INSTITUTE OF AERONAUTICS & ENGG. BHOPAL (M.P.

CAR

SET 26

Q1. The foreign agency should apply for DGCAs approval on from __________ with requisite fee specifying scope and
category
1. 182 A
2. 182C
3. 182
4. None
Q2. MTIS ( Regarding approval of foreign AME)
1. For renewal of approval beyond a period of one year the engineer is required to pass paper I
2. For renewal of approval the recency of experience of three months in the preceding 12 months shall be ensured
3. The AME should submit a medical certificate as required for AME licence renewal
4. None
Q3. Parts manufactured by PMA are identified by
1. OEMs part number
2. PMA may give a fresh number
3. OEMs part number with either a suffix or prefix 4. A number given by DGCA
Q4. Personal minimus checklist is given to maintenance personal so that
1. It will help in enhancing individual confidence whicle undertaking maintenance work
2. The maintenance personal can memorise the checklist
3. The maintenance personal can perform work by seeing the check list
4. None
Q5. The personal working on ESD must wear a bonding strap. The strap should have a resistance of _____
1. 200 k ohms 1M ohms
2. 1 ohm -12 ohms
3. 780 ohms 1.2 k ohms
4. 520 ohms -1.2 ohms
Q6. For C of C holder of NDT vision examination test must be on a period basis not to exceed
1. 6 months
2. 1 year
3. 2 years
4. 3 months
Q7. Which of following personnel are exempted from refresher training provided they do not exercise the privilege of their
licence
1. Personel employed in foreign airlines
2. Personel employed in organization approved in cat F only
3. Welders holding C of C
4. All of the above are correct
Q8. Maintenance programme of Fairchild SSFDR is
1. On condition maintenance
2. Hard time maintenance
3. Condition monitoring maintenance
4. Any of the above
Q9. Banner towing is to be performed only by an operator having __________ issued by DGCA
1. NSOP
2. AOC
3. SOP
4. 1 or 2
Q10. A person carrying out marshalling should wear a
1. Yellow jacket
2. Orange jacket
3. Any dark colour jacket
4. No dress code
Q11. Who will carry out surveillance checks to ensure that the standards laid are enforced
1. RAO/Sub RAO
2. DGCA hdqrs
3. Officer in charge of RAO
4. Technical officer of DAW
Q12. If adverse trends are observed the recommendations by airworthiness office would in form o f
1. Additional preventive maintenance
2. Airworthiness directives
3. Decreasing the frequency of monitoring checks
4. SB/SL/SI
Q13. The Q.C cell shall associate with _____ to investigate engineering incidents and take such corrective measures
promptly as called for
1. Operational department
2. Flight safety department
3. Q.C department
4. RAO/Sub RAO
Q14. Emergency responding includes identifying critical situations like
1. In flight shut down
2. As in 1 + repressurization
3. 2 + uncontained engine failure
4. None
Q15. Where the AMEs are required to be trained on a particular type of a/c then the operator shall
1. Get the training progermme approved
2. As in 1 along with the training manual
3. As in 1 along with the names of AMEs
4. As in 2 approved by DGCA
Q16. Who issues air safety circulars/bulletins
1. DGCA
2. ICAO
3. Manufacturer
4. None
Q17. Who shall coordinate the review of the airworthiness regulation and oversight programme
1. QCM of organization
2. DAW (Hdqrs)
3. Officer in charge of RAO
4. DGCA
Q18. Initial information of a major defect or defects requiring major damage shall consist which of the following
information
1. Details of the defect and rectification action taken 2. Identification of parts/systems involved
3. Apparent/actual cause of defect
4. All of the above

Q19. Damage of a/c component or system that result in taking emergency actions during flight
1. Major damage
2. Group II defect
3. Group I defect
4. Defect
Q20. All a/c systems will be recorded as per____
1. Maintenance manual
2. Parts catalogue
3. ATA-100 code
4. Approved flight manual
Q21. During the time the operator is in alert area who will inform DGCA about progress and effectiveness of corrective
programmes
1. QCM
2. Operator
3. 1 or 2
4. Regional office
Q22. Alert level established on experience of initial operation can be continuously updated by means of what is called
1. Alert band/ range
2. Rolling average
3. As in 1 either quarterly or six monthly
4. All
Q23. Corrosion prevention programme is included in
1. MS manual
2. QC manual
3. Organization manual
4. Structural inspection programme
Q24. For calculating alert levels using component unscheduled removals require operating data of a minimum period of
1. 12 months
2. Seven quarter
3. 24 months
4. 3 years
Q25. Any irregularities noticed by RAO during periodical spot checks on records of fuel and oil uplift should be reported
to
1. QCM of organization
2. DAW (RAO)
3. DGCA
4. Officer in charge of RAO
Q26. Upward revision of reduced-lives must also be done with prior concurrence of
1. AME
2. DGCA Hdqrs
3. RAO
4. 1 & 2
Q27. QC manual defines the quality policy followed by
1. QA department
2. Operations department
3. QC department
4. Engineering department
Q28. Procedure for handling defects arising during maintenance is given in
1. MS manual
2. QC manual
3. Maintenance organizations procedure manual
4. 1 or 3
Q29. It shall be the responsibility of _________ to ensure that the work done at sub contractors facility meets
manufacturers/DGCA requirements
1. QCM
2. Accountable manager
3. Nodal officer
4. All
Q30. Procedure for awarding maintenance work to sub contractor who does not hold DGCA approval is given in
1. EO manual
2. QC manual
3. 1 or 2
4. None
Q31. Particulars of test specimens required to be finished for cadmium plating are
1. 3 specimens 3 16 swg
2. 12 specimens 8 2 16 swg
3. 3 specimens 6 1/2 swg
4. 3 or 6 specimens of 3 16 or 6 swg respectively
Q32. MTCS
1. Organization approved cat E issue a vochre to certify the quality of the product
2. As in 1 the vochre should be serially numbered and shall quote batch number
3. As in 2 vochre also gives details of quantity delivered
4. As in 3 vochre shall be signed by a person authorized within the organization
Q33. Procedure for issue of release note/ rejection note is given in
1. QC manual
2. MS manual
3. EO manual
4. None
Q34. A training school shall carry out an internal audit of their facilities and submit a report to RAO at least
1. Two months before expiry of approval
2. 60 days before expiry of approval
3. Two months after expiry of approval
4. None
Q35. The requirement specified in CAR-SEC-2 series E part IX shall forma part of
1. Certificate of approval
2. Training manual
3. QC manual
4. MS manual
Q36. The requirement of preservation of FRC and associated maintenance records are laid down in
1. ICAO-Annex-6
2. CAR (sec-2) series F part VIII
3. CAR (sec-2) series O part I
4. CAR sec-3 series E
Q37. Dimensions to be mentioned in application for issue of type certificate of helicopter are
1. Wheel diameter
2. Length of main rotor blade
3. Main rotor blade chord
4. All of the above

Q38. Documentation required for the purpose of type certification are

1. Type certificate
2. Type data sheet
3. As in 1 & 2 and type specification
4. None of the above
Q39. Limit load factor for structures of a passenger a/c are between
1. + 4.5 & +bg and -1.76g and -3g
2. +2.5 g & +2.8g and -1g & -1.5 g
3. + 3.8 & +2.5 g and -1g & -1.6 g
4. None
Q40. For renewal of C of A certificate from ______ of the operator that the flight manual is current and upto date is to be
submitted
1. Operation department
2. QC department
3. 1 or 2
4. QCM
Q41. In case fuselage is imported for rebuilding it must be accompanied by
1. Export C of A
2. As in 1 certificate of deregistration
3. As in 2 standard C of A
4. None
42. Validity FRC of an a/c used for aerial work operation such as remote sensing is
1. 10 hrs/7 days which ever is earlier
2. 7 hrs/10 days whichever is earlier
3. 50 hrs/ 30 days which ever is earlier
4. None
Q43. Continuous airworthiness maintenance programme is documented in
1. QC manual
2. MS manual
3.Manufacturers manual
4. 1 or 2
Q44. The edges of all access holes must be smoothed with ____ before inspection is commenced
1. Emery paper
2. Glass paper
3. Salt paper
4. 1 or 3
Q45. Areas falling within a radius of ______ of the twin cities of Hyderabad and secundrabad are identified as ___
1. 30 KM, restricted area respectively
2. 27 KM, prohibited area respectively
3. 27 KM restricted area respectively
4. 33 KM restricted area respectively
Q46. In case of glued joints failure if there is no evidence of fibre adhesion this may be a indicative of
1. Case hardening of glue
2. Pot life is exceeded
3. Glue deterioration
4. All
Q47. Details of every flight time like the date of light lift off time total flight time etc is respect of balloon are recorded in
1. Journey log book
2. Balloon log book
3. Procedure/work sheet
4. 2 or 3
Q48. For amateur a/c if the unusable fuel supply for any fuel tank exceeds _____ there should be a red mark on it
indicator from calibrated zero reading
1. One gallon
2. One pint
3. 5 % of the tank capacity or 2
4. None
Q49. Smoking is forbidden
1. Within 6 mts radially from a/c fuelling point
2. Not more than 15m away
3. 43 mts from a/c fuelling point
4. None
Q50. Vehicles moving in the danger zone shall be fitted with
1. Spark arrestors
2. Flame stops
3. As in 2 or flame traps
4. All
Q51. With barreled supplies or for the after fuelling check on hydrant dispensers, a sample of about ____ will generally
be sufficient
1. gallon
2. 1 gallon
3. -1 gallon
4. One pint
Q52. While taking sample from a barrel close upper end with thumb and lower the sampling tube into the product a
depth of ____
1. 12 mm from the bottom surface
2. About 30 cms
3. 2/3 the depth of product
4. Any of the above
Q53. Compass compensation shall be conducted in accordance with
1. General rules of compensation in CAR sec 7
2. General rules of compensation in vogue
3. General rules of compensation in manufacturer
4. As directed by DGCA
Q54. Controlled flight means
1. Any flight which is under manual control of pilot
2. Any flight which is under control of auto pilot
3. Any flight which is subjected to ATC clearance
4. 1 or 2
Q55. For international general aviation landmarks shall be located at least every
1. 60 NM
2. 120 NM
3. 400 NM
4. None
Q56. A/c engaged in agro operation are to be painted with
1. Night glow paint at wing tips
2. Day glow paint at wing tips
3. Rain glow paint at wing tips
4. Flourocent glow paint at nose of the a/c
Q57. The conventional unit of measurement of the size of contamination particles is
1. Micrometer (MM)
2. Millimeter (MM)
3. Microns (MN)
4. All

Q58. ____ sets of garment pa person should normally be provided

1. Three
2. Two
3. Six
4. 4 or 6
Q59. QAR/PMR system cassettes pertaining to incidents should be preserved for
1. 30 days
2. 3 months
3. Weeks
4. As in 3 unless otherwise required by RAO
Q60. CAR series I part VIII is also circulated vide
1. Rule 57
2. AIC 5/1998
3. AAC2/2005
3. 1 or 3
Q61. In no case ACAS shall be serviceable for
1. More than ten days
2. Above ten days
3. Less than ten days
4. None
Q62. Any pilot experiencing RA while flying in Indian airspace shall file a report and forward it to
1. Director of air safety
2. Director of air routes and aerodrome
3. Director of airworthiness (DGCA hdqrs)
4. 1 & 2
Q63. For the issue of type certificate of turbojet engine fees is
1. Rs 250 per SHP
2. Rs 200 per HP
3. Rs 25 per kg of thrust
4. 1 or 3
Q64. Which of the following is prohibited area
1. Lakshwa dweep
2. Radius of 2 KM from the tower of silence a malabar hills
3. Area ground rashtrapati bhavan
4. 2 or 3
Q65. Series of green flashes indicate
1. Land
2. Return of land
3. 2 + clear to taxi
4. 2 + clear to land
Q66. FTD checks should be carried out in accordance with the
1. Maintenance manual
2.Overhaul manual
3. Maintenance system manual
4. 1 or 2
Q67. Replacement of parts must be done by approved parts bearing the correct part number as mentioned in
1. Parts catalog
2. Maintenance manual
3. Manufacturers manual
4. All are correct
Q68. Equipments like DME, RNAV, RMI etc shall be checked at approved intervals for installation and operational
checks using
1. Simulators
2. Ground facilities
3. Infest modes
4. Any of the above
Q69. The bench should be calibrated at regular intervals using primary standards as mentioned in
1. Manufacturers manual
2. Maintenance manual
3. overhaul manual
4. All
Q70. Each operator is required to submit a maintenance programme is regard to the radio navigation and
communication equipment to
1. RAO
2. Local airworthiness office
3. DGCA Hdqrs
4. 1 or 2
Q71. For DR compass the candidate should acquire the _____ experience
1. 4 compensations and installations of DR compass on a/c
2. 6 compensations and installations of DR compass on a/c
3. As in 1 or 6 checks on synthetic aids and 4 installations and compensations of DR compass
4. As in 2 or 6 checks on synthetic aids and 6 installations and compensations of DR compass
Q72. ____ months of recent experiences is required on the repair, modifications, overhaul of light helicopter (Cat B)
1. 6 months
2. 3 months
3. 18 months
4. No recent exp. required
Q73. The applicant for the endorsement in Cat X (Radio) of a/c with AUW below 5700 kg which are installed with VII F
equipment only should have
1. Held liecence in Cat x covering radio equipment for continuous period of 5 years
2. 1 + have liecence on 3 a/c fitted with 3 different types of VHF communication equipment out of which 2 should be
transistorized /I.C type
3. 1 + have liecence on 3 a/c fitted with 3 same types of VII F communication equipment out of which 1 should be
transistorized/ I.C type
4. None is correct
Q74. For the renewal of the approval the check flight engineer
1. Should have not less than 100 hrs of flying experience as flight engineer during the 12 months preceding the date of
application
2. 1 + should have a clean professional record during the 12 months
3. 1 + should have been checked and found satisfactory by a flight engineer examiner in carrying out his duties as
check flight engineer
4. None is correct

Q75. Test specimen from standard test samples shall be cut in accordance with the __________ specimens
1. Tensile
2. Micro
3. Bend
4. All of the above
Q76. For all helicopters irrespective of their AUW, paper III airframe shall be
1. Conducted separately on basis of weight
2. Common
3. Conducted separately on basis of BHP
Q77. Defense person are exempted from multiple choice questions of
1. Paper I
2. Paper II
3. Paper IV
4. All
Q78. Group IV of engines
1. Super charged piston engine including radial engine
2. Unsupercharged piston engine other than radial engine
3. Super charged piston engine other than radial engine
4. None
Q79. False statement in regard to the compliance status of a mandatory modification/ inspection will be viewed seriously
and necessary action will be taken by this office against the erring _____ who have certified its compliances
1. Owner/operator
2. Engineer/operator
3. QCM/engineer
4. None of the above
Q80. The procedures for making meteorological observations of board a/c in flight and for recording and reporting them
are contained in
1. ICAO annex 3 and AIP
2. ICAO annex 3 AIC
3. ICAO annex 2 and AIP
4. ICAO annex 2 AIC