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SUBJECT: CIVIL (III)

COURSE: UKPSE
NAME: ...............................BATCH.................................

.
"Always dream and shoot higher than you know you can do. Don't bother just to be
better than your contemporaries or predecessors. Try to be better than yourself ."

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1. The heaviest I-section for same depth is
a) ISMB
b) ISLB
c) ISHB
d) ISWB
Ans: c
2. Bending compressive and tensile stresses
respectively are calculated based on
a) net area and gross area
b) gross area and net area
c) net area in both cases
d) gross area in both cases
Ans: b
3. If the thickness of thinnest outside plate is 10
mm, then the maximum pitch of rivets in tension
will be taken as
a) 120 mm
b) 160 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 300 mm
Ans: b
4. In a gusseted base, when the end of the column
is machined for complete bearing on the base plate,
then the axial load is
assumed to be transferred to base plate
a) fully by direct bearing
b) fully through fastenings
c) 50% by direct bearing and 50% through
fastenings
d) 75% by direct bearing and 25% through
fastenings
Ans: c
5. When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet
group, then the rivets are subjected to
a) only shear stresses
b) only tensile stresses
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans: a
6. When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet
group, then the most heavily loaded rivet will be
the one which
a) is at the maximum distance from CG of the rivet
group
b) is at the minimum distance from CG of the rivet
group
c) gives the maximum angle between the two
forces Fa and Fm
d) gives the minimum angle between the two forces
Fa and Fm

where, Fa is the load shared by each rivet due to

axial load and Fm is the shearing load due to
moment in any rivet.
Ans: d
7. Which of the following types of riveted joint is
free from bending stresses ?
a) lap joint
b) butt joint with single cover plate
c) butt joint with double cover plates
d) none of the above
Ans: c
8. The difference between gross diameter and
nominal diameter for the rivets up to 25 mm
diameter is
a) 1.0 mm
b) 1.5 mm
c) 2.0 mm
d) 2.5 mm
Ans: b
9. As compared to field rivets, the shop rivets are
a) stronger
b) weaker
c) equally strong
d) any of the above
Ans: a
10. If the thickness of plate to be connected by a
rivet is 16 mm, then suitable size of rivet as per
Unwin's formula will be
a) 16 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 24 mm
d) 27 mm
Ans: c
11. By providing sufficient edge distance, which of
the following failures of riveted joint can be
avoided ?
a) tension failure of the plate
b) shear failure of the rivet
c) shear failure of the plate
d) crushing failure of the rivet
Ans: c
12. Minimum pitch of the rivets shall not be less
than
a) 1.5 d
b) 2.0 d
c) 2.5 d
d) 3.0 d
where d is gross diameter of rivet
Ans: c
13. Efficiency of a riveted joint, having the
minimum pitch as per IS : 800, is
a) 40%

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b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 70%
Ans: c
14. Select the correct statement
a) Material cost of a rivet is higher than that of a
bolt.
b) Tensile strength of a bolt is lesser than that of a
rivet.
c) Bolts are used as a temporary fastenings whereas
rivets are used as permanent fastenings.
d) Riveting is less noisy than bolting.
Ans: c
15. Bolts are most suitable to carry
a) shear
b) bending
c) axial tension
d) shear and bending
Ans: c
16. Diameter of a bolt hole is usually taken as
a) gross diameter of bolt
b) nominal diameter + 1.5 mm
c) nominal diameter + 2.0 mm
d) nominal diameter of bolt
Ans: b
17. When the bolts are subjected to reversal of
stresses, the most suitable type of bolt is
a) black bolt
b) ordinary unfinished bolt
c) turned and fitted bolt
d) high strength bolt
Ans: d
18. In the cross-section of a weld, throat is the
a) minimum dimension
b) average dimension
c) maximum dimension
d) none of the above
Ans: a
19. The effective length of a fillet weld should not
be less than
a) two times the weld size
b) four times the weld size
c) six times the weld size
d) weld size
Ans: b
20. For a standard 45 fillet, the ratio of size of
fillet to throat thickness is
a) 1:1
b) 1 : V2
c) V2 : 1
d) 2: 1
Ans: c

21. A butt weld is specified by

a) effective throat thickness
b) plate thickness
c) size of weld
d) penetration thickness
Ans: a
22. The actual thickness of butt weld as compared
to the thickness of plate is usually
a) more
b) less
c) equal
d) none of the above
Ans: a
23. According to IS Specifications, the maximum
pitch of rivets in compression is
a) lesser of 200 mm and 12 t
b) lesser of 200 mm and 161
c) lesser of 300 mm and 32 t
d) lesser of 3 00 mm and 24 t
where t is thickness of thinnest outside plate or
angle
Ans: a
24. A circular column section is generally not used
in actual practice because
a) it is uneconomical
b) it cannot carry the load safely
c) it is difficult to connect beams to the round
sections
d) all of the above
Ans: c
25. The slenderness ratio of a column supported
throughout its length by a masonry wall is
a) zero
b) 10
c) 100
d) infinity
Ans: a
26. The magnitude of two forces, which when
acting at right angle produce resultant force of
VlOkg and when acting at 60
produce resultant of Vl3 kg. These forces are
(a) 2 and V6
(b) 3 and 1 kg
(c) V5andV5
(d) 2 and 5
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
27. A number of forces acting at a point will be in
equilibrium if
(a) their total sum is zero
(b) two resolved parts in two directions at right
angles are equal

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(c) sum of resolved parts in any two per-pendicular
directions are both zero
(d) all of them are inclined equally
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
28. Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting
in opposite direction
(a) balance each other
(b) constitute a moment
(c) constitute a couple
(d) constitute a moment of couple
(e) constitute a resultant couple.
Ans: c
29. According to principle of moments
(a) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium,
then their algebraic sum is zero
(b) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium,
then the algebraic sum of their moments about any
point in their plane is
zero
(c) the algebraic sum of the moments of any two
forces about any point is equal to moment of
theiwesultant about the same
point
(d) positive and negative couples can be balanced
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
30. Which of the following is not a vector quantity
(a) weight
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration
(d) force
(e) moment.
Ans: a
31. According to law of triangle of forces
(a) three forces acting at a point will be in
equilibrium
(b) three forces acting at a point can be represented
by a triangle, each side being proportional to force
(c) if three forces acting upon a patticle are
represented in magnitude and direction by the sides
of a triangle, taken in order,
they will be in equilibrium
(d) if three forces acting at a point are in
equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine
of the angle between the other
two
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
32. If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the
action of three forces, then
(a) these forces are equal

(b) the lines of action of these forces meet in a

point
(c) the lines of action of these forces are parallel
(d) (b) and (c) above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
33. D' Alembert's principle is used for
(a) reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent
statics problem
(b) determining stresses in the truss
(c) stability of floating bodies
(d) designing safe structures
(e) solving kinematic problems.
Ans: a
34. A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a
vertical wall may not be in equilibrium, if
(a) the floor is smooth, the wall is rough
(b) the floor is rough, the wall is smooth
(c) the floor and wall both are smooth surfaces
(d) the floor and wall both are rough sur-faces
(e) will be in equilibrium under all condi-tions.
Ans: c
35. According to Lami's theorem
(a) three forces acting at a point will be in
equilibrium
(b) three forces acting at a point can be represented
by a triangle, each side being proportional to force
(c) if three forces acting upon a particle are
represented in magnitude and
direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order,
they will be in equilibrium
(d) if three forces acting at a point are in
equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine
of the angle between the other
two
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
36. Two coplanar couples having equal and opposite moments
(a) balance each other
(b) produce a couple and an unbalanced force
(c) are equivalent
(d) produce a moment of couple
(e) can not balance each other.
Ans: e
37. A framed structure is perfect if it contains
members equal to
(a) 2n-3
(b) n-l
(c) '2n-l
(d) n - 2
(e) 3n-2.

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where n = number of joints in a frame
Ans: a
38. The product of either force of couple with the
arm of the couple is called
(a) resultant couple
(b) moment of the forces
(c) resulting couple
(d) moment of the couple
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
39. In detennining stresses in frames by methods of
sections, the frame is divided into two parts by an
imaginary section
drawn in such a way as not to cut more than
(a) two members with unknown forces of the frame
(b) three members with unknown forces of the
frame
(c) four members with unknown forces of the frame
(d) three members with known forces of the frame
(e) four members with two known forces.
Ans: b
40. The center of gravity of a uniform lamina lies at
(a) the center of heavy portion
(b) the bottom surface
(c) the mid point of its axis
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
41. Center of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis
at the height
(a) one-fourth of the total height above base
(b) one-third of the total height above base
(c) one-half of the total height above base
(d) three-eighth of the total height above the base
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
42. Center of percussion is
(a) the point of C.G.
(b) the point of metacentre
(c) the point of application of the resultant of all the
forces tending to cause a body to rotate about a
certain axis
(d) point of suspension
(e) the point in a body about which it can rotate
horizontally and oscillate under the influence of
gravity.
Ans: c
43. Center of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on
the axis at a height of
(a) one-fourth of the total height above base
(b) one-third of the total height above base
(c) one-half of the total height above base

(d) three-eighth of the total height above the base

(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
44. The units of moment of inertia of an area are
(a) kg m2
(b) m4
(c) kg/m2
(d) m3
(e) kg/m4.
Ans: b
45. The center of percussion of the homogeneous
rod of length L suspended at the top will be
(a) L/2
(b) L/3
(c) 3L/4
(d) 2L/3
(e) 3L/8.
Ans: d
46. The center of gravity of a triangle lies at the
point of
(a) concurrence of the medians
(b) intersection of its altitudes
(c) intersection of bisector of angles
(d) intersection of diagonals
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a
47. The process of mixing clay, water and other
ingredients to make brick is known as
a) kneading
b) moulding
c) pugging
d) drying
Ans: a
48. Advantage of a clamp compared to a kiln for
burning bricks is that
a) it takes less time for burning
b) it gives more output of first class bricks
c) it has less initial cost
d) it is suitable when bricks are required in large
numbers
Ans: c
49. The internal size of mould used in brick
preparation is
a) equal to the size of a fully burnt brick
b) smaller than the size of a fully burnt brick
c) greater than the size of a fully burnt brick
d) none of the above
Ans: c
50. Pug mill is used for
a) preparation of clay
b) moulding of clay
c) drying of bricks

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d) burning of bricks
Ans: a
51. Which of the following bricks are used for
lining of furnaces ?
a) overburnt bricks
b) underburnt bricks
c) refractory bricks
d) first class bricks
Ans: c
52. The frog of the brick in a brick masonry is
generally kept on
a) bottom face
b) top face
c) shorter side
d) longer side
Ans: b
53. Number of bricks required for one cubic metre
of brick masonry is
a) 400
b) 450
c) 500
d) 550
Ans: c
54. Glazing is used to make earthenware
a) hard
b) soft
c) porous
d) impervious
Ans: d
55. Quick lime is
a) calcium carbonate
b) calcium oxide
c) calcium hydroxide
d) none of the above
Ans: b
56. Quick lime is
i) slow in setting
ii) rapid in slacking
iii) good in strength The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) only (ii)
c) both (i) and (ii)
d) both (ii) and (iii)
Ans: c
57. Assertion A : Pure lime takes a long time to
develop adequate strength.
Reason R : Pure lime has slow hardening
characteristics.
Select your answer according to the coding system
given below :
a) Both A and R are true and R is correct
explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct

explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a
58. Hydraulic lime is obtained by
a) burning of lime stone
b) burning of kankar
c) adding water to quick lime
d) calcination of pure clay
Ans: b
59. The main constituent which imparts
hydraulicity to hydraulic lime is
a) calcium oxide
b) silica
c) clay
d) water
Ans: c
60. Study the following statements.
i) Hydraulic lime is suitable for white washing,
ii) Fat lime is suitable for whitewashing,
iii) Hydraulic lime is suitable for making mortar,
iv) Fat lime is suitable for making mortar.
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iv)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (ii)
d) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: b
61. The main ingredients of Portland cement are
a) lime and silica
b) lime and alumina
c) silica and alumina
d) lime and iron
Ans: a
62. The constituent of cement which is responsible
for all the undesirable properties of cement is
a) dicalcium silicate
b) tricalcium silicate
c) tricalcium aluminate
d) tetra calcium alumino ferrite
Ans: c
63. Le Chatelier's device is used for determining
the
a) setting time of cement
b) soundness of cement
c) tensile strength of cement
d) compressive strength of cement
Ans: b
64. The main constituent of cement which is
responsible for initial setting of cement is
a) dicalcium silicate

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b) tricalcium silicate
c) tricalcium aluminate
d) all of the above
Ans: c
65. The initial setting time for ordinary Portland
cement as per IS specifications should not be less
than
a) 10 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 60 minutes
d) 600 minutes
Ans: b
66. As per IS specifications, the maximum final
setting time for ordinary Portland cement should be
a) 30 minutes
b) 1 hour
c) 6 hours
d) 10 hours
Ans: d
67. For testing compressive strength of cement, the
size of cube used is
a) 50 mm
b) 70.6 mm
c) 100 mm
d) 150 mm
Ans: a
68. The normal consistency of ordinary Portland
cement is about
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
Ans: c
69. Early attainment of strength in rapid hardening
cement is mainly due to
a) gypsum
b) finer grinding
c) tricalcium silicate
d) tricalcium aluminate
Ans: b
70. After storage, the strength of cement
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains same
d) may increase or decrease
Ans: a
71. According to IS specifications, the compressive
strength of ordinary portland cement after three
days should not be less
than
a) 7 MPa
b) 11.5 MPa

c) 16 MPa
d) 21 MPa
Ans: c
72. The slope of isochrone at any point at a given
time indicates the rate of change of
a) effective stress with time
b) effective stress with depth
c) pore water pressure with depth
d) pore water pressure with time
Ans:c
73. Within the consolidation process of a saturated
clay
a) a gradual increase in neutral pressure and a
gradual decrease in effective pressure takes place
and sum of the two is
constant
b) a gradual decrease in neutral pressure and a
gradual increase in effective pressure takes place
and sum of the two is
constant
c) both neutral pressure and effective pressure
decrease
d) both neutral pressure and effective pressure
increase
Ans:b
74. The value of compression index for a
remoulded sample whose liquid limit is 50% is
a) 0.028
b) 0.28
c) 036
d) 0.036
Ans:b
75. Which one of the following clays behaves like a
dense sand ?
a) over-consolidated ciay with a high overconsolidation ratio
b) over-consolidated clay with a low overconsolidation ratio
c) normally consolidated clay
d) under-consolidated clay
Ans:a
76. Coefficient of consolidation of a soil is affected
by
a) compressibility
b) permeability
c) both compressibility and permeability
d) none of the above
Ans:c
77. Degree of consolidation is
a) directly proportional to time and inversely
proportional to drainage path

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b) directly proportional to time and inversely
proportional to square of drainage path
c) directly proportional to drainage path and
inversely proportional to time
d) directly proportional to square of drainage path
and inversely proportional to time
Ans:b
78. Time factor for a clay layer is
a) a dimensional parameter
b) directly proportional to permeability of soil
c) inversely proportional to drainage path
d) independent of thickness of clay layer
Ans:b
79. Clay layer A with single drainage and
coefficient of consolidation Cv takes 6 months to
achieve 50% consolidation. The
time taken by clay layer B of the same thickness
with double drainage and coefficient of
consolidation Cv/2 to achieve the
same degree of consolidation is
a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 12 months
d) 24 months
Ans:a
80. Coefficient of consolidation for clays normally
a) decreases with increase in liquid limit
b) increases with increase in liquid limit
c) first increases and then decreases with increase
in liquid limit
d) remains constant at all liquid limits
Ans:a
81. Direct measurement of permeability of the
specimen at any stage of loading can be made
a) only in fixed ring type consolido-meter
b) only in floating ring type consolido-meter
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans:a
82. Compressibility of sandy soils is
a) almost equal to that of clayey soils
b) much greater than that of clayey soils
c) much less than that of clayey soils
d) none of the above
Ans:c
83. Select the correct statement.
a) coefficient of compressibility of an overconsolidated clay is less than that of a normally
consolidated clay
b) coefficient of compressibility of an overconsolidated clay is greater than that of a normally
consolidated clay

c) coefficient of compressibility is cons-tant for any

clay
d) none of the above
Ans:a
84. Coefficient of compressibility is
a) constant for any type of soil
b) different for different types of soils and also
different for a soil under different states of
consolidation
c) different for different types of soils but same for
a soil under different states of consolidation
d) independent of type of soil but depends on the
stress history of soil
Ans:b
85. The ultimate consolidation settlement of a
structure resting on a soil
a) decreases with the increase in the initial voids
ratio
b) decreases with the decrease in the plastic limit
c) increases with the increase in the initial voids
ratio
d) increases with the decrease in the porosity of the
soil
Ans:a
86. The ultimate consolidation settlement of a soil
is
a) directly proportional to the voids ratio
b) directly proportional to the compression index
c) inversely proportional to the compression index
d) none of the above
Ans:b
87. A normally consolidated clay settled 10 mm
when effective stress was increased from 100
kN/m2 to 200 kN/ m2. If the
effective stress is further increased from 200 kN/
m2 to 400 kN/ m2, then the settlement of the same
clay is
a) 10 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 40 mm
d) none of the above
Ans:a
88. Coarse grained soils are best compacted by a
a) drum roller
b) rubber tyred roller
c) sheep's foot roller
d) vibratory roller
Ans:d
89. With the increase in the amount of compaction
energy
a) optimum water content increases but maximum
dry density decreases

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b) optimum water content decreases but maximum
dry density increases
c) both optimum water content and maximum dry
density increase
d) both optimum water content and maximum dry
density decrease[ES 93]
Ans:b
90. The maximum dry density upto which any soil
can be compacted depends upon
a) moisture content only
b) amount of compaction energy only
c) both moisture content and amount of compaction
energy
d) none of the above
Ans:c
91. For better strength and stability, the fine
grained soils and coarse grained soils are
compacted respectively as
a) dry of OMC and wet of OMC
b) wet of OMC and dry of OMC
c) wet of OMC and wet of OMC
d) dry of OMC and dry of OMC where OMC is
optimum moisture content
Ans:b
92. Select the incorrect statement.
a) Effective cohesion of a soil can never have a
negative value.
b) Effective angle of internal friction for coarse
grained soils is rarely below 30.
c) Effective angle of internal friction for a soil
increases as state of compact-ness increases.
d) Effective angle of internal friction is a
complicated function of mineralogy and clay size
content.
Ans:a
93. For a loose sand sample and a dense sand
sample consolidated to the same effective stress
a) ultimate strength is same and also peak strength
is same
b) ultimate strength is different but peak strength is
same
c) ultimate strength is same but peak strength of
dense sand is greater than that of loose sand
d) ultimate strength is same but peak
Ans:c
94. The shear strength of a soil
a) is directly proportional to the angle of internal
friction of the soil
b) is inversely proportional to the angle of internal
friction of the soil
c) decreases with increase in normal stress
d) decreases with decrease in normal stress

Ans:d
95. The depth of footing for an isolated column is
governed by
i) maximum bending moment
ii) shear force
iii) punching shear The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) (i)and(ii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: d
96. If the foundations of all the columns of a
structure are designed on the total live and dead
load basis, then
a) there will be no settlement of columns
b) there will be no differential settlement
c) the settlement of exterior columns will be more
than interior columns
d) the settlement of interior columns will be more
than exterior columns
Ans:c
97. To minimise the effect of differential
settlement, the area of a footing should be designed
for
a) dead load only
b) dead load + live load
c) dead load + fraction of live load
d) live load + fraction of dead load
Ans: c
98. The critical section for finding maximum
bending moment for footing under masonry wall is
located
a) at the middle of the wall
b) at the edge of the wall
c) halfway between the middle and edge of the wall
d) at a distance equal to effective depth of footing
from the edge of the wall
Ans: c
99. In a pile of length /, the points of suspension
from ends for lifting it are located at
a) 0.207 1
b) 0.25 /
c) 0.293 /
d) 0.333 /
Ans: a
100. During erection, the pile of length / is
supported by a crane at a distance of
a) 0.207 /
b) 0.293 /
c) 0.7071
d) 0.793 /

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from the driving end of pile which rests on the
ground
Ans: c
101. While designing the pile as a column, the end
conditions are nearly
a) both ends hinged
b) both ends fixed
c) one end fixed and other end hinged
d) one end fixed and other end free
Ans: c
102. The recommended value of modular ratio for
reinforced brick work is
a) 18
b) 30
c) 40
d) 58
Ans: c
103. According to ISI recommendations, the
maximum depth of stress block for balanced
section of a beam of effective depth
d is
a) 0.43 d
b) 0.55 d
c) 0.68 d
d) 0.85 d
Ans: a
104. Assertion A : The load factor for live load is
greater than that for dead load.
Reason R : The live loads are more uncertain than
dead loads.
Select your answer based on the coding system
given below :
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a
105. The centroid of compressive force, from the
extreme compression fiber, in limit state design lies
at a distance of
a) 0.367 xu
b) 0.416 xu
c) 0.446 xu
d) 0.573 xu
where xu is the depth of neutral axis at the limit
state of collapse
Ans: b
106. The design yield stress of steel according to
IS: 456-1978 is
a) 0.37 fy

b) 0.57 fy
c) 0.67 fy
d) 0.87 fy
where fy is the characteristic yield strength of steel
Ans: d
107. According to Whitney's theory, ultimate strain
of concrete is assumed to be
a) 0.03%
b) 0.1%
c) 0.3%
d) 3%
Ans: c
108. According to Whitney's theory, depth of stress
block for a balanced section of a concrete beam is
limited to
a) 0.43 d
b) 0.537 d
c) 0.68 d
d) 0.85 d
where d is effective depth of beam[ES 2k]
Ans: b
109. The load factors for live load and dead load
are taken respectively as
a) 1.5 and 2.2
b) 2.2 and 1.5
c) 1.5 and 1.5
d) 2.2 and 2.2
Ans:b
110. As per Whitney's theory, the maximum
moment of resistance of the balanced section of a
beam of width b and effective
depth d is given by
a) ^acybd2
b) ^acybd2
c) 0.185acybd2
d) 0.43acybd2
where acy is the cylinder compressive strength of
concrete
Ans: b
111. The effect of creep on modular ratio is
a) to decrease it
b) to increase it
c) either to decrease or to increase it
d) to keep it unchanged
Ans: b
112. Shrinkage of concrete depends upon
i) humidity of atmosphere
ii) passage of time
iii) stress The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) only (iii)

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d) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: a
113. Due to shrinkage stresses, a simply supported
beam having reinforcement only at bottom tends to
a) deflect downward
b) deflect upward
c) deflect downward or upward
d) none of the above
Ans: a
114. In symmetrically reinforced sections,
shrinkage stresses in concrete and steel are
respectively
a) compressive and tensile
b) tensile and compressive
c) both compressive
d) both tensile
Ans: b
115. A beam curved in plan is designed for
a) bending moment and shear
b) bending moment and torsion
c) shear and torsion
d) bending moment, shear and torsion
Ans: d
116. In a spherical dome subjected to concentrated
load at crown or uniformly distributed load, the
meridional force is always
a) zero
b) tensile
c) compressive
d) tensile or compressive
Ans: c
117. Sinking of an intermediate support of a
continuous beam
i) reduces the negative moment at support
ii) increases the negative moment at support
iii) reduces the positive moment at center of span
iv) increases the positive moment at center of span
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: b
118. The maximum value of hoop compression in a
dome is given by
a) wR / 4d
b) wR/2d
c) wR/d
d) 2wR/d
where, w = load per unit area of surface of dome R
= radius of curvature d = thickness of dome

Ans: b
119. Fluid is a substance that
(a) cannot be subjected to shear forces
(b) always expands until it fills any container
(c) has the same shear stress.at a point regardless of
its motion
(d) cannot remain at rest under action of any shear
force
(e) flows.
Ans: d
120. Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance
to change of
(a) pressure
(b) flow
(c) shape
(d) volume
(e) temperature.
Ans: c
121. Practical fluids
(a) are viscous
(b) possess surface tension
(c) are compressible
(d) possess all the above properties
(e) possess none of the above properties.
Ans: d
122. In a static fluid
(a) resistance to shear stress is small
(b) fluid pressure is zero
(c) linear deformation is small
(d) only normal stresses can exist
(e) viscosity is nil.
Ans: d
123. A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is
(a) incompressible
(b) inviscous
(c) viscous and incompressible
(d) inviscous and compressible
(e) inviscous and incompressible.
Ans: e
124. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the
following
(a) Newton's law of motion
(b) Newton's law of viscosity
(c) Pascal' law
(d) Continuity equation
(e) Boundary layer theory.
Ans: d
125. If no resistance is encountered by
displacement, such a substance is known as
(a) fluid
(b) water
(c) gas

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(d) perfect solid
(e) ideal fluid.
Ans: e
126. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by
a resistance is known as
(a) volumetric strain
(b) volumetric index
(c) compressibility
(d) adhesion
(e) cohesion.
Ans: c
127. Liquids
(a) cannot be compressed
(b) occupy definite volume
(c) are not affected by change in pressure and
temperature
(GO are not viscous
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e
128. Density of water is maximum at
(a) 0C
(b) 0K
(c) 4C
(d) 100C
(e) 20C.
Ans: c
129. The value of mass density in kgsecVm4 for
water at 0C is
(a) 1
(b) 1000
(c) 100
(d) 101.9
(e) 91
Ans: d
130. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules
are attracted is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
(e) surface tension.
Ans: b
131. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to
property of liquid known as
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) surface tension
(d) viscosity
(e) compressibility.
Ans: c
132. The property of a fluid which enables it to
resist tensile stress is known as

(a) compressibility
(b) surface tension
(c) cohesion
(d) adhesion
(e) viscosity.
Ans: c
133. Property of a fluid by which molecules of
different kinds of fluids are attracted to each other
is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
(e) surface tension.
Ans: a
134. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m"
(a) at norma] pressure of 760 mm
(b) at 4C temperature
(c) at mean sea level
(d) all the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
135. Specific weight of water in S.I. units is equal
to
(a) 1000 N/m3
(b) 10000 N/m3
(c) 9.81 xlO3 N/m3
(d) 9.81 xlO6N/m3
(e) 9.81 N/m3.
Ans: c
136. When the flow parameters at any given instant
remain same at every point, then flow is said to be
(a) quasi static
(b) steady state
(c) laminar
(d) uniform
(e) static.
Ans: d
137. Which of the following is demensionless
(a) specific weight
(b) specific volume
(c) specific speed
(d) specific gravity
(e) specific viscosity.
Ans: d
138. The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in
all directions at a point only if
(a) it is incompressible
(b) it has uniform viscosity
(c) it has zero viscosity
(d) it is frictionless
(e) it is at rest.

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Ans: e
139. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be
same in all the directions when the fluid is
(a) moving
(b) viscous
(c) viscous and static
(d) inviscous and moving
(e) viscous and moving.
Ans: e
140. An object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81kg
on a spring balance. The value of 'g' at this place is
(a) 10m/sec2
(b) 9.81 m/sec2
(c) 10.2/m sec
(d) 9.75 m/sec2
(e) 9 m/sec .
Ans: a
141. The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is
due to the following property
(a) cohesion
(b) adhesion
(c) viscosity
(d) surface tension
(e) elasticity.
Ans: d
142. The surface tension of mercury at normal
temperature compared to that of water is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more or less depending on size of glass tube
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
143. A perfect gas
(a) has constant viscosity
(b) has zero viscosity
(c) is incompressible
(d) is of theoretical interest
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e
144. 1. Assertion A : The consumption of water
increases with increase in the distribution pressure.
Reason R : Higher distribution pressure causes
more loss and waste of water.
Select your answer according to the coding system
given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

Ans: a
145. The per capital consumption of a locality is
affected by
i) climatic conditions
ii) quality of water
iii) distribution pressure
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: d
146. Which of the following causes a decrease in
per capita consumption ?
a) use of metering system
b) good quality of water
c) better standard of living of the people
d) hotter climate
Ans:a
147. The hourly variation factor is usually taken as
a) 1.5
b) 1.8
c) 2.0
d) 2.7
Ans:a
148. If the average daily consumption of a city is
100,000 m3, the maximum daily consumption on
peak hourly demand will be
a) 100000m3
b) 150000m3
c) 180000m3
d) 270000 m3
Ans:d
149. The distribution mains are designed for
a) maximum daily demand
b) maximum hourly demand
c) average daily demand
d) maximum hourly demand on maximum day
Ans:d
150. As compared to geometrical increase method
of forecasting population, arithmetical increase
method gives
a) lesser value
b) higher value
c) same value
d) accurate value
Ans:a
151. The population of a town in three consecutive
years are 5000, 7000 and 8400 respectively. The
population of the town in
the fourth consecutive year according to
geometrical increase method is

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a) 9500
b) 9800
c) 10100
d) 10920
Ans:d
152. The suitable method of forecasting
population for a young and rapidly increasing city
is
a) arithmetical increase method
b) geometrical increase method
c) incremental increase method
d) graphical method
Ans:b
153. The depression of water table in a well due to
pumping will be maximum
a) at a distance R from the well
b) close to the well
c) at a distance R/2 from the well
d) none of the above
where R is the radius of influence
Ans:b
154. The devices which are installed for drawing
water from the sources are called
a) aquifers
b) aquiclude
c) filters
d) intakes
Ans:d
155. Select the correct relationship between
porosity (N), specific yield (y) and specific
retention (R)
a) N = y + R
b) y = N + R
c) R = N + y
d) R > (N + y)
Ans:a
156. The type of valve, which is provided on the
suction pipe in a tube-well, is
a) air relief valve
b) reflux valve
c) pressure relief valve
d) sluice valve
Ans:b
157. The maximum discharge of a tube-well is
about
a) 5 litres/sec
b) 50 litres/sec
c) 500 litres/sec
d) 1000 litres/see
Ans:b
158. As compared to shallow-wells, deep wells
have

a) more depth
b) less depth
c) more discharge
d) less discharge
Ans:c
159. Ground water is usually free from
a) suspended impurities
b) dissolved impurities
c) both suspended and dissolved impurities
d) none of the above
Ans:a
160. The polluted water is one which
a) contains pathogenic bacteria
b) consists of undesirable substances rendering it
unfit for drinking and domestic use
c) is safe and suitable for drinking and domestic
use
d) is contaminated
Ans:b
161. Which of the following is not a water borne
disease ?
a) dysentery
b) cholera
c) typhoid
d) maleria
Ans:d
162. The most common cause of acidity in water is
a) carbon dioxide
b) oxygen
c) hydrogen
d) nitrogen
Ans:a
163. The phenolic compounds in public water
supply should not be more than
a) 0.1 ppm
b) 0.01 ppm
c) 0.001 ppm
d) 0.0001 ppm
Ans:c
164. The maximum permissible limit for flouride in
drinking water is
a) 0.1 mg/litre
b) 1.5 mg/litre
c) 5 mg/litre
d) 10 mg/litre
Ans:b
165. Standard EDTA (ethylene diamine tetra acetic
acid) solution is used to determine the
a) hardness in water
b) turbidity in water
c) dissolved oxygen in water
d) residual chlorine in water

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Ans:a
166. If the coliform bacteria is present in a sample
of water, then the coliform test to be conducted is
i) presumptive coliform test
ii) confirmed coliform test
iii) completed coliform test The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans:d
167. Alkalinity in water is expressed as milli-grams
per litre in terms of equivalent
a) calcium carbonate
b) magnesium carbonate
c) sodium carbonate
d) calcium hydroxide
Ans:a
168. Which of the following values of pH
represents a stronger acid?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 7
d) 10
Ans:a
169. Turbidity is measured on
a) standard silica scale
b) standard cobalt scale
c) standard platinum scale
d) platinum cobalt scale
Ans:a
170. On standard silica scale, the turbidity in
drinking water should be limited to
a) 10 ppm
b) 20 ppm
c) 30 ppm
d) 50 ppm
Ans:a
171. Residual chlorine in water is determined by
a) starch iodide method
b) orthotolidine method
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans:c
172. Orthotolidine test is used for determination of
a) dissolved oxygen
b) residual chlorine
c) biochemical oxygen demand
d) dose of coagulant
Ans:b

173. If the total hardness of water is greater than its

total alkalinity, the carbonate hardness will be
equal to
a) total alkalinity
b) total hardness
c) total hardness - total alkalinity
d) non carbonate hardness
Ans:a
174. The amount of residual chlorine left in public
water supply for safety against pathogenic bacteria
is about
a) 0.01 to 0.05 ppm
b) 0.05 to 0.5 ppm
c) 0.5 to 1.0 ppm
d) 1.0 to 5.0 ppm
Ans:b
175. Residual soils are formed by
a) glaciers
b) wind
c) water
d) none of the above
Ans:d
176. Water content of soil can
a) never be greater than 100 %
b) take values only from 0 % to 100 %
c) be less than 0 %
d) be greater than 100 %
Ans:d
177. Which of the following types of soil is
transported by gravitational forces ?
a) loess
b) talus
c) drift
d) dune sand
Ans:b
178. A fully saturated soil is said to be
a) one phase system
b) two phase system with soil and air
c) two phase system with soil and water
d) three phase system
Ans:c
179. Valid range for S, the degree of saturation of
soil in percentage is
a) S>0
b) S<0
c) 0<S<100
d) 0 < S < 100
Ans:d
180. A soil has a bulk density of 22 kN/m3 and
water content 10 %. The dry density of soil is
a) 18.6 kN/m3
b) 20.0 kN/m3

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c) 22.0 kN/m3
d) 23.2 kN/m3
Ans:b

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