than that of water.

A.
B.
C.
I and II only
I and III only
II and in only
D.
I, II, and III
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Physics
Fluid Properties
Fluids and Solids

Solution
Statement I: Ball C rises when submerged in the water, which tells us that the
buoyant force exceeds its weight. This is possible if Ball C is less dense than the
surrounding water. Ball B floats when submerged in the water, which tells us
that the buoyantforce equals its weight. Thisis possible if Ball Bis equally dense
as the surrounding water. It is true that Ball C is lessdense than Ball B.
Statement II: The buoyant force a fluid exerts on an object depends on the
density of the surrounding medium, the volume of the object, and the
gravitational force constant (B = pfluid ' ^displaced ' g)- Because Ball A has the
same volume as Ball C, they experience the same buoyant force. The reason Ball
A sinks and Ball C floats has to do with their differences in weight, despite the
fact that they experience the same buoyant force. It is false that the buoyant force
on Ball C is greater than that on BallA.
Statement III: Ball A sinks when submerged in the water, which tells us that its
weight exceeds the buoyant force. This is possible if Ball A is denser than the
surrounding water. It is true that the density of Ball A is greater than that of
water.
Figure 7-4shows a summary of the mathematics associated with a floating object

and a sunken object in a tank of fluid. The conclusions can be used to quickly
answer multiple-choice questions.
W = B
Pobject* *object*g = Pmedium"^displaced'g
B=PmediuirTVdisplaced"g
Pobject"Vobject = Pmedium"Vdisplaced
^displaced _
ôbject
W= mg= PobjecfVobjecfg
Pobject
Pmedium
ôbject > Vdisplaced' Pobject< Pmedium
Conclusion for an object that floats: Relative densities = %Submerged
Notes: B = Apparent weight loss
Specific Gravity = ^
" Pmedium"ôbject'g
Pwater
N = Apparent Weight
W
W=mg =Pobject*Vobjecfg
Pobject* *object'g _ Pobject
Pmedium'Vobject*g
Pmedium
W>B; pobject > pmedium
Conclusion for anobject that sinks: Relative densities = W-to-FBUOyant ratio

Figure 7-4
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Fluids and Solids
Fluid Properties
Example 7.4a
What is the density of an object that is 85% submerged when floating in
petroleum ether (p = 0.90g/mL)

A.
B.
C.
D.
0.64 g/mL
0.77 g/mL
0.90 g/mL
1.06 g/mL
Solution
Because the object floats in the petroleum ether, it must be less dense than the
surrounding fluid. The density is less than 0.90 g/mL, so choices C and D are
eliminated.
From here it is best to use the shortcut presented in Figure 7-4. The percent of the
object that is submerged is equal to the relative densities of the object and
medium. This means mat the density of the object is the product of the percent
submerged and the density of the petroleum ether.
Pobject
%submerged = Pobject
Pmedium
0.90
0.85(0.90) = pobject = 0.765 g/mL.
Example 7.4b
What is the specific gravity of an object that weighs 36 newtons in air but only 9
newtons in water at 4C?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.25
1.33
3.00
4.00
Solution
The first thing to do is to identify that the object is a sunken object rather than a
floating object. The object must be denser than the medium, so the specific
gravity must be greater than 1. This eliminates choice A. For a sunken object, the
ratio of the weight of the object to the buoyant force is equal to the relative
densities of the object and medium.
The objectweighs 36 N in air, so its weight is 36 N. It has an apparent weight of 9
N in water, so the normal force is 9 N and the buoyant force must be 27 N. Keep
in mind that a sunken object rests on the bottom of the container, where because
it experiences no acceleration, it has a net force of zero. This means that on the
bottom of the tank, mg = N + B.
B must be 27 N
N = 9N
To get the specific gravity (the relative densities), we simply divide 36by 27:
Specific Gravity =
Specific Gravity = = = 1.33
27
mg = 36 N
63
Physics
Fluid Properties
Fluids and Solids
Surface Tension
We usually drink water from a cup. The water is confined by the cup, which
keeps the water molecules from spreading apart, and you from cleaning up a
spill. What, however, keeps the molecules that make up a small water droplet
from spreading apart? The droplets tend to stay together because their molecules
are attracted to each other-this attraction is typically a result of intermolecular
forces such as hydrogen bonding or van der Waals interactions. Within the bulk
of the droplet, each molecule reacts to attractive forces from all its neighbors and,
on average, experiences no net change. Figure 7-5 shows a molecular view near
the surface of a droplet. At the surface, however, the situation is tense. A surface
molecule is subjected to a net force pulling it towards the center of mass, since
there are few molecules above the surface to pull it out. On average, these surface
molecules are pulled towards the center of mass. This reduces the number of
surface moleculesand, as a result, reduces the surface area of the droplet.
Surface area shrinks
as the molecule is
Surface area shrunk

after the molecule is
pulled into the bulk.
pulled into the bulk.
Figure 7-5
The force associated with this tendency of the surface of a liquid to pull inward
and shrink in area is known as the surface tension. When weight is significant,
droplets tend to have flattened fluid surfaces. When the gravitational force is
relatively small, or negligible, surface tension shrinks the surface area of a liquid
by forming a sphere. This is why your coffee has a flat surfaceand soap bubbles
are round.
Surface tension should relate to other surface phenomena, such as evaporation

and condensation, because they all occur at the fluid's surface. How do they
relate to each other? If the surface tension is relatively strong, the molecular
attractive forces are relatively strong. Because of hydrogen bonding, water has a
greatersurface tension than ethanol. At a given pressure and temperature, which
evaporatesfirst? Ethanol willevaporate before water evaporates under the same
conditions. It has a smaller surface tension. Which is more likely to condense?
Water is more likely to condense than ethanol, because it has a greater surface
tension and, consequently, stronger attractive intermolecular forces. In the
comparison of ethanol to water, the intermolecular force of significance is

hydrogen bonding.
Example 7.5a
Increasing the surface tension of a cell surface will:
A. make the cell's shape more spherical.

B. make the cell membrane more pliable.
C.
make the cell flatten.
D. cause the cell to decrease in volume.
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Physics
Fluids and Solids
Fluid Properties
Solution
Surface tension is a surface effect. As such, it can affect surface properties of the
cell, including possible shape changes. It will not change the volume of the cell,
since the amount of intercellular material is generally constant. That rules out
choice D. As for the shape of the surface membrane, increasing tension on the
membrane makes it less pliable, ruling out choice B. Imagine how the pliability
of a balloon surface decreases as you inflate it. When surface tension increases on
a liquid, its surface decreases in area (although its volume does not change).
The resulting shape always tends towards spherical. You can see this with a soap
bubble. You should try to make useful analogies with everyday phenomena to
answer questions about things you can't easily see.
Example 7.5b
A sealed vessel contains two chambers separated by a phospholipid bilayer

membrane. After completion of an experiment on the vessel, the membrane
distorts, as shown below. This distortion may have occurred because the
pressure on the right side of the vessel:
.
Membrane
Before experiment
A.
B.
C.
D.
Membrane
After experiment
increased, and the membrane's surface tension increased.

increased, and the membrane's surface tension decreased.
decreased, and the membrane's surface tension increased.
decreased, and the membrane's surface tension decreased.
Solution
The membrane is being forced to the left, so pressure on the right side must have
increased relative to the pressure on the left side of the membrane. This
eliminates choices C and D. Because the molecules of membrane are being
stretched apart, they are feeling less of an attractive force towards one another.
This means that the membrane's surface tension must have decreased, making
choice B a better explanation than choice A.
65
Physics
Fluids and Solids
Fluids in Motion
Fluids in Motion
Viscosity and Poiseuille's Principle

We shall now consider what occurs when a fluid is in motion. We have already
examined the friction between solids. There is also friction within fluids. Friction
in fluids is called viscosity and is denoted by the Greek letter eta, rj. The SI unit
ofviscosity isNs/m2.
Viscous forces retard the motion of one part of a fluid relative to another part of
the fluid. If two layers of a fluid are held together tightly, then the viscosity of the
fluid is said to be large. If the viscosity of a fluid is large, then that fluid will
move slowly. This can be seen if we consider the difference between pouring
honey into a cup and water into a cup. Since the coefficient of viscosity (r)) for
honey is greater than that for water, honey will flow at a slower rate than water.
Liquids
Gases
Viscosity
(kg/m3)
Material
Viscosity
(kg/m3)
Material
Water (0C)
1.80 x 10"3 Air (0C)
1.71 x 10"5
Water (20C)
1.00 x 10"3 Air (20C)
1.81 x 10"5
Water (37C)
0.69 x 10"3 Air (37C)
1.87 x 10"5
Water (100C)
0.28 x 10"3 Air (100C)
2.18 x 10"5
Blood Plasma (37DC)
1.28 x 10"3
Blood Whole (37C)
2.08 x 10"3
Castor oil (0C)

Castoroil (20C)
Castor oil (100'C)
5.3
0.97
1.71 x 10"2
Table 7-2
Table 7-2 shows some common fluids and
their viscosities at different
temperatures. Generally, if we were to increase the temperature of a fluid, the

viscosity of a liquid would decrease, while the viscosity of a gas would increase.
You may notice that Castor oil shows a significant drop in viscosity as
temperature increases. This property makes it an ideal lubricant for an engine.
When a simple fluid flows through a pipe, the speed of that fluid is greatest at
the central axis of the pipe and essentially zero along the walls of the pipe
(Figure 7-6). A common reason that the fluid along the walls of a pipe does not
move is because that fluid encounters the rough and uneven molecular surface of
the pipe itself. Molecules of fluid in contact with this surface tend to reside in its
crevices and to not move.
Fluid at the edge of the pipe flows the slowest.

This flow speed is zero for most simple fluids.
.....-
-.
-i
Fluid in the center of the
pipe flows the fastest.
Figure 7-6
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Fluids and Solids
Fluids in Motion
As a fluid is flowing through the center of a pipe oflength Lwitha certain speed
v, there is a force that tends to oppose the fluid's motion. That force is called a
viscous retarding force F and it is caused by the fluid's resistance to flow. The
magnitude of the viscous retarding force is given by equation (7.14):
F = 4jtt|Lv
(7.14)
For a fluid to flow through a pipe at constant speed, the viscous retarding force
must be balancedby an applied force. Suppose the pressure of the fluid entering
the pipe in Figure 7-6 is Pi. The force pushing this fluid into the pipe is Fi = PiA,
where A is the cross-sectional area of the pipe (i.e., A = to*2). There is also a
pressure P2 at the end of the pipe that tends to oppose the motion of the fluid.
The force associated with this pressure is F2 = P2A. The net driving force of the
fluid through the pipe is shown in equation (7.15). It is simply the difference in
between these two forces:
Fi - F2 = (Pi - P2)A
(7.15)
For the fluid to flow through the center of the pipe at constant speed, the driving
force and the retarding force must be equal (see equation (7.16)). If we substitute
tit2for the cross-sectional area of the pipe and then rearrange equation (7.16), we
will get equation (7.17). This equation allows us to relate the pressures at the two
ends of the pipe to the viscosity of the fluid and the physical properties of the
pipe itself (i.e., length and radius). We could also solve for the velocity v of the
fluid at the center of the pipe by rearranging equation (7.17) into equation (7.18):
4jtt|Lv = (Pi - P2)A
(7.16)
Pl-P2=(^)v
(7.17)
v = [P!^2)r2
(7.18)
4r)L
Example 7.6a
Which of the following graphs BEST represents the viscosity of pure H20 as its
temperature increases?
B.
2H
2-
2U
D.
c.
In
cm 1
a,.
*->
flj
(0
P-
p-
p-
1 > 1 111 1
I I I I I I I
I I I I I I I
I I I I I I I
20
40
T(C)
60
20
40
T(C)
60
20
40
T(C)
67
60
20
40
60
T(C)
Physics
Fluids in Motion
Fluids and Solids

Solution
This is a graph-identification problem. First, think about the qualitative

relationship between viscosity and temperature. Should the viscosity of water
increase or decrease as the temperature increases? As you heat up water, the
molecules should start to spread apart from one another, which means that it
should decrease. One way to remember this is to cook some canned soup. The
soup comes out of the can as a viscous, unappetizing gelatinous lump, but it
thins as you heat it, evolving into a tasty, salt-laden meal. The soup is mostly
water, suggesting that water thins as it heats up (although the overriding
determining factor is actually the soup's ingredients). This rules out choices C
and D, which show no change in viscosity with temperature and an increase in
viscosity with temperature respectively. To decide betweenchoices A and B, look

at the value on the y-axis when the temperature is 20C. How do they differ?
Choice A smoothly drops from about 2 to 0.5 over a 60C range, passing through
1 at 20C. In choice B, the number abruptly drops from about 2 to nearly 0 over a
range of 10C and more importantly, does not equal 1 at 20C. The y-axis shows
the actual viscosity of water divided by the viscosity of water at 20C, so the
value of that term at 20C must be 1. Choice B does not fit that criterion, so it
cannot be the best answer.
Example 7.6b
In calibrating a flow meter, an engineer measures the total pressure drop across a
pipe as a function of the gas flow velocity. Which of the following plots BEST
details his results?
I I I I I I
0
v(m/s)
v (m/s)
v (m/s)
v(m/s)
Solution
Fluids flow from regions of higher pressure to regions of lower pressure, so in

order to get a fluid (such as a gas) to flow, there must be a AP across the length of
the pipe. It should seem intuitive that a greater pressure difference would push
fluid faster, so choice D can be eliminated. Also, choice C implies that the speed
can increase despite no increase in pressure difference past a threshold, which is
not true. Choice C is also eliminated. A change in AP from a negative value to a
positive value implies that the pressure gradient reversed directions. This would
reverse the direction of the fluid flow, and that is not what choice A shows. The
relationship between velocity and pressure difference is linear and both should
be equal to zero at the same time. Only choice B shows this.
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The flow rate Q is the volume Voffluid that passes through a pipe perunittime
t. Note thatthe flow rate and flow speed ofa fluid are not the same thing. What
type ofpressure would be needed to maintain a certain flow ratethrough a pipe?
We canrelate the flow rate to the cross-sectional area ofthe pipe and the average
speed v of the fluid by equation (7.19). Recall that we have mentioned that the
fluid in a pipe flows the fastest at the center of the pipe and does not flow at all at
the edges of the pipe. Using this assumption, we can express the average speed
of the fluid as shown in equation (7.20):
Q = Y. = vA
(7.19)
v" = v
(7.20)
If we substitute equation (7.20) into equation (7.19) and include the cross-
sectional area nr2, we will getequation (7.21):

Q - Wa
(7.21)
Substitution of equation (7.18) into equation (7.21) will give equation (7.22). This
equation is called Poiseuille's principle, after Jean Poiseuille, a French physician.
Poiseuille's principle
Q=H.-(Pl-P2)
8r|L
(7.22)
The important parameter in equation (7.22) is the r4 term. Note that if the radius
of the pipe is doubled, the flow rate increases by a factor of 16.
A common application of Poiseuille's principle involves the flow of blood
through the circulatory system. Although it applies to an ideal fluid, which blood
is not, it still gives a good approximation of the flow dynamics of blood through
the body. When the heart contracts, it generates a large Pi, which in turn
establishes a pressure difference in the circulatory system ultimately causing
blood to circulate and return to the heart. Thus, when one describes a patient as
having "high blood pressure", it means that their heart is generating a very large
Pi in order to produce the necessary Q to get blood to the tissue in a timely
fashion.
Although we have presented Poiseuille's principle as a mathematical expression

to this point, at the level of the MCAT it is highly conceptual. For instance, it
explains that an extremely tall person will have a greater strain on their heart
than a person of average height, because in order to generate the same volume
flow rate (Q), a tall person requires a greater AP to offset the greater L associated
with their longer circulatory system. The equation also explains why it takes
longer to pour syrup than it takes to pour water and why a wider straw is much
more efficient for obtaining a chilled, carbonated beverage from a glass than a
thinner straw. It basically explains important things.
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Example 7.7a
Which single change, where all other factors stay constant, gives the LARGEST
increase in the volumetric flow rate of synthetic blood plasmathrough a tube?
A. Doubling the tube radius.
B. Quadrupling thepressure difference across the tube.

C. Halving the plasma viscosity.
D. Halving the tube length.
Solution
These quantitative-change problems usually require you to know the basic

functional relationship between variables used in some relevant equation. That
is, you need to know whether the important variables are in the numerator or
denominator, and whether they are squared or cubed, or whatever. Here, the
basic equation to use is Poiseuille's principle, equation (7.22). The relevant
variables for this problem are the tube radius r, the pressure difference Pi - P2,
the tube length L, and the plasma viscosity rj. The ji and 8 are not important
quantities, because in any quantitative-change problem, constants will never
enter into consideration. Now, go through each choice, and see how that will
change the volumetric flow rate. For choice A, what would doubling the radius
do to the flow rate? It would increase the flow rate 16 times (i.e., 24). Choice B
would quadruple the flow rate, since the pressure difference term in the equation
is not squared or quadrupled, but raised to the first power. Cross out choice B,
because choice A is better. Choice C would double the flow rate, since the
viscosityis in the denominator and to the first power. But choiceA is still a better
choice. Halving the tube length would have the same effect as choice C, making
choice A correct. This formula is a bit daunting and may be given in the passage,
but it is common enough to make its basic functional variables worth knowing.
Example 7.7b
Whichsingle changemakesit easiest(i.e., creates the smallest pressure difference

between your mouth and the atmosphere) to drink a milkshake?
A. Increasing the straw length by 50%, but keeping the flow rate and milkshake
fixed.
B. Decreasing the straw radius by 50%, but keeping the flow rate and milkshake
fixed.
C. Melting the shake until its viscosity drops by 50%, but keeping the flow rate
and straw fixed.
D. Drinking the shake at 25% of the usual flow rate, without changing the straw
or shake.
Solution
To keep the flow rate fixed while increasing the straw's length by 50% would
require 1.5 times the pressure difference across the straw, so choice A is out. To
keep the flow rate fixed while halving the straw's radius would require sixteen
times the pressure difference across the straw, so choice B is eliminated. To keep
the flow rate fixed while halving the shake's viscosity would require half the
pressure difference across the straw, so choice C is possible. To reduce the flow
rate by a factor of four while keeping other factors constant would require onefourth the pressure difference across the straw, so choice D is the easiest change.
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Continuity Equation
In equation (7.19), we saw how to relate the flow rate, Q, of a liquid to the crosssectional area A of a pipe and the average velocity v of the fluid flowing in that
pipe. This relationship was for a pipe or tube whose cross-sectional area does not
change. However, not all tubes retain the same cross-sectional area. Consider the
human circulatory system. As blood leaves the left atrium of the heart it flows
into the aorta, which has a radius of about 1.3 cm. As the blood leaves the aorta,
it passes into arteries having smaller radii. In the case of the human circulatory
system, the cross-sectional areas of the blood vessels vary greatly.
Suppose the aorta has cross-sectionalarea Ai and that blood flows from the aorta
into an artery with cross-sectional area A2 (Figure 7-7).
Larger Area
Slower Speed
Smaller Area
Faster Speed
vl
v2
Figure 7-7
Assuming the fluid is incompressible, at any given moment in time, the fluid
entering the region at Ai must equal the fluid leaving the region at A2. In other
words, the volume flow rate into the region at Aj must equal the volume flow
rate out of the region at A2. The volume flow rate for the region at Ai is given by
Q = Ajv}, while the volume flow rate at region A2 is given by Q = A2v^. In both
of these equations, the average speed V of the fluid refers to that fluid passing a
given cross-sectional area. Since the flow rates for these two regions must be
equal, we can write equation (7.23):
Continuity equation
^^jv^^2^J
(7.23)
Equation (7.23) is called the continuity equation. It will become important when
we discuss Bernoulli's equation. Note that if the cross-sectional area A2 in Figure
7-4 is smaller than the cross-sectional area A}, then the speed of the fluid passing
through A2 must be greater than the speed of the fluid passing through A\. This
has to be the case in order for the volume flow rate of the fluid to be constant.
The continuity equation can also apply to branching as long as the fluid is
incompressible and that the total cross-sectional of all of the branches is
considered. For the system shown in Figure 7-8, equation (7.24) applies.
AjVx = A2V2 + A3V3 + A4V4
(7.24)
Alvl
Figure 7-8
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Example 7.8a
Atherosclerosis is the thickening and hardening of the arterialwalls. The aorta of

a healthy adult has a radius of about 1.3 cm and a blood flow velocity of about
0.5 m/s. An atherosclerosis-stricken bacon epicure is found to have an effective
aortic radius that is 75% of that in a healthy aorta. What is the blood flow velocity
through the narrowed section of artery? (Assume that the blood's volumetric
flow rate is constant for all adults.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.28 m/s
0.38 m/s
0.66 m/s
0.89 m/s
Solution
Before invoking math, ask yourself if the blood will flow more quickly or more
slowly through the narrowed artery. It should flow faster, ruling out choices A
and B. Remember, for a fixed volumetric flow rate (which occurs in most pipe
flow problems) the smaller the cross-sectional area, the greater the flow velocity.
Isolating the best answer will require a bit of math. Let's use the continuity
equation (7.25) to find the final flow velocity. We get:
irr?
-=fe)^Br=&r=((#h=W(05m/s)
Looking at the choices left, choice D looks like the likelier of the two answers. If
you're doubtful, realize that (16/9) is a bit smaller than 2, which makes the
answer a bit smaller than 1.If you forgot to square the radii, you probably picked
choice C. There will often be an answerchoice on the test for eachcommon way
of misinterpreting or miscalculatinga problem. Please be careful.
Example 7.8b
The plunger ofa hypodermic syringe has a cross-sectional areaof approximately

0.5 cm2, whereas the attaching needle hasa cross-sectional area of0.005 cm2. If a
doctor (you in five or six years) pushes in the plunger at a speed of 0.3 cm/s,
what is the average flow speed ofthe medicine through the needle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.003 cm/s
30 cm/s
300 cm/s
3000 cm/s
Solution
This question involves the continuity equation, which relates the average flow
speed and cross-sectional area at two different points in a pipe. The relationship
is Aivi = A2v2. Manipulating the equation shows us that the as the as the crosssectional area decreases, the average flow speed has to increase by the same
factor. In the syringe example, the cross-sectional area decreases by a factor of
100, so the average flow speed must increase by a factor of 100. This means that
the average flow speed will increasefrom 0.3cm/s to 30 cm/s.
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Bernoulli's Equation
Consider a pipe filled with an incompressible, ideal fluid. As we noted earlier, a
fluid flows when it has unequal pressures applied to it, flowing from a region of
higher pressure to a region of lower pressure. Let's consider the higher pressure
to be Pi and the lower pressure to be P2, and that the two pressures represent the
pressure at the two ends of the pipe. As the fluid moves, its kinetic and
gravitational potentialenergies change. This is due to the work done on the fluid
by the pressure difference pushing the fluid in one direction. These energy
changes are related to one another by the work-energy relationship shown in
equation (7.25). In this equation, W is the work done on the systemby pressures
Pi and P2, AKE is the kinetic energy change, and APEg is the change in
gravitational potential energy.
W
= AKE + APE
(7.25)
We shall consider these three aspects (work done on the fluid, kinetic energy of
the fluid, and gravitational potential energy of the fluid) separately using the
pipe shown in Figure 7-9. In this pipe, there is both an elevation change and a
change in radius. What we shall consider is the pressure exerted by the fluid
against the inside walls of the pipe. Whether the fluid flows left-to-right or rightto-left, the same result will be obtained.
Region 3
Region 2
Region 1
r
'
/ /
;\.
Pi"
...L...r... p.
:
>i
. . . .
v2
i i
h = yi
yi !
y
1f
1'
n T: Pagainst wall *
vfluid T: 1against wall *

Figure 7-9
Let's consider work first. If the fluid moves a distance Axi on the left side of the
vessel, then it must move a distance Ax2 on the right side of the vessel. Recall that
W= Fj.(Ax). Ifweapply thisexpression to thefluid moving in the vessel, thenwe

get equation (7.26). Given that Fi = PiA and F2 = P2A, making the appropriate
substitution into equation (7.26) gives equation (7.27). The volume of fluid that
moves from left to right in the vessel is the same. So, AV = AiAxi = A2AX2.
Substituting this information into equation(7.27) gives equation (7.28):
W = FiAxi - F2AX2
(7.26)
W = PiAiAxi -P2A2AX2
(7.27)
W = (Pi -P2)AV
(7.28)
We're doing this math to work our way to Bernoulli's equation, which relates
pressuresin the way the work energy theorem relates energy terms.
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Now lefs consider the change in kinetic energy for the flowing fluid. By
manipulating the relationship p = m/V, we solve this expression for the mass of
the fluid to show that m = pV. The change in kinetic energy for the mass of a
moving fluid is given by equation (7.29). Substitution of pV for m into (7.29)
gives equation (730):
AKE = ^mvi2 - Vmv32
(7.29)
AKE = ^(pV)Vl2 - Vi(pV)v32
(7.30)
In Figure 7-9, the fluid has moved from yi to y2overall. Therefore, the change in
gravitational potential energy can be given by equation (7.31). Substitution of m
= pV into equation (7.31) gives equation (7.32):
APEg = mgAh = mg(y2-yi)
(7.31)
APEg = (pV)g(y2-yi)
(7.32)
We are now in a position to substitute equations (7.28), (7.30), and (732) into
equation (7.25). After we divide through by V, we will get equation (7.33). This
equation can be applied to a fluid that is incompressible, is frictionless, and has
laminar flow. We can rearrange equation (7.33) to look like equation (734). This
is the more common form ofBernoulli's equation:
Pi -P2 = ^p(v22 - vi2) +pg(y2-yi)
(7.33)
Pi + Vfcpvi2 + pgyi =P2 + Vpv22 +pgy2
(7.34)
As you view Bernoulli's equation it is unlikely that you are thinking, "wow,
what a great equation. I can't wait touse it." Atface value, the equation does not
look friendly, sowe shall rewrite it ina more user-friendly format. Equation (7.35)
is a more conceptual rewrite thatwill allow us to compare the impact ofvarious
changes on thepressure ofa moving fluid against theinnerwalls ofa vessel.
k=Pagainst inner walls + ^pv2 + pgh
(7.35)
This version of the equation can explain some of the phenomena you may have
observed in life such as the bottom of a shower curtain attacking your ankles
when you turn the water on or your bike getting sucked towards a passing bus.
When you turn the water on, it falls from the shower head to the bottom of the
shower. As it falls, it picks up a good deal ofspeed (being that it's in free fall).
According to equation (735), as v goes up and h barely changes, the pressure
against the walls (in this case the shower curtain) must drop. The water is fastest
near the bottom of the shower curtain, so it is pushed towards your ankles by the
higher air pressure outside the shower. As soon as you turn the water off, the
curtain relaxesback to a straight down orientation.
This also explains why rolling down the windows of a moving car generates
airflow. When the window is opened, the rapid airflow outside the caracross the
openspace where the glass used to be creates a lower pressure outside of thecar
window. This causes airinside the car toflow out, thereby helping tocool the car
and allowing valuablepapers to fly from inside the car to outside.
A common example of Bernoulli's principle applied to engineering involves air

foils such as airplane wings, where pressure differences between above and
below the wing can cause a plane tolift off ofthe ground at high speed.
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In the case of an airplane wing, as the wing moves through the air, the
surrounding air must pass either across the top of the wing or across the bottom
of the wing. A wing (or air foil as it is more formally called)is designed in such a
way that the top and bottom are asymmetric, resulting in different airflow
dynamics on the two sides of the wing. The top of the wing is curved in such a
way that it is longer than the bottom, so if we compare the paths an air molecule
would take during the period of time when the wing passes by, it must move
faster to pass across the top of the wing than it would passing along the bottom
of the wing. According to equation (735), a higher speed results in a lower
pressure along the surface if the wing. In essence, the air molecules by moving
faster have fewer opportunities to collide with the surface of the wing. The result
is a net force upward, which adds to the overall lift force on the wing. The total
lift force on the wing involves the angle of the wing as well as the difference in
air pressure due to air movement. This can be viewed in Figure7-10.
Assuming height doesn't change: Pagainst wing +V6pairvair2 =k

Air speed above the wing is faster, so pressure is lower
Airspeedbelowthe wing is slower, so pressure is higher
Conclusion: As vair | :Pagainst wing A' Greater vair => Lower Pagainst wing
Figure 7-10
Example 7.9a
While you are stopped at an intersection turn lane, a large truckzoomsby, just a
few feet fromyour car. As the truck passes,your car willbe:
A. pulled towards the truck, because the increased wind speed between the
truck and the car lowers the pressure there.
B. pushed away from the truck, because theincreased wind speed between the
truck and the car lowers the pressure there.
C. pulled towards the truck, because the increased wind speed between the
truck and the car increases the pressure there.
D. pushed away from the truck, because the increased wind speed between the
truck and the car increases the pressure there.
Solution
This is a qualitative type ofquestion, and you have to consider the local pressure
on each side of the car. As the truck zooms by, the air in front of the truck is
pushed out ofthe way, resulting in a wall ofair rushing by yourcaron the side of
the truck. We can see from equation (735) that as the speed of the air increases,
theforce it exerts against the side of the carwill be reduced. Asa result, there is a
higher pressure against the side of the car opposite of thezooming truckthan the
side of the car closestto the zooming truck. The result is that the car is pushed in
the direction of the truck (which feels like you are being pulled towards the
truck). This eliminates choices B and D. The air speed causes a drop in the local
pressure againstthe side of the car,so choice C is eliminated.
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Example 7.9b
When blood flows through an artery, it exerts pressure on the surrounding

arterial wall. Compared to a section of healthy artery of equal size, a narrowed
section of diseased artery experiences a pressure on the surrounding arterial wall
that is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
greater, becausethe flow velocity decreases.

greater, because the flow velocity increases.
smaller, because the flow velocity decreases.
smaller, because the flow velocity increases.
Solution
This is a qualitative type of question, and you have two concepts to consider: the
local pressure and the blood flow velocity. Consider first the concept you
understand the best. For example, will blood-flow speed increase or decrease
when blood traverses a narrow region of an artery? It should flow faster (from
the continuity equation (7.23)). This rules out choices A and C. Next, will the
pressure increase or decrease when the blood velocity increases? It should
decrease (from Bernoulli's equation (734)). These two equations are the most
important flow equations for the physics you'll do, and should therefore be at
least qualitatively understood. It might even be a good idea to commit them to
memory. By the way, the correct answer is choice D.
You may have incorrectly assumed that the pressure should increase because of
the "high blood pressure" associated with atherosclerosis. The heart of one
afflicted with atherosclerosis pumps with a greater pressure to keep the blood
volumetric flow rate at healthy levels, increasing the total pressure throughout
the arteries. However, the pressure is lower in an unhealthy section ofan artery
than it is in a nearby healthy section because of the increased flow speed. This
comparison was thethrust ofthis question. As an aside, the lower pressure in the
narrowing artery can be low enough to do more than offset the increased
pumping pressure of the heart, making the arterial pressure lower than that in a
healthy individual's artery.
Turbulence
When we examined Poiseuille's principle, we saw that adjacent layers of a fluid
have the ability to slide past one another in a smooth and uniform fashion (see
Figure 7-6). This type of flow is laminar flow. It is also called streamline flow.
Poiseuille's principle holds true only for laminar flow. If the flow of a fluid is
sufficiently high, then a chaotic and irregular pattern develops in the fluid. This
is called turbulent flow. Viscous frictional forces increase duringturbulent flow.
How can we determine whether a flow is laminar or turbulent? A quantity not

expressed in termsof any standardunits called the Reynolds number Nr tells us
this. The Reynolds number isdefined by equation (736), where pis the density, r\
is the viscosity, and Vis theaverage velocity of the fluid. The radius of the vessel
through which thefluid flows is givenby R.
(7.36)
In general, if Nr < 2000, then the flow is considered to be laminar. If Nr > 3000,
the flow is turbulent. Between 2000and 3000, the flow is said to be unstable. This
means thatflow can be either laminar or turbulent depending on thematerial.
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Example 7.10a
Which of the following will decrease the chance of turbulent blood flow in a
vein?
A.
B.
C.
Widening the vein while maintaining the same flow speed.

Thinning the blood without changing its density.
Increasing the absolute pressure on each end of the vein by the same
amount.
D.
Lowering the blood density without thinning it.
Solution
You can apply the Reynolds number equation to each choice, crossing out
choices that either increase the chance of turbulence or leave that chance
unchanged. Choice A widens the vein and increases the Reynolds number. This
will increase the chance of turbulent flow, making it an incorrect choice.
One way to remember this relationship is to watch smoke rising from a candle.
As it leaves the candle, it flows upward in a smooth (non-turbulent) narrow
band. This band widens as it rises and becomes turbulent. So, narrow paths (or
objects) are less likely to encounter turbulence. Wider paths (or objects) are more
likely to do so. Choice B lowers blood's viscosity, increasing the Reynolds
number. This will make turbulence more likely. Choice B is incorrect. Choice C
creates a greaterpressure everywhere around the vein, but this changes nothing.
The onset of turbulence depends upon a sufficiently large flow rate. Flow rate in
turn depends upon a pressure difference. If that difference does not change, the
flow rate does not change.This rules out choice C, leavingonly choice D.
If this were the MCAT, you'd now move on to the next problem. However, if
you'd like to know why D is correct, then notice that lowering theblood density
would decrease the Reynolds number. This means that turbulence is less likely.
Odds are good that the passage text would contain an equation as uncommon
and unattractive as the Reynolds number equation. In fact, any time you are
given anequation like this in thepassage, useit tohelp organize yourthoughts.

Example 7.10b
Which of the following will increase the possibility of turbulent airflow around
the wings of an airborne plane? (Assume the basic shape of the wing does not
changeand that all dimensions are proportional.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flying at faster speeds and using larger wings.

Flying at slower speeds and using larger wings.
Flying at faster speeds and using smaller wings.
Flyingat slower speeds and using smaller wings.
Solution
You can apply the Reynolds number equation to each choice, and determine
which will raise the value of Nr. The value of Nr increases with fluid speed, so
choices B and D can be eliminated. As the wings get bigger, the region in which
the air flows around the wing increases. An increase in that area means that the R
has increased, so Nr gets larger. This eliminates choice C.
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Solids
Solids
Bydefinition, a solidis a material that can hold a definiteshape. Many solidscan

be referred to as crystalline solids (i.e., substances comprising a crystal lattice).
They have a regular ordering of their constituent atoms. Solids usually have a
well-defined melting temperature.
Density
As we stated in the section on fluids, the density of a material is defined as its
mass per unit volume (see equation (7-1)). Densities vary with temperature as
well as with pressure. Note from the data in Table 7-1 that the density of a solid
is (generally) greater than the density of either a liquid or a gas.
Elementary Topics in Elastic Physics

We have seen that gases and liquids tend to take the shape of their containers.
Solids, however, have a definite shape. If a force is applied to a solid, then bonds
between the atoms in that solid can be bent, compressed, or stretched. When the
force distorting the solid is removed, the bonds usually regain their original
configuration. Solids that experience these types of deformations are referred to
as being elastic. A deformation is caused by a stress, whereas the deformation
that results is referred to as the strain. The modulus of elasticity is a materialdependent quantity that relates the stress to the strain. Be aware that not all
solidshave theability to returnto theirnormal configuration aftera deformation.
The stressa is defined as a force acting on a solid divided by the area on which
the force is acting. This is given by equation (737). The SI unit of stress is the
N/m2. The three common types of stress are tension stress, compression stress,
and shear stress.
Stress = a = Force = Area
(737)
The strain Eis the fractional change in length of a solid and is a measure of the
deformation caused by a stress. This is given by equation (738). Note that the
strain is a dimensionless number and does not depend on the original length of
thesolid, only on the fraction by which thelength changes
Strain = e
Change in Dimensional Length _ AL

Original Dimensional Length
(738)
In Figure 7-11 is a plot of the strain versus the stress in a solid. Note that for
small values of the strain, the graph is a straight line. This is telling us that the
stressis linearly proportional to the strain in that regionof the graph, sometimes
referred to as the linear region. For larger values, we find that the stress is no
longer proportional to the strain. Just past the linear region we encounter the
elastic limit of the solid. If the force causing the deformation is removed when
the material has reached its elastic limit, then the material can still return to its
original shape. In other words, the deformation of the material has been elastic.
A material is plastically deformed once it passes its elastic limit Any point past
the elastic limitresults in covalent bond breakage of the solid lattice structure. If
strain increases, we reach the material's ultimate tension strength, at which
point the material is under maximum stress. If strain is increased beyond this
point, the stress on the material becomes reduced and eventually the material
will fracture. Once a fracture has occurred, the material has been plastically
deformed, and it will not return to its original shape.
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Ultimate tension
strength
Elastic y
limitX
Fracture
0
/$
l/l
(A
/>
IS
cr>
/6
Strain (e)
Figure 7-11
Materialsthat have ultimate tension strengths close in size to their fracture stress
are often called brittle. They have a tendency to fracture, without deforming
much. You see this when breaking a saltine cracker or snapping a strand of dry
spaghetti. Materials that have fracture strains far above their ultimate tension
strength are said to be ductile. Beyond the ultimate tension strength, they will
deform noticeably before fracturing. You see this when pulling on chewing gum
or stretching a rubber band.
In Figure 7-11, the slope of the linear region is the stress divided by the strain.
This is called the Young's modulus Y of the solid and is given by equation (739).
Young's modulus is the proportionality constant that relates the stress to the
strain. It is sometimes referred to as the modulus of elasticity, E.
E = Y = Stress _ a _ F/A
Strain
(739)
AL/L
Example 7.11a
Fora rope experiencing a constantapplied force, all of the following changeswill

decrease the stretching length of the rope EXCEPT:
I. usinga shorter rope made from the same material.
II. using a thinner rope made from the same material.
HI. using a rope of similar size and with an equal value of Young's modulus.
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and in only
D. I, H, and in
Solution
This is a particularly difficult question not because of the concepts, but because
of the ease with which you can make a careless error. Lefs use physical intuition
and then the relevant stress-strain equation to solve this problem. We want to
know which changes will either increase or leave unchanged the absolute length
the rope stretches.
Regarding Statement I, a shorter rope has less material to stretch (deform), so

under identical forces, a shorter rope will not stretch as far as a longer rope of
equal radius and the same material. This results in a decrease in the length, so
Statement I should not be in the answer. This eliminates all choices except C.
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Fluids and Solids
Solids
Regarding Statement II, thicker ropes are usually used for heavier loads-
presumably tokeep the rope from stretching and breaking. Therefore, switching
to a thinner rope should increase the stretching length of the rope. This supports
Statement II and eliminates choice B.
Statement HI should leave the rope length unchanged. After all, that depends
upon the size of the rope and its elasticity (which Young's modulus
characterizes). Since neither one changes, Statement III must be true, and choice
A must be incorrect.
To verify our conceptual choice, lefs use the stress-strain relationship described
by equation (739). Solving for the stretching distance AL:
AL = L
AY
Using a shorter rope decreases L, which will decrease ALremember, the other
variables are held constant for Statement I. This confirms that Statement I was
correctly ruled out. Using a thinner rope decreases A, which will increase AL;
that supports StatementII. Finally, using a rope of equal size and equal elasticity
(i.e., of the same Young's modulus) will not change AL; this validates Statement
III and points to choice C. There are many ways to answer a question-two ways
are using physical intuition and looking for the basic relationship in equations. In
using equations, remember that they always tell you the relevant conceptual
physics of the question.
Example 7.11b
Which of the following changes to a cable will increase the chance that the cable
will stretch to a point where it irreversibly deforms?
A. Make the cable thicker.
B. Apply a greater a compression force.

C. Apply a greater tensile force.
D. Use a material with a greater elasticity coefficient (Y).

Solution
First off, considering we are concerned with stretching the cable, a compression
force is not applicable. Choice B can be eliminated immediately. A material
stretches beyond its elastic limit when a threshold stress is exceeded, causing a
strain so great that the material permanently deforms. This basically means that
the AL is too great for the material to relaxback to its original state once the force
is removed. A thicker cable is harder to stretch, so choice A will reduce the
likelihood that the material will deform. Choice A is eliminated. According to

equation (739), as the value of Y increases, the AL for a cable under the same
applied force will decrease. This means that the cable will be less likely to
irreversibly deform. Of the choices, only a greater tensile force (stretching force)
will be likely to excessively stretch the cable. This question was more of question
of whether you knew the terminologymore so than understanding the concept.
80
The Berkeley Review
Physics
Fluids and Solids
Solids
Bulk and Shear Deformation
Bulk stress and bulk strain are different from the compressive and tensile stresses
and strain we considered with Young's Modulus, because now the force on the
object is being applied on all sides, so it deforms in all directions rather than just
one. Bulk deformation results in a change in the volume of an object. It is often
encountered when an objectis submerged deep into a body of water, such as the
ocean. The volume strain is shown in equation (7.40), where AV is the change in
volume and V0 is the initial volume of the solid object
AV
Volume strain =
(7.40)
This can be applied to measure the bulk modulus, B, of an object. The bulk
modulus of an object relates how much the volume of a solid object changes as
the pressure surrounding it changes. It can be calculated usingequation (7.41).
B =
AP
AV/
AVo
(7.41)
The negative sign is presentbecause an increase in external pressure will reduce

the volume of a solid. Figure7-12shows a basic view of a solid submerged in a
surrounding fluid undergoing bulk deformation.
Hydraulic Compression = B
Av /
/y
Compression = AV
Figure 7-12
Bulk deformation involves forces that are perpendicular to the surface of an
objecfs walls. When a force acting parallel to a surface ofa solid object is strong
enough, there is the chance for a third type of deformation know as shear. This
occurs when one layer slides across another layer in a material. Certain materials,
such as graphite, are prone to shear because their crystalline structure is one of
layers. Graphite is used to reinforce many structures inone dimension, because it
is lightweight and strong in the direction perpendicular to its crystal layering.
But when a force is applied parallel to the layers, it breaks rather easily, as we see
with pencil lead. While there are equations for shear, we shall only consider the
concept Figure 7-13 shows a basic view ofa solid undergoing a lateral shearing
force.
81
Physics
Fluids and Solids
Solids
'l
t = 0
t = l
t = 2
Figure 7-13
Example 7.12a
Which of the following materials likely has the greatestbulk modulus?

A.
Oil
B.
C.
Rubber
Steel
D.
Water
Solution
A large bulk modulus is associated with a solid that is difficult to deform. We
can eliminate choices A and D immediately, because they are liquids. Based on
your real life experiences you have no doubt come to learn that it is easy to
compress a rubber item, but steel is sturdy and can withstand great stresses.
Steel has the greatest bulk modulus.

Example 7.12b
When a stack of papers is placed on a sloped table, the top papers sometimes
slide off of the bottom papers, which remain stationary. This is an example of:
A. bulk deformation.
B. shear deformation.
C. gravitational distortion.
D.
tensile deformation.
Solution
Because one layer is sliding across another, it is an example of shear. Bulk
deformation involves a change in the volume of an object due to a change in the

external pressure on the object. Tensile deformation involves linear stretching of
a material caused by a tension. There is no physics concept referred to as
gravitational distortion, so choice Cshould have been eliminated immediately.
82
The Berkeley Review
25 Fluids and Solids Review Questions
I.
Hydraulic Press
(1-7)
II.
Relax and Float
(8 -14)
III.
Stress and Strain
(15 - 21)
(22 - 25)
4.
To increase F2 by four times, one must:
A. increasePj by a factor of 2.
A hydraulic press is an ingenious device that allows the

lifting of heavy objects by the application of a small force to
a small piston. A basic schematic of a hydraulic press is
B. increaser2 by a factor of 2.
C. increase r2 by afactor ofV2.
shown below:
D. increase rj by a factor of 2.
F2
=4=~<3 Ah2
5.
A^ r
Piston 1
Piston 2
Which of the following changes will NOT decrease the

average time it takes the hydraulic press to pass back
through its equilibrium position, if Piston 1 is subjected
to a briefly applied external force that is subsequently
released?
Figure 1. Hydraulic Press
I. Decrease the oil viscosity.
A force Fj is applied to Piston 1.This creates a pressure

Pj on Piston 1, which increases the pressure uniformly
II.
III.
throughout the much larger oil reservoir and results in a force
A.
B.
C.
D.
F2 on Piston 2. A pressure P2 is therefore applied to Piston 2.

In the following problems, assume that the radius of
Piston 2, r2, is five times thatof the radius of Piston 1, rj.

1.
Increase the mass of Piston 1.
Increase the volume of the oil reservoir.
I and II only
II only
II and III only
I and III only
The force on Piston 2 is larger than that on Piston 1

because:
A. F2= F1
B.
6.
Could this hydraulic press work in the absence of

gravity?
Fo>F 1
C. P2= P!
A. Yes, since the pressure throughout the oil would

still be equal.
D. P!>P2
B. No, since there would be no need to lift anything

against gravity.
C. Yes, since the oil pressure would vary across the

reservoir, producing a greater difference between
2.
Fj and F2.
The fact that a hydraulic press works the way it does

means:
D. No,sincethe inputforce must be gravitational.
A. energy is not conserved for this process.

B. momentum is not conserved for this process.
C. forces are conserved for this process.
D.
none of the above.
7.
Increasing the density of the hydraulic fluid would have

what overall effect?
3.
A.
B.
C.
D.
If Piston 1 is moved a distance xj, by how much will

Piston 2 move?
A. x2= 5xj
Both Pj andP2would increase.

Pj would increase; P2would remain thesame.
P2 would increase; Pj would remain thesame.
Pj and P2would be unaffected.
B. x2=10xj
C. x2 =xl
1
D. x2 =xl
1 25
84
10. Three objects are placed in a tank of water, as shown

below. The objects all have the same size, but they have
different densities: pj < pn < prrj < pwater-
Whether an object is submerged completely in a fluid or

whether it floats on the surface, it experiences a buoyant
force. Buoyant force is the force of the fluid on the object; it
results from pressure differences. The buoyant force is:
Ql
B = Pfluid'Vdisplaced fluid'g
A researcher sets up an experiment: A wooden box of
cross-sectional area A and density p floats on the surface of a
fluid, so that a length L of the box is submerged (Figure la).
A force F is then applied to the top of the box, so that now an
additional length x of the box is submerged (Figure lb).
On
Om
If all of the objects are released at the same time, which

object reaches the surface first?
A.
(a)
Object I
B.
Object II
C.
Object III
D. All three objects will have the same acceleration

Area
2S
MZ
11.
Fluid
If salt is added to water, the water density increases.

The force needed to submerge a floating, completely
incompressible object will:
A.
increase as the density increases and increase

slightly as the submersion depth increases.
B.
increase as the density increases and decrease

C.
decrease as the density increases and increase

Figure 1
The force F is removed and the box bobs as a simple
harmonic oscillator, where the acceleration a, displacement
from equilibrium x, and oscillation frequency / obey:
a = -4ji2/2x
D. decrease as the density increases and decrease

Neglect the effects of fluid viscosity in these questions.

8.
The three tanks shown below contain objects of the

same size and density, at the same depth in each tank.
Which object experiences the GREATEST pressure?
12. Three objects with the same density but different sizes
are placed in a tank of water as shown below:
II
"
A. Object I
B.
Object II
C.
Object III
si
After the objects are released:
D. All three objects experience the same pressure.
9.
II
A. Object I has the greatest acceleration.

B. Object II has the greatest acceleration.
Buoyant force is always equal to the:
C. Object III has the greatest acceleration.

D. All three objects will have the same acceleration.
A. weight of the object.

B. weight of the fluid displaced.
C.
volume of the object.

D. volume of the fluid displaced.
85
Passage III (Questions 15 - 21)
13. As a solid object sinks in water, the:
I. water pressure compresses the object, raising its

Matter deforms when stressed. Stress is defined as:
density.
II. local water density increases slightly, due to the

weight of water above that location.
F/A
where F is the force applied to an object and A is the crosssectional area that experiences the force. Three stresses are
commonly defined: tension stress, which elongate an object;
compression stress, which compresses an object; and shear
stress, which is the application of scissors-like forces.
A. Both I and II increase the magnitude of the buoyant

force on the object
B. Both I and II decrease the magnitude of the
buoyant force on the object
C. Only Statement I increases the magnitude of the
D. Only Statement II increases the magnitude of the
The deformations produced are called strains. Strains

are fractional changes in lengths:
L
where L is the original length of the object.
Stress and strain are linearly related (over a given range

of stresses) by Young's modulus, a material's physical
property:
14.
In the experiment described in the passage, what is the

frequency of oscillation of the box?
A.
Table 1 lists Young's moduli for various materials, as well as

their ultimate tension stresses and ultimate compression
stresses (the maximum stress that a material can tolerate):
Pfluid g
In V PboxL
B. -L.
C.
Y = 2
g_
vs
1 J
Tension
Material
Pbox
2n V L + x
D.
Y[N/m2l Strength(N/m2) Compression

Strength (N/m2)
1 WPftuidg"
2ji V AL
Aluminum
7x 1010
2xl08
2xl08
Steel
2xlOn
5xl08
5 xlO8
Glass
7xl010
5xl07
not measured
Brass
not measured
2.5 x 108
2.5 x 108
Copper
9.7 x 1010
not measured
not measured
Concrete
not measured
2xl06
2xl07
Bone
1.6 xlO10
1.3 xlO8
1.7 x 108
Table 1
A group of students decide to study the relationship

between stress and strain. They do two experiments.
Experiment J
A 5-meter-Iong thin steel wire is hung vertically. The wire
has a cross-sectional area of7.85 x 10"7 m2. A 10-N weight

is hung at the lower end. The position of the lowerend of the
wire is read on a scale. As more load is added to the wire,
the students record their data (Table 2).
After
Scale
After
Scale
Load
Reading
Load
Reading
ON
4.000 cm
40N
4.128 cm
ION
4.032 cm
50 N
4.160 cm
20 N
4.064 cm
60 N
4.192 cm
30 N
4.096 cm
70 N
4.224 cm
Table 2
86
Experiment2
19.
What was
the
maximum stress in
the
wire
in
Experiment 1?
Students observe the mechanical properties of thin rods of

equal size, constructed from either concrete, brass, or steel.
The rods either support loads at their middle sections when
oriented horizontally, or loads at their upper end when
oriented vertically.
A. 7x 10!N/m2
B. 4xl02N/m2
C. 9 x 106 N/m2
D. 9 x 107 N/m2
15. Which material requires the SMALLEST applied stress

to have a 5% strain?
A.
Steel
B. Copper
C.
Aluminum
D.
Bone
20. When comparing the ultimate compression and the

ultimate tension strengths given in the passage:
A. the two values are always equal.
B. the ultimate compression strength are always larger
than the ultimate tension strength.
C. the ultimate compression strength is independent of
16. What is the maximum strain of the wire in Experiment
the ultimate tension strength.

D. the ultimate compression force and ultimate
tension force are equal only if the material is
1?
A. 4.48 xlO"4
B. 0.064xlO"2
C.
0.032
D.
0.224
homogeneous.
21.
In Experiment 2, the students found that:
A. when horizontal, concrete supported more weight

17.
18.
In Experiment 1, a steel wire was used. What is the

maximum load that can be hung from the wire?
A.
35 N
B.
275 N
C.
393 N
D.
480 N
than brass or steel.
B. when horizontal, all three materials could support

the same maximum weight.
C. when vertical, steel supported more weight than
brass or concrete.
D. when vertical, brass and steel could support the

same maximum weight.
Further experimentation measured strains for much

higher stresses than those reported in Experiment 1. As
the data plotted below became non-linear:
Strain (e)
A. the wire began stretching.
B. the wire began to deform permanently.

C.
the wire became stiffer.
D. Young's modulus for the wire increased.
87
25.
Questions22 through 25 are NOT based on a descriptive
To make the pressure in Region 1 equal to the pressure

in Region 3, what can be done?
passage.
22.
What will be observed when a more viscous liquid, of

the same mass density, is substituted for the less
viscous liquid in the system below?
Column 1
Reservoir
i^
yi
1
Region 3
Region 2
Region 1
! _--
y2
:
y3!
I. Increase yi
II. Lengthen Region 2

Point A
Point B
III.
A. A greater fluid velocity at point B, but an

unchanged fluid height in Column 1.
B. A greater fluid velocity at point B, and a greater
Decrease y3
A. I only
B. HI only
fluid height in Column 1.
C.
Either I or II
D.
Either I or III
C. A lower fluid velocity at point B, but an unchanged

fluid height in Column 1.
D. A lower fluid velocity at point B and a greater fluid
height in Column 1.
23.
Comparing the average blood pressure in similar veins

in the neck and calves of a standing human reveals that
the blood pressure will:
A. be greater in the neck.

B. be greater in the calves.
C. be the same in both places.
D. depend upon the average blood pressure in the

body.
24. As blood flows steadily through a pipe of uniform

cross-section and length L, its speed:
A. must increase to counteract losses to viscosity.
B. must decrease to counteract losses to viscosity.
C. must increase, because there is a pressure

difference between the ends of the pipe.
D. remains unchanged, as long as the pressure
difference between the ends of the pipe is constant.
88
i. C
2.
3. D
4.
6. A
7.
9.
10. A
11. A
12.
14. A
15. D
13. D
5.
16. A
17. C
18.
19.
20. D
21. C
22.
23.
24. D
25. D
YOU ARE DONE.
Answers to 25-Question Fluids and Solids Review

1.
Hydraulic Press
Choice C is the best answer. Pascal's principle states that a pressure change applied to any point of a contained fluid is
transmitted undiminished in all directions to every point inside that fluid. If a pressure change Pj is applied to a contained
fluid by Piston 1, then this pressure change is felt uniformly everywhere inside that fluid. P2 must equal Pj, which means:
^1 = ^2.
A,
A2
Because the surface areas of each piston are different, while they both share the same force/area, the forces must be different.
The force on the large piston surface is greater than the force on thesmaller piston surface, meaning that F2 is in fact greater
than Fj. However, that is merely an observation and not a reason for the difference in force magnitudes. Choice B is
incorrect, because the question asks for the cause of the force difference; choice B merely repeats the question. Choices A
and D are incorrect relationships. The best answer is choice C.
2.
Choice D is the best answer. Although a hydraulic press makes it possible to produce a large force upon the application of a
small force, no physical laws are being violated. If the fluid is incompressible, then the work applied on one side is equal to
work acting on the other side. Energy is conserved, so choice A is eliminated. The fluid moves when the piston is put into
motion, which in turn moves the other piston by a distance that is proportional to their relative sizes. This follows
conservation of momentum, so choice B is eliminated. The force is different on each side of each piston, because their
surface areas are different, so the force is not conserved. Choice C is eliminated. By default, the best answer is choice D.
3.
Choice D is the best answer. By conservation of energy, the work done on Piston 1 must equal the work done on Piston 2.
Work is the product of force and displacement, so we can say:
Fjx, =F2x2
Since r2 =5rj and since A= jtr2, A2 =25A j.That means that F2 =25Fj, so x2 must be -L. The best answer is choice D.
4.
Choice B is the best answer. From the equation:
Aj
A2
vve see that in order to increase F2 by a factor of 4, we must increase Fj by a factor of 4, increase A2 by a factor of 4, or
decrease Aj by a factor of4. Since A = jtr2, then in order to increase A2 by a factor of4, we must increase r2 by a factor of
2. In order to decrease A j by a factor of 4, we must decrease rj by a factor of 2. The best answer is choice B.
5.
Choice C is the best answer. We want to know which changes will NOT decrease the time for the pistons to pass back
through their equilibrium positions. We must find which choices either increase or do not affect this time. Decreasing oil
viscosity would allow the oil to flow more freely and the pistons to move more easily, and therefore more quickly, towards
equilibrium. This invalidates Option I and eliminates choices A and D. Of the remaining choices, vve need consider only
Option III, because Option II is in both of the remaining choices. Increasing the volume of the reservoir does not affect how
fast the pistons move. From the passage, vve know that the reservoir is substantially larger than the piston columns.
Therefore, the flow of oil from Column 2 to Column 1 is not affected much by an increase in reservoir oil volume. This
validates Option III, making choice C the best answer. Let's consider Option II. Increasing the mass of Piston 1 increases the
gravitational force which, in turn, leads to a smaller acceleration of Piston 1 back up towards equilibrium. The gravitational
force here acts in the same direction as the force initially applied to Piston 1. The same can be said for Piston 2 moving in the
opposite direction. The basic idea is that heavier pistons move more slowly than lighter pistons. This will increase the time
towards equilibrium, validating Option II. The best answer is choice C.
6.
Choice A is the best answer. The hydraulic press works when one piston is pushed in towards the oil reservoir by any kind
of force, which in turn presses outward against the other piston. This process requires only that the oil be there, not that any
gravity be present. Because the press does not need gravity, choices B and D are incorrect. Choice C is incorrect, because the
pressure must be equal throughout the reservoir. If the pressure varied, there would be a continuous flow of oil towards the
side with lower pressure until the pressures were uniform. The principle behind this is often referred to as Pascal's principle.
89
7.
Choice D is the best answer. Pressure is defined as force/area. Changing the density of the fluid will not change the cross-
sectional areas of the pistons, and it will not change the magnitude of the force applied to Piston 1. If:
Pl = p2 => El=Ei
A,
A2
then F2 also remains unaffected. The best answer ischoice D.

8.
Relax and Float
Choice D is the best answer. Although the three tanks have three different shapes, the height of the fluid in all three cases is
the same. Pressure at a depth h below the surface of the fluid is pgh. Since the objects are all at the same depth h, they all
experience the same pressure. The best answer is choice D.

9.
Choice B is the best answer. This is the definition of buoyant force; but even if you did not know this, you could get to the
right answerfrom the equation for buoyant force given in the passage:
B = Pfluid'Vdisplaced fluid'g
Density and volume are related by mass:
B=massdispiaced fluid'g. so, the buoyant force is equivalent to the weight ofthe fluid displaced. The best answer ischoice B.
10.
Choice A is the best answer. Acceleration depends on the density of the object. An object with a smaller density will have a
greater acceleration. If the objects are all released at the same time, then Object I will reach the surface First. The best
answer is choice A.
11.
Choice A is the best answer. If the fluid density increases, the buoyant force formula in the passage indicates that the
buoyant force will increase. This means that more force is needed to submerge the object, in order to overcome the buoyant
force. This rules out choices C and D. As the submersion depth increases, more force will be needed to get the object to that
lower depth. Why? As depth increases, so does the local density of the fluid. Fluids, even water, are slightly compressible.
The increased pressure at lower depths compresses the liquid lightly. This increases the buoyant force against the object.
Normally, the object would also compress somewhat, complicating matters; but this object is said to be completely
incompressible. The best answer is choice A.
12.
Choice D is the best answer. Because the objects each have a density less than that of water and are completely submerged,
the buoyant force acting on the objects is greater than the weights of the objects. There will be a net force upwards on each
object, so they will rise. Consider the free body diagram for any one of the objects:
where B = pwaterôbjectg ana" the weight of the object can be written as:
mg = Pobject Vobject 8
Note that because the object is completely submerged, the volume of the object and the volume of displaced fluid are equal.
The difference between these two forces gives us the net force acting on the object. Solving for acceleration:
ma = B - mg
i
_ Vv object
g(p
wate
or
ma = (pwater'Vobjecfg) - (PobjecfVobjecfg)
r" Pobjectj ___ "object g ^Pwater " PobjectJ _ g \Pwater" Pobject;

Pobject* object
Pobject
The acceleration of each object is independent of its volume (size), but depends on the density of the object. If all of the
objects have the same density, they all have the same acceleration. If the objects are all released at the same time, they will
all reach the surface at the same time. If this seems long-winded, then just remember that objects with the same density are
subjected to the same buoyant acceleration in a fluid. The best answer is choice D.
90
13.
Choice D is the best answer. Both statements describe ways in which the object's density increases as it is submerged intoa
tank of water. The object's mass cannot change, as it neither gains nor loses matter, so the increase in density is associated
with a reduction in the object's volume. Decreasingthe object's volume decreases the buoyant force on it, by decreasing the
volumeof fluid displaced by the object. This invalidates choices A and C. Having a larger water density, on the other hand,
would increase the buoyant force, as seen in the buoyant force equation given in the passage. The best answer is choice D.
14.
Choice A is the best answer. Solve for frequency, using the equation given in the passage:
/ =
=74A
where the minus sign has been dropped, since the magnitude of frequency depends only upon the magnitude of the
acceleration. Plus and minus signs generally indicate direction, not magnitude. Let's use this equation and physical intuition
to choose the best answer. The acceleration in the numerator means that more acceleration will increase the frequency.
Gravity is one force accelerating the box (through mg and the buoyant force); we therefore expect that the gravitational
acceleration g should be in the answer. This rules out choice C. Furthermore, the units should be those of acceleration
divided by length, which rules out choices B and D. This leaves only choice A, which looks curiously similar to the
oscillation frequency of a pendulum of length L. Notice that the oscillation frequency would increase, if the box were made
less dense than the fluid. What happens to the frequency when the density of the box exceeds that of the fluid? The box no
longer has a frequency, and it sinks. The best answer is choice A.
Passage III
15.
(Questions 15 - 21)
Stress and Strain
Choice D is the best answer. The material requiring the least stress for a given 5% strain must be the material with the
smallest value of Young's modulus:
Y = 2
8
where o is the applied stress and e is the resulting strain. From the data given in the passage, bone has the smallest modulus,
making choice D the best answer. This is why they use metal, which is stronger than bone, to hold shattered bones together,
and why they do not use bone to hold together fractured metal. The best answer is choice D.
16.
Choice A is the best answer. The maximum strain in the wire occurs with the maximum force, 70 newtons. The change in
the wire's length of the wire with the application of this force is 0.224 cm, so the strain is:
e
AL
0.224 x 10-2 m
0.448 x 10"2 = 0.448 x 10 = 4.48 x 10"4
5 m
10
17.
Choice C is the best answer. The wire is made of steel, so the maximum load by using the ultimate tension strength is:
aT= rmax
Fmax =OtA =(5 x108 N/m2)(7.85 x10-7 m2) 40 x101
40x 101 is slightly overestimated, because 7.85 isless than 8. Looking at the possible choices, choice C seems to be the best.
Doing the arithmetic completely will confirm this; but you have only 1.29 minutes to answer each question, which makes
doing complete arithmetic a complete waste of time. Always use the four answer choices to reduce your arithmetic (e.g., ask
yourself if 5 x 7.85 looks more like 3.5,27.5, 39.3, or 48.0). The best answer is choice C.
18.
Choice B is the best answer. As the nonlinear region of the graph begins, it takes very little stress to strain (stretch) the wire.
That is what the flattening of the curve represents. If you have ever pulled on one a wad of chewing gum as you were biting
on the other end, you know that at some value of stress, the gum begins to stretch very easily. Beyond this point, the gum
will never elastically rebound to its original shape; it has permanently deformed. This points towards choice B. Choice A is
incorrect, because the wire stretches when any stress is put on itremember, stress gives strain. Stretching alone would not
explain the bend in the plotted data. Choices C and D say essentially the same thing-stiffer materials have a bigger Young's
modulus. This invalidates both choices C and D, leaving only choice B. The best answer is choice B.
19.
Choice D is the best answer. To find the maximum stress, we use the maximum applied force, 70 newtons:
0= F =
70 newtons _ 70 x iq7 N
m-*
7.85 x IQ"7 m2
7.85
Since 70/7.85 is between 1 and 10, the order of magnitude of the answer must be 107, making choice D optimal. Do not
waste time by doing the division. Just convince yourself that the answer is between 1 and 10. The best answer is choice D.
91
20.
Choice D is the best answer. An applied stress is opposed by intermolecular forces within the material. If the composition
of the material is not homogeneous, these intermolecular forces are not equal for tension and compression. This points to
choice D as the best answer. Choice C is incorrect, because most of the numbers reported in the table are strikingly similar.
For two independent quantities, you should generally expect unrelated numbers. Choices A and B are wrong for two reasons:
There are missing data trends in the tables, which precludes verifying any general relationship; and the data for bone have
different values for the ultimate tension and compression strengths. When encountering an "always" or "never" choice, just
look for or think of one example that invalidates the choice-more often than not, there is at least one. The best answer is
choice D.
21.
Choice C is the best answer. When oriented vertically, the compression strength will dictate how much weight a given rod
can withstand. From the table given in the passage, steel has the highest compression strength of the three materials. Thus,
steel can support the most weight; choice C is correct. Choices A and B are wrong, as you know if you have ever seen a
building under construction. For horizontal concrete beams, there are always steel rods within the concrete. These rods are
there for support, implying that steel is better than concrete in this horizontal orientation. Why not make all the horizontal
beams out of steel? Two reasons are: First, the building would become unreasonably heavy, requiring even more vertical
support; and second, steel costs more than concrete. The best answer is choice C.
Questions 22 - 25
22.
Choice C is the best answer. The fluid velocity will decrease if a more viscous liquid is used, assuming that all other
conditions remain the same. This can be deduced from the definition of viscosity, which is the resistance to flow. We can
eliminate choices A and B. The fluid heights in the columns depends upon the pressure below each column in the drainage
tube. The pressure difference across the drainage tube depends upon the pressure at the reservoir end (which is due to the
weight of the fluid) and the pressure at the exit end (which is due to the atmosphere). Since neither pressure changes, the
introduction of the new fluid (whose mass density is equal to that of the previous fluid) will not affect the fluid heights in the
columns. The best answer is choice C.
23.
Choice B is the best answer. Although blood is a viscous fluid, the effects of viscosity are small on it, and we can
approximate the blood as an incompressible, nonviscous fluid. This means that Bernoulli's equation is applicable:
P + pgh + -pv = constant
If vve compare similar veins, then the flow velocity through them should be somewhat similar. Thus, any blood pressure
difference between them arises from blood pressure being measured at different elevations separated by a distance h. Since
the calves are closer to the ground than the neck, in a standing human being the calves experience a greater average pressure.
This is why an open wound is elevated to reduce bleeding, and it makes choice B the best answer. Choice D is invalid,
because any average changes in the blood pressure produce similar changes in the neck and calves. The best answer is
choice B.
24.
Choice D is the best answer. As blood flows steadily through a pipe of uniform cross-section and length L, its speed
remains constant, as long as the pressure difference between the ends of the pipe is constant. The best way to answer this is
to eliminate the three incorrect choices. The question stated that the blood flows steadily, which means Q is a constant. But
we also know that Q = Av. The pipe has a uniform cross-section, which means A is a constant. This all implies that v, the
speed of the fluid, is also a constant. Choices A, B, and C all say that the speed changes, so they must be incorrect. The best
answer is choice D.
25.
Choice D is the best answer. Comparing pressures between two different regions requires employing Bernoulli's equation.
Bernoulli's equation relating Region 1 to Region 3 says:
pi +^-p(vi)2 +pgyi =p3 +- (v3f +PSV3

1
Since A j = A3t the continuity equation implies \\ = V3. This means that the above relationship reduces to:
Pi +Pg>'i = P3 + P8Y3
To make P\ equal to P3, yi must be equal to y3 (given that Aj = A3). For this to occur, y\ must increase, or y3 must
decrease. This makes Options I and III valid. The lengthening of Region 2 will have no effect on the pressures against the
walls in Region 1 or Region 3. The best answer is choice D.
92
52-Question Fluids and Solids Practice Exam
I.
II.
III.
Stresses and Strains
(1-5)
Balloons and Dirigibles
(6-11)
Cannula
(12 -17)
(18-21)
IV.
Blood Flow Analog
(22 - 27)
V.
Toilets and Siphons
(28 - 33)
(34 - 37)
Poiseuille's Law
(38 - 42)
Buoyancy Balance
(43 - 48)
(49 - 52)
VI.
VII.
Fluids and Solids Exam Scoring Scale

Raw Score
MCAT Score
42-52
13-15
34-41
10-12
24-33
7-9
17-23
4-6
1-16
1-3
2.
A 1-m3 block of aluminum sank to the bottom of a lake

of depth 750 m. By how much did the block shrink?
When a stress (which is pressure) is applied to a solid, it

will deform slightly. The resulting deformation is called a
strain. There are several ways of stressing a solid. In general,
B. 0.01m3
stresses and strains are related through an elastic modulus E,
C. 0.001m3
as long as we remain within the elastic limitof the solid. The

general relationship of stress to strain is:
D. 0.0001m3
A. 0.1m3
stress
strain
The stress is always an applied force per area, and the

strain is always a fractional change in some dimension, such
3.
Suppose Y, B, and S are the Young's, bulk, and Shear

moduli of aluminum, respectively. Which of the
as length or volume.
following statements istrue, ifo = V3 for aluminum?

B =
AV/V
where V is the original volume of the solid, and B is a

constant called the bulkmodulus that depends on the material
Y>B>S
D.
As a second example of stress and strain, consider a

cylindrical wire of length L and cross-sectional area A,
attached to a ceiling with one end dangling. If a force F pulls
the wire downward, perpendicular to A, it will stretch the
wire by an amount AL. The amount of stretch is related to the
amount of applied force through:
=
Y<B<S
C. Y = B,S<Y
making up the solid.
A.
B.
4.
F/A
Y = B,Y<S
How much work is done by a force F that stretches a

wire of length L by AL, if the wire has cross-sectional
area A, and Young's modulus Y?
A.
YAL
B.
YAL
al/l'
where Y is called Young's modulus and is a constant that
depends on material. Another important elastic modulus is
C.
L(AL)2
YA
called the shear modulus, S. We will not define S here; but if
the solid is isotropic, Y, B, and S are related through:
D.
YA(AL)2
2L
S =
2(1 + o)
3(1 - 2a)
where a is a dimensionless constant that depends on the

material.
5.
Suppose an analogy were made between Hooke's law,
Useful information:
given by FSpnng = -kAx, andYoung's modulus, Stress =
g= 10 m/s2, pwater = 1000 kg/m3, Bai= 7.5 x 1010 Pa
(Y) (Strain). Which quantity in the Young's modulus

equation corresponds to the spring constant k in
1.
Hooke's law?
How much pressure P must be applied to an isotropic

solid of bulk modulus B to compress it to half of its
original volume, assuming you remain within its elastic
A.
YAL
C.
YA
D.
YA
limit at all times?
A.
P = 2B
B.
P-=B
YAAL
B.
C. P = B
4
D. P = B
2
94
8.
When an object is placed into a fluid, it displaces a set

amount of that fluid. The displaced fluid exerts an upward
force on the object This force is called the buoyant force
and is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.
Qualitatively, the buoyant force is determined using Equation
To lift a 2000 kg load with a hot-air balloon rather than

a helium-filled balloon, what changes to the balloon
system should be made?
A. More ballast should be used in the hot-air balloon,

since air is less dense than helium at the same
temperature.
B. The volume of the hot-air balloon should be bigger,
1.
since air is more dense than helium at the same
B = PfluidVfiuidg
temperature.
C. A balloon with a smaller volume should be used,
Equation 1
since air is more dense than helium at the same
where the mass of the fluid displaced has been written in

terms of its density and volume. For an object that floats, the
buoyant force is equal to the weight of the object. The
buoyant force is determined from the submerged portion of
the object, where V in Equation 1 is the volume of the object
that is submerged.
temperature.
D. No changes need to be made, since equal moles of

air and helium occupy the same volume at the same
temperature and pressure.
Applications of the buoyant force usually involve objects

floating in a liquid. However, air is a fluid, and objects can
float in air as well. Buoyancy is the principle governing both
hot-air balloons and helium-filled balloons.
9.
As a hot-air balloon ascends upward at a constant

speed, a package is dropped out of the balloon. At the
instant the package is released, the momentum of the
The balloons
displace an amount of the surrounding air, and this air exerts

a buoyant force on the balloon. If the buoyant force is
greater than the weight of the balloon, then the balloon will
rise. The balloon continues to be accelerated upward until
the buoyant force exactly equals the weight of the balloon.
balloon:
A.
increases.
B.
decreases.
C. is unaffected because the force does notchange.

D.
Helium-filled dirigibles (blimps) are used for slow air

travel and can often be seen at major sporting events. Lateral
motion in a dirigible is carried out using thrusters. A hot-air
balloon can move laterally from either thrust or the presence
of wind. The pilot of a hot-air balloon must depend on air
currents for lateral displacement.
is unaffected because the decrease in mass is
compensated by an increase in velocity.
10. When using hot air instead of helium in a balloon to lift
6.
a heavy load, which of the following statements should

be true? [Note: Tjn = temperature inside the balloon;
A helium-filled balloon rises to a height of 50 km. At
this height, the balloon hasa volume of 5000 m3 and the

total load is 2000 kg. What is the density of air at 50
Tout = temperature outside the balloon.]
km, if the buoyant force on the balloon is 2.4 x 102
A. Tin = ToutJ me weight equals the buoyant force

B. Tjn > Tout;the buoyantforce exceeds the weight
C. Tjn < Tout; the weight exceeds the buoyant force
Newtons?
A (2.4 x102)(9.8) kg/

5000
2.4 x102 kg/
D. Tjn > Tout; the density of the air inside the balloon
exceeds the density of the air outside the balloon.
/m
' (5000X9.8) /m
(2.4 x102)(2000) kg/
(5000)(9.8)
'Tm11. Which of the following is NOT responsible for lateral
(2.4 x102)(5000) kg/
(2000)(9.8)
7.
motion in a hot-air balloon?
/m3
A.
A horizontal wind.
B.
The exhaust chute of the burner oriented in a lateral
position.
As a hot air balloon ascends, what is observed?
C. Differing local air pressures.
A. The external pressure decreases.

B.
D.
The mass of the hot-air balloon increases.
The exhaust chute of the burner oriented in a
vertical position.
C. The center of mass for the hot-air balloon system

shifts to a higher point.
D. The surface area of the balloon decreases.
95
13. Which of the following would result in a doubling of
the height H?
One method for gauging blood pressure in a vein or

artery is to use a manometer. Its U-shaped tube is always
open toatmospheric pressure on one end and connected to a
small glass tube, the cannula, on the other. When this
A. Halving only the atmospheric pressure.

B. Doubling only the solution density.
C. Doubling only the vein's blood pressure.
cannula is inserted directly into the side of a vein, the local

blood pressure competes with the atmospheric pressure to
push a liquid solution, located in the tube, one direction or
D. Increasingthe vein's blood pressureby psolutiongh-
the other. The solution level is located at the dashed line,
14. The average volume blood flow rate through the
when the cannula is open to atmospheric pressure. When in
capillaries is:
use, the solution level's height H relates to the blood pressure

according to Equation 1:
B.
A. larger than that in both the arteries and veins.

smaller than that in both the arteries and veins.
C. equal to that in both the arteries and veins.

D. smaller than that in the arteries, but larger than that
'blood 'am + PsolutionS"
Equation 1
in the veins.
Figure1 showsa standard cannula.

15. Why is a buffer region of saline used for arterial
Cannula
measurements?
A. Blood and saline are of similar density, thus

allowing an accurate pressure calculation.
B. To prevent blood from mixing with mercury,
because the mixing blood will give erroneous
measurements of H.
Figure 1
C. To prevent blood from mixing with mercury,

because of mercury's toxicity.
D. To reduce the overall density of the manometer
fluid, for increased precision in measuring H.
Saline, used in the cannula, is chosen for two reasons: it

is non-toxic and its density is small enough to measure the
pressures typically found in a vein. Average gauge pressures
are about 103 Pa in a vein and 104 Pa in an artery. For

arteries, mercury (Hg) is often used in the tube along with a
thin buffer zone of saline between the artery and the mercury.
The density of saline is 1.02 g/mL and Hg is 13.6 g/mL.
16. Compared to a healthy neighboring section of artery, a

narrowed section (as a result of arteriosclerosis) yields:
Pressure readings aid in diagnosing arteriosclerosis, a

condition where plaque builds up on an artery's inner wall
and restricts blood flow. Such changes in the flow speed
correspond to changes in the local blood pressure. (Unless
A. an increased height for the manometer reading and

a larger blood flow velocity through the
constriction.
B. a decreased height for the manometer reading and a

larger blood flow velocity through the constriction.
C. an increased height for the manometer reading and
a reduced blood flow velocity through the
otherwise stated, treat blood as an ideal fluid.)

12.
When the cannula is inserted into a healthy artery,

which of the following saline levels could be seen in the
manometer? (the arrow indicates the fluid level)
I.
II.
constriction.
D. a decreased height for the manometer reading and a

reduced blood flow velocity through the
III.
constriction.
.1
17. A relatively high systolic blood pressure can cause

arteries to expand. This expansion results from the
relatively large:
=L>
A. I and II only.
B. II and III only.
B. Young's modulus of the blood.
C. Ill only.
D. I, II and III only.
D. Young's modulus of the arteries.
A.
C.
96
bulk modulus of the blood.
bulk modulus of the arteries.
21. In which of the following columns will the water level

be the lowest when the valve is open and water is
flowing out from point A?

passage.
18.
When a force F is applied to an copper wire of length L

and cross-sectional area A, it stretches by AL. If the
same force is applied to an copper wire of length L and
cross-sectional area 2A, it stretches by:
II
III
IV
A. AL
4
B. 4L
2
C.
2AL
D.
4AL
Valve
19.
In advanced arteriosclerosis, a vascular flutter can occur
where blood flow periodically stops and starts again

within an afflicted artery. This flutter is caused:
A. by plaque buildup completely clogging the artery.

B. by a variation in the local pressure, being
occasionally less than or greater than the pressure
A.
Column I
B.
Column II
C.
Column III
D.
Column IV
in the surrounding tissue.
C. by an increase in the blood pressure arising from a

decrease in the blood volume flow rate.
D. by a decrease in the blood pressure arising from a

shrinking of the artery's diameter.
20.
For the following open-ended U-tube, what is true of

solution Z?
Solution Z
HoO
A.
Solution Z is more dense than
water; its density
relative to water is pSolution Z =

B.
C.
Solution Z is less dense than
water; its density
(b)PH2
water; its density

D.
water; its density
97
23. In which region is the fluid velocity the GREATEST?
A.
B.
C.
D.
If we treat blood as an ideal fluid, then blood flow
through our arteries and veins is governed by two equations.

The first is the continuity equation which is:
Equation 1
Av = k
Region 1
Region 2
Region 3
The fluid velocity is the same is all three regions.
where A is the cross-sectional area, v is the velocity of the

fluid, and k is a constant.
24. How can the pressure exerted by the fluid BEST be

described, as it passes from Region 1 through the tube
The second equation is Bernoulli's equation, which
and ultimately through Region 3?
states:
Equation 2
A. From Region 1 to 2, pressure increases; from

Region 2 to 3, the pressure change is uncertain. P3
>Pl.
p + L pv2 + pgy = k
where P is the pressure, p is the fluid density, v is the

velocity of the fluid, y is the height above some reference
B. From Region 1 to 2, pressure decreases; from

Region 2 to 3, pressure increases. P3 > Pi-
level, and k is a constant
C. From Region 1 to 2, pressure increases; from

Region 2 to 3, the pressure change is uncertain. Pi
Figure 1 shows a tube designed for the study of fluid

dynamics. An ideal fluid is forced through the tube from the
left to the right, by way of an applied pressure. This tube can
be treated as analogous to an artery in your chest.
Region 1
>P3.
D. From Region 1 to 2, pressure decreases; from

Region 2 to 3, pressure increases. Pi > P3.
Region 3
Region 2
.A
25. To increase the pressure in Region 2, what can be

done?
A. Increase A2
B.
Decrease A2
C. Increase y2
D. Decrease yi
Figure 1. Tube for Studying Flow Dynamics
26. If the fluid behaves in an ideal fashion, in which region
Fluid flows from left to right in Figure 1. Region 1 has

pressure Pj, velocity vj, height y\, and area Ai; and
similarly for Region 2, P2, V2, y2, and A2; and for Region 3,
P3, V3, y3, and A3. The relative areas and heights are:
Ai=A3 = 2A2
and
y{ = y2
is the pressure GREATEST?

A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
_ ya
D. It cannot be determined without knowing the fluid

velocity.
22. How do the pressure and velocity of the fluid leaving

Region 1 compare to the pressure and velocity of the
fluid entering Region 2?
27.
A. Velocity decreases by a factor of 2; pressure

doubles.
If the cross-sectional area in Region 2 is reduced, then:

A.
B. Velocity doubles; pressure decreases by a factor of
P2 increases.
B. P3 increases.
2.
C.
C. Velocity doubles; pressure decreases by an amount
V2 increases.
D. V3 increases.
that cannot be exactly determined.
D. Velocity increases by a factor of V2; pressure

decreases by an amount that varies with Ay.
98
30. For the toilet to function, all of the following must be

true EXCEPT:
One thing that staff members at The Berkeley Review

have come to greatly appreciate is indoor plumbing. The
porcelain wunderchair operates based on the fundamental
principles of fluid dynamics. The toilet is a bowl to which a
drainage tube, known as an Erkel tube, is connected. Water
A. the tank must be at a greater height than the bowl.

B. the Erkel tube must have an air space.
C. the water in the bowl must be at the same height as
the water in the Erkel tube.
D. the aspirator tube must be filled with water.
stored in an elevated tank can flow into the bowl when the
flap is opened. The flowing water serves to both increase the

hydrostatic pressure in the bowl, and reduce the air pressure
in the Erkel tube via an aspirator tube, causing the Erkel tube
to act as a siphon tube. Figure 1 shows the basic schematic
of a toilet.
31.
What is the role of the aspirator tube in the toilet?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Aspiral oi
Tube
32.
Erkel tube
To
To
To
To
reduce the air pressure in the Erkel tube.

increase the air pressure in the Erkel tube.
reduce the air pressure in the bowl.
increase the air pressure in the bowl.
How can the pressure at the base of the water tank be

determined?
A. Pbase = Patm.
A siphon functions by having the two ends of a tube

at different local pressures (typically because they are at
different heights.) This is done so that fluid may flow from
higher pressure to lower pressure. The flow is driven by a
pressure difference between the two ends of the tube.
28.
B.
Pbase = Patm. + Pairgntank
C.
Pbase = Patm. + PwaterSntank
D. Pbase = Pwatergntank
What is true of a functioning siphon during operation?

I. The intake end of the siphon tube must be at a
lower height than the output end of the siphon tube.
II. Water flows because hydrostatic pressure is greater
at the output end of the tube than the input end.
33.
from the bowl of the toilet and into the Erkel tube is:
III. The fluid in the tube must completely fill the tube,
and flow must be initiated by a pressure difference.
A. the potential energy of the water in the Erkel tube.

B. the potential energy of the water in the tank.
C. the mechanical energy of the pump in the Erkel
A. II only
29.
B.
Both I and III
C.
Both II and III
D.
III, and III are all true
The energy responsible for causing water to flow out
tube.
D. the mechanical energy of the pump in the tank.
A toilet will function best with what type of fluid?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A fluid
A fluid
A fluid
A fluid
with
with
with
with
high viscosity and low volatility.

low viscosity and low volatility.
high viscosity and high volatility.
low viscosity and high volatility.
99
37. When a ship goes from the ocean into a lake, it will:
Questions 34 through 37 areNOT basedon a descriptive
A. float higher in the water and require a smaller
passage.
34.
buoyant force to stay afloat

B. float lower in the water and require a larger
C. float higher in the water and require the same
D. float lower in the water and require the same
buoyant force to stay afloat.
Which of the following graphs BEST represents

Ivolume stressl versus Ivolume strainl for an isotropic
solid within its elastic limit?
A.
35.
B.
IVolume Strainl
IVolume Strainl
IVolume Strainl
IVolume Strainl
Hydrogen is no longer used in lighter than flight,

because:
A. the amount of hydrogen required to lift a balloon is

prohibitive.
B. hydrogen is less dense than air or helium.
C. hydrogen is more dense than air or helium.
D. hydrogen is highly reactive with oxygen gas.
36. What is the apparent weight of an object in water if it

has a density of 10.0 g/mL and a weight of 60 N in air?
A.
6N
B.
30 N
C.
54 N
D.
600N
100
39.
If Q is held constant and r is decreased to half of its
original value, AP must increase by a factor of:

When a viscous fluid flows steadily through a pipe of
uniform cross-section, the volume flow rate (Q) depends on
the pressure difference between the ends of the pipe (AP), the
viscosity of the fluid (ti), the radius of the pipe (r), and the
length of the pipe (L). They are related by Poiseuille's
equation:
Q=
APjtr4
8r)L
A.
B.
C.
16
D.
32
40. If an additional trial were conducted in Experiment A

with a radius of 50 mm, the expected flow rate would
Raising r to the fourth power may seem unnerving at

first glance, but the radius impacts both the cross-sectional
area of the pipe as well as the average speed of the particles
that make up the fluid.
be:
A. 1.22 x 10"2 m3/s

B. 7.93 x 10"3 m3/s
C. 2.50 x 10"3 m3/s
Two separate experiments are carried out to study blood

flow. In both experiments, the viscosity of blood is taken to
D. 9.16xlO"4 m3/s
be2x 10"3 kg/ms.

Experiment A
41. If water (r\ = 1 x 10"3 ms) and blood were to flow
Blood flows through pipes that are all 1.0 m long but have
varying radii. AP is held constant as Q is being measured.
The results of four trials are summarized in the following
through identical pipes with the same flow rate, which

would require the LARGER pressure difference?
A.
B.
C.
D.
table:
Trial
Radius (mm)
AP(N/m2)
Q (m3/s)
10.0
10
1.96 xlO"5
20.0
10
3.14X10"4
30.0
10
1.60 xlO'3
40.0
10
5.03 x lO'3
42.
Experiment B
Blood,
Water,
Blood,
Water,
measured. The results of three trials are summarized in the
following table:
38.
a lower viscosity.
a lower viscosity.
a higher viscosity.
a higher viscosity.
Which of the following graphs BEST represents how

the flow rate of a fluid varies as the length of the pipe is
changed, if r|, AP, and r remain constant?
A.
Blood flows through pipes of constant radius 10 mm, but the

lengths of the pipes vary. Q is held constant as AP is being
because it has
because it has
because it has
because it has
B.
Trial
Length (m)
Q (m3/s)
AP(N/m2)
1.0
1.0 xlO'3
510
2.0
1.0 xlO"3
1020
3.0
1.0 xlO"3
1530
Length (L)
Length (L)
Length (L)
Length (L)
C.
If an additional trial of Experiment B were conducted

with a pipe of length 2.5 m, the expected pressure
differential would be:

o
A. 765 N/m2
B. 1275 N/m2
C. 1375 N/m2
D. 1785 N/m2
101
44. What counterweight is needed to balance the 50.0-g

hanging mass in a liquid with a density of 1.20 g/mL?

The buoyancy of an object is found by comparing the
object's weight to the weightof the fluid medium it displaces
(defined as the buoyant force acting on the object). The
buoyantforce is determined using Equation 1.
A. 22.5 g
B. 25.2 g
C. 28.9 g
D. 29.6 g
Equation 1 Fbuoyant = Pmedium"Vdisp!aced'g

To determine the buoyant force exerted by various fluid
mediums, a group of physics students used a pan balance.
On the left side, a 50.0-g mass was dangled and on the right
side a 10.0-g pan was equipped with counterweights to
45.
What is the approximate density of the hanging mass?

A. 1.25 g/mL
B. 2.00 g/mL
C. 3.00 g/mL
D. 5.00 g/mL
balance the left side. The weight on the left side was
balanced in such a way that it was flush with the top the fluid
in a graduated cylinder. The fluid in the cylinder was varied
and the mass of the counterweights and pan necessary for
balance was recorded. Figure 1 shows the apparatus.
46.
What would be observed for the experiment in an

environment with reduced gravity?
A. More mass in the pan would be required to

establish equilibrium.
B. Less mass in the pan would be required to establish
equilibrium.
C. The exact same mass in the pan would be required
to establish equilibrium.
D. The amount of mass needed in the pan would be
inversely proportional to the apparent weight of the
hanging mass.
Figure 1 Pan Balance for Measuring Buoyant Force
47.
One-by-one, the students measured the counterweight

needed to balance the hanging mass in four different liquids.
Which graph relates the apparent weight of an object to

the density of the medium in which it is submerged?
A.
Table 1 summarizes the results for each trial.
B.
Table 1 Counterweight required to balance 50.0-g mass in

each liquid and the density of each liquid
Fluid Medium
Counterweight Fluid Density
Air
50.0 g
1.29 g/L
Water
33.1 g
1.00 g/mL
Oil
34.8 g
0.90 g/mL
J3
Diethyl ether
37.1 g
0.78 g/mL
Carbon Tetrachloride
24.7 g
1.49 g/mL
Density (g/mL)
C _
Density (g/mL)
*> -
a,
a.
Density (g/mL)
43. As the density of the liquid used in the experiment is
Density (g/mL)
increased, what is observed?
I. More mass is needed to balance out the system.
48.
II. The object experiences a greater buoyant force.
from the earth to the moon. On the moon, the cube will:
III. The object's apparent weight is reduced.

A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
II only
Ill only
I and II only
II and III only
A cup of water with a floating ice cube is transported
102
float higher, because gravity is reduced.

float lower, because gravity is reduced.
remain the same, unaffected by changes in gravity.
float higher, because gravity is increased.

passage.
49.
If one makes an analogy between fluid flow and

electricity, pressure difference AP corresponds to:
A.
current
B. voltage.
C.
resistance.
D. capacitance.
50.
Releasing adrenaline dilates blood vessels, making it

easier for blood to flow. By about what percentage
would the diameter of a blood vessel need to increase to
raise blood flow by 20%, at constant blood pressure?
51.
A.
0%
B.
4.7%
C.
10%
D.
20%
An object weighing 144 N is suspended by a string

while completely immersed in water. The object has a
density four times the density of water. What is its
apparent weight?
A.
108 N
B.
72 N
C.
36 N
D.
576N
52. A floating object is 90% submerged in water and 60%

submerged in CCI4. What is the specific gravity of
CCI4 and the specific gravity of the object?
1.
A. Object = 0.60; CCI4 = 0.67
B. Object = 0.90; CCI4 = 0.67
C. Object = 0.90; CCI4 = 1.50

D. Object = 0.90; CCI4 = 3.00
103
2.
3. C
4.
5. C
6.
7. A
8.
9. A
10.
11. D
12.
13. D
14.
15. C
16.
17. A
18.
24.
19. B
20.
21. D
22.
23.
25. A
26.
27. C
28.
29. B
30.
31. A
32.
33. B
34.
35. D
36.
37. D
38.
39. C
40.
41. C
42.
43. D
44.
45.
46.
47. B
48.
50.
51. A
52.
49.
YOU ARE DONE.
Answers to 52-Question Fluids and Solids Exam

1.
Stresses and Strains
Choice D is the best answer. How much pressure P must be applied to an isotropic solid, of bulk modulus B, to compress it
to half of its original volume, assuming that the solid remains within its elastic limit at all times? If we compress it to half of
_ V
_ V
its original volume, then Vf =
. This means that the change in volume AV is equal to AV = Vf - V; =
. If we plug this
2
result into the formula for the bulk modulus, we get:

B
= -
=-
AV/V
= 2P, which reduces to: P = &.
- (V/2)/V
In order to squash the solid to half of its original volume, we must apply a pressure equal to half of its bulk modulus. Notice
that all three elastic moduli must be expressed in units of force/area. The best answer is D.
Choice D is the best answer. A 1-m3 block of aluminum sank to the bottom of a lake of depth 750 m. Finding out how
much the block shrank as a result of sinking requires determining the change in its volume AV. To find the change in
volume, we need to know the applied pressure. Below the surface of a liquid at depth h, the pressure of any object increases
due to the weight of the fluid column above it. So the pressure applied to the block is P = (pwater)Sn- Applying the bulk
modulus formula:
B
- __PSh
= -
AV;
AV
/V
Rearrange terms to solve for AV:

^6 m3<
AV =- (PlSV = - (1000)(10)(750)(lm') = _7.5 x 10"
mf) , AV =_, x 1Q-4m3 . . aQ001 m3
7.5 x 1010
7.5 x 1010
The minus sign means that the change in volume is a decrease. This question is testing whether we can work with factors of
10 quickly. The best answer is choice D.
Choice C is the best answer. Suppose Y, B, and S are the Young's, bulk, and shear moduli of aluminum. Which statement is
true, ifa =J- for aluminum? Using the relations between Y, B, and S given in the passage:
B
3(1 -2a)
3 11 -
3/
si
13
With a little manipulation, B = Y, eliminating answer choices A and B. S and Y are related as follows:
Y
S =
2(1+a)
Y
i + -
= t^V = - Y, which tells us that S<Y

2i
4.
Choice D is the best answer. How much work is done by a force F that stretches a wire of length L by AL, if the wire has a
cross-sectional areaof A, and Young's modulus Y?Since the answer choices look pretty nasty, we should use our knowledge
of units for this question (joules) to eliminate incorrect answer choices.
The units ofYare N/m2, the units ofLand AL are m, and the units ofAare m2. Examining the units ofeach choice leads to
the best answer. The answer in choice A is (Y)(AL)/L, with units of Nm/m2m = N/m2, which are the wrong units. The
answer in choice B is YAL with units of (N/m2)m = N/m, which are the wrong units. The answer in choice C is
L(AL)2/(Y)(A) with units of (mm2)/(N/m2)(m2) = m3/N, which are the wrong units. The answer in choice D is
(Y)(A)(AL)2/2L, with units of(N/m2)(m4/m) = N-m =joules, which are the correct units.
You could solve this question using the relationship of W = Fyd, where W is work. The force can be found by manipulating
Young's modulus, Y =
//\AL' t0 've ^ =
']_ The distance that the center of mass travels during the stretch is
actually AL/2, not AL. This means that the work done is (YAAL/l)(AL/2) =YAAL /2l- The best answer is choice D.
Copyright by The Berkeley Review<s>
104
5.
Choice C is the best answer. Suppose an analogy were made between Hooke's law, F = kAx, and Young's modulus,
(Stress) = (Y) (Strain). Which quantity in the Young's modulus equation corresponds to the spring constant k in Hooke's law?
If we can rewrite the Young's modulus equation so that it looks like F = (constant)AL, then whatever constant we get
corresponds to k.
Y = stress _ F/A
strain
=>
JF _ y A-L.
AL/L
=>
AL
The quantity Y-A- corresponds to the spring constant k. The best answer is choice C.
Passage II
Balloons and Dirigibles
(Questions 6 - 11)
Choice B is the best answer. The buoyant force is equal to the weightof the air that is displaced. It has nothing to do with
the weight (load), so thecalculation should notinclude 2000. This eliminates choices C and D. Theair density is solved for
as follows:
B = Pairvair*g Pair =
V*ir'S (5000m3)(9.8k8/s2)
= 4.9 x 10
3 kg
/m-
Note that the volume of the air displaced is equal to the volume of the balloon. The numerator should only contain the
buoyant force, so choice A is eliminated and choice B is the best answer. If they ask for an exact value, it is sometimes
easier to use the order of magnitude rather than solve foranexact number. The best answeris choice B.
Choice A is the best answer. As the balloon rises, the external air pressure decreases. This is due to less air being present,
therefore choice A is the best answer. Because the external pressure decreases, the balloon will expand, so its surface area
increases. This eliminates choice D. The mass of the hot-air balloon will not change or shift relative to the balloon,
therefore choices B and C are eliminated. The best answer is choice A.
8.
Choice B is the best answer. The dirigible floats because helium is less dense than air. The hot-air balloon floats because
hot air is less dense than cooler surrounding air. The difference in density between helium and air is far greater than the
difference in density between hot air and cold air. This is to say that atthe same temperature, air is denser than helium. This
means that to achieve neutral buoyancy, a greater volume of hot air is needed than the volume of helium for the same load.
This makes choice B the best answer. Choice A is eliminated, because less mass (ballast) should be used with the hot-air
balloon given that it is less buoyant than a helium balloon of equal volume. Choice C is eliminated, because the hot-air
balloon should have a greater volume than the helium balloon. Choice D is eliminated, because although equal moles of
gases occupy the same volume, they do not have the same masses, so the weights are different. This results in different
buoyancy. The best answer is choice B.
9.
Choice A is the bestanswer. Momentum isconserved in the absence of a net external force. The balloon-package system is
initially moving vertically upward at constant speed, so this system is experiencing no net external force. Under these
conditions, the force of gravity is equal to the buoyant force, neglecting any resistance. Throwing a package out of the
balloon will slightly decrease the gravitational force on the balloon, because the balloon now has less mass. Itwill therefore
accelerate upward, increasing its speed and thus increasing its momentum too. The solution is also found by noting that the
system is initially in equilibrium. When the package is released ithas momentum downward, so the balloon must have an
increase in momentum upward to balance out the package's downward momentum. The best answer ischoice A.
10.
Choice B isthebest answer. For an object to float in a fluid medium, the density of the object must be less than the density
of the surrounding fluid medium. By heating the air inside the balloon, we decrease its density. The result is that the density
of the air inside the balloon is less than the density of the air outside the balloon. This means that the temperature inside the
balloon must be greater than the temperature outside (which the name hot-air balloon implies). This eliminates choices A
and C. The densities are not equal, so choice Dis also eliminated. Lift results, because the buoyant force is greater than the
weight of the system. The best answer is choice B.
11.
Choice Dis correct. The passage references that lateral wind (crosswind) and thrust (due to the correct orientation of the
burner chute) will cause lateral motion. This eliminates choices Aand B. A difference in local air pressures results in air
flow (wind), because fluids flow from regions of higher pressure to regions of lower pressure. This can cause all sorts of
motion, including lateral motion ifthe wind is a crosswind. The hot-air balloon will flow with the air currents. The hot-air
balloon will not move laterally if the burner chute is positioned in a vertical manner, because the thrust force is vertical and
there is no lateral force. The best answer is choice D.
105
Passage HI (Questions 12 -17)

12.
Cannula
Choice C is the best answer. Since the average gauge pressure in the artery is greater than zero, the average pressure in the
artery is larger than the atmospheric pressure. Consequently, the blood pressure should push the cannula fluid out (as in
Figure III). You can think of what happens when you get cut. Blood squirts, oozes, or leaks out (you choose the more vivid
word) from you, so it must be at a higher pressure than the atmosphere. Choice C is best, because the height difference
results from the pressure in the cannula being greater than the atmospheric pressure. In Figure I, the blood pressure is less
than atmospheric pressure and in Figure II, the blood pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure. Neither of these are valid
scenarios, so choices A, B, and D are all invalid. The best answer is choice C.
13.
Choice D is the best answer. Equation 1, given in the passage, has three terms in it: Pbbod, Patm, PsoiutiongH- Doubling H
doubles the last term in the equation. One way to double H is to double the other two terms. Since the first three choices
refer to doubling or halving single variables, but no choice refers to doubling both terms, vve can eliminate choices A, B, and
C. If the blood pressure is increased such that the difference between the blood pressure and the atmospheric pressure (Pbiood
- Palm) doubles, then the height, H, would double. That in essence is what choice D is saying. The best answer is choice D.
14.
Choice C is the best answer. Because no blood is lost as it goes through the arteries, through the capillaries, and through the
veins, the blood mass flow rate must be the same through each region. Since blood is a fairly incompressible fluid and the
arteries and veins undergo minimal expansion, the average blood volume flow rate must also be the same through each
region. The best answer is choice C.
15.
Choice C is the best answer. As stated in the passage, the saline is non-toxic. Nothing is stated in the passage about
mercury being toxic, but it can be inferred from the fact you need a non-toxic buffer between blood and mercury. Since Hg
is toxic, the saline buffer keeps the Hg out of the patient's blood stream. Choice A starts off with a true statement that saline
and blood have relatively similar densities, but that is not necessary to measure blood pressure. Choice A is eliminated.
Choice Dis also tempting, because using a less dense solution would result in a bigger H. This would be easier to precisely
measure, but choice C is the better answer, because if precision of that sort was necessary, then mercury would not be used at
all. The best answer is choice C.
16.
Choice B is the best answer. Using the continuity equation, Aiv7 =A2V2, a decreased flow area in the artery leads to an
increased flow velocity ofthe blood. This rules out choices Cand D. Using Bernoulli's equation, an increased flow velocity
leads to a decreased local pressure against the walls in the narrowed region. Using Equation 1from the passage, a decreased
blood pressure leads to a decreased height for the manometer reading. The best answer is choice B.
17.
Choice A is the best answer. If the artery expands, either the blood is relatively incompressible or the artery is relatively
pliable. Since blood is a fluid, it has no Young's modulus by definition (Young's modulus refers to a solid). This rules out
choice B. Choices C and D would correspond to stiffer arteries, which would be less likely to stretch, so they are both
eliminated. Ifthe bulk modulus ofblood is large, then it is relatively incompressible, meaning that the high systolic pressure
causes thearteries to expand rather than the blood to compress. The best answer is choice A.
Questions 18 - 21
18.
Choice B is the best answer. When a force F is applied to a copper wire of length L and cross-sectional area A, itstretches
by AL. Ifthe same force is applied to a copper wire oflength Land cross-sectional area 2A, itstretches by how much? First,
let's use a little common sense to eliminate incorrect answer choices. The second copper wire is thicker than the original
copper wire. This tells us that for the same force, the second wire should notstretch as much as thefirst wire. So our answer
has to be less than AL. This eliminates choices Cand D. The best way to choose between the remaining choices Aand Bis to
set up a ratio, using the Young's modulus equation:
AL new
FL
YA new
AL =
FL
AL new = AL
(-AJ = AL(_A_) = AL
\Ancw)
\2Al
YA
The best answer is choice B. Try to answer the same question, this time assuming that the diameter of the second wire is
twice that of the first wire. That is a common twist on this kind of problem. The best answer is choice B.
106
19.
Choice B is the best answer. The phrase "periodically starts and stops", within the question, suggests that the cause of the
flutter must be a periodic or varying phenomenon. Only choice B refers to a scenario where fluctuation occurs. Plaque build
up would permanently clog it up, so it would not cause a fluctuation. This eliminates choice A. Choices C and D arc true
statements that are irrelevant to the question. Neither account for a stopping and starting phenomenon. Choice B describes a
scenario where the pressure fluctuates between greater than and then less than, which would correlate to the blood flowing
and then not flowing. Choice B is the best answer. The best answer is choice B.
20.
Choice D is the best answer. Because Solution Z is floating on water, it must be less dense than water. This eliminates
choice A. According to Archimedes Principle, the mass of water displaced is equal to the mass of the Solution Z. The
volume of water displaced is 7tr2b while the volume of Solution Z is 7rr2(a + b). This means that a column of water with
height b has the same mass as a column of Solution Z with height a + b. The value of a is less than b (as the picture shows),
so the density of Solution Z is slightly less than the density of water. We know from the picture that the density of Solution
Z is more than half of the density of water, because b is greater than a. This means that the density of Solution Z is found by
multiplying the density of water by a number greater than 0.50, but less than 1.00. This is true only in choice D. Choices B
and C are the result of multiplying the density of water by a number less than 0.50. The mathematics of equating the
pressures is shown below:
Psolution Zghsolution z = PH20onH20

PsolutionZg(a + b) = pH2Ogb
Psolution Z(a + b) = PH20b
Psolution Z = PH20
(a + b)
21.
Choice D is the best answer. This question combines the continuity equation with Bernoulli's principle. First off, when the
valve is opened, water will flow from the reservoir, through the open valve, and then through the outflow pipe and out
through point A. As the water flows through the side pipe, some water will climb the various columns, according to the
pressure it exerts against the walls at the point where it passes the column. The greater the pressure exerted by the moving
water against the walls, the higher that pressure will push water up the column.
Because the outflow pipe is narrowing from the point where it intersects Column I to the point where it intersects Column
IV, the average speed of the water is increasing as it flows to the right. According to Bernoulli's principle, as the flow speed
of a fluid increases, the pressure it exerts against the walls decreases. This means that the moving water will exert the highest
pressure against the walls as it passes the base of Column I and the least pressure against the walls as it passes the base of
Column IV. A lower pressure manifests itself as a smaller height for the water in Column IV. Even if you were unsure of the
physics involved with this question, hopefully you saw it as an extreme question and you eliminated choices B and C,
columns in the middle. The best answer is choice D.
Blood Flow Analog

22.
Choice C is the best answer. Because the area is being cut in half as the fluid flows from Region 1 into Region 2, the
velocity of the fluid must be increasing, ultimately by a factor of 2 (the relative sizes of the two regions). This eliminates
choices A and D. When the velocity increases, the 1/2 pv2 term in Equation 2 must increase: so, for the overall equation to
stay constant, the pressure against the walls of the pipe must be reduced. The exact amount by which the pressure is
decreased is uncertain, because the values of P and vj are not given. The best answer is choice C.
23.
Choice B is the best answer. Using the continuity equation, we find that:
Aivi = A2V2 = A3V3
Because A\ = 2A2 (as given in the passage), V2 is double v\. Because A1 = A3 (as given in the passage), v\ must be equal
to V3. This means that V2 is the greatest. The best answer is choice B.
24.
Choice D is the best answer. As the fluid flows from Region 1 to Region 2, the cross-sectional area decreases, so the
velocity must increase, according to the continuity equation (Equation 1). Because the V2 pv2 term in Bernoulli's equation
(Equation 2) increases while the pgy term is constant, the pressure must decrease. This eliminates choices A and C. Choices
B and D differ in their comparison only of the pressures in Regions 1 and 3. Because their cross-sectional areas are the same,
both regions have the same flow velocity. Because Region 3 is higher than Region 1, Region 3 must have a lower pressure
than Region 1 if Bernoulli's equation is to remain balanced. The best answer is choiceD.
107
25.
Choice A is the best answer. Using the continuity equation, if A2 increases, then V2 must decrease. If V2 decreases while y2
remains unchanged, Bernoulli's equation states that the pressure must increase. Increasing y2 (the height of Region 2) will
reduce the pressure in that region, so choice C should be eliminated. Changing yi should have no direct effect on the
pressure in Region 2. The best answer is choice A.
26.
Choice A is the best answer. We can see from Equation 2 that the two factors affecting the pressure that vary between the
regions are the height (y) and the velocity (v). The following relationship holds true:
Pj +-p(v1)2 +pgy1 =p2 +^-p(v2)2 +pgy2 =p3+^p(v3)2 +pgy3

Z.
The continuity equation relates the cross-sectional area of the pipe to the average particle speed, where Av = k as long as the
volume flow rate remains constant. Because A1 = 2A2 = A3, V2 = 2v\ - 2V3. This means that V2 is the greatest velocity. As
given in the passage, y3 > yi = y2- In order for the equality to hold true, P\ must be greater than both P2 and P3. The
greatest pressure is found in Region 1, where the area is greatest and the tube is lowest. The best answer is choice A.
27.
Choice C is the best answer. According to the continuity equation: A2V2 = k. Therefore, A2jV2i = A2f\'2f- If A2 decreases,
V2 must increase to satisfy the continuity equation. This makes choice C the best answer. According to Bernoulli's equation,
Pagainst walls + '/pv2 + pgh = k, P2 should decrease if V2 increases. This rules out choice A. Velocity and pressure in
Regions 3 will have no bearing on the pressure or velocity in Region 2. This makes choices B and D invalid. The best
answer is choice C.

28.
Toilets and Siphons
Choice C is the best answer. A siphon works because the two ends of the siphon tube are at different heights, and thus
different potential energies. In order to have water flow from the intake end to the output end, there must be a net pressure
difference, where the gauge pressure is greater at the output end. This occurs when the outputend is at a lower height, thus it
is at a point of greater hydrostatic pressure. This makes Statement I invalid. This same reasoning makes Statement II valid.
In order to get siphoning started, there must be an initial difference in pressures that is great enough to get the water to flow.
The tube must also be full, otherwise the air pocket cannot be displaced, and the fluid in the tube cannot flow. This makes
Statement III valid, and thus makes choice C the best answer. The best answer is choice C.
29.
Choice B is the best answer. Fora toilet to function, the liquid (fluid) must beable to flow. If the viscosity is high, then the
ability to flow is reduced. The greater the viscosity, the greater the pressure difference that is required to get the fluid to
flow. Ideally, the fluid should have low viscosity. This eliminates choices Aand C. Low volatility is ideal sothat the liquid
in the tank and bowl does not evaporate away. If the liquid evaporates away from the bowl, then the fluid height in the Erkel
tube will drop, and the siphon cannot be established. Ideally, the volatility of the fluid should be low. The best answer is
choice B.
30.
Choice D is the best answer. Because water must flow from the tank into the bowl, the height of the water tank must be
greater than the height of the bowl. Choice A is a valid requirement. The Erkel tube must have an air space at the top of the
tube so that air pressure can be reduced, and thus a pressure difference can be established between the two ends of the Erkel
tube. Choice B is a valid requirement. A fundamental idea in physics is that a liquid will seek the lowest point. Because
water in the bowl is free to fill the base of the Erkel tube, the height of water in the bowl at rest is equal to the height of the
water in the Erkel tube at rest. Choice C is a valid requirement. In order for the aspirator to reduce the air pressure in the
Erkel tube, it cannot have any water present. As water flows from the tank into the bowl, air pressure in the tank is reduced,
so air pressure in the aspirator tube is also reduced. This generates the reduced pressure that helps water (and various solutes
and possible insoluble solids-nice way to put it) to flow through the Erkel tube (siphon). Choice D is NOT a valid
requirement, and picking it might just make you score like the mighty Toledo Mudhens. The best answer is choice D.
31.
Choice A is the best answer. The role of aspiration in general is to take advantage of fluid flow to reduce the pressure in a
column. As a fluid flows across the top of an open-end column, the pressure inside of the column will be reduced. In the
case of a toilet, if the pressure in the aspirator tube is reduced, then it will lower the gas pressure of the air behind the Erkel
tube. This makes choice A the best answer. Choices C and D can be eliminated, because the change in air pressure in the
bowl is negligible. It can also be thought of in terms of PV = nRT. As water leaves the tank, the volume of the air space
above the water increases, resulting in a drop in pressure. The aspirator tube is open to the air space, so it experiences a drop
in pressure as well. The air space in the Erkel tube has a drop in pressure while the bowl has a gain in pressure due to the
additional water. This causes the pressure difference between the two ends of the Erkel tube. The best answer is choice A.
108
32.
Choice C is the best answer. At the base of the water tank, there is a column of water and the atmospheric air above. This
means the pressure at the base of the water tank is due to the pressure from the column of water (pgh) and the atmospheric
pressure. The best answer is choice C.
33.
Choice B is the best answer. Choices C and D can be eliminated immediately, because there is no pump associated with the
toilet shown in Figure 1. This means that there is no mechanical energy associated with a toilet. Because the water tank it at
the highest point, the water in the tank has the greatest potential energy of anything in the toilet. This potential energy is
used to force the water to flow through the toilet system. The best answer is choice B.
Questions 34 - 37
34.
Choice D is the best answer. We are looking for the graph that best represents Ivolume stressi versus Ivolume strainl for an
isotropic solid within its elastic limit. Stress and strain are directly proportional to each other. For a solid, stress = E (strain),
where E represents Young's modulus. As one value increases, so should other value. This eliminates choices A and C. The
elastic modulus that relates volume stress and volume strain is B. The general relation is Ivolume stressi = B Ivolume strainl,
which confirms that they are directly proportional to one another. So the graph should be a straight line with a positive slope.
35.
Choice D is the best answer. Hydrogen was actually used as the gas to lift balloons well into the early twentieth century.
However, hydrogen is so combustible that it is dangerous to use (as most of us have learned from the Hindenberg disaster.)
The reason hydrogen was used in the first place is because at 2 grams per mole (the molecular mass of H2 gas), hydrogen is
half as dense as helium which has an atomic mass of 4 grams per mole. This makes a hydrogen-filled balloon system less
massive than a balloon filled with helium, and therefore easier to lift off from the ground. The best answer is choice D.
36.
Choice C is the best answer. The object is denser than water, so it will sink when added to water. Because of the buoyant
force, its apparent weight will be less than its actual weight. As such, the apparent weight is less than 60 N. This eliminates
choice D. For an object that sinks in a fluid medium, the ratio of its density to the density of the fluid medium
(Pobjcct/pmedium) is equal to the ratio of the weight to the buoyant force (Fweight/Fbuoyant). In this case, the ratio of the
densities is 10 g/mL to 1 g/mL, which equals 10. This means that the buoyant force of the object is 6 N (60N/10). Given
that the magnitude of the weight is equal to the sum of the magnitude of the apparent weight and the magnitude of the
buoyant force (Fweight = Fbuoyant + âpparent weight), the apparent weight is the difference between the actual weight (60 N)
and the buoyant force (6 N). The apparent weight is 54 N.
Pobject _ ^Wright . 10 g/mL _ 60 N

Pwater
Fbuoyant
1 g/mL
^buoyant
Fbuoyant = 60Ji = 6N
10
Fweight - Fbuoyant + Fapparent weight ' Fapparcnt weight - Fweight" Fbuoyant -60N-6N-54N
37.
Choice D is the best answer. The density of the ocean (saltwater) is greater than the density of a lake (fresh water). Because
the ship goes from a denser medium to a less dense medium, it will experience an increase in the submerged volume, which
occurs to keep the buoyant force constant. You should recall that when the ship floats, the buoyant force equals the weight of
the ship, and that the buoyant force is found using: Fbuoyant = Pmedium'Vdisplaced'g- Fbuoyant and g remain constant, so as
Pmedium decreases, Vdispiaced must increase. The ship floats lower in a lake than the ocean, so choices A and C are
eliminated. Next, we must consider that the weight of the ship didn't change when the medium changed, so the buoyantforce
needed to offset the weight of the boat when it floats should also remain the same. Choice B is eliminated. The best answer
is choice D.

38.
Poiseuille's Law
Choice B is the best answer. To approximate how an additional trial of Experiment B with a pipe of length 2.5 m would
come out requires interpolation. One method to solve this problem would be to find a ratio between the new trial and one of
the trials in the table. In this case, you can almost get the answer directly from the table. Since L for the new trial has a value
between L for Trial 2 and Trial 3, AP for the new trial should also be between AP for Trial 2 and Trial 3. This means the
correct answer must be choice Bor choice C. For each meter ofpipe, the pressure difference increases by 510 N/m2. As we
go from L= 2.0 mto L= 2.5 m, the pressure should increase by 255 N/m2. So AP for the new trial should be 1020 +255 =
1275 N/m2. The best answer is choice B.
109
39.
Choice C is the best answer. If Q is held constant and r is decreased to half of its original value, AP must increase by what
factor?
Q =
Substitute V2 for r: Q =
APjtr4
8r|L
APjr(r/2) =\ 16 / =(l\APjrr4
8tiL
8rjL
"" U6/ 8tiL
To keep Q constant, we must increase the pressure difference by a factor of 16! The best answer is choice C.
40.
Choice A is the best answer. If an additional trial were conducted in Experiment A with a pipe of radius of 50 mm, what
would the expectedflow rate be? To do a problem like this, the best method is to find the ratio between the value of Q in the
new trial and the value of Q in one of the trials in the table. Let's find the ratio between the new trial and Trial 1:
APjt(r,
'new
r and Ql=^r1rj
8r|L
= Qi
8r|L
*rnew)
so
Qi
(ri)4
feewL =(L96x iQ-5) (SOjnm.)4 =(1 %xiq-5) (5/

\ (r,)4 /
10 mm
Qnew (2 x10"5)(625) =1250 x10"5 =1.25 x10"2 m3/s

This is very close to choice A. If we had justlooked atthe table, Qfor r = 50mm had to be larger than anything in the table.
The only choices that were larger than those in the table were choices A and B. Since Q r4, you could have reasoned that
answer choice B is too small. The best answer is choice A.
41.
Choice C is the best answer. If water and blood were to flow through identical pipes with the same flow rate, which fluid
would require the larger pressure difference? The viscosity of blood is larger than the viscosity of water, so vve can eliminate
choices Aand D. We can manipulate Poiseuille's equation to find out how pressure difference depends on viscosity and flow
rate:
AP oc Qr|
Since both fluids have the same flow rate, the one with the greater viscosity requires the greater pressure difference. Blood
has greater viscosity. The best answer is choice C.
42.
Choice A is the best answer. The graph that best represents how the flow rate ofa fluid varies as the length of the pipe is
changed (if rj, P, and r remain constant) requires manipulating Poiseuille's equation to show that flow rate is inversely
proportional to the pipe length (Q 1/L). Choice Ccan be eliminated, because itstates that the flow rate does not depend on
pipe length. Choice Dcan be eliminated, because itstates that the flow rate is directly proportional to pipe length. The graph
in choiceA is the only graph that plots Q versusL in an inverse manner. The best answer is choice A.
Passage VII
43.
(Questions 43 - 48)
Buoyancy Balance
Choice D is the best answer. As the density of the fluid medium increases, the buoyant force is increased. This makes
Statement II a valid statement, and eliminates choice B. Because the magnitude of the weight is equal to the sum of the
magnitude of the apparent weight and the magnitude of the buoyant force (Fweight =Fbuoyant +Fapparent weight), the apparent
weight is the difference between the actual weight and the buoyant force. As such, an increase in the buoyant force results in
the apparent weight being reduced. This makes Statement III a valid statement, which eliminates choices Aand C. The only
choice remaining is choice D, so it must be the best answer. This implies that Statement I is invalid, which is true, because if
the apparent weight is reduced, then less counterweight is necessary. The best answer is choice D.
44.
Choice Disthe best answer. This question can be solved by comparing the information in the question to the data in Table
1. A 33.1 g counterweight is necessary in a fluid with a density of 1.00 g/mL and a 24.7 g counterweight is necessary in a
fluid with a density of 1.49 g/mL. With a fluid ofdensity 1.20 g/mL, the counterweight should be between 24.7 grams and
33.1 grams, being a bit closer to 33.1 grams than 24.7 grams. This eliminates choice A. The average of 24.7 and 33.1 is
28.9, so the counterweight should be a little heavier than 28.9 grams. This eliminates both choices B and C and leaves
choice D as the best answer. This question tested your ability to work with numbers in a table, which is something that is
common on the MCAT. The best answer is choice D.
110
45.
Choice C is the best answer. The hanging mass sinks in all of the fluid mediums, so it must be more dense than each of the
fluids. The densest liquid is carbon tetrachloride, with a density of 1.49 g/mL, so the hanging mass must have a density
greater than 1.49 g/mL. This eliminates choice A. To solve for the exact density, we can compare the weight to the buoyant
force. For an object that sinks in a fluid medium, the ratio of the density of the object to the density of the fluid medium
(Pobject/pmedium) is equal to the ratio of the weight to the buoyant force (Fwejght/Fbuoyant)- Because the object is at rest, the
magnitudes of the forces up must equal the magnitude of the force down. In air, a counterweight of 50.0 grams is necessary,
so the mass of the hanging object is 50.0 grams. Its weight is therefore 0.05g N. The counterweight needed in carbon
tetrachloride is 24.7 grams, about half of its weight. Because the weight is balanced out by a buoyant force and tension in
the string holding the mass (which results from the counterweight), we can set the forces equal. This means that Fweight =
Fbuoyant + Fusion- The tension is 0.0247g and the weight is 0.05g, so the buoyant force is 0.0253g. The relative densities
can be set equal to the weight-to-buoyant force ratio, which is 0.05g/0.0253g. That ratio is about 2 : 1, so the density of the
object must be about double that of carbon tetrachloride. Carbon tetrachloride has a density of 1.49 g/mL, so the hanging
mass must have a density near 3.00 g/mL.
PHanging mass
_ ^weight _
'weight
0.05g N
PCarbon tetrachloride
Fbuoyant
Fweight - Fapparent weight
0.05g N - .0247g N
2.0 =
PHanging mass
PHanging mass
PCarbon tetrachloride
1.49 g/mL
0.05g
0.0253g
_5_ =
2.5
PHanging mass = 2x 1.49 g/mL a 3 g/mL

46.
Choice C is the best answer. In reduced gravity, the weight of the object and the counterweights would be reduced as would
the buoyant force. All of the forces depend directly on g, so a reduction in gravity would impact all of the forces by an equal
percentage. This means that all of the masses could remain the same, making choice C the best answer. Choice D can be
eliminated, because the apparent weight is the equal to mass of the counterweight, so they are not inversely related. The best
answer is choice C.
47.
Choice B is the best answer. If an object has an apparentweight in a fluid medium, it must be more dense than the medium.
In such a case, the magnitude of the buoyant force and the magnitude of the apparent weight add up to equal the magnitude
of the object's weight. This means that as the magnitude of the buoyant force increases, the magnitude of the apparent
weight decreases. The buoyant force is directly proportional to the density of the fluid medium (Fbuoyant =
Pmedium'vdisplaced*g) so the apparent weight must decrease as the density of the fluid medium increases. This eliminates
choices A and D. The relationship is not inversely proportional, so the graph is not asymptotic. This eliminates choice B.
The relationship is linear, because they add to a sum. As one increases, the other decreases by the same amount. The best
answer is choice B.
48.
Choice C is the best answer. An object floating in water, such as an ice cube, does so because its weight (mg) equals the
buoyant force (Fbuoyant = Pmedium-Vdispiaced'g)- When going to an environment with a change in the gravitational force
constant (g) such as the moon, the weight at buoyant force are impacted equally. If the object is floating in the first place, it
will continue to float in the exact same fashion when the gravitational force changes. Choice C is the only choice that fits this
information. Choice D should be eliminated immediately, because gravity is reduced on the moon. Moon problems are quite
common in physics, so it's not a bad idea to contemplate what happens to various forces and systems when the value of g
changes. The best answer is choice C.
Questions 49 - 52
49.
Choice B is the best answer. If one makes an analogy between fluid flow and electricity, pressure difference, AP, will
correspond to the electrical driving force. The comparison we should make involves Ohm's law:
V=IR where: R = p ^ .'. V = (I)p -^

A
Rearranging Poiseuille's equation gives:
AP _ Q8ilL _ (Q) 8r|L

jit4
Jtr4
In the analogy with electricity, AP corresponds to V, Q corresponds to I, and 8r)L/jrr4 corresponds to p(L/A). This
corresponds to choice B. In a more conceptual perspective, the pressure can drop as the blood flows, just as voltage may drop
as current flows. Equally, opposing pressures result in no blood flow, just as opposing voltages result in no current. The best
answer is choice B.
111
50.
Choice B is the best answer. The volume flow rate of an ideal fluid depends on four factors: the pipe's length, the pipe's
radius, the pressure difference between the two endsof the pipe, and the viscosity of the fluid. In this question, the length,
fluid viscosity, and pressure difference remain constant, so we need only consider the change in the radius of the vessel. The
relationship isQ a r4, where Q represents the volume flow rate of blood and r represents the radius of the blood vessel. You
may have noticed that they mentioned diameter in the question to throw us off a bit, but any percent-change in the diameter
has an identical percent-change in radius. If a blood vessel dilates, then there is a greater cross-sectional area and the volume
flow rate will increase. This eliminates choice A. Because r is raised to the fourth power, a 20% change in radius would lead
to a greaterincrease in volume flow rate than 20%, so choice D is eliminated. At this point, we are faced with some daunting
math. Rather than taking the fourth root of 1.20 (the ratio of Qfinal to Qinitial). we are better suited to pick one of the answer
choices and raise it to the fourth power to see if we get 1.20. Let's try 10%, because it looks like the math will be easier than
4.6%. A 10% increase would results inan rf,nai to rjn}tial ratio of 1.10.1.104 isgreater than 1.20 (given that 1.102 = 1.21), so
choice C is not correct. Only choice B remains, so it must be correct The best answer is choice B.
51.
Choice A is the best answer. This question is best solved by first recognizing that the object is a sinker. Because it's a
sinker, we can start by noting that the ratio of the densities of the object and medium is equal to the weight-to-buoyant force
ratio. The question tells us that the object's density is four times the density of the surrounding water, so the weight of the
object must be four times the buoyant force. One-fourth of the weight is equal to 36 N, so we know that the object has a
weight of 144 N and experiences a buoyant force of 36 N. The buoyant force is the apparent weight loss, so to determine the
buoyant force, we need only subtract the apparent weight loss from the weight This would be 144 - 36 = 108 N, choice A.
Be careful on questions like this not to accidentally choose the buoyant force as the final answer, because it's highly likely
thattest writerswill leave that as a potential choice. Just to be complete, let's draw a pictureof the system.
Notes:
B=jxl44N =36N
B = Apparent weight loss and T = apparent weight

For an object that sinks:
Relative densities = W-to-FBUOyantrau0

Pobject
Pwater "*
T = 144-36N=108N
\y
~" B
.\4B =WCZ> B=jW
W=144N
B=jxl44N =36N
T + B = W /. T = W-B = 144N-36N = 108N
52.
Choice C is the best answer. First off, we can apply a convenient short cut for an object that floats. When an object floats,
the ratio ofthe densities of the object and medium isequal to the percent of the object that issubmerged. In this case, where
the medium is water, the ratio ofthe densities is also known as the specific gravity. Because the object is 90%-submerged in
water, it has a specific gravity of 0.90. This eliminates choice A. Because the object floats higher in CCI4 than it does in
water, we can conclude that CCI4 must be denser than water, which means the specific gravity of CCI4 must be greater than
1. This eliminates choice B. To decide between the remaining two choices, we'll need to compare the percent submerged in
water to the percent submerged inCCI4 inorder to determine the density of CCI4 relative tothe density ofwater. The ratio of
the submerged percentages is90:60 = 3:2 = 1.5. This means that the specific gravity ofCCI4 is 1.5, eliminating choice Dand
making choice C the best answer. A more detailed solution is shown below.
Because the weight of theobject is equal to itsbuoyant force in water and its buoyant force in CCI4:
PCCl4VSubmergedg = PH20'vsubmergedg
PCCl4(0.60)Vobjecfg = PH2O(0.90)Vobjecfg
PCCl4-(0.60) = PH2o(0.90)
PCCl4/PH2O =a9%.60 =9/6 =3/2=1.5

112
Electrostatics and
Electromagnetism
Physics Chapter 8
by
the
Berkeley Review
Electrostatics and
Electromagnetism
F = k^2; where k=9.0 * 109 N- m2/C2 = -ir2
Vf
4jre0
= "y m
(for a particle in a linear Efield)
Felectric = qE
W = qEAd = qAV
F = qv x B = qvB sin8
F = 1/ x B
Important Concept
Charged particles behave differently in an electric field than a magnetic field
F =
F = qvB sin9
qE
r_ mv
! '
''
y'
y'
y*
yi
y*
Moving charged particles are deflected

by perpendicular electric fields.
Moving charged particles traverse a circle

through perpendicular magnetic fields.
Electric Fields
Magnetic Fields
Can accelerate a charged particlefrom rest

Do work on a charged particle
Cannot accelerate a charged particle from rest

Do no work on a charged particle
Lenz's Law Simplified
Like Le Chatelier's principle in chemistry, Lenz's law predicts that the system will react to undo achange
"X"
xxxx
Loop enters 1B field oriented into page

Change: Gains Xs inside ofloop
xxxx
Loop exits 1B field oriented into page

Change: Loses Xs inside ofloop
Reaction: Induce a counterclockwise current to create 0s. Reaction: Induce a clockwise current to create Xs.
Physics
Electrostatics and Electromagnetism
Electrostatics

Charged particles can interact with other charged particles in two ways: (a)
through direct interaction of their charges and (b) through magnetic fields
created when the charges are in motion. Coulombic forces (electrostatics) always
exist between charged particles. Opposite charges attract one another and like
charges repel one another. However, in order to exhibit magnetism, the charged
particle must be in motion. If their magnetic fields are aligned correctly, then
they can also interact through magnetic interactions. We shall address both
electrostatics and electromagnetism in this chapter.
Electrostatics
Electric Charge and Charge Conservation

It was discovered during ancient Greek times that amber, when rubbed with
wool, would attract other objects. We now know that in order for the amber to
attract another object, it must have acquired an electric charge. What causes a
charge? That is a difficult question to answer. We cannot see an electric charge,
much less say what an electric charge is. We can only try to quantify an electric
charge by describing its behavioral characteristics and properties. Charges arise
when electrons are either gained or lost from a neutral species.
Atoms are the building blocks of matter. They consist of electrons, protons, and
neutrons. Electrons carry a negative charge, protons carry a positive charge, and
neutrons carry no charge at all; they are neutral. The masses of these three
particles are shown in Table 8-1. Note that the mass of a proton is about 2000
times greater than the mass of an electron. Also note that the masses of a proton
and a neutron are approximately equal to one another.
Mass (kg)
Charge (C)
9.11 x 10"31
1.673 x lO"27
-1.6 x 10"19
Proton
+1.6 x 10"19
Neutron
1.674 x lO"27
Particle
Electron
Table 8-1
Protons and neutrons comprise the nucleus of an atom, whereas electrons stay in
orbits about the nucleus. An atom in its simplestform has an overall net charge
of zero, because the number of protons equals the number of electrons. Atoms
differ from each other by the numbers of electrons, protons, and neutrons they
contain.
If an atom were to lose an electron (most often it loses the electron from its
valence shell-outermost orbital), then that atom would have an overall net
charge of +1 and is said to be a positively charged ion. Similarly, if an atom were

to gain an electron in its valence shell, then thatatom would have an overall net
charge of -1. This atom is said to be a negatively charged ion. When atoms gain
or lose electrons, they undergo a process called ionization. You should note that
in chemistry the ionization energy is the energy associated with losing an
electron. If a negatively charged atom is close to a positively charged atom, there
will be an attraction between those two opposite charges that strengthens as the
distance between them decreases. However, there will be repulsion between two
positively charged atoms or two negatively charged atoms. The strength of the
repulsive force also increases in magnitude as the charged species draw closer to
one another.
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FhySlCS
Electrostatics
For example, when we rub a plasticrod with fur, the rod acquiresa net negative
charge while the fur acquires a net positive charge. In the process of rubbing the
rod with the fur, electrons were transferred from the fur to the rod. The net
charges on these two objects are opposite in sign and alwaysequal in magnitude.
Charge has been conserved. In charge conservation, the total electric charge on
the plastic rod and the fur (or any other two objects) does not change. Even
though charge can be transferred from one objectto the next, it cannot be created
or destroyed.
Conductors and Insulators

A conductor is a material that allows for the movement of charge. An insulatoris
a material that impedes the movement of charge. Many of the metals that we
know of (e.g., copper or silver) are good conductors. These metals allow for the
flow of electrons. Nonmetals (e.g., glass or plastic) are typically good insulators.
Electrons generally do not flow in these materials.
Coulomb's Law and Electric Force
In the mid-1780s, Charles Coulomb discovered that the electrical force exerted by
onecharged object on another charged object dependson the distance r between
those two objects, the sign of the charges on each object, and the amount of
charge q on each object. The magnitude of the electrical force F that each of the
two charges exerts onthe other can be expressed in terms ofequation (8.1). This
equation is called Coulomb's law and as written applies only to charges in a
vacuum. The proportionality constant k depends on thesystem ofunits used in
the calculation.
F- iJqiq2l
(8.1)
r2
The SI unit of charge is called the coulomb (C). The magnitude of the charge of
an electron ora proton (denoted by e) is 1.60 x 10"19 C. One coulomb equals the
charge carried by an aggregate of 6.3 x1018 protons (or the negative of 6.3 x1018
electrons, based on theamount ofcharge that flows in 1 second when the current
is 1 amp). In the SI system of units we also find that the units of the constant k
are newton-meter2/coulomb2. The value of k isabout 8.99 x 109 Nm2/C2.
In equation (8.1), the electrical force F is the magnitude of a vector quantity. It

will always be a positive value. However, the product of the charges qi and q2
can be either positive (if the charges have the same sign) or negative (if the
charges have opposite signs). The absolute value bars in equation (8.1) ensure
that F will always be positive.
As we have mentioned, iftwo objects have charges with the same sign, they will
repel one another (Figure 8-la). If two objects have charges with opposite signs,
they will attract one another (Figure 8-lb). Figure 8-1 shows thatthe direction of
the force that each charge is exerting on the other is always along a straight line
joining the two charges. Even though the forces are opposite in direction, they
are equal in magnitude (recallNewton's Third Law of motion).
Figure 8-1
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Physics
Electrostatics
The magnitude of this force, when plotted as a function of the charge separation,
is often shown as the upper graph in Figure 8-2. If we consider the sign
associated with force, then the graph could be either the upper graph or the
lower graph in Figure 8-2. For the sake of this graph, we shall consider repulsion
to generate a positive force (when the charges have the same sign) and attraction
to generate a negative force (when the charges have opposite signs). This "1/r2
dependence" of the force is similar to that for the gravitational attraction of two
masses;it is a mathematical relationship that reappears in the discussion of many
physical phenomena. Because of its ubiquity in physics, knowing how to plot the
inverse-square law and understanding it conceptually is a good idea.
Repulsive
Both charges are positive (+)

or
Both charges are negative (-)

o>
u
Separation r
clO-
One charge is positive (+)and

the other charge is negative (-)
Attractive
Figure 8-2
When considering electrical charges, you shouldhave a feeling for the sizeof the
charge itself. A charge equal to onecoulomb is a huge value. Using equation (8.1)
to calculate the forcebetween two 1-C charges exactly 1 meter apart, would yield
a magnitude of the force is about 109 newtons. We can put this into a more
familiar context: knowing that 1 N = 0.225 lbs and that 2000 lbs = 1 ton, we can
calculate that the magnitude of the force between these two charges would have
a gravitational force equivalent to roughly a million tons. In realistic calculations,
charges typically have values that fall within the range of 10"9 to 10"6 C.
Example 8.1a
Before a voltage is applied across a wire, the wire has no net charge. After
applying a voltage, the net charge on the wireis:
A.
B.
C.
D.
negative, if the current flows from higher to lowervoltage.

positive, if the currentflows from higherto lower voltage.
zero, regardless of the current direction.
a non-zero value that depends upon the current direction.
Solution
When a voltage difference is applied across a wire, a currentwill flow. By "flow,"

we mean the net movement of electrons from lower to higher voltage. Current,
traditionally defined as flowing positive charges, moves from higher to lower

voltage. However, for the purpose of answering the question, we need to know
that current makes electrons flow into the wire and out of the wire. On average,
the number of electrons leaving the wire equals the number entering. Thus, the
net charge on a wire will not change-it will be neutral, with or without the
current. But with a current, it will have an induced dipole.
117
Physics
Electrostatics
Example 8.1b
When NaCl dissociatesin pure H2O, the net charge of the electrolyticsolution:
A. becomes negative.
B. becomes positive.
C.
remains neutral.
D. becomes positive or negative, depending upon the relative Na+ and Cl"
concentrations.
Solution
A crystalline salt comprised of +l-cations and -1-anions, such as NaCl, has equal
number of (+)-cations as (-)-anions. This means that when added to neutral
water, the overallsolution charge remains neutral.

Example 8.2a
What is the ratio of theelectrostatic repulsive force to the gravitational attractive

force between two electrons that are 1 nm apart? (Note: The coulombic constant
k=9x109 N-m2/C2 and gravitational constant G~7 xlO-11 N-m2/kg2.)

A.
B.
C.
D.
1042tol
1025tol
102tol
lO"2 to 1
Solution
Let's approach it using the ratio method. The tworelevant equations are:
F
..-, = Gmlm2
rgravitational
-
and
ana
F
.
- ^l^l
Electrostatic
~
Because both equations share the same denominator, we can disregard distance.
Taking the ratio of the electrostatic force to that ofthe gravitational force gives:
Felectrostatical _ klqUEl _ (9 *109)(l.6 x1Q-I9)(l.6 xIP"19)
Fgravitational
Gmim2 (7 x10"n)(9.1 x10"31)(9.1 x10'31)
Before embarking on an arithmetic adventure, notice that the choices offered as

answers differ by several orders of magnitude from each other. Therefore, we
could avoid worrying about how the prefactors, such as 9 and 1.6, affect the
answer. Just add and subtract the powers of 10. Doing so gives a ratio of about
1044 to 1, which is closest to choice A. (The actual answer is 3.97 x1042 to 1.)
Aside from a chance to practice arithmetic approximations, this problem reveals
a few facts about electrostatic and gravitational forces. First, the two force
equations look similar-just an exchange of mass for charge and an altered
constant (being aware that gravitational forces are always attractive, whereas
electrostatic forces can alsobe repulsive). Second, their similar 1/r2 terms cancel
out, meaning that this force ratio is the same whether the charges are 1 nm or 1
km apart. Finally, notice that the electrostatic force is much stronger than the
gravitational one. This explains why electrostatic force problems almost never
mention gravitational forces when asking abouttheacceleration ofcharges.
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Physics
Electrostatics
Example 8.2b
A potassium ion and a chlorine ion are separated by a membrane, yet they exert
an attractive force F on each other. When the membrane is three times thicker,
the attractive force is F'. What is the ratio of F to F? (Note: Neglect force
interactions with the membrane and surrounding solution.)
A.
9:1
B. 3:1
C. 1:3
D. 1:9
Solution
Ascharges grow farther apart, the force they exerton one another decreases, so F
is greater than F'. The ratio of F to F' is greater than 1.This eliminates choices C
and D. Because the force depends on the distance squared, tripling the distance
will affect reduce the force by a factor of nine. The ratio of F to F is 9 :1.
Example 83a
What is observed over time after a +1 charge and -1 charge initially 2.0 cm apart
are released from rest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
They move towardsone anotherat constant v along a straight line.

They move towardsone another with an increasing v along a straightline.
They move towardsone another with a decreasing v along a straightline.
They both move in the same linear directionwith the samespeed.
Solution
Because theyare oppositely charged, they willaccelerate towardsone another, so

choice D is eliminated. As they draw closer to one another, the force increases, so
the move towards one another with increasing acceleration and increasing speed.
Example 8.3b
Whichcharges experience the greatest magnitude of attractive force?

A.
B.
C.
D.
A +1 charge and -1 charge separated by 2 cm.

Solution
The force depends on the magnitude of each chargeand the distance between the
particles squared. Lefs compare each choice one-by-one to a designated choice,
starting with choice B to choice A. Choice B has one charge that is doubled that
of choice A, but the distance is also doubled. Doubled distance reduces the force
by a factor of four, which outweighs the greater charge. Choice A feels a stronger
force than choice B, so choice B is eliminated. Now lefs compare choice C to
choice A. Choice C has both charges double that of choice A, but the distance is
tripled. This would reduce the force by a factor of nine, which outweighs the
impact of greater charges, so choice A feels a stronger force than choiceC. Choice
C is eliminated. Last, lefs compare choice D to choice A. Choice D has both
charges triple that of choice A, but the distance is quadrupled. This would reduce
the force by a factor of sixteen, which outweighs the impact of greater charges, so
choice A feelsa stronger force than choice D. ChoiceD is eliminated.
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Physics
Electric Fields
Electric Fields
Electric Fields
Consider that a single charge by itself feels no electrostatic interactions until a
second charge is near. By itself, there is nothing more than a potential to feel a
force if a second charge were moved into its vicinity. An electric field is a region
of space where a charged particle would feel an electrostatic force, if it were
moved there. This imaginary charge is referred to as a test charge (denoted as
q'). Electric fields can be made of a single charge or several charges. It is simply
the region of space where a test charge would feel an electrostatic force if added.
Suppose we do not know how unknown charges are distributed in space. One
way to probe for a charge distribution is to use a test charge. Let's assume that
the unknown charges are arranged under a box, as shown in Figure 8-3. We then
take a test charge, which is positive (a negative test charge could work as well,
but by convention test charges are considered to be positive), and place it in the
region of space near the box. We have presented three arbitrary positions in
Figure 8-3. If the test charge is attracted to some region of the box, then it means
that there is a negative charge in that vicinity. Similarly, if the test charge is
repelled from a region of the box, then it means that there is a positive charge in
that vicinity. If we apply this type of analysis to every point outside the box, we
can determine the nature and location of the charges under the box. These forces
constitute an electric field E. The unit of an electric field is the newton/coulomb.
q' (at arbitrary position 1) q (at arbitrary position 2)

net
//
q' (at arbitrary position 3)
Figure 8-3
If we were to sum up all of the force vectors associated with Figure 8-3, then we
would get a picture as shown in Figure 8-4. The lines are referred to as field lines
(although you'll note that most of them bend). These lines represent the
orientation and strength of the electric field.
Figure 8-4
An electric field at a given point in space is defined by equation (8.2). The electric
field E is the ratio of the net electrical force F acting on a test charge in a
particular region of space, divided by the value associated with the test charge q'.
Since the force is a vector quantity, so is the electric field. Because physicists have
chosen test charges to be positive (+) by convention, electric field lines always
point in the direction that the net force would act on a positive (+) test charge.
E= *
q'
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Electric Fields
Field Lines
Electric fields are often represented by lines of force or field lines. The field lines
show the direction of the electric field at every point in space, and they never
intersect. This can be seen with the field lines in Figure 8-4. Field lines always
originate on a positive charge and end on a negative charge. They represent the
waya (+) charge would migrate. If the field lines are close together, it meansthat
the magnitude of the electric field is strong. Similarly, if the field lines are far
apart, themagnitude ofthe electric field is weak. Two representative examples of

electric field lines associated with point charges are shown in Figure 8-5.
Figure 8-5
Electric Fields Created By Charge Distribution

Many electrical systems have numerous charged particles, each of which exerts a
force on all of the other charged particles in the system. Fortunately, charges
naturally distribute themselves on a conducting materialin a way that minimizes
their repulsion, resulting in the formation of a uniform electric field. To calculate
the net force acting on just one particular charged particle in a group of them, we
must use the process of vector addition to include the effect of each electrical
force that is acting on our selected particle.
Lefs consider a simple case involving six plate charges spread between two
parallel plates (three per plate) and a single test charge (Figure 8-6). Suppose that
six of those charged particles comprise the positive and negative electrodes of a
charged capacitor, and that the charged particle is an ion with a positive charge.
For now, the only aspect of this situation that we are interested in is the direction
in whichthe positively charged ion will move when influenced by the electrodes.
net
Figure 8-6
What are the forces acting on the positively charged ion? First, there is an
attractive force (F.) generated by the charge of the negative electrode. Second,
there is a repulsive force (F+) generated by the charge of the positive electrode. In
order to find the net electrical force on the positively charged ion, we sum the
force vectors. Since only the net electrical force ultimately determines the motion
of the test charge, we find that it moves toward the negatively charged electrode.
Equation (8.2) applies here, although it might be easier to see it as Fe = qE.
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Example 8.4a
Which of the following electric field configurations describes the lines of force in
an electric field between two parallel plates of opposite charge?
A.
B.
Ji M
1 u y v y v ]|
+
Solution
An important point to remember about electric fields is that they emanate from
positive charges and point towards negative charges (they point in the way a
positive charge would migrate). This means that choices A and C are incorrect.
Next, we must judge the straightness or curvature of the lines between the plates.
Imagine a point placed directly between two parallel plates. It will have a net
electric field determined by all the individual electric fields generated by every
charge on the two plates. If these field lines are added vectorially, then all the
horizontal components will cancel each other out; a net field oriented vertically
downward will remain. The cancellation is due to the symmetry of the point in
space with respect to the plate charges. However, this horizontal component
cancellation continues only until one approaches the left and right edges of the
plates. Here, the field lines bow out, like those around a dipole (the parallel
plates are like several dipoles positioned next to each other). Between parallel
plates of opposite charge, the field lines are straight and constant in strength
throughout the interplate region. Thus, a parallel plate arrangement is a good
design for capacitors,electrophoresis equipment, and charge accelerators.
Example 8.4b
Which orientation of a uniform electric field can explain the pictured motion of
an electron initially moving in a straight line from left to right?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solution
The negatively charged particle is deflected down, so it must be feeling a force in

the downward direction. But this question has a subtlety you must not forget,
and that is the fact that an electric field line is based on how a positive charge
would be accelerated. To deflect a negative particle down would require a field
that would deflect a positive particle up. This describes choice C.
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Equipotential Lines
The electric potential at any point in an electric field can be described by
equipotential lines. The grey circles in Figure 8-5 represent equipotential lines,
where a test charge at any point on that circle would experience the same force
and have the same potential to move. An equipotential line (orsurface) connects
all points within an electric field sharing the same potential. Ifwewere to place a
test charge at any point along an equipotential line, we would find that the
electric field does no work on that testcharge when it moved to another pointon
the same equipotential line. Work is done on the test charge only if the electric
field has a component tangent to the equipotential surface. This tells us that
equipotential lines and electric field lines are perpendicular to one another
(Figure 8-7). When test charges move in the direction ofa field line, theyare said
to move from higher potential to lower potential.
{f
*-
-i
H-
y<
y'
yf
ii
1 1
X\ i
I-**
i I I
ii
}'
y'
y f
' /r^^V.
Figure 8-7
Electrical Potential Energy

What happens when charged particles move closer together or farther apart?
Such displacements change the electrical potential energy of the system. The
electrical potential energy of particles with like charges increases when the
charges are brought towards each other. Conversely, the electrical potential
energy decreases when opposite charges are brought towards each other.
Equation (8.3) gives the change in electrical potential energy APEq oftwo charges
in a vacuum, as they are moved from some initial separation r{ to some final
separation rf. This equation supports the general rule regarding the potential
energy of a system. It always decreases as the system approaches some
equilibrium state. Opposite charges naturally attract; as they approach one
another, their potential energy decreases. The reverse applies when two like
chargesare brought towards each other.
APEq =kq,*(-JL)
(83)
Generally speaking, if you must do work to move the charged particles, then
they've been moved to a state of higher electrical potential energy. If the charged
particles move naturally, then they have moved to a state of lower electrical
potential energy.
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Electrical Potential Difference

As charged particles move through space, they encounter other charged
particles. Each of these charged particles creates a little electrical environment
that influences charges in its vicinity. A chargedparticletends to move towardsa
region of space where its electrical potential energy decreases (much like water
flowing downhill to a region of lower gravitational potential energy). The
electrical potential difference a moving charged particle is subjected to as it
moves from some region A to some region B (denoted as Vab) is the difference
in electrical potential energy APEq at those two regions, divided by the value
associated with the charged particle q. Thisis shown in equation (8.4).
APEAB_PEqB-PEqA_APEqAB
q
The unit of charge is the coulomb C and the unit of electrical potential energy is
the joule J, so the final result of equation (8.4) gives us units of joules divided by
coulombs (or J/C). A joule divided by a coulomb is defined as a volt V, the unit
of electrical potential difference. A more common version of equation (8.4) is
equation (8.5). It calculates the change in electrical potential energy as a charged
particle moves through a voltage difference:
APEq = qV
(8.5)
Absolute Potential
When doing electrical calculations, it is often useful to have a point of reference.
That point of reference in electrical circuits is referred to as the ground point. By
definition,the voltageat the ground point is zero. Measuring the voltage at other
points in space relative to the ground point describes an absolute potential.
Example 8.5a
An electron gun usually consists of two electrode plates, one more negatively
charged than the other. If an electron of mass m is allowed to accelerate between
the two electrodes separatedby a voltage V, which equation BEST represents the
final speed of the initially stationary electron upon striking the more positive
electrode?
A. v=*pEL
V:2eV
B. v=\l*&m
C.
D.
v=V
-v
-./mV
v =
2e
2e
mV
Solution
Let's answer this question in two ways: using physical intuition and energy
conservation. First, physical intuition. How will m, e, and V affect the electron's
final velocity? The potential difference supplies the energy to accelerate the
electron. If mere is a bigger voltage, the electron should get more energy and,
hence, more speed. Because speed depends on the voltage, V should be in the
numerator, eliminating choices A and D. The final speed should be greater for
lighter particles (since it has less mass to accelerate). Therefore, the mass should
be in the denominatorcross out choices A (again) and C. Only choice B has V in
the numerator and m in the denominator, so it is the best answer. Notice that we
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Electric Fields
don't even need to think about where the e should go. When approaching
questions in this way, always start by thinking about the physical variable that
makes the mostsense to you.The particularstartingpointis up to you.
Let's use energy conservation to solve this problem. Identify the initial and final
energies. Has any external work is done on the electron? Finally, plug into:
înitial ofobject + "0n object = Efinal of object
Initially, the electron has no energy, because it is at rest. We are neglecting

gravitational energy, because it is relatively small (see Example 8.2a) and because
there are no g's in the answer choices. When the electron hits the other electrode,
its energy is all kinetic. It moves because moving across the potential difference
does work on the electron. This work and the kinetic energy fit into the energy
conservation equation as follows:
0 + eV = Vmv2 .-. v2 = 2eV/m
Solving for the speed v gives choice B. Using energy conservation is a powerful
technique. Energy conservation does not require us to know about the nature of
the interactions (be they mechanical, gravitational, thermal, or electrostatic). It is
concerned only with the energies. Whenyou are in doubt about how to approach
a problem analytically (i.e., using equations), try energy conservation first. This
particular problem type is a popular one. Many scientific machines and natural
eventsinvolve chargesaccelerating through a potential difference.
Example 8.5b
An ionic surfactant molecule is a long, carbon-based polymer with a charged

end. If the uncharged end is attached to a plate and the molecule is immersed in
an electric field, what is the maximal amount by which the molecule would
stretch? (Assume that interactions with the plate and surrounding solution are
negligible and that the molecule obeys Hooke's law with its spring constant k.)
A.
V 2qV
B.
x-/m:
C.
_ /kV
"V^q"
D'X=V 2q_
kV
Solution
Intuition tells us that as the charge q increases, the force acting on the polymer
will be stronger and the polymer should stretch more. This means that x
increases as q increases, so q should be in the numerator. This eliminates choices
A and C. As the voltage, V, increases, the force on the polymer also increases, so
V should also be in the numerator as well. This eliminates choice D, leaving only
choice B. The spring constant, k, should be in the denominator, because it
hinders stretching. If you prefer to use conservation of energy, the equation is:
qV =Vfckx2. Solving forx will confirm thatchoice Bis the best answer.
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Dielectric Constant
So far we have been considering charges in a vacuum, but they are also found in
media. The effect that a medium can have on charges is taken into account by a
parameter called the dielectric constant K, which is the ratio of the electrical
force between two charges when they are in a vacuum compared to when they
are in a medium. This is shown in equation (8.6). Dielectricbehavior results from
a medium's polar nature, including its ability to assume an induced dipole.
F _j.
'medium
_ r vacuum
(8.6)
A strongly polar medium responds to an external electric field by reorienting its
polar molecules, so that the net electric field within the medium becomes weaker
than the external field. This occurs when the 6+ charges of the medium align
near the negative plate and the 5- charges align near the positive pate. Such a
field strength reduction diminishes the interactive forces between all charges
within the medium. Figure 8-8 shows the electric field associated with a parallel
plate capacitor before and after a polar medium has been added. The polar
medium aligns in such a way as to offset, and in doing so, diminish the
magnitude of charge on each plate.
6--6+6--6+6 6+6--5+
-10
+10
6 6+6-"6+6 6+5 6+
66*6 6+6 6+6 6+
6 6+6 6+6 6+6 6+
66+66+56+66+
6 6+6 6+6 6+6 6+
6 6+6 6+6 6+6 6+
+10
+76'
+8ish
-10
+76*
-8ish
With a polar medium: plate

charges are partially cancelled
With a vacuum: +10 and -10
Figure 8-8
Coulomb's law applies to charges in a vacuum. We can modify that law by

substituting equation (8.6) into equation (8.1) to give equation (8.7):
p _ Fyacuum _ fclqiq2l
K
(8.7)
Kr
Equation (8.7) applies to charges separated by a distance r in a medium with

dielectric constant K. Note that the smaller the value of K, the larger the force
between charges.Table 8-2 provides a list of some common dielectricconstants.
^^^&|erial::.::,::;
Dielectric constant, K
Vacuum
1.0000
Dry Air
1.0006
Paper
3.5
Benzene
4.0
Glass
5-10
Axon membrane
(unmyelinated)
Water
80
Table 8-2
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Example 8.6a
The dielectric constant K of an unknown material is measured as a function of
temperature. What can explain the sharp rise and subsequent slow decay of Kas
the temperature increases?
A. The solid material melts at Ti, increasing its polarizability. Thermal motion
subsequently increases its polarizability.
B. The solid material melts at Ti, increasing its polarizability. Thermal motion
subsequently reduces its polarizability.
C. The gaseous element ionizes at Ti, increasing its polarizability. Thermal

motion subsequently reduces its polarizability.
D. The gaseous element ionizes at Ti, increasing its polarizability. Thermal

motion subsequently increases its polarizability.
Solution
Materials that are polar, or that are able to polarize easily (i.e., have an high
polarizability), typically have stronger dielectric properties than nonpolar
materials. The basic relationship between polarizability and the dielectric constant
is the following: If the polarizability increases, then the dielectric constant
increases. With this in mind, we need to consider what impact a change in
temperature would have on the polarizability of a material.
The first thing to consider is the drastic increase in polarizability at Ti- Choices C
and D state that the gaseous element ionizes at temperature T\. Ionization would
decrease the polar nature of the gas, as the gas would become canonic and thus
lack a negative pole. This eliminates choices C and D. It must be due to melting.
As a material melts, its polarizability increases, because the molecules can more
easily orient themselves in the liquid state than they can in the solid state (where
they exist in a crystal lattice). For example, H2O is a relatively polar molecule. In
the solid state, water (ice) molecules point in many directions. Thus, an external
electric field will not be reduced much within the ice, because the net electric
field of the molecules is zero. As liquid water, the molecules can more easily
orient themselves in much the same direction when an external electric field is
present; the net field of the molecules in no longer zero, and the total electric
field within the water is reduced. This makes the induced polar properties of
liquid water greater than those of ice (i.e., K increases when ice melts).
From this point, ifs a matter of observing the trend more so than evaluating the
reasons for the trend. As the temperature continues to increase, the thermal
motion of the molecules increases. According to the graph, as the temperature
increases from Ti, the polarizability decreases. This means that as the
temperature increases, the polarizability of the material decreases, making choice
B the best answer. Continuing with the water example, when water heats up,
thermal motion disrupts this polar alignment, and K decreases.
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Example 8.6b
Two experiments measure the electrostatic force between two cationic particles
in different media, A and B. What is true of the two media?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Medium A has more positive charges than Medium B.

Medium Bhas more positive charges than Medium A.
Medium A has a larger dielectric constant than Medium B.
Medium Bhas a larger dielectric constant than Medium A.
Solution
The electrostatic force between the two cationic particles is reduced in medium B
relative to medium A. Based on the possible answer choices, it is either caused by

a difference in the number of positive charges in each medium or a difference in
the dielectric constants of the two media. The presence of positive charges in the
medium would not impact the force between two particles, although it would
impact the net force. This is because the force vectors in a charged environment
can all be treated as independentof one another. This eliminates choices A and B.
The difference in the forces must be due to the dielectric nature of the two media.
According to equation (8.6), as the dielectric constantincreases, the force between

two charged particles decreases. The graph shows that the force is less in
medium B than in medium A, so medium B must have a greater dielectric
constant than medium A. Physically, this means that medium B is more polar
than medium A and that it can reorient itself to reduce the strength of the electric
field between the two charged particles.
Electric Dipole
An electric dipole is established when two charges of opposite signs are
separated from one another by some distance L (Figure 8-9).
Figure 8-9
An electric dipole moment can then be defined by equation (8.8), where p is the
dipole moment (a vector quantity), q is the product of the charge, and L is the
distance separating the charges.
P = qL
(8.8)
What happens when we place this electric dipole in a uniform electric field, as
shown in Figure 8-10?
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F. = -qE
Electric Fields
LcosO
-q
Figure 8-10
From equation (8.2), we know that the force F+ has a magnitude +qE, while the
force F- has a magnitude -qE. Adding these forces together, we find that the net
force on an electric dipole in a uniform external electric field is zero.
However, note that the forces have different lines of action. This means that the
net torque on an electric dipole is not zero. In Figure 8-10, the torque is directed
into the page. The dipole will therefore rotate clockwise until it linesup with the
field. If we let the angle between the dipole axis and the electric field be 0, then
the torque created by the dipole couple can be quantified by equation (8.9).
x = (qE)(Lsin 0) = (pE)(sin 6)
(8.9)
The torque is at its minimum when p and E are parallel (or antiparallel) to one
another (Figure 8-lla). The torque is at its maximum when p and E are
perpendicular to one another (Figure 8-llb).
(a)
(b)
-q
L
*
l<
+q
-q
^-
Figure 8-11
If the dipole were to change directions in an electric field, not only would work
be performed, but there would also be a change in potential energy (PE). If 0 =
90 in Figure 8-10, the electric dipole would be perpendicular to the electric field
(see Figure 8-llb). In this case, the potential energy of the system is zero. If 0 =
0, the electric dipole would be parallel to the electric field (see Figure 8-lla).
The potential energy of this system is at its most negative value (i.e., the stablest
value). If 0 = 180, the electric dipole would be antiparallel to the electric field
and the potential energy would be at its most positive value (i.e., the most
unstable value). The potential energy of the system can be given by equation
(8.10).
PE = - (pE cos 0)
(8.10)
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Example 8.7a
When placed in the electric field gradientshownbelow, the dipoleis subjected:
A.
B.
C.
D.
to a clockwise torque and a net linear acceleration.

to a counterclockwise torque and a net linear acceleration.
to a clockwise torque and no net linear acceleration.
to a counterclockwise torque and no net linear acceleration.
Solution
Use the multiple-concepts approach. If a dipole is placed in an external electric

field, it can possibly experience a torque. The positive charge in the dipole is
tugged to the left, and the negative charge is tugged to the right; the dipole
rotates. If forces cause an object to rotate, there must be a torque on it; here, the
torque is clockwise. Thus,choices Band D are wrong.
Regarding a net linear acceleration, ask yourself whether there would be a net
force on the dipole. The positive charge experiences a force F = qE to the left. The
negative charge experiences a force to the right. However, the force on the
negative charge is bigger. Why? The charges have the same magnitude, but the
electric field is indicated as being stronger to the right in the picture (remember,
closer lines mean a stronger field). As the dipole rotates, the negative charge will
be in a stronger electric field. The dipole will experience a net force to the right,
and consequently a net accelerationto the right.
Example 8.7b
Which of the following configurations of dipoles would produce the GREATEST

electrostatic potential energy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
<&
Solution
By symmetry, choices A and B are equal in magnitude, so both systems should

share the same electrostatic potential energy. This eliminates choices A and B.
The best way to solve the question from this point is to consider how stable the
two remaining choices appear. Choice D has like charges apart and opposite
charges close, while choice C has like charges close and opposite charges apart.
Choice D is more stable than choice C, which means it has less electrostatic
potential energy (more stable implies less potential energy). A greater amount of
electrostatic potential energy is found in choice C than choice D.
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Electromagnetism
Electromagnetism
In our study of electrostatics, we found that electric charge can create an electric
field in the space surrounding the charge. We also saw that this electric field
exerts a force on any charge present within it. A charge moving through space
also creates a magnetic field capable of exerting a force on any other charge
moving in that field. Magnetism arises from charges in linear or radial motion.
Magnetic Fields
A magnetic field has a magnitude and a direction. Magnetic fields are denoted
by the symbol B, and they are vector quantities. The SI unit for a magnetic field is
the N's/C'm. When we study currents, we will see that an ampere A is a
coulomb per second. Substituting the SI nomenclature, we have the unit N/Am,
a unit called the tesla (denoted as T). The CGS unit of the magnetic field is the
gauss (denoted as G). The relationship between a gauss and a tesla is that 1 G =
10"4 T. Magnetic field strengths vary greatly for different natural phenomena:
The Earth's magnetic field has a strength of about 0.5 G at the Earth's surface; an
everyday refrigerator magnet has a strength ofabout 10"2 T; and an MRI field has
a strength of a few teslas.
Magnets have both a north pole and a south pole. The north pole of one magnet
attracts the south pole of another magnet, and vice versa. Poles of like
orientation, however, repel each other when placed close together. Magnets
generate magnetic fields, which can be represented on paper in much the same
way that we represented electric fields. The vector-like lines of the magnetic field
show the direction of that field at a given point in space; tighter line densities
indicate stronger magnetic field regions. Magnetic field lines always form closed
loops. Because of this natural property, bar magnets are always dipolar (i.e.,
there is always a north and south pole). This is unlike electric field lines, which
can emanate from a single charge (i.e., a monopole). However, by convention we
say that magnetic field lines emanate from the north pole and re-enter through
the south pole, as shown in Figure 8-12.
Figure 8-12
Magnetic fields can exert a magnetic force Fmagnetic on a charge moving in that
field. If a charge q is moving with a velocity v through a perpendicular magnetic
field B, then the magnitude of the magnetic force is given by equation (8.11). The
moving charge experiences a force that is perpendicular to both v and B. It is the
component Bj^ of the magnetic field perpendicular to the velocity v that dictates
the size of this force. Therefore, equation (8.11) can be rewritten as equation
(8.12). The angle 0 in equation (8.12) is the angle between v and B.
Fmagnetic = qvB
(8.11)
Fmagnetic = qvBsin 0
(8.12)
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As shown in Figure 8-13(a), the force is greatestwhen the velocity of the charged
particle is at right angles to the magnetic field (i.e., when sin 8 = 1).As shownin
Figure 8-13(b), the force is smallest when the velocity of the charged particle is
parallel or antiparallel to themagnetic field (i.e., when sin 0 = 0).
(a)
(b)
AFmagnetic =qvB(sin 90)
Fmagnetic =qvB(sin 180) =0
Fmagnetic =qvB(sin 0) =0
Figure 8-13
Test Tip
Right-hand Rule
While equations (8.11) and (8.12) can tell us about the magnitude of the magnetic
forceacting on a moving charged particle, we need to employ the right-hand rule
to determine the direction of the magnetic force. As far as getting prepared for
the MCAT goes, this is the most important concept to master in this chapter. The
right-hand rule assigns three different parts of our right hand to represent each
of the three mutually perpendicular vectors associated with a charged particle
moving through a perpendicular magnetic field (as shown in Figure 8-13(a)).
There are several versions of the right-hand rule taught to physics students
around the world, so while we will choice one to use repeatedly in this section, if
you have learned and mastered a different version, please use the one that works
best for you. Keep in mind that all the right-hand rule is doing is helping us to
visualize three mutually perpendicular vectors.
In our first application of the right-hand rule, we shall consider the charged
particle in Figure 8-13(a). We will use our thumb to represent the velocity of a
(+)-charged ion in linear motion, our fingers to represent the direction of the
magnetic field vectors, and our palm to represent the direction of the resultant
magnetic force. It is important to note that the right-hand rule is based on the
motion of a positively charged particle, be it a single cationic charge moving
through space or a current of positive charges flowing through a wire. There is a
magnetic force associated with a negatively charged particle moving through a
perpendicular magnetic field, it just points in the opposite direction of what the
right-hand rule shows.
In Figure 8-13(a), a cationic particle is moving in the plane of the magnetic field
from the bottom to the top, so we point or right thumb to the top. Next, with a
flat, open hand and your thumb perpendicular to your index finger, point your
remaining four fingers in the direction of the B field, which is from right to left in
this case. With your thumb pointing to the top and your fingers pointing to the
left, your open hand is "palm up", which means that the magnetic field is
pointing up (the direction you'd push the charge with your palm. It is helpful to
keep in mind that your right hand is simply serving as a model for the three
perpendicular axes. In this case, the axes are bottom-to-top (velocity), right-toleft (magnetic field, and below-to-above (magnetic force). We shall do a few
examples, because the right-hand rule is mastered only through practice. We
shall create a systematic checklist of the three axes in selected examples.
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Electromagnetism
Example 8.8a
If a cation enters into magnetic field from the top (as pictured below), in which
directionwill the cation be deflected while traveling through the magnetic field?
t
3) TO
A. To the left
B. To the right
C. Out of the page
D. Into the page
Solution
To determine the direction of the magnetic force deflecting the cation, and thus
the direction in which the cation will be deflected once in the field, we need to
use the right-hand rule. When using the right-hand rule, keep in mind that it is
used to determine the direction of the magnetic force on a positively charged
particle in motion, which is the case here. The velocity is from the top to the
bottom, sopoint your thumb downward (thumb = down, not up; |down| up). The
magnetic field is orientedout of the page, so whilekeeping your thumb pointing
down point your fingers out from the page (fingers = out, not in; û| m). Once
you've done this, you'll see that your palm points to the left (palm = left, not
right; Jef^ right). Because your palm points to the left, we know thatthemagnetic
force on a positively charged particle points to the left. This will deflect the
cationic particle to the left once it has entered the magnetic field.
Example 8.8b
Which combination of cation in motion and magnetic field will result in the
cation being deflected out from the page?
B.
A.
Jr
D.
xxxx
xxxx
X
Xi!X
IV
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Electromagnetism
Solution
To determine which particle will get deflected out of the page, we need to apply
the right-hand rule to each of the four choices.
Choice A: The velocity is from the right to the left, so point your thumb to the
left The magnetic field is pointing down, so point your fingers down. Aligned as
such, your palm points out from the page. The magnetic force deflects the
cationicparticle out from the page, so choiceA is valid.
Choice B: The velocity is from the left to the right, so point your thumb to the
right The magnetic field is pointing out from the page, so point your fingers out.
Aligned as such, your palm points down. The magnetic force deflectsthe cationic
particle down, so choice Bis invalid.
Choice C: The velocity is from the bottom to the top, so point your thumb up.
The magnetic field is pointing into the page, so point your fingers into the page.
Aligned as such, your palm points to the left The magnetic force deflects the
cationicparticle to the left,so choice C is invalid.
Choice D: The velocity is from the bottom to the top, so point your thumb up.
The magnetic field is pointing to the right, so point your fingers to the right
Aligned as such, your palm points into the page. The magnetic force deflects the
cationicparticle into the page, so choiceD is invalid.
Example 8.9a
An electron moves from left to right (on the page) through a uniform magnetic
field. Which orientation of a uniform magnetic field would result in the smallest
magnitude of force acting on the electron?
A.
B.
X X
X
C.
"^
Solution
To find the direction and magnitude of magnetic forces, use the right-hand rule
when considering directions,and use:
F = qvBj.
when considering magnitudes. Lefs start by consideringthe terms. Eachanswer

choice involves a moving electron, so q and v are irrelevant. Only the magnetic
field orientation, Bj_, varies between the answer choices. Recall that B is the
componentof the magnetic field perpendicular to the charge'svelocity. We want

the choice where theBfield is leastperpendicular to the particle's velocity.
In choice A, both the velocity of the particle and the magnetic field are pointing
in the same direction, so the choice with the smallest component of B is choice
A. Choices B and C both represent a magnetic field that is perpendicular to the
particle's velocity, so choices B and C give the same magnitude of force, even
though the resulting force directions will differ-this assumes that both choices
have the same magnetic field strength. Choice D shows a B field that is neither
perpendicular to nor parallel with the particle's velocity, so the force on the
charged particle will have a magnitude somewhere between zero and qvB (the
maximum force possible). To determine the exact value, we would need to
multiply the magnitude of the B field by sin8.
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The Berkeley Review
Phy S1CS
Electromagnetism
Example 8.9b
If an electron travels to the right in the magnetic field pictured below, in which
direction would the net force on the electron be pointing?
xxxxxxxxxxxx
X
XX
xxxxxxxxx
XX
xxxxxxxxx
xxxxxxxxxxxx
C.
B.
D.
Solution
To determine the direction of a magnetic force, we need to use the right-hand

rule. However, the right-hand rule is used to determine the direction of the
magnetic force on a positively charged particle in motion, not a negatively
charged particle. For this question we will need to reverse the answer we get
using our right hand. The velocity is from the left to the right, so point your
thumb in to the right (thumb = right, not left). The magneticfield is oriented into
the page, so point your fingers into the page (fingers = in, not out). Once you've
done this, you'll see that your palm points up to the ceiling or sky (palm = up,
not down). Because your palm points up, we know that the magnetic force on a
positively charged particle points upward. The magnetic force on an electron
must be pointing downward. Only choice B shows this.
Examples 8.8a through 8.9b emphasize a few concepts. First, thereis the fact that
magnetic fields are generated by charged particles in motion and that two such
magnetic fields when aligned correctly (perpendicular to one another) can
generate a force. Second, the direction of the magnetic force caused by the
interaction of a charged particle in motion with an external B-field can be
obtained using the right-hand rule, a technique for determining the alignment of
three perpendicular vectors.
Let's apply this concept to a conducting rod moving through an external

magnetic field. Because the rod is conducting, it has loose charges that can
migrate through the rod if a force is applied. The impact on each individual
charge will be the same as we observed in Example 8.8b, so they will all migrate.
However, because the charges are bound to the conducting rod, they can only
migrate along the rod. Figure 8-14 showsthisbehavior.
x 5+ x
x v x
(+) charges feel a

magnetic force up
0- X
(-) charges feel a

magnetic force down
Figure 8-14
135
Physics
Electromagnetism
Lenz's Law
Lenz's law takes the example shown in Figure 8-14 and applies it to a conducting
loop instead of a conducting rod. As a consequence, the charges do not reach a
dead end at the ends of the rod, and instead are able to flow completely around
the loop. The result is that the magnetic force can induce a current in the
conducting loop. What we learn is that the loop only experiences an induced
current when it is entering or exiting the magnetic field. The exact wording of
Lenz's law is as follows:
When a conducting loop experiences a change in the magnetic flux

within its boundaries, a current will be induced in the loop that creates
a magneticflux opposing the change in theexternal magneticflux.
As worded above, the law doesn't necessarily make sense at first reading. Heck,
reading it a second or third time doesn't really help either. To make things easier
to understand, lefs compare Lenz's law to Le Chdtlier's principle. Consider the
system shown in Figure 8-15. As the loop moves into the field, it experiences a
gain of Xs within the inside of the loop. According to Le Chdtlier's principle, if a
chemicalsystem at equilibriumgains reactants, then it shifts to make products; if
the equilibrium system gains heat, then it shifts in a way to absorb neat (make
cold). The system shifts in a way to reduce the stress. The same is true with
Lenz's law. The stress is that the loop is gaining Xs within the loop as it enters
the field shown in Figure 8-15, so it must generate the opposite of an X. Given
that an X represents a magnetic field going into the page, the loop will
experience an induced current that creates a magnetic field coming out of the
page within the loop. According to the right-hand rule for magnetic fields
emanatingfrom current carrying wires, a magnetic field pointing out of the page
occurs with a counterclockwise current. Hence, as the loop enters the field at t =
1, it experiences a counterclockwise, induced current.
t = 0
No current
y.
j<
x.x>x
j<
Xs
Jk
t = l
t = 2
t = 3
t = 4
Counterclockwise
No current
Clockwise
No current
current
current
(Gains Xs, creates 0s)
(Gains s, creates Xs)
Conducting loop movingleft to right through B at constant v

Figure 8-15
There is no current induced once the loop is completely immersed in the

magnetic field at t = 2, because the loop is feeling a constant flux (there's no
change in the number of Xs inside the loop). However, when the loop leaves the
field, it experiences a drop in the number of Xsinside the loop.To offset this loss
in Xs, an induced current in the loop is generated in such a direction that it
creates a magnetic field going into the page. According to the right-hand rule,
this occurs with a clockwise current. This is why as the loop exits the field at t =
3, there is a clockwise, induced current. Hopefully taking a Le Chatelier's
perspective on Lenz's law simplifies it.
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The Berkeley Review
Physics
Electromagnetism
The magnitude of the current depends on the rate at which the flux changes. This
is known as Faraday's law, equation (8.13), which states that the em/causing the
induced current is proportional to the rate of change of the flux within the loop.
em/=.AOB/At
Faraday's law
(8.13)
Faraday's law explains that as you increase the rate at which the loop enters a B
field, the magnitude of the induced current increases, as shown in Figure 8-16.
Slower immersion
Clockwise current
Faster immersion
(upon exiting the B field)
;I
_j
U ?
(upon entering the Bfield)
Counterclockwise current
Figure 8-16
Example 8.10a
What is true of a conducting loop that spins within a magnetic field about an axis
perpendicular to the magnetic field?
A. It experiences an induced alternating current.
B. It experiences an induced direct current of constant magnitude.
C. It experiences an induced direct current of changing magnitude.
D. It experiences no current.
Solution
As the loop rotates about an axis that is perpendicular to the magnetic field, it
gains Xs some of the time followed by a period of time where it loses Xs. This
means that the current could be either counterclockwise or clockwise at different
pointsin its revolution, so the current is alternating. To generate a direct current,

the loop would need to always be entering or always be exiting the field, which
is physically impossible. Spinning loops in an external magnetic field generate
induced, alternatingcurrents.This is the principlebehind electrical generators.
Example 8.10b
A metal loop movingleft to right across the following Bfield would induce a:
00000000
0000000
00000000
A.
B.
C.
D.
clockwise current once it was fully immerse in the field.

counterclockwise current once it was fully immerse in the field.
clockwisecurrent upon entry and a counterclockwise current upon exit.
counterclockwise current upon entry and a clockwise current upon exit.
Solution
An induced current only occurs upon entering or exiting the field, so choices A
and B are eliminated. Upon entering the field from the left, the loop would
experience a gain in dots, which would induce a clockwise current to generate Xs.
137
Physics
Electromagnetism
Solenoid
A solenoid is a helical winding of a conducting wire, such as a coil of copper

wire wound on a cylindrical tube. A solenoid should have a length that is at least
four times its radius. Upon passing current through a solenoid, a magnetic field
can be generated that depends on the magnitude of the current and dimensions
of the solenoid. A solenoid can serve as an electromagnet when a constant direct
current generates a steady magnetic field of fixed strength and orientation.
Figure 8-17 shows a solenoid and a corresponding graph relating the strength of
the magnetic field to the position in the solenoid. The n0 term is a constant for
magnetic fields, n is the number of turns in the solenoid, and J is the current.
Figure 8-17
(Direct Current) Electric Motor

Conducting loops are an integral part of electric motors. The idea is that current
is passed around a conducting loop, causing a local magnetic field within the
loop. Ifthe loop is placed ina linear external magnetic field at such an angle that
it feels a torque and it is free to rotate, then the torque will cause it to rotate.
Equation (8.14) describes the torque on the loop, where N is the number of turns,
Iis the current, Ais the area of the loop, Bis the strength of the external magnetic
field, and $ isthe angle between the external field lines and the loop's field lines.
x = NL4Bsin<j>
(8.14)
By having several loops arranged symmetrically, there will always be loops
feeling some magnitude of torque. The result is that the symmetric collection of
loops spins. Figure 8-18 shows one loop in an external magnetic field.
External B field
Induced B field
Figure 8-18
138
The Berkeley Review
Physics
Electromagnetism
Velocity Selector
Amongst the differences between an electric force and a magnetic force is that
only the electric force can accelerate a charged particle from rest (speed up or
slow down a particle for that matter) and only the magnetic force depends on the
speed of the charged particle in motion. For this reason, electric fields are found
in particle accelerators. However, the combination of an electric field and
magnetic field, when aligned correctly, can serve to segregate particles of
different velocities. By arranging an electric field perpendicular to a magnetic
field the right way, an electric force can be aligned in the opposite direction of
the magnetic force. Figure 8-19, shows the basic schematic of a velocity selector
where the electric field points down and the magnetic field points into the page.
Deflects up if Fb > FE .'. v is too fast

v>
E Travels straight
*"V=B"
ifFB =FE
Fdown = FE = qE
v<
Deflects down if FB < FE .*. v is too slow

Figure 8-19
Mass Spectrometer
A mass spectrometer takes advantage of the deflection of a moving charged
particle in a perpendicular magnetic field. Once a charged particle enters a
magnetic field, it will move in a circular path at a constant speed. The radius of
the circular path depends on the mass of the particle, amongst other things. If all
other factors are equal, then the relative masses of particles in the spectrometer
will correlate to their relative radii. Heavier particles traverse bigger circles and
thus have a greater radius. The correlation between the radius and mass can be
found by setting Fra(jial = mv2/r (equation (2.31)) equal to Fmagnetic = qvB

(equation(8.12)) to generate equation (8.15).
mv
/qB
(8.15)
Figure 8-20 shows the top view of the three regions of a Bainbridge mass
spectrometer. The multiple semi-circle curves representdifferent cations.
X = B field into page
I- E field pointing down
Collision
Detector
*x
>x
+
+
Region I
acceleration
x ir
ir
,r
ir
X
X
Region III
deflection
Region II
Velocity selector
(F = qvB sin6)
Figure 8-20
139
Physics
Electromagnetism
Example 8.11a
In a velocity selector, which of the following changes will lead to an increase in

the speed of the exiting particle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Decreasing the mass of the particle being ejected.

Increasing the mass of the particle being ejected.
Decreasing the strength of the electric field.
Increasing the strength of the electric field.
Solution
In a velocity selector, the particle that travels straight through and thereby
escapesthe velocity selector, has a speed v = E/B. In order to increase the speed
of the ejected ion, either the magnitude of E must increase or the magnitude of B
must decrease. Changing the mass of the particle will change the speed of the
particle, but not the escape speed. All that will occur with a change in mass is
that it will be different cationic particles that achieve the correct exit speed.
Choices A and B are eliminated.
Because the exit speed is v = E/B, a stronger E field, rather than a weaker E field,
would result in a greater exit speed.
Example 8.11b
In a Bainbridge mass spectrometer, what could explain a greater radius of

curvature in the deflectionregion for one cation versus a second cation?
A. An isotope of the element with fewer neutrons was used for the second
cation.
B. The electric field in Region I was decreased.

C. The magneticfield in RegionIII was increased.
D. A less ionized particle was used for the second cation.
Solution
According to equation (8.15), a greater radius of curvature could be the result of
a particle with a larger mass, a greater speed, a reduced charge, or the magnetic
field could havea diminished strength.
An isotope withfewer neutrons would resultin a lighter particle. Because radius

is directly proportional to mass (r m), this would result in a smaller radius of
curvature, so choice A is eliminated. If the magnitude of the electric field in

Region I weredecreased, then the particles leaving Region I would have a lower
average speed. However, because of the velocity selector in Region II, the
particles leaving Region II wouldhave the same speed, so the radii should not be
affected byspeed. Choice Bis eliminated. If the magnitude of the magnetic field
in Region III were increased, then the particles leaving Region II experience a
stronger deflecting force and be bent more. Because radius is inversely
proportional to the magnetic field strength (r 1/B), a stronger B field would
result in a smaller radius. Choice C is eliminated.
A less ionized particle means that the cation has a lower magnitude of charge. If
the second cation has a reduced q, then it will feel less ofa force deflecting it in
Region III, and thus, it will traverse a greater circular radius. This is because
radius is inversely proportionalto charge (r 1/q).
140
The Berkeley Review
25 Electrostatics and Electromagnetism Review Questions
I.
II.
III.
Electromotive Force
Gelo-O Brand Electrophoresis
(1-7)
(8 -14)
Electrostatics
(15 - 22)
(23 - 25)
1.
In order to produce a current in an electric circuit, a

potential difference or emf (electromotive force) is required.
This emf may arise from a chemical process, an external
electric field, or magnetic induction. Dragging a conducting
rod through a magnetic field induces an em/between the ends
For the moving rod in Figure 1, where are the electrons

likely to cluster?
A. At the top.
B.
In the middle.
C.
At the bottom.
D. The electrons will be spread out uniformly along

the length of the bar.
of the bar:
2.
How much work is done on an electron in moving it

across the bar in Figure 1?
A.
B. ^
C.
Figure 1
I).
This induced emf is given as: e = BLv, where B is the

magnetic field, L is the length of the bar, and v is the speed
of the bar.
evLB
evB
e is measured in terms of volts. This method of
inducing a voltage can then be applied in a circuit:

X
3.
The likely explanation for the induced emf shown in

Figure 2 is an increasing:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
A.
magnetic field as the rod moves to the right.

area as the rod moves to the right.
circuit resistance as the rod moves to the right.
power loss in the resistor as the rod moves to the
right.
II only
B. I and II only
C. Ill and IV only
Figure 2
D.
I, II, III, and IV
Faraday found that in general, an induced emf can be

produced by changing a quantity called magneticflux:
(j> = BiA
4.
For the circuit in Figure 2, which way does the induced

current flow?
where B is the strength of a magnetic field passing

perpendicularly through an area A, enclosed by a wire loop.
The rate at which this quantity changes:
At
A.
Counterclockwise
B.
Clockwise
C.
Clockwise, and then counterclockwise
D.
No current will flow.
determines the induced emf across the ioop. This induced emf
then drives a current through the circuit, which produces its
own magnetic field that opposes the initial flux change.
5.
A current moving through a magnetic field experiences a
For the circuit in Figure 2, what is the magnitude of the

current?
force of magnitude:
A.
B.
C.
D.
F=ILB
where Bi is the component of B perpendicular to the current

I running through a region (or wire) of length L.
20 amps
10 amps
5 amps
2.5 amps
In the following problems, let L = 1 meter, B = 5 T, v = 2

m/s, and R = 4 Q. The electron's charge is given by -e.
142
6.
If the rod in Figure 2 is released with zero velocity, and
if the rails on which the rod sits are frictionless, the rod
Electrophoresis involves the separation of charged

macromolecules by the application of an electric field. The
charged molecules in the field are subjected to an
electrostatic force given by:
will:
A. not move when a current is running through the

resistor.
B.
move to the left, to minimize the area of the circuit
F = qE
loop.
C. move to the right, to maximize the magnetic flux
through the circuit loop.
D. remain stationary, to keep the magnetic flux
through the circuit loop constant.
7.
where q is the charge of the molecule, and E is the electric

field.
Gel electrophoresis utilizes a gel-like matrix to separate

macromolecules. This apparatus is an important tool in the
study of DNA, a macromolecule that has an intrinsically
negative charge due to the presence of phosphate groups. Not
only can gel electrophoresis be used to determine the base
sequence of a DNA polymer, but it can also be used to
separate DNA polymers by size.
Which of the following will NOT reduce the power

drain in the resistor?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Using a larger resistance with the same current

Increasing the rod velocity.
Increasing the magnetic field strength.
Increasing the rod length.
For many years after the introduction of gel

electrophoresis, it was nearly impossible to separate whole
chromosomes. However, in the mid-1980s a new approach
was taken that allowed entire chromosomes to be separated
by a technique called pulsedfield gel electrophoresis. Instead
of applying one electric field to a gel containing DNA, two
electric fields are set perpendicular to each other. Rather than
running one electric fields continuously, the two fields are
pulsed. One field is turned on for a short time and then turned
A. I only
B. I and III only
C. II, III, and IV only
D.
I, II, III, and IV
off. Next, the second field is turned on for a short time and
then turned off. If the pulsed fields have the same magnitude,
same duration, and are set up as shown in Figure 1, the DNA
will run in a vertical line down the gel.
Electrodes
Gel Box
Figure 1
The idea is that the fields pull the DNA first one way
and then another way. The effect is the separation of large
DNA strands that run in a straight line.
Electrophoresis has been employed to separate the 16

chromosomes of Saccharomyces cerevisiae, or baker's yeast.
The sizes of some of the chromosomes are listed below:
Chromosome Number
143
Size (kD)
198
III
311
VII
1285
XVI
864
In a typical experiment to separate chromosomes,

the DNA is loaded into wells in an agarose gel. The gel is
11.
A plot of the migration distance D versus log M should

look like:
then immersed in a tank that contains a buffer. The buffer is
A.
B.
run through a cooler to maintain a constant temperature of

about 12C-15C. Electric fields form between the charged
plates of capacitors, and the plates are arranged around the

tank to produce the fields shown in Figure 1. A constantvoltage power supply is used to monitor both the constant
voltage and the current through the buffer. The distance D
that a particular chromosome will migrate through a gel is
related to the molecular size M of that chromosome by:
D = a-b(logM)
where a and b are constants

electrophoretic conditions.
8.
that
depend
on
the
Which of the following changes will affect the

migration rate of a given band of DNA through a gel?
12.
A. Increasing the plate separation while keeping the

voltage constant.
B. Decreasing the voltage across the plates while
keeping the plate separation constant.
C. Changing the gel viscosity.
D.
9.
Before the introduction of gels to hold the DNA during

the electrophoresis process, DNA was placed in a liquid
sucrose density gradient. However, this was not
successful in separating DNA by size. DNA molecules
of different sizes tended to run as one indistinguishable
band. Why?
All of the above.
A. All DNA fragments have the same charge.

B. Diffusion causes DNA to clump together.
C. The liquid sucrose density gradient neutralizes the
effects of the applied electric field.
D. Viscous drag forces generally increase with
Occasionally, the cooler breaks down and the

temperature of the buffer increases by as much as 20C.
Why does the current also increase?
A. An increase in temperature causes the resistance to

increase.
increasing molecular size.
B. An increase in temperature causes the voltage

across the plates to decrease.
C. An increase in temperature releases more ions into
13.
which of the following ways?
the buffer.
D. An increase in temperature causes the gel to
A.
I, III, VII, XVI
B.
VII, XVI, III, I
Consider the electrophoresis setup in the passage that
C.
I, III, XVI, VII
has been modified so that Electric field A becomes half
D.
Ill, I, VII, XVI
harden.
10.
From the top to the bottom of the gel, the yeast

chromosomes listed in Table 1 should be ordered in
as strong as Electric field B. An experimenter loads a

gel as shown below, but is unable to get a run. How can
this result be explained?
14.
Suppose in the electrophoresis set-up in the passage,

electric field A is half as strong as electric field B. If
both fields are turned on at the same time, which of the
following pictures BEST represents the sum of the two

electric fields?
A.
B.
Gel Box
A. The bands ran diagonally off the gel's right side.

B. The bands ran diagonally off the gel's left side.
C. The bands ran in a straight line off the gel, from
top to bottom.
D. The DNA was loaded backwardsin such a way that

it could not migrate.
144
16.
A group of students decide to study electrostatics. They

have the following items at their disposal: glass rods, hard
rubber rods, silk, fur, metal rods with glass supports, and
metal spheres on glass supports.
In Experiment 1, suppose that the rubbed glass rod

became positively charged. Then the silk that rubbed it
would:
A. acquire an equal amount of negative charge.

B. acquire an equal amount of positive charge.
C. acquire a positive charge, but not the same amount
as the glass rod has.
D. remain neutrally charged.
Experiment J
The students attempt to demonstrate that there are two
kinds of charge. First, they rub a glass rod with silk. This rod
is hung from a long silk thread. A second glass rod is rubbed
with silk and held near the rubbed end of the first glass rod.
The two glass rods are observed to repel each other. Next, a
17.
In Experiment 2, why is it important that the glass rod

not touch Sphere I?
A. To maximize the amount of charge transferred to
the sphere
hard rubber rod is rubbed with fur. When the hard rubber rod
is held near the rubbed end of the glass rod hanging from the
thread, the two rods are observed to attract each other.
B.
However, two hard rubber rods rubbed with fur are observed
to repel each other.
To maximize the rate of charge transfer to the

sphere
C. To prevent induction of charge separation onto the

sphere
Experiment 2
D. To prevent charge transfer directly to the sphere
Two neutral (uncharged) and identical metal spheres on

glass supports are brought close to each other but are not
allowed to touch. A glass rod is rubbed with silk and the
rubbed end is brought close to one of the spheres, Sphere I,
but does not touch it (as shown below). With the glass rod
still held near Sphere I, a conducting wire connects the two
18.
Upon completing Experiment 2, the students found:

A. that both spheres have acquired the same type of
charge as that found on the rubbed glass rod.
spheres. Finally, the wire is removed and the glass rod is
B.
that the spheres have remained neutrally charged.
taken away.
C.
that Sphere I has acquired the same type of charge

as that on the glass rod, and Sphere II has acquired
the opposite type of charge.
glass rod
rubber end
D. that Sphere I has acquired the type of charge

opposite to that found on the glass rod, and Sphere
II has acquired the same type of charge.
19.
glass support
In Experiment 3:
A. the electrons flow continuously in the metal rod, as
long as the glass rod is held near the metal rod.
glass support
B. the electrons eventually cease to flow in the metal
Figure 1.
rod.
C. both
Experiment 3
positive
and
negative
charges
flow
continuously in the metal rod.
A glass rod is rubbed with silk and the rubbed end is
D. the positive charge flows continuously, but the
held near one end of a metal rod, resting on a glass support.
electrons remain stationary in the metal rod.
The students predict what will happen to the charge in the

metal rod.
15.
20.
How do the masses of the spheres in Experiment 2

compare before and after the experiment?
Suppose now the students repeat all of the experiments

on a humid day. They find that:
A.
A.
The masses remain the same.
B. The masses of both spheres increase.
well.
C. The masses of both spheres decrease.

D.
C. Experiment 2 and Experiment 3 work better.

D. none of the experiments works as well.
One mass increases, and the other decreases.
the results remain unchanged.
B. Experiment 1 and Experiment 2 no longer work as
145
21.
In Experiment 3, with the glass rod held near the metal
rod:
passage.
A.
there is no net electrical force on the metal rod.
B.
there is a net force on the metal rod; the metal rod
23. A charged particle is suspended between two

horizontally aligned parallel plates carrying opposite
charges of equal magnitude. If the separation between
the plates is doubled while the voltage is held constant,
whathappens to the electricforce on a particulardrop?
is attracted to the glass rod.

C. there is a net force on the metal rod; the metal rod
is repelled by the glass rod.

D.
there is a net force on the metal rod; the neutrons in
the metal are repelled by the glass rod.
A.
It is doubled.
B.
It is halved.
C. It is reduced to one-fourth of its original value.

D.
22.
It remains the same.
Which of the following statements is NOT a valid

description of the role of corresponding material in the
experiments?
A.
24. For a positively charged particle moving left to right

through a linear magnetic field oriented into the page,
Fur is used to transfer electrons to the material that
rubs against it.
whatpath will be observedfor the particle?
B. The conducting wire serves to transfer charge from

one surface to another when contact is made.
C. The spheres serve to create electrons.

D. The glass rods serve to transfer electrons to the silk
cloth that is rubbed against them.
A.
Path I
B.
Path II
C.
Path III
D. The particle will bedeflected outof the page
25. If two parallel wires cany currents in the same

direction:
A.
the wires attract
B. the wires repel.
C. the
wires
rotate
such
that they
become
perpendicular.
the wires feel no net external force.
D.
1.
146
2. C
6. D
7. D
11. A
12. D
13. B
14. A
15. D
16. A
17. D
18. D
19. B
20. D
21. B
22.
23.
24. A
25. A
3. A
4. A
9.
5. D
10. D
YOU ARE DONE.
Answers to 25-Question Electrostatics and Magnetism Review

1.
Electromotive Force
Choice C is the best answer. The electrons in the bar experience the magnetic force: F = qvB. The direction of the force
can be determined using the right-hand rule. There are many versions of this, so use whichever one is familiar to you. If you
do not know any right-hand rule, here's one: Hold your right hand flat, with your thumb perpendicular to your fingers. Your
fingers point in the direction of the magnetic field lines (remember: many lines, many fingers). Your thumb points in the
direction in which the charge moves (remember: hitchhiking charge). Your palm will, as a result, point in the direction in
which the induced force would push a positive charge (remember: palms push positive charge). If the charge is negative, as it
is in this case, just reverse the direction of the force.
Here, the electrons are moving towards the right, and the magnetic field points into the page. Using your right-hand rule
shows that the electrons experience a net force downwards and will cluster at the bottom of the rod. The best answer is
choice C.
2.
Choice C is the best answer. The work required to push an electron from one end of the moving rod to the other end is
equal to the potential energy change:
W = AU = qAV
From thepassage, we are told that the induced emfacross theends of the bar is given by: e = BLv.
The work required to move an electron is given by: W = BLve. The best answeris choice C.
3.
Choice A is the best answer. As the rod is pulled along the rails, the area enclosed by the rod and the rails grows larger and
larger. The flux changes because the area changes, and the change in flux induces an emf, according to Faraday. This
validates choices A, B, and D. Since the magnetic field is not changing in the setup for Figure2, an increasing magnetic field
is not the reason for the emf. This rules out choices B and D, leaving only choice A. Regarding statements III and rv, the
resistance of the circuit does not change as the rod moves, because the only source of resistance is the resistor (which is
fixed). Therefore, assuming a constant emf, the overall resistance and power loss areconstant. The best answer is choice A.
4.
Choice A is the best answer. Electrons will be pushed toward the bottom of the rod. Current, by definition, is the flow of
positive charges. Since the electrons flow clockwise, the current will flow counterclockwise. The best answer ischoice A.
5.
Choice D is the best answer. From Ohm's law, we know that e = IR. Rearrangement of terms gives:
I = iL
R
Weare told in the passage that s = BLv. For this problem, wesubstitute as follows:
e=BLv so: I=S^- =<5 "HO mX2 m/s>/4 q =2.5 amps

Choice D is the best answer. Let's start by considering A. Using the right-hand ruleon a current running through the wire in
Figure 2 shows you that the rod is pushed either to the right orto the left (depending upon the direction of the current). This
invalidates choice A. Magnetic flux does not tend to change. That is why, as stated in the passage, the current generated in a
wire loop will orient itself sothat its magnetic field opposes the induced change in flux~a condition described by Lenz's law.
This invalidates choices B and C, and favors choice D. The best answer is choice D.
Choice D is the best answer. Asking which change will notreduce the power drain can be restated as asking which change
will either increase the power drain or leave it unchanged. Power drains from in a resistor because a current moves through
its resistive material, dissipating energy as heat. Increasing the resistance would therefore increase the power drain, making
Option I valid and choice C invalid. Increasing the rod velocity and magnetic field strength are both ways to increase the emf
induced across the circuit. This will increase the current and the resulting power loss, making only choice D valid. Notice
that increasing the rod length does not change the size of the rest of the circuit. The important part of the rod (as far as
induction is concerned) is still the same size. What is meant by the important partis the segment of the rod between the two
contact points. Making the rod longer simply adds additional length out side of the enclosed region of flux. You might be
tempted to think that L in the relationship e = BLv has increased, but it is in fact the same. As a result, the power drain does
not change. Taking the rod length into account was not necessary, assuming that the first three statements are interpreted
correctly. The best answer is choice D.
147
Gel-O Brand Electrophoresis

8.
Choice D is the best answer. Increasing the plate separation while keeping the voltage constant will change the magnitude
of the electric field between the plates. Recall that voltage and electric field are related by: V = Ed, where d is the distance
separating the plates. Changing the value of d will change E, if the voltage is kept constant. Changing the voltage across the
plates without changing d also changes E. The gel acts as a matrix to hold the DNA in place. Changing the gel viscosity
alters the rate of DNA migration, since the DNA experiences forces from interactions with the gel, as well as the electric
field. The best answer is choice D.
9.
Choice C is the best answer. This question can be answered by knowing definitions and does not require a complete
understanding of the experiment. The current increases, which according to Ohm's law, V = IR, occurs with increasing V or
decreasing R. Although increasing temperature generally increases resistance, this should not cause a current increase. In
fact, for a constant voltage, the current should decrease with increasing resistance. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. The
voltage across the plates is held constant by the power supply and remains unaffected by the temperature of the buffer, so
choice B is incorrect. As temperature increases, we should expect the gel to begin to disintegrate or melt, not harden. If the
gel did harden, this would increase resistance to ion migration, which results in a slower charge movement, and thus a
reduced current. For that reason, choice D is also incorrect. Choice C must be the best answer by the process of elimination.
In a buffer, a weak acid can dissociate so that ions are released into the solution:
H|A] + H20
H30+ + |A]-
As the temperature increases, the reaction must be driven to the right (dissociation reactions are generally endothermic), so
more ions will be released. This will increase the current. The best answer is choice C.
10.
Choice D is the best answer. The experimenter sees nothing on the gel, because he placed it in the tank incorrectly! DNA is
negatively charged. This means the gel should be placed in the tank so that the wells containing the DNA are near the
negative electrode. That way, when the electric fields are turned on, the DNA will run from the negative electrode to the
positive electrode. By loading the gel in the way indicated, the experimenter has inadvertently arranged for the DNA strands
to stay close to the (+) plates rather then migrate across the gel! The best answer is choice D.
11.
Choice A is the best answer. Smaller strands of DNA (size or mass of the strand is indicated by M) will migrate farther
(distance is indicated by D). The graphs in choices A and C both express this relationship. Considering the relationship
between M and D more carefully, it is best shown by choice A (noting that we are plotting logM and not M on the vertical
axis). The best answer is choice A.
12.
Choice D is the best answer. As mentioned in the passage, DNA has an intrinsic negative charge, due to the presence of
phosphate molecules. DNA polymers of different sizes should run as distinguishable bands, since DNA polymers of different
sizes have different charges (the larger the DNA molecule, the more phosphates it has, so the larger the charge it has).
However, as the molecules increase in size, they will be more affected by viscous drag forces. The viscous drag forces tend
to oppose the electrostatic forces. Consequently, DNA polymers of different sizes run as one indistinguishable band in a
liquid. Choice A is incorrect, for the reasons just mentioned. Choice B is incorrect; diffusion should spread the DNA out, not
clump it together. Choice C is also incorrect; the liquid gradient is there simply to keep the DNA from diffusing. Sucrose is
electrically neutral and therefore has no effect on the electric field. The best answer is choice D.
13.
Choice B is the best answer. From the passage, we are given the empirical relationship between migration distance D and
molecular size M: D = a - b (logM), where a and b are constants that depend on the electrophoretic conditions. As M
increases, D decreases. Therefore, smaller molecules migrate farther. Since the DNA strands are negatively charged
molecules, they generally migrate from the top towards the bottom of the gel (as the passage states). Thus, the longest strands
should be closest to the top of the gel. Strand VII is the longest and therefore the first in the list. Only choice Bbegins its list
with Strand VII, making it the best answer. The best answer is choice B.
14.
Choice A is the best answer. Electric fields are vectors. If the two fields are on at the same time, the net electric field is the
superposition of the two individual fields. Electric field B has twice the magnitude of Electric field A, so the net field should
point in the direction of Electric field B. The best answer is choice A.

15.
Electrostatics
Choice D is the best answer. Except in special cases, the actual charge carriers in conductors are electrons. Electrons have
mass as well as charge, so the sphere that acquires the electrons will have slightly more mass, and the sphere that lost the
electrons will have slightly less mass. The best answer is choice D.
148
16.
Choice A is the best answer. Charge is a conserved quantity, which means that it can be neither created nor destroyed. It
canonly be transferred from one object to another. The process of charging a glass rod (an insulator) is poorly understood,
butit is believed thatfriction between the silk and the rodstrips electrons from the glassand deposits them onto the silk. The
silk has a higher affinity for electrons than does theglass. Thisleaves a deficit of charge on the glass rod. Thus, thecharge on
the rubbed glass rod and the silk have to be equal in amount, but opposite in sign. The best answer is choice A.
17.
Choice D is the best answer. When two objects carrying different charges come into contact with each other, the charge
densities will balance out between the objects through the transferof electrons. To prevent charge transfer, the objects should
be separated from one another by an insulator, such as air. Preventing charged objects from touching each other prevents
charge transfer, making choice D the best answer. The best answer is choice D.
18.
Choice D is the best answer. The rubbed glass rod now has a net charge on it. Let the net charge of the rubbed glass rod be
positive. A metal is a conductor, which means that charge is free to flow through it. When the rubbed glass rod is brought
close to Sphere I, negative charge is attracted to the glass rod, and positive charge is repelled. The same is true for Sphere II.
Negative charge will be attracted to the rubbed glass rod, while positive charge will be repelled. If the two spheres are then
connected by a conducting wire, charge is free to flow from one sphere to another. The positive charge on Sphere I will flow
to Sphere II, trying to get away from the glass rod. Negative charge will flow from Sphere II to Sphere I, to get closer to the
glass rod. When the conducting wire is removed and the glass rod taken away, the metal spheres are each left with a net
charge. Sphere I, the sphere closer to the glass rod, will have acquired a charge opposite to the charge on the glass rod.
Sphere II, the sphere farther away from the glass rod, will have acquired a charge that is the same as the charge on the glass
rod. This process of charging a conductor without actually touching it is called induction. The best answer is choice D.
19.
Choice B is the best answer. Although there is a nearly inexhaustible supply of electrons in the metal rod, there are two
competing effects going on. Suppose the rubbed glass rod has a net positive charge. The electrons are attracted to the rubbed
end of the glass rod, so they flow to the end of the metal rod closer to the glass rod. However, electrons are also repelled by
each other. Eventually, there are so many electrons at the end of the metal rod closer to the glass rod that the attractive force
experienced by the positive charge is balanced by the repulsive force from other electrons. At this point, the electrons will
cease to flow. Choice A is incorrect, for the reasons just mentioned. Choices C and D are incorrect: Electrons are the charges
that move in conductors, not positive charges. The best answer is choice B.
20.
Choice D is the best answer. These electrostatic experiments depend on insulators being able to acquire a net charge and
hold it. The charging of an insulator occurs by friction-stripping electrons from atoms, thereby ionizing them. A humid day
means a greater amount of water is in the air than on an arid day. Water is a better conductor than air, so in the presence of a
better conductor, the ions are less likely to stay ionized. It is easier for them to recombine into a neutral atom, reducing the
initial charge buildup on the rods. This is why you canmost aptly shock yourself or your neighbor on a dry, windy day. The
best answer is choice D.
21.
Choice B is the best answer. Choice D can be eliminated immediately, because neutrons do not respond to an electrostatic
force. The question is reduced to determining whether there isanattractive force, a repulsive force, or noforce atall. Let the
rubbed glass rod have a net positive charge. Then the end of the metal rod closer to the glass rod would have a negative
charge, and the end farther away from the glass rod would have a positive charge. The negative charge in the metal rod and
the positive end of the glass rod exert an attractive force on each other. The positive charge in the metal rod and the positive
endof the glass rod will exerta repulsive force on each other. Electrostatic forces are distance-dependent:
F -L
r2
Since the negative end of the metal rod is closer to the glass rod, the attractive force on the metal rod is slightly larger than
the repulsive force. Thus, there is a netattractive force on the metal rod. The best answer is choiceB.
22.
Choice C is the best answer. Because glass and hard rubberare able to exert forces (attractive in some cases and repulsive
inothers) after being rubbed with fur, we can conclude that rubbing with fur is responsible for charging the species. Charges
accrue when electrons are transferred, so it is reasonable to assume that fur is used to transfer electrons to the material that
rubs against it. Choice A is a valid statement and thus eliminated. A conducting rod by definition can transfer electrons, so
choice B is a valid statement, which eliminates it. Because the glass rods repel one another after being rubbed by silk, they
must be transferring electrons to the silk. Choice D is a valid statement and thus it's eliminated. The spheres do not create
electrons; they simply hold the charge that isadded to them. Choice C is an invalid statement. The bestansweris choice C.
149
Questions 23 - 25
23.
Choice B is the best answer. Conceptually, we know that if the plates are moved farther apart while the voltage is held
constant, then the force acting on any particular drop will be reduced, because force depends on distance. This eliminates
choices A and D. If the plate separation is doubled while the voltage across the plates is kept constant, then according to the
relationship AV = EL, the electric field must be reduced by half. Since the electric force is given by: F = qE, cutting the
strength of the field in half will reduce the force at any point in the field by one-half. For any particular drop at any point
between the two plates, the force will be reduced to half of its original value if the distance between the charged plates is
doubled. The best answer is choice B.
24.
Choice A is the best answer. A charged particle moving through a magnetic field will feel a force that is both perpendicular
to the orientation of the B field and perpendicular to the direction of motion. The particle enters moving from the left to the
right. The B field is oriented into the page, so the direction of the force must be either upward or downward. This results in
either path I or path III being correct. Path II and deflection out of the page are not possible, so choices B and D are
eliminated. According to the right hand rule, move your fingers in the direction of the motion, bend your fingers in the
direction of the field, and the direction of the force on a positive ion is in the direction of your thumb. This is upwards, so
the best trajectory is Path I. The best answer is choice A.
25.
Choice A is the best answer. This is similar to the previous question, but involves the right hand rule. If you think that there
will be any motion of the wires at all, then cross out choice D. To be more specific, look at the magnetic field lines and how
they interact with the wires. The magnetic field lines due to the current in wire #1 are drawn (wire #2 also has field lines,
they just aren't drawn.) The magnetic field due to wire #\ points out of the page where wire #2 is. The resulting force on
wire #2 is to the right using the right-hand rule. If you repeat the process for wire #1, you will find it feels a force towards
the left. Thus, the wires attract.
1
B out
i'B
into
#2
on 2 by 1
#1
111
150
52-Question Electrostatics and Electromagnetism Practice Exam

I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
VI.
VII.
Millikan Oil Drop Experiment
(1-5)
Lenz's Law
(6 -10)
Cathode Ray Tube
(11 -17)
(18 - 21)
Velocity Selector
(22 - 26)
Faraday's Law
(27-32)
(33 - 36)
Mass Spectroscopy
(37 - 41)
Cyclotron
(42 - 48)
(49 - 52)
Electrostatics and Electromagnetism Exam Scoring Scale

Raw Score
MCAT Score
42-52
13-15
34-41
10-12
24-33
7-9
17-23
4-6
1-16
1-3
Passage 1 (Questions 1 - 5)
2.
In 1906, Robert Millikan devised an experiment that

allowed him to determine the charge of an electron. A
schematicof Millikan'sset-up is shown in Figure 1 below:
4B
A. They would accelerate upward.

B. They would accelerate downward.
C. They would move with a constant velocity upward.
D. They
=\
Oil Can
o
o
If the voltage across the plates were reversed, what

would happen to the oil drops between the plates?
would
move
with a constant velocity
downward.
o
o
!jS
3.
A.
charged
oil drop
C. It is quadrupled.
^^
It doubles.
B. It is reduced by half.
^^\
Suppose there are two oil droplets between the plates. If

the distance between the droplets is halved, what
happens to the force between the droplets?
D.
It remains the same.
^^>
Figure 1
4.
Two metal plates are connected by a series of batteries to
form a capacitor. There is an electric field between the plates.

The metal plates are inside an insulated cylindrical container
made of clear glass.
Suppose the original oil droplet were replaced with a

positively charged one that had twice the charge and
three timesthe massof the original droplet How would
the magnitude of the electric field have to be changed

in order for the drop to remainsuspended?
Oil drops are introduced into the container through a

small hole in the top. The oil drops acquire a negative charge
A. No change is necessary.
B. It must be increased by a factor of .
as they pass through the nozzle of the oil can. Some of the
drops fall through a hole in the upper plate. By adjusting the

voltage between the plates, certain drops can be slowed
down, and in some cases suspended between them. The
relationship between the electric field between the plates and
the voltage across the plates is:
C. It must be decreased by a factor of =.

3
D. It must be increased by a factor of *-.

2
AV = EL
where E is the electric field and L is the plateseparation.
5.
Millikan chose oil because of its relatively low vapor
A.
pressureand high charge-holdingability.
1.
Millikan chose oil instead of water because:

oil is denser than water.
B. oil holds more charge than water.

C. oil is less viscous than water.
In order for an oil drop of mass m, radius r, and charge

density p, to be suspended between the plates, the
D. oil is more compressible than water.
magnitude and direction of the electric field must be:
3m8 -; downward.
B.
4jtr3p ; downward.
3mg
3mg
; upward.
4jtr3 p
; upward.
D.
3mg
152
6.
A metal bar with mass M, length L, uniform density p,

and resistance R is placed on parallel rails that slope up with
produced as the bar slid down the rails?
A.
B.
C.
D.
a gradually increasing tangent, as shown in Figure 1. The

bar, represented by the segment from X to Y, has a higher
conductivity than the rest of the apparatus. Points a and f
represent connections from the base of the rails to a box that
can serve as either a power supply or an ammeter. The rails
from point e to point f and point a to point b are made of a
conducting metal. The support structure from points e and b
to the base and the base itself are insulators. For simplicity,
assume the rails have negligible electrical resistance and
friction and that the resistance in the bar is negligible. Two
experiments were conducted on this apparatus.
7.
No current is produced.
Direct current is produced that travelsfrom X to Y.
Directcurrent is produced that travelsfrom Y to X.
Alternating Current is produced.
A bar made of which of the following materials would

NOT have worked in Experiment II?
A. Copper
B.
Iron
C. Graphite
D.
Experiment I
A uniform magnetic field of adjustable magnitude was

oriented upward, perpendicular to the base of the apparatus.
The adjustable bar was then placed at the top of the rails and
released. The induced current through the bar was measured
as it fell.
In Experiment I, after the bar was released from the top

of the rails (points e and b), what was true of the current
8.
Calcium oxide
In Experiment II, when voltage is applied, the bar can

be suspended.
Where does most of the current flow
when this is observed?
The current induced in the bar was due to a
phenomenon known as Lenz's law. Whenever there is a

change in magnetic flux through a loop, a current is induced
in the loop which fights this change in magnetic flux. For
Experiment I, the loop being studied is the cyclic path from f
A.
From a-*X-+Y-*f-a
B.
From a-b-c--*c-*e-+f
C.
From c-*X-*Y-*d-c
D.
From c-b-*a-fê-*d
-a-X-*Y f.
9.
In Experiment I, releasing the bar from a higher point

on the rails will result in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. a greater induced current when the bar reaches the
bottom of the rails.
B. a greater kinetic energy when the bar reaches the

bottom of the rails.
C. an increase in the external magnetic field when the

bar reaches the bottom of the rails.
D. an increase in the induced magnetic field when the

Figure 1
bar reaches the bottom of the rails.
ExperimentII
10.
In the absence of any external magnetic field, a voltage was

applied between points a and f to produce a current through
the bar. The bar gradually climbed the rails until eventually
coming to rest. It was assumed that the gravitational force on
the bar was equal to the magnetic force generated by the
current Different voltages were applied and the bar was
suspended at various points along the rails. The voltage and
resting height were recorded for each trial.
A. The current through the bar remains the same, so

the bar remains stationary.
B. The current through the bar goes to zero, and the
bar descends to the bottom of the rails.
C. The current through the bar decreases slightly and

the bar descends the rails.
In order to support the idea of Lenz's law, when the

switch between points a and f was open, the bar slid down
the rails unimpeded in Experiment I. In Experiment II, the
bar did not move unless the voltage source was connected.
In Experiment II, starting when the bar is suspended,

what will be observed when the switch between points
a and f is opened?
D. The current through the bar increases slightly and

the bar ascends the rails.
153
12. Suppose that protons were boiled off of the filament
instead of electrons and that they, too, could be

considered to obey the ideal gas law. Assume the
Although solid state electronics has largely replaced
temperature of the cathode remains the same. The

kinetic energy of the ejected protons compared to the
vacuum tubes in the design and operation of computers and

televisions, an important vacuum tube still very much in use
is the cathode-ray tube, or CRT. For years, this was the main
kinetic energyof the ejected electrons would be:
kind of picture tube used for oscilloscopes and televisions.
A. greater, due to the greater mass of theprotons.
The basic design of a CRT is diagrammed in Figure 1.
B. smaller, due to the greater mass of the protons.

C. smaller, due to the different magnitude of charge of
Electromagnet
the protons.
Anode
D.
Cathode
the same.
Electron beam
13. Assume that an apparatus similar to the one shown in
Figure 1 could accelerate protons rather than electrons,
Figure 1.
and at the same velocity. If we wanted the undeflected
protons to follow the same path as the undeflected
Electrons are boiled off of a hot metal filament, the
electrons in Figure 1, then:
cathode. (To a good approximation, this thermionic emission

of electrons can be predicted, if we treat the electrons like the
molecules of an ideal gas.) The ejected electrons are then
accelerated by a high voltage applied to the anode. The
electrons pass out of theanode through a small holeandenter
a region of electric and magnetic fields. The electric field is
produced by two parallel charged plates, whereas the
magnetic field is produced by charge carrying coils near the
plates. These two fields exert forces on the electron.
A.
the direction of the electric field would have to be

reversed.
B. the direction of the magnetic field would have to

be reversed.
C.
the directions of both fields would have to be

reversed.
D. neither field would have to be changed in any way.
The electric force is given by: F= qE, where E is the

electricfield, and the magnetic force is given by: F = qvBi,
where v is the velocity of the electrons after leaving the
anode, and Bi is the component of the magnetic field
perpendicular to the electron velocity.
14.
When electrons travel from the cathode to the target,
passing through the electric and magnetic fields, the

electrons:
A. generate their own magnetic field, and this must be

taken into account when selecting the magnetic
field between the plates.
B. generate their own magnetic field, but this does not
The electric and magnetic fields are set up so that the

forces on the electrons will point in opposite directions. The
horizontal and vertical deflections of the electrons are
controlled by adjusting these two fields. (Some CRTs use

two sets of parallel plates-one set to control horizontal
have to be taken into account
C. do not generate their own magnetic field.

D. generate an electric field, and this must be taken
into account when choosing an electric field
between the plates.
deflection and one set to control vertical deflection.)
Once the electrons leave the region of the fields, they
continue until they strike the inside of the tube, which is

coated with a fluorescent substance. The tube glows at the
point where it is struck by an electron, producing a tiny

visible spot Adjusting the voltage across the parallel plates
or adjusting the magnetic field allows the point to be placed
15.
anywhere on the tube.
A. There is definitely no electric field in that region,
11. On occasion, the electrons are made to pass through the
but perhaps there is a perpendicular magneticfield.

B. There is definitely no magnetic field in that region,
but perhaps there is an electric field.
plates undeflected. If the electrons enter the region

between the plates with the same direction, but with an
excessive velocity:
A.
B.
C.
D.
C. No field of any kind is present.

D. Both an electric and magnetic field may be present
parallel to one another.
they will be deflected upward.

they will be deflected downward.
they will remain undeflected.
they will be turned back the way they came.
If an electron is observed to travel through a certain

region of space undeflected, what can be concluded?
154
16. When the beam of electrons strikes the target they are
brought to a sudden stop, generating X-rays. The
wavelengths of these rays depend on the:
passage.
I.
II.
III.
accelerating potential of the electrons

18. Assume that a cation enters an electric field oriented as
target material.
shown below. Which path BEST represents the path of
speed of the X-rays.
A.
I only
B.
II only
the ion?
I
II
I and II only
D. I and HI only
C.
E H H V if V ^f^V^
III
A.
Path I
B.
Path II
C.
Path III
D. Whether it is Path I, Path II, or Path III, depends on

17.
Instead of passing electrons through the plates, suppose

that we now pass X-rays. In order to have the X-rays
the particle's mass and spin.
pass through the plates undeflected, we must:

A.
B.
C.
D.
change the electric field.

change the magnetic field.
change both fields.
19. Which of the following will not be deflected by a

magnetic field?
Any changes to the fields will not affect the X-
A. A moving electron
rays.
B. An orbiting proton
C.
A fixed anion
D. An accelerating cation
20.
Which of the following are needed to calculate the force

a magnetic field exerts on a moving electron?
I. The electron charge
II.
The electron mass
III. The electron speed

IV. The magnetic field strength
A. I, II, and IV only

B. I, III, and IV only
C. II and III only
D.
I, II, III, and IV
21. If an electron, proton, and neutron are moved through

the same potential difference, what is true regarding the
magnitudes of their potential energy changes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
155
APEeiectron > APEproton > APEneutron

APEproton > APEeiectron > APEneutron
APEeiectron = APEproton > APEneutron
APEeiectron > APEproton - APEneutron
24. Which procedure would most easily send a negative ion

through thefullyoperational velocity selector?

In a velocity selector, charged particles are shot between
A. Reverse the direction of E only.
two parallel plates. These plates, having different voltages,

maintain a steady, uniform electric field between them. There
B. Reverse the direction of B only.

C. Reverse the directions of both B and E.
is alsoa static magnet in the velocity selectorthat generates a
D. Change nothing in the system.
magnetic field between the plates. The electric and magnetic

fields are aligned with opposing forces such that when
charged particles enter the velocity selector, they will be
deflected unless they have a specific velocity, v. Therefore, a
velocity selector allows only moving ions with a select
velocity to pass undeflected through the plates, regardless of
the ion's mass (m) or charge (q). Upon adding a filter that
allows only undeflected particles to pass, the device forms a
25. For a selected ion passing through the velocity selector

undeflected, how does its speed, v, relate to E, B, and
q?
beam of ions that move at one speed.
The theory behind the velocity selector was formulated

by Lorentz, who specified the net force on a charged particle
that moves through an electric and magnetic field:
A. v =
B
B. v = B
E
F = qE + qvBi,
C. v=
Equation 1
D. v = <-
where E is the electric field strength, Biis the magnetic field

strength perpendicular to the charge velocity v, and q is the
magnitude of charge.
22.
What is TRUE for an undeflected particle in a velocity

selector?
I. The work done on the particle is non-zero.
26.
II. The effects of electric fields and magnetic fields

can treated as independent of one another.
A. force and acceleration depend upon its mass.

B. force depends upon its mass, but acceleration does
HI. The particle could be neutrally charged.

A. II only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
not
C. acceleration depends upon its mass, but force does

not.
D. II and III only
23.
When a charged particle is subjected to a Lorentz force,

the particle's net:
D. force and acceleration are independent of mass.
A magnetic field pointing into the page (each field line

is represented by an V) will deflect upward all of the
following particles, EXCEPT a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
XXX
XXX
XXX
XXX
XXX
proton moving from the left to the right.

fluoride ion moving from the right to the left.
sodium ion moving from the left to the right.
titanium ion moving from the right to the left.
156
28. Asa conducting loop first enters a magnetic field, it:

A. feels a force that pulls it into the field.
B. experiences a torque that rotates it by 90.
C. speeds up with constant acceleration.
In an experiment designed to study Faraday's Law, a

student observed the induced current generated upon
migrating three separate loops at uniform speed through a
D. experiences an induced current.
uniform perpendicular magnetic field. The field was created

by placing a cylindrical magnet directly above a second
cylindrical magnet, such that the loop could be moved
through the field between the poles, as shown in Figure 1.
29.
Which graph accurately reflects the current associated

with Loop E in the experiment?
A. <
g 0-
^^
I
Time (s)
fc
3
B. <
r\
r \ Time (s)
c. <
Figure 1 Magnetic field used in the Experiment
Time (s)
In Experiment I, the student pushed through three

separate copper loops of varying dimensions all in a way that
the area within the loop was parallel with the surface of the
magnets. The three loops have the following dimensions.
D. <
Time (s)
Loop C: rectangular with edges of6cm and 8cm. A=48 cm2

Loop D: square with edges of7cm. A=49cm2
Loop E: circular with a radius of4cm. A=50 cm2
30.
The student pushed the loops through at constant

velocity, despite the increase in opposing force as the loop
entered and exited the field. Each loop was attached to a
galvanometer, used to measure the induced electromotive
force, e. The emf can be calculated using Equation 1:
A. It experiences the same emf whether it enters the B

field with the 6cm side first or the 8cm side first
B.
It experiences a greater emf when it enters the B

field with the 6cm side first than the 8cm side first
C. It experiences a greater emf when it enters the B
e = - d(BA cos $)/dl

Equation 1
field with the 8cm side first than the 6cm side first
D. It only experiences an emf if it enters the B field

with the 6cm side first.
where e represents the emf, B is the strength of the

external field, A is the area in side the loop, and <j) is the
angle between the field vectors and the vector perpendicular
to the surface of the area within the loop.
31.
In Experiment II, the student repeated the steps of

Experiment I, but used loops made of tin wire instead of
Which change will NOT increase the magnitude of the

current induced into a loop entering a B field?
A.
B.
C.
D.
copper.
27.
What is true for Loop C in Experiment I?
In which experiment did the student observe the
Increasing the area inside of the loop

Moving the loop into the field at a faster rate
Moving the two magnets closer to one another
Using a loop made from a thinner wire
GREATEST electromotive force?
A. In Experiment I, because copper is a better
32.
conductor than tin.
B.
In Experiment II, because copper is a better

conductor than tin.
If Loop C is moved from the right side of the magnetic

field in Figure 1, through the field and then on to the
left side, what type of current does it feel upon exiting
the field while moving to the left?
C. In Experiment I, because tin is a better conductor

than copper.
A. A clockwise alternating current

B. A counterclockwise alternating current
D. Both experiments produced the same emf
C.
A clockwise direct current
D.
A counterclockwise direct current
Copyright byTheBerkeley Review
157
36. Which of the following graphs BEST represents the

relationship between the magnetic field strength and the
area of the coil in a system where e0 = BAoo, if the
maximum voltage and coil rotation frequency are held
Questions 33 through 36 areNOT based on a descriptive

passage.
33.
Which of the following arrows BEST represents the
fixed?
pathway of a negatively charged particle moving leftto

right through a magnetic field pointing into thepage?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
D.
34.
If two wires have current in the direction as shown,

what is true of the force between the wires?
t
wire I
wire II
A. The wires repel one another.

B.
The wires attract one another.
C.
The wires exert no force on one another.
D. The wires experience a force that oscillates

between attraction and repulsion.
35.
When a charged particle is added to the following

electric field, it will accelerate. Which particle will
experience the greatest average magnitude of
acceleration when added to the field at point A?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A negatively charged particle with low mass

A positively charged particle with low mass
A negatively charged particle with high mass
A positively charged particle with high mass
158
38. All of the following changes will lessen the

displacement between the point where particles enter
Region 2 and the point where particles collide with the
Mass spectrometry works by correlating the curvature of

a charged particle moving through a perpendicular magnetic
field to the mass of the particle. Figure 1 shows a basic
schematic of a simple mass spectrometer. The apparatus is
comprised of two separate regions combined in sequence. An
electric field accelerates a cationic particle in Region 1.
Figure 1 shows the particle accelerating to the right. The
double filter ensures that the particle is going straight when it
enters Region 2, where it is subjected to a perpendicular
detector plate EXCEPT:
A. decreasing the accelerating voltage in Region 1.

B. using a dication in lieu of a monocation.
C. using an isotope with more neutrons.
D. increasing the magnitude of the magnetic field in

Region 2.
magnetic field. This results in a radial force exerted on the

moving charged particle. As such, the particle travels in a
semicircle, before striking the detector.
Region 1
Region 2
39. The double filter between Regions 1 and 2 ensures that:
A. a uniform ion beam, perpendicular to the plates of

the filter, is formed.
B. a beam of perpendicular particles with the same

velocity is formed.
XXX
C. the beam consists of only cations.

D. the beam consists of only singly ionized particles.
XXX
XXX
XXX
magnetic field into page

40.
double filter
Figure 1 Simple schematic of a mass spectrometer
Doubling both the magnetic field in the velocity

selector and in the deflecting zone of a mass
spectrometer would have what affect on the radius in
the deflecting region?
The speed of the particle may be controlled by a velocity

selector, which is comprised of a magnetic field and electric
field, both of which are perpendicular to the motion of the
A. The radius would decrease by a factor of 4.

B. The radius would decrease by a factor of 2.
C. The radius would decrease by a factor of \fl.
particle. The two fields are aligned so that the forces oppose
one another. The particle will continue in a straight path only
if qE = qvB. This means that the particles that pass into the
deflecting region of a mass spectrometer have a velocity of
E/B. The mass spectrometer in Figure 1 does not have a
D. The radius would not change.
velocity selector. Once in Region 2, the radius of the arc can
be used to determine the mass to charge ratio of the particle.

The radius of the arc in Region 2 equates to the mass, charge,
magnetic field, and velocity according to Equation 1.
41.
r_mv
To accelerate anion particles from left to right in

Region 1, and deflect those particles out of the page in
Region 2, how must the E and B fields be aligned in
Figure 1?
Bq
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equation 1
37. Assuming that the particles enter Region 2 with the

same velocity, which of the following cationic particles
Anode plate left, cathode plate right, B field up

Anode plate left, cathode plate right, B field down
Anode plate right, cathode plate left, B field up
Anode plate right, cathode plate left, B field down
will have the GREATEST radius of curvature, r, in

Region 2?
A.
40Ca2+
B.
7Li+
C.
24Mg2+
D.
23N
159
44.
The cyclotron (Figure 1) is a device used by physicists to

accelerate ions to high speeds and high kinetic energies. The
cyclotron consists of two semicircular regions Si and S2 of
What is the kinetic energy of an ion of mass m and

charge q as it is ejected from the cyclotron?
qB
A.
2Rm
B.
the same radius R with a small gap d between them. S\ and
IqBR
2
S2 are connected to an alternating voltage source of
C.
amplitude V.
qBR
2m
Ionized particles
D.
cfBV
2m
enter here
45.
Gap(d)(
Which of the following statements would NOT be true,

if the voltage amplitude across the gap were doubled?
A. An ion would spiral out in less time and be ejected
sooner.
B. An ion would be emitted with a greater kinetic

energy.
C. The cyclotron frequency would remain unchanged.

D. The magnetic field would remain unchanged.
Ionized particles
leave here
Figure 1
Ions are injected near the center of the cyclotron. They

are accelerated across the gap by an electric field until they
enter the magnetic field region. Once there, they move in a
circular path due to a uniform magnetic field which points
into the page. As the ions circulate, they are sped up by the
electric field that exists in the gap. As an ion increases its
46.
In comparing the work done on an ion by the electric

field and the magnetic field in a cyclotron, we find that:
A. the electric field does more work than the magnetic
field.
B. the magnetic field does more work than the electric

field.
speed, it spirals outward. When the radius of the orbit
C. the electric field and the magnetic field do the
matches the radius of the cyclotron, the ion is ejected through
same amount of work.
a small outlet hole.
D. the neither the electric field nor the magnetic field

does any work.
The frequency at which an ion circles is called the

cyclotronfrequency and is given by:
f- qb
47.
2 31 m
How do the cyclotron frequencies for singly ionized

H2 (m = 2) and singly ionized He (m = 4) compare?
where B is the magnetic field, q is the charge on ion, and m is

the ion's mass.
A.
42.
How many orbits are required for an ion to gain a total
B.
kinetic energy of6 x 10~14 J, if the ion gains 1 x 10"16
C.
J every time it crosses the gap?
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.
2(lxl0-16)(2xl0-14)
(Ixl0-16) + [2(2xl0-14)]
(6xl0-14) + [2(lxl0-16)]
2*[(1 xl0-16)(2xl0-14)]
48.
fH2 = fHe
% = 2fHe
fH2 = 4fHe
The cyclotron frequency of a neutron must be:

A. the same as the frequency of a hydrogen nucleus.
B. the same as the frequency of an ionized deuteron.
C. the same as the frequency of an ionized helium
If the cyclotron frequency is 10 MHz, how long will it

take an ion to complete 200 orbits?
A.
B.
C.
D.
H2
nucleus.
D.
zero.
0.2 ^s
2/iS
20 ps
200 ps
160
52. When a velocity selector is fully operational, it allows

only an ion with a specific velocity to pass through the
Questions 49 through 52 areNOT based on a descriptive

passage.
plates undeflected. Which orientation of electric and
magnetic fields would allow a positive ion to pass

undeflected when traveling from left to right? (Note:
The electric field points either up or down in the
49. Which of the following changes does NOT decrease the

work required to move a negatively charged particle
against an electrostatic force, from a positively charged
plate to a negatively charged one?
pictures. The magnetic field points either into "x" or out

of "" the page.)
I. Increasing the battery voltage
A.
II. Decreasing the particle charge

III. Increasing the particle mass
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D.
50.
\ r
\ f .
\ f.
y
'
B.
I, II, and III
X I IX i
IX
NOT differ from an electric force?
A. A magnetic force varies with particle speed, while
C.
In which of the following ways does a magnetic force
and electric force does not.
B. A magnetic force is perpendicular to its field, while

an electric force is aligned with its field.
C. A moving particle can only be turned by a
magnetic force and not by an electric force.
D. A charged particle can experience zero magnetic
force in the middle of a uniform magnetic field,
while a charged particle in the middle of a uniform
electric field will experience an electric force.
51.
yr .
D.
y rx y rx y f x
'X
All of the fields will work.
What is NOT true when moving a positively charged

particle in the following electric field?
A. No work is done when moving from Point a to

Point b.
B. Point b is at a higher potential than Point c.

C. Natural flow for the particle is from Point b to
Point c.
D. Point b is at a lower potential than Point a.
161
1. A
2.
3. C
4. D
5. B
6.
7. D
8. A
9. C
10. B
11. B
12.
17. D
18.
13. D
14.
19. C
25. A
15. C
16.
20.
21.
22.
23. D
24.
26.
27. D
28.
29. A
30.
31. D
32.
33. D
34. A
35. A
36. A
37. D
38.
39. A
40. A
41. D
42.
43. C
44.
45. B
46. A
47. C
48.
49. C
50.
51. D
52.
YOU ARE DONE.
Answers to 52-Question Electrostatics and Magnetism Exam

1.
Choice A is the best answer. We must consider both magnitude and direction. First, let's consider magnitude. Thinking
about the basic relationship between the required electric field and the mass of the drop, we see that they should be directly
proportional to each other. That is, if the drop is more massive, a stronger electric field is required. This rules outchoices B
and D. To decide direction, remember that gravity points downwards, which requires the electric force to point upwards.
Since the charges being supported are electrons, and since electrons are always forced in the direction opposite that of the
electric field, the electric field must point down. You must keep in mind that convention for electric fields is to draw them
according to the way a positive chargewould naturally flow. The best answer is choice A.
2.
Choice B is the best answer. In order for the drops to be suspended, the electric force must point upward to oppose the
gravitational force downward. By reversing the voltage, the direction of the electric fieldand therefore the direction of the
electric force-would also be reversed. Now the electric force and the gravitational force act in the same direction
(downward), so the droplets will be accelerated downward, and with a magnitude of acceleration greater than g. The best
answer is choice B.
3.
Choice C is the best answer. This question is asking us to consider the force between two charged particles. The coulomb
force between two charged particles is:
F = k^1
r2
This force is inversely proportional to r2. If the distance r separating the two charges is reduced by one-half, then the force
between the charges is quadrupled. The best answer is choice C.
4.
Choice D is the best answer. The question asks about the magnitude of the forces, so we can ignore that the negatively
charged oil droplet has been replaced by a positively charged species. We simply need to consider the magnitudes of the
electric force and the gravitational force. We know that qE = mg, and that:
E = ^
q
in order for the oil drop to remain suspended. If m increases by a factor of 3 and q increases by a factor of 2, then the new
electric field would be:
E = ^Hi = 3^
2q
2
where E' is the new electric field, and E is the original electric field. At the very least on this question, you could have
eliminated choices B and C, as they are the exact same answer, just worded differently. The best answer is choice D.
5.
Choice B is the best answer. Oil floats on water, telling us that oil is less dense than water. We can rule out choice A. Oil
pours more slowly than water, which you know from personal experience, so oil is more viscous than water. This eliminates
choice C. In the passage, vve read that Millikan chose oil because it has a relatively low vapor pressure (i.e., it does not
evaporate quickly), and because oil drops can hold charge well. Although we know nothing about choice D, because the
passage addressed oil's ability to hold charges, choice B is the most likely answer the test-writer wanted you to pick. The

6.
Lenz's Law
Choice B is the best answer. In Experiment I, the external magnetic field points vertically upward, so the direction of
induced current can be obtained using the right hand rule. Before considering that, we should consider which choices can be
eliminated without knowing the direction of the current. The bar slides down the rails, so there will be a current. This
eliminates choice A. Because the bar slides down the entire time, the current will remain in the same direction, making it
direct current. This eliminates choice D. When the bar slides down the rails, the magnetic flux through the loop created by
the rails and the bar decreases, because the area inside of the loop decreases. Lenz's law states that a current will be induced
in this loop to fight the change in flux, so current will definitely be induced. Now we need to determine the direction of the
current. If you point your thumb in the direction the bar is sliding (angular and down) and put your index finger in the
direction of the magnetic field (up), then your middle finger points from X to Y, so that is the direction of current. Since
choice B is a direct current going from X to Y, it is the best answer. The best answer is choice B.
162
Choice Dis the best answer. Any material which conducts electricity would work in Experiment II. Since copper and iron
are pure metals, they both conduct electricity. This eliminates choices Aand B. Neither graphite nor calcium oxide are pure
metals, so we cannot automatically say that either of them conduct Although graphite is a nonmetal, it has a crystalline
structure that allows for its electrons in the Jt-level to have some freedom to move, so it actually conducts. Taking this into
7.
consideration, one should see that the only substance that would not haveworked in Experiment II is calcium oxide, because
it doesn'tconduct electricity. Salts, such as oxides, do notconduct electricity unless they are dissociated in water. The best
answer is choice D.
Choice A is the best answer. The current can only flow through a region where it conducts electricity. It is stated in the
passage that thesegment from pointe to pointb is for support and is made of an insulating material. This means thatcurrent
cannot pass through points b, c, d, and e. This eliminates all of the choices except for choice A. If you spent time trying to
determine the direction (whether it was a-to-X-to-Y-to-f-to-a or a-to-f-to-Y-to-X-to-a), you wasted time. Occasionally a
question may look complicated but it is in fact simple to find the best answer. The best answer is choice A.
Choice C is the best answer. In Experiment I, if the bar was released from a higher point on the rails, it would definitely
have more kinetic energy upon reaching the bottom. In addition, there would be a larger induced current and thus induced
magnetic field due to the fact that there was a greater change in flux through the loop than if the bar had been let go from a
lesser height. On the other hand, since there is no relationship between the external magnetic field and the height of the bar,
it would be unchanged. The best answer is choice C.
10.
Choice B is the best answer. In Experiment II, before the switch between a and f is opened, there is current flowing
between points a and f that is in the oppositedirection of the currentbetween points X and Y. Once the switch is opened,the
current stops and there is no longer a force suspending the bar. Without any force holding the bar up, it will slide down the
rails due to gravity, eventually reaching the bottom. The best answer is choice B.
Passage III
11.
(Questions 11 - 17)
Cathode Rav Tube
Choice B is the best answer. If the undeflected electrons have an increased magnitude of velocity compared to what they
had when they passed through in a straight line, then the magnetic force is greater than the electric force. The electrons will
be deflected in the direction of the magnetic force, so they will be deflected downward. Just as motion is necessary to
generate a magnetic field but not an electric field, the magnetic force is affected by velocity, while the electric force is not.
12.
Choice D is the best answer. According to the ideal gas law, the kinetic energy of particles is related to temperatureby:
KE = 2-kT
2
where k is the Boltzmann's constant. This says that the kinetic energy of a particle depends only on its temperature, and not
on its mass or charge. Thus, the kinetic energy of the protons is the same as the kinetic energy of the electrons. The best
answer is choice D.
13.
Choice D is the best answer. This question helps to reiterate the point that MCAT questions require you to choose the best
answer and not necessarily the correct answer. Protons and electrons have opposite charges. This means that if electrons
move downward in the electric field, protons would move upward. If electrons move upward in the magnetic field, protons
would move downward. Thus, the field directions still oppose each another and therefore would not have to be changed. In
order for the protons to travel through the plates undeflected, the electric and magnetic forces must still be equal in
magnitude:
qE = qvB
or
E = vB
This relationship does not depend on the mass or the charge of the particle involved, only on the speed of the particles.
Provided we do not change the speed of the protons compared to the speed of the electrons, we do not even need to change
the magnitudes of the fields. We could reverse the direction of both fields (choice C), but it is not necessary, which makes
choice D a better answer than choice C. The best answer is choice D.
14.
Choice B is the best answer. Electrons in motion definitely generate a magnetic field, so choice C is eliminated
immediately. The electric field they generate does not affect itself, so choice D is eliminated. Although an electron is a
moving charged particle (which produces a magnetic field), a charged particle never responds to its own fields, electric or
magnetic. The magnetic field it generates interacts with the external magnetic field, thereby causing a force that can be
analyzed using the right-hand rule, but that is not a response to its own magnetic field. The best answer is choice B.
163
15.
Choice C is the best answer.The electron is undeflected, which can be explained by the absence of a netforce acting on the
electron. This is the case if (a) the electric and magnetic forces are of equal magnitude but opposite direction or (b) there are
no electric and magnetic forces acting on the electron. Because there could be both an electric field and magnetic field, as
opposed to just one or the other, choices A and B are eliminated. In order to produce a force on a moving electron, the
magnetic field must be aligned perpendicular to the velocity of the particle, resulting in a force that ismutually perpendicular
to both the magnetic field and the velocity. If the electron moves in the same direction as the magnetic field, it will feel no
magnetic force. This means that the force exerted by the magnetic field is perpendicular to the magnetic field itself; so if the
magnetic and electric fields are parallel, then the magnetic force is perpendicular to the electric force. This would not allow
the forces to cancel, so the electron would be deflected as it traveled. Choice D is not possible. The best answer is that there
is no field of any kind present. The best answer is choice C.
16.
Choice C is the best answer. X-rays can be produced one of two ways. When the electrons are brought to a sudden stop,
they lose all of their kinetic energy. Conservation of energy says this energy must go somewhere, and where it goes is into
the production of x-rays. In addition, some of the electrons that strike the target may interact with the atoms of the target, by
knocking electrons out of their inner-shell orbits. That leaves an unfilled space in an inner-shell orbit, which is filled by an
outer-shell electron making a transition. This process releases energy in the form of x-rays called characteristic x-rays, since
their wavelengths depend on the electron transitions made, and these depend on the atoms involved. This means that the
wavelength (and thus energy) of the x-rays depend on the accelerating potential of the electrons (which affects the electron's
speed) and on the target material (and their electronic energy levels). Options I and II are valid. The speed of the x-rays
depends on the medium and has nothing to do with the wavelength. Option III is invalid, confirming that choice C is the best
answer. The best answer is choice C.
17.
Choice D is the best answer. X-rays are electromagnetic radiation, and as such they have no charge. They will not
experience any force from either the electric or magnetic fields as they pass through them. Any change in the surrounding
fields would have no impact on the propagation axis of an x-ray. The best answer is choice D.
Questions 18-21
18.
Choice C is the best answer. An electric field affects a charged particle by accelerating it in the direction of the field, if the
particle is positively charged. Remember that all definitions in physics are based on positive charge. The particle is
accelerated (deflected) by the electric field in the downward direction, with a force of F = qE. The path that shows constant
velocity in the lateral direction coupled with acceleration in the downward direction is Path III. The best answer is choice C.
19.
Choice C is the best answer. Any moving charged particle will be deflected by a magnetic field as long as the motion is not
directly in line with the field. Considering direction is not mentioned in the question, the key feature is motion. Choice C, a
fixed (i.e., not moving) particle will not be deflected by a magnetic field. The best answer is choice C.
20.
Choice B is the best answer. For this question we need to apply Paring the List or Multiple Concepts. First, consider an
item that is easiest for you to grasp. If you know that electron charge is relevant, then Statement I is true and choice C is not;
cross choice C out. Since Statement IV is in all remaining choices, there no need to consider it. Since mass usually only
shows up in a gravitational force, Statement II must not be relevant. This rules out choices A and D, leaving only choice B.
21.
Choice C is the best answer. To solve this question, pick two particles whose energy relationship you know, and use this
information to rule out incorrect choices. For example, if you know neutrons experience no change in energy when moving
through a potential difference, then choice D is incorrect. The remaining choices ask you to compare the energy change for
an electron and proton. Since APE = qV and the two particles have the same magnitude of charge, they must have the same
potential energy change. The best answer is choice C.

22.
Velocity Selector
Choice D is the best answer. Work is defined as force x distance, or by the equation W = Fid. A selected ion is not forced
(deflected) in any direction, so there is no force along the direction in which it travels (Ft = 0). The net work done on the
undeflected particle is 0. This makes statement I invalid. The whole concept behind the velocity selector is that the effects of
the magnetic and electric fields are independent of each other (as shown in Equation 1), so the two fields can be set to oppose
(and algebraically cancel) one another. Statement II is valid, as the remaining choices (A and D) state. If a neutral charge
were to enter the velocity selector, it would pass undeflected. Remember, both electric and magnetic forces require a net
charge on the forced particle. This validates Statement III. The best answer is choice D.
Copyright by The Berkeley Review**
164
23.
Choice D is the best answer. A charged particle moving through a perpendicular magnetic field is subjected to a force that
is both perpendicular to the orientation of the Bfield and perpendicular to the direction of motion. If a positive particle enters
the magnetic field moving from the left to the right, and the Bfield is into the page, the direction of the force is upward. You
can confirm this by using the right-hand rule. According to the right-hand rule, if you move your fingers in the direction of
the motion and bend your fingers in the direction of the field, the direction of the force on a positive ion will be in the
direction of your thumb. Both a proton and sodium cation are positively charged, so choices A and C are valid statements
and must be eliminated. A negatively charged ion, such as fluoride, would experience a force in the opposite direction. That
means that an anion must be moving right to left to experience an upward force in the field as shown. This makes choice B
valid, so it is eliminated. It is for choice D that the force will be downward. Titanium, ending in "-ium," is a cationic species
that will deflect downward when traveling from right to left. The best answer is choice D.
24.
Choice D is the best answer. Recall that the forces (and fields) are defined for positive charges. A negative charge will be
deflected in the direction opposite that of a positive charge by both a magnetic and electric field. For the velocity selector to
work, the forces must oppose one another. The original design (for the positive ion) has the fields generating opposing
forces. If the particle is negative, the directions of the forces generated by the fields are reversed, but they will still be
opposed. Eliminate choices A and B. Changing only one field would create a scenario where the forces sum together rather
than cancel each other out. The best answer is either changing both fields or changing nothing. While a sound argument can
be made for the validity of choice C, it is not the easiest route to the solution. Choice D is a better option, in that it is better to
do nothing than a double-reverse. This may seem like quibbling, but the MCAT does require that you choose the best
answer, not the one and only correct answer. There is a big difference between the best answer and an absolutely correct
answer. The best answer is choice D.
25.
Choice A is the best answer. Paragraph 1 of the passage states that mass and charge are not involved in the deflection (or
net force), so it must be true that velocity will not vary with the mass or charge. Choices C and D are unlikely to be the best
answer. The manipulation of Equation 1 to describe a situation where the electric and magnetic forces are opposed gives us:
F = qvB-qE
Therefore, if F = 0, then qvB = qE. Canceling out the q from the equation yields: vB = E, which tells us that the speed of the
particle can be found using: v = E/B. The best answer is choice A.
26.
Choice C is the best answer. Equation 1 does not contain mass, so the net force does not depend on the mass. This
eliminates choices A and B. Because force is mass times acceleration, the acceleration equals the force divided by the mass;
therefore, acceleration depends on the mass. The best answer is choice C.
Faraday's Law
27.
Choice D is the best answer. The electromotive force results from the induction of charge movement caused by the change
in the magnetic flux. This is independent of the material of which the wire loop is made. The materials have different
electrical resistances which impacts the current, but that has no impact on the emf. The best answer is choice D.
28.
Choice D is the best answer. As a conducting loop first enters a magnetic field, it experiences a change in the magnetic flux
(the magnetic field within the loop). This induces a current in the loop, making choice D the best answer. By generating
current, the energy of the moving loop is being converted into current, so energy is drained as it enters the field. As such, it
feels a repulsive force as it enters the field, not an attractive force pulling it into the field. Choice A is eliminated. A torque
can be felt if the loop had an existing magnetic field (which would be possible if a current were being pushed through it by
an external emf source.) That is not the case here, so a torque causing it to rotate 90 is not viable. Choice B is eliminated.
Because of the resistance the loop feels upon entering the field, it actually slows down as it enters the field. This eliminates
choice C. The best answer is choice D.
29.
Choice A is the best answer. As in all cases, as the loop enters the field, the magnetic flux is increasing and as the loop
exits the field, the flux is decreasing. This means that the current moves in opposite directions when the loop is entering
versus when the loop is exiting the magnetic field. This eliminates choices B and D. To answer the question from this point,
we must determine whether the current is constant or varies as the loop enters and exits the field. In the case of Loop E, the
loop is circular. Unlike with a rectangular loop, the area of the loop entering the field (and thus the magnitude of the
magnetic flux) changes as the loop enters the field. As the circular loops enters the field, the magnetic flux increases at an
increasing rate until the loop is half way in, after which the magnetic flux increases at a decreasing rate. This is best
described in the graph in choice A. Even if that doesn't seem completely clear, choice C cannot be correct, because the
magnetic flux does not increase at a uniform rate, so current cannot flow at a constant rate during the induction periods. The
best answer is choice A.
165
30.
Choice C is the best answer. Loop C is rectangular, so it has two possible orientations for entering the field such that the
plane ofthe loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field. The greatest emf is felt with the greatest change in flux. When the
rectangular loop enters long side (8 cm side) first, it experiences a larger change in flux than when it enters short side (6 cm
side) first, assuming it enters with the same velocity in each case. This is simply due to the fact it is wider. This eliminates
choices A and B and leaves choice C as the likely best answer. It feels an emfno matter which side enters first, so choice D
is eliminated. The best answer is choice C.
31.
Choice D is the best answer. The magnitude of the current induced into the loop depends on the rate at which the magnetic
flux changes. The greater the rate at which the magnetic flux changes, the greater the induced current. Increasing the area
inside of the loop increases the magnetic flux as it enters a magnetic field, so choice A is eliminated. Moving the loop into
the field at a faster rate will increase the rate at which the magnetic flux increases, so the current is greater and thus choice B
is eliminated. If the two magnets are moved closer to one another, the magnitude of the external B field will increase,
resulting in a greater magnetic flux within the loop. This will increase the current, which eliminates choices C. Using a loop
of thinner wire causes a greater resistance. Although the magnetic flux does not change, and therefore the induced emf does
not change, the current is reduced. The best answer is choice D.
32.
Choice C is the best answer. If Loop C is exiting the field moving to the left, the magnetic flux is decreasing the entire time
the loop is leaving the field, so the current will travel in the same direction during the entire time it is exiting the field. This
means the current is a direct current, which eliminates choices A and B. Those two choices should have been eliminated
based on the idea that alternating current goes both directions, so it cannot be assigned a clockwise or clockwise orientation.
To determine the direction of the current, we can address the question in one of two ways. The first way is to apply Lenz's
law. Lenz's law states that as the magnetic flux within a loop changes, a current will be induced in the loop that opposes the
change in the magnetic flux. In this case, the external magnetic field points down, so upon exiting the region inside of the
loops experiences a reduction in the magnitude of the magnetic field pointing down. As such, the current induced in the loop
will compensate for the loss by creating a magnetic field pointing down in the region within the loop. This is done by
creating a clockwise current in the loop. Choice C is the best answer. This can be verified using the right-hand rule. As the
loop leaves the magnetic field, only the back edge of the loop is completely immersed in the field. Considering motion of the
conducting rod to be to the left and the orientation of the magnetic field to be into the page, the force on positively charged
particles in the back edge of the loop will be downward (according to the right hand rule). That push will cause the positive
charges to flow in a cyclic fashion, down the back edge, to the left in the lower edge, up the front edge, and to the right in the
top edge. This describes a clockwise current in the loop, so choice C is verified as the best answer. The best answer is
choice C.
Questions 33 - 36
33.
Choice D is the best answer. The right hand rule describes the pathway of a cationic particle moving through a magnetic
field. In Figure 1, the pathway of a cationic particle through a magnetic field into the page (represented by an x) is shown.
An anion will show the same shape pathway as a cation, but with deflection in the opposite direction. This is best represented
by choice D. Choice C is too drastic (and non-circular) to be an observed pathway. The best answer is choice D.
34.
Choice A is the best answer. Wires with currents moving in the same direction attract, while wires carrying opposite
currents repel. Because we are only considering a direct current in each wire, there will be a force that maintains the same
direction. This rules out choices C and D. This phenomenon is caused by the magnetic force on each wire due to the B field
caused by the current in the parallel wire. Looking at wire 1, it creates a B field into the page at the point of wire 2. Using F
= U co B and the right hand rule, the force on wire 2 due to wire 1 is found to be to the right. Similarly, the force on wire 1
due to wire 2 is found to be to the left. Thus parallel wires carrying currents in opposite directions repel one another
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166
35.
Choice A is the best answer. First off, you need to consider that the force exerted on the particle depends on the magnitude
of the charge and the strength of the field. Assuming that the magnitude of the charge is the same in all of the choices, we
need to consider the field's strength. The lines separate on the right side, so the field is stronger on the leftside than the right
side. As a particle moves left to right, the strength of the electric force is diminishing. Conversely, as a particle moves right
to left, the strength of the electric force is increasing. Field lines are drawn the way a positive charge would migrate, so
positive charges would experience a decreasing force over time. On the other hand, negative charges would feel an increase
in field strength, so negative charges will feel a greater average acceleration over the migration. Choices B and D are
eliminated. To decide between choices A and C, we need to consider F = ma. For a given force, as mass increases, the
acceleration of the particle will decrease. To generate the greatest acceleration, we need the lightest particle. The best answer
is the light, negative particle. The best answer is choice A.
36.
Choice A is the best answer. This may very well be an extremely intimidating topic, in which case many of us let panic
influence our thought process. Even though we may have little understanding of the subject matter, sometimes a question is
actually asking us to demonstrate our analysis skills and not our knowledge. The relevant equation is given in the question
as:
e0= BAco
The equation states that the magnetic field, B, is inversely proportional to cross-sectional area of the loop, A. That is, as A
increases, B must decrease, which eliminates choices C and D. This particular plot is choice A, an asymptotic relationship.
Many people incorrectly think choice B is the graph of an inversely proportional relationship, but it is not. Choice B is a
linear relationship, with a negative slope. The best answer is choice A.

37.
Mass Spectrometer
Choice D is the best answer. The biggest arc results from the particle with greatest mass-to-charge ratio, assuming all of
the particles have the same velocity and the magnetic field magnitude is equal in each trial. This is because as mass
increases, the radius of curvature increases and as the charge decreases, the radius of curvature increases. The greatest mass-
to-charge ratio isobserved with 23Na+, The bestanswer ischoice D.

38.
Choice C is the best answer. Reduced displacement at the detector plate results from a smaller radius in Region 2. The
radius will be reduced when mass decreases, velocity decreases, charge increases, or the magnetic field increases.
Decreasing the accelerating voltage in Region 1 reduces the velocity, so the radius of the arc is reduced. Choice A decreases
the displacement, so it is eliminated. Using a dication in lieu of a monocation increases the magnitude of charge, so the
radius of the arc is reduced. Choice B decreases the displacement, so it is eliminated. Using an isotope with more neutrons
increases the mass, so the radius of the arc is increased. Choice C increases the displacement, so it is the best answer.
Increasing the magnetic field in Region 2 increases the deflecting force, so the radius of the arc is reduced. Choice D
decreases the displacement, so it is eliminated. The best answer is choice C.
39.
Choice A is the best answer. The double filter serves to ensure that the beam is perpendicular to the surfaces of both filters.
In order to pass through both filters, the particle beam must be perpendicular to both plates. The filter does not distinguish
particles by velocity, charge, or size. This eliminates choices B, C, and D. This means that the beam is perpendicular to the
plates, but it says nothing about the charges or velocities of the particles. The best answer is choice A.
40.
Choice A is the best answer. The magnetic field in the velocity selector is applied to produce a force that counteracts the
force caused by the electric field in the velocity selector. Because the electric field remains the same, the increased magnetic
field results in a decreased velocity associated with a cation that is allowed to pass (v = E/B, so as B goes up, v must go
down). If the selector's magnetic field is doubled, then selected particle velocity is cut in half. If the velocity is cut in half,
then the radius of the arc in Region 2 is also cut in half. Because the B field in Region 2 is doubled, the force deflecting the
particle is doubled, so the radius of the arc is again cut in half. This means that the overall affect of doubling the two
magnetic fields is to decrease the radius of the curvature by a factor of four. The best answer is choice A.
41.
Choice D is the best answer. Anionic particles migrate from the cathode to the anode in uniform electric fields, so in order
to accelerate the anionic particles from the left to the right, the anode must be on the right side and the cathode on the left
side as in Region 1. This eliminates choices A and B. According to the right hand rule, if a positively charged particle were
moving from left to right through a B field point pointing up, then the magnetic force acting on the particle would point out
of the page. This means that to deflect a cationic particle out of the page, the magnetic field must point up in the plane of the
page towards the top of the page. However, the question asks for an anionic particle, therefore the B field must have
opposite orientation, thus it points downward in the page. The best answer is choice D.
167

42.
Cyclotron
Choice C isthebest answer. How many orbits are required for an ion to gain a total kinetic energy of6 x lO"1^ J, ifitgains
1x 10-1^ J every time it crosses the gap? The ion crosses the gap twice per orbit, so itgains 2 x 10_1^J with every orbit. The
number of orbits is given by:
Total energy
Number =
or
Energy gained in 1 orbit
N =
6x 10'14J
2(1 x 10"16 j)
43.
Choice C is the best answer. If the cyclotron frequency is 10 MHz, how long will it take an ion to complete 200 orbits?
According to the passage, the cyclotronfrequency is the frequency at which an ion circles. To calculate the time required for
1 orbit (the period of orbit), we use:
1
T = I =
= 1 x 10-7 s
f
10 x 106 Hz
The period is the time to complete one orbit, so we must multiply T by 200 to determine the time required to complete 200
orbits. 1x lO'7 x200 = 200 x 10"7 =20 x 10"6 = 20/<m. The best answer ischoice C.
44.
Choice D is the best answer. What is the kinetic energy of an ion of mass m and charge q that is emitted from the
cyclotron? According to the passage, an ion is emitted when the radius of its orbit is equal to the radius of the cyclotron, R.
The definition of kinetic energy is:
KE = Imv2
2
Newton's second law gives:

_tnr
qvB =
Solving for v gives:
v=aM
m
Plugging into the formula for KE gives:

2n2
=cpETR
KE =
2m

45.
Choice B is the best answer. Which statement would be false, if the amplitude of the voltage in the gap were doubled? A
good way to answer this question is to eliminate the true answers, starting with theeasier ones to eliminate. Choice C is true,
because the cyclotron frequency, as given in the passage, does not depend upon the gap voltage. Choice D is true, because
the magnetic field is generated by a device other than the voltage source and is therefore independent of the gap voltage.
Regarding choice A, the ion would spiral out sooner, because each time the ion crosses the gap, it gains kinetic energy. A
doubled voltage amplitude means that it would gain twice the energy per gap-crossing that it gains under normal voltage
conditions. That is, the ion would reach its emission speed sooner. Choice B is false, because the kinetic energy upon
emission is related to the cyclotron frequency, which does not change here. Why does this matter? Well, the frequency tells
us how many times the ion circles the cyclotron per second. This dictates its speed, and hence its kinetic energy, upon
emission. Since thefrequency does notchange, neither should the kinetic energy. Another way to think about this is that the
exit point is at a fixed distance from the center, so the particle must reach an exact speed to attain the exit radius, which
means it reaches an exact kinetic energy to attain the exit radius. The best answer is choice B.
46.
Choice A is the bestanswer. How does the work done by the electric field and the magnetic field compare for an ion in a
cyclotron? Choice C says the electric field and magnetic field dothe same amount of work, and choice D says they both do
no work. If choice D is correct, then choice C must also be correct, which means neither can be correct. The best answer is
that the electric field does more work. It does work when it speeds up the ion while the ion is in the gap. The magnetic field
actually does no work on an ion, because the magnetic force is always perpendicular to the direction of travel (given by the
right-hand rule). When a force is perpendicular to the path, it can do no work. This is why the particle traverses a semicircle
at constant speed in a perpendicular magnetic field, gaining no speed and therefore gaining no energy. The best answer is
choice A.
168
47.
Choice C is the best answer. How do the cyclotron frequencies for singly ionized H2 and singly ionized He compare?
2nm H2
2jtmHe
They both have the same charge, but He has twice the mass of H2.
l*H2 = 2fHc
2m
48.
Choice D is the best answer. The questions asks for the cyclotron frequency of neutron, a species with no charge. The
cyclotron frequency is given by:
f_ qB
2jtm
Since the neutron is neutrally charged, it has a cyclotron frequency of 0. This means that a cyclotron cannot be used to
accelerate a neutron. The best answer is choice D.
Questions 49 - 52
49.
Choice C is the best answer. If the battery voltage increases, the droplet must be moved through a stronger electric field.
This requires more work, which supports Option I and invalidates choice B. If the droplet's charge were smaller, less
electrostatic force would act on it, and less work would be required to move it. This invalidates Option II, as well as choices
A and D, and leaves only choice C. Regarding the mass of the droplet, the question asks about the work required to
counteract electrostatic force, which does not depend upon mass. If you reasoned that an increased droplet mass means an
increased charge on the droplet (assuming a fixed p), that would increase the work needed to move the charge against the
electrostatic force. Either way, the work will not decrease, which validates Option III. The best answer is choice C.
50.
Choice C is the best answer. An electric force exists between any two charges, independent of their orientation in space and
whether or not they are moving. A magnetic force, on the other hand, depends on the alignment of two magnets and requires
that charges be in motion (linear or cyclic) to create the magnetism. These basic difference are behind all of the differences
in the forces. Because motion is only necessary for a magnetic force to exist, a magnetic force varies with particle speed,
while an electric force does not. Choice A is a valid statement, so it is eliminated. As you learned from doing the right hand
rule, the motion vector, magnetic field vector, and magnetic force vector are all mutually perpendicular. For electric forces,
they are either aligned with or against the electric field lines, so they are in fact parallel with the field. Choice B is a valid
statement, so it is eliminated. A moving charged particle can experience both a magnetic force and an electric force, so it is
susceptible to either force. A magnetic force always turns a moving charged particle, because the force is perpendicular to
the particle's motion. An electric force can also turn a particle if it's aligned at an angle to the velocity vector. Charged
particles in motion will turn until they are moving with the field lines. It is NOT true that a moving particle can only be
turned by a magnetic force and not by an electric force, so choice Cis an invalid statement, and is therefore the best answer.
If acharged particle is stationary, then itwill experience no magnetic force, no matter where itlies within the magnetic field.
On the other hand, a charged particle will always feel a force when it is immersed in an electric field. This makes choice Da
valid statement, which thereby eliminates it. The best answer is choice C.
51.
Choice D is the best answer. As weird as this electric field may appear, this question is simply testing your knowledge of
the fundamentals of electric field conventions. Field lines are drawn according to the way in which a positively charged
particle would accelerate ifadded to the field. As field lines get closer together, the field is said to be stronger. As field lines
move apart, the field is said to be weaker. If we follow these rules, we should be able to work through each answer choice.
When the particle is moved from Point a to Point b, it is moving perpendicular to the field lines, so no work is being done. In
other words, itdoesn't change potential, so no work was done. Choice A is eliminated. A particle would naturally flow from
Point b to Point c, and positively charged particles flow from regions of higher potential to lower potential, so choice B is a
valid statement, and thereby eliminated. Natural flow for a positive charge is according to the field lines, so choice C is a
valid statement, and thereby eliminated. Point a and Point b are found along the same potential line (perpendicular to the
field line), sothey are at the same potential. Choice D isan invalid statement. The bestanswer is choice D.
169
52.
Choice C is the best answer. In order for the particle to pass through the velocity selector unaffected, it must experience no
net force. This will occur when forces are equal in magnitude, but opposite in direction. In this case, it means that qvB must
oppose qE. The particle is assumed to be moving from left to right The field arrows for the electric field show the direction
of the force experienced by a positively charged particle. For the magnetic force, the right-hand rule must be applied. In
choice A, the magnetic fields points out of the page, so the magnetic force on a particle moving from left to right will be
downward. This couples with downward electric force, rather than canceling it out, so the particle will be deflected
downward. Choice A, and therefore choice D, are eliminated. In choice B, the magnetic fields points into the page, so the
magnetic force on a particle moving from left to right will be upward. This couples with upward electric force, rather than
canceling it out, so the particle will be deflected upward. Choice B is eliminated. In choice C, the magnetic fields points into
the page, so the magnetic force on a particle moving from left to right will be upward. This cancels out the electric force, if
the two are of equal magnitude (which is possible at only one velocity), so the particle will not be deflected.
When qvB exceeds qE, the particle will be deflected in the direction of the magnetic force. When qE exceeds qvB, the
particle will be deflected in the direction of the electric force. The velocity selector, therefore, works by having the two
forces of equal magnitude oppose one another in direction and thereby cancel one another. The best answer is choice C.
170
REVIEWEXAM EXPLANATIONS
Electricity and
Electric Circuits
Physics Chapter 9
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Physics
Electric Circuits
Currents
Electricity and Electric Circuits

In Chapter 8, we studied voltage and potential. We learned that when there was
a voltage difference between two points in space, charges could migrate. In this
chapter, we shall consider mass charge migration through a conducting medium.
Currents
In electrostatics we examined electric fields and charges, without considering
motion. We also considered conductors and insulators. Recall that a conductor is
a material that allows for the movement of charge (e.g., copper or silver), while
an insulator is a material that impedes the movement of charge (e.g., glass or
plastic). If we wanted a charge to flow through a conductor, we would need to

maintain a steady force on that charge. One way to do that is with an electric
field E in the conductor, related to charge q and force F by equation (9.1). [This is
a rearrangementof equation (8.2) in Section VIII.]
F = qE
(9.1)
Negatively charged electrons flow through a conductor, and experience random

motion at great speeds. Yet whenan electric field is applied to the conductor, the
electrons experience not only random motion, but also a small net movement
(called drift) in the direction opposite of the electric field. The drift velocity vd of
electrons in an electric field is given by equation (9.2), where L is the distance
(i.e., length of the conducting material) the electrons travel per unit time t.
v., = L
(9.2)
The flow of charge from one point to another point during a certain amount of
time is called an electric current (a scalar quantity). Current is given the symbol I
and is defined by equation (9.3). The ampere (amp or A) is the unit of current.
An ampere is the flow of one coulomb of charge per second (i.e., 1 A = 1 C/sec).
When studying currents it is often convenient to use the milliampere (mA),
which is 10"3A.
(9.3)
At
Current has a direction in an electric field. It flows in the same direction in which
positive charges flow and in the direction opposite to that in which negative
charges flow (Figure 9-1).
i
Current
flows
in
/Tyji^^^. the same direction

as positive charges
Current flows in the
opposite direction
as negative charges
Figure 9-1
By definition, current is said to flow from regions of higher electrical potential

to regions of lower electrical potential.
173
Physics
Electric Circuits
Currents
The drift velocity depends in part on the affinity of charge (electrons) for the
conducting material. The drift velocity can be related to the current flowing
through a wire. If the potential difference between two points in the wire
increases, then the drift velocity, and subsequently the current, will increase. This
is the idea behind Ohm's law, which we shall address later in this chapter. When
we think of current we consider it to flow as a stream of charge through a wire,
with a slightly less resistive path along the surface of the wire than the inside of
the wire. Consider a wire (Figure 9-2) with a cross-sectional area A. Suppose that
an electron travels a distance L in a given time t across this segment of wire.
Figure 9-2
From this point forward, we shall refer to charge flow as current and follow the
standard pnysics conventions that currentis the flow of positive charge.
Example 9.1a
Which of the following changes will increase the transit time of an electron
through a conductingwire?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Decreasing the mass of an electron.

Increasing the resistivity of the wire.
Decreasingthe length of the wire.
Increasing the current in the wire.
Solution
Decreasing the mass of an electron will make the electron more mobile. If less
mass has any effect, it should increase the average velocity of the electron-a less
massive charge in an electric field will have a larger acceleration. This makes
choice A incorrect.
Increasing the resistivity of the wire should make it harder for the electron to
traverse the wire. Although resistivity has not been covered yet, you should be
able to use the name ofa property to guess the resulting physics. The "resist" in
the name impliesa hindrance of somesort, in this case a hindrance of current, as
current is what flows through the wire. This makes choice B the best answer. At
this point, you can click on choice B and move on if you so wish or if you are
pressedfor time. Forthe sakeof writinga complete answer explanation, we shall
address the remaining choices. Ifyou are curious aboutwhy choices C and D are
wrong, then read on.
Decreasing the length of the wire will naturally decrease the amount of time it
takes an electron to traverse the wire, assuming it travels at the same rate. This
makes choice C incorrect.
Increasing the current through the wire can mean one or both of the following:
more electronstravel through a given region in a given time, or the same number
of electrons travel through a given region in less time. Neither possibility will
lead to an increased transit time for an electron. This makes choice D incorrect.
174
The Berkeley Review
Physics
Electric Circuits
Currents
To give you an idea of the drift speed of an electron, consider a household wire
(like the ones used for most appliances), but assume that it carries direct current,
DC. For a 10-amp currentapproximately that of a 1200-watt hair dryerthe
electrons take 40 seconds to travel 1 cm along the wire.
The correct choice is B.
Example 9.1b
For a fixed potential difference across a resistive wire, the power drain through
the resistor can be increased by increasing the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
neutron density in the wire.

length of the wire.
temperature of the wire.
conductivity of the wire.
Solution
The power drain through a resistor that has a fixed potential difference depends
on the voltage drop and the current. The question states that the voltage is fixed,
so we need onlyconsider the current through the resistor. Toincrease the power
drain throughthe resistor, we need to increase the currentthrough the resistor.
The neutron density has absolutely nothing to do with the current through the
resistor, so choice A can be eliminated immediately. As a wire increases in
length, the charges traversing the wire will encounter more resistance. This
reduces the magnitude of the current, which in turn reduces the power drain
through the resistor. This eliminates choice B. Increasing the temperature of the
wire will increase its resistance, because the atoms in the wire spread apart from
one another as the temperature increases. The result is that conductivity

decreases, resulting in a drop in the magnitude of current. This will reduce the
power drain throughthe resistor, so choice C is eliminated.
Increasing the conductivity of the wire results in a greater current passing
through the resistor, which leads to more energy being dissipated. This means
that the power drain through the resistor will be greater when the conductivity
of the wire increases.
This makes choice D the best answer.
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Batteries and Electromotive Force
Batteries are an important source of electric power. A common type of battery is

the zinc-carbon dry cell (Figure 9-3), used in devices that drain minimal power
such as flashlights and transistor radios. It is a simple 1.5-V galvanic cell that
converts chemical potential energy into an electromotive force (emf) that
generates electrical flow. The outer coating of a battery is generally made of inert
insulating material that serves as a protective barrier against the outside
environment. Immediately inside this protective outer layer is a zinc shell, which
serves as the anode (source of electrons, which in physics we shall consider to be

the negatively charged pole). Inside this cup-shaped shell is a thin layer of
ammonium chloride (NH4CI) paste, which surrounds another paste comprised
of manganese dioxide (MnC>2) mixed with carbon powder. The inner paste
serves as the oxidizing agent in the chemical reaction. At the core of the battery is
a graphite rod, through which electrons may freely flow. A graphite rod, which
acts as an internal conducting rod, allows for the passage of electrons to the
manganese oxide cathode (endpoint of electron flow, which in physics we shall
consider to be the positively charged pole),is positioned within this paste.
Metal cap (+ terminal)
Graphite rod
Mn02 paste
-a
NH4CI paste
Zn(s)
Metal contact point (- terminal)

e" flow
Figure 9-3
The cathode and anode of the battery are called terminals. If we attach wires to
these terminals and then connect those wires to a light bulb, it glows and gives
off light. Power to light the bulb is supplied by the battery. Electrons leave the
anode of the battery and move through the wire leading to the bulb. After
passing through the filament of the bulb, the electrons will complete a circuit by
returning to the battery through the wire connected to the cathode.
Recall that we have mentioned that the electrical potential difference a moving
charged particle experiences as it moves from some region A to some region B
(denoted as Vab) is the difference in electrical potential energy APEq at those
two regions divided by the value associated with the charged particle q. This is
the same as saying that there is a voltage change (i.e., a voltage) between region
A and region B.
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If there is a separation of charge between two points on a device like a battery,

and there is a force moving the charge from lower potential to higher potential,
then that device is referred to as a source of electromotive force (abbreviated as
emfand given the symbol e). An electromotive force is not really a "force," but
rather an energy-per-unit-charge quantity (much like a potential). We can
consider an emf as a voltage source derived from a chemical reaction. The emf
unit is the volt (and 1V = 1J/C).
In electric circuits, a battery is represented by parallel lines of unequal length, as

shown in Figure 9-4a. This notation represents a source of emf. The longer line
represents the positive terminal (usually at a higher potential) and the shorter
line represents the negative terminal (usually at a lower potential). The cathode
is assigned a (+) charge and the anode is assigned a (-) charge. Sometimes you
will see the notation used in Figure 9-4b, which implies that there are multiple
cells in series making up the emfsource. This tells us that voltages adds in series.
(b)
(a)
(-) anode
cathode (+)
(-) anode
cathode (+)
wire
wire
wire
wire
source of emf
source of emf
Figure 9-4
Resistivity and Conductivity

The resistivity p (rho) of a material is a measure ofhow difficult it is for charges
to conduct through the material; higher resistivities are associated with better
electrically insulating materials. The resistivity relates to the current density, J,
and the electric field E through equation (9.4). The units of the resistivity are
(V/m)(A/m2) which is just Vm/A. However, a volt divided by an ampere
(V/A) is called an ohm Q (omega). The units of resistivity can also be written as
ohm-meters (Qm). Equation (9.4) is telling us that if the resistivity of a material
is high, then a larger electric field is needed for a given current density.
Conductors are considered to be "perfect" when they have zero resistivity, while
"perfect" insulators have infinite resistivity.
a=I
P=J
(9.4)
(9.5)
Conductivity a (sigma) is the reciprocal of the resistivity, as shown in equation

(9.5). In other words, the larger the conductivity of the material, the better that
material isat conducting current. Another way to put this istosay thata material
with low resistivity has high conductivity. The unit ofconductivity is l/(Qm).
Table 9-1 lists some resistivities for some common conductors, semiconductors,
and insulators.
Material
(Q-m)
Conductors
Resistivity
Resistivity
Resistivity
Material
(Q-m)
Material
Insulators
Semiconductors
Arsenic
Silver
1.67 x 10"8
Copper
1.74 x10-8 Silicon
Gold
Aluminum
2.24 x 10"8
2.68 x 10"8
Boron
(Q-m)
3.37 x 10"7 Glass

2.31 x 103 Wood
1.50 x 104 Rubber
9.0 x 1011
108-1012
1.0 x 1016
Table 9-1
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The electrical resistance R of a conductor is given by equation (9.6). Resistance

is different from resistivity in that it considers both the material's conductivity
and the dimensions of the resistive device. We typically want the resistance of a
resistor, as that influences the current flowing through a resistor. The resistance
is the ratio of the voltage to the current for a given conductor. The SI unit of
resistance is the ohm (Q). One ohm is equal to one volt per ampere (1Q = 1V/A).
_L
R=
p
(9.6)
Example 9.2a
For the data given, what is the ratio of the resistance of Wire 1 to the resistance of
Wire 2?
Wire
p (Q-m)
L(cm)
A (um2)
1.7 x 10"8
1.7 x lO'8
A.
B.
C.
18:1
2:1
1:2
D. 1:18
Solution
Because we are asked to find a ratio, let's use the ratio method to answer this
question. The relevant equation is equation (9.6). We want the ratio of Rj: R2.
Applying theresistance equation toeach resistor, and dividing, gives:
R1 =piiandR2
=c^^^
=^ =kA2= M)=i
Ai
A2 R2 pL2/A L2Ai (3)(6) 18
= 1:18
This is choice D. Notice that we didn't spend time writing out the units (we also
did not waste time writing out the constant p), since all these cancel out. When
determining a ratio, you can often omit units and constants from the ratio.
You could have used physical intuition to narrow the choices to C or D. Wire 1 is
shorter and wider than Wire 2, so Wire 1 should have a smaller resistance than
Wire 2. An analogy to remember is this: Electrons can get through a wider

conductor more easily than through a narrow one, just as you can getthrough a
crowded hallway more easily if it is wider. The narrower the wire, the more
resistance you encounter. Because Wire 2 is much longer and thinner than Wire
1,the ratioshould be significant; thispointsto choice D.
Example 9.2b
For the data given, what is the ratio of the resistivities of resistor A to resistor B?
A.
4:1
B.
2:1
Resistor
R(kQ)
Radius (mm)
L(cm)
C. 1:2
D. 1:4
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Solution
Because we are asked to find a ratio, let's again use the ratio method to answer this
question. The relevant equation is equation (9.6). We want the ratio of pi : p2Applying the resistance equation to each resistor, and dividing, gives:
Ra = PA-^- and RB = ps^B.

AB
AA
2RA = RB
2pA-A- = PB Lb.
AA
PA _ LBAA - L*nr = LBrA2 _ (6)(1)2

PB
2LAAB
2LAnrs2
2LArB2
2(3)(2)2
AB
6.
2x3x4
= _6_
24
This is choice D. Notice that just as with Example 9.2a, we ignored the units,
because they cancelled out. As long as the respective variables have the same
units, then we can ignore them in ratio calculations, as they will cancel out.
Using physical intuition on this question might have proven a bit trickier than
mostquestions, because the answer choices are all relatively close to 1. Wire B is
double the length and four times the area ofWire A,so Wire Bshouldhave a half
the resistance of Wire A if they were made of the same material. Because Wire B
has twice the resistance of Wire A, rather than half the resistance, Wire B must
have a greater resistivity than Wire A. This makes the ratio less than 1, which
eliminates choices A and B. To go from half as much to twice as much, something
must increase by a factor of 4, so the ratio must involve a 4 rather than a 2. This
eliminates choice C and confirms choice D as the best answer. This is one of those
time consuming questions that no matter whether you used the ratio method or
physical intuition, it will take you time and require focus.
Before we move on from resistors, lefs consider what they do. A resistor opposes
the flow of current, and thus, drains energy from an electric circuit. A resistor is
any device in a circuit that hinders current and drains power from the circuit.
Resistors can be a segment of wire or an electrical appliance like a computer.
Ohm's Law
It would be useful to have an equation that relates the current, I, in a conductor
to the potential difference, V, across the ends of that conductor. Consider a

section of wire with length L and cross-sectional area A. Across this length of
conducting material existsa voltage V. As Figure 9-5 shows, the electrons move
in response to this potential difference-but they will move erratically. As the
voltage induces the electrons to the right, they interact with protons and other
electrons. Such interactions jar and redirect their travel, but they do not prevent
the electrons from flowing as a current.
conductor of length L and cross-sectional area A
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Because the electrons flow in response to an applied voltage, the voltage and the
resulting current must somehow be related. As the voltage is increased, the
current increases, so V must be directly proportional to I. They are related
according to Ohm's law, given by equation (9.7).
Ohm's Law
V = IR
(9.7)
In using Ohm'slaw we find that it adequately describes the relationship between

voltage, current, and resistance. However, be aware that Ohm's law does not
apply to all materials.
Example 9.3a
The current through a wire will be the GREATEST when the two ends of the wire
are connected to terminals at:
A. -500 V and+500 V.
B. OV and 1000 V.
C.
10,000 V and 11,000 V.
D. All connections resultin a current of the same magnitude.

Solution
According to Ohm's law, equation (9.7), a current flows in response to a potential

difference V across some material. The bigger the potential difference across the
wire, the bigger the current will be (V = IR, so as V goes up, I goes up). The
potential difference across the wire is 1000 V for choices A, B, and C. Therefore,
all three choices resultin a currentof the same magnitude.

Example 9.3b
The voltage across and the currentthrough three different wireswere measured
and reported in choices A, B, and C. For which of the three wires was the
resistance the SMALLEST?
A. V = 100 volts and I = 1 mA.
B. V = 1 volts and I = 100 mA.
C. V = 10 volts and I = 10 mA.
D. The resistance was the same for all three measurements.

Solution
This question requires that you apply Ohm's law, V= IR. The question is asking
for the smallest resistance, so we need to divide the voltage by the current to
determine the resistance.
R=V/l .-. Choice A:100/10-3 =105Q;

Choice B: VlO"1 =101 Q; and Choice C:10 j' 10-2 =103 Q
The smallest resistance of the choices is 10 Q.
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Potential and Internal Resistance
As we have mentioned, batteries are one particular emfsource. Let's examine the
terminals of the emfsource and expand on the diagram shown in Figure 9-4a.
Suppose we label the positive terminal as A and the negative terminal as B, as

shown in Figure 9-6. Since the positive terminal (cathode) is at a higher potential
than the negative terminal (anode), there will be a potential difference between
the two terminals. Recall that electric field lines flow from a positively charged
source to a negatively charged source. The electric field in Figure 9-6 goes from
terminal A to terminal B. The electric force that a charge between the two
terminals experiences is governed by equation (9.1). The direction of that force is
from terminal A to terminal B.
higher V
wire
lower V
E
cathode (+)
wire
(-) anode
source ofemf
'.
Figure 9-6
The potential across the terminals from point A to point B is defined as VAb, ana
this is referred to as the terminal voltage (or potential). In this case, a positive
charge moves from higher potential to lower potential. Suppose we now connect
a wire across the two terminals (Figure 9-6) to complete the circuit. Once the two
terminals are connected, an electric field is established in the wire. Positive
charges can get from terminal A to terminal B in one of two ways: (1) through
thefield between the platesor (2) through the wire connecting the cathode to the
anode. Because the wire has less resistance than air, the preferred pathway is
through the wire. Current begins to flow in the wire from terminal A to terminal
B. The current in the circuit is given by = VAb = IR. This relationship is saying
that as a charge moves through the circuit, the potential increase in the emf e is
equal to thepotential drop VAb as that charge moves through the resistor.
As a charge moves through a circuit, it encounters an internal resistance r. Thus,
the current moving through this internal resistance will have a terminal voltage
drop equal to Ir. This is shown in equation (9.8). The current in the external
circuit is still givenby equation (9.7). Substitution of equation (9.7) into equation
(9.8) gives equation (9.9).
We conclude that the current is equal to the
electromotive force divided by the total resistance.

(9.8)
(9.9)
VAB = -Ir
R + r
Electrical Power
Power is the rate of conversion of electrical potentialenergyinto some other type
of energy, defined as the ratio of APEq/At. The SI unit of power is the watt,
where 1W = lj/sec. We need a way to relate the power to the current and to the
voltage. Recall that we can calculate the change in electrical potential energy as a
charged particle moves through a voltage difference using APEq = qV.
Substitution of qV into APEq/At gives equation (9.10), which upon replacing

Aq/At with I becomes equation (9.11):
_ AqV
(9.10)
P =
P = IV
(9.11)
At
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Equation (9.11) and Ohm's law, equation (9.7), are two very important equations
to remember when considering electric currents. Combining the two equations
leads to equation (9.12) and equation (9.13).
(9.12)
P=i
P=I2R
(9.13)
This gives us three different equations to choose from when solving for the
power drain through a resistor or a circuit. We choose the best equationbased on
the variables we are given in the question.
Example 9.4a
Which formula represents the time it takes to accelerate a car of mass m from rest
to a speed v, using an electric motor with voltage V and drive current I?
A. t-2EL
mv2
B. t = 2hL
mV
C.
t =
v2
2IV
D. t = 2lV
2Iv
Solution
We usually approach this kind of problem by thinking about units and limiting
cases. If you are not too handy with electrical units (especially how they relate to
mechanics units), then avoid checking units-you can't check what you don't
know. Try limiting cases.
You need to think about how I, V, m, and v affect the acceleration time t. Think
first about the one that is easiest for you to grasp conceptually. For example, if
the car is to reach a higher speed v, what should happen to t? It should go up.
Therefore, the answer is either B or C. Between these two choices, I and m are
switched-V is not. Considering voltage would be a waste of effort-thinkaboutI

or m. If the current I increases, what should happen to t? It should decrease;
afterall, there is more current to make the car go.Thisleads to choice C.
You could have also singled out this choice if you knew, from solving such
problems in the past, that mand v gotogether, or thatI andVgotogether.
You can also solve this problem using energy conservation. Energy questions are
ubiquitous in science, meaning thatyou canrelate different physical phenomena
(here, kinetic energy and electrical energy) through their energies. Specifically,
theelectrical energy generates thecar's kinetic energy:
êlectrical= KEcar
The electrical energy comes from the electrical power supplied over some time t
(this is actually the time t needed to accelerate the car to a speed v). Using the
electrical power, equation (9.11), the energies become:

IVt = %mv2
Solving for t yields choice C.
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Example 9.4b
Which equation the represents rate at which a liquid of mass m, with specific
heat c, is heated by a conducting coil of current I and voltage V?
A.
B.
C.
D.
AT _ mcV
At
AT
= IY
At
mc
AT _
At
mcl
AT
nr
At
IV
Solution
As with Example 9.4a, the cumbersome units make it not so easy to approach the
question using units. So we shall try limiting cases.

You need to think about how I, V, m, and v affect the increase in temperature
over time. Think first about the one that is easiest for you to grasp conceptually.
Forexample, if the material has a low heat capacity c, then it should reach a high
temperature and thus experience a large AT. This means that c and AT are
inversely related. Therefore, the answer is either B or C. Between these two
choices, I is the only variable that is switched. Considering voltage or mass
would be a waste of effort, and not help to solve the question. If the current I
increases, what should happen to AT? It should increase; after all, there is more
current to heat the solution. This leads to choice B.
You could have also singled out this choice if you knew, from solving such
problems in the past, that m and c go together, or that I and V go together.
You can also solve this problem using energy conservation. Energy questions are
ubiquitous in science, meaning that you can relate different physical phenomena
(here, heat energy and electrical energy) through their energies. Specifically, the
electrical energy generates the heat of the system:
Eelectrical = cjsystem
The electrical energy comes from the electrical power supplied over some time t
(this is actually the time t needed to accelerate the car to a speed v). Using the
electrical power,equation (9.11), the energiesbecome:
IVAt = mcAT
Solving for AT/Atyields choiceB.

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Capacitors
Capacitance
A capacitor is formed from two conductors separated by an insulator. An
insulator is a material that does not conduct charge (e.g., rubber or air). A
capacitor is represented by equal length parallel lines, as shown in Figure 9-7a.
(a)
Insulator
wire
wire
cathode (+)
Conducting material
(-) anode
Figure 9-7
When a voltage is placed between the parallel plates of a capacitor, charge

accumulates on those plates (Figure 9-7b). The capacitance C of a capacitor is the
amount of charge q that can be stored per volt of potential difference V across
the two parallel plates. This is shown by equation (9.14). The SI unit of
capacitance is the farad (IF = 1C/V). Capacitances in electronic devices usually
have values between 5000 uV and 1 pF (where 1 j/F = 10"6 Fand 1 pF = 10"12 F).
c = iL
(9.14)
Equation (9.14) basically tells us that the amount of charge that can be stored on a
capacitor depends on how hard you push the charge (the voltage) and how much
the plates can store (the capacitance). The capacitance will depend on the area A
of the conducting plates in the capacitor, the distance d between those plates, and
the dielectric constant Kof the insulator between them. Ifthe area of the plates is
large, then a large amount of charge can be stored. Similarly, if the plates are
closer together, then greater stability allows more charge to be stored. The
capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor can be calculated using equation (9.15),
where k is a constant(9.0 x 109 N-m2/C2) and K is the dielectric constant.
C
(9.15)
4rck vd
Dielectrics
A dielectric is a non-conducting material between the conducting plates of a

capacitor. A capacitor's capacitance will increase by a factor K when a material
(e.g., Mylar, mica, Teflon, etc.) with a specific dielectric constant is placed
between the conducting plates. As shown in equation (9.16), the charge on the
conducting plates increases by the factor of the dielectric constant K.
q = CV = KCVacuumV
(9.16)
Material placed between conducting plates normally does not conduct electric
charge. However, if there is a large electric field between the plates, then it could
cause the atoms in the dielectric to ionize. This results in positive charge in the
dielectric being attracted to the negatively charged plate and negative charges in
the dielectric being attracted to the positively charged plate. Conduction of
current can now occur. This phenomenon is called dielectric breakdown.
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Capacitors
Charging a Capacitor
An emf source, such as a battery, can be used to charge a capacitor. Suppose we
start with two parallel plates that have no charge (Figure 9-8a). Letcharge move
from one plate to the other. As one plate gains positive charge, the other plate
becomes deficient in positive charge (i.e., it will be leftwitha negative charge). It
does not take much energy to move the first few charges across the plates.
However, as more and more positive charges flow to the positively charged
plate, they become both repelled by the positively charged plate and attracted by
the excess of negative charges on the negatively charged plate (Figure 9-8b). At
some point, no more positive charge can be transferred, and the two plates will
be charged with some maximum amount of charge q (Figure9-8c).
(a)
(b)
(c)
+
+
+
LJ
Charge flows and builds up

on plates, causing repulsion.
Despite emf, no charge can

flow with an open circuit.
Once repulsion offsets voltage,

no more charge is able to flow.
Figure 9-8
The electrical potential energy needed to charge the capacitor is a modified

version of equation (8.5). In equation (9.17) we consider the average potential
difference (Vavg) between the plates. The average potential difference is YiV,
because the initial potential (Figure 9-8a) is 0 V and the final potential (Figure 9-
8c) isV. Substituting V2V for VaVg yields a more useful version ofthe equation.
APEq = qVavg = q(ViV)
(9.17)
Combining this with equation (9.14), we can express the change in potential
energy in two other forms, as shown in equations (9.18) and (9.19):
(9.18)
APEn .q2
=
2C
APEa=i/CV2
(9.19)
How is a capacitor charged? Consider the current over time for circuitshown in
Figure 9-9, with an em/source, a switch, a resistor, and a capacitor.
fast current
slow current
Switch
Switch
Figure 9-9
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Electric Circuits
Thistype of circuit, with a resistor and a capacitor in series, is called an RCseries

circuit Thevoltage V across the emfsource remainsconstant. When the switch in
the circuit is closed, the voltage across the resistor (V = IR) varies with time, as
does the voltage across the capacitor (V= q/C). The sum of the voltage across the
resistor and the capacitor mustbe equalto the voltage across the terminals of the
emf source. This is shown by equation (9.20). Solving for the current gives
equation (9.21):
V=Vr +VC = IR +-S-
(9.20)
i=v__q_
(9.21)
RC
When the switch is open at t = 0 (Figure 9-9a), no current flows in the circuit.
Once the switch is closed at t = 1 (Figure 9-9b), the emfsource "pushes" current
from the positively charged terminal, around the circuit and on to the negatively
charged terminal in a counterclockwise direction. At the instant the switch is first
closed, q = 0 C. Plugging in 0 for q into equation (9.21) tells us that the initial
current through the circuit is Ii = V/R. As charge begins to accumulate on the
plates of the capacitor, the current flowing back to the negatively charged
terminal of the em/source is reduced (Figure9-9c). The value of q/RCin equation
(9.21) now increases, causing the current to decrease. Once the capacitor is
completely charged at t = 3 (Figure 9-9d), current will no longer flow in the
circuit.At that point I = 0 A, and the final charge on the capacitoris qf = VC.
If current passes througha resistor and flows to a capacitor, then both the current
through that capacitor, equation (9.22), and the charge on that capacitor,
equation (9.23), will change exponentially with time. The quantity RC in both of
these equations is referred to as the time constant.
UI^/RC)
(9.22)
q=qf(l-e-t/RC)
(9.23)
Larger capacitors require a longer time to charge and discharge, as they have
more charge to store or lose. Larger resistors increase the charging and
discharging time, because they reduce the current flow that occurs during
charging and discharging. Graphs of the capacitor discharge current and storing
charge are plotted as functions of time in Figure 9-10, along with their time
constants. These times represent how long it takes for the discharge current and
storing chargeto change by 1/e and 1 - (1 /e), respectively.
Discharging Capacitor
Charging Capacitor
qmaxd - 7)
t = RC
t = RC
Figure 9-10
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Capacitors
Example 9.5a
Two parallel plate capacitors of equal size are charged by a power supply of
voltage Vsuppiy. What is true of these capacitors when their maximum storage
charge is plottedas a function of supply voltage?
A
max
S*\
S^
A. Capacitor B has a stronger dielectric between the plates; Capacitor A has a

higher breakdown voltage.
B. Capacitor A has a stronger dielectric between the plates; Capacitor B has a
higher breakdown voltage.
C. Capacitor B has a stronger dielectric between the plates; Capacitor A has a
lower breakdown voltage.
D. Capacitor A has a stronger dielectric between the plates; Capacitor B has a

lower breakdown voltage.
Solution
Let's use the multiple-concepts approach to figure out dielectric strength and
breakdown voltage separately. Regarding dielectric strength, a capacitor with a
stronger dielectric can store more charge (all else being equal)-that's partly why
dielectrics are used. Because Capacitor A reaches a greater Qmax/ it must have a
stronger dielectric, which rules out choices A and C. Regarding the breakdown
voltage, the plot shows that Capacitor B loses its charge at a lower voltage than
Capacitor A does. Capacitor B must have the lower breakdown voltage.
Example 9.5b
Two different capacitors, each connected to an identical voltage supply but a

different resistor, are charged. Their charge, as a function of time, is plotted to
the left. What is true of the two RC circuits?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A has a larger capacitor; B has a larger resistor.

B has a larger capacitor; A has a larger resistor.
A has a larger capacitor; A has a larger resistor.
B has a larger capacitor; B has a larger resistor.
Solution
Let's again use the multiple-concepts approach to figure out capacitor size and
resistor size separately. Regarding capacitor size, Circuit A gains a larger total
charge given the same voltage, so Capacitor A must be larger than Capacitor B.
This rules out choices B and D. Regarding the resistance, the plot shows that
Capacitor A gains its charge at a faster rate than Capacitor B does, so it must
experience less resistance. Resistor A has a lower resistance than Resistor B.
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Electric Circuits
Kirchhoffs Rules
Electric circuits can become rather complicated at times. The two Kirchhoff's
rules that will help us analyzecomplicated circuits are Kirchhoff's loop rule and
Kirchhoff's junction rule. Fortunately, the MCAT tests only RC circuits, which
follow those basic rules. Between Ohm's law and two Kirchhoffs rules, you
should be able to navigateany RC circuits you'll encounter on the MCAT.
Kirchhoffs Loop Rule

This rule states that the algebraic sum of the potential differences (voltage
changes) in any closed circuit (loop) is equal to zero. Consider the single circuit
shown in Figure 9-13. Let's follow a positive charge as it leaves the positively
charged terminal of the emfsource.Because current is the flow of positive charge,
start at the cathode. As the charge flows along the wire from the cathode to point
B, there is negligble resistance. Thus, the change in voltage (potential) here is
zero (Vdrop = IR =1(0) = 0). As the positive charge moves from point Bto point C
it encounters a resistance R. There is a potential decrease across the resistor (Vbc
= -IR). From point C to the anode, the change in voltage (potential) is again zero.
Once the charge reaches the anode, it stops moving, so its "potential" to move is
zero. All of the voltage from the emf source has been used up. Thus, the initial
voltage at the cathode is equal in magnitude to the voltage dropped as current
traverses the circuit (Vdrop = -IR)- The energy that is expended to do this is the
chemical energy of the emf, or Eceii. The sum of the voltage changes around this
closed circuitmust add up to zero. If the charge were to move from point D back
to point A, it would encounter the emf.
vdrop ="IR
4
i 4h
Ri
wv
Y
t A
Ri
<
II
9"
T3
II
(-)
(+) A
Rr
>
(+)
Figure 9-13 Loop Rule.
(-)
Figure 9-14 Junction Rule.
Kirchhoffs Junction Rule

Not all electric circuits contain a single loop. Many electric circuits contain
multiple loops. There may be times when the current from a wire reaches a
junction and divides. The total currentflowing through the pathwaysleaving the
junction must equal the current that entered the junction. In other words, all of
the electrons entering the junction must be accounted for~no electrons fall off of
the wire or jump onto the wire.
For example, consider the diagram in Figure 9-14. As the current I leaves the
positive terminal of the emf source, it encounters a junction at point A. The
current I entering that junction must equal the sum of the currents Ii and I2 that
leave the junction. In other words, I = Ii + I2. This relationship allows us to
determine currents after they have been divided through parallel pathways.
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Electric Circuits
Electric Circuits
Example 9.6a
What are the values for the various unlabeled currents in the circuit below?
rVWS
6.17 A
2.33 A
-JWVI3 = 3.84A;l4 = 1.15A;l6 =

I3 = 3.16A;l4 = 1.15A;l6 =
I3 = 3.84A;I4 = 1.15A;I6 =
I3 = 3.16A;l4 = 7.32A;I6 =
-W-
5.02 A
HfiH
A.
B.
C.
D.
HWH
HMH
6.17A
6.17A
4.33A
4.33A
Solution
This question is just an application of Kirchhoff's junction rule. The current

entering the first junction is 6.17 amps, so the current leaving the last junction,!(,,
should also be 6.17 amps. This eliminates choices C and D. From here, we can
note that 2.33 + I3 = 6.17 or that 5.02 + 14 = 6.17. Solving both relationships
concludes that I3 = 3.84 amps and that I4 = 1.15 amps. The value of I4 doesn't
help to solve the question, but I3 helps differentiate between choices A and B.
Example 9.6b
Which relationshipaccurately describes the relativecurrents in the circuitbelow?
HWV-i
Rd = 2.5Q
8.23 A
-Wr- ,1 -tfh
1.89 A
2.22 A
A. Ia>Ic>2.62A
B. Ib>Id>Ic>Ia
C. Id>Ib>Ia>Ic
D. Id>Ic>2.75A>Ia
Solution
This question doesn't involve as much math as it would seem at first glance. First
and foremost, Kirchhoff's junction rule tells us lb = Id = 8.23 A. This eliminates
choices Band C. Next we need to compare Ia to Ic. The total current splits in such
a way that Itotal = 5.61 + Ia and Itotal = 1-89 + 2.22 + l0 so setting the relationships
equal to one another we get 5.61 + Ia = 4.11 + Ic. For that to hold true, Ic > 1&
which eliminates choice A. (Ia = 2.62 A, lb = 8.23 A, Ic = 4.12 A, and Id = 8.23 A)
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Electric Circuits
Example 9.7a
Given a 12-volt battery in the circuit below, what is the voltage across R2 and the
current through R3, if each resistoris 4 Q and Ii is 2 A?
vw
R2
w-
R,
Ri
A.
B.
C.
D.
V2 =
V2 =
V2=
V2=
4 volts, and I3 =
4 volts, and I3 =
8 volts, and I3 =
8 volts, and I3 =
vw
1 amp
2 amps
2 amps
4 amps
Solution
Let's use Kirchhoffs loop and junction rules to solve this one. Applying the loop
rule on the inner loop (i.e., the one that includes the battery, Ri, and R2), we get:
V = I1R1 + I2R2
As current flows around the loop from cathode to anode, the voltage drops from
12 to 0, decreasing upon crossing each resistor (e.g., -I1R1 and -I2R2)- Based on
the battery orientation, the current flows counterclockwise and passes through
Rl before splitting at the junction. Based on Kirchhoffs junction rule, the current
entering the junction (Ii) mustequalthe sum of the currentsleaving the junction
(12 + l3)- Because 2 A enters the junction and R2 = R3, both I2 and I3 = 1 A. This
makes choice Athe best answer. To be complete, lefs solve for Vdrop 2V2 = -I2R2 = (1 A)(4 Q) = -4 V
Vdrop 2is 4 volts. This supports thatchoice Ais correct.

Example 9.7b
What is the voltage drop across R2 and the current through R3 in the circuit
below if the current leaving the battery is 6 A and that all resistors are 3 Q?
V
rn/W
Rl
Ro
MA
R2
VW1
A.
B.
C.
D.
V2 = 2 volts, and I3 = 3.3 amps

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Electric Circuits
Solution
Let's use Kirchhoff's junction and loop rules tosolve this one. Applying the junction
rule, we know thata current of 6 amps enters the junction and is split between
the two pathways. The two pathways have resistances of6 Q (Ri + R2 = 3 Q + 3
Q = 6 Q) and 3 Q (R3 = 3 Q) respectively. Because the upper pathway has twice
the resistance of the lower pathway, it will have half of the current. The sum of
the upper current and lower current must equal 6 A and the ratio of the upper
current to the lower current must be 1 : 2. This means that the current through
the upper pathway is 2 amps and the current through the lower pathway is 4
amps. This eliminates choices A and B.
The voltage drop current across resistor 2 is -I2R2- The current is 2 amps and the
resistance is 3 ohms,so the voltage drop must be:
V2= I2R2 = (2 amps) (3 ohms) = 6 volts
V2 is 6 volts, which eliminates choice D.
The correct choice is C.
Series versus Parallel
Circuits can have several circuit elements. As current from the cathode passes
through the wiring and to the anode, it will encounter the various circuit
elements within the circuit. The relative alignment of the circuit elements can be
described as either in series or in parallel. In series, the circuit elements are
connected in a direct path, where current passes through each circuit element. In
parallel, the circuit elements are part of different pathways, where one circuit
element can be thought of as being a part of an alternative pathway to the other
circuit element. Circuit elements in series share the same current, while circuit
elements in parallel share the voltage drop.

Resistors in Series
It is occasionally necessary when analyzing a circuit to replace several resistors
in series (e.g., Rj, R2, R3, etc.) with a single equivalent resistor Req. In other
words, we need to determine what size single resistor would have the same
impact on the current as all of the resistors in series combined. For resistors in
series this is simple, because connecting multiple resistors in series is like making
a longer resistor. Resistors connected in series are additive, as in equation (9.24):
Requivalent = Rl + R2 + R3-
(9.24)
When is a resistor in series with other resistors? This is the case when the same
current can flow through each of the resistors without branching between them,
as shown by the circuit in Figure 9-15:
WWAVMM
R2
Ri
R,
Figure 9-15
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Resistors in Parallel
There will be times when it will be necessaryto mentally replace several resistors
in parallel with a single equivalent resistor. Lefs consider what happens when
we have several resistors in parallel. Ifs like stacking several resistors in a side-
by-side fashion. This would in essence make a wider resistor. Given that
resistance decreases with an increasing cross-sectional area, we at first
approximation can assume that the resistance would decrease. This can be done
by using equation (9.25).

.=J^+J,
êquivalent Rl
(9.25)
R2 ^3
When is a resistor in parallel with other resistors? This is the case when both
sides of each resistor are connected to a common junction, as shown by the
circuit in Figure 9-16.
Ri
M/fr
Ri
^vwR,
^-AMr
Figure 9-16
Capacitors in Parallel
Now lefs consider what happens when we have several capacitors in parallel.
Ifs like stacking several capacitors in a side-by-side fashion. This would in
essence make a wider capacitor. Given that capacitance increases with area of the
plates, we at first approximation can assume that the capacitance should
increase. The equivalent capacitance when capacitors are added in parallel

involves the addition of eachcomponent capacitor. Equation (9.26) allowsfor the
calculation of the equivalent capacitance (Ceq) of several capacitors in parallel.

[Note that the form of thisequation is different from the form of the equation for
resistors in parallel.]
êquivalent = Q. + C2 + C3...
(9.26)
An example of three capacitors in parallel is shown in Figure 9-17, where each

capacitor will share the same voltage,but not the same charge build up:
-qi
.iiJL-q2
'! -n
+ + +q1
C2 1
+ + +CJ2
-LLi-q3
C3 + + +q3
Figure 9-17
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Electric Circuits
Electric Circuits
Capacitors in Series
Equation (9.27) allows for the calculation of the equivalent capacitance (Ceq) of
several capacitors in series. [Note that the form of this equation is different from
the form of the equation for resistors in series.]
.=J-+ J^ +.
êquivalent Cl
(9.27)
C2 C3
An example of capacitors in parallel is shown in Figure 9-18:
Figure 9-18
Example 9.8a
What is TRUE of the voltage across, current through, and power loss by two
unequal resistors connected in series?
A. The larger resistor has a bigger voltage drop and dissipates more power;
both resistors have the same current.
B. The larger resistor has a smaller current and dissipates less power; both
resistors have the same voltage drop.
C. The larger resistor has a bigger current and smaller voltage drop; both
resistors dissipate the same power.
D. The larger resistor has a smaller current and bigger voltage drop; both
Solution
When current flows through a series resistor circuit, as in Figure 9-15, current
can flow along only one path (just as a water current would flow, if this figure
were a top view of plumbing). The same current must flow through each part of
the circuit; each resistor must have the same current, regardless of its size.
Because all of the resistors have the same current, only choice A is possible. But
for the sake of review, lefs consider the voltage drop and power loss for each
resistor. Given that each resistor has the same current, the larger resistor will
have a larger voltage drop, since:
Vdrop = "IR
Because the resistors have the same current, we must use a version of the power
equation with I in it. Given that we are determining power for different sized
resistors, we should choose the form of the power equation that has I and R.
P = I2R
Because the current is the same in each resistor, increasing resistance will
increase the power. The larger resistor will dissipate more power, since the
power equation shows that power is directly proportional to resistance (P R).
The relationships for resistors in seriessame I, bigger R has bigger V and P
hold generally for any number of resistors in series. Know these relationships.
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Electric Circuits
Example 9.8b
What is true of the voltage across, current through, and power loss by two
unequal resistorsconnected in parallel?
A. The larger resistor has a bigger voltage drop and dissipates more power;
both resistors have the same current.
B. The larger resistor has a smaller current and dissipates less power; both
resistors have the same voltage drop.
C. The larger resistor has a bigger current and smaller voltage drop; both
D. The larger resistor has a smaller current and bigger voltage drop; both
Solution
When current flows through a parallel resistor circuit, as in Figure 9-16, current
can flow along different paths, suggesting that the current is not necessarily the
same along each path. However, parallel resistors will have the same voltage
drop across them, because each end makes a direct (i.e., no intervening circuit
elements) connection with the same voltage source. This means that choice B is
the only possible answer. But for the sake of review, lefs consider the current
through and power loss for each resistor. Given that each resistor has the same
voltage drop, the largerresistor must have a smaller current, since:
I=V
R
Remember the old saying, "Choose the path of least resistance"? This applies to
current. The above equation is how that statement is said in math. Because the
resistors have the same voltage drop, we must use a version of the power
equation with V in it. Given that we are determining power for different sized
resistors, we should choose the form of the power equation that has V and R.
P = Yi
R
Because the voltage drop is the same in each resistor, increasing resistance will
decrease the power. The larger resistor will dissipate less power, since the
power equation shows that power is inversely proportional to resistance (P
1/R). The relationships for resistors in parallel-same V, bigger R has smaller I
and P-hold generally for any number of resistors in parallel. Know these
relationships.
Example 9.9a
What is true of the voltage across, charge stored on, and energy stored by two
unequal capacitors connected in parallel?
A. The larger capacitor has a smaller voltage gain and stores less energy; both
capacitors store the same charge.
B. The larger capacitor stores more charge and more energy; both capacitors
have the same voltagegain.
C. The larger capacitor stores more charge and has a smaller voltage gain; both
capacitors store the same energy.
D. The larger capacitor stores less charge and has a larger voltage gain; both
capacitors store the same energy.
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Electric Circuits
Solution
When charge stores in a parallel capacitor circuit, as in Figure 9-17, the voltage
gain across each capacitor will be the same (for the same reasons resistors in
parallel have the same voltage drop). Given that the voltage is the same, the
larger capacitor will store more charge, since Q = CV.
The larger capacitor will store more energy, since the energy equation can be
written as:
APEn =lCV2
q
Since each capacitor has the same voltage across it, the largercapacitor will store
more energy. The relationships for capacitors in parallel-same V, bigger C has
bigger Q and APEq-hold generally for any number of capacitors in parallel.

Know these relationships.
Example 9.9b
What is true of the voltage across, charge stored on, and energy stored by two
unequal capacitors connected in series?
A. The larger capacitor has a smaller voltage gain and stores less energy; both
capacitors store the same charge.
B. The larger capacitor stores more charge and more energy; both capacitors
have the same voltage gain.
C. The larger capacitor stores more charge and has a smaller voltage gain; both
capacitorsstore the same energy.
D. The larger capacitor stores less charge and has a larger voltage gain; both
capacitorsstore the same energy.
Solution
When charge stores in a series capacitor circuit, as in Figure 9-18, the charge
stored on each capacitor will be tiie same. For example, notice the section of
wire between Ci and C2 in Figure 9-18. Before charging begins, there is no net
charge on the wire; after charging, there must still be zero net charge, because
charge cannot be created, and that section of wire is isolated from any charge
sources. Thus, one capacitorgets +q, while the other gets -q from that section of
wire. This same charge separation occurs in each isolated section of wire. Since
capacitors are connected to these sections, each capacitor must have the same
charge. Given that the charge is the same, the larger capacitor will have a
smaller voltage gain, since:
V =
The largercapacitor stores less energy, since the energy equation is written as:
APEq4 =l2i
2 C
Because each capacitor has the same charge on it, the larger capacitor must store
less energy. The relationships for capacitors in seriessame Q, bigger C has
smaller V and PEqhold generally for any number of capacitors in series. Know
these relationships.
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Electric Circuits
Example 9.10a
Which of the following statements are true about the circuitshownbelow?

6V
#k
R1 = 2Q
R2 = 3Q
I3 = 0.5A
I. Req = 4ohms
II. R3 = 6 ohms
III. Itotal = 1-5amps
A. II only
B. I and II only
C. II and m only
D. I, n, and III
Solution
As a general rule, you should attack these questions by starting with an analysis
of the feature they give you the most of. In other words, we are given two of the
three resistances, so lefs start by analyzing resistance. Unfortunately, we can't do
much tosolve for R3 orReq. We are limited in what wesolve for, so this question
forces us to work backwards from the answer choices. Because there is no "none
of the above" answer, we have to assume that at least one statement is valid. So
lefs see if any of the answers compliment one another.
We can solve for Req by solving the parallel pairfirst, and then adding that toRi.
\4
A short cut that willsavea largeamount of time is to rewriteequation (9.25). For

two resistors in parallel, the equivalent resistance is their product over their sum.
RlXRn
Req1 = R2 + R2
Test Tip
Calculation Shortcut
IfR3 is6Q, then Rparallel is18/9Q=2 Q. This means thatR^ is2Q+2 Q =4 Q.

Statements I and II are complementary, so now lefs determine the total current.
If Req is 4 Q and the battery is 6 V circuit, then Itotal is 1.5 amps. All three
statements match. Lefs considerthe values for the lower segment of the circuit.
12 = 1.0A
l! = 1.5A
6V
3V
R2 = 3Q
-3V
R1 = 2Q
-3V
OV
13= 0.5A
vw1
R3= 6C
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Physics
Electric Circuits
Electric Circuits
Circuit Calculation Shortcut
Example 9.10a introduced a shortcut for determining the equivalent resistance

for two resistors in parallel. This same shortcut also works for capacitors in
series. The idea behind the shortcutis simple: You don't have to show your work
on the MCAT, so you might as well manipulate your common formulas into an
easier to use form. Solefs consider the calculation oftwo resistors in parallel.
1
_ 1 + 1 _ R2 + Rl
êquivalent Rl R2 Rl * R2 Rl * R2
R2 + Rl _Rl+R2
Rl x R2
r
Ri x R2
Ri x R2
-Rl+R2
.p . ,
Rl*R2
êquivalent -
Requivalent Rl * R2
Rl +R2
Example 9.10b
What arethe current leaving the cathode, the current through Ri, andReq for the
following electrical circuit?
12 V
m/WMA-i
R1 = 2Q
I2= 4A
I3 = 2A
M
A.
B.
C
D.
Itotal = 6 A,Ii = 4 A, and Requivalent = 2 Q

Itotal = 6A,Ii=2A,andRequivalent = 4Q
Itotal = 10A,Ii = 4 A,and Requivalent = 2 Q
Itotal = 10A,Ii = 6 A,and Requivalent = 4fi
Solution
At first glance, it seems like this is a difficult question. But if we attack the
question using Kirchhoff's Junctwn rule, we should be on our way to the answer.
Resistors 1 and 2 are in series, so they will share the same current. I2 is given as 4
amps, so Ii must also be 4 amps. This eliminates choices B and D. The current
splits at the junction into two pathways: the upper path and lower path. The
current through the upper path is 4 amps and the current through the lower path
is 2 amps, so the current going into the junction, Itotal/ is 4 + 2 amps. Because
Itotal is 6 amps, the best answer is choice A.
The equivalent resistance for the circuit can be found using Ohm's law. For the
overall circuit, we get:
Vcircuit = Itotal Requivalent

The total voltage is 12 V and the total current is 6 amps, so the equivalent
resistance for the circuit is 2 Q.
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Lefs apply this to some simple circuits. Figure 9-19 shows three examples of
simplified calculations thatyoucando in your head.
RX = 8Q
RaxR2
R2 = 4Q
Rj + R2
Rlx R2
9x3
Rx +R2 ~ 9+3
27
12
8 + 4
12
R1 = 9Q
~ = 7 = 2.25Q
R2= 3Q
C2= 6C
Ci=2C
C!xC2
-\\
Ci +C2 =
2 + 6
Figure 9-19
A shortcoming of this technique is that it applies only if there are two resistors in
parallel or two capacitors in series. When there are three or more resistors in
parallel, then you need to analyze the circuit two at a time. Figure 9-20 shows an
example of the simplified calculation applied to three resistorsin parallel.
n/WH
Rj = 6Q
R2= 3Q
-toR3= 8Q
RjxR2
6x3
Rx + R2
6 + 3
f-20
R12 x R3
2x8
16
Rl2 + R3
2 + 8
10
= 1.6Q
Figure 9-20
Lastly, before leaving circuits and circuit calculations, lefs rehash the differences
between parallel circuit elements and series circuit elements.
Series Circuit Elements
Parallel Circuit Elements
Same current
Same voltage drop
Different voltage drop

Increased equivalent resistance
Reduced equivalent capacitance
Larger resistors drain more power
Different current
Reduced equivalent resistance

Increased equivalent capacitance
Smaller resistors drain more power
(P =I2R(Pf as Rf)
(P =V2/R(PtasR|)
Devices are dependent on one another
Devices are independent of one another
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Alternating Current
Alternating Current and Voltage

So far, we have been discussing direct current (DC) circuits, in which a constant
voltage source produces a unidirectional current flow (flowing constantly from
the cathode to the anode). For 99% of the electricity generated for commercial
use, however, the voltage source is not constant but instead is alternating, so it
results in an alternating current (AC). A simple AC circuit is shown in Figure 921; the new circuit element is the alternating voltage source (the sine wave in the
circle indicates AC).
Figure 9-21
AC is used instead of DC, owing to inherent inefficiencies (e.g., heat loss) in DC

circuits that can be overcome when the voltage alternates. In addition, with AC
circuits, there are brief instances where the current and voltage are zero, meaning
that ifs a safer circuit if one were to accidentally contact it. It is easier to let go of
a circuit when it has no current running through it. Because of this alternating
voltage, the current also alternates with time (Figure 9-22). In the United States,
this oscillation frequency is typically 60 Hz.
time
time
Figure 9-22
Recall that we defined power in equation (9.11) as P = IV. The power that we are
usually interested in is the average power. The relationship between average
power and current involves the root-mean-square current Inns quantified in
equation (9.28), while the relation between average power and voltage involves
the root-mean-square voltage Vmis quantified in equation (9.29). As plotted in
Figure 9-22, the root-mean-square of something is just a way to describe a non
zero average value of a quantity that can be either positive or negative. This
results in an average power of Pavg = Irms^rmsCopyright by The Berkeley Review
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Physics
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Alternating Current
Equations (9.28) and (9.29) describe the root-mean-square current and voltage
relative to the maximum current and maximum voltage respectively.
Irms =-r
(9.28)
Vrms =^
(9.29)
V2
V2
Example 9.11a
Doubling both the root-mean square current through and root-mean square
voltage across a resistor in an AC circuit will increase the power drain by a factor
of:
A.
1.
B. V2.
C.
D.
2.
4.
Solution
This question is a great example of irrelevant information being intimidating.

The fact that ifs an AC circuit as opposed to a DC circuit, with which we are
more familiar with in terms of physics exposure, means that we must consider
the Irms and Vnns instead of just I and V. The reality is that it just doesn't matter,
because it will be solved in the same fashion as a DC circuit question is solved.
Doubling both factors Irms and Vrms in equation (9.11) results in a four-fold
increase in the power drain, since the current and voltage are multiplied. Don't
be scared when you see an "rms" in a problem about AC circuits; the conceptual
aspects of current, voltage, and power are still the same as they are for DC
circuits.
Example 9.11b
Doubling the maximum voltage in an AC circuit will increase the root-mean

square voltage by a factor of:
A.
B. V2
C.
D.
2
4
Solution
According to equation (9.29), the root-mean square voltage is directly

proportional to the maximum voltage. This means that if one of the two were to
increase, then the other value must increase by the exact same factor. Doubling
one will therefore double the other. Because Vmax is doubled, V^s should also
be doubled. Be careful not to fall for the trick of seeing a square root in the
equation and blindly assuming that the answer must also include a square root
term.
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The Berkeley Review
25 Electricity and Electric Circuits Review Questions
I.
II.
III.
Resistors and Heating

Series vs. Parallel Circuits
(1-7)
(8-14)
Circuit City
(15-21)
(22 - 25)

3.
Resistors are often made of carbon-based compounds

and have a cylindrical shape. Such resistors have a resistance
that depends on their dimensions, as is shown in Figure 1.
1 1
I
1 *
1
I
*
%
In a Joule heating experiment which of the following

changes would increase the rate at which the solution
temperature rises?
I. Decreasing the mass of the solution.
II. Increasing the specific heat of the solution.
length
III. Increasing the voltage of the battery.
0.6 cm
IV. Increasing the resistance of the resistor.
0.9 cm
A.
B.
C.
D.
w+ m
Cylinder radius (cm)
I and HI only
II and IV only
I, II, and III only
I, HI, and IV only
Figure 1 Resistance as a function of resistor dimensions

4.
Resistors are often used in Joule heating experiments to

raise the temperature of liquids or gases by a desired amount.
The resistance to current flow through a resistor connected to
a power supply leads to heat dissipation in direct proportion
to the current through the circuit The resulting temperature
increase of a fluid depends upon this resistor, as well as the
fluid's specific heat and the heating time. Figure 2 shows
typical data for Joule heating experiments in various fluids.
Each trial lasts 10 minutes, all fluid samples are 10 gm, and
each resistor is connected to a 12-V DC voltage source.
length, the resistance of the resistor is found to be:
5.
25 kQ
O
D
?A/LPL/AP/AL-
For two cylindrical resistors made of identical material
A. Ri dissipates more heat than R2.

B. R2dissipates more heat than R\.
B.
and with equal radii, Ri and R2, where R\ is longer

than R2, whatis truewhen the twoare in parallel?
5
D
pAL.
D.
DlOOkQ
DO
A.
A
C.
DO
Where p is the resistivityof a material, A represents the

area of a cylindrical resistor, and L represents the
C. Ri experiences a greater voltage drop than R2.

D. R2 experiences a greater voltage dropthan Ri.
C (cal/gm-K)
Figure 2 Datafor a Joule heating experiment

6.
If two resistors experience the same current, then the one

with greatest resistance dissipates the most heat
1.
Which of the following systems requires the greatest

time to undergoa 10Ctemperature increase?
A. A 0.50 cm Cu resistor connected to a 6V battery in
When designing a common resistor, an engineer can
200 mLof a solution with C = 0.80cal/g-K
maximize its resistance by:
B. A 0.50 cm Cu resistor connected to a 12V battery

in200mLof a solution with C = 0.80cal/g-K
C. A 0.50 cm Cu resistor connected to a 6V battery in
A. minimizing both the cylinderlength and radius.
B. minimizing the cylinder length while maximizing
200 mLof a solution with C = 1.20cal/g-K

D. A 0.50 cm Cu resistor connected to a 12V battery
in 200 mLof a solution with C = 1.20cal/g-K
the radius.
C. maximizing the cylinder length while minimizing

the radius.
D. maximizing both the cylinder length and radius.

7.
2.
When a known and unknown resistor are connected in a

series DC circuit, the unknown resistor heats more
A. an equivalent resistance of R1R2
rapidly than the known resistor. Comparing the two

resistors, the unknown resistorwould likely have:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rl +R2
B. an equal voltage drop.

C. an equal power drain.
a largerresistance and a largervoltage drop.

a largerresistance and a smallervoltage drop.
a smaller resistance and a larger voltage drop.
a smaller resistance and a smallervoltage drop.
Two resistors of unequal resistance aligned in parallel

experienceall of the following EXCEPT:
D. an unequal current
202
9.
If Ri < R2 and Vi < V2 in Circuit II, then how would

the current flow?
Common
electric
circuits
consist of
batteries
and
A. Clockwise with Ii > I2
resistors.
Batteries convert chemical energy, through
oxidation-reduction reactions, into electrical energy (in the
form of electrical flow). Resistors convert electrical flow
into heat, light or work. Examples of resistors include a
heating coil in an electric stove, the filament in an
incandescent bulb, or the rotating loop of an electric motor.
B.
Clockwise with Ii = I2
C. Counterclockwise with Ii > I2

D. Counterclockwise with Ii = I2
10. How does the internal resistance of a battery, Rbattery*

affect the power drain by Ri and R2?
Electrical circuits that consist of more than one resistor
and more than one battery can be hooked up in one of two

ways: in parallel or in series. Six unique circuits with
resistors and batteries in both series and parallel are shown in
Figure 1. The batteries have voltage V and the resistors
A. Both drain less power.

B. Both drain more power.
C. The power drain does not change in either resistor.
resistance R.
D. It depends upon how big Rbattery is compared to
Ohm's Law relates the variables of a circuit,
Rl and R2.
where I is current
V = IR
11.
Equation 1 Ohm's law
WW"
Circuit I
Ri
R2
Vi-=F
WW-
T
X
A. Ri drains more power.

B. R2 drains more power.
v2
C. Ri and R2 both drain the same power.

D. Ri drains more power if V > (R1HR2), but R2
drains more power if V < (R1HR2).
vWA
Circuit II
Ri
R2
If Ri has greater resistance than R2 in Circuit V, which

resistor drains more power?
=r^V2
12. How are the total voltage and equivalent resistance

found in Circuit VI?
A. VTotaI = Vi+V2;Req = Rl + R2
Circuit in
B. VTotal =Vi-fV2;Req =oRrR2
v2
R2
V,"^
Rl + R2
Ri
C VTotal= ViVl'+VV2
,? ;Req =Rl+R2
WW
Circuit IV
D. VTotaI =-^_;RK,=^ -
iWWRi
VlT
R2
Vl+V2
Rl+R2
v2
13.
i_VWv^
What is true for a circuit having two resistors, Ri and

R2, of unequal resistance?
I. Resistors in series experience the same current.
Circuit V
V, T
R2
V2
II. Resistors in parallel experience the same voltage.

HI. They have equal power drain if voltage is equal.
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
Circuit VI
4=-
v2
r,
R2
D.
Figure 1
8.
14.
I, II, and III
How do total currents compare in Circuits I, II, HI, and

IV, given Vi = 6V, V2 = 6V, Ri = 2Q, and R2 = 4Q?
How do the voltages of Circuits I and II compare?

A. Ii = Im > Iiv > III
A. Vcircuit I > Vcircuit II
B.
B. Vcircuit I < Vcircuit II
C. Ii > Im > Iiv > III
Vcircuit I = Vcircuit II if Rl = R2
D. iiv > in > ii > im
D- Vcircuit I = Vcircuit II if Rl * R2
Iiv > III > Ii = IlII
203
17.
Immediately after Switch 1 is closed (Switch 2 isopen)

and the capacitor is still negligibly charged, what is the
current through Rj?
Batteries, resistors, and capacitors are three of many

circuit elements that may be connected in series, in parallel,
A.
or in combinations of both to achieve a desired effect Circuit
B.
elements in series share the same current while circuit
elementsin parallel share the same voltage difference. Often,

the operation of a circuit may be changed by the opening or
closing of a single switch, which can change the circuit
elements from being in series to being in parallel. This is
observed in the following diagram of an RC circuit, which
(Ri +R3)
E
D.
RI+52R3
Ro x Rj
contains two switches:

18.
Ri
Switch 2
R3
Immediately after Switch 1 is closed (Switch 2 is open)

and the capacitor is still negligibly charged, what is the
current through R3?
A.
R2
B.
Switch 1
R,
C.
Figure 1
(Ri +R3)
8
D.
Ohm's law is given as:
Ri +
R2 + R3
Rt X Ra
AV = IR
where AV is the potential difference across the resistor, I is
19.
the current and R is the resistance. The capacitance of a

capacitor is written as:
Once the capacitor is fully charged, Switch 2 is closed

(Switch 1 remains closed). Closing Switch 2 will have
what effect on the total resistance of the circuit?
C=^
A. The total resistance will increase.
AV
B. The total resistance will decrease.
where C is the capacitance, Q is the charge on the plates, and

AV is the potential difference across the plates. These
equations let us determine voltage, current resistance, and
C. The total resistance will be unaffected.
D. Whether the total resistance increases, decreases,

or remains unaffected will dependon the numerical
capacitance at any given point within the circuit.
values of the resistors.
15. When Switch 2 is closed, is the capacitor in the above

circuit in parallel or in series with any other circuit
element?
After Switch 1 has been closed for a long time (with

Switch 2 open), the capacitor becomes fully charged.
A.
The charge on the capacitor can now be writtenas:
20.
No.
B. It is in parallel with R2 and in series with R3.
A.
C. Itis inseries with R2 only.

D. Itisinparallel with both R2 and R3.
B.
Ce
C.
C*6*lv2- R3
R, + R2 + R3
D.
Oe_R3
R1 + R3
16. Initially, the capacitor is uncharged. Switch 2 is left

open, while Switch 1 is closed. Immediately after
Switch 1is closed, what is thecharge on thecapacitor?
A.
Ce
B.
C.
21.
If Switches 1 and 2 are both closed and if the capacitor

is allowed to charge completely, the current through R2
will exceed the current through:
A. R3, only if R3 > R2.
B. R3,onlyifR2>R3.
Ce
(Ri + R2)
C. C, only if R2 > Ce.
D. CIR2
D. C, only if Ce > R2.
204
25. How is the net energy transfer in a circuit best
described?
passage.
22. What happens over time to the capacitance of a

capacitor, as the space between its plates is filled at a
constant rate with a polar solution?
A.
Kinetic to Electrical Potential
B.
Chemical Potential to Heat
C.
Heat to Electrical Potential
D.
Electrical to Kinetic
A. The capacitance remains constant until the volume

is completely filled, then the capacitance
immediately drops to the new value of KC0.
B. The capacitance remains constant until the volume
is completely filled, then the capacitance
immediately increases to the new value of KC0.
C. The capacitance gradually decreases as the solution

is added until the volume is completely filled, then
the capacitance remains at the new value of K'Q,.
D. The capacitance gradually increases as the solution
is added until the volume is completely filled, then
the capacitance remains at the new value of KC0.
23. When a capacitor is fully charged and before it begins

to discharge, the potential difference across the
capacitor plates is:
A.
0 volts.
B. equal to the emf'of the battery.

C. C/Qmax*
D. QmaxC
24. The maximum charge that can be stored on a capacitor

depends on:
I. the capacitance of the capacitor.
II. the emf of the battery.
HI. the equivalent resistance of the circuit
IV. the power drain of each resistor in the circuit.

A. I and HI only
B. II and HI only
C. I and II only
D. II only
205
1. C
2. A
6. C
7.
3. A
8
4.
9. D
5.
10. A
11. B
12. B
13. A
14. A
15. D
16. B
17.
18. A
19.
20. D
21. A
22. D
23.
24.
25.
YOU ARE DONE.
Answers to 25-Question Electricity and Electric Circuits Review

1.
Resistors and Heating
Choice C is the best answer. According to Figure 1, as the cylinder radius increases, the resistance of the resistor decreases.
This rules out choices B and D. Now, for a fixed cylinder radius, the longer resistor will have the larger resistance. This
makes choice C a better answer than choice A. Keep in mind that R= pL/j\ where Ris resistance, p is resistivity, Lis
resistor length, and A is the cross-sectional area of a cylindrical resistor. According to the equation, as the length of a
cylindrical resistor increases, its resistance increases. As the width of a cylindrical resistor increases, its resistance decreases.
2.
Choice A is the best answer. When in series, all circuit elements share the same current, so two resistors in series have the
same magnitude of current. Since P=IV and I is the same for both resistors, the resistor that uses more power (i.e., heats
more rapidly) must have the larger voltage drop. This rules out choices B and D. Since V=IR and I is the same for both
resistors, the larger voltage drop occurs across the larger resistor. This means that choice A is a better answer than choice C.
For resistors in series, the current is the same through each resistor, so the relative power can be most easily ascertained
using P=I2R. This tells us that power drain is directly proportional to the resistance. The best answer is choice A.
3.
Choice A is the best answer. Because all of the heating experiments are done for the same 10-minute duration, the AT axis
in Figure 2 directly relates to the heating rate. To answer this question, therefore, let's see how mass, specific heat, voltage,
and resistance affect the temperature increase. According to Figure 2, increasing the specific heat, C, decreases the
temperature increase AT. This may seem intuitive, because a greater heat capacity requires more heat so the temperature
does not rise as much for a given amount of heat You may also recall that q = mCAT, where a larger C would equate to a
smaller AT, q and m being constant This invalidates Statement II, and eliminates choices B and C. Between choices A and
D, we need only consider Statement IV. According to Figure 2, for a given specific heat, the smaller resistor has the larger
temperature increase. This makes Statement IV invalid. The best answer is choice A.
4.
Choice C is the best answer. You could answer this straight from your memory, if you happen to recall the equation for
resistance in a cylindrical resistor (or segment of wire). If you do not recall the equation, then Figure 1 lists the pertinent
data to deduce the relationship between the key variables. All choices have resistivity, p, in the numerator, so to determine
the correct answer, we need only consider Aand L. The longer resistor (0.9 cm versus 0.6 cm) has higher resistance at equal
radius, so resistance increases with L. Thiseliminates choices B and D. As the radius increases, theresistance decreases, so
resistance must beinversely proportional to the cross sectional area. This eliminates choice A and leaves only choice C. The
best answer is choice C.
5.
Choice B is the best answer. The longer resistor of two resistors with equal cross sectional area and equal resistivity has
greater resistance. When the two resistors are in parallel, the voltage drop across each resistor is equal but more current
flows through the smaller resistor, so the resistor with lower resistance drains more energy and therefore dissipates more
heat. The resistors experience the same voltage drop inparallel, sochoices C and D areeliminated. Given that R2 isshorter
than Ri, it has less resistance and therefore drains more energy and dissipates it in the form of heat. The best answer is
choice B.
6.
Choice C isthe best answer. The greatest amount oftime required to heat a solution will be found with the solution having
the greatest heat capacity combined with the slowest rate of heating. Choices A and B can be eliminated immediately,
because they have lower heat capacities than choices C and Dwhile having all other variables equal. The resistors are equal
in all of the choices, but the voltages differ. At higher voltage, according to V = IR, there is greater current through the
resistor at higher voltage. With greater current the solution in choice D heats faster than the solution in choice C. Keep in
mind that we are looking for the longest heating time, so we are looking for the slowest rate of heating. The bestanswer is
choice C.
7.
Choice C isthebest answer. In parallel, the reciprocal ofthe equivalent resistance equals the sum of the reciprocals ofeach
resistor in parallel, so choice A is a valid statement and thus eliminated. In parallel, the voltage drop is equal, but the
currents are different As a consequence, choices B and D are also valid statements. This eliminates choices B and D and
leaves choice C as the lone choice standing. The power drain isV2/R, which means that with different values for resistance,
the power drain through each resistor must also be different. Choice C is an invalid statement so it is the best answer. As a
point of interest, the resistor with less resistance drains more energy when they are aligned in parallel. This is the opposite of
what is observed in series. The best answer is choice C.
206

8.
Series versus Parallel Circuits
Choice A is the best answer. In Circuit I, the two batteries are in series and aligned so that the overall voltage is the sum of
Vj and V2. In Circuit II, the two batteries are in series and aligned so that the overall voltage is the difference between Vj
and V2. That is to say that the two separate batteries oppose one another in Circuit II. This means that the overall voltage is
greater in Circuit I than in Circuit II, making choice A the best answer. This is true regardless of the resistors. The best
answer is choice A.
9.
Choice D is the best answer. Current flows from cathode to anode (opposite of electrical flow). V2 is greater than Vi, so
the electrical current is dictated by V2. Circuit notation dictates that the longer line of the battery represents the cathode, so
current will flow in a counterclockwise fashion. This eliminates choices A and B. The resistors are in series, so the current
through each resistor is the same. Current varies when resistors are in parallel, because current has two pathways from which
to choose. But when the resistors are in series, current has only one way to flow, thus it will have a fixed value (Itotal- The
10.
Choice A is the best answer. We are talking about a series circuit that now includes an extra resistor, Rbattery- You can
imagine that the more resistors you have in series, the harder it is for the battery to push a current. Thus, this extra resistance
results in a slightly smaller current. The power drained by the resistors is:
P=I2R
Thus, if the current, I, decreases a bit, then so will the power drained. Note that R in the equation does not change, because it
is a property of the resistor itself, and not dependent on the circuit in which it is placed. The best answer is choice A.
11.
Choice B is the best answer. The formulas of interest are: V = IR and P = IV. CircuitV has the two resistors in parallel.
Resistors in parallel experience the same voltage drop, but not necessarily the same current. Thus, we should rewrite the
power formula so that it contains only V and R (which is what we will use for the comparison.) Plugging Ohm's law into the
power equation gives:
2
p =Y_ SOj for Rj and R2 we get: P =y_ and p2 =y_

R
Ri
R2
If Rj > R2, then P2 > P\. So, in a parallel circuit, a smaller resistor drains more power. This is the opposite of the series
circuit case. A bigger resistor does not always drain more energy. More power gets drained when more current runs
through a particular circuit. In the series circuit, the same current runs through both resistors. The bigger resistor drains
more power. However, in a parallel circuit, more current runs through the path of less resistance. More power is drained by
a smaller resistor. The best answer is choice B.
12.
Choice B is the best answer. In Circuit VI, the two batteries are in series, so the total voltage is found by summing the
individual voltages. This eliminates choices C and D. The two resistors are in parallel, so the reciprocal of the equivalent
resistance is the sum of the reciprocals of each individual resistor. This eliminates choice A, leaving only choice B as a
possible answer. To double check, you may either calculate the equivalent resistance, or verify the equation by observing the
units. As shown, choice B will have units of Q for resistance, so the equation seems viable at a glance. As a point of
interest, when there are two resistors in parallel, the equivalent resistance is their product divided by their sum. The best
answer is choice B.
13.
Choice A is the best answer. When two resistors are in series, the same current flows through both of the resistors.
Electrical current is like water flow in that the volume moving is the same at any point in the path. When there is only one
flow path, the same current must flow through every part of the path. Thus, both resistors must have the same current, making
Statement I valid. When a circuit is wired in parallel, the current splits up, so current can flow more than one way. The
current need not split up evenly. In fact, more current flows along the path of least resistance - like with water in a diverging
river. This results in each parallel path having the same voltage drop (-IR).
In parallel, resistors share a common voltage. This makes Statement II valid. The voltage across each resistor and the
battery is V. This is because a line can be traced from the top plate of the battery to the top of Rj without crossing any
other electrical components. This means that the top of the resistor is at the same potential as the top plate of the battery.
A line can also be traced from the bottom of Ri to the bottom plate of the battery without crossing any other components, so
the bottom of R\ is at the same potential as the bottom plate of the battery. Since the voltage across the battery is V, the
voltage across both R\ and R2 must also be V. Resistors in parallel have the same potential V across them. Because Req is
different in the two circuits, Ieq is also different, so the power drain (V-I) must be different. This makes Statement III
invalid. The best answer is choice A.
Copyrightby The Berkeley Review5
207
14.
Choice A is the best answer. The total current will be greatest in the circuit with the greatest total voltage and the least
equivalent resistance. Equivalent resistance is minimized when circuits are in parallel. Circuits I and III are equal because
both have the two batteries in series and the two resistors in series. This eliminates choices C and D. The current in Circuit
II must be zero because the batteries are of equal voltage, and they oppose one another. The total voltage is the difference
between Vi and V2, which is zero. With zero voltage, the current must also be zero. This eliminates choice B and makes
choice A the best answer. Circuit IV has a low current because the batteries are in parallel (minimizing total voltage) and the
resistors are in series (maximizing equivalent resistance). Circuit IV has less total current than Circuits I and III. The best
answer is choice A.

15.
Circuit City
Choice D is the best answer. When circuit elements are in parallel, they share the same voltage difference. The three circuit
elements in this question (C, R2, and R3) are all side-bys-side and they share the same voltage drop, which means they are all
in parallel. A good way to check whether circuit elements are in parallel is to see whether their ends meet at common
junction points. If we redraw part of the circuit:
I
R3
R2
II
we see that the two ends of each circuit element touch at points I and II. Thus, all three elements are in parallel. The best
answer is choice D.
16.
Choice B is the best answer A capacitor is a device that stores charge. When Switch 1 is first closed, the charges have not
yet been pushed onto the capacitor. It takes a finite time for the charges to move onto the capacitor plates. Thus, immediately
after Switch 1 is closed, the charge on the capacitor is zero, but it will begin to build up very soon thereafter. The best
answer is choice B.
17.
Choice B is the best answer. C and R3 are connected in parallel. Remember that initially, there is no voltage drop across the
capacitor (as there is negligible charge on it), which means that there is no voltage drop across R3 at the instant that Switch 1
is closed. This is to say that at the instant Switch 1 is closed, all of the current goes to the capacitor (following the path of
least resistance) rather than through R3. From Ohm's law: AV = IR. If there is no voltage difference, there can be no current
flow. When Switch 1 is closed, initially it is as though all we have is one battery and one resistor, Rj, connected in series.
Again, from Ohm's law:
e = I Rj, therefore I =
R,
Note that R2 does not enter into consideration here. With Switch 2 open, R2 will not have any current flowing through it and
will not have a voltagedrop. With Switch 2 open, it is as though R2 were not there. The best answer is choice B.
18.
Choice A is the best answer. When the capacitor is negligibly charged, and a current is turned on in the circuit, almost all of
the current will flow toward the capacitor. The resistor offers resistance to the flow of current, but an uncharged capacitor
does not. Therefore, current will flow through the capacitor section of the circuit and not through R3. The best answer is
choice A.
19.
Choice B is the best answer. With just Switch 1 closed, R\ and R3 add in series. With Switch 2 closed, current can now
flow through the R2 path as well. Because R3 and R2 are connected in parallel, Req decreases for that segment of the circuit.
Therefore, Req for the entire circuit decreases. Resistors connected in parallel have an equivalent resistance that is smaller
than either individual resistor; R2 and R3 connected in parallel produce an equivalent resistance that is smaller than R3 alone.
When this equivalent resistance is added to Rj, we get a resistance that is smaller than when just Switch 1 is closed. The best
answer is choice B.
208
20.
Choice Dis the best answer. Since the two cars have the same initial kinetic energy, the work required to stop both cars is:
C= 0-
Q = CAV
AV
Since Cand R3 are connected in parallel, the voltage difference across Cis the same as the voltage difference across R3 (AV
= I3R3 =1^3). After Switch 1 has been closed for a long time, the capacitor has become fully charged, and no more current
flows to the capacitor. This means that there is now a voltage drop across C (a maximum value), so there is a voltage drop
across R3. Since Switch 2 is still open, no current flows through R2. Thus, in determining the total current flowing in the
circuit, it is as though we have a battery connected to two resistors in series:
1vWA
Ri
v
R3.
Resistors in series add together to give an equivalent resistance of Rserjes = Ri + R3- Using Ohm's law, we can solve for the
total current in the circuit:
e ~ * ^series ==> * ~
R1 + R3
To solvefor the voltagedrop across R3, we use Ohm's law again:
AV = IR3 => AV =
-R3
R1+R3
Finally, we use this voltage to solve for the charge on the capacitor:
Q= CER3
R1+R3
This answer can also be approached using a bit of physical intuition. Since Switch 2 is open, R2 will not figure into any
voltage drops or charge accumulations. Therefore, choice C can be eliminated. Choice A can be eliminated, because if
current flows through the capacitor section at some point in time (as it does), then charge will accumulate on the capacitor.
Choice B can be eliminated, because it says that the voltage across the capacitor plates is e. This is wrong, because there is a
potential drop from the battery across Rj, which will lower the actual voltage across the capacitor. The best answer is
choice D.
21.
Choice A is the best answer. After the capacitor is fully charged, no current will flow into the section of circuit containing
the capacitor. That may make choices C and D seem correct-but those choices compare R2 to Ce, representing resistance
and charge, respectively. Comparing unlike physical quantities is nonsensical, so choices C and D are incorrect. Between the
two resistors R2 and R3, the smaller resistor necessarily must have more current flowing through it. Notice that these two
resistors have the same voltage across them, as they are wired in parallel. So if R2 is to have more current than R3, R2 must
have the smaller resistance. The best answer is choice A.
Questions 22 - 25
22.
Choice D is the best answer. As the space between the capacitor plates is filled with a polar substance, the capacitance will
increase. This eliminates choices A and C. Because the fluid is being added at a constant rate, the capacitance will change at
a constant (gradual) rate, not abruptly. The best answer is choice D.
23.
Choice B is the best answer. When the capacitor is fully charged, it will have some voltage across it, because it stores
charge and it has a capacitance. This eliminates choice A. Recalling that Q = VC, vve know that V = Qmax'C, not C/QmaxThis eliminates choice C. Choice D has the wrong units, leaving only choice B. Regarding choice B, the capacitor should
have the same voltage across it as the battery, because this circuit (battery-Rc-C) has no current flowing through it. Because
no current flows through the resistor, there must be no voltage drop across the resistor; this leaves a voltage drop across the
capacitor equal to the voltage gainacross the battery (i.e., the emfof the battery). The best answer is choice B.
209
24.
Choice C is the best answer. Capacitance is defined as: C = Q/V, where Q is the charge on the plates of the capacitor, and V
is the voltage difference between the plates. The maximum charge therefore depends on option I and II only. There is no
dependence on resistance of any kind. The best answer is choice C.
25.
Choice B is the best answer. As current is passed through a resistor, it heats up. The energy transfer must involve heat, so
choices A, C, and D can all be eliminated. Energy is being transferred from the chemical battery to the resistors, so it starts
with chemical potential. It goes through electric flow and eventually becomes heat. The best answer is choice B.
210
l-t|^^M-i9it^Si&'' ajtid Electric Circuits Practice Exam
r- - ~t; ,' J.-*'"
I.
r-s
(i-6)
Basic Circuit
II. " Dielectric Experiment?

IQ.
(7-12)
Resistor Alignment
(13 -18)
(19 - 22)
IV.
Wheatstone Bridge
(23 - 28)
V.
Pacemaker Circuit
(29 - 33)
,Questions Not Based on a Descriptive Passage
(34-37)
RC Circuits
(38-43)
Resistance is Futile
(44-48)
(49-52)
Yt.
VII.
Electricity and Electric Circuits Exam Scoring Scale
:.
Raw Score
MCAT Score
42-52
13-15
34-41
10-12
24-33
7-9
17-23
4-6
1-16
1-3
3.
In a laboratory experiment, a student is given three

resistors and a battery of voltage V. The assignment is to
construct the circuit shown in Figure 1 and to measure the
currents at different points within the circuit The values for
I, Ii, I2, and I3 are all recorded. During the course of the
experiment, a battery with a different voltage is substituted
for the original one, and the current is recorded at the same
points as before. The resistors are aligned in the same fashion
for all of the trials, so they have the same resistance in each
trial, despite the change in voltage.
If all three resistors have equal resistances, which of the

following statements is true?
A. R3 will dissipate the least power.

B. Ri will dissipate more power than R2.
C. R3 will have a larger current than either Ri or R2.

D. Ri and R2 will each have a larger current than R3.
4.
What is the power dissipated in the circuit, if Req is 2

ohms and I is 6 amps?
5.
A.
9 watts
B.
18 watts
C.
36 watts
D.
72 watts
In which of the following circuits will the energy

dissipated in the resistors be the GREATEST?
A. Vbattery = 6 volts, Itotal = 3 amps, and t = 2

seconds
B. Vbattery = 9 volts, Itotal = 2 amps, and t = 1second

C Vbattery = 6 volts, Itotal = 2 amps, and t = 2
Figure 1
Rj = R2 = 2 R3 = 2 ohms
seconds
D Vbattery = 12volts, Itotal = 3 amps, and t = 1.5
In all questions that follow, ignore the internal resistance

of the battery. The only resistance to consider is that of the
resistors specifically shown in the circuit.
1.
seconds
If V = 12 volts, then which of the following changes in

resistorswill increase the value of Ij?
6.
A. Increase R\
B. Increase R3
Which graph BEST relates the current flowing through

a circuit to the power dissipated in it, if the
electromotive force in the battery is 12 volts?
C. Increase R2, while changing R3 so that Req ofthe
A.
B.
entire circuit remains constant
D. Decrease R2, while changing R3 so that Req ofthe

entire circuit remains constant
2.
If the voltage of the battery were 6V, how could the

equivalent resistance of the circuit be determined?
A. Req = Rj + R2 + R3
B.
Req =
R,
R, + R2
C. Req - R3 +
Current (A)
Rj +R2
Current (A)
D. Ren =(RlHR2) +R
eq
R, + R2
212
8.
Which of the following solutions will likely exhibit the

GREATEST value of K?
A capacitor builds up potential energy by storing

electrical flow. It has two plates, one rich in electrons and the
other poor in electrons. The capacitance of a capacitor is
affected by the medium between its two plates. Equation 1
shows the capacitance of a standard capacitor that has some
medium between the plates (i.e., the space between the plates
A.
Benzene
B.
Cyclohexane
C.
Octane
D.
Water
is not a vacuum):
9.
Equation 1
C = K'C,
How can the total capacitance of the circuit be found?

A.
where C is the capacitance, K is the dielectric constant, and

C0 is the capacitance in a vacuum.
Qotal
Ci
Cn
B Qotal = +
Ci
Ch
It is difficult to measure capacitance in a vacuum. To

measure the dielectric constant of various solutions, the
C L- = Ci +Q]
following apparatus was designed:
Qotal
D. Qotal = Ci + Cn
10.
Which of the following changes will NOT affect the

capacitance?
A. Increasing the distance between the capacitor
plates.
B. Filling the inter-plate region of the capacitor with a
polar liquid.
C. Changing the voltage source of the circuit.
D. Changing the materials of the capacitor plates.
Figure 1
The coil has inductance of L henries, Q has variable
11.
capacitance, and Cn has a fixed capacitance. The circuit has

a natural resonance frequency v0 given by:
Equation 2
Why might the solution into which Crj is dipped during

the experiment be immersed in an oil bath that is fitted
with a heating coil?
A. Polarity of the solution may be fixed, but the
heating coil is needed to maintain homogeneity.
B. Temperature must be held at a fixed value, because
the dielectric constant can vary with temperature.
2n YLfa + Ci,)
An experiment involves dipping Cn into various
solutions and measuring the change in capacitance, by
monitoring the frequency of the circuit. The change in
capacitance is determined by the dielectric constant (K) for
C. Capacitors must be heated to compensate for the

decrease in current as the capacitor charges.
D. The resistance of the circuit is minimized at higher
each solution. This constant is always equal to or greater than
temperatures.
one. As a general rule, more polar compounds have greater

values of K than nonpolar compounds.
12.
7.
Which of the following changes will decrease the

naturalfrequency of the circuit by a factor of 2?
How is the value of K measured during the experiment?
A. By comparing the current flowing through Q with

that flowing through Cn-
A. Increasingthe capacitance of Q by a factor of 4.
B. By comparing the current generated by Q with that
B. Increasing the capacitance of Q by a factor of 2,

and increasing Cn by a factor of 2.
flowing through Cn-
C. By measuring the change in inductance.

D. By measuring the change in the resonance
frequency of the circuit.
C. Increasingthe inductance of the coil by a factor of

V2.
D. Increasing the inductance of the coil by a factor of
4.
213
14. In a circuit arrangement like System II, if V = 12 volts,
Passage 111 (Questions 13-18)
Req = 4Q, and Ii = 2 amps, then which of the following

In an experiment designed to study resistance, a student
designs three different circuit arrangements, each consisting
statements is true?
A. Ri must be larger than R2.
of three resistors and a battery of voltage V. The student

measures the currents at the different points within each of
the circuits. During the course of each trial, the resistors are
interchanged, and the current is recorded at the same points.
B. R3 must be 4 Q.
C. I2 must be 1 amp.
D. Ii must be greater than I2.
The values for total current (I) and the currents through
each resistors (Ij, I2, and I3) are all recorded and compared.
The resistors are aligned in the separate trials as shown in
Figure 1. The same resistors are used in each trial, so each
15. How do the values for the equivalent resistance in each

of the three systems compare?
individual resistor has the same resistance in each system.
System I
A.
B.
C.
D.
=r V
Req System I> Req System II > Req System III

Req System III > Req System II > Req System I
Req System II > Req System I > Req System III
Req System III > Req System I> Req System II
16. In which systems will Requivalent vary with the

sequential placement of the resistors?
System II
Ri^J1
A.
B.
C.
D.
l2gR2
Requivalent varies in System II only.

Requivalent varies in System I and System IIIonly.
Requivalent varies in System II and System III only.
Requivalent varies inSystems I, II, and III.
17. What is the overall power dissipated in a circuit
connected toa 12-voIt battery, if Req is4 Q?
System m
TV
r4I2|%J|i3
A.
18 Watts
B.
36 Watts
C.
72 Watts
D.
108 Watts
Figure 1
Rl = 1 ohm, R2 = 2 ohms, R3 = 3 ohms
18. What is the equivalent resistance for the circuit shown

as System II in Figure 1?
13. In System II, which of the following arrangements of
A.
the resistors will yield the GREATEST total current, I,

drawn by the circuit if V = 12 volts?
A. Ri upperleft, R2 upper right, and R3 bottom

B. R2 upperleft, Rj upperright, and R3 bottom
C. R2 upper left, R3 upper right, and Ri bottom
0.56 Q
B.
3.67Q
C.
4.50 Q
D.
6.00 Q
D. R3 upper left, Ri upper right, and R2 bottom
214
22. For a simple circuit made of two resistors of unequal
Questions 19through 22 are NOT based on a descriptive
resistance, Ri and R2,and a battery, whatis true?
passage.
I. If the two resistors are connected in parallel, then

they experience thesame voltage drop.
19. How would you describe the overall energy conversion
II.
in an electric circuit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
From kinetic energy to potential energy

From potential energy to kinetic energy
From heatenergy to electrical energy
From electrical energy to heat energy
III.
If the two resistors are connected in series, then

they have different currents flowing through them.
The two resistors will experience the same power
drain, whether they are connected in series or in
parallel.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I only
III only
I and III only

II and III only
20. The characteristic time required for a capacitor to

discharge through a resistive circuit is called the time
constant of the
circuit.
The
time
constant of a
discharging capacitor is given by T = RC, where R is the

total resistance of the circuit and C is the capacitance of
the circuit. If a third resistor were added in parallel to Ri
and R2, what would happen to the time constant of the
circuit?
A. The circuit's time constant, T, increases, because

the circuit's resistance increases.
B.
The circuit's time constant, T, decreases, because

the circuit's resistance increases.
C. The circuit's time constant, T, increases, because

the circuit's resistance decreases.
D. The circuit's time constant, T, decreases, because

the circuit's resistance decreases.
21.
An ammeter measures the current that passes through a

particularregion in a circuit With respect to any circuit
whose current it measures, the ammeter should have a:
A. larger internal resistance and be connected in series

with the circuit.
B. larger internal resistance and be connected in

parallelwith the circuit
C.
smaller internal resistance and be connected in

series with the circuit.
D.
parallel with the circuit.
215
24.
A circuit known as a wheatstone bridge can be employed

to measure the resistance of a resistor. It requires having
A. relative resistances of segments AZ and ZC only

depend on their respective lengths.
B. relative resistances of segments AZ and ZC only
three resistors of known resistance, one of which has variable
resistance, a resistor of unknown resistance, a galvanometer,

and a voltage source. Figure 1 shows a wheatstone bridge.
depend on their respective cross-sectional areas.

C. relative resistances of segments AZ and ZC are
equal to one another.
*& î
The wire between Points a and c is made of a uniform

materia] and has a uniform radius to ensure that the:
D. resistances of segments AZ and ZC are equal to the

unknown resistor, Rtj.
25. For the wheatstone bridge in Figure 1 to function, with

R4 being the unknown resistor, what CANNOT be
"kh 7
true?
A. Either Ri, R2, or R3 must be a variable resistor.

B. Ri must equal R3 for the circuit to work.
Figure 1 Wheatstone Bridge Circuit
C. The galvanometer should be able to measure both
If the voltage across the galvanometer, G, is zero, then

the voltage drop across Ri is equal to the voltage drop across
R2- If this is true, then the following applies:
magnitude and direction.

D. The circuit will exhibit the same results when the
poles of the battery are reversed.

'lRl ='2R2 and qR3 = /2R4
*'lRl _ *2R2
11R3
12R4
Rj_ = R2 ., R4 =(R2XR3)
26.
R3
R4
Rl
In an experiment to compare the resistivity of three
What is the purpose of the galvanometer between
Points b and z in the wheatstone bridge in Figure 2?

A. To supply voltage to the circuit
B. To measure the voltages at Points b and z
C. To measure the potential difference between Point
different metals, students used a variation of the wheatstone
bridge to study three resistors of identical dimensions, but

each made from a different metal. The device used in their
b and Point z.
experiment is shown in Figure 2.
D. To serve as a short circuit so no current flows
through the unknown resistor, Rtj.

27.
When Metal I is used as Rfc and Metal II is used in Rtj,

the slide-wire is closer to Point a than Point c. When
Metal I is used as Rk and Metal III is used in Rtj, the

slide-wire is closer to Point c than Point a. What are the
relative resistivities of Metal I, Metal II, and Metal III?
Figure2 Wheatstone Bridge alternative for experiment
A PMetal I > PMetal II > PMetal III

B.
PMetal II > PMetal I > PMetal III
Point z. The wire is moved until the voltage across the
C.
PMetal III > PMetal I > PMetal II
galvanometer is zero. The distance between Points a and z

and the distance between Points z and c are measured. The
D.
PMetal III > PMetal II > PMetal I
The slide-wire between Point b and Point z can move at
resistor for Rtj is changed in each of the three trials.

28.
23. The resistance of the unknown resistor, Rtj, is equal to:
A. The distance between Point z and the midpoint of
A (4-zX4-c)
B.
If the voltage of the battery were doubled, how would

the position of Point z change?
wire AC would increase by a factor of 4.
Rknown
Rknown
B. The distance between Point z and the midpoint of
(4a-zX4-c)
C. The distance between Point z and the midpoint of

wire AC would increase bya factor of V2.
D. The distance between Point z and the midpoint of
wire AC would increase by a factor of 2.
C Rknown
Oz-c
wire AC would remain the same.
D- Rknown^,
4i-z
216
30.
If the time to charge the capacitor is 60 times thatof the
time to discharge the capacitor, the ratio ofRc : Rd is:
The beating of a human heart is a regulated cycle of

cardiac muscle contractions. A group of specialized cells in
the right atrium of the heart acts as a pacemaker and begins
each cardiac cycle by generating automatic and rhythmic
action potentials that spread throughout the organ. For those
people whose natural pacemaker fails to work properly, an
artificial pacemaker may help. An artificial pacemakeris two
RC (resistor-capacitor) circuits joined together. The capacitor
is repeatedly charged and discharged. The basic pacemaker
A.
31.
1:60
B.
1:1
C.
60: 1
D.
23 : 1
Which of the following graphs BEST represents the

charge on the capacitor as a function of time, over one
circuit is diagrammed below:
cycle?
A.
B.
HVW
R
aQQ
circuit
Time
Time
Time
Time
Figure 1
When the switch (which is really a transistor) is closed
to the left (as shown), the capacitor is charged through Rc

(the charging resistance). The switch then changes position
and the capacitor is discharged through R<j (the discharging
resistance). When the charge on the capacitor drops to e"1 =

0.37 times its maximum value, other transistors in the form
of a triggering circuit deliver a short pulse of current to the

heart. The time to charge the capacitor is typically much
longer than this pulse and is approximately equal to the
natural time between heart beats. Some pacemakers operate
at a fixed frequency, while others operate only if the patient's
32.
For discharging the capacitor, we want Rd to be:
own heart fails to do so.
A. smaller than Rc, to insure a faster discharge time
An important parameter used in characterizing an RC

circuit is the time constant, T, which obeys T = RC, where R
is the resistance (in ohms) and C is the capacitance (in
than charge time.

B. larger than Rc, to insure a faster discharge time
than charge time.
C. smaller than Rc, to insure a faster charge time than
discharge time.
D. larger than Rc, to insure a faster charge time than
farads). After one time constant has elapsed as the capacitor

charges, the current in the circuit has dropped to 0.37 times
its original value (I = I0 e"1), and the charge on the capacitor

is 0.63 times its maximum value(Q = Qmax (1 - e"'))- When
discharging the capacitor, the elapse of one time constant
indicates that the charge on the capacitor has fallen to 0.37
discharge time.
times its maximum value(Q = Qmax e"1)33.
29.
Ignoring the discharging part of the circuit, one would

conclude that the maximum potential difference across
Rc occurs:
A. immediately after the switch is closed.

B. after a long time has elapsed.
C. at the same time that the maximum potential
difference occurs across the capacitor plates.
D. after the maximum potential difference across the
capacitor plates is reached.
217
For the above artificial pacemaker, suppose that pulses

are triggered 60 times per minute by a 5-mF capacitor.
What is the time constant of the charging RC circuit?
(Neglect the time needed to discharge the capacitor.)
A.
0.25 seconds
B.
0.50 seconds
C.
1 second
D.
1.25 seconds
37. What is the voltage drop across R3?
12V
passage.
34. How are the electrical outlets in a typical home hooked

up?
A.
IA
In series
2A
B. In parallel
C. In a combination of both series and parallel
D. Neither in series nor in parallel
4A
WW'
1A
2Q
wvw^'
R3
A.
2V
B.
4V
C.
8V
D.
12V
35. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
I. The current passing through a conducting wire in

the presence of an electric field is zero.
II. Resistors provide electrical energy to a circuit
III. The amount of current leaving a resistor is smaller
than the amount of current entering a resistor.
IV. The current leaving the cathode is equal in

magnitude to the current arriving at the anode.
A. I only
B. I and III only
C. I, II, and III
D. IV only
36.
Which of the following observations are valid?

I. If resistors are aligned in parallel, rather than
series, then the equivalent resistance will be less.
II. When two resistors are aligned in parallel, the

current through the resistor of higher resistance is
greater than the current through the resistor of
lower resistance.
III. Only resistors that are aligned in parallel will

increase in temperature as current passes.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
218
41. If both switches were closed, and a new resistor were
inserted into the circuit before switch Si, then the

maximum charge that could be stored on the capacitor
Physics students construct an RC circuit as shown in
Figure 1. The voltage on the battery is V = 10 mV, the
would:
capacitance is C = 2 pF, and all of the resistors have a
A. increase, because the voltage across the capacitor
resistance of R = 5 mQ. When switch Si is closed, the
would increase.
capacitor charges up. When switch Si is open and switch S2
B. decrease, because the voltage across the capacitor
is closed, the capacitordischarges.
would increase.
Switch 1
Switch 2
C. increase, because the voltage across the capacitor

would decrease.
D. decrease, because the voltage across the capacitor

would decrease.
V
R2.
Figure 1
42. If a steady current of 1 mA passes through resistor Ri

for 10 seconds, how much heat is generated?
38. When only switch Si is closed, how much charge will
A. 5xlO"9J
build up on the capacitor?
B. 5xl0-8J
A. 2 x lO'8 C
C. 5xl06J
B. 2 x 10"4 C
D. 5xl0"5J
C. 5xlO-3C
D. 2x10'^
39. If the capacitor were initially uncharged, it would be

true that when both switches are closed simultaneously,
43. Which graph accurately depicts the charge of a

capacitor over time as it is discharging voltage?
the voltage across the capacitor:
A.
B.
A. increases, while the current through the resistors

decreases.
B. increases, while the current through the resistors

increases.
C. would shoot up rapidly and then decrease, while
Time
the current through the resistors increases.

C.
D. would shoot up rapidly and then decrease, while

the current through the resistors decreases.
Time
40. A long time after both switches are closed, the current
through resistor Ri is:
A.
2 mA.
B.
50 mA.
C.
2 A.
D.
50 A.
219
Time
46. Consider the following circuit:
R2
When a conducting wire has a net electricfield across it

thefree charges in the wireare propelled fromone endof the
WWH
rÂ/W
wire to the other; this is the source of current in a circuit The

external electric field is typically provided by a battery or a
Switch
VVW-
generator. The charges do not move straight through the

wire, butrather proceed fromone end of the wireto theother
along jagged paths. Thecharges suffermany collisions on the
way and lose energy. The resistance of a conducting wire,
R3
measured in ohms, is a measure of how difficult it is for the
charges to move through that conductor. Ohm's law relates

the loss of potential by the current, AV (measured in volts),
Battery
to the resistance, R, by the equation AV = IR, where I is the

current measured in amperes (or amps).
When the switch is closed, the current through Ri:
Although conducting wires have a small amount of

resistance associated with them, in electronic devices the
A.
increases,
main source of a high resistance is due to resistors. The

purpose of a resistor is to control or modify the current
throughthe circuit Resistors typicallyobey Ohm's law.
B.
decreases,
C.
is unaffected.
D.
undergoes a changes that depends on whether R5 is

less than or greater than (Ri + R2).
There may be several resistors in the same circuit

Resistors can add together in one of two ways: in series,
where the effective resistance is given by:
Reff = Rl + R2 + ...
47.
or in parallel, where the effective resistance is given by:

1
R eff
due to the:
A. low resistance of the birds compared to the wire,

minimizing the current through the birds.
B. birds keeping only one foot on the wire, thus not
making a complete circuit
C. low capacitance of the birds.
D. minimal potential difference across the birds.
--L + .L+...
Rl R2
Resistors in series share a common current whereas
resistors in parallel share a common potential difference.

44.
Birds can be seen perched on high-voltage power lines,

yet they seem unaffected by the high voltage. This is
A voltmeter is a device that measures the voltage drop

between two points in a circuit In comparison to the
section of circuit between these two points, the
voltmeter should have a:
48. Consider the following circuit
A. larger internal resistance and be connected in series
R = 0.1Q
with the section.
i-wvw
B. larger internal resistance and be connected in

parallel with the section.
C.
Switch 1
series with the section.
D.
Switch 2

CQ
parallel with the section.
45.
When both switches are closed, as compared to when

just Switch 1 is closed, the:
Light bulbs, such as holiday lights, can be strung

together in series or in parallel. How should these bulbs
A.
be connected so that if one bulb burns out the other

bulbs remain unaffected?
A.
In series.
B.
C.
In parallel.
Either in series or in parallel.
total resistance of the circuit is unaffected.
B. total resistance of the circuit is larger.

C. voltage drop across Ri is larger.
D. power drain in the circuit is larger.
D. As a combination of series and parallel.
220
Given that R4 is greater than R3, which ofthe following
52.
Questions 49 through 52areNOT based on a descriptive
relationships is NOT true?
passage.
R3
R2
49. Which of the following is NOT an example of a

resistor?
rWWVH
Rl
A. Thefilament of an incandescent lightbulb
r-vW-i
R4
B. A heating coil in a hair dryer
WW-
C. The anode of a Galvanic cell
R5
D. The magnetic coil of an electric motor
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ii is definitely greaterthan I2
I2 is definitely greater than I3
50. What are the respective currents through each of the

three resistors in the circuit below?
6V
Ri=4Q
R2 = 2Q
rn/VWI
LyvV\M
A.
II = 1.5 amps; I2 = 3 amps; I3 = 1.5 amps
B. Ii=2amps;l2
;;I2 = 4amps;l3
4 amps; I3 = 2amr.
2 amps
h =
= 3
3 amps;
amDs: I3
H =
= 1
1 amp
amn
C. Ii = 1 amp; I2
D. Ii = 2 amps; I2 = 1 amp; I3 = 2 amps
51. Which statement accurately describes the impact of

adding an additional circuit element to an RC circuit
with multiple circuit elements?
A. Adding a resistor in parallel will decrease the total

current
B. Adding a resistor in series will reduce the total

voltage.
2.
3. C
4.
5. D
6.
8.
9. D
10.
11. B
12.
1.
C. Adding a battery in series will increase the total

current
D. Adding a capacitor in parallel will decrease the

total voltage.
7. D
221
13. C
14.
15. A
16. A
17. B
18.
19. D
20.
21. C
22.
23. D
24.
25. B
26.
27. B
28.
29. A
30.
31. A
32.
33. C
34.
35. D
36. A
37. B
38.
39. B
40.
41. D
42.
43. C
44.
45.
46.
47. D
48.
49. C
50.
51. C
52. D
YOU ARE DONE.
Answers to 52-Question Electric Circuits Practice Exam

1.
Basic Circuit
Choice C is the best answer. The current flowing through any resistor depends on the total current, the voltage drop across
the resistor, and the resistance of the resistor in question. The voltage does not change in the question, so the resistance of Ri
and the total current I must be considered. In choice A, the resistance of R\ has increased, so the current through that resistor
II must decrease. This eliminates choice A. In choice B, the equivalent resistance of the circuit has increased, because Req
must increase as R3 does. Because V = (I)-(Req), the total current will decrease. IfItotal decreases, then all currents l\, I2, and
I3 must decrease. This eliminates choice B. To determine the effect on l\ when R2 changes, given that the change in R2 is
compensated for by a changing R3 (so that Req of the entire circuit does not change), you must apply Kirchhoffs junction
rule: I = Ij + I2.
If Rj is equal to R2, II must also equal I2; if Ri is less than R2, then \\ must be greater than I2. This is to say that current
follows the path of least resistance. Increasing R2 will decrease I2; and since Itotal >s constant (V and Req have not changed,
so Itotal must he the same), the value of Ij must increase. The best answer is choice C.
Choice D is the best answer. The first step involves adding R\ and R2, which are in parallel.
1
" R,1
R^2
R-
R,
Ri)(R2) (Ri)(R2)
R, + R-i
(*i)(J
_ (Ri)(R2)
Rj + R2
The second step is to add R to R3 in series:
_ (Ri)(R2
Req = R + R3 = Rj + R2
+ R,
The voltage information is useless without also knowing the total current in the circuit. Also, you should note that you could
have used your shortcut of knowing that for two resistors in parallel, their equivalent resistance the the product of the two
resistors divided by the sum of the two resistors. Take shortcuts wherever possible. The best answer is choice D.
Choice C is the best answer. We are asked to consider the amount of power drain by the current flowing through each
resistor. Current will flow from the battery, split up and move through R\ and R2, recombine and move through R3, and
finally return to the battery. Therefore, R2 will have the largest current, making choice C correct. Choice B is incorrect,
because identical resistors in parallel should have the same current, and therefore the same power drain. Choice A is
incorrect, because R3 has the largest current, making I^R biggest for R3. Choice D is incorrect, because it contradicts choice
C. The best answer is choice C.
Choice D is the best answer. The question gives you the total current and the equivalent resistance, so the power equation of
choice will include I and R. Recalling that P = I2R, where P ispower, I is current, and Ris the resistance, we find:
P=I2Req =(6 amps)2(2 ohms) =36-(2) amps2-ohms =72 watts

Choice D is the best answer. First, you must recall that Energy = (Power)-(time). In other words, E = Pt = V-I-t. This means
that the greatest energy will be dissipated in the choice that yields the greatest product of voltage, current, and time. Choice C
is eliminated, because choice A has the same voltage and time, but it has a greater current. Choice B is eliminated, because it
has a smaller voltage, current, and time than choice D. Choice D yields more energy than choice A, because although they
have the same current, choice D has a greater voltage and a longer operating time. The energy dissipated in choice D is 48
joules. The best answer is choice D.
Choice B is the best answer. The power of the circuit is found using the equation P = VI. Because the voltage is held
constant, we can conclude that PI. The graph for this is a linear relationship with a positive slope, so choice B is the best
answer. Choices A should be eliminated because of the increasing relationship between power and current, which doesn't
match a linearly decreasing graph. It may be tempting to consider choice C, because P = I2R; but with V held constant, R
must decrease with an increase in I. This means that the power has term increasing by a square factor coupled with another
term decreasing in inversely, which once again points to a linear relationship between P and I. Choices C and D should be
eliminated. The best answer is choice B.
222

7.
Dielectric Experiment
Choice Dis the best answer. This question requires using the equation given in the passage. According to the equation the
natural resonance frequency v0 is inversely proportional to the square root of L, the inductance, and the square root of the
sum of the two capacitors. Increasing the variable capacitor by afactor of 4does not increase the sum (Ci +Cn) by afactor
of 4, so the natural resonance frequency is not cut in half. This eliminates choice A. Increasing both Cr and Qi by afactor of
2does increase the sum (Ci +Cn) by afactor of 2, but this will decrease the natural resonance frequency by afactor of V2,
not by afactor of 2. This eliminates choice B. The inductance Lof the coil must be increased by a factor of 4 to reduce the
natural resonance frequency by a factor of 2. Choice Cis thereby eliminated, leaving only choice D. The best answer is
choice D.
Choice Dis the best answer. The most polar substance will exhibit the greatest value for K, the dielectric constant. This is
to say that the molecules of a polar material can align themselves within the electric field between the plates of the capacitor
and in doing so reduce the effective plate charges. This reduces each plate's repulsion to current, which in turn allows more
current to flow, to reestablish the maximum plate charge. The more polar the material, the more the capacitance will change.
This means that the best answer is the most polar substance. Benzene, cyclohexane, and octane are all nonpolar (organic)
compounds, so choices A, B, and C can be eliminated. The best answer is choice D.
Choice Dis the best answer. Choices Band Cshould be eliminated immediately, because two sides of the equation have
inconsistent units (one side is in Fand the other is 1/F). This leaves choices Aand D. The two capacitors (Cj and Cn) are in
parallel, so according to circuit convention, their capacitances are added together. This makes choice D the best answer.
Remember: Ctotal s Q +Cn, in parallel, because it's similar to make a wider capacitor, and wider capacitors (like plates in
general) can store more stuff. The best answer is choice D.
10.
Choice Cis the best answer. Increasing the distance between the charged plates affects the strength ofthe electric field, and
thus, it affects the plate charges that can be developed. This means that the distance between the plates affects the
capacitance. Choice A is eliminated. The whole idea behind the passage is to study the effect of adding a solution to the
space between the two plates of acapacitor, so choice Bcan be eliminated. No matter what voltage source is chosen-battery,
inductance coil, or any other incident current source--the capacitor has a maximum amount of charge that it can store. This
means that the voltage source of the circuit does not affect the capacitance, so choice C is the best answer. Changing the
material of the plates definitely affects the amount of charge that can be stored. For instance, if an insulator is used, then no
charge may be stored on the capacitor. This eliminates choice D. The best answer is choice C.
11.
Choice Bis the best answer. The oil bath and heating coil unit keeps the solution at aconstant temperature. The heating coil
does not affect the homogeneity of the solution, so choice A is eliminated. Because the density of the solution varies with
temperature, the amount of solution that fits between the plates can vary with temperature. In addition, entropy increases
with temperature, so the molecules ofthe solution will not align as well at higher temperatures. These effects will change the
dielectric constant, making choice B the best answer. Heating the circuit adds energy to the circuit, but not in the form of
current. This eliminates choice C. Resistance is observed to increase at higher temperatures. Even if you did not know this,
you should not assume that it would decrease at higher temperatures. Either way, choice D is not the best answer. The best
answer is choice B.
12.
Choice D is the best answer. The current does not flow through a capacitor, meaning choice A can be eliminated.
Capacitors store energy in the form of charge buildup, which is caused by current. The currents generated by the stored
electrical energy are never observed in this experiment. Therefore, the amount of current flow the capacitors can induce
while discharging is irrelevant. This eliminates choice B. The inductance is held constant, because the coil does not change
during the experiment. It is not mentioned how the current from the adjacent circuit (flowing through the other coil of the
transistor) is altered, so choice Cshould be eliminated. The only measurement mentioned in the passage (that is also offered
among the answer choices) is the natural resonance frequency of the circuit. As Cn changes, the value of the natural
resonance frequency of the circuit will change. The change in resonance frequency is observed, recorded, and then converted
into the change in capacitance experienced by Cn. This makes the best answer choice D. The value of Cn can be found as
follows:
C,i =
231V.
-C,
where L and C\ are constant, and v0 is measured. The best answer is choice D.
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Resistor Alignment
Passage III (Questions 13 -18)

13.
Choice C is the best answer. The greatest total current is found in the circuit with the least equivalent resistance.
Equivalent resistance is minimized when the larger resistors (the resistors with greatest resistance) are in parallel and the
smaller resistor (the resistor with the least resistance) is in series. You can use math to verify that this is true in the case of
three resistors with resistances of 1Q, 2Q, and 3& respectively. If the 1Q resistor is in series and the 2Q and 3Q resistors are
in parallel with one another, then the equivalent resistance is 1+(2 V/(2 +3) = l +6/5 =2 f5- If tne 3^ resistor is in
series and the 1Q and 2Q resistors are in parallel with one another, then the equivalent resistance is 3+0 2)/(j +2) =3+
2/~ - 32fy This means that the arrangement with R\ in series, and R2 and R3 in parallel minimizes equivalent resistance,
and thus maximizes current. For maximum current, R) must be at the bottom, which is only true in choice C. Note that
upper left and upper right resistors can be interchanged, and the equivalent resistance will not vary. This means that choices
A and B are the same answer. The best answer is choice C.
14.
Choice C is the best answer. The key values they give us are the circuit's equivalent resistance and the its voltage. From
these values, Ohm's law tells that the current must be V/R, which is 12/4 = 3 amps in this case. From here we can note that I3
is also 3 amps and that Kirchhoffs junction rule tells us that: Itotal = Ii + Pi- If *1 = 2 amps, then I2 must be 1 amp. This tells
us early on that choice C is the best answer.
But let's consider the other choices to be complete. First off, we have determined that h is 1 amp and are given that \\ is 2
amps, so Ii is greater than I2, which eliminates choice D. If 11 is greater than b, then R\ must less than R2 given that they
share the same voltage drop (-IR). This eliminates choice A. The equivalent resistance is found by adding the parallel
resistance to R3, so it is not possible that R3 could be 4 Q if the equivalent resistance is 4 Q. Choice B is also eliminated.
15.
Choice A is the best answer. There is a general rule that states that the equivalent resistance is minimized when the
resistors are placed in parallel. This would make choice A the best answer at initial glance, because in System III, all three
resistors are in parallel. In System II, only two resistors are in parallel, and finally in System I, all of the resistors are in
series. But to solve this thoroughly, it is necessary to identify the different circuits. In System I, the resistors are in series, so
Req = Ri + R2 + R3 = 6Q.
In System II, R\ and R2 are in parallel, so the are summed in the following manner.
1 _ 1 + 1 _ R2
+ Ri
_ Ri +R2 . Ra|-(Ri)(R2)
Rpar Rl R2 (Rl>(R2) (R1MR2) (R1MR2)' ^
R1+R2
To obtain Req for System II, the value of Rpar (for Rj and R2) must be added to R3, which is in series:
Req - Rpar +
R3 =(R'HR2) +r3? which is 32 Q

Rl + R2
In System III, R\, R2, and R3 are all in parallel, so the equivalent resistance is found as follows:
1-1,1,1 _(R2-R3) +(RrR3) +(RrR2) . Req =

R eq
Ri
R2
R3
(R1XR2XR3)
(R1XR2XR3)
= -6_Q.
(R2-R3) + (RiR3) + (RrR2) 11
16.
Choice A is the best answer. When all three resistors are in series, as is the case in System I, the equivalent resistance is
found by summing the individual resistors. No matter how the three resistors are sequenced, the sum is the same. This
means that in System I, the equivalent resistance does not vary with sequence. When all three resistors are in parallel, as is
the case in System III, the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance is found by summing the reciprocals of the individual
resistors. No matter how the three resistors are sequenced, the result is the same. This means that in System III, the
equivalent resistance does not vary with sequence. This leaves only System II, which makes choice A correct by process of
elimination. Because System II has two resistors in parallel and each of those in series with a third resistor, the sequence
impacts the equivalent resistance. The equivalent resistance for the two resistors in parallel is found by taking their product
and dividing that number by their sum. This is the mathematical fallout from the relationship between the reciprocal of the
equivalent resistances and the sum of the reciprocals for the two resistors. The equivalent resistance for the entire circuit is
found by summing the parallel equivalent resistance and the third resistor. All of this bombastic banter simply confirms that
for System II, finding the equivalent resistance is a pain in the butt. . The best answer is choice A.
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17.
Choice Bis the best answer. There are three versions of the equation for the power drained by a resistor in a circuit: P=
IV, P=I2R, and P=V2/R, where Pis power, Vis voltage, Iis current, and Ris the resistance. In this question, we are given
only V and R, so to determine the power, vve should use P = V2/R:
P= V2/Req =2 V)2/(4 ohms) =144U V/ohm =72/2 Watts =36 Watts

18.
Choice Bis the best answer. To determine the equivalent resistance, we should start by determining the parallel equivalent
resistance for R\ and R2 combined. Because there are two resistors are in parallel, it is easy to use the shortcut that the
equivalent resistance (Req) equals the product of the two resistors divided by the sum of the two resistors.
1
Rpar Rl
1_
R2
Rl
_ Rl +R2 '. dRpar

_(Rl)(R2)
R2 (Rl}(R2) (R1MR2) (Rl>(R2)
R 1 + R2
This leads to a parallel equivalent of (1 x 2)/(l + 2) = 2/3 = 0.67 Q. Now to determine the overall equivalent resistance of the
entire circuit, we need to add the parallel equivalent to R3, because they are in series.
Requivalent = Rparallel + R3 = 0-67 + 3 = 3.67 Q

Questions 19 - 22
19.
Choice D is the best answer. When current is passed through a resistor, the resistor heats up. This means that the energy
transfer of the system must involve heat, so choices A and B can be eliminated. Overall, energy is being transferred from the
battery to the resistors. Thus, the best answer is that their electrical energy is being converted to heat energy. The-best
answer is choice D.
20.
Choice D is the best answer. The characteristic time that it takes for a capacitor to discharge through a resistance is called
the time constant of the circuit. The time constant of a discharging capacitor is given by T = RC, where R is the total
resistance of the circuit and C is the capacitance of the circuit. If a third resistor were added in parallel to R\ and R2, then the
resistance of the circuit would change, which would change the time constant of the circuit. Whenever we add a resistor in
parallel, the total resistance of the circuit always decreases. This eliminates choices A and B. Since R decreases, the time
constant must also decrease. What this means physically is that a capacitor discharges faster when there is less resistance in
the circuit. That should seem physically intuitive, given that less resistance would allow the charge to leave the plates faster
and thereby take less time to completely dissipate. The best answer is choice D.
21.
Choice C is the best answer. To measure current flowing through a particular part of a circuit, the ammeter must be
connected in series, so that the current can flow through it. This eliminates choices B and D. In order to facilitate this,
without disrupting the current flow much, the ammeter should have a small internal resistance compared to the circuit of
interest. The best answer is choice C.
22.
Choice A is the best answer. When the resistors are arranged in parallel, then there are two different pathways current may
take from the cathode to the anode. Both pathways must result in the complete drain of voltage, so each parallel pathway
experiences a voltage drop equal to the voltage of the battery. Although a different current will flow through each of the
resistors, they will experience the same voltage drop, which is equal to I x R. Statement I is valid, which eliminates choices
B and D.
When the resistors are wired in series, then the current that passes through one must also pass through the other. There is
only one possible path, so the current is the same through each resistor. This makes Statement II invalid, which doesn't really
help out with our process of elimination pathway.
In parallel, resistors share a common voltage. But because they have unequal resistances, they must have unequal currents. If
we use the fundamental power equation, P = IV, then we see that the resistor with lower resistance, and thus higher current,
will drain the more power. In parallel, smaller resistors drain more power than bigger resistors. In series, resistors have a
common current. If we use the power equation P = I2R, then we see that the resistor with higher resistance will drain more
power than the resistor with lower resistance. In series, larger resistors drain more power than smaller resistors. The power
drain for the two resistors differs when they are wired in series versus when they are wired in parallel, which makes
Statement III invalid. The best answer is choice A.
225
Wheatstone Bridge

23.
Choice D is the best answer. The passage provides us with math to reference if we so choose. If we assume that the
unknown resistor, Rtj in Figure 2, is equivalent to R4 in Figure 1, then we simply need to match the corresponding resistors
in Figure 1 to those in Figure 2. The AZ segment of wire AC equates to R\, the ZC segment of wire AC equates to R3, and
the known resistor, Rknown. equates to R2. Given that R4 is equal to (R2)(R3)/Ri in Figure 1, vve can conclude that Rij in
Figure 2 is equal to (Rknown)(dz-c)/da-z- This makes choice D the best answer. If you prefer, then the math can be solved as
follows.
'lRa-z = Rknown and qRZ-c = '2Ru
dz-c
n(p\vireAC
'lRz-c _
'lRa-z
^wireAC / _
*'2RU
'2Rkr
n(PwireAC)
4-z
^RlJ
'2Rkno\vn
dz-c _
4-z
Rij
- - k:::illa|4*
Rkr
wrwireAC2/
You could have also solved this by inspection. We know that in a wheatstone bridge, the voltage drops through the first
resistor are equal in both pathways and that the voltage drops through the second resistor are equal in both pathways. So, the
ratio of the first voltage drop-to-the-second voltage drop is the same in each pathway. Given that current is constant in each
pathway, we can simplify the relationship to be that the ratio of the second resistor to the first resistor is the same for each
pathway. The ratio of Rij-to-Rk is equal to the ratio of Rz_c-to-Ra-z, which reduces to dz.c-to-da.z. Multiplying each ratio
by Rk results in choice D. The best answer is choice D.
24.
Choice A is the best answer. The resistance of a cylindrical segment of wire depends on the resistivity of the material, p,
the length of the wire, and the cross-sectional area of the wire. In Figure 2, the wheatstone bridge functions by having a
slide-wire capable of moving in such a way that wire AC is broken into two segments, AZ and ZC. The ratio of the
resistancesof the two segments of wire (AZ:ZC) is equal to the ratio of the two resistors (Rknown:Runkno\vn)- If the wire AC
is uniform in terms of material, then the resistivities of the two wire segments are equal. If the wire AC has a uniform
radius, then the cross-sectional areas of the two wire segments are equal. The differences in the resistance between the two
segments of the wire are due exclusively to the differences in their lengths. This makes choice A the best answer and
eliminates choice B. The resistances of the two segments of wire do not need to equal one another, so choice C is eliminated.
The resistances of the two segments of wire do not need to be equal to the resistance of the unknown resistor, especially
since that resistance is an unknown value. Choice D is eliminated. The best answer is choice A.
25.
Choice B is the best answer. There must be a variable resistor amongst the three permanent resistors tooffset the variability
associated with an unknown resistor. If R4 represents the unknown resistor, then the variable resistor can be R\, R2, or R3,
although it is best in the position of R3. This eliminates choice A. R\ does not need to equal R3, because that would mean
that R2 must equal R4 for the galvanometer to read zero. This means choice B is not necessarily true of a functioning
wheatstone bridge. Choice B may be the answer. The galvanometer needs to measure the magnitude of voltage difference
between the two sides so that adjustments to the variable resistor can be made to in turn vary the currents, i\ and *'2. enough
to get the voltage drops through the first resistor of each parallel pathway to equal one another. The sign of the voltage
difference is needed to know whether to increase or decrease the resistance of the variable resistor. The galvanometer should
be able to measure both magnitude and direction, which makes choice C a valid statement. This eliminates choice C. No
matter which direction the current flows, the ratio of the resistances needed to generate a wheatstone bridge circuit with equal
voltage drops in the respective regions of the parallel pathways does not depend on the magnitude of voltage. The circuit
exhibits the same results when the poles of the battery are reversed, so choice D is a valid statement. This eliminates choice
D. The best answer is choice B.
26.
Choice C is the best answer. A galvanometer, as the name implies, measures the voltage (galvanic emf) of a circuit. It
supplies no voltage to the circuit, so choice A is eliminated. In the wheatstone bridge, we need to make sure that the voltage
drops across the first resistor in both of the parallel pathways are equal. If the voltage drops are equal, then the voltage at
Point b is equal to the voltage at Point z. The galvanometer connects points b and z, so it measures the potential difference
between the two points, not the absolute potential at each point. This eliminates choice B and makes choice C the best
answer. The galvanometer is used to ensure that the potential difference between Points b and z is zero. The galvanometer
does not serve as a short circuit (path of zero resistance). Even if it did, such a feature is not needed in the wheatstone
bridge. This eliminates choice D. The best answer is choice C.
226
27.
Choice Bis the best answer. It is not specified in the question, but vve can assume they are asking about the wheatstone
bridge in Figure 2. With Metal I constituting Rk and Metal II constituting Rij, Wire segment AZ is shorter than Wire
segment ZC. This means that the resistance of Rk must be less than the resistance of Rij. Given that the two resistors have
the same dimensions but are made of different metals, the difference in resistance must be due to a difference in resistivity
for the two metals. The metal with lower resistivity will correspond to the resistor of lower resistance. From this, we can
conclude that Metal I must have a lower resistivity than Metal II. From this point we can reason that Metal HI must have a
lower resistivity than Metal I, by virtue of the slide-wire now being closer to Point c than Point a (when Metal II is replaced
by Metal III). This makes choice B the best answer. Even ifyou are uncertain or not reasoning clearly, you should be able
to eliminate choices Aand D, because Metal I must lie in the middle, given its opposite behavior in the two trials. Honing
your process-of-elimination skills is an asset. The best answer is choice B.
28.
Choice D is the bestanswer. If the voltage of the battery were doubled, the current would increase, which in turn would
increase the voltage drop across each resistor. However, the resistance of each resistor would remain unaffected, because
resistance depends on the resistivity and dimensions of the resistor, not the voltage of the battery. This means that the ratios
of the resistances would remain unchanged, and therefore the ratio of the wire segments would not be affected. This
eliminates choices A, B, and C. The best answer is choice D.
29.
Pacemaker Circuit
Choice A is the best answer. The capacitor is initially uncharged. Immediately after the switch is closed to begin the
charging process, the currentbegins to flow. Charge has not yet built up on the capacitor, so there is a maximum amount of
current in the circuit. By Ohm's law, the potential difference across the resistor is given by: AV = IR. If the current is at a
maximum, then the potential difference is at a maximum. Choice B is incorrect: As time goes on, charge builds up on the
capacitor, so there is less current in the circuit. After a long time, there is no current in the circuit. Choice C is incorrect: If
the potential difference is maximal across the capacitor plates, it should be minimal across the resistor, because the voltage
drop across both of them should equal the emf of the battery. Choice D is incorrect: Current flows before charge builds up
completely on the capacitor, so the maximum potential difference across the resistor occurs before the maximum potential
difference across the capacitor. The best answer is choice A.
30.
Choice C is the best answer. The relationship between the charge time and the resistance is given in the passage as T = RC.
The ratio of Rc : Rd will therefore be equivalent to Tc : Td. Using the charging and discharging times in the question
indicates that the best answer is choice C. The best answer is choice C.
31.
Choice A is the best answer. During one complete cycle of the system, the capacitor must start and finish at the same point,
which eliminates choice B. Choice B can also be eliminated because it is linear in nature. Charge on a capacitor builds up on
the capacitor's plates exponentially, indicated in the passage by the repeated appearance in the charge equation of e"1, the
inverse of the natural log e. When a capacitor discharges, the charge drops rapidly at first and then gradually decreases until
it reaches zero. This is expressed in the first half of the graphs in choices A and D. Choice C depicts a slow discharge at first
that increases until an abrupt zero. This eliminates choice C. The capacitor fills rapidly at first and then slows until it reaches
a maximum charge. This is expressed in choice A. Choice D shows the opposite in the second half of the graph. The best
answer is choice A.
32.
Choice A is the best answer. We want the capacitor to discharge much more quickly than the time between these discharge
"heart beats." This would favor choices A and B over C and D. The resistors play a role in this discharge time, as T = RC.
Therefore, the resistance Rd should be relatively small compared to Rc. The best answer is choice A.
33.
Choice C is the best answer. If pulses are triggered 60 times per minute, that means there is one pulse triggered every
second. From the passage, we know that a pulse is triggered each time the charge on the capacitor drops to e"1 of its
maximum value, which corresponds to the time constant. Therefore, the time constant for this circuit is 1 second. The
capacitance provided in the question is extraneous information. The best answer is choice C.
Questions 34 - 37
34.
Choice B is the best answer. The passage states that an example of a parallel circuit is the wiring in apartments. An
apartment is a home (assuming you like your roommates) so a home is "wired up" in parallel. Another way to tell that this is
the best answer is the following: All of the components of a parallel circuit have the same voltage across them. In your home,
all of the outlets have the same voltage. Thus, your house's circuits must be in parallel. If outlets were in series, then every
time someone turned on an appliance, any other appliances that are already operating would experience a drop in power. The
227
35.
Choice D is the best answer. One method of inducing current flow is to apply a voltage difference across a conductor,
creating an electric field across it. Thus, if an electric field is present, current can flow. This makes Statement I and invalid
statement, which eliminates all of the answer choices except choice D. Sometime you get lucky like this. Resistance in the
conductor will tend to slow down the charges, draining energy from the system as the current flows through them. Resistors
do not supply energy to a circuit. In fact, resistors are responsible for taking energy out of a circuit. This makes Statement zll
an invalid statement, which vve already suspected based on our elimination of choices A, B, and C. As has already been
stated, increased resistance in a conductor means more interactions between charges. Because of such interactions (i.e.,
collisions), resistors convert electric potential energy to heat. The amount of current passing through a resistor is unaffected
by the resistor. Only the energy of the current is affected. Statement III is invalid, which again vve suspected. All of the
electrons that leave one terminal must arrive at the other terminal, so vve can conclude that the current leaving the cathode is
equal in magnitude to the current arriving at the anode. This is supports the notion that current is the same for all circuit
elements in series. Statement IV is in fact valid. The best answer is choice D.
36.
Choice A is the best answer. Statement I is valid, because resistors in series sum directly, while resistors in parallel sum as
reciprocals. For instance, three resistors in series have an equivalent resistance of R\ + R2 + R3, while in parallel, the
equivalent resistance is less than each of the individual resistors. This makes Statement I valid. Based on the relationship, V
= IR, as resistance increases, the current must decrease, when the voltage is constant. For resistors in parallel, the voltage
across each resistor is the same, so the resistor with the greater resistance has the lesser current. This makes Statement II
invalid, which eliminates choices B and C. All resistors will heat up when current passes, making Statement III an invalid
statement. The best answer is choice A.
37.
Choice B is the best answer. The voltage drop across R3 is the same voltage drop experienced by all three parallel resistors.
To solve this question, vve can apply Kirchhoff's loop rule. All 12 volts must be lost when charges travels from the cathode
to the anode. Because 8 volts are lost across the series resistor (4A x 2Q = 8V), the parallel resistors must each drop 4 volts.
The voltage drop across R3 is 4 volts. The best answer is choice B.
38.
RC Circuit
Choice A is the bestanswer. Once Switch S\ is closed, the current will flow until the capacitor iscompletely charged. The
charge and voltage on a capacitor are related through Q= VC. Plugging in the numbers from the passage gives:
Q = VC = (2/<F)(10mV) = (2xlO-6)(10x 10"3) = 20x 10"9 = 2x 10"8C
39.
Choice B is the best answer. If both switches are closed simultaneously, assuming the capacitor were initially uncharged,
the circuit would include a capacitor in parallel with two resistors. When the switches are closed, the initial surge of current
will go exclusively to the capacitor (which is the path of least resistance). But over time, the capacitor will build up charge.
When charge builds up on a capacitor, so does the voltage across itremember: Q = VC. This eliminates choices C and D,
which describe the current across the capacitor, not the voltage difference. When the switches are closed, the current through
the resistors starts at 0 and builds up to some maximum value given by V = IR. The best answer is choice B.
40.
Choice C isthe best answer. A long time after both switches are closed, the current will travel exclusively through resistor
Rl, because the capacitor passes no current once it is fully charged. To calculate the current through Rj, vve use Ohm's law,
V = IR. Plugging in the appropriate values, vve get 10 mV = 1(5 mQ), or:
I = iOmV = 2A
5 mQ
41.
Choice D is the best answer. If another resistor were inserted into the circuit before switch Si, then it would be in series
with the capacitor. The change this would produce in the maximum charge that could be stored on the capacitor depends on
the change in voltage across the capacitor. Voltage and charge for a capacitor are related through Q = VC. If the voltage
increases, the charge will increase; and if the voltage decreases, the charge will decrease. Based on that, vve could eliminate
choices B and C. What vve now have to decide is what effect the new resistor has on the voltage across thecapacitor. Without
the new resistor, the voltage across the capacitor is 10mV. With the new resistor in the circuit, some of the 10 mV has to go
on the resistor and some on the capacitor. Since the whole 10 mV is spread across two circuit elements instead of just the
capacitor, vve can conclude the voltage must decrease across the capacitor. The best answer is choice D.
228
42.
Choice Bis the best answer. If asteady current of 1mA passes through resistor Ri for 10 seconds, energy will be given off
in the form of heat. The amount of heat is: Heat =(Power) x (time), so Heat =(I2R) x (time). Substituting values, vve get
Heat =(1 mA)2 (5 mQ) (10 sec). Solve for Heat: Heat =(1 x 10'6) (5 x 10"3) (10) =5x 10"8 J. The best answer is choice
B.
43.
Choice C is the best answer. A discharging capacitor loses current in a characteristic fashion. When a capacitor is
discharging, it is losing charge, so charge as a function of time must decrease. This eliminates answer choices A and D. The
charge on a capacitor decreases exponentially, not linearly, so choice Bcan be eliminated. This can be explained by the fact
that as the capacitor loses charge, there is less repulsion on its plates, resulting in a smaller electromotive force pushing
chargeoff the plates. The only graph showing nonlinear decay is choice C. The best answer is choice C.

44.
Resistance is Futile
Choice B is the best answer. Devices (such as resistors) connected in parallel have the same potential difference. In order to
measure the potential difference between two points in a circuit, the voltmeter must be connected in parallel. (This means
that it does not matter which path the current takes to get from one point to another. It will lose the same amount of potential
along either path.) Since vve do not want the voltmeter to affect the measurement, the voltmeter should have a large internal
resistance. This will allow only a minimum amount of current to flow through the voltmeter-just enough to allow it to
measure the voltage difference. The best answer is choice B.
45.
Choice B is the best answer. In a parallel arrangement, the current that flows through one light bulb is not the current that
flows through the remaining light bulbs. Remember that a parallel arrangement means that all bulbs have the same potential
difference across them. If one bulb burns out, then current can no longer flow through that portion of the circuit; but the
remaining light bulbs are unaffected, because they still have a potential difference across them. Devices wired in parallel are
independent of one another. This favors choice B. Choice A is incorrect: In a series arrangement, the current in the circuit
flows through all of the light bulbs. If one of the bulbs burns out, then current can no longer flow through that bulb or any
other bulb in the circuit. Devices wired in series are dependent on one another. This eliminates choices A, C, and D. The
46.
Choice C is the best answer. The top branch, the middle branch, and the bottom branch of this circuit are connected in
parallel. This means all three branches have the same potential drop across their ends. Closing the switch and allowing
current to flow through R5 does not change this. Closing the switch also does not change the total resistance of the top
branch, the branch associated with all of the answer choices. If the potential drop across the top branch remains the same, and
if the resistance remains the same, then by Ohm's law (AV = IR) the current cannot change. This eliminates choices A and B.
However, something has to change when the switch is closed. By closing the switch, another resistor is added in parallel to
the circuit. This will reduce the overall resistance of the circuit (the effective resistance of resistors connected in parallel is
always less than the individual resistances). That, in turn, will increase the total current drawn from the battery (again, by
Ohm's law). Current now can flow through R5 without affecting the current flowing through any other branch. The best
answer is choice C.
47.
Choice D is the best answer. Although the voltage in the wire may be very high, the voltage is measured with respect to the
ground. The voltage will not vary as quickly along the wire. Thus, when the bird stands on the wire with both feet, every part
of the bird is at approximately the same potential. Current flows only when there is a potential difference between two points.
The bird would be in trouble only if it had one foot on the wire and the other foot on a different wire (at a different potential),
or if it had one foot on the wire and the other foot on the ground. The best answer is choice D.
48.
Choice D is the best answer. When two or more resistors are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance of the circuit is
less than that of any one of those resistors alone. Closing Switch 2 adds another resistor in parallel. The circuit's Req should
therefore decrease. Thus, choices A and B are incorrect. Since R\ and R2 are connected in parallel, then when both switches
are closed, R\ has the same voltage drop across it as when Switch 1 alone is closed. Therefore, choice C is incorrect. Choice
D is the only remaining choice, making it the best answer by the process of elimination. However, vve also know that choice
D is also correct because connecting resistors in parallel reduces the total resistance of the circuit. A circuit with a smaller
resistance has a larger current, which consequently drains more power (P = IV). The best answer is choice D.
229
Questions 49 - 52
49.
Choice C is the best answer. A resistor is anything that drains energy from electrical flow and converts it to some other
form of energy, often light, heat, or work. A filament in a light bulb converts electrical flow into both heat and light, so
choice A is a resistor. The heating coil in a hair dryer converts electrical flow into heat (and occasionally light), so choice B
is a resistor. The magnetic coil of an electric motor converts electrical flow into mechanical work, so choice D is a resistor.
The anode of a Galvanic cell is the starting point for electrical flow, so it does NOT serve as a resistor. The best answer is
choice C.
50.
Choice A is the best answer. All three resistors are in parallel with each other, so they all experience the same voltage drop.
This means that the resistor with the greater resistance will also have lower current. The ratio of the resistances is 2 : 1 : 2, so
the ratio of the currents (I]-to-l2-to-l3) must be 1 : 2 : 1. This eliminates choices C and D. To decide between the remaining
two choices, vve first need to solve for the equivalent resistance. Let's consider the resistors in duos, starting with the R1-R3
pair first. The quickest way is to take the product and divide by the sum, which in this case means (4 x 4)/(4 + 4) = 16/8 = 2.
We can now take that 2 and pair it with R2 to get (2 x 2)/(2 + 2) = 4/4 = 1Q. Because the equivalent resistance is 1Q and the
circuit voltage is 6V, the total current entering the junction is 6 amps. Adding the values listed in choice B for \\, I2, and I3
equals 8 amps, which is incorrect. Choice B is eliminated. In choice A, l\ + I2 + I3 = 6 amps, which is the value vve want.
51.
Choice C is the best answer. Adding a resistor in parallel will decrease the equivalent resistance for the entire circuit.
Assuming the voltage remains the same, the total current will increase, not decrease. Choice A is eliminated. Adding a
resistor in series will increase the equivalent resistance of the circuit, but it will have no effect whatsoever on the total
voltage. Choice B is eliminated. Voltages add in series, so adding a battery in series will increase the total voltage of the
circuit. Given that resistance does not chance, according to V = IR, the total current must increase. Choice C is a valid
statement. Adding a capacitor in parallel will increase the equivalent capacitance of the circuit, but it will have no effect
whatsoever on the total voltage. Choice D is eliminated. The best answer is choice C.
52.
Choice D is the best answer. According to Kirchhoffsjunction rule, the current splits at junctions in such a way where the
total current entering the junction must equal the total current leaving the junction. For the circuit in this question it means
that I] =12 + 15 and 12 = 13 + 14- Because Ii = I2 + I5, Ij must be greaterthan I2, making choice A a true statement. Choice A
is thereby eliminated. Because I2 = I3 + I4,12 must be greater than I3, making choice B a true statement. Choice B is thereby
eliminated. The voltage drop across R3 equals the voltage drop across R4, so given that R4 is greater than R3,14 must be less
than I3. This eliminates choice C and leaves only choice D standing. Without knowing the exact values of R2, R3, R4, and
R5, there is no way to compare the currents through R4 and R5. For instance, if R2 is much larger than R5, then [5 will be
larger than I4 and I3 combined. However, if R5 is much larger than R2, then I5 will be small and could very likely be smaller
than both I3 and I4. Because vve have no way to know for sure, vve can't say that I4 is definitely greater than I5. The best
answer is choice D.
230
Light and Optics

Physics Chapter 10
Object
Lens 1
Lens 2
Image 1 = Object 2
by
the
Berkeley Review
Lightand Optics
Ephoton =h/
v =A
o
nisin6i =n2sin62
dt =Wo Xf)/{do . f)
1 =1 + 1
f
Ephoton =hc/*.
m=himage/hobject =-ty^
Important Concept
With refraction, light bends towards the normal when going from a faster medium to a slower medium
Medium 1
faster and
longer wavelength
As n f: v | and 0 J,
Normal J_ to interface
Faster-to-slower
Medium 1
ni
Medium 2
n2
9A
n2>n!
Medium 2
slower and
shorter wavelength
Image Estimation Trick
Single diverging mirrors and lenses generate SUVs for images (smaller, upright, virtual images)
Single converging mirrors and lenses generate images that vary with the object position and focal length
Converging Mirror Summary
Object Positions
II
III
R
nr
TV
V
UV image:
Object
Object
Image
Image
Position
Distance
Formed
Distance
dD>R
Smaller IR
R>dj>f
Same size IR
dj = R
II
i = -#
ir
III
R>d0>f
Larger IR
ds>R
IR images: i = + #
IV
d0 = f
No image
dj = oo
f>d,
Larger UV
d; = -#
Image Positions
Physics
Light and Optics
Light and Optics

In Chapters 5 and 6, we studied wave related phenomena. In this chapter, we
shall expand our coverage of waves to include electromagnetic radiation, one
example of a transverse wave.
Electromagnetic waves (often abbreviated as EM waves) are electrical and
magnetic disturbances that propagate through space at the speed of light. The
speed of light c is taken to be 2.98 x 108 m/s. There are many types of
electromagnetic waves. Gamma rays, X-rays, microwaves, and radio waves are a
few examples. All of these differ from one another in their wavelength A, and
their frequency /. We can relate the wavelength and frequency of an
electromagnetic wave to the speed of light by equation (10.1).
c = Xxf
(10.1)
The magnetic and electric fields of an electromagnetic wave are both

perpendicular to one another and perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation. In Figure 10-1 we see a diagram of an electromagnetic wave
propagating at the speed of light from left to right. Note the alternations of the
electric and magnetic fields
Vertical plane = Electric wave
Horizontal plane = Magnetic wave
Figure 10-1
We can distinguish different electromagnetic waves by their frequency or

wavelength in the electromagnetic spectrum (Figure 10-2). Low-frequency EM
waves are used primarily for communication. These frequencies range from
about 0 Hz to 109 Hz. AM radio waves are at the lower end of this range, while
FM radio waves and television signals are at the higher end. Microwaves fall
between 109 Hz and 1011 Hz. This type of EM radiation is used in navigation and
communications. The infrared region of the EM spectrum falls between 1011 Hz

and 1014 Hz. This type of radiation is often involved in heating, since H2O
readily absorbs in the infrared. It is also used in remote control units.
Visible light begins at about 4 x 1014 Hz and continues to about 7 x 1014 Hz.
Within this very small range of the electromagnetic spectrum are all the shades
of colors the human eye can see, from red to violet. This defines our visible
spectrum. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation is between 8 x1014 Hz and 1 x1017 Hz. UV

radiation causes your skin to tan after long exposure to sunlight. Extended
periods of UV radiation exposure can also cause cancer. X-rays fall within the
1017 Hz to 1019 Hz region of the EM spectrum. Gamma rays have frequencies

that exceed 1019 Hz. In this section, we want to consider primarily that portion of
the electromagnetic spectrum visible to the human eye.
233
Physics
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X,(m)
101
k(m)
10*"
AM, "
FM,TV
10
10"
10"
10"
10"
10'
10H
10"
10
-9
10"10
10
12
10
20
Visible
10
10
10
/(Hz)
Red
Orange Yellow Green
-13
10
X-rays-
-<
Infrared
10
Gamma rays-
-^-Ultraviolet*"
Microwave-
10"11
-12
Blue
Indigo Violet
750 to
630 to
590 to
560 to
490 to
440 to
630
590
560
490
440
420
/(Hz)
420 to Nanometers
390
Figure 10-2
Example 10.1a
If a charge oscillates in space, it emits electromagnetic radiation. If the charge

oscillates with a fixed period and the wave speed of the emitted radiation
subsequently decreases, then the electromagnetic wave will necessarily have:
I. a lower frequency.
II. a shorter wavelength.
III. a lower energy.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I only
II only
I and III only
II and III only
Solution
When an electromagnetic wave travels through space or some material, its wave
speed relates to its frequency and wavelength through the equation: v = fk. This
rule actually holds for all types ofwaves andistherefore agood equation tokeep
in mind whenever the word "wave" appears in physics problems. A decrease in
the wave speed implies that either the wave frequency or the wavelength (or
both) must decrease. The frequency of an electromagnetic wave is set by the
source ofthewave. Since the oscillating charge hasa fixed period, it musthave a
fixed frequency. Recall that therelation between frequency / and period T is: / =
1/T. We know the frequency is fixed, so Statement I is invalid. If ifs not
frequency that decreased, then it must be the wavelength that decreased.
Therefore,Statement II must be valid, since v = fk. This leaves either choiceB or
D as the best answer.
To make the correct choice, consider that Statement III says that slowing the
wave will necessarily decrease its energy. How a wave's energy changes will
depend upon how it is slowed down. For instance, if the wave decelerates
quickly by hitting a glass surface, some of the light will be transmitted into the
glass and some will reflect from its surface. Since energy is conserved, the
transmitted wave must have less energy. However, if the wave speed is
decreased slowly enough, there will be essentially no reflection; all the energy
willbe transmitted. Therefore, Statement IIIis not necessarily true. This rules out
choice D. You could also have reached this conclusion by knowing that the
energy of a photon depends on its frequency according to E = h/. The energy
does not change with wavelength or speed, as the speed-to-wavelength ratio is a
constant.
234
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Physics
Light and Optics
Example 10.1b
To increase the oscillation frequency of an electron (isolated in a vacuum) that

oscillates because it is stimulated by an electromagnetic wave, one must:
I. decrease the wavelength of the wave.
II. increase the electric field amplitude of the wave.
III. increase the speed of the wave.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. None of the changes will increase the oscillation frequency of the electron.
Solution
The electron is being stimulated by electromagnetic radiation in a vacuum, so we

should start by noting that the speed of EM radiation in a vacuum is constant.
This means that if the frequency of the radiation were to increase, the wavelength
would have to decrease (v = fk). This makes Statement I valid, which eliminates
choices B and D. We need to only consider Statement III at this point. Because the
speed an EM wave in a vacuum is constant, Statement III can have no impact.
Polarization
Figure 10-1 diagrams a set of transverse, sinusoidal waves moving perpendicular

to the direction of a propagating light wave. If we were to consider just the
electric field vectors of that radiation, we would find they radiate outward from
their source in all planes. The magnetic field vectors radiate in a similar manner.
Light like this, random in its orientation, is said to be unpolarized. But if we

were to pass this light through a perfect polarizing filter, the vectors would
radiate in only one plane, because the light wave hasbeen linearly polarized. The
polarizing filter blocks all light perpendicular to the polarizing axis, but it allows
the light aligned with the polarizing axis to pass through (Figure 10-3). The
resulting light that does pass through the filter is called plane polarized light.
Polarization can result from transmission of light through a polarizing filter or
by the interaction with an interface between mediums, where some of lights of

different orientation exhibit different degrees of reflection and refraction.
E waves in natural light have a random
assortment of all possible orientations.
E waves leaving the polarizer

have only one orientation.
Note that the B waves are not
shown here, but they do exist

Figure 10-3
235
FhysiCS
Light and Optics
Note that the electric field vector of the light that has passed through the filter is
parallel to the polarizing axis of the filter. Measuring the intensity of this light in
a photocell would reveal that it has half the intensity of the unfiltered natural
light. To demonstrate why, we could break the electric field vector of
unpolarized electromagnetic radiation into its components, one parallel and one
perpendicular to the axis of polarization. On average, these two components are
equal. But since the polarizing filter allows just the electric field vectors parallel
to its plane to pass through the filter, only half of the unfiltered natural light
passes through.
Example 10.2a
Vertically polarized light is sent through an empty sample cell and then into a
horizontally oriented polarizer. No light gets through the polarizer. The
experiment is repeated, this time with a dilute solution of aqueous D-Glucose in
the cell, and one-quarter ofthe incident lightintensity gets through the polarizer.
What must be TRUE of the solution and the rotation of the polarized light?
(Assume that thesolution transmits all the incidentlight to the polarizer.)
A. Thesolution is optically active and rotates the polarization by 30.
B. Thesolution is optically active and rotates the polarization by 45.
C. D-Glucose is an asymmetric molecule and the solution rotates the
polarization by 60.
D. D-Glucose is an asymmetric molecule and the solution rotates the
polarization by 90.
Solution
We need to think about the optical properties of the solution's molecules and the
polarization rotation. First optically active materials are materials that can alter
the polarization oflight passing through them. This activity usually arises from
an asymmetry in the structure and/or orientation of the molecules that make up
the material. Here, the solution is optically active--the activity arises from the
helical, and therefore, asymmetric structure of the D-Glucose molecules. This
mightbe illuminating, but it doesn'thelp to isolate the best choice, because all of
the choices areoptically active. We must think about thepolarization rotation.
The light that does get through the polarizer isone-quarter as intense as the light
incident upon it. To calculate the amount of linearly polarized light getting
through a polarizer, useequation (10.2), Malus' law:
I=I0cos2 6
(10.2)
where I is the intensity of light getting through the polarizer, when an initial
intensity I0 is incident upon the polarizer. The angle 8 is the angle between the
light's polarization direction and the polarization axis ofthepolarizer. Here,

i=I=cos2 0
Io
Cos 60 = 0.5, so cos2 60 = 0.25, meaning that 6 must be 60 with respect to the
horizontal polarizer. Since the polarizer's polarization axis is horizontally
oriented, the exiting light must be at an angle 30 to the vertical. The solution
must have rotated the polarization of the initially vertical light by 30. This is to
say that the light exitinglight has an orientation closer to vertical than horizontal,
so the angle must be less than 45.
236
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Physics
Light and Optics
Example 10.2b
When unpolarized light reflects offof a specular (mirrored) surface at a glancing

angle with respect to the surface, the light can partially polarize parallel to the
surface. That is, the parallel polarized light is more intense than the
perpendicular polarized light. If this surface is lying on flat ground, in what
orientation should a polarizing anti-glare filter be with respect to the ground, in
order to minimize the total light intensity through the filter? The polarizer's
polarization axis should be oriented at:
A.
B.
C.
D.
0 with respect to the ground.

Solution
This question is a topic unto itself. When light strikes a surface, some of the light
reflects(bounces off if you will) and some refracts (passes into the new medium).
When unpolarized light strikes that surface, certain orientations of the electric
wave are more apt to reflect and other orientations are more apt to refract. The
question states that light with an E wave parallel with the surface is more apt to
reflect than refract. Hence, the reflected light is semi-polarized in a horizontal
fashion. The reflected light is richer in horizontally polarized light than it is in
vertically polarized light. To filter out the reflected light (glare), the polarizing
filter should be a vertical polarizer.
A vertical polarizer is consider to be at a 90 angle with respectto the ground, so

the best answer is choice C. As a side note of interest, driving glasses and pilots
sun glasses are vertically polarized.
237
Physics
Light and Optics

Reflection
When a wave strikes the boundary between two media, we find typically that
some light is reflected, some transmitted, and some absorbed. We want to
consider for the moment the light that is reflected from the boundary.
Suppose a light beam strikes the surface of a mirror (Figure 10-4). The incident
light ray strikes the mirror at some angle 8i with respect to a line perpendicular
to the mirror. The reflected light ray leaves the surface of the mirror at an angle
8r, which is equal to Of. The law of reflection says that the angle an incident light
ray makes with a surface is equal to the angle that the reflected light ray makes
with the surface.
Incident light ray
Reflectedlight ray
Mirror
Figure 10-4
Refraction
Electromagnetic radiation that passes through a vacuum travels at the speed of

light, c. However, in a medium other than a vacuum the velocity of the wave
depends on the medium itself. The index of refraction n is the ratio of the speed
c of an electromagnetic wave in a vacuum to the speed of that wave in a given
medium. This is given by equation (10.3). Note that the index of refraction is
expressed without units.
n _ c_ _ vvacuum
(10.3)
vmedium
The velocity of an electromagnetic wave in a medium other than a vacuum can

never be greater than the speed of light. Therefore, the index of refraction will
never be less than 1. In Table 10-1, we list the indexes of refraction for some
selected materials(usingyellowsodium light).

Index of
Refraction
Medium
Index of
Refraction
Medium
Vacuum
1.00000
Fiber Optic Cable
1.483
Benzene
1.501
Air
1.00029
Carbon Dioxide
1.00045
Light Crown Glass
1.517
Water
1.333
Diamond
2.417
Table 10-1
The source of the light wave will establish the wave's frequency. The frequency
of this waveis not typically altered as it travels through some medium; thespeed
and wavelength of this wave, however, are altered. From equation (10.1), we
know that v = fk. From equation (10.3), we know that v = c/n. If we set these
two expressions equal to one another as shown in equation (10.4), we can see that
as the index of refraction changes, so does its wavelength of light (remember, the
speed of light c is a constant).
(10.4)
**-
238
(10.5)
"2
ki
The Berkeley Review
Physics
Light and Optics
Suppose that a beam of light passes from a medium with an index of refraction
ni (where ni = c/f-ki) to a medium with index of refraction n2 (where n2 =
clf'ki). The wavelength of that light changes according to equation (10.5). Note
that the wavelength of light is shorter in a medium with a greater index of
refraction. Refraction affectsboth the speed and wavelength of light.
Example 10.3a
If an Earthbound scientist reflects a laser beam from a mirror left on the Moon by
astronauts, how long in seconds will it take the beam to make the trip from the
Earth to the Moon and back? Assume that the Earth is approximately 250,000
miles from the lunar surface and that the speed of light is 186,000 miles/second.
A.
t =
B.
C.
t =
186,000
2(250,000)
250,000
2(186,000)
2(186,000)
250,000
D. t =
2(250,000)
186,000
Solution
This is a formula-identification type of problemexcept with the numbers are

already plugged in. You can use units or limiting cases to narrow the choices. You
want units of time, so the choice must be either B or D. Using limiting cases,
what should happen to the travel time, if the travel distance increases? It should
increase, too. This method also isolates choices B or D. Which is better? The laser
beam is making a round trip, so the 2 in the formula has to multiply the distance,
not the rate of speed. The 2 must be in the numerator.
Example 10.3b
Neglecting absorption and scattering, how long does it take for light to traverse 2
m of H2O, which has an index of refraction equal to 1.33?
A.
t =
2(1.33)
3xl08
B.
t =
3xl08
2(1.33)
C.
D.
t_(3xl08)(1.33)
t =
(3xl08)(1.33)
Solution
If you don't recall distance = rate x time, then you can get the relationship from
the units. The time is equal to the distance divided by the rate. The distance is 2
and the rate is (3.0 x108)/1.33. Both2 and 1.33 should be in the numerator.
239
Physics
Light and Optics
Snell's Law
As a light ray moves from a medium like air to a medium like water, it is
refracted. Suppose that the indexes of refraction of the two media are ni and n2,
respectively. The incident light ray has an angle 81 with respect to the normal as
it strikes the water and an angle 82as it passes into the water (Figure 10-5).
Incident light ray
Air (nx)
Water (n2)
5v
!~A Refractedlight ray
Figure 10-5
Therelationship between the index of refraction of eachmediumand theangle of

incidence and the angle of refraction is governed by Snell's law, which is shown
in equation (10.6).
nisin8i = n2sin82
Snell's Law
(10.6)
If n2 > ni, the light ray will bend towards the normal, while if n2 < ni, the light
ray will bend away from the normal.
Example 10.4a
If the index of refraction doubles for a liquid (in which a coin is submerged), the
apparent depth of the coin when viewed from the air above, will:
A.
B.
C.
D.
increase, and it appears at a position shallower than its true depth.

decrease, and it appears at a position shallower than its true depth.
increase, and it appears at a position deeper than its true depth.
decrease, and it appears at a position deeper than its true depth.
Solution
Apparent depth is the depth at which you think an object is submerged; it may
vary from the object's true depth because of refraction. For example, if you look
at a coin in a fountain, you may think the object is higher than it actually is. The
real coin is at the bottom; you may think ifs only a few feet from the surface.
Refracted light ray (bends away from normal)
Air (nair = 1.0003)
Water (nwater = 1.3331)

''~v-- Perceived coin location
Incident light ray (from coin)

Actual coin location
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The Berkeley Review
Physics
Light and Optics
Light coming from the surface ofthe coin bends as it goes from the water into the
air (and into your eyes). Because the index of refraction of water is greater than
that of air, we can deduce that 8air> 6water, and thus light bends away from the
normal. Your brain will think that the coin lies on a direct path from your eye to
thecoin's apparent position (asshown in the diagram above). This apparentlight

path (represented by the dashed line) is, however, higher than the true light
path; you think that the coin is higher than it truly is. Thus, the apparent depthof
a submerged object is less than its true depth. The answer mustbe either A or B.
Now, increasing the refractive index of the liquid medium would only
exaggerate thebending. You would then think the apparentdepth had decreased
(i.e., the coin would appear to be closer to the surface). That rules out choice A
and leaves us with choice B.
Example 10.4b
The material n2 has parallel sides, and is surrounded by media with ni and n3.
Under which conditions will 8 exceed (J>?
A.
B.
C.
D.
ni > n3
n3 > ni
ni > n2
n2 > n3
Solution
Because the two interfaces are parallel to one another, the intermediate medium
(with an index of refraction of n2) does not impact the path of the light ray. The
incident ray (in medium1) and final refracted ray (inmedium 3)will be the same
whether or not the light passes through medium 2. That can be quickly proven
using Snell's law to evaluate the two refractions and then setting them equal to
one another.
nisin 8i = n2sin 82 and n2sin 82 = n3sin 83 .-. nisin 81 = n3sin 83
This means that the value of n2 has nothing to do with either angle in the
question (8 and <J>), so choices C and D can be eliminated. If8 >4>, thenoverall the
final refracted ray has bent towards the normal relative to the incident ray. The
lightray bends towards the normal when it slowsdown,so we can conclude that
the speed of light is slower in medium 3 than medium1. A slowerspeed of light
means that the medium must have a larger index of refraction. This means that
n3 must in fact be larger than ni.
241
Physics
Light and Optics
Total Internal Reflection
A light ray bends away from the normal as it moves from a medium of high
refractive index to a medium of low refractive index. If this refracted light ray
were to keep bending away from the normal as the incident angle increases, it
would eventually reach a refracted angle that is 90 away from the normal. This
incident angle is called the criticalangle 8C.
Suppose a skindiver shined an underwater light toward the surface above, as

shown in Figure 10-6a. If a lightray from the underwater sourcestruck the water
surface at the critical angle, it would be refracted along the surface of the water.
If the light ray were to strike the water surface at an angle to tiie normal that is
less than 80 the refracted ray would pass into theair. But what would happen if
the lightray struck thesurface at an angle largerthan 8C (Figure 10-6b)? It would
be reflected (not refracted) off of the surface of the water. This phenomenon is
called total internal reflection; and we know it must work this way, because
Snell's law tells us thatthesine ofa refracted angle can never be greater than 1.0!
Incident
Incident
light ray
light ray
; Refracted
light ray
Light at crtical angle
Figure 10-6
Example 10.5a
Assume that a light ray is incident on an interface between two media of
different optical densities and that it travels within the optically denser material.
For which two indexes of refraction will its critical angle for total internal
reflection be the SMALLEST?
A.
B.
C.
D.
When the indexes of refraction are 1.00 and 1.33.

Solution
Total internal reflection can occur only when light starts out in an optically
denser medium (i.e., higher n) and then hits an interface with an optically less
dense medium. The critical angle comesfrom Snell's law:
("less "dense")( (sin 8ieSs "dense") = (nmore "dense")( (sin8more "dense")

To get the critical angle, set the anglein the less "dense" (i.e., optically lessdense)
material to 90 (since, thatis the material thelightwill not getinto). This gives:
(niess "dense")( (sin90) = (nmore "dense")( (sin Scntical)
Solving for the criticalangle yields:
sin 8 critical
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The important factor in determining the critical angle is the ratio of the refractive
indexes. Therefore, the choice with the smallest ratio of indexes must be the
correct choice (i.e., will have the smallest critical angle).
L00/l.52 is smaller than im/im, L00/l.33, or L42/i.88The best answer is choice C.
Example 10.5b
Fiber optic cables can transmit light, because light in the cable achieves total
internal reflection as it travels. From which material could the BEST fiber optical
cable be made for use in air, if the best cable is one that would let no light rays
escape into the air, regardless of the degree to which the cable may be bent?
A. An aerogel, with n = 1.05
B. A polymer gel, with n = 1.35
C.
Glass, with n = 1.50
D. A plastic, with n = 1.60

Solution
Before attacking the question, you might have noticed that this is an extreme type
of question. The best material will be one of the extremes, either the material
with the smallest index of refraction or the material with the largest index of
refraction. In order to increase the number of angles of incidence that result in
total internal reflection, we want a critical angle as close to perpendicular to the
surface as possible. A perpendicular incident ray would have an angle of 0 with

respect to the normal, so we are looking for a material with the smallest critical
angle. This can be seen in the diagram below, where we consider the range of
angles that could generate total internal reflection (TIR) for both a large critical
angle and a small critical angle.
nless "dense"
nless "dense"
^
In this region,
incident rays
nmore "dense"
In this region,
incident rays
will result in TIR
will result in TIR
Small critical angle
Large critical angle
Note from the pictures that a small critical angle allows for more potential
incident angles that result in total internal reflection. We can also get this by
math if we relate the critical angle to the index of refraction for a material. In
Example 10.5a we learned that:
nless "dense"
sin Critical
nmore "dense"
This confirms that we are looking for a material with a very large index of
refraction to be in the denominator on the right side of the equation, so that the
sin Scritical can be as small as possible. The best answer is the material with the
greatest index of refraction, which is a plastic with n = 1.60.

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Dispersion
In Figure 10-2 we saw that the visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum
varies from about 750 nm to about 400 nm. Electromagnetic waves of different
wavelengths travel at different speeds through material substances (i.e., anything

other than a vacuum). As we saw in equation (10.5), the index of refraction for a
given material depends on the wavelength of light passing through it In other

words, the amount that light bends at an interface between two materials varies
with the wavelength. This gives rise to an effect known as dispersion. A good
example of a dispersive medium is a prism. If we pass white light through the
prismshown in Figure 10-7, we see that the colors of the visible spectrum refract
according to their wavelengths. [Note that red light is deflected the leastfrom its
original direction of travel, while violetlight is deflected the most]
kf
Red(=750nm)
1 Orange
Yellow
Green
Blue
Violet ( 400 nm)
*/
Shorter k correlates to greaterbending

Figure 10-7
Example 10.6a
Two initially parallel visible lightrays, A and B, are incident upon onesurface of
a prism. Which of the following is true regarding their wavelengths and wave
speeds within the material?
A.
B.
C.
D.
kA>kj}
X,a<^b
Xa>^b
kA<k&
and
and
and
and
va>vb
va>vb
va<vb
va<vb
Solution
When two rays bend differently upon entering a new medium, their indexes of
refraction must be different. The ray that bends more has a higher refractive
index; Ray Ahas the higher n. Now, consider how the wavelengths and speeds
of the light rays are affected within the prism. Because v = c/n, Ray A must
move more slowly than Ray B. This rules out choices A and B. To determine the
relative wavelengths, let'suse the principal waveequation:

v = fk
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In the visible spectrum, light of a higher frequency refracts more than light of a
lower frequency (i.e., n is higher for higher /). Given that va is less than vb, for
frequency to remain constant as a ray changes medium, Xa must be less than k&.
Ray A has a smaller wavelength than Ray B. That is, if / remains constant and v
decreases, then Xmust also decrease (in order for the equation to balance).
Example 10.6b
Polychromatic light refracts through a prism and strikes a screen. Which plot of
intensity versus screen position BEST represents this set-up?
Intensity
X(nm)
Color
10
488
Blue
530
Green
633
Red
B.
A.
Intensity
Intensity
D.
Intensity
Intensity
Solution
This question tests whether or not you know that a shorter wavelength of light
will exhibit greater bending when undergoing refraction. This means that blue
light will bend the most of the three colors used in the experiment Because blue
light has the greatest intensity (according to the data in the table), the lowest
peak on the screen should have the greatest area (be the biggest). This eliminates
choices A and B.
Green light has the lowest intensity of the three colors, so the smallest peak
should be found in the middle of the screen, where green light would strike
having bent an amount somewhere between the extremes of red and blue. This
eliminates choice C.
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Optics
Optics, as we shall study it, is applied geometry. When light emanates from an
object, that light can interact with such optical devices as a mirror (reflective
surface) or a lens (refractive object through which light transmits). Because the
light can be altered by the mirror or lens, there is the chance that it will cast an
image that is altered with respect to the original object. We shall study the
relationship betweenan object, the optical device,and the image it casts.
General Rules
Because we are dealing with positions of objects and images, we will establish
what in essence is a number line where the (+)-side represents the region of space
where a real image can form and the (-)-side represents the region of space
where a virtual image can form. A real image is one that can be projected onto a
screen, while a virtual image cannot be cast onto a surface. We also have rules
that describe the magnification of an image relative to the object These rules will
define the size of the objectand whether the image is upright or inverted with
respect to the object The numerical rules are shown in Table 10-2.
Magnification
Convention
Image
M < 0
Inverted
M>0
IMI >1
Upright
Enlarged
IMI =1
Same size
1M1 < 1
Reduced
Real/Virtual
Convention
Image
i > 0
Real
i < 0
Virtual
Table 10-2
The Lens Maker's Equation

We can relate the focal length of a lens or a spherical mirror with the distance
separating the object and the image from the lens or mirror by equation (10.7),
which is often referred to as the lens maker's equation or the thin lens equation.
1 = 1+1
Thin Lens Equation
(10.7)
S'
When you consider this equation, it is important to keep the signs correctThere
are a few conventions to keep in mind:
1.
Focal Length (f): This value is positive (+) for a converging lens
or mirror and negative (-) for a diverging lens or mirror.
2.
Object Distance (s, p, or o): If the object is to the left of the lens,
this value is positive (+). If the object is to the right of the lens,
this value is negative (-).
3.
Image Distance (s', q, or i): Real images will give a positive (+)
value, while virtual images will give a negative (-)value.
You may have noticed that three different letters can be used to represent the
image distance as well as three different letters representing the object distance.
Because all three are seen in physics, we will interchange them between
examples and questions without any rhyme or reason to our usage. The goal is to
get you used to more than one letter representing image and object.
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Mirrors
A mirror is an optical device that can alter the path of light coming from an
object Mirrors focus light by reflecting it There are three general types of
mirrors. A plane mirror is flat and resembles the one on your bathroom wall. A
concave (converging) mirror has its reflecting surface on the inside of a curve. A
convex mirror (diverging) has its reflecting surface on the outside of a curve.
The location of an image produced by a spherical mirror can be calculated by
using equation (10.7). Both mirrors and thin lenses use the same equation. The
linear magnification produced by a mirror can also be calculated from the
object's height and image height, and we will do in several examples. For now,
however, we'll just say mat the magnification is a ratio of the image height to the
object's height. In Figure 10-7, we see examples of images produced by a plane
mirror, a concave mirror, and a convex mirror.
Plane Mirror
*r
Image
ALWAYS
Upright, Virtual, and Same

size (I = - O)
-*+*-
I
Concave (Converging) Mirror (f = + #)
Convex (Diverging) Mirror (f = - #)
Image
*"* R
ALWAYS
Upright, Virtual, and
Smaller (I<f)
Imagecan vary depending 1^
onobject andfocal length. P f

Figure 10-7
When you look at these examples, note whether the image produce is real or
virtual. For a single plane mirror and single diverging mirror, the images will
always be inverted and virtual. For a converging mirror, we will consider what
type of image would be produced, ifthe object were placed either to the left orto
the right of the focal point Regarding the focal length associated with a spherical
mirror, its size relates to the radius of curvature of the mirror as equation (10.8):
f=K
(10.8)
where R is the radius of a sphere that would be formed if the mirror were a
complete sphere.
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While the images produced by plane mirrors and diverging mirrors are
predictable, the image produced by a converging mirror takes some effort to
determine. We will look at five different scenarios, and then generate a summary
chart that will be our guide when answering questions. Consider the objectat the
following five positions relative to the R and f of a converging mirror.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
Objectbeyond the radius of curvature.

Objectat the radius of curvature.
Object inside the radius of curvature but beyond the focal point
Objectat the focal point
Objectinside the focal point.
Before we start lefs considerthe thin lens equation for an objectthat is exactly 2f
from the mirror. According to equation (10.7), the image should also form at 2f.
This can be manipulated and rewritten as equation (10.9).
I = 2_ = 1_ + _1_ Given that2f= R, we get:

f
2f
2f
2f
t =L +L
f
(10.9)
This is going to provide a useful hint when analyzing image formation

associated with converging mirrors and lenses. Let's start by considering Case I,
where the object is positioned outside the radius of curvature. In order for the
thin lens equation to hold true, if the object is beyond R, then image must form
inside of R. This is to say that if one of the denominators on the right in the
equation (10.9) is greater than R, then the other denominator on the right mustbe
lessthan R. Consider the ray diagramfor Case I shown in Figure10-8.
Case I: Object Beyond the R of a ConvergingMirror
Object
f^-^
#>r
#<r
Real, Inverted, and Smaller Image

0>R
(R>I>f)
Figure 10-8
This will serve well asa short cutin thefuture. For instance, if the question were
to ask about the image formed by a converging mirror with a focal length of 15
cmby an object thatis 45 cmfrom the mirror, then we could do a quick analysis
as follows:
If f = 15 cm, then R = 30 cm. The object is beyond R, so the image will form
betweenf and R, meaning it willbe an invertedand real image foundbetween 15
cm and 30 cm. This may be enough information to nail down the best answer on
a multiple-choice exam. We shall do this for each of the five positions and in the
end realize thatthese questions can be solved withoutinvoking raydiagrams.
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Optics
Consider the ray diagramfor Case II shownin Figure 10-9.

Case II: Object at the R of a Converging Mirror
1=J_
-I
f ~ R+ R
Real, Inverted, and SameSizeImage

0 =R
(I = R)
Figure 10-9
When the object is located at the radius of curvature for a converging spherical
mirror, the image that forms will be an inverted, real image also located at the
radius of curvature. Now lefs consider the ray diagram for Case III shown in
Figure 10-10.
CaseIII: Object Insideof the R, but Beyond the f of a Converging Mirror

R>0>f
1 + l
f
#<R
#>R
Real, Inverted, and Larger Image

Figure 10-10
When the object is located inside the radius of curvature but beyond the focal
length for a converging spherical mirror, the image that forms will be an
inverted, real image located beyond the radius of curvature. Now lefs consider
the ray diagram for Case IV shown in Figure 10-11.
Case IV: Objectat the f of a Converging Mirror
No Image Forms
(I = oo)
Figure 10-11
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When the object is at the focal length for a converging spherical mirror, no
focused image forms, although it can be said that the image forms at infinity.
Now lefs consider the ray diagramfor CaseV shown in Figure 10-12.
CaseV: Object Insideof the f of a Converging Mirror
^n Virtual, Upright,
and Larger Image
Image
Figure 10-12
Now that we've considered all five cases, we can keep a summary in our mind
and apply the information to answer multiple-choice questions quickly. Try to

complete the following two questions in less than fifteen secondseach.
Example 10.7a
What is true of the image formed by a converging mirror with a focal length of 25
cm by an objectthat is 40cm from the mirror?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is an inverted, real image that forms 66.7cm from the mirror.

It is an inverted, real image that forms 33.3 cm from the mirror.
It is an upright, virtual image that forms 33.3cm from the mirror.
It is an upright, virtual image that forms 66.7 cm from the mirror.
Solution
The pertinent facts are (1) a converging mirror and (2) the objectis between f and
R. This makes it a scenario like Case HI, where the image forms beyond the R. If f
= 25 cm, then R = 50 cm, so the image must form beyond 50 cm. ChoicesB and C
are eliminated. Objects beyond the focal length of a converging mirror form
upright, real images, eliminating choiceD.
Example 10.7b
What is true of the image formed by a convex mirror with a focal length of 20 cm
by an object that is 30 cm from the mirror?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is an inverted, real image that forms 60 cm from the mirror.

It is an inverted, real image that forms 12 cm from the mirror.
It is an upright, virtual image that forms 12 cm from the mirror.
It is an upright, virtual image that forms 60 cm from the mirror.
Solution
The pertinent fact is (1) ifs a diverging mirror. For a diverging mirror, the image
is always upright and virtual, forming inside of f. If f = 20 cm, then the image
distance must be less than 20 cm. Choices A and D are eliminated. Objects
reflectedin a diverging mirror form upright, virtual images, ousting choiceB.
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Lenses
Light rays coming from an object can be altered if they pass through a lens. A
lens is an optical device with two curved, non-parallel refracting surfaces. There
are twotypesof lenses to consider: converging and diverging. A converging lens
(convex lens) with smooth surfaces allows parallel light rays to bend toward an
axis that passes through the center of the lens and to converge at a single point
called the focal point f. The focal length for a converging lens is always a positive
value. This is shown in Figure 10-13a. Because light can enter the lens fromboth
its rightand leftsides, the lens has two focal points.
(a)
Converging Lens (f is a + #)
Diverging Lens (f is a - #)
(Also known as a Convex Lens)
(Also known as a Concave Lens)
Figure 10-13
A diverging lens (concave lens) allows parallel light rays to move apart as they
pass through the lens. As shown in Figure 10-13b, the focal lengthof a diverging
lens is a negative value. This is because the diverging light rays appear to leave a
single focal point from the side of the lens that light enters. Like converging
lenses, diverging lenses will also have two focal points.
As light passes through a lens, either a real image or a virtual image can be
formed. The rules for single lenses are the same as they are for single mirrors,
except that the real and virtual sides are flipped and convex and concave are
reversed. As was the case with mirrors, diverging systems generate smaller,
upright, virtual images. Converging systems, be it lenses or mirrors, also share
similar rules. Lefs consider the formation of a real image using a converging
lens. This can only occur if the object is outside of the focal length. An object is
placed a distance s to the left of the lens, as shown in Figure10-14.
Virtual side
Real side
Object
Figure 10-14
Light rays leaving this object travel in all directions, and some of them pass
through the lens. Of all the rays that pass through the lens, we will focus our
attention on just two of them. They pass through the lens to form an inverted
image of the object at distance s' to the right of the lens. Because the light rays
pass through the lens and come together to form an (inverted) image of the
object, that image is called a real image. One property of real images is that only
they can be cast upon a screen, photographic negative, or retina. Thus, lenses in
camerasand eyes have focal lengths that produce real images.
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Now lefs consider the formation of a virtual image using a converging lens. This
is only possible if we place our object between the focal point and the lens, as
shown in Figure 10-15. As tiie lightrayscoming from the object pass through the
lens, they will diverge on the right side. If we follow those diverging rays back
through the lens (dashed lines), we find thatthey intersect at a point Ato the left
of the object Since no light rays from the object intersect at that pointin space,
the image at that point is said to be virtual.
Image
Real side
Virtual side X
Figure 10-15
Magnification
Suppose we wanted to know the height of our image h' relative to the height of
the objecth in Figure 10-14. This is called linear magnification m and is given by
equation (10.10). The linear magnification value is unitless, and the conventions
are listed in Table 10-1. In Figure 10-8, the object with height h is upright
pointing above the axis. The value of h is taken to be positive. The inverted
image with height h' is below the axis. The value of h' is taken to be negative.
h'
(10.10)
Consider s, s', h, and h' in Figure 10-14. We can relate these four variables to one
another using geometry, where the height-to-length ratio (h : s) is the same for
both the object and the image. Both ratios need to have the same sign, so a
negative sign is included. This relationship allows us to use the objectand image
distances to calculate the linear magnificationusing equation (10.11).
m = -
(10.11)
The point of preparing for the MCAT is to be able to answer questions quickly.
As such, lefs develop a plan ofattack for questions dealing with either a single
lens or a singlemirror. Tnefollowing three-stepalgorithm should prove useful.
1.
2.
3.
Identify whether the system is diverging or converging. Keep in

mind that convex lenses and concave mirrors are converging
systems, so you must do some work to determine whether the optic
device is converging or diverging.
If tiie optic device is diverging, then the image will be smaller than
the object, upright, virtual (an SUV), and found between the focal
length on the virtual side and the optic device. If the optic device is
converging, then we need to do a positional analysis to see which
case it fits out of I through V.
Sketch a diagram of the object, optical device, and image. Double
checkusing equation (10.12) (a shortcut version of equation (10.7).
l
oxf
(10.12)
o-f
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Optics
Example 10.8a
Where is an image formed when an object is 20 cm to the left of a concave lens
that has a focal length of 15 cm?
A. It is an upright, virtual image that is found 60 cm to the left of the lens.

B. It is an upright, virtual image that is found 8.7cm to the left of the lens.
C. It is an inverted, real imagethat is found 8.7 cmto the right of the lens.
D. It is an inverted, real imagethat is found 60 cmto the right of the lens.
Solution
Lefs use the three-step method. First off, a concave lens is a diverging system.
Second, because ifs a diverging system, the image will be upright, virtual,
smaller than the object, and found between the focal length on the virtual side
and the optic device. The image distance must be less than 15 cm, eliminating
choices A and D. Because ifs a lens, the objectis on the virtual side, so a virtual
image will form to the left of the lens, eliminating choiceC.
The third step is not necessary here, because only one answer choice remains
standing.Butlefs considershow the step for a sense of completion.
i =
o xf
20 x (-15)
-300
o-f
20-(-15)
35
-300
Object
-60
= = - 8.somethmg
20 cm
Test Tip
Example 10.8b
What is true of the image formed by an object 50 cm from a convex lens that has
a radius of curvature equal to 60 cm?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is an inverted, real image that is found 75 cm from the lens.

It is an inverted, real image that is found 30 cm from the lens.
It is an upright, virtual image that is found 30 cm from the lens.
It is an upright, virtual image that is found 75 cm from the lens.
Solution
Lefs use the three steps listed above. First off, a convex lens is a converging
system. Second, because ifs a converging system, we need to determine which
scenarioit fits. The objectis between R and f, so an inverted, real image will form
beyond R The image distance must be greater than 60 cm, eliminating choices B
and C. Becausetiie image is real, choice D is eliminated.
Object @50 cm
60
cmft_
>60cm
Image
30 cm
o x f
i =
50 x 30
o-f "50-30
30 cm
1500
20
= 75
60 cm
Test Tip
V
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Example 10.9a
An object is moved from within the focal length of a converging lens to a

distance beyond the focal length. During this repositioning, the image of the
object is observed to change from:
A. uprightand virtual toinverted and real.
B. upright and realto inverted and virtual.
C. inverted and virtual to upright and real.
D. inverted and real to upright and virtual.
Solution
Looking at howthelight bends(and theimage forms) in Figures 10-14 and 10-15,

we see that the image will go from upright to inverted. The answer must be
either choice A or B. The image is virtual when the object is inside of the focal
length, but real once the object is beyond the focal length. The object starts inside
the focal lengthand is moved to outside the focal length,so the image goes from
being upright and virtual to inverted and real. This makes choice A correct.
Upright, virtual
Image
Object inside f
Object outside f
J.
Inverted, real
Image
Two ideas for to remember for a single lens or a single mirror, are the following:
Upright images are always Virtual, and Inverted images are always Real. Just
remember UV-IR. This relationship works for any single lens or single mirror
(whether it be convex, concave, or flat).
Example 10.9b
When an object is moved from within tiie focal length of a diverging lens to a
distance beyond the focal length, the image is observed to:
A. change from upright to inverted, and move away from the lens.
B. change from inverted to upright, and move closer to the lens.
C. remain upright and move away from the lens.
D. remain inverted, and move closer to the lens.
Solution
This question is testing you on pure memorization from this section. Because the
virtual rays for a diverging optical device start from virtual focal point, the rays
will always intercept at some point between the surface ofthe optical device and
the focal point on the virtual side. This means that for a single diverging lens or a
single diverging mirror, the image will always be an upright, virtual image that
is smaller than the objectand is found between -f and 0. Keep in mind that for a
diverging lens or mirror, we use the negative focal length. This makes for a nice
short cut. The image will remain upright, so choices A, B,and D are eliminated.
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Example 10.10a
A diverging lens has a focal length of 10 cm. If an 8-cm tall vertical arrow is
placed 25 cm to the left ofthe lens, the resulting image will be approximately:
A. 7 cm to the left of the lens, upright, and reduced.

B. 15cm to the right of the lens, inverted, and reduced.
C. 35 cm to theleftof the lens, upright, and enlarged.

D. 250 cm to therightof the lens, inverted, and enlarged.
Solution
Lefs solve this problem in three ways: using the shortcut first, the picture
method second, and then equation (10.12) last. Because ifs a diverging lens, the
image will be upright and virtual, formed between 0 and -f. Because the focal
length is 10cm, the image must form at some distance less than 10 cm. Only
choice A fits this restriction, so it must be the best answer.
If you opt not to use the shortcut method, then tracing is often fast for problems
of this nature; make a quick picture before doing long math. The two rays to
draw are shown below. One ray goes through the centerof the lens, as it does for
a converging lens. The other is parallel to the optical axis, diverging from the left
focal pointas it passes through the lens. Since the two real rays (on the rightside
of the lens) do not intersect, they must be extrapolated backwards to a common
point-this point locates the image. The image is to the left of the lens, within the
10-cmfocal length, and reduced; this makes choice A the best choice.
Object
25 cm
For the algebra fans, lefs use the modified version of the thin lens equation
(equation (10.12)) to solve this problem without resorting to all of that slow and
painful drawing. Using the sign conventions, the problem asks for i, given o =
+25cm and f = -10 cm. A quick bit of calculation gives:
o xf _ 25 x(-10)
i =
o-f
-250
--=
*
25-(-10)
35
-7-ta,
This again supports choice A. You have three methods, and which you choose
should be both fast and comfortable for you. Just to confirm the fact that the
image is reduced, which occurs whenever the image is closer to the optical
device than the object, lefs apply equation (10.11) and solve for the
magnification. This gives M = +7/25. The image will be 7 cm to the left (i < 0) of
the lens, reduced (M < 1), and upright (M > 0). This is choice A. Although the
math can produce the correct answer, it requires you to know the sign
conventions for thin lenses (a knowledge that can easily slip away under the
pressure of a timed test).
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Example 10.10b
A diverging lens hasa focal length of10 cm. If a 4-cm tall vertical arrow is placed
7 cm to the left of the lens, the resulting image will be approximately:
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 cm to the right of the lens, inverted, and reduced.

4 cm to the left of the lens, upright and reduced.
17 cm to the left of the lens, upright, and enlarged.
70cm to tiie right of the lens,inverted, and enlarged.
Solution
Lefs again solve this problem in three ways: using the shortcut first, the picture
method second, and then equation (10.12) last. Because ifs a diverging lens, the
image will be upright and virtual, formed between 0 and -f. Because the focal
length is 10cm, the image must form at some distance less than 10 cm and onthe
left side of the lens. Only choice B fits this restriction.
We can also use a ray trace.
For those fond of algebra, lefs use the modified version of the thin lens equation
(equation(10.12)) to solve this problem. Using the sign conventions, the problem
asks for i, given o = +7 cm and f = -10 cm. A quick bit of calculation gives:
oxf _7x(-10) __70
i =
o-f
7-(-10)
17
z68 =-4
17
This again supports choice B. Just as we saw with Example 10.1a, you have three
methods, and which you choose should be both fast and comfortable for you.
Just to confirmthe fact the image is reduced, which occurs whenever the image is
closer to the optical device than the object, lefs apply equation (10.11) and solve
for the magnification. ThisgivesM = +4/7. The image will be 4 cm to the left (i <
0) of the lens, reduced (M< 1),and upright (M > 0), which fits only choiceB.
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Optics
Combinations of Lenses
Things get a bit more complicated when there are multiple lenses within an
optical system. The basic rule to multiple lens systems is that the image of the
first optical device is the object of the second optical device and so on for any
additional lenses. Most multiple-lens devices have two lenses total. Depending
on the goals, the optical system can enlarge a small object, reduce a large object,
or make a far away object seem near. Optical instruments like binoculars,
telescopes, and microscopes contain more than just a single lens. Lefs consider a
symmetric two-lens system. In Figure 10-16, we see two converging lenses
separated by a distance d. For simplicity, the two lenses have identical radii of
curvature. The object that we are interested in is at a distance si from Lens 1.
Figure 10-16
By using equation (10.12), we can determine where the image si' will be located.
The first image is shown in Figure 10-17. Note the image is inverted, because the
object is outside of fi.
Object
Figure 10-17
We now let our inverted image be the object for Lens 2 (see Figure 10-17). This
requires that we calculate how far away the new object is from the left side of
Lens 2, by using the relationship S2 = d - si'. The final image can be found by
using equation (10.12) again, where o is replaced by S2 and i is replaced by S2'.
Keep in mind that the test writers are free to use any of the common designations
for image position, focallength, and objectposition.
s2' = S2*f2
s2-f2
If the value of S2' is positive (+), the image is a real (Figure 10-18). If the value of
S2' is negative (-), the image is virtual. Because the first image (and objectof Lens
2) is outside of f2, the final image will be a real image on the right side of Lens 2.
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Optics
Final
Object
Image
Figure 10-18
In this example, we chose a symmetric pair oflenses and placed them in such a
way where their R points were essentially at the same point. When the lenses are
of unequal radii of curvature and the system is not symmetrical, it may prove to
be a bit more challenging to visualize. Math may prove to be the tool of choice
for more complicated systems.
A microscope is an example of an asymmetric system, where the first lens

(referred to as the objective) is placed in such a fashion that the object is close to
or at its focal point This allows the image to be extremely magnified before being
magnified and inverted by the second lens (referred to as the ocular or eyepiece).
The magnifying power of a microscope is a product of the magnifications of both
lenses.
Lens Aberrations
Real lenses can produce aberrations, owing to their shape and composition, so
they do not always cast perfect images of an object. When lenses are not shaped
properly, many types of aberrations can arise. Three common aberrations are
spherical, astigmatic, and chromatic aberrations. Spherical aberrations develop
when a misshapen lens still has cylindrical symmetry with respect to the optical
axis,but has not been properly rounded; the image is clear when viewed through
the center of the lens, but it becomes distorted as one moves the image off of the
optical axis. Astigmatic aberrations appear in a lens whose shape is neither
properly rounded nor cylindrically symmetric. In this case, the image becomes
blurred and distorted, regardless of the objecfs orientation. The two
aforementioned aberrations can happen with any type of light passing through
the lens, even monochromatic light Chromatic aberrations occur because of
differences in wavelengths for different colors of light. Recall that in a prism,
light refracts differently depending upon its wavelength. Since the focal point
depends upon refraction through the lens, light of different colors refracts to
different focal points. This is true for most lenses and can be seen if you look
carefully at a projected image-it will have a rainbow halo around it (i.e., not
every wavelength oflight has focused coherently at the viewingscreen).
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Interference
If you've seen the spectrum of colors in a soap bubble, a stack of microscope

slides, or an oil slick, you've seen examples of interference. The green, for
example, will show brightly only in certain regions of the microscope slide. The
green regions are regions of constructive interference for green light; where
green is not seen, the green interference is destructive. The same goes for every
other color you see. These everyday interference patterns are seemingly random.
In laboratory experiments, the interference is carefully controlled; but it still
arises for the same reasons. When two or more waves overlap in phase (e.g., crest
overlaps crest, trough overlaps trough), the interference is constructive. The
regions of constructive interference are often referred to as intensity maxima.
When the waves are completely out of phase (sometimes referred to as "180 out
of phase"), the interference is destructive. The regions of destructive interference
are often referred to as intensity minima. All other types of overlap will produce
interference somewhere between these two extremes. Any wave can interfere
with another wave; but in order for the interference to be most noticeable, a few
requirements must usually be met by the interfering waves:
The waves must be monochromaticthey must be of one and the same

frequency.
The waves must be reasonably coherent-they must retain their periodic

shape, without breaks in their phase.
The waves must have the same polarizationwaves of different polarization
can never completely cancel out, since they oscillate along different axes.
These requirements are determined in Young's double-slit experiment. His

experiment involved light, but we can see the same qualitative results using
water waves. Imagine two slits separated by a distance d, from which water
ripples emanate (Figure 10-19). The wave crests (black semi-circles) radiate up
and hit a screen. Because any overlapping waves can interfere, the resulting
waves at the screen are constructively larger when two crests overlap (or two
troughs overlap). This constructive interference is noted by bright spots on the
screen and by peaks on an intensity-versus-position plot (adjacent to the screen).
Where troughs and crests overlap, dark (zero-intensity) waves result.
screen
Figure 10-19
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The amplitude of these peaks typically depends upon the intensity of the waves,
whereas the spacing depends upon other quantities. For example, what should
happen to the peaks if the wavelength increases, but all else remains fixed?
Looking at Figure 10-20, the spacing should increase (remember, the same
interference rules apply, regardless of k, d, or L). What should happen if we
increase d, while keeping all other variables fixed? Figure 10-21 shows that the
spacing should decrease. As a quick self-quiz, sketch out what should happen if
L is decreased, while holding k and d constant. You should find that the spacing
decreases if L decreases. This direct proportionality between L and the maxima
spacing occurs because the interference pattern has more distance over which to
spread, if the screen is farther from the two slits.
screen
Figure 10-20
ii >^
screen
Figure 10-21
If we call the space between two adjacent maxima y (as in Figure 10-21), the
relation between y and the other experimental variables is expressed as:
y = VL
(10.13)
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This tells you about the interference pattern, once it occurs; but how do you
know whether a passage is asking you about interference? Look for any or all of
these features:
waves overlapping in space-regardless of their type, but typically light,

sound, or water.
interference-related words-"minima," "maxima," "bright regions," "dark

regions," "constructive," or "destructive."
For example, if you shine monochromatic laser light onto a thin film of oil as it
floats on water, you see light and dark patterns. This must be an interference
effect; and because it involves a thin film of material, it is called thin-film
interference. It is this type of light interference that you see in bubbles and
microscope slides. So how do the thickness of the film and its optical properties
factor in? Let's answer this by asking what it takes to create constructive
interference.
Shine laser light on the oil film in Figure 10-22a. Upon hitting the oil, the light
will partially reflect and partially refract (note that this is a general behavior of
any wave mat hits an interface between two media). The refracted ray will
partially reflect off of the oil-water interface and subsequently return to the air. If
this returning wave and the initially reflected wave are in phase, then a bright
(constructive) spot results. If they are completely out of phase, then a dark spot
results. Whether the waves are in or out of phase depends upon the path-length
difference fi between the two waves (i.e., the extra distance one wave has to
travel with respect to the other wave). Here, the refracted and subsequently
reflected ray is the ray that travels farther. In this case, 6 should be:
5 = 2d = N(X/n)
(10.14)
where the 2d comes from the fact that one wave must travel down and back up
through the oil (note that the laser wave is drawn at an angle only for the sake of
clarity). The index of refraction n (of the thin film) accounts for the shorter
wavelength of light within the oil than in air. The variable N is an integer, which
means that some whole number of wavelengths must fit into this path-length
difference, if the two waves are to be in phase upon traveling back up into the
air.
(b)
(a)
oil n = 1.25
3^#Sî
cRa v&j.i&: a .1-- ~l' .tiy^y
Figure 10-22
This relation does not hold for all examples of thin-film interference. A subtle
complication can arise that depends upon the refractive indexes of the materials
above and below the thin film. Referring to Figure 10-22b, suppose that a watery
soap film (of the same thickness as the oil) is surrounded completely by air and is
hit with the same light that hit the oil. In this case, the light would interfere
destructively. Why?
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The effective path-length must be somehow different in this case-specifically, it

must be half a light wavelength different, so that the two interfering waves are
180 out of phase. Why does this happen? It turns out that when a wave reflects
from an optically denser medium, its phase flips 180 (i.e., a crest turns into a
trough). In the case of the oil film on water, the phase flips for both the wave
that reflects off of the air-oil interface and the wave that reflects off of the oil-
water interface.In both cases, the light bounces off of a material whose refractive
index n is higher than that of the material through which the wave moves. For
the oil film on water, the phases of both waves flip; the effect cancels, and the
waves interfere constructively. For the soap film, only one of the two reflecting
waves flips its phase. This single flip effectively adds half a wavelength to the
path-lengthdifference (note that 180 of phase is akin to a half- wavelength shift)
and results in destructive interference. Keep in mind that the constructive and
destructive interference occur in these two problems because of a specific
combination of the film thickness, light wavelength, and the refractive indexes.
Generally, light incident normally upon a thin film reflects constructively, if:
d=^nthin mm>+ * ^n^ mm>(* of flips)
(10.15)
(i.e., if the effective path-length difference is an integral number of wavelengths).

Identifying a thin-film problem is the same as identifying any interference
problem, with the additional requirement that there be some thin film. Thin-film
interference has industrial applications. Thin plastic coatings are often sprayed
onto camera lenses to create an anti-reflective lens. No light reflecting means
more light in through the lens. The wavelength selected to have the least
reflection (e.g., yellow-green, as it is in the middle of the visible spectrum),
determines the thickness of the anti-reflective coating of the lens. This coating
actsas the thin film, creating destructive interference of that specific wavelength.
Thin-filminterference is used to size small objects (e.g., objects whose diameters
are only a few microns across). If a hair is sandwiched between two microscope
slides, there will be a thin, wedge-shaped film of air between the slides (as in
Example 10.12b). Laser light shining on this film interferes constructively or
destructively, as the thickness of the film varies across the slides. The distance
between the constructive interference zones allows us to find the size of the hair.
Example 10.11a
Which of the following changes to a Young's double-slit experiment will spread

the interference pattern maxima the LEAST?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Decreasing the slit separationby a factor of 4.

Increasing the distance betweenthe slits and viewing screenby a factor of4.
Increasing the wavelength of the light by a factor of 4.
All changeswill spread the maximaby the same amount.
Solution
According to equation (10.13), the distance between adjacent maxima is directly

proportional to both the wavelength of light, k, and the distance between the
screen and the slits, L. It is inversely proportional to the distance between the
slits, d. Decreasing the slit separationby a factor of 4 will increase the separation
distance by a factor of 4. Increasing the distance between the slits and viewing
screen by a factor of 4 will increase the separation distance by a factor of 4.
Increasing the wavelength of the lightby a factor of 4 will increase the separation
distance by a factor of 4. All of the changes result in an increase in the distance
between maxima by a factor of 4, so all of the changes are equal.
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Example 10.11b
When laser light is sent through two slits, a periodic pattern of constructive and
destructive spots appears on a distant viewing screen. Suppose the two slits are
now replaced with a diffraction grating (essentially several slits), as shown in
the diagram below. If the same total light intensity is used in both the double- slit
and the diffraction grating experiments, then the bright spots of the interference
pattern in the diffraction grating experiment will be:
screen
ii
izzi c=] cz] rzzi czi nzn ezd izzi rzz] czi tzzi czi izzi nn ir
A. more intense and spaced together more closely than in the double-slit
experiment.
B. more intense and spaced farther apart than in the double-slit experiment.
C. less intense and spaced together more closely than in the double-slit
experiment.
D. less intense and spaced farther apart than in the double-slit experiment.
Solution
The image may not be drawn to scale, so simply comparing this image with that
of Figure 10-19 will not answer the question; we need to consider the effects on
the intensity and maxima spacing more generally. Without going into depth, we
know that a fixed amount of light should reach the screen, so if the number of
spotsdecreases, the intensity of each remaining spot should increase. This makes
choices C and D highly unlikely answers. The maxima appear at the screen when
light from all the slits are constructively interfering. In Young's experiment, there
are only two slits whose light must interfere constructively. The maxima,
therefore, appear periodically across the screen, whenever the path-length
difference between the two light rays is equal to some integral number of
wavelengths. With a diffraction grating, the constructive spots will, again,
appear when the light rays from all slits are interfering as constructively as they
can. Since the light rays emanating from several slits must now interfere in
phase, the likelihood of a maximum is much smaller than it is in the double-slit

experiment. Therefore, the spacing between maxima must be larger with the
diffraction grating; this rules out choices A and C.
The diffraction grating maxima will also be much narrower than the double-slit
maxima. Regarding the intensity, we know that a bright spot at the screen must
occur because several light paths are constructively interfering. Since "several" is
a bigger number than two (as in the double-slit experiment) and because the
maxima are now much narrower, the maxima intensity must be greater for the
diffraction grating experiment.
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Example 10.12a
A thin hair is placed between two microscope slides (n = 1.5), as shown. When
laser light is shined down onto the slides, periodic intensity maxima are seen to
span the slides. Which of the following changes will decrease the distance
between the maxima?
IBII^x
top view
hair
side view
I. Decrease the wavelength of the laser light.

II. Fill the air gap between the slides with carbon disulfide (n = 1.6).
III. Move the hair to the left, while keeping the slides in contact with each other
at their left edges.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I only
I and m only
Hand III only
Ill only
Solution
A shorter wavelength will decrease the distance between adjacent maxima. This
is shown in equations (10.13) and (10.14). This makes Statement I valid. Filling
the gap with carbon disulfide, as opposed to air, would lead to a smaller
difference between the index of refraction of the medium and that of the glass. A
smaller difference in n values results in less bending of light, so the light would
need to travel farther to get the same maxima as it got when air filled the gaps.
This would spread the bright spots, thereby increasing the distance between
adjacent maxima. Statement II is invalid. For Statement III, it is perhaps best to
visualize what happens when the hair is moved to either the left or right. If the
hair moves to the left, then the glass slides grow farther apart. If the hair moves
to the right, then the glassslidesgrow closertogether.Taken to an extreme, if the
two slides touch one another, then all of the bright spots are gone (pushed offof
the plate if you will). Opening the gap creates the spots and closing the gap
eliminates the spots, so widening the gap must bring adjacent maxima closer
together. This makes Statement III a valid statement.
Example 10.12b
A thin layer of plastic (n = 1.46) coats the surface of a glassplate (n = 1.52). When
monochromatic light is shined normally onto the plastic from the air above,
constructive interference occurs. Destructive interference will occur when the
coated glass is immersed in which of the following liquids?

I.
Water (n = 1.33)
II. Carbon tetrachloride (n = 1.46)

III. Benzene (n = 1.50)
A.
B.
C.
D.
I only
I and III only
Hand III only
nionly
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Solution
The system involves light traveling from air (n = 1) to plastic (n = 1.46) to glass (n
= 1.52). Since only the medium above the plastic changes (and not the thickness
of the plastic itself)/ a change from constructive to destructive interference must
relate to phase flips. Phase flips of the light occur when the light bounces off of a
medium whose refractive index exceeds that of the medium through which the
light passes. In the original constructive set-up, light bounces off of an air-plastic
interface and a plastic-glass interface. For both reflections, the refractive index of
the reflecting medium is greater than that of the medium through which the light
passes. For both reflections, the phase of the light will flip by 180. To get
destructive interference, we would need to change the experiment such that one
of these two phase flips does not occur. If this is achieved, the single-phase flip
would lead to destructive (i.e., 180 out-of-phase) interference between the two
final rays. Since the plastic-glass interface is fixed (no choice allows us to change
it), we must get rid of the phase flip at the air-plastic interface. To do so, we
select a liquid whose refractive index is greater than that of the reflecting plastic
(greater than n = 1.46). Benzene is the only liquid with this property, making
choice D correct. As an aside, notice that water will not change the constructive
interference, because it is less optically dense than the plastic (i.e., a phase flip
will occur at the water-plastic interface). Carbon tetrachloride will lead to only
one reflection, at the plastic glass interface. There will be no reflection at the
carbon tetracnloride-plastic interface, because they have the same refractive
index (i.e., there will be no optical interface for the purposes of reflection and
refraction); this phenomenon is known as index matching, and it is useful in
applications where a limited number ofreflections and refractions are desired.
Diffraction
Light passing through the slits and gratings that we have been discussing
spreads out as it makes its way to the screen. You don't see this spreading,
however, when you view light passing through your window. The light strikes
the floor, making a pattern of the window. So, when and why does a wave
spread? Light waves, orany type ofwave, always bend and distort when passing
through an opening or around an object. This distortion is known as diffraction.
Diffraction is most noticeable in everyday life when watching water waves pass
by some obstacle. In Figures 10-23a and Figures 10-23b, two different waves
(viewed from above) passthrough thesame opening. When the opening is much
larger than the wavelength, the wave doesn't distort much; when the opening is
smaller than the wavelength or is of comparable size, the wave spreads out
noticeably.
(a)
*| Intensity
I Intensity
Figure 10-23
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The general relation is this: Diffraction is more significant when the wavelength
is smaller than or comparable to the opening the wave crosses; diffraction is less
significant (or negligible) when the wavelength is much smaller than the
opening. This applies to all waves. So why do the light waves entering your
room through the window not spread much? Their wavelength is much smaller
than the window. Why do sound waves spread so effectively when entering
through that same window? The wavelength of the typical sound wave is on the
order of a meter-close to the size of the window. In Young's experiment, the
wavelengthwas close to that of the slit widths. This is why the light spread after
passing through the slits.
The light does more than simply spread-it also gives rise to interference
patterns. Since there is no other wave with which it can diffract, you could say
that diffraction is a form of "self-interference." The patterns at the screens result
from the water waves in Figure 10-23a and Figure 10-23b. The pattern is
represented by a plot of intensity vs. position on the screen. Notice that there is a
relatively bright (i.e., high intensity) central maximum, and some much smaller
maxima to its sides. These result from self-interference. Notice also that when the
wave spreads more, so does the resulting diffraction pattern. Diffraction patterns
still occur in the absence of significant spreading-they are just much harder to
see, due to the relatively weak intensities of the side maxima.
How does the width of this central maximum relate to the wavelength of the
wave and to the distance separating the slit and screen? As this is an interference
effect, the width should relate to these parameters in the same way as tiie
maxima separation y related to them in equation (10-13). For instance, an
increased wavelength would increase the diffractive spreading, and therefore

increase the width of the diffraction pattern at the screen. Likewise, moving the
screen away from the slits would increase the width of the diffraction pattern,
because thediffracted wave has more distance overwhich tospread out.
Example 10.13a
In a diffraction experiment, light diffracts through a single slit and onto a

viewing screen. The central diffraction maximum is LEASTnoticeable when:
A. the monochromaticity ofthe light is increased.

B. using only one wavelength of light.
C. increasing the coherence of the light.
D. using full spectrum light.
Solution
Whenever you've seen examples of light diffraction (presumably insome physics

lab), you probably used a laser to generate the light. Laser light shining through
a small opening forms definite diffraction patterns; such patterns are not seen
when incandescent light is sent through the same slit. Laser light is fairly
monochromatic (i.e., of one wavelength) and coherent. With these facts in mind,
choices A through C are not good choices. Only choice D, which is close to the
type of light an incandescent bulb emits, would make diffraction less noticeable.
Remember, diffraction is an interference effect ("self-interference," if you will).

Therefore, anything that makes interference more pronounced (e.g.,
monochromatic, coherent light of one polarization) would make diffraction more

pronounced. You could have ruled out choices A and B immediately, because
they say the same thing.
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25 Light and Optics Review Questions
I.
II.
III.
Screen and Lens
Prism Dispersion
(1-7)
(8 -14)
Interference
(15 - 21)
(22 - 25)
^^
3.
What is the magnitude of the magnification for the

object and image in Figure 1?
Students in a physics laboratory conduct a simple

experiment with a converging lens. An object is placed at a
distance d to the left of the lens. Its focused image is
projected onto a screen to the right of the lens. For this
particularexperiment, the image formed at a distance of 2d to
the right of the lens, as depicted in Figure 1:
Thin lens
A. I
2
B.
C. V2
D.
Screen
4.
Suppose that the object in Figure 1 were moved to the

left, and that d > f throughout the moving process. To
keep the image on the screen, the screen would have to
be:
A. moved towards the lens.
B. moved away from the lens.

C. left in the same position.
D. moved away from the lens only if the object is
Figure 1
moved infinitely far from the lens.
For lenses and mirrors, the image distance and object

distance arerelated by the thin-lens equation:
5.
L + L = L,
i
Ifthe lens has a focal length of d/2, how far away from
the lens should we place the screen?
length. All distances are measured from the center of the
A. d/2
B. 2d/3
lens.
C.
D.
2d
where i = image distance, o = object distance, and f = focal
1.
Whatis the focal length of the lens in Figure 1?

A. d
2
6.
B. ^
3
C.
D.
2d
Suppose that the converging lens were replaced with a

diverging lens of focal length -2d. The image would
then be:
A. real, and located 21tothe leftof the lens.

3
B. real, and located 21to the right of the lens.

2.
Which graph BEST represents l/0 versus ty for
C. virtual, and located 2110 the right ofthe lens.
converging lens?
A.
D. virtual, and located 21 to theleftof the lens.
B.
7.
Suppose that the lens in Figure 1 had a focal length d.

How far to the left of the lens should the object be
placed to get an unmagnified, real image?
A.
4d
B.
2d
C.
D. d
2
268
9.
What is true of monochromatic lightand the amount by

which it is refracted by a prism?
When white light passes through a prism, light rays of

each color are refracted (bent) by different amounts to
produce different angles of deviation. Red light is refracted
the least by a prism. The refraction process through a prism
A.
B.
C.
D.
is demonstrated in Figure 1.
Red
The greater its frequency, the less it is refracted.

The longer its wavelength, the more it is refracted.
The shorter its wavelength, the more it is refracted.
The greater its energy, the less it is refracted.
10. Which kind of light will bend the MOST when passing
Orange
through these prisms?
Yellow
Green
Blue
Violet
A.
B.
C.
D.
Green light passing through dense flint.

Violet light passing through crown glass.
Red light passing through ice.
Blue light passing through quartz.
11. As a prism is rotated to increase the incident angle of

Figure 1
light striking its surface, what is observed?
A. The colors disperse less, but they stay separate.

B. The colors disperse less, and they recombine to
This dispersion of light is seen in various solids. The

refractive index determines the amount of spreading. As the
refractive index increases, the degree of refracting increases.
The refractive indexes for six different wavelengths of light
become white light.
C. The colors disperse more, and they stay separate.

D. The colors disperse more, and they recombine to
in six different solids are shown in Table 1.

Material
(0C)
Violet
Blue
Green
410 nm 470 nm 530 nm
Yellow
Orange
become white light.
Red
590 nm 610 nm 670 nm
Crown glass
1.538
1.531
1.526
1.523
1.522
1.520
Light flint
1.604
1.596
1.591
1.588
1.587
1.585
Dense flint
1.698
1.684
1.674
1.667
1.665
1.662
Quartz
1.557
1.55 1
1.547
1.544
1.543
1.542
Diamond
2.458
2.444
2.426
2.417
2.415
2.410
Ice
1.317
1.314
1.311
1.309
1.308
1.306
12. Two identically shaped prisms are juxtaposed as shown

below. Violet light exits the system above red light,
because the average index of refraction of Prism II is:
White
violet
Table 1
In a vacuum,
all light waves-regardless of their
frequencies-travel at the same speed of 2.98 x 108 m/s.

A. less than Prism I; light is dispersed more in Prism I.
Through a medium, however, light travels at a slower rate

than through a vacuum, and different frequencies travel at
different rates of speed. These differences in speed are not
substantial in air, so rays of colored light essentially travel
together as white light in air.
8.
13.
The first sign of sunlight on the horizon at sunrise is

white light, not colored light. How can this be
explained?
less than Prism I; light is dispersed less in Prism I.

more than Prism I; light is dispersed more in Prism I.
D.
more than Prism I; light is dispersed less in Prism I.
Which of the following kinds of light will travel at the

GREATEST speed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. The different colors of light travel through the air

at very different rates of speed.
B. The different colors of light all travel through the
air at roughly the same rate of speed.
C. The different colors of light travel through the
vacuum of space at different rates of speed.
D. The different colors of light leave the Sun at
different times, but their rates of speed change
enough in Earth's atmosphere so that all colors
arrive at our eyes at the same time.
Copyrightby The Berkeley Review15
B.
C.
14.
What is true of different colors of light in a medium?

A.
B.
C.
D.
269
Violet light passing through air

Blue light passing through water
Yellow light passing through a vacuum
Orange light passing through kerosene
As
As
As
As
frequency increases, the energy decreases.

wavelength increases, the energy increases.
speed decreases, the wavelength decreases.
frequency increases, the wavelength decreases.

The fact that light has wave characteristics can be
demonstrated using a double-slit apparatus. Monochromatic
light passes through two narrow slits that are close together
and falls on a screen, forming a series of bright and dark
bands (fringes). A schematic of a double-slit apparatus is
shown in Figure 1:
relative
intensity
at screen
Figure 2
Here, we can predict the location of the dark fringes by

using:
m k = a sin 0
where a is the width of the single slit, and 0 is the angular

locationof the m* minimum.
Interference effects arealso seen in the reflection of light

Figure 1
by thin films. Light is reflected from the front and back

surfaces of the film. The light reflected off of the back
Light rays (e.g., Rays 1 and 2) passing through each slit

generally travel different distances to reach the same point on
the viewing screen. Because path-length differences yield
phase differences (between the two lightrays striking a point
surface of the film has a longer path to travel than the light
reflected off of the front of the film. Again, this path-length
difference leads to phase differences, depending on the
thickness of the film, the angle at which the light falls on the
film, and also the refractive properties of the space
on the screen), various degrees of constructive or destructive
surrounding the film.
interference arise. These constructive and destructive regions

are the brightand darkfringes, respectively. The criterion for
constructive interference is that the path-length difference
must equal a multiple of the wavelength of theincident light.
15.
A typical double-slit is actually two single slits placed

near one another. The equations describing the location
of the bright and dark fringes that result from two-slit
Quantitatively, this is written as:
interference do not take into account the diffractive
effects of each single slit. This is because we assume
m k = d sin 0
that:
where 6 is the angular location of the mm maximum, m is
A. single slit effects are masked by the double-slit
sometimes called the order, mX is thepath-length difference.

For destructive interference, the path-length difference must
equal a multiple of halfthe wavelength of the incident light.
pattern.
B. d is much greater than k.

C. d + a is comparable to k.
D. a is comparable to or smaller than k.
Thus:
(m +1) k = d sin 6
2
A diffraction grating consists of several slits, but it works
16. Certain colors observed in natural materials are

produced by thin-film interference, while most are the
essentially in the same way as two slits do. The gratings,

however, produce fewer bright spots for a given incident
light intensity than a double-slit set-up does. Each bright
fringe also subtends a smaller angular range than its doubleslit counterpart The formula for determining the primary
result of absorption. Differentiating one effectfrom the

other can be done MOSTeasily by:
A. observing the light exiting the sample from

different angles with respect to the material's
brightfringes in a diffraction grating is:
surface.
B. observing the light exiting the sample through a

prism, set at a fixed angle with respect to the
m k = d sin 9
where 0 is the angular location of the mm maximum, m is
material's surface.
sometimes called the order, mX is thepath-length difference.

For destructive interference, the path-length difference must
equal a multiple of halfthe wavelength of the incident light.
C. observing the light exiting the sample through a

polarizer, set at a fixed angle with respect to the
Thus:
D. The two effects are alwaysindistinguishable.
material's surface.
270
17. If we compare the bright fringes produced by a doubleslit apparatus and a diffraction grating, we find that the
fringes produced by:
Questions 22 through 25 are NOT basedon a descriptive

passage.
A. both experiments have similar intensity and similar
22. Total internal reflection could occur when a light wave
width.
traveling through:
B. the double-slit apparatus have a greater intensity;

the fringes for both have a similar width.
C. the diffraction grating have a greater intensity; the
fringes for the diffraction grating are narrower.
D. the diffraction grating have a greater intensity; the
fringes for the double-slit apparatus are narrower.
I.
a vacuum encounters an air interface.
II. air encounters a glass interface.
III. glass encounters a plastic interface.

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C.
18.
If the double-slit apparatus is placed under water and

the same light is used, the bright fringes will:
D.
None of the conditions listed above will lead to

total internal reflection.
A. now be closer together.

B. now be farther apart.
C.
I, II, and III
23.
remain at the same locations.
D. become dark fringes.
What happens to parallel light rays coming from the

left, and then traveling through a diverging lens?
A. They are directed through the focal point to the left
of the lens.
19.
B. They bend away from the center of the lens,

appearing to have come from the focal point to the
Soap bubbles change colors when observed over time.

This is MOST likely due to:
A.
left of the lens.
refraction.
C. They bend towards the center of the lens, traveling

through the focal point to the right of the lens.
D. They bend away from the center of the lens,
appearing to have come from the focal point to the
right of the lens.
B. evaporation.
C. dispersion.
D. selective absorption.
20.
A diffraction grating with 8000 lines/cm is illuminated

with white light What is the spectrum of the HIGHEST
24.
order (i.e., maximum value of m) that includes any
A. sin 0critical = n-/nmaterial

B. Sin 0critical = "material/^
portion of the visible spectrum?
21.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which of the following equations can be used to

determine the critical angle?
* /sin Ocntical ~
D.
25.
The effects of passing monochromatic light through a

single-slit apparatus are fundamentally different from
the effects of passing monochromatic light through a
double-slit apparatus. This statement is:
Wave diffraction would be MOST pronounced when

sending:
A. 500-nm light waves through a one-meter hole.

B. 500-nm light waves through a one-centimeter hole.
C. 5-mm ultrasonic waves through a one-meter hole.
D. 5-mm ultrasonic waves through a one-centimeter
A. true; light from two slits can interfere with itself,

whereas light from a single slit has no other wave
to interfere with it.
B.
C.
D.
hole.
false; both effects are fundamentally the same,

true, but only as long as we use monochromatic
light. It is false, if we use light of several
frequencies.
true, but only as long as we do not consider a
double-slit apparatus as an apparatus with two
single slits.
1.
7.
11. C
12.
17.
16. A
271
2. A
6. D
21.
'"material
Sin critical = (nair)(nmaterial)
22. D
3. D
4. A
5. C
10. A
14. D
15. D
18. A
19.
20.
23.
24. A
13. C
9.
25. D
YOU ARE DONE.
Answers to 25-Question Light and Optics Review

Passage I
(Questions 1-7)
Screen and Lens
Choice B is the best answer. The quickest way to get the focal length of the lens is to use the thin lens equation given in the
passage. Since the clear image is on the screen, the image distance is the same as the screen distance.
>
1 +1 = 1
1_ + 1 = 1
of
=>
_3_ = 1
2ddf
=*
f = 2d
2df
You may also have noted that in order for the image to project onto the screen, it must be a real image. With a convex
(converging) lens, the object must be outside of the focal length in order to create a real image, so choices C and D are not
possible. The best answer is choice B.
Choice A is the best answer. The choices are linear or possibly exponential, with either an increasing or decreasing
relationship. As an object gets closer to the lens, the image gets farther away from the lens, so the graph should express a
decreasing relationship. This eliminates choices B and D. The thin-lens equation is:
1 + 1 =1
i
Rearranging gives:
1=.1+1
This has the form y=mx + b, with y=-1, x=1, m=-1, and b=1. So the graph of 1 versus 1 is a straight line with a
i
negative slope. The best answer is choice A.
3.
Choice Dis the bestanswer. Themagnification for lenses and mirrors is given by:
M = - 2d = .2
M = î- = --L
Since the magnitude ofthe magnification was asked for, all we have to do is take the absolute value ofM. Thus, we get M=
2. The best answer is choice D.
Choice A is the best answer. As the object moves farther away from the converging lens, the image gets closer to the focal
point of the lens. As alimiting case, ifthe object were to be moved infinitely far from the lens, the image would be exactly at
a focal point. This means that the image will move closer to the lens as the object moves away from the lens; we must
therefore move the screen to the left (i.e., closer to the lens). The best answer is choice A.
Choice C is the best answer. Using the thin-lens equation:

1 +1 = 1
1 +2 = 1
1 = -1 + 1 =
i = d
6.
Choice Dis the best answer. The fastest way to the solution is to use the thin-lens equation:
1 +1 = 1
1 = -1 + 1 = -l.J_ = -J_
of
2d
= -2d
2d
The negative sign on i means the image is virtual. For lenses, a virtual image is always on the same side of the lens as the
object This means that the imageis virtual and to the leftof the lens. The best answer is choice D.
7.
Choice Bis the best answer. We want the magnification equal to -1 instead of+1, because a real image in this case would
be inverted.
M = -i-
1 = -J-
Plugging into the thin-lensequation gives:

1 + 1 = 11
1 +1 = 1
2=1
o
o =
2d
272

8.
Prism Dispersion
Choice B is the best answer. Choice A should be eliminated, because if the light rays of different colors in sunlight traveled
at drastically different speeds, then the fastest constituent color of light would be the first to appear. Choice C should be
eliminated, because all light rays travel at the same speed through a vacuum (2.98 x 10^ m/s). Choice D should be
eliminated, because rays of white light (comprising all colors) leave the Sun at the same time. Choice D is downright loony!
Choice B is the best answer, because after the different colors of light enter the atmosphere, they travel to the surface of the
Earth at roughly the same speed, allowing the arrival of all of the colors to appear to be simultaneous. The best answer is
choice B.
9.
Choice C is the best answer. Figure 1 shows that violet light is refracted by the greatest amount for light in the visible range
of the EM spectrum. The data in Table 1 confirm that violet light has the largest index of refraction in all six media, so violet
light is refracted by the greatest amount in all six media. Violet light has the highest frequency, shortest wavelength, and
greatest energy of any color of visible light. This means that greater frequency results in greater refraction, eliminating
choice A. The shorter the wavelength of visible light, the more it is refracted, which eliminates choice B and makes choice C
the best answer. The greater the energy of light, the greater its frequency, and the more it is refracted, so choice D is
eliminated. The best answer is choice C.
10.
Choice A is the best answer. The greatest degree of bending will be experienced by the light-and-medium combination
possessing the greatest index of refraction. This can be read directly from Table 1. Green light passing through dense flint
has an index of refraction of 1.674. Violet light passing through crown glass has an index of refraction of 1.538. Red light
passing through ice has an index of refraction of 1.306. Blue light passing through quartz has an index of refraction of 1.551.
The greatest index of refraction among the choices given is green light passing through dense flint. The best answer is
choice A.
11.
Choice C is the best answer. As the incident angle increases, the amount of refraction at the first interface increasesremember: a bigger incident angle correlates to a bigger refracted angle. This increases the spread of the various light rays as
they pass through the prism and also increases the refracted angles at the second interface in the prism; dispersion is even
greater. If the beams are dispersed more, they probably will not come back together at any point in space. The best answer is
choice C.
12.
Choice D is the best answer. The light must be tracked step by step to grasp what is occurring in the double-prism system.
White light passing through the first prism is refracted so that violet light exits at the greatest angle, making it the lowest
beam as it leaves the first prism. Passing through the second prism, violet light is again refracted to the greatest degree, but
now it is refracted in the opposite direction (up rather than down, because the angle of the interface is different than the first
interface). The degree of refraction must greater in Prism II than in Prism I, to explain why the violet light crossed over the
red light, and exited above the red light, as shown in the picture. That means Prism II must have a greater index of refraction
than Prism I, causing light to be more dispersed in Prism II than in Prism I. This makes choice D the best answer. Note that
the incident angle is close to the exiting angle, meaning that despite the difference in dispersion in the two prisms, the
deviation of each prism is approximately the same and the plane through which the light first enters into Prism I is parallel to
the plane through which the light exits from Prism II. The best answer is choice D.
13.
14.
Choice C is the best answer. All light in a vacuum has the same speed, regardless of color (wavelength). In addition, light
travels more slowly in a medium than in a vacuum. This means that the greatest speed is experienced by the light in a
vacuum, making choice C the best answer.The fact that the light is yellow is irrelevant in this question. Where the color does
become important is when we compare light rays passing through thesame medium. In that case, the light ray with the longer
wavelength travels faster. The best answer is choice C.
Choice D is the best answer. The energy, wavelength, and frequency of light are related according to the following
equation:
E = h/ = h^-,
k
where E is energy, h is Planck's constant, / is frequency, c is speed, and k is wavelength. According to the equation, as
frequency increases, the energy of the light increases, eliminating choice A. As wavelength increases, the energy of the light
decreases, eliminating choice B.
There is no distinct relationship between speed and wavelength. Within a vacuum, all light has the same speed, regardless of
its wavelength. While this does not eliminate choice C beyond doubt, it does not mandate our selection of it as the best
answer, either. As frequency increases, the wavelength of the light decreases. The best answer is choice D.
Copyright by The Berkeley Review,
273
Passage HI (Questions 15 - 21)
Interference
15. Choice D is the best answer. Diffraction effects do exist for each of the two single slits-that is why the light spreads out
from each slit in the first place. Such effects are more noticeable when the slit size is smaller than the wavelength of the
incident light (although diffraction is still observed when the slit size is comparable to the wavelength). Requirements relating
to the slit separation d are irrelevant, because if the aforementioned requirement is not met, then there can be no light
spreading and, therefore, no interference between light from the two slits. This eliminates choices B and C. The best answer
is choice D.
16.
Choice A is the best answer. As mentioned in the passage, the path difference is dependent on the angle at which the light
strikes and exits the film. Observing the exiting light from different angles, with respect to the material's surface, would
change this path difference. This is basically saying that as the angle changes, the distance is different, because the diagonal
pathway traversed changes. This, in turn, changes which wavelengths of light constructively interfere with each other (i.e., it
changes the observed colors). Choice B is incorrect, because the prism refracts only light exiting the sample; it does not
change the color of this light. Choice C is incorrect: A polarizer polarizes only the exiting light, and it does not change its
color. The intensity of the light may drop, which will impact the color's brightness, but it will nonetheless be the same colorof
light. The best answer is choice A.
17.
Choice C is the best answer. As mentioned in the passage, fewer bright spots are seen when using a diffraction grating than
when using the double slit-apparatus, for the same intensity ofincident light. Since the same incident intensity makes up the
bright spots in both cases, the bright spots must be brighter for the diffraction grating-after all, there are fewer spots having
the same total energy as the many more spots in the double-slit setup. This rules out choices Aand B. To see why choice Cis
correct, recall that the passage states that the diffraction grating spots subtend a smaller angle than those of the double-slits.
This means that diffraction grating spots are narrower than those produced by a double-slit setup. This happens because a
bright spot occurs when light rays from all the slits are constructively interfering at that region of the screen. Since diffraction
gratings have many more than two slits, constructive interference is less likely to occur. A bright spot would not be spread
over much of the screen, because any spreading quickly reduces the chance that all slits are interfering constructively. The
double-slit apparatus requires only that two slits interfere constructively; this relaxed requirement also relaxes the narrowness
of the bright fringes. The best answer is choice C.
18.
Choice A is the best answer. When the double-slit setup is placed under water, the wavelength ofthe light is reduced. This is
because water has a higher index of refraction than air, so light travels more slowly in water than it travels in air. If the wave
speed of the light is reduced, then the wavelength is also reduced. The frequency of the light remains the same, because the
frequency is determined by the source. The spacing of the bright fringes is determined by the wavelength, according to:
m k = d sin0.
According to the relationship, as the wavelength gets smaller, 0also gets smaller, so the bright fringes will be spaced closer
together. This makes choice Athe best answer of the four choices. Choice Dis incorrect: Although the bright and dark fringes
shift, they do not necessarily shift in such a way as to replace the bright fringes (observed when the experiment is done in air)
with dark fringes (observed when it is done under water). Choice Cshould have been eliminated immediately, because adding
the experiment to water changes the wavelength of the light, so some change in the interference pattern will be observed. The
19.
Choice Bis the best answer. Constructive interference is based on a path difference traveled by the two waves (the wave that
reflects off of the front of the soap film and the wave that reflects off of the back of the soap film). As the soap film evaporates
over time, the thickness of the soap film changes (perhaps getting thicker or getting thinner). This change in soap film
thickness in turn changes the path difference for the two waves, so as the soap film evaporates, different colors will be the
ones that are adding constructively. Choices Aand Care incorrect, because choice Cis saying essentially the same thing as
choice A, a refractive effect-it occurs when the index of refraction for a material varies with the wavelength of light. When
two answer choices are fundamentally the same from a physical point of view, those two choices are usually both wrong, and
thus should both be eliminated. This can prove useful when speeding through questions or when you aren't quite certainwhat
a question is asking, but you recognize that two answer choices are saying essentially the same thing. Choice D is incorrect,
because the wavelengths of light that are selectively absorbed by amaterial (assuming absorption is significant) depend upon
the molecular makeup of the material. Since this makeup does not change much with time, the colors absorbed should not
change much with time. The best answer is choice B.
274
20.
Choice C is the best answer. To solve for the largest m that includes any portion of the visible spectrum, we must use the
equation given in the passage: mk = d sin8. Upon manipulating the equation to isolate the m, we arrive at the following
relationship:
m _ dsinO
where d = 1/8000 lines/cm. The wavelength of visible light ranges from roughly 400 nm to roughly 700 nm. Since we want
the largest m, we choose the smallest wavelength and the largest sin 0~these numbers are 400 and 1, respectively. Solving
form:
[(1/8000) x 1Q'Z m/linel

400 x 10"9 m
10'
10'
100
8000 x 400
32 x 105
32
The value of m has to be an integer, so we must approximate the answer as 3, because it is the closest of the choices to
100/32. The best answer is choice C.
21.
Choice B is the best answer. Although we speak of single-slit effects and double-slit effects, both effects are the result of
wave superposition-constructive and destructive interference. This means that the effects of passing monochromatic light
through a single-slit are not fundamentally different from passing monochromatic light through a double-slit. Choice A is
incorrect: Light from a single slit interferes with itself. Choice C is incorrect: Light with several frequencies will still display
interference effects, although we may not always be able to see them as sharply. Choice D is incorrect: A double-slit is two
single slits. It is possible to speak of single-slit and double-slit effects in the same experiment; for certain experimental
conditions, it is possible to see single-slit diffraction patterns within the double-slit interference pattern. This will occur when
the slit width and the wavelength of monochromatic light are chosen in such way where fringe interference occurs at
different points than the bright spots of the double-slit interference. The best answer is choice B.
Questions 22 - 25
22.
Choice D is the best answer. Total internal reflection can occur only when a wave is moving from a region with a higher
index of refraction to one with a lower index of refraction, because the ray will bend away from the normal. This occurs
when light is traveling from a slower medium into a faster medium (as we see when light travels from water into air). None
of the Options I, II, or III corresponds to a situation where light is traveling from a slower medium to a faster medium. Light
is faster in a vacuum than it is in air, light is faster in air than in glass, and light is faster in glass than plastic. Unnerving as it
might be to choose, the best answer is none of the above, choice D. Although "none of the above" is rarely an answer choice,
if it does happen to be a choice on your actual MCAT, treat it as just another answer and squelch any bias or preconceived
notions you may have about choosing such an answer. The best answer is choice D.
23.
Choice B is the best answer. First off, a converging lens focuses parallel light rays that pass through it toward the focal
point of the lens. This is how the lenses in cameras, microscopes, and reading glasses work. However, light rays coming
toward and then passing through a diverging lens diverge away from the center of the lens. This fact immediately eliminates
choice C. This is something you should have committed to memory as both a informational fact as well as a mental
visualization. Choice A is also obviously incorrect, because if light rays were coming in parallel to each other, why would
they all bend and go through the first focal point before ever even coming into contact with the lens? If they haven't yet
interacted with the lens, then they would not undergo any sort of bending due to the lens. That leaves us with choices B and
D. The only difference between the two is that in choice B the light rays appear to have come from the first focal point, and
in choice D, they appear to have come from the secondfocal point. Imaginea ray diagram for a typical diverging lens: If the
rays appearto come from the second focal point, then they would have to be refracted by more than ninety degrees. Since we
know that this is physically impossible, the light rays must appear to come from the first focal point This is why we extend
our dashed line in ray diagrams back to the first focal point, using the straight lines associated with the diverging rays leaving
the lens. The best answer is choice B.
24.
Choice A is the best answer. When dealing with a critical angle, vve are considering a refracted angle of 90. If you look at
the answer choices, you'll notice that this question requires that you manipulate Snell's law for a refracted angle of 90.
Because sin 90 is 1, the sine 90 term drops out of the calculation, leaving just n on that side of Snell's relationship. The
result is that the sine of the critical angle equals the ratio of the medium with the lower index of refraction to the medium
with the higher index of refraction. The math is as follows:
nmateriaisin 8criticai =n^-sin 90 .-. sin 8criticai =nair/nmaterialsin 90 = nair/nmatcriai

275
25.
Choice D is the best answer. Wave diffraction is most pronounced when the wavelength of thewaves passing through a slit
are comparable to the diameter of the slit Of the answerchoices, 5 millimeters is relatively close to 1 centimeter(it is half as
large), so that is the scenario with the greatest observed amount of diffraction. The best answer is choice D.
276
52-Question Light and Optics Practice Exam
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
VI.
VII.
Critical Angle Experiment
(1-6)
Minors
(7-12)
Telescopes
(13 -17)
(18 - 21)
Functioning of the Eye
(22 - 27)
Different Lenses
(28 - 32)
(33 - 36)
Thin Films
(37 - 42)
Double Lens
(43 - 48)
(49 - 52)
Light and Optics Exam Scoring Scale

Raw Score
MCAT Score
42-52
13-15
34-41
10-12
24-33
7-9
17-23
4-6
1-16
1-3
3.
To be useful in the experiment, the material must be all

of the following EXCEPT:
To study the refractive properties of a series of materials,

light of 589 nm (from a yellow sodium lamp) was used. The
light was transmitted through a half-cylinder disk of the
material at gradually increasing incident angles until no light
A.
B.
C.
D.
left the material from the flat surface to the air. For light that
transparent to visible light.

of uniform composition.
at a uniform temperature.
absorbing of light at 589 nm.
transmitted from flat face of the half-disk to the air, the beam
was allowed to strike a semi-circular screen. For each of the
light rays that left the middle of the flat face of the half-disk,
the point of highest intensity against the screen was recorded.
The path of the light was traced back to determine the
4.
incident and refracted angles. Figure 1 shows the apparatus.
Which of the following explanations supports the

notion that monochromatic light is essential for the
experiment to work?
I. Monochromatic light avoids complications caused

by diffraction.
II. Monochromatic light avoids complications caused
Incident ray
by dispersion.
of589nm,<
III. Monochromatic light avoids complications caused

Point a
by reflection.
A. I only
B. II only
Half-disk
of Material
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
Screen
Figure 1.Apparatus for the Refraction Experiment using a

Half-disk of Material and Light from a 589 nm Laser
Air has an index of refraction of 1.003, which vve
assume to be 1 for the purposes of this experiment. The
students measured the threshold angle for six solid materials.
Polystyrene
42.2
Crown Glass 41.1
Rock Salt
40.4
Flint Glass
38.1
Zirconia
31.3
Rutile
22.4
5.
Light that initiates from point a in Figure 1:

A. will always strike the middle of the screen.
B. does not leave the half-cylinder disk.

C. splits to strike the screen at multiple points.
D. slows when leaving the disk and entering air.
The index of refraction, n, can be calculated from the
critical angle associated each solid using Snell's Law:

6.
"material'Sin 0critical = najr-sin 90

1.
What is the refracted angle for yellow light passing

from air into a rectangular block of flint glass with an
A. The critical angle would be smaller in water than
air; the angle of refraction would be greater in
incident angle of 60?

A.
B.
32.1
C.
38.1'
D.
If this experiment were carried out in water instead of

air, what would be expected?
water than air.
B. The critical angle would be smaller in water than

air; the angle of refraction would be smaller in
water than air.
C. The critical angle would be greater in water than

air; the angle of refraction would be greater in
90
water than air.
2.
D. The critical angle would be greater in water than
For four lenses of identical dimensions, which material

would generate the focal point closest to the lens?
air; the angle of refraction would be smaller in

water than air.
A. Polystyrene
B.
Rock salt
C.
Rutile
D.
Zirconia
278
9.
If an object is placed in front of a concave mirror at a

distance from its surface that is three times the mirror's
A mirroris a device that focuses light rays by reflecting

them to a point Mirrors can be planar (such as the mirror that
focal length, the image will be:
A. 2.f from the mirror, in front of it
hangs in a bathroom) or spherical (such as the front and back

of a metallic spoon). Images in planar mirrors are always the
B. ^- f from the mirror, in back of it.
same size as the object whose light they reflect. Spherical

mirrors can be either convex or concave, depending on the
curvature of the mirror. A convex spherical mirror is also
known as a diverging mirror. Light rays striking the surface
C. 4-ffrom the mirror, infront of it.

3
D. 4-ffrom the mirror, in back of it.

3
of a diverging mirror are reflected away from its axis. These

light rays never actually meet, but they appear to meet A
concave spherical mirror is also known as a converging
mirror. Light rays striking the surface of a converging mirror
are reflected toward its axis, so the rays actually do meet.
Images in spherical mirrors may be enlarged or reduced as
well as inverted or upright
10. The focal length of a spherical mirror depends on:
The object distance (s), image distance (s'), and focal

length (f) of a spherical mirror are governed by the thin lens
equation:
7.
the radius of curvature of the mirror.
B.
the index of refraction of the mirror.
C. the density of the reflective material.

D. the compressibility of the reflective material.
I - I +l
f
A.
s'
Using a plane mirror that is 1 meter tall would prevent

which standing person from seeing approximately their
entire body length?
A. A person standing 1 m from the mirror whose
height is 2 meters.
B. A person standing 2 m from the mirror whose
height is 1 meter.
11. For parallel rays of white light incident on a spherical

mirror, the light's color components have focal lengths
that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
C. A person standing 4 m from the mirror whose

height is 0.5 meters.
D. A person standing 0.5 m from the mirror whose

height is 4 meters.
are independent of the component frequency.

increase as the component frequency increases.
decrease as the component frequency increases.
increase as the component frequency increases, for
concave mirrors only; convex mirrors would yield
the inverse relationship between focal length and
frequency.
8.
What do spherically convex and plane mirrors have in

common?
I. Both mirrors form only virtual images of an object.
12.
II. Both mirrors can form images of an object that are

smaller than the object.
III. Both mirrors form images of an object that are
closer to the mirror than the object.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I only
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
When a lens and a mirror are immersed in water, we
find that the focal length of the lens:
279
A.
and mirror both increase.
B.
decreases, while the mirror remains the same.
C.
increases, while the mirror remains the same.
D.
and mirror both remain the same.
14. What must be true of the relative sizes of refracting and

reflecting telescopes?

A telescope allows one to view large objects that are far
away. Refractive telescopes function by having the objective
form a reduced real image (I) of the object while the
eyepiece forms a virtual, enlarged image of the object. The
objects astronomers observe through refracting telescopes are
at such great distances that the first image, I, is very nearly at
a focal point of the objective. The final image, I', is formed at
infinity, when the first image is at a focal point of the
eyepiece. The length of the telescope, defined as the distance
between the objective and the eyepiece, is the sum of the
focal lengths of the objective and the eyepiece, f\ + /2Objective
A. Refracting telescopes are larger, because the

objective must be small.
B. Reflecting telescopes are larger, because the

concave mirror must be small.
C. Refracting telescopes are larger, because the

objective must be large.
D. Reflecting telescopes are larger, because the

concave mirror must be large.
Eyepiece
15. The focal point of the ocular (eyepiece) in a refracting

telescope is:
A. at the position of the image I of the objective.

B. at the position of the objective.
C. necessarily exactly between the objective and
ocular.
D. necessarily farther from the ocular than the

objective.
Figure 1
The magnitude of the telescope's angular magnification,

M, is equal to the ratio of the focal length of the objective to
the focal length of the eyepiece. The calculation of M is
16.
shown below:
M=
When comparing the focal lengths of the two lenses in a

refracting telescope to the telescope's length, we find
that:
A.
where 8 = - y'/fl and 8 = y'//2. After substituting for 8 and
B.
0':
C.
*/ h
y'/r,
7i
bothfocal lengthsare shorter than the telescope,

bothfocal lengthsare longer than the telescope,
the objective's focal length is longer than the
telescope; the ocular's focal length is shorter than
the telescope.
f\
D.
'*
In reflecting telescopes, the other broad category of

telescopes,a large concave mirror replaces the comparatively
smaller objective of the refracting telescope. The mirror
reflects the image to a smaller plane mirror, which reflects
the image to the eyepiece. There are three types of focus used
in reflecting telescopes: prime focus, Newtonian focus, and
Cassegrainian focus. In telescopes with prime focus, there is
no second plane mirror, and the eyepiece actually sits in the
path of the light. The eyepiece is arranged differently with
17.
the objective's focal length is shorter than the

telescope; the ocular's focal length is longer than
the telescope.
Replacing the concave mirror in a Newtonian reflecting

telescope with a plane mirror would limit the
functionality of the telescope, because:
A. starlight would no longer be magnified.
respect to the mirrors.
B.
13. What is NOT an advantage of a Newtonian reflecting
C. the new mirror could form only virtual images.
telescope over a refracting telescope?

A.
no light from the new mirror could reflect onto the

secondary plane mirror.
D. a star's image would be half as far from the new
Mirrors are free of chromatic aberrations.
mirror as the new mirror is from the star itself.
B. Spherical aberrations are easier to correct.
C. The shape of the objective is not as variable as a

concave mirror.
D. The second mirror blocks incident light.
280
21.
A. increase the focal length of the lens relative to air.

B. decrease the focal length of the lens relative to air.
passage.
18.
Placing a glass lens in oil will:
C. have no effect on the focal length; the focal length
In any compound lens, the image of the first lens will

serve as the object of the second lens. Which of the
following statements) is/are TRUE regarding the
image created by the first lens?
is a property of the lens material.
D. increase the focal length because the wavelength of

the light is increased.
I. The orientation of a virtual image can be upright

with respect to the object
II. A real object will always form a real image.
III. Light must travel through the first lens and form
the image before it travels through the second lens.
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and HI only
D.
19.
I, II, and III
Where will the image form when an object is placed 15

cm to the left of a concave mirror that has a focal length
of 12 cm?
20.
A.
18 cm to the left of the mirror
B.
C.
D.
6.67 cm to the right of the mirror
In the absence of an atmosphere, the color of the sky

would be:
A.
blue.
B.
black.
C.
white.
D.
red.
281
24.

The human eye is an excellent example of how physics
principles may be applied to biology. The human eye acts as
a camera, taking light from an object and focusing it to make
an image. Like a camera lens, the focal length or power of
the lens of the eye is determined in part by the radii of
curvature of the lens. A typical human eye is spherical in
shape, approximately 2 cm long. The focusing mechanism of
the eye is the cornea-lens system.
When the ciliary muscles of the eye contract, which of

the following statements are true?
I. The eye assumes a more rounded shape.
II. The eye assumes a less rounded shape.
III. The focal length of the eye decreases.
IV. The focal length of the eye increases.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Light enters the eye through a fairly inflexible
I and III only

II and IV only
I and IV only
I, III, and IV only
membrane called the cornea. The cornea has a small radius
of curvature and the highest index of refraction of all of the

transparent constituents of the eye. The cornea covers a
transparent bulge on the eye. The amount of light that
actually enters the eye is regulated by the iris, a colored ring
behind the cornea. The iris can adjust its size, controlling the
amount of light that enters the pupil. Behind the iris is the
lens, whose shape is controlled by the ciliary muscles. When
the ciliary muscles contract, the lens becomes more round,
thus bending light rays more.
25.
Which type of lens might be used to correct for

nearsightedness?
A.
Convex
B.
Concave
C. Either convex or concave, depending on the focal

length
Between the cornea and the lens is a fluid called the
aqueous humor, and behind the lens is a second fluid called

the vitreous humor.
D. Either convex or concave, depending on how

nearsighted the person is
The two humors have an index of
refraction close to that of water. The light is finally brought

to focus on the retina, a membrane that contains the rods and
the cones, nerve cells that are sensitive to light and respond
by generating electrical impulses.
Defects in vision, such as nearsightedness and
farsightedness are caused by aberrations in the eye system.
Nearsightedness means that a person is able to focus clearly
on objects that are close to the eye, while a farsighted person
can only focus clearly on objects at a great distance from the
26. Most of the bending of light through the eye occurs

because of the:
A.
eye.
lens.
B.
iris.
C.
cornea.
D.
humors.
22. If a normal human eye were focusing on an object 2

meters away, what would be the effective focal length
of the eye?
A.
0.002 meters
B.
0.04 meters
C.
0.01 meters
D.
0.02 meters
27. The index of refraction of most materials is inversely

proportional to the wavelength of light Given that the
eye has evolved so that yellow light focuses on the
retina, where would you expect blue light to focus?
A.
23.
Farsightedness could be attributed to which of the

following defects within the eye?
I.
Cornea too curved.
In front of the retina
B.
Behind the retina
C.
On the retina
D.
On the cornea
II. Cornea not curved enough.

III. Ciliary muscles not able to contract.
IV. Ciliary muscles not able to relax.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I and III only

II and III only
I and IV only
II and IV only
282
29. For a microscope, whereshould the objectbe placed?

A.
B.
C.
D.
A lens is a piece of transparent material that focuses

light to produce an image. This focusing process makes use
of the fact that light is refracted twice when it passes through
a lens. The focal length of a lens is a measure of how much
the light rays are bent. A lens with short focal length bends
the light rays to a greater extent than a lens with a long focal
length.
A lens can either be converging or diverging, depending

how it bends light rays that pass through it A converging (or
convex) lens bends light rays toward the axis of the lens.
The light rays passing through a converging lens will actually
meet at a point. Converging lenses can produce either real
images (the light rays really do meet at some point) or virtual
images (the light rays only appear to meet at a particular
point). A diverging (or concave) lens is one that bends light
rays away from the axis of the lens. The light rays will never
actually meet any place; diverging lenses can only produce
virtual images.
Inside the focal length of the objective

Just outside the focal point of the objective
Far away from the focal point of the objective
As close to the objective as possible
30. When white light passes from air to a prism, what is

true?
A. Light with the greatest speed is refracted by the

greatest amount.
B. Light with the highestfrequency is refracted by the

greatest amount.
C. Light with the lowest frequency is refracted by the

greatest amount.
D. All light is refracted by the same amount.
The thin lens equation governs the relationship between

the focal length of a lens, object distance, and image
distance:
1 =1 + 1
f
31. In a compound lens, the image of the first lens will
serve as the object of the second lens. Which of the

following statements are true?
where f is the focal length, o is the distance from the lens to
the object and i is the distance from the lens to the image.
I. A virtual image cannot serve as a real object

Lenses can magnify an object's size. Magnification
relates the dimensions of the image to the dimensions of the
II.
III.
object and can be written as:
M = iL=.l
h
A real object will always form a real image.
Light must travel through lens 1 and form an image

before it travels through the second lens.
A. I only
B. II and III only

C. I, II, and HI only
where h' is the height of the image and h is the height of the
object
D.
A compound lens is two or more lenses acting together

to produce a final image from an object. Microscopes and
telescopes are examples of compound lenses. The simplest
microscopes and telescopes consist of two convex lenses.
The lens that first focuses the object is called the objective.
The lens that you actually look through is called the ocular.
32.
28. To measure the focal length of a converging lens,
For a telescope with a convex lens with a short focal

length as its ocular, the objective is a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
parallel light rays are passed through the lens. These

rays will meet at the focal point; the distance from the
lens to this point can be measured. To measure the
focal length for a diverging lens:
None of the above statements are true.
concave lens with a focal length that is very long.

concave lens with a focal length that is very short.
convex lens with a focal length that is very long.
convex lens with a focal length that is very short
A. the same procedure can be carried out.
B. a second diverging lens of known focal length must

be employed.
C. a second converging lens of known focal length

must be employed.
D. diverging lenses do not have a focal length, since

light rays are diverged away from the lens axis.
283
36. When parallel rays of white light pass through a glass
lens:
passage.
33.
A. the rays all meet at the same focal point.

B. the index of refraction of the glass is the same for
For a convergent mirror with f = 0.30 cm, at what

position should an object be placed to generate an
image that is three times the object is magnitude of
all the colors.
C. the focal length for violet light is smaller than the

focal length for red light
size?
34.
A.
At the 0.20 cm mark
B.
At the 0.40 cm mark
C.
At the 0.50 cm mark
D.
At the 0.60 cm mark
D. whether the rays all have the same focal point

depends on whether the lens is converging or
diverging.
Which of these images are consistent with Snell's Law?
A. I and V only
I, III and IV only
B.
C. I and IV only
D. I, III, IV, and V only
35.
What is NOT true for visible light?

A.
It is emitted when an electron falls from an excited
state to a lower excited or ground state.

B. As the wavelength increases, the frequency of the
photon decreases.
C. It is of higher energy than microwave EM
radiation.
D. It has a range of wavelengths that spans from 200

nm to 400 nm.
284
38. If in using Set-up 2, the phase difference is measured to
be x radians, then which of the following is a possible

valuefor the thickness of the glass,if the incident angle
A scientist wants to measure the precise thickness of a
piece of glass. In order to do so, he bombards the glass with

electromagnetic waves, measuring the phase difference
between the wave that bounces off of the glass' near surface
and the wave that bounces off of the glass' far surface.
Knowing that when a wave is traveling from a medium of
lower index of refraction to one of a higher index of
refraction and is reflected, the wave changes phase by x
radians, the scientist tries the following two experimental set
ups in order to obtain two data sets:
is assumed to be negligibly small?
39.
A.
0.250 m
B.
0.375 m
C.
0.500 m
D.
0.625 m
If the interference between the two reflected waves in
Set-up 1 is constructive, then for the same piece of

glass the reflected waves in Set-up 2 would:
Set-up I
A. constructively interfere.
B. destructively interfere.
C. constructively interfere, but with less intensity than

in Set-up 1.
D.
40.
Set-up 2
Air
Glass
Plastic
not interfere at all.
Assuming a light ray is passing from glass to plastic as

in Set-up 2, which of the following would BEST
describe the relationship between the incident angle
(8j), the reflected angle (0R), and the refracted angle

(0F)? (All angles are taken with respect to the normal.)
A. 81>8R>0F
B.
C.
The relationship between phase difference (<j>) and path

difference (Ar) used to determine the thickness (t) of the glass
is given by the following expression, where (k) is the
wavelength:
Equation 1
D.
41.
Ar = -?M>
2k
For all of his calculations, the scientist used nAh- = LOT,

nGlass = 1-50, and npiastic = 1.60, along with radio waves of
wavelength one meter. The glass was uniformly thick.
37.
I. pass directly through the glass, entering and exiting

the glass at the same angle.
42.
II. achieve total internal reflection on this air-to-glass

interface.
R^
in phase and out of phase.

in phase and in phase.
out of phase and out of phase.
out of phase and in phase.
In order to measure the precise thickness of the piece of

glass, the scientist must first know its approximate
thickness. Why is this the case?
A. These measurements need not be very precise.

B. Since waves are periodic, the scientist can obtain a
set of possible solutions only from the data.
C. The measurement is hurt by the fact that only part
III. achieve total internal reflection on the far glass-toair interface.
A. II only
B. HI only
C. I and II only
of the wave reflects to its source, while the rest is

transmitted.
D. Each set-up gives the scientist a different thickness,
D. I and HI only
1^
e, = eR < eF
For Set-up 1 and Set-up 2, respectively, if the light's

path-length within the glass is an integer multiple of the
reflected light rays' wavelength, then the reflected rays
in the two set-ups will be, respectively:
A.
B.
C.
D.
In Set-up 1, a light ray traveling in air and incident on

the glass could:
8l = 9R> 9F
and he must know which one is correct.
285
44.

Lenses can be used to focus or disperse light rays. In
order to produce a desired effect, it is often necessary to use a
combinations of lenses. For a single lens, the focal point (f),
the object distance (p), the image distance (q), and the lens
magnification (m) are related by the following equations:
In moving the object from the position in Trial C to the

position in Trial D, what happens to the final image?
A. It becomes larger and inverts.

B.
It becomes smaller and inverts.
C. It becomes larger and stays upright.

D. It becomes smaller and stays upright
1 = 1 + 1
Equation 1
Equation 2
45.
A physicist is curious about the amount of magnification
and where the final image will appear, if he puts a diverging
lens 10 cm in front of a converging lens and changes the
object's distance from the first lens. For a diverging lens with
a focal length of -10 cm and a converging lens with a focal
length of 10 cm, the results of the physicist's study are given
in Table 1. It should be noted that in the representation of the
data the diverging lens is referred to as Lens 1, while the
converging lens is Lens 2.
A.
Trial A
B.
Trial B
C.
Trial C
D.
Trial D
46. What is the magnification of Lens 2 in Trial B?
Lens 2
Lens 1
For which trial is the final image formed on Lens 1?
A.
If
Object
-2.0
B.
-0.5
C.
0.5
D.
2.0
10 cm
Figure 1
47. For a converging lens, when is the image formed at

infinity?
Trial
Pi(cm)
Ql(cm)
P2(cm)
Q2 (cm)
20
-6.67
16.67
25
-0.5
10
-5
15
30
-1.0
-3.33
13.33
40
-2.0
-3.33
-10
3.0
-20
-20
30
15
A. When the object is at half the focal length from the

lens.
B. When the object is at one focal point

C. When the object is at twice the focal length from
the lens.
D. When the object is infinitely far from the lens.
0.5
Table 1
Table 1 shows object distances, image distances, and

magnifications.
48. When an object is placed inside the focal length on the

right side of a diverging lens, what type of image is
43. As an object moves towards a converging lens and

crosses the focal point, what happens to its image?
formed?
A. A virtual, upright image.
A. The image goes from being real and upright to real
B. A virtual, inverted image.

C. A real, upright image.
D. A real, inverted image.
and inverted.
B. The image goes from being real and inverted to

real and upright
C. The image goes from being real and upright to
virtual and inverted.
D. The image goes from being real and inverted to

virtual and upright
286
52.
When a swimmer opens his eyes under water, objects

do not appear in focus. This is due to:
A. an increase in thefocal length of theeye.

B. a decrease in the focal length of the eye.
49. An object is placed in front of a concave mirror, just

inside its focal length. The image can best be described
C. the scattering of light by the water.
as:
D. a decrease in the effectiveness of the iris at

absorbing light.
A.
real and inverted.
B. real and upright.

C.
virtual and inverted.
D. virtual and upright.
50. How can a mirage, the result of refraction of light, be

distinguished from a real object?
A. A mirage cannot be distinguished from a real

object.
B. Look through a polarizer.

C. Look through a prism.
D. Look through a light-scattering material.
51. A polarizer was observed to filter 50% of ambientlight

emitted from a bulb, independent of the orientation of
the polarizer. How can it be explained that when the
polarizer was used to filter ambient light that had
reflected of a plastic surface that the amount of light

transmitted varied with the polarizer's alignment?
A.
B.
C.
The plastic absorbed light, reducing the amount of

reflected light
The plastic reflected only one frequency of light.
The plastic acted as a semi-polarizer, reflecting
and refracting light differently according to the EM
wave's orientation.
D.
The plastic emitted light in selected frequency

ranges.
287
1. B
2.
3. D
7. D
8.
13. D
14.
4.
5. A
6.
9. A
10. A
11. A
12.
15. A
16. A
17. A
18. A
19. C
20.
21. A
22.
23.
24.
25. B
26.
27. A
28.
29. B
30.
31. D
32.
33. B
34. A
35. D
36.
37. D
38.
39.
40.
41. D
42.
43. D
44.
45. D
46. A
47. B
48. A
49. D
50.
51. C
52. A
YOU ARE DONE.
Answers to 52-Question Light and Optics Practice Exam

Critical Angle Experiment
Choice B is the best answer. This question is best solved by first eliminating what we can using common sense and then
finding the best answer from the remaining choices using mathematics. We know that flint glass is denser than air, so the
light slows down upon entering the flint glass from air. This means that with an incident angle of 60, the refracted angle
must be less than 60. This eliminates choice D. We also know the refracted angle cannot be 0 unless the incident ray
strikes the boundary in a perpendicular fashion. Because the incident angle is 60, the refracted angle cannot be 0, so choice
A is eliminated. We are down to two choices. The passage tells us that light striking the boundary between flint glass and
the surrounding air at an incident angle of 38.1 results in a refracted angle of 90. If vve consider the reverseof this process
where light travels from air and strikes a boundary made of flint glass, then the angles should be reversed. So, if the light
coming from air strikes the boundary at an angle just slightly less than 90, then the refracted rays would travel a path that is
slightly less than 38.1 from the normal axis. This means that an incident angle of 60 should result in a refracted angle less
than 38.1, so choice C is eliminated. All that remains is choice B, so it must be the best answer. To solve this question
using math is arduous and not the most time efficient option, but we shall address the process nonetheless. From the
information in the passage and Snell's law, we know:
nfiint giasssin 38.1 =nairsin 90 =1x 1=1 .*. nfiintgiass =1/s|n 33 1

The question asks for the refracted angle when travels from air and strikes a boundary of flint glass with an incident angle of
60. To solve this, we must employ Snell's law.
nair-sin60 = nfjintgiasssin 0rcfracted
1xsin 60 =(V^ 38.r)'sin ^refracted ' sin 6refractcd =sin 60 xsin 38.1
Because sin 60 is a number less than 1, sin 9refractcd < sin 38.1 .\ refracted < 38.1
Determination of the exact number is challenging without a calculator, but luckily for us, it is a multiple-choice question.
This is enough math to support our selection of choice B. The best answer is choice B.
Choice C is the best answer.
refraction of the lens material.
therefore of identical curvature.
material with the greatest index
The focal point of a lens depends on the angle of curvature of the lens and the index of
In each case, the surrounding medium is air and the lenses are of identical dimensions, and
The difference in focal points between the four lenses depends strictly on the materials. The
of refraction will bend the light the most and in doing so create a focal point (where the rays
intersect) closer to the lens. This question is looking for the material with the greatest index of refraction. The passage gives
us critical angles, which decrease as n-value for the material increases. This means that we are looking for the material with
the smallest critical angle. This describes rutile, so choice C is the best answer. Even if we had no idea how to answer the
question, the question is asking for an extreme value (closest to the lens). Without any clue, we should at the very least
eliminate rock salt and zirconia, because their critical angles are less than the critical angle for polystyrene. The best answer
must be either choice A or choice C. The best answer is choice C.
Choice D is the best answer. The experiment requires that yellow light (k = 589 nm) pass through the two mediums (one of
which is air) without being reflected and refracted more than once (only at the boundary), and without being absorbed. If the
light undergoes multiple points of refraction, then the ultimate angle cannot be attributed solely to the difference between the
material and air. If the material absorbs light then there is a chance that no light will pass, which would result in no intensity
at the screen for a reason other than exceeding the critical angle. This means the material must be transparent and uniform,
making choices A, B, and C all valid. The light should not be absorbed, so choice D is the best answer. You should note
that choices A and D are opposite answers, so it is probable that one of the two is the best choice. The best answer is choice
D.
Choice B is the best answer. Diffraction occurs when light interacts with a slit in a material, which is not the case in this
experiment. While monochromatic light may be necessary to study diffraction, it does not impact this experiment in terms of
diffraction. Statement I is invalid, which eliminates choices A and C. We know Statement II must be true based on the
remaining choices, but just to verify, different frequencies of light have different indexes of refraction, so if polychromatic
light were used, the different wavelengths would exhibit a different degree of bending, resulting in dispersion of the incident
light. As such, each color would result in a different critical angle. Statement II is in fact valid. Reflection occurs
independent of the frequency of light so whether the light is monochromatic or polychromatic, reflection is still involved.
Statement III is invalid, making choice B the best answer. The best answer is choice B.
288
Choice A is the best answer. Light initiating from Point a will strike the boundary at a right angle. For light that strikes an
interface in a perpendicular fashion, it's speed will change, but there will be no change in the orientation of the rays. To
observe refraction, light must strike the boundary at some angle other than perpendicular. This makes choice A the best
answer. Choice D should have been eliminated, because the light speeds up when transmitted to the air. Choice B should
have been eliminated, because the incident angle is 0, which is less than the critical angle for every material in the passage.
Choice C should be eliminated, because light doesn't exhibit such behavior. The best answer is choice A.
Choice Dis the best answer. The index of refraction for water is greater than the index of refraction for air, so light passing
from the disk to water will be bent less than light passing from the disk to air. This means that the angle of refraction is
smaller in water than air, eliminating choices A and C. In order to get a refracted angle of 90 in water, a greater incident
angle is required than what is required to get a refracted angle of 90 in air. Thus, the critical angle between the disk and air
is less than it is between the disk and water. This makes choice D the best answer. The math to support the critical angles
conclusion is as follows.
nmateriarSin critical = nSUrrounding medium"Sin 90 .'. sin 8critica| = "surrounding medium/n

The surrounding medium with the larger index of refraction, in this case water, has the greater sin 0criticai and therefore has
The
the larger critical angle, 0criticai- The relative refracted angles of water and air can also bedetermined using Snell's law.
nmateria!"Sin incident = nair*s'n refracted in air and nmalcrial'Sin incident = nwater*sn refracted in water
So: sin erefractcdinair =nmaterial/^-sin eincident and sin 9refracted in water ="material^^-sin eincident
Because nvvatcr is greater than nair, sin 8refracted in air isgreater than sin 9refractcd in watcr .-. 9rcfracled in air > 0refracted in water
The math supports the selection of choice D. The best answer is choice D.
Mirrors
Choice D is the best answer. First and foremost, the distance from a plane mirror plays no role in the limits of the image
besides intensity. We need consider only the height of the person in front of the mirror, especially the person who is 4 m
(nearly thirteen feet) tall, as they are probably from outer space. To understand this better, draw a picture. Let the person be
standing a distance d in front of the mirror. Then the image must appear to be a distance d behind the mirror. In order for
light to reach the person's eyes from the eyes of the image, a light ray must appear to come from the eyes of the image. In
actuality, the lightfrom the eyes of the person leaves them, strikes the mirror's surface, and then reflects into their eyes. For
light to reach the person's eyes from the feet of their own reflected image, a light ray must appear to come from the feet of
the image and enter the person's eyes. In actuality, light from the person's feet strikes the mirror and reflects into their eyes. If
we draw out all the rays, we see that there are two similar triangles:
Plane Mirror
T
h;__d_
j_
h " 2d ~ 2
Even a person standing 2 meters tall could see approximately their entire body length in a mirror 1 meter long (remember
that the body extends a bit above the eyes). The best answer is choice D.
Choice A is the best answer. Recall some general observations about plane mirrors: They always form virtual images;
images formed in plane mirrors are of the same size as the original object; images formed in plane mirrors are as far from the
mirror as the original object is. The last two observations invalidate statements II and III, leaving choice A as the best
answer. To confirm this selection, we need ask only whether spherically convex mirrors always form virtual images (i.e., we
need test only the validity of statement I). Yes, spherically convex mirrors can form only virtual images-the fact that you
always see an upright image in any convex mirror is proof of this. Thus, statement I is true. The best answer is choice A.
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9.
Choice A is the best answer. Let's use the equation given in the passage to solve this one:
1 -
1 +1
s'
where s = +3f (a plus sign is used, because the object is in front of the mirror). Solving for s' yields: s' = 3f/2. This rules out
choices C and D. If you stick with the convention that positive lengths represent objects and images in front of a mirror, then
you can cross out choice B in favor of choice A. Another way to see that choice A is better than choice B is to realize that
when any object beyond a concave mirror's (or even a convex lens') focal point, the image is always real (i.e., it has real light
rays meeting in real space). Since real space is in front of a mirror, choice A must be correct. Yet another method for getting
choice A would be to trace out the light rays from the object. The best answer is choice A.
10.
Choice A is the best answer. The radius of curvature of the mirror determines where the normal lines to the surface are.
This, in turn, determines where the reflected rays go and means that the radius of curvature affects the focal length. Choice A
is correct. The index of refraction applies to refraction, not reflection, so while it affects the focal length of a lens, it is
immaterial the focal length of a mirror. The density and compressibility of the reflective material may affect the ease with
which the mirror can be shaped, but they do not affect the focal length. The best answer is choice A.
11.
Choice A is the best answer. The law of reflection states that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. This
law is independent of the frequency (and wavelength) of the incident light and independent of the refractive index of the
material of which the mirror is made. The best answer is choice A.
You may notice that this is the fourth straight question where choice A is the best answer. This was done to work on your
psyche and see if such a pattern influences your decision.
12.
Choice C is the best answer. Mirrors work by reflection, so the focal length is determined by the radius of curvature of the
mirror and by nothing else. Although the wavelength of the light changes under water, the rays still meet at the same point.
This eliminates choice A. A lens on the other hand, works by refraction, which depends on both the radius of curvature of the
two sides of the lens and the difference in refractive index between the lens and the surrounding medium. If a lens is
immersed in water, then the medium surrounding the lens has a higher index of refraction, which results in less bending of
the light rays. By bending less, the rays intersect farther from the lens, meaning that the focal length increases. This makes
choice C the best answer. The best answer is choice C.
Passage III (Questions 13 -17)

13.
Telescopes
Choice D is the best answer. Chromatic aberrations are caused by refraction, so mirrors are in fact free of chromatic
aberrations, while lenses are not. Because the reflecting telescopes employ concave mirrors as the objective, while refracting
telescopes employ lenses, choice A is an advantage of the reflecting telescope. With a concave mirror, spherical aberrations
can easily be corrected. With a lens, the correcting is not done as easily, owing to the curvature of both sides.
This points out another advantage of the reflecting telescope, and it eliminates choice B. In a refracting telescope, the
objective must be a convex lens. In a reflecting telescope, the mirror can be parabolic or spherical, making choice C an
advantage of the reflecting telescope. Choice C can be eliminated. In a reflecting telescope, the plane mirror sits at the focal
point, which is in front of the concave mirror. This means that some incident light is blocked by the plane mirror (the second
mirror), so this is a disadvantage of the reflecting telescope. Choice D is the best answer.
Reflecting
Mirror
Ocular
Cassegrainian Focus
14.
Choice D is the best answer. It is stated in the passage that reflecting telescopes have large reflecting mirrors. This
eliminates choice B. Because a reflecting telescope has a large mirror, it must be considerably larger than a refracting
telescope. This eliminates choices A and C and makes choice D the best answer. Most telescopes found in observatories
today are reflecting telescopes, which accounts for observatories being so large. Portable telescopes, like the kind you would
take on a field trip, are typically refracting telescopes, and they are generally small. The best answer is choice D.
290
15.
Choice A is the best answer. The passage tells us that in a refracting telescope, the rays that pass through the eyepiece must
leave in a parallel fashion. This occurs when the object lies at the focal point. Given that the image of the objective is the
object of the eyepiece, we need the first image to form at the focal point of the ocular (eyepiece). This makes choice A the
best answer. In Figure 1, vve see that the image created by the objective is at the focal point of the objective. This is
remarkable, because the object (be ita star, planet, or galaxy) is ineffect infinitely far from the objective-remember the thinlens equation? The best answer is choice A.
16.
Choice A is the best answer. Looking at Figure 1 in the passage, we see that both focal lengths are shorter than the
telescope. The passage defines the telescope length as the distance between the objective and the eyepiece; this distance is
also defined as the sum of the focal lengths of the two lenses. The best answer is choice A.
17.
Choice A is the best answer. Let's recall some basic facts about plane mirrors: For one thing, they reflect light. This rules
out choice B, because lightcould possibly reflect onto the secondary mirror. Plane mirrors form a virtual image of the object;
this image is equal in size to the object and as far from the mirror as the mirror is from the object. The main disadvantage of
these properties, in using the plane mirror to build a telescope, is that the plane mirror does not magnify the image of the
object. What looks (to the naked eye) like a speck of starlight reflects onto the secondary mirror as a speck of starlight. The
Questions 18 - 21
18.
Choice A is the best answer. Remembering the UV-IR rule for objects and images: An upright image is always virtual, with
respect to the object. This makes Statement I valid. A real object may or may not form a real image. It depends upon the
combination of lenses being used. For example, diverging lenses form virtual images from real objects. This makes
Statement II invalid. Statements with absolute language, such as "always," should be treated as invalid until you have
completed an exhaustive search for contradictory answers. One exception disproves an extreme statement. Finally, light may
travel through two lenses before forming the final image. If the second lens is within the focal length of the first lens, then
light will travel through the first and second lens before forming the image. This makes Statement III invalid. Because only
Statement I is valid, choice A is the best answer. The best answer is choice A
19.
Choice C is the best answer. This question can be solved systematically, by first noting that vve are dealing with a single,
converging lens. Our first approach is to visualize the positions of the object, mirror, and image (in essence to create a
minimalistic ray diagram in our mind). For a converging system involving a single mirror or single lens, if the object is
between the radius of curvature and focal point, then the image will be an inverted, real image formed beyond the radius of
curvature. Given that the focal length is 12 cm, the radius of curvature must be 24 cm, which means that the image must
form at a distance greater than 24 cm from the mirror. Only choice C fits describes a point beyond 24 cm. The image is on
the left side of the mirror, because reflected rays can only form a real image on the original side of the mirror (where the
object exists).
If you don't like the visualization approach to lens and mirror questions, then you are always welcome to employ math. You
need to keep sign conventions in mind, so for a converging mirror, the focal length is a positive value, Had you used a
negative value for f, which you would do for a diverging mirror, then you would have errantly come up with a value of -6.67,
which is one of the answer choices. Let's take advantage of the shortcut version of the thin lens equation given in the text of
this chapter:
' =( X/(o -0 =5 X12)/(15 -12) =5 X12)/3 =15x4 =60 cm

A +60 means it's a real image that is 60 cm from the mirror on the "real" side, which in this case is the left side. The best
answer is choice C.
20.
Choice B is the best answer. The sky has color because the Sun's light is scattered by the particles in the atmosphere. In the
absence of any atmosphere, there can be no scattering, so vve would see no color. (Ever see any pictures of the Moon? The
Moon has no atmosphere; the sky as seen from the lunar surface is black.) The best answer is choice B.
21.
Choice A is the best answer. The focal length of a lens is a measure of how much the lens can bend incoming light rays.
The index of refraction of oil is higher than that for air, and thus is closer to the index of refraction of the lens. This means
that light going from air to glass will be refracted more than light going from oil to glass. The focal length of the lens is
therefore greater (farther from the lens) in oil than it is in air. This eliminates choices B and C and makes choice A the best
answer. The wavelength of light is shorter in oil than air, so choice D is also eliminated. The best answer is choice A.
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Functioning of the Eyes

22.
Choice D is the best answer. To solve for the focal length of the eye, vve use the thin lens formula:
1=1 + 1
f
S'
where f is the focal length, s is the object distance, and s' is the image distance. Choosing s' to be 0.02 meters, the length of
the eye as mentioned in the passage, and s to be 2 meters, from the question, vve solve for f:
f
2 meters
0.02 meters
.*. f is 0.02 meters.
The 1/2 part of the equation above is negligible compared to 1/0.02, so we can essentially ignore it. This leads to the
conclusion that f = 0.02 meters. The best answer is choice D.
23.
Choice B is the best answer. Farsightedness, as defined in the passage, is the inability to focus on nearby objects.
Farsightedness occurs because the lens of the eye is not powerful enough to focus on light rays from an object close to the
eye. Remember that focusing on objects close up requires a small focal length and therefore, a more powerful lens than
focusing on objects that are far away. Looking at the thin lens equation, one way this could happen would be if the eye was
too short (if s' was too small), but that is not an option. The cornea needs to have a rounded shape to bend light rays from an
object close to the eye. This means that an inability to focus on nearby objects is because the curvature of the lens is not
great enough, which can be attributed to either the cornea not being round enough, or the ciliary muscles inability to contract
the lens. Statements II and III go together, so choice B is the best answer. The best answer is choice B.
24.
Choice A is the best answer. When the ciliary muscles of the eye contract, the eye becomes more round. The effect of this
is to cause incoming light rays to get bent more as they enter the eye, which means that the focal length had to decrease, so
Statements I and III are valid. You should notice that Statements I and III are complementary and that Statements II and IV
are complementary. This eliminates choices C and D. The ciliary muscles of the eye contract when vve are focusing on
objects closer to the eye. Remember-the smaller the focal length, the more powerful the lens and the more it is able to bend
light rays. Lens power, P, is defined as Vf- A small focal length is required to focus on objects close to the eye. If you are
not sure about this last part, try plugging some numbers into the thin lens equation:
1 =1 + 1
f
s-
Upon focusing on an object 2 meters away means that the eye has a focal length of 0.02 meters, or a power of 50 diopters. If
vve use 0.25 meters for the object distance:
1=
f
!
0.25 meters
1
0.02 meters
and solve for f, vve get f = 0.019 meters, or a power of 54 diopters. The best answer is choice A.
25.
Choice B is the best answer. A nearsighted person can see objects thatare near, but cannotsee objects thatare far away. To
correct for such a condition, the ideal lens should take a far away object and create an image that is near. With a concave
(divergent) lens, the image in an upright, virtual image that is located inside of the focal length. This means that a far away
object will generate a nearby image, which means that the divergent lens has taken an object outside the field of vision and
generated an image within the field of vision. A nearsighted person benefits from a concave lens. You may also note that a
nearsighted person has a retina that is abnormally longer, so the image focuses before the retina. A divergent lens will spread
the rays before they enter the eye, so that the image can now focus at the retina. The best answer is B.
26.
Choice C is the best answer. The passage tells us that the cornea has the highest index of refraction of all of the transparent
parts of the eye, making choice C the best answer. A substance with a high index of refraction bends light rays more than a
substance with a small index of refraction. So whatjob does the lens do? The passage tells us that the cornea is inflexible-it
cannot bend and change its radius of curvature. However, the lens is able to bend and change its radius of curvature, thereby
changing the focal length of the cornea-lens system. The lens makes it possible to focus on objects at variable distances from
the eye. The best answer is C.
27.
Choice A is the best answer. Blue light has a smaller wavelength than yellow light. Therefore, it sees a higher index of
refraction than does yellow light. This means that the blue light will be bent more than the yellow light upon passing through
the eye, and therefore the blue light will focus in front of the retina. This eliminates choices B and C and makes choice A the
best answer. Light will not be focused on the cornea, so choice D is eliminated. The best answer is A.
292

28.
Different Lenses
Choice C is the best answer. A diverging lens does not have a point where all the light rays actually meet. In order to
measure the focal length of a diverging lens, a converging lens must be used. The two lenses will form a compound lens-the
image of the first lens acts as an object for the second lens. By knowing the location of the final real image, and by knowing
the focal length of the converging lens, vve can work backwards to determine the focal length of the diverging lens. This
makes choice C the best option of the choices. Choice A is incorrect, because parallel light rays do not meet any place when
they travel through a diverging lens. Choice B is incorrect, because a real image is needed, so that vve may actually measure
an image distance. Diverging lenses only produce virtual images. Choice D is incorrect. Although the light rays are indeed
diverged away from the lens, vve can still speakof how much these light rays are refracted, and this is all vve mean by focal
length. The best answer is C.
29.
Choice B is the best answer. The purpose of a microscope is to enlarge objects. By placing the object just outside the focal
length of the objective, vve insure a large image distance. This in turn provides a large magnification, according to:
M = -i
o
ChoiceA is incorrect. By placing the object just inside the focal length of the objective, we create a virtual image. Choice C
is incorrect. By placing the object far away from the focal point, vve insure a small image distance, which means a small
magnification. Choice D is incorrect, for the same reason that choice A is incorrect. This will put the object inside the focal
length again, which means the production of a virtual image. The best answer is choice B.
30.
Choice B is the best answer. This question focuses on recall. Light traveling through a medium will exhibit the same wave
speed regardless of the frequency, so choice A is eliminated. Because vve see that white light is dispersed (refracted), choice
D can be eliminated. The light with the highest frequency (violet light) is "bent" to the greatest extent, which means that
light with the greatest frequency is most refracted. Choice C is eliminated. The best answer is choice B.
31.
Choice D is the best answer. A virtual image may indeed serve as a real object. This is the principle behind glasses and
contacts. This makes Statement I invalid, which eliminates choices A and C. A real object may or may not form a real
image. It depends upon the combination of lenses being used. For example, diverging lenses form virtual images from real
objects. This makes Statement II invalid, which eliminates choice B and leaves only choice D. Finally, light may travel
through two lenses before forming the final image. If the second lens is inside the focal length of the first lens, then light will
travel through the first and second lens before forming the image. This confirms that Statement III is invalid. When solving
the problem quantitatively, vve assume the formation of something called a "virtual object." This is the principle behind the
telephoto lens. The best answer is choice D.
32.
Choice C is the best answer. Because the ocular for this particular telescope is a convex lens, the objective needs to be a
convex lens. This will doubly invert the image, resulting in a final image that is upright. This eliminates choices A and B.
The focal length of the ocular is dictated in part by the physical size of the telescope and in part by what vve want the
telescope to do. A telescope focuses on objects that are very far away and tries to magnify them. In order to enlarge them,
vve need an objective with a long focal length, to make s1 as large as possible. The best answer is choice C.
Questions 33 - 36
33.
Choice B is the best answer. For a convergent mirror to generate a real image, the object must be beyond the focal point, so
choice A can be eliminated immediately. With f = 0.3 cm, R must be 0.6 cm. If the object is placed at the radius of curvature,
then the image will also form at R, resulting in an image with the same magnitude of size as the object. Choice D is
eliminated. Only math can make the final distinction between choices B and C. If the object is at 0.4 cm, then the image will
form at (0.4 x 0.3)/(0.4 - 0.3) = 0.12/0.10 = 1.2 cm. Magnification is found using m = -(dj/d0) = -(1.2/0.4) = -3. Because m is
-3, the image is three times as large as the object and it is inverted. The best answer is choice B.
34.
Choice A is the best answer. Snell's Law tells us that light will change direction upon entering a new medium, as long as the
incident ray is not perpendicular to the boundary. Light bends toward the normal if the light enters a denser medium from a
less dense medium, and light bends away from the normal if light enters a less dense medium from a denser medium. Picture
I is consistent with light entering a denser material from a less dense material; Picture V is consistent with light entering a
less dense material from a denser material. Picture II can be eliminated; the light does not show a direction change upon
entering the new medium. Although the light in Pictures III and IV do show a direction change upon entering the new
material, it ends up traveling along the normal. This could only happen if the incident angle was 0. Only Pictures I and V
are valid. The best answer is choice A.
293
35.
Choice D is the best answer. We are told here that ultraviolet radiation and visible light are associated with transitions
between different electronic energy levels, so it is true that visible light can be emitted when an electron falls from an excited
state to a ground state. This eliminates choice A. For all electromagnetic radiation, including visible light, the wavelength of
a photon increases as its frequency decreases. This obeys the equation v = f-k (where v is the speed of the photon, / is the
frequency of the photon, and k is the wavelength of the photon), so choice B is eliminated. Visible light has more energy
than microwave radiation. Even if you were unaware of this, the passage states that electronic transitions are due to visible
photons, while vibrational transitions can be caused by microwaves. Because electronic transitions are of a higher energy
than vibrational transitions, it can be concluded that visible light is of a higher energy than microwaves. This makes choice C
valid, which eliminates it from being "NOT true." Visible light ranges from about 400 nm to about 700 nm, so choice D is
not true-so it is the best answer. The best answer is choice D.
36.
Choice C is the best answer. The index of refraction for a material is somewhat wavelength dependent. When two colors of
light travel through the same lens, they are subsequently refracted different amounts, and thus will not meet at the same focal
point. Choices A and B are incorrect for the reasons just mentioned. Whether the lens is converging or diverging, different
colors are still refracted different amounts, so for converging or diverging lenses, different colors will have different focal
points. This eliminates choice D. Because violet light is refracted more than red light, it has a shorter focal length. The best
answer is choice C.

37.
Thin Films
Choice D is the best answer. If vve think about the path a light ray takes in Setup 1, vve see it will first bend toward the
normal to the surface when entering the glass, because it is moving from a region of a lower index to one of a higher index.
Upon exiting the glass, the light ray will refract away from the normal, because it is moving from a region of higher index of
refraction to one of a lower index. The net result is the light ray entering and leaving the glass at the same angle, so vve can
see that Statement I is correct. Since total internal reflection can occur only when the light is moving from a region with a
higher index (nGLAss = 1-50) to one of a lower index (nAjR = 1.01), Statement II is incorrect, while Statement III is correct.
The answer that corresponds to choosing both Statements I and III is answer choice D. The best answer is choice D.
38.
Choice A is the best answer. If the light ray is coming in approximately perpendicular to the surface of the glass, then Ar =
2t, where t represents the thickness of the glass, because the light ray that reflected off of the second surface must travel into
the glass and back out. Thequestion states that the waves are re out of phase, so this problem becomes a simple calculation:
Ar = 2t = A^j)
and
t = A<j, = -im_(jirad) = 0.25m
2re
4re
4rerad
Thus, vve can see that the best answer is choice A, or the pieceof glass is 0.25 m thick. The best answer is choice A.
39.
Choice B is the bestanswer. If in Setup 1 the interference isconstructive, then vve know that the phase difference between
reflected waves is some multiple of 2rc. Since in Setup 1 vve have a phase change in going from air to glass (but not from
glass to air), while in Setup 2 there is a phase change in going from air to glass (as well as going from glass to plastic), Setup
1 and Setup 2 aren out of phase with each other. This means that in Setup 2, the phase difference between reflected waves is
some odd multiple of jc. Odd multiples of x correspond to destructive interference. The best answer is choice B.
40.
Choice B is the best answer. The incident and reflected beams are always equal, so vve can eliminate choices A and C. Also,
when light is moving from a region with a lower index of refraction (nGLAss = 1-50) to a region with a higher index of
refraction (nPLASTic = 1-60), the light ray bends towards the normal to the surface. Angles of refraction are measured with
respect to the normal, so the initial angle is greater than thefinal angle, or 6j = Or > 0p. The best answer is choice B.
41.
Choice D is the best answer. In order to answer this question, vve must look at the phase change of the wave at each
boundary. It is stated in the passage that when light goes from a region with a lower index of refraction to a region with a
higher index of refraction, the reflected wave changes phase by re. In this case, there is a phase change of x in the reflected
wave when light passes from air to glass, as well as from glass to plastic. Applying this to Setup 1, only the first reflected
wave gathers a phase change of re, while the wave returning from the second surface obtains no phase change upon
reflection. If the thickness of the glass is some multiple of the wavelength, then the two reflected waves for Setup 1 will
arrive outof phase by re, so they interfere destructively. Similarly, in Setup 2, the first reflected wave gathers a phase change
ofre, as well as the wave returning from the second surface. This happens because the wave is traveling from a region with a
lower index to one with a higher index in both cases. Assuming again that the thickness of the glass is some multiple of the
wavelength, the two reflected waves for Setup 2 both arrive jt out of phase from the incident wave, or in phase with each
other. This combination corresponds to constructive interference. Destructive interference for Setup 1, and constructive
interference for Setup 2 corresponds to out of phase for 1 and in phasefor 2. The best answer is choice D.
294
42.
Choice B is the best answer. Unless the answer is obvious, vve should solve this one by the process of elimination. Choice A
is incorrect, because the whole reason the scientist was doing this experiment in the first place was to obtain a precise
measurement. In disproving choice C, as long as some of the wave is reflected, it is the only part of the wave vve are
interested in for our measurements. Furthermore, choice D is not good, because the results of any experiment should be
questioned, if they do not agree with another experiment meant to measure the same thing. This leaves us with the only
choice that makes sense, choice B. In taking data, it is possible to measure a phase difference only between 0 and 2re, because
the waves are periodic. In trying to apply the data to the equation, Ar =^/g^, an experimental phase difference of, say, re
could correspond to an actual phase difference of re, 3re, 5re, etc.... Therefore, it would be useful to have an approximate value
of the thickness first, in order to know which "actual phase" the experimental phase corresponds to. The best answer is
choice B.

43.
Double Lens
Choice D is the best answer. We can find out what happens to an object's image as vve cross the focal point by looking at
the lens equation, where p represents the position of the object and q represents the position of the image:
1 = 1 +1
If the object is outside the focal point, then p > f, so:
1>1
f
This is to say that the denominator on the left being a smaller number makes the overall fraction larger. When this is true, q
must be positive in order to satisfy the lens equation. Thus, when vve are outside the focal point of a converging lens, the
image is real. Looking at the magnification equation:
m-fl
P
we also notice that since q and p are both positive, the image is inverted. Only choices B and D satisfy this condition for
when the object is outside the focal point. When we move the object inside the focal point of a converging lens, then f > p,
so:
1>1
P
When this is true, q must be negative in order to satisfy the lens equation. Thus, when vve are inside the focal point of a
converging lens, the image is virtual. Also, since q is negative and p is positive, upon looking at the magnification equation
vve see that the image must then be upright. In conclusion, when moving an object from outside the focal point of a
converging lens to inside the focal point, the image goes from being real and inverted to virtual and upright. This is one of
those random facts that will make future questions dealing with a single mirror or a single lens easier to solve. The best
answer is choice D.
44.
Choice A is the best answer. Looking at the data in Table 1, one notices by comparing Trials C and D that the magnification
goes from -2.0 to 3.0. Since the magnitude of the magnification in Trial D is larger than in Trial C, the final image gets
bigger. Also, the image goes from being inverted in Trial C to being upright in Trial D. The best answer is choice A.
45.
Choice D is the best answer. To find out where the final image is formed, look at the data for q2- If the final image is
formed on Lens 1, q2 should be 10 cm to the left of Lens 2, or -10 cm. Table 1 shows that this corresponds to choice D. The
46.
Choice A is the best answer. If vve want to find the magnification of Lens 2, vve must use both p2 and q2 and the
magnification formula, as follows:
m = -5= _SL = .30 = .2

P
P2
15
We calculate a value of -2 for the magnification of Lens 2 in Trial B. The best answer is choice A.
47.
Choice B is the best answer. For any lens, the image is formed at infinity when Vn = 0. Since the focal length of a
converging lens is positive, then Vn = 0 when p = f. Thus, the image of a converging lens is formed at infinity when the
object is at the focal length of the lens. The best answer is choice B.
295
48.
Choice A is the best answer. We must look at the lens equation to figure outthis question. Since the object is to the right of
the lens and the lens is diverging, both p and q are negative. If the object is placed inside the focal length, the magnitude off
is greater than the magnitude of p, so the magnitude of Vp is greater than the magnitude of Vf. Since Vp is a larger negative
number, then in order to satisfy the lens equation, q must be positive. If q is positive, the magnification equation indicates
that the image isupright. This rules outchoices Band D. The image will be virtual; this can be shown by a bit of ray tracing
(see the diagram below). Since actual light rays do not come from the point inspace occupied by the image, the image is said
to be virtual. This makes choice A correct. As a general reminder, diverging lenses always form virtual images.
Lens 1
Questions 49 - 52
49.
Choice D is the best answer. When an object is placed just inside the focal length of a concave (converging) mirror, the
resulting image will be virtual, upright, and enlarged. You can verify this using the lens equation:
1 = 1 +1
Ifs is less than f, then s' must be a negative number for the equation to work out. Anegative value for the image implies that
it is a virtual image. This eliminates choices A and B. For a single mirror or single lens, a virtual image is always upright.
This confirms that choice D is the best answer. The best answer is choice D.
50.
Choice B is the best answer. Refracted light can be polarized, at least partially so. By looking through a polarizer and
rotating it, vve can see whether the intensity ofthe light changes. Ifthe intensity does not change, then the light was coming
straight from the real object. Ifthe intensity does change, then the light was refracted-the apparent object was a mirage. The
51.
Choice C is the best answer. As a good polarizer should do, the one in the question filters 50% ofambient light as long as
the light is a random assortment of EM waves. Light reflected off of the plastic doesn't show the same behavior as the
random light, being that the amount of light reflected off the plastic and passing through the polarizer varies with the
orientation of the polarizer. Because the orientation ofthe polarizer impacts the amount of light that passes, the best answer
must be involve some form of polarization. While the plastic may absorb light, that would explain a reduction in intensity,
but not a dependence on the orientation of the polarizer. Choice A is eliminated. If the plastic were to reflect only one
frequency oflight, then the reflected light would have a distinct color, but that wouldn't explain the polarization. Choice Bis
eliminated. The plastic does not emit light, because it is not an energy source. This eliminates choice D. The best explanation
is that light reflects off the plastic differently, depending on the orientation of its electric wave relative to the plastic surface.
This means that the reflected light off of the plastic (the glare) is semi-polarized. This means that the polarizing filter's
impact will depend on its orientation relative to the plastic surface. When the polarizer is perpendicular to the plastic surface,
it will do its greatest filtering. The best answer is choice C.
52.
Choice A is the best answer. Water has a higher index ofrefraction than air, the medium that the eye normally receives light
from. Light rays are bent and focused as they pass through the eye because the rays go from air to a medium with a higher
index of refraction. Under water, the medium and the components of the eye now have similar indexes of refraction. This
means that the light rays do not bend as much when they pass from water into the eye. Less bending means a less powerful
lens, which means an increase in the focal length of the eye. This eliminates choice B. The best answer is choice A.
296
Physics Book 2 Index

Topic
Absolute Potential
Air Foil
Alternating Current
Ampere
Archimedes' Principle
Batteries
Beat Frequency
Bernoulli's Principle
Page
124
75
199
131,173
60
176
39
73-74, 98
Topic
Electromagnetic Spectrum
Electromotive Force (emf)
Electrophoresis
Electrostatics
Equipotential Line
Faraday's Law
Farsightedness
Fiber Optic Cable
Blood Pressure
96
Field Lines
Blue Shift
14
Floating Object
79
Fluid
Brittle
Bulk Modulus
Buoyancy
Capacitance
Capacitor
Capacitors in Parallel
Capacitors in Series
Capacitor Charging
Cathode-ray Tube
Closed Pipe
Combination of Lenses
Concave (Converging) Mirror

Concave (Diverging) Lens
Conductivity
Conductor
Continuity Equation
Convex (Converging) Lens
Convex (Diverging) Mirror
81,94
60
Focal Length
Fundamental Frequency
Page
233-234
176-177
143
115
123
137,142,157
243
121
62
55
246
19
16,41
184
Harmonics
184
193
Hydraulic Press
Image Distance
246
192
Index of Refraction
238
Inductance
213
185-186
84
Insulator
173
234
257-258
Intensity (Brightness of Light)

Intensity (Loudness of Sound)
247-250
154
20-21,41
9-10
259
251
Joule Heating Experiment
202
177
Kirchhoff's Junction Rule
188-190
173
Kirchhoff's Loop Rule

Laminar (Streamline) Flow
188-190
71,98
76
Lens
251
247
Lens Aberrations
258
Coulomb's Law
116
Lenz's Law
136
Critical Angle
Cyclotron
242
Longitudinal Wave
Magnetic Field
Magnification of Image
Mass Spectrometer
Microscope
251-252
160
Decibel
Density
55
Dielectric Constant
Diffraction
Diffraction Grating
Dispersion
Doppler Effect
Ductile
126,184
265,271
263
Mirror
244
Modulus of Elasticity
12-15
79
Echolocation
Elastic Fields
4,26, 36
Elastic Limit
78
120
Molecular Inertia
Nearsightedness
Object Distance
Ohm's Law
Electric Circuit
Electric Motor
173
Open Pipe
Optical Activity
138
Pacemaker
Electrical Potential Energy
123
Electrical Power
181
Electrical Resistance
178
Pascal's Principle
Pitch (Sound Frequency)
Plane Polarized Light
Plastically Deformed
233-234
7
131
252
139,140,159
258,283
152
247,279
78
7
282
246
179-180
18-19,41
236
217
57-58
9
235
78
Topic
Page
Poiseuille's Principle
66,69,101
Topic
Standing Wave
Prism
269
Strain
Radius of Curvature
247
Stress
Rarefaction
Real Image
246
Red Shift
14
Page
17
78, 91, 94
78, 91, 94
Sunken Object
62
Surface Tension
64
Telescope
280,283
Reflection
238
Thin Film Interference
261
Refraction
238
Thin Lens Equation
246
Relative Density
Resistivity
57
177
Resistor
Resistors in Parallel
Resistors in Series
191
192
191
Turbulence
76
Turbulent How
76
Ultimate Tension Strength
78
Resonant Frequency
Reynold's Number
Right-hand Rule
Shear
16,42
76
132-135
78,81
Ultrasound
35
Solenoid
138
Sonar
26, 30,36
Snell's Law
240
Specific Gravity (Relative Density)

Speed of Sound
55,57,63
6
Tuning Fork
Velocity Selector
Virtual Image
Viscosity
Viscous Retarding Force
Visible Spectrum
Wheatstone Bridge
Young's Double Slit Experiment
Young's Modulus (of Elasticity)
242, 275, 278

38
139,140,156
246
66
67
233-234
216
259
79,86
Physics Book 2 Test-taking Skills

Topic
Page
Basic Relationship
Equivalent Resistance/Capacitance Shortcut
Energy Conservation
Formula Identification
Floating Object Calculation Trick

Graph Identification
127
197
180, 181
239
62-63,112
68
Topic
Limiting Cases
Multiple Concepts
Quantitative Change
Sunken Object Calculation Trick
Thin Lens Shortcut Equation
Unit Analysis
Page
183
61, 130,185
70
62-63,112
252-256
183
Tracking your Progress

It is important to be organized in your review and to recognize where you are strong and where
you need to spend more time. On these pages, you should keep a scoring profile of your
performance and a list of items you wish to return to at a future date and review again. Making
a checklist and keeping a log can prove very helpful in staying on task during your review
period. It will also prove useful to write down any key terms and equations from each chapter,
so you have a quick source to reference during your final days of reviewing. Keeping all of this
in your review books will allow you to have one source for all of your review.
Sound and Doppler Effect

Date Read:
Score on Review Questions:
Date Reviewed:
1\ -
Text Questions to Repeat:
Score on Practice Test:
/CO
Review Questions to Repeat:
Practice Test Questions to Repeat:
Key Equations for Sound and Doppler Effect:
Key Terms for Sound and Doppler Effect:
Fluids and Solids

Date Reviewed:
Date Read:
1* ^ Score on Practice Test:
Key Equations for Ruids and Solids:
Key Terms for Fluids and Solids:
/co

Date Read:
Date Reviewed:
/- -
Key Equations for Electrostatics and

Electromagnetism:
Key Terms for Electrostatics and

Electromagnetism:
/ cO
Electricity and Electric Circuits

Date Read:
Date Reviewed:
/\ ^ Score on Practice Test:
Key Equations for Electricity and Electric
Key Terms for Electricity and Electric
Circuits:
Circuits:
/ co
Light and Optics

Date Read:
Date Reviewed:
* c
Key Equations for Light and Optics:
Key Terms for Light and Optics:
/ CO
Ife
ERKELEY
R-E'V'I'E-W
PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS
He
4.0
1.0
3
10
Li
Be
Ne
6.9
9.0
10.8
12.0
14.0
16.0
19.0
20.2
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
Na
Mr
AI
Si
CI
Ar
23.0
24.3
27.0
28.1
31.0
32.1
35.5
39.9
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
Ca
Sc
Ti
Cr
Mn
Fe
Co
Ni
Cu
Zn
Ga
Ge
As
Se
Br
Kr
39.1
40.1
45.0
47.9
50.9
52.0
54.9
55.8
58.9
58.7
63.5
65.4
69.7
72.6
74.9
79.0
79.9
83.8
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
Rb
Sr
Zr
Nb
Mo
Tc
Ru
Rh
Pd
Ag
Cd
In
Sn
Sb
Te
Xe
85.5
87.6
88.9
91.2
92.9
95.9
(98)
101.1
102.9
106.4
107.9
112.4
114.8
118.7
121.8
127.6
126.9
131.3
55
56
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
Cs
Ba
Hf
Ta
Re
Os
Ir
Pt
Au
Hg
Ti
Pb
Bi
Po
At
Rn
132.9
137.3
178.5
180.9
183.9
186.2
190.2
192.2
195.1
(209)
(210)
(222)
106
107
108
109
110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
Sg
Bh
Hs
Mt
Ds
Rg
Cn
Uut
Uuq
Uup
Uuh
Uus
Uno
(271)
(272)
(277)
(287)
(289)
(291)
(292)
(292)
(293)
571
LaT
138.9
87
88
89 R
104
105
Fr
Ra
Ac
Rf
Db
(261)
(262)
(223) (226)
(227)
58
59
I 60
Ce
Pr
Nd
140.1
(266) (264)
140.9 1144.2
61
Pm
(277) (268)
1 62
Sm
(145) 150.4
197.0 200.6
204.4
207.2 209.0
63
64
65 1 66
67
68
69
70
Eu
Gd
Tb
Ho
Er
Tm
Yb
Lu
152.0
157.3
164.9
167.3
168.9
173.0
175.0
103
Dy
158.9 | 162.5
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
101
102
Th
Pa
Np
Pu
Am
Cm
Bk
Cf
Es
Fm
Md
No
232.0
(231) 238.0 (237) (244)
Specializing in MCAT Preparation
(243) (247)
(247) (251)
(252) (257)
(258) (259)
1 71
Lr
(260)
Physics

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Light and Optics

P.O. Box 40140, Berkeley, California 94704-0140

Cover Design by MacGraphics.

Copyright 2012,2011,2010,2009, 2008,2006,2003,2000,1997,1996,1995,1994,1993,1992 by The Berkeley Review.

Pitch and Intensity

Resonance in Strings and Pipes

Sound and Doppler Effect Review Questions

Detailed Answer Explanations

Detailed Answer Explanations

Fluids and Solids

Fluids and Solids Review Questions

Detailed Answer Explanations

Detailed Answer Explanations

8. Electrostatics and Electromagnetism

Electrostatics and Electromagnetism Review Questions

Detailed Answer Explanations

Detailed Answer Explanations

9. Electricity and Electric Circuits

Voltage and Resistance

Electricity and Electric Circuits Review Questions

Detailed Answer Explanations

Electricity and Electric Circuits Practice Exam

10. Light and Optics

Reflection and Refraction

Light andOptics Review Questions

Light and Optics Practice Exam

Elongated Wave://;^^--^N^ComPrtesed Wave:

Sound and Doppler Effect

/shifted = /unshiftedVwaveVreceiver (Doppler shift)

/beat =l/l - /2I (Heard as a"destructive beat")

Open Pipes: Xn =2L/n ' /n =nv/2L

Fixed Strings: Xn =2L/n .\ /n =nv/2L

If material is not uniform, refraction

of the waves can create blind spots.

Waves normal to surface minimize te

the impact of refraction. Non-parallel IHSf

g^|Me|ir reflection to return from 2nd boundary):

surfaces are more difficult to analyze :M*s

than parallel ones.

^;v:u|e3^Metermine distance to second interface

Doppler EffectCalculation Approach

Production and Detection of Sound

Production and Detection of Sound

arises from the vibrations and collisions of molecules within a particular

mechanical vibrations of that wave must be analyzed in terms of intensity and

Codi Itii (iiiicni led)

Copyright by The Berkeley Review

Exclusive MCAT Preparation

Copyright by The Berkeley Review

The Berkeley Review

liquidare much greater than they are for air.

n. Replace the hydrogen molecules with diatomic oxygen molecules, while

Increase the intermolecular attraction between the molecules.

C. I and III only

A general rule regarding the speed of sound is the following:

Restoring Force or Molecular Kinetic Energy

Copyright by The Berkeley Review

Exclusive MCAT Preparation

An acoustic scientist measures the properties of three unknown molecules,

and all gases have the same molarity.)

following a disturbance, which makes the speed of sound increase. Because