Solutions

Q1 Sol (B)
The Ganga Task Force shall be responsible for plantation of trees in upper reaches and banks of
Ganga, strengthening of pollution monitoring mechanism on ground, watch and ward for protection
of bio-diversity in Ganga among other things.
Q2 Sol (A)

Setu Bharatam: Building bridges and rail over bridges (ROBs) on national highways. Sagarmala
project: To provide infrastructure to transport goods to and from ports quickly.
Q3 Sol (B)

Q4 Sol (B)

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Olericulture deals with the culture of non-woody (herbaceous) plants for food, i.e., vegetable
growing.

The alluvial soils occupy 64 million hectares of the most fertile land. The soils vary from sandy loam
to clay in texture and is rich in potash but deficient in nitrogen and organic matter.
Q5 Sol (C)

The Constitution of India has conferred innumerable rights on the protection of labour. These
include the Articles 21, 23, 24, 38, 39, 39-A, 41, 42, 43, 43-A and 47 of the Constitution.

ee
a

Q6 Sol (A)

36% average reduction by developed countries, with a minimum per-tariff line reduction of 15%
over six years. 24% average reduction by developing countries with a minimum per-tariff line
reduction of 10% over ten years.Least developed countries (LDCs) were exempt from tariff
reductions. The Amber, Blue and Green Box are under Domestic Support not Market Access.
Q7 Sol (C)

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The Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY) focuses on four major initiatives improving operational
efficiencies of discoms; reduction of cost of power; reduction in interest cost of discoms and
enforcing financial discipline on discoms through alignment with state finances.
Q8 Sol (D)
Q9 Sol (D)

It is a method of farming system which is primarily aimed at cultivating the land and raising crops in
such a way, as to keep the soil alive and in good health by use of organic wastes (crop, animal and
farm wastes, aquatic wastes) and other biological materials along with beneficial microbes
(biofertilizers) to release nutrients to crops for increased sustainable production in an eco friendly
pollution free environment.
The key characteristics of organic farming include:
Protecting the long term fertility of soils by maintaining organic matter levels, encouraging soil
biological activity, and careful mechanical intervention.
Providing crop nutrients indirectly using relatively insoluble nutrient sources which are made
available to the plant by the action of soil micro-organisms.

Nitrogen self-sufficiency through the use of legumes and biological nitrogen fixation as well as
effective recycling of organic materials including crop residues and livestock manures.
Weed, disease and pest control relying primarily on crop rotations, natural predators, diversity,
organic manuring, resistant varieties and limited (preferably minimal) thermal, biological and
chemical intervention.

The extensive management of livestock, paying full regard to their evolutionary adaptations,
behavioural needs and animal welfare issues with respect to nutrition, housing, health, breeding and
rearing.

Q10 Sol (D)

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Careful attention to the impact of the farming system on the wider environment and the
conservation of wildlife and natural habitats.

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a

Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India (DFCCIL) is a Special Purpose Vehicle set up under
the administrative control of Ministry of Railways to undertake planning & development,
mobilization of financial resources and construction, maintenance and operation of the Dedicated
Freight Corridors. The Eastern Corridor, starting from Dankuni in West Bengal will pass through the
states of Jharkhand, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh and Haryana to terminate at Ludhiana in Punjab. The
Western Corridor connecting Dadri in Uttar Pradesh to Mumbai - Jawaharlal Nehru Port (JNPT), will
traverse through NCR and the states of Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
Q11 Sol (D)

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Inner Line Permit is an official travel document issued by the Government of India to allow inward
travel of an Indian citizen into a protected/restricted area for a limited period. It is obligatory for
Indian citizens from outside those states to obtain permit for entering into the protected state. It is
applicable for the following states Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Nagaland. There are two kinds
of official permits prescribed by Government for entering into any area within Arunachal Pradesh.
They are, Inner Line Permit (ILP) and Protected Area Permit (PAP). Any Domestic tourist coming to
the mentioned state has to obtain an Inner Line Permit. All the foreigners are required have the
Protection Area Permit or PAP for entering into the state.
Q12 Sol (B)

It provides design norms for building envelope, including thermal performance requirements for
walls, roofs, and windows.

Q13 Sol (A)

Bio CNG is the purified form of Biogas where all the unwanted gases are removed to produce >95%
pure methane gas.
Bio CNG is exactly similar to the commercially available natural gas (CV: ~52000 KJ/Kg) in its
composition and energy potential. As it is generated from biomass, it is considered a renewable
source of energy and thus, attracts all the commercial benefits applicable to other renewable
sources of energy.

Benefits of Bio CNG plants:

A non-polluting and renewable source of energy is created in biogas plant.
It is an excellent way of energy conversion.
Biogas plants produce enriched organic manure. This can be used as fertilizers.

The biogas plants provide a source for decentralized power generation.

Q14 Sol (D)

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Grid management on regional basis started in sixties.

Biogas as a gas provides improvement in the environment, and sanitation and hygiene.

Initially, State grids were inter-connected to form regional grid and India was demarcated into 5
regions namely Northern, Eastern, Western, North Eastern and Southern region.
In October 1991 North Eastern and Eastern grids were connected.
In March 2003 WR and ER-NER were interconnected .

August 2006 North and East grids were interconnected thereby 4 regional grids Northern, Eastern,
Western and North Eastern grids are synchronously connected forming central grid operating at one
frequency.

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On 31st December 2013, Southern Region was connected to Central Grid in Synchronous mode with
the commissioning of 765kV Raichur-Solapur Transmission line thereby achieving 'ONE NATION''ONE GRID'-'ONE FREQUENCY'.
Q15 Sol (D)
Q16 Sol (D)

As classified by Whittlesey, world agriculture is classified as ecological, subsistence, commercial &

collective agricultural systems.

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Rudimentary sedentary tillage come under subsistence system and shifting cultivation comes under
ecological type.
Q17 Sol (B)

Tannery waste-water is highly polluted giving rise to high oxygen requirement as chemical oxygen
demand increases. The higher the chemical oxygen demand, the higher the amount of pollution in
the test sample.
Q18 Sol (C)
Ground water overexploitation led to contamination of ground water due to geogenic factors (i.e.,
because of particular geological formation at deeper levels).
Q19 Sol (A)
When ordinary urea is applied, it gets converted to ammonium carbamate. Some of this gets
converted to ammonia gas. The rest of the ammonium carbamate undergoes chemical
transformation and nitrates are formed. Some of these are absorbed by the plants. The rest are
either leached into the underground water or are denitrified to gaseous nitrogen and nitrous oxide

under anaerobic conditions (absence of oxygen). Neem has properties that check nitrogen loss at
each stage. It slows down the process of nitrate formation and hence excess nitrate is not available
for denitrification.
Government has made mandatory for all the indigenous producers of urea to produce minimum
75% of their total production of subsidized urea as Neem Cotted Urea for the year 2015-16.
Q20 Sol (C)

Vermicompost is the product or process of composting using various worms, usually red wigglers,
white worms, and other earthworms.

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Q21 Sol (B)

It requires high stream gradient to increase the velocity of stream.
Q22 Sol (A)
No impact on fertility of soil.

Genome sequencing is figuring out the order of DNA nucleotides, or bases, in a genome-the order of
As, Cs, Gs, and Ts that make up an organism's DNA.
Q23 Sol (A)

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a

The objective of the policy include developing a policy framework for the plantation of trees along
highways, reducing the impact of air pollution and dust, providing shade on glaring hot roads during
summer, reducing the impact of noise pollution and soil erosion, preventing the glare from the
headlights of incoming vehicles, and generating employment.
Q24 Sol (A)
Q25 Sol (C)

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Central Government provides assistance to State Governments for setting up Soil Testing
Laboratories for issuing Soil Health Cards to farmers. State Governments have adopted innovative
practices like involvement of agricultural students, NGOs and private sector in soil testing,
determining average soil health of villages, etc., to issue Soil Health Cards.
Q26 Sol (B)

Article 43B: The State shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning,
democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies.

Q27 Sol (C)

The sequence in soil profile is

1st O - Horizon - consists of surface litter and decaying matter.
2nd A - Horizon - Commonly called 'top soil' contains humus, living organisms, some minerals. It is
the most fertile part of the soil.
3rd E - Horizon - The zone of leaching, lies between the top soil and the less fertile layers below
water and soluble minerals pan through this layer. This is not found in all soils.

4th B - Horizon - Lies below either A- horizon or E - horizon. Contains soluble mineral (ex. Aluminum
and iron), which accumulate deep rooted plants derive minerals and oxygen that have leached into
it.
R - Horizon - It is the lowest soil layer consisting mostly of parent material lies above the
impenetrable layer of bed rock and does not contain any organic material.
Q28 Sol (C)

The Central government is empowered to constitute a Tribunal, on a complaint received from a

State Government that a water dispute has arisen or is likely to arise

Q30 Sol (C)

Q31 Sol (C)

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Q29 Sol (A)

Temperate climate is more suitable for commercial farming than tropical climate.
Q32 Sol (D)

Rainwater harvesting is a technology used for collecting and storing rainwater from rooftops, the
land surface or rock catchments using simple techniques such as jars and pots as well as more
complex techniques such as underground check dams.

ee
a

Rainwater Harvesting Advantages are:

a)Makes use of a natural resource and reduces flooding, stormwater runoff, erosion and
contamination of surface water with pesticides, sediment, metals and fertilizers.
b)Reduces the need for imported water.

c)Excellent source of water for landscape irrigation, with no chemicals such as fluoride and chlorine,
and no dissolved salts and minerals from the soil.

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d)Promotes both water and energy conservation.

e)No filtration system required for landscape irrigation.

Q33 Sol (D)

The National Land Records Modernization Programme (NLRMP) aimed to modernize management of
land records, minimize scope of land/property disputes, enhance transparency in the land records
maintenance system, and facilitate moving eventually towards guaranteed conclusive titles to
immovable properties in the country. The major components of the programme are computerization
of all land records including mutations, digitization of maps and integration of textual and spatial
data, survey/re-survey and updation of all survey and settlement records including creation of
original cadastral records wherever necessary, computerization of registration and its integration
with the land records maintenance system, development of core Geospatial Information System
(GIS) and capacity building.

Q34 Sol (D)

Coal is the main source of energy in the country and accounts for 67% of the commercial
requirement of the country. The coal of India may be classified under two categories: (i) Gondwana
coal, and (ii) Tertiary coal.

The Gondwana coal belongs to the carboniferous period. Over 98 per cent of the total coal reserves
of India belong to the Gondwana Period. The Gondwana coal is mainly bituminous or anthracite in
which the carbon content varies between 60 to 90 per cent. The bituminous coal is converted into
coke before being used in the iron and steel industry.

Q35 Sol (D)

Q36 Sol (A)

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Tertiary coal is an inferior type of coal in which the carbon varies between 30 per cent in Gujarat and
Rajasthan to 50 per cent in Assam. The largest lignite deposits of the country are at Neyveli in the
state of Tamil Nadu.

There are many physical and social factors which determine the extent and severity of soil erosion.
The principal physical factors are erosivity of rainfall, erodibility of soil, severity of periodic floods,
length and steepness of the slope. The important social factors are deforestation, overgrazing,
nature of land use and methods of cultivation.

ee
a

Q37 Sol (D)

The Eastern Himalayan broadleaf forests is a temperate broadleaf forest ecoregion found in the
middle elevations of the eastern Himalayas, including parts of Nepal, India, and Bhutan. The Eastern
Himalayan broadleaf forests are diverse and species-rich, with a great diversity (of oaks and
rhododendrons in particular) and many endemic species including plants of Indo-malayan,
Indochinese, Himalayan, Eastern Asiatic and even Gondwana in origin.
Q38 Sol (A)

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Objective of the Policy - To Explore and Promote Deployment of Offshore Wind Farms in the
Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of the country, including those under Public Private Partnership.
Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), beyond the 12 nm limit and up to 200 nm, to under international
law, India has right construct structures such as wind farm installations.
Q39 Sol (B)

Torrefied wood is a renewable, carbon-neutral energy source that is more energy dense than wood
and almost as dense as coal.
Q40 Sol (B)
It is presently functioning as an attached office of the Ministry of Water Resources, Government of
India.
Q41 Sol (D)
One other constitutional discretion is determining the amount payable by the Government of
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing
from licenses for mineral exploration.

In addition to the above constitutional discretion (i.e., the express discretion in the Constitution), the
governor, like the president, also has situational discretion (i.e., the hidden discretion derived from
the exigencies a prevailing political situation) in the following cases:
Appointment of chief minister when no party has a clear-cut majority in the state legislative
assembly or when the chief minister in office dies suddenly and there is no obvious successor

Dismissal of the council of ministers when it cannot prove the confidence of the state legislative
assembly.
Dissolution of the state legislative assembly if the council of ministers has lost its majority

Q42 Sol (A)

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It is to be noted that the President has no or little constitutional discretion.

Statement 1: Even if a state law prescribes for death sentence, the power to grant pardon lies with
the President and not the governor. But, the governor can suspend, remit or commute a death
sentence.
Statement 2: The President can grant pardon, reprieve, respite, suspension, remission or
commutation in respect to punishment or sentence by a court martial (military court). Governor
cannot.

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Q43 Sol (D)

The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members (as soon as may be, after its first
sitting).
Whenever the office of the Speaker falls vacant, the Lok Sabha elects another member to fill the
vacancy. The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.
Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the Lok Sabha
Q44 Sol (C)

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In his oath, the President swears:

to faithfully execute the office;

to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law; and
to devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of India.

The oath of office to the President is administered by the Chief Justice of India.
Oath in Statement 2 is taken by the judges of Supreme Court and High Courts, and
Oath in Statement 2 is taken by the information commissioners, judges of Supreme Court and High
Courts etc.
Q45 Sol (B)
Statement 1: The resignation letter is submitted to the President, and not the Chief Minister. So, 1 is
wrong.
Statement 2: A governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon
his office. However, this term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President.

The Supreme Court held that the pleasure of the President is not justifiable. The governor has no
security of tenure and no fixed term of office. He may be removed by the President at any time
without mentioning any grounds for his removal.
Q46 Sol (B)
The governor is neither directly elected by the people nor indirectly elected by a specially
constituted electoral college as is the case with the president.

He is appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal. In a way, he is a nominee of
the Central government. But, as held by the Supreme Court in 1979, the office of governor of a state
is not an employment under the Central government.

Q47 Sol (D)

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It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or subordinate to the
Central government.

Judicial review is the power of the Supreme Court to examine the constitutionality of legislative
enactments and executive orders of both the Central and state governments.

On examination, if they are found to be violative of the Constitution or fundamental rights (ultravires), they can be declared as illegal, unconstitutional and invalid (null and void) by the Supreme
Court. Consequently, they cannot be enforced by the Government.

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Judicial review is needed for the following reasons:

To uphold the principle of the supremacy of the Constitution.

To maintain federal equilibrium (balance between Centre and states).

To protect the fundamental rights of the citizens
Q48 Sol (D)

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The Supreme Court is primarily a court of appeal and hears appeals against the judgements of the
lower courts.
It enjoys a wide appellate jurisdiction which can be classified under four heads:
Appeals in constitutional matters.
Appeals in civil matters.

Appeals in criminal matters.

Appeals by special leave.

In the constitutional cases, an appeal can be made to the Supreme Court against the judgement of a
high court if the high court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of law that requires
the interpretation of the Constitution.
Q49 Sol (A)
As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian
Federation. More elaborately, any dispute between:

The Centre and one or more states; or

The Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other; or
Between two or more states.
In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction.

Exclusive means, no other court can decide such disputes and original means, the power to hear
such disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal.

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Q50 Sol (A)

The Federal Court of India was a judicial body, established in India in 1937 under the provisions of
the Government of India Act 1935, with original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction.
It functioned until 1950, when the Supreme Court of India was established.

The Federal Court had exclusive original jurisdiction in any dispute between the Central Government
and the Provinces.
Initially, it was empowered to hear appeals from the High Courts of the provinces in the cases which
involved the interpretation of any Section of the Government of India Act, 1935.

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Q51 Sol (D)

All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only.

These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members.
A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. The chairman of the committee is
appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members and he is invariably from the ruling party

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The function of the committee is to examine the estimates included in the budget and suggest
'economies' in public expenditure. Hence, it has been described as a 'continuous economy
committee'
It is not incumbent on the committee to examine the entire estimates of any one year. The demands
for grants are finally voted despite the fact that the committee has made no report.
Q52 Sol (B)

To keep politics away from such ads, the committee emphasized that only the pictures and names of
the President, the Prime Minister, Governor and Chief Ministers should be published
Q53 Sol (C)
The question in hand shows the unitary tendencies of the Indian federation cum Union.
The Parliament can create or abolish the state legislative councils on the recommendation of the
concerned state legislative assemblies.
It is notable that these councils are created by the Parliament too.
It can also increase or decrease the area, alter the boundaries and change the names of states of the
Indian Union.

Q54 Sol (A)

All other public money (other than those which are credited to the Consolidated Fund of India)
received by or on behalf of the Government of India shall be credited to the Public Account of India.

Such payments are mostly in the nature of banking transactions

Q55 Sol (A)

This includes provident fund deposits, judicial deposits, savings bank deposits, departmental
deposits, remittances and so on. This account is operated by executive action, that is, the payments
from this account can be made without parliamentary appropriation.

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The Appropriation Bill becomes the Appropriation Act after it is assented to by the President.

This act authorises (or legalises) the payments from the Consolidated Fund of India. This means that
the government cannot withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India till the enactment of
the appropriation bill. This takes time and usually goes on till the end of April.
But the government needs money to carry on its normal activities after 31 March (the end of the
financial year).

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a

To overcome this functional difficulty, the Constitution has authorised the Lok Sabha to make any
grant in advance in respect to the estimated expenditure for a part of the financial year, pending the
completion of the voting of the demands for grants and the enactment of the appropriation bill.
This provision is known as the 'vote on account'. It is passed (or granted) after the general discussion
on budget is over.
It is generally granted for two months for an amount equivalent to one-sixth of the total estimation
Q56 Sol (D)

Correct order is:

Presentation of budget.

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General discussion.

Scrutiny by departmental committees

Voting on demands for grants.
Passing of appropriation bill.

Passing of finance bill

The general discussion on budget begins a few days after its presentation. It takes place in both the
Houses of Parliament and lasts usually for three to four days.
After the general discussion on the budget is over, the Houses are adjourned for about three to four
weeks and 24 departmental standing committees examine the budget.

After voting demand for grants, an appropriation bill is introduced to provide for the appropriation,
out of the Consolidated Fund of India, all money required to meet
The grants voted by the Lok Sabha.
The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Q57 Sol (D)

Statements 1and 2: The budget consists of two types of expenditure the expenditure 'charged' upon
the Consolidated Fund of India and the expenditure 'made' from the Consolidated Fund of India.

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The charged expenditure is non-votable by the Parliament, that is, it can only be discussed by the
Parliament, while the other type has to be voted by the Parliament.
Statement 3: The final bill containing all such expenditures must receive Presidential assent to
become valid.
Q58 Sol (C)

Joint sitting cannot also be called in case of a money bill.

Statement 1: It is a money bill, and hence joint sitting cannot be summoned.

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a

Statement 2: Each house has the same power with respect to a constitutional amendment bill, and
must pass it separately.

Statement 3: In case of a disagreement between the two Houses over such a bill, the President can
summon a joint sitting of the two Houses to resolve the deadlock.
Q59 Sol (C)

Statement 1: Technological improvements reduce energy consumption per unit of product

generated, and there has been a phenomenal expansion of energy saving technology, for e.g. LED
bulbs replacing CFL bulbs.

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Statement 2: Services sector generally consumes less energy per capita as compared to the industrial
sector. So, the shift is more energy saving. Hence 2 is also correct.
Q60 Sol (D)

It includes the following matters:

The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;

The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government;

The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the contingency fund of India, the payment of
moneys into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund;
The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing the amount
of any such expenditure;
The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or
the custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a state; or

Any matter incidental to any of the matters specified above.

Q61 Sol (A)
Statement 1: Public bills are introduced by Ministers, whereas private bills are introduced by any
Member of Parliament other than a minister.
Statement 2: Introduction of public bill in the House requires seven days' notice. Introduction of
private bill in the House requires one month's notice.

Q62 Sol (B)

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Learning: Public bill reflects of the policies of the government (ruling party). Its rejection by the
House amounts to the expression of want of parliamentary confidence in the government and may
lead to its resignation.

The Financial Stability Board (FSB) is an international body that monitors and makes
recommendations about the global financial system.

It was established after the 2009 G-20 London summit in April 2009 as a successor to the Financial
Stability Forum (FSF).
The Board includes all G-20 major economies, FSF members, and the European Commission. It is
based in Basel, Switzerland.

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a

Q63 Sol (D)

Statement 1: No-confidence motion need not state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha,
whereas Censure motion should.
Statement 2: Censure motion can be moved against an individual minister or a group of ministers or
the entire council of ministers. No-confidence motion can only be moved against the entire council
of ministers. So, 2 is wrong.

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Learning: Censure motion is moved for censuring the council of ministers for specific policies and
actions. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers need not resign from the office. Noconfidence motion is moved for ascertaining the confidence of Lok Sabha in the council of ministers.
If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers must resign from office. The motion needs
the support of 50 members to be admitted.
Q64 Sol (C)

Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. Thus it is an
informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters without any prior
notice.
The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day (ie,
regular business of the House) is taken up.
In other words, the time gap between the question hour and the agenda is known as zero hour.
Q65 Sol (A)
Justification: The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is slotted for the Question hour.
During this time, the members ask questions and the ministers usually give answers.

The questions are of three kinds, namely, starred, unstarred and short notice.
Option (b) is unstarred question.
Option (d) is Short notice questions
Q66 Sol (B)

Some pending bills and all pending assurances that are to be examined by the Committee on
Government Assurances do not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. The position with respect
to lapsing of bills is as follows:

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A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by
the Rajya Sabha).
A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.

A bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the
holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse.
A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.
A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.

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A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses does not
lapse
Q67 Sol (A)

Statement 1: Prorogation not only terminates a sitting but also a session of the House.
Statement 2: Prorogation does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House.
This is the same as adjournment.
However, all pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh
notices have to be given for the next session.

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Q68 Sol (B)

The Secretariat of Rajya Sabha was set up pursuant to the provisions contained in Article 98 of the
Constitution.
Parliament may by law regulate the recruitment and the conditions of service ofpersons appointed
to the secretarial staff of either House of Parliament.

The President may, after consultation with the Speaker of the House of the People or the Chairman
of the Council of States, as the case may be, make rules regulating the recruitment and the
conditions of service of persons appointed to the secretarial staff of the House
Q69 Sol (A)
Repos allow the banks and the financial institutions to borrow money from the RBI for the shortterm (by selling Government Securities to the RBI).
In reverse repos, the banks and financial institutions purchase Government securities from the RBI
(basically here the RBI is borrowing from the banks and the financial institutions).

All the Government securities are dated and the interest for the repo or reverse repo transactions is
announced by the RBI from time to time.
The provision of repos and the reverse repos have been able to serve the liquidity evenness in the
economy as the banks are able to get the required amount of funds out of it, and they can park
surplus idle funds through it.
Q70 Sol (B)

At that time, the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were called the President and Deputy President
respectively and the same nomenclature continued till 1947.

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Before 1921, the Governor- General of India used to preside over the meetings of the Central
Legislative Council.

In 1921, the Frederick Whyte and Sachidanand Sinha were appointed by the Governor-General of
India as the first Speaker and the first Deputy Speaker (respectively) of the central legislative
assembly.
In 1925, Vithalbhai J. Patel became the first Indian and the first elected Speaker of the central
legislative assembly.

The Government of India Act o 1935 changed the nomenclatures of President and Deputy President
of the Central Legislative Assembly to the Speaker and Deputy Speaker respectively.

ee
a

Q71 Sol (B)

Statement 1: Two things should be noted here:

a) She is the final interpreter of the entire constitution of India within the house relating to its
proceedings.
b) She is the final interpreter only within the house. Outside the house, it is the courts. So, 1 is
wrong.

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Statement 3: She decides whether a bill is a money bill or not and his decision on this question is
final.
When a money bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for recommendation and presented to the
President for assent, the Speaker endorses on the bill his certificate that it is a money bill.
Statement 4: She herself is the chairman of the Business Advisory Committee, the Rules Committee
and the General Purpose Committee.

Q72 Sol (D)

There is one more case when the bill can be reserved along with compulsory acquisition of property
under Article 31A of the Constitution.
In case the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court, such
reservation is obligatory.
Q73 Sol (D)
Dance in India has an unbroken tradition of over 2,000 years. Its themes are derived from
mythology, legends and classical literature, two main divisions being classical and folk.

Classical dance forms are based on ancient dance discipline and have rigid rules of presentation.
Important among them are Bharata Natyam, Kathakali, Kathak, Manipuri, Kuchipudi and Odissi.
Both classical and folk dances owe their present popularity to institutions like Sangeet Natak
Akademi and other training institutes and cultural organizations.
The Akademi gives financial assistance to cultural institutions and awards fellowships to scholars,
performers and teachers to promote advanced study and training in rare forms of dance and music.

Q74 Sol (D)

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Statement 1: It is a continuing chamber, that is, it is a permanent body and not subject to
dissolution. However, one-third of its members retire every second year.

Statement 2: The seats left are filled up by fresh elections and presidential nominations at the
beginning of every third year.
The retiring members are eligible for re-election and re-nomination any number of times.

Statement 3: The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and
left it to the Parliament. Accordingly, the Parliament in the Representation of the People Act (1951)
provided that the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years

ee
a

Statement 4: The act also empowered the president of India to curtail the term of members chosen
in the first Rajya Sabha. But, he cannot do it anytime based on any recommendations. The term of
MPs is fixed.
In the first batch, it was decided by lottery as to who should retire. Further, the act also authorised
the President to make provisions to govern the order of retirement of the members of the Rajya
Sabha.
Q75 Sol (A)

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The Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances (DARPG), Ministry of Personnel,
Public Grievances and Pensions has taken steps to put in place Sevottam Compliant Citizen's Charter
and Grievance Redress Mechanism.
The Sevottam framework was designed by DARPG in 2006 as an assessment improvement
framework for public service delivery.
Q76 Sol (C)

Statement 1: It is established by Government of India under the provisions of the Delimitation

Commission Act.
Statement 2: The main task of the commission is to redraw the boundaries of the various assembly
and Lok Sabha constituencies based on a recent census.
The representation from each state is not changed during this exercise. However, the numbers of SC
and ST seats in a state are changed in accordance with the census.
Statement 3 and 4: The Commission is a powerful body whose orders cannot be challenged in a
court of law. The orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the respective State Legislative
Assemblies. However, modifications are not permitted.

Statement 5: Delimitation commissions have been set up four times in the past In 1952, 1963,
1973 and 2002 under Delimitation Commission acts of 1952, 1962,1972 and 2002.
The present delimitation of parliamentary constituencies has been done on the basis of 2001 census
figures under the provisions of Delimitation Act, 2002.
However, the Constitution of India was specifically amended in 2002 not to have delimitation of
constituencies till the first census after 2026.

Thus, the present Constituencies carved out on the basis of 2001 census shall continue to be in
operation till the first census after 2026.

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Q77 Sol (A)

Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Union Territories (Direct Election to the House of the
People) Act, 1965, by which the members of Lok Sabha from the union territories are also chosen by
direct election.
The representatives of each union territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by members of
an electroral college specially constituted for the purpose.
This election is also held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of
the single transferable vote. Out of the seven union territories, only two (Delhi and Puducherry)
have representation in Rajya Sabha.

ee
a

The populations of other five union territories are too small to have any representative in the Rajya
Sabha.
Q78 Sol (A)

It is a transit agreement established in year 2011.

Its founding members are Uzbekistan, Iran, Turkmenistan and Oman. Kazakhstan had joined the
grouping in 2015.
Accession to the Agreement would enable India to:

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Utilise this existing transport and transit corridor to facilitate trade and commercial interaction and
ties with the Eurasian region.
Synchronise India's efforts to implement the International North South Transport Corridor (INSTC)
for enhanced connectivity.

It will provide India an opportunity for reorientation of the freight traffic from the traditional sea
route to land transcontinental routes.
Q79 Sol (D)
The seats are allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the number
of representatives varies from state to state.
For example, Uttar Pradesh has 31 members while Tripura has 1 member only.
However, in USA, all states are given equal representation in the Senate irrespective of their
population. USA has 50 states and the Senate has 100 members'2 from each state. The

representatives of each union territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by members of an
electroral college specially constituted for the purpose.
Q80 Sol (C)
option (a) is valid in the Presidential system as in USA.
A Parliament may not be based on democratic elections or even adult franchise. It can be an entirely
nominated body as it largely used to be in the colonial rule. So,(b) and (d) are incorrect.

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Q81 Sol (A)

In India, executive is a part of the legislature, and the legislature is led by the executive. So, (c) is the
most appropriate option.

He does not even sit in Parliamentary proceedings.

However, he also performs certain functions relating to the proceedings of the Parliament, for
example, he summons and prorogues both the Houses, dissolves the Lok Sabha, addresses both the
Houses, issues ordinances when they are not in session, and so on.
Q82 Sol (A)

India's Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve (ABR) was included in the World Network of Biosphere
Reserves of United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).

ee
a

With the addition of the ABR, total 10 of the 18 biosphere reserves in the country have made it to
the list of World Network of Biosphere Reserves.

The other 9 Biosphere Reserves are: Nilgiri (Western Ghats), Gulf of Mannar (Tamil Nadu),
Sunderban (West Bengal), Nanda Devi (Uttarakhand), Nokrek (Meghalaya), Pachmarh (Madhya
Pradesh), Similipal (Odisha), AchanakmarAmarkantak (Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh) and Great
Nicobar.
Q83 Sol (C)

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Statement 1: They are not mentioned in the Constitution. However, the Rules of Business provide for
their establishment
Statement 2: They are of two types'standing and ad hoc. The former are of a permanent nature
while the latter are of a temporary nature. So, 2 is wrong.

Statement 3: They usually include only Cabinet Ministers. However, the non-cabinet Ministers are
not debarred from their membership.
Statement 4: They are mostly headed by the Prime Minister. Sometimes other Cabinet Ministers,
particularly the Home Minister or the Finance Minister, also acts as their Chairman. But, in case the
Prime Minister is a member of a committee, he invariably presides over it.
They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of
the situation.They not only sort out issues and formulate proposals for the consideration of the
Cabinet, but also take decisions. However, the Cabinet can review their decisions.

Q84 Sol (D)

Option (a): This option may seem correct as in absence of council of Ministers, bureaucracy becomes
an important decision-making authority. But, such extreme generalizations should not be chosen as
the answer. (d) is more appropriate.
Option (b): Once the house is dissolved, the very idea of accountability to the legislature dissolves
for the time being. Only the President then issues orders.

Option (c): Once the house is dissolved, the CoM cannot prove their majority again. So, it is wrong.

Q85 Sol (C)

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Option (d): Article 74 is mandatory and, therefore, the president cannot exercise the executive
power without the aid and advise of the council of ministers. Any exercise of executive power
without the aid and advice will be unconstitutional as being violative of Article 74'

As per Article 74'Council of Ministers to aid and advise President.

There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the
President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.

However, the President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice and the
President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration.

ee
a

Q86 Sol (B)

An exchange-traded fund (ETF) is an investment fund traded on stock exchanges, much like stocks.
An ETF holds assets such as stocks, commodities, or bonds, and trades close to its net asset value
over the course of the trading day. Most ETFs track an index, such as a stock index or bond index.
Q87 Sol (C)

Earth Hour 2016 encouraged people to explore and adopt a cleaner and more sustainable lifestyle by
embracing renewable energy solutions.

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This day encourages citizens, communities, businesses and organisations to switch the lights off from
8:30 pm local time for an hour to highlight the plight of the planet. The first Earth Hour was held in
2007 in Sydney, Australia.
Q88 Sol (D)

The PM swears that he will not directly or indirectly communicate or reveal to any person or persons
any matter which shall be brought under his consideration or shall become known to his as prime
minister for the Union except as may be required for the due discharge of his duties as such
Minister.
This does not imply that all government proceedings will be secret or Pm's office will work in
confidentiality. So, both statements are incorrect.
Q89 Sol (C)
Statement 1: Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president.
However, this does not imply that the president is free to appoint any one as the Prime Minister.

In accordance with the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the President has
to appoint the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister.
Statement 2: In 1980, the Delhi High Court held that the Constitution does not require that a person
must prove his majority in the Lok Sabha before he is appointed as the Prime Minister. The President
may first appoint him the Prime Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the Lok Sabha
within a reasonable period.

Q90 Sol (D)

The Ghadar Party was an organization founded by Punjabi Indians in the United States and Canada
with the aim of securing India's independence from British rule.

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Key members included Lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, Abdul Hafiz Mohamed Barakatullah,
Kartar Singh Sarabha, and Rashbehari Bose.
After the outbreak of World War I, Ghadar party members returned to Punjab to agitate for
rebellion alongside the Babbar Akali Movement.

In 1915 they conducted revolutionary activities in central Punjab and organised uprisings. Their
presence shook the hold of the British empire and police surveillance in Punjabi villages increased in
an attempt to crush the rebellion.
Q91 Sol (C)

ee
a

Defence trade between the US and India is one of the strongest areas of the bilateral economic
relationship. Over the past 10 years it has risen from $300 million to over $14 billion.

The act has been introduced by Congressman George Holding, Co-Chair of the House India Caucus. It
will help
Cement the India-US relations and lay a foundation for future cooperation and growth.
Shorten the time required for the notification of sale or export of defence articles from the United
States to India.

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Encourage more joint contingency planning and require the US government review and assess
India's ability to execute military operations of mutual interest.
Q92 Sol (D)

Supreme Court decides all the doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President even
though ECI organizes and conducts the elections.

So, A is incorrect, and R is correct.

Moreover, ECI has only limited quasi-judicial authority with regard to elections of MPs or MLAs. We
will be covering these topics in the coming tests.
Q93 Sol (C)
The President is an integral part of the Parliament of India, and enjoys the following legislative
powers:
He can summon or prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha.

He can address the Parliament at the commencement of the first session after each general election
and the first session of each year.
He can send messages to the Houses of Parliament, whether with respect to a bill pending in the
Parliament or otherwise.
He can appoint any member of the Lok Sabha to preside over its proceedings when the offices of
both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant.

Q94 Sol (D)

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The ASI has taken up the conservation project of Ta Prohm, Cambodia under the ITEC programme of
Ministry of External Affairs with an outlay of ? 19.51 crore.
The conservation project has been started on the request of the Royal Government of Cambodia for
India's assistance in Conservation and Restoration of Prasat Ta Prohm.
The major activities of the Archaeological Survey of India are:
Survey of archaeological remains and excavations;

Maintenance and conservation of Centrally protected monuments, sites and remains;

Chemical preservation of monuments and antiquarian remains;

ee
a

Architectural survey of monuments;

Q95 Sol (D)

When a vacancy occurs in the office of the President due to his resignation, removal, death or
otherwise, the Vice-President acts as the President until a new President is elected.
Further, when the sitting President is unable to discharge his functions due to absence, illness or any
other cause, the Vice-President discharges his functions until the President resumes his office.

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In case the office of Vice-President is vacant, the Chief Justice of India (or if his office is also vacant,
the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court available) acts as the President or discharges the
functions of the President.
Q96 Sol (C)

The Hannover Messe (HM) is one of the most important annual global exhibitions which provided an
ideal platform for India to gain entry to international markets with focus on global technological and
industrial innovation held in Hanover, Germany in April, 2015. 'Make in India' was the theme of the
Hanover Fair.
As India was designated as a "Partner Country" by Hanover Messe, a rare distinction achieved by any
country for the second time in the last ten years, a high profile platform for the presentation of
India's industrial and business achievements was geared up by this Department in close coordination
with the DIPP.
The high level political and economic attendance at HM brings worldwide publicity.

Q97 Sol (D)

Statement 1 and 3: Both statements are correct. More on these lines will be covered in the coming
tests.
Statement 2: President shall, in respect of every financial year, cause to be laid before Parliament,
Annual Financial Statement as per Article 112 of the Constitution. The Budget is presented to
Parliament on such date as is fixed by the President.

Statement 4: The fund is held by the Finance Secretary (Department of Economic Affairs) on behalf
of the President of India and it can be operated by executive action.

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Q98 Sol (C)

Statement 1: Higher oil prices help the Gulf countries and other oil exporters to earn higher
profits/income (where a large number of Indian workers are employed - whose higher earnings
made higher transfers possible to India).So, 1 can be correct.

Statement 2: Depreciation of rupee increases the value of foreign currency in India and hence the
NRIs or OCIs are at an advantage sending remittances to India.
Q99 Sol (D)

ee
a

India's urban sector presently constitutes 63% of India's GDP (up from 45% in 1990) and has been its
key engine of growth acceleration in the past decade. So, R is correct.
If you observe the trends given in India Yearbook for the year 2013 (Chapter 6) itself, the trends do
not have a uniform pattern. It is more in rural sometimes, and more in urban areas sometimes. A is
incorrect.

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With only 31% of India's population currently urbanized, along with high population density and low
GDP per capita, India's urbanization trends have scope to significantly accelerate