FL Test 2 Self Study

Self Study IAS (selfstudyias.
com)
Solutions-Full Length Sample Test 2
Number of questions: 100 Maximum Marks: 200 Time: 2 hours
This is a sample paper. To join the GS Prelims Mock Test Series (10 full length mock
tests @Rs 500), visit selfstudyias.com
1. Financial market is classified into money market and capital market. Which of these
are money market instruments ?
1. T-Bills
2. Preference shares
3. Commercial papers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
b) 1 and 3 only. The short-term debts and securities sold on the money markets
which are known as money market instrumentshave maturities ranging from one
day to one year and are extremely liquid. The Treasury bills are short-term money
market instrument that mature in a year or less than that. Commercial Paper is shortterm loan that is issued by a corporation use for financing accounts receivable and
inventories. Preference shares are capital market instrument
2. Which of the following Tiger reserves is/are also a National Park ?
1. Manas
2. Indravati
3. Namdapha
4. Sariska
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a) 1,2 and 3 only
b) 1,3 and 4 only
c) 2,3 and 4 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4
d) 1,2,3 and 4. Factual question just to make you revise the national parks and tiger
reserves of India.
3. Consider the following statements about Rig vedic period :
1. there was widespread use of horses
2. agriculture was the predominant economic activity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 only. Horses were used in Rig vedic age. Infact, the Rig veda itself mentions
ashva ( horse ) many times. Pastoral nomadism was the dominant economic activity
Rig vedic age. The later Vedic Period commenced with the emergence of agriculture
as the principal economic activity. Along with that, a declining trend was experienced
as far as the importance of cattle rearing was concerned
4. Recently, a term WhatsAppititis was making news. It is :
a) an eye strain caused by repetitive and continuous use of whatapp or any instant
messaging service
b) a repetitive finger strain injury caused by over use of instant messaging services
c) both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
b) a repetitive finger strain injury caused by over use of instant messaging services.
This term was coined by Ins Fernandez-Guerrero, a doctor in southern Spain. She
treated a 34-year-old pregnant woman for repetitive strain injury caused by over use
of instant messaging services. Salutary Warning : Please do not spend too much time
on Whatsapp or other IMS. They can be detrimental for both your health and UPSC
results :)
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5. During a national emergency, the President can:

1. reduce the transfer of finances from Centre to states.
2. increase the transfer of finances from Centre to states.
3. cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to states.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 only. While a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the

President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the centre
and the states. This means that the president can either reduce or cancel the transfer of
finances from Centre to the states. So statement 2 about increasing the transfer of
finances from Centre to states is incorrect.
6. The eastern hills or Purvanchal is a beautiful landscape in the northeast region of
India. Three famous hill ranges are
1. Naga Hills
2. Patkai bum
3. Lushai hills
The correct arrangement of these hills from north to south are:
a) 1 2 3
b) 2 1 3
c) 2 3 1
d) 1 3 2
b) 2 1 3. Please go through the India Physical map for hills, rivers, passes etc. Lushai
hills are also called Mizo hills, so that can give a hint that Mizo hills should be south
of Naga hills.
7. Suppose you went to a restaurant and paid certain taxes. which of these would be
considered an indirect tax ?
1. service tax paid for lunch
2. tip given to waiter
3. VAT paid
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a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only. Indirect Taxes are not levied on individuals, but on goods and
services. Customers indirectly pay this tax in the form of higher prices. Some of the
significant indirect taxes include Value Added Tax, Service Tax Central Sales Tax,
Central Excise Duty, Customs Duty, stamp duties and expenditure tax. Tip given to
waiter goes into their unofficial income and is therefore not accounted for taxing
purpose :)
8. The expenditure in India is classified as capital and revenue. Which of the
following is/are revenue expenditure ?
1. interest payments on debt
2. loans granted by central government
3. subsidies
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only. Revenue expenditure is for the normal running of Government

departments and various services, interest payments on debt, subsidies, etc. Broadly
the expenditure which does not result in creation of assets for Government of India is
treated as revenue expenditure. Loans granted by central government are capital
expenditure.
9. Pollutants can be classified as primary and secondary. Which of these is/are
primary pollutant?
1. Volatile Organic Compunds
2. Ground Level Ozone
3. Acid Rain
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
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c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
a) 1 only. A primary pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly from a source. A

secondary pollutant is not directly emitted as such, but forms when other pollutants
(primary pollutants) react in the atmosphere. Ground Level Ozone is a secondary
pollutant because it is produced when two primary pollutants react in sunlight and
stagnant air. These two primary pollutants are nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile
organic compounds (VOCs). Acid rain ofcourse is a secondary pollutant.
10. With reference to eutrophication, consider the following statements:
1. primary productivity becomes low
2. oxygen availability decreases
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 2 only. Primary productivity is high in eutrophic water bodies. Due to excessive

nutrients, especially nitrogen and phosphorus, these water bodies are able to support
an abundance of aquatic plants. thereby leading to a high primary productivity.
Because of abundance of aquatic plants and algae, the oxygen availability decreases
11. Which of the following was also called Delhi Chalo movement ?
a) None-Cooperatyion movement
b) Civil disobedience movement
c) Quit India movement
d) Individual Satyagrah
d) Individual Satyagrah. The demand of the Individual Satyagrahi would be the

freedom of speech against the war through an anti-war declaration. If the Government
did not arrest the Satyagrahi, he or she would not only repeat it but move into villages
and start a march towards Delhi, thus precipitating a movement which came to be
known as the Delhi Chalo Movement.
12. With reference to the revolt of 1857, consider the following statements :
1. It was well planned and organised.
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2. It failed because of disunity between Hindus and Muslims.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2. The 1857 revolt was not properly planned and organised and this
was the main reason of its failure. Hindu-Muslim disunity was not there that time. It
came only from the late 19th and early 20th century.
13. Aluminium has been used in aircrafts because it offers many advantages. These
are
1. excellent machinability and plasticity which helps in bending, cutting, and drawing
aluminium sheets.
2. high thermal resistance making it suitable for use in engines which are exposed to
extreme heat.
3. ability to withstand the stresses that occur during launch and operation in space.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only. Aluminium has high thermal conductivity and not resistance that
make it suitable for use in engines which are exposed to extreme heat. The rest two
statements excellent machinability and plasticity which helps in bending, cutting,
and drawing aluminium sheets and ability to withstand the stresses that occur during
launch and operation in space are correct.
14. Catching red handed is based on the so called Phenolphthalein Test. The
principle behind this is that when phenolphthalein is mixed with :
a) acidic solution it turns pink
b) basic solution it turns pink
c) water it turns pink
d) none of the above
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b) basic solution it turns pink. Phenolphthalein is a light white powder and slightly
soluble in water. It is colourless in acid and neutral media and pink in alkaline
medium. When the currency notes are treated with phenolphthalein powder, it adheres
to the surface, hardly visible to the naked eye. The person who has touched the
currency notes with phenolphthalein powder dips his fingers in the sodium carbonate
solution upon which the colourless solution turns pink. You can read about this here
http://apvc.ap.nic.in/js/vol1/c15t1s7.htm
15. Which of the following bodies concerned with Inter-State relations are
constitutional?
1. River water tribunals
2. Inter-State Councils
3. Zonal Councils
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None
b) 2 only. River water tribunals are setup under an act and therefore are not
constitutional. Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of interstate water disputes.Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted the Inter-State
Water Disputes Act (1956). The Inter-State Water Disputes Act empowers the Central
government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two
or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river or river valley.Inter-State
Councils are constitutional body under article 263. Zonal councils were setup under
the State reorganisation act, 1956 and are thus not constitutional.
16. The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on which of the following
matters?
1. public order
2. police
3. land
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None
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d) None. The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on all the matters of the
State List and the Concurrent List except the three matters of the State List, that is,
public order, police and land. Therefore, critics have often called Delhi no more than a
senior municipality.
17. Ports in western Europe are ice free while those in Canada at the same latitude are
frozen. This is because:
a) effect of continentality on the Canadian ports due to huge landmass of North
America.
b) Western Europe is touched by warm gulf stream current.
c) many industries in the western coastal Europe increases its temperature.
d) Both (a) and (b)
b) Western Europe is touched by warm gulf stream current. On the other hand the
Canadian region is touched by the cold Labrador current. The effect of continentality
is felt in the interior region of continents and not the coastal areas.
18. Punjab and haryana exploit more than 85% of ground water for irrigation. This is
due to:
1. low surface water availability.
2. impact of Green revolution.
3. change in cropping pattern with an increased preference for rice.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3. The first two statements are self explanatory. The third statement about
change in cropping pattern is also correct. Punjab and Haryana region are best suited
for wheat, but farmers are increasingly growing rice there. Punjab and Haryana are
battling with crop diversification to reduce depletion of groundwater due to higher
area under water-guzzling paddy crop. To irrigate their fields, farmers in both states
draw groundwater using tubewells, which has lowered the water table to alarming
levels, even if rainfall is deficient or scanty.

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19. The Young Bengal Movement, started by Henry Vivian Derozio:
1. took up the peasants cause
2. advocated womens rights
3. attacked old and decadent customs
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 only. The Young Bengal Movement did not fought for peasants cause. The
Young Bengal movement was a group of radical Bengali free thinkers emerging from
Hindu College, Calcutta. They were also known as Derozians, after their firebrand
teacher at Hindu College, Henry Louis Vivian Derozio. The Young Bengals were
inspired and excited by the spirit of free thought and revolt against the existing social
and religious structure of Hindu society. They advocated womens rights such as right
to education.
20. The Tanjore paintings are called panel paintings. This means that Tanjore
paintings are
a) made on cloths
b) made on solid wood planks
c) made on plastered walls
b) made on solid wood planks. Tanjore paintings are panel paintings (done on solid
wood planks ) and hence were also referred to as palagai padam'( palagai wooden
plank ; padam- picture) in local parlance. Tanjore Paintings are known for their
surface richness, vivid colours and compact composition. Essentially serving as
devotional icons, the themes of most of these paintings are Hindu gods and goddesses,
and saints as well.
21. Which of the following elements were used during the Indus Valley Civilization
(IVC)?
1. Copper
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2. Bronze
3. Iron
4. Silver
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 ,3 and 4 only
c) 2 ,3 and 4 only
d) 1 ,2, and 4 only
d) 1 ,2, and 4 only. There is no evidence of use of Iron during the IVC. Copper and
bronze were used to make tools, weapons, ornaments and vessels. Gold and silver
were used to make ornaments and vessels.
22. Harijan Sevak Sangh for the emancipation of lower caste was founded by
a) B.R. Ambedkar
b) Jyotiba Phule
c) E.V.R.Naicker
d) M.K.Gandhi
d) M.K.Gandhi. Harijan Sevak Sangh for the emancipation of lower caste was
founded by M.K.Gandhi. Harijan Sevak Sangh is an non-profit organisation founded
by Mahatma Gandhi in 1932 to eradicate untouchability in India, working for Harijan
or Dalit people and upliftment of Scheduled castes of India. It is still active.
23. If both husband and wife have blood group A, then their child cannot have which
of the following blood group?
a) A
b) O
c) AB
d) None
c) AB. If both parents have blood group A, then their child can have either A or O.
AB or B is not possible.
24. Biodigester toilets are hailed as a solution to many of our problems. Which of the
following about biodigester toilets is correct?
1. they use aerobic bacteria
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2. they require no or very low maintenance

3. the use less water
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 only. Bio-Digester Toilet System is based on anaerobic biodegradation of

organic waste by unique microbial consortium. In this system, faecal matter is
decomposed to bits and converted into water and little of carbon dioxide &methane
gas. It is totally maintenance-free system and does not require any sewerage system.
25. With reference to free radicals, consider the following statements :
1. they are released as a result of oxidation in body cells
2. they are useful for the body
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 only. Free radicals are released as a result of oxidation in body cells. They are
free because they are missing a critical molecule, which sends them on a rampage to
pair with another molecule. Free radicals often injure the cell, damaging the DNA,
which creates the seed for disease.
26. Which of these increases High Density Lipoprotein (HDL) in he body?
1. coconut oils
2. omega 3 fatty acids
3. trans fats
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
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a) 1 and 2 only. High Density Lipoprotein (HDL) particles are protective particles that
have important functions in the body. HDL play a key role in protecting against heart
disease via their role in reverse cholesterol transport, or the transport of excess
cholesterol out of the body. HDL are also part of the innate immune system due to
their ability to bind a number of toxic substances in the blood. Products like coconut
oils & omega 3 fatty acids increase HDL. Trans fat is considered by many doctors to
be the worst type of fat you can eat. It both raises your LDL (bad) cholesterol and
lowers your HDL (good) cholesterol.
27. Which of the following is/are in-situ methods of conservation?
1. Biosphere Reserve
2. Botanical Garden
3. Zoological Park
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None
a) 1 only. In situ conservation is on-site conservation of genetic resources in natural

populations of plant or animal species. It is the process of protecting an endangered
plant or animal species in its natural habitat, either by protecting or cleaning up the
habitat itself, or by defending the species from predators. National parks, wildlife
sanctuaries, biosphere reserves etc are its examples. Ex-situ conservation is the
process of protecting an endangered species of plant or animal outside its natural
habitat; for example, by removing part of the population from a threatened habitat and
placing it in a new location. Botanical Gardens, Zoological Parks, germplasm banks
are its examples.
28. Consider the following scenario :
1. Trees at trophic level 1 as primary producers.
2. Parasites at trophic level 2 as primary consumers.
3. Hyperparasites at trophic level 3 as secondary consumers.
The resultant pyramid of numbers would be :
a) erect
b) inverted
c) neither erect nor inverted
d) can be erect or inverted depending on other factors.
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b) inverted. This is because one single primary producer ( tree ) can support numerous
primary consumers ( parasites ) and secondary consumers ( hyperparasites ). Therfore
number of organisms will be highest at trophic level 3 followed by 2 and then
minimum at 1 giving rise to an inverted numbers pyramid.
29. With reference to forest ecosystems, consider the following statements :
1. The number pyramid is neither inverted nor upward.
2. The biomass pyramid is inverted.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 only. Forest ecosystem has a partly upright pyramid of number.This is because

the number of producers are lesser in number and support a greater number of
herbivores and which in turn support a fewer number of carnivores. Biomass pyramid
is Upright in a forest ecosystem because a larger net biomass of producers support a
smaller weight of consumers.
30. Which of the following is a part of the biogeochemical cycle ?
1. soils
2. plants
3. atmosphere
4. oceans
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 ,3 and 4 only
c) 2 ,3 and 4 only
d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4
d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4. Biogeochemical cycles are pathways for the transport and
transformation of matter within four categorical areas that make up planet Earth
(biosphere, hydrosphere, lithosphere, and the atmosphere). Biogeochemical cycles are
components of the broader cycle that govern the functioning of planet Earth.

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31. The central government has decided to move the following bills in the coming
session of parliament. Which of these can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha ?
1. a bill for imposition of fine for spitting on roads as part of Swachha Bharat Abhiyan
2. a bill for limiting the borrowing of money by government to reduced fiscal deficit.
3. a bill for imposition of luxury tax on expensive items
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 only. Basically the question is asking you that which of those are money
bill. The definition and details of money bill are given in article 110. Money bill
includes (a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
(b) the regulation of the borrowing of money by the Government of India (c) the
custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India (d) the
appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India; (e) the declaring of
any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (f) the
receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account
of India (g) any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to
(f). Imposition of fines/penalties are NOT considered money bill. Also please note that
these are just imaginary bills that I framed for the question :)
32. Suppose the Lok Sabha has been adjourned by the speaker. Then which of the
following would take place
1. all pending notices would lapse.
2. a bill pending in lok sabha lapses.
3. a bill passed by both houses but pending assent by president does not lapse
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None
d) None. Yes, none because adjournment just terminates a sitting. Prorogation

terminates a session in which all pending notices gets lapsed. It is in dissolution,
(which ends the very life of lok sabha ) that certain types of pending bill gets lapsed.
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33. The constitution of India establishes a federal system of government. This can be
seen from :
1. rigidity of constitution
2. single citizenship
3. all-India services
4. supremacy of constitution
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only
d) 1 and 4 only. A rigid constitution would be difficult to get amended by the central
government alone. it would require the support of states. Thus it is a part of federal
feature. Similarly supremacy of the constitution protects the powers of states
enhancing the federal feature. The rest two single citizenship and all-India services
are unitary feature as it increases the power of the centre.
34. The Indian Supreme Court is a court of records. This means :
1. it has power to punish for contempt of court.
2. it can punish for comment on its administrative side.
3. its judgments are recorded for testimony
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only. Please note that comment on courts administrative side is not
punishable as are any fair and reasonable criticism. Contempt of court both civil and
criminal are punishable. The courts judgments are recorded for perpetual memory
and serve as a legal reference.
35. Rivers forms many outstanding features throughout their course. In this respect
which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
1. river capture : middle course
2. meanders
: lower course
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3. ox-bow lakes : lower course

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only. River capture ( When a river or stream from one drainage system erodes
through a land divide and acquires the ow from another drainage system ) happens in
upper course. Meanders are formed in the middle course.
36. Cherrapunji and Mawsynram records very high annual rainfall. This is because
a) they receive rainfall from both bay of bengal branch and arabian sea branch
b) the monsoon winds are trapped withing a funnel shaped valley in this region
c) they receive both cyclonic and monsoon rainfall
b) the monsoon winds are trapped withing a funnel shaped valley in this region. Both
these places are south of the Khasi hills where the monsoon winds gets trapped
withing a funnel shaped valley giving copious rainfall
37. With reference to acidic lava ,consider the following statements :
1. they are viscous and flow slowly
2. they form a flattened lava dome
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 only. Acidic lava are viscous and hence flow slowly. They even solidify before
flowing for any significant distance. This results in formation of steep sided cone.
Flattened lava dome are formed by basic lava which are very fluid and hence travel
great distance before getting solidify.
38. Corals reefs are generally absent on the western coasts of continents. This is
because
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a) western coast of continents witnesses subsidence of air

b) western coast of continents have cold currents
c) western coast of continents have dry winds blowing over them
b) western coast of continents have cold currents. Coral reefs do not flourish where
there are cold currents because of the upwelling of the cold water from depths that
cools the warm surface water.
39. A decrease in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) can lead to which among the following ?
1. increase in cash availability of the banks
2. increase in repo rate
3. decrease in SLR
a) 1 only
b)1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
a) 1 only.Under CRR a certain percentage of the total bank deposits has to be kept in
the current account with RBI which means banks do not have access to that much
amount for any economic activity or commercial activity. Banks cant lend the money
to corporates or individual borrowers, banks cant use that money for investment
purposes.In short, CRR is the amount in cash which banks have to keep with RBI.
Any decrease in CRR will therefore increase cash availability with the banks. Repo
rate and SLR would not be affected by changes in CRR. They r separate mechanisms,
the rate of which is decided by RBI.
40. The WTO follows the principle of self selection. This means :
a) countries decides to which agreement they want to be party.
b) countries decide the rate of tariff and tariff reduction
c) countries themselves decide whether they want to be in developed or developing
categories.
c) countries themselves decide whether they want to be in developed or developing

categories. There are no WTO definitions of developed or developing countries.
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Developing countries in the WTO are designated on the basis of self-selection

although this is not necessarily automatically accepted in all WTO bodies.
41. Which of the following also acts as a mechanism for government lending.
1. CRR
2. Repo rate
3. Reverse repo rate
4. SLR
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 4 only
d) 4 only. SLR, statutory liquidity ratio is the amount of money that is invested in
certain specified securities predominantly central government and state government
securities. Investing in government securities by bank is one way of fulfilling the
requirement of SLR. In this way, SLR acts as a lending mechanism to government.
Repo rate is a rate at which banks borrow from RBI for short periods up to 7 or 14
days but predominantly overnight.
42. With reference to foreign portfolio investments (FPI), consider the following
statements :
1. FPIs are more volatile than loans from international financial institutions.
2. Foreign Direct Investments are part of FPIs.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 only. FPI is also called Foreign institutional Investments ( FIIs). Because of their
volatility they are also called hot money. Loans from international financial
institutions are given for a fixed tenure and hence are stable. FDI is not part of FPI,
but are accounted separately.
43. In ecological terms, what does the term standing crop signify ?
a) total weight of whole organic matter
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b) total weight of heterotrops

c) total area covered by crops
a) total weight of whole organic matter.

44. Which among these would increase carbon dioxide in the atmosphere ?
1. deforestation
2. burning of firewood
3. automobiles
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3. Statement 2 and 3 are clear and require no explanation. However, some
would think how deforestation increases carbon dioxide in atmosphere. When the
trees are felled, they release the carbon that had been storing, into the atmosphere,
which mingles with greenhouse gases from other sources.
45. The energy flow in an ecosystem is :
1. unidirectional
2. non-cyclic
3. cyclic
4. bidirectional
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only
a) 1 and 2 only. It is to be noted that energy flow in an ecosystem is unidirectional and

non-cyclic, whereas nutrient flow is cyclic. The energy enters the plants (from the
sun) through photosynthesis during the making of food. This energy is then passed on
from one organism to another in a food chain.Energy given out by the organisms as

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heat is lost to the environment, it does not return to be used by the plants again. This
makes the flow of energy in ecosystem unidirectional.
46. Ozone depletion would impact the plant community in several ways. These
include :
1. increase in photosynthesis
2. decline in water use efficiency
3. decline in yield of plants
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 only. Photosynthesis would decrease as ozone would make it difficult for
leaves of green plants to excahnges gases with the atmosphere. Mounting ozone
concentrations resulting from pollution will damage plants and block them from
taking up carbon dioxide, that gives them life.
47. Congress Socialist Party was started in 1934 by
1. J.L.Nehru
2. A.N.Dev
3. J.P.Naryan
4. S.C.Bose
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 ,3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 ,2, and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only. The Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was founded in 1934 as a socialist
caucus within the Indian National Congress. Its members rejected what they saw as
the anti-rational mysticism of Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi as well as the sectarian
attitude of the Communist Party of India towards the Congress Party. Influenced by
Fabianism as well as Marxism-Leninism, the CSP included advocates of armed
struggle or sabotage (such as Jai Prakash Narayan and Basawon Singh (Sinha) as well
as those who insisted upon ahimsa or nonviolent resistance (such as Acharya Narendra
Deva).
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48. The Brahma Samaj , started by Raja Ram Mohan Roy
1. laid emphasis on human dignity
2. opposed monotheism
3. was against idolatory
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only. Brahma Samaj, started by Raja Ram Mohan Roy supported
monotheism. It laid emphasis on human dignity and was against idolatory and
meaningless rituals. The Brahmo Samaj literally denotes community of men who
worship Brahman the highest reality.
49. Simon Commission was appointed to
a) report on the working of the GOI,1919 Act
b) provide dominion status to India
c) end the hostility between INC and Muslin League
d) both (a) and (c)
a) report on the working of the GOI,1919 Act. Simon Commission was appointed in
November 1927 by the British Conservative government under Stanley Baldwin to
report on the working of the Indian constitution established by the Government of
India Act of 1919.
50. Which of the following statements about Theosophical society is/are correct?
1. It advocated the revival of ancient religions.
2. It was founded by Annie Beasant.
3. It accepted the doctrine of transmigration of soul.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only
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c) 1 and 3 only. The Theosophical Society was formed in New York City, United
States, in November 1875 by Helena Petrovna Blavatsky, Henry Steel Olcott, William
Quan Judge and others. Annie Beasant was not its founder. It advocated the revival of
ancient religions like Hinduism, Buddhism, Zoroastrianism. It accepted the doctrine of
transmigration of soul.
51. With reference to resolutions ,consider the following statements :
1. All resolutions are motion.
2. All resolutions are required to be voted upon.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2. Resolutions are a type of motion the substantive motion. A

substantive motion is a self-contained independent proposal submitted for the
approval of the House and drafted in such a way as to be capable of expressing a
decision of the House. They are required to be voted upon by the house.
52. Rajya Sabha is inferior to Lok Sabha in many aspects and thus has unequal status
with respect to it in many cases. These include
1. approval of ordinances
2. approval of national emergency
3. voting on demand for grants
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only. Rajya Sabha has equal power in both approval of ordinances and approval
of national emergency. Its in revocation of emergency that only Lok Sabhas approval
is needed. And ofcourse, only lok sabha had the power to vote on demand for grants,
while rajya sabha can only discuss it.

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53. The Indian Parliament is not sovereign. This is because of :

1. institution of CAG as a supreme auditor
2. Judicial review
3. Federal system of government
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 only. Statement is arbitrary. An audit institution like CAG has no relation
with sovereignty of Parliament. Both judicial review and federal system constrains the
power of parliament and thus Indian parliament is not sovereign. Apart from these,
written constitution and Fundamental rights also constrains the power of parliament.
54. With reference to Armed Forces Special powers Act (AFSPA), who among the
following can declare an area as disturbed area?
1. Governor
2. Chief Minister
3. Central Government
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only.The power to declare an area disturbed lies with the Governor or the
Central Government, who have to form an opinion that the use of armed forces in the
aid of civil power is essential and then notify it as disturbed area. The declaration of
an area as a disturbed area is for a limited duration and review of the declaration
before the expiry of six months has to be undertaken by the executive. The 1972
amendments to AFSPA extended the power to declare an area disturbed to the Central
Government whereas in the 1958 version of AFSPA, only the state Governor had the
power
55. The major hot deserts of the world are located on the western coasts of continents
between latitudes 15 and 30 degree North and South. Which among the following are
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examples of such deserts ?

1. Patagonian desert
2. Gobi desert
3. Atacama desert
4. Great Australian desert
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1,3 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only. Gobi desert is a continental desert which must be known to you.
Patagonian desert is on eastern part of South America. Rest two Atacama desert and
Great Australian desert are the typical example of west coast desert between latitudes
15 and 30 degree North and South. Other examples are Sahara, Namib, Kalahari,
Sonoran, Thar etc.
56. Some parts of India has littoral and swamp forests. With reference to these forests
,consider the following statements :
1. they can survive in both fresh as well as brackish water
2. important species of such forests are teak, sal, mahua etc
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 only. Statement 1 they can survive in both fresh as well as brackish water is a
peculiar feature of littoral forests. Teak, sal and mahua are well know species of
tropical moist deciduous forests. Some examples of littoral species are sundari, agar,
bhendi and keora.
57. The peninsular plateau is a major physiographic division of India. Which of the
following is/are a part of the peninsular plateau ?
1. Kutch peninsula
2. Aravali range
3. Meghalaya plateau
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a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 only. Please revise the physiographic divisions of India from NCERT or
Khullar along with a map. Kutch peninsula is a part of the coastal plains. Aravali hills
and Meghalaya plateau ( eastward extension of the chotanagpur plateau ) are part of
the peninsular plateau.
58. Many areas in Rajasthan and adjoining states have arid and desert soils. Which of
the following are correct about such soils ?
1. they have high phosphate content
2. they have high nitrogen content
3. they are poor in organic matter
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only. Yes desert soils have high phosphate content. They have phosphate
content as high as in alluvial soils. Nitrogen and organic matter, as expected are low.
59. Indias central bank, RBI performs various functions. Which of these are its
functions according to the RBI act, 1934.
1. managing inflation
2. acting as bankers bank
3. managing Indias Forex
4. handling governments borrowing program
a) 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3and 4 only
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c) 2 and 3 only. The RBI Act, does not mandate RBI to manage inflation. Handling
governments borrowing programme is the duty of Department of economic affairs,
Ministry of Finance. The rest two are RBIs functions acting as bankers bank and
managing Indias Forex. The Reserve Bank is not an inflation targeting central bank.
The defining features of an inflation targeting central bank are a precise mandate, a
single instrument (the policy interest rate) in its armoury, a single minded devotion to
achieving this target and a principal-agent relationship with the Government.
60. Which among the following can result in demand pull inflation ?
1. increase in subsidy on LPG
2. increase in fuel prices
3. decrease in income tax rates
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only. Increase in subsidy of LPG will reduce the pocket expenditure of
people on LPG, making more money available with them, thereby increasing demand
and pulling inflation. Similar will be the effect of decrease of income tax rates more
money availability. Increase in fuel prices will lead to cost-push inflation.
61. The term narrow banking is best described as :
a) banks acting only as payment banks
b) banking by non-banking financial companies
c) limited areas of operation by banks
d) banks lending only to risk free sectors
d) banks lending only to risk free sectors. A Narrow Bank can be defined as the
system of banking under which a bank places its funds in risk-free assets with
maturity period matching its liability maturity profile, so that there is no problem
relating to asset liability mismatch and the quality of assets remains intact without
leading to emergence of sub-standard assets.
62. If indirect taxes in an economy are increased, then which of the following can
occur ?
1. GDP at factor cost increases
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2. GDP at factor cost decreases

3. GDP at market price increases
4. GDP at market price decreases
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 4 only
c) 3 only. GDP (market price) = GDP ( factor cost) + indirect taxes subisdies. This
equation makes it clear that any increase in indirect taxes will increase the GDP at
market prices.
63. Various vitamin deficiency causes different diseases. In this regard which of the
following pairs are correctly matched?
1. niacin : cheliosis
2. thiamine : pellagra
3. retinol : xerophthalmia
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None
c) 3 only. If you are exhibiting cracks on the outside of your lips, youre likely
experiencing cheliosis, a condition commonly caused by a deficiency of riboflavin, or
vitamin B-2. Pellagra is a vitamin deficiency disease most frequently caused by a
chronic lack of niacin( vitamin B3 ). Xerophthalmia ( drying of tear glands ) due to
primary deficiency of vitamin A ( retinol ) is a common cause of blindness among
young children in developing countries.
64. Consider the following statements about antimicrobial resistance :
1. It is a natural phenomena.
2. Indiscriminate use of antibiotics leads to antimicrobial resistance.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
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c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 2 only. This antibiotic resistance, also known as antimicrobial resistance or drug

resistance, is not a natural phenomena but due largely to the increasing use of
antibiotics.
65. Which of the these technologies requires line of sight for communication?
1. bluetooth
2. wi-fi
3. near field communication
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None
d) None. An example of line of sight communication is the TV remote. Bluetooth &

Wi-Fi does not require line of sight. Near Field Communication (NFC) is a set of
short-range wireless technologies, typically requiring a distance of 4cm or less to
initiate a connection. NFC does not require line of sight.
66. Scattering of light explains :
1. blue colour of sky
2. colour of oil fins
3. rainbow
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1and 3 only
d) None
a) 1 only. If a beam of light illuminates a rough surface, or a cloud of small particles,

some of the light is removed from the beam and redistributed in all directions. This
angular redistribution is called scattering. Almost all objects scatter light, that means
they reflect the light that illuminates them in all directions. Air molecules individually
scatter sunlight into all directions. Blue light is scattered much more strongly than
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longer wavelengths. Thus air above us looks blue from that scattered sunlight. The
beautiful colours in soap films and in oil floating on water are due to interference by
reflection. A rainbow is an optical and meteorological phenomenon that is caused by
reflection, refraction and dispersion of light in water droplets
67. Which among these did not participated in the Home rule league movement?
1. Muslims
2. Non-Brahmins Hindus
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2. Most of the Muslims and non-brahmins from South, did not join the
agitation as they felt Home Rule would mean rule of the Hindu majority, mainly the
high caste.
68. Consider the following statements about doldrums :
1. they are a high pressure region
2. they are a zone of wind divergence
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2. Doldrums are the region between 5 degree north and south of the
equator. They are low pressure zones because of heating and trade winds from both
hemisphere converges here. Doldrums, also called equatorial calms, equatorial regions
of light ocean currents and winds within the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ), a
belt of converging winds and rising air encircling Earth near the Equator. The
northeast and southeast trade winds meet there; this meeting causes air uplift and often
produces clusters of convective thunderstorms.
69. Suppose 100 units of radiation is coming from the sun. 35 units gets reflected back
to space. 14 units is absorbed by atmosphere. 51 units reaches the earths surface.
What is the amount of insolation in the above scenario ?
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a) 49 units
b) 51 units
c) 65 units
d) 86 units
b) 51 units. The purpose of this question was to make you relearn that only that part
of the suns radiation which reaches the earths surface is called insolation. While it
may look easy to remember it now, students often gets confused in these basic
concepts when they read more advanced things.
70. Many places in India are famous for particular minerals. Which of these pairs are
correctly matched ?
1. Zawar : Uranium
2. Khetri : Copper
3. Balaghat : Manganese
4. Jaduguda : Zinc
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only. 1 and 4 are interchanged. Zawar in Rajasthan is famous for Zinc,
whereas Jaduguda in Jharkhand is famous for Uranium.
71. With reference to D layer of ionsphere, consider the following statements :
1. During the daytime, the D layers density is greatly reduced.
2. High-frequency radiowaves are reflected from the D layer.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 only. High-frequency radiowaves are reflected from the E layer. D layer is the
lowest of the ionosphere layers, which absorbs the highest amount of harsh x-ray
radiation. During the night, there is a minimal amount of ionization taking place.
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There is a high amount of energy dissipation because of rapid collisions of the ions.
So, high frequency radio waves are neither reflected nor absorbed properly because of
the high agitation within this layer. But during the daytime, the layers density is
greatly reduced.
72. India has signed the international treaty for prevention of corruption ( UNCAC ).
To implement this treaty throughout the country the Parliament needs the consent of :
a) all states
b) at least half the states
c) two or more states
d) None
d) None. The parliament can make a law for implementation of an international treaty
without the consent of any state. This has been clearly stated in article 253
Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of
India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or
countries or any decision made at any international conference, association or other
body.
73. The centre and states have their own respective sources of revenues. Which of the
following is levied by the centre ?
1. professional tax
2. corporation tax
3. excise duty on liquor
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 only. If you are a working employee, you might have noticed a professional tax in
your salary slip, which is levied by the state government. Excise duty of liquor is also
levied by state government. And Ofcourse, everyone knows that corporation tax is
levied by centre.
74. Consider the following statements about private members :
1. MPs who are not ministers are called private members.
2. Private members can introduce a constitutional amendment bill.
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a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2. In Lok Sabha, the last two and a half hours of a sitting on every
Friday are generally allotted for transaction of Private Members Business, i.e.,
Private Members Bills and Private Members Resolutions. Every member of
Parliament, who is not a Minister, is called a Private Member. Private members CAN
introduce a constitutional amendment bill.
75. Which of the following actions can the parliament take with respect to any
particular tax?
1. increase it
2. decrease it
3. abolish it
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 only. Parliament can either decrease a tax or abolish it, but cannot increase
it. A notable point.
76. Which among these is/are a cryogenic indicator of climate change ?
1. ice sheets and ice chores
2. sea level changes
3. lacustrine deposists
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

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a) 1 only. Sea level changes techtonic indicator ; Lacustrine deposits geological

indicator. Ice cores offer comprehensive records of past changes in polar climate and
water cycle, aerosol deposition, natural forcings (including solar and volcanic
activity), and global atmospheric composition.
77. The National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP) run by Central
Pollution Control Board, monitors which of the following pollutants at all locations ?
1. carbon dioxide
2. sulphur dioxide
3. oxides of nitrogen
4. suspended particulate matter
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 ,3 and 4 only
c) 2 ,3 and 4 only
d) 1 ,2, and 4 only
c) 2 ,3 and 4 only. The objectives of the N.A.M.P. are to determine status and trends
of ambient air quality; to ascertain whether the prescribed ambient air quality
standards are violated. Under N.A.M.P., four air pollutants viz ., Sulphur Dioxide
(SO2), Oxides of Nitrogen as NO2, Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM) and
Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM / PM10) have been identified for
regular monitoring at all the locations
78. Equity market instruments help in financing a firm. Which of these is/are equity
market instruments ?
1. Bonds
2. Shares
3. Debentures
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 only. Shares are equity instruments, while bonds and debentures are debt
instruments. Debt instruments are assets that require a fixed payment to the holder,
usually with interest. Examples of debt instruments include bonds (government or
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corporate), debentures and mortgages. Equity financing allows a company to acquire

funds (often for investment) without incurring debt, eg shares
79. Albedo is the fraction of solar energy reflected from the Earth back into space.
Consider the following :
1. Fresh snow
2. Ocean ice
3. Rivers on high mountains.
The correct order of their Albedo is :
a) 1 > 2 > 3
b) 2 > 3 > 1
c) 2 > 1 > 3
d) 1 > 3 > 2
a) 1 > 2 > 3. Albedo is a measure of the reflectivity of the earths surface. Ice,
especially with snow on top of it, has a high albedo: most sunlight hitting the surface
bounces back towards space.
80. Which of the following are characteristic feature of Eastern Ghats?
1. structural unity of hills
2. physiographic continuity of hills
3. steep sided, flat topped topography
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) None
d) None. All the above are feature of western ghats. The hill ranges of eastern ghats
have no structural or topographic continuity.
81. The world grasslands are useful for many economic activities like :
1. pastoral farming
2. wheat cultivation
3. safari tourism
a) 1 and 2 only
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b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3. Grasslands of the world are famous for wheat cultivation ( steppes know
as granaries of the world ), pastoral farming, safari tourism ( savanah in Africa the
big game country ). Additional, the downs in New Zealand are also famous for wool.
82. Consider the following statements about forests soils :
1. they are rich in humus
2. they are deficient in phosphorous and potash
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) Both 1 and 2. Both are notable points about forest soils. The top layers of forest
soils are rich in humus.
83. With reference to starred questions, consider the following statements :
1. Starred questions are important and hence answer to them have to be given in
written form.
2. Answers to starred questions can be followed by supplementary questions.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 2 only.A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the
House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered
orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon. Only 20 questions can be listed
for oral answer on a day.
84. Indian constitution is a combination of federal and non-federal features. Point out
the non-federal features from these:
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1. All India Services

2. Flexibility of the constitution
3. Supremacy of constitution
4. Bicameralism
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only
a) 1 and 2 only. All India Services increases the power of Centre by allowing them
some control over state administration, thus its non-federal. A flexible constitution
which can be easily changed by the Centre without states consultation, skews power
in respect of states and thus in non-federal. The rest two Supremacy of constitution
and Bicameralism are federal features.
85. Which among the following is an informal device in Indian parliamentary
practice?
1. Question hour
2. Zero hour
3. Half-an-hour discussion
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only. When a member feels that the answer given to a question is not complete or
does not give the desired information, he may be allowed by the Speaker to raise a
discussion in the House for half an hour. The procedure is, therefore, termed as Halfan-Hour Discussion. Zero hour is an informal device, not mentioned in any rules of
the Parliament. Question hour, the first hour of a sitting, of course is the most
important formal device.
86. Fundamental Duties (FDs) were added in 1976. Which among these are FDs?
1. to protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historic interest
2. to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of
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the country
3. to safeguard public property and to abjure violence
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only. 1 and 2 are DPSP. Environment protection is both in FD and DPSP, so often
people gets confused. The FD related to environment is to protect and improve the
natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have
compassion for living creatures.
87. Consider the following statements about difference between Genetically Modified
Organisms ( GMOs) & Living modified organisms (LMOs) :
1.GMOs means organisms which are not capable of growing, i.e. are dead.
2. LMOs means organisms which are capable of growing.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 2 only. The difference between an LMO and a GMO is that a Living Modified
Organism means any biological entity capable of transferring or replicating genetic
material, including sterile organisms, viruses and viroids and typically refers to
agricultural crops. Genetically Modified Organisms include both LMOs and
organisms which are not capable of growing, i.e. are dead.
88. The ecological processes follow the principle of uniformitarianism. This means :
a) the ecological processes have a uniform effect
b) same physical and biological processes that operates today operated in the past.
c) physical and biological processes operate with a uniform rate
b) same physical and biological processes that operates today operated in the past.
Uniformitarianism is the assumption that the same natural laws and processes that
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operate in the universe now have always operated in the universe in the past and apply
everywhere in the universe
89. With reference to cut motions, consider the following statements :
1. Cut motions are moved only in Lok Sabha.
2. The speaker decides whether a cut motion is admissible or not.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2. Cut motion is a power given to the members of the Lok Sabha to
oppose a demand in the financial bill discussed by the government. If a cut motion is
adopted by the House and the government does not have the numbers, it is obliged to
resign. The Speaker shall decide whether a cut motion is or is not admissible under the
rules and may disallow any cut motion when in his opinion it is an abuse of the right
of moving cut motions.
90. Among the following, which is/are a part of Alternate Dispute Resolution (ADR) ?
1. Gram Nyayalaya
2. Fast Track Courts
3. Lok Adalats
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only. Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) refers to any means of

settling disputes outside of the courtroom. ADR typically includes early neutral
evaluation, negotiation, conciliation, mediation, and arbitration. Fast track courts are
not ADR, but special mechanism of the judiciary.
91. With reference to the Arya samaj, consider the following statements :
1. It regarded Vedas as infallible.
2. It tried to prevent the conversion of Hindus to other religion.
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a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2. Arya Samaj believed in Infallible Authority of Vedas and thus gave
the slogan go back to the Vedas. It also propagated the shuddi movement which tried
to prevent the conversion of Hindus to other religion.
92. Western Ghats run through many states in India. Which of the following is not
among them?
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Gujarat
c) Kerala
d) both (a) and (b)
a) Andhra Pradesh. If you answered both (a) and (b), then its time to have a look at the
map of India. Western ghats run through six states Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa,
Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
93. Peninsular rivers rarely form meanders. Which of the following could be a reason
for it ?
1. hard rock surface of peninsular regions.
2. non-alluvial character of plateau
3. high erosional capacity of rivers
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 and 2 only. Peninsular rivers have lower erosional capacity, but because of hard
rock surface in the region and non-alluvial character of plateau, they travel almost
straight and thus do not form meanders

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94. Neutrinos are one of the fundamental particles. Which of the following about
neutrinos is/are correct?
1. they are chargeless
2. they have no mass
3. they travel nearly at the speed of light
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only. Neutrinos are subatomic particles produced by the decay of

radioactive elements. They are similar to the more familiar electron, with one crucial
difference: neutrinos do not carry electric charge Neutrino has nonzero rest mass.
Neutrinos travel at almost exactly the speed of light.
95. Parliamentary authorization for payments is required for :
1. Public account of India
2. Consolidated fund of India
3. Contingency Fund of India
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 only. Parliamentary authorization is only required for Consolidated fund of India.

96. With reference to insolation, consider the following statements :
1. Equator receives less insolation than tropics.
2. At the same latitude the insolation is more over the oceans than over the continents.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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a) 1 only. Equator receives less insolation than tropic due to heavy cloud cover.
Remember insolation is the amount of sunlight received at the surface of earth per unit
area. So the clouds obstructs the sunlight and hence equator receives less insolation.
Similarly, Oceans are significantly cloudier than continents and hence receive less
insolation.
97. An economy pursuing an expansionary fiscal policy can witness :
1. increase in fiscal deficit
2. increase in wages of labour
3. increase in rate of income tax
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
a) 1 only. Expansionary fiscal policy is a macroeconomic policy that seeks to expand

the money supply to encourage economic growth or combat inflation (price increases).
One form of expansionary policy is fiscal policy, which comes in the form of tax cuts,
rebates and increased government spending. Expansionary policies can also come
from central banks, which focus on increasing the money supply in the economy.
Such a fiscal policy will increase the expenditure, thereby increasing fiscal deficit.
Increase in wages of labour is unrelated. There can be a decrease ( not increase ) in
income tax rates, so statement 3 is false.
98. Consider the following towns:
1. Karachi
2. Dhaka
3. Mandalay
4. Jodhpur
Which of the following is the correct order of the towns from north to south ?
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 4 2 3 1

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c) 4 1 2 3. Yes, idiotic question I know. But sometimes UPSC ask these types also. All
these towns are near the tropic of cancer. So, this question was to make you look
around the tropic of cancer.
99. Who among the following participates in the election of Vice-President ?
1. elected MPs
2. nominated MPs
3. elected MLAS
4. nominated MLAs
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 and 2 only. All MPs ( elected + nominated ) participate in VPs election. MLAs
have no role.
100. Which among the following are mechanical method of soil conservation ?
1. bunding
2. terracing
3. contour farming
4. stubble mulching
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 ,3 and 4 only
c) 2 ,3 and 4 only
d) 1 ,2, and 4 only
a) 1, 2 and 3 only. Stubble Mulching is not a mechanical method, but a crop

management technique that helps in soil conservation. The soil conservation measures
are mainly of two types: (a) crop management, and (b) providing mechanical
protection. Techniques like stubble mulching, in which the roots, stems and leaves are
left over in the agricultural fields after harvesting, help to conserve soil.

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Self Study IAS (selfstudyias.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

5. During a national emergency, the President can:

c) 1 and 3 only. While a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the

b) 1 and 3 only. Revenue expenditure is for the normal running of Government

a) 1 only. A primary pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly from a source. A

b) 2 only. Primary productivity is high in eutrophic water bodies. Due to excessive

d) Individual Satyagrah. The demand of the Individual Satyagrahi would be the

2. It failed because of disunity between Hindus and Muslims.

Answer & Explanation

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2. they require no or very low maintenance

c) 2 and 3 only. Bio-Digester Toilet System is based on anaerobic biodegradation of

a) 1 only. In situ conservation is on-site conservation of genetic resources in natural

Answer & Explanation

a) 1 only. Forest ecosystem has a partly upright pyramid of number.This is because

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d) None. Yes, none because adjournment just terminates a sitting. Prorogation

3. ox-bow lakes : lower course

a) western coast of continents witnesses subsidence of air

c) countries themselves decide whether they want to be in developed or developing

Developing countries in the WTO are designated on the basis of self-selection

b) total weight of heterotrops

a) total weight of whole organic matter.

a) 1 and 2 only. It is to be noted that energy flow in an ecosystem is unidirectional and

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Answer & Explanation

c) Both 1 and 2. Resolutions are a type of motion the substantive motion. A

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53. The Indian Parliament is not sovereign. This is because of :

examples of such deserts ?

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

2. GDP at factor cost decreases

b) 2 only. This antibiotic resistance, also known as antimicrobial resistance or drug

d) None. An example of line of sight communication is the TV remote. Bluetooth &

a) 1 only. If a beam of light illuminates a rough surface, or a cloud of small particles,

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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a) 1 only. Sea level changes techtonic indicator ; Lacustrine deposits geological

corporate), debentures and mortgages. Equity financing allows a company to acquire

1. All India Services

b) 1 and 3 only. Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) refers to any means of

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b) 1 and 3 only. Neutrinos are subatomic particles produced by the decay of

b) 2 only. Parliamentary authorization is only required for Consolidated fund of India.

Answer & Explanation

a) 1 only. Expansionary fiscal policy is a macroeconomic policy that seeks to expand

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a) 1, 2 and 3 only. Stubble Mulching is not a mechanical method, but a crop

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