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Exam Review

Exam Name: 036 - 31 May 2011

1.

One of the following is not a criteria for screening test

a) Availability of effective treatment
b) Availability of medical personnel
c) Adequate knowledge of the condition
d) Expectation of benefits of screening far more than the risk
Review:SPM-Epidemiology-

2.

The following situations are associated with rise of temperature after death
EXCEPT
a) Burns
b) Heat Strokes
c) Pontine Hemorrhage
d) Septicemia
Review:FM-Death,Post Mor. Changes & Autopsy-1. Burns does not cause post mortem
caloricity 2. Heat Stroke is a cause of post mortem caloricity 3. Pontine Hemorrhage is a
cause of post mortem caloricity 4. Septicemia is a cause of post mortem caloricity

3.

Following are true of Kyasanur forest disease except

a) Transmitted by soft tick
b) Caused by retrovirus
c) Incubation period is 3-8 days
d) Killed vaccine available
Review:Microbiology-Virology-

4.

Pellagra like dermatitis occurs in

a) Dermato myositis
b) Carcinoid syndrome
c) SLE
d) Lymphoma
Review:Medicine--

5.

"Rat-tail" appearance on barium swallow examination is seen in:

a) Achalasia cardia
b) Carcinoma oesophagus
c) Hiatus hernia
d) Diffuse esophageal spasm
Review:Surger-Esophagus & Stomach-

6.

Trial of labour is contraindicated in all except

a) Minor CPD

b) Major CPD
c) Elderly Primi
d) Bad obstetrical history
Review:OBG-Contracted Pelvis, Abnormal Uterine Action7.

Which of the following can be given orally?

a) Cytosine arabinoside
b) Actinomycin-D
c) Doxorubicin
d) Mesna
Review:Pharmacology--

8.

A 48 year old man was admitted with a history of weakness for two months on
examination cervical lymph nodes were found enlarged and spleen was palpable 2
cm below costal margin hemoglobin was 10.5 g/dl platelet count 237 x 109/L and
total leucoleucocyte count 40x109/L which include 80% mature lymphoid cells with
coarse clumped chromatin Bone marrow revealed nodular lymphoid infiltrate. The
peripheral blood lymphoid cells were positive for CD-19, CD-5,CD-20 and CD-23
and were negative for CD-79 B and FMC-7. The histopathological examination of
lymph node in this patient will most likely exhibit effacement of lymph node
architecture by:
a) A pseudofollicular pattern with proliferation centers
b) A Monomorphic lymphoid roliferation centers
c) Predominantly follicular pattern
d) A diffuse proliferation of medium to large lymphoid cells with high mitoric
rate
Review:Medicine-Hematological Malignancies-

9.

After 4 weeks of Head trauma, patient presents with features of irritability and
altered sensorium.
a) Chronic subdural hematoma
b) Extradural hematoma
c) Intraparenchymal bleed
d) Electrolyte imbalance
Review:Sugery-Neurology-

10. In A Patient wih Major Severe Depression, the first and most important indication
for ECT is?
a) Stupor
b) Suicidal risk
c) Melancholia
d) Psychotic features

Review:Psychiatry-11. Prussak's space is situated in:

a) Epitympanum
b) Mesotympanum
c) Hypotympanum
d) Ear canal
Review:ENT-Ear-Prussak's space lies medical to pars flaccida, lateral to neck of malleus
and above the lateral process of Malleus. Anteriorly, posteriorly and superiorly it is
bounded by lateral malleal ligament. Posteriorly, it also has a gap through which it
communicates with epitympanum.
12. Which of the following intravenous anesthetic agents is the drug of choice in patient
with SHOCK?
a) Thiopentone sodium
b) Propanidid
c) Ketamine
d) Althesin
Review:Anesthesia-Intravensous Ana Agents-Ketamine is intravenous anesthetic agent
of choice in patient with SHOCK
13. Each one of the following features is seen in phenylketonuria, except:
a) Seizures
b) Eczema
c) Recurrent GI infections
d) 'Musty' urine
Review:Medicine-Nurti, Meta disorder14. X-linked dominant disorder
a) Vit-D resistant rickets
b) Hunter's syndrome
c) Hemophila
d) Color blindness
Review:MEDICINE-15. In high risk population HCC (Hepatocellular carcinomal) is best detected by:
a) USG
b) CT
c) MRI
d) None
Review:Surgery-Liver-Usg is not very sensitive for liver tumors and it is difficult to

distinguish in cirrhosis but it is the screening.

16. Club foot (CTEV) should be treated at the age of
a) 10-12 years of age of child
b) From the day of birth
c) 2-3 years of age of child
d) After epiphyseal fusion
Review:Ortho-Congenital Disorder17. Infective arthritis of hip in infants is referred to as
a) Tom smiths arthritis
b) Perthe's disease
c) Caries Sicca
d) None of the above
Review:orthopaedics-18. All the following conditions represent a type II hypersensitivity reaction except
a) autoimmune hemolytic anemia
b) myasthenia gravis.
c) transfusion reaction
d) hay fever
Review:General Pathology-Immunopathology-Type II hepersensitivity reaction is
mediated by antibodies binding to the cell surface of targets cells. In hemolytic anemia
and transfusion reactions, the destruction of red blood cells s mediated by cytotoxic IgG
or IgM antibodies. Antibodies to acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction
cause myasthenia gravis. Goodpasture syndrome is caused by antibodies to the globular
domain of collagen type IV. Antibodies to the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
receptor cause Graves' disease. Hay fever in an IgE-mediated type I hypersensitivity
reaction
19. Which one of the following is the most common site of Berry aneurysm?
a) Vertebra-basilar artery
b) Origin of posterior communicating artery
c) Anterior communicating artery
d) Anteiror choroidal artery
Review:Sugery-Neurology20. In infants,extra cardiac digitals toxicity is manifested by;'
a) Vomiting
b) blurring of vision
c) convulsions
d) rashes

Review:Paediatrics-cardio vascular System21. % of ovarian tumours of non epithelial origin in child hood is:
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 50%
Review:OBG-22. The best drug to control hypertension during intravenous anaesthesia is
a) Sodium introprusside
b) Labetolol
c) Hydralazine
d) Nifedipine
Review:Anesthesia-Intravensous Ana Agents23. Latex agglutination in CSF for Antigen is done in
a) Cryptococcus
b) Histoplasma
c) Toxoplasmosis
d) Candida
Review:Microbiology-Mycology24. Simple-random sampling
a) Everyone has equal chance of being drawn
b) Sample size equal to that of cluster sampling
c) Adjacent number is considered while taking sample
d) Each portion of sample represents a corresponding stratum of universe
Review:SPM-25. Which toxin of steptococcus causes hemolysis
a) Steptolysin O
b) Steptolysin S
c) Steptodornase
d) Both A & B
Review:Micro-Bacteriology--Streptococci produce two "hemolysins", streptolysin 'O"
and steptolysin 'S' -Streptolysin O is oxygen labile, antigenic and ASO appears in sera
following streptococcal infection -Streptolysin S is an oxygen stable hemolysin and so is
responsible for the meolysis seen around steptococcal colonies of the surface of blood
agar plates.
26. All are components of gun powder except

a) Charcoal
b) Lead peroxide
c) Potassium Nitrate
d) Sulphur
Review:FM-Injuries & Wounds27. Hypocomplementemia is seen in all except
a) Minimal change disease
b) Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis
c) Chronic lobular glomerulonephritis
d) Dense deposit disease
Review:PATHOLOGY-28. Denominator while calculating the secondary attack rate includes:
a) All the people living in next fifty houses
b) All the close contacts
c) All susceptible amongst close contact
d) All susceptible in the whole village
Review:SPM-Epidemiology29. The proximal convoluted tubules
a) Absorb most of the water and salts of the glomerular filtrate
b) Reabsorb half the glucose in the glomerular filtrate
c) Contain juxta glomerular cells which secrete renin
d) Are the main target cells for antidiuretic hormones
Review:Medicine-Kidney30. The first costochondral joint is a
a) Fibrous joint
b) Synovial joint
c) Syndesmosis
d) Synarthrosis
Review:Anatomy-Abdomen31. Ig-G in dermis of skin not seen in
a) Dermatomyositis
b) SLE
c) Scleroderma
d) Mixed connective tissue disorder
Review:MEDICINE--

32. This serious complication of neuroleptic drugs?

a) Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
b) Dystonia
c) Dyslexia
d) Malignant hyperthermia
Review:Psychiatry-General33. Weight loss may be seen in all of the following except
a) Uremia
b) Pheochromocytoma
c) Adrenal insufficiency
d) Insulinoma
Review:Medi-Hepatology34. A pt presents with bleeding from the ear,pain tinnitus and progressive deafness.On
examination there is a red swelling behind the intact tympanic membrane which
blanches on pressure with pneumatic speculum. Management includes all except
a) Radiotherapy
b) Surgery
c) Interferons
d) Preop embolisation
Review:ENT-EAR-Sreelatha
35. A 70- year-old intensive care unit patient complains of fever and shaking chills. The
patient develops hypotension, and blood cultures are positive for gram negative
bacilli. The patient begins bleeding from venepuncture sites and around his Foley
catheter. Laboratory studies are as follows: Hct:38% WBC:15,000/mL Platelet
count: 40,000/mL (normal 130,000 to 400,000) Peripheral blood smear: fragmented
RBCs PT: elevated PTT: elevated Plasma fibrinogen: 70 mg/dL (normal 200 to 400)
The best course of therapy in this patient is
a) Begin heparin
b) Treat underlying disease
c) Begin plasmapheresis
d) Give vitamin K
Review:Medicine-Hematology-This patient with gram-negative bacteremia has
developed disseminated intravascular coagulation. Intial treatement is directed at
correcting the underlying disorder-in this case infection. For the patient who continues to
bleed, supplementation of platelets and clotting factors (with fresh frozen plasma or
cryoprecipitate) may help control life-threatening bleeding.
36. A patient is brought to the emergency as a case of head injury, following a head on
collision road traffic accident. His BP is 90/60 mm Hg. Tachycardia is present. Most
likely diagnosis is:

a) EDH
b) SDH
c) Intracranial hemorrhage
d) Intra-abdominal bleed
Review:Sugery-Neurology37. Coral red-fluorescence in wood's Lamp seen in:
a) Porphyria cutanea tarda
b) Erythrasma
c) Liverdo-reticularis
d) Hypomelanosis
Review:Dermatology-38. Tryptophan Load test helps in the evaluation of deficiency of
a) Niacin
b) Riboflavin
c) Pyridoxine
d) Folic acid
Review:Biochemistry-Vitamins39. The most effective way to prevent pain on injection of propofol in an adults is to:
a) Warm the drug to 37 centigrade before injection
b) Mix ~ 35 mg of lignocaine with the drug before injection
c) Cool the drug to 4 centigrade before injection.
d) Inject ~ 35 mg of lignocaine as a 'Bier's Block' ~ 30 - 120 secs before injection of
propofol
Review:Anesthesia-Intravensous Ana Agents-The most effective analgestic method was
IV lignocaine, given as a Bier's block before the injection of propofol. Of 100 the
patients treated with lignocaine 40 mg with a rubber tourniquet at the forearm for 30 to
120s before the injection of propofol, approximately 60 would not have any pain who
would have had pain had they not received lignocaine. Metoclopramide is also a
surprisingly effective method for reducing pain on injection. Thei presumably reflects it
structural similiarity to the local anaesthetics.
40. Primary Vesicoureteral reflex results form
a) Neurogenic bladder
b) Non-neurogenic bladder dysfunction
c) Congenital incompetence of valvular mechanism
d) Bladder outlet obstruction
Review:Paediatrics-41. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding polycystic ovarian disease?

a) Elevated LH hormone
b) Can cause infertility
c) May be assoiciated with abnormal glucose tolerance test
d) Results in postdated pregnancy
Review:OBG-42. Carcinosarcoma may arise in
a) Uterus
b) Cervix
c) Vagina
d) Ovary
Review:Pathology-Female Genital Tract--Carcinosarcomas or malignant mixed
mullerian tumors are the tumors of endometrium with stormal differentiation. -They
consist of endometrial adenocarcinoma in which malignant stromal differentiation takes
place. The stroma tends to differentiate into a variety of malignant mesodermal
components, including muscle. Cartilage and even osteoid. -IT ususally occurs in
postmenopausal woman.
43. Drug of choice for cutaneous larva migrans is
a) Mebendazole
b) Niridazole
c) Hetrazan
d) Thiabendazole
Review:Pharma-Chemotherapy44. The centre of ossification appears in the lower end of femur by
a) 36 weeks of IU life
b) 34 weeks
c) 32 weeks
d) 30 weeks
Review:FM-Identification45. K-wire is used in
a) Circlage
b) Fixing forearm bones
c) Prior to plating
d) All of the above
Review:Orthopaedics-Fractures and Dislocations46. Post mortem wound best differs from the antemortem wound by
a) Gaps on incising
b) No clots

c) Absence of erythema and cellular changes

d) Removable stain
Review:FM-Death,Post Mor. Changes & Autopsy-In antemortem bruising, there is
swelling, damage to the epithelium, extravasation coagulation and filtration of the tissues
with blood and colour changes. These signs are absent in postmortem wounds.
Contusions produced immediatley before death show a marked decrease in the acidic
mucopolysaccharides of the connective tissue ground substance, as demonstrated by
Alcain blue or dialyzed iron technique. In post mortem wounds, margins are sharp and
well defined.
47. Which one of the following is least likely to cause hypernatraemia?
a) IV saline infusion
b) Hyperosmolar non-ketotic diabetic coma
c) Digoxin therapy
d) Diabetes insipidus
Review:Medicine-Nurti, Meta disorder48. The highest calories is in
a) Animal meat
b) Egg
c) Sweet potato
d) Milk
Review:P & SM-49. In a normal distribution curve, the true statement is
a) Mean=SD
b) Median=SD
c) Mean= 2 Median
d) Mean = Mode
Review:SPM-Statistics50. Declining death rate and more declining birth rate the stage is
a) Late expanding
b) Early expanding
c) High stationary
d) Declining
Review:SPM-Demo, FP, MCH51. Histiocytes are seen in all except
a) Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
b) Letterer-Sewe syndrome
c) Eosinophilic granuloma

d) Chloroma
Review:PATHOLOGY-52. Hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion of interphalangeal
joints indicates paralysis of
a) Muscles of thenar eminence
b) Muscles of hypothenar eminence
c) interossei and lumbricals
d) Lumbricals only
Review:Anatomy-Superior Extremity-This is the total "claw hand" position and result
from paralysis of the lumbricals and interossei muscles due to ulnar nerve and median
nerve damage at the wrist.
53. Drug of therapeutic benefits in Schizophrenia is
a) Lithium
b) Imipramine
c) Doxepin
d) Fluphenazine
Review:Psychiatry-Schizophrenia54. Bat wing appearance in x-ray is seen in
a) bronchial asthma
b) cardiogenic pulmonary oedema
c) mitral stenosis
d) pulmonary embolism
Review:Paediatrics-Respiratory system55. Perforation of bowel occures in Enterc fever during the
a) Ist week
b) 2nd week
c) 3rd week
d) 4th week
Review:medicine-56. Therapeutic use of acetyl choline is not possible because it is
a) Highly protein bound
b) Rapidly degraded
c) Rapidly excreted
d) Orally ineffective
Review:Pharma-CNS-Acetycholine has no therapeutic use as it is rapidly hydrolysed

(within microseconds) by Acetylcholinsterase enzyme.

57. Most common presentation in anencephaly is
a) Breech
b) Face
c) Brow
d) Shoulder
Review:OBG-Malposition, Malpresentation Cord Prolapse58. Most common site admantinoma of the long bones is
a) Femur
b) Ulnar
c) Tibia
d) Fibula
Review:ORTHOPAEDICS--Sreelatha
59. All the following accumulate reversibly in the liver cells except
a) lipid from fatty food.
b) iron from hemolyzed red blood cells.
c) carbon particles
d) vitamins B12
Review:General Pathology-Cell Pathology-Normal hepatocytes may store lipids, iron,
vitamin B12 and glycogen but do not store inhaled carbon particles. Carbon particles
inhaled into the lungs are taken up by macrophages, which carry these particles into the
hilar lymph nodes.
60. Typhoid bacillus survives for the longest period in one the following substances
a) Water
b) Contaminated and moist soil
c) Contaminated and dry soil
d) Ice cream
Review:SPM-Communicable disease61. Lambda phage
a) Has either lytic or lysogenic activity but not both
b) In lysogenic phase, it remains dormant until active
c) In lytic phase, it relaeses organisms by the rupture of the host cells
d) Is involved in the life threatening Mad cow disease
Review:MICROBIOLOGY-62. Essential atrophy of choroid is due to inborn error of metabolism of amino acid
a) Cystine

b) Cysteine
c) Arginine
d) Ornithine
Review:Opthal-Uveal Tract63. Oligohydramnios is seen in:
a) Renal agenesis
b) Oesophageal atresia
c) Exomphalos
d) Neural tube defect
Review:OBG-Disorders of Aminotic Fluid Volume64. Primary structrure deformity of an organ is called as
a) Malformation
b) Deformation
c) Dysmorphism
d) Syndrome
Review:Anatomy-65. Epidemic dropsy is due to
a) Sanguinarine oil
b) BOAA
c) Drug induced
d) Ergot alkaloids
Review:SPM-66. Which of the following types of Human papilloma virus is implicated in the
causation of Ca.cervix
a) 6
b) 11
c) 16
d) 42
Review:Obs-Dyplasias and Carcinoma of Cervix--HPV plays an important role in the
development of CIN. -HPV infected cells - koilocytes. -HPV with high oncogenic risk Types 16,18,31, 58
67. Following are causes of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia except:
a) Hemolytic anemia
b) Large hematoma
c) Rotor syndrome
d) Megaloblastic anemia

Review:Medi-Hepatology68. Somatostatin inhibits all except

a) Insulin
b) GH
c) Thyroxine
d) Epinephrine
Review:Pharma-69. The dose of high-dose contrast study is__ mL/kg
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Review:-Urology70. LEIGH disease is due to the accumulation of:
a) Glycogen
b) Pyridoxine
c) Sphingomyeline
d) Lipofuscin
Review:Paediatrics-Metabolic Disorders & Genetics71. TCA cycle substrate level phosphorylation occurs at
a) succinate dehydrogenase
b) Malonate reduction
c) Thiokinase
d) Fructase
Review:Biochemistry-CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM72. Vit B12 is absorbed in
a) Stomach
b) Ileum
c) Duodenum
d) Jejunum
Review:Biochemistry-Vitamins73. A patient was operated for colonic carcinoma and later a solitary nodule was found
in the liver Treatment of choice is
a) Surgery
b) Radiation
c) Chemotherapy

d) Conservative treatment
Review:Surgery-Liver74. Pneumography is a method of examination for peritoneal or retropertoneal
structures, gas used as contrast agent in this examinations
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) CO2
d) Any of the above
Review:Radiology Diagnosis-Diagnosis75. All are routine complications of LSCS except
a) Bladder injuries
b) Floating head
c) Anaesthetic hazards
d) Uteine lacerations
Review:OBG-76. Patella completely ossify by the age of
a) 6 years
b) 10 years
c) 14 years
d) 21 years
Review:Forensic-77. Proximal convoluted tubule necrosis occurs with poisoning
a) Phenol
b) Arsenic
c) Ammonia
d) Alcohol
Review:Pathology-78. Which one of the following produces lung abscess?
a) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
b) Pneumococcal pneumonia
c) viral pneumonia
d) None of the above
Review:PATHOLOGY-79. Fractures common in elderly women are all except
a) Clavicular

b) Colles
c) Intertrochanteric
d) Neck of femur
Review:Orthopaedics-Fractures and Dislocations80. Downbeat nystagmus is characteristic of
a) Posterior fossa lesions
b) Vestibular lesions
c) Labyrinthine lesions
d) Cerebellar lesions
Review:Medicine-Neurology81. Posterior belly of digastric is supplied by
a) Mandibular nerve
b) Hypoglossal nerve
c) Accessory nerve
d) Facial nerve
Review:-82. Organism multiplying and developing in the hosts is called as (all India 2000)
a) Cyclopropagative
b) Cyclodevelopmental
c) Developmental
d) All
Review:PSM-83. Wool sorters disease is
a) Pneumonic form of anthrax
b) Pneumonic plague
c) Hydatid disease of the lung
d) Caused by psittacosis
Review:Micro-Bacteriology--Pulmonary anthrax is called the wool sorters disease
(Common in workers in wool factories due to inhalation of dust from infected wool
Malignant pustule, hide porters disease are lesions due to cutaneous anthrax
84. All of the following are true about Rheumatoid arthritis except
a) Positive for Anti-IgG antibody
b) Juxta-articular osteoporosis
c) Morning stiffness
d) C Reactive protein indicates better prognosis

Review:Medicine-Rheumatology85. All are the drugs causing pulmonary fibrosis excepte

a) Busulfan
b) Methotrexate
c) Doxorubicin
d) Bleomycin
Review:Pharma-86. Mood disorder is seen in
a) paranoid state
b) Borderline personality state
c) Schizoid state
d) Hysterical state
Review:Psychiatry-Mood Disorders87. Privilaged communication
a) Between doctor and patient
b) Between doctor and concerned authority
c) Between doctor and guardian
d) Between doctor and court of law
Review:FM-88. Subacute combined degeneration occurs due to deficiency of
a) Vitamin B6
b) Folic acid
c) Pyriodoxine
d) Vitamin B12
Review:Biochemistry-Vitamins89. Patients who undergo extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy are at increased risk
for
a) Venous air embolism
b) Pneumothorax
c) Peripheral neuropathies
d) Hypotension with regional anesthesia
Review:Anesthesia-General-Anesthesia fr extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy may be
accomplished with either general anesthesia ore epidural anesthesia. When a patient is
submerged in the stainless steel tub, the peripheral vasculature becomes compressed by
the hydrostatic pressure, resulting in an increase in preload. Removing the patient from
the tank has to opposite effect. In patients who have received epidural anesthesia, there is
an increased incidence of hypotension after they emerge from the bath caused by

epidural-induced sympathectomy
90. Left atrial hypertrophy is seen radiological as EXCEPT
a) Double cardiac density
b) Left bronchial elevation
c) Right ant. Oblique view in barium swallow
d) Left ant. Oblique view in barium swallow
Review:Radiology Diagnosis-Diagnosis91. IUGR in USG is diagnosed and assessed by
a) Head to abdomen and femur to abdomen ration
b) Ponderal index
c) Amniotic fluid index
d) All of the above
Review:OBG-92. Arcuate eminence of the petrous temporal bone is caused by
a) Anterior semicircular canal
b) Posterior semicircular canal
c) Lateral semicircular canal
d) Cochlea
Review:Anatomy-93. In hippocampus EEG waves are
a) Alpha waves
b) Beta waves
c) Theta waves
d) Delta waves
Review:Physiology-CNS94. Metastatic calcification is seen in all except
a) Addison's disease
b) Sarcoidosis
c) Vitamin D excess
d) Hypoparathyroidism
Review:PATH-95. Fracture femur in infants is best treated by
a) Open reduction
b) Closed reduction
c) IM nailing

d) Gallow's splinting
Review:Orthopaedics-Fractures and Dislocations96. Least common mode of transmission of HIV
a) Homosexual contact
b) Heterosexual
c) IV drug abuse
d) Transfusion of blood products
Review:Medicine-nfections97. Superior cerebral veins drain into
a) Great cerebral vein
b) Vein of galen
c) Superior sagittal sinus
d) Inferior sagittal sinus
Review:-98. Which statement about angioneurotic edema is false?
a) C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency is a cause
b) Angiotensin-converting enzyme deficiency
c) Pitting edema of the face, lips and mucous membrane
d) Extreme temperature can provoke it.
Review:Medicine-99. Major psychosis is
a) Neurosis
b) Dementia
c) Reactive depression
d) Endogenous depression
Review:Psychiatry-General100. Hematological manifestation of Cushing syndrome include
a) Lymphopenia
b) Eosinopenia
c) Polycythemia
d) All of the above
Review:Paediatrics-EndocrinologyP.S.

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