07/07/2016

Q. All of the following regarding isomerism in carbohydrates are

true except:
a. Ribose and ribulose are structural isomers of each other.
B. D-glucose and L-glucose are non-superimposable mirror images
of each other.
C. d-glucose and l-glucose are non-superimposable mirror images of
each other.
D. Anomers are epimers at the first carbon of the monosaccharide.
A. C. d-glucose and l-glucose are non-superimposable mirror
images of each other.
Enantiomers are the non superimposable mirror images of each
other, which are represented by uppercase letters D and L. lower case
letters d and l stand for ability to rotate plane of polarized light in
opposite directions dextrorotatory (d/+) or levorotatory (l/-). In
solution, glucose is dextrorotatory , hence called dextrose and fructose is
levorotatory. Anomer is a special type of epimer. Anomeric carbon is the
carbon atom which becomes a chiral center after chain confirmation of a
sugar is converted to its ring form. With reference to anomeric carbon,
there are two type of isomers- alpha ( ) and beta () depending upon
the position of hydroxyl group.

Q. A 45 year old obese male presented in the clinic with complaints

of increased urination, increased thirst ,tingling in extremities and
clouding of vision. On complete examination, he was diagnosed to have
type II diabetes mellitus,with development of polyneuropathy and
cataract in both eyes. Which of the following metabolite of glucose is
responsible for the cataract in this patient?
A. Amine derivative of glucose
B. Acidic derivative of glucose
C. Deoxy derivative of glucose
D. Alcohol derivative of glucose
A. D. Alcohol derivative of glucose
Reduction of glucose produces alcohol derivatives Sorbitol, which is
responsible for cataract formation in diabetes. One of the theories of

pathophysiology explaining chronic complications of DM is increased

sorbitol formation due to increased activity of aldose reductase. Sorbitol
increase changes redox potential and cellular osmolality, along with
increased production of free radicles, which lead to cataract and other
complications.

Q. All of the following compounds are epimeric forms of each other

except:
A. Ribose
B. Xylose
C. Arabinose
D. Xylulose.
A. D. Xylulose
Epimers are compounds differing at one carbon atom
Examples are: mannose is an epimer of glucose at C2 , galactose is
an epimer of glucose at C4, Talose is an epimer of galactose at C2, Ribose
has 2 epimers-Xylose at C3 & Arabinose at C2.

Q. Benedicts test done with the given sample demonstrated the

following results:

Rt-Control; Lt-Test
Which of the following carbohydrate would not be present in this
sample?
A. glucose
B. fructose
C. lactose
D. trehalose
A. D. trehalose

Except for sucrose and trahalose, the end of these sugars contain
free anomeric carbon, called the reducing end. Therefore, these two
sugars can not participate in the oxidation-reduction reactions
characteristic of reducing sugars(ie Benedicts test).
The principle of Benedict's test is that when reducing sugars are
heated in the presence of an alkali, they get converted to powerful
reducing compounds known as enediols. Enediols reduce the cupric ions
(Cu2+) present in the Benedict's reagent to cuprous ions (Cu+) which get
precipitated as insoluble red copper(I) oxide(Cu2O).

Q. Lactulose, a synthetic compound, is used in hepatic

encephalopathy to reduce the intestinal absorption of ammonia. Which of
the following options correctly represent the composition of this
compound?
A. Glucose & galactose
B. serine & galactose
C. fructose & galactose
D. glycine & galactose
A. C. fructose & galactose
Lactulose is a synthetic disaccharide composed of fructose &
galactose, which is classified as a osmotic laxative, and used in hepatic
encephalopathy as it converts diffusible ammonia into ammonium ion
which can not enter the systemic circulation.

Q. Primary structure of both starch and glycogen are represented

below:

Branches in the amylopectin unit in starch and glycogen are seen

at residue:
a. 10,28
b. 28, 10
c. 40,20
d. 20, 40
A. a. 10,28
Both starch & glycogen are polysaccharides of glucose linked by a
1-4 glycosidic bond.
Both the molecules contain two units : amylase-linear polymer of
glucose and amylopectin linear polymer of glucose with few branch
points ( 1-6). In starch , branches occur in these chains every 12 to 30
residues in amylopectin whereas in glycogen it occurs every 8 to 12
residues.

Q. Following is a representation of alpha granules, a storage form of

glycogen in the liver and muscle, which consists of around 30,000
molecules of glucose.

Which molecule is present in the center of the granule?

A. RNA primer
B. DNA primer
C. Lipid primer
D. Protein primer

A. D. Protein primer
The center of granule contains a protein known as glycogenin, which
acts a primer for glycogen synthesis.

Q. The following macromolecules in the body can not be synthesized

de novo:
A. DNA & Glycogen
B. Sphingolipid & Glycogen
C. Phospholipid & RNA
D. Starch & Glycogen
A. A. DNA & Glycogen
Both DNA & glycogen require a primer for their synthesis ie an RNA
primer and a protein primer respectively.
Q. Structural homopolysaccharide, chitin, which is an integral
component of exoskeletal of insects is composed of :
A. N-acetyl glucosamine(beta 1-4 linkages)
B. N-acetyl glucosamine(alpha 1-4 linkages)
C. N-acetyl galactosamine(beta 1-4 linkages)
D. N-acetyl galactosamine(alpha 1-4 linkages)
A. A. N-acetyl glucosamine(beta 1-4 linkages)
Chitin is a homopolymer of N acetyl glucosamine with 1-4
linkages found in cell wall of yeasts, exoskeletal of insects & arthropods.
It can be used to make biodegradable surgical sutures. Increased
exposure to chitin eg in shellfish industry, increases IL-4 levels and
probability of developing asthma.
Q. Cellulose present in plants have no nutrition benefit because:
A. It is not present in the diet in sufficient amounts.
B. Glucose is joined in alpha glycosidic linkages,which cannot be
broken by GI enzymes.
C. Glucose is joined in beta glycosidic linkages,which cannot be
broken by GI enzymes.

D. Cellulose is not present in the plant food.

A. C. Glucose is joined in beta glycosidic linkages,which cannot be
broken by GI enzymes.
Cellulose is a homopolymer of glucose with 1-4 linkages present
in plants. It can not be broken by the gi enzymes because of beta
linkages,and hence has no nutritive benefit.

Q. A patient with suspected renal failure is advised to undergo a

test for the estimation of GFR. Which of the following molecule can be
used for the above purpose?
A. Lactose
B. Inulin
C. Glycogen
D. Chitin
A. B. Inulin
Inulin is a homopolymer of fructose found in plants and used to
measure GFR.

Q. All of the following are examples of heteropolysaccharides in

nature except:
A. GAG
B. Agar
C. Pectin
D. Chitin

A. D. Chitin
Heteropolysaccharides are polysaccharides containing more than
one type of monosaccharide unit. They include glycosaminoglycans(GAG
or mucopolysaccharides) in humans, agar, gum & pectin in plants
Chitin is a homopolysaccharide of N acetyl glucosamine.

Q. Which of the following mucopolysaccharide do not contain an

acidic sugar?
A. Dermatan sulfate
B. Keratan Sulfate
C. Heparan sulfate
D. Chondroiton Sulfate
A. B. Keratan Sulfate
Only GAG to have galactose in its structure instead of a acid sugar
is Keratan sulfate. KS is responsible for balancing the hydration of cornea,
hence maintains its transparency.

Q. The following GAG is devoid of any sulfur group in its structure:

A. Heparin
B. Hyaluronic acid
C. Keratan sulfate
D. Dermatan sulfate

A. B. Hyaluronic acid
Only GAG to be devoid of sulfate groups is hyaluronic acid. HA is
found in synovial tissue and forms stem cell niche.

Q. Glycosaminglycans are heteropolysaccharides, which assist in the

production of extracellular matrix except:
A. Heparan Sulfate
B. Heparin
C. Hyaluronic acid
D. Keratan sulfate
A. B. Heparin
Only GAG to present intracellularly. It is stored in mast cells. It
helps to retain histamine inside the vesicles electrostatically. Also, heparin
acts as an anticoagulant by binding to antithrombin III and activating it.
This lysis thrombin and prevents clot formation.

Q. Proteoglycan, an integral part of connective tissues, contains

maximum percentage of :
A. Protein
B. Carbohydrate
C. Lipid
D. Nucleic acids

A. B. Carbohydrate
Proteoglycans are large molecules made up of 90%
carbohydrate(heteropolysaccahride) and 10% proteins(core protein &
linker protein).

Q. All of the following statements regarding proteoglycans are true

except:
A. Aggrecans is present in cartilages.
B. Contains core protein and linker protein
C. Can bind to water and cations
D. Contains more oligosaccharides than heteropolysaccharides.
A. D. Contains more oligosaccharides than heteropolysaccharides.
Proteoglycans are large molecules made up of 90%
carbohydrate(heteropolysaccahride) and 10% proteins(core protein &
linker protein). As it is rich in sulfate groups, it can bind water and
cations. and control their movement. Examples are aggrecans present in
cartilages, versican present in skin & blood vessels.

Q. All of the following lysosomal storage diseases are associated

with the accumulation of mucopolysaccharides in the lysosomes except:
A. Hurlers syndrome
B. Niemann Pick syndrome
C. Hunters Syndrome
D. San Filipo syndrome
A. B. Niemann Pick syndrome

Rest are mucopolysaccharidosis. Niemann Pick syndrome is a

sphingolipidosis.

Q. A 3year old child presented with delay in development and

following facial features.

On examination, the child had corneal clouding,

hepatosplenomegaly, vacuolated lymphocytes and inguinal hernia. What
can be the most probable diagnosis in this child?
A. Niemann-Pick syndrome
B. Hurlers Syndrome
C. Hunters syndrome
D. Gauchers disease
A. B. Hurlers Syndrome
The child in picture has flat nose, protruded forehead and
macrognathia. All of these feature point towards the diagnosis of MPS IHurlers syndrome, which occurs due to deficiency of iduronidase enzyme
in the degradation of heparin and dermatan sulfate.

Q. Which MPS out of the options mentioned below will have least
clinical symptoms?
A. MPS IH
B. MPS IS
C. MPS IH-S

D. MPS II
A. B. MPS IS
Scheie syndrome is a subtype of Hurlers syndrome with less clinical
manifestations.
Q. All of the following mucopolysaccharidosis (MPS) syndromes are
autosomal recessive in inheritance except:
A. MPS IH
B. MPS III
C. MPS IH-S
D. MPS II
A. D. MPS II
All except MPS II, Hunters syndrome are autosomal recessive.
Hunters syndrome is X-linked recessive in inheritance.

Q. A 2 year old child presented with delay in development , pebbly

skin and coarse facial features. On examination, the child had retinal
degeneration, hepatosplenomegaly, granulated neutrophils and short
stature. What can be the most probable diagnosis in this child?
A. Niemann-Pick syndrome
B. Hurlers Syndrome
C. Hunters syndrome
D. Gauchers disease

A. C. Hunters syndrome
Hunters syndrome is MPS II, which is X-linked in inheritance. It is
characterized by deficiency of iduronidase enzyme and excess
accumulation of heparin sulfate and dermatan sulfate.

Q. All of the following MPS syndromes have approved enzyme

replacement therapies except:
A. Hurlers Syndrome
B. Hunters syndrome
C. SanFilipo Syndrome
D. Maroteaux-Lamy Syndrome
A. C. SanFilipo Syndrome
All of the above except MPS III has FDA approved enzyme
replacement therapy.

Q. identify the statement which best describes glucose :

A. It is a C2 epimer of mannose.
B. it is present in circulation as L-glucose.
C. the ring formed by glucose is furanose ring.
D. It contains keto group at the carbonyl carbon.

A. A. It is a C2 epimer of mannose.
Mannose is an epimer of glucose at C2. The ring form of glucose is
pyranose and for fructose it is furanose.
All the carbohydrates exist in D isomeric form and amino acid in the
L-isomeric form.
Glucose is an aldose sugar,wherease fructose is an keto sugar.

Q. Which of the following best describes the action of pancreatic

amylase in the digestion of carbohydrates?
A. Optimal pH for its action is 2.5.
B. Starch is broken down to maltose and maltotriose.
C. Free glucose is produced as a result of its action.
D. It also acts on disaccharides to produce constitutional
monosaccharides.
A. B. Starch is broken down to maltose and maltotriose.
Pancreatic amylase is the major enzyme of starch digestion and, as
with salivary amylase, produces short oligosaccharides, maltotriose,
maltose, and -limit dextrins; glucose monomer is not produced. It has a
pH optimum of 6.7-7.0. Most of this hydrolysis occurs within the intestinal
lumen,

Q. A 20 year old boy complains of abdominal pain & flatulence after

consuming dairy products. Which of the following disaccharidases is
deficient in the intestinal epithelium?
A. Maltase
B. Lactase

C. Isomaltase
D. Sucrase
A. B. Lactase
Deficiency of lactase enzyme causes lactose intolerance, which is
characterized by non absorption of lactose from milk & milk products. This
lactose in colon gets acted upon by bacteria and gets converted into
hydrogen , CO2 and methane, which leads to bloating. Also, unabsorbed
lactose and its products increase the osmotic pressure of intestinal
contents and cause diarrhea. Hydrogen breath test can be diagnostic.

Q. Absorption of monosaccharides in the intestinal epitheliumidentify the incorrect statement:

A. SGLT-1 absorbs glucose and galactose
B. SGLT-1 is an active transporter utilizing ATP to transport glucose.
C. A cotransport of sodium ions occur along with absorption of
carbohydrates.
D. GLUT-5, which absorbs fructose is an active transporter.
A. D. GLUT-5, which absorbs fructose is an active transporter.
Glucose and galactose are actively transported by sodium
cotransporter (primarily SGLT1); active glucose transport is driven by the
sodium gradient across the apical cell membrane . For every glucose
molecule that is transported across the brush border, Na+ ions (and two
accompanying anions) also are transported across the epithelium.
Fructose absorption occurs by facilitated diffusion; Transport
occurs not against a concentration gradient but with a carrier
protein,GLUT-5 . This process is completely independent of glucose
absorption.

Q. Which of the following transporter is associated with peripheral

uptake of glucose?
A. GLUT-1
B. GLUT-2

C. GLUT-3
D. GLUT-4
A. D. GLUT-4
GLUT proteins transport glucose and related hexoses. Each glucose
transporter isoform plays a specific role in glucose metabolism determined
by its pattern of tissue expression, substrate specificity, transport kinetics,
and regulated expression in different physiological conditions. To date, 13
members of the GLUT/SLC2 have been identified. On the basis of
sequence similarities, the GLUT family has been divided into three
subclasses :
Class I : GLUT 1,2,3,4
Class II : GLUT 5,7,9,11
Class III : GLUT 6,8,10,12
GLUT 1: mainly present in erythrocytes ;important for basal
uptake of glucose
GLUT 2: present in pancreatic beta cells (acting as glucose sensor),
renal tubular cells, liver, intestine(transports glucose, galactose &
fructose). It is a bidirectional pump.
GLUT 3: present in neurons for basal uptake of glucose
GLUT 4: adipose tissue, skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle; only
insulin responsive glucose transporters; peripheral uptake of glucose
GLUT 5: present in all tissues for fructose transport.

Q. Fasting for 24 hours decreases the concentration of glucose

transporters in:
A. liver
B. skeletal muscle
C. spleen

D. adrenal cortex
A. B. skeletal muscle
GLUT 4 present in adipose tissue, skeletal muscle and cardiac
muscle is the only insulin responsive glucose transporters, which would
decrease in fasting.

Q. Metformin, an antidiabetic drug, increases the expressionof

following glucose transporters in the peripheral tissue:
A. GLUT-1
B. GLUT-2
C. GLUT-3
D. GLUT-4
A. D. GLUT-4
Metformin enhances the phosphorylation of GLUT-4 enhancer factor
and increases its expression in peripheral tissue.

Q. Maltase inhibitor used in the treatment of diabetes to decease

the glucose absorption from dietary carbohydrates is :
A. Insulin
B. GLP-1 agonist
C. metformin
D. Migitilol

A. D. Migitilol
Acarbose, Migitilol & are alpha-glucosidase/maltase inhibitors ,which
slow the production of glucose from dietary carbohydrates, and thus
decrease postprandial glucose concentration.

Q. The glucose transporters present in blood brain barrier:

A. SGLT-1
B. GLUT-1
C. SGLT-1 & GLUT-1
D. GLUT-2
A. C. SGLT-1 & GLUT-1
Choroid plexus, which constitutes BBB, contains both SGLT-1 and
GLUT-1.

Q. Testicular tissue predominantly contains which of the following

transporter:
A. GLUT-2
B. GLUT-4
C. GLUT-5
D. GLUT-1

A. C. GLUT-5
GLUT-5, which is a fructose transporter is present in testes and
small intestine.
Q. Glycolysis- a central pathway in carbohydrate metabolismincorrect statement isA. it is an anabolic pathway occurring in cytosol.
B. it involves complete oxidation of glucose to CO2
C. 10 reactions are divided into 2 phases
D. oxygen concentration has no effect on glycolysis
A. B. it involves complete oxidation of glucose to CO2
Glycolysis is simply conversion of glucose to pyruvate. Further fate
of pyruvate depends on the presence or absence of oxygen or the energy
requirement.
Glycolysis has two phases : priming phase and energy yielding
phase.
Glycolysis can occur both in aerobic as well as anaerobic conditions
It occurs in cytoplasm of the cell

Q. Which of the following pair of enzymes represent irreversible

steps of glycolysis:
A. Pyruvate kinase, enolase,Phosphoglyceromutase
B. Pyruvate kinase, PFK-1, hexokinase
C. Pyruvate kinase, PFK-1, Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate
dehydrogenase

D. Pyruvate kinase, hexokinase,phosphohexose isomerase.

A. B. Pyruvate kinase, PFK-1, hexokinase

Q. All of the following can be synthesized from glucose-6-phosphate

except:
A. Pyruvate
B. Ribose-5-Phosphate
C. Glycogen
D. Fatty acid
A. D. Fatty acid

Q. Which metal is required for the optimal activity of enolase?

A. Cu2+
B. Mg2+
C. Mo
D. Iron
A. B. Mg2+

Q. Phosphorylation of glucose serves an important function in

cellular metabolism. What would that probably be?
A. Glucose is converted into its activated form.
B. It decreases the concentration of glucose, which further increases
its cellular transport & traps it inside the cell.
C. Glucose-6-Phosphate can bind to specific cellular receptors.
D. Glucose-6-Phosphate can bind to specific nuclear receptors.
A. B. It decreases the concentration of glucose, which further
increases its cellular transport & traps it inside the cell.

Q. Insulin increases the activity of glucokinase enzyme in the

hepatocytes by:
A. Phosphorylation
B. Glycosylation
C. increasing the transcription of enzyme
D. Acetylation
A. C. increasing the transcription of enzyme

Q. Identify the isomerase reactions of glycolysis,using the step

number from glycolytic pathway shown below.

A. Step1
B. Step2
C. Step3
D. Step4

Q. Identify the transferase reactions of glycolysis,using the step

number from glycolytic pathway shown below.
A. Step1
B. Step2
C. Step4
D. Step5

Q. Identify the oxidation-reduction reactions of glycolysis,using the

step number from glycolytic pathway shown below.
A. Step1
B. Step2
C. Step4

D. Step6

Q. In the metabolic pathway presented below, which step

represents the commited step?
A. Step1
B. Step2
C. Step3
D. Step4

Q. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate

are intermediates of glycolysis,which are structural isomers of each other.
The aldehyde isomer is destined to carry further glycolysis. What is the
metabolic fate of keto derivative?
A. Glycogen Synthesis
B. Triacylglycerol synthesis
C. HMP shunt
D. Fatty acid synthesis

Q. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase is responsible for

the formation of first high energy compound of glycolysis ie 1,3-BPG.
What is the source of phosphate used by this enzyme?
A. ATP
B. GTP

C. iP
D. UTP

Q. Iodoacetate inhibits Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase

by:
A. Binding to the sulfydryl group of the enzyme
B. blocking the active site
C. phosphorylating the enzyme
D. acetylation of the enzyme

Q. All of the following can inhibit Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

dehydrogenase enzyme except:
A. Iodoacetate
B. Arsenate
C. Arsenite
D. Mercury

Q. Identify the correct statement regarding conversion of pyruvate

to acetyl CoA:
A. It occurs in cytosolic cell compartment
B. PDH complex catalyzes reversible reaction

C. Thiamine is an important coenzyme for the reaction.

D. Biotin is a part of the enzyme complex.

Q. The coenzyme common to the dehydrogenases of both glycolysis

and TCA cycle is :
A. NAD
B. ATP
C. NADPH
D. Lipoic acid

Q. Regarding gluconeogenesis, which is the correct statement:

A. Reactions take place in cytosolic compartment.
B. it produces energy (exergonic)
C. It uses carbon skeletal provided by amino acids
D. it maintains blood glucose during well fed state

Q. Which of the following enzyme would be inhibited on addition of

large amounts of egg avidin?
A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
B. Lactate dehydrogenase
C. Pyruvate carboxylase
D. Malate dehydrogenase

Q. A patient suspected of malaria comes from a chloroquine

resistant zone. Primaquine is administered to the patient, following which
he complains of pain in the back and passing cola colored urine. Levels of
which of the following metabolic intermediates would be decreased in this
patient?
A. Reduced glutathione
B. Oxidized glutathione
C. Glucose-6-Phosphate
D. Oxidized NADH