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MCQS SET 2

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1. Rearrange the steps in appraisal process.


A. Objectives of performance appraisal
B. Establish job expectations
C. Design in appraisal programme
D. Performance Management
E. Appraise performance
F. Performance interview
G. Archive appraisal data
H. Use appraisal data for appropriate purposes
a. DCHGFABE
b. HGFEDBCA
c. ABCFGHDE
d. ABCDEFGH
ANSWER: d. ABCDEFGH

Which of these is an issue while designing an appraisal programme?


a. Quality
b. What methods of appraisal are to be used
c. Quantity
d. Cost of effectiveness
ANSWER: b. What methods of appraisal are to be used

State true or false


Raters can be immediate supervisors, specialists from the HR department, subordinates, peers, committees, clients and
self - appraisals or a combination of all.
a. True
b. False.
ANSWER: a. True
When appraisals are made by superiors, peers, subordinates and clients then it is called ____.
a. 360 degree feedback
b. 180 degree feedback
c. Self - appraisal
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a. 360 degree feedback
Which company first developed the 360 degree system of appraisal?
a. Wipro in 1990
b. Godrej Soaps in 1991
c. General Electric, US in 1992
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c. General Electric, US in 1992

Which factors lower the accuracy rate of the rater?


a. The rater is aware of personal biases and is willing to take action to minimise their effect
b. Performance factors are properly defined
c. The rater has documented behaviours to improve the recall
d. The rater is unable to express himself or herself honestly and unambiguously
ANSWER: d. The rater is unable to express himself or herself honestly and unambiguously
Which of these is one of the seven criteria for assessing performance?.
a. Community service
b. Interpersonal contact
c. Need for supervision
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d. All of the above

Which is the simplest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance?

MCQS SET 2

9.

a. Rating Scales
b. Critical Incident
c. Cost accounting
d. BARS
ANSWER: a. Rating Scales

State true or false


In the forced choice method the rater is forced to select statements which are readymade.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True

10. Which of these is a major weakness of the forced distribution method?


a. Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution
b. Work is reliable
c. The error of central tendency
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a. Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution
11. How many components are there in remuneration?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
ANSWER: b. 5

12. Which of the following option is a component of remuneration?


a. Fringe Benefits
b. Commitment
c. External equity
d. Motivation

ANSWER: a. Fringe Benefits

Reason: Rest of the options are dimensions of equity

13. What is the alternate name for incentives?


a. Gratuity
b. Paid holidays
c. Payments by result
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c. Payments by result

14. Match the following components of remuneration with their inclusions I. Fringe Benefits ------- A. Stock option
II. Job Context ---------- B. Challenging job responsibilities
III. Perquisites --------- C. Group Plans
IV. Incentives ----------- D. Medical Care
a. I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
b. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
c. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
d. I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
ANSWER: a. I-D,II-B,III-A,IV-C
15. Which of these is a theory of remuneration?
A. Reinforcement

MCQS SET 2
B. Labour Market
C. Agency

a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A & C
d. A, B & C
ANSWER: c. A & C

16. Which importance is emphasised by the reinforcement and expectancy theory?


a. Person actually experiencing award
b. Seeking to restore equality
c. Holding identical jobs in the organisation
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a. Person actually experiencing award
17. Which are the three types of equities mentioned in the equity theory?
a. Internal
b. External
c. Individual
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d. All of the above
18. _____ involves the perceived fairness of pay differentials
a. External equity
b. Individual equity
c. Internal equity
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c. Internal equity
19. Who are the two main stakeholders in an organisation?
a. CEO and top management
b. Employers and employees
c. Executives and owners
d. None of the above
ANSWER: b. Employers and employees
20. Which of these is a consequence of pay dissatisfaction?
a. Strikes
b. Grievances
c. Turnover
d. Job dissatisfaction
ANSWER: d. Job dissatisfaction

21. Which of these is an internal factor influencing remuneration?


a. Business strategy
b. Cost of living
c. Legislations
d. Society
ANSWER: a. Business strategy
22. Rearrange the steps mentioned in a remuneration model.
A. Pay survey
B. Job evaluation
C. Pricing jobs
D. Job hierarchy
E. Job description
a. ABCDE

MCQS SET 2
b. DCBEA
c. EBDAC
d. EACDB
ANSWER: c. EBDAC

23. Which of the following is a challenge mentioned in remuneration?


a. Employee participation
b. Pay secrecy
c. Comparable worth
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d. All of the above

24. Under which conditions does skill - based pay system work well?
a. Employee turnover is relatively high
b. To set minimum wages for workers whose bargaining position is weak
c. To abolish malpractices and abuses in wage and salary payments
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a. Employee turnover is relatively high
25. Which of the wage concept is higher than fair wage?
a. Minimum wage
b. Living wage
c. Team based pay
d. None of the above
ANSWER: b. Living wage

26. ___________ is a systematic and planned introduction of employees to their jobs, their co-workers and the organisation.
a. Job evaluation
b. Investiture orientation
c. Orientation
d. Placement
ANSWER: c. Orientation
27. Which type of information is conveyed by orientation?
a. Training and education benefit
b. Job location
c. Job safety requirements
d. General information about the daily work routine
ANSWER: d. General information about the daily work routine

Reason: All the other options except "d" are topics covered in employee orientation programme.

28. In which country and year was orientation first developed?


a. U.S in 1970
b. U.K in 1970
c. India in 1970
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a. U.S in 1970

29. Which strategic choices a firm needs to make before designing its orientation programme?
a. Formal or informal
b. Individual or collective
c. Serial or disjunctive
d. Investiture or divestiture
e. All of the above
ANSWER: e. All of the above

30. _________ seeks to ratify the usefulness of the characteristics that the person brings to the new job.
a. Divestiture orientation

MCQS SET 2
b. Individual or collective
c. Investiture orientation
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c. Investiture orientation

31. Which of these is a stage while conducting formal orientation?


a. Employee is given only menial tasks that discourage job interest and company loyalty
b. Employee is overloaded with forms to complete
c. Specific orientation to the department and the job, typically given by the employee's supervisor
d. Employee's mistakes can damage the company
ANSWER: c. Specific orientation to the department and the job, typically given by the employee's supervisor
Reason: Rest all the other options are problems of orientation

32. Which of the below options are the topics covered in employee orientation programme?
a. Training and education benefit
b. To employee counsellor
c. Relationship to other jobs
d. Disciplinary regulations
e. All of the above
ANSWER: e. All of the above

33. ______ refers to the allocation of people to jobs; it includes initial assignment of new employees, and promotion,
transfer, or demotion of present employees.
a. Recruitment
b. Placement
c. Selection
d. None of the above
ANSWER: b. Placement
34. Which of these is a job in the context of placement problems and employee works?
a. Group health
b. Early departures
c. Independent
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c. Independent
35. Which of these is mentioned in the orientation checklist?
A. Parking
B. Equal employment opportunity
C. Complete form B
a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A & C
d. A, B & C

ANSWER: d. A, B & C

Performance Appraisal - MCQs with answers - Part 3


36. Which of these is an advantage of the critical incidents methods while performing performance appraisal?
a. Minimise inventory costs

MCQS SET 2
b. Negative incidents are generally more noticeable than positive ones
c. Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c. Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour

37. What is the full form of "BARS"?

a. Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales


b. Baseline Accounting and Reporting System
c. Budgeting Accounting and Reporting System
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a. Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales

38. What do behaviourally anchored scales represent?

a. The scales are anchored by descriptions of actual job behaviour


b. Superiors would feel comfortable to give feedback
c. A range of descriptive statements of behaviour varying from the least to the most effective
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c. A range of descriptive statements of behaviour varying from the least to the most effective

39. Who conducts the field review method?

a. Peers
b. Supervisor
c. Subordinates
d. Someone from corporate office or the HR department
ANSWER: d. Someone from corporate office or the HR department

40. Which of these is mentioned in a typical confidential report?


A. Leadership
B. Ability to reason
C. Integrity

a. A & B
b. A & C
c. A, B & C
d. B & C
ANSWER: c. A, B & C

41. Which performance appraisal methods consumes a lot of time?


a. Essay method
b. Rating Scales
c. Critical incident
d. Tests And Observation
ANSWER: a. Essay method

42. On what parameter does the cost accounting method measures performance?
a. Based on merit
b. Monetary returns the employee pitches to his/ her organisation
c. Comparing workers performance with his colleagues
d. Based on confidential report of the employee
ANSWER: b. Monetary returns the employee pitches to his/ her organisation

MCQS SET 2
43. Who was the first person to give the concept of Management by Objectives?
a. Edwards Deming
b. D.W. Cheetham
c. Peter F. Drucker
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c. Peter F. Drucker

44. Rearrange the steps involved in the management by objective process.


A. Setting the performance standard for the subordinates
B. Establishing new goals and new strategies
C. The actual level of goal attainment
D. Establish the goals
a. ABCD
b. DCBA
c. BCDA
d. DACB
ANSWER: d. DACB

45. The focuses of psychological appraisals are on _____.


a. Future potential
b. Actual performance
c. Past performance
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a. Future potential

46. Which method is used for evaluating the performance of executives or supervisory positions?
a. Psychological Appraisals
b. Assessment Centres
c. Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales
d. 360 degree feedback
ANSWER: b. Assessment Centres

47. In which country was the assessment centre first build?

a. US and UK
b. India
c. China
d. Japan
ANSWER: a. US and UK
48. What does the 360 degree feedback assess?
a. Communication Skills
b. Behavioural Aspect
c. Team - building skills
d. Soft skills
ANSWER: d. Soft skills
49. Which of these options are the activities that constitute the core of performance management?
a. Performance interview
b. Archiving performance data
c. Use of appraisal data
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d. All of the above
50. Which is the biggest challenge faced while conducting performance appraisal?

MCQS SET 2
a. Evaluating performance of self - managed teams
b. Presence of a formal appeal process
c. Appraisals based on traits are to be avoided
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a. Evaluating performance of self managed teams

Reason: Rest of the options are the legal issues involved while conducting performance appraisal

51. What is the main objective of job evaluation?


a. Job is rated before the employee is appointed to occupy
b. It is not compulsory
c. To define satisfactory wage and salary differentials
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c. To define satisfactory wage and salary differentials

52. Which of these options is one of the non - analytical methods of job evaluation?
a. Job - grading method
b. Point ranking method
c. Factor comparison method
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a. Job - grading method

Reason: Rest of the options are of analytical methods of job evaluation

53. Which of these is an alternate to job evaluation?


a. Wage survey
b. Employee classification
c. Decision Bank Method
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c. Decision Bank Method

Training & Development - MCQs with answers

54. __________ refers to the learning opportunities designed to help employees grow.
a. Training
b. Development
c. Education
d. All of the above
ANSWER: b. Development

55. How does training and development offer competitive advantage to an organisation?
a. Removing performance decencies
b. Deficiency is caused by a lack of ability
c. Individuals have the aptitude and motivation to learn
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a. Removing performance decencies

56. Which of the following is a benefit of employee training?


a. Improves morale
b. Helps people identify with organisational goals
c. Provides a good climate for learning, growth and co - ordination
d. None of the above

MCQS SET 2
ANSWER: b. Helps people identify with organisational goals

Reason: Rest of the options are benefits in personnel and HR

57. Choose which of the following is a benefit to the individual while receiving training?
a. Creates an appropriate climate for growth, communication
b. Aids in increasing productivity and/ or quality of work
c. Satisfies a personal needs of the trainer
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c. Satisfies a personal needs of the trainer
58. Which of this is a step in training process?
a. KSA deficiency
b. Provide proper feedback
c. Obstacles in the system
d. Use of evaluation models
ANSWER: d. Use of evaluation models

59. Which of the following is a method used in group or organisational training needs assessment?
a. Consideration of current and projected changes
b. Rating scales
c. Interviews
d. Questionnaires
ANSWER: a. Consideration of current and projected changes
Reason: rest all the other options are individual training needs assessment

60. _________ seeks to examine the goals of the organisation and the trends that are likely to affect these goals.
a. Organisational Support
b. Organisational analysis
c. Person analysis
d. Key skill abilities analysis
ANSWER: b. Organisational analysis
61. Which of these is the benefit of needs assessment?
a. Assessment makes training department more accountable
b. Higher training costs
c. Loss of business
d. Increased overtime working
ANSWER: a. Assessment makes training department more accountable

Reason: Rest all the options are consequence of absence of training needs assessment

62. Rearrange the steps in training programme.


A. What should be the level of training
B. What principles of learning
C. Who are the trainees?
D. What methods and techniques?
E. Where to conduct the programme?
F. Who are the trainers?
a. ABCDEF
b. DECAFB
c. CADFBE
d. CFDABE
ANSWER: d. CFDABE

63. Which of these is an off - the - job training method?

MCQS SET 2
a. Television
b. Job rotation
c. Orientation training
d. Coaching
ANSWER: a. Television

Reason: Rest all other options are on - the job training method.

64. State true or false.

Vestibule training utilises equipment which closely resemble the actual ones used on the job.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True

65. Match the following techniques of training with their correct description.

1. Tag Teams --------- A. Games to get team members know each other
2. Outward - bound training ----- B. Games to test ability to plan ahead
3. Mirroring ------ C. Training with an external perspective
4. Strategic planners ----- D. Adventure sports for teams
5. Ice breakers
----- E. one role played alternately by two participants
a. 1-E,2-D,3-C,4-B,5-A
b. 1-A,2-D,3-E,4-C,5-B
c. 1-D,2-A,3-C,4-E,5-B
d. 1-C,2-D,3-B,4-A,5-E
ANSWER: a. 1-E,2-D,3-C,4-B,5-A

66. Which of the following is a learning principle?


a. Recognition of individual differences
b. Schedules of learning
c. Transfer of learning
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d. All of the above

67. Which of the following is a technique of evaluation?


a. Longitudinal or time - series analysis
b. Transfer validity
c. Inter - organisational validity
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a. Longitudinal or time - series analysis

68. Which of these is a hindrance to effective training?


a. Career planning workshop
b. Aggregate spending on training is inadequate
c. Mentoring
d. Career counselling
ANSWER: b. Aggregate spending on training is inadequate

Motivating the employees - MCQs with answers


69. Rearrange the six steps of motivation logically.
A. Engages in goal - directed behaviour
B. Reassess needs deficiencies
C. Performs
D. Identifies needs
E. Searches for ways to satisfy the needs
F. Receives either rewards or punishment

MCQS SET 2
a. DFCAEB
b. BCDEAF
c. DEACFB
d. ABCDEF
ANSWER: c. DEACFB

Training and development programmes

70. The term human resource development reflects the fact that it is no longer appropriate in modern organisations to focus
on just the development of which group?
a)
workers
b)
employees
c)
consultants
d)
part timers
71. According to your text-book, which of the following is most important for HRD?
a)
to be clearly related to the organisations objectives
b)
to be clearly related to the expertise in the department
c)
to be flexible to be able to respond to sudden crisis
d)
to operate as an extension of the HRM department

72. What may be particularly necessary as part of the training process where people are working in another country?
a)
e-learning
b)
discovery learning
c)
cross-cultural training
d)
activist learning

73. What is the term used to describe the process of helping a new employee to settle quickly into their job so they become
efficient and productive workers?
a)
action learning
b)
discovery learning
c)
sitting by Nellie
d)
induction
74. Which of the following is not a stage in the systematic training cycle?
a)
evaluation
b)
assessing training needs
c)
planning the training
d)
job instruction on a one to one basis

75. Which of the following organisations were established in 2001 to cover learning and skills development in a wide range of
areas?
a)
Training and Enterprise Councils
b)
Local Enterprise Councils
c)
Learning and Skills Council
d)
The Qualifications and Curriculum Authority
76. Which of the following organisations are responsible for the enhancement and improvement of the performance of
people involved in development, management, health and safety and representation of people in the workplace?
a)
The Qualifications and Curriculum Authority
b)
The Employment National Training Organisation
c)
Training and enterprise councils
d)
Investors in People UK
77. Which of the following organisations aims at improving the quality of training and development practices by setting
national standards and by linking these to the achievement of business goals?

MCQS SET 2
a)
b)
c)
d)

Investors in People UK
Training and enterprise councils
The Employment National Training Organisation
The Qualifications and Curriculum Authority

78. Which national training schemes exist at advanced and foundation level?
a)
New deal
b)
NVQs
c)
GNVQs
d)
Modern apprenticeships

79. Which of the following is the best definition of a learning organisation?


a)
An organisation which facilitates the learning of all its members and continuously transforms itself.
b)
An organisation in which the managers are encouraged to develop
c)
An organisation which facilitates the learning of all its members in order to preserve the status quo
d)
An organisation which does a lot of training on an ad hoc basis
80. Which of the following is not one of the four principles that underpin the Investors in People standard?
a)
evaluating
b)
appraising
c)
commitment
d)
action

81. Which of the following is the best term to describe people who guide and suggest suitable learning experiences for their
proteges?
a)
human resource directors
b)
line managers
c)
coaches
d)
mentors
82. Which level of NVQ does the following specification describe? This level recognises competence in the performance of
complex, technical and professional work activities performed in a variety of settings. There is likely to be a substantial
degree of personal autonomy and responsibility, and it is usually necessary to demonstrate competence in allocating
resources and in management or supervision.
a)
level 2
b)
level 3
c)
level 4
d)
level 5
83. Which of the following is not a current version of New Deal?
a)
New Deal 25 plus
b)
New Deal 50 plus
c)
New Deal 60 plus
d)
New Deal for lone parents

84. Which of the following is true of modern apprenticeships?


a)
employers had no involvement in developing the national standards
b)
employers were involved in developing national standards so they are geared to each industry sectors
requirements
c)
different standards are set to meet local needs without any regard to national standards
d)
modern apprentice do not have to complete NVQs or any other qualifications while working

85. Which of the following best describes a Level 1 NVQ?

MCQS SET 2
a)

b)
c)
d)

Competence is shown in applying fundamental principles and complex techniques across a wide range of s
situations which may often be unpredictable
Competence is shown in performing complex, technical and professional activities in a wide range of settings
Competence is shown in a wide range of work activities that are likely to be routine and predictable
There is no need for any competence to be demonstrated since knowledge is all that is tested

86. When was the national standard for Investors in People first developed?
a)
1960s
b)
1970s
c)
1980s
d)
1990s

87. Which national body now has responsibility for national learning targets?
a)
IiP UK
b)
The Learning and Skills Council
c)
NACETT
d)
Local Learning Skills Councils

88. Which of the following government-led training incentives was involved in the past in imposing a levy on employers?
a)
The Industrial Training Boards
b)
The Investors in People initiative
c)
TECs
d)
LECs
89. Which of the following is not an objective of the Employment National Training Organisation?
a)
To represent the employment area
b)
To develop national, sectoral and local partnerships on wider educational and training issues
c)
To promote employer investment in people as central to competitive business advantage
d)
To set national targets for training and development

90. ___________ is the name given to a philosophy and set of methods and techniques that stressed the scientific study and
organisation of work at the operational level.
a. Scientific Management
b. Human Relations Model
c. Two factor theory
d. Achievement motivation theory
ANSWER: a. Scientific Management
91. Rearrange the steps of Maslow's Need Hierarchy Theory.
A. Self - Actualisation Needs
B. Physiological needs
C. Belongingness and love needs
D. Self - esteem needs
E. Safety needs
a. ABCDE
b. ADCBE
c. DCBEA
d. ADCEB
ANSWER: d. ADCEB

92. 4. Which of the following is a content theory?


a. Expectancy theory
b. ERG Theory
c. Equity theory
d. None of the above
ANSWER: b. ERG Theory
93. State true or false

MCQS SET 2
Needs reflect either physiological or psychological deficiencies.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True

94. Who propounded the Need's Theory


a. Frederick Herzberg
b. Alderfer
c. Abraham Harold Maslow
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c. Abraham Harold Maslow

95. The two factor theory is based on which factors?


a. Hygiene and behavioural
b. Safety and self - esteem
c. Self - actualisation and status quotient
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a. Hygiene and behavioural

96. What does "E", "R" and "G" stand for in the ERG theory?
a. Export, Risk and Guarantee
b. Exponential, Reliability and Growth
c. Existence, Relatedness and Growth
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c. Existence, Relatedness and Growth

97. Which of the following is a need that motivates human behaviour as per the achievement motivation theory?
a. Power
b. Affiliation
c. Achievement
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d. All of the above
98. Which of the following is a process theory?
a. Achievement Motivation theory
b. Performance - satisfaction model
c. ERG theory
d. Two factor theory
ANSWER: b. Performance - satisfaction model

99. What are the alternate names used for the expectancy model?
a. Instrumentality theory
b. Path - goal theory
c. Valence - instrumentality - expectancy theory
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d. All of the above

100. State true or false


First level and second level outcomes, expectancy, valence and instrumentalists are the four important variables of the
achievement motivation theory.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: First level and second level outcomes, expectancy, valence and instrumentalists are the four important variables
of the Expectancy Model.

MCQS SET 2
101. Which of the following option, is an important term used in the theory?
a. Inputs
b. Promotion
c. Working condition
d. Responsibility
ANSWER: a. Inputs
Reason: Rest all the other options are examples of outcomes in an organisation.

102. _________ and ___________ came out with a comprehensive theory of motivation called the performance - satisfaction
model.
a. Festinger and Heider
b. Jacques and Patchen
c. Porter and Lawler
d. Weick and Adams
ANSWER: c. Porter and Lawler
103. Which of the following options is a factor which the equity theory is not clear about?
a. How does a person choose the comparison other?
b. Carefully explaining to the employees what their roles are
c. Making sure the rewards dispersed are valued by the employees
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a. How does a person choose the comparison other?
104. The following is (are) the benefit(s) of training.
(A) Increased productivity
(B) Reduced accidents
(C) Reduced supervision
(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)

105. The following training aims to provide broad training to enable the trainee to take up a wide variety of tasks within his
field of specialisation
(A) Demonstration
(B) On-the-job training
(C) Apprenticeship
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)
106. Demonstration type of training method is used to train
(A) Workers
(B) Supervision
(C) Managers
(D) All of the above
(Ans: A)
107. The following is not a part of lower level management
(A) Worker
(B) Foreman
(C) Supervisor
(D) Inspector
(Ans: A)

108. A homogenous group of ____ men from the plant constitutes an ideal conference group
(A) 8-10
(B) 12-15
(C) 18-20
(D) 22-25
(Ans: B)

MCQS SET 2
109. The following method is used to give to trainees the important information in permanent form for immediate of future
use
(A) Lecture methods
(B) Conference
(C) Written instructional method
(D) Training within the industry (TWI)
(Ans: C)
110. Training within the industry (TWI) scheme imparts training in
(A) Job instructions
(B) Job rotation
(C) Job method
(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)
111. The following is not a on the job training method
(A) Understudies
(B) Job rotation
(C) Management by objectives (MBO)
(D) Case study method
(Ans: D)
112. The following is vertical expansion of the job
(A) Job rotation
(B) Job enrichment
(C) Management by objectives (MBO)
(D) All of the above
(Ans: B)

113. _____ is widely used for human relations and leadership training
(A) Business games
(B) Role playing
(C) Case study method
(D) Job rotation
(Ans: B)

114. Personnel management of an organisation specifically deals with human resources in respect of
(A) Their procurement
(B) Develop their skills, knowledge and attitude
(C) Their motivation towards the attainment of organisational objectives
(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)
115. Personnel management is a
(A) Point of view
(B) Technique of thinking
(C) Philosophy of management
(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)

116. Which of the following is not true about training?


It is a short-duration exercise.
It is technical in nature.
It is primarily for managers and executives.
It is concerned with specific job skills.

MCQS SET 2
117. In which type of analysis are corporate goals and plans compared with the existing manpower inventory to determine the
training needs?
Organization analysis
Operation analysis
Individual analysis
None of the above
118. Training concentrates on
coaching the members of an organization how to perform effectively in their current jobs
expansion of the knowledge and skills of the members of an organization
preparing the employees to take on new responsibilities.
none of the above.
119. The process of enhancing the technical skills of workers in a short period is called
training
development
education
none of the above
120. E-learning is all about
computers and computing
being technology-driven
electronics
experience

121. The planned use of networked information and communications technology for the delivery of training is called
e-learning
role playing
case study
programmed learning
122. Which one of the following is a source of assessing training needs?
performance evaluation
attitude survey
advisory panel
all of the above
123. Laboratory training is also known by the name
sensitivity training
job instruction training
apprenticeship training
none of the above

124. _______ method creates a situation that is as far as possible a replica of the real situation for imparting training.
The programmed learning
The Simulation
The case study
The lecture
125. A team of learners working online in a real-time mode using the Internet is known as
individualized self-paced e-learning online
individualized self-paced e-learning offline
group-based e-learning synchronously
group-based e-learning asynchronously
126. Training need analysis takes place during which phase of the training process?
deciding what to teach
deciding how to maximize participant learning
choosing appropriate instructional methods

MCQS SET 2
determining whether training programmes are effective
127. Which one of the following is an outcome of 'organizing' function of management?
Select correct option:
1. Organizations strategy
2. Motivation & commitment
3. Organizations structure
4. Performance measurement
128. Which of the following is a stated outcome of 'Job Analysis'?
Select correct option:
1. Job description
2. Job specification
3. Job evaluation
4. All of the given options

129. Which of the following is MOST important to manage workforce diversity?


Select correct option:
1. Lower cohesiveness
2. Support group
3. Top-level commitment
4. Resistance to change

130. Training to the raters of performance appraisal is an important responsibility of:


Select correct option:
1. Top management
2. HR department
3. Line managers
4. Production department
131. Graphic rating scales are subjected to all of the following problems, EXCEPT:
Select correct option:
1. Halo effects
2. Complexity
3. Central tendency
4. Leniency

132. Which of the following is responsible for implementing the developed strategies?
Select correct option:
1. Human resource
2. Physical resource
3. Rules & policies
4. Installed equipment

133. In which of the following area organizations are legally bound to maintain consistency in HR policies?
Select correct option:
1. Compensation system
2. Training & development
3. Safety measures
4. None of the given options

134. How can companies provide career counseling, development advice, and therapy for employees seeking to grow in their
careers?
Select correct option:
1. Provide career coaches
2. Encourage role reversal
3. Establish a corporate campus

MCQS SET 2
4. Offer online career centers

135. Which ONE of the following is not a part of Human Resource Development?
Select correct option:
1. Training
2. Education
3. Development
4. Rewards

136. What type of screening mode is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future insurance claims?
Select correct option:
1. Physical examinations
2. Personality tests
3. Polygraph tests
4. Substance abuse screening
137. Which of the following is part of the organizations role in an employees career development?
Select correct option:
1. Communicating the mission, policies, and procedures
2. Providing timely performance feedback
3. Participating in career development discussions
4. Seeking out career information
138. Which of the following term is said to be a part of Organizational Structure?
Select correct option:
1. Goal attainment
2. Hierarchy level
3. Performance standards
4. Supporting staff

139. On going process of evaluating & managing both the behavior & outcomes in the workplace is known as;
Select correct option:
1. Training & development
2. Performance appraisal
3. Compensation management
4. Job analysis
140. Which performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of performance?
Select correct option:
1. Alternation ranking
2. Graphic rating scale
3. Management By Objective
4. Paired comparison

141. HRIS helps managers to perform _______________________ more effectively & systematically.
Select correct option:
1. Management functions
2. Controlling functions
3. Planning functions
4. HR functions

142. Examples of training at US Airways, Starbucks, Boston Pizza and Seattle City Light discussed in Chapter One demonstrate
the role of training in:
A. reducing turnover.
B. meeting safety requirements.
C. raising morale.
D. gaining a competitive advantage.

MCQS SET 2
143. Continuous learning:
A. refers to a seamless training that doesn`t allow learners to break away from the training session.
B. requires employees to understand the entire work system including the relationships among their jobs, their work
units, and the company.
C. uses an instructional design process to ensure training effectiveness.
D. refers only to off-site training.
144. Traditionally, the category of training emphasized by the most companies is:
A. basic and advanced skills.
B. orientation.
C. safety.
D. legally-mandated.

145. Which of the following is not one of the job-related competencies critical for successful job performance?
A. innovation
B. knowledge
C. skills
D. behaviors

146. _____ is linked to strategic goals and objectives and benchmarks its training programs against those of other companies.
A. Total Quality Management training
B. Continuous learning
C. High-leverage training
D. Six Sigma training
147. In the training design process, selection of training methods is the _____ step.
A. first
B. third
C. final
D. next to final
148. Person and task analysis are part of which step of the training design process?
A. ensuring transfer of training
B. developing an evaluation plan
C. conducting needs assessment
D. monitoring and evaluating the program

149. At what point in the training design process should selection of training methods occur? Directly following:
A. development of an evaluation plan.
B. needs assessment.
C. ensuring transfer of training.
D. development of learning objectives.
150. The acronym ADDIE is most closely associated with:
A. high-leverage training.
B. ISD.
C. intellectual capital.
D. Six Sigma.

151. Which of the following is not a force discussed by Noe as influencing the workplace and training?
A. new laws regulating allocation of training funds in the US
B. economic cycles
C. new technology
D. high-performance work systems

152. The process of moving jobs from the United States to other locations in the world is called:

MCQS SET 2
A. outsourcing.
B. globalization.
C. offshoring.
D. virtual teams.

153. Noe argues that all but which of the following are reasons offshoring is occurring.
A. U.S. visa laws allow foreign worker in the U.S. for seven years
B. the U.S. graduates fewer U.S. born engineers than China and Japan
C. more talented employees may be available outside the U.S.
D. some countries provide substantial incentives for workers to work in the U.S.
154. All of the following except _____ capital are examples of intangible assets.
A. creative
B. intellectual
C. customer
D. social

155. According to a survey of 50,000 employees, _____ percent have high levels of engagement.
A. 11
B. 31
C. 51
D. 71

156. _____ is not one of the arguments for why greater diversity can help a company gain a competitive advantage.
A. Creativity
B. Flexibility
C. Lower training costs
D. Problem solving
157. _____ refers to attracting, retaining, developing, and motivating highly skilled employees and managers.
A. Diversity management
B. Social capital
C. Human resource management
D. Talent management
158. Companies report the most important talent management challenge they face is:
A. identifying and training employees with managerial talent.
B. getting more women and minorities into the company.
C. developing programs to retain older workers.
D. obtaining enough new workers with required skills.

159. _____ involve(s) measuring progress with data, designing methods and processes to meet internal and external
customers and promoting cooperation with vendors, suppliers and customers.
A. ISO 9000
B. TQM
C. Quality Circles
D. ISO 100-15

160. Which of the following categories in the Malcolm Baldrige Award is most closely related to training and development?
A. strategic planning
B. measurement, analysis and knowledge management
C. work force focus
D. customer and market focus
161. _____ is a set of standards regarding how to establish quality standards and how to document work processes.
A. Six Sigma
B. TQM
C. The Malcolm Baldrige award
D. ISO 9000
162. Trainers with titles including Champions, Black Belts and Green Belts are associated with:

MCQS SET 2
A. Six Sigma.
B. ISO 9000.
C. Crosby/Deming Quality.
D. ISO 10015.

163. The Bureau of Labor Statistics estimates that _____ percent of the workforce consists of alternative work arrangements
such as independent contractors.
A. 5
B. 11
C. 19
D. 25
164. _____ are teams separated by time, culture, organizational boundaries and that rely on technology.
A. Quality circles
B. High performance work teams
C. Virtual teams
D. Six Sigma teams
165. According to the 2008 ASTD State of the Industry Report, _____ is spent of training per employee.
A. $250
B. $600
C. $1100
D. $1900

166. According to the 2008 ASTD State of the Industry Report, _____ is the percentage of dollars spent on training and
development as a percentage of payroll.
A. 12
B. 8
C. 6
D. 2
167. According to the 2004 ASTD Competency Model, which of the following is not one of the four roles of a training
professional?
A. change agent
B. project manager
C. business partner
D. professional specialist