Chabilitaz |1

1. Congenital anomalies associated with amniotic bands which denotes rupture of amnion
with resultant formation of bands that encircle or compress parts of the developing fetus
a. Deformation
b. Disruption
c. Malformation
d. Sequence
e. Syndrome
2. An example is anencephaly or congenital heart defects and are usually associated with
multifactorial geneti loci defect
a. Deformation
b. Disruption
c. Malformation
d. Sequence
e. Syndrome
3. These are not heritable hence are not associated with risk of recurrence in the next
pregnancy
a. Deformation
b. Disruption
c. Malformation
d. Sequence
e. Syndrome
4. Extrinsic disturbance of development where uterine constraint is the most common cause
a. Deformation
b. Disruption
c. Malformation
d. Sequence
e. Syndrome
5. An example is Potter or oligohydraminos
a. Deformation
b. Disruption
c. Malformation
d. Sequence
e. Syndrome
6. True of syndrome except
a. Caused by a single agent
b. Constellation of anomalies that are independent of each other
c. Cannot be explained on the basis of single localizing initiating effect
d. Can be caused by viral infection or specific chromosomal abnormality
e. None of the above
7. Absence of an organ due to failure of development of the primordium
a. Hypoplasia
b. Atresia
c. Aplasia
d. Agenesis
8. Port wine stains are lesions of
a. Arterioles
b. Venules
c. Capillaries
d. Lymphatics
9. Normal cells or tissue that are present in abnormal locations are referred as
a. Heterotopia

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b. Choristoma
c. Hamartoma
d. Both a and B
e. Both b and c
10.Excessive, focal overgrowth of cells and tissue native to the to the organ in which it occurs
a. Heterotopia
b. Choristoma
c. Hamartoma
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
11.The most common tumors of infancy
a. Lymphatic tumors
b. Fibrous tumor
c. Teratoma
d. Hemangioma
12.These tumors are characterized by cystic and cavernous spaces, more often encountered
in the deeper regions of the neck, axilla, mediastinum, retroperitoneal tissue.
a. Lymphatoma
b. Lymphangiectasis
c. Lymphangioma
d. Hemingioma
13.The most common form of teratoma in childhood
a. Immature
b. Mature
c. Sacrococcygeal
d. Uterine
14.Tumors of childhood most frequently arise in the following
a. Skin
b. Kidney
c. Bone
d. Nervous tissue
e. All of the above
15.The collective term referring to childhood tumors
a. Small spindle blue cell
b. Small round blue cell
c. Big spindle blue cell
d. Big round blue cell
16.The most frequently diagnosed tumor of infancy and the most common extracranial solid
tumor of childhood
a. Wilms tumor
b. Medullablastoma
c. Neuroblastoma
d. ALL
17.The most common location of the above condition
a. Adrenal medulla
b. Paravertebral region of abdomen
c. Anterior mediastinum
d. Posterior mediastinum
18.True of neuroblastoma except
a. 90% of neuroblastoma regardless of location produce catecholamine
b. Affected child is called blueberry muffin baby
c. Under age of 2 year they present with large abdominal mass fever and weight loss
d. Metastasize through hematogenous and lymphatics

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e. None of the above
19.Wilms tumor is the most common primary renal tumor of childhood. This tumor has 4
recognizable groups. Among the four which has higher risk for wilms
a. Denys-drash syndrome
b. Beckwith-wiedemann syndrome
c. WAGR syndrome
d. Sporadic
20.Antigen found on MHC class I molecules bind to
a. CD4
b. CD8
c. CD3
d. CD2
21.Part of the cell receptor that are involved in the transduction of signals into the T cells
after the TCR has bound the antigen
a. Alpha beta
b. CD3 complex and zeta chain
c. Gamma delta TCR
d. Delta and epsilon
22.How about those that recognizes peptides, lipids small molecules without display from
MHC
a. Alpha beta
b. CD3 complex and zeta chain
c. Gamma delta TCR
d. Delta and epsilon
23.Signal will be stimulated in what T cell receptor
a. CD28
b. CD80
c. CD86
d. CD4
24-36
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
None of the above

24.
IgG and IgM stimulates phagocytosis b
25.T lymphocytes d
26.Deposition of immune complexes c
27.Vasoactive amines, enzymes, proteoglycans a
28.Myasthenia gravis b
29.Contact dermatitis d
30.Type 1 DM d
31.Arthus reaction c
32.Graves disease b
33.Type 2 diabetes b
34.Polyarteritisnodosa c
35.Reactive arthritis c
36.Rheumatoid arthritis d

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37.What is the hallmark of SLE
a. Anti-phospholipid antibody
b. Production of autoantibodies
c. Renal disorder
d. Homogenous nuclear staining
38.How many of the eleven criteria is at least needed to diagnose SLE
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
39.The following belong to group of ANA except
a. Antibodies to histone
b. Antibodies to nucleolar antigen
c. Antibodies to DNA
d. Antibodies to histone protein in RNA
e. None of the above
40.Which of the following pattern is mismatched
a. Homogenous-dsDNA, chromatin
b. Rim or peripheral staining-dsDNA, histones
c. Speckled-non-DNA constituents
d. Nucleolar-RNA
e. None of the above
41.Of the following pattern which is the most commonly observed pattern
a. Homogenous
b. Rim
c. Speckled
d. Nucleolar
e. All are found together
42.Where are LE cells derived from
a. Lymphocytes
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophil
d. Neutrophils
43.Myeloid neoplasm associated with ineffective hematopoiesis which results to peripheral
blood cytopenia
a. Myelodysplastic
b. Myeloproliferative
c. Pancytosis
d. AML
44.Most common chromosomal mutation that causes majority of WBC neoplasm
a. Deletion
b. Translocation
c. Substitution
d. Ring formation
45.Viruses that causes WBC tumor except
a. EBV
b. KSHV
c. HHV8
d. HTLV1
e. None of the above
46.The clinical presentation of the various lymphoid neoplasma is most often determined by
a. Lymph node metastasis
b. Invasion

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c. Anatomic distribution
d. Size of the tumor
e. Involvement of other organ
47.Majority of lymphoid neoplasms are of what origin
a. T cell
b. B cell
c. NK cells
d. Histiocytes
48.The most common cancer of children
a. AML
b. ALL
c. CML
d. CLL
49.Indication of worse prognosis except
a. Peripheral blood blast >100k
b. Translocation of Philadelphia chromosome
c. Age under 2
d. Presentation in adolescence or adulthood
e. None of the above
50.Clinical diagnostic requirement for CLL
a. Presence of proliferation center
b. Presence of smudge cell
c. Relative count of >4000 cells
d. Absolute count of >4000 cells
51.Pathognomonic of CLL
a. Proliferation center
b. Smudge cell
c. Basket cell
d. Whorled lymphocytosis
52.The most common form of indolent NHL in the US
a. Diffuse Large-B-cell lymphoma
b. Burkitt lymphoma
c. Follicular lymphoma
d. Small lymphocytic lymphoma
53.The most common form of NHL
a. Diffuse Large-B-cell lymphoma
b. Burkitt lymphoma
c. Follicular lymphoma
d. Small lymphocytic lymphoma
54.The bones most commonly affected by multiple myeloma
a. Ribs
b. Mandible
c. Pelvis
d. Vertebra
55.Most characteristic feature of apoptosis
a. Cell shrinkage
b. Chromatin condensation
c. Blebbing and apoptotic bodies
d. phagocytosis
56.nucleus undergoes fragmentation
a. pyknosis
b. karyolysis
c. karyorrhexis

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d. nuclear dissolution
57.the nomenclature used in organization of the different forms of Vasculitis
a. Chapil Hill
b. Knudson
c. Clark Edison
d. Bethesda
58.These are small vessel vasculitis
a. Takayasu
b. Kawasaki
c. Polyarteritisnodosa
d. Churg-Strauss syndrome
59.This type of vasculitis is associated with Hepatitis B infection
a. Temporal arteritis
b. Pulseless disease
c. Allergic granulomatosis
d. Polyarteritisnodosa
60.This condition spares the pulmonary circulation
a. Temporal arteritis
b. Pulseless disease
c. Allergic granulomatosis
d. Polyarteritisnodosa
61.Pulseless disease is otherwise called
a. Kawasaki
b. Takayasu
c. Microscopic polyangitis
d. Polyarteritisnodosa
62.. Which typically presents with headache and facial pain?
a. Temporal arteritis
b. Polyarteritisnodosa
c. Kawasaki disease
d. Takayasu arteritis
63.90% of patients will show necrotizing glomerulonephritis
a. Kawasaki
b. Takayasu
c. Microscopic polyangitis
d. Polyarteritisnodosa
64.the following risk factors for atherosclerosis are nonmodifiable except
a. Increasing age
b. Male gender
c. Female gender
d. Family histoy
65.This is the cornerstone in the response-to-injury hypothesis of atherosclerosis
a. Accumulation of lipoprotein
b. Endothelial injury
c. Lipid accumulation
d. Monocyte adhesion to endothelium
66.These are abnormal lipoprotein abnormalities associated with atherosclerosis except
a. Decreased HDL cholesterol levels
b. Increased LDL cholesterol levels
c. Increased levels of abnormal lipoprotein
d. None of the above
67.The receptor in macrophage responsible for the formation of foam cells
a. Scavenger receptor

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b. LDL receptor
c. Foam receptor
d. HDL receptor
68.Earliest lesion of a mature atheroma
a. Foam cells
b. Fatty streaks
c. Atherosclerotic plaques
d. Thrombosis
69.Which part of the cap do you see the necrotic core containing lipid, debris from dead cells
and foam cells
a. Beneath
b. Deep to the cap
c. Periphery
d. Above
70.Fat soluble vitamin deficiency associated with spinocerebellar degeneration
a. A
b. D
c. E
d. K
71.Bleeding diathesis
a. A
b. D
c. E
d. K
72.Water soluble vitamins associated with pellagra
a. Niacin
b. Riboflavin
c. Pyridoxine
d. Thiamine
e. Folate
73.Three Ds: dementia, dermatitis diarrhea
a. Niacin
b. Riboflavin
c. Pyridoxine
d. Thiamine
e. Folate
74.Wernicke syndrome, Korsakoff syndrome
a. Niacin
b. Riboflavin
c. Pyridoxine
d. Thiamine
e. Folate
75.Coneal vascularization, cheillosis, stomatitis, glossitis
a. Niacin
b. Riboflavin
c. Pyridoxine
d. Thiamine
e. Folate
76.This transplant reaction occurs within minutes or hours after transplantation
a. Acute
b. Hyperacute
c. chronic
d. hyperchronic

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77.May appear suddently months or even years later after immunosuppression has been used
and terminated
a. Acute
b. Hyperacute
c. Chronic
d. Hyperchronic
78.Occurs when there is already preformed antibodies circulating in the recipient
a. Acute
b. Hyperacute
c. Chronic
d. Hyperchronic
79.The major antigenic differences between a donor and recipient that result in rejection of
graft is mainly associated with
a. MHC
b. HLA
c. T cell Receptor
d. CTL
80.True of direct pathway except
a. Dendritic cells are the most important APC
b. T cell of the transplant recipient recognize allogenic donor MHC molecule
c. CD8 t cells recognize MHC class 1
d. Recipient t lymphocytes recognize MHC antigen are presented by own APC
e. None of the above
81.This is a strong indicator of humoral rejection
a. Narrowing of arterioles
b. Deposition of c4d products
c. Lymphocytosis
d. Bence jones protein
82.Frequent complication of bone marrow transplantation
a. Pancytopenia
b. Immunodeficiency
c. Bleeding
d. Bone pain
83.Refers to lack of differentiation
a. Metaplasia
b. Anaplasa
c. Dysplasia
d. Neoplasia
84.Hallmark of malignancy is
a. metastasis
b. Anaplasa
c. Dysplasia
d. Invasion
85.In the epithelia this is characterized by constellation of changes that include loss in the
uniformity of the individual cells as well as loss in their architectural orientation.
a. metastasis
b. Anaplasa
c. Dysplasia
d. Invasion
86.True of the changes in a neoplasm except:
a. Loss of polarity results to anarchic disorganized fashion

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b. High mitotic index always indicates malignancy
c. Hyper chromaticity with increase mitotic index
d. Appearance of tumor giant cell
e. None of the above
87.Smallest clinicaly detectable mass
a. 1 gm
b. 1mg
c. 1 pg
d. 1 kg
88.Rate of growth of tumor is determined by except
a. Doubling time
b. Fraction in replicative pool
c. Fraction of oncogenic proteins
d. Fraction that shed or die
89.Following metastasis what is next in differentiating benign from malignant
a. Grade of tumor
b. Invasion
c. Lymph node
d. Mitosis
90.All tumors metastasize except for
a. Melanoma and glioma
b. Meningioma ad squamous cell carcinoma
c. Glioma and basal cell
d. Basal cell and meningioma
91.Pathway of spread for carcinoma
a. Lymhatic
b. Hematogenous
c. Both
d. Neither
92.Pathway of spread for sarcoma
a. Lymphatics
b. Hematogenous
c. Both
d. Neither
93.Of the blood vessels which is more penetrated
a. Capillaries
b. Arteries
c. Veins
d. No variation
94.Where does RB bind to
a. P53
b. E2F
c. CDK
d. APC b Catenin
95.P53 is considered to be the guardian of the genome, it activates temporary cell arrest
which is referred as
a. Quiescence
b. Senescence
c. Apoptosis
d. Necrosis
96.True of RAS Oncogene except
a. Sarcoma-KRAS
b. CA-KRAS

C h a b i l i t a z | 10
c. Bladder tumor-HRAS
d. NRAS-hematopoeitic
e. None of the above
97.Grading would include except:
a. Degree of differentiation
b. Number of mitosis
c. Presence of invasion
d. Architectural feature
e. None of the above
98.In Staging what classification do you use
a. TMN
b. TNM
c. NTM
d. MNT
99. Leading type of cancer in men:
a. skin cancer
b. prostate cancer
c. lung cancer
d. testicular cancer
100. Transplant rejection is which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
a. type I
b. type II
c. type III
d. type IV