Comm 3xit

Radiation and wave
propagation
Transmission Fundamentals
Wire and Wireless
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Communications Chapter 7
QUESTIONS IN:
Modulation Chapter 3
Test yourself- Exam 1-10

Noise Chapter 4
Antennas Chapter 6
Satellite Communications
Chapter 10
Optical Fiber Communications
Broadcasting
Microwave Communications
Acoustics
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5.
Test Yourself Exam 01
1.
ECE Board Exam March 1996

i
That dielectric material of an optical
s
fiber surrounding
the core
A. Cladding
a
B. Armor
C. Shieldy
D. Cover
a
2. ECE Board Exam March 1996
An antenna
, that is circularly polarized is
the ____________.
A. parabolic reflector
B. helicalL
C. Yagi-uda
D. small u
circular loop
3. ECE Board
z Exam March 1996
A word in telegraphy consist of
__________ characters plus a word
space. R
A. 11
B. 7 and e
C. 8
g
D. 5
i Exam March 1996
4. ECE Board
The number
n of voice band channels in
master group per CCITT standard is
e
__________.
A. 300
B. 480
C. 600
6.
7.
8.
D. 120
B
. of standard test tone is
The power
normally ____________.
A. 1 dB
B. 0 mW
C. 1 mW
D. 1 W
LORAN is a navigational system used
primarily for _____________.
A. blind landing
B. obtaining your fixes location over
large distances
C. automatic collision warning
D. approach control
The expander in a companding device
provides ___________.
A. greater amplification for low signal
levels
B. less amplification for low signal
levels
C. greater amplification for high signal
levels
D. lesser pressure for transmission
cables
LORAN is a navigation system used
primarily for
A. approach control
B. obtaining fixes over large distances
C. blind landing
D. automatic collision warning
9.

At what power level does a 1 kHz tone
cause zero interference (144 weighted) ?
A. -90 dB
B. -90 dBm
C. 90 dBm
D. 90 dB
One character or a sequence of
characters forming a part, or the whole
of a message with a specific meaning
A. Signs
B. Call sign
C. Code
D. Identifier
The K-factor under normal atmospheric
conditions in a microwave radio data
profile calculation is equal to
___________.
A. 2/3
B. 0
C. 4/3
D. Infinity
What is the IBMs asynchronous data
link protocol designation?
A. 83 B
B. 8A1 / 8B1
C. 93 B
D. 9A1/ 9B1
EIRP stands for _______________.
A. effective isotropic refracted power
B. effective and ideal radiated power

C. effective isotropic reflected power
D. effective isotropic radiated power
The modulation system used for
telegraphy is
A. frequency-shift keying
B. two-tone modulation
C. pulse-code modulation
D. single-tone modulation
The standard that specifies a balanced
interface cable that will operate bit rates
up to 10 Mbps with in a span distances
up to 1200 m.
A. RS-423A
B. RS-422A
C. RS-550A
D. RS-449A
An antenna which is not resonant at a
particular frequencies and so can be used
over a wide band of frequencies and so
can be used over a wide band of
frequencies is called
A. aperiodic
B. boresight
C. cassegrain
D. top-loaded
A receiver connected to an antenna
whose resistance is 50 ohms has an
equivalent noise resistance of 30 ohms.
What is the receivers noise

temperature?
A. 754 K
B. 464 K
C. 174 K
D. 293 K
___________ occurs when the
microwave beam is at point of grazing
over an obstacle.
A. Diffraction
B. Refraction
C. Absorption
D. Reflection
Atmospheric condition is controlled by
A. humidity
B. pressure
C. temperature
D. all of these
The characteristics impedance of a
transmission line does not depend upon
its ________.
A. conductor spacing
B. conductor diameter
C. length
D. conductor radius
What is the purpose of a beat frequency
oscillator (BFO)?
A. Aid in the reception of weak voicemodulated signals
B. Generates a signal, whose frequency

is the same as that of the
intermediate frequency
C. Generates a 1kHz note for Morse
code reception
D. Generates an output, whose
frequency differs from that of the
intermediate frequency by 1 kHz
The point on the satellite orbit, closest to
the earth is
A. prograde
B. perigee
C. zenith
D. apogee
The potential difference between any
exposed structured to ground in any
electrical installation should not exceed
_________ volts RMS.
A. 10
B. 45
C. 0
D. 30
The capture area of an antenna is
directly proportional to the
A. frequency of the received signal
B. distance between transmitter and
receiver
C. gain of the antenna
D. power density of the signal
Modems are required to connect

computer to telephone lines because
___________.
A. telephone company rules required
them
B. the telephone network bandwidth is
too high
C. none of the above
D. the telephone network will pass
direct current
The standard reference antenna for the
directive gain is ___________.
A. elementary doublet
B. isotropic antenna
C. half-wave dipole
D. infinitesimal dipole
One hundred twenty bars of pressure
variation is equal to
A. 120 dBSPL
B. 115.56 dBSPL
C. 41.58 dBSPL
D. 57.78 dBSPL
It is a spacecraft placed in orbit around
the earth carrying onboard microwave
receiver and transmitting equipments.
A. Fiber optic equipment
B. Communications satellite
C. Wireless radio system
D. Coaxial cable syste
One type of pulse communications

system uses pulse that appear as a group,
and which vary in number according to
the loudness of the voice. This type of
pulse modulation is called
A. pulse duration modulation
B. pulse amplitude modulation
C. pulse code modulation
D. pulse position modulation
A device to be connected across the
headset in telephone receivers to reduce
the effects of acoustic shock.
A. Ground
B. Two rectifiers in parallel with
opposite polarities
C. Protector
D. Fuse
Judgment on the case against an ECE
shall become final and executory after
A. 10 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 15 days
The equivalent noise temperature of the
amplifier is 25 K. What is the noise
figure?
A. 1.86
B. 0.1086
C. 1.086
D. 10.86
The letter-number designation B8E is a

form of modulation also known as
___________.
A. pilot carrier system
B. independent sideband emission
C. lincomplex
D. vestigial sideband transmission
When the transmitting and receiving
antennas are in line-of-sight of each
other, the mode of propagation is
________ wave.
A. space or direct
B. ground
C. surface
D. sky
Crosstalk coupling is ___________.
A. dBm (disturbing pair) minus dBm
(disturbed pair)
B. the difference between readings on a
cable pair with a tone and a cable
pair without tone read at the far end
of a cable
C. signals from one circuit that get into
another circuit
D. All of these are true
According to the Nyquist theorem, the
sampling rate that can be used in a PCM
system is ________ the highest audio
frequency.
A. once
B. eight times
C. twice
D. thrice
Passive crossover components cause
some frequencies to be delayed with
respect to the other frequencies at the
crossover point.
A. Phase shift
B. Phase correction
C. Phase-error correction
D. Time alignment
A car horn outdoors produces a sound
intensity level of 90 dB at 10 ft away. At
this distance, what is the sound power in
watt?
A. 12 W
B. 0.12 W
C. 0.012 W
D. 1.2 W
What is the one principal difference
between synchronous and asynchronous
transmission?
A. the pulse height are different
B. the clocking is derived from the data
in synchronous transmission
C. the clocking is mixed with the data
in asynchronous
D. the bandwidth required is different
The lowest layer in the ionosphere
A. D
B. F2
C. E
D. F1
What is the number of pins in the RS232C interface?
A. 25
B. 15
C. 20
D. 20
SSB transmission requires only ______
of the bandwidth for a DSBFC
transmission.
A.
B. 2/3
C.
D.
The method of generating FM used by
broadcasting station is
A. direct
B. all of these
C. indirect
D. insertion
What is the transmission rate of a system
for transmitting the output of a
microcomputer to a line printer
operating at a speed of 30 lines/minute?
Assume that the line printer has 8 bits of
data per character and prints out 80
characters/line.
A. 800 bps
B. 400 bps
C. 320 bps
D. 640 bps
Communications code is ____________.
A. eight bits per character
B. agreed upon in advance between
sender and receiver
C. the same in all modern computers
D. either seven or eight bits per
character
What is the reference tone level for
dBm?
A. -82 dBm
B. -85 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -90 dBm
A type of an underground antenna is
a/an __________ antenna.
A. Hertz
B. isotropic
C. parabolic
D. Marconi
Which of the following pulse
modulation systems is analog?
A. Delta
B. Differential PCM
C. PWM
D. PCM
What is the purpose of the receivers
squelch circuit?
A. To overcome fluctuations in the level

the RF signal arriving at the receiver
antenna
B. To prevent fluctuations in the AGC
bias level
C. To reduce the receivers sensitivity
to all incoming signals
D. To prevent amplified noise from
reaching the loudspeaker during the
absence of an incoming signal
TACAN is a navigational aid providing
___________.
A. bearing and distance indication
B. speed and height indication
C. bearing and weather information
D. instrument-landing glide paths
In __________ transmission, a unique
SYNC character is transmitted at the
beginning of each message.
A. asynchronous
B. synchronous
C. digital
D. analogue
If the terminating impedance is exactly
equal to the characteristic impedance of
the transmission line the return loss is
___________.
A. zero
B. one
C. infinite
D. None of these

What is the main purpose of a
communications system?
A. None of these
B. To have a frequency assignment
C. For modulation
D. To provide an acceptable replica of
the information at the destination
What is meant by antenna gain?
A. The final amplifier gain minus the
transmission line losses (including
any phasing lines present)
B. The ratio of the amount of power
produced by the antenna compared
to the output power of the transmitter
C. The ratio of the signal in the
backward direction
D. The numeric ratio relating the
radiated signal strength of an antenna
to that of another antenna
Binary communications systems are
better because
A. they can interface directly with the
analog telephone network
B. the components are simpler, less
costly, and more reliable
C. people think better in binary
D. interstate calls are less costly
In the phase shift method, How many
circuits must be balanced?
A. None of these
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2
The carrier swing necessary to provide
80% modulation in the FM broadcasting
band is __________.
A. 150 kHz
B. 120 kHz
C. 60 kHz
D. 75 kHz
The correctness and accuracy of the
transmitted message content is
A. verified by the modem
B. communications system
C. determined by the sender and
receiver
D. ensured by use of digital technique
The signal in a channel is measured to be
23 dB while noise in the same channel is
measured to be 9 dB. The signal to noise
ratio therefore is __________.
A. 9/23
B. 23/9
C. 32 dB
D. 14 dB
Three audio waves with 100,200 and
300 volts amplitude respectively,
simultaneously modulate a 450 volts
carrier. What is the total percent of

modulation of the AM wave?
A. 69 %
B. 115.5 %
C. 50%
D. 83%
If the percentage modulation of an AM
amplifier is 88% and the modulating
signal is 1 volt, the carrier has an
amplitude of _______________.
A. 1.14 volts
B. 0.88 volt
C. 1.88 volts
D. 0.12 volt
It consists of a number of dipoles of
equal size, equally spaced along a
straight line with all dipoles fed in the
same phase from the same source.
A. Log-periodic antenna
B. Yagi antenna
C. End-fire array
D. Broadside array
Data switching systems.
A. improve the efficiency of data
transfer
B. are limited to small data networks
C. required additional lines
D. are not used in data system
A type of array antenna which consists

of one half-wave driven dipole, one
reflector and one director
A. Hertzian dipole
B. Yagi-uda
C. Broadside collinear
D. Log periodic dipole array
Power is a _____________ amount of
energy used in specific period of time
A. large
B. definite
C. electrical
D. relative
The midrange frequency range of sound
is from
A. 256 to 2048 Hz
B. 2048 to 4096 Hz
C. 512 to 2048 Hz
D. 16 to 64 Hz
To connect coaxial line to a parallel-wire
_________ is the best to use.
A. directional coupler
B. quarter-wave transformer
C. balun
D. slotted line
In AM, the carrier carries ____________
intelligence.
A. no
B. difference
C. distorted
D. same
Characteristics impedance of a
transmission line is the impedance
measured at the ___________ when its
length is infinite.
A. input
B. shorted end of the line
C. output
D. midsection
Cross modulation on a receiver is
eliminated at the
A. RF stage
B. mixer stage
C. IF stage
D. detector stage
A speaker cabinet has an internal
volume 84,950 cm3. It has a port area on
the baffle of 3,230 cm2 and baffle
thickness of 19 mm. What is the
Helmholtz resonance hertz of this
speaker enclosure?
A. 260 Hz
B. 245 Hz
C. 265 Hz
D. 250 Hz
What quarterwave transformer will
match a 100 line to an antenna whose
value is 175?
A. 132.29
B. 150
C. 16.58
D. 137.5
The local loop of the telephone system is
understood to be
A. a single piece of wire connecting the
subscribers telephone set to another
telephone set in an adjacent room
B. a two-wire or four-wire
communication circuit between the
customers premise and central
office
C. a four-wire circuit connecting a
facsimile machine to a computer
D. a group of wires connecting a
telephone set to a modem
In what region of the world is sporadic-E
most prevalent?
A. The equatorial regions
B. The northern hemisphere
C. The arctic regions
D. The polar regions
The process of assigning PCM codes to
absolute magnitudes
A. Overloading
B. All of these
C. Quantizing
D. Multiplexing
It is a measure of the microwave power
radiated from an antenna as a function of
angular direction from the antenna axis.
A. Antenna pattern
B. Polarization
C. Beamwidth
D. Sidelobes
It is the made from semiconductor
material such as aluminum-galiumarsenide or gallium-arsenide-phosphide.
A. APD
B. Injection laser diode
C. Light emitting diode
D. Positive-intrinsic-negative
Which one is not the basic electrical
protection measures in the Philippine
Electronics Code?
A. Voltage/ current limiting and
interrupting
B. Undergrounding
C. Grounding and bonding
D. Shielding
What does the noise weighting curve
shows?
A. Noise signals measured with a 144
handset
B. Power levels of noise found in
carrier systems
C. The interfering effect of other
frequencies in a voice channel
compared with a reference frequency
of one kilohertz
D. Interfering effects of signals
compared with a 3-kHz tone

What is the difference between phase
and frequency modulation?
A. Is purely theoretical because they are
the same in practice
B. Lies in poorer audio response of
phase modulation
C. Lies in the different definitions of the
modulation index
D. Is too great to make two systems
compatible
When a transmission line uses ground
return, it is called a/an __________ line.
A. ungrounded
B. balanced
C. unbalanced
D. grounded
What is the gain of four identically
polarized antennas stacked one above
the other and fed in phase?
A. 3 dB over the gain of one antenna
B. 10 dB over the gain of one antenna
C. 4 dB over the gain of one antenna
D. 6 dB over the gain of one antenna
The ratio of the level of the modulated
output of a transmitter under conditions
of standard test modulation to the level
of the demodulated output with no
modulation applied both measured with
the same bandwidth.
A. Reference audio output
B. None of these
C. Audio frequency response
D. Residual noise level
The ___________ filter attenuates
signals but passes frequencies below and
above that band.
A. low pass
B. band pass
C. band stop
D. high pass
In a telephone system, the customers
telephone directory numbering is from
000 to 999, what is the capacity of the
system?
A. 1000 lines
B. 100,000 lines
C. 10,000 lines
D. 100 lines
An absorption loss caused by valence
electrons in the silica material from
which fibers are manufactured.
A. Modal dispersion
B. Infrared absorption
C. Ion resonance absorption
D. Ultraviolet absorption
In an FM receiver, which circuit
removes amplitude variations?
A. Exciter
B. Mixer
C. Discriminator
D. Limiter
A one-hop, full duplex, microwave
system in a space diversity arrangement.
Determine how many receivers in all
are used?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
The frequency spectrum of the
stereophonic FM signal.
A. 67 kHz
B. 59.5 to 74.5 kHz
C. 19 to 38 kHz
D. 30 to 53 kHz
Termination means
A. result of disconnecting a line from a
transmitter
B. result of cutting both ends of a
conductor
C. looking back impedance of a line
with no load
D. load connected to the output end of a
transmission line
Asynchronous protocol is
A. message oriented
B. clock oriented
C. bit oriented
D. character oriented
Transmission lines are either balanced or

unbalanced with respect to _________.
A. negative terminal
B. input
C. ground
D. positive terminal
What is the velocity factor for non-foam
dielectric 50 or 75 ohm flexible coaxial
cable such as RG 8, 11, 58 and 59?
A. 2.70
B. 0.10
C. 0.66
D. 0.30
Gain of an isotropic antenna
A. -1 dB
B. 1 dB
C. 0 dB
D. 2 dB
In measuring noise in a voice channel at
a 4 dB test point level, the meter reads 70 dBm (F1A weighted), convert the
reading to pWp.
A. 53
B. 93
C. 63
D. 83
Power is always __________.
A. a definite amount of energy
B. all of these
C. the rate at which energy is used
D. expressed in watts
Radio fading resulting from obstruction
losses.
A. Log normal fading
B. None of these
C. Multi-path fading
D. Rayleigh fading
After the IF stages have been aligned,
the next stage to align in FM receiver is.
A. local oscillator
B. limiter stage
C. RF amplifier
D. mixer stage
___________ is a device in data
transmission to interface data terminal
equipment to an analogue transmission
line.
A. RS 232
B. Connector
C. Modem
D. RJ-11 plug
What is the primary advantage of
1. ECE Board Exam November 1996
DSBSC in AM?
Which frequency band is the standard
A. Reduce bandwidth over standard AM
AM radio broadcast?
B. All of these
A. HF
C. It is simpler to transmit and receive
B. UHF
than the standard AM
C. MF
D. No transmitter power is wasted in the
D. VHF
carrier
3.
4.
5.
6.
A system that performs parallel-to-serial

and serial-to-parallel conversion of data
link.
A. DCE
B. DTE
C. Modem
D. PC
ECE Board Exam November 1996
The line control unit (LCU) operates on
the data digital form.
A. Data communications equipment
(DCE)
B. UART
C. Modem
D. Data terminal equipment (DTE)
Quantization noise is caused by
A. binary coding techniques
B. serial transmission errors
C. the synchronization between encoder
and decoder
D. the approximation of the quantized
signal
Speaker is a device that __________.
A. convert current variations into sound
waves
B. none of these
C. convert electrical energy to
mechanical energy
D. convert sound waves into current and
voltage
An object farther from a converging lens

than its focal point always has an
_______ image.
A. virtual
B. the same in size
C. inverted
D. smaller size
The loss in signal power as light travels
down a fiber is
A. attenuation
B. propagation
C. absorption
D. scattering
Energy that has neither been radiated
into space nor completely transmitted.
A. Captured waves
B. Incident waves
C. Standing waves
D. Modulated waves
One of the reasons why FDM is being
replaced by TDM is
A. noise is amplified with voice when
an FDM system is used
B. it is difficult to place channels side
by side
C. there is more time than frequency
D. Most available frequencies has been
used
Which determines the number of
sideband components of FM?
A. Modulation frequency
B. Modulation index
C. Carrier frequency
D. All of these
How would one squeeze more channels
of communication into TDM frames of
standard length?
A. Shorten the time delay for each
channel
B. Raise the amplitude
C. Add modulators
D. Remove the synchronizing pulses
When one stations is designated as
master and rest of the stations are
considered slaves message handling is
________.
A. polling
B. WAN
C. LAN
D. OSI
How many satellite orbital slots are
requested by the Philippine government
from ITU?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 5
D. 3
The output of a balanced modulator is
____________.
A. LSB and USB
B. LSB
C. USB
D. Carrier
RS-232, RS-449, RS-530, V, 24 and
X.21 are examples of ____________.
A. standards for interfaces between
modems and transmission facilities
B. standards for various types of
transmission channels
C. standards for interfaces between
terminals and modems
D. standards for end to end performance
of data communications system
A special service circuit connecting two
private branch exchanges (PBX).
A. Phantom line
B. Private line
C. Tie trunk
D. Tandem trunk
What is the baseband frequency of
standard FDM basic supergroup?
A. 312 to 552 kHz
B. 300 to 600 kHz
C. 60 to 2540 kHz
D. 60 to 108 kHz
What is the data rate of the ISDN Basic
access B channel?
A. 192 kbps
B. 32 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 144 kbps
Which tester is used to measure SWR?
A. Spectrum analyzer
B. Multimeter
C. Reflectometer
D. Oscilloscope
What is the transmission rate of a GSM
cellular system?
A. 64 kbps
B. 240 kbps
C. 128 kbps
D. 270 kbps
A dipole antenna requires to be feed
with 20 kW of power to produce a given
signal strength to a particular distant
point. If the addition of a reflector makes
the same field strength available with an
input power of 11 kW. What is the gain
in dB obtain by the use of the reflector ?
( Gain referred to this particular dipole)
A. 4.24
B. 1.81
C. 4.75
D. 2.6
Pulse carrier at the ratio of 8000
pulse/sec is amplitude modulated by an
analog signal this type of modulation is
A. PAM
B. ADM
C. DM
D. PCM
What is the applied power if a thermal
RF wattmeter is connected to a
transmitter through a variable
attenuator? The wattmeter reads 84 mW
when 15 dB of attenuation is used.
A. 4.656 watts
B. 2.656 watts
C. 3.656 watts
D. 2.856 watts
Collects very weak signal from a
broadcast satellite
A. Satellite dish
B. LNB
C. Yagi-Uda antenna
D. Satellite receiver
A seven-bit character can represent one
of _________ possibilities.
A. 14
B. 64
C. 128
D. 7
The maximum power suggested by KBP
on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in
Metro Manila is
A. 10 kW
B. 20 kW
C. 15 kW
D. 5 kW
A loudspeaker cabinet has an internal

volume of 5,184 in3 (84,950 cm3). It has
a port area on the baffle of 50 in2
(322.58cm2) and a thickness of 0.70 in
(18 mm). What is the Helmholtz
resonance, in hertz, of this loudspeaker
enclosure?
A. 250 Hz
B. 245 Hz
C. 240 Hz
D. 255 Hz
When the clearance above the
obstruction is equal to the radii of even
Fresnel zone at the point of reflection the
RSL
A. remains the same
B. is above threshold
C. is decreased
D. is increased
Digital transmission provides a higher
level of signal quality than analog
transmission because
A. repeaters regenerate digital pulses
and remove distorstion
B. digital signals are easier to sample
than analog signals
C. digital signals are smaller than
analog signals and cannot easily be
distorted
D. analog signals are continuous and
not easily distorted.
A _________ interconnects LAN having

identical protocols at the physical and
data link layers.
A. All of these
B. bridge
C. router
D. Gateway
Both frequency and phase modulation
utilize ________ modulation
A. Phase
B. AM and FM
C. Digital
D. Angle
The different angles of entry of light into
an optical fiber when the diameter of the
core is many times the wavelength of the
light transmitter is known as ________.
A. refraction
B. sensor
C. mode
D. emitter
An invitation from the primary to a
secondary to transmit a message.
A. Retransmission
B. Selection
C. Reuse
D. Polling
An agency of the United Nations that
formulates standards and recommend
practices for all civil aviation
A. ICAO
B. CAA
C. IATA
D. ATO
The transformer signal coding method
for T1 carrier is
A. Binary
B. NRZ
C. Manchester
D. Bipolar
When the value of k increases, the
effective result is ______ of the
equivalent curvatures.
A. downward curvatures
B. flattening
C. bulging
D. sharp curvature
An electromagnetic wave consists of
A. a magnetic field only
B. both electric and magnetic fields
C. an electric field only
D. non-magnetic field only
In a transmission line, if the maximum
current to minimum current ratio is 2:1
what is the ratio of the maximum voltage
to minimum voltage?
A. 4:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:4
D. 2:1

Satellite signal transmitted from a
satellite transponder to earths station.
A. Vertically polarized
B. Uplink
C. Downlink
D. RHCP
Multiplexing scheme use by baseband
transmission.
A. FDM
B. Space multiplexing
C. TDM
D. Statistical multiplexing
Which stands for dB relative level?
A. dBrn
B. dBm
C. dBr
D. dBa
What is the maximum color TV
bandwidth?
A. 1.6 MHz
B. 0.5 MHz
C. 1.0 MHz
D. 1.3 MHz
If Ns=250, determine the earth radius kfactor.
A. 1.98
B. 1.23
C. 1.33
D. 1.29

Digital modulation technique used in
modems.
A. ASK
B. PSK
C. FSK
D. All of these
Which of the following is not a baseband
signal modulation?
A. RF carrier
B. Video System
C. Audio signal
D. Binary coded pulses
The standing wave ratio is equal to
________ if the load is properly matched
with the transmission line.
A. 1
B. 50
C. 10
D. 2
Noise from random acoustic or electric
noise that has equal per cycle over a
specified total frequency band.
A. Thermal noise
B. White noise
C. Gaussian noise
D. All of these
When was the UHF channel (14-83) of
television were added?
A. 1852
B. 1904
C. 1947
D. 1952
Multiplexing in a time division
multiplexer occurs based upon
A. the position of a frame within the
group of frames
B. the positioning of data within a
frame
C. the priority assigned to a connected
device
D. the activity of a connected device
Ethernet is baseband system using
CSMA/CD operating at
A. 20 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps
C. 30 Mbps
D. 40 Mbps
A microwave communications system
space loss calculation formula is
A. 92.4 + 10 log f +20 log d
B. 94.2 + 10 log f +20 log d
C. 92.4 + 20 log f +20 log d
D. 94.2 + 20 log f +20 log d
Which is the non-resonant antenna?
A. Broadside Antenna
B. Folded Dipole
C. Rhombic antenna
D. End fire array
The first commercial satellite

A. Explorer
B. Sputnik
C. Telstar
D. Early bird
A quadrature signaling have ________
possible states.
A. 16
B. 8
C. 32
D. 4
Proposed the use of a clad glass fiber as
a dielectric waveguide.
A. Kao and Keck
B. Karpon and Keck
C. Karpon and Bockham
D. Bockham and Kao
What band does VSAT first operate?
A. X-band
B. C-band
C. Ku-band
D. L-band
What is the method of diversity
reception where the signal is transmitted
on 2 different frequencies over the same
path?
A. Quadruple
B. Frequency
C. Polarization
D. Space

The wavelength of light has no role in
A. Diffraction
B. Interference
C. Resolving power
D. Polarization
Which of the following filters block FM
radio band for TV channels (2 to 13)?
A. High-pass filter
B. Band reject filter
C. Low-pass filter
D. Band-pass filter
The standard ASCII
A. is version II of ASC
B. is used only in US and Canada
C. has 132 characters including 32
control characters
D. is subset of 8-bit EBCDIC code
Luminous efficiency is least for a
A. mercury vapor lamp
B. low-wattage light bulb
C. high-wattage light bulb
D. fluorescent tube
Transmission lines when connected to
antenna have
A. capacitive load
B. resistive load whose resistance is less
than characteristics impedance
C. resistive load at the resonant
frequency
D. resistive load whose resistance is

greater than the characteristic
impedance of the line
What is the free space loss, in dB,
between two microwave parabolic
antennas 38.0 kilometer apart operating
at 7.0 GHz?
A. 145.6 dB
B. 138.5 dB
C. 135.5 dB
D. 140.89 dB
What is the equivalent output of a circuit
in dBm, if it is has an output of 10
watts?
A. 10 dBm
B. 30 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 40 dBm
Satellite engine use
A. liquid fuel
B. jet propulsion
C. ion propulsion system
D. solar jet
Low-power radar uses
A. RIMPATT
B. TRAPATT
C. Magnetron
D. IMPATT
Transmission line must be matched to

the load to
A. transfer maximum voltage to the
load
B. transfer maximum current to the load
C. reduce the load current
D. transfer maximum power to the load
Electromagnetic wave travel at
__________ in free space.
A. 300,000 km/sec
B. 100,000 km/ sec
C. 400,000 km/sec
D. 200km/sec
When electromagnetic wave are
propagated through a waveguide, they
A. are reflected from the walls but do
not travel along them
B. travel along all four walls of the
waveguide
C. travel along the broader walls of the
guide
D. travel through the dielectric without
touching the walls
Codes must be
A. agreed upon in advance between
sender and receiver
B. eight bit per character
C. the same in all modern computer
D. either seven or eighth bits per
character
Combination of modulator, channel and

detector.
A. Transceiver
B. Discrete channel
C. T/R channel
D. Transponder
What is the stage of the sand becoming
silicon?
A. Hot
B. Gas
C. Liquid
D. Molten
Noise reduction system used for film
sound in movie
A. dBx
B. dolby
C. dBa
D. dBm
What is the principal difference between
asynchronous and synchronous
transmission?
A. The clocking is mixed with the data
in synchronous transmission
B. The pulse height are difficult
C. The clocking is derived from the data
in synchronous
D. The bandwidth required is difficult.
You are measuring a voice channel at a 4 dB test point level, the meter reads -73
dBm (pure test tone) convert the reading

in dBmCO.
A. 16
B. 18
C. 22
D. 12
What is the type of emission use by
standard AM radio broadcast?
A. A0
B. F3
C. A3
D. A5C
____________ is the average rate of
transmission of sound energy in a given
direction through a cross sectional area
of 1 sq.m. at right angle to the direction.
A. Sound pressure
B. Sound intensity
C. Pressure variation
D. Loudness
Top loading is used in an antenna in
order to increase its ___________.
A. input capacitance
B. beamwidth
C. bandwidth
D. effective height
What component in the telephone set has
the primary function of interfacing the
handset to the local loop?
A. Varistor
B. Induction coil
C. Resistor
D. Capacitor
The first passive satellite transponder.
A. Early bird
B. Score
C. Moon
D. Sputnik
The primary purpose of the data modem
is to
A. interface analog terminal equipment
to analog communications channel
B. interface digital terminal equipment
to analog communications channel
C. interface analog terminal equipment
to digital communications channel
D. interface digital terminal equipment
to digital communications channel
____________ is the out-of-band
signaling between toll central offices
(Bell System Standard)
A. 2,000 Hz
B. 800 Hz
C. 3,835 Hz
D. 3700 Hz
Which symbol indicates that only one
sideband is transmitted?
A. A3E
B. B8E
C. C3F
D. H3E
A voice-grade circuit using the PTN has
an ideal passband of
A. 0 to 4 Hz
B. 0 to 4 kHz
C. 0 to 4 GHz
D. 0 to 4 MHz
1 micron is equal to ___________
meter(s).
A. 10-6m
B. 10-3 m
C. 106 m
D. 109 m
The lowest resistance grounding on earth
A. Sand
B. Clay
C. Surface loam soil
D. Limestone
Troposheric scatter uses the frequencies
in the ________ band.
A. VLF
B. UHF
C. VHF
D. UF
The unit of pitch
A. Decibel
B. Phon
C. Mel
D. Sone

What kind of receiver is used in
converntional telephone handset?
A. Capacitor
B. Carbon
C. Electromagnetic
D. Ceramic
Basic speed rate of digital system.
A. 144 kbps
B. 1,544 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 2,048 kbps
A horizontal antenna is
A. centrally polarized
B. vertically polarized
C. horizontally polarized
D. perpendicularly polarized
What is the diameter of a copper wire to
be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop
resistance of 100 ohms/km?
A. 0.108 cm
B. 1.082 cm
C. 0.017 cm
D. 0.0465 cm
If a fiber optic system has a rise time of
16 ns, the source rise time is 1.5 ns and
the detector rise time is 2 ns, what is the
cable rise time?
A. 14 ns
B. 6 ns
C. 9 ns
D. 12.5 ns
What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz
voice signal if the phase shift is 15
degrees?
A. 1.25 sec
B. 52 sec
C. 83.33 sec
D. 26 sec
What is the power loss of a telephone
hybrid?
A. 6 dB
B. 2 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 1 dB
You are measuring noise in a voice
channel at 7 dB test point level. The
meter reads -56 dBm (FIA weighted).
What is the reading in dBrnc?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 35
D. 25
Space diversity transmission means
transmitting and receiving on
A. two or more antennas operating on
two different frequencies
B. two or more identical frequencies
C. two or more different frequencies
D. two or more antennas operating on

the same frequencies
Rules governing the transmission of
digital information.
A. Line protocol
B. Isochronous
C. Data communications
D. Digital communications
A digital identification associated with a
cellular system
A. SAT
B. ESN
C. MIN
D. SIM
____________ is measuring the
propagated field strength over the
projected service area
A. Radio sounding
B. None of these
C. Radio monitoring
D. Radio survey
1.
ECE Board Exam April 1997

What is the impedance of a balance 4-wire
with a diameter of 0.25 cm and spaced 2.5
cm apart using an insulator with a dielectric
constant of 2.56?
A. 100
B. 65
C. 75
D. 50
2.

What is the impedance in ohms of a
transformer marked for 25V, 4W, when the
secondary is correctly loaded?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.
150
156
160
165

A single conductor running from the
transmitter to the antenna.
A.
B.
C.
D.
RG-8/U
Single line wire
Twin-lead
MIcrostrip
4.
If you have available number of power

amplifiers with a gain of 100 each, how
many such amplifiers do you need to
cascade to give an overall gain of 60 dB?

If voltage change equal to twice its original
value, what is its corresponding change in
dB?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.
A.
B.
C.
D.
9 dB
6dB
10 dB
3dB
8.
6.
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.
7.
85
63
50
75
Reference noise temperature.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Hartley theorem
Shannon-Hartley theorem
Nyquist theorem
Shannon theorem
12.
70 deg F
30 deg C
290 Kelvin
25 deg C

What is the reference frequency of CCITT
psophometric noise measurement?
A.
B.
C.
D.
800 Hz
1500 Hz
3400 Hz
1000 Hz
Transmission sent in both directions

simultaneously.
What is the characteristic impedance of a

single wire with a diameter d= 0.25 mm
placed at the center between grounded
parallel planes separated by 1 mm apart. The
wire is held by a material with a velocity
factor of 0.75.
A.
B.
C.
D.
________ sets a limit on the maximum

capacity of a channel with a give noise level.
Slotted line
Quarter-wave transformer
Directional Coupler
Balun
11.
To couple a coaxial line to parallel line, it is

better to use a ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
3
4
5
2
B. 15 to 160 Mhz
C. 0 to 10 Khz
D. 20 Ghz
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.
Full duplex
Duplex
Half duplex
Simplex
13.

Which does not effect noise in a channel?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Industrial noise frequency is between
_________.
A. 200 to 3000 Mhz
14.
None of these
Bandwidth
Temperature
Quantizing level
The random and unpredictable electric

signal from natural causes, both internal and
external to the system is know as ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.
Distortion
Noise
Attenuation
Interference
18.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The most common unit of noise

measurement in white noise testing.
16.
dBw
dBk
dBm
NPR
19.
17.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What particular circuit that rids FM of

noise?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.
HPF
Phase shifter
Limiter
LPF
23.
Which transmit only one sideband?

A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the advantage of PTM over PAM?

A.
B.
C.
D.
100% modulation in AM means a

corresponding increase in total power by:
21.
All of these
Low sampling rate is required
Much better noise immunity
Simpler to generate
Constant peak amplitude

The information
Frequency range 20-20000 Hz
A varying amplitude
A. 25%
B. 75%
C. 100%
22.
Unit of noise power of psophometer

dBa
pWp
dBm
dBmO
A5C
A3J
A3H
A3
50
71
100
25
A carrier signal has ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
If the modulation index of an AM wave is

doubled, the antenna current is also doubled,
the AM system being used is
A.
B.
C.
D.
At 100% modulation, the sum fo the

effective voltages in both sidebands is equal
to ______% of the unmodulated carrier
voltage.
D. 50%
24.
A3E
3AJ
11BE
H3E

The final amplifier of either FM or AM
transmitter operates as
A. Class B
B. Class C
C. Class A
D. Class D
25.
One (1) Erlang is equal to ________.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Modulation means
A. Varying of information
B. Utilization of a single transmission
channel to carry multiple signals
C. Varying of some parameters of a carrier
such as its amplitude to transmit
information
D. Transmit pulses in DC form on a copper
wire
26.
29.
32.
360 CCS
100 CCS
36 CCS
3.6 CCS

When waves bend away from straight lines
of travel, it is called _________.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Transmission of printed material over
telephone lines.
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.
Video text
Facsimile
Encoding
Xerox copy

Highest frequency that can be used for
skywave HF communications between two
given points on earth.
A.
B.
C.
D.

What is the advantage of sidetone?
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.
30.
High transmission efficiency

Results to a strengthened signal
No energy dissipation
Assures that the telephone is working
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.
0dB
10 dBm
0 dBm
10 dB
Gyro frequency
Maximum usable frequency
Critical frequency
Virtual frequency
1-CCS is equal to?

A.
B.
C.
D.
60
100
600
1
34.

Electromagnetic radiation theory was
profounded by ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The standard test tone
Refraction
Reflection
Rarefaction
Diffraction
31.

1 Erlang is ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1000 TU
10 TU
100TU
1 TU
35.
Sir Edward Appleton

Sir Isaac Newton
James Clerk Maxwell
Michael Faraday

Type of transmission path that permits
communication in the frequency range from
30 to 60 MHz and over distances form about

1000 to 2000 km.
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.
Ducting
Ionospheric scatter
Microwave
Troposcatter
39.

What is the effective earths radius when
N=300?
A.
B.
C.
D.

What is the thickest layer of the ionosphere?
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.
E
F1
F2
D
40.
38.
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.
8500 km
6370 km
7270 km
7950 km

______ is a device that detects both
vertically and horizontally polarized signals
simultaneously.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Horizontal
Vertical
Omni
Directional
44.
Crystal
Orthomode transducer
Light transducer
Optoisolator

How much does the radiated power of an
antenna increases if its current increased by
3.3 times?
A.
B.
C.
D.

_______ is the horizontal pointing angle of
an antenna.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which region of the ionosphere is mainly
responsible for long distance night time
communication?
A. A layer
B. D layer
C. E layer
Rhombic
Hertz
Marconi
Dipole
The polarization of a discone antenna is

_____.
Distance traveled by a wave in the time of

one cycle.
Hop
Frequency
Wavelength
Crest
43.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
D. F layer
42.
Right angle
Angle of elevation
Bandwidth
Azimuth

Which is properly terminated antenna?
45.
6.6 times
3.3 times
10.89 times
9.9 times

What do you call the energy that was not
radiated into space or completely
transmitted?
A. Incident waves
B. Captured waves
C. Standing waves
A device that radiates electromagnetic

energy and or intercepts electromagnetic
radation.
D. Modulated waves
46.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the estimated medium wind loading

in the Philippines for antenna tower design?
A.
B.
C.
D.
200 kph
250 kph
300 kph
100 kph
50.
Antenna
Transmitter
Transmission line
Transceiver
D. CSMA/CD
53.

Synchronous modems cost more than
asynchronous modem because _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
They have larger bandwidth

They are larger
The production volume is larger
They have clock recovery circuits
The frequency of operation of a dipole

antenna cut to length of 3.4 m.
47.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The minimum number of turns a helix

antenna must have.
A.
B.
C.
D.
4
5
3
6
51.
42.9 MHz
61.3 MHz
38.5 MHz
53.5 MHz
54.

What equation defines the composition of an
ISDN basic access line?
A.
B.
C.
D.
B+2D
B+D
2B+2D
2B+D
Full duplex transmission means

48.
A.
B.
C.
D.

When testing transmitter to prevent
interfering with other stations, which type of
antenna must be used?
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.
Dummy antenna
Hertzian antenna
None of these
Void antenna
52.
One way transmission

24-hour transmission
Broadcast transmission
Two-way simultaneous transmission
55.

Modem is referred to as ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Universal asynchronous Rx/Tx

Data communication equipment
Universal synchronous Rx/Tx
Data terminal equipment
Transmission system for a multidrop

network
A. Taken passing
B. Polling
C. Switching
56.

_______ character signifies the start of the
test for Bisync.
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.
STX
ETX
SOH
BCC
60.

It is a protocol used to connect the other
packet witching network.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the reason why companding is

employed in PCM systems?
A. To overcome impulse noise in PCM
receivers
B. To allow amplitude limiting in the
receivers
C. To solve quantizing noise problem
D. To protect small signals in PCM from
quantizing distortion
58.
A.
B.
C.
D.
D. Frequency analysis
61.
64.
X.25
X.50
X.10
X.75

A source code whose average word length
approaches the fundamental limit set by the
entropy of a discrete memoryless source.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Synchronous
Asynchronous
Ethernet
Internet
65.

______ sets the limit on the maximum
capacity of a channel with a given noise
level.
What is framing?
59.
62.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Highest theoretical frequency that can be
processed at a sampling rate without
aliasing.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The method of determining the bandwidth of
any processing system is ______.
A. Bandwidth analysis
B. Frequency spectrum
C. Spectral analysis
Prefix code
Huffman code
Entropy code
Source code
Slowest communications hardware product.
A. Is concerned of synchronous system

B. Refers to parallel transmission
C. Is concerned with the boundaries
between characters
D. Is concerned with individual bits
Asynchronous
Synchronous
Baseband
Broadband
63.
Folding frequency
Resonant frequency
Natural frequency
Critical frequency

Data is directly on the transmission cable.
66.
Hartley theorem
Shannon-hartley theorem
Nyquist theorem
Shannon theorem

Gateway can interconnect LANs that have
____ protocols and formats.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The same
Different or the same
Totally different
None of these
67.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Steps to follow to produce PCM signal.
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.
Quantizing, sampling, and coding

Sampling, quantizing, and coding
Sampling, coding and quantizing
Coding, quantizing and coding
71.
69.
A.
B.
C.
D.
72.
70.

What kind of battery panels are used in
some advance satellites?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Satellite radiation polarization

Satellite navigation
Satellite radiation pattern
Satellite coverage
75.
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.
38
40
44
42
Type of fiber that has the highest modal

dispersion
A.
B.
C.
D.
76.
Fiber optic cable operates near _______

frequencies.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Insertion loss of connector-type splices for a

single-mode fiber cable.
0.2 dB
0.3 dB
0.09 dB
0.38 dB
Step-index multimode
Step-index single mode
Graded index mode
Graded index multimode
A.
B.
C.
D.
PIN Diode
ILD
APD
LED
Asia Sat I covers how many countries in

Asia?
_______ detects the satellite signal relayed

from the feed and converts it to an electric
current, amplifies and lower its frequency.
Feedhorn
Satellite dish
Satellite receiver
LNB
A non-coherent light source for optical

communications system.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Footprint refers to coverage area in the

globe
Transmission sent in both directions

simultaneously.
Full duplex
Duplex
Half duplex
Simplex
74.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gallium Arsenide solar panel

Germanium based panels
Silicon based panels
Gallium Phosphate solar panel
77.
800 THz
20 MHz
200 MHz
2 GHz

Lifetime of ILDs
A. 150,000 h
B. 100,000 h
C. 50,000 h
D. 200,000 h
78.
C. 79.1 dB
D. 89.1 dB
81.
Lowest frequency produced by a musical

instrument.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sound intensity
Loudness
Coherence
Sound stress
82.
79.

What is the local oscillator frequency range
commercial AM broadcast if it is equal to
455 KHz.
Fundamental
Midrange
Period
Harmonic
A.
B.
C.
D.
540 to 1600 KHz

0 to 1600 KHz
995 to 2055 KHz
0 to 455 KHz
Sound intensity level is ________.
_______ is the transmission of sound from

one room to an adjacent room thru common
walls, floors or ceilings.
Reverberation
Refraction
Flanking transmission
Reflection
85.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Volume meter
Audio frequency meter
Volume unit meter
Speech meter
The sound energy per unit area at right

angles to the propagation direction per unit
time.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.
10 log I/I(ref)
10 log I(ref)/I
30 log I/I(ref)
20 log I/I(ref)
86.

TV channels 2, 4 and 5 are known as
________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mid band UHF

Low band UHF
High band VHF
Low band VHF
Tendency of sound energy to spread.

80.

The sound power level of a jet plane flying
at a height of 1 km is 160 dB. What is the
maximum sound pressure level on the
ground directly below the plane assuming
that the aircraft radiates sound equally in all
directions?
A. 59.1 dB
B. 69.1 dB
A.
B.
C.
D.
84.
Reflection
Diffraction
Rarefaction
Refraction

______ used to measure speech volume
87.

______ is the first component of any MATV
system to received broadcast signals.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Receiver
Antenna
Filter
Transmitter
88.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Mechanism or device which enables the TV
camera to move in internal and tilting
motion.
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.
Tilting
Scanner
Pan/tilt device
Panning device
92.
Attenuation due to rain

Attenuation due to other gasses
Attenuation due to mist and fog
Due to water vapor and oxygen
95.

A microwave link between the earth station
and the down-town terminal.
A.
B.
C.
D.

A microwave system that requires the use of
repeater.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Intervening terrain is favorable

Distances involved are greater
The required reliability is met
All of these
96.

The advantage of periscope antenna in
microwave
The allowable deviation ratio of commercial

FM broadcast.
A.
B.
C.
D.
90.
25
15
5
75
93.
A. Minimize interference to and from other

neighboring stations
B. Shorten waveguide link
C. Reduce tower height
D. All of these

What frequency does oxygen causes
excessive attenuation
A.
B.
C.
D.
119 GHz
183 GHz
310 GHz
60 GHz
97.

Professional Regulations Commission was
created under ______.
______ is the time duration for one

horizontal trace.
A.
B.
C.
D.
91.
48s
52 s
62 s
50 s

Which is atmospheric attenuation?
94.
A.
B.
C.
D.

RADAR means
A.
B.
C.
D.
Radio detection and rating

Radio detection and ranging
Radio distance and ranging
Radio delay and ranging
STL
Uplink
Downlink
Terrestrial link
98.
PD 323
PD 223
PD 232
RA 223

The institutionalization of the continuing
Professional Education (CPE) Program of
the various regulated profession under the
supervision of the Professional Regulation

Commission.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.O. No. 266

E.O. No. 626
E.O. No. 662
P.D. 381
The first symbol in the designation of radio

emission under the ITU rules to
1.
A. Nature of signals modulating the main

carrier
B. Type of information to be transmitted
C. Bandwidth
D. Type of modulation of the main carrier

Extra-terrestrial noise is observable at
frequencies from
99.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The basic law providing for the regulation of

radio station, communications in the
Philippines and other purposes.
A.
B.
C.
D.
100.
Act. No.`3846
D.O. No. 11
D.O. No. 88
D.O. No. 5
2.

Operating method in which the transmission
is made alternately in each direction of a
telecommunication channel
A.
B.
C.
D.
Band of light waves, that are too short to be

seen by human eye.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Listing of the date and time events,

programs , equipment, test, malfunctions
and corrections in communication system.
File
Documentation
Reporting
Log
5.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0 to 20 KHz
Above 2 GHz
8 to 1.43 GHz
5 to 8 GHz
3.
Visible
Infrared
Ultraviolet
Amber
6.

Production of radiation by a radio
transmitting station
A.
B.
C.
D.

Two wires that are bent 90 degrees apart.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hertz
Dipole
Log-periodic
Rhomic
Semi-duplex operation
Duplex operation
Half-duplex operation
Simplex operation
7.
Monitoring
Emission
Radiation
Transmission

The third symbol in the designation of radio
emission under the ITU rules refers to
4.
A. Type of the modulation of the main

carrier
B. Bandwidth
C. Nature of the signals modulating the
main carrier
D. Type of information to be transmitted
8.
11.
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What signal-to-noise ratio is required for

satisfactory telephone services?
A.
B.
C.
D.

A form of telecommunication for the
transmission of transient images of fixed or
moving objects.
Noise caused by the thermal agitation of

electrons in resistance.
50 dB
30 dB
40dB
20 dB
15.

Unity gain antenna
12.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E-mail
Television
Radio
Internet

The use of telecommunication for automatic
indicating or recording measurement at the
distance from the measuring instrument.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Monitoring
Tracking
Telemetry
Telecommand
16.
10.
Unidirectional
Bidirectional
Omnidirectional
Figure of eight
13.
The series of periodically recurrent pulses is

modulated in amplitude by the
corresponding instantaneous samples.
The standard deviation of the variation in

the transmission loss of a circuit should not
exceed
A.
B.
C.
D.
Another SEG function that allows a person

to be superimposed on another scene.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Visual effect
Wiper
Chroma keying
Special effect generation
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.
3 dB
1 dB
5 dB
0.5dB
Isotropic
Rhombic
Half-wave dipole
Dummy
Radiation pattern of a discone.

A.
B.
C.
D.
All of these
Thermal noise
Johnsons noise
White noise
17.
PFM
PWM
PDM
PAM

This type of transmission permits
communication in the frequency range from
30 to 60 MHz and over distances from about
1000 to 2000 km.
A. Troposcatter
B. Ionospheric scatter
C. Ducting
D. Microwave
18.
21.
Emission on a frequency or frequencies

immediately outside the necessary
bandwidth which result from the modulation
process except spurious emission.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A region in front of a paraboloid antenna.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Transmission zone
All of these
Fraunhofer
Fresnel
22.
19.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Frequency
Intensity
Pitch
SPL
23.
A single sideband emission in which the

degree of carrier suppression enables the
carrier to be reconstituted and to be used for
demodulation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.
Impulse noise
White noise
Thermal noise
Gaussian noise

Electronic equipment used to measure
standing wave ration.
Reduce carrier single sideband emission

Half carrier single sideband emission
Full carrier single sideband emission
Standard single sideband emission

Station in the mobile service not intended to
be used while in motion.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Background noise is the same as the

following except
A good example of a pilot tone system used

in commercial frequency modulation
stations.
FDM
Time division
Stereo multiplexing
Frequency modulation
Broad bandwidth
Good front-to-back
Maneuverability
Circular polarization
Reflectometer
Wavemeter
Altimeter
Multimeter
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.
A helical antenna is used for satellite

tracking because of ______.
Designates the sensation of low or high in

the sense of the base and treble.
20.
Radiation
Noise
Out of the band
Interference
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.
Coast station
Fixed station
Base station
Land station

The electric field lines in a plane
perpendicular to the earths surface.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Elliptical polarization
Horizontal polarization
Vertical polarization
28.
The most common device used as a light

detector in fiber optic communications
system.

Known to be the first satellite capable to
receive and transmit simultaneously.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Score
Syncom I
Telstar 1
Echo1
30.
T2
T1
T4
T3
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.
31.
36.
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.
1.28x10-19 J
1.6 x10-19 J
1.22 x10-16 J
1.9 x10-14 J

If a fiber optic system has a rise time of
38.55 ns, the source rise time is 12 ns and
20 to 20 KHz
16 to 16 KHz
3 to 3 KHz
4 KHz

Two or more antennas separated by 9
wavelengths are used.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Calculate the energy of the photon of

infrared light energy at 1.55m
354 kbps
750 kbps
768 kbps
640 kbps
0.4782V
4278 V
4.78 V
47.8 V
A.
B.
C.
D.
12 voice channels are sampled at 8000

sampling rate and encoded into 8 bit PCM
word. Determine the rate of the data stream.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Nominal voice channel
Two resistors, 20k, and 50k are at

ambient temperature. Calculate for a
bandwidth equal to 100kHz, the thermal
noise voltage for the two resistors connected
in parallel.
A digital carrier facility used to transmit a

DSI-formatted signal at 1.544. Mbps.
34.61 ns
14.55 ns
52.55 ns
26.25 ns
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
LED
Darlington phototransistor
APDs
PIN diode
35.
32.
29.
the detector rise time is 12 ns, what is the

cable rise time?
37.
Hybrid diversity
Space diversity
Polarized diversity
Frequency diversity

Nif stands for
A.
B.
C.
D.
Narrow intermediate frequency

Noise interference figure
Noise improvement factor
Non-intrinsic fugure
38.
At height about 180 km above the earth exist

only during daylight.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Any small element of space in the path of a

wave may be considered as a source of
secondary wavelet.
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.
De Morgans Principle
Faradays Law
Huygens Principle
Fresnels Law of optics
42.
40.
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.
41.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Figure of eight
Omnidirectional
Bidirectional
Unidirectional
46.
Reducer
Quality factor
Optical attenuator
Compressor
A.
B.
C.
D.
Determine the gain of a 6 ft. parabolic dish

operating at 1800 MHz.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Atmospheric noise is less at severe

frequencies above
Audio level
30 MHz
10 GHz
1 GHz
A device that reduces the intensity of light in

fiber optics communication systems.
Propagation mode of microwave in a

waveguide is known as _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Radiation characteristics of a dipole
Modulation in which the modulated wave is

always present.
Carrier modulation
Front-end
Continuous modulation
Log-periodic modulation
45.
A.
B.
C.
D.
F2 layer
D layer
E layer
F1 layer
C. Circularly
D. Vertically
44.
30 dB
11.2 dB
15.5 dB
28.17 dB

An electromagnetic wave is ________
polarized when the electric field lies wholly
in one plane containing the direction of
propagation.
A. Horizontally
B. Linearly
47.
TM
TE
SW
TEM

The width of the frequency band which is
just sufficient to ensure the transmission of
information at the rate and with the quality
required under a specified condition and
class of emission.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Occupied bandwidth
Reference frequency
Necessary bandwidth
Frequency tolerance bandwidth
48.
terminate functions of equipment at a

distance.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A convenient method of determining

antenna impedance.
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.
Stub matching
Reactance circle
Smith chart
Trial and error
52.
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.2345 MHz
150.50 MHz
2.4555 MHz
35.535 MHz
53.
51.

The use of telecommunication for the
transmission of signals to initiate, modify or
Peak envelope power

ERP
Rated power
Carrier power
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The most common unit of noise

measurement in white noise voltage testing.
A.
B.
C.
D.
14/11 GHz
30/17 GHz
8/7 GHz
6/4 GHz
57.
54.

The sinusoidal carrier is pulsed so that one
of the binary states is represented by a
carrier while the other is represented by its
absence.
A. FSK
Bandwidth
Wavelength
Radiation
Beamwidth
The Ku-band in the satellite service
The electric field lies in a plane parallel to

the earths surface.
Elliptical polarization
Width measured in degrees of a major lobes

between end of the love at which the relative
power is one half (-3dB) its value from the
peak of the lobe.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The product of the power supplied to the

antenna and its gain relative to a half-wave
dipole in a given direction.
Which of the following fall under the high

frequency band of the radio spectrum?
50.
55.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Tracking
Telemetry
Telecommand
Space telemetry
B. ASK
C. PSK
D. QAM
NPR
dBm
dBW
dBrn

Any governmental office responsible in
discharging the obligations undertaken in
the convention of the ITU and the
regulation.
A. Administration
B. The union
C. Country
A coherent binary phase shift keyed BPSK

transmitter operates at a bit rate of 20 Mbps
with a carrier to noise ratio C/N of 8.8dB.
Find Eb/No.
D. Telecommunications office
58.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A large speaker having a large diameter (15

cm and above)
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.
Coaxial speaker
Woofer
Tweeter
Trixial speaker
62.
60.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Frequency
Wavelength
Volume
Pitch
What is the effect in over modulated

amplitude modulated radio broadcasting
transmission?
A government regulation in
telecommunication which provide policy to
improve the provision of local exchange
carrier service.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1023
425
511
756
64.
A.
B.
C.
D.
LNB
Yagi-Uda array
Satellite receiver
Satellite disk
Determine the dynamic range for a 10 bit

sign magnitude code.
61.
A method of expressing the amplitude of

complex non-periodic signals such as
speech.
66.
63.
Peak envelop power

Rated power
Carrier power
Mean power
Receives and collects satellite signals form a

broadcast satellite.
A.
B.
C.
D.
73 dB
62.4 dB
81.8 dB
8.8 dB
Coaxial lines are used on those systems

operating _______.
Below 2 GHz
At 300 MHz
Above 10KHz
Above 10GHz
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.
A.
B.
C.
D.
cycle taken under the condition of no

modulation.
Interference to adjacent channel

Higher fidelity
Increase noise
Higher audio signal

Average power of a radio transmitter
supplied to the antenna transmission line by
a transmitter during one radio frequency
67.
E.O. 109
Act 3846
E.O. 59
E.O. 546

Radio communication operation service
between mobile and land stations or between
mobile stations.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Land mobile satellite service

Maritime mobile service
Mobile service
Land mobile
Radio wave concentration in the direction of

the signal emitted by a directional antenna.
D. M-derived filter
71.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The tendency of the sound energy to spread.
68.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The smaller the f rating, the _____ light that

lens can take in.
A.
B.
C.
D.
69.
More
Intense
Less
Same
72.
70.
A.
B.
C.
D.
An earth satellite whose period of revolution

is equal to the period of rotation of the earth
about its axis.
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.
Geosynchronous
Steerable
Passive
Active
76.
A satellite receives an uplink frequency of

_______ MHz from a ground station of
3700 MHz.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A figure of merit used to measure the

performance of a radiation detector.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Harmonic suppressor connected to an

antenna.
Noise equivalent power

Ripple factor
Safe factor
Quality factor
300-500 Hz
1200 kHz
100-300 Hz
300-3400 Hz
A. High pass filter

B. Low pass filter
C. Tank circuit
A radio communications service use in radio

regulation between specified fixed points
provided primarily for the safety of air
navigation and for the regular efficient and
economical air transport.
Space operation service
Space service
Aeronautical mobile service
Aeronautical fixed service
75.
What is the channel bandwidth of a standard

analogue telephone system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rarefaction
Reflection
Refraction
Diffraction
Back lobe radiation

Side lobe radiation
Major lobe radiation
Transmitted signal
77.
8150 MHz
1475 MHz
2225 MHz
5925 MHz

The outer conductor of a coaxial
transmission line is always grounded at the
74.
A. Input only
B. Input and output
C. Output only
D. Point of high SWR
78.
A. A medium index of refraction

B. A lower index of refraction than the
cladding
C. A lower index of refraction than air
D. A higher index of refraction than the
cladding
85.

A means of beyond the line-of-sight
propagation of microwave signal.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sound intensity is given as

A.
B.
C.
D.
79.
df/dP
dE/dp
dA/dP
dP/dA
82.

What makes an antenna physically long but
electrically short?
A.
B.
C.
D.

The lowest frequency produced by an
instrument.
A.
B.
C.
D.
80.
Harmonic
Fundamental
Midrange
0 Hz
83.
An AM transmitter is rated 100W at 100%

modulation. How much power required for
the carrier?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The reflector and director of an antenna

array are considered as
81.
Parasitic elements
Transcendental elements
Feed-points
Driven elements

The core of the optical fiber has ______.
Top loading
Adding C in series
Adding L in series
All of these
86.

Which of the following refers to the smallest
beam of satellite antennas radiation pattern?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Space wave
Microwave link
Troposcatter
Point-to-point
84.
87.
Hemispheric beam
Spot beam
Zone beam
Global beam
33.33 W
66.66 W
83.33 W
100 W

Theoretical gain of a hertzian dipole
A.
B.
C.
D.
0 dB
1.76 dB
3 dB
2.15 dB

Used for time division multiplexing.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pulsed modulation
SSB
Amplitude modulation
88.

Satellite system or part of a satellite system,
consisting of only one satellite and the
operating earth station.
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.
Satellite system
Satellite network
Space system
Multi-satellite link
95.
92.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The difference between the original and

reconstructed signal gives rise to
90.
S factor
Quantizing noise
S/N
Fade margin
93.
91.

Refers to a land station in a maritime mobile
service
A.
B.
C.
D.
Coast station
Ship earth station
Coast earth station
Maritime station
Pulse modulation
QAM
PSK
FSK
Refers to the first generation of local loop

system in telecommunication technology.
In the designation of bandwidth and

emission, what letter in the first symbol
represents a double-sideband type of
modulation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
94.
A
B
C
H
A.
B.
C.
D.
97.
An area on the surface of the earth within

which the bore sight of the steerable satellite
beam intended to be pointed
Loss due to the diffraction of light when it

strikes on the irregularities formed during
the manufacturing process of the fiber
optics.
Absorption loss
Attenuation
Bending loss
Rayleigh scattering loss
GSM
DECT
Analogue cellular
TACS
A.
B.
C.
D.
Watt/meter
Ohms/meter
Ampere/meter
Watt/meter2
No answer
An area in the memory used for temporary

storage of information, on Last in First out
basis.
Core
Register
Flag
Stack
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
96.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the unit of electric field strength?
Modulation in which no signal is present

between pulses
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
98.
Effective boresight area

Countour boresight are
Coordination boresight are
Equivalent boresight area

For a sample rate of 40 kHz, determine the
maximum analog input frequency
A.
B.
C.
D.
99.
30 kHz
40 kHz
20 kHz
10 kHz
2.
An antenna that can only receive a television

signal.
100.
Isotropic antenna
TVRO
Reference antenna
Yagi antenna
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.
Mobile station
Land station
Base station
Ship earth station
The final power amplifier in an FM

transmitter usually operates class ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.
High power
Efficiency
Lesser noise
Cheaper
AB
C
B
A

In television broadcasting vivid strong
colors are often referred as _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A major and basic advantage for the use of a

klystron.
Space diversity transmission means

transmitting and receiving on _______.
Ku
C
X
L
A. Two or more antennas operating on two

different frequencies
B. Two or more identical frequencies
C. Two or more antennas operating on the
same frequency
D. Two or more different frequency
6.
A radio land station in the land mobile

service
Halo is also called
1.
Antenna gain
Antenna back lobe ration
Antenna total ration
Antenna efficiency
A. Flare
B. Dark current
C. Glitch
D. Ghost
A.
B.
C.
D.
An increase in the effective power radiated

by an antenna in a certain desired direction
at the expense of power radiated in other
directions.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A band where most military satellite often

operate
8.
Saturation
Hue
Chrominance
Luminance

Where do the maximum current and
minimum voltage values on a resonant Hertz
dipole exist?
A. Center of the antenna
B. Near the end of the antenna
C. Near the center of the antenna

D. Ends of the antenna
D. Efficiency = radiation resistance/total

resistance x 100%
D. 168.5 MHz
15.
9.
12.
How can the antenna efficiency of an HF

grounded vertical antenna be made
comparable to that of a half-wave antenna?
This is referred to as a fixed radio station

that broadcasts program material from
studio to transmitter by radio link.
A. By lengthening the vertical

B. By installing a good ground radial
system
C. By shortening the vertical
D. By isolating the coax shield from ground
A.
B.
C.
D.
A device that connects two dissimilar

networks and performs the protocol
conversion.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aural BC intercity relay

Aural broadcast STL
Shortwave station
Remote-pickup
16.
13.
10.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Around 500 miles

Around 1500 miles
Around 2000 miles
Around 1000 miles
14.
11.

What is meant by the term antenna
efficiency?
A. Efficiency = effective radiated
power/transmitter output x 100%
B. Efficiency = radiation resistance/
transmission resistance
C. Efficiency = total resistance/radiation
resistance x 100%
The use of telecommunication for the

transmission of signals to initiate, modify or
terminate functions of equipment at a
distance.
What law does a light traveling in air optical

fiber follow?
At what distance is VHF propagation

normally limited?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gateway
Coupler
Transformer
Converter
Millman
Snells
Maxwell
Huygen
A.
B.
C.
D.
Tracking
space command
Telecommand
Trunking

Which of the following is designated as the
international distress, safety and calling
frequency for radio telephony for stations of
the maritime mobile service when using
frequencies in the authorized bands between
156 and 174 MHz?
A. 165.8 MHz
B. 156.8 MHz
C. 158.6 MHz
17.

Best described a dip-meter.
A. A variable LC oscillator with metered
feedback current
B. An SWR meter
C. A counter
D. A field strength meter
18.
element in order to cancel the capacitive

reactance of an antenna.

Refers to an emission designation for
facsimile?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
J3E and F4E

A3J and A4E
A3E and F3C
R3E and A3E
22.
19.
What is meant by the term antenna

bandwidth
How does a SSB transmitter output power

normally expressed?
20.
A. Antenna length divided by the number of

elements.
B. The angle between the half-power
radiation points
C. The frequency range over which and
antenna can be expected to perform well
D. The angle formed between two
imaginary line drawn through the ends
of the elements
Average power
In terms of peak envelop power
In terms of peak-to-peak power
Peak power

In satellite communication, the
Geostationary satellites are conveniently
located with respect to the equator at
_______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.
Dipole
Center loading
Reflector
loading coil
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. A fading effect caused by phase

differences between radio wave
components of the same transmission, as
experienced at the receiving station.
B. A fading effect caused by small changes
in beam heading at the receiving station.
C. A fading effect caused by the time
differences between the receiving and
transmitting stations.
D. A fading effect caused by large changes
in the height of the ionosphere, as
23.
25.

Where the voltage node of a half-wave
antenna does exists?
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.
At feed point
Near the center
At center
Near the feed point

This is a flexible vertical rod antenna
commonly used on mobiles.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
45 degrees latitude
90 degrees latitude
0 degrees latitude
5 degrees latitude
A multiple access technique used in GSM

cellular system
TACS
FDMA
TDMA
CDMA
Marconi
Hertz
Whip
Ground plane

Known as the technique for adding a series
inductor at or near the center of an antenna
24.

Refers to an effect of selective fading.
27.
Referred to as an average power from the

radio transmitter supplied to the antenna
transmission line taken during one radio
frequency cycle under no modulation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.
Carrier power
Rated power
Peak envelop power
Mean power
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.
29.
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.
30.

What is the basic qualification of an
applicant for public carrier network before a
certificate of public convenience or a
provisional authority is issued?
A.
B.
C.
D.
100 kHz
200 kHz
50 kHz
16 kHz
35.
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.
CW
FM
SSB
AM
A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of

earths surface.
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.
Spot beam
Global beam
Zone beam
Hemispheric beam

The modulation technique used by GSM
cellular system
A.
B.
C.
D.

What is a dummy antenna?
A. One which is used as a reference for gain
measurements
B. And antenna used for hand-held radio
C. An non-directional transmitting antenna
D. A non-radiating load for a transmitter
used for testing
Bidirectional
Perfect circle
Unidirectional
Omnidirectional
With which emission type is the captureeffect most pronounced?
Which of the following refers to a double

side band full carrier?
A3E
A3J
F3
R3A
Best description of a collinear and broadside

antenna radiation pattern.
A.
B.
C.
D.
How wide is the spectrum bandwidth of a

single GSM carrier?
_______ is a major cause of the sporadic-E

condition
Temperature inversions
Sunspots
Meteors
Wind shear
34.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Franchise
SEC document
Business permit
Radio station license
37.
Phase shift keying

Frequency shift keying
Gaussian minimum shift keying
QAM

________ generates light beam at a specific
visible frequency.
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.
Glass fiber
Infrared
Light waves
Laser
41.

_______ is more prevalent in analog signals
that have steep slopes or whose amplitudes
vary rapidly.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The most common application of satellites

A.
B.
C.
D.
39.
Surveillance
Reconnaissance
Defense systems
Communication
42.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inductance and capacitance

Velocity factor
Characteristic impedance
Propagation velocity
43.
It is used to connect computers in the same

building or in same area
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.
A.
B.
C.
D.
235.50 MHz
450.50 MHz
150.50 GHz
0.31250 GHz
MAN
LAN
SWITCH
WAN

Referred by radio regulation as the station in
the mobile service not intended to be used
while in motion.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A radio frequency in the ultra high

frequency band of the radio spectrum band.
Referred to as a ferrite device that can be

used in lieu of a duplexer to isolate a
microwave transmitter and receiver when
both are connected to the same antenna.
Isolator
Circulator
Coupler
Diode.
Terrestrial station
Space station
Satellite station
Mobile satellite station
Transmission system engineering

Communication system engineering
Telephony engineering
Telegraphic engineering
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.
Station located on an object which is beyond

and is intended to go beyond the major
portion of the earths atmosphere.
Referred to the dielectric constant of a

transmission line material.
40.
Peak limiting
Quantization noise
Granular noise
Slope overload
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Technical study which deals with

production, transport and delivery of a
quality signal from source to destination.
47.
Fixed station
Base station
Land station
Coast station

What is the mixing process?
44.
A. Distortion caused by auroral propagation
B. The combination of two signals to

produce sum and difference frequencies.
C. The elimination of noise in wideband
receiver by phase differentiation
D. The elimination of noise in a wideband
receiver by phase comparison
48.
51.

What is the period of a wave?
Which of the following systems is not used

in radio detection and ranging?
49.
Frequency shift
Pulse radar
Amplitude modulation
55.
52.
Considered as the main source of an internal

noise.
50.
Device imperfection
Thermal agitation
Temperature change
Flicker
53.
Baud rate
Bit rate
Information theory
Throughput
56.
A.
B.
C.
D.
54.
33.3%
45.2%
42.5%
30.5%
Always the rearmost element

Always the forwardmost element
The element fed by the transmission line
The element connected to the rotator

Which of the following term best described
the overload distortion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the approximate percentage of earth

coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero
degree elevation?
In shipboard satellite dish antennas system,

azimuth is referred as the _______.
0 to 90 degrees
Vertical aiming of the antenna
North to East
Horizontal aiming of the antenna
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is a driven element of an antenna?
Is the total useful information processed or

communicated over a specific amount of
time
A.
B.
C.
D.
Core
Register
Flag
Stack
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. The number of degrees in tone cycle

B. The number of zero crossing in one
cycle
C. The amplitude of the wave
D. The time required to complete one cycle
A.
B.
C.
D.
This refers to an area in the memory used

for temporary storage of information on the
basis of Last in First out.
57.
Peak limiting
Quantization noise
Granular noise
Slope distortion

What do you mean by the outward flow of
and energy from any source in the form of
radio waves?
A. Radiation
B. Emission
C. Encoding
D. Tracking
58.
61.
Quantity that do not change when a beam of

light enters on e medium to another.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Refer to the deviation of the operating
frequency of a crystal oscillator from its
nominal value due to temperature variations.
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.
Drift
Flash over
Frequency deviation
Deviation ratio
62.
60.
A.
B.
C.
D.
V.4
V.2
V.1
V.5
Oscilloscope
Phonoscope
Radioscope
Audioscope

How much is the required minimum power
output of an international AM BC stations?
Which of the following described the very

early standard that defines binary digits as
space/mark line condition and voltage
levels?
A.
B.
C.
D.
66.
5 kW
30 kW
10 kW
50 kW

What is the equivalent of decimal 51 in
binary?
63.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A form of single sideband emission where

the degree of carrier suppression enable the
carrier to be reconstituted and be used for
demodulation.

Which of the following is and impedance
matching ration of coax balun?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Frequency
Wavelength
Direction
Speed
Find the product of the following binary

number 100 to 101.
11000
10100
10010
11100
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.
A.
B.
C.
D.
An instrument for recording waveforms of

audio frequency.
A. Half carrier single sideband emission

B. Full carrier single sideband emission
C. Reduced carrier single sideband
emission
D. Double sideband emission
2:8
1:2
4:1
2:1
64.
67.
111011
110011
111001
100011

One of the first satellite system catering
personal based communications services
scheduled for operation.
A. Iridium system
B. Plutonium system
C. Indium system
D. Gallium system
68.
71.
Antenna which is not properly terminated

A.
B.
C.
D.

What do you call a circuit that controls the
magnetron output?
A.
B.
C.
D.
69.
Inverter
Impeller
Modulator
Converter
72.
70.
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.

How can intermodulation interference
between two transmitters in close proximity
reduced or eliminated?
A. Through installing a band-pass filter in
the antenna feed line
B. Through installing terminated circulator
or ferrite isolator in the feed line of the
transmitter and duplexer
C. By using a class C final amplifier with
high driving power
D. By installing a low-pass filter in the
antenna feed line
Announce
Broadcast
Transmit
Media
At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what

values of current and voltage exist compared
to the remainder of the antenna?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which of the following colors of light rays

has the shortest wavelength?
Yellow
Violet
Red
Blue
System optical network

Simple operation network
Synchronous optical network
System operating network
A.
B.
C.
D.
75.
Term in communication which is referred,

to send out in all direction.
Known as the satellite transmitted signal

form a satellite transponder to earths
station.
Uplink
Down link
RHCP
Vertically polarized
Isotropic
Non-resonant
Whip
Resonant
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.
76.

What propagation condition is usually
indicated when a VHF signal is received
from a station over 5000 miles away?
Minimum voltage and minimum current

Equal voltage and current
Minimum voltage and maximum current
Maximum voltage and minimum
current.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Moonbounce
D-layer absorption
Tropospheric ducting
Faraday rotation

One of the following stands for SONET
acronym in telecommunication
77.

In radio High frequency communications the
higher the radio frequency the ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Higher it can reach

Shorter it can reach
Effect is null
Longer it can reach
Term for the transmission of printed pictures

by radio?
D. Television
81.
A.
B.
C.
D.

How can receiver desensitizing be reduced?
78.
A. Increase the receiver bandwidth

B. Ensure good RF shielding between the
transmitter and receiver
C. Increase the transmitter audio gain
D. Decrease the receiver squelch, gain.
The signal to noise ratio that is required for

a satisfactory television reception.
A.
B.
C.
D.
79.
30 dB
40 dB
10 dB
20 dB
82.
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Attenuator
Optical repeater
Optical amplifier
Generator
86.
Where is the noise generated that primarily

determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a
VHF (150 MHz) marine-band receiver?
A.
B.
C.
D.
What do you call the single booster installed

on the antenna dish of satellite receiver?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Low noise amplifier

Single amplifier
Noise amplifier
Rectifier
What is emission F3F?

84.
Crosstalk
Noise current
Crossfire
Intermodulation
A. Facsimile
B. Modulated CW
C. RTTY
An interfering current in a telegraph or

signaling channel due to telegraph or
signaling current by another channel.
Circuit used to amplify the optical signal in

fiber optics communications links.
What is meant by referring to

electromagnetic waves as horizontally
polarized?
80.
A. The electric field is parallel to the earth

B. Both the electric and magnetic fields are
vertical
C. Both the electric and magnetic fields are
horizontal
D. The magnetic fields is parallel to the
earth
85.
Facsimile
ACSSB
Xerography
Television
87.
In the ionosphere
In the receiver rear end
In the receiver front end
In the atmosphere

Known as the data transfer scheme that used
handmaking principle.
A. Synchronous data transfer scheme
B. DMA data transfer scheme

C. Asynchronous data transfer scheme
D. Uninterrupted data transfer scheme
88.
91.
The latest government regulation in the

telecommunication which provides policy
for the provision of local exchange carrier
service.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Type of modulation used in TV broadcast

visual transmitter.
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.
Pulse modulation
DSBFC
Vestigial sideband
SSBFC
92.
90.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
IF amplifier
Supply stage
Speaker
Mixer
96.
93.
Determine from the following the basic

mode of transmission system in the public
data network in which data are transferred
from the source to the network and from the
network to the destination in the frame
format.
The frequency tolerance of an AM radio

broadcast station
A.
B.
C.
D.
94.
10.95 to 14.5 GHz

27.5 to 31 GHz
3.4 to 6.424 GHz
1.53 to 2.7 GHz
Best describe as an amplifier used in radio

telephony.
Magnifier
Class B
Class C
Class A
What is the frequency range of C-band?
Referred to as the stage in the radio receiver

that contributes most of the noise.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A transmitter supplies 8 kW to the antenna

when it is unmodulated, determine the total
radiated power when modulated at 90%.
5 kW
20 kW
15 kW
8.36 kW
E.O. 546
E.O. 109
Act 3948
E.O. 59
95.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. A wave consisting of two magnetic

fields at right angles to each other
B. A wave consisting of an electric field
and a magnetic field at right angles to
each other.
C. Alternating currents in the core of an
electromagnet
D. A wave consisting of two electric fields
at right angles to each other
200 Hz
2000 Hz
20 Hz
2 Hz
A.
B.
C.
D.
Voice mode
Asynchronous mode
Synchronous mode
Packet mode

What are electromagnetic waves?
97.
Refers to a type of beam antenna which uses

two or more straight elements arranged in
line with each other.
A.
B.
C.
D.
98.
Dipole antenna
Yagi antenna
Whip antenna
Rhombic antenna
A. National telecommunications
commission
B. Telecommunications control bureau
C. Department of transportation and
communications
D. Bureau of telecommunications
1.

When adjusting an RF filter on a transmitter
using a dummy load, how much watts
dissipation should it stand to test a 150 watts
transmitter?

What is a frequency discriminator?
A. A circuit for filtering two closely
adjacent signals
B. A circuit for detecting FM signals
C. An FM generator
D. An automatic bandswitching circuit.
99.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.

When does broadcast station conduct and
equipment test?
These are used to connect non-ISDN

equipment ot ISDN line.
A.
B.
C.
D.
100.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Digipeaters
Terminal adapters
Local repeaters
Terminal repeaters

The executive branch of government in
charge of policy making in the
telecommunications.
75 watts
300 watts
50 watts
150 watts
3.
During day time

During night time
At any time
During experimental period

Channel 7 of the regular television channel
belongs to which band?
A. Low VHF band
B. High VHF band
C. Low UHF band
One of the following is referred to as a

major component of an optical time domain
reflectometer
D. High UHF band

7.
4.

Which of the following is referred to as a
radio emission without sidebands

Which of the following is one of the
possible causes for a slow drift of frequency
in a self exited transmitter oscillator circuits
resulting to a poor frequency stability?
A. Poor soldered connections
B. Power supply voltage changes
C. Loose connections in the oscillator,
amplifier, or antenna circuits
D. DC and RF heating of resistors, causing
then to change values.
5.
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.
6.
9.
12.
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.
What is meant by the term radiation

resistance for an antenna?
A. The resistance in the trap coils to
received signal
B. An equivalent resistance that would
dissipate the same amount of power as
that radiated from an antenna
C. The specific impedance of the antenna
D. Losses in the antenna elements and feed
line
Omni
Helical
Yagi
Dipole
Yahoo
http
com
www
Type of antenna which is normally used for

satellite tracking service.
Which of the following is not a common

microwave application?
Radar
Data transmission
Space communications
Mobile radio
50 times bigger
100 times bigger
10 times bigger
5 times bigger
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
One of the commonly used domain in the

internet service.
Ho w many times bigger does the bandwidth

of a fiber optic multimode have over a
cable?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pulse generator and vertical plate

Laser and horizontal plate
Pulse generator laser
Vertical and horizontal plate
A third symbol radio emission which

represent telephone transmission including
sound broadcasting.
W
F
C
E
Analog
Carrier
Data
Voice
11.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.
Referred to an oscillator signal leak

through from a properly neutralized
amplifier such as a master oscillator power
amplifier.
A.
B.
C.
D.
______ is known to be the first satellite

capable of receiving and transmitting
simultaneously.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Carrier
Stray signal
Back wave
Loss wave
A.
B.
C.
D.
Electric hazard
Cross talk
Immunity to noise
Shielding
18.
16.
21.
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.
No transformer
Suppressed white noise
Simple
Modulates any frequency

What do you call the service area of a
standard AM broadcast where fading is
allowed but not objectionable co-channel
interference?
C
D
F
A

In telecommunications when we call data
communications it means the transmission
of________.
One of the following is not among the

advantages of series modulation
What kind of effect is referred to a varying

light producing a varying voltage output of a
detector?
Current effect
Voltage effect
Resistive effect
Photovoltaic effect
30 to 300 kHz
30 to 300 GHz
3 to 30 MHz
3 to 30 GHz
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The extremely high frequency (EHF) band is

in the radio spectrum range of _______.
An advantage of optic fiber rejecting an

induced noise signals from magnetic field or
solar storms flux.
15.
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.
Experimental
Secondary
Tertiary
Primary
A third symbol emission which represent

television.
17.
14.
Syncom I
Telstar I
Score
Aguila
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.
Voice and video

Voice
Video
Computer data

If frequency range of 401.000MHz to
401.050MHz has to be channelized at 12.5
kHz between channel, what is the center of
its first channel from the lower limit?
A. 401.125MHz
B. 401.00625MHz
C. 401.025MHz
D. 401.0125MHz
23.
26.
One of the following is not among the major

components required on board ship under
the global maritime distress and safety
system.

Determine the effective radiated power of 20
kW TV broadcast transmitter whose antenna
has a field gain of 2.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
40 kW
80,000 watts
40,000 watts
8,000 watts
A.
B.
C.
D.
Data transmission
Clear to send
Receive data
Data set ready
28.
All bits in character are sent and received

______ in serial port.
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.
One of the following is a possible cause of

an abrupt frequency variation in a self exited
transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a
poor frequency stability to hold a constant
frequency oscillation.
Width of frequency band just enough to

ensure the transmission of information at a
required rate and quality required, and under
a specified condition and class of emission.
In amplitude modulation technique the

unmodulated carrier is referred to as having
______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
100% modulation
0% modulation
50% modulated
Over modulated
29.
A. Heating and expansion of oscillator coil

B. DC and RF ac heating of resistors which
cause change in values
C. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
D. Loose connections in the oscillator,
amplifier, or antenna circuits.
Occupied bandwidth
Transmission bandwidth
Necessary bandwidth
Frequency bandwidth
In groups of 3 bits
One at a time
In groups of 2 bits
Simultaneously
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alphanumeric form
Alphabetic form
Numeric form
Binary form
Antenna feed
AGC
RF amplifier
Local oscillator
In what form does the information of data

communications is transmitted between two
points?
In indication signal for a handshake form the

DCE to the DTE in response to an active
condition for the request to send a signal.
25.
On board radio facilities

Radio operator telegraphy onboard
Shore base facilities
Radio personnel on board
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.
27.
24.
Refers to one of the front end circuit of a

VHF TV superheterodyne receiver which is
usually a separate circuit coupled to the
mixer.
32.
Which of the following parts of the radio

receiver represent the component that
extracts the desire RF signal from the
electromagnetic wave?
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the typical number of bits in a static

memory location?
A.
B.
C.
D.
AF amplifier
Antenna
Detector
Crystal
What controls the contrast of a television

cathode ray picture?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is an average power of a radio transmitter

supplied to the antenna transmission line
taken during a long sufficient interval of
time and compared with the lowest
frequency encountered in the modulation,
taken under the normal operating conditions.
34.
Carrier power
Rated power
Mean power
Peak envelop power
37.
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.
10 dB
6 dB
3 dB
8 dB

Refers to one of a commonly used internet
service domain.
35.
40.
Act 3846
LOl 1000
R.A. 5734
Dept. order 88
Determine the dB gain of a receiving

antenna which delivers a microvolt signal to
a transmission line over that of an antenna
that delivers a 20 microvolt signal under
identical circumstances.
Determine from the following radio

frequency that falls under the very high
frequency band of the radio spectrum.
345.00 MHz
144.50 MHz
235.50 MHz
450.00 MHz
AFC
video stage gain
Audio gain control
CRT bias
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.
www
http
gov
infoseek
A law that specifically requires the service

of a duly registered electronics and
communications engineer in the designing
installation and construction, operation and
maintenance of radio stations.
36.
33.
1
2
16
8
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which band does channel 14 of the

television channel belong?
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.
High VHF band

EHF band
UHF band
Low VHF band

How many ships area is designated in the
implementation of the global maritime
distress and safety system.
A. Four
B. Six
C. Three
D. Two
42.
48.
45.
Main basic components of a data

communication are composed of the
following.
What kind of receiver is used in

conventional telephone handset?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Capacitor
Electromagnetic
Carbon
Ceramic
44.

This is referred to a product of simultaneous
frequency and amplitude modulation or a
carrier frequency variation which produces
unwanted distortion.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Absorption modulation
Simultaneous modulation
Dynamic instability
Series modulation
Security
Weight
Bandwidth
Physical size
The international radio consultative

committee is referred to in international
radio communication as ______.
Assume a frequency range of 401.000 MHz

to 401.050 MHz, if you apply 25 kHz
channeling plan, determine the center
frequency of the first channel from the lower
limit.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Determine the lower half-power frequency

of a class-C amplifier having upper halfpower frequency of 10.025 MHz, a resonant
frequency 5 MHz and a circuit Q of 10.
1.0025 MHz
10.525 MHz
0.5 MHz
10 MHz
Computer, modern and router

Computer, bridge and gateway
Transmitter, channel and receiver
Transmitter, computer and modem
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.
46.
43.
One of the advantages of fiber optic which is

referred to the volume of capacity of signals
it can carry.
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.
IRCC
ITU
IRR
CCIR
50.
401.010 MHz
401.0125 MHz
401.025 MHz
401.00625 MHz
50 ECE Board Exam April 1998
Refers to a continuous tone generated in a

local exchange terminal through a
combination of two frequencies 350 Hz, and
440 Hz.
The stability of transmitted signal from a

simple Hartley oscillator single transmitter
which is coupled to and antenna wire
affected by ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. Chirping of oscillator
B. Closer coupling between the oscillator
and the antenna.
C. Location of antenna
D. Material of antenna
Busy tone
Call waiting tone
Dial tone
Standard tone
51.
Which of the following refers to the video

signal amplitude that determines the quality
of the picture?

Refers to the first symbol in an emission
designation with an amplitude modulated
main carrier represented by letter H.
A.
B.
C.
D.
54.

Which of the following refers to full duplex
transmission?
Single sideband suppressed carrier

Double sideband full carrier
Independent sideband
Double sideband
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
One at a time transmission

Two transmission medium
Intermittent transmission
Two way simultaneous transmission
58.
52.
55.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
405.030 MHz
405.025 MHz
405.050 MHz
405.075 MHz
C
B
H
A
In radio regulation, the first symbol in the

designation of radio emission is ______.
Best choice of transmission line component

to couple a coaxial line to a parallel-wire
line
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. Bandwidth
B. Nature of signal(s) modulation the main
carrier
C. Type of modulation of the main carrier
D. Type of information to be transmitted
Shorting
Balun
Slotted line
Directional coupler
60.
57.
Shannons law
A-law
Newtons law
Mu-law
An entity, relying on the transmission,

switching and local distribution facilities of
local exchange and inter-exchange
operators, and overseas carriers, offers
enhanced services beyond those ordinarily
provided by such carriers.
International carrier
Value-added service provided
Inter-exchange carrier
Local exchange carrier
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.
A.
B.
C.
D.
________ is the method of encoding audio

signals used in US standard 1544 kbit/s 24
channel PCM systems.
What is the first symbol of a radio signal

transmission having an amplitude modulated
signal carrier, double side band?
56.
53.
Assume a frequency range of 405.0125

MHz to 405.0875 MHz and 25 kHz
channeling plan, determine the center
frequency of the second channel from the
lower limit.
Chrominance
Luminance
Brightness
Contrast

Who is the principal administrator of
republic act 7925?
A.
B.
C.
D.
61.
BOC
DOTC
Congress
NTC
64.
Electromagnetic waves of frequencies

arbitrarily lower than 3,000 GHz,
propagated in space without artificial guide.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the term for the ration of the

radiation resistance of an antenna to the total
resistance of the system?
62.
Effective radiated power

Beamwidth
Radiation conversion loss
Antenna efficiency
65.
A.
B.
C.
D.
HF band
VHF band
LF band
MF band
66.
Digital emission
Key emission
Cycle emission
Spark emission
Is a kind of satellite which has a period of

revolution equivalent to the period of
rotation of the earth about its axis.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Passive satellite
Synchronous satellite
Active satellite
Geosynchronous satellite
Space waves
Terrestrial waves
Mobile
Hertzian waves

Frequencies above ______ kHz, are referred
to as the radio frequencies.
A.
B.
C.
D.
69.
20
2
10
200

Who is responsible in the correctness and
accuracy of transmitted information content
over a data communication?
What determines the velocity factor in

transmission line?
The center conductor resistivity
Dielectrics in the line
The termination impedance
The line length
68.
Type of emission produced by one of the

early radio transmitter in trains of damped
RF ac waves where its oscillator is coupled
to a long wire antenna, normally used in
radio telegraph and having sidebands on its
carrier.
Where does the AM broadcast band located

in the spectrum band?
63.
Hypertext
HTML
Wide area network
Uniform resource locator
A.
B.
C.
D.
Refers to an address that identifies a server

on the network and a particular document on
the server
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.
The channel
The transmitter and receiver
The modem
The bridge
How do you transmit through multiplexing,

a thousand of voice channel information
over a single fiber optic using on e
wavelength?
What is meant by the term deviation ratio?

A. The ratio of the carrier center frequency
to the audio modulating frequency
B. The ratio of the highest audio
modulating frequency to the average
audio modulating frequency
C. The ratio of the maximum carrier
frequency deviation to the highest audio
modulation frequency
D. The ratio of the audio modulating
frequency to the center carrier frequency
71.
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.
75.
Known as the maritime communications law
which was enacted December 5, 1927
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.
R.A. No. 109

R.A. No. 3396
R.A. No. 7925
R.A. No. 3846
Polar division
Time division
Fiber division
Frequency division
A. Legal, technical and citizenship

B. Technical, citizenship and kind of
service
C. Citizenship, capacity and financial
D. Technical, legal and financial
Isolator
Retarder
Polarizer
Filters
What is the meaning of the term velocity

factor of a transmission line?
A. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
B. The velocity of the wave on the
transmission line multiplied by the
velocity of light in vacuum
C. The ratio of the characteristic impedance
of the line to the terminating impedance
D. The velocity of the wave on the
transmission line divided by the velocity
of light in a vacuum
In regulation of public telecommunications

carrier such as in the evaluation of new
entrant, the following consideration shall be
given emphasis to _______.
A quarter wavelength devices made of

crystalline calcite that changes polarization
in the optic fiber communication.
72.
A.
B.
C.
D.
76.
77.

Which of the following determines the
characteristics of a transmission line?
A.
B.
C.
D.

One of the following is a high powered RF
ac basic transmitter that has two or more
stages, the oscillator stage which determines
the frequency opereation and RF amplifier
stage or stages that develop the high power
output. The purpose of which is to develop a
good frequency stability.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Goldsmith
MOPA
Alexanderson
Hartley
78.
Inductance
Capacitance
Physical dimension
Length

One of the following is among the types of
fiber optics used in electronics
communication.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Graded-index multimode
Semi-graded multimode
Single mode
79.
One of the following prevents a transmitter

from emitting a signal that interferes with
other stations on frequency during the test.

Which of the following refers to the smallest
beam of a satellite antennas radiation
pattern
A.
B.
C.
D.
80.
Global beam
Spot beam
Zone beam
Hemispheric beam
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.
81.
A.
B.
C.
D.
84.
87.
By painting the surface

By inclining the surface
By cooling
By application of antireflection coating
A. To maintain propagation
B. To maintain temperature of the
waveguide
C. To reduce the possibility of internal
arcing
D. To increase the speed of propagation
How do you eliminate radio frequency

variation of an oscillator transmitter caused
by its supply voltage?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mixer, RF amplifier and AFC?

RF amplifier, Band pass filter and mixer
Local oscillator, mixer and RF amplifier
Local oscillator, AGC and antenna
85.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What consists the front-end circuit of a VHF

TV superheterodyne receiver?
82.
How do you reduce the loss that is produced

when light strikes a flat polished end of a
fiber optic?
Best reason for pressurizing waveguides

with dry air
A.
B.
C.
D.
Unbalanced line
Open-wire line
Balanced line
Coaxial line
50 ohms
120 ohms
75 ohms
650 ohms
A transmission line consisting of two

conductors that have equal resistance per
unit length.
One of the FM signal generator control

which varies the phase of the modulating
voltage applied to the oscillator of the sweep
generator
Band control
Phase control
Marker amplitude control
Sweep output control
86.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Use of low height antenna

Use of grounded antenna
Use of dummy antenna
Use of shielded antenna radiator
A.
B.
C.
D.
Use new power supply

Lossen power supply shielding
Use of regulated power supply
Use of high capacitor in the supply
circuit

Which of the following is not common
transmission line impedance?
88.

What is the device used in fiber optic
communication which consist of a receiver
transmitter use to clean up and amplify
digital data moving in one direction and
another in the opposite direction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.
Optic compressors
Optic retarders
Optic isolator
Optic regenerators
92.

What is the major cause of atmospheric or
static noise?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following refers to the first
active satellite?
A.
B.
C.
D.
90.
Telstar I
Echo I
Intelsat I
Sputnik I
93.
91.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Telephone set
Printers
Modem
Computer
In data communication the transmission of

binary signals will require _______.
_______ is referred as the difference

between available power and power budget?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fade margin
Power margin
Nominal gain
Power dissipation
98.
95.
Occupancy period
Traffic time
Use time
Holding time
What do you call the phenomenon in digital

circuits that describe the duration of time a
digital signal passes a circuit?
Transmission time
Elapsed time
Propagation delay
Travel delay
Refers to the duration occupancy period of

call during its use.
97.
94.
ISDN
Radio
RS232C
Modem
Which of the following is not referred to as

data terminal equipment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sunspots
Airplanes
Meteor showers
Thunderstorm
In modulation technique, which of the

following is referred to audible pitch?
Width
Frequency
Harmonic
Amplitude
A.
B.
C.
D.
96.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The conversion of digital signal into analog

for purposes of transmitting into the
telephone line is done through ______.
Same bandwidth as analog

More bandwidth than analog
Less bandwidth than analog
Bigger cable diameter

Assuming a UHF frequency range of
405.0125 MHz to 405.0875 MHz at 25 kHz
channeling plan, how many channels can
you produce?
A.
B.
C.
D.
99.
2.5 ch.
2 ch.
4 ch.
3 ch.

One of the following is a possible cause for
a slow drift of frequency in a self-exited
transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a
poor frequency stability.
A.
B.
C.
D.
100.
Loose shielding
Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
Poor soldered connections
Faulty capacitor, resistor, tubes or
resistors

A modulation which does not follow the
sine wave pattern, it produces undesirable
harmonics such as spurious emission
A.
B.
C.
D.
0% modulated
Over-modulated
Unmodulated
100% modulated

1. How far away is the radio horizon of an
antenna 100ft high?
A. 14.14 mi
B. 40km
C. 14.14 km
D. 40 mi
2. What is the maximum line-of-sight distance
between a paging antenna 250 ft high and a
pager receiver 3.5ft of the ground?
A. 25 km
B.25mi
C. 70.73 km
D. 70.73 mi
3. What is the path attenuation between
transmitter and receiver at a frequency of 1.2
Ghz and a distance of 11,000 mi?
A. 119 dB
B. 115dB
C. 179dB
D. 174dB
4. What is the uplink receiver frequency if the
downlink transmitter is on channel 4 (3.84
Ghz)?
A. 6.065 GHz
B. 6.84 GHz
C. 6.65 GHz
D. 6.05 GHz
D. 144 Mbps
6. What is the quardband between transponder
channels in the commercial C-band for satellite
communications?
A. 6 MHz
B. 36 MHz
C. 4 MHz
D. 2 MHz
7. What is the typical satellite transponder

bandwidth?
A. 24 MHz
B. 500 MHz
C. 36 MHz
D. 48 MHz
8. What is the bandwidth available in the
commercial C-band?
A. 1000 MHz
B. 36 MHz
C. 250 MHz
D. 500 MHz
9. Which of the following is the uplink

frequency in C-band?
A. 5.925 GHz
B. 4.2 GHz
C. 7.425 GHz
5. What is the maximum theoretical data rate of
D. 3.7 GHz
the above problem if one transponder is used for
binary transmission?
10. How many transponder channels are
A. 36 Mbps
realized in the commercial C-band without
B. 72 Mbps
frequency re-use?
C.18 Mbps
A. 24
B. 12
C. 36
D. 48
11. Which band of frequencies used by military
for its satellites and radar?
A. C band
B. X band
C. L band
D. P band
12. For navigation as well as marine and
aeronautical communications and radar, ____
band is used.
A. L
B. K
C. S
D. J
13. What is the current frequency band given
most attenuation for satellite communications?
A. Ku
B. C band
C. J
D. P
14. What satellite subsystem monitors onboard

conditions such as temperature and battery
voltage and transmits this data back to a ground
station for analysis?
A. Communications subsystem
B. AKM
C. TTC
D. Transponder
15. Which of the following satellite subsystem
provides stabilization in orbit and senses
changes in orientation?
A. Attitude control subsystem

B. TTC
C. AKM
D. Transponder
C. C band
D. Ku band
21. Iridium satellites can provide data

16. What is the typical center frequency spacing communications of up ____ bps data rate.
between adjacent channels (transponders) in
A. 1200
satellites?
B. 4800
A. 36 MHz
C. 2400
B. 40 MHz
D. 3840
C. 500 MHz
D. 4 MHz
22. What satellite system is also known as
Navstar?
17. Which of the following are uplinks in the Ku
A. GPS
band?
B. Iridium
A. 14 to 14.5 GHz
C. Globalstar
B. 11.7 to 12.2 GHz
D. Intelsat
C. 14 to 15.5 GHz
D. 11 to 11.5 GHz
23. What is the orbit height of a GPS satellite?
A. 10,898 nmi
18. What is considered as the most advanced
B. 10,898 mi
satellite system developed for cellular
C. 10,898 km
telephones?
D. 10, 898 m
A. Iridium
B. Globalstar
24. What is the orbital period of each satellite in
C. ANIK
the GPS constellation?
D. Molniya
A. 6 h
B. 12 h
19. What is the orbit of Motorolas Iridium
C. 5 h
satellite system?
D. 15 h
A. Polar
B. Equatorial
25. What term is normally associated with
C. Inclined elliptical
specifying the location of a celestial body in
D. Inclined equatorial
space?
A. Constellation
20. What band of frequencies do these satellites
B. Galaxy
operate?
C. Satellite
A. L band
D. Ephemeris
B. Ka band
26. What is the angle of inclination of GPS

system?
A. 55
B. 65
C. 105
D. 45
27. What material is most often used for the
outer covering of coaxial cables?
A. PVC
B. Teflon
C. PE
D. Polystyrene
28. What is the dielectric constant of

polyethylene (PE) insulator?
A. 2.5
B. 3.3
C. 2.27
D. 2.1
29. Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) is also
widely used insulator and is known as.
A. polystyrene
B. teflon
C. ceramic
D. bakelite
30. What is the characteristic impedance of a
two-wire line with the following data: diameter
= 0.023in., spacing =0.5 in., insulation = PE.?
A. 300
B. 250
C. 305
D. 301

coaxial line with the following data: inner
diameter = 0.2 in., center conductor diameter =
0.06 in., insulation = Teflon.
A. 200
B. 75
C. 50
D. 150
32. A pair of current-carrying conductors is not
considered a transmission line unless it is at
least ___ long at the signal frequency.
A. 0.1
B. 0.3
C. 0.2
D. 0.4
33. If the operating frequency is 450 MHz what
length of a pair of conductors is considered to
be a transmission line?
A. 2.19 ft
B. 2.19 m
C. 0.219 ft
D. 0.219 m
34. What is the physical length of the above
transmission line at 3/8 long?
A.0.82 m
B. 0.82 ft
C. 0.82 in
D. 0.82 cm
35. Which of the following coaxial cable
connectors is called the UHF connector?
A. PL-259
B. BNC
C. N-type connector
D. F connector
36. What connector is popular in attaching test

instruments like oscilloscopes, frequency
counters, spectrum analyzers, etc?
A. UHF connector
B. PL-259
C. BNC
D. SMA
41. What is the typical velocity factor of openwire line?

A. 0.9
B. 0.8
C. 0.5
D. 0.7
37. Which coaxial cable connector is least

expensive and is widely used for TV sets,VCRs
and cable TV?
A. N-type connector
B. F-type connector
C. BNC
D. PL-259
42. What line has a typical velocity factor of

about 0.8?
A. Shielded pair
B. Flexible coaxial
C. Twin-lead
D. Open-wire line
43. What is the velocity factor of coaxial cable

38. Which coaxial connector is a more complex with a characteristic impedance of 50 and
and expensive but do a better job in maintaining capacitance of 30pF/ft and inductance of 75
the electrical characteristics of the cable through nH/ft?
the interconnections?
A. 0.58
A. N-type connector
B.0.68
B. F-type connector
C. 0.98
C.BNC
D. 0.81
D. PL-259
44. What is transit time (time delay) of a 50-ft
39. The velocity factor in transmission lines
length transmission line of the above problem?
vary from ___ to ___.
A. 50 ns
A. 0.6 to 0.8
B. 100 ns
B. 0.3 to 0.5
C. 75 ns
C.0.5 to 0.9
D. 65 ns
D. 0.8 to 0.9
45. What do you call a transmission line used
40. What is the typical velocity factor of coaxial specifically for the purpose of achieving delay?
cables?
A. Delay line
A. 0.6 to 0.8
B. Flat line
B. 0.3 to 0.5
C. Resonant line
C. 0.5 to 0.9
D. Non-resonant line
D. 0.4 to 0.6
46. What is the time delay introduced by a 75-ft

coaxial cable with a dielectric constant of 2.3?
A. 1.54 ns
B. 11.5 ns
C. 115.6 ns
D. 1156 ns
47. Assume a frequency of 4 MHz, determine
the phase shift offered by the line in the above
problem.
A. 108.5
B. 106.5
C. 115.5
D. 166.5
48. Find the load impedance that must be used
to terminate RG-62A/U to avoid reflections?
A. 93
B. 75
C. 50
D. 300
49. Find the equivalent inductance per foot of

the above cable?
A. 13.5 nF/ft
B. 13.5 pF/ft
C. 116.8 nH/ft
D. 116.8 pF/ft
50. An RG-11/U foam coaxial cable has a
maximum voltage standing wave of 52 V and a
minimum voltage of 17 V. Find the value of the
resistive load.
A. 24.59
B. Either A or C
C. 228.75
D. Neither A nor C
51. Sound provides all sorts of information.

What information is related to mental processes
of knowledge, reasoning, memory, judgement
and perception?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Digital
D. Analog
52. What sound characteristic relates to a sonic
time pattern?
A. Tempo
B. Attack
C. Rhythm
D. Timbre
53. What is considered the most obvious
conveyor of information?
A. Sound
B. Speech
C. Music
D. Noise
56. The basic voice band has how many

octaves?
A. 10
B. 4
C. 5
D. 3
57. The ratio of frequencies is termed.
A. interval
B. octave
C. harmonics
D. factor
58. What is the tonal ratio of an octave?
A. 1 to 2
B. 1 to 3
C. 2 to 1
D. 3 to 1
59. If the loudness level is 100 phons, what is

this in sone unit?
A. 100
B. 90
54. Attack is a sound characteristic that refers to
C. 106
the way a sound begins. Which of the following
D. 96
is NOT an attack of sound?
A. Hard
60. What octave bands are there in the
B. Soft
midrange?
C. Crisp
A. 1st and 2nd
D. Simple
B. 5th, 6th and 7th
C. 3rd and 4th
55. At what loudness level do pitch (in mels)
D. 8th and 9th
and frequency (in Hz) are numerically equal?
A. 0 dB
61. How much louder is 80 phons over 60
B. 20 dB
phons?
C. 60 dB
A. 1000 times
D. 40 dB
B.4 times louder
C. 100 times
D. Twice as loud
C. 76 MHz
D. 76 mHz
71. The noise from an airplane engine 100 ft

from an observer is found to have an intensity of
67. A choir consisting of 36 individuals all of
45dB. What will be the intensity when the plane
whom can sing with the same intensity. A
flies overhead at an altitude of 1 mi?
soloist sings a certain passage and then is joined
A. 10.5 dB
by the remainder of the choir members for a
B. 34.5 dB
repeat of the passage. What is the difference in
C. 35 dB
the sound intensity level in the two cases?
D. 20.5 dB
A. 3 dB
B. 6 dB
72. What is the apparent loudness of 80 dB?
C. 36 dB
A. Moderate
D. 15.6dB
B. Very loud
63. What is typical loudness level of an acoustic
C. Loud
guitar 1 foot away?
68. For the safety and comfort of factory
D. Deafening
A. 60dB
workers, the sound-intensity level in a certain
B. 100dB
factory must remain below 85 dB. What is the
73. What loudness level in which permanent
C. 80dB
maximum sound intensity allowed in this
damage to hearing is possible?
D. 40dB
factory?
A. 120 dB
-4
2
A. 3.2 x 10 W/m
B. 140 dB
64. What do you call the perceptible sound
B. 3.2 x 10-6 W/m2
C. 130 dB
-10
2
repetition?
C. 3.2 x 10 W/m
D. 150 dB
A. Reverberation
D. 3.2 x 10-3 W/m2
B. Echo
74. What is sound pressure level if the RMS
C. Reflection
69. What sound intensity corresponds to a
sound pressure is 100 bars?
D. Masking
sound-intensity level of 50dB?
A. 114 dB
-6
2
A. 1 x 10 W/m
B. 11.4 dB
65. What is the amount of sound reduction
B. 1 x 10-7W/m2
C. 94 dB
-8
2
provided by a barrier wall, floor, or ceiling
C. 1 x 10 W/m
D. 57 dB
called?
D.1 x 10-5W/m2
A. Sound Attenuation
75. What is the velocity of sound in wood
B. Transmission loss
70. The sound intensity received from the
(m/s)?
2
C. Sound absorption
nearby jet plane is 12.6 W/m and that from
A. 330
D. Barrier loss
another jet plane some distance away is 0.45
B. 3600
2
W/m . Find the relative loudness of the two.
C. 3300
66. What is the frequency of a 2-cm sound
A. 14.0 dB
D. 5800
wave in sea water at 25C?
B. 14.5dB
A. 76 kHz
C. 12.5
76. What is the optimum reverberation time at
B. 76 Hz
D. 14.5
500 to 1000 Hz of an auditorium?
62. What increase in sound level is commonly
perceived by most people?
A. 6 to 10 dB
B. 1 to 3 dB
C. 3 to 6 dB
D. 10 to 20dB
A. 0.9 to 1.1 s
B. 1.4 to 1.6 s
C. 1.5 to 1.6 s
D. 1.6 to 1.8 s
77. For a cinema, the optimum volume per

person required is
A. 3.1
B. 2.8
C. 7.1
D. 4.2
78. Which of the following is NOT an
acoustical defect to be avoided in acoustical
designs?
A. Reverberation
B. Flutter echo
C. Distortion
D. Sound concentration
79. What absorber in which efficient absorption
is only possible over a very narrow band
approaching 1.0 (total absorption)?
A. Porous material
B. Helmholtz resonator
C. Panel Absorber
D. Membrane absorber
80. How many voice signals (4 kHz max.)
would fit into a 5 MHz spectrum?
A. 1250
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 1500
81. How many FM stations would be
accommodated I an ordinary TV channel?
A. 33
B. 30
C. 40
D. 25
82. What is the actual length in feet of a onequarter wavelength of a coax with a velocity
factor of 0.695 at 45 MHz?
A. 17.82
B. 19.26
C. 16.28
D. 16.97
C. 6.04
D. 7.04
86. At a certain time, the MUF for transmission
at an angle of incidence of 75 is 17 MHz. What
is the critical frequency?
A. 4.4 MHz
B. 3.5 MHz
C. 6.5 MHz
D. 1.5 MHz
87. A properly matched transmission line has a

loss of 1.5 dB/100m. if 10 W is supplied to one
83. Determine the terrain sensitivity loss for a 4- end of the line, how many watts reach the load,
GHz carrier that is propagating over a very dry, 27 m away?
mountainous area.
A. 10 W
A. -1.25 dB
B. 7.2 W
B. -3.05 dB
C. 9.9 W
C. -2.01 dB
D. 9.1 W
D. -5.01 dB
88. The electromagnetic radiation theory was
profounded by
84. A satellite transmitter operates at 4GHz with
A. Sir Edward Appleton
an antenna gain of 4dBi. The receiver 40000 km
B. Guglielmo Marconi
away has an antenna gain of 50 dBi. If the
C. Heinrich Hertz
transmitter has a power of 8 W, find (ignoring
D. James C. Maxwell
feedline losses and mismatch) the EIRP in
dBW.
89. What is caused by the transverse nature of
A. 50
electromagnetic waves?
B. 69
A. Polarization
C. 49
B. Interference
D. 30
C. Beamwidth
D. Gain
85. A radio signal moves from air to glass. The
angle of incidence is 20. Calculate the angle of 90. Which propagation method is known as
refraction. The relative permittivity of the glass special case of skywave?
is 7.8.
A. Space wave
A. 7.8
B. Troposcatter
B. 5.04
C. Ground wave
D. Direct wave
96. What is the actual length in feet of a one91. What is the orbit inclination of geostationary half wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor
satellites?
of 0.63 at 28 MHz?
A. 0
A. 44.28
B. 10
B. 43.46
C. 20
C. 11.07
D. 30
D. 46.27
92. A transmission line of unknown impedance
is terminated with two different resistances, and
an SWR is measured each time. With a 75
termination, the SWR measures 1.5. With a 300
termination, it measures 2.67. What is the
impedance of the line?
A. 100
B. 212
C. 300
D. 112
93. What is the high frequency sound that
cannot be heard by the human ear?
A. Ultrasonic
B. Transonic
C. Subsonic
D. Supersonic
94. What frequency is 10 octaves above 30 Hz?
A. 30.72 kHz
B. 30 kHz
C. 300 Hz
D. 307.2 kHz
95. A radio signal travels ____ yards per
microseconds.
A. 273
B. 328
C. 618
D. 123.6
97. The range of speech power is ____.

A. 1 10 watts
B. 100 1000 milliwatts
C. 10 100 milliwatts
D. 10 1000 microwatts
98. What is the actual length in feet of a onequarter wavelength of a coax with a velocity
factor of 0.68 to 30 MHz?
A. 19.26
B. 5.6
C. 17.82
D. 16.97
99. What is actual length in feet of a one-half
wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor of
0.59 at 26 MHz?
A. 11.16
B. 40.29
C. 42.46
D. 46.28
100. The agreed standard for measuring
loudness is the loudness sensation produced by
a 1000 Hz sine wave _____ dB above the
listeners threshold of hearing.
A. 80
B. 50
C. 30
D. 40

1. What is the refractive index of an
ionospheric layer with 100x105 free
electrons per m3?
Assume frequency to be at 20 MHz.
A. 0.99
B. 0.15
C. 0.78
D. 0.85
2. Each point on a spherical wavefront may be
considered a source of secondary spherical
wavefronts. This is known as the
A. Snells law
B. DAlemberts principle
C. Appletons theory
D. Huygens principle
6. What propagation condition is usually

indicated when a VHF signal is received from a
station over 500 miles away?
A. D-layer absorption
B. Faraday rotation
C. Tropospheric ducting
D. Moonbounce
C. Transmission line resistance plus

radiation resistance
D. Radiation resistance plus ohmic
resistance
11. What are electromagnetic waves?
3. What is meant by the term deviation ratio?
A. Alternating currents in the core of an
A. The ratio of the audio modulating
electromagnet
frequency to the center carrier frequency.
B. A wave consisting of two electric
B. The ratio of the maximum carrier
7. What is meant by the term modulation index? fields at right angles to each other
A. The processor index.
C. A wave consisting of an electric field
modulating frequency.
B. The ratio between the deviation of a
and a magnetic field at right angles to each other
C. The ratio of the carrier center
frequency modulated signal and the modulating
D. A wave consisting of two magnetic
frequency to the audio modulating frequency.
frequency.
fields at right angles to each other
D. The ratio of the highest audio
C. The FM signal-to-noise ratio.
modulating frequency to the average audio
D. The ratio of the maximum carrier
12. The band of frequencies least susceptible to
atmospheric noise and interference is:
A. 30 300 kHz
4. What is the major cause of selective fading?
B. 300 3000 kHz
A. Small changes in the beam heading at 8. The bending of radio waves passing over the
C. 3 30 MHz
the receiving station.
top of a mountain range that disperses a weak
D. 300 3000 MHz
B. Large changes in the height of the
portion of the signal behind the mountain is
ionosphere, as experience at the receiving
A. eddy-current phase effect
13. What is the relationship in degrees of the
station.
B. knife-edge diffraction
electrostatic and electromagnetic fields of an
C. Time differences between the
C. shadowing
antenna?
receiving and transmitting stations.
D. mirror refraction effect
A. 0 degree
D. Phase differences between radio wave
B. 45 degrees
components of the same transmission, as
9. What is the wavelength of a signal at 500
C. 90 degrees
MHz?
D. 180 degrees
A. 0.062 cm
5. What phenomenon causes the radio-path
B. 6 meters
14. For a space wave transmission, the radio
horizon distance to exceed the geometric
C. 60 cm
horizon distance of a transmitting antenna with
horizon?
D. 60 meters
a height of 100 meters is approximately:
A. E-layer skip.
A. 10 km
B. D-layer skip.
10. What is included in the total resistance of an
B. 40 km
C. Auroral skip.
antenna system?
C. 100 km
D. Radio waves may be bent.
A. Radiation resistance plus space
D. 400 km
impedance
B. Radiation resistance plus transmission
resistance
15. What is meant by referring to

electromagnetic waves as horizontally
polarized?
A. The electric field is parallel to the
earth.
B. The magnetic field is parallel to the
earth.
C. Both the electric and magnetic fields
are horizontal
D. Both the electric and magnetic fields
are vertical
16. What is meant by referring to
electromagnetic waves as having circular
polarization?
A. The electric field is bent into a
circular shape.
B. The electric field rotates
C. The electromagnetic wave continues
to circle the earth
D. The electromagnetic wave has been
generated by a quad antenna
17. If a transmitting antenna is 100 meters high
and a separate receiving antenna is 64 meters
high, what is the maximum space wave
communication distance possible between
them?
A. 18 km
B. 72 km
C. 164 km
D. 656 km
18. A receiver is located 64 km from a space
wave transmitting antenna that is 100 meters
high. Find the required height of the receiving
antenna.
A. 36 meters high
B. 64 meters high
C. 100 meters high

D. 182.25 meters high
19. Which of the following is not one of the
natural ways a radio wave may travel from
transmitter to receiver?
A. Ground wave
B. Micro wave
C. Sky wave
D. Space wave
A. 2.70
B. 0.66
C. 0.30
D. 0.10
24. If a transmission line has a power loss of 6

dB per 100 feet, what is the power at the feed
20. Which of the following terrain types permits point to the antenna at the end of a 200 foot
a ground wave to travel the farthest?
transmission line fed by a 100 watt transmitter?
A. Salt water
A. 70 watts
B. Fresh water
B. 50 watts
C. Sandy
C. 25 watts
D. Rocky
D. 6 watts
21. What is the input terminal impedance at the
center if a folded dipole antenna?
A. 300 ohms
B. 72 ohms
C. 50 ohms
D. 450 ohms
25. What determines the velocity factor in a

transmission line?
A. The termination impedance
B. The line length
C. Dielectrics in the line
D. The center conductor resistivity
22. What is the term used to describe a spread

spectrum communications system where the
center frequency if a conventional carrier is
altered many time per second in accordance
with a pseudo-random list of channels?
A. Frequency hopping
B. Direct sequence
C. Time-domain frequency modulation
D. Frequency compandored spread
spectrum
26. What term is used to describe a spread

spectrum communications system in which a
very fast binary bit stream is used to shift the
phase of an RF carrier?
A. Frequency hopping
B. Direct sequence
C. Binary phase-shift keying
D. Phase compandored spread spectrum
23. What is the velocity factor for non-foam

dielectric 50 or 75 ohm flexible coaxial cable
such as RG 8, 11, 58 and 59?
27. Which of the following frequency bands is

best suited for ground wave propagation?
A. 30 to 300 kHz
B. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
C. 3 MHz to 30 MHz
D. 30 MHz to 300 MHz

28. Which of the following frequency bands is
best suited for sky wave propagation?
A. 30 to 300 kHz
B. 3 MHz to 30 MHz
C. 30 MHz to 300 MHz
D. 3 GHz to 30 GHz
29. What is the seventh harmonic of a 100 MHz
quarter wavelength antenna?
A. 14.28 MHz
B. 107 MHz
C. 149 MHz
D. 700 MHz
30. Which if the following layers of the
ionosphere has no effect on sky wave
propagation during the hours of darkness?
A. D
B. E
C. F1
D. F2
31. Skip distance can be maximized by using
the ____ radiation angle possible and the ____
frequency that will be refracted at that angle.
A. lowest, lowest
B. lowest, highest
C. highest, lowest
D. highest, highest
32. What is the meaning of the term velocity
factor of a transmission line?
A. The ratio of the characteristic
impedance of the line to the terminating
impedance
B. The index of shielding for coaxial
cable.
C. The velocity of the wave on the

transmission line multiplied by the velocity of
light in a vacuum.
D. The velocity of the wave on the
transmission line divided by the velocity of light
in a vacuum.
33. What is the term for the ratio of actual
velocity at which a signal travels through a line
to the speed of light in a vacuum?
A. Velocity factor
B. Characteristic impedance
C. Surge impedance
D. Standing wave ratio
34. Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable
transmission line shorter than its electrical
length?
A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the
coaxial cable
B. RF energy moves slower along the
coaxial cable
C. The surge impedance is higher in the
parallel feed line
D. The characteristic impedance is
higher in the parallel feed line
35. What would be the physical length of a
tpical coaxial transmission line that is
electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1
MHz?
A. 20 meters
B. 3.51 meters
C. 2.33 meters
D. 0.25 meter
36. To obtain the most reliable sky wave
propagation the ____ should be used.
A. Lowest useable frequency (LUF).
B. Maximum useable frequency (MUF).

C. Optimum useable frequency (OUF).
D. Critical frequency
37. What is the deviation ratio for an FM-phone

signal having a maximum frequency swing of
plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum
modulation rate of 3kHz?
A. 60
B. 0.16
C. 0.6
D. 1.66
38. Tropospheric scatter is a method of sky
wave propagation for which of the following
frequency bands?
A. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
B. 3 MHz to 30 MHz
C. 30 MHz to 300 MHz
D. 300 MHz to 3 GHz
39. What is the frequency range of an aircrafts
radio altimeter?
A. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz
B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz
C. 4250 MHz to 4350 MHz
D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz
40. What type of transmission is radiated from
an aircrafts radio altimeter antenna?
A. An amplitude modulated continuous
wave
B. A pulse position modulated UHF
signal
C. A differential phase shift keyed UHF
signal
D. A frequency modulated continuous
D. horizontal, horizontal
D. 0.67
wave
41. The polarization of a radio wave:
A. Is perpendicular to the electrostatic
field of the antenna
B. Is the same direction as the
electrostatic field of the antenna.
C. Is the same direction as the magnetic
field of the antenna.
D. Is perpendicular to both the
electrostatic and magnetic fields of the antenna.
42. A coaxial cable has 7dB of reflected power
when the input is 5 watts. What is the output of
the transmission line?
A. 5 watts
B. 2.5 watts
C. 1.25 watts
D. 1 watt
45. How does the gain of a parabolic dish type

antenna change when the operating frequency is
doubled?
A. Gain does not change
B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707
C. Gain increases 6 dB
D. Gain increases 3 dB
46. What is the frequency range of an aircrafts
Very High Frequency (VHF) communications?
A. 118.000 MHz to 136.975 MHz
(worldwide up to 151.975 MHz)
B. 108.000 MHz to 117.95 MHz
C. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz
D. 2.0000 MHz to 29.999 MHz
43. When is it useful to refer to an isotropic

radiator?
A. When comparing the gains of
directional antennas
B. When testing a transmission line for
standing wave ratio
C. When (in the northern hemisphere)
directing the transmission in a southerly
direction
D. When using a dummy load to tune a
transmitter
47. What is a selective fading effect?

A. A fading effect caused by small
changes in beam heading at the receiving
station.
B. A fading effect caused by phase
differences between radio wave components of
the same transmission, as experienced at the
receiving station.
C. A fading effect caused by large
changes in the height of the ionosphere, as
experienced at the receiving station
D. A fading effect caused by time
differences between the receiving and
transmitting stations.
44. Most AM broadcasts employ ___

polarization while most FM broadcasts employ
___ polarization of the radio wave.
A. vertical, vertical
B. vertical, horizontal
C. horizontal, vertical
48. If the velocity of propagation in a certain

medium is 200x106 m/s, what is its refractive
index?
A. 1.3
B. 1.5
C. 1.27
49. What is the resultant field strength at the

receiving antenna in space wave propagation
under case 2?
A. 0
B. d
C. 2d
D. 3d
50. The decimetric wave is using what method

of propagation?
A. Ground wave
B. Space wave
C. Sky wave
D. Tropospheric wave
51. What is the typical frequency used for
communicating to submerged submarines?
A. 100 Hz
B. 500 Hz
C. 4 kHz
D. 200 Hz
52. Which frequency bands can be refracted
during the day by the D layer?
A. VLF
B. MF
C. LF
D. Both VLF and LF
53. What height of an ionized layer is
determined from the time interval between the
transmitted signal and the ionospheric echo at
vertical incidence?
A. Virtual height
B. Apparent height
C. Actual height
D. Effective height
frequency of 10 MHz if the velocity of

propagation is 2.5x108 m/s?
A. 0.25
B. 2.5
54. During the night when the F2 layer combines
C. 0.35
with F1 layer it falls to what approximate
D. 3.5
height?
A. 250 km
59. Determine the conductance of a two-wire
B. 350 km
open line with the following parameters: D = 4
C. 300 km
in., d = 0.1 in. and = 2.6x108 -m.
D. 400 km
A. 2.76x10-9 S/m
B. 2.76x10-6 S/m
55. Which of the following is considered the
C. 2.76x10-12 S/m
most frequently used transmission line?
D. 2.76x10-3 S/m
A. Two-wire open line
B. Twin lead
60. What is the input impedance of a
C. Rigid coaxial line
transmission line if its characteristic impedance
D. Flexible coaxial line
is 300 and the load is 600 ? Assume a
quarter wavelength section only.
56. The antenna effective height is ____ to ____
A. 150 k
of the actual height.
B. 150 m
A. to 2/3
C. 150
B. to
D. 2
C. to 2/3
D. to
61. Determine the standing wave ratio of a 300 line whose load is 400+j150 .
A. 3.55
57. What is the propagation velocity of a signal
B. 1.67
in a transmission line whose inductance and
C. 5.53
capacitance are 5H/m and 20F/m
D. 3.35
respectively?
A. 100x103 m/s
62. What is the optimum volume per person of
B. 100 m/s
rooms for speech?
C. 10x103 m/s
A. 2.8
6
D. 100x10 m/s
B. 3.1
C. 4.2
58. What is the phase coefficient in radians per
D. 5.1
unit length of a transmission line at the
63. What happens to the beamwidth of an

antenna as the gain is increased?
A. The beamwidth increases
geometrically as the gain is increased.
B. The beamwidth increases
arithmetically as the gain is increased.
C. The beamwidth is essentially
unaffected by the gain of the antenna.
D. The beamwidth decreases as the gain
is increased.
64. A superhet receiver has an IF of 455 kHz
and is experiencing image-channel interference
on a frequency of 1570 kHz. The receiver is
tuned to
A. 1115 kHz
B. 660 kHz
C. 2025 kHz
D. 910 kHz
65. What is the end impedance of a half-wave
dipole?
A. 73
B. 72
C. 250
D. 2500
66. What volume of the chamber is required to
measure absorption coefficient at 100 Hz?
A. 125 m3
B. 50 m3
C. 150 m3
D. 352 m3
67. What is the optimum reverberation time at
500 Hz for a cinema?
A. 0.8 1.2 sec.
B. 0.9 1.3 sec.
C. 0.6 0.8 sec.
D. 0.45 0.55 sec.

68. An FM receiver whose intermediate
frequency is 10.7 MHz, is experiencing image
channel interference from a station transmitting
on 121.1 MHz. If the local oscillator is tracking
above, the receiver is tuned to
A. 131.8 MHz
B. 110.4 MHz
C. 142.5 MHz
D. 99.7 MHz
69. A 1 Mhz carrier is amplitude modulated by a
pure 200-Hz audio test tone. Which of the
following combinations of frequencies represent
the total content of the AM signal?
A. 1 MHz and 200 Hz
B. 1 MHz and 1000.2 kHz
C. 999.8 kHz, 1000 kHz, and 1000.2
kHz
D. 999.8 kHz and 1000.2 kHz
70. What establishes the receiver bandwidth?
A. RF amplifier
B. Mixer
C. Local oscillator
D. IF amplifier
71. What noise type is observable between 8
MHz to somewhat above 1.43 GHz or up to 1.5
GHz?
A. Solar noise
B. Space noise
C. Galactic noise
D. Cosmic noise
72. Flicker noise is a poorly understood form of
noise which may be completely ignored about
above ____.
A.100 Hz
B. 200 Hz
C. 400 Hz
D. 500 Hz
73. What is the typical gain of a rhombic
antenna?
A. Between 15 to 60
B. Between 20 to 90
C. Between 50 to 75
D. Between 10 to 25
74. What illumination factor is normally
considered in computing parabolic antenna gain
in microwave communications?
A. 0.54
B. 0.65
C. 0.75
D. 0.85
75. How many voice band channels are there in
a superjumbo group?
A. 600
B. 900
C. 10,800
D. 3,600
76. In acoustics, what is the reference pressure
in lb/ft2 unit?
A. 2x10-5
B. 0.0002
C. 2.089
D. 2.980
77. Which of the following characterizes a
properly terminated transmission line?
A. The line loss is minimum.
B. The standing wave ratio is minimum.
C. The input impedance is twice the load

impedance.
D. The standing wave ratio is one.
78. What is the meaning of forward power?

A. The power traveling from the
transmitter to the antenna.
B. The power radiated from the top of an
antenna system.
C. The power produced during the
positive half of an RF cycle.
D. The power used to drive a linear
amplifier.
79. What organization has published safety
guidelines for the maximum limits of RF
energy near the human body?
A. The American National Standards
Institute (ANSI).
B. The Environmental Protection
Agency (EPA).
C. The Federal Communications
Commission (FCC).
D. The Institute Of Electrical and
Electronics Engineers (IEEE).
80. When no signal is being received, the
loudspeaker is not entirely silent as a result of
the presence of
A. parasitic oscillations in some of the
receiver stages.
B. negative feedback in each stage.
C. spurious frequencies as a result of
improper neutralization.
D. internal receiver noise.
81. When measuring a transmitters frequency

against a suitable standard, the frequency to be
measured is taken from the
A. oscillator stage
B. intermediate amplifier
C. buffer stage
D. final RF stage
82. When the is the ionosphere most ionized?
A. Dusk
B. Midnight
C. Dawn
D. Midday
83. Cellular radios use FM with a maximum
deviation of
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. Dipole
B. Parabolic
C. Helical
D. Rhombic
peak due to vibrational resonances in the water

vapor molecule?
A. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
B. 1.5 mm and 5mm
C. 1.35 dm and 1.7cm
D. 1.5 cm and 5 mm
87. The presence of standing waves on a

transmission line is the result of
A. a high level of attenuation on the line.
B. terminating the line by a resistive load 92. Oxygen molecule absorption peaks to
equal in value to the surge impedance
electromagnetic wave are at what wavelengths?
C. reducing the input power to below its
A. 1.35 mm and 1.7 m
critical level.
B. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
D. an impedance mismatch between the
C. 5 cm and 2.5 cm
load and the line.
D. 5 mm and 2.5 mm
88. What device measures rf power by
measuring the heat the rf power generates?
A. Calorimeter
B. Goniometer
C. Spectrum meter
D. Oscilloscope
93. The approximate single-hop nighttime range

of F2 layer is ____.
A. 3000 km
B. 3840 km
C. 4130 km
D. 2350km
84. What device measures the angle between

two radio frequencies and also the direction of
propagation of a wave?
A. Densimeter
B. Absorption wavemeter
C. Goniometer
D. Ergometer
89. What is considered the most efficient mode

in terms of energy transfer in waveguides?
A. Dominant mode
B. Normal mode
C. Conventional mode
D. Vertical mode
94. What ionospheric layer has a daytime

approximate critical frequency of 8 MHz?
A. F2 layer
B. F1 layer
C. E layer
D. D layer
85. An automated ship-to-shore distress alerting

system using satellites and advanced terrestrial
communications systems.
A. GPS
B. Iridium system
C. INMARSAT
D. GMDSS
90. In acoustics, _____ is the apparent change in

frequency or pitch when a sound source moves
either toward or away from a listener.
A. flanking
B. reverberation
C. Doppler effect
D. echo
86. What antenna can be used to minimize the

effect of Faraday rotation of polarization?
91. Which of the following wavelengths where

absorption of electromagnetic waves becomes
95. In cellular system, _____ defines the

geographic distance that is required between
cells using identical frequencies in order to
avoid interference between the radio
transmissions at these cells.
A. frequency-reuse ratio
B. distance-to-reuse ratio (D/R)
C. reuse format plan ratio
D. reuse factor
96. What do you call the ability of a mobile

phone to change from one channel (frequency)
to another?
A. Frequency agility
B. Frequency handoff
C. Frequency handover
D. Frequency switch
97. What mathematical plane figure is ideal in
cellular system design and engineering it
graphically and functionally depicts overlapping
radio coverage between and among adjacent cell
base stations?
A. Hexagon
B. Octagon
C. Pentagon
1. What significant element of sound refers to
D. Nonagon
its characteristic tonal quality?
A. Pitch
98. In cellular system, the average lead time to
B. Tempo
install a new base station is approximately ____
C. Rhythm
months to a year.
D. Timbre
A. 4
B. 5
2. What is the velocity of sound in wood?
C. 6
A. 5800 m/s
D. 10
B. 5000 m/s
99. What is considered the threshold of
C. 3300 m/s
audibility at 3000 Hz?
D. 3700 m/s
A. 10-12 W/m2
B. 10-16 W/m2
3. What is the typical loudness level of a watch
C. 10-12 W/cm2
ticking?
-15
2
D. 10 W/cm
A. 0 phon
B. 40 phons
100. At one atmospheric pressure, what is the
C. 20 phons
approximate speed of sound in steel?
D. 60 phons
A. 5150 m/s
B. 5150 ft/s
4. The typical length of the rhombic antenna is
C. 4990 m/s
____.
D. 4990 ft/s
A. 2 to 8
B. 10 to 20
C. 1 to 3
D. 5 to 10
5. What is the carrier frequency of supergroup
10?
A. 2724 kHz
B. 2356 kHz
C. 2108 kHz
D. 3100 kHz
6. In SPADE system, how many PCM-encoded

voice band channels are there?
A. 800
B. 600
C. 300
D. 240
7. The product of the radiated RF power of a
transmitter and the gain of the antenna system in
a given direction relative to an isotropic radiator
is called ____.
A. Effective Radiated Power (ERP)
B. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
(EIRP)
C. Radiated Power
D. Transmit Power
8. The product of antenna input power and the
antenna power gain expressed in kW is called
__.
A. Effective Radiated Power (ERP)
B. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
(EIRP)
C. Radiated Power
D. Transmit Power
9. What satellite system parameter represents

D. Space Division Multiplexing (SDM)
the quality of a satellite or an earth station
receiver?
14. What carrier system multiplexes 96 voice
A. Gain-to-Equivalent Noise
band channels into a single 6.312 Mbps data
Temperature Ratio (G/Te)
signal?
B. Energy of Bit-to-Noise Density Ratio
A. T1 carrier system
(Eb/No)
B. T2 carrier system
C. Carrier-to-Noise Density Ratio (C/No)
C. T1C carrier system
D. Bit energy
D. T3 carrier system
10. What noise is observable at frequencies in
the range from about 8 MHz to somewhat 1.5
GHz?
A. Industrial noise
B. Atmospheric noise
C. Space noise
D. Shot noise
11. A special horn antenna consisting of a
parabolic cylinder joined to a pyramidal horn.
A. Hoghorn
B. Cass-horn
C. Pyramidal horn
D. Conical horn
12. How many telegraph channels are there in
the basic voice band channels?
A. 24
B. 96
C. 48
D. 672
13. Which of the following is oldest

multiplexing scheme?
A. Frequency Division Multiplexing
(FDM)
B. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
C. Code Division Multiplexing (CDM)
15. What is the metric subdivision of VHF

band?
A. Metric
B. Millimetric
C. Decimetric
D. Centimetric
D. Syncom IV
19. In transmission line, which of the following
is the first step in the procedure of using stub
matching?
A. Calculate stub susceptance.
B. Calculate load admittance
C. Connect stub to load
D. Transform conductance to resistance
20. What type of balun (balanced-tounbalanced) is used in high frequency
applications?
A. Transformer type balun
B. A specially configured coaxial
transmission line
C. A specially configured parallel-wire
line
D. A /2 transformer balun
16. In satellite communications, what means of

attitude control is using the angular momentum
of the spinning body to provide the roll and yaw
stabilization?
21. ____ is defined as any radiation of energy
A. Spin stabilization
by means of electromagnetic wave.
B. Radial stabilization
A. Emission
C. Three-axis stabilization
B. Radiation
D. Station keeping
C. Radio
D. Broadcasting
17. Which of the following is NOT a porous
absorber?
22. In what year did Hertz discover radio
A. Prefabricated tiles
waves?
B. Plasters and spray on materials
A. 1844
C. Acoustic blankets
B. 1873
D. Membrane absorber
C. 1887
D. 1895
18. What historical satellite broadcasted live the
1964 Olympic games from Tokyo, Japan for the 23. Which of the following phenomena is
first time?
possible is free space medium?
A. Syncom I
A. Reflection of radio wave
B. Syncom III
B. Diffraction of radio wave
C. Syncom II
C. Refraction of radio wave
D. Attenuation of radio wave

24. What is the reactance property at the input
of a shorted quarter wavelength line?
A. A parallel LC circuit
B. A pure inductive reactance
C. A series LC circuit
D. A pure capacitive reactance
25. An early satellite owned by US Department
of Defense that lasted only for 17 days
A. Courier
B. Echo
C. Score
D. Westar 1
26. Which of the following is the consolidation
of H. No. 5224 and S. No. 2683?
A. RA 9292
B. RA 5734
C. RA 7925
D. RA 6849
27. Who will appoint the chairman and 2

members of the board of Electronics
Engineering?
A. The Senate President
B. The President
C. The Supreme Court
D. The Commission on Appointment
28. How many nominees per position of the
Electronics Engineering Board are nominated
by IECEP to PRC?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6
29. According to RA 9292, how many days after
the board exam the results will be released?
A. Within 5 days
B. Within 15 days
C. Within 20 days
D. Within 3 days
30. How many removal examination (s) will be
given to an examinee who obtains a passing
rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains
a rating in the other subject (s) below seventy
percent (70%) but not lower than sixty percent
(60%)?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. Unlimited
31. Which of the following determines the
acoustic behavior of gases?
A. Density
B. Pressure
C. Temperature
D. All of the choices
B. 60
C. 20
D. 45
34. A porous material is far more efficient at
high than low frequency absorption. How to
improve sound absorption at lower frequencies
using this absorber?
A. Increase the thickness
B. Decrease the thickness
C. Mount with and airspace behind
D. Both A and C above
35. Which of the following describes a TDM
frame?
A. A 250-s frame
B. A 125-s frame
C. A 500-s frame
D. A 60-s frame
36. ____ system transmits frequency-divisionmultiplexed voice band signals over a coaxial
cable for distances up to 4000 miles.
A. T carrier
B. X carrier
C. L carrier
D. F carrier
32. In what medium sound travels the faster?

A. Vacuum
B. Solid
C. Liquid
D. Gas
37. What is the spectrum range of U600

mastergroup?
A. 60 108 kHz
B. 564 3084 kHz
C. 312 552 kHz
D. 60 -2788 kHz
33. For a loudness level between 110 and 120

dB, the maximum daily exposure limit is ____
minute (s).
A. 1
38. Which frequency reuse method is less

effective because of Faradays effect?
A. Dual polarization
B. Reducing antenna beamwidth
C. Zonal rotation
D. Spin stabilization
43. What is the number of levels required in a

PCM system with S/N ratio of 40 dB?
A. 64
39. Three telephone circuits, each having an S/N
B. 128
ratio of 44 dB, are connected in tandem. What is
C. 256
the overall S/N ratio?
D. 512
A. 44 dB
B. 39.2 dB
44. A radio communications link is to be
C. 41 dB
established via the ionosphere. The maximum
D. 43.52 dB
virtual height of the layer is 100 km at the
midpoint of the path and the critical frequency is
40. What is the noise factor if the equivalent
2 MHz. The distance between stations is 600
noise temperature is 25 K?
km. determine the optimum working frequency?
A. 1.09
A. 6.32 MHz
B. 0.09
B. 2.1 MHz
C. 0.36 dBm
C. 5.4 MHz
D. 0.36
D. 1.8 MHz
41. A ground station is operating to a

geostationary satellite at a 5 angle of elevation.
Calculate the round-trip time between ground
station and satellite.
A. 275 s
B. 275 ms
C. 137.5 s
D. 137.5 ms
42. Calculate the reverberation time of a living
room 8 ft high, 13 ft wide and 20 ft long. The
total absorption of the building structure inside
the room is 180.7 sabines with four persons
present in the room.
A. 0.5 ms
B. 0.05 s
C. 0.5 s
D. 5 ms
47. What is the approximate single-hop

nighttime range of F2 layer?
A. 3840 km
B. 3000 km
C. 4130 km
D. 2350 km
48. What ionospheric layer has a daytime
approximate critical frequency of 8 MHz?
A. F2 layer
B. F1 layer
C. E layer
D. D layer
49. Determine the additional absorption
(sabines) contributed by 10 persons in a room.
A. 47
B. 4.7
C. 0.47
D. 470
45. Part of a microwave link can be

approximated by free space conditions. The
antenna gain are each 40 dB, the frequency is 10
GHz, and the path length is 80 km. Calculate the 50. A frequency of 3000 Hz has how many
receive power for a transmitted power of 10 W? octaves above 1000 Hz?
A. 0.871 W
A. 1.6 octaves
B. 871 W
B. 2.1 octaves
C. 0.871 mW
C. 1 octave
D. 871 nW
D. 3 octaves
46. What is the approximate critical frequency
of the E layer?
A. 4 MHz
B. 5 MHz
C. 6 MHz
D. 3 MHz
51. The loudness level increased from 40 to 56

phons. What is the increase in loudness
sensation?
A. 3 times
B. 4.5 times
C. 2 times
D. 4 times
52. In the North American TDM system, what is
the transmission rate in Mbps of T3 carrier
system?
A. 44.736
B. 6.312
C. 3.152
D. 274.176
53. What is the data rate in Mbps of a single
satellite transponder considering an S/N of 30
dB?
A. 35.8
B. 3.58
C. 358
D. 3580
54. What condition occur when the refractive

index of the air decreases with height much
more rapidly the normal?
A. Refraction
B. Superrefraction
C. Subrefraction
D. Diffraction
55. What do you call the increase of temperature
with height?
A. Temperature inversion
B. Normal inversion
C. Ducting
D. Superrefraction
56. ____ is a term given to the region where
superrefraction occurs.
A. Strata
B. Duct
C. Isothermal region
D. Tropospheric region
57. Which of the following wavelengths where
absorption of electromagnetic waves becomes
peak due to vibrational resonances in the water

vapor molecule?
A. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
B. 1.5 mm and 5 mm
C. 1.35 dm and 1.7 cm
D. 1.5 cm and 5mm
62. In the above problem, what is the new

velocity of sound assuming dry air medium?
A. 343 ft/s
B. 3430 m/s
C. 343 m/s
D. 342 m/s
58. Oxygen molecule absorption peaks to

electromagnetic wave are at what wavelengths?
A. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
B. 5 mm and 2.5 mm
C. 5 cm and 2.5 cm
D. 1.35 mm and 1.7 m
63. In acoustics, if the volume of the room is

200 m3 then at what frequency the coefficient of
absorption is measured?
A. 120 kHz
B. 120 Hz
C. 100 Hz
D. 150 Hz
59. What instrument normally measures the

virtual height of ionosphere?
A. Ionosonde
B. Altimeter
C. Field meter
D. Radar
60. The angle of elevation of the antenna beam
is 20. Calculate the transmission-path distance
for an ionospheric transmission that utilizes a
layer of virtual height 200 km. Use flat-earth
approximation.
A. 966 km
B. 2100 km
C. 1100 km
D. 405 km
61. If temperature change is 19C, what amount
of change to sound velocity is possible?
A. 11.53 ft/s
B. 11.53 m/s
C. 19.304 ft/s
D. 19.304 m/s
64. What is the approximate bandwidth of an

FM system with 10 kHz of modulating
frequency and a 150 kHz of frequency
deviation?
A. 300 kHz
B. 320 kHz
C. 150 kHz
D. 200 kHz
65. Which of the following layers of the
ionosphere has no effect on sky wave
propagation during daytime?
A. D
B. E
C. F1
D. F2
66. What phenomenon causes the radio-path
horizon distance to exceed the geometric
horizon?
A. Diffraction
B. Ducting
C. Reflection
D. Refraction
67. How to maximize the skip distance?

A. Using the smallest possible radiation
angle and highest possible frequency
B. Using the smallest possible radiation
angle and lowest possible frequency
C. Using the biggest possible radiation
angle and highest possible frequency
D. Using the biggest possible radiation
angle and lowest possible frequency
68. For a space wave transmission, the radio
horizon distance of a receiving antenna with a
height of 64 meters is approximately
A. 8 km
B. 32 km
C. 64 km
D. 256 km
69. What bandwidth is needed to support a
capacity of 128 kbps when the signal power to
noise power ratio in decibels is 100?
A. 19224 Hz
B. 3853 Hz
C. 19244 Hz
D. 3583 Hz
70. Which of the following systems uses
frequency band 870-885 MHz as a transmit
band of its base station?
A. TACS
B. NTT
C. NMT
D. AMPS
71. A transmitted signal 5 meters in wavelength
is received by an antenna coil having a 50-
resistance and a 0.01 H inductance. What is the
capacitance of the tuner shunting the antenna

coil at this point?
A. 0.704 fF
B. 0.704 F
C. 0.704 nF
D. 0.704 mF
72. Which of the following is the basic
component of a communications satellite
receiver?
A. On-board computer
B. Reflector
C. Telemetry
D. Transponder
73. The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic
meters broadcast studio is 0.84 sec. Find the
absorption effect of the materials used in metric
sabines.
A. 35.3
B. 10.96
C. 379.8
D. 109.6
74. What is the highest frequency that can be

sent straight upward and be returned to earth?
A. MUF
B. Gyro frequency
C. Skip frequency
D. Critical frequency
75. What is the most important specification of
loudspeakers and microphones?
A. Frequency response
B. Power density
C. Field Strength
D. Gain
76. Atmospheric attenuation is an attenuation
which is due to
A. mist and fog
B. gasses in the atmosphere
C. water vapor and oxygen
D. rain
77. Satellite orbits around the earth are ____
orbits.
A. circular
B. either elliptical or circular
C. elliptical
D. circular only
78. How does spatial isolation technique in
satellite communications avoid interference?
A. Use of different polarity antennas
B. Use of different types of antennas
C. Employment of highly directional
spot-beam antennas
D. Use of low gain antennas
79. An area on earth covered by a satellite radio
beam is called ____.
A. SSP
B. Region
C. footprint
D. primary area
80. The American concert pitch A is equivalent
to which if the following frequencies?
A. 440 Hz
B. 435 Hz
C. 260 Hz
D. 255 Hz
C. 31.5 W
D. 69.9 W
81. The international pitch A is equivalent to

___ Hz.
A. 435
B. 440
C. 260
D. 255
82. The speed of the satellite increases as its
height in orbit gets
A. lower
B. higher
C. closer to the moon
D. closer to the sun
83. What is the effective radiated power of a
repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output
\, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
A. 158 W
B. 39.7 W
C. 251 W
D. 69.9 W
84. A cellular standard known as the cdmaOne.
A. IS-95
B. IS-136
C. IS-54
D. IS-100
repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output,
5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator
loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?
A. 300 W
B. 315 W
86. Which Ethernet system is restricted only to

100 m?
A. 10 Base T
B. 20 Base 2
C. 10 Base 5
D. 10 Base 1
A. 600 W
B. 75 W
C. 18.75 W
D. 150 W
88. Which of the following regulates the
ownership and operation of radio and television
stations in the country?
A. PD 576-A
B. PD 756
C. PD 657
D. PD 677
A. 37.6 W
B. 237 W
C. 150 W
D. 23.7 W
90. In GSM cellular system, the speech coding
rate is ____.
A. 13 kbps
B. 8 kbps
C. 15 kbps
D. 20 kbps
repeater with 100 watts transmitter power
output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and
A. 800 W
B. 126 W
C. 12.5 W
D. 1260 W
92. Which NTC memorandum circular governs
the rules and regulations about the manufacture,
acquisition, sale and service of radio
communication equipment?
A. MC No. 2-05-88
B. MC No. 2-04-88
C. MC No. 2-07-88
D. MC No. 2-09-88
repeater with 120 watts transmitter power
output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and
A. 601 W
B. 240 W
C. 60 W
D. 379 W
94. What do you call a short bit sequence sent
typically 128 bits in digital signatures?
A. Hash
B. Public key
C. Private key
D. Password
95. What medium is used by IBM token ring

network that operates at either 4 Mbps or 16
Mbps?
A. Twisted pair
B. Coaxial cable
C. Fiber-optic
D. Parallel-wire line
A. 7:8
B. 1:2
C. 5:8
D. 3:5
96. What is known as the final stage in the

evolution of the GSM standard?
A. WAP
B. GPRS
C. EDGE
D. Bluetooth
97. According to KBP revised radio code which
airtime below is classified class D for AM
stations?
A. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
B. 12:00 NN to 6:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 Midnight
D. 12:00 Midnight to 5:00 AM
98. Encryption of data is important to ensure its
privacy. It is most commonly achieved by using
a ____.
A. public-key encryption
B. private-key encryption
C. password-key encryption
D. character set encryption
100. Which of the following principal musical

intervals is considered dissonant?
What noise is a transient short-duration

disturbance distributed essentially
uniformly over the useful passband of a
transmission system?
A. Flicker noise
B. Transit-time noise
C. Shot noise
D. Impulse noise
3.
What is the insertion loss of connector

type splices for a single mode optical
fiber?
A. 0.51 dB
B. 0.49 dB
C. 0.31 dB
D. 0.38 db
4.
In the European standard, the aurial

transmitter maximum radiated power is
______ of peak visual transmitter power.
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 20%
D. 40%
5.
What is the common up-converter and

down-converter IF for microwave
communications?
A. 60 MHz
B. 80 MHz
C. 120 MHz
D. 70 MHz

1.
99. The speech coding rate in D-AMPS is ____.

A. 8 kbps
B. 13 kbps
C. 15 kbps
D. 20 kbps
2.
________ is a standard whereby mobile

phones can gain access to specially
tailored Internet websites.
A. Bluetooth
B. GPRS
C. WAP
D. EDGE
6.
What is the data link protocol that is

used in asynchronous transmission for
transferring files from one computer to
another?
A. A modem
B. X modem
C. B modem
D. C modem
7.
What distortion is not caused by

transmission line characteristics?
A. Phase distortion
B. Pulse shape distortion
C. Spacing bias distortion
D. Amplitude distortion
8.
What is the effective radiated power of a

repeater with 200 watts transmitter
power output, 4 dB feline loss, 4 dB
duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB
antenna gain?
A. 317 W
B. 2000 W
C. 126 W
D. 260 W
9.
Which of the following is standardized

as part of GSM phase 2+ that can offer
theoretical data speeds of upto 115
kbit/s?
A. EDGE
B. GPRS
C. WAP
D. Bluetooth
10. A ______ is essentially a cell site that is

mounted on a flatbed tractor-trailer used
for emergency purposes.
A. COW
B. BULL
C. CALF
D. PONY
14. What is the channel number of an FM

station with a carrier frequency of 99.5
MHz?
A. 256
B. 258
C. 257
D. 259
11. Which of the following best describes a

dip-meter?
A. An SWR meter
B. A counter
C. A variable LC oscillator with
metered feedback current
D. A field strength meter
15. In a triple conversion superheterodyne

receiver, diode mixer stages are operated
A. In the linear region
B. In the nonlinear region
C. As class A amplifiers
D. As class B amplifiers
12. Which is space diversity system?

A. Two or more antennas operating on
two different frequencies?
B. Two transmitters operating at same
frequencies
C. Two or more antennas operating on
the same frequency
D. Two antennas from two different
transmitters
13. What part or section of a TV receiver
that separates the sound and video
signals?
A. IF stage
B. Video amplifier
C. Video detector
D. Burst separator
16. In ISDN, what is the basic access B

channel data rate?
A. 32 kbps
B. 64 kbps
C. 144 kbps
D. 16 kbps
17. What is the channel spacing for MF-HF
voice frequencies?
A. 2.8 kHz
B. 500 Hz
C. 3.5 kHz
D. 3 kHz
18. What is the quantization signal-to-noise
ratio if an 8-bit PCM code is used?
A. 40 dB
B. 50 dB
C. 60 dB
D. 65 dB
19. What is the emission designation of a
single sideband reduced carrier signal?
A. H3E
B. J3E
C. R3E
D. B8E
20. What is the most commonly used
intermediate frequency of radar
receivers?
A. 40 MHz
B. 60 MHz
C. 70 MHz
D. 30 MHz
21. The input signal of a travelling wave
tube is introduced at
A. Cathode
B. Anode
C. Cathode end of the helix
D. Collector end of the helix
22. What determines the ability of radar to
determine the bearing to a target?
A. Speed of light
B. Speed of target
C. Antenna directivity
D. Frequency of signal
23. What is the minimum number of bits

required in a PCM code for a range of
10,000?
A. 12
B. 9
C. 14
D. 10
27. Comparing the capacities of a DVD and

an ordinary CD, DVD is ______ time
bigger than CD.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 15
D. 25
24. The antenna current is doubled when the

modulation index is doubled in ______
AM system.
A. A5C
B. A3J
C. A3
D. A3H
28. Locking on to a defined target is known

as
A. Homing
B. Referencing
C. Searching
D. Defining
25. Which of the following is not a bounded

medium?
A. Coaxial line
B. Two-wire line
C. Waveguide
D. Free space
26. What is affected by the distance between
the listener and the source of the sound
because the intensity varies inversely
with the square of the distance?
A. Volume
B. Pitch
C. Loudness
D. Frequency
29. What causes the maximum usable

frequency to vary?
A. The temperature of the ionosphere
B. The speed of the winds in the upper
atmosphere
C. The type of weather just below the
ionosphere
D. The amount of radiation received
from the sun
30. What limits the sensitivity of a receiver?
A. The power supply of the receiver
B. The power output of a transmitter
C. The noise floor of the receiver
D. The distance between the transmitter
and receiver
31. What is the standard test tone used for
audio measurements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
100 Hz
500 Hz
1000 Hz
2000 Hz
32. What causes image interference?

A. Low gain
B. High IF
C. Poor front-end selectivity
D. Low signal-to-noise ratio
33. What frequency band is referred to as
the metric waves?
A. VHF
B. UHF
C. HF
D. SHF
34. A waveguide passive component that
brings a smooth change in the direction
of axis maintained perpendicular to the
plane of polarization?
A. L bend
B. H bend
C. T bend
D. X bend
35. How far is the visual carrier from the
lowest frequency in the spectrum of a
monochrome TV broadcast channel
following the NTSC standard?
A. 1.5 MHz
B. 1.25 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz
D. 0.25 MHz
36. What aircraft deviation is measured by
an ILS localizer?
A. Altitude
B. Ground speed
C. Vertical
D. Horizontal
37. Skip zone is otherwise known as
A. Empty zone
B. Shadow zone
C. Null zone
D. Zone of silence
38. In the American standard, the aural
transmitter maximum radiated power is
_____ of peak visual transmitter power.
A. 10 %
B. 30 %
C. 20 %
D. 40 %
39. What character signifies the start of the
test for Bisync?
A. STX
B. SOH
C. BCC
D. ETX
40. A low frequency audible periodic
variation in pitch of sound output in high
fidelity sound reproduction system?
A. Flutter
B. Wow
C. String vibration
D. Radio sound
41. When can a corporation or association
incorporated under the Philippine laws
and with foreign investors be granted
radio station license?
A. When 60% of the capital is owned
by Filipino citizens
B. When 50% of the capital is owned
by Filipino citizens
C. When the chairman of the board is a
Filipino
D. When the president of the
corporation/association is a Filipino
42. ______ is a term in the test language for
noise testing in telephone circuits that
means a one-syllable word consisting of
a consonant, a vowel, and another
consonant.
A. Logatom
B. Nosfer
C. Ore
D. Belcore
43. Why are frequency modulation
transmitters more efficient?
A. Because their power is increased by
class C amplifiers
B. Because their power is increased by
class A amplifiers
C. Because their power is increased by

class B amplifiers
D. Because their power is increased by
class AB amplifiers
44. A 1000W carrier is amplitude modulated
to a depth of 85%. Calculate the total
power of the modulated wave?
A. 1361.25 W
B. 680.62 W
C. 1425 W
D. 712.5 W
45. Which is not an ITU sector?
A. ITU-W
B. ITU-R
C. ITU-T
D. ITU-D
46. What is the process of cancelling the
effect on internal device capacitance in
radio transmitters?
A. Degaussing
B. Neutralization
C. Ionization
D. Stabilization
47. Which of the following is the basic
synthesizer circuit?
A. Frequency divider
B. Frequency multiplier
C. PLL
D. Mixer
48. Which one is not an important

characteristic of the physical layer?
A. Electrical
B. Logical
C. Mechanical
D. All of the choices
49. What is the typical separation between
the two conductors in a parallel wire
line?
A. 0.001 to 0.01 m
B. 200 to 500 mm
C. 0.635 to 15.24 cm
D. 2.5 to 5 in.
50. In t-carrier system, t3 has a bit rate of
A. 560.160 Mbps
B. 44.376 Mbps
C. 44.736 Mbps
D. 560.106 Mbps
51. In radio signal emission designation, the
fifth symbol means
A. Details of signals
B. Type of information transmitted
C. Nature of multiplexing
D. Nature of signal modulating the main
carrier
52. What is the channel spacing for SITOR
frequencies?
A. 500 Hz
B. 170 Hz
C. 300 Hz
D. 3 kHz
53. Which of the following is the new name
of CCITT?
A. ITU-T
B. ITU-R
C. ITU-S
D. ITU-D
54. Which of the following frequencies is
normally used for distress and safety
communications?
A. 4209.5 kHz
B. 490 kHz
C. 518 kHz
D. 2174.5 kHz
55. What is the difference between available
power and power budget?
A. Power margin
B. Extra power
C. Fade margin
D. System gain
56. A matched termination in which the
electromagnetic energy is absorbed by
water.
A. Maximum power transfer
B. Load
C. Load water
D. Basin
57. What do you call the electrical

conduction in a photosensitive material
which is not exposed to radiation?
A. Dark conductance
B. Pure conductance
C. Black out
D. Super conductance
58. How many sidebands are present in the
J3E mode?
A. Two sidebands and a carrier
B. One upper sideband
C. One lower sideband
D. Two carriers and one sideband
59. A component that samples the
microwave signal travelling in one
direction down to the transmission line
A. Isolator
B. Combiner
C. Directional coupler
D. Attenuator
60. What does OMB stand for?
A. Optical media board
B. Organization of medical biologist
C. Optical medium board
D. Optimum main board
61. A test method of comparing two audio
systems by switching inputs so that the
same recording is heard in rapid
succession over one given system and
then the other.
A.
B.
C.
D.
B test
A test
AB test
C test
62. And ITU-T specification code that deals

with the telephone circuits.
A. X series
B. T series
C. V series
D. I series
63. What digital carrier transmits a digital
signal at 274.176 Mbps?
A. T1
B. T3
C. T2
D. T4
64. What signal-to-noise ratio is required for
satisfactory television reception?
A. 10 dB
B. 30 dB
C. 40 dB
D. 20 dB
65. How many telephone channels are there
in AT 2 line?
A. 50
B. 90
C. 83
D. 96
66. What optical source radiates light

uniformly in all directions?
A. Isotropic source
B. Lambertian source
C. Voltage source
D. Ideal source
67. What is the spectrum of stereophonic
FM signal?
A. 19 to 38 kHz
B. 30 to 53 kHz
C. 59.5 to 74.5 kHz
D. 88 to 108 MHz
68. What is the required quality factor for an
SSB filter with the following data: center
frequency= 1 MHz, the desired
attenuation level of the unwanted
sideband= 80 dB and the separation
between sidebands= 200 Hz?
A. 1,250
B. 12,500
C. 125,000
D. 25,000
69. What do you call the reflection of a part
of incident light at the interface of two
media that have different refractive
indices?
A. Snells reflection
B. Fresnel reflection
C. Lambertian reflection
D. Huygens reflection
70. Which conference in the ITU-structure

does the telecommunication
standardization bureau report?
A. World telecommunication
standardization conference
B. ITU-development sector
C. Radio regulation board
D. The secretary general
71. What region around a broadcasting
transmitter in which satisfactory
reception of broadcasting signal is not
obtained?
A. Fringe area
B. Primary are
C. Secondary area
D. Tertiary area
72. What do you call the random noise seen
on radar display screen?
A. Impulse noise
B. Atmospheric noise
C. Grass
D. Johnson noise
73. Which of the following antennas
receives signals equally well from all
directions in a horizontal plane?
A. Hetz antenna
B. Vertical Marconi antenna
C. Yagi antenna
D. Helical antenna
74. Where is the brightness control located

in a TV?
A. The audio section
B. The video section
C. The grid-cathode circuit
D. The front panel
75. What is the term used in telephony and
telegraphy for irregular disturbing
radiation due to various causes and in a
particular produced by arc transmitters
causing a rushing sound in receiving
telephones?
A. Fax tone
B. Mush
C. Hiss
D. Crosstalk
76. What device in a waveguide system used
for stopping or diverting electromagnetic
wave as desired?
A. Mechanical switch
B. Electric switch
C. Push-button switch
D. Waveguide switch
77. What is the maximum power that can be
obtained from a microwave tube at 10
GHz?
A. 500 W
B. 10 W
C. 50 W
D. 20 W
78. What do you call a cable consisting of

twisted pairs of conductors, each
separately insulated?
A. Microstrip line
B. Strip line
C. Quad
D. Coaxial cable
79. What mixer type has the lowest spurious
signals?
A. Double-balanced
B. Single-balanced
C. Super-heterodyner
D. Heterodyner
80. What are the electromagnetic radiations
of wavelengths less than 300 angstroms?
A. X-rays
B. Ultraviolet rays
C. Infrared
D. Microwaves
81. What is known as the alignment of the
three color guns to a common point?
A. Confetti
B. Divergence
C. Convergence
D. Synchronization
82. What is the department order that
governs commercial radio operator?
A. Department Order No. 5
B. Department Order No. 23
C. Department Order No. 88
D. Department Order No. 44

83. The computer which initiates
information transfer
A. Master
B. Station
C. Slave
D. Mainframe
84. Which of the following antennas require
good grounding?
A. Yagi antenna
B. Hertz antenna
C. Marconi antenna
D. Isotropic antenna
85. Which circuit detects frequency
modulated signal?
A. Modulator
B. Discriminator
C. Demodulator
D. Modem
86. What synchronization is provided so that
the start and end of message is
identified?
A. Carrier
B. Character
C. Bit
D. Clock
87. A form of regenerative repeater for
transmitting signals over a long cable
received through a relay in a clearer

form.
A. Active generator
B. Active repeater
C. Interpolator
D. Audio generator
88. What is the minimum propagation delay
of a geostationary satellite?
A. 278 ms
B. 239 ms
C. 300 ms
D. 600 ms
89. In measuring crosstalk using dBx unit
the reference power is
A. 1 mW
B. 1 W
C. 1 pW
D. 6 mW
90. A spot on the suns visible surface where
the magnetic flux lines converge?
A. Sunspot
B. Filament
C. Solar spot
D. Prominence
91. ______ is a slow moving large mass of
plasma on the suns surface.
A. Filament
B. Solar flare
C. Prominence
D. Proton flare
92. ______ is slow moving cord-like mass

of plasma across the suns surface.
A. Filament
B. Solar flare
C. Prominence
D. Solar spot
93. At what particular wavelength is solar
flux measured?
A. 10.7 mm band
B. 10.7 m band
C. 10.7 cm band
D. 10.7 nm band
94. What is the approximate intensity of the
magnetic field at the earths surface?
A. 32,000 nT
B. 62,000 nT
C. 32,000 T
D. 62,000 T
95. What is the intensity of the magnetic
field at the earths north pole?
A. 32,000 nT
B. 62,000 nT
C. 32,000 T
D. 62,000 T
96. What do you call a satellite weighing
less than 1 kg?
A. Nanosat
B. Picosat
C. Femtosat
D. Microsat
C. Bluetooth
D. EDGE
97. The first creature in space was carried by

which of the following spacecrafts in
November 3, 1957?
A. Sputnik 1
B. Sputnik 3
C. Sputnik 2
D. Explorer 1
98. The wireless evolution is achieved
through the GSM family of wireless
technology platforms which include but
except one of the following. Which one
is NOT a member of the GSM family?
A. GSM
B. EDGE
C. GPRS
D. CDMA
99. Which of the following is an
enhancement of GSM including the
GPRS?
A. 1G
B. 2.5G
C. 2G
D. 3G
100. A low power, short range wireless
technology designed to provide a
replacement for serial cables is called
______.
A. WAP
B. GPRS
Noise Chapter 4 (3001 Questions in

Communications Engineering-EXCEL
REVIEW CENTER)
1. What is the non-continuous noise of
irregular pulses or spikes of duration
with high amplitudes?
A. Wander
B. Jitter
C. Hits
D. Singing
2. What theorem sets a limit on the
maximum capacity of a channel with a
given noise level?
A. Nyquist theorem
B. Hartley law
C. Shannon-Hartley theorem
D. Shannon theorem
3. Quantizing noise occurs in
A. PCM
B. PLM
C. PDM
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
D. PAM
Noise always affects the signal in a
communications systems at the
________.
A. transmitter
B. channel
C. information source
D. destination
_________ is the random and
unpredictable electric signals from
natural causes, both internal and external
to the system.
A. Interference
B. Attenuation
C. Distortion
D. Noise
Noise from random acoustic or electric
noise that has equal energy per cycle
over a specified total frequency band.
A. Gaussian noise
B. Whiter noise
C. Thermal noise
D. All of the above
Which causes a quantization noise in
PCM system?
A. Serial transmission errors
B. The approximation of the quantized
signal
C. The synchronization between
encoder and decoder
D. Binary coding techniques
A particular circuit that rids FM of noise
A. Detector
B. Discriminator
C. Phase Shifter
D. Limiter
9. What is the reference noise temperature
in degrees Celsius?
A. 17
B. 273
C. 25
D. 30
10. Unwanted radio signal on assigned
frequency.
A. Splatter
B. RFI
C. Noise
D. EMI
11. What is the reliable measurement for
comparing amplifier noise
characteristics?
A. Thermal agitation noise
B. Noise factor
C. Noise margin
D. Signal-to-noise
12. _________ is measured on a circuit
when it is correctly terminated but does
not have any traffic.
A. White noise
B. Galactic noise
C. Impulse noise
D. Atmospheric noise
13. Which standard recommends crosstalk
limits?
A. CCIT G.152
B. CCIT G.150
C. CCIT G.151
D. CCIT G.161
14. Which standard is utilized in
intermodulation noise rates on PCM
audio channels?
A. CCIT Rec. G.151
B. CCIT Rec. G.172
C. CCIT Rec. G.190
D. CCIT Rec. G.190
15. What is the reference frequency of CCIT
phosphomeric noise measurement?
A. 800 Hz
B. 1000 Hz
C. 1500 Hz
D. 3400 Hz
16. Reference temperature use in noise
analysis
A. 75 K
B. 250 K
C. 290 K
D. 300 K
17. Which noise is produced by lighting
discharges in thunderstorms?
A. White noise
B. Extraterrestrial noise
C. Industrial noise
D. Atmospheric noise
18. Man-made noise is usually from
_______.
A. transmission over power lines and by
ground wave
B. sky-wave
C. space-wave
D. troposphere
19. nif stands for
A. Non-intrinsic figure
B. Noise improvement factor
C. Narrow intermediate frequency
D. Noise interference figure
20. Industrial noise frequency is between
_____.
A. 0 to 10 KHz
B. 160 MHz to 200 MHz
C. 15 to 160 MHz
D. 200 to 3000 MHz
21. External noise fields are measured in
terms of _______.
A. rms values
B. dc values
C. average values
D. peak values
22. Form of interference caused by rain or
dust storms.
A. Precipitation static
B. Shot-noise
C. Galactic noise
D. Impulse noise
23. At 17 C, the noise voltage generated by
5k resistor, operating over a bandwidth
of 20KHz is
A. 1.3 nV
B. 1.3 V
C. 1.3 pV
D. 1.3 mV
24. ________ is an electric noise produced
by thermal agitation of electrons in
conductor and semiconductor.
A. External noise
B. Internal noise
C. Thermal noise
D. Flicker
25. Three identical circuits having 10 dB
signal noise-to-noise ratio each are
connected in tandem with each other,
what is the overall S/N?
A. 5.23 dB
B. 14.77dB
C. 30 dB
D. 40 dB
26. The noise figure of the first circuit in
tandem connection is 10.5 dB while its
power gain is 15, what is the over all
noise figure if the second circuit has a
noise figure of 11 dB?
A. 11.59 dB
B. 11.23 dB
C. 10.79 dB
D. 10.5 dB
27. Is the interference coming from other
communications channels?
A. Jitter
B. Crosstalk
C. RFI
D. EMI
28. What is the reference noise level?
A. 10 pW
B. 0 dBm
C. 1mW
D. -90 dBm
29. What is the unit of noise power of
psophometer?
A. pWp
B. dBa
C. dBm
D. dBrn
30. A large emission of hydrogen from the
sun that affects communications.
A. Solar flare
B. Cosmic disturbance
C. Ballistic disturbance
D. Solar noise
31. Atmospheric noise is known as
_______noise.
A. static
B. cosmic
C. solar
D. lunar
32. Standard design reference for
environmental noise temperature.
A. 300 K
B. 290 K
C. 32 F
D. 212F
33. Absolute temperature in Kelvin.
A. C +273
B. C+75
C. C+19
D. C +290
34. If bandwidth is doubled, the signal
power is _________.
A. not changed
B. quadrupled
C. tripled
D. doubled
35. Name one or more sources of noise
bearing on electronic communications.
A. Steam boiler
B. Galaxies
C. Internal combustion engine
D. Both B and C
36. The transmitter technique adopted to
reduce the noise effect of the preceding
question is called
A. noise masking
B. anitnoise
C. noise killing
D. preemphasis
37. Deemphasis in the receiver in effect
attenuates modulating signal
components and noise in what frequency
range?
A. dc
B. low
C. intermediate
D. high
38. Atmospheric noise or static is not a great
problem
A. at frequencies below 20 MHz
B. at frequencies below 5 MHz
C. at frequencies above 30 MHz
D. at frequencies above 1 MHz
39. What is the proper procedure for
suppressing electrical noise in a mobile
station?
A. Apply shielding and filtering where
necessary
B. Insulate a all plain sheet metal
surfaces from each other
C. Apply anti-static spray liberally to all
nonmetallic
D. Install filter capacitors in series with

all dc wiring
40. Where is the noise generated that
primarily determines the signal-to-noise
ratio in a VHF (150MHz) marine-band
receiver?
A. Man-made noise
B. In the atmosphere
C. In the receiver front end
D. In the ionosphere
41. The difference between signal strength
at a given point and a reference level
is________.
A. power
B. dBm
C. level
D. ratio
42. Interfering effect of noise, C message
weighted, is _________.
A. dBa
B. dBm
C. dBmc
D. dB
43. F1A weighting refers to ___________.
A. -90 dBm
B. dBrnc0
C. dBrnc
D. F1A handset
44. Reading a 58 dBrnC on your Western
Electric 3A test set at a +7 test point is
equal to ______ dBrnc0.
A. 58
B. 51
C. 65
D. 27
45. Reading a 58 dBrn, at a +7 test point is
equal to ________ dBa0.
A. 26
B. 65
C. 51
D. 46
46. A reading of -50 dBm on the disturbing
pair, and -80 on the disturbed pair equals
_____ dB of crosstalk coupling.
A. 20
B. 30
C. 60
D. 25
47. Power is __________.
A. actual amount of power reference to
1mW
B. logarithmic ratio of two powers
C. definite amount of energy per time
period
D. current flow per time period
48. 15 dBa F1A weighted, equals
___________.
A. -90 dBm
B. -82 dBm
C. -85 dBm
D. -70 dBm
49. You are measuring noise in a voice
channel with a Lenkurt 601A, F1A
weighting network and a flat meter.
Your meter reads -47dBm. What is this
reading in dBa?
A. 77 dBa
B. 35 dBa
C. 38 dBa
D. 32 dBa
50. You are measuring noise at a +3 dB
level point, using the Lenkurt 601A,
F1A weighting network, and a flat
meter. The meter reading is -57dBm.
This is ________dBa0.
A. 20
B. 15
C. 25
D. 17
51. You are measuring noise at a -6 dB level
point, using the Lenkurt 601A, F1A
weighting network, and a flat meter.
The meter reading is -59 dBm. This is
_________ dBa0.
A. 24
B. 12
C. 23
D. 32
52. A measurement of -75 dBm, C-message
weighted, would be _________ dBrnc.
A. 8
B. 7
C. 9
D. 15
53. Your Western Electric 3A test set meter
reading is -23 dBm at at test point level
of -8 dB. This is ______ dBrnc0.
A. 75
B. 29
C. 30
D. 31
54. At what power level does a 1 KHz tone

cause zero interference (144 weighted)?
A. 90 dB
B. 90 dBm
C. -90 dBm
D. -90 dBm
55. Reference noise is ___________.
A. a 1000 Hz, -90 dBm tone
B. a noise that creates the same
interfering effect as a 1000Hz, 90dBm tone
C. a noise that creates zero dBrn in a
voice channel
D. B and C above
56. A practical dBrn measurement will
almost always in a _______ number.
A. positive
B. negative
C. imaginary
D. fractional
57. What is the reference level for noise
measurement, F1A weighted?
A. -90 dBm
B. -82 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -85 dBm
58. What is the reference tone level for
dBrn?
A. -90 dBm
B. -82 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -85 dBm
dBa?
A. -90 dBm
B. -82 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -85 dBm
60. Atmospheric noise becomes less severe
at frequencies
A. above 30 MHz
B. below 30 MHz
C. above 3000 kHz
D. below 3000kHz
61. Indicate the noise whose sources are in
category different from that of the other
three?
A. Solar noise
B. Cosmic noise
C. Atmospheric noise
D. Galactic noise
62. Indicate the false statement.
A. Industrial noise is usually of the
impulse type
B. Static is caused by lightning
discharges in thunderstorms and
other natural electric disturbances
occurring in the atmosphere
C. Distant stars are another source of
man-made noise
D. Flourescent lights are another source
of man-made noise
63. Which of the following is not a source of
industrial noise?
A. Automobile ignition
B. Sun
C. Electric Motors
D. Leakage from high voltage line
64. Indicate the false statement

A. The noise generated in a resistance
or the resistive component of any
impedance is random.
B. Random noise power is proportional
to the bandwidth over which is
measured
C. A random voltage across the resistor
does not exist
D. All formula referring to random
noise are applicable only to the value
of such noise.
65. The value of the resistor creating thermal
noise is doubled. The noise power
generated is therefore.
A. halved
B. quadrupled
C. doubled
D. unchanged
A. HF mixer are generally noisier than
HF amplifiers.
B. Impulse noise voltage is dependent
on bandwidth
C. Thermal noise is independent of the
frequency at which is measured.
D. Industrial noise is usually of the
impulse type.
67. An amplifier operating over the
frequency range of 455 to 460 kHz has a
200 k input resistor. What is the RMS
noise voltage at the input to this
amplifier if the ambient temperature is
17C ?
A. 40 V
B. 4.0 V
C. 400 V
D. 4.0 mV
68. The first stage of a two-stage amplifier
has a voltage gain of 10, a 600 input
resistor, a 1600 equivalent noise
resistance and 27k output resistor. For
the second stage, these values are 25,
81k, 19k, and 1M, respectively.
Calculate the equivalent input-noise
resistance of this two stage amplifier.
A. 2,518 k
B. 2,518
C. 251.8
D. 12,518
69. The noise output of a resistor is
amplified by a noiseless amplifier
having a gain of 60 and a bandwidth of
20 kHz. A meter connected at the output
of the amplifier reads 1mV RMS. If the
bandwidth of the amplifier is reduced to
5kHz, its gain remaining constant, what
does the meter read now?
A. 0.5 mV
B. 0.5 V
C. 5.0 mV
D. 5.0 V
70. The front-end of a television receiver,
having a bandwidth of 7Mhz, and
operating at a temperature of 27C ,
consists of an amplifier having a gain of
15 followed by a mixer whose gain is
20. The amplifier has a 300 input
resistor and a shot noise equivalent

resistance of 500; for the mixer, these
values are 2.2k and 13.5k
respectively, and the load resistance of
the mixer is 470 k. Calculate the
equivalent noise resistance for this
television receiver.
A. 8760
B. 875
C. 8.76
D. 0.876
71. One of the following is not a useful
quantity for comparing the noise
performance receivers.
A. Input noise voltage
B. Equivalent noise resistance
C. Noise temperature
D. Noise figure.
72. Indicate the false statement. Noise figure
is defined as
A. the ratio of the S/N power supplied
at the input terminal of a receiver or
amplifier to the S/N power supplied
to the output or load resistor
B. noise factor expressed in decibels
C. an unwanted form of energy tending
to interfere with the proper and easy
reception and reproduction of wanted
signals
D. S/N of an ideal system divided by
S/N at the output of the receiver or
amplifier under test, both working at
the same temperature over the same
bandwidth and fed from the same

source
73. Calculated the noise figure of the
amplifier whose Req equals 2518
(RT=600) if its driven by a generator
whose output impedance is 50.
A. 39.4
B. 3.94
C. 394
D. 0.394
74. Calculate the noise figure of the receiver
whose RF amplifier has an input
resistance of 1000 and an equivalent
shot-noise resistance of 2000, a gain of
25 and load resistance of 125 k. Given
that the bandwidth is 1.0MHz and the
temperature is 20C, and that the
receiver is connected to an antenna with
an impedance of 75.
A. 30.3
B. 3.03
C. 303
D. .303
75. A receiver connected to an antenna
whose resistance is 50 has an
equivalent noise resistance of 30.
Calculate its equivalent noise
temperature if the noise figure is equal to
1.6.
A. 17.4 K
B. 174K
C. 1.74K
D. 17K
76. Most internal noise comes from
A. Shot noise
B. Transit-time noise
C. Thermal agitation
D. Skin effect
77. Which of the following is not a source of
external noise?
A. Thermal agitation
B. Auto ignition
C. The sun
D. Fluorescent lights
78. Noise can be reduced by
A. widening the bandwidth
B. narrowing the bandwidth
C. increasing temperature
D. increasing transistor current levels
79. Noise at the input to the receiver can be
as high as several
A. microvolts
B. milivolts
C. volts
D. kilo volts
80. Which circuit contributes most of the
noise in a receiver?
A. IF amplifier
B. Demodulator
C. AF amplifier
D. Mixer
81. Which noise figure represents the lowest
noise in receiver?
A. 1.6 dB
B. 2.1 dB
C. 2.7 dB
D. 3.4 dB
82. The transistor with the lowest noise

figure in the microwave region is a
A. MOSFET
B. Dual-gate MOSFET
C. JFET
D. MESFET
83. What is the noise voltage across a 300
input resistance to a TV set with a 6MHz
bandwidth and temperature of 30C?
A. 2.3 V
B. 3.8V
C. 5.5V
D. 5.4V
84. Which of the following types of noise
becomes of great importance at
frequencies?
A. Shot noise
B. Random noise
C. Impulse noise
D. Transit-time noise
85. The solar cycle repeats the period of
great electrical disturbance
approximately every
A. 11 years
B. 10 years
C. 9 years
D. 8 years
86. The square of the thermal noise voltage
generated by a resistor is proportional to
A. its resistance
B. its temperature
C. the bandwidth over which it is
measured
D. All of the above
87. Noise occurring in the presence of signal

resulting from a mismatch between the
exact value of an analog signal and the
closet available quantizing step in a
digital coder.
A. Quantizing noise
B. Thermal noise
C. Impulse noise
D. Crosstalk
88. Noise consisting of irregular pulses of
short duration and relatively high
amplitude,
A. Quantizing noise
B. Tone interference
C. Impulse noise
D. Cross talk
89. Noise that occurs via capacitive or
inductive coupling in a cable.
A. Crosstalk
B. Quantizing noise
C. Reference noise
D. Tone interference
90. Sources of impulse noise induced in
communication channels.
A. Erroneous digital coding bit caused
by an error on a transmission facility
B. Transients due to relay operation
C. Crosstalk from dc signaling systems
D. All of these
91. Crosstalk due to incomplete suppression
of sidebands or to intermodulation of
two or more frequency-multiplexed
channels which is unintelligible is
classified as
A. Impulse noise
B. Thermal noise
C. Quantizing noise
D. Miscellaneous noise
92. ___________ is device that measures
the internal open circuit voltage of an
equivalent noise generator having an
impedance of 600 and delivering noise
power to a 600 load.
A. Psophometer
B. Barometer
C. Reflectometer
D. Voltmeter
93. External noise originating outside the
solar system
A. Cosmic noise
B. Solar noise
C. Thermal noise
D. Lunar noise
94. A noise whose source is within the solar
system.
A. Solar noise
B. Thermal noise
C. Cosmic noise
D. Johnson Noise
95. The total noise power present in a 1-Hz
bandwidth .
A. Noise density
B. Noise figure
C. Noise limit
D. Noise intensity
96. Which of the following is not a way of
minimizing if not eliminating noise?
A. Use redundancy
B. Increase transmitted power

C. Reduce signaling rate
D. Increase channel bandwidth
97. What is the primary cause of
atmospheric noise?
A. Thunderstorm
B. Lightning
C. Thunderstorm and lightning
D. Weather condition
98. What do you call the noise coming from
the sun and stars?
A. Black-body noise
B. Space noise
C. Galactic noise
D. All of these
99. The major cause of atmospheric or static
noise are
A. Thunderstorms
B. Airplanes
C. Meteor showers
D. All of these
100. Which of the following low noise
transistors is commonly used at
microwave frequencies?
A. MOSFET
B. GASFET
C. MESFET
D. JFET
Satellite Communications Chapter 10(3001

Questions in Communications EngineeringEXCEL REVIEW CENTER
1. Which of the following is the first active
satellite?
A. Echo I
B. Telstar I
C. Early Bird
D. Sputnik I
2. Which of the following is the first
commercial satellite?
A. Early Bird
B. Telstar
C. Explorer
D. Courier
3. What is the first passive satellite
transponder?
A. Sun
B. Early Bird
C. Score
D. Moon
4. The first satellite to receive and transmit
simultaneously
A. Intelsat I
B. Agila I
C. Syncorn I
D. Telstar I
5. A helical antenna is used for satellite
tracking because of
A. circular polarization
B. maneuverability
C. beamwidth
D. gain
6. Repeaters inside communications

satellites are known as
A. Trancievers
B. Transponders
C. Transducers
D. TWT
7. Considered as the unsolved problem in
satellite system
A. Coverage
B. Cost
C. Access
D. Privacy
8. ___________ is a satellite that rotates
around the earth in a low-altitude
elliptical or circular pattern.
A. Geosynchronous satellite
B. Nonsynchronous satellite
C. Prograde satellite
D. Retrograde satellite
9. Is the geographical representation of a
satellite antenna radiation pattern
A. Footprint
B. Spot
C. Earth
D. Region
10. The smallest beam of a satellite antenna
radiation pattern
A. Zone beam
B. Hemispheric beam
C. Spot beam
D. Global beam
11. A satellite beam that covers almost
42.4% of the earths surface.
A. Zone beam
B. Hemispheric beam
C. Spot beam
D. Global beam
12. What is the frequency range of C-band?
A. 8.5 to 12.5 GHz
B. 3.4 to 6.425 GHz
C. 12.95 to 14.95 GHz
D. 27.5 to 31 GHz
13. A satellite signal transmitted from a
satellite transponder to earths station.
A. Uplink
B. Downlink
C. Terrestrial
D. Earthbound
14. Collects very weak signals from a
broadcast satellite
A. Helical antenna
B. Satellite dish
C. LNA
D. TWT
15. What is a device that detects both
vertically and horizontally polarized
signals simultaneously?
A. Orthomode transducer
B. Crystal detector
C. Optoisolator
D. Isomode detector
16. _________ detects the satellite signal
relayed from the feed and converts it to
an electric current, amplifies and lower
its frequency.
A. Horn antenna
B. LNA
C. Satellite receiver
D. Satellite dish
17. Is a loss of power of a satellite downlink
signal due to earths atmosphere.
A. Atmospheric loss
B. Path loss
C. Radiation loss
D. RFI
18. What height must a satellite be placed
above the surface of the earth in order
for its rotation to be equal to earths
rotation?
A. 26,426.4 miles
B. 27,426.4 miles
C. 23,426.4 miles
D. 22,426.4 miles
19. Point on the satellite obits closest to the
earth.
A. Apogee
B. Perigee
C. Prograde
D. Zenith
20. The earth area covered by a satellite
radio beam.
A. Beamwidth
B. Bandwidth
C. Footprint
D. Zone
21. What is the local oscillator (mixer)
frequency of the satellite with an uplink
frequency in GHz band?
A. 3500 MHz
B. 4500 MHz
C. 2225 MHz
D. 2555 MHz
22. What kind of battery panels are used in

some advance satellites
A. Germanium based panels
B. Silicon based panel
C. Galium Phosphate solar panel array
D. Galium Arsenide solar panel array
23. Satellite engine uses
A. jet propulsion
B. ion propulsion system
C. liquid fuel
D. solar jet
24. A satellite batter has more power but
lighter.
A. Lithium
B. Leclanche
C. Hydrogen
D. Magnesium
25. What kind of battery used by older
satellites?
A. Lithium
B. Leclanche
C. Hydrogen
D. Magnesium
26. VSAT was made available in
A. 1979
B. 1981
C. 1983
D. 1977
27. What band does VSAT first operate?
A. L-band
B. X-band
C. C-band
D. Ku-band
28. The first Philippine Mabuhay satellite

has how many channels?
A. 30
B. 24
C. 48
D. 50
29. The first Philippine Agila I will have
how many transpoders.
A. 36
B. 48
C. 24
D. 12
30. How may satellite orbital slots are
requested by the Philippine Government
from ITU?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
31. The location of AsiaSat I.
A. 105.5East
B. 151.5East
C. 115.5East
D. 170.5East
32. AsiaSat I covers how many countries in
Asia?
A. 38
B. 10
C. 28
D. 15
33. The owner of AsiaSat 2 is
A. Asia Satellite Telecommunications
Company (ASTC)
B. Japan Satellite System (JSAT)
C. China Great Wall Industry

Corporation
D. Singapore Satellite Commision
34. What is the approximate path loss from
satellite-to-earth station?
A. 100 dB
B. 150 dB
C. 175 dB
D. 200 dB
35. INTELSAT stands for
A. Intel Satellite
B. International Telephone Satellite
C. International Telecommunications
Satellite
D. International Satellite
36. The frequency of Ku band for satellite
communications.
A. 6/4 GHz
B. 14/11 GHz
C. 12/14 GHz
D. 4/8 GHz
37. A satellite cross-link means
A. Earth-to-satellite link
B. Satellite-to-earth link
C. Satellite-to-satellite link
D. None of these
38. Earth station uses what type of antenna
A. Despun antenna
B. Helical antenna
C. Toroidal antenna
D. Cassegrain antenna
39. What is the delay time for satellite
transmission from earth transmitter to
earth receiver?
A. 0.5 s
B. 1.0 s
C. 5 ms
D. 0.25 ms
40. The bandwidth of C-band satellite
frequency band in U.S.
A. 500 GHz
B. 1000 GHz
C. 1000 MHz
D. 500 MHz
41. The most common device used as an
LNA is
A. zener diode
B. tunnel diode
C. IMPATT
D. Shockley diode
42. The radiation patterns of earth coverage
antennas have a beamwidth of
approxiamately
A. 21
B. 5
C. 17
D. 35
43. A mobile satellite array has usually how
many elements?
A. 6
B. 88
C. 12
D. 14
44. In a typical mobile satellite array
antenna if three elements are activated,
how many elements are deactivated?
A. 3
B. 11
C. 5
D. 9
45. What circuit is responsible in activating
and deactivating adjacent antenna
elements in a mobile satellite array?
A. Radial divider
B. Divider/combiner
C. Radial combiner
D. Radial multiplexer
46. Most mobile satellite array uses
___________ in transforming 50 to 150
impedance.
A. stub
B. balun
C. quarter-wavelength transformer
D. microstrip tapers.
47. The switching from one element to the
other element in a typical mobile
satellite array.
A. Series
B. Radial
C. Matrix
D. Shunt
48. A method of multiple accessing where a
given RF channel bandwidth is divided
inot smaller frequency band.
A. CDMA
B. ANIK-D
C. TDMA
D. FDMA
49. What is the delay time for satellite
transmissions from earth transmitter to
earth receiver?
A. 0.5 s
B. 1s
C. 5 ms
D. 0.25 s
50. As the height of a satellite orbit gets
lower, the speed of the satellite
_________.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. None of the above
51. The main function of a communications
satellite is a/ an
A. repeater
B. reflector
C. beacon
D. observation platform
52. The key electronic component in a
communications satellite is the
A. telemetry equipment
B. on-board computer
C. command and control system
D. transponder
53. A circular orbit around the equator with
a 24-h period is called a/an
A. elliptical orbit
B. geostationary orbit
C. polar orbit
D. transfer orbit
54. A satellite stay in orbit because the
following two factors are balanced
A. Satellite weight and speed
B. Gravitational force and centrifugal
force
C. Centripetal force and speed
D. Satellite weight and the pull of the

moon and sun
55. What is the height of a satellite in a
synchronous equatorial orbit?
A. 42000 mi
B. 6800 mi
C. 22,300 mi
D. 35,860 mi
56. Most satellites operate in which
frequency band?
A. 30 to 300 MHz
B. 300 MHz to 3 GHz
C. 3 GHz to 30 GHz
D. Above 300 GHz
57. The main power sources for a satellite
are
A. batteries
B. solar cells
C. fuel cells
D. thermoelectric generators
58. The maximum height of an elliptical
orbit is called the
A. Perigee
B. Apex
C. Zenith
D. Apogee
59. Batteries are used to power all satellite
subsystems
A. at all times
B. only during emergencies
C. during eclipse periods
D. to give the solar arrays a rest
60. The satellite subsystem that monitors
and controls the satellite is the
A.
B.
C.
D.
propulsion subsystem
power subsystem
communications subsystem
telemetry, tracking, and command
subsystem
61. What is the basic technique used to
stabilize a satellite?
A. Gravity-forward motion balance
B. Spin
C. Thruster control
D. Solar panel orientation
62. The jet thrusters are usually fired to
A. maintain altitude
B. put the satellite into the transfer orbit
C. inject the satellite in the
geosynchronous orbit
D. bring the satellite back to earth.
63. Most commercial satellite activity occurs
in which band(s)?
A. L
B. C and Ku
C. X
D. S and P
64. How can multiple earth stations share a
satellite on the same frequencies?
A. Frequency reuse
B. Multiplexing
C. Mixing
D. Frequency hopping
65. What is the typical bandwidth of a
satellite band?
A. 36 MHz
B. 40 MHz
C. 70 MHz
D. 500 MHz
66. Which of the following is not usually a
part of a transponder are defined by the
A. LNA
B. Mixer
C. Modulator
D. HPA
67. The satellite communications channels
in a transponder are defined by the
A. LNA
B. bandpass filter
C. mixer
D. input signals
68. The HPAs in most satellite are
A. TWTs
B. Klystrons
C. Vacuum tubes
D. Magnetrons
69. The physical location of a satellite is
determined by its
A. distance from the earth
B. latitude and longitude
C. reference to the stars
D. position relative to the sun
70. The receive GCE system in an earth
station performs what function(s)?
A. Modulation and multiplexing
B. Up conversion
C. Demodulation and demultiplexing
D. Down conversion
71. Which of the following types of HPA is
not used in earth stations?
A. TWT
B. Transistor
C. Klystron
D. Magnetron
72. What is the common up-converter and
down-converter IF?
A. 36 MHz
B. 40 MHz
C. 70 MHz
D. 500 MHz
73. What type of modulation is used on
voice and video signals?
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. QPSK
74. What modulation is normally used with
digital data?
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. QPSK
75. Which of the following is not a typical
output from a GPS receiver?
A. Latitude
B. Speed
C. Altitude
D. Longitude
76. The total space loss of transmission and
reception for two ground stations with
uplink frequency 8GHz and a downlink
of 6 GHz with angle of elevations of 3
and 7 A respectively is
A. 403 dB
B. 100 dB
C. 20 dB
D. 215 dB
77. The maximum propagation delay of a
geostationary satellite is
A. 278 ms
B. 239 ms
C. 300 ms
D. 250 ms
78. The total propagation delay time from
transmission to reception of signals from
a ground transmitter to ground receiver
with angle of elevation at 10 degrees
respectively is
A. 273 ms
B. 239 ms
C. 275 ms
D. 260 ms
79. A satellite which simply reflects the
signal without further amplification
A. Passive satellite
B. Active satellite
C. Geostationary satellite
D. Domestic satellite
80. Essentially a satellite ___________ is a
radio repeater in the sky
A. transponder
B. comparator
C. duplexer
D. billboard
81. Satellite the orbits in a circular pattern
with an angular velocity equal to that of
the earth
A. Geostationary
B. Early Bird I
C. Syncorn I
D. Stationary satellite
82. Satellite that provide services within a
single country
A. Domsat
B. Comsat
C. Regional
D. Global
83. The round-trip propagation delay
between two earth stations through a
geosynchronous satellite is
A. 500 to 600 ms
B. 300 to 400 ms
C. 600 to 700 ms
D. 400 to 500 ms
84. The signal path from earth station
satellite
A. Uplink signal
B. Reflected signal
C. Incident signal
D. Downlink signal
85. Designed to receive a signal from a
transmitting station on the ground and
retransmit it to a receiving station
located elsewhere
A. Communication satellite
B. Repeater
C. Relay station
D. Transponder
86. The signal path from satellite to earthbased receiver.
A. Downlink signal
B. Uplink signal
C. Incident signal
D. Reflected signal
87. A satellite position is measured by its

__________ angle with respect to the
horizon.
A. elevation
B. depression
C. azimuth
D. critical
88. The ________ angle measures the
satellite position clockwise from the
direction of true north.
A. azimuth
B. elevation
C. depression
D. critical
89. incidentally propose the geostationary
scheme or orbit of the satellite in 1940s
A. Arthur Clarke
B. Carl Friedrich Gauss
C. Samuel Morse
D. Stephen Gray
90. When the satellite are spaced 4 of the
360 complete circle, how many parking
spaces or orbit slots are available?
A. 90
B. 85
C. 95
D. 80
91. The control routine necessary to keep the
satellite in position is referred to as
A. station keeping
B. station tracking
C. station monitoring
D. station maintaining
92. Refers to the satellite orientation with

respect to the earth
A. Satellite altitude
B. Satellite position
C. Satellite location
D. Satellite orbit
93. The first intelsat satellite that was
launched in 1965 was named
A. Early Bird I
B. Echo
C. Telstar I
D. Courier
94. The first satellite launched for a
geosynchronous orbit but unfortunately
lost during orbit injection
A. Syncom I
B. Telstar I
C. Sputnik I
D. Early Bird I
95. When the elevation angle of a
geostationary satellite is 23 and the
transmitting frequency is 3840 MHz,
what is the free space loss in dB?
A. 196 dB
B. 200 dB
C. 150 dB
D. 100 dB
96. What is the propagation delay when a
signal is transmitter by an earth station
to a geosynchronous satellite about
38,500 km above earths equator and
then received by the same earth station?
A. 256 msec
B. 128 msec
C. 300 msec
D. 400 msec
97. What is the free space attenuation of a
satellite communications system
operating at 36,000 km above the earth
at 5.0 GHz?
A. 198 dB
B. 202 dB
C. 142 dB
D. 138 dB
98. Which of the following is the most
common application of satellite?
A. Surveillance
B. Military application
C. Communications
D. Newscasting
99. Descending pass for a satellite means a
pass from
A. North to South
B. South to North
C. East to West
D. West to East
100. Geostationary stationary satellites are
located ___________ with respect to the
equator.
A. 0longitude
B. 0 latitude
C. 90latitude
D. 45 latitude
3001 Questions in Communications Engineering

EXCEL REVIEW CENTER
Chapter 6 - Antennas
1. What is the polarization of a discone antenna?
A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Circular
D. Spiral
2. If the antenna increases 3.3 times how much
does the radiated power increase?
A. 3.3 times
B. 10.89 times
C. 9.9 times
D. 6.6 times
3. When speaking of antennas. ______ is a
section which would be a complete antenna by
itself.
A. image
B. top loading
C. bay
D. quarterwave
4. In what range of frequencies are most
omnidirectional horizontally polarized antennas
used?
A. VHF, UHF
B. VLF, LF
C. SH, EHF
D. MF, HF
5. If the current ratios of the two or more
elements must be held 5% and the phase angle
to 3 the antenna is called a
A. end fire array
B. critical phased array
C. broadband array
D. wideband array
C. Beamwidth
D. Bandwidth
6. A device that converts high frequency current

into electromagnetic wave.
12. In testing transmitter to prevent interfering
A. Antenna
with other stations, which type of antenna must
B. Loudspeaker
be used?
C. Microphone
A. Void antenna
D. Transducer
B. Dummy antenna
C. Hertzian antenna
7. Which is a non-resonant antenna?
D. Isotropic antenna
A. Rhombic antenna
B. Folded dipole
13. The best solution to fading is _____.
C. End-fire array
A. space diversity
D. Yagi-Uda antenna
B. frequency diversity
C. polarization diversity
8. Gain of a half-wave dipole antenna over
D. wavelength diversity
isotropic.
A. 2.15 dB
14. _____ is the amount of uncertainty in a
B. 1.76 dB
system of symbols
C. 1 dB
A. Bandwidth
D. 0dB
B. Enthalpy
C. Entropy
9. Very low signal strength in antenna.
D. Quantum
A. Minor lobes
B. Null
C. Antenna patterns
D. Major lobes
15. If an antenna has a gain of 3 dB, it increases
10. What is the gain of the Hertzian dipole over the output of the transmitter by
isotropic antenna?
A. 10,000 times
A. 1.64 dB
B. 1000 times
B. 2.15 dB
C. 100 times
C. 1.76 dB
D. 1 million times
D. 1.55 dB
16. Top loading is used in an antenna in order to
11. ______ is the measurement of a unilateral
increase its ______.
antenna properties of directivity
A. practical height
A. Phase angle
B. beamwidth
B. Antenna gain
C. effective height
D. input capacitance
17. A horizontal antenna is _____.
A. vertically polarized
B. horizontally polarized
C. centrally polarized
D. circularly polarized
18. All elements in a beam _____ antennas are
in line
A. collinear
B. yagi
C. broadside array
D. log-periodic
19. Which does not use vertical polarization
antenna?
A. AM Broadcasting
B. FM Broadcasting
C. Mobile Communications
D. Satellite Communications
20. Lightning rods must be mounted a top
structure not less than ___ above the highest
point.
A. 10 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 40 cm
21. _____ is an antenna with a number of halfwave antenna on it.
A. Antenna array
B. Tower
C. Omni-directional
D. Rhombic
22. Which antenna radiates an omnidirectional

pattern in the horizontal plane with vertical
polarization?
A. Marconi antenna
B. Discone antenna
C. Horn antenna
D. Helical antenna
23. An antenna with very high gain and very
narrow beamwidth.
A. Helical antenna
B. Discone antenna
C. Horn antenna
D. Parabolic dish antenna
24. What determines antenna polarization?
A. The frequency of the radiated wave
B. The direction of the radiated wave
C. The direction of the magnetic field
vector
D. The direction of the electric field
vector
25. _____ is the horizontal pointing angle of an
antenna
A. Azimuth
B. Angle of elevation
C. Right angle
D. Beamwidth
B. 2.6
C. 1.81
D. 4.24
27. What is the estimated medium wind loading
in the Philippines for antenna tower design?
A. 300 kph
B. 100 kph
C. 200 kph
D. 250 kph
28. Discone radiation pattern is ______.
A. omnidirectional/vertical polarized
B. unidirectional
C. bidirectional
D. figure of eight
29. _____ is an open-ended slot antenna
A. Helical antenna
B. Rhombic antenna
C. Notch antenna
D. Cassegrain antenna
30. Which antenna is a properly terminated?
A. Marconi
B. Rhombic
C. Dipole
D. Yagi-Uda
31. What is the radiation characteristic of a

dipole antenna?
26. A dipole antenna requires to be fed with 20
A. Omnidirectional
kW of power to produce a given signal strength
B. Bidirectional
to a particular distant point. If the addition of a
C. Unidirectional
reflector makes the same field strength available
D. Hemispherical
with an input power of 11kW. What is the gain
in dB, obtained by the use if the reflector. (Gain 32. What is the theoretical gain of a Hertzian
referred to this particular dipole).
dipole?
A. 4.75
A. 1.76 dB
B. 2.15 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 0 dB
33. An antenna with unity gain
A. Rhombic
B. Half-wave dipole
C. Isotropic
D. Whip
34. How will you increase the gain of an
antenna?
A. By adding several antennas in parallel
B. By focusing the radiated energy in
one desired direction
C. By making antenna rods thicker
D. By making the antenna size larger
35. An antenna which is one-tenth wavelength
long
A. Hertzian dipole
B. Loop antenna
C. Marconi antenna
D. Elementary doublet
36. What is the minimum number of turns a

helix antenna must have?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6
37. What is the gain of isotropic antenna?
A. 10
B. 1
C. 10
D. 100
38. Which of the following improves antenna
directivity?
A. Driven element
B. Reflector element
C. Director element
D. Parasitic element
39. The antenna radiates _____ polarized waves
when the transmitter antenna is horizontally
installed.
A. Vertically
B. negatively
C. horizontally
D. circularly
D. Polarization
43. If the radiated power increase 10.89 times,

the antenna current increases by ______.
A. 3.3 times
B. 6.6 times
C. 1.82 times
D. 10.89 times
44. The frequency of operation of a dipole
antenna cut to a length of 3.4 m.
A. 88 MHz
B. 44 MHz
C. 22 MHz
D. 11 MHz
48. Shortening effect of an antenna that makes it

appear as if it were 5% longer.
A. End effect
B. Flywheel effect
C. Skin effect
D. Capture effect
49. Harmonic suppressor connected to an
antenna.
A. Low-pass filter
B. High-pass filter
C. M-derived filter
D. Constant-K
45. Comparing the signal strength arriving at the

driven element from the desired direction to the 50. A simple half-wavelength antenna radiates
signal strength reaching the driver from the
the strongest signal
opposite direction.
A. at 45 degrees to its axis
A. Directivity
B. parallel to its axis
B. Sensitivity
C. at right angles to its axis
C. Beamwidth
D. at 60 degrees to its axis
D. Front-to-back ratio
41. What is the front-to-back ratio of an antenna
51. The current maximum in a Marconi antenna
which radiates 500 watts in a northernly
46. What is the capture area of a dipole operated is found at
direction and 50 watts in a southernly direction? at 75 MHz?
A. the base of the antenna
A. 25000 dB
A. 4 mm
B. the center of the antenna
B. 10 dB
B. 2 m2
C. some point between the base and the
2
C. 100 dB
C. 2.088 m
center of the antenna
D. 20 dB
D. 4.088 m2
D. the top of the antenna
40. The length of a Marconi antenna to operate
with 985 kHz is ______.
A. 200 ft
B. 500 ft
C. 250 ft
D. 999 ft
42. If 4 kW in antenna produces 50 V/m in a

receiving antenna, a 15 kW will produce _____.
A. 200 V/m
B. 10 V/m
C. 100 V/m
D. 20 V/m
47. _____ of an antenna is a measure of how the 52. If an antenna is too short for the wavelength
antenna concentrates its radiated power in a
being used, the effective length can be increased
given direction.
by adding:
A. Efficiency
A. capacitance in series
B. Power
B. inductance in series
C. Gain
C. resistance in parallel
D. resistance in series
53. Which of the following antennas is used for
testing and adjusting a transmitter for proper
modulation, amplifier operation and frequency
accuracy?
A. Elementary
B. Real
C. Isotropic
D. Dummy
57. Which of the following antennas receive

signals in the horizontal plane equality well
from all directions?
A. Horizontal Hertz antenna
B. Vertical loop antenna
C. Vertical Yagi antenna
D. A vertical antenna which is a quarterwavelength long
58. If the length of a Hertz dipole is decreased

A. its resonant frequency will be
54. The power fed to a two-bay turnstile antenna lowered its distributed inductance will be
is 100 watts. If the antenna has a 2 dB power
increased
gain, what is the effective radiated power?
B. its distributed inductance will be
A. 317 watts
decreased
B. 158 watts
C. its resonant frequency will be
C. 200 watts
increased
D. 400 watts
D. its distributed capacitance between
the antenna and ground will be increased.
55. What is the gain, in dB of a helical antenna
with diameter of /3, 10 turns at pitch of /4,
59. A final amplifier of a radio transmitter
used at 100 MHz?
draws 250 mA of plate current when the plate
A. 16
supply voltage is 1400 volts. If the plate circuit
B. 41.1
efficiency is 80% and the transmitter is
C. 31.4
connected to an antenna having a feed
D. 1.25
impedance of 70 ohms, what is the antenna
current at the feed-point?
56. How is it possible to lower the resonant
A. 4.0 A
frequency of Hertz dipole antenna?
B. 2.2 A
A. By reducing the frequency at the
C. 1.25 A
transmitter
D. 2.0 A
B. By connecting a capacitor in series
with the antenna
60. A one-quarter wavelength shunt-fed vertical
C. By the connecting a resistor in series Marconi antenna
with the antenna
A. has maximum radiation in a vertical
D. By connecting an inductor in series
direction
with the antenna
B. must have a horizontal receiving
antenna for the best reception
C. must use a receiving antenna for the

best reception
D. must have a vertical receiving
antenna for the best reception
61. A shunt-fed quarter-wavelength Marconi
antenna
A. has maximum RF impedance to
ground at its feedpoint
B. has a current null at its feedpoint
C. has a zero DC resistance to ground
D. has zero RF resistance to ground
62. The parasitic element of an antenna system
will
A. decrease its directivity
B. increase its directivity
C. give the antenna unidirectional
properties
D. both B and C
63. If the length of an antenna is changed from
2.5 meters to 2.8 meters, its resonant frequency
will
A. increase
B. depend on the velocity factor so the
resonant frequency can either be increased or
decreased
C. will be unchanged
D. decrease
64. What is the effect of adding a capacitor in
series with an antenna?
A. The antennas resonant frequency
will increase
B. The antennas resonant frequency will
decrease
C. The antenna will be physically 5%
longer than its electrical length
D. A capacitor is never added in series

with an antenna
A. vertical loop
B. vertical quarter-wavelength rod
C. array which includes parasitic
65. How does the electric field strength of a
elements
standard broadcast station vary with the distance
D. a horizontal Hertz dipole
from the antenna?
A. The field strength of a standard
69. What is the electrical wavelength of a 500
broadcast station vary with the distance from the MHz signal?
antenna
A. 60 centimeters
B. The field strength is directly
B. 6 meters
proportional to the distance from the antenna
C. 0.06 meter
C. The field strength remains constant
D. 60 meters
regardless of the distance from the antenna
D. The field strength varies inversely as 70. If the antenna current is doubled, the field
the distance from the antenna
strength at a particular position is
A. doubled
66. Stacking elements in a transmitting antenna
B. halved
system
C. multiplied by a factor of four
A. increases the field strength at the
D. divided by a factor of four
receiving antenna
B. increases the directivity of the
transmitter antenna
71. The rhombic antenna is primarily used for
C. decrease the size of the lobe in the
A. ground wave propagation
radiation pattern
B. space wave propagation
D. both A and B
C. ionosphere scatter propagation
D. sky wave propagation
67. A vertical loop antenna has a
A. unidirectional radiation pattern in the 72. What antenna radiates equally in all
horizontal plane
directions?
B. unidirectional radiation pattern in the
A. Vertical antenna
vertical plane
B. isotropic antenna
C. omnidirectional radiation pattern in
C. Horizontal antenna
the horizontal plane
D. Dipole antenna
D. a bidirectional radiation pattern in the
horizontal plane
73. Actual height of antenna should be at least
A. one wavelength
68. In order to get maximum radiation to all
B. half wavelength
surrounding points in the horizontal plane, the
C. quarter wavelength
antenna used is a
D. three-fourth wavelength
74. Which antenna is not properly terminated?

A. Resonant
B. Non-resonant
C. Isotropic
D. Whip
75. ______ is an antenna array which is highly
directional at right angles to the plane of the
array?
A. Broadside array
B. End-fire array
C. Turnstile array
D. Log-periodic array
76. The directivity pattern of an isotropic
radiator is
A. a figure-8
B. a sphere
C. a unidirectional cardioid
D. a parabola
77. An isotropic radiator is
A. in the northern hemisphere
B. an antenna high enough in the air
C. an antenna whose directive pattern is
substantially incredible
D. a hypothetical, omnidirectional
antenna
78. The purpose of stacking elements on an

antenna.
A. Sharper directional pattern
B. increased gain
C. Improved bandpass
D. All of these
D. coil
79. The advantage of using top loading in a
shortened HF vertical antenna is
A. lower quality factor
B. greater structural strength
C. higher losses
D. improved radiation efficiency
80. Where are the voltage nodes in a half-wave
antenna?
A. At the ends
B. Three-quarters of the way from the
feed point toward the end
C. One-half of the way from the feed
point toward the end
D. At the feed point
84. Increasing the electrical length of an antenna

means
89. What is the gain of an antenna over a halfA. add an inductor in parallel
wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over
B. add a capacitor in series
an isotropic radiator?
C. add an inductor series
A. 6.0 dB
D. add a resistor is series
B. 8.1 dB
C. 3.9 dB
D. 10.0 dB
85. Stacking antennas at various angles results

in
A. a more omnidirectional reception
B. a more unidirectional reception
C. a more omnidirectional reception
D. an overall reception signal increase
81. A theoretical reference antenna that provides

a comparison for antenna measurements.
86. What is driven element?
A. Marconi antenna
A. Always the rearmost element
B. Isotropic radiator
B. Always the forward most element
C. Yagi-Uda array
C. The element fed by the transmission
D. Whip antenna
line
D. The element connected to the rotator
82. A Hertz antenna is operating on a frequency
of 2182 kHz and consists of a horizontal wire
87. What is antenna bandwidth?
that is hanged between two towers. What is the
A. Antenna length divided by the
frequency of its third harmonic?
number of elements
A. 727 kHz
B. The angle between the half-power
B. 6546 kHz
radiation points
C. 436 kHz
C. The angle formed between two
D. 6.546 kHz
imaginary lines drawn through
D. The frequency range over which an
83. In horizontal-dipole antenna, the
antenna can be expected to operate satisfactorily
polarization is
A. in the vertical direction
88. To lengthen an antenna electrically, add a
B. in the horizontal direction
A. resistor
C. circular
B. battery
D. measured at the center of the antenna
C. condult
90. What is the usual electrical length of a

driven element in an HF beam antenna?
A. wavelength
B. wavelength
C. wavelength
D. 1 wavelength
91. What happens to the bandwidth of an
antenna as it is shortened through the use of
loading coils?
A. It is increased
B. It is decreased
C. No change occurs
D. It becomes flat
92. To electrically decrease the length of an

antenna.
A. add an inductor in series
B. add an inductor in parallel
C. add a resistor in series
D. add a capacitor in series
93. Strong interference from one particular
station can be eliminated by the use of
A. noise limiters
B. squelch circuits
C. negative feedback
D. wave traps in the antenna circuitry

94. It is useful to refer to an isotropic radiator.
A. when comparing the gains of
directional antennas
B. when testing a transmission line for
standing wave ratio
C. when (in the northern hemisphere)
directing the transmission
D. when using a dummy load to tune a
transmitter
B. At the center
C. Three-quarters of the way from the
feed point toward the end
D. One-half of the way from the feed
point toward the end
99. For a shortened vertical antenna, where

should a loading coil be placed to minimize
losses and produce the most effective
performance?
A. As low as possible on the vertical
radiator
B. Near the center of the vertical radiator
C. As close to the transmitter as possible
D. At a voltage node
103. The antenna efficiency of an HF grounded

vertical antenna can be made comparable to that
of a half-wave antenna
A. By installing a good ground radial
system
B. By isolating the coax shield from
ground
C. By shortening the vertical
D. By lengthening the vertical
104. An antenna efficiency is computed by

95. A disadvantage of using a trap antenna.
using one of the following equations.
A. It will radiate harmonics
A. Efficiency = (radiation resistance /
B. It can only be used for single-bad
transmission resistance)
operation
B. Efficiency = (total resistance /
C. It is too sharply directional at lower
radiation resistance) x 100%
frequencies
C. Efficiency = (effective radiated power
D. It must be neutralized
/ transmitter output) x 100%
100. The effect of adding parasitic elements of a
D. Efficiency = (radiation resistance /
96. The input terminal impedance at the center
Hertz dipole is to
total resistance) x 100%
of a folded dipole antenna is
A. make the antenna more
A. 72
omnidirectional
105. Increasing the resonant frequency of an
B. 300
B. reduce its resonant frequency
end-fed Marconi antenna can be done by
C. 50
C. increase the antennas power gain
A. adding a capacitor in series and
D. 73
D. All of these
reducing the physical length
B. adding an inductor in series
97. When a capacitor is connected in series with 101. Stacking antenna elements
C. adding an inductor in series
a Marconi antenna?
A. increases sensitivity to weak signals
D. All of these
A. Antenna open circuit stops
B. will suppress odd harmonics
transmission
C. decrease signal to noise ratio
B. An inductor of equal value must be
D. increases selectivity
added
106. Factors that determine the radiation
C. No change occurs to antenna
102. In the case if Marconi antenna, the actual
resistance of an antenna
D. Antenna resonant frequency increases length if the radiating element is
A. Transmission line length and height
A. one-half wavelength
of antenna
98. Where are the current nodes in a half-wave
B. one-quarter wavelength
B. The location of the antenna with
antenna?
C. one wavelength
respect to nearby objects
A. At the ends
D. one-eight wavelength
C. It is a constant for all antennas since it 112. Which of the following antennas is best
is physical
excited from a waveguide?
D. Sunspot activity and the time of day
A. Biconical
B. Horn
107. _____ is the angle between the half-power
C. Helical
radiation points
D. Discone
A. Critical angle
B. Beamwidth
C. Angle of elevation
D. Azimuth
B. provision of an earth for the antenna

C. protection of personnel working
underneath
D. improvement of the radiation pattern
of the antenna
117. One of the following makes an antenna

physically long but electrically short
A. Adding L in series
B. Adding C in series
C. Top loading
108. What is the ratio of the maximum radiation 113. Indicate which of the following reasons for
D. Both A and C
intensity to the average radiation intensity?
using metal counterpoise with antennas is false.
A. Aperture gain
A. Impossibly of a good ground
118. When antennas are closed to the ground,
B. Directivity gain
connection
_______ polarization is ideal
C. Transmission gain
B. Protection of personnel working
A. horizontally polarized
D. Power gain
underneath
B. vertically polarized
C. Provision of an earth for the antenna
C. circularly polarized
109. Good grounding is important for
D. Rockiness of the ground itself
D. both A and B
A. horizontal antennas
B. broadside array antennas
114. Not a reason for the use of an antenna
119. _____ is an antenna made up of a number
C. vertical antennas
coupler.
of full wavelengths
D. Yagi-Uda antennas
A. To make the antenna look resistive
A. Elementary doublet
B. To provide the output amplifier with
B. Log-periodic
110. An ungrounded antenna near the ground
the correct load impedance
C. Long wire
A. acts as a single antenna of twice the
C. To discriminate against harmonics
D. Whip
height
D. To prevent re-radiation of the local
B. is unlikely to need an earth mat
oscillator
C. acts as antenna array
D. must be horizontally polarized
115. Which antenna is not a wideband?
A. Discone
120. Any energy which radiates in the form of
111. One of the following is very useful as a
B. Folded dipole
radio waves, infrared waves, light waves, xmultiband HF receiving antenna.
C. Helical
rays, etc.
A. Parabolic antenna
D. Marconi
A. Radiant energy
B. Elementary doublet
B. Electromagnetic
C. Log-periodic
116. One of the following is not a reason for the
C. Heat
D. Square loop
use of an earth mat
D. Ultraviolet
A. impossibility of a good ground
connection
121. Which one is an antenna coupling unit?
A. Coupler
B. Diplexer
C. Lecher wire
D. Duplexer
122. _____ polarization is employed in AM
broadcasting
A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Circular
D. Omnidirectional
123. ______ polarization is employed in FM
broadcasting
A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Circular
D. Bidirectional
124. Which antenna is not grounded at one end?
A. Hertz
B. Marconi
C. Dipole
D. Whip
125. Which antenna does not use the ground?
A. Marconi
B. Yagi
C. Hertz
D. Rhombic
OPTICAL FIBER COMMUNICATIONS

1. Founded the wave theory of light
a. Francesco Grimaldi
b. Edward Appleton
c. James Clerk Maxwell
d. Christian Huygens
2. Proposed the use of clad glass fiber as a

dielectric waveguide
a. Karpon and Keck
b. Karpon and Bockham
c. Bockham and Kao
d. Kao and Keck
3. Developed the first laser

a. Charles Townes
b. Theodore Maiman
c. Gordon McKenzie
d. Albert Einstein
4. The band of light wavelengths that are

too long to be seen by the human eye
a. Amber
b. Visible
c. Infrared
d. Ultraviolet
5. The band of light wavelengths that are

too short to be seen by the human eye
a. Amber
b. Visible
c. Infrared
d. Ultraviolet
6. Which color has the shortest wavelength

of light?
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Blue
d. Green
7. What generates a light beam of a

specific visible frequency?
a. Laser
b. Maser
c. Infrared
d. Flashlight
8. Which of the following materials is

sensitive to light?
a. Photoresist
b. Photosensitive
c. Light Sensitive
d. Maser
9. The core of an optical fiber has a

a. Lower refracted index than air
b. Lower refractive index than the

cladding
c. Higher refractive index than the
cladding
d. Similar refractive index with the
cladding
13. If a mirror is used to reflect light, the

reflected light angle is ____ as the
incident angle
a. Smaller
b. Larger
c. The same
d. Independent
17. Fiber optic cables operate at frequencies

near
a. 20MHz
b. 200MHz
c. 2GHz
d. 800THz
10. Is the different angle of entry of light

into an optical fiber when the diameter
of the core is many times the wavelength
of the light transmitted.
a. Acceptance angle
b. Modes
c. Sensors
d. Aperture
18. When a beam of light enters one

medium from another, which quantity
will not change?
a. Direction
b. Speed
c. Frequency
d. Wavelength
14. What is a specific path the light takes in

an optical fiber corresponding to a
certain angle and number of reflection
a. Mode
b. Grade
c. Numerical Aperture
d. Dispersion
11. The loss in signal power as light travels

down a fiber is called
a. Dispersion
b. Scattering
c. Absorption
d. Attenuation
15. Is the width of the range of wavelengths

emitted by the light source
a. Bandwidth
b. Chromatic Dispersion
c. Spectral width
d. Beamwidth
19. Dispersion is used to describe the

a. Splitting of white light into its
component colors
b. Propagation of light in straight lines
c. Bending of a beam of light when it
goes from one medium to another
d. Bending of a beam light when it
strikes a mirror
12. The bandwidth of optical fiber

a. 900MHz
b. 900PHz
c. 900THz
d. 900EHz
16. Which theory states that the light wave

behaves as if it consists of many tiny
particles?
a. Huygens theory
b. Wave theory of light
c. Nyquist theory
d. Quantum theory
20. Luminance efficiency is minimum for a

a. Fluorescent tube
b. High wattage light bulb
c. Mercury vapor lamp
d. Low wattage light bulb
21. An object farther from a converging lens

than its focal point always has a/an
_____ image.
a. Inverted
b. The same in size
c. Virtual
d. Smaller size
22. An object nearer to a converging lens

than its focal point always has a/an
______ image.
a. Inverted
b. The same in size
c. Virtual
d. Smaller size
23. The real image formed by a spherical

mirror is ____ relative to its object
a. Erect
b. Inverted
c. Smaller
d. Larger
24. The wavelength of light has no role in

a. Diffraction
b. Interference
c. Polarization
d. Reflection
25. Longitudinal waves do not exhibit

a. Polarization
b. Refraction
c. Reflection
d. Diffraction
26. ________ dispersion is caused by the

difference in the propagation times of
light rays that take different paths down
a fiber.
a. Material dispersion
b. Wavelength dispersion
c. Modal dispersion
d. Delay dispersion
27. What is the average insertion loss of

fusion splice in fiber optics?
a. 0.09dB
b. 0.9dB
c. 0.19dB
d. 0.009dB
28. What is the insertion loss of connectortype splices for a single mode fiber
optics?
a. 0.51dB
b. 0.31dB
c. 0.49dB
d. 0.38dB
29. What is the lifetime of LEDs?

a. 200,000 minutes
b. 200,000 hours
c. 150,000 minutes
d. 150,000 hours
30. What is the lifetime of ILDs?

a. 50,000 hours
b. 75,000 hours
c. 100,000 hours
d. 125,000 hours
31. Photodiodes used as fiber optic directors

are
a. Unbiased to generate a voltage same
as a solar cell
b. Forward bias
c. Reversed bias
d. Thermoelectrically cooled
32. What type of fiber has the highest modal

dispersion?
a. Step-index multimode
b. Graded index multimode
c. Step-index single mode
d. Graded index mode
33. Laser light is ______ emission.

a. Coherent
b. Stimulated
c. Spontaneous
d. Coherent and stimulated
34. A dielectric waveguide for the

propagation of electromagnetic energy at
light frequencies
a. Stripline
b. Microstrip
c. Laser beam
d. Fiber optics
35. Is a non-coherent light source foe optical

a. ILD
b. LED
c. APD
d. PIN Diode
36. Which type of laser is the simplest to

modulate directly by changing its
excitation?
a. Semiconductor
b. Ruby
c. Helium-neon
d. Neodymium-YAG
37. Which laser emits light in the visible

range 400 to 700 nm?
a. Argon-ion
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon-dioxide
d. Neodymium-YAG
38. Which is the proper measurement of

average power emitted by a pulsed laser?
a. Energy x time
b. Pulse energy x repetition rate
c. Pulse energy / repetition rate
d. Peak power x pulse length
39. What is the photon energy for an

infrared wave with frequency of 1012
Hz?
a. 10.6 x 1034 joules
b. 6.63 x 10-34 joules
c. 6.63 x 10-22 joules
d. 10.6 x 1022 joules
40. A positive lens with a focal length of 10

cm forms a real image of an object 20
am away from the lens. How far is the
real image from the lens?
a. 5 cm
b. 10 cm
c. 15 cm
d. 20 cm
41. Which of the following factor does not

harm laser efficiency?
a. Atmospheric absorption
b. Excitation energy not absorbed
c. Problems in depopulating the lower
laser level
d. Inefficiency in populating the upper
laser level
42. Which of the following contributes to

the broadening of laser emission
bandwidth?
a. Doppler shift of moving atoms and
molecules
b. Amplification within the laser
medium
c. Coherence of the laser light
d. Optical pumping of the laser
transition
43. The first laser emitted

a. Pulses of 694 nm red light
b. A continuous red beam
c. Pulses of white light from a helical
flashlamp
d. Spontaneous emission
44. What is the stage of the sand becoming a

silicon?
a. Liquid
b. Gas
c. Molten
d. Hot
45. Which of the following is used as an

optical transmitter on the Fiber Optical
Communications?
a. APD
b. LSA diode
c. PIN diode
d. LED

optical receiver in fiber optics
communications
a. APD
b. Tunnel diode
c. Laser diode
d. LED
47. The numerical aperture of a fiber if the

angle of acceptance is 15 degrees, is
a. 017
b. 0.26
c. 0.50
d. 0.75
48. The inner portion of the fiber cable is

called
a. Cladding
b. Coating
c. Inner conductor
d. Core
49. Which type of laser is the simplest to

modulate directly by changing its
excitation?
a. Semiconductor
b. Ruby
c. Helium-neon
d. Neodymium-YAG
50. The laser frequency when the light has

the wavelength 800 nm is
a. 375 x 10^12 Hz
b. 475 x 10^15 Hz
c. 375 x 10^9 Hz
d. 375 x 10^18 Hz
51. Which of the following is not a common

application of fiber-optic cable?
a. Computer networks
b. Long-distance telephone systems
c. Closed circuit TV
d. Consumer TV
52. Total internal reflection takes place if the

light ray strikes the interface at an angle
with what relationship to the critical
angle?
a. Less than
b. Grater than
c. Equal to
d. Zero
53. The operation of the fiber-optic cable is

based on the principle of
a. Refraction
b. Reflection
c. Dispersion
d. Absorption

type of fiber-optic cable?
a. Single-mode step-index
b. Multimode graded-index
c. Single-mode graded-index
d. Multimode step-index
57. The upper pulse rate and information

carrying capacity of a cable is limited by
a. Pulse shortening
b. Attenuation
c. Light leakage
d. Modal dispersion
58. The core of a fiber optic cable is made of

a. Air
b. Glass
c. Diamond
d. Quartz
59. The core of a fiber optic is surrounded

by
a. Wire braid shield
b. Kevlar
c. Cladding
d. Plastic insulation
55. Cable attenuation is usually expressed in

terms of
a. Loss per foot
b. dB/km
c. intensity per mile
d. voltage drop per inch
60. The speed of light in plastic compared to

the speed of light in air is
a. Slower
b. Faster
c. The same
d. Either lower or faster
56. Which of the cable length has the

highest attenuation?
a. 1 km
b. 2 km
c. 95 ft
d. 5500 ft
61. Which of the following is not a major

benefit of fiber-optic cable?
a. Immunity from interference
b. No electrical safety problems
c. Excellent data security
d. Lower cost
d. Multimode graded-index
62. The main benefit of light-wave
communications over microwaves or any
other communications media is
a. Lower cost
b. Better security
c. Wider bandwidth
d. Freedom from interference
67. The ratio of speed of light in air to the

speed of light in another substance is
called the
a. Speed factor
b. Index of reflection
c. Index of refraction
d. Dielectric constant
63. Which of the following is not part of the

optical spectrum?
a. Infrafed
b. Ultraviolet
c. Visible color
d. X-rays
68. A popular light wavelength in fiber-optic

cable is
a. 0.7 um
b. 1.3 um
c. 1.5 um
d. 1.8 um
64. The wavelength of visible light extends

from
a. 0.8 to 1.0 nm
b. 400 to 750 nm
c. 200 to 660 nm
d. 700 to 1200 nm
69. Which type of fiber optic cable is most

widely used?
b. Multimode step-index
65. The speed of light is

a. 186,000 mi/h
b. 300 mi/h
c. 300,000 m/s
d. 300,000,000 m/s
70. Which type of fiber-optic cable is the

best for very high speed data?
66. Refraction is the

a. Bending of light waves
b. Reflection of light waves
c. Distortion of light waves
d. Diffusion of light waves
71. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the

least modal dispersion?
a. Single mode step-index
72. Which of the following is not a factor in

cable light loss?
a. Reflection
b. Absorption
c. Scattering
d. Dispersion
73. A distance of 8 km is the same as

a. 2.5 mi
b. 5 mi
c. 8 mi
d. 12.9 mi
74. A fiber-optic cable has a loss of 15

dB/km. The attenuation in a cable, 100 ft
long is
a. 4.57 dB
b. 9.3 dB
c. 24 dB
d. 49.2 dB
75. Fiber-optic cables with attenuations of

1.8, 3.4, 5.9, and 18 dB are linked
together. The total loss is
a. 7.5 dB
b. 19.8 dB
c. 29.1 dB
d. 650 dB
76. Which light emitter is preferred for high

speed data in a fiber-optic system
a.
b.
c.
d.
Incandescent
LED
Neon
Laser
77. Most fiber-optic light sources emit light

in which spectrum?
a. Visible
b. Infrared
c. Ultraviolet
d. X-ray
78. Both LEDs and ILDs operate correctly

with
a. Forward bias
b. Reverse bias
c. Neither A or B
d. Either A or B
b. Photovoltaic diode
c. Photodiode
d. Avalanche photodiode
82. Which of the following is the fastest

light sensor
a. PIN photodiode
b. Photovoltaic diode
c. Phototransistor
d. Avalanche photodiode
83. Photodiodes operate property with

a. Forward bias
b. Reverse bias
c. Neither A or B
d. Either A or B
79. Single-frequency light is called

a. Pure
b. Intense
c. Coherent
d. Monochromatic
84. The product of the bit rate and distance

of a fiber-optic system is 2 Gbits km/s.
What is the maximum rate at 5 km?
a. 100 Mbits/s
b. 200 Mbits/s
c. 400 Mbits/s
d. 1000 Gbits/s
80. Laser light is very bright because it is

a. Pure
b. White
c. Coherent
d. Monochromatic
85. Which fiber-optic system is better?

a. 3 repeaters
b. 8 repeaters
c. 11 repeaters
d. 20 repeaters
81. Which of the following is NOT a

common light detector
a. PIN photodiode
86. An important requirement for successful

transmission system using light
a. Powerful, reliable light source
b. Strong glass
c. Reliable, high cost transmission
medium
d. Powerful regenerators
87. What is used to block light from a laser

and let other light through
a. Neutral density
b. Color
c. Interference
d. Spatial
88. ________ is a light that can be coherent

a. Spontaneous emission
b. Monochromatic and in-phase
c. Narrow beam divergence
d. Monochromatic
89. Coherence of laser light is important for

_________
a. Light propagation
b. Getting laser light to pass through air
c. Drilling holes
d. Holography
90. The ultrapure glass used to manufacture

optical fibers is approximately ___pure
a. 99.9 %
b. 99.99 %
c. 99.999%
d. 99.9999%
91. In fiber optics, PCS stands for

a. Plastic-clad-silica
b. Polyethylene-clad-silica
c. Personal carrier system
d. Personal communication
92. How many longitudinal modes can fall

within a lasers gain bandwidth?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 9
d. No fixed limit, dependent on
bandwidth and mode spacing
93. _________ is the result of photons of

light that are absorbed by the atoms of
the glass core molecules
a. Ion resonance absorption
b. Ultraviolet absorption
c. Infrared absorption
d. Absorption loss
94. In fiber optics, SCS stands for

a. Suppressed-clad-silicon
b. Silicon base-class-silica
c. Silica-clad-silica
d. Serial-clad-silicon
95. Human laser was developed by A. Javen

at Bell laboratory in
a. 1960
b. 1962
c. 1963
d. 1964
96. What parameter of light detector

determines the range or system length
that can be achieved for a given
wavelength?
a. Transit time
b. Spectral response
c. Dark current
d. Responsitivity
97. Dark current in light detectors is caused

by
a. Thermally generated carriers in the
diode
b. The absence of light input
c. Small leakage current
d. Its imperfection
98. What is the unit of responsitivity?

a. Ampere/volt
b. Ampere/watt
c. Watt/ampere
d. Volts/ampere
99. One of the following is not a

characteristic of light detectors.
a. Responsitivity
b. Spectral response
c. Transmit time
d. Dispersion
100.
What is the typical wavelength of
light emitted from epitaxially grown
LEDs?
a. 840 nm
b. 490 nm
c. 480 nm
d. 940 nm
101.
a.
b.
c.
d.
SONET stands for

System Optical Network
Synchronous Optical Network
Silica Optic Network
System Optical Fiber Net
102.
Band loss is
a. A reduction in transmitter power
caused by earths surface curvature
b. A reduction in strength of the signal
caused by folded dipole bends
c. An attenuation increase caused by
bends radiating from the side of the
fiber
d. All of these
103.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Infrared range for fiber optics

400 700 nm
700 1200 nm
300 2000 nm
400 7000 nm
104.
Which of the following is a
disadvantage for plastic fiber optics?
a. Noise immunity
b. Electric hazards
c. Higher losses
d. All of these
105.
OTDR stands for
a. Optical Time Domain Reflectometer
b. Optical Transmit Direction Return

c. Optical Time Domain Time
Regeneration
d. Overtime Direct Reference
106.
Which of the following is
determined by an OTDR?
a. Distance to trouble
b. Length of fiber
c. Refractive index
d. All of these
107.
Under normal condition, a single
fiber should not be used for a two-way
communication mainly because of
a. Loss
b. Fading
c. Noise
d. Attenuation
108.
A single mode optical fiber has a
core diameter of _____ nm.
a. 0.1
b. 0.01
c. 0.2
d. 0.05
109.
A step-index multimode optical
fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm.
a. 0.02
b. 0.2
c. 2
d. 0.002
110.
The graded-index multimode
optical fiber has a core diameter of
_____ nm.
a. 0.5
b. 0.05
c. 0.0005
d. 5
111.
Which is not a possible cause of
optical fiber loss?
a. Impurities
b. Glass attenuation
c. Stepped index operation
d. Microbending
112.
The ratio of the speed of light in
a vacuum and the speed of light in the
material used.
a. S/N ratio
b. Refractive index
c. Intermodal dispersion
d. Monomode ratio
113.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Splicing fibers means

Fusion
Butt
Glue
Both fusion and butt
114.
An IC that represents a short
distance one-way optical
communications
a. Optoisolator
b. Insulator
c. Multivibrator
d. Optical IC
115.
When light strikes a flat polished
end of a fiber, it produces a loss of
a. 14 %
b. 4 %
c. 10 %
d. 1 %
116.
When light strikes a flat polished
end of a fiber, the fiber loss produced
can be reduced by
a. Splicing
b. Antireflection coating
c. Insulation jacket
d. All of these
117.
In fiber optics, higher-order
mode refers to
a. Cladding boundary at high angle
b. Backscattering electromagnetic
signals
c. Diffracting signals
d. All of these
118.
The following are the cause of
light attenuation in fiber optics except
a. Backscattering
b. Absorption
c. Refraction
d. Microbends
119.
Why are visible-light LEDs not
used for fiber optics?
a. It has high losses
b. It has short wave
c. It has low attenuation
d. It has weak signal
120.
a.
b.
c.
d.
121.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Optical cable testers are used for

Checking refractive index
Light power out of a fiber
Non-calibrated light into a fiber
Checking maximum distance
covered
A function of an optic isolator

Cancels reflective waves
Amplifies signal transmitted
Filters unnecessary signals
All of these
122.
An increase in light intensity
produces fast optic switching due to
a. Increase in index of glass
b. Amplification of optical signal
c. High gain
d. Photoconductivity
123.
Light traveling in optical fiber
follows which of the following
principles.
a. Huygens principle
b. Reflection theory
c. Light theory
d. Snell;s law
124.
Optical fibers for
telecommunications are typically about
_____ mils thick and consists of a glass
core, a glass cladding of lower index of
refraction, and a protective coating
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
125.
Material dispersion is caused by
the
a. Wavelength dependence of the index
of refraction
b. Wavelength independence of the
index of refraction
c. Dependence of the propagation
constant on the mode number
d. Independence of the propagation
126.
Modal dispersion is caused by
the
a. Dependence of wavelength on index
of refraction
b. Dependence of propagation constant
on index of refraction
c. Dependence of the propagation
constant on the wavelength
d. Dependence of the propagation
127.
The dominant loss mechanisms
in silica fiber are
a. Absorption and radiation losses
b. Absorption and Rayleigh scattering

c. Coupling and radiation losses
d. Radiation and modal dispersion
128.
The bandwidth of a fiber is
limited by
a. Mode
b. Wavelength
c. Dispersion
d. Frequency
129.
Fiber bandwidth is generally
specified as the
a. Product of the bandwidth and
distance
b. Sum of the bandwidth and distance
c. Difference of the bandwidth and
distance
d. Quotient of bandwidth and distance
130.
The _____ of a detector is the
fraction of incident photons that produce
a photoelectron or electron-hole pair
a. Responsitivity
b. Photon efficiency
c. Aperture
d. Quantum efficiency
131.
In solid-state optical detectors,
the excited charge is transported in the
solid by
a. Holes and protons
b. Holes and electrons
c. Anion and cation
d. Protons and photons
132.
One of the following is not a
solid-state optical detector
a. APD
b. PIN
c. PMT
d. Phototransistors
133.
Optical detectors are square-law
devices because they respond to _____
rather than amplitude
a. Intensity
b. Light
c. Density
d. Photon
134.
The _____ is equal to the number
of electrons emitted per second times the
electron charge
a. Intensity
b. Optical power
c. Photocurrent
d. Responsitivity
135.
Which optical detector is used
when high sensitivity and bandwidth are
required?
a. PMT
b. APD
c. PIN
d. Phototransistor
136.
What is the average loss in fiber
splice?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0.10 dB
0.15 dB
0.20 dB
0.25 dB
137.
Which of the following colors is
not found in the visible light wave
spectrum?
a. Red
b. White
c. Orange
d. Yellow
138.
What is the frequency limit of an
optical fiber?
a. 20 GHz
b. 30 GHz
c. 40 GHz
d. 50 GHz
139.
The mechanical splice
attenuation loss is _____ dB or less
a. 0.1
b. 0.01
c. 0.001
d. 1
140.
_____ is applied to protect core
and cladding of the fiber
a. Insulation
b. Fiber insulation
c. Silica
d. Polymer jacket
141.
The energy of the photon is
a. Directly proportional to its
bandwidth
b. Directly proportional to the Plancks
constant
c. Directly proportional to Boltzmanns
constant
d. Inversely proportional to the
Plancks constant
142.
a.
b.
c.
d.
143.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Refractive index of glass

1.0
1.2
1.4
1.5
Refractive index of diamond

1.0
1.4
1.8
2.0
144.
What is the unit of light
wavelength?
a. Micrometer
b. Angstroms
c. Mils
d. Fathom
145.
How much is the power loss of
the fusion splice?
a. 0.1 dB or less
b. 0.01 dB or less
c. 1 dB or less
d. 10 dB or less
146.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Used to test a fiber optics splice

Spectrum analyzer
Oscilloscope
Optical power meter
Field strength meter
147.
A coupler which consists of a
series of lenses and a partly reflective
surface
a. Beam-splitting coupler
b. Reflective star coupler
c. Fused coupler
d. None of these
148.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Reflections in many directions

Diffuse reflection
Diffraction
Scattering
Dispersion
149.
Commonly used electro-optic
crystal for polarization modulation
a. Lithium Niobate
b. Tourmaline
c. Sodium Chlorate
d. Sphalerite
150.
Which modulation methods are
the most widely used in optical systems?
a. Phase and frequency modulations
b. Polarization modulation and phase
modulation
c. Intensity modulation and phase

modulation
d. Intensity modulation and
polarization modulation
4. A mechanism or device which

enables the TV camera to move in
lateral and tilting motion
a. Panning device
b. Scanner
c. Tilting
d. Pan/tilt device
BROADCASTING
1. Which of the following is the first

component of any MATV system to
receive broadcast signals?
a. Filter
b. LNA
c. RF amplifier
d. Antenna
2. Is the most common technique where

apartment house, hotels, schools,
condominiums, and multi-unit
buildings distribute TV and FM
signals to a number of receivers,
using a single head-end.
a. CCTV
b. CATV
c. MATV
d. Antenna
3. TV channel 2, 4 and 5 belong to

a. Low band UHF
b. High band VHF
c. Mid band UHF
d. Low band VHF
5. Which of the following is a solid

state imaging device?
a. VIDICON
b. ICONOSCOPE
c. Charge couple device
d. CCTV
6. What class of TV camera lens used

to cover short distances?
a. Normal
b. Wide angle
c. Telephoto
d. Zoom
7. What class of TV camera lens used

to cover long distances?
a. Normal
b. Wide angle
c. Telephoto
d. Zoom
8. What is the local oscillator frequency

in commercial AM broadcast if it is
equal to 455 kHz?
a. 0 to 1500 kHz
b. 0 to 455 kHz
c. 540 to 1600 kHz
d. 955 to 2055 kHz
9. What is the allowable deviation ratio

of commercial FM broadcast?
a. 20
b. 75
c. 5
d. 25
10. The maximum power suggested by

KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast
station in Metro Manila is
a. 5 kW
b. 10 kW
c. 15 kW
d. 20 kW
11. KBP radio code mandates that

station must provide a minimum of
___ minutes
a. 30
b. 45
c. 50
d. 60
12. What is the chroma subcarrier signal

frequency for color television?
a. 3.8 MHz
b. 6.8 MHz
c. 7.8 MHz
d. 8.8 MHz
13. What is the frequency tolerance of an

FM Radio Broadcast station?
a. 20000 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 200 Hz
d. 2000 Hz
14. The minimum frequency separation

between frequency of AM
broadcasting station
a. 9 kHz
b. 18 kHz
c. 36 kHz
d. 72 kHz
15. The aspect ratio HDTV is

a. 4:3
b. 18:5
c. 14:8
d. 16:9
16. A newscast is a distinct unit of a

program with a minimum news
content of _____ minute(s)
excluding intro, extro, headline and
commercial load
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
17. In accordance with existing

provision of law and the KBP rules
and the regulations, all stations shall

actively promote the growth ands the
development of Filipino music by
playing _____ OPM every clock
hour.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. Commercial load for radio shall not

exceed ____ minutes for a one-hour
program outside Metro Manila
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
19. Commercial load for radio shall not

exceed _____ minutes for a one-hour
program outside Metro Manila.
a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
d. 20
20. Program interruption for airing of

commercial in Metro Manila shall
not exceed _____ breaks in every
program hour
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
21. Program interruption for the airing of

commercial outside Metro Manila
shall not exceed _____ breaks in
every program hour
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
22. For Metro manila, the classification

of prime time blocks for FM shall be
a. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
b. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
c. 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM
d. 12:00 NN to 12:00 MN
23. For provincial station, the

classification of prime time blocks
for FM radio shall be
a. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
b. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
c. 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM
d. 12:00 NN to 12:00 MN
24. All airtime classifications shall be

submitted to and subject for
approval by the
a. NTC
b. KBP-SA
c. DOTC
d. CCITT
25. _____ is the time circulation for one
horizontal trace
a. 52 us
b. 62 us
c. 48 us
d. 50 us
26. Listing of the date and time of

events, programs, equipment, tests,
malfunctions and corrections in
a. Reporting
b. Documentation
c. Log
d. File
27. Which of the following is not a low

impedance microphone?
a. Dynamic
b. Velocity
c. Condenser
d. Crystal
28. Facsimile permits remote

duplications of which of the
following items?
a. Map
b. Pictures
c. Printed page
d. All of these
29. Television has a lot of features in

common with
a. FM stereo
b. Telephone service
c. Motion picture
d. Magazine
30. The major component of the TV

signal waveform is the
a. Video
b. Radar
c. Stereo
d. Antenna
31. For NTSC TV system, the image is

scanned from
a. Top to bottom
b. Left to right
c. Right to left
d. Choices A and B above
32. One completes NTSC scanning cycle

called field consists of how many
lines
a. 500
b. 525
c. 625
d. 60
33. The field rate in the NTSC television

system
a. 30 Hz
b. 120 Hz
c. 60 Hz
d. 15.75 Hz
34. What is the horizontal synchronous

blanking pulse rate?
a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz
c. 15.75Hz
d. 120 Hz
d. Beam modulation
35. What is the vertical blanking pulse
rate?
a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz
c. 15.75 Hz
d. 120 Hz
36. The pulses riding on the vertical

blanking pulse
a. Equalizing (sync) pulses
b. Serrated vertical sync pulses
c. Black level pulses
d. Choices A and B above
37. Television camera pickup tube is

called
a. Vidicon
b. Image orthicon
c. Plumbicon
d. All of the above
38. The television picture tube magnetic

fields can be used for
a. Beam focusing
b. Beam deflection
c. Beam production
d. Beam modulation
39. What is the purpose of an indirectlyheated cathode in a cathode ray tube?

a. Beam focusing
b. Beam deflection
c. Beam production
40. Video modulation for television is

a. Amplitude modulation
b. Frequency modulation
c. Vestigial sideband
d. Both amplitude modulation and
vestigial sideband
41. Audio modulation for television is

a. Amplitude modulation
c. Vestigial sideband
d. Both amplitude modulation and
vestigial sideband
42. What is the maximum frequency

deviation for audio modulation in
TV transmission?
a. 25 kHz
b. 30 kHz
c. 50 kHz
d. 75 kHz
43. The video carrier and the audio

carrier are separated by ____ MHz.
a. 4.5
b. 5.5
c. 6.5
d. 7.5
44. In a practical image scanned at the

NTSC rate, the spectrum will include
components clustered at the
fundamentals and harmonics of

_____ kHz
a. 15.75
b. 30
c. 12.25
d. 45.5
45. Brightness of an image is known as

a. Radiance
b. Chrominance
c. Reflectance
d. Luminance
46. The colors at the vertices of the color

triangle are referred to as
a. Primary
b. White
c. Desaturated
d. All of the above
47. A color signal which originate in the

camera itself with color television
pickup?
a. Red
b. Green
c. Blue
d. All of these
48. What are the three separate signals

derived from a matrix in a color TV
transmitter?
a. Y, I and Q
b. P, D and Q
c. M, N and O
d. R, S and T
49. Range of a VHF television

transmitter
a. 54 98 MHz
b. 54 216 MHz
c. 54 128 MHz
d. 54 166 MHz
50. Range of a UHF television

transmitter
a. 470 670 MHz
b. 470 770 MHz
c. 470 890 MHz
d. 470 - 980 MHz
51. What is the approximate bandwidth

occupied by the chrominance video
signal for color TV?
a. 0.8 MHz
b. 1.8 MHz
c. 8.1 MHz
d. 1.6 MHz
52. The colors found around the

perimeter of the color triangle are
said to be
a. Saturated
b. Dark
c. Light
d. Monochrome
53. At what position on the color triangle

will saturated yellow be located?
a. Between red and blue
b. Between red and green

c. Between blue and green
d. At the center
54. What is the phase difference between

the I and Q color signal carriers?
a. 0
b. 45
c. 60
d. 90
55. _____ is the most effective filter for

separating luminance and
chrominance frequency components.
a. Low pass
b. Band pass
c. Notch
d. Comb
56. The chrominance processing circuits

can be deactivated when
monochrome broadcasts are received
by the
a. Color killer
b. SAW filter
c. NOT gate
d. All of the above
57. What is the standard video level, in

percent PEV, for blanking?
a. 25 %
b. 0 %
c. 12.5 %
d. 75 %
58. What is the percent video level, in

percent PEV, for black?
a. 0 %
b. 25 %
c. 12.5 %
d. 70 %
59. What is the standard video level, in

percent PEV, for white?
a. 0 %
b. 12.5 %
c. 25 %
d. 70 %
60. One should first perform _____

before a convergence setup is
performed.
a. Gray tracking
b. Screen setting
c. Alignment
d. Degaussing
61. If there are too many harmonics, one

should check the
a. Coupling
b. Tuning of circuits
c. Shielding
d. Any of these
62. In transmitter amplifier design, an

even-order harmonics can be
prevented or reduced by
a. Using a push-pull amplifier
b. Operating class C
c. Operating class AB
d. All of these
63. The vertical and horizontal pulses

are separated at the
a. Sync separator
b. AFC
c. High voltage
d. AGC
64. The reason why buffer stage is

included in a transmitter is to
a. Present a constant load to the
oscillator stage
b. Present a low impedance to the
oscillator stage
c. Stop the oscillator from
generating parasitic oscillations
d. All of these
65. Where is the operating position of a

radio station?
a. On the bridge
b. At the control point
c. At the location of the receiver
d. At the location of the transmitter
66. The alignment of the three color

guns to a common point is known as
a. Blooming
b. Confetti
c. Demodulation
d. Convergence
67. A _____ is equivalent to 525

scanning lines
a. Field
b. Frame
c. Cycle
d. Interface set
68. A _____ represents one set of 262

scanning lines
a. Field
b. Frame
c. Cycle
d. Interface set
69. The number of scanning lines is

_____ per second
a. 14750
b. 15570
c. 15750
d. 16550
70. Picture frames are repeated at the

rate of _____ per second
a. 25
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50
71. Lack of raster is an indication of no

a. AGC
b. High voltage
c. Video signal
d. Television signal
72. The sound and video signals are

separated at the _____ of the TV
receiver
a. IF stage
b. Video amplifier
c. Video detector
d. Burst separator
73. The presence of color bars is an

indication that there is a problem in
the _____ circuit
a. Horizontal
b. Reactor
c. Burst separator
d. Chroma amplifier
74. Type of emission produced when a

frequency modulated transmitter is
modulated by a TV signal
a. A3F
b. F3F
c. A3C
d. F3C
75. What is emission A3F?

a. RTTY
b. SSB
c. TV
d. Modulated CW
76. What is emission F3F?

a. Facsimile
b. Modulated CW
c. Television
d. RTTY
d. Experimental
77. Cause of slow rising white hum
bars is the television
a. Pad filter
b. Bad rectifier
c. Bad picture tube
d. High voltage transformer
82. What causes snow in television?

a. High Q in the tuned circuit
b. Excessive gain
c. Random noise in the signal
d. Insufficient wave traps
78. Adjusting the _____ may eliminate

color confetti
a. Color chroma amplifier
b. Color killer
c. Color detector
d. Color oscillator
83. Vestigial sideband is known as

_____ type of emission
a. CF3
b. C3F
c. B8E
d. A3E
79. Video signal amplitude determine

the picture quality called
a. Chrominance
b. Brightness
c. Contrast
d. Luminance
84. Vestigial sideband modulation is

commonly used in
a. TV broadcasting
b. Monaural broadcasting
c. Stereo broadcasting
d. HF point-to-point
communications
80. Part of broadcast day from midnight

to local sunrise
a. Daytime
b. Experimental
c. Nighttime
d. Dawntime
81. Part of broadcast day from local

sunset to local sunrise
a. Dawntime
b. Nighttime
c. Daytime
85. Which of the following filters block

FM radio band for TV channels (2 to
13)?
a. High-pass filter
b. Low-pass filter
c. Band pass filter
d. Band-reject filter
86. The FM broadcast band is from

a. 535 to 1600 kHz
b. 30 to 300 kHz
c. 88 to 108 MHz
d. 300 to 2000 MHz
87. The type of emission used by

standard AM radio broadcast
a. A5C
b. A0
c. A3
d. F3
88. The standard AM radio broadcast

belongs to which frequency band?
a. MF
b. HF
c. VHF
d. LF
89. When were UHF channels (14 83)
of television added?
a. 1902
b. 1945
c. 1947
d. 1952
90. When was colored TV standards
established in the United States?
a. 1904
b. 1945
c. 1953
d. 1960
91. What synchronizes the horizontal

line of the TV picture tube?
a. HFC
b. HSC
c. HAFC
d. All of these
92. A measure of how well the receiver

can respond to every weak signals/
a. Selectivity
b. Sensitivity
c. Fidelity
d. Quality factor
93. What is the allowable frequency

deviation of a commercial FM
broadcast band?
a. 15 kHz
b. 75 kHz
c. 5 kHz
d. 100 kHz
94. The final amplifier of either FM or

AM transmitter is operated as
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
95. Standard AM broadcasting use

_____ for greater and efficient
coverage
a. Circular polarized wave antenna
b. Horizontal polarized wave
antenna
c. Both vertical and horizontal
polarized wave antenna
d. Vertical polarized wave antenna
96. Receiver sensitivity means

a. The frequency allocation of the
system
b. Input impedance of the receiver
c. The ability of picking up weak
signal
d. The power to deliver the
information
97. The main functions of the RF

amplifier in a superheterodyne
receiver is to
a. Provide improved tracking
b. Permit better adjacent-channel
rejection
c. Improve the rejection of the
image frequency
d. All of these
98. Local oscillator of a broadcast

receiver always tunes to a frequency
higher than the incoming frequency
in order
a. To help the image frequency
rejection
b. To allow easy tracking
c. To allow adequate frequency
coverage without switching
d. All of these
99. Type of filter used in TV receivers

that separates the chroma signal from
the colorplexed video signal but
leaves intact the Y-component
a. Comb filter
b. Bandpass filter
c. Color filter
d. Low pass filter
100. What is the first letter-symbol for

emission of unmodulated carrier?
a. A
b. N
c. H
d. F
101. The channel for cable TV

frequency range of 5.75 to 11.75
MHz
a. T-1
b. T-8
c. 2
d. 3
102. The frequency range for cable

TV channel T-13
a. 23.75 29.75 MHz
b. 60 66 MHz
c. 41.75 47.55 MHz
d. 5.75 11.75 MHz
103. Channel 8 frequency range
allocation in cable TV
a. 54 60 MHz
b. 66 72 MHz
c. 180 186 MHz
d. 204 210 MHz
104. The _____ of a television system

is a measure of its ability to delineate
picture detail
a.
b.
c.
d.
Contrast
Resolution
Hue
Pixels
105. CCIR standards for the internal

exchange of programmes on film for
television used
a. Rec 265-6
b. Rec 407-4
c. Rec 408-5
d. Rec 450-1
106. CCIR transmission standards for

FM sound broadcasting at VHF
a. Rec 601.2
b. Rec 501.2
c. Rec 500.4
d. Rec 450.1
107. ISO Rec 23 in 1976 is the

standard for
a. Recorded characteristics for
magnetic sound records on full
cost 16 mm motion picture film
b. Projector usage of 16 mm motion
picture films for direct front
projector
c. Camera usage of 35 mm motion
picture film
d. Camera usage of 16 mm motion
picture film
108. International broadcasting (short

wave) uses frequency between _____
accordance with international

agreements
a. 7012 and 26100 kHz
b. 6409 and 26100 kHz
c. 5950 and 26100 kHz
d. 10950 and 26100 kHz
109. Which of the following station

below is a regional channel?
a. Class I-A
b. Class II-D
c. Class III-B
d. Class IV
110. The permissible power in kW of

station II-A during nighttime is
a. 0.25 50
b. 10 50
c. 1 5
d. None of these
111. The television frequency which

are now allocated to the land mobile
services
a. 806 and 192 MHz
b. 800 and 806 MHz
c. 668 and 674 MHz
d. 776 and 782 MHz
112. Numerical frequency band

designation of channel 9
a. 488 494 MHz
b. 530 536 MHz
c. 632 638 MHz
d. 186 192 MHz
113.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cable TV systems originate from

Germany
Dallas, Texas
Pennsylvania
Japan
114. A term applied to third and

higher order products, which can
greatly degrade the performance of a
system
a. Composite triple beat
b. Single dual mode
c. Field strength
d. Noise
115. A station similar to a translator

station in terms of equipment and
service area but is permitted to
originate originate programming
from virtually any source
a. DME
b. LPTV
c. HDTV
d. ITFS
116. Three stations are licensed to

eligible educational entities for the
distribution of program material to
students enrolled in instructional
curricula
a. Translator
b. LPTV
c. HDTV
d. ITFS
117. ITFS means

a. International Television
Frequency Standard
b. Instructional Telephone
Frequency Service
c. Instructional Television Fixed
Service
d. International telecommunications
Frequency Standard
118.
a.
b.
c.
d.
MDS means
Multipoint Distribution Service
Multipoint Digital Service
Maritime Data Standards
Multipoint Drop Standards
119. Direct broadcast satellite based

allocation
a. 12.2 12.7 GHz downlink
b. 17.3 17.8 GHz for uplink
c. 3.7 4.2 GHz for downlink
d. 12.2 12.7 GHz for downlink
and 17.3 17.8 GHz for uplink
120. What is the channel number of an

FM station with 88.1 MHz carrier?
a. 201
b. 202
c. 203
d. 204
121. What is the carrier frequency of

an FM station with channel number
of 300?
a. 107.5 MHz
b. 101.1 MHz
c. 107.9 MHz
d. 99.5 MHz
122. If an FM station has an effective
radiated power of 100 kW then it is
under what class?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
123. The video signal amplitude

determines the quality of the picture
otherwise known as
a. Hue
b. Luminance
c. Chrominance
d. Contrast
124. _____ is defined as to send out
in all direction
a. Broadcast
b. Announce
c. Media
d. All of these
125. The ultimate Dolby surround

system is the
a. Dolby NR
b. Dolby Prologic
c. dBx
d. hall matrix
Microwave Communications
1. __________ is the progressive decrease

of signal strength with increasing
distance.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Radiation
Attenuation
Modulation
Propagation
2. Calculate the effective earths radius if

the surface refractivity is 301.
A.
B.
C.
D.
8493 km
8493 mmi
6370 km
6370 mi
3. If k-factor is greater than 1, the array

beam is bent
A.
B.
C.
D.
Away from the earth

towards the ionosphere,
towards the earth
towards the outer space
4. the antenna separations (in meters)

required for optimum operation of a
space diversity system can be calculated
from:
A.
B.
C.
D.
S = 2R/L
S = 3R/L
S = R/RL
S = R/L
7. What do you call an attenuation that

occurs over many different wavelengths
of the carrier?
where R = effective earth radius (m) and

L = path length (m)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rayleigh fading
Rician fading
Wavelength fading
Slow fading
5. Rainfall is an important factor for fading

of radio waves at frequencies above
8. Which of the reception problems below

that is not due to multipath?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 GHz
100 GHz
1 GHz
100 MHz
Delayed spreading
Rayleigh fading
Random Doppler shift
Slow fading
6. Theoretically electromagnetic radiation

field strength varies in inverse
proportion to the square of the distance,
but when atmospheric attenuation effects
and the absorption of the terrain are
taken into account the attenuation can be
as high as the inverse _______ power of
the distance.
9. Which causes multipath or frequencyselective fading?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10. In microwave transmission using digital

radio, what causes most intersymbol
interference?
Third
Fourth
Fifth
Sixth
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Small reflector
Nearer reflector
Further reflector
Large reflector
Delayed spreading
Rayleigh fading
Random Doppler shift
Slow fading
C. Direct coax-helix match

D. All of the above
11. A shipboard equipment which measures
the distance between the ships bottom
and the ocean floor.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fathometer
Echosounder
LORAN
SONAR
15. a high-power microwave pulse of the

order of megawatts can be generated by
a
A.
B.
C.
D.
traveling-wave tube
magnetron
reflex klystron
Gunn diode
12. The cavity resonator

A. Is equivalent to an LC resonant circuit
B. In a reflect klystron has its output taken
from the reflector plate
C. Produces a frequency which is
independent of the cavity size.
D. Has a low Q factor for narrow operation.
13. At what position is the input signal
inserted into a traveling-wave tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
At the cathode end of the helix

At the collector
At the collector end of the helix
At the control grid of the electron gun
14. Coupling into and out of a travelingwave tube can be accompanied by a

A. Waveguide match
B. Cavity match
D.
To slow down the signal on the helix

oscillator device in the SHF band?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Thyratron tube
Tunnel diode
Klystron tube
Both B and C
19. Microwave frequencies are normally

regarded as those in the range of
16. A traveling-wave tube (TWT) amplifies
by virtue of
A.
The absorption of energy by the

signal from an electron stream
B.
The effect of an external magnetic
field
C.
The energy contained the cavity
resonators
D.
The energy liberated form the
collector
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 to 500 MHz
1000 to 10,000 GHz
1 to 100 GHz
10 to 1000 GHz
20. The highest frequency which a

conventional vacuum-tube oscillator can
generate is not limited by the
17. What is the purpose of the

electromagnetic field which surrounds a
traveling-wave tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
21. As the electron beam moves through a

klystrons intercavity drift space
To accelerate the electron

To velocity modulate the electron
beam
C.
To keep the electrons from spreading
out
Electron transit time

Distributed lead inductance
Inter-electrode capacitance
Degree of emission from the cathode
A.
Frequency modulation at the input

cavity creates velocity modulation at the
output cavity
B.
Velocity modulation at the input
cavity creates density modulation at the
output cavity
C.
Density modulation at the input
cavity creates velocity modulation at the
output cavity
D.
Phase modulation at the input cavity
creates velocity modulation at the output
cavity.
24. The Gunn diode oscillator
22. The frequency of the oscillation

generated by a magnetron, is mainly
determined by
25. What ferrite device can be used instead

of duplexer of isolate microwave
transmitter and receiver when both are
connected to the same antenna?
The flux density of the external

magnet
B.
The ratio of the dc cathode voltage to
the magnetic flux density
C.
The number of the cavity resonators
D.
The dimension of each cavity
resonator
Is capable of generating continuous

microwave power of the order of
kilowatt
B.
Generates frequencies which are
below 100 MHz
C.
Operates over a positive resistance
characteristic
D.
Depends on the formation of charge
domain
A.
A.
23. If the instantaneous RF potentials on the

two sides of a magnetron cavity are of
opposite polarity, the operation is in the
A.
B.
C.
D.
mode
/2 mode
2 mode
/4 mode
27. When used in conjunction with a radar

set, the purpose of an echo box is to
provide an artificial target.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isolator
Magnetron
Simplex
Circulator
A.
Which may be used to tune the radar

synchronizer
B.
Which may be used to tune the radar
receiver
C.
To the tone of the pulse repetition
D.
Tune the magnetron to the correct
frequency
28. In a radar-set receiver, the usual mixer
stage is
A.
B.
C.
D.
And FET
A tunnel diode
A silicon crystal
A Rochelle salts crystal
29. Klystron oscillators are most often used

in the frequency range of
26. To achieve good bearing resolution
when using a pulsed-radar set, an
important requirement is
A.
A narrow, antenna-beam width in the

vertical plane
B.
A narrow, antenna-beam width in the
horizontal plane
C.
A low repetition rate
D.
A high duty cycle
A.
B.
C.
D.
300 to 3000 MHz

3000 to 30000 MHz
30 to 30000 MHz
10 to 10000 MHz
30. Oscillators of a klystron tube are

maintained
A.
By bunches of electrons passing the

cavity grids
B.
C.
By plate-to-cathode feedback
By feedback between the
accelerating grid and the repeller
D.
By circulating bunches of electrons
within the cavities.
31. What allow microwave to pass in only
one direction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
RF emitter
Capacitor
Varactor-triac
Ferrite emitter
32. In an SHF pulsed radar set, a reflex

klystron can be used as a
A.
B.
C.
D.
Single mixer stage

Local oscillator
Transmitter oscillator
Duplexer stage
33. A Class-S Emergency PositionIndicating Radio Beacon (E.P.I.R.B)

A.
Must be capable of floating or being

secured to a survival
B.
Must have its battery replaced after
emergency use
C.
May be tested during the first five
minutes of any hour
D.
All of these
34. A PPI cathode-ray tube as used on a

radar set
A.
Is used to check the percentage of

modulation
B.
Indicates both the range and azimuth
of a target
C.
Indicates only the range of a target
D.
Is used for receiver alignment
35. The resonant frequency of a cavity
resonator depends upon
A.
B.
C.
D.
The mode of operation

Its electrical dimensions
Its physical dimensions
The capacitor which tunes it
36. The maximum usable range of the usual

radar set (on any particular range setting)
is determined by
A.
B.
The width of the transmitted pulses

The interval between transmitted
pulses
C.
The bandwidth of the receiver IF
stages
D.
The duty cycle
37. A reflex klystron is oscillating at the
frequency of its resonant cavity. If the
reflector voltage is made slightly less
negative, the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Oscillation will cease

Output power would increase
The frequency will decrease
Bunching would occur earlier in time
38. The coarse frequency adjustment of a

reflex klystron is accomplished by
A.
B.
The AFC system

Adjusting the flexible wall of the
resonant cavity
C.
An adjustment in the synchronizer
D.
Varying the repeller voltage
39. In a pulsed radar set, the STC circuit is
used to
A.
B.
Improve the target bearing resolution

Increases receiver sensitivity for
echoes from targets
C.
Vary the pulse frequency in order to
control the maximum target
D.
Reduce interference from the effects
of sea return
40. In a pulsed radar set, the function of the
duplexer is to
A.
B.
Aid in calibrating the display unit

Prevent frequency drift in the
klystron
C.
Allow the transmitter and the

receiver to operate from a common
antenna
D.
All of these
41. A magnetron is operated at a duty cycle
of 0.001. It has a peak power output of
100 kilowatts. Its average power is
A.
B.
C.
D.
10,000 watts
100 watts
1,000 watts
1,000,000 watts
D.
Must be doubled
44. The main frequency determining

element of a klystron is
A.
B.
C.
D.
The repeller voltage

The accelerating voltage
Its resonant cavity
Its mode of operation
45. A thin layer of dirt and grime coverts the

reflecting surface of the parabolic dish of
a radar set. The particular effect on the
performance of the radar will be
42. The aquadag coating on the inside of PPI

tube is used
A.
To focus the beam of primary

electrons
B.
To shield the electron beam from
unidirectional magnetic
C.
As a second anode and to prevent the
build-up of secondary field
D.
All of these
43. If the duration of the radar transmitted
pulse, on a particular range of operation,
is increased, the required bandwidth of
the receivers IF amplifiers
A.
B.
C.
Must remain as before

Must be increased
May be decreased
A.
B.
C.
D.
A decrease in range
A reduction in horizontal resolution
No noticeable effect
A decrease in gain
A.
B.
Lowering the pulse frequency

Raising the peak power of the
transmitter
C.
Narrowing the beam width and
increasing the pulse duration
D.
All of these
48. When it is desired that short-range
targets be clearly seen on a pulsed-radar
set, it is important that the receiver and
display system have
A.
B.
C.
D.
A long time constant

Low-pass filters
The shortest possible time
The restricted high-frequency
response
49. Which of the following is used as a high

power microwave oscillator?
46. Which of the following permits a
microwave signal to travel in one
direction with virtually no loss, but
severely attenuates any signal attempting
to travel in the reverse direction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isolator
Wave trap
Tunnel diode
Circulator
47. It is possible to increase the maximum

range of a radar equipment by
A.
B.
C.
D.
Thyratron
Magnetron
Klystron
Reflex-klystron
50. Which of the following operating

frequencies is used for the modern loran
navigational system?
A.
B.
Loran C: 100 kHz

Loran D: 10.2 kHz
C.
D.
Loran A: 1950 kHz

Loran B: 900 kHz
51. Which ferrite device can be used instead

of a duplexer to isolate a microwave
transmitter and receiver when both are
connected to the same antenna?
A.
54. The intensity of the echoes (target
definition) on a PPI display is
determined by the
A.
B.
Radio frequency
Pulse frequency and antenna rotation
rate
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isolator
Magnetron
Simplex
Circulator
52. The pulse frequency is equal to

A.
B.
Duty cycle/pulse width

The reciprocal of the pulse repetition
rate
C.
Pulse width x peak power/average

power
D.
All of these
53. In a radar set, a blocking oscillator can
be used to
A.
Act as the local oscillator converter

stage
B.
Provide the sweep voltage for the
PPI tube
C.
Produce a trigger pulse for the
transmitter
D.
As a single local oscillator converter
stage
C.
D.
Frequency of the range-marker

oscillator
B.
Reciprocal of the duty cycle
C.
Number of target echoes received on
one second
D.
Frequencies of the duty cycle
58. The radar set, sensitivity-time control
circuit
Duty cycle
Average power
A.
55. A duplexer circuit allows a transmitter

and a receiver to operate from the same
antenna with virtually no interaction.
This circuit may be replaced by a (an)
A.
B.
C.
D.
loss waveguide
circulator
isolator
gyrator
56. Which of the following frequencies are

used by a class-C Emergency PositionIndicating Radio Beacon (E.P.I.R.B)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
156.65 MHz
121.5 MHz
156.76 MHz and 156.8 MHz
All of these
57. The repetition rate of a pulsed radar

system indicates the
Controls the width of the magnetron

pulse
B.
Is used to increase sea return
C.
Can reduce sea-return response
D.
Discriminates between targets that
are very close together.
59. Which of the following is the ferrite
device that buffers a microwave source
from the effects of a varying load, and
thereby prevents the formation of
standing waves?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Circulator
Duplexer
Isolator
Diplexer
60. Pulsed radar sets are primarily used to

find the
A.
B.
Targets range and bearing

Size and speed of a target
C.
D.
Speed and course of a target

Targets range of speed
64. The display on the PPI scope of a radar

set will have greater intensity under the
following conditions
D.
100 MHz
68. The main benefit of using microwaves is

61. Which of the following factors is mainly
concerned in the design of an antenna
system for pulsed radar set?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Duty cycle
Radio frequency
Pulse frequency
Pulse length
62. In a radar set receivers, an ac AFC

system may be used to
A.
Automatically maintain the correct

magnetron frequency
B.
Keep the IF stages on frequency
C.
Maintain the desired klystron
frequency
D.
Provide automatic control of receiver
gain
A.
B.
C.
D.
Higher antenna rotation speeds

Lower pulse repetition rate
Lower antenna rotation speeds
Both lower antenna rotation speeds
and higher pulse repetition
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lower-cost equipment
Simpler equipment
Greater transmission distances
More spectrum space for signals
65. The operating frequency of loran C lies

within the
69. Radio communication are regulated in

the Philippines by the
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
LF band
VLF band
MF band
HF band
66. The PPI tubes have an aquadag coating

on the inside of the tube. The purpose of
this coating is
70. Which of the following is not a

disadvantage of microwaves?
A.
B.
C.
Higher-cost equipment
Line-of-sight transmission
Conventional components are not
usable
D.
Circuits are more difficult to analyze
63. The input signal is introduced into the

traveling-wave tube at the
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
67. A traveling-wave tube Is used at

frequencies in the order of
71. Which of the following is a microwave

frequency?
A.
B.
C.
A.
B.
C.
Cathode
Anode
Cathode end of the helix
Collector end of the helix
To act as the second anode

To shield the tube magnetically
To decelerate the electron beam
To deflect the electron beam
DOTC
KBP
NTC
Department of Defense
30 MHz
300 MHz
8000 MHz
1.7 MHz
750 MHz
0.98 GHz
D.
22 GHz

A.
B.
C.
D.
Radar
Mobile radio
Telephone
Satellite communications
73. Coaxial cable is not widely used for long

microwave transmission lines because of
its
A.
B.
C.
D.
High loss
High cost
Large size
Excessive radiation
74. Stripline and microstrip transmission

lines are usually made with
A.
B.
C.
D.
Coax
Parallel wires
Twisted pair
PCBs
C.
D.
Triangle
Rectangle
76. A rectangular waveguide has a width of

1 inch and a height of 0.6 in. Its cutoff
frequency is
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.54 GHz
3.0 GHz
5.9 GHz
11.8 GHz
77. A waveguide has a cutoff frequency of

17 GHz. Which of the following signals
will not be passed by the waveguide?
A.
15 GHz
B.
18 GHz
C.
22 GHz
D.
255 GHz
78. Signal propagation in a waveguide is by
A.
B.
C.
D.
Electrons
Holes
Electric and magnetic fields
Air pressure
75. The most common cross section of a

waveguide is a
79. When the electric field in a waveguide is

perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation, the mode is said to be
A.
B.
A.
B.
Square
Circle
C.
D.
Transverse electric
Transverse magnetic
80. The dominant mode in most rectangular

waveguide is
A.
B.
C.
D.
TE 1.0
TE 1.2
TM 0.1
TM 1.1
81. A magnetic field is introduced into

waveguide by a
A.
B.
C.
D.
Probe
Dipole
Stripline
Capacitor
82. A half-wavelength, close section of a

waveguide that acts as a parallel
resonant circuit is known as a(n)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Half-wave section
Cavity resonator
LCR circuit
Directional coupler
83. Decreasing the volume of a cavity

causes its resonant frequency to
A.
Increase
B.
C.
D.
Decrease
Remain the same
Drop to zero
84. __________ is a popular microwave

mixer diode.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gunn
Varactor
Hot carrier
IMPATT
85. Varactor and step-recovery diodes are

widely used in what type of circuit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Amplifier
Oscillator
Frequency multiplier
Mixer
86. Which diode is a popular microwave

oscillator?
A.
B.
C.
D.
IMPATT
Gunn
Varactor
Schottky
B.
C.
D.
IMPATT
Snap-off
Tunnel
C.
D.
Mixer
88. Low-power Gunn diodes are replacing
92. For proper operation, a magnetron must

be accompanied by a
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reflex klystrons
TWTs
Magnetrons
Varactor diodes
Cavity resonator
Strong electric field
Permanent magnet
High dc voltage

microwave tube?
93. The operating frequency of klystrons

and magnetrons is set by the
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Traveling-wave tube
Cathode-ray tube
Klystron
Magnetron
90. In a klystron amplifier, velocity

modulation of the electron beam is
produced by the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Collector
Catcher cavity
Cathode
Buncher cavity
Cavity resonators
DC supply voltage
Input signal frequency
Number of cavities
94. A magnetron is used only as a/an

A.
B.
C.
D.
Amplifier
Oscillator
Mixer
95. A common application for magnetron is

in
87. Which type of diodes does not ordinarily
operate with reverse bias?
A.
Varactor
91. A reflex klystron is used as a(n)

A.
B.
Amplifier
Oscillator
A.
B.
C.
Radar
Satellites
Two-way radio
D.
TV sets
96. In a TWT, the electron beam is densitymodulated by a

A.
B.
C.
D.
Permanent magnet
Modulation transformer
Helix
Cavity resonator
D.
Horn
100.
______________ is a measure of
reliability expressed as the average
number of hours between successive
failures.
A.
B.
C.
D.
MTBF
MTTR
Downtime
Outage time
97. The main advantage of a TWT over a

klystron for microwave amplification is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lower cost
Smaller size
Higher power
Wider bandwidth
98. High-power TWTs are replacing what in

microwave amplifiers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
MESFETs
Magnetrons
Klystrons
IMPATT diodes
101.
The free space attenuation
between two microwave antennas 40 km
apart operating at 8 GHz is
A.
B.
C.
D.
146.7 dB
142.55 dB
82.5 dB
86.7 dB
102.
An active microwave radio
repeater that can provide drops and
inserts.
99. The most widely used microwave

antenna
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
103.
If the correction factor k equals
4/3 of the earths curvature, the
microwave beam would have a curvature
Half-wave dipole
Parabolic
Hyperbolic
Broadband repeater
Baseband repeater
IF repeater
RF repeater
that is ___________ than that of the

earth.
A.
B.
C.
D.
More
Less
Equal
Not related
104.
The optimum clearance from an
obstacle in an microwave system is
accepted as __________ of the first
fresnel zone radius.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.6
0.5
0.9
1.5
105.
The microwave beam curves the
same than that of the earth when the
value of the correction factor k equals
A.
B.
C.
D.
0
4/3
2/3
Infinity
106.
The time from the transmission
of a radar pulse to its reception is 0.12
ms. The distance to the target is how
many nautical miles?
A.
4.85 nmi
B.
C.
D.
9.7 nmi
11.2 nmi
18.4 nmi
107.
The ability of a radar to
determine the bearing to a target depends
upon the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Antenna directivity
Speed of light
Speed of the target
Frequency of the signal
108.
The pulse duration of a radar
signal is 699ns. The PRF is 185 pulses
per second. The duty cycle is
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.216 %
0.130 %
0.013 %
0.407 %
109.
The Doppler effect allows which
characteristics of a target to be
measured?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Distance
Azimuth
Altitude
Speed
110.
The Doppler effect is a change in
what signal characteristics produced by
relative motion between the radar set and

a target?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Amplitude
Phase
Frequency
Duty cycle
111.
The most widely used radar
transmitter component is a
A.
B.
C.
D.
Klystron
Magnetron
TWT
Power transistor
114.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Most radar antennas use a

Dipole
Broadside array
Horn and parabolic reflector
Collinear array
115.
The most common radar display
is the
A.
B.
C.
D.
A scan
Color CRT
LCD
PPI
112.
Low-power radar transmitters
and receivers use which component?
116.
A radar antenna using multiple
diploes or slot antennas in a matrix with
variable phase shifters is called a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
GaAs FET
Magnetron
Gunn diode
Klystron
113.
What component in a duplexer
protects the receiver from the higher
transmitter output?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Waveguide
Bandpass filter
Notch filter
Spark gap
A scan
Phased array
Broadside
Circulator polarized array
117.
Which of the following is a
typical radar operating frequency?
A.
B.
C.
D.
60 MHz
450 MHz
900 MHz
10 GHz
118.
A microwave system requires the
use of repeaters when
A.
B.
C.
D.
The intervening terrain is favorable

The distances involve are grater
The required reliability is meet
The radio fading is unacceptable
122.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A waveguide is also a
Low pass filter
High pass filter
Band pass filter
Band stop filter
119.
Are transmission lines which
convey electromagnetic waves in highest
frequencies
123.
A method of diversity reception
where the signal is transmitted on two
difference frequencies over the same
path
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Twister pair of telephone wires

Waveguides
Power lines
Coaxial cables
Space diversity
Frequency diversity
Polarization diversity
Wavelength diversity
120.
A microwave band of 10.9 to 36.
GHz is considered as
124.
A wire used to reduce the skin
effect
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
C-band
X-band
Q-band
K-band
121.
A microwave communications
system space loss calculation formula.
A.
B.
C.
D.
94.2 + 20 log f + 20 log d

92.4 + 20 log f + 20 log d
94.2 + 10 log f + 20 log d
92.3 + 10 log f + 20 log d
AWG # 14
AWG # 15
Copper wire
Litz wire
C.
Antennas operating on the same

frequencies
D.
Identical frequencies
126.
The best system configuration to
overcome multipath fading of
microwave system over the water
A.
B.
C.
D.
Space diversity
Frequency diversity
127.
When the value of k increases,
the effective result is _______ of the
equivalent curvature
A.
B.
C.
D.
128.
Flattening
Bulging
Sharp curvature
All of these
A traveling wave tube consists of
125.
Space diversity transmission
means transmitting and receiving on two
or more.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
129.
Advantage of periscope antenna
in microwave
Different frequencies
Antennas operating on two different
frequencies
Electron gun, helix and repeller

Electron gun, helix and collector
Electron gun, repeller and collector
Buncher cavity and catcher cavity
A.
B.
Reduce tower height

Minimize interference to and from
other neighboring stations
C.
Shorten waveguide length
D.
Easy to install
B.
Depends only on the waveguide

dimensions and the free-space
wavelength
C.
Inversely proportional to the phase
velocity
D.
Inversely proportional to the group
velocity
130.
What is the cut-off frequency of
a waveguide?
A.
The highest frequency the waveguide

operates
B.
The lowest frequency the waveguide
operates
C.
The same as the operating frequency
D.
The only frequency the waveguide
operates.
131.
When the clearance above the
obstruction is equal to the radii of even
fresnel zones at the point of reflection.
The RSL is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increased
Decreased
Constant
Above threshold
133.
The CCIR hypothetical reference
circuit covering a distance of 25000 km
consists of a total of how many hops?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5
10
24
54
134.
Water causes more attenuation
particularly on what frequency?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20 GHz
63 GHz
183 GHz
202 GHz
135.
At what frequency does oxygen
cause excessive attenuation?
136.
Which of the following is an
atmospheric attenuation?
A.
Attenuation due to water vapor and

oxygen
B.
Attenuation due to mist and fog
C.
Attenuation due to other gases
D.
Attenuation due to rain.
137.
A microwave system operating at
the 6 GHz band is carrying 600 voice
channels. What is the noise loading
power in dBmO?
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.78
26.78
27.78
10.25
138.
_________ is a microwave link
between the down-town terminal and
another out of town terminal.
A.
B.
C.
D.
STL
Uplink
Downlink
Terrestrial
132.
What is the wavelength of a
wave in a waveguide?
A.
Greater than in free space
A.
B.
C.
D.
60 GHz
50 GHz
40 GHz
30 GHz
139.
Attenuator is used in the
traveling wave tube to
A.
B.
Prevent oscillation
Increase gain
C.
D.
Prevent saturation
All of these
140.
Is a method of diversity reception
applied to reflective path to reduce
fading.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Frequency diversity
Space diversity
141.
What is the effective earths
radius used in communications design?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4000 miles
K x 4000 miles
5000 miles
K x 5280 miles
142.
IF bandwidth of a radar system is
inversely proportional to
A.
B.
C.
D.
143.
A.
Pulse width
Pulse interval
Peak transmit power
All of these
EADI stands for
Electronic Air Data Indicator
B.
Electronic Altitude and Distance

Indicator
C.
Electronic Altitude and Director
Indicator
D.
Electronic Air and Distance Indicator
144.
Which aircraft navigational
system determines the time to station
(TTS) or time to go (TTG)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
ADF
DME
Timer
ATC
145.
What frequency does a radio
altimeter operate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
33500 kHz
43000 kHz
33500 MHz
43500 MHz
146.
What inflight system allows
passengers to make telephone calls, send
faxes, and computer data shop and play
computer games, etc.?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inflight Satellite System

Terrestrial Flight Telephone System
World Airline Entertainment System
Satellite Phone
147.
A.
B.
C.
D.
ADF stands for

Audio Direction Findings
Automatic Direction Finder
Alternate Direction Finder
Automatic Distance Finder
148.
RF carrier of the middle marker
is modulated at ____ Hz.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1300
1400
1500
1600
149.
Which of the following is
considered as the major advantage of
using a helix traveling wave tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
150.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cheaper
Less noise
High power
Wide bandwidth
RADAR stands for
Radio Distance and Ranging
Radio Detection and Ranging
Radio Direction and Ranging
Radio Distance and Range
Acoustics
1. An instrument designed to measure a
frequency-weighted value of the sound
pressure level.
a. Sound-level meter
b. Transducer
c. Sound pressure meter
d. Sound analyzer
2. A unit of noisiness related to the

perceived noise level
a. Noy
b. Sone
c. dB
d. phone
3. An agreed set of empirical curves
relating octave-band osund pressure
level to the center frequency of the
octave bands
a. C-message weighting curves
b. Psophometric weighting curves
c. Noise rating curves
d. F1A weighting curves
4. The frequency of free vibration
a. Resonant frequency
b. Natural frequency
c. Center frequency
d. Normal frequency
5. The transmission of sound from one
room to an adjacent room, via common
walls, floors or ceilings.
a. Flanking transmission
b. Refraction
c. Reflection
d. Reverberation
6. A measure of threshold hearing,
expressed in decibels relative to a
specifoed standard of normal hearing.
a. Hearing loss
b. Sensation level
c. Hearing level
d. Sound pressure level
7. A certain machine with a slightly out-ofbalance motor rotating at 1800/min is

fixed on a perfectly elastic mount with a
static compression of 2.50 mm.
Calculate the resonant frequency of
mount.
a. 10 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 30 Hz
d. 40 Hz
8. Calculate the lowest resonant frequency

for a brick partition 120 mm thick, 4m
by 2min area with longitudinal wave
velocity of 2350 m/s. (Assume that it is
supported at its edges.)
a. 10 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 30 Hz
d. 40 Hz
9. Velocity of sound in air.
a. 300 m/s
b. 330 m/s
c. 1130 m/s
d. 344 m/s
10. What is the expected critical frequency
for a 120 mm thick brick wall? Assume
a longitudinal wave velocity in brick of
2350 m/s and that the velocity of sound
in air is 330 m/s.
a. 114.5 Hz
b. 214.5 Hz
c. 314.5 Hz
d. 414.5 Hz
11. The sound power level of a certain jet
plane flying at a height of 1km is 160 dB
(re10-12W). Find the maximum sound
pressure level on the ground directly
below the flight path assuming that the
aircraft radiates sound equally in all
directions.
a. 59.1 dB
b. 69.1 dB
c. 79.1 dB
d. 89.1 dB
12. Speaker is a device that
a. Converts sound waves into current
and voltage
b. Converts current variations into
sound waves
c. Converts elctrical energy to
mechanical energy
d. Converts elctrical energy to
electromagnetic energy
13. Which type of microphone operates on
the principle that the electrical resistance
of carbon granules varies as the pressure
on the granules vary?
a. Dynamic
b. Crystal
c. Carbon
d. Ribbon-type
14. Bass response is
a. Maximum highfrequency response
b. Emphasizing the high audio
frequency
c. Bypassing high audio frequencies
d. Bypassing low audio frequencies
15. Pure tone of sound used as standard on
testing
a. 1 Hz
b. 10 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 1000 Hz
16. ___________ is early reflection of
sound.
a. Echo
b. Reverberation
c. Pure sound
d. Intelligible sound
17. Noise reduction system used for film
sound in movie.
a. Dolby
b. dBa
c. dBx
d. dBk
18. What is the sound energy per unit area at
right angles to the propagation direction
per unit time?
a. Loudness
b. Coherence
c. Sound pressure
d. Sound intensity
19. ________ is the unit of loudness level of
a sound.
a. Sone
b. Decibel
c. Mel
d. Phon
20. ____________ is the average rate of
direction through a cross-section area of
1 sqm at right angles to the direction.
a. Sound pressure
b. Loudness
c. Sound intensity
d. Pressure variation
21. What is the unit of pitch?
a. Sone
b. Phon
c. Decibel
d. Mel
22. A measure of the intensity of sound in
comparison to another sound intensity.
a. Phon
b. Decibel
c. Pascal
d. Watts
23. Sound wave has two main characteristics
which are
a. Highness and loudness
b. Tone and loudness
c. Pitch and loudness
d. Rarefraction and compression
24. Which type of microphone operated by
electromagnetic induction that generates
an output signal voltage?
a. Carbon
b. Dynamic
c. Crystal
d. Condenser
25. The exciter lamp in the optical sound
part of a film projector draws 5 A at 10
V. How much power in watts is this light
consuming?
a. 10 watts
b. 20 watts
c. 40 watts
d. 50 watts
26. Assume the speed of sound is 1,130 ft/s.
What frequency has a wavelength of 1
foot, 1.5 inches?
a. 500 Hz
b. 1000 Hz
c. 1500 Hz
d. 2000 Hz
27. The wire must bring 100 average watts
to a 4 ohms loudspeaker must safely
carry what rms current?
a. 2 A
b. 4 A
c. 5 A
d. 6 A
28. A church has an internalvolume of 90.05
ft3 (2550 m3). When it contains
customary sabine sof absorption (186
metric sabines), what will be its
reverberation time in seconds.
a. 2.0
b. 2.2
c. 2.5
d. 3.0
29. If the RMs sound pressure is 5lb/ft2,
what is the sound presure level?
a. 7.6 dB
b. 108 dB
c. 88 dB
d. 10 dB
30. Speed that is faster than speed of sound.
a. Ultrasonic
b. Supersonic
c. Subsonic
d. Transonic
31. Sound waves travel faster in water at a
______ speed.
a. 12.4 miles/sec
b. 5000 ft/sec
c. 186,000 ft/sec
d. 3141 ft/sec
32. What is the sound power from a motor

car whose SPL at a distance of 7.5 m is
87 dB assuming that it radiates sound
unifomly?
a. 0.15 W
b. 0.21 W
c. 0.24 W
d. 0.18 W
33. Crest-to-crest distance along the
direction to wave travel.
a. Compression
b. Wavelength
c. Period
d. Sound wave
34. Sound intensity level is _________.
a. 10 log I/Iref
b. 10 log P/Pref
c. 20 log I/Iref
d. 30 log P/Pref
35. Sound pressure level is _________.
a. 20 log P/ Pref
b. 30 log P/ Pref
c. 10 log P/ Pref
d. 20 log I/Iref
36. The most important specification of
loudspeakers and microphones.
a. Frequency response
b. Field strength
c. Power density
d. Gain
37. Lowest fequency produced by a musical
instrument.
a. Midrange
b. Harmonic
c. Reflection
d. Refraction
38. Tendency of a sound energy to spread.
a. Diffraction
b. Rarefraction
c. Reflection
d. Refraction
39. Whenwaves bend away from straight
lines of travel, it is called _________.
a. Reflection
b. Diffraction
c. Rarefraction
d. Refraction
40. Required time for any sound to decay to
60 dB.
a. Echo time
b. Delay time
c. Reverberation time
d. Transient time
41. The intensity needed to produce an
audible sound varies with __________.
a. Frequency
b. Noise
c. Amplitude
d. Tone
42. Sound that vibrates too high for the
human ear to hear (over 20 kHz).
a. Subsonic
b. Transonic
c. Ultrasonic
d. Stereo
43. Which microphone will be damaged if
exposed to high temperature above
52C?
a. Dynamic
b. Crystal
c. Ribbon
d. Capacitor
44. A thin springy sheet of bakelite or metal
that permits the voice coil in a dynamic
loudspeaker to move back and forth
salong the core of its magnet.
a. Vibrator
b. Diaphragm
c. Hypex
d. Spider
45. One hundred twenty bars of pressure
variation is equal to
a. 120 dB SPL
b. 57.78 dB SPL
c. 115.56 dB SPL
d. 41.58 dB SPL
46. The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic
meters broadcast studio is 0.84 sec. Find
the absorption effect of the materials
used in metric sabines.
a. 35.3
b. 10.96
c. 379.8
d. 109.6
47. What is the microphone characteristic
that results in a boost in bassfrequencies
for close microphone spacing?
a. Field effect
b. P.A. effect
c. Proximity effect
d. Reverberation
48. What is the audio frequency range?
a. 20 kHz to 20 MHz
b. 0 Hz to 20 kHz
c. 300 Hz to 400 Hz
d. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
49. What is the bass frequency range?
a. 2500 Hz to 5000 Hz
b. 5000 Hz to 10 kHz
c. 40 kHz to 160 kHz
d. 10 Hz to 20 kHz
50. High frequency range of audio signals.
a. 2500 Hz to 5000 Hz
b. 5000 Hz to 10 kHz
c. 10 kHz to 20 kHz
d. 20000 Hz to 30 kHz
51. What is the dB SPL of a voice paging in
an office?
a. 90
b. 65
c. 55-60
d. 80-85
52. What is the dB SPL of an auditorium
with contemporary music?
a. 80-95
b. 85-90
c. 95-100
d. 100-105
53. What is the church dB SPL with speech
reinforcement only?
a. 90
b. 80-85
c. 85-90
d. 90-95
54. Intensity can also be called as
a. Volume
b. Loudness
c. Sharpness
d. Strength
55. Tje loudness of a sound depends upon
the energy of motion imparted to
________ molecules of the medium
transmitting the sound.
a. Transmitting
b. Running
c. Moving
d. Vibrating
56. _________ is affected by the distance
between the listener and the source of
the sound and its intensityvaries
inversely with the square of its distance.
a. Volume
b. Bass
c. Treble
d. Loudness
57. If the distance between the listener and
the source of the sound is doubled, the
intensity is reduced to
a.
b. 1/3
c. 2/3
d. 1/4
58. If the distance between the listener and
the source of the sound is decreased to
tye original amount, the intensity of the
sound would be
a. 2 times as great
b. 3 times as great
c. 4 times as great
d. 5 times as great
59. At a sensation level of 40 dB, 1000 Hz

tone is
a. 1000 mels
b. 500 mels
c. 2000 mels
d. 100 mels
60. If the sound waves are converted to
electrical waves by a microphone, what
is the frequency of the electric current?
a. 3 - 30 MHz
b. 25 8000 Hz
c. 4 40 Hz
d. 30 3000 Hz
61. For a music lover concert A is 440 Hz.
If a musical note one octave higher were
played, it would be _______ that
frequency.
a. One half
b. One-fourth
c. Double
d. Triple
62. In a 220 Hz, if a note was played one
octave lower, it would be ______.
a. 22 Hz
b. 27.5 Hz
c. 440 Hz
d. 110 Hz
63. Much of music is generally reffered to in
a. Harmonics
b. Good hearing
c. Fidelity
d. Octaves
64. _________ is an undesired change in

wave form as the signal passes through a
device.
a. Noise
b. Vibration
c. Distortion
d. Harmonics
65. Distortion enhances intelligibly when an
________ is added.
a. Equalizer
b. Igniter
c. Exciter
d. Emulsifier
66. A class of signal processors.
a. Amplifiers
b. Equalizers
c. Microprocessors
d. Exciters
67. Half construction and internal finishes
affect the final sound quality ________.
a. poorly
b. mildly
c. significantly
d. badly
68. Positioning a loudspeaker near a wall
can dramatically alter its frequency
response in two distinct ways namely;
a. Gump and dump
b. Hump and notch
c. Fade and gone
d. Bad and worst
69. The acoustics of most auditoria are very
________ when the room is full
compared to the empty condition.
a. Different
b. Similar
c. Good
d. Bad
70. A _________ converts acoustical
energy.
a. Electro-acoustic
b. Microphone transducer
c. Microphone
d. Electric Microphone
71. All microphone have two basic
components namely, ___________.
a. Wired and body
b. Ceramic and crystal
c. Diaphragm and generating element
d. Coil and magnet
72. The kinds of generating elements are
__________.
a. Expense and fidelity
b. Complexity and ruggedness
c. Longevity
d. All of these
73. When the average absorption is greater
than 0.2, __________ formula is used to
compute the actual reverberation time.
a. Sabine
b. Stephen and Bate
c. Norris-Eyring
d. Notch
74. At room temperature, what is the
velocity of sound in meters/seconds?
a. 348.03 cm/s
b. 980 cm/s
c. 980 m/s
d. 341.8 m/s
75. Calculate the velocity of sound in ft./sec.
if the temperature is 1490C?
a. 1530.03 ft/sec
b. 1320 ft/sec
c. 1357.03 ft/sec
d. 1920.345 ft/sec
76. The wavelength of a sound of 20 kHz
frequency is
a. 16.5 m
b. 16.5 cm
c. 16.5 mm
d. 16.5 um
77. The radio of frequencies is termed
a. Octave
b. Interval
c. Harmonics
d. Masking
78. What is the increase in sound pressure
level in dB, if the pressure is doubled?
a. 2 dB
b. 3 dB
c. 6 dB
d. 4 dB
79. A term which is subjected but dependent
mainly on frequency and also affected
by intensity,
a. Timbre
b. Quality
c. Frequency
d. Pitch
80. An effect that occurs in the ear where a
louder sound can reduce or even stop the
nerve voltage generated by a weaker

sound.
a. Piezoelectric effect
b. Skin effect
c. Lasing
d. Masking
81. For computation of ideal reverberation
time, which formula is applicable?
a. Sabine
b. Stephen and Bate
c. Norris-Eyring
d. Notch
82. The __________ of the sound is a
subjective effect which is a function of
the ear and brain.
a. Pitch
b. Frequency
c. Timbre
d. Loudness
83. Define as the time taken from the
intensity of sound energy in the room to
drop to one millionth of its initial value.
a. Reverberation time
b. Transit time
c. Decaying time
d. Response time
84. __________ is the sound energy per unit
area at right angles of the propagation
direction, per unit time.
a. Loudness
b. Coherence
c. Sound stress
d. Sound intensity
85. One octave above 600 Hz is
a. 601 Hz
b. 800 Hz
c. 1400 Hz
d. 1200 Hz
86. A car horn outdoors produces a sound
intensity level of 90 dB at 10 m away. At
this distance, what is the sound power in
watt?
a. 0.63
b. 1.26
c. 0.315
d. 0.56 x 10-6
87. The unit of loudness level
a. Sone
b. dB
c. Mel
d. Phon
88. Consist of a rapid succession of
noticeable echoes.
a. Rarefaction
b. Refraction
c. Reflection
d. Flutter echo
89. Laid the foundations of acoustic theory
of buildings.
a. Charles H. Townes
b. W.C Sabine
c. A. Javin
d. Stephen and Bate
90. An aural sensation by pressure variations
in the air which are always produced by
some source of vibrations.
a. Music
b. Sound
c. Disturbance
d. Speech
91. Considered to be the threshold of
hearing.
a. 10-12 W/cm2
b. 10-16 W/m2
c. 10-13 W/m2
d. 10-12 W/m2
92. The average absorption for a person is
a. 5.7 units
b. 4.7 units
c. 6.7 units
d. 3.7 units
93. The number of vibration or pressure
fluctuations per seconds.
a. Frequency
b. Timbre
c. Quality
d. Pitch
94. Defined as the average rate of
direction through a cross-sectional area
of 1 m2 at right angles to the direction.
a. Sound pressure
b. Loudness
c. Sound intensity
d. Pressure variation
95. What is the sound pressure level (SPL)
of a sound having a RMS pressure of
200 N/m2?
a. 150 dB
b. 140 dB
c. 170 dB
d. 160 dB
96. The minimum sound intensity that can

be heard is termed
a. Threshold of feeling
b. Threshold of pain
c. Threshold of sensation
d. Threshold of hearing
97. What is the intensity of the sound whose
RMS pressure is 200 N/m2?
a. 96.9 W/m2
b. 97.9 W/m2
c. 95.9 W/m2
d. 94.9 W/m2
98. The unit of pitch.
a. sone
b. pitch
c. dB
d. Mel
99. What is the increase in sound pressure
level in dB, if the intensity is doubled?
a. 2 dB
b. 3 dB
c. 4 dB
d. 6 dB
100.
The velocity of sound is
considered to be constant at ________
for the purpose of acoustics.
a. 300 m/s
b. 330 mm/s
c. 330 m/s
d. 330 cm/s
4.
5.
6.
Radiation and wave propagation
1. ________ is the amount of voltage
induced in wave by an electro magnetic
wave.
a. receive voltage
b. magnetic induction
c. field strength
d. power density
2. An electro magnetic wave consists of
___________.
a. both electric and magnetic fields.
b. an electric field only
c. a magnetic field only
d. non-magnetic field only
3. What is the lowest layer of the
ionosphere?
a. F1
b. F2
7.
8.
c. E
d. D
Who profounded electro magnetic
radiation theory?
a. Sir Edward Appleton
b. James Clerk Maxwell
c. Christian Huygens
d. Sir Isaac Newton
The D, E and F layers are known as
____________.
a. Mark space Layers
b. Davinson- Miller Layers
c. Kennely Heaviside Layers
d. Appleton Layers
Different grouping of the
electromagnetic spectrum.
a. band
b. bandwidth
c. channel
d. group
What is the relation in degrees of the
electric and magnetic fields in an
electromagnetic wave?
a. 180 degrees
b. 90 degrees
c. 270 degrees
d. 45 degrees
A changing electric field gives rise to
________.
a. a magnetic field
b. sound field
c. electromagnetic waves
d. near and far fields
9. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate

by means of
a. ground waves
b. sky waves
c. surface waves
d. space waves
10. In electromagnetic waves, polarization
__________.
a. is caused by reflection
b. is due to the transverse nature of
the waves
c. results from the longitudinal
nature of the waves
d. is always vertical in an isotropic
medium
11. Electromagnetic Waves are refracted
when they ___________.
a. pass into a medium of different
dielectric constants
b. are polarized at right angles to
the direction of propagation
c. encounter a perfectly conducting
surface
d. pass through a small slot in a
conducting plane
12. What is the highest layer of the
atmosphere?
a. ionosphere
b. stratosphere
c. troposphere
d. ozone layer
13. What is the thickest layer of the
ionosphere?
a. F2
b. F1
c. D
d. E
14. Effective Earth radius to true earth
radius ratio.
a. index of refraction
b. K factor
c. Fresnel zone
d. path profile
15. Fading due to interference between
direct and reflected rays.
a. atmospheric-mutipath
b. Fresnel zone
c. reflection-multi path
d. Rayleigh fading
16. The layer that reflects very low
frequency waves and absorbs medium
frequency waves.
a. D Layer
b. E Layer
c. F1 Layer
d. F2 Layer
17. What layer is used for high-frequency
day time propagation?
a. D Layer
b. E Layer
c. F1 Layer
d. F2 Layer
18. What is the highest frequency that can
be sent straight upward and be returned
to earth?
a. MUF
b. skip frequency
c. critical frequency
d. gyro frequency
19. High frequency range is from?
a. 0.3 to 3MHz
b. 3 to 30MHz
c. 30 to 300MHz
d. 3to 30MHz
20. Medium frequency range is from
a. 0.01 to 0.03 MHz
b. 0.03 to 0.3MHz
c. 0.3 to 3MHz
d. 3 to 30 MHz
21. In tropospheric scatter propagation, the
attenuation is dependent on
a. scatter angle
b. take-off angle
c. antenna size
d. the troposphere
22. If the transmitter power remains
constant, an increase in the frequency of
the sky wave will
a. lengthen the skip distance
b. increase the range of the ground
wave
c. reduce the length of the skip
distance
d. have no effect on the ground
wave range
23. What is the unit of electric field
strength?
a. volts per square meter
b. volt per square cm
c. volts per meter
d. milivolt per watt
24. Velocity of a radio wave in free space.
a. 186,000 miles per sec

b. 300x106 meters per sec
c. 162,000 nautical mile per sec
d. all of the above
25. Refers to the direction of the electric
field vector in space.
a. polarization
b. directivity
c. radiation
d. ERP
26. An TEM wave whose polarization
rotates.
a. vertically polarized
b. omnidirectional
c. horizontally polarized
d. circularly polarized
27. velocity of light in free space
a. 300x106m/s
b. 300x106km/s
c. 186,000km/s
d. 186,000m/s
repeater with 200W transmitter power
output, 4dB feed line loss, 4dB duplxer
and circulator loss, and 10dB feed line
antenna gain?
a. 2000W
b. 126W
c. 317W
d. 260W
29. Radio wave that is far from its sources
is called
a. Plane wave
b. isotrpic wave
c. vertical wave
d. horizontal wave
30. Light goes from medium A to medium
B at angle of incidence of 40 degrees.
The angle of refraction is 30 degrees.
The speed of light in B
a. is the same as that in A
b. is greater than that in A
c. maybe any of these, depending
on the specific medium
d. is less than that in A
31. In a vacuum, the speed of an
electromagnetic wave
a. depends on its constant
b. depends on its wavelength
c. depends on its electric and
magnetic fields
d. is a universal constant
32. The depth of an object submerged in a
transparent liquid
a. always seems more that its actual
depth
b may seem less or more than its
actual depth, depending on the object
c. always seems less than its actual
depth
d. may seem less or more than its
actual depth, depending on the
transparent liquid
33. What is a wave front?
a. a voltage pulse in a conductor
b. a current in a conductor
c. a fixed point in an
d. a voltage pulse across a resistor

34. VHF ship station transmitters must have
the capability of reducing carrier power
to
a. 1W
b. 10W
c. 25W
d. 50W
35. Most of the effects an electro magnetic
wave produces when it interacts with
matter are due to its
a. magnetic field
b. speed
c. frequency
d. electric field
36. A mobile receiver experiences dead
areas of reception as a result of
a. atmospheric absorption
b. tropospheric scatter
c. sporadic E
d. shading of the RF signal by hills
and trees
37. When the electric field is perpendicular
in the surface of the earth, what is the
polarization of the TEM wave?
a. elliptical
b. vertical
c. horizontal
d. circular
38. When the magnetic field is
perpendicular to the surface of the earth,
what is the polarization of the TEM
wave?
a. circular
b. horizontal
c. vertical
d. elliptical
39. When the magnetic field is parallel to
the surface of the earth, what is the
polarization of the TEM wave?
a. elliptical
b. horizontal
c. vertical
d. circular
40. What are the two interrelated fields
considered to make up an
a. an electric field and a current
field
b. an electric field and voltage field
c. an electric field and a magnetic
field
d. a voltage and current fields
41. How does the bandwidth of the
transmitted signal affect selective
fading?
a. it is more pronounced at narrow
bandwidths
b. it is equally pronounced at both
narrow and wide bandwidths
c. it is more pronounced at wide
bandwidths
d. the receiver bandwidth
determines the selective fading
42. A wide-bandwidth communications
systems in which the RF carrier varies
according to some predetermined
sequence.
a. amplitude compandored single

sideband
b. SITOR
c. spread spectrum communication
d. time-domain frequency
modulation
43. A changing magnetic field gives rise to
a. sound field
b. magnetic field
c. electric field
d. nothing in particular
44. When a space-wave signal passes over a
mountain ridge, a small part of the signal
is diffracted down the far side of the
mountain. This phenomenon is called
a. discontinuity scattering
b. troposheric ducting
c. knife-edge diffraction
d. space-wave refraction
45. The index of refraction of a material
medium
a. is greater than 1
b. is less than 1
c. is equal to 1
d. maybe any of the bove
46. At what speed do electromagnetic
waves travel in free space?
a. approximately 468 million
meters per second
b. approximately 186300 ft/s
c. approximately 300 million m/s
d. approximately 300 million
miles/s
47. What is the effective earth radius when

surface refractivity, and N equals 300?
a. 6370km
b.7270km
c.7950km
d. 8500km
48. If N = 250, what is the earth radius Kfactor?
a. 1.23
b. 1.29
c. 1.33
d. 1.32
49. Electric field that lies in a plane
perpendicular to the earths surface
a. vertical polarization
b. horizontal polarization
c. circular polarization
d. elliptical polarization
50. Electric field that lies in a plane parallel
to the earths surface
a. vertical polarization
b. horizontal polarization
c. circular polarization
51. Indicate which one of the following
terms applies to trposcatter propagation
a. SIDs
b. fading
c. atmospheric storms
d. faraday rotation
52. VLF waves are used for some types of
services because
a. of the low power required
b the transmitting antennas are of

convenient size
c. they are very reliable
d. they penetrate the ionosphere
easily
53. Indicate which of the following
frequencies cannot be used for reliable
beyond-the-horizon terrestrial
communications without repeaters
a. 20KHz
b. 15MHz
c. 900MHz
d. 12GHz
54. High-frequency waves are
a. absorbed by the F2 layer
b. reflected by the D leayer
c. capable of use for long-distance
communications on the moon
d. affected nby the solar cycle
55. Distances near the skip distance should
be used for sky-wave propagation
a. to avaoid tilting
b. to prevent sky-wave and upper
ray interference
c. to avoid the faraday effect
d. so as not to exceed the critical
frequency
56. A ship-to-ship communications system
is plague by fading. The best solution
seems to be the use of
a. a more directional antenna
b. a broadband antenna
c. frequency diversity
d. space diversity
57. A range of microwave frequencies more

easily passed by the atmosphere than are
the others is called a
a. window
b. critical frequency
c. gyro frequency range
d. resonance in the atmosphere
58. frequencies in the UHF range normally
propagate by means of
a. ground waves.
b. sky waves
c. surface waves
d. space waves
59. Tropospheric scatter is used with
frequencies in the following range
a. HF
b. VHF
c. UHF
d. VLF
60. The ground wave eventually disappears
as one moves away from the transmitter
because of
a. interference from the sky wave
b. loss of line of sight
conditions
c. maximum single-hop distance
limitation
d. tilting
61. in electromagnetic waves, polarization
means
a. the physical orientation of
magnetic field in space
b. the physical orientation of
electric field in space
c. ionization
d. the presence of positive and
negative ions
62. an electromagnetic waves travel in free
space, only one of the following can
happen to them.
a. absorption
b. attenuation
c. refraction
d. reflection
63. the absorption of a radio waves by the
atmosphere depends on
a. their frequency
b. their distance from the
transmitter
c. the polarization of the waves
d. the polarization of the
atmosphere
64. diffraction of electromagnetic waves
a. is caused by reflections from the
ground
b. arises only with spherical
wavefronts
c. will occur when the waves pass
through a large slot
d. may occur around the edge of a
sharp object
65. In an electromagnetic wave the electric

field is
a. Parallel to both magnetic field and
the wave direction
b. Perpendicular to both the magnetic

field and the wave direction
c. Parallel to the magnetic field and
perpendicular to the wave direction
d. Perpendicular to the magnetic field
and parallel to the wave direction
66. The highest frequencies are found in
a. X-rays
b. Radio waves
c. Ultraviolet rays
d. Radar waves
67. Electromagnetic waves transport
a. Wavelength
b. Charge
c. Frequency
d. Energy
68. The ionosphere is a region of ionized gas
in the upper atmosphere. The ionosphere
is responsible for
a. The blue color of the sky
b. Rainbows
c. Long distance radio
communication
d. The ability of satellites to orbit
the earth
69. Light of which the following colors has
the shortest wavelength
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Blue
d. Green
70. The quality in sound that corresponds to
color in light is
a. Amplitude
b. Resonance
c. Waveform
d. Pitch
71. All real images
a. Are erect
b. Can appear on screen
c. Are inverted
d. Cannot appear on a screen
72. When a beam of light enters one
medium from another, a quality that
never changes is its
a. Direction
b. Frequency
c. Speed
d. Wavelength
73. Relative to the angle of incidence, the
angle of refraction
a. Is smaller
b. Is larger
c. Is the same
d. Either A or B above
74. A light ray enters one medium from
another along the normal. The angle of
refraction is
a. 0
b. 90 degrees
c. Equal to the critical angle
d. Dependent on the indexes of
refraction of the two media
75. What layer aids MF surface-wave
propagation a little and reflects some HF
waves in daytime?
a. E layer
b. D layer
c. F1 layer
d. F2 layer
76. Dispersion is the term used to describe
a. The splitting of white light into
its component colors in
regraction
b. The propagation of light in
straight lines
c. The bending of a beam of light
when it goes from one medium to
another
d. The bending of a beam of light
when it strikes a mirror
77. The depth of an objects submerged in a
transparent liquid
a. Always seems less than its actual
depth
b. Always seems more than its
actual depth
c. May seems more than its actual
depth, depending on the index of
refraction of the liquid
d. May seem less or more than its
actual depth depending on the
angle of view
78. Total internal reflection can occur when
light passes from one medium to another
a. That has a lower index of
refraction
b. That has a larger index of
refraction
c. That has the same index of
refraction
d. At less than the critical angle
79. When the light ray approaches a glassair interface from the glass side at the
critical angle, the angle of refraction is
a. 0
b. 90 degrees
c. 45 degrees
d. Equal to the angle of incidence
80. The brightness of light source is called
its luminous intensity , whose unit is
a. Candela
b. Lux
c. Lumen
d. Footcandle
81. Luminous efficiency is least for a
a. Low-wattage light bulb
b. Mercury vapour lamp
c. High-wattage light bulb
d. Fluorescent tube
82. The minimum illumination
recommended for reading is
a. 8000 cd
b. 8000 lx
c. 8000 lm
d. 800W
83. Light enters a glass plate whose index of
refraction is 1.6 at an angle of incidence
of 30 degrees . the angle of refraction is
a. 18 degrees
b. 48 degrees
c. 19 degrees
d. 53 degrees
84. Light leaves a slab of transparent
material whose index of refraction is 2 at
an angle of refraction of 0 degrees. The

angle of incidence is
a. 0 degrees
b. 45 degrees
c. 30 degrees
d. 90 degrees
85. Light enters a glass plate at an angle of
incidence of 40 degrees and is refracted
at an angle refraction of 25 degrees. The
index refraction of the glass is
a. 0.625
b. 1.52
c. 0.66
d. 1.6
86. An underwater swimmer shines a flash
light beam upward at an angle of
incidence of 40 degrees. The angle of
refraction is 60 degrees. The index of
refraction of water is
a. 0.67
b. 1.3
c. 0.74
d. 1.5
87. The critical angle of incidence for light
going from crown glass (n=1.5) to ice
(n=1.3) is
a. 12 degrees
b. 50 degrees
c. 42 degrees
d. 60 degrees
88. The solid angle subtended by a
hemisphere about its ceter is
a. /2 sr
b. 2 sr
c. sr
d. depends on the radius of the
hemisphere
89. the luminous flux emitted by a 60-cd
isotropic light source is concentrated on
an area of 0.5m2. the illumination of the
area is
a. 9.6 lx
b. 377 lx
c. 120 lx
d. 1508 lx
90. Microwave signals propagate by way of
the
a. Direct wave
b. Sky wave
c. Surface wave
d. Standing wave
91. The ionosphere causes radio signals to
be
a. Diffused
b. Absorbed
c. Refracted
d. Reflected
92. Ground wave communications is most
effective in what frequency range?
a. 300KHz to 3MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300MHz
d. Above 300MHz
93. The ionosphere has its greatest effect on
signals in what frequency range?
a. 300KHz to 3MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300MHz
d. Above 300MHz
94. The type of radio wave responsible for
long distance communications by
multiple skips is the
a. Groud wave
b. Direct wave
c. Surface wave
d. Sky wave
95. Line of sight communications is not a
factor in which frequency range?
a. VHF
b. UHF
c. HF
d. Microwave
96. A microwave-transmitting antenna is
550ft high. The receiving antenna is
200ft high. The minimum transmission
distance is
a. 20 mi
b. 33.2 mi
c. 38.7 mi
d. 53.2 mi
97. To increase the transmission distance of
UHF signal, which of the following
should be done?
a. Increase antenna gain
b. Increase antenna height
c. Increase transmitter power
d. Increase receiver sensitivity
98. States that power density is inversely
proportional to the distance from its
source.
a. Principle of reciprocity
b. Inverse square law
c. Huygens Princple
d. Faradays law
99.
gets in contact with the
ionosphere and reflected by it.
a. Space wave
b. Sky wave
c. Surface wave
d. Satellite wave
100.
Highest layer in the ionosphere
a. F1
b. D
c. F2
d. E
101. Next lowest layer in the ionosphere.
a. D
b. E
c. F1
d. F2
102. What is the primary cause of ionization
in the atmosphere?
a. Sun spot
b. Cosmic rays
c. Galactic disturbance
d. Ultraviolet radiation
103. Which layer does not disappear at
night?
a. D
b. E
c. F1
d. F2
104. Which of the following uses surface
wave propagation?
a. ELF
b. VLF
c. MF
d. All of these
105. The ability of the ionosphere to reflect a
radio wave back to the earth is
determined by
a. Operating frequency
b. Ion density
c. Angle of incidence
d. All of these
106. Highest frequency that can be used for
skywave propagation between two given
points on earth.
a. Critical frequency
b. MUF
c. Cut off frequency
d. UHF
107. The shortest distance measured along
the earths surface that a skywave is
returned to earth.
a. MUF
b. Quarter-wavelength
c. Skip distance
d. Skip zone
108. Fluctuation in the signal strength at the
receiver.
a. Interference
b. Fading
c. Tracking
d. Variable frequency
109. Two or more antennas are used
separated by several wavelengths
a. Space diversity
b. Frequency diversity
c. Hybrid diversity
d. Polarization diversity
110. Two or more receivers are used using a
single antenna.
a. Space diversity
b. Frequency diversity
c. Hybrid diversity
d. Polarization diversity
111. One of the following is not a cause of
fading.
a. Interference between upper and
lower rays of a sky wave.
b. Skywaves arriving at different
number of hops
c. Interference due to ground
reflected wave and skywave
d. Diversity
112. What do you call the gigantic emissions
of hydrogen from the sun?
a. Solar flares
b. SIDs
c. Kennely-Heaviside
d. Sun spots
113. Sudden ionospheric disturbance
a. Solar flares
b. SIDs
c. Sun spots
d. Intertropical convergence
114. A means beyond the line of sight
propagation of UHF signals.
a. Microwave propagation
b. Space wave propagation
c. Troposcatter propagation
d. Surface wave propagation
115. Two directional antennas are pointed so

that their beams intersect in the
troposphere.
a. Skywave
b. Surface wave
c. Microwave
d. Troposcatter
116. Super refraction.
a. Ducting
b. Trposcatter
c. Skywave
d. Space wave
117. A layer of warm air trapped above
cooler air
a. Troposphere
b. SID
c. Duct
d. Huygens principle
118. Corresponds to voltage
a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
c. Gyro
d. Direction of propagation
119. Absence of reception
a. Skip distance
b. Maximum usable
c. Shadow zone
d. Twilight zone
120. Each point in a spherical waveform
maybe a source of a secondary spherical
wavefront.
a. Senlls law
b. Huygens principle
c. Rayleighs principle
d. De Morgans theore,
121. Ducting occurs in which region of the
atmosphere?
a. Stratosphere
b. Troposphere
c. Ionosphere
d. Ozone layer
122. When is the E region most ionized?
a. At midday
b. At midnight
c. At duck
d. At dawn
123. Transequatorial propagation is best
during
a. Night time
b. Afternoon or early evening
c. Noontime
d. Morning
124. Which of the following is most affected
by knife-edge refraction?
a. Very high and ultra high
frequencies
b. High frequencies
Transmission Fundamentals
c. Medium frequency
1. What is the opposition to the transfer of
d. Low frequency
energy which is considered the dominant
125. Which ionosphere layer has an average
characteristic of a cable or circuit that
height of 225km at night?
emanates from its physical structure?
a. D layer
a. Conductance
b. E layer
b. Resistance
c. F1 layer
c. Reactance
d. F2 layer
d. Impedance
2. When load impedance equals to Zo of

the line, it means that the load _____ all
the power.
a. reflects
b. absorbs
c. attenuates
d. radiates
3. impedance matching ratio of a coax
balun.
a. 1:4
b. 4:1
c. 2:1
d. 3:2
4. Which stands for dB relative level?
a. dBrn
b. dBa
c. dBr
d. dBx
5. Standard test tone used for audio
measurement.
a. 800 Hz
b. 300 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 1000 Hz
6. When VSWR is equal to zero, this
means
a. that no power is applied
b. that the load is purely resistive
c. that the load is a pure reactance
d. that the load is opened
7. _______ is the ratio of reflected voltage
to the forward travelling voltage.
a. SWR
b. VSWR
c. Reflection coefficient
d. ISWR
8. Transmission line must be matched to
the load to ______.
a. transfer maximum voltage to the
load
b. transfer maximum power to the load
c. reduce the load current
d. transfer maximum current to the load
9. Which indicate the relative energy loss
in a capacitor?
a. Quality factor
b. Reactive factor
c. Dissipation factor
d. Power factor
10. What is the standard test tone?
a. 0 dB
b. 0 dBW
c. 0 dBm
d. 0 dBrn
11. The energy that neither radiated into
space nor completely transmitted.
a. Reflected waves
b. Captured waves
c. Incident waves
d. Standing waves
12. Micron is equal to _______ meter.
a. 10-10
b. 10-9
c. 10-6
d. 10-3
13. 1 Angstrom (A) is equal to _______.
a. 10-3 micron
b. 10-10 m
c. 10-6 micron
d. 10-6 m
14. Why is it impossible to use a waveguide
at low radio frequencies?
a. Because of the size of the waveguide
b. Due to severe attenuation
c. Due to too much radiation
d. All of these
15. ________ is the transmission and
reception of information.
a. Modulation
b. Communications
c. Radiation
d. Emission
16. What is the loss of the circuit in dB if the
power ration of output to input is 0.01?
a. 20
b. -20
c. 40
d. -40
17. Transmission lines are either balanced or
unbalanced with respect to
a. Negative terminal
b. Reference
c. Ground
d. Positive terminal
18. The standing wave ratio is equal to
_______ if the load is properly matched
with the transmission line.
a. Infinity
b. 0
c. -1
d. 1
19. ________ is the advantage of the

balanced transmission line compared to
unbalanced line.
a. Low attenuation
b. Easy installation
c. Low radiation loss
d. Tensile strength
20. _______ is the method of determining
the bandwidth of any processing system.
a. Fourier series
b. Spectral analysis
c. Frequency analysis
d. Bandwidth analysis
21. What causes the attenuation present in a
waveguide?
a. The air dielectric filling the guide
b. The coating of silver inside
c. Losses in the conducting walls of the
guide
d. Radiation loss
22. A device that converts a balanced line to
an unbalanced line of a transmission
line.
a. Hybrid
b. Stub
c. Directional coupler
d. Balun
23. What is the approximate line impedance
of a parallel-strip line spaced 1 cm apart
with the length of 50 cm?
a. 10 ohms
b. 15 ohms
c. 18 ohms
d. 23 ohms
24. What is the average power rating of RG58 C/u?

a. 25 W
b. 50 W
c. 75 W
d. 200 W
25. A coaxial cable used for high
temperatures.
a. RG-58C
b. RG-11A
c. RG-213
d. RG-211
26. If you have available number of power
amplifiers with a gain of 100 each, how
many such amplifiers do you need to
cascade to give an overall gain of 60dB?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
27. You are measuring noise in a voice
channel at a -4 dB test point level, the
meter reads -73 dBm, convert the
reading into dBrnCO.
a. 12
b. 16
c. 18
d. 21
28. The velocity factor for a transmission
line
a. depends on the dielectric constant of
the material used
b. increases the velocity along the
transmission line
c. is governed by the skin effect

d. is higher for a solid dielectric than
for air
29. Impedance inversion can be obtained by
a. a short-circuited stub
b. an open-circuited stub
c. a quarter-wave line
d. a half-wave line
30. Transmission lines when connected to
antennas have
a. capacitive load
b. resistive load whose resistance is
greater than the characteristic
c. resistive load whose resistance is less
than the characteristic impedance of
the line
d. resistive load at the resonant
frequency
31. One of the following is not a bounded
media.
a. Coaxial line
b. Two-wire line
c. Waveguide
d. Ocean
32. The impedance measured at the input of
the transmission line when its length is
infinite.
a. Input impedance
b. Open circuit impedance
c. Characteristic impedance
d. Short circuit impedance
33. The following are considered primary
line constants except
a. conductance
b. resistance
c. capacitance
d. complex propagation constant
34. The dielectric constants of materials
commonly used in transmission lines
range from about
a. 1.2 to 2.8
b. 2.8 to 3.5
c. 3.5 to 5.2
d. 1.0 to 1.2
35. Typically, the velocity factor (VF) of the
materials used in transmission lines
range from
a. 0.6 to 0.9
b. 0.1 to 0.5
c. 1.0 to 0.9
d. 0.6 to 0.8
36. For an air dielectric two-wire line, the
minimum characteristic impedance value
is
a. 85 ohms
b. 85 ohms
c. 90 ohms
d. 88 ohms
37. When a quarter-wave section
transmission line is terminated by a short
circuit and is connected to an RF source
at the other end, its input impedance is
a. inductive
b. capacitive
c. resistive
d. equivalent to a parallel resonant LC
circuit
38. A transmitter operating at 30 MHz with

4 W output is connected via 10 m of
RG-8A/u cable to an antenna that has an
input resistance of 300 ohms. Find the
reflection coefficient.
a. 0.71
b. 0.77
c. 0.97
d. 0.76
39. A quarter wave transformer is connected
to a parallel wire line in order to match
the line to a load of 1000 ohms. The
transformer has a characteristic
impedance of 316.23 ohms. The distance
between centers is 4 inches. What is the
percentage reduction in the diameter of
the line?
a. 85%
b. 83%
c. 86%
d. 90%
40. The concept used to make one Smith
chart universal is called
a. ionization
b. normalization
c. rationalization
d. termination
41. What are the basic elements of
a. Source, transmission channel,
transmitter
b. Transmitter, receiver, transmission
channel
c. Information, transmission channel,

receiver
d. Sender and receiver
42. ________ is the transmission of printed
material over telephone lines.
a. Internet
b. Data communication
c. Telegraphy
d. Facsimile
43. ________ is a continuous tone generated
by the combination of two frequencies of
350 Hz and 440 Hz used in telephone
sets.
a. DC tone
b. Ringing tone
c. Dial tone
d. Call waiting tone
44. ________ are unidirectional amplifiers
having 20-25 decibel gain that are placed
about 75 km apart used to compensate
for losses along the telephone line.
a. VF repeaters
b. Loading coils
c. Loop extenders
d. Echo suppressors
45. ________ is a component in the
telephone set that has the primary
function of interfacing the handset to the
local loop.
a. Resistor
b. Capacitor
c. Varistor
d. Induction coil
46. Pulse dialing has ________ rate.
a. 20 pulses/min
b. 10 pulses/min
c. 10 pulses/sec
d. 80 pulses/sec
47. ________ is a telephone wire that
connects two central offices.
a. 2-wire circuit
b. Trunk line
c. Leased line
d. Private line
48. The central switching office
coordinating element for all cell sites
that has cellular processor and a cellular
switch. It interfaces with telephone
company zone offices, control call
processing and handle billing activities.
a. MTSO
b. Cell site
c. PTSN
d. Trunk line
49. ________ in a cellular system performs
radio-related functions for cellular site.
a. Switching system
b. Base station
c. Operation and support system
d. Mobile station
50. A technology used to increase the
capacity of a mobile phone system.
a. Frequency re-use
b. Cell splitting
c. TDM
d. FDM
51. If the grade of service of a telephone

system indicated P = 0.05, what does it
mean?
a. Completed calls of 5%
b. Lost calls of 5%
c. Lost calls of 95%
d. Lost calls of 105%
52. ________ is the Out-of-Band signaling
between Toll Central Offices (Bell
System Standard).
a. 3, 825 Hz
b. 3, 700 Hz
c. 2, 600 Hz
d. 800 Hz
53. In a telephone system, the customers
telephone directory numbering is from
000 to 999, what is the capacity of a
telephone system numbering from 000 to
999?
a. 100 lines
b. 1000 lines
c. 10, 000 lines
d. 100, 000 lines
54. If the SWR is infinite, what type of load
transmission line has?
a. Purely reactive
b. Purely resistive
c. Purely capacitive
d. Purely inductive
55. Not more than _______ digits make up
an international telephone number as
recommended by CCITT REC. E. 161.
a. 8
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
56. One (1) Erlang is equal to _______.
a. 360 CCS
b. 36 CCS
c. 3.6 CCS
d. 100 CCS
57. Standard tariff for flat rate telephone
service beyond the normal flat rate in
that area.
a. WATS
b. OTLP
c. TIP
d. DTWX
58. The standard analog telephone channel
bandwidth.
a. 300-3400 Hz
b. 1200 Hz
c. 200-3200 Hz
d. 300-3000 Hz
59. Type of switching in which a pair of
wire from the telephone set terminates in
a jack and the switch is supervised by an
operator.
a. Crossbar switching
b. Manual switching
c. Electronic switching
d. Step-by-step switching
60. Every time when the telephone is idle,
the handset is in the _______ state.
a. On-hook
b. Off-hook
c. Busy
d. Spare
61. _______ is a component in the telephone

set that has the primary function of
compensating for the local loop length.
a. Resistor
b. Varistor
c. Capacitor
d. Induction coil
62. What kind of receiver is used in
conventional telephone handset?
a. Carbon
b. Electromagnetic
c. Ceramic
d. Capacitor
63. A voice-grade circuit using the PTN ha
an ideal passband of
a. 0 to 4 Hz
b. 0 to 4 MHz
c. 0 to 4 kHz
d. 0 to 4 GHz
64. ________ is the minimum-quality circuit
available using the PTN.
a. Basic voice grade (VG)
b. Basic voice channel (VC)
c. Basic voice band (VB)
d. Basic telephone channel
65. Direct distance dialing (DDD) network
is called
a. Private-line network
b. PT network
c. Dial-up network
d. Trunk network
66. What is the advantage of sidetone?
a. Transmission efficiency is increased
b. Speaker increases his voice resulting

in a strengthened signal
c. No dissipation of energy in the
balancing network
d. Assure the customer that the
telephone is working
67. ________ is a special service circuit
connecting two private branch
exchanges (PBX).
a. Phantom line
b. Tie trunk
c. Tandem trunk
d. Private line
68. The published rates, regulation, and
descriptions governing the provision of
communications service for public use.
a. Toll rate
b. Tariff
c. Bulk billing
d. Detailed billing
69. What is the power loss of a telephone
hybrid?
a. 1 dB
b. 2 dB
c. 3 dB
d. 6 dB
70. Telephone channel has a band-pass
characteristic occupying the frequency
range of _______.
a. 300-400 Hz
b. 300-3400 Hz
c. 300-3000 Hz
d. 300-2700 Hz
71. The first Strowger step-by-step switch

was used in _______.
a. 1875
b. 1890
c. 1897
d. 1913
72. What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz
voice signal if the phase shift is 15
degrees?
a. 52usec
b. 1.25usec
c. 83.33usec
d. 26usec
73. What is the CCITT recommendation for
a preparation of loss plan, a variable loss
plans and a fixed loss plan?
a. G. 133
b. G. 141
c. G. 132
d. G. 122
74. What is the diameter of a copper wire to
be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop
resistance of 100 ohms/km?
a. 0.838 mm
b. 0.465 mm
c. 1.626 mm
d. 2.159 mm
75. What kind of cell is appropriate for load
management, fast moving mobiles and
low-usage areas?
a. Pico cells
b. Micro cells
c. Nano cells
d. Umbrella cells
76. In cellular networks, standard base

station antennas are placed by _______.
a. adaptive array
b. flat plate antenna
c. dipole array
d. focused antenna
77. What is the basis of the first generation
wireless local loop?
a. Digital cellular technology
b. Analogue cellular technology
c. PSTN
d. AMPS technology
78. When the calling party hears a busy
tone on his telephone, the call is
considered
a. lost
b. disconnected
c. completed
d. incomplete
79. Short-circuited stubs are preferred to
open circuited stubs because the latter
are
a. more difficult to make and connect
b. made of a transmission line with a
different characteristic impedance
c. liable to radiate
d. incapable of giving a full range of
reactances
80. What is the ratio of the reflected voltage
to the incident voltage?
a. VSWR
b. ISWR
c. SWR
d. Coefficient of reflection
81. One method of determining antenna

impedance.
a. Sub matching
b. Trial and error
c. Smith chart
d. Quarter-wave matching
82. ________ is a single conductor running
from the transmitter to the antenna.
a. Single-wire line
b. Microstrip
c. Twin-lead
d. Coaxial line
83. Coaxial cable impedance is typically
_______.
a. 150 to 300 ohms
b. 50 to 75 ohms
c. 30 to 45 ohms
d. 300 to 600 ohms
84. Waveguide becomes compulsory above
what frequencies?
a. Above 3 GHz
b. Above 10 kHz
c. At 300 MHz
d. Above 10 GHz
85. Nominal voice channel bandwidth is
_______.
a. 20 to 30 kHz
b. 0 to 3 kHz
c. 4 kHz
d. 55 kHz above
86. Echo suppressors are used on all
communications system when the round
trip propagation time exceeds _______.
a. 50 ms
b. 30 ms
c. 100 ms
d. 1 ms
87. A radio transmission line of 300 ohms
impedance is to be connected to an
antenna having an input impedance of
150 ohms. What is the impedance of a
quarter-wave matching line?
a. 212 ohms
b. 250 ohms
c. 200 ohms
d. 150 ohms
88. Quarter-wavelength line is used as
_______.
a. impedance transformer
b. lecher line
c. transmission line
d. harmonic suppressor
89. The transmission lines which can convey
electromagnetic waves only in higher
modes is usually called
a. coaxial cable
b. waveguide
c. power lines
d. twisted wire of telephone line
90. Why is nitrogen gas sometimes used in
waveguide?
a. To increase the distributed
capacitance
b. To keep the waveguide dry
c. To reduce the skin effect at the walls
of the guide
d. To raise the guides wave impedance
91. The apparent speed of propagation along

a waveguide based on the distance
between wavefronts along the walls of
the guide is called
a. group velocity
b. phae velocity
c. normal velocity
d. abnormal velocity
92. How do you couple in and out of a
waveguide?
a. Wrap a coil of wire around one end
of the waveguide
b. Insertion of an E-probe into the
waveguide
c. Insertion of an H-loop into the
waveguide
d. Both B and C
93. A rectangular waveguide is operating in
the dominant TE10 mode. The associated
flux lines are established
a. transversely across the narrow
dimension of the waveguide
b. transversely across the wide
dimension of the waveguide
c. in the metal walls parallel to the
direction of propagation
d. in the metal walls perpendicular to
the direction of propagation
94. For dominant mode of a rectangular
waveguide, the distance between two
instantaneous consecutive positions of
maximum field intensity (in a direction
parallel to the walls of the waveguide) is
referred to as half of the
a. free-space wavelength
b. cutoff wavelength in the wide
dimension
c. guide wavelength
d. group wavelength
95. The guide wavelength, in a rectangular
waveguide is
a. equal to the free-space wavelength at
the cutoff frequency
b. equal to the free-space wavelength
for the same signal frequency
c. less than the free-space wavelength
at the cut-off frequency
d. greater than the free-space
wavelength at the same signal
frequency
96. Using the TE10 mode, microwave power
can only be transmitted in free
rectangular guide provided
a. the wider dimension is less than onehalf of the wavelength in free space
b. the narrow dimension is less than
one-quarter of the wavelength in free
space
c. the wide dimension is greater than
one-half of the guide wavelength
d. the wide dimension is greater than
one-half of the wavelength in free
space
97. If the signal frequency applied to a
rectangular guide is increased and the
dominant mode is employed
a. the free space wavelength is
increased
b. the phase velocity increased

c. the guide wavelength is increased
d. the group velocity, Vg, is increased
98. If a 6 GHz signal is applied to a
rectangular waveguide and the reflection
angle is 20o, what is the value of the
guide wavelength?
a. 6.10 cm
b. 5.32 cm
c. 4.78 cm
d. 5.00 cm
99. The inner dimensions of a rectangular
wavelength are 1.75 cm by 3.5 cm. The
cutoff wavelength for the dominant
mode is
a. 1.75 cm
b. 3.5 cm
c. 7.0 cm
d. 0.4375 cm
100.
A signal whose wavelength is 3.5
cm is being propagated along a guide
whose inner dimensions are 2 cm by 4
cm. What is the value of the guide
wavelength?
a. 3.12 cm
b. 3.89 cm
c. 3.57 cm
d. 6.30 cm
101.
The frequency range over which
a rectangular waveguide is excited in the
dominant mode is limited to
a. the difference between the frequency
for which the reflection angle is 90o
and the frequency for which angle is

zero
b. the difference between the frequency
for which the free-space wavelength
is equal to the cutoff value and the
frequency for which the free-space
wavelength is equal to the guide
wavelength
c. the difference between the frequency
at which the cutoff wavelength is
twice the narrow dimension
d. none of these
102.
If a rectangular waveguide is to
be excited in the dominant mode, the Eprobe should be inserted
a. at the sealed end
b. at a distance of one quarter
wavelength from the sealed end
c. at a distance of one-half wavelength
from the sealed end
d. at a distance of three-quarters of a
wavelength from the sealed end
103.
A quarter-wave line is connected
to an RF generator and is shorted out at
the far end. What is the input impedance
to the line generator?
a. A low value of resistance
b. A high value of resistance
c. A capacitive resistance which is
equal in the value to the lines surge
impedance
d. An inductive resistance which is
equal to the value to the lines surge
impedance
104.
If the SWR on a transmission
line has a high value, the reason could be
a. an impedance mismatch between the
line and the load
b. that the line is non-resonant
c. a reflection coefficient of zero at the
load
d. that the load is matched to the line
105.
If a quarter-wave transmission
line is shorted at one end
a. there is minimum current at the
shorted end
b. the line behaves as a parallel-tuned
circuit in relation to the generator
c. the line behaves as a series-tuned
circuit in relation to the generator
d. there is a minimum voltage at the
shorted end
106.
A 50-ohm transmission line is
feeding an antenna which represents a 50
ohm resistive load. To shorten the line,
the length must be
a. any convenient value
b. an odd multiple of three quarters of a
wavelength
c. an odd multiple of half a wavelength
d. an even multiple of a quarter of a
wavelength
107.
The outer conductor of the
coaxial cable is usually grounded
a. at the beginning and at the end of the
cable
b. only at the beginning of the cable
and only at the end of the cable
c. only at the end of the cable

d. at the middle of the cable
108.
A feature of an infinite
transmission line is that
a. its input impedance at the generator
is equal to the lines surge
impedance
b. its phase velocity is greater than the
velocity of light
c. no RF current will be drawn from the
generator
d. the impedance varies at different
positions on the line
109.
When the surge impedance of a
line is matched to a load, the line will
a. transfer maximum current to the load
b. transfer maximum voltage to the
load
c. transfer maximum power to the load
d. have a VSWR equal to zero
110.
A lossless line is terminated by a
resistive load which is not equal to the
surge impedance. If the value of the
reflection coefficient is 0.5, the VSWR
is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 15
111.
Ratio of the mismatch between
the antenna and the transmitter power.
a. Standing wave pattern
b. Reflection coefficient
c. SWR
d. Index of refraction
112.
Emission designation for a
facsimile.
a. H3E and A4E
b. R3E and A4E
c. F4E and J3E
d. F3C and A3E
113.
Commonly used telephone wire.
a. AWG #19
b. AWG #18
c. AWG #30
d. AWG #33
114.
What is the distance traveled by a
wave in the time of one cycle?
a. Frequency
b. Hop
c. Wavelength
d. Crest
115.
The velocity factor is inversely
proportional with respect to the
_______.
a. square of the dielectric constant
b. square root of the dielectric constant
c. dielectric current
d. square root of refractive index
116.
________ is a hollow structure
that has no center conductor but allows
waves to propagate down its length.
a. Waveguide
b. Hybrid
c. Pipe
d. Directional coupler
117.
To connect a coaxial line to a
parallel wire line, _______ is used.
a.
b.
c.
d.
hybrid circuit
balun
directional coupler
quarter-wave transformer matching
circuit
118.
What length for which the input
power has been halved for a
transmission line with an attenuation of
6 dB/km?
a. 1.5 km
b. 0.5 km
c. 63 km
d. 2 km
119.
In a waveguide, _______ is a
specific configuration of electric and
magnetic fields that allows a wave to
propagate.
a. set-up
b. coupler
c. channel
d. mode
120.
A rectangular waveguide has
dimensions of 3 cm x 5 cm. What is the
dominant mode cut-off frequency?
a. 2 GHz
b. 3 GHz
c. 2.5 GHz
d. 3.5 GHZ
121.
________ are transmission lines
which can convey electromagnetic
waves only in higher order modes?
a. Coaxial cables
b. Twisted pairs of telephone wire
c. Power cables
d. Waveguides
122.
The amount of uncertainty in a
system of symbols is also called
a. bandwidth
b. loss
c. entropy
d. quantum
123.
The twists in twisted wire pairs
a. reduced electromagnetic interference
b. occur at a 30-degree angle
c. eliminate loading
d. were removed due to cost
124.
An example of a bounded
medium is
a. coaxial cable
b. waveguide
c. fiber-optic cable
d. all of the above
125.
Loading means the addition of
a. resistor
b. capacitor
c. bullet
d. inductance
126.
What is the most commonly used
transmission line for high frequency
application?
a. Two-wire balance line
b. Single wire
c. Three-wire line
d. Coaxial
127.
The characteristic impedance of a
its
a. length
b. conductor diameter
c. conductor spacing
d. dielectric material
128.
One of the following is not a
common transmission line impedance.
a. 50 ohms
b. 75 ohms
c. 120 ohms
d. 300 ohms
129.
For maximum absorption of
power at the antenna, the relationship
between the characteristic impedance of
the line Zoand the load impedance ZL
should be
a. Zo = ZL
b. Zo > ZL
c. Zo < ZL
d. Zo = 0
130.
The mismatch between antenna
and transmission line impedance cannot
be corrected for by
a. using LC matcging network
b. adjusting antenna length
c. using a balun
d. adjusting the length of transmission
line
131.
________ is a pattern of voltage
and current variations along a
transmission line not terminated in its
characteristic impedance.
a. An electric field
b. Radio waves
c. Standing waves
d. A magnetic field
132.
Which is the desirable SWR on a
transmission line?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. Infinity
133.
A 50ohm coax is connected to a
73-ohm antenna. What is the SWR?
a. 0.685
b. 1
c. 1.46
d. 2.92
134.
What is the most desirable
reflection coefficient?
a. 0
b. 0.5
c. 1
d. Infinity
135.
What is the ratio expressing the
percentage of incident voltage reflected
on a transmission line?
a. Velocity factor
b. Standing-wave ratio
c. Reflection coefficient
d. Line efficiency
136.
The minimum voltage along a
transmission line is 260 V, while the
maximum is 390 V, the SWR is
a. 0.67
b. 1.0
c. 1.2
d. 1.5
137.
One meter is one wavelength at a
frequency of
a. 150 MHz
b. 164 MHz
c. 300 MHz
d. 328 MHz
138.
At very high frequencies,
transmission lines act as
a. Tuned circuits
b. Antennas
c. Insulators
d. Resistors
139.
A shorted quarter-wave line at
the operating frequency acts like a/an
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Series resonant circuit
d. Parallel resonant circuit
140.
A shorted half-wave line at the
operating frequency acts like a/an
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Series resonant circuit
d. Parallel resonant circuit
141.
A medium least susceptible to
noise?
a. Shielded pair
b. Twisted pair
c. Fiber-optic
d. Coaxial
142.
A medium most widely used in
LANs?
a. Parallel-wire line
b. Twisted pair
c. Fiber-optic cable
d. Coaxial
143.
The most commonly used
transmission line in television system.
a. Parallel-wire line
b. Coaxial cable
c. Waveguide
d. Open-wire ceramic supports
144.
The impedance of a TV
transmission line depends on several
factors. Which is not one of those
factors?
a. Diameter
b. Length of the wire
c. Dielectric material
d. Separation between conductors
145.
DC blocks are used in coaxial
transmission line for the purpose of
a. passing DC while blocking AC
b. passing AC voltage but prevent DC
c. preventing AC voltage from reaching
the pre-amplifier
d. preventing AC power supply voltage
from being shorted by a balun or
band splitter
146.
_______ is a type of interference
caused by off-air TV channels 2 and
4, plus a satellite dish operating on
channel 3.
a. Adjacent channel interference
b. Ghost
c. Co-channel interference
d. Crosstalk
147. Dithering (in TVRO
communication) is a process of
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
a. Reducing the effect of noise on

the TVRO video signal
b. Centering the video fine tuning
on TVRO channels
c. Moving the feedhorn rotor to the
precise angle
d. Moving the actuator exactly onto
the desired satellite beam
A network that has an input of 75dB
and an output of 35dB. The loss of
the network is
a. -40db
b. 40db
c. 40dBm
d. -4dBm
Important useful quantities
describing waveforms.
a. Time and frequency
b. Voltage and current
c. Frequency and voltage
d. Power and frequency
Halving the power means
a. 6-dB gain
b. 3-dB loss
c. 3-dB gain
d. 6-dB loss
One Neper (Np) is how many
decibels?
a. 8.866
b. 8.686
c. 8.688
d. 8.868
A signal is amplified 100 times in
power. The dB gain is
153.
154.
155.
156.
a. 20dB
b. 119dB
c. 15dB
d. 25dB
Which of the following is used to
measure SWR?
a. Spectrum analyzer
b. Reflectometer
c. Oscilloscope
d. Multimeter
214-056 twin lead which is
commonly used for TV lead-in has a
characteristic impedance of
a. 52 ohms
b. 75 ohms
c. 600 ohms
d. 300 ohms
What is the characteristic impedance
of a transmission line which is to act
a s a quarterwave matching
transformer between a 175 ohms
transmission line and 600 ohms
load?
a. 300.04 ohms
b. 324.04 ohms
c. 310.04 ohms
d. 320.04 ohms
What is the EIRP in dBW of a 50dB
antenna connected to a transmitter
with an output of 10kW through a
transmission line with loss of 5dB?
a. 85dBW
b. 955 dBW
c. 90 dBW
157.
158.
159.
d. 80 dBW
A coaxial cable is a good example of
a/an
a. Unbounded medium
b. Transmission channel
c. Non-metallic medium
d. Bounded medium
If a quarterwave transformer is
required to match a 180 ohm load to
a transmission line with and
impedance of 300 ohms, what
should be the characteristic
impedance of the matching
ransformer? Assume that the
matching transformer is to be
connected directly to the load.
a. 180 ohms
b. 232 ohms
c. 300 ohms
d. 480 ohms
A transmitter of 100W RF power
output, 100% modulated is operating
on a frequency of 169MHz. The
antenna transmission line consists of
a 50 ohms coaxial cable 150ft long.
The coaxial inner conductor outer
diameter is 0.162in. determine the
outside diameter of the outer
conductor if the outer conductor has
a thickness of 0.05 in(assume K=1).
a. 1.0 in
b. 0.9in
c. 0.7in
d. 0.5in
160.
161.
162.
163.
In the preceding problem , calculate

the line current.
a. 1.7A
b. 1.3A
c. 1.5A
d. 1.0A
Determine also the total attenuation
of the line in the preceding problem.
a. 2.0dB
b. 1.5 dB
c. 2.5 dB
d. 1.0 dB
What is the maximum subscriber
loop length, in ft, of a telephone
system if the signalling resistance is
1800ohms using a telephone cable
pair of gauge #26 with loop
resistance of 83.5 ohms per 100ft.
Assume the telephone set resistance
is equal to 200 ohms.
a. 15,161.7 feet
b. 19,161 feet
c. 15,300 feet
d. 20,000 feet
If the same subscriber loop above
limits the voice attenuation to a
maximum of 6dB, what is the
maximum allowable subscriber loop
length, in feet, using the same gauge
#26 telephone wire? Assume a
2.7dB loss per mile.
a. 20,000 ft
b. 13,900 ft
c. 15,280ft
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
d. 11,733ft
The input is 0.1W and the network
gain is 13dB, the output is
a. 2.0W
b. 2.5W
c. 1.5W
d. 1.8W
Known as one-tenth of a neper.
a. dB
b. dBm
c. dBp
d. dNp
the input impedance of a
quarterwave short-circuited
transmission line at its resinant
frequency is
a. 0 ohms
b. Infinite or an open circuit
c. Ohm
d. 70 ohms
The ratio of the largest rms value to
the smallest rms value of the voltage
in the line is called
a. SWR
b. ISWR
c. VSWR
An open-wire, two-wire
transmission line is to be connected
to a dipole antenna through a
quarter-wave matching stub. At a
frequency of 10 MHz, compute the
length of the dipole
a. 20 meters
169.
170.
171.
b. 7.5 meters
c. 15 meters
d. 25 meters
From the preceding problem,
compute also the length of the
quarterwave stub.
a. 15 meters
b. 7.5 meters
c. 20 meters
d. 25 meters
To find the characteristic impedance
of a coaxial cable, measurements are
made with (a) the far end open
circuited and (b) far end short
circuited, the corresponding readings
being a) Ro=3ohms and Xc=55
ohms, capacitive b) RS = 10 ohms
and XL = 90 ohms, inductive. What
is the characteristic impedance Zo of
the line?
a. 75.7-j2.0 ohms
b. 70.7+j1.19 ohms
c. 87.5 j5 ohms
d. 70.7 j1.97 ohms
A TV antenna receives a signal
measured at 200mV and is
immediately amplified by a
preamplifier with a 15dB gain. This
amplified signal then passes through
a coaxial cable with 3dB loss, what
is the resulting input to the TV set,
in dBmV?
a. 1.98
b. 13.98
172.
173.
174.
175.
c. -1.98
d. -13.98
The characteristic impedance of a
transmission line does not depend
upon its___________.
a. Conductor spacing
b. Conductor diameter
c. Length
d. Conductor radius
What does a power difference of 3dB mean?
a. A loss of one third of the power
b. A loss of one half of the power
c. A loss of three watts of power
d. No significant change
Which of the following is an
advantage of the balance
transmission line?
a. Easy installation
b. Outer shield eliminates radiation
losses
c. Low attenuation
d. None of these
Waveguides are used mainly for
microwave transmission because
a. They are bulky at lower
frequencies
b. Losses are heavy at lower
frequencies
c. They depend on straight line
propagation
d. No generators are powerful
enough to excite them
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
The input is 1W and the network

loss is 27dB, the output is
a. 1mW
b. 3mW
c. 2mW
d. 4mW
A combiner has two inputs +30dBm
and +30dBm, what is the resultant
output?
a. +36 dBm
b. +30 dBm
c. +60 dBm
d. +33 dBm
The ratio of the smallest to the
largest rms current value is called
a. SWR
b. VSWR
c. ISWR
If the ratio of the maximum current
to minimum current in a
transmission line is 2:1 then the ratio
of the maximum voltage to
minimum voltage is
a. 4:1
b. 1:2
c. 1:4
d. 2:1
Two wires of 600 ohms
characteristic impedance is to be
constructed out of a number 12 wire
(81 mils). Find the attenuation of the
line at 0.6GHz per 100feet length
a. 0.05 dB
181.
182.
183.
184.
185.
b. 0.55 dB
c. 0.44 dB
d. 0.35 dB
In the preceding problem, determine
the spacing between wires from
center to center.
a. 6 in
b. 4 in
c. 5 in
d. 3 in
A lossless transmission line has a
shunt capacitance of 100nF/m and a
series inductance of 4mH/m. What is
the characteristic impedance?
a. 500 ohms
b. 400ohms
c. 300ohms
d. 200hms
A ten times power change in
transmission system is equivalent to
a. 10dBm
b. 1dB
c. 20dB
d. 100dB
A type of transmission line
employed where balanced properties
are required.
a. Balun
b. Parallel-wire line
c. Coaxial line
d. Quarterwave line
What is the characteristic impedance
of a transmission line which has a
186.
187.
188.
189.
capacitance of 40nF/ft and an

inductance of 0.5mH/ft
a. 111.8 ohms
b. 110.8 ohms
c. 112.8 ohms
d. 109.8 ohms
The input power to a loss-free cable
is 5W. If the reflected power is 7dB
down on the incident power, the
output power to the load is
a. 4W
b. 5W
c. 6W
d. 7W
To be properly matched the ratio of
a maximum voltage along a
transmission line should be equal to
a. 1
b. 10
c. 50
d. 2
A coaxial line with an outer
diameter of 6mm has a 50 ohms
characteristic impedance. If the
dielectric constant of the insulation
is 1.60., calculate the inner diameter.
a. 2.09cm
b. 2.09in
c. 2.09mm
d. 2.09mm
If an amplifier has equal input and
out impedance, what voltage ratio
does the gain of 50dB represent?
a. 316.2
190.
191.
192.
193.
b. 325.2
c. 320.1
d. 315.0
What is the inductance per foot of a
cable that has a capacitance of 50
pF/ft and a characteristic impedance
of 60 ohms?
a. 0.167uH/ft
b. 0.178 uH/ft
c. 0.19 uH/ft
d. 0.18 uH/ft
The ratio between the energy
absorbed by a surface to the total
energy received by the surface.
a. Reflection coefficient
b. Absorption coefficient
c. Linear coefficient
d. Thermal coefficient
When the diameter of the conductors
of a wire transmission line is held
constant, the effect of decreasing the
distance between the conductors is
a. Increase the surge impedance
b. Increase the radiation resistance
c. Decrease the SWR
d. Decrease the impedance
The higher the gauge number if a
conductor
a. The bigger the diameter
b. The higher the resistance or the
smaller the diameter
c. The higher the resistance
d. None of the above
194.
195.
196.
197.
198.
A short length transmission line used

to reduce/eliminate standing waves
in the main transmission line.
a. Stub
b. Balun
c. /4 transformer
d. slot
ratio of reflected power to incident
power?
a. Incidence
b. Reflectance
c. Reflection index
d. None of these
A quarter wave transformer is used
to match a 600 ohms lad antenna to
a ling of 52 ohms impedance, the
characteristic impedance of the
matching transformer is
a. 200 ohms
b. 150 ohms
c. 176 ohms
d. 300 ohms
What is the capacitance of 55 miles
#44 copper wire spaced 18 inches?
From wire tables, #44 wire has a
radius to 0.10215 in.
a. 0.476uF
b. 0.476nF
c. 0.476pF
d. 0.476fF
A two-transmission line consists of
No. 12 wire AWG (81mils). The
distance between wire centers is 10
199.
200.
inches. What is the characteristic

impedance of the line?
a. 650 ohms
b. 300 ohms
c. 600 ohms
d. 660 ohms
In the preceding problem, what is
the attenuation in dB per 100ft of the
line for a frequency of 4 MHz?
a. 0.05
b. 0.03
c. 0.04
d. 0.06
What is the SWR when a
transmission line is terminated in a
short circuit?
a. Zero
b. One
c. Infinite
d. indeterminate
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
1. Typical speech power

A. 10 to 1000 W
B. 100 to 1000 mW
7.
C. 10 to 1000 nW
D. 100 to 1000 pW
The maximum intelligibility for voice
frequency is located between
A. 250 and 500 Hz
B. 1000 and 3000 Hz
C. 500 and 1000 Hz
D. 3000 and 5000 Hz
The maximum voice energy is located
between
A. 250 and 500 Hz
B. 1000 and 3000 Hz
C. 500 and 1000 Hz
D. 3000 and 5000 Hz
A device used to measure speech
volume.
A. speech meter
B. volume meter
C. volume unit meter
D. speedometer
By definition, for a sine wave
A. 0 dBm = 0 V.U.
B. 0 dBW = 0 V.U.
C. 0 dBa = 0 V.U.
D. 0 dBf = 0 V.U.
Presently, this is the standard
frequency bandwidth for voice
transmission.
A. 0 to 4000 Hz
B. 100 to 3400 Hz
C. 300 to 3400 Hz
D. 300 to 3000 Hz
Which of the following is commonly
used wire for subscriber loop design?
A. AWG # 19
B. AWG # 18
C. AWG # 30
D. AWG # 33
8. The resistance limit for No. 2 Crossbar
Exchange (US) is
A. 1300
B. 2000
C. 1250
D. 1200
9. AWG # 26 has a typical loss of
A. 0.21 dB/1000 ft.
B. 0.32 dB/1000 ft.
C. 0.41 dB/1000 ft.
D. 0.51 dB/1000 ft.
10. What is the standard voice channel
spacing?
A. 44 MHz
B. 40 kHz
C. 4 kHz
D. 40 MHz
11. Which tester is used to measure SWR?
A. Multimeter
B. Oscilloscope
C. Spectrum analyzer
D. Reflectometer
12. What is singing?
A. The result of intermodulating two or
more signals of different frequencies
to produce a tone having a frequency
equal to the sum of the frequencies
of the signals intermodulated.
B. The result of intermodulating two or
more signals of different frequencies
to produce a tone having a frequency

higher than that of the signal having
the highest frequency.
C. An undesired self-sustained
oscillation in a system, generally
caused by excessive positive
feedback.
D. An art or form of entertainment that
can make one rich.
13. Which stage increases the selectivity of
the circuit in an AM receiver?
A. Detector
B. IF stage
C. Modulator
D. Mixer
14. The ________ of radio receiver amplify
weak signal and produce a desirable
intelligence at the output speaker.
A. sensitivity
B. selectivity
C. reliability
D. fidelity
15. Full-duplex transmission means
A. One-way transmission
B. 24-hour transmission
C. Broadcast transmission
D. Two-way simultaneous transmission
16. What is a multidrop line?
A. A piece of wire with a thick
insulating material that serves to
protect the conductive materials from
damage in the event the wire is
dropped.
B. A line designed to withstand high

pressure.
C. A line or circuit interconnecting
several situations.
D. A bus line
17. A passive _________ is an electronic
device which reduces signal strength by
a specified amount in dB.
A. Splitter
B. Filter
C. Trimmer
D. Attenuator
18. The signal quality of the calls is
constantly monitored by the base
station, when the quality of the calls
drops below a certain specified level.
The base request the MTSO to try and
find a better cell site.
A. Hand-off
B. Cell splitting
C. Roaming
D. Frequency reuse
19. A digital identification associated with
a cellular system.
A. SAT
B. SID
C. ESN
D. MIN
20. How many seconds does facsimile
transmit a stranded page?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 25
21. A kind of recording used in facsimile.

A. Electrolytic recording
B. Electrothermal recording
C. Electropercussive recording
D. Electrostatic recording
22. A type of distortion a facsimile produce
when it becomes out of
synchronization?
A. Pincushion
B. Barrel
C. Skewing
D. Fattening
23. What is an acoustic coupler?
A. A device that radiates audible signals
via a transmitting antenna
B. A device that converts electric
signals into audio signals, enabling
data to be transmitted over the public
telephone network via a conventional
telephone handset
C. A device that receives audible
signals and retransmits them at VHF
frequencies
D. A transducer
24. Cause a herringbone pattern in
facsimile
A. Single-frequency interference
B. Crosstalk
C. Phase jitter
D. Noise
25. The _______ in an FM receiver causes
a stronger signal to dominate over a
weaker signal on the same frequency.
A. Capture effect
B. Flywheel effect
C. Hall effect
D. Skin effect
26. A device that converts a 2-wire circuit
to a 4-wire circuit.
A. RS-232 interface
B. Hybrid circuit
C. Balun
D. Stub
27. ______ theory is deciding between a set
of hypothesis when given a collection
of imperfect measurements.
A. Estimation
B. Traffic
C. Decision
D. Nyquist
28. ______ of a data reduction says that
when reducing a set of data into the
form of an underlying mode, one
should be maximally non-committal
with respect to missing data.
A. Jaynes maximum entropy principle
B. Kullback principle of minimum
discrimination
C. Minimum discrimination\
D. Maximum entropy
29. _______ is selecting the best value of a
parameter from a continuum of possible
values when gives a collection if
imperfect measurements
A. Estimation
B. Traffic
C. Decision
D. Nyquist
30. Combination of madulator, channel,

and detector.
A. Transceiver
B. Transponder
C. T/R channel
D. Discrete channel
31. What is the frequency band of DECT?
A. 1.88 1.90 GHz
B. 1.68 1.70 GHz
C. 1.48 1.50 GHz
D. 1.28 1.30 GHz
32. How many simultaneous calls does
each DECT system can support?
A. 96
B. 12
C. 24
D. 49
33. How many simultaneous calls does a
DECT radio transceiver can assess at
any given time?
A. 120
B. 240
C. 480
D. 960
34. The AGC voltage of a radio receiver is
always _______.
A. Present before adjustments can be
made
B. DC, but may have either polarity
positive DC
C. Positive DC
D. Negative
35. What is a concentrator?
A. A system that improves the signalto-noise ratio by compressing the

volume range of a signal.
B. A device that varies the
characteristics of a carrier signal in
accordance with the waveform of a
modulating signal which contains
useful information
C. A switching system that lets a large
number of telephone or data
processing subscribers use a lesser
number of transmission lines or a
narrow bandwidth
D. Equipment in the central office.
36. If you find that an SAW filter output is
6 dB down from the input of a receiver
during test, ______
A. This is normal.
B. The device if faulty
C. The receiver is improperly
terminated
D. The filter is not resonating
37. A triple conversion superheterodyne
receiver, diode mixer stages are
A. Operated in the linear region
B. Operated in the nonlinear region
C. Operated as Class-A amplifiers
D. Operated as Class-B amplifiers
38. What is a leased line?
A. A piece of wire used in a local area
network in one building
B. A piece of wire connecting a
telephone set to a PABX
C. A temporary connection of one

computer to a mainframe via a
modern and a telephone line
D. A permanent circuit for a private
use within a communication
network
39. If two FM signals of different strengths
are received on the same frequency
A. One steady heterodyne will appear
in the AM output
B. Both will appear in the AF output
C. Only the stronger will appear in the
AF output
D. Neither signal will be intelligence
unless the weaker signal is at least
10 times
40. Cellular mobile system was first
operated in
A. 1979
B. 1981
C. 1983
D. 1985
41. TACS is a cellular system with ______
channels.
A. 666
B. 1000
C. 832
D. 200
42. Supervisory Audio Tone (SAT) has
_______ frequency.
A. 5960 Hz
B. 6000 Hz
C. 6040 Hz
D. 1004 z
43. What is the number of channels of a

cellular system with an allocated
spectrum of 25 MHz and with a channel
of 30 kHz bandwidth?
A. 833
B. 240
C. 1000
D. 666
44. GSSM uses what digital modulation
technique?
A. QAM
B. GFSK
C. BPSK
D. GMSK
45. What is the power output of Personal
Communication System (PCS)?
A. 10 mW
B. 75 mW
C. 150 mW
D. 10 W
46. RG-B8 cable has a loss of about
______ dB at cellular frequencies up to
15 ft. length.
A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3
47. The signals designed to keep the
receivers and transmitters aligned.
A. Carrier frequencies
B. Pilot carrier signals
C. Synchronizing signals
D. Reference signals
48. If the spacing of a two-wire open air

transmission line is 12 inches and the
conductor diameter is 0.25 inch, the
characteristic impedance is
A. 547
B. 357
C. 273
D. 300
49. The impedance of the quarterwave
transformer used to match a 600 line
to a 300 load is
A. 382
B. 424
C. 565
D. 712
50. When a line and a load are match the
reflection coefficient is
A. Unity
B. Zero
C. Positive infinity
D. Negative infinity
51. When line is terminated in an open
circuit load, the reflection coefficient is
A. Unity
B. Zero
C. Positive infinity
D. Negative infinity
52. A 300 ohms line is terminated in a
resistance load of 200 ohms, the VSWR
is
A. 0.65
B. 1.5
C. Unity
D. Zero
53. If the reflection coefficient is 0.5, the

standing wave ratio is
A. 0.33
B. Unity
C. 3
D. Zero
54. To least the fault of the given line, a
signal is fed to the line, 30 s later the
signal returned. What is the distance of
the fault?
A. 9000 m
B. 300 m
C. 100 m
D. 4500 m
55. The telephone set is powered by the
central office on the ring side at
A. 42 to 52 Vdc
B. 42 to -52 Vdc
C. 24 to 64 Vdc
D. 24 to 64 Vdc
56. The telephone voice band frequency is
from
A. 300 to 4 kHz
B. 400 to 3400 Hz
C. 300 to 3400 Hz
D. 400 to 4 kHz
57. Which of the following wire is used to
transmit the signal?
A. Black
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Green
58. The corresponding frequency for digit 7
in the touch tone telephone is
A. 770 & 1477 Hz

B. 852 & 1209 Hz
C. 852 & 1336 Hz
D. 770 & 1336 Hz
59. The physical connection between the
telephone set and the switching
equipment is called the
A. Trunk line
B. Link
C. Subscriber loop
D. Leased line
60. What is the local loop of a telephone
system?
A. It is a two-wire or four-wire
communication circuit between the
customers premise and the central
office
B. It is a group of wires connecting a
telephone set to a modern
C. It is a four-wire circuit connecting a
facsimile machine to a computer
D. It is a single piece of wire
connecting the subscribers
telephone set to another set in an
adjacent room.
61. Which of the ff. equipment is used in
long loop design?
A. Dial long lines
B. Voice repeater
C. Loop range extender
D. All of the above
62. What is a two-wire circuit?
A. A circuit usually in the subscriber

loop, between the telephone set and
the local central office.
B. A circuit having only two terminals,
both terminals having the same
instantaneous voltage.
C. A circuit with one input terminal,
one output terminal, and a common
ground.
D. A circuit consisting of two
transmission lines.
63. 1 mW is equal to
A. 90 dBm
B. 0 dBm
C. -30 dBm
D. 120 dBm
64. Which of the following responds to the
request of a subscriber by sending a dial
tone?
A. Line finder
B. First selector
C. Connector
D. Line equipment
65. The other name of Class 2 office in the
North American Switching Plan.
A. Primary center
B. Section
C. Regional center
D. Toll points
66. A cell in the cellular telephone system
means
A. A power source
B. Small area
C. Large area
D. Service area
67. What is the linking point between cell
phone and regular telephone?
A. Base station
B. Control office
C. C.O.
D. MTSO
68. What is the typical power output of a
cellular phone?
A. 5 W
B. 10 W
C. 1 W
D. 3 W
69. When a single cell is divided into
smaller cells that process is called
A. Cell splitting
B. Cell division
C. Reuse
D. Cell sharing
70. The first cell shape is a square
A. Square
B. Circle
C. Rectangle
D. Triangle
71. In order to provide 100% coverage
without overlap, cellular telephone
system can use
A. Hexagon cell shape
B. Triangle
C. Rectangular
D. All of the above
72. What is the beamwidth of the reflector
of the receiving antenna in the base
station
A. 20 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 50 degrees
D. 60 degrees
73. A cellular phone operates on
A. Half duplex
B. Full duplex
C. Echoplex
D. Lincomplex
74. Cellular phones transmit in the band
from
A. 825 to 845 MHz
B. 835 to 855 MHz
C. 825 to 855 MHz
D. 825 to 865 MHz
75. Cell phone receives in the band from
A. 860 to 880 MHz
B. 870 to 890 MHz
C. 870 to 880 MHz
D. 860 to 890 MHz
76. What is the frequency separation
between the transmit and the receive
channels?
A. 30 MHz
B. 45 MHz
C. 55 MHz
D. 40 MHz
77. For channel 1, transmit/receive
frequency is
A. 825.030/870.030 MHz
B. 835.03/880.03 MHz
C. 825.015/870.015 MHz
D. 825.15/870.15 MHz
78. The number of transmit/receive

channels in the cellular system is
A. 625
B. 645
C. 655
D. 666
79. The transmission range of cellular
telephony is generally about
A. 80 km
B. 65 km
C. 160 km
D. 16 km
80. One of the following is not an
advantage of a cellular telephone
system
A. Privacy
B. Large service area
C. No interference
D. Mobility
81. When the message is transferred from
one cell site transmitter to another cell
site transmitter as the caller crosses a
boundary __________ process takes
place.
A. Shifting
B. Hand off
C. Give off
D. Turn over
82. What is the sensitivity of a cellular
receiver?
A. 20 dB
B. 40 dB
C. 50 dB
D. 60 dB
83. What is the frequency deviation of the

cellular telephone system?
A. 15 kHz
B. 30 kHz
C. 12 kHz
D. 75 kHz
84. Hailing channel is otherwise known as
A. Conversation channel
B. Calling channel
C. Signaling channel
D. Remote channel
85. What is an Erlang?
A. It is a unit of magnetic field
intensity measured around a
conductor
B. It is the number of erroneous bits
received per unit of time
C. It a unit of electrical energy radiated
in space.
D. It is equal to the number of
simultaneous calls originated during
a specific hourly period.
86. All of the cell base stations are linked
together by _______ which serves as
the central office and management node
for the group.
A. MTS
B. IMTS
C. MSTO
D. MTSO
87. Provides interface between the mobile
telephone switching office and the
mobile units.
A. Database
B. Cell site
C. Terrestrial link
D. Radio transmitter
88. A phone call over the cellular network
actually requires
A. Simplex channels
B. Half duplex channels
C. Full duplex channels
D. Full/full duplex
89. A method of expressing the amplitudes
of complex non-periodic signals such as
speech.
A. Volume
B. Pitch
C. Frequency
D. Wavelength
90. _______ is signal returned to the talker
after one or more round trips between
the talker and the listener.
A. Singing
B. Echo
C. Jitter
D. Crosstalk
91. ______ is a voice operated device that
inserts a high loss in the opposite
direction of transmission of the talking
party.
A. Hybrid
B. 2-wire circuit
C. Echo suppressor
D. VNL
92. _____ is picking up of the same station
at two nearby points on the receiver
dial.
A. Double spotting
B. Hot shot
C. Image frequency
D. Bail shot
93. When one channel picks up the signal
carried by another channel.
A. Echo
B. Crosstalk
C. Party line
D. Crosslink
94. What type of connector arrangement
wherein a customer may move to
another location and still retain the
same telephone number.
A. TPL
B. Bridge
C. TPS
D. Party line
95. It is an advantage of sidetone.
A. Transmission efficiency is increased
B. Speaker increase his voice resulting
in a strengthened signal
C. No dissipation of energy in the
balancing network
D. Assures the customer that the
telephone is working
96. Radio communications between points
using a single share frequency.
A. Simplex
B. Full duplex
C. Half-duplex
D. Full/full duplex
97. The transmission of information from

multiple sources occurring on the same
facility but not as the same time.
A. FDM
B. TDM
C. WDM
D. CDM
98. When human voice and music are
transmitted, the type of communication
employed is known as
A. Raditechnology
B. Audio frequency
C. Wired audio
D. Radiotelephony
99. Printed documents to be transmitted by
fax are converted into baseband electric
signal by the process of
A. Copying
B. Scanning
C. Modulation
D. Light variation
100.
What is the most commonly used
light sensor in a modern fax machine?
A. Phototube
B. Phototransistor
C. Liquid-crystal display
D. Charge couple device
101.
In FM fax, the frequencies for
black and white are ______ repectively.
A. 1500 and 2300 Hz
B. 2300 and 1500 Hz
C. 1300 and 2400 Hz
D. 1070 and 1270 Hz
102.
Which resolution produces the
best quality fax?
A. 96 lines per inch
B. 150 lines per inch
C. 200 lines per inch
D. 400 lines per inch
103.
Group 2 fax uses which
modulation?
A. SSB
B. FSK
C. Vestigial sideband AM
D. PSK
104.
The most widely used fax
standard is
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
105.
Group 3 fax uses which
modulation?
A. QAM
B. ASK
C. PSK
D. GFSK
130.
Block calls held condition
specified the held probability at a time
period equal to an average holding
time.
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C. Erlang D
D. Poisson
131.
What is an Echo?
A. A signal of the same amplitude but

180 degrees out of phase from the
original signal and mixed with the
original signal at the transmitter to
produce a more intelligible output
signal
B. A wave which has been reflected or
otherwise returned with the
sufficient magnitude and delay for it
to be perceptible in some manner as
a wave distinct from that directly
transmitted.
C. The signal having a higher
frequency than the original and
transmitted back to earth by a
passive satellite.
D. A reflected signal.
132.
What is the system used by
Personal Communication Network
(PCN)?
A. TACS
B. Modified GSM
C. AMPS
D. CDMA
133.
Termination refers to
A. Cutting both ends of a conductor
B. Disconnecting a line from a
transmitter
C. Looking back impedance of a line
with no load
D. Load connected to the output end of
a transmission line
134.
The multiple access used by
Digital European Cordless Telephone
(DECT)
A. CDMA
B. FDMA
C. TDMA
D. CDMA/FDMA
135.
Blocked calls delay condition
specified delay probability
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C. Erlang D
D. Poisson
136.
Status information provided by
telephone signaling.
A. Busy tone, dial tone and ringing
B. Congestion and call charge data
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
137.
The modulation technique used
by DECT.
A. GFSK
B. ASK
C. QAM
D. PSK
138.
What is a four-wire circuit?
A. Is used between serving central
offices for long-distance
connections, with one pair being
used for each direction of
transmission.
B. Is a circuit with three output
terminals and one input terminal
C. Is an oscillator that produces four

different frequencies simultaneously
D. A circuit consisting of four
transmission lines.
139.
Cellular CDMA system uses
what modulation method?
A. GFSK
B. ASK
C. QAM
D. BPSK
140.
PABX means
A. Private All-purpose Broadcasting
Exchange
B. Private Automatic Branch
Exchange
C. Public Access Bi-directional
Exchange
D. Public Automatic Branch Exchange
141.
What is the voted cellular digital
standard at TIA?
A. Digital AMPS
B. GSM
C. CDMA
D. TACS
142.
What is the number of channels
for Band A and for Band B in Digital
AMPS
A. 832
B. 416
C. 666
D. 888
143.
The mobile-to-base frequency
assignment for GSM system is
A. 890-915 MHz
B. 935-960 MHz
C. 870-890 MHz
D. 825-845 MHz
144.
The range (in miles) of a cellular
CDMA system.
A. 13
B. 30
C. 45
D. 20
145.
In a cellular system, ________ is
used to measure the spectrum
efficiency.
A. Radio efficiency
B. Diversity
C. Frequency reuse
D. Radio capacity
146.
Which of the following echo is
completely out of control?
A. Worst echo
B. Reverberation
C. Singing
D. Feedback
147.
Which of the following devices
increase the battery voltage on a loop
and extends its signaling range?
A. Loop extender
B. VF repeater
C. VF amplifier
D. All of these
148.
Under ordinary circumstances,
the CCITT recommends that the
number of circuits in tandem must not
exceed
A. 9
C. baseband frequency
D. broadband frequency
5. Which test instrument displays the carrier
and the sidebands amplitude with frequency
to frequency?
A. oscilloscope
B. spectrum analyzer
C. frequency analyzer
D. amplitude analyzer
6. Mixer is also known as a ________.
A. modulator
B. suppressor
C. converter
D. beater
7. Which one of the following emission
transmits the lower sideband and half of the
upper sideband?
A. A5C
______ is the maximum sideband
B. J3E
suppression value using filter system.
C. A3J
A. 50 dB
D. A3H
B. 60 dB
8. An FM receives signal ______.
C. 40 dB
A. vary in amplitude with modulation
D. 30 dB
B. vary in frequency with modulation
_______ determines the number of sideband
C. vary in frequency and amplitude with
components in FM.
wideband modulation
A. carrier frequency
D. is not immune to noise
B. modulation frequency
9. The process of impressing intelligence on
C. modulation index
the carrier is called
D. deviation ratio
A. modulation
One of the following transmits only one
B. detection
sideband.
C. mixing
A. H3E
D. impression
B. R3E
10. ______ is an electronic instrument used to
C. A3E
show both the carrier and the sidebands of a
D. B8E
modulated signal in the frequency domain.
What produces the sidebands on FM?
A. spectrum analyzer
A. signal amplitude
B. oscilloscope
B. carrier harmonics
C. digital counter
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
149.
What is the system capacity of
AMPS?
A. 30,000
B. 60,000
C. 100,000
D. 120,000
150.
NAM means
A. Non Alternable Memory
B. Numeric Allocation Module
C. Numeric Assignment Module
D. Numeric Access Module
Modulation Chapter 3
1.
2.
3.
4.
D. frequency counter
11. What part of the carrier is varied by the
intelligence during modulation in an AM
system?
A. phase
B. frequency
C. amplitude
D. both a and c
12. The difference between the RF carrier and
the modulating signal frequencies is called
the
A. USB
B. LSB
C. Sideband
D. Carrier frequency
13. What stage in a radio transmitter isolates the
oscillator from the load?
A. Oscillator
B. Buffer
C. Separator
D. Mixer
14. The frequency of the unmodulated carrier in
FM system is
A. modulating frequency
B. center frequency
C. carrier frequency
D. deviation frequency
15. The ratio of maximum deviation to the
maximum modulating frequency is called
A. carrier swing
B. deviation ratio
C. modulation factor
D. modulation index
16. A carrier signal has
A. constant amplitude
B. a frequency of 20 kHz and above
C. a varying amplitude
D. the information content
17. The modulated peak value of a signal is 125

V and the unmodulated carrier value is 85
V. What is the modulation index?
A. 0.47
B. 0.68
C. 0.32
D. 1.47
18. An 891 kHz carrier having an amplitude of
80 V is modulated by a 4.5 kHz audio signal
having an amplitude of 45 V. The
modulation factor is
A. 0.56
B. 0.65
C. 1.78
D. 1.25
19. What is the modulation index of an FM
signal having a carrier swing of 75 kHz
when the modulating signal has frequency of
3 kHz?
A. 25
B. 12.5
C. 0.04
D. 0.08
20. In a FM system, if modulation index is
doubled by having the modulating
frequency, what will be the effect on the
maximum deviation?
A. No effect
B. Maximum deviation doubles
C. Decreases by
D. Increases by
21. Which of the following is considered as an
indirect method of generating FM?
A. Reactance modulator
B. Balanced modulator
C. Varactor diode modulator
D. Armstrong system
22. To generate an SSB or DSB signal one must
use a circuit known as
A. filter modulator
B. ring modulator
C. balanced modulator
D. reactance modulator
23. Which is the first radio receiver?
A. TRF receiver
B. Superheterodyne receiver
C. Crystal radio receiver
D. Heterodyne receiver
24. An interfering signal with a frequency equal
to the received signal plus twice the IF is
called
A. image frequency
B. center frequency
C. rest frequency
D. interference frequency
25. Double sideband full carrier emission type
A. A3J
B. H3E
C. R3A
D. A3E
26. Single sideband reduced carrier emission
type
A. H3E
B. R3E
C. J3E
D. B8E
27. A single sideband suppressed carrier
emission type.
A. H3e
B. R3E
C. J3E
D. B8E
28. Independent sideband emission type
A. H3E
B. R3E
C. J3E
D. B8E
29. Vestigial sideband emission type
A. C3F
B. J3E
C. R3E
D. B8E
30. Single sideband full carrier emission type.
A. R3E
B. H3E
C. J3E
D. B8E
31. Phase modulation emission type.
A. F3E
B. F3C
C. F3F
D. G3E
32. Which one is not an advantage of SSB over
AM?
A. Power saving
B. Requires half the bandwidth
C. Wider area of reception
D. Better fidelity
33. The advantage of a high level modulated
AM transmitter is
A. Less audio power required
B. Better fidelity
C. Higher value of operating power
D. Less distortion
34. The advantage of a low-level modulated AM
transmitter is
A. Less audio power required
B. Better fidelity
C. Higher value of operating power
D. Less distortion
35. _____ is the bad effect caused by
overmodulation in AM transmission.
A. Increase in noise
B. Deviation in the operating frequency
C. Interface to other radio services
D. Decrease in the output power
36. Which characteristic of a radio receiver

refers to its ability to reject an unwanted
signal?
A. Sensitivity
B. Selectivity
C. Fidelity
D. Quality
37. What type of emission is frequency
modulation?
A. F3E
B. G3E
C. A3E
D. B3E
38. AM transmission power increases with
________.
A. Frequency
B. Source
C. Load
D. Modulation
39. _______ locks the FM receiver to a stronger
signal.
A. Hall effect
B. Capture effect
C. Image frequency
D. Homing
40. What is the highest percentage of
modulation for AM?
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 100%
D. 80%
41. In FM, the Carsons Rule states that the
bandwidth is equal to twice the sum of the
modulating frequency and ______.
A. Carrier signal
B. Modulating signal
C. Frequency deviation
D. Image frequency
42. What is the carrier swing of an FM

transmitter when modified by 75%?
A. 53.2 kHz
B. 48 kHz
C. 56.25 kHz
D. 112.5 kHz
43. The modulation system inherently more
resistant to noise
A. Single sideband suppressed carrier
B. Frequency modulation
C. Pulse-position modulation
D. Amplitude shift keying
44. Subcarriers that are arranged so that the
channels occupying adjacent frequency
bands with some frequency space between
them is known as
A. Guard bands
B. AM bands
C. Band gap
D. Void band
45. Modulation of an RF amplifier carrier
results in
A. Multiple channels
B. Smaller antennas
C. Directional propagation
D. All of the above
46. A process which occurs in the transmitter
A. Mixing
B. Modulation
C. Heterodyning
D. Demodulation
47. A process which occurs in the receiver
A. Beating
B. Modulation
C. Mixing
D. Demodulation
48. One part of the transmitter that protects the
crystal oscillator from pulling.
A. Buffer amplifier
B. Modulator
C. Power amplifier
D. Antenna coupler
49. What aspect of the carrier is changed by
modulation?
A. Frequency
B. Phase
C. Amplitude
D. Depends on the type of modulation
50. The amplitude of a sine wave which is
modulated by a musical program will
A. Be complex
B. Contain fundamental frequencies
C. Contain harmonic frequencies
D. All of the above
51. What will be the result of the gain level
being too high for signals entering the
modulator?
A. Receiver noise
B. Excessive volume of receiver output
C. Oscillator disturbances
D. Distortion and splatter
52. Amplitude modulation causes the amount of
transmitter power to
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. Double
53. When a carrier is modulated 100%, the total
power increases by what percentage over
that of the carrier alone?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
54. When the amplitude of the modulating
voltage is increased for AM, the antenna
current will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. Decrease exponentially
55. An increase in transmitter power from 25W
to 30W will cause the antenna current to
increase from 700mA to
A. 800 mA
B. 750 mA
C. 767 mA
D. 840 mA
56. A second modulating tone having the same
amplitude but a different frequency is added
to the first at the input to the modulator. The
modulation index will be increased by a
factor of
A.
B.
C. 2
D. 3
57. A 1000 kHz carrier is modulated by a
2500Hz tone. One frequency component of
the modulated signal is
A. 1200 Hz
B. 5000 Hz
C. 1002.5 kHz
D. 2500 Hz
58. A 1200 kHz carrier is amplitude-modulated
by two tones of 500 Hz and 700 Hz. Which
one is a frequency component of the
modulated wave?
A. 1195 kHz
B. 1199.3 kHz
C. 1199.7 kHz
D. 1205 kHz
59. Identify a modulation method, or methods in
use for a common-emitter configuration
A. Base modulation
B. Emitter modulation
C. Collector modulation
D. Both A and C
60. The RF signal injected into a balanced
modulator is 10MHz and the modulating
frequency is 1 kHz. Which frequency, or
frequencies, will not appear in the output?
A. 9.999 MHz
B. 10 MHz
C. 10.0001 MHz
D. Both A and B
61. Unwanted sidebands in SSB equipment can
be suppressed by one or more of the
following methods.
A. Phasing method
B. Filter method
C. Decoder method
D. Both A and B
62. Envelope detection is concerned with the
process of
A. Mixing
B. Heterodyning
C. Modulation
D. Rectification
63. Diagonal clipping in envelope detection will
result in
A. Distortion
B. Phase reversal
C. Reduced sensitivity
D. Amplitude damage
64. Product detection requires the process of
A. Rectification
B. Heterodyning
C. Decoding
D. Phase shifting
65. A sine wave which is coherent with carrier
has identical
A. Amplitude
B. Frequency
C. Phase angle
D. Both B and C
66. Frequency modulation and phase
modulation are collectively referred to as
A. Stereo
B. Angle modulation
C. High fidelity modulation
D. FCC modulation
67. In FM, the change in carrier frequency is
proportional to what attribute of the
modulating signal?
A. Angle
B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
D. Tone
68. A louder sound, when generating the
modulating waveform for FM, will cause a
greater
A. Carrier amplitude
B. Angle amplitude
C. Distortion at the receiver
D. Frequency deviation
69. If a positive change in modulation signal
level of 200 mW will cause a positive
frequency deviation of 10 kHz, what will be
the frequency deviation for a negative
change of 10 mV in the level of the
modulating signals?
A. 0
B. -5 kHz
C. +5 kHz
D. +0 kHz
70. A particular 15 kHz modulation tone results
in a peak frequency deviation of 75 kHz.
What is the modulation index?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 75
D. 3
71. A 15 kHz sine wave frequency modulates an

88 MHz carrier. A sideband frequency will
be found at
A. 87.970 MHz
B. 87.985 MHz
C. 88.015 MHz
D. All of these
72. A device whose capacitance is deliberately
made to be a function of the applied voltage
A. Varactor diode
B. UJT
C. SAW
D. Variable capacitor
73. A reactance modulator is one method of
obtaining
A. Indirect FM
B. Direct FM
C. Demodulation
D. Low frequency filtering
74. A device, now available in IC form, is useful
for direct FM and as one element in the
phse-locked loop.
A. AFC
B. AGC
C. VCO
D. LPF
75. _____ is a frequency change process,
whereby the phase deviation and frequency
deviation are multiplied by some fixed
constant.
A. Translation
B. Multiplication
C. Division
D. Addition
76. A circuit that has the function of
demodulating the frequency-modulated
signal.
A. AFC
B. Envelope detector
C. Decoder
D. Foster-Seeley discriminator
77. The ratio detector is superior to the slope
detector because
A. It is less sensitive to phase modulation
B. It is less sensitive to noise spikes
C. It is less sensitive to interference
causing AM
D. Both B and C
78. One implementation of a pulse averaging
discriminator is
A. A free-running multivibrator
B. A crystal-controlled oscillator
C. A quartz crystal filter
D. A triggered multivibrator
79. A 10% increase in the frequency of a
constant-width pulse train should cause what
change in its average value?
A. -10%
B. -1%
C. +1%
D. +10%
80. Two different signals can be coherent if they
A. Have the same amplitude
B. Are both sine waves of different
frequencies
C. Originate in the same physical
equipment simultaneously
D. Have the same frequency
81. A quadrature detector requires that
A. Four gates bee provided
B. The inputs are coherent
C. The inputs are incoherent
D. The inputs are identical
82. In a phase-locked loop, the VCO is the
abbreviation for
A. Variable coherent output
B. VHF communication oscillator
C. Voltage-controlled oscillator
D. Vien-count oscillator (neutralized)

83. Identify an advantage, or advantages of a
properly designed FM system.
A. Relative immunity to atmospheric noise
(lightning)
B. Reduced bandwidth required
C. No noise of any kind
D. The noise figure is inversely
proportional to the modulation index
84. The output of a balanced modulator
A. LSB and USB
B. LSB
C. USB
D. Carrier
85. If the modulation index of an AM wave is
changed from 0 to 1, the transmitted power
is
A. Unchanged
B. Halved
C. Doubled
D. Increased by 50%
86. Which of the following is not a baseband
signal of modulation?
A. Audio signal
B. Video signal
C. RF carrier
D. Binary coded pulses
87. If the unmodulated level peak carrier
amplitude is doubled in an AM signal, the
perfect modulation is ________.
A. 20
B. 50
C. 100
D. 200
88. Balanced modulator circuit when inserted in
the equivalent suppresses the ___________
A. Carrier
B. Upper sideband
C. Lower sideband
D. Baseband signal
89. The carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave
is suppressed, the percentage power saving
is __.
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 83%
D. 66.66%
90. If the modulation index if an AM wave is
doubled, the antenna current is also doubled,
the AM system being used is
A. H3E
B. J3E
C. C3F
D. A3E
91. 100% modulation in AM means a
corresponding increase in total power by
_______.
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 25%
92. A single-tone amplitude modulated wave
has _______.
A. 2 components
B. 3 components
C. 4 components
D. 2n + 1 components
93. A carrier signal has ________.
A. Constant peak amplitude
B. Frequency range of 20 20,000 Hz
C. A varying amplitude
D. The information
94. The modulating system is _________ if the
modulating frequency is doubled, the
modulation index is halved, and the
modulating voltage remains constant.
A. Amplitude modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Frequency modulation
D. Pulse modulation
95. What is the modulation index of an FM
signal if its modulating frequency is
doubled?
A. No effect
B. Twice the original index
C. Four times the original index
D. One-half the original index
96. An AM transmitter is rated 1000 W at 100%
modulation. How much power required for
the carrier?
A. 1000 W
B. 666.6 W
C. 333.3 W
D. 866.6 W
97. Standard way of designating AM
A. A3E
B. B3E
C. AHE
D. C3F
98. _____ is the circuit used to detect frequency
modulated signal.
A. Discriminator
B. Modulator
C. Modem
D. Detector
99. _____ is an information signal that is sent
directly without modulating any carrier.
A. C-band
B. Q-band
C. Baseband
D. Broadband
100. Both frequency and phase modulation
utilize ______ modulation.
A. Digital
B. Phase
C. Amplitude
D. Angle
101. It is the width of frequencies within the

spectrum occupied by a signal and used by
the signal for conveying information.
A. Band
B. Bandwidth
C. Electronic spectrum
D. Frequency band
102. Which transmit only one sideband?
A. H3E
B. C3F
C. A3E
D. B8E
103. ______ is kind of modulation in which
the modulated wave is always present.
A. Carrier modulation
B. Continuous modulation
C. Log-periodic modulation
D. Square-wave modulation
104. A type of modulation in which no signal
is present between pulses.
A. Pulse modulation
B. FSK
C. QAM
D. PAM
105. What describes the amount of amplitude
change present in an AM waveform?
A. Percent modulation
B. Modulation constant
C. Envelope of modulation
D. Coefficient of modulation
106. _______ is a form of amplitude
distortion introduced when the positive and
negative alternations in the AM modulated
signals are not equal.
A. Envelope distortion
B. Spurious emission
C. Carrier shift
D. Johnson noise
107. What is the advantage of phase

modulation over direct FM frequency
modulation?
A. Multipliers can be used
B. The deviation is smaller
C. Simplicity and practicality
D. The oscillator is crystal-controlled
108. If the spectrum is shifted in frequency
with no other changes, this is known as
A. Frequency multiplication
B. Sideband movement
C. Baseband reorientation
D. Frequency translation
109. A device which is capable of causing
frequency translation
A. High-Q tank circuit
C. Low-Q tank circuit
D. IF strip
110. If the frequency of each component in a
signal spectrum is increased by the same
fixed amount, this known as
A. Modulation
B. Frequency translation
C. Up conversion
D. Both B and C
111. A particular amplifier is designed to be a
frequency doubler. If the input signal
frequency is 15.4 MHz, a circuit in the
output will be tuned to
A. 7.7 MHz
B. 15.4 MHz
C. 30.8 MHz
D. 61.6 MHz
112. A sine wave of 293 MHz is phasemodulated to achieve a maximum phase
deviation of 0.2 radian. After passing
through a frequency tripler, the maximum
phase deviation will be
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.2 radian
0.3 radian
0.4 radian
0.6 radian
113. Any device to be used as a frequency
multiplier must be
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Linear
D. Nonlinear
114. A particular amplifier circuit used for
frequency doubling.
A. Push-push
B. Push-pull
C. Pull-push
D. Pull-pull
115. Frequency division is useful in the
implementation of a
A. AM demodulator
B. Frequency synthesizer
C. AGC circuit
D. FM demodulator
116. Frequency division by 12 will require
how many flip-flops in the counter?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 12
117. Identify an electronic device, not
specifically designed for the purpose, which
can be used as a phase detector.
A. Wien bridge
B. Colpitts oscillator
C. Balanced modulator
D. Butterworth filter
118. A particular frequency synthesizer
contains only a single crystal. What words
describe this synthesizer?
A. Crystal modulated
B. Inexact
C. Indirect
D. Deficient
119. A recognizable feature of a CW
transmitter is
A. Keyed transmitter
B. Power amplification
C. Frequency generation
D. All of these
120. The term pulling refers to
A. The change of the crystal oscillator
frequency by loading
B. One half-cycle operation of a push-pull
amplifier
C. Loading on the transmitter caused by
the antenna connection
D. Reduction of the power supply terminal
voltage as the transmitter is keyed.
121. When frequency modulation is achieved
by initial phase modulation, this is called
A. Angular modulation
B. Direct FM
C. Indirect FM
D. Indirect synthesis
122. A disadvantage of direct FM is the need
for
A. AGC
B. AFC
C. A frequency synthesizer
D. Phase modulation
123. Direct FM can be achieved by
A. A reactance tube modulator
B. A varactor diode
C. And AGC circuit
D. Both A and B
124. A receiver in which all RF amplifier
stages require manual tuning to the desired
RF is called
A. Superheterodyne
B. Autodyne
C. TRF
D. AFC
125. Why is it often necessary to precede the
demodulator by amplifier stages in a
receiver?
A. To improve fidelity
B. To reduce receiver noise
C. To eliminate image response
D. Weak antenna signals
126. A serious disadvantage of the TRF
receiver.
A. Bandwidth variations over the tuning
range
B. The weight and cost
C. The requirements for a closely
regulated power supply
D. The requirements for a half-wave
antenna
127. Identify which is not a part of a
superheterodyne receiver.
A. Local oscillator
B. Modulator
C. IF amplifier
D. Demodulator
128. Which major element will not be found
in every superheterodyne receiver?
A. RF amplifier
B. Mixer
C. Local oscillator
D. IF amplifier
129. Which major element of a
superheterodyne receiver must be nonlinear?
A. R-F amplifier
B. Mixer
C. Local oscillator
D. IF amplifier
130. The change of the modulated carrier

frequency from the original RF to the IF of
the superheterodyne receiver is known as
A. Frequency multiplication
B. Frequency allocation
C. Frequency substitution
D. Frequency translation
131. The key to achieving receiver sensitivity
is the reduction of
A. Image response
B. Mixer harmonic products
C. Spurious frequency response
D. Internal noise
132. Which of the following receiver design
objectives is not impossible?
A. Elimination of galactic noise
B. Elimination of atmospheric noise
C. Elimination of man-made noise
D. Reduction of receiver internal noise
133. In comparing the S/N ratio for the input
to the receiver with the S/N ratio for the
output, the latter is
A. Smaller
B. The same
C. Greater
D. Infinite
134. The characteristic of a receiver that
specifies the self-generated noise.
A. Noise immunity
B. Noise factor
C. Noise figure
D. Noise margin
135. An FM receiver with an I-F of 10.7 MHz

is tuned to 98.7 MHz. What is the numerical
value of the image frequency?
A. 77.3 MHz
B. 88.0 MHz
C. 109.4 MHz
D. 120.1 MHz
136. A source of RF interference exists at
109.9 MHz. For which frequency in the FM
broadcast band will this be the image
frequency?
A. 21.4 MHz
B. 88.5 MHz
C. 99.2 MHz
D. 110.7 MHz
137. The ratio of the superheterodyne
receiver response at the desired carrier
frequency to that at the image frequency is
called
A. The sensitivity
B. The selectivity
C. The image frequency
D. The image rejection ratio
138. The core of an IF transformer usually
contains
A. Teflon
B. Computer nylon
C. Powdered iron
D. Laminated steel
139. Shape factor is a measure of
A. Bandwidth
B. Skirt steepness
C. Coupling coefficient
D. Critical coupling
140. _______ is the function which tends to

maintain the sound volume level of a voice
receiver nearly constant for a large signal
strength range.
A. Squelch
B. Muting
C. AGC
D. AFC
141. The function which tends to silence the
receiver in the absence of transmitted
carrier.
A. Squelch
B. Muting
C. AGC
D. AFC
142. What device is incorporated in a
communications receiver to reduce impulse
noise?
A. Front-end processor
B. Squelch circuit
C. AGC
D. Noise blanker
143. What type of signal in which a receiver
selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the I-F circuitry is
optimum?
A. FM voice
B. Double-sideband AM voice
C. FSK data
D. SBB voice
144. If the input to a detector stage is an
amplitude-modulated (A3E) IF signal then
the output from the stage is
A. A lower frequency carrier
B. The audio voice information
C. A Morse-code signal
D. The upper or lower set of sidebands
145. In a capacitive type, reactance-tube
modulator connected across an oscillator
tuned circuit, a more negative voltage on the
grid of the reactance tube will cause
A. An increase of the oscillator frequency
B. An decrease of oscillator frequency
C. An increase of the reactance-tube
capacitance
D. An increase of the reactance tube ac
plate current
146. The limiting condition for sensitivity in a
communications receiver is
A. The noise floor of the receiver
B. Power supply output ripple
C. The two-tone intermodulation distortion
D. The input impedance to the detector
147. When a communications receiver is
tuned to a strong signal, the AGC bias is
measured and found to be zero. The fault
cannot be caused by a/an
A. Defective IF stage
B. Defective local oscillator
C. Defective RF stage
D. Open circuit in the AGCs filter
capacitor
148. The term used to refer to the condition
where the signals from a very strong station
are superimposed on other signals being
received
A. Cross-modulation interference
B. Intermodulation interference
C. Receiver quieting
D. Capture effect
149. The limiter stage of an FM receiver
A. Behaves as a low-pass filter
B. Limits the amplitude of the IF signal to
the required level
C. Behaves as a high-pass filter
D. Behaves as a bandstop filter
150. Motorboating (low-frequency
oscillations) in an amplifier can be stopped
by
A. Grounding the screen grid
B. Connecting a capacitor between the B+
and lead ground
C. By passing the screen grid resistor with
a 0.1 F capacitor
D. Grounding the plate
151. An effect in which, the modulation of an
unwanted signal is transferred to the desired
carrier.
A. Crossmodulation
B. Intermodulation
C. Modulation mixing
D. Image-channel interference
152. Leads should be kept as short as possible
in radio circuit so that
A. Skin effect is reduced
B. There is less hysteresis effect
C. There is less dielectric loss
D. Stray coupling is minimized
153. The number of voice transmissions that
can be packed into a given frequency band
for amplitude-compandored single-sideband
systems over conventional FM-phone
systems.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2
18
16
4
154. Neutralization of an RF amplifier stage
can be necessary in order to
A. Increase the amplifiers gain
B. Prevent the generation of spurious
oscillations
C. Reduce the amplifiers gain
D. Reduce the level of the output
harmonics
155. The ability of a communications receiver
to perform well in the presence of strong
signals outside the band of interest is
indicated by what parameter?
A. Blocking dynamic range
B. Noise figure
C. Signal-to-noise ratio
D. Audio output
156. Stages that are common to both AM and
FM receivers
A. Tuner, local oscillator, detector, AF
amplifier
B. RF amplifier, mixer, IF amplifier, AF
amplifier
C. Local oscillator, RF amplifier,
frequency discriminator, detector
D. Tuner, IF amplifier, detector, AF amp
157. Occurs during CW reception if too
narrow a filter bandwidth is used in the IF
stage of a receiver
A. Filter ringing
B. Undesired signals will reach the audio

stage
C. Output-offset overshoot
D. Cross-modulation distortion
158. What stage mainly determines a
communication receivers sensitivity?
A. IF amplifier
B. Mixer stage
C. Detector stage
D. RF amplifier
159. What is the main advantage of FM over
AM?
A. Better signal-to-noise-ratio
B. Narrower bandwidth
C. Greater propagation range
D. Total freedom from adjacent-channel
interference
160. An amplitude modulation created in an
amplifier before the final RF stage.
A. Low-level modulation
B. High-level modulation
C. Direct modulation
D. Indirect modulation
161. Receiver desensitizing can be reduced
by
A. Increasing the transmitter audio gain
B. Decreasing the receiver squelch gain
C. Increasing the receiver bandwidth
D. Ensuring good RF shielding between
the transmitter
162. In a narrow-band FM system, the
deviation ratio is commonly one and the
highest audio frequency is generally limited
to
A.
B.
C.
D.
300 Hz
10,000 Hz
3,000 Hz
7,500 Hz
163. A type of emission is produced when an
amplitude modulated transmitter is
modulated by a facsimile signal
A. A3F
B. F3F
C. A3C
D. F3C
164. Where is the noise generated which
primarily determines the signal to noise ratio
in a VHF (150 MHz) marine band receiver?
A. In the detector
B. In the atmosphere
C. In the ionosphere
D. In the receiver front end
165. Cross-modulation in a receiver can be
reduced by
A. Installing a filter at the receiver
B. Using a filter at the receiver
C. Increasing the receivers RF gain while
decreasing the AF
D. Adjusting the pass-band tuning
166. What is the emission designation for FM
telephony?
A. F3E
B. G3E
C. J3E
D. H3E
167. What is the cause of receiver
desensitizing?
A. The presence of a strong signal on a

nearby frequency
B. Audio gain adjusted too low
C. Squelch gain adjusted too high
D. Squelch gain adjusted too low
168. In a phase-modulated signal (indirect
FM), the frequency deviation is directly
proportional to the
A. Carrier amplitude only
B. Amplitude of the modulating tone and
frequency of the carrier
C. Carrier frequency only
D. Modulating signal amplitude only
169. An RF stage precedes the mixer stage in
a superhet receiver. One advantage of
including this RF stage is
A. Better selectivity
B. Better rejection ratio
C. Greater sensitivity
D. Improved signal-to-noise-ratio
170. Two factors that determine the
sensitivity of a receiver.
A. Dynamic range and third-order
intercept
B. Cost and availability
C. Bandwidth and noise figure
D. Intermodulation distortion and dynamic
range
171. What is an undesirable effect of using
too-wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section
of a receiver?
A. Undesired signals will reach the audio
stage
B. Output-offset overshoot
C. Thermal-noise distortion
D. Filter ringing
172. A system containing a limiter stage, a
discriminator, and a de-emphasis circuit?
A. Direct FM transmitter
B. Indirect FM transmitter
C. Single sideband AM receiver
D. FM receiver
173. The limiter stage of an FM receiver
A. Prevents any amplitude modulation of
the IF signal
B. Limits the amount of frequency
deviation in the IF signal
C. Limits the overall bandwidth of the IF
stages
D. Corrects any deviation in carrier
frequency
174. High selectivity occurs when the degree
of coupling between a receivers RF stages
is
A. Tight
B. Loose
C. Critical
D. Adjusted for maximum power transfer
175. A carrier is phase modulated by a test
tone. If the amplitude and the frequency of
the tone are both doubled, the amount of the
deviation is
A. Doubled
B. Unchanged
C. Halved
D. Multiplied by four
176. The degree of selectivity desirable in the
IF circuitry of a single-sideband receiver.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 kHz
2.4 kHz
4.2 kHz
4.8 kHz
177. The component most apt to break down
in the radio circuit is the
A. Crystal
B. Resistor
C. Transformer
D. Diode
178. The base in an RF amplifier is grounded
in order to
A. Avoid the requirement of neutralizing
the stage
B. Raise the input impedance
C. Lower the output impedance
D. Obtain maximum power output
179. The AM detector performs two basic
functions in the receiver.
A. Rectifies and filters
B. Amplifiers and filters
C. Buffer and amplifier
D. Buffer and detector
180. A varactor diode can be used in a/an
A. Direct FM modulator circuit
B. AFC circuit in a direct FM transmitter
C. Phase-modulator circuit
D. All of these
181. Receiver interference is not reduced by
including a/an
A. Crystal filter
B. Insulating enclosures around the
receiver
C. Wave trap
D. RF stage
182. What is the emission C3F?
A. RTTY
B. SSB
C. Television
D. Modulated CW
183. What is the approximate dc input power
to a class AB RF power amplifier stage in an
unmodulated carrier transmitter when the
PEP output is 500 W?
A. Approximately 1000 W
B. Approximately 800 W
C. Approximately 250 W
D. Approximately 600 W
184. Which of the following stages in an FM
receiver is responsible for drastically
reducing the effect of static noise during the
reception of a signal
A. De-emphasis circuit
B. Mixer stage
C. Squelch circuit
D. Limiter stage
185. The letters SSSC stands for
A. Single sideband, single carrier
B. Suppressed sideband, single channel
C. Suppressed sideband, single carrier
D. Single sideband, suppressed carrier
186. For many types of voices, what is the
ratio of PEP-to-average power during a
modulation peak in a single-sideband phone
signal?
A. Approximately 1.0 to 1
B. Approximately 25 to 1
C. Approximately 100 to 1
D. Approximately 2.5 to 1
187. In most mixers, the oscillator frequency
is ______ than the carrier frequency of the
input signal.
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. The same
D. 10 kHz above
188. Features of a transmitters buffer stage
include
A. High stage
B. Harmonic generation
C. Improvement in frequency stability of
the oscillator
D. Low input impedance
189. Type of emission produced when an
amplitude modulated transmitter is
modulated by a television signal
A. F3F
B. A3C
C. F3C
D. A3F
190. A network is
A. A network consisting entirely of four
inductors or four capacitors
B. A power incidence network
C. An antenna matching network that is
isolated from ground
D. A network consisting of one inductor
and two capacitors
191. How is G3E FM-phone signals
produced?
A. A network consisting modulator on the
audio amplifier
B. With a reactance modulator on the final

amplifier
C. With a reactance modulator on the
oscillator
D. With a balanced modulator on the
oscillator
192. A way of eliminating auto interference
to radio reception
A. Installing resistive spark plugs
B. Installing capacitive spark plugs
C. Installing resistors in series with the
spark plugs
D. Installing two copper-braid ground
strips
193. The carrier in an AM transmitter is the
A. Transmitters output signal when the
modulation is present
B. Transmitters output signal when the
modulation is zero
C. Output signal from the crystal oscillator
D. RMS value of the AM signal
194. What stage feeds the discriminator of an
FM receiver?
A. Local oscillator
B. Mixer stage
C. Final IF amplifier, which also acts as a
limiter stage
D. Buffer
195. In an FM receiver, the stage that has the
IF signal is input and the audio signal
output.
A. Limiter
B. Audio amplifier
C. IF amplifier
D. Discriminator
196. What is capture effect?
A. All signals on a frequency are
demodulated by an FM receiver
B. The loudest signal received is the only
demodulated signal
C. All signals on a frequency are
demodulated by an AM receiver
D. The weakest signal received is the only
demodulated signal
197. A double-sideband phone signal can be
generated by
A. Feeding a phase-modulated signal into
a low-pass filter
B. Modulating the plate voltage of a classC amplifier
C. Using a balanced modulator followed
by a filter
D. Detuning a Hartley oscillator
198. Pre-emphasis is used in FM transmitters
to improve the signal-to-noise ratio of
A. High modulating frequencies
B. Low modulating frequencies
C. All modulating frequencies
D. Frequencies carrier
199. The result of cross-modulation is that
A. The modulation of an unwanted signal
is heard on the desired signal
B. A decrease in modulation level of
transmitted signals
C. Of receiver quieting
D. Of inverting sidebands in the final stage
of the amplifier
200. Which of the following contains deemphasis circuit?

A. FM transmitter
B. FM receiver
C. VHF transmitter
D. VHF receiver
A. AM
B. Facsimile
C. Television
D. RTTY
202. What type of emission is produced when
a frequency modulated transmitter is
modulated by a facsimile signal?
A. F3C
B. A3C
C. F3F
D. A3F
203. Two AM transmitting antennas are close
together. As a result the two modulated
signals are mixed in the final RF stage of
both transmitters. What is the resultant
effect on other station?
A. Harmonic interference
B. Intermodulation interference
C. Spurious interference
D. Crossmodulation interference
204. The term used to refer to the reduction of
receiver gain caused by the signal of a
nearby station transmitter in the same
frequency band?
A. Quieting
B. Cross-modulation interference
C. Squelch gain rollback
D. Desensitizing
205. What is the bandwidth occupied by the
carrier, both sidebands and harmonics?
A. Authorized bandwidth
B. Bandwidth of emission and occupied
bandwidth
C. Operating bandwidth
D. All of these
206. A class-C RF amplifier is collector
amplitude modulated and its average dc
level collector current does not change. This
means
A. A normal condition
B. Excessive drive to the base
C. Insufficient drive to the base
D. Insufficient audio modulation
207. What determines the percentage
modulation of an FM transmitter?
A. Amplitude of the carrier
B. Modulating frequency
C. Carrier frequency
D. Amplitude of the modulating signal
208. Deviation ratio of an FM transmitter is
the ratio of the
A. Maximum frequency swing to the
highest modulating frequency
B. Operating frequency of the assigned
frequency
C. Frequency swing to the modulating
frequency
D. Highest modulating frequency to the
minimum frequency
209. The main purpose of the beat frequency
oscillator (BFO) is to generate
A. A 1 kHz not for Morse reception

B. Aid in the reception of weak voicemodulated signals
C. An output, whose frequency differs
from the IF by 1 kHz
D. A signal, whose frequency is the same
as intermediate frequency
210. Normally, a linear class BRF power
amplifier operates with a bias approximately
equal to
A. Twice cut-off
B. Ten times cut-off value
C. 50% of cut-off value
D. Projected cut-off
211. The purpose why an RF amplifier is
operated under linear class-B conditions (as
opposed to class-C) is to
A. Generate only even harmonics
B. Generate only odd harmonics
C. Increase the efficiency
D. Amplify of an AM signal
212. The term used to refer to the condition
where the signal from a very strong station
are superimposed on other signal being
received.
A. Cross-modulation interference
B. Intermodulation distoriotion
C. Receiver quieting
D. Capture effect
213. _________ is the amplitude of the
maximum negative excursion of a signal as
viewed on an oscilloscope.
A. Peak-to-peak voltage
B. Inverse peak positive voltage
C. RMS voltage
D. Peak negative voltage
214. The type of emission that suffer most
from selective fading.
A. CW and SSB
B. SSB and TV
C. FM and double sideband AM
D. SSTV and CW
215. In an FM-phone signal, ________ is the
ratio between the actual frequency deviation
to the maximum frequency deviation.
A. FM compressibility
B. Modulating index
C. Percentage of modulation
D. Quieting index
216. _______ is used to refer to the reception
blockage of one FM-phone signal by another
FM-phone signal.
A. Capture effect
B. Desensitization
C. Cross-modulation interference
D. Frequency discrimination
217. A receiver selectivity of 10 kHz in the IF
circuitry is optimum for what type of
singals?
A. SSB voice
B. Facsimile
C. FM
D. Double-sideband AM
218. If the envelope of modulation is constant
in amplitude this means
A. Zero beat
B. Under-modulation
C. Zero-modulation
D. Over-modulation
219. What is the approximate bandwidth of
an FM with a modulation factor of 12.5 and
a modulating frequency of 10 kHz?
A. 20 kHz
B. 270 kHz
C. 250 kHz
D. 45 kHz
220. Amplitude modulation is the same as
A. Linear mixing
B. Analog multiplication
C. Signal summation
D. Multiplexing
221. The negative half of the AM wave is
supplied by a/an _______ on a diode
modulator.
A. The tuned circuit
B. Transformer
C. Capacitor
D. Inductor
222. One of the following can produce AM.
A. Having the carrier vary a resistance
B. Having the modulating signal vary a
capacitance
C. Varying the carrier frequency
D. Varying the gain of an amplifier
223. Amplitude modulators that vary the
carrier amplitude with the modulating signal
by passing it through an attenuator network
is the principle of
A. Rectification
B. Amplification
C. Variable resistance
D. Absorption
224. Which component is used to produce

AM at very high frequencies?
A. Varactor diode
B. Thermistor
C. Cavity resonator
D. PIN diode
225. A collector modulator has a supply
voltage of 48 V. What is the peak-to-peak
amplitude of the modulating signal for 100
percent modulation?
A. 24 V
B. 48 V
C. 96 V
D. 120 V
226. What circuit recovers the original
modulating information from an AM signal?
A. Modulator
B. Demodulator
C. Mixer
D. Crystal set
227. What is the most commonly used
amplitude demodulator?
A. Envelope detector
C. Mixer
D. Crystal set
228. What circuit generates the upper and
lower sidebands and suppresses the carrier?
A. Amplitude modulator
B. Diode detector
C. Class C amplifier
D. Balanced modulator
229. _________ is a widely used balanced
modulator.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Diode bridge circuit

Full-wave bridge rectifier
Lattice modulator
Balanced bridge modulator
230. In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act
like
A. Variable resistors
B. Switches
C. Rectifiers
D. Variable capacitors
231. The output of a balanced modulator is
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. DSB
232. The principal circuit in the popular
1496/1596 IC balanced modulator is a
A. Differential amplifier
B. Rectifier
C. Bridge
D. Constant current source
233. The most commonly used filter in SSB
generators uses
A. LC networks
B. Mechanical resonators
C. Crystals
D. RC networks and op amps
234. In the phasing method of SSB
generation, one sideband is canceled out due
to
A. Phase shifting
B. Sharp selectivity
C. Carrier suppression
D. Phase inversion
235. A balanced modulator used to

demodulate a SSB signal is call a/an
A. Transponder
B. Product detector
C. Converter
D. Remodulator
236. Frequency translation is done with a
circuit called a
A. Summer
B. Multiplier
C. Divider
D. Mixer
237. Mixing for frequency conversion is the
same as
A. Rectification
B. AM
C. Linear summing
D. Filtering
advantage of FM over AM?
A. Greater efficiency
B. Noise immunity
C. Capture effect
D. Lower complexity and cost
239. The primary disadvantage of FM is its
A. Higher cost and complexity
B. Excessive use of spectrum space
C. Noise susceptibility
D. Lower efficiency
240. Noise is primarily
A. High-frequency spikes
B. Lowe-frequency variations
C. Random level shifts
D. Random frequency variations
241. The receiver circuit that rids FM of noise

is the
A. Modulator
B. Demodulator
C. Limiter
D. Low-pass filter
242. The AM signals generated at a low level
may only be amplified by what type of
amplifier?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. All of the above
243. SSB means
A. Single sideband with suppressed carrier
B. Single sideband with carrier
C. Double sideband with no carrier
D. Single sideband with reduced carrier
244. A circuit used to select the desired
output from a mixer
A. Transformer
B. Resonant circuit
C. Filter
D. Phase-shift circuit
245. What is the output of a balanced
modulator?
A. AM
B. DSB
C. SSB
D. ISB
246. The acronym SSSC refer to
A. Suppressed sideband, single carrier
B. Suppressed sideband, suppressed carrier
C. Single sideband, suppressed carrier
D. Single sideband, single carrier

247. Which process occurs in the receiver?
A. Demodulation
B. Reception
C. Modulation
D. Recreation
248. What is usually used to demodulate SSB
or CW signal?
A. PLL
B. BFO
C. Ratio detector
D. All of these
widely used amplitude modulator
A. Diode detector
B. PLL circuit
C. VCO
D. All of these
widely used balanced modulator
A. Full-wave bridge circuit
B. Balanced bridge modulator
C. Lattice modulator
D. None of these
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN
ELECTRONI
CS SYSTEMS
AND
TECHNOLO
GIES
By
Melvin C. Arceo
ENCODED
BY:
ANDRADE, Caroline T.
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.

GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
LORENZO, Luer Breech B.
RIVERA, Billy Joe S.
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN
BROADCAST
ENGINEERIN
G
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo
ENCODED BY:
1. In stereophonic broadcast, the center

frequency of each SCA subcarrier shall
be kept at all times within ____ Hz of
the authorized frequency.
A.
B.
C.
D.
200
300
400
500
2. Sawtooth generator circuits produce the

scanning raster, but the sync pulses are
needed for
A.
B.
C.
D.
Linearity
Timing
Keystoning
Line pairing
3. Which of the following camera tubes has

minimum lag?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vidicon
Plumbicon
Saticon
Iconoscope
4. The service area in standard AM

broadcast is described as ____ if there is
no fading signal.
A. Class A
B. Secondary
C. Class B
D. Primary
5. The vertical field-scanning frequency is
_____ Hz.
A.
B.
C.
D.
30
60
525
15,750
6. A 4.5-MHz signal which is equal to the

difference between the picture and sound
RF carrier frequencies in a 6-MHz TV
channel.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Audio frequency
Video frequency
Intercarrier frequency
Subcarrier frequency
7. A system where the modulated RF

picture and sound carrier signals are
distributed in a cable network, instead of
wireless system.
A.
B.
C.
D.
CCTV
MATV
CATV
SATV
8. A class A FM station is limited in

antenna height of _____ feet above
average terrain.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1000
2000
4000
5000
9. What circuit in the TV receiver is used

to develop the high voltage needed to
operate the picture tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Low-voltage power supply

Horizontal output
Vertical output
Sync separator
10. The modulated picture carrier wave

includes the composite video signal as
the
A. Average carrier level
B. Symmetric envelope of amplitude
variations
C. Lower sideband without the upper
sideband
D. Upper envelope without the lower
envelope
11. With which emission type is the captureeffect more pronounced?
A.
B.
C.
D.
CW
FM
SSB
AM
12. The hue of color sync phase is

A.
B.
C.
D.
Red
Cyan
Blue
Yellow-green
13. How much is the equivalent internal

resistance of the electron beam with a
1.2-mA beam current at 25 kV?
A.
B.
C.
D.
48 nano ohms
30 ohms
20.8 mega ohms
15.6 kilo ohms
14. The difference between the picture and

sound carrier frequencies for channel 3
is ____ MHz.
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.58
64.5
4.5
6.75
15. Refers to the deviation of the operating

frequency of a crystal oscillator from its
nominal value due to temperature
variations.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Drift
Flashover
Frequency deviation
Deviation ratio
16. It is the measure of how many picture

elements can be reproduced
A.
B.
C.
D.
Definition
Resolution
Detail
Any of these
17. A 3.58-MHz subcarrier signal for color

in television
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hue signal
Video signal
Audio signal
Chroma signal
18. A class D FM station shall have an

authorized power not exceeding _____
watts.
A.
B.
C.
D.
20
15
10
5
19. Which of the following is not a benefit

of cable TV?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lower-cost reception
Greater stability
Less noise, stronger signal
Premium cable channels
20. The width of the vertical sync pulse in

the Philippine TV system is
A.
B.
C.
D.
21H
3H
H
0.5H
21. Term in communication which is

referred, to send out in all direction
A.
B.
C.
D.
Announce
Broadcast
Transmit
Media
22. The number of frames per second in the

Philippine TV system is
A.
B.
C.
D.
60
262
4.5
30
23. It means multiple outlines of edges to

the right in the picture.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ghosting
Ringing
Fading
Snowing
24. In the sawtooth waveform for linear

scanning,
D. Frequency modulation
A. The linear rise is for flyback
B. The complete cycle includes trace
and retrace
C. The sharp reversal in amplitude
produces trace
D. The beam moves faster during trace
and retrace
25. The purpose of pre-emphasis and deemphasis in FM broadcasting is to :
A. Increase the high frequency
amplitude
B. Improve the audio harmonic
C. Decrease the low frequency
amplitude
D. Improve the S/N ratio
28. A video or audio signal that can be used

directly to reproduce the picture and
sound.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Baseband signal
Broadband signal
Electromagnetic wave signal
Modulated signal
29. Class B FM station should have an ERP

not exceeding ____ kW.
A.
B.
C.
D.
50
40
30
20
D. Flyback
32. In the Philippine color television system,
the intercarrier frequency, in MHz, is
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.58
3.579545
4.5
45.75
33. In channel 14 (470 to 476 MHz), the

3.58-MHz color signal is transmitted at
A.
B.
C.
D.
471.25 MHz
473.25 MHz
474.83 MHz
475.25 MHz
34. Interfaced scanning eliminates

26. The part of the visible spectrum where
camera pickup tubes have the greatest
output is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Red
Blue
Yellow-green
Infrared
27. The type of modulation of the sound

carrier signal is ________.
A. Pulse modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Amplitude modulation
30. What technique is used to permit

hundreds of TV signals to share a
common cable?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mixing
Frequency division multiplexing
Time division multiplexing
31. Another name for the horizontal retrace

in a TV receiver is the
A. Ringing
B. Burst
C. Damper
A.
B.
C.
D.
Snowing
Flicker
Distortion
Fading
35. Beam alignment magnets for the camera

tube are adjusted while rocking which
control?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Optical focus
Electrical focus
Beam current
Shading
36. What is the frequency discriminator?

A. An FM generator
B. A circuit for detecting FM
C. A circuit for filtering two closely
adjacent signals
D. An automatic bandwidth circuit
37. A system used in television field
operation to make on the spot video tape
recordings using portable TV cameras
and VTRs.
A.
B.
C.
D.
SNG
ENG
HAFC
MATV
38. Class B FM station shall have an

authorized transmitter power not
exceeding ______ kW.
A.
B.
C.
D.
10
100
1000
10000
39. The total bandwidth of an NTSC TV

signal is
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.58 MHz
4.5 MHz
6 MHz
10.7 MHz
D. The saturation of the color

40. Referred to the oscillator signal leak
through from a property neutralized
amplifier such as a master oscillator
power amplifier.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Carrier
Stray signal
Back wave
Loss wave
41. Interfacing is used in television to

A. Produce the illusion of motion
B. Ensure that all lines on the screen are
scanned, not merely the alternate
ones
C. Simplify the vertical sync pulse train
D. Avoid flicker
42. Coaxial cable for distribution system has
an impedance of
A.
B.
C.
D.
50 ohms
75 ohms
150 ohms
300 ohms
43. The average voltage value of the 3.58MHz modulated chrominance signal is
A. Zero for most colors
B. Close to black for yellow
C. The brightness of the color
44. When does broadcast station conduct an

equipment test?
A.
B.
C.
D.
During day time

During night time
During experimental period
At any time
45. It causes the picture information to

spread out or crowded at one end of the
raster compared to the opposite end.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Linear scanning
Interfaced scanning
Non-linear scanning
Retrace
46. If the camera cannot be placed far away

enough to include everything in the
scene, change the lens to one with a
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lower f rating
Higher f rating
Longer focal length
Shorter focal length
47. Type of radio communication

transmission utilizing frequency
modulation technique
A. Television video
B. Broadcasting in 535-1606 kHz
C. Single sideband HF transmission

D. Television audio
48. The amount of color in the picture or
color intensity is the ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Color level
Chroma level
Saturation
Any of these
49. One of the early radio transmitters which

produced keyed carrier generating purer
waveform than spark transmitter, used
for high powered RF transmission and
are limited to radio frequency of about
500 kHz.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Arc transmitter
Hartley transmitter
Spark transmitter
Frequency transmitter
51. A class C FM station has an authorized

radiated power not exceeding ____watts
of ERP.
A.
B.
C.
D.
500
750
1000
2000
52. The assembly around the neck of a

picture tube that produces the magnetic
fields that deflect and scan the electron
beams is called the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Shadow mask
Phosphor
Electron gun
Yoke
53. An odd number of lines per frame forms

part of every one of the worlds TV
systems. This is
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.5 MHz
1.25 MHz
0.92 MHz
0.25 MHz
55. In color television, it is made for

uniform color in the raster.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Beam-landing adjustment
Degaussing
Internal blanking adjustment
Background control
56. Which of the following camera tubes

uses load oxide for the photoconductive
target plate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vidicon
Plumbicon
Saticon
Image orthicon
57. The number of fields is _____ per frame.

50. A technique where segments of
videotape are joined by electronic
erasing and recording to create a single
program.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Masking
Segmenting
Editing
Programming
A. Done to assist interlace

B. Purely an accident
C. To ensure that line and frame
frequencies can be obtained from the
same original source
D. Done to minimize interference with
the chroma subcarrier
54. The difference between the sound carrier
and the color signal is
A.
B.
C.
D.
2
60
525
262
58. An RF carrier wave that is frequencymodulated by the baseband audio signal

in TV broadcasting.
A. Audio signal
B. Video Signal
C. Intercarrier signal
D. Color signal
59. A class B FM station is limited in
antenna height of _____ feet.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1000
500
250
100
60. The HV anode supply for the picture

tube of a TV receiver is generated in the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mains transformer
Vertical output stage
Horizontal output stage
Horizontal deflection oscillator
61. A tap for the subscriber drop line has a

A.
B.
C.
D.
High insertion loss

High tap loss
Low tap loss
300-ohm
62. Which system can be used for both

recording and playback?
A.
B.
C.
D.
CED
VHD
Laser disk
VHS
63. The hue 180 degrees out of phase with

red is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cyan
Yellow
Green
Blue
64. It is used around the phosphor dots to

make a darker black which improves
contrast in the picture.
A. Black masking
B. Convergence adjustment
C. Shadow masking
D. Color purity adjustment
65. A lens lower f rating is ____ lens that
allows more light input.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Slower
Wider
Narrower
Faster
66. Picture frames are repeated at the rate of

____ per second.
A.
B.
C.
D.
30
60
45
50
67. The effective radiated power of a class A

FM station should not exceed _____
kW.
A.
B.
C.
D.
125
30
10
1
68. In television, 4:3 represents the

A.
B.
C.
D.
Interface ratio
Maximum horizontal deflection
Aspect ratio
Ratio of the two diagonals
69. Titling the video head gaps is necessary

with the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Color-under
Zero guard bands
FM luminance signal
Long-play tapes
70. It is a special camera tube with a test

pattern in the image plate.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vidicon
Monoscope
Oscilloscope
Iconoscope
71. The number of lines scanned per frame

in the raster on the picture tube screen is
A.
B.
C.
D.
525
262
20
10
72. One of the following is a high powered

RF ac basic transmitter that has two or
more stages, the oscillator stage which
determines the frequency of operation
and RF amplifier stage or stages that
develop the high power output. The
purpose of which is to develop a good
frequency stability.
A.
B.
C.
D.
MOPA
Hartley
Alexanderson
Goldsmith
73. Camera signal output without sync is

called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Black burst
Generator lock video
Composite video
Non-composite video
74. The tint of the color is its

A.
B.
C.
D.
Brightness
Contrast
Chroma
Hue
75. Which frequency band is the standard

AM radio broadcast?
A.
B.
C.
D.
HF
UHF
MF
VHF
76. The I and Q composite color signals are

multiplexed onto the picture carrier by
modulating a 3.58 MHz subcarrier using
A.
B.
C.
D.
FM
PM
DSB AM
Vestigial sideband AM
77. The shadow mask in a color picture tube

is used to
A. Reduce X-ray emission
B. Ensure that each beam hits only its
own dots
C. Increase screen brightness
D. Provide degaussing for the screen
78. The video heads rotate at high velocity
to increase the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Tape speed
Writing speed
Reel rotation
Tape tension
79. How ho you eliminate radio frequency

variation of an oscillator transmitter
caused by its supply voltage?
A. Use of regulated power supply
B. Use of new power supply
C. Use of high capacitor in the supply
circuit
D. Loosen power supply shielding
80. The composite video signal includes the
camera signal with the following except
A.
B.
C.
D.
Picture information
Sync pulses
Blanking pulses
Camera signal
81. A lens has an 8-cm focal length and 4cm diameter. Its f rating is
A.
B.
C.
D.
2
4
8
32
82. Which of the following is a possible

cause for an abrupt frequency variation
in a self-excited transmitter oscillator
circuits resulting a poor frequency
stability to hold a constant frequency
oscillation?
A. DC and RF AC heating of resistor

which cause a change in values
B. Heating and expansion of oscillator
coil
C. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
D. Power supply voltage changes
83. How long does it take to scan 2 picture
elements when 400 are scanned in 50
microseconds?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25 microsec
0.25 microsec
2.5 microsec
0.5 microsec
84. Anode voltage for the picture tube,

developed from the output of the
horizontal deflection circuit.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Yoke voltage
Flyback voltage
Aquadag voltage
Tube voltage
85. The channel spacing in the Philippine

FM broadcast standards
86. What is the black-and-white or

monochrome brightness signal in TV
called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
RGB
Color subcarrier
Q and I
Luminance Y
87. Which of the following is a midband

cable TV channel?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6
7
14
23
88. What is the primary purpose of an RF

amplifier in a receiver?
A. To vary the receiver image rejection
by utilizing the AGC
B. To provide most of the receiver gain
C. To develop the AGC voltage
D. To improve the receivers noise
figure
89. The color with the most luminance is
A.
B.
C.
D.
400 kHz
800 kHz
600 kHz
200 kHz
A.
B.
C.
D.
Red
Yellow
Green
Blue
90. It is the light flux intercepted by onefoot-square surface that is one foot from
one-candlepower source.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Candela
Footcandle
Lux
Lumens
91. Refers to the possible cause for an

abrupt frequency variations in a selfexcited transmitter oscillator circuit
resulting to a poor frequency stability to
hold a constant oscillator.
A. Poor soldered connections
B. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
C. DC and AC heating of resistors
which cause change in values
D. Aging which cause change in
condition in parts characteristics
92. It is the difference in intensity between
the black parts and white parts of the
picture.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Brightness
Hue
Contrast
Illumination
93. The stereophonic subcarrier suppression

level in the Philippines standards
A. Less than 4% modulation of the main

carrier
B. Less than 3% modulation of the main
carrier
C. Less than 2% modulation of the main
carrier
D. Less than 1% modulation of the
main carrier
A.
B.
C.
D.
AB
C
B
A
98. In a picture tube, it is the total angle that

the beam can be deflected without
touching the sides of the envelope.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.5 microsec
0.25 microsec
1.25 microsec
125 microsec
102.
In basic radio transmitter, the
main advantage of a single-tube
transmitter is
94. The sound IF in a TV receiver is

A.
B.
C.
D.
4.5 MHz
10.7 MHz
41.25 MHz
45.75 MHz
95. The circuit separates sync pulse from the

composite video waveform is
A.
B.
C.
D.
The keyed AGC amplifier

A clipper
An integrator
A differentiator
96. In the CED system, the disk capacitance

varies with the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pit depth
Disk size
Speed of rotation
Wavelength of the scanning light
97. The final power amplifier in an FM

transmitter usually operates class _____
A.
B.
C.
D.
Screen angle
Tube angle
Picture angle
Deflection angle
99. It is necessary to time the scanning with

respect to picture information.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flyback
Synchronization
Blanking
Scanning
100.
The intermediate frequency used
in for FM broadcasting Philippine
standards.
A.
B.
C.
D.
455 kHz
10.7 MHz
11.4 MHz
12.5 MHz
101.
What is the horizontal scanning
time for 20 pixels?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Frequency instability
Non-portable
Heating effect
Bulky
103.
The carrier transmitted 1.25 MHz
above the bottom frequency in a
Philippine TV channel is the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sound carrier
Chroma carrier
Intercarrier
Picture carrier
104.
In camera tubes, it means that the
old image remains too long after the
picture information on the target plate
has changed.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Light lag
Switch lag
Image lag
Camera lag
105.
What is the maximum color TV
bandwidth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.6 MHz
0.5 MHz
1.0 MHz
1.3 MHz
106.
Class of FM station where its
authorized power should not exceed 15
kW.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
107.
What is the name of the solid
state imaging device used in TV cameras
that converts the light in a scene into an
electrical signal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
CCD
Phototube matrix
Vidicon
MOSFET array
108.
The signals sent by the
transmitter to ensure correct scanning in
the receiver is called
A. Sync
B. Chroma
C. Luminance
D. Video
109.
What signals are transmitted by a
SSBSC transmitter when no modulating
signal is present?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The upper sideband only

Both the upper and lower sideband
The lower sideband
No signal transmitted
110.
The second IF value for color in
receivers, for any station, is
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.5 MHz
1.3 MHz
3.58 MHz
4.5 MHz
111.
In the frame for which interfaced
scanning is used, alternate lines are
skipped during vertical scanning because
A. The trace is slower than retrace
B. The vertical scanning frequency is
doubled from 30 to 60 Hz
C. The horizontal scanning is slower
than vertical scanning
D. The frame has a 4:3 aspect ratio
112.
A typical value of vidicon dark
current is
A. 0.2 microampere
B. About 200 microampere

C. 8 milliampere
D. 800 milliampere
113.
The smallest are of light or shade
in the image is a picture element called
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chroma
Hue
Contrast
Pixel
114.
An entry of the time the station
begins to supply power to the antenna
and the time it stops.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Operating log entries

Program log entries
Operating schedule
Any of these
115.
What type of circuit is used to
modulate and demodulate the color
signals?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Phase-locked loop
Differential peak detector
Quadrature detector
Balanced modulator
116.
This is referred to as a fixed
radio station that broadcast program
material from audio to transmitter by
radio link.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aural BC intercity relay

Aural broadcast STL
Short wave station
Remove pick-up
117.
Indicate which of the following
frequencies will not be found in the
output of a normal TV receiver tuner.
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.5 MHz
41.25 MHz
45.75 MHz
42.17 MHz
118.
In all standard television
broadcast channels , the difference
between the picture and sound carrier
frequencies is
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.25 MHz
1.25 MHz
4.5 MHz
6 MHz
119.
It is caused by phase distortion
for video frequencies of about 100 kHz
and lower.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Streaking
Snowing
Ringing
Fading
120.
Special effects and production
switching are done by the
A.
B.
C.
D.
CCU
ENG camera
SEG
Sync generator
121.
A picture has 400 horizontal and
300 vertical picture elements. What is
the total number of details in the picture?
A.
B.
C.
D.
120,000
700
0.75
100
122.
After the IF stages have been
aligned, the next stage to align in FM
receiver is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Local oscillator
Limiter stage
RF amplifier
Mixer stage
123.
What ensures proper color
synchronization at the receiver?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sync pulses
Quadrature modulation
4.5-MHz intercarrier sound
3.58-MHz color burst
124.
The interfering beat frequency of
920 kHz is between the 3.58-MHz color
subcarrier and the
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.5-MHz intercarrier sound

Picture carrier
Lower adjacent sound
Upper adjacent picture
125.
Light is converted to video signal
by the _____ tube.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Camera tube
Picture tube
Anode tube
Cathode tube
126.
A.
B.
C.
D.
67 kHz
59.5 to 74.5 kHz
19 to 38 kHz
30 to 53 kHz
127.
Equalizing pulses in TV are sent
during
A.
B.
C.
D.
Horizontal blanking
Vertical blanking
The serrations
The horizontal retrace
128.
Which signal has color
information for 1.3 MHz bandwidth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
I
Y
R-Y
B-Y
129.
It is the distance from the center
of the lens of the camera to the point at
which parallel rays from a distant object
come to a common focal point.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Focal length
Latus rectum
Major axis
Minor axis
130.
The method of generating FM
used by broadcast station is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Direct
Indirect
Insertion
All of these
131.
The picture and sound carrier
frequencies in a TV receiver IF are
respectively.
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.25 and 45.75 MHz

45.75 and 41.25 MHz
41.75 and 45.25 MHz
45.25 and 41.75 MHz
132.
The channel width in the
Philippine TV system, in MHz, is
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.25
6
4.5
3.58
133.
The cable converter output or the
TV receiver is usually on channel
A.
B.
C.
D.
3
6
7
9
134.
One-half line spacing between
the start positions for scanning even and
odd fields produces
A.
B.
C.
D.
Linear scanning
Line pairing
Fishtailing
Exact interlacing
135.
Precise scanning size and
linearity are most important in
A.
B.
C.
D.
A black-and-white camera
Plumbicon
A single-tube color pickup
A saticon
136.
A signal in which the sum of all
signals which frequency-modulates the
main carrier.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Composite baseband signal

FM baseband
Main channel signal
Stereophonic signal
137.
What is the total number of
interlaced scan lines in one complete
frame of a NTSC Philippine TV signal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
262
525
480
625
138.
The video voltage applied to the
picture tube of a television receiver is
fed in
A.
B.
C.
D.
Between grid and ground

To the yoke
To the anode
Between the grid and cathode
139.
How many dBmV units
correspond to a 1-mV signal level?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0
1
3
6
140.
In color television, it is made to
maintain neutral white from low to high
levels of brightness.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Internal color adjustment

Color-temperature adjustments
Shadow masking
Convergence adjustment
141.
Average power of a radio
transmitter supplied to the antenna
transmission line by a transmitter during
one radio frequency cycle taken under
the condition or no modulation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Peak envelope power

Rated power
Carrier power
Mean power
142.
The number of scanning lines is
____ per second.
A.
B.
C.
D.
525
262
15,750
30
143.
The ratio of the actual frequency
swing to the frequency swing defined as
100 percent modulation, expressed in
percentage.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Modulation index
Deviation ration
Maximum deviation
Percentage modulation
144.
In a TV receiver, the color killer
A. Cuts off the chroma stages during

monochrome reception
B. Ensures that no color is transmitted
to monochrome receivers
C. Prevents color coding
D. Make sure that the color burst is not
mistaken for sync pulses, by cutting
off reception during the back porch.
145.
How many TV fields are
recorded on one slant track of tape?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
2
4
60
146.
A communication circuit using
class C amplifier is considered a narrow
band amplifier if the bandwidth is less
than _____ % of its resonant frequency.
A.
B.
C.
D.
15
13
10
20
147.
The width of a vertical sync
pulse with its serrations includes the
time of
A.
B.
C.
D.
Six half-lines, or three lines

Five lines
Three half-lines
Five half-lines
148.
A low-contrast picture in which
white seems flat and lacking in detail
suggests
A.
B.
C.
D.
Low beam current

High gain in the pre-amplifier
Excessive gamma
Insufficient scanning width
149.
The product of the transmitter
power multiplied by the antenna power
gain of the antenna field gain squared.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Field intensity
Field gain
ERP
Electric field strength
150.
What keeps the scanning process
at the receiver in step with the scanning
in the picture tube at the receiver?
A. Nothing
B. Sync pulses
C. Color burst
D. Deflection oscillators
151.
The number of lines per second
in the TV system is
A.
B.
C.
D.
31,500
15,700
262
525
152.
In a basic transmitter,
________is a kind of transmitter that
develops type B emission.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Arc
Spark
Alexanderson
High end
153.
It is a number that indicates how
contrast is expanded or compressed.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alpha
Beta
Gamma
Sigma
154.
Color picture tubes have ______
guns for its phosphors.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
2
3
4
D. 2.5 MHz
155.
The FM broadcast band is
divided into _____ channels are
suggested by KBP.
A.
B.
C.
D.
200
100
50
25
156.
The output of the vertical
amplifier, applied to the yoke in a TV
receiver, consists of
A.
B.
C.
D.
Direct current
Amplified vertical sync pulse
A sawtooth voltage
A sawtooth current
157.
A.
B.
C.
D.
67 kHz
59.5 kHz to 74.5 kHz
19 kHz to 38 kHz
30 kHz to 53 kHz
158.
What is the video frequency
response corresponding to the horizontal
resolution of 200 lines?
A. 4 MHz
B. 1.5 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz
159.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The gamma of the picture tube is

0.4545
1.0
1.4
2.2
160.
It is the instantaneous departure
of the frequency of the emitted wave
from the center frequency resulting from
modulation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Deviation
Frequency swing
Phase shift
Deviation ratio
161.
If a TV sound transmitter has a
carrier frequency of 197.75 MHz, the
picture carrier is
A.
B.
C.
D.
191.75 MHz
193.25 MHz
202.25 MHz
203.75 MHz
162.
The number of lines per field in
the Philippine TV system is
A. 262
B. 525
C. 30
D. 60
163.
What is the best site of an AM
broadcast transmitter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Marshy land
Dry land
Highly elevated
Average terrain
164.
What is the hue of a color 90
degrees leading sync burst phase?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Yellow
Cyan
Blue
Orange
165.
The two black conductive
coatings of picture tubes are made up of
A.
B.
C.
D.
Phosphor
Aquadag
Cavity
Nickel
166.
The maximum power allocation
of AM transmitter in Metro Manila in
kW is
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 kW
20 kW
40 kW
30 kW
167.
The function of the serrations in
the composite video waveforms is to
A. Equalize the change in the integrator
before the start of vertical retrace
B. Help vertical synchronization
C. Help horizontal synchronization
D. Simplify the generation of the
vertical sync pulse
168.
Which system uses a light beam
for playback?
A.
B.
C.
D.
CED
VHD
Betamax
VLP
169.
Weak emission from one cathode
in a tricolor picture tube causes
A. A weak picture
B. A long warmup time
C. A color imbalance in the raster and
picture
D. All of these
170.
In AM broadcast, the current
carrier shift at any percentage of
modulation shall not exceed
A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 2.5%
171.
Indicate which voltages are not
found in the output of a normal
monochrome receiver video detector.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sync
Video
Sweep
Sound
172.
The sawtooth waveform for
deflection provides _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Horizontal deflection
Distortions
Linear scanning
Flicker
173.
In AM broadcast, the transmitter
must be capable of maintaining the
operating frequency within the limits of
______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
+/- 10 Hz
+/- 20 Hz
+/- 25 Hz
+/- 75 Hz
174.
How much illumination in lux a
400-candlepower make that is 3 meters
from the surface?
A.
B.
C.
D.
133.3
1200
200
44.4
175.
Brightness variations of the
picture information are in which signal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
I
Q
Y
R-Y
176.
How many octaves is the
frequency range of 1 to 8 MHz?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
2
3
8
177.
For television, the maximum
deviation of the FM sound signal in kHz.
A.
B.
C.
D.
10
25
75
100
178.
signals is not transmitted in color TV
A. Y
B. Q
C. R
D. I
179.
Emission outside of the assigned
channel, as a result of the modulation
process.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Overmodulation
Spurious emission
Out-of-band emission
In band emission
180.
Determine which of the
following is not part of RF section of a
radio transmitter.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Master oscillator
Buffer amplifier
AF voltage amplifier
Frequency amplifier
181.
The power of any conducted
spurious emission shall be attenuated
below the maximum level of carrier
frequency in accordance with the
following formula:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Attenuation (dB) = 43 + 20 log P

Attenuation (dB) = 43 + log P
Attenuation (dB) = 43 + 10 log P
Attenuation (dB) = 43 + log P/10
182.
In television, gamma affects
_____
A.
B.
C.
D.
Color
Contrast
Brightness
Hue
183.
In the IRE scale for the
composite video signal, what is the
number of IRE units for sync?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.5
92.5
40
10
184.
As prescribed by the technical
standards for Cable Television operation
and in order to be compatible for any
value added services in the future, Trunk
cable should have a minimum diameter
of _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.25 inch
0.5 inch
0.75 inch
1.0 inch
185.
Compared with 100 percent
saturation, the desaturated color have
A.
B.
C.
D.
More luminance for the Y signal

Less luminance for the Y signal
More chrominance for the C signal
Less hue for the C signal
186.
What is the practical baseband
frequency for the color video signal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 MHz
2 MHz
0.2 MHz
0.5 MHz
187.
What is the diagonal screen size
for the 19CP4 picture tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
21
23
4
19
188.
What is the phase angle between
B Y and R Y?
A.
B.
C.
D.
180 deg
45 deg
90 deg
270 deg
189.
How many gray scale steps are in
the EIA test pattern in television?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10
40
50
15
190.
In TV, degaussing is done with
_____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Direct current
Pulsed current
Alternating current
Any of these
191.
R, G and B video drive controls
set for ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Black
Dark gray
White
Light gray
192.
What is the phase difference
between the color sync burst and the B
Y video?
A.
B.
C.
D.
180 deg
45 deg
90 deg
270 deg
193.
What is the hue of the color sync
burst?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Yellow-green
Red
Blue
Orange
194.
What synchronizes the horizontal
of the TV picture tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
HSC
HAFC
HFC
HAC
195.
What is the typical anode voltage
for a 25-inch color picture tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 kV
20 kV
10 kV
30 kV
196.
In television, what is the
phosphor number for monochrome
picture tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P4
P21
P22
P3
197.
In television picture tube, what is
the color of the P1 phosphor?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Red
Green
Yellow
Blue
198.
What video frequency
corresponds to 240 lines of horizontal
resolution?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 MHz
3 MHz
2 MHz
4 MHz
199.
The minimum FM broadcast
transmitter power in metro manila and
metro cebu is
A.
B.
C.
D.
25 kW
10 kW
1 kW
30 kW
200.
The maximum power suggested
by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast
station in Metro Manila.
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 kW
20 kW
15 kW
5 kW
201.
What are the frequency limits of
the standard AM broadcast band?
A.
B.
C.
D.
565 to 1605 kHz

535 to 1605 kHz
575 to 1615 kHz
535 to 1615 kHz
202.
What is the width of an AM
broadcast channel?
A.
B.
C.
D.
30 kHz
25 kHz
15 kHz
200 kHz
203.
The following are designations of
service areas of AM broadcast station,
except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Intermittent
204.
The following are parts of the
AM broadcast day, except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Daytime
Night time
Mid-day
Experimental period
205.
Why is it desirable to have
broadcast antennas on marshy land?
A.
B.
C.
D.
For better reflection

For ground wave radiation
For greater absorption
For sky wave propagation
206.
What is another name for a
console pot?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Attenuator
Gain control
Fader
Any of these
207.
The highest peaks of modulation
in AM should be held between what two
percentages?
A.
B.
C.
D.
85-100%
65-70%
50-75%
75-90%
208.
What is the name of the second
transmitter used when a station operates
24 hours a day?
A.
B.
C.
D.
209.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alternate
Reserve
Spare
Diversity
What is a combo operator?
Announcer
Disk jockey
Engineer
All of these
210.
What term is used to indicate
intercom operation in a broadcast
station?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Communication
Talk-back
Respond
Remote talk
211.
What does a red light glowing in
a studio indicate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Off the air

Floating
Experimental
On the air
212.
What is the attenuator which
controls the the output of the program
amplifier called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Master gain control

Auxiliary gain control
Reserve frequency control
Auxiliary frequency control
213.
The following are important
operational requirements during a
broadcast, except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Timing
Modulation
Fidelity
AF amplitude
214.
What are the names of two
unbalanced pads used in broadcasting?
A.
B.
C.
D.
T and L
K and P
R and I
H and L
215.
What is the advantage of using
balanced lines in audio systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Receive balanced sound

Improve fidelity
Reduce noise pickup
Improve carrier level
216.
What is the advantage of using
T-pad attenuators over potentiometers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Better energy conversion

Better attenuation
Match impedance better
Any of these
217.
What device is used to make up
for the high-frequency losses in long AF
lines?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Signal booster
Noise suppressor
Line equalizer
Compander
218.
What is another term meaning
operating power
A.
B.
C.
D.
Licensed power
Sideband power
Audio power
Harmonic power
219.
What does maximum rated
carrier power referred to?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Buffer amplifier power rating

Intermediate amplifier power rating
Speech amplifier power rating
Final-amplifier power rating
220.
A.
B.
C.
D.
When are equipment tests made?

Mid-day
Daytime
Night time
Experimental period
221.
What is the maximum allowable
distortion at 80% modulation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3%
4%
5%
6%
222.
On what are proof-ofperformance tests in broadcasting made?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Omnidirectional antennas
Directive antennas
High gain antennas
Any of these
223.
Within what limits must the
antenna current ratios of a directional
antenna be held?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3%
5%
4%
1%
224.
What monitor is required at the
operating position in a broadcast station?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Frequency
Modulation
Fidelity
Carrier
225.
What monitor may also give an
indication of carrier amplitude
regulation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Modulation
Carrier
Fidelity
Frequency
226.
What device can give the most
accurate instantaneous peak-ofmodulation indications?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Spectrum analyzer
Fourier analyzer
CRT oscilloscope
Frequency probe
227.
log?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Identification
Program description
Sponsors and network name
All of these
228.
log?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The item required in program
The item required in an operating
Antenna power and programs on-off

EBS tests
Any of these
Antenna lights and meter readings
229.
The item required in a
maintenance log?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Any of these
Antenna current checks
Meter replacements
Light inspection and experimental
period operation
230.
What is the minimum time
broadcast station logs must be held?
A.
B.
C.
D.
One year
Two years
Three years
Five years
231.
What class operator has no
restrictions on technical work in a
broadcast station?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1st phone
2nd phone
3rd phone
4th phone
232.
What classes of operators are
restricted on technical work in a
broadcast station?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3rd phone
2nd phone
4th phone
2nd and 3rd phone
233.
If improper transmitter
indications are given at the remotecontrol point, what should be done?
A. First phone operator to
transmitter
B. Second phone operator to transmitter
C. Third phone operator to transmitter
D. Fourth phone to transmitter
234.
How often must IDs be made in a
broadcast station?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quarter of an hour
Half an hour
On the hour
On the day
235.
Where must station license be
posted?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Tower
Modulators
Transmitter
Receiver
236.
Where operator licenses must be
posted?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Operating desk
Operating position
Operating console
Anywhere
237.
What device is usually used
today to measure the frequency of a
broadcast station?
A.
B.
C.
D.
238.
Multivibrators
Counter
Ripper
Wave meter
What does EBS stand for?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Electronic Broadcast System

Emergency Broadcast System
Electronic Base Station
Emergency Base Station
239.
How often must EBS tests be
made?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Weekly
Daily
Monthly
Yearly
240.
What must non-EBS station
have?
A.
B.
C.
D.
EBS signal monitor

EAN signal monitor
EAT signal monitor
CPCS signal monitor
241.
What stylus material is used in
broadcast station?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ruby
Gamet
Emerald
Diamond
242.
What advantage is there to
having heavy turntables?
A. Constant speed
B. Less vibration
C. Rumble
D. All of these
243.
What is the width of recording
tapes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.5 inch
0.75 inch
0.125 inch
1 inch
244.
What frequency is used to erase
tapes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Supersonic
Subsonic
Ultrasonic
Infrasonic
245.
What tape speed produces
highest fidelity of audio?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20 in/sec
15 in/sec
10 in/sec
5 in /sec
246.
What should be used to clean
recording heads?
A. Methanol
B. Ethyl Alcohol
C. Isopropyl alcohol
D. Rubbing alcohol
247.
What impedance is usually used
with broadcast microphones?
A.
B.
C.
D.
All of these
150 ohms
250 ohms
600 ohms
248.
In what log is antenna-light
information entered?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Maintenance log
Program log
Operating log
Logging log
249.
What was the name of the first
TV camera tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vidicon
Iconoscope
Image orthicon
Kinescope
250.
Which camera tube requires
electron multipliers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vidicon
Iconoscope
Image orthicon
Kinescope
251.
TV?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which is used in closed-circuit
Vidicon
Iconoscope
Image orthicon
Kinescope
252.
What is the waveform of the
sweep voltages?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Trapezoidal
Sawtooth
Trigger
Square
253.
If the pulse peak is 100%
modulation, what is the blanking level?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25%
50%
65%
75%
254.
What device allows one camera
to accept pictures from three or more
projectors?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Film multipliers
Film demultiplexers
Film multiplexers
Film acceptor
255.
What is the order of scanning
four successive motion-picture frames
for TV?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3,2,3,2
2,3,2,3
2,2,3,3
3,3,2,2
256.
From the low-frequency end of a
channel, what is the visual carrier
frequency?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.58 MHz
0.25 MHz
1.25 MHz
4.5 MHz
257.
The circuits make up the front
end of a TV receiver, except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
RF
Mixer
IF
Oscillator
258.
What is the impedance at the
antenna input terminals of a TV
receiver?
A.
B.
C.
D.
300 ohms
150 ohms
50 ohms
100 ohms
259.
Why are triodes and MOSFETs
best for TV RF amplifiers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
High power
Efficiency
Low noise
High gain
260.
In what circuit configuration are
triodes and MOSFETs used?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cascade
Darlington
Cascade
Shunt
261.
The signal might a video
amplifier amplify?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aural IF
Video
Blanking
Any of these
262.
When coupling from a sync
separator, what is used to obtain the
horizontal sync pulses?
A. Integrator
B. Corrector
C. Differentiator
D. Separator
263.
When coupling from a sync
separator, what is used to obtain the
vertical sync pulses?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Integrator
Corrector
Differentiator
Separator
264.
The type of active device used in
horizontal output stages, except:?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vacuum tube
FET
BJT
SCR
265.
What should be produced by
weak blue, weak green, and weak red
signals on a color CRT?
A.
B.
C.
D.
White
Shade
Gray
Off white
266.
How many such mirrors are
required in a color TV camera?
A.
B.
C.
D.
One
Two
Three
Four
267.
What is the combining circuit
called in TV?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Combiner
Multiplexer
Integrator
Mixer
268.
What is the letter symbol for the
luminance signal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
R
Q
I
Y
269.
What is the total R + G + B for a
Y signal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0
1
2
1.5
270.
If a white scene is picked up
what is the Y value?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
2
0
2.5
271.
If a black scene is being picked
up, what is the Y value?
A.
B.
C.
D.
One
0.5
Zero
1.5
272.
kill?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Bandstop filter
High-pass filter
Low-pass filter
Bandpass filter
Top
Left side
Right aside
Center
274.
How many cathodes in a
shadow-mask picture tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
2
3
4
What circuit does a color killer
273.
If the blue dot is always at the
bottom of a triad, what position must the
blue gun always have?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
2
3
4
275.
How many guns in a shadow
mask picture tube?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN
TRANSMISSI
ON LINES
By
Melvin C. Arceo
ENCODED BY:
1. Category of media with some form of
conductor that provides a conduit in
which electromagnetic signals are
contained.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Guided
Balanced
Unguided
Unbalanced
2. The conductive connections between

elements which carry signals.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Transmission Lines
Antenna
Frequency allocations
Load
3. Calculate the characteristic impedance

for a line that exhibits an inductance of 4
nH/m and 1.5pF/m
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.6 ohms
51.6 ohms
22 ohms
24.5 ohms
4. Category of media which are wireless
A.
B.
C.
D.
Guided
Balanced
Unguided
Unbalanced
5. It is a medium or any physical facility

used to propagate electromagnetic
signals between two locations in a
A.
B.
C.
D.
Transmission medium
Channel allocation
Frequency allocation
Any of these
6. It is a metallic conductor system used to

transfer electrical energy from one point
to another using electrical current flow.
A. Transmitter
B. Multiplexers
C. Receiver
D. Transmission line
7. A kind of wave where the displacement
is in the direction of propagation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Transverse
Longitudinal
Reverse
Perpendicular
8. Calculate the capacitance per meter of a

50-ohm load cable that has an
inductance of 55 nH/m.
A.
B.
C.
D.
13 pF
18 pF
20 pF
22 pF
9. The desirable SWR on a transmission

line is
A.
B.
C.
D.
0
1
2
Infinity
10. A kind of wave where the direction is

displacement is perpendicular to the
direction of propagation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Transverse
Longitudinal
Reverse
Perpendicular
11. A short-circuited half-wavelength line

acts like a
A.
B.
C.
D.
Parallel resonant circuit

Series Resonant Circuit
Oscillator
LC circuit
12. Electromagnetic waves that travel along

a transmission line from the source to
the load.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reverse waves
Transverse waves
Incident waves
Longitudinal waves
13. Electromagnetic waves that travel from

the load back toward the source.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Incident waves
Transverse waves
Forward waves
Reflected waves
14. Sound travels approximately

A.
B.
C.
D.
2200 feet per second

1100 feet per second
550 feet per second
600 feet per second
15. Determine the surge impedance for a

parallel wire, air dielectric with a ratio of
the spacing between conductors and the
diameter of 3
A.
B.
C.
D.
250 ohms
210 ohms
180 ohms
215 ohms
16. The rate at which the periodic wave

repeats
A.
B.
C.
D.
Wavelength
Amplitude
Period
Frequency
17. The distance of one cycle occurring in

space
A.
B.
C.
D.
Wavelength
Amplitudes
Period
Frequency
18. Classification of transmission line where

both conductors carry current; one
conductor carries the signal, the other
conductor is the return path
A.
B.
C.
D.
Differential transmission lines

Unbalanced lines
Coaxial cables
Balun
19. A shorted half-wave line at the operating

frequency acts like
A.
B.
C.
D.
Capacitor
Inductor
Series resonant circuit

coaxial line, air dielectric with a ratio of
the diameter of the outer and inner
conductor equal to 1.5?
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.3 ohms
25.6 ohms
13.2 ohms
18 ohms
21. Currents that flow in opposite direction

in a balanced wire pair is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
Longitudinal currents
Reverse circuit currents
Transverse circuit currents
Metallic circuit currents
22. Currents that flow in same direction in a

balanced wire pair is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
Longitudinal currents
Reverse circuit currents
Transverse circuit currents
In-phase currents
23. A circuit device used to connect a

balanced transmission line to an
unbalanced load
A.
B.
C.
D.
Slotted lines
Stub
Balun
Quarterwave lines
24. The most common type of balun used in

relatively high frequency
A.
B.
C.
D.
Narrowband
Choke
Sleeve
All of these
25. A pattern of voltage and current

variations along the transmission line not
terminated in its characteristic
impedance is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
An electric fluid
Radio waves
Standing waves
A magnetic field
26. A type of parallel-conductor

transmission lines consists of simply of
two parallel wires, closely-spaced and
separated by air.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Twisted pair
Open-wire lines
Coaxial cables
Twin pair
27. A type of parallel-conductor

transmission lines which is essentially
the same as open-wire transmission line
except that the spacers between the
conductors are replaced with a
continuous solid dielectric that ensures

uniform spacing along the entire cable
A.
B.
C.
D.
Twisted pair
Open-wire lines
Coaxial cables
Twin lead
28. What is the range of size of wires of a

twisted pair?
A.
B.
C.
D.
AWG 16 to AWG 26
AWG 14 to AWG 25
AWG 10 to AWG 20
AWG 12 to AWG 28

coaxial line, polyethylene dielectric with
the ratio of the diameter of the outer and
the inner conductor of 2.5?
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.5 ohms
23.4 ohms
36.2 ohms
29.8 ohms
30. In AWG, the higher the wire gauge

______
A. The higher the diameter and the
lower the resistance
B. The smaller the diameter and the
higher the resistance
C. The smaller the diameter and the

higher the conductance
D. The larger the diameter and the
higher the resistance
31. Type of twisted pair wire cable that
consists of two copper wires where each
wire is separately encapsulated in PVC
insulation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Shielded twisted pair

Twin lead
Unshielded twisted pair
Open wire frame
32. A shorted quarter-wave line at the

operating frequency acts like
A.
B.
C.
D.

Capacitor
Inductor
33. The minimum number of twist for UTP

is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Two twist per foot

Two twist per meter
Three twist per foot
Three twist per meter
34. A delay line using RG-8A/U cable is to

exhibit a 5-ns delay. Calculate the
required length of the cable.
A. 4.57 ft
B. 1.23 ft
C. 6.2 ft
D. 3.4 ft
35. An open-circuited quarter-wavelength
line acts like a
A.
B.
C.
D.

Oscillator
LC circuit
36. Level for category of UTP cable which

is suitable only for voice grade telephone
signals and very low-speed data
applications
A.
B.
C.
D.
Level 1 or Cat 1
Level 3 or Cat 3
Level 2 or Cat 2
Cat 4
37. An antenna is being fed by a properly

terminated two-wire transmission line.
The current in the line at the input end is
3A. The surge impedance of the line is
500 ohms. How much power is being
supplied to the line?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.1 kW
2.5 kW
1.6 kW
4.5 kW
38. Level or Category of UTP cable which

was developed for IEEE 802.5 token
ring local area networks operating at a
transmission rates of 4Mbps
A.
B.
C.
D.
Level 1 or Cat 1
Level 3 or Cat 3
Level 2 or Cat 2
Cat 4
39. If the period of one complete cycle of a

radio wave is 0.000001 s, what is the
wavelength?
A.
B.
C.
D.
300 m
200 m
100 m
400 m
40. If the two towers of a 950-kHz antenna

are separated by 120 electrical degrees,
what is the tower separation in feet?
A.
B.
C.
D.
231 ft
235 ft
176 ft
345 ft
41. Category of UTP used for virtually any

voice or data transmission rate up to 16
Mbps, has a minimum of 3 turns per
inch.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Category 5e
Category 4
Category 5
Category 3
42. The mismatch between the antenna and

transmission line impedances cannot be
corrected for by
A.
B.
C.
D.
Using an LC matching network

Adjusting antenna length
Using a balun
Adjusting the length of
transmission line
43. Category of UTP that was designed for

data transmission rates up to 20 Mbps
A.
B.
C.
D.
Category 5e
Category 4
Category 5
Category 3
44. Variation of CAT5 cables that are

intended for data transmission rates up to
250 Mbps
A.
B.
C.
D.
Category 5e
Category 2
Category 6
Category 3
45. A type of twisted-pair wherein its wires

and dielectric are enclosed in a
conductive metal sleeve called a foil.
A.
B.
C.
D.
STP
Twin lead
UTP
Unshielded Twin lead
46. It is the name given to the area between

the ceiling and the roof in a single-story
building or between the ceiling and the
floor of the next higher level in a
multistory building.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Attic
Rooftop
Plenum
Ceiling
47. It consists of center conductor

surrounded by dielectric material, then a
concentric shielding, and an
environmental protection outer jacket.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Twisted pair
Coaxial cable
Twin lead
Open wire
48. In a transmission line, it refers to the

woven stranded mesh or braid that
surround some types of coaxial cables
A.
B.
C.
D.
Grounding
Shielding
Degaussing
Any of these
49. A coaxial cable with one layer of foil

insulation and one layer of braided
shielding.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Backup shielding
Temporary shielding
Dual shielding
Interference shielding
50. At very high frequencies, transmission

lines are used as
A. Tuned circuits
B. Antennas
C. Insulators
D. Resistors
51. A coaxial cable with two layers of foil
insulation and two layers of braided
shielding.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quad shielding
Double shielding
Triple shielding
Shielding
52. A type of coaxial cable that has a tubular

outer conductor surrounds the center
conductor coaxially and the insulating
material is air
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rigid air coaxial cable

Gas-filled coaxial cable
Solid coaxial cable
Flexible cable
53. If the length of an open-circuited stub is

less than quarter-wavelength but greater
than 0, the stub behaves as
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inductor
Capacitor
Resistor
Complex
54. Type of coaxial cable where the outer

conductor is braided, flexible, and
coaxial to the center conductor.
A. Gas-filled coaxial cable
B. Rigid air coaxial cable

C. Solid flexible coaxial cable
D. Flexible cable
55. A 50-ohm coax is connected to a 73ohm antenna. The SWR is
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.685
1
1.46
2.92
56. Defined as the impedance seen looking

at an infinitely long line or the
impedance seen looking into a finite
length of the line that is terminated in a
purely resistive load with the resistance
equal to the characteristic impedance of
the line.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Input impedance
Surge impedance
Output impedance
Circuit impedance
57. Determine the characteristic impedance

for an air dielectric two-wire parallel
transmission line with a D/r ratio of
12.22
A.
B.
C.
D.
150 ohms
120 ohms
75 ohms
300 ohms

for an RG-59A coaxial cable with the
following specifications: d=0.025
inches, D=0.15 inches, and dielectric

constant of 2.23
A.
B.
C.
D.
120 ohms
72 ohms
150 ohms
75 ohms

following specifications: L=0.118 uH/ft
and C=21 pF/ft
A.
B.
C.
D.
150 ohms
72 ohms
75 ohms
100 ohms
60. It is used to express the attenuation or

signal loss and the phase shift per unit
length of the transmission line.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Propagation coefficient
Propagation constant
Propagation factor
Any of these
61. For matched condition, what is the

relationship of load and characteristic
impedance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Greater than
Less than
Equal
Impossible to say
62. It is defined simply as the ratio of the

actual velocity of propagation of an
electromagnetic wave through a given
medium to the velocity of propagation
through a vacuum or free space.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Velocity factor
Velocity propagation
Index of refraction
Phase delay
63. It is simply the permittivity of the

material
A.
B.
C.
D.
Permittivity
Insulation constant
Dielectric constant
Resistivity
64. For a given length of RG 8A/U coaxial

cable with distributed capacitance of
96.6 pF/m, a distributed inductance of
241.56 nH/m, and a relative dielectric
constant of 2.3, determine the velocity of
propagation
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.07 x 10^8 m/s

2.3 x 10^7 m/s
3.28 x 10^8 m/s
2.07 x 10^8 m/s
65. For a given length of RG 8A/U coaxial

cable with distributed capacitance of
96.6 pF/m, a distributed inductance of
241.56 nH/m, and a relative dielectric
constant of 2.3, determine the velocity
factor
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.2
0.66
0.7
0.5
66. If the length of an open-circuited stub is

greater than quarter-wavelength but less
than half-wavelength, the stub behaves
as
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inductor
Capacitor
Resistor
Complex
67. Delay line is a function of what two

parameters?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Resistance and capacitance

Resistance and susceptance
Inductance and resistance
68. How is the time delay calculated in a

coaxial cables with a dielectric constant
of 0.66?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.56 sec
0.67 sec
0.45 sec
1.2 sec
69. Three feet is one wavelength at a

frequency of
A. 100 MHz
B. 164 MHz
C. 300 MHz
D. 328 MHz
70. When current flows through a conductor,
the loss introduced as a function of
resistance and current is called _______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inductance loss
Conductor loss
Voltage loss
Skin effect
71. For maximum absorption of power at the

antenna, the relationship between the
characteristic impedance of the line Zo
and the load impedance ZL should be
A.
B.
C.
D.
Zo = ZL
Zo > ZL
Zo < ZL
Zo = 0
72. The ratio of the AC resistance and the

DC resistance
A.
B.
C.
D.
Impedance ratio
Susceptance ratio
Resistance ratio
Conductance ratio
73. The difference in potential between two

conductors of a metallic transmission
line causes ______.
A. Conductor loss
B. Dielectric heating
C. Radiation loss
D. Corona
74. If the length of a short-circuited stub is
greater than quarter-wavelength but less
than half-wavelength, the stub behaves
as
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inductor
Capacitor
Resistor
Complex
75. If the separation between the conductors

in a metallic transmission line is an
appreciable fraction of a wavelength, the
electrostatic and electromagnetic fields
that surround the conductor cause the
line to act as if it were an antenna and
transfer energy to any nearby material.
This energy radiated is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Radiation loss
Power loss
Coupling loss
Corona
76. The minimum voltage along a

transmission line is 260 V, while the
maximum is 390 V. The SWR is
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.67
1.0
1.2
1.5
77. It occurs whenever a connection is made

to or from a transmission line or when
two sections of transmission line are

connected together
A.
B.
C.
D.
Power loss
Coupling loss
Radiation loss
Resistance loss

transmission line impedance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
50 ohms
75 ohms
120 ohms
300 ohms
79. It is a luminous discharge that occurs

between the two conductors of a
transmission line when the difference in
potential between them exceeds the
breakdown voltage of a dielectric
insulator.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Resistance loss
Corona
Radiation loss
Power loss
80. Voltage that propagates down the load

A.
B.
C.
D.
Reflected voltage
Standing wave ratio
Incident voltage
Reflection voltage
81. Voltage that propagates from the load

towards the source
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reflected voltage
Standing wave ratio
Reflection coefficient
Incident voltage
82. A transmission line with no reflected

power
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flat
Resistive
Non resonant line
Any of these
83. It is a vector quantity that represents the

ratio of reflected voltage to incident
voltage or the reflected current and the
incident current
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reactive load diagram
Standing wave ratio
Traveling waves
84. With a mismatched line, two

electromagnetic waves traveling in
opposite direction, present on the line on
the same time.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Standing wave ratio

Standing waves
Traveling waves
85. The two traveling waves sets up an

interference pattern called _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Standing wave ratio

Standing waves
Traveling waves
86. It is defined as the ratio of the maximum

voltage to the minimum voltage or the
maximum current to the minimum
current of a standing wave in a
transmission line.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Standing wave ratio

Normalized impedance
Any of these
87. For a transmission line with an incident

voltage of 5V and a reflected voltage of
3V, determine the reflection coefficient.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.4
0.6
0.5
0.7
88. A ratio expressing the percentage of

incident voltage reflected on a
transmission line is known as the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Velocity factor
Standing wave ratio
Line efficiency
89. There is an impedance inversion in every

______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Half wavelength
Quarter wavelength
Full wavelength
Three-eights of a wavelength
90. The characteristic impedance of a

its
A.
B.
C.
D.
Length
Conductor diameter
Conductor spacing
None of these
91. ______ are used to match transmission

lines to purely resistive loads whose
resistance is not equal to the
characteristic impedance of the line.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stub
Slotted lines
Quarter-wavelength transformer
Short circuited lines
92. To match a transmission line with a

reactive load _______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Use stub matching

Use a slotted line
Used a Q-section
Use an open circuited lines
93. A technique that can be used to locate an

impairment in metallic cable
A. TDR
B. Wattmeter
C. Voltmeter
D. SWR meter
94. A pulse is transmitted down a cable that
has a velocity of propagation of 0.8c.
The reflected signal is received 1us later.
How far down the cable is the
impairment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
240 m
15 m
60 m
120 m
95. Using TDR, a transmission line

impairment is located 3000m from the
source. For a velocity propagation of
0.9c, determine the time elapsed from
the beginning of the pulse to the
reception of the echo
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.11 us
10.12 us
22.22 us
21.14 us
96. A flat conductor separated from a

ground plane by an insulating dielectric
material
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stripline
Waveguide
Microstrip
Coaxial cable
97. A flat conductor sandwich between two

ground planes.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stripline
Waveguide
Microstrip
Coaxial cable
98. Indicate the false statement. The SWR

on a transmission line is infinity; the line
is terminated in
A.
B.
C.
D.
A short circuit
A complex impedance
An open circuit
A pure reactance
99. The most commonly used transmission

line is a
A.
B.
C.
D.
Two-wire balance line

Singe wire
Three-wire line
Coax
100. A short-circuited half-wavelength line

acts like a
A.
B.
C.
D.

Oscillator
LC circuit
101. A (75-j50)-ohm is connected to a

coaxial transmission line of Zo = 75
ohms, at 10 GHz. The best method of
matching consists of connecting
A. A short-circuited stub at the load
B. An inductive at the load
C. A capacitance at some specific

distance from the load
D. A short-circuited stub at some
specific distance from the load
102. The velocity factor of a transmission
line
A. Depends on the dielectric constant
of the material used
B. Increases in velocity along the
transmission line
C. Is governed by the skin effect
D. Is higher for a solid dielectric than
for air.
103. Impedance inversion may be obtained
with
A.
B.
C.
D.
A short-circuited stub
An open-circuited stub
A quarter-wave line
A half-wave line
104. The most desirable reflection

coefficient is
A.
B.
C.
D.
0
0.5
1
Infinity
105. Short circuited stubs are preferred to

open-circuited stub because the latter are
A. More difficult to make and connect
B. Made of a transmission line with

different characteristic impedance
C. Liable to radiate
D. Incapable of giving a full range of
reactance
106. For transmission-line load matching
over a range of frequencies, it is best to
use a
A.
B.
C.
D.
Balun
Broadband directional coupler
Double stub
Single stub of adjustable position
107. The main disadvantage of the two-hole

directional coupler is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Low directional coupling

Poor directivity
High SWR
Narrow bandwidth
108. To couple a coaxial line to a parallelwire line, it is best to use a

A.
B.
C.
D.
Slotted line
Balun
Directional coupler
Quarter-wave transformer
109. A short-circuited quarter-wavelength

line acts like a
A. Parallel resonant circuit
B. Series resonant circuit
C. Oscillator
D. LC circuit
110. If the length of a short-circuited stub is
less than a quarter-wavelength but
greater than 0, the stub behaves as
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inductor
Capacitor
Resistor
Complex
111. The depth of penetration of current

density resulting from skin effect
A.
B.
C.
D.
Skin depth
Wire depth
Line depth
Medium depth
112. Transmission line must be matched to

the load to
A. Transfer maximum voltage to the
load
B. Transfer maximum current to the
load
C. Reduce the load current
D. Transfer maximum power to the
load
113. Referred to the dielectric constant of a
transmission line material
A.
B.
C.
D.

Velocity factor
Characteristic impedance
Propagation velocity
114. A transmission line containing of two

conductors that have equal resistance per
unit length
A.
B.
C.
D.
Unbalanced line
Open-wire line
Balanced line
Coaxial cable
115. Which of the following determines the

characteristics of a transmission line?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inductance
Capacitance
Physical dimension
Length
116. Category of UTP that was designed for

data transmission rates up to 20 Mbps
A.
B.
C.
D.
Category 5e
Category 4
Category 5
Category 3
117. Level 2 or category 2 UTP cables

comply with IBMs _______
specification.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Type 1
Type 3
Type 2
Type 4
118. Level 3 or Category 3 UTP cables

should have at least ____ twist per inch.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
2
3
4
119. Which of the following is NOT a color

code for Category 5 UTP?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Blue/white stripe and blue

Orange/white stripe and orange
Red/white stripe and red
Brown/white stripe and brown
120. Shielded-screen twisted-pair cable or

SSTP is also known as ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cat 5e
Cat 7
Cat 6
Cat 8
121. An open-circuited transmission line

quarter wavelength long is equivalent to
A.
B.
C.
D.

Inductive
Capacitive
122. A short-circuited transmission line

more than quarter-wavelength long but
shorter than half wavelength is
equivalent to _______.
A. Series resonant circuit
B. Inductive
C. Capacitive
D. Parallel resonant circuit
123. A short-circuited transmission line less
than quarter-wavelength long.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inductive
Capacitive
124. The quarter-wavelength transformer

line acts as a transformer with a 1:1 turns
ratio when the load resistance is with
what relationship with the characteristic
impedance of the quarter-wavelength
transformer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equal
Less than
Greater than
None of these
125. The characteristic impedance of a

microstrip is equal to _____ ohms.
A.
B.
C.
D.
50 to 200
25 to 50
100 to 200
50 to 75
126. The quarter-wavelength transformer

line acts as a step down transformer
when the load resistance is with what
relationship with the characteristic
impedance of the quarter-wavelength
transformer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equal
Less than
Greater than
None of these
127. The typical value of the velocity factor

of an open-wire transmission line is
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.8
0.7
0.6
0.9
128. If a transmission line is not terminated

in its characteristic impedance, _______
will develop along the line.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Traveling waves
Standing waves
Surge impedance
Infinite impedance
129. If a load and a line have mismatched

impedances, power not absorbed by the
load will be _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Absorbed
Rejected
Reflected
Removed
COMMUNIC
ATIONS
By
Melvin C. Arceo
at the output reads 240 microvolts rms.

Assuming operation of 37 degrees,
calculate the resistors resistance.
a. 4 kilo ohms
b. 5 kilo ohms
c. 6 kilo ohms
d. 7 kilo ohms
3. The first electronic communications
system was develop in what century?
a. 17th
b. 19th
c. 18th
d. 20th
4. Who was the first to successfully
transmit wireless radio signals through
Earths atmosphere?
a. Samuel Morse
b. Howard Armstrong
c. Lee DeForest
d. Guglielmo Marconi
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN
INTRODUCT
ION TO
ENCODED BY:
1. It is the transmission, reception, and
processing of information between two
or more locations using electronic
circuits.
a. Electronic communications
b. Electronic transfer
c. Electronic mode
d. Electronic codes
2. The noise produced by a resistor is to be
having a voltage gain of 75 and a
bandwidth of 100 kHz. A sensitive meter
5. Who invented frequency modulation?

a. Guglielmo Marconi
b. Thomas Watson
c. Alexander Graham Bell
d. Howard Armstrong
6. A component of the electronic
communication system that provides a
means of transporting signals from a
transmitter to a receiver.
a. Information
b. modulator
c. medium
d. transmitter
7. Calculate the noise power outputs of a 1

kilo ohm resistor at 27 degrees C over a
100-kHz bandwidth.
a. 4.14 fW
b. 0.414 fW
c. 14.1 fW
d. 141 fW
8. _________ is a collection of electronic
devices and circuits that accepts the
transmitted signals from the transmission
medium and converts them back to their
original form.
a. channel
b. receiver
c. transmitter
d. antenna
9. A signal that carries the information
through the system.
a. information
b. modulating signal
c. intelligence
d. carrier
10. A signal that modulates a highfrequency signal or carrier in order to
transfer information from one location to
another
a. intelligence
b. modulated signal
c. carrier
d. intelligence or modulated signal
11. Fourier series shows that a sawtooth
wave consists of the following except
a. fundamental and subharmonic
sine waves
b. a fundamental sine wave and an

infinite number of harmonics
c. fundamental and harmonic sine
waves whose amplitude decreases
with the harmonic number
d. sinusoidal voltages, some of which
are small enough to ignore in
practice
12. Determine the noise current for a diode
with a forward bias of 1mA over a 1
MHz bandwidth.
a. 19.8 nA
b. 17.9 nA
c. 12.3 nA
d. 15 nA
13. The process of changing one or more
properties of the carrier in proportion
with the information signal?
a. demodulation
b. transmission
c. modulation
d. reception
14. A system where digital pulses are
transferred between two points in a
communication system.
a. digital transmission
b. analog transmission
c. digital radio
d. analog communications system
15. It is the transmittal of digitally
modulated analog carriers between two
or more points in a communication
system.
a. analog transmission
b. digital radio
c. digital communications
d. digital reception
16. Type of modulation where the carrier
amplitude is varied proportional to the
information signal.
a. AM
b. PM
c. FM
d. Pulse modulation
17. In FM, the _________ is varied
proportional to the information signal.
a. phase
b. time
c. amplitude
d. frequency
18. A circuit that performs modulation
a. demodulator
b. synthesizer
c. modulator
d. limiter
19. Calculate the signal to noise ratio for a
receiver output of 4V signal and 0.48V
noise in dB
a. 18.5 dB
b. 69 dB
c. 25.4 dB
d. 9.25 dB
20. Modulation used is to the following
except
a. reduce the bandwidth used
b. separate differing transmission
c. ensure that intelligence may be
transmitted over long distance
d. allow the use of practicable antennas
21. It performs the reverse process of

modulation and converts the modulated
carrier back to the original information.
a. oscillator
b. demodulator
c. synthesizer
d. mixer
22. Indicate the false statement. The reasons
why modulation is necessary in
electronic communications is because:
a. It is extremely difficult to radiate
low-frequency signals from antenna
in the form of electromagnetic
energy.
b. Information signals often occupy the
same frequency band and, if signals
from two or more sources at the
same time, they would interfere with
each other.
c. To reduce the size of the capacitors
and inductors of the tuned circuit.
d. To increase the size of the
transmitting
and
receiving
antenna.
23. The process of converting a frequency or
band of frequencies to another location
in the total frequency spectrum is called:
a. translation
b. demodulation
c. modulation
d. oscillation
24. An intricate part of electronic
communication system because of its
up-and-down-conversion functions as
they are transported through a channel.
a.
b.
c.
d.
oscillation
modulation
demodulation
translation
25. _________ is simply the number of

times a periodic motion occurs in a
given unit of time
a. frequency
b. time
c. period
d. phase
26. The difference between the highest and
the lowest frequencies contained in the
information.
a. noise
b. bandwidth
c. interference
d. frequency
27. It is a highly theoretical study of the
efficient use of bandwidth to propagate
information
through
electronic
communications systems.
a. information capacity
b. information bandwidth
c. information theory
d. information entropy
28. It is the measure of how much
information can be transferred through a
communications system in a given
period of time.
a. information bandwidth
b. information capacity
c. information density
d. information theory
29. The law that states that the wider the

bandwidth and the longer the time of
transmission, the more information that
can be conveyed through the system.
a. Information theory
b. Information density law
c. Hartleys law
d. Information entropy law
30. A circuit configuration that involves one
wire for the signal and one for the
reference or ground.
a. 2-wire
b. 4-wire
c. 3-wire
d. 1-wire
31. A circuit configuration that involves two
for signal and two for reference or
ground.
a. 2-wire
b. 4-wire
c. 3-wire
d. 1-wire
32. It is used to match impedances and
provide isolation between the two
directions of signal flow.
a. 2-wire
b. hybrid set
c. 4-wire transmission
d. suppressors
33. An interface circuit that is used when a
two-wire circuit is connected to a fourwire circuit, as in long-distance
telephone call.
a. suppressors
b. echo limiter
c. codec
d. terminating set
34. An amplifier with a noise figure of 6dB
has an input signal-to-noise ratio of
25dB. Calculate the output signal-tonoise ratio in dB.
a. 31 dB
b. 19 dB
c. 20 dB
d. 25 dB
room temperature. Assume that the

external noise is negligible and that a 1mV signal is applied to the amplifiers
input. Calculate the output noise voltage
if the amplifier has a 5-dB NF and the
input noise is generated by a 2-kilo ohm
resistor.
a. 56.58 nV
b. 458 uV
c. 595.6 nV
d. 356 uV
35. It is the process of combining two or

more signals and is an essential process
in electronic communications.
a. oscillation
b. mixing
c. damping
d. modulation
39. In a communication system, which of

the following reduces the information
capacity of the system.
a. linear-phase filtering
b. mixing
c. bandlimiting
d. modulation
36. _________ occurs when two or more

signals combine in a linear device, such
as a passive network or a small-signal
amplifier.
a. non-linear mixing
b. linear-phase filtering
c. linear summing
d. bandlimiting
40. _________ occurs when two or more

signals are combined in a non-linear
device such as a diode or large-signal
amplifier.
a. modulation
b. non-linear summing
c. oscillation
d. non-linear filtering
41. Measuring physical condition of some
remote location and transmitting this
data for analysis is the process of
a. Telemetry
b. Instrumentation
c. Modulation
d. Multiplexing
37. One of the following is not a useful

quantity for comparing the noise
performance of receivers:
a. input noise voltage
b. equivalent noise resistance
c. noise temperature
d. noise figure
38. A single-stage amplifier has a 200-kHz
bandwidth and a voltage gain of 100 at
42. It is defined as any undesirable electrical

energy that falls within the passband of
the signal.
a.
b.
c.
d.
interference
noise
splatter
out-of-band signalling
43. _________ noise that is present

regardless of whether there is a signal
present or not.
a. atmospheric noise
b. correlated
c. uncorrelated
d. internal
44. A three stage amplifier has an input
stage with noise ratio of 5 and power
gain of 50. Stages 2 and 3 have a noise
ratio of 10 and power gain of 1000.
Calculate the noise figure for the overall
system.
a. 4.55 dB
b. 7.14 dB
c. 6 dB
d. 5.18 dB
45. In communication system, noise is most
likely to affect the signal
a. at the transmitter
b. in the channel
c. in the information source
d. at the information
46. Which of the following is not true?
a. HF mixers are generally noisier than
HF amplifiers
b. Impulse
noise
voltage
is
independent of bandwidth
c. Thermal noise is independent of the
frequency at which it is measured.
d. Industrial noise is usually of the

impulse type
47. It is a type of noise that is generated
outside the device of circuit.
a. shot noise
b. noise voltage
c. thermal noise
d. external noise
48. _________ noise is a naturally occurring
electrical
disturbances
which
is
commonly called static electricity.
a. Transit-time noise
b. Extraterrestrial noise
c. Solar noise
d. Atmospheric noise
51. Which of the following is not another

name of thermal agitation noise?
a. White noise
b. Pink noise
c. Johnson noise
d. Brown noise
52. Any modification to a stream of carriers
as they pass from the input to the output
of a device produces an irregular,
random variation is called _________
noise.
a. Transit-time noise
b. Man-made noise
c. Thermal noise
d. Internal noise
49. What is the noise whose source is in a

category different from that of the other
three.
a. solar noise
b. cosmic noise
c. atmospheric noise
d. galactic noise
53. One of the following types of noise

becomes of great importance at high
frequencies. It is the
a. shot noise
b. random noise
c. impulse noise
d. transit-time noise
50. A microwave antenna with an equivalent

noise temperature of 25 K is coupled
through a network with an equivalent
noise temperature of 30 K to a
microwave receiver with an equivalent
noise temperature of 60 K referred to its
input. Calculate the noise power at its
input for a 2-MHz bandwidth.
a. 3.15 fW
b. 4.35 fW
c. 2.12 fW
d. 1.24 fW
54. The noise that was first observed in the

anode current of a vacuum tube
amplifier
and
was
described
mathematically by W. Schottky in 1918.
a. Shot noise
b. Transit-time noise
c. External noise
d. Thermal agitation noise
55. Also known as black-body noise
a. cosmic noise
b. extraterrestrial noise
c. solar noise
d. man made noise
56. Also known as deep-space noise

a. solar noise
b. cosmic noise
c. extraterrestrial noise
d. galactic noise
57. _________ noise is noise that is
mutually related to the signal and cannot
be present in a circuit unless there is an
input signal input.
a. solar noise
b. uncorrelated noise
c. correlated noise
d. noise voltage
58. The square of the thermal noise voltage
a. its resistance
b. its temperature
c. Boltzmanns constant
d. The bandwidth over which it is
measured
59. It is a type of distortion that when
unwanted harmonics of a signal are
produced
through
a
nonlinear
amplification.
a. intermodulation distortion
b. buck-shot
c. splatter
d. harmonic distortion
60. Which of the following is not used for
communications
a. X-rays
b. Millimeter waves
c. Infrared
d. Microwaves
d. S/N ratio
61. _________ are integer multiples of the
original input signal.
a. interference
b. harmonic
c. fundamental
d. distortion
62. A type of distortion that results from the
generation of unwanted sum and
difference frequencies when two or more
signals are amplified in a linear device,
such as a large-signal amplifier.
a. harmonic distortion
b. intermodulation distortion
c. interference
d. cross talk
63. A form of noise that is characterized by
its capability to disturb or distract.
a. impulse noise
b. man-made noise
c. solar noise
d. interference
64. A type of noise that is characterized by
high-amplitude peaks of short duration
in the total noise spectrum.
a. transit-time noise
b. solar noise
c. thermal noise
d. impulse noise
65. _________ is a figure of merit used to
indicate how much the signal-to-noise
ratio deteriorates as a signal passes
through a circuit or series of circuits.
a. SINAD
b. Q-factor
c. Noise figure
66. The value of resistor creating thermal

noise is doubled. The noise power
generated therefore
a. halved
b. quadrupled
c. doubled
d. unchanged
67. Electromagnetic
waves
primarily by heat are called
a. Infrared
b. Microwaves
c. Shortwaves
d. X-ray
produced
68. Receiving electromagnetic emission

from stars is called
a. Astrology
b. Optical astronomy
c. Radio astronomy
d. Space surveillance
69. It is a collection of electronic
components and circuits designed to
convert the information into a signal
suitable for transmission over a given
communication medium.
a. receiver
b. medium
c. transmitter
d. mixer
70. It is where the electronic signal is sent
from one place to another.
a. receiver
b. transmitter
c. source
d. channel
71. It is a broad general term applied to any

form of wireless communication from
one point to another.
a. radio
b. frequency
c. signal
d. spectrum
72. Collection of electronic components and
circuits that accept the transmitted
message from the channel and convert it
back into a form understandable by
humans.
a. receiver
b. medium
c. transmitter
d. converter
73. It is a random, undesirable, electric
energy that enters a communications
system via the communicating medium
and interferes with the transmitted
message.
a. interference
b. noise
c. distortion
d. fluctuations
74. A system that transmits information
about the physical status of the satellite
including the position and temperature.
a. telecommand
b. telemovement
c. television
d. telemetry
75. Regardless of whether information is

analog or digital, these signals are
referred to as _________.
a. broadband
b. composite
c. baseband
d. any of these
76. Putting the original voice, video, or
digital data directly into the medium is
a. baseband transmission
b. composite transmission
c. broadband transmission
d. data transmission
77. It is the process of having a baseband
voice, video, or digital signal modify
another, higher-frequency signal.
a. mixing
b. summing
c. heterodyning
d. modulation
78. It is the process of transmitting two or
more signals simultaneously over the
same channel.
a. modulation
b. multiplexing
c. summing
d. demodulation
79. The entire range of frequencies is
a. frequency spectrum
b. signals spectrum
c. electromagnetic spectrum
d. radio spectrum
80. What is the wavelength in meters, if the

frequency is 10 MHz?
a. 30
b. 0.3
c. 3
d. 300
81. Musical instruments
usually in what range?
a. LF
b. VLF
c. VF
d. HF
makes
sounds
82. Range of electromagnetic spectrum used

in navy to communicate submarines
a. VLF
b. LF
c. HF
d. UHF
83. Frequencies above 1 GHz range is called
_________.
a. milliwaves
b. microwaves
c. centiwaves
d. hectowaves
84. The range of long infrared is
a. 0.01 mm to 1000 nm
b. 0.01 mm to 700 nm
c. 1000nm to 700 nm
d. 0.4 um to 0.8 um
85. A radiation that is generally associated
with heat.
a. ultraviolet
b. visible light
c. infrared
d. EHF
86. Infrared occupies approximately

a. 0.01 mm to 1000nm
b. 0.01 mm to 700 nm
c. 1000nm to 700 nm
d. 0.4 um to 0.8 um
87. Light is a special type of electromagnetic
radiation which has a wavelength range
of
a. 0.01 mm to 1000nm
b. 0.01 mm to 700 nm
c. 1000nm to 700 nm
d. 0.4 um to 0.8 um
88. The approximate frequency of a red
a. 8000 Angstrom
b. 800 Angstrom
c. 4000 Angstrom
d. 400 Angstrom
89. It is the portion of electromagnetic
spectrum occupied by the signal.
a. spectrum
b. composite
c. bandwidth
d. multiplexed
90. It is the frequency range over which an
information signal is transmitted or over
which a receiver or other electronic
equipment operate.
a. composite
b. bandwidth
c. summed frequency
d. signals
91. The range of frequencies required to
transmit the desired information.
a.
b.
c.
d.
channel bandwidth
information capacity
information bandwidth
channel capacity
92. The first complete system of wireless

communications was provided by
a. Samuel Morse
b. Guglielmo Marconi
c. James Maxwell
d. Heinrich Hertz
93. Calculate the noise power at the input of
a microwave receiver with an equivalent
noise temperature of 45 K. It is fed from
an antenna with a 35 K equivalent noise
temperature and operates over a 5-MHz
bandwidth.
a. 3.56 fW
b. 1.34 fW
c. 2.98 fW
d. 5.52 fW
94. It is the process of putting information
onto a high-frequency carrier for
transmission.
a. multiplexing
b. modulation
c. mixing
d. heterodyning
95. It is generally a device that converts
energy from one form to another.
a. transformer
b. motor
c. transducer
d. generator
96. Man-made noise occurs randomly at

frequencies up to around
a. 100 Hz
b. 300 kHz
c. 200 MHz
d. 500 MHz
97. What is the seventh harmonic of 360
kHz?
a. 2520 kHz
b. 46.08 MHz
c. 3.6 x 10^12 Hz
d. 1980 kHz
98. Atmospheric noise is not a significant
factor for frequencies exceeding about
_________.
a. 30 MHz
b. 50 MHz
c. 10 MHz
d. 25 MHz
99. Space noise contains less energy below
a. 9 MHz
b. 15 MHz
c. 20 MHz
d. 8 MHz
100. The process of converting a frequency
or band of frequencies to another
location in the
total frequency spectrum
a. modulation
b. detection
c. frequency translation
d. amplification
101.What is frequency range of EHF?
a. 3 30 GHz
b.30 300 GHz
c. 30 300 MHz
d. 300 3000 MHz
102.Calculate the wavelength in free space
corresponding to a frequency of AM
radio
broadcast band of 1 MHz
a. 300 m
b. 7.5 m
c. 11.1 m
d. 3.25 m
103.When the input power is reduced in half
at the output, the signal power is said to
be
reduced by:
a. 2 dB
b. 6 dB
c. 4 dB
d. 3 dB
104. A current change that is equal to twice
its original value will correspond to a change of
a. 3 dB
b. 9 dB
c. 10 dB
d. 6 dB
105.There are four networks in series. The
first network has a gain of 15 dB, the
second has
a loss of 4 dB, the third gain of 35 dB,
and the fourth a loss of 5 dB. The input
of the first network is +3dBm. What is
the output to the last network in mW.
a. 15913.1
b. 19922.9
c. 25118.9
d. 29523.6
106. The PLL is often combined with

_________ circuits to produce multiple
frequencies.
a. Local oscillator
b. Mixer
c. RF amplifier
d. AF amplifier
107. Flicker noise may be completely
ignored above about _________.
a. 500 Hz
b. 350 Hz
c. 225 Hz
d. 300 Hz
108. Determine the noise figure for an
equivalent noise temperature of 75 K.
a. 1 dB
b. 3 dB
c. 2 dB
d. 1.25 dB
109.What is the other name for HF?
a. microwaves
b. short waves
c. millimeter waves
d. audio waves
110.It is a resistive network that is used to
introduce a fixed amount of attenuation
between the source and a load.
a. limiter
b. clipper
c. mixer
d. attenuator
111.A technique used in improving
communication when a high peak-to-
average power ratio of atmospheric

noise occurs, the receiver is disabled
during the duration of these burst.
a. quieting
b. noise blanking
c. limiting
d. mixing
112.It is the ratio of the signal power level to
noise power level
a. noise figure
b. signal-to-noise ratio
c. SINAD
d. noise improvement factor
113.It is a figure of merit used to indicate
how much the signal-to-noise ratio
deteriorates as a signal passes through a
circuit or series of circuits.
a. Q-factor
c. noise factor
d. numerical aperture
114.What is the major contributor of
transistor noise?
a. thermal agitation noise
b. pink noise
c. flicker noise
d. shot noise
115.Which of the following is not known as
excess noise?
a. pink noise
b. 1/f noise
c. flicker noise
d. brown noise
116.It is the relative measure of the desired

signal power to the noise power
a. noise factor
c. noise figure
d. noise improvement factor
117.Which of the following is a desirable
value of signal-to-noise ratio in dB?
a. 0
b. 100
c. 1
d. 50
118.It is the range of frequency in which the
upper frequency is double the lower
frequency
a. decade
b. pentade
c. octave
d. none of these
119.Which of the following noise figure is
more desirable?
a. 0 dB
b. 100 dB
c. 1 dB
d. infinity
120.The formula used to measure the total
noise figure due to amplifiers in cascade
is called _________.
a. Johnsons formula
b. Shannons formula
c. Hartleys formula
d. Friss formula
121.It is defined as to fluctuate between two
states or conditions.
a. oscillate
b. synchronization
c. amplify
d. signal generation
122.An oscillator is _________ when the
changes in a waveform are continuous
and repetitive and occurs in a periodic
rate.
a. locking
b. one-shot
c. triggered
d. self-sustaining
123.A free-running oscillator is also called
_________.
a. one-shot
b. triggered
c. locking
d. self-sustaining
124.Oscillators that are not self-sustaining
are called _________.
a. free-running
b. feedback
c. triggered
d. regenerative
125.An oscillator that is an amplifier with a
feedback loop.
a. signal generator
b. feedback oscillator
c. frequency synthesizer
d. frequency synchronization circuit
126.For a feedback circuit to sustain
oscillation, the net voltage gain around
the feedback loop must be unity or
greater, and the net phase shift around
the loop must be positive integer

multiply of 360 degrees.
a. Barkhausen criterion
b. Butterworth criterion
c. Flywheel effect
d. Feedback criterion
127.A circuit which comprises of a voltage
amplifier with an open-loop voltage
gain,
a
frequency-determining
regenerative feedback path with a
feedback ratio and either a summer or
subtractor circuit.
a. amplifier
b. closed-loop
c. power source
d. open-loop
128.It is the overall voltage gain of the
complete circuit with the feedback loop
closed and is always less than the openloop voltage gain.
a. feedback ratio
b. closed-loop voltage gain
c. open-loop current gain
d. close-loop current gain
129.It is the transfer function of the
feedback network.
a. feedback ratio
b. closed-loop current gain
c. open-loop voltage gain
d. open-loop current gain
130.It is an untuned RC shift oscillator that
uses both positive and negative
feedback.
a. LC tank circuit
b. Colpitts oscillators
c. Hartley oscillators
d. Wein-Bridge oscillators
131.Its operation involves an exchange of
energy between kinetic and potential.
a. Wein-Bridge oscillators
b. LC tank circuit
c. Clapp oscillators
d. Hartley oscillators
132.It is the ability of an oscillator to remain
at as fixed frequency and is of primary
importance in a communications system
a. oscillation
b. synchronization
c. frequency stability
d. filtering
133.It is a function of component aging and
changes in the ambient temperature and
humidity.
a. short-term stability
b. damping
c. long-term stability
d. filtering
134.It is the study of the form, structure,
properties and classifications of crystals
a. Crystallography
b. Stalactitomy
c. Crystallomagraphy
d. Stalagmitophy
135.It deals with lattices, bonding and
behaviour of splices of crystal material
that have been cut at various angles with
respect to the crystals axes.
a. Crystallography
b. Stalactitomy
c. Crystallomagraphy
d. Stalagmitophy
136. It occurs when oscillating mechanical
stresses applied across a crystal lattice
structure generate electrical oscillations
and vice-versa.
a. crystal effect
b. photoelectric effect
c. piezoelectric effect
d. solar effect
137.Which of the following crystals is
commonly used in microphones?
a. Quartz
b. Rochelle salt
c. Tourmaline
d. ADP
138.Which of the following crystals is often
used for frequency control in
oscillators?
a. EDT
b. Synthetic quartz
c. Tourmaline
d. Rochelle salt
139.An increase in temperature causes an
increase in frequency and a decrease in
temperature causes an increase in
frequency.
a. negative temperature coefficient
b. positive temperature coefficient
c. constant temperature coefficient
d. temperature coefficient
140.It is a specially constructed diode whose
internal capacitance is enhanced when
reverse biased, and by varying the
reverse bias voltage, the capacitance of

the diode can be adjusted.
a. tunnel diode
b. SAW
c. backward diode
d. varactor
141.It is often used when describing
varactor diode fabrication.
a. graded junction
b. reverse junction
c. barrier junction
d. capacitive junction
142.It is an oscillator circuit that generates
well-defined, stable waveforms that can
be externally modulated or swept over a
given frequency range.
a. swept generator
b. frequency synthesizer
c. wave generator
d. frequency synchronizer
143.It is a free-running oscillator with a
stable frequency of oscillation that
depends on an external timing
capacitance, timing resistance, and
control voltage.
a. multiplier
b. monolithic controlled oscillator
c. voltage-controlled oscillator
d. phase-locked loop
c. bandwidth
d. free-running frequency
145.The
voltage-controlled
oscillator
operates at a set frequency called
a. free-running frequency
b. capture range
c. lock range
d. bandwidth
146.Free-running frequency is also known
as _________.
a. capture range
b. lock range
c. tracking range
d. natural
147. Also known as lock range
a. capture range
b. free-running frequency
c. natural frequency
d. tracking range
148. It is defined as the band of frequencies
in the vicinity of the natural frequency
where the
PLL can establish or acquire lock with
an input signal.
a. tracking range
b. capture range
c. lock range
d. hold-in range
144.It is defined as the range of frequencies

149. It is an oscillator with stable frequency
in vicinity of the VCOs natural of oscillation that depends on an external bias
frequency over which the PLL can
voltage.
maintain lock with an input signal.
a. multiplier
a. capture range
b. monolithic controlled oscillator
b. lock range
c. voltage-controlled oscillator
150. Also known as phase comparator
a. phase detector
b. phase-lock loop
c. voltage controlled oscillator
d. frequency synthesizer
151. It means to form an entity by
combining parts or elements.
a. oscillate
b. integrate
c. amplify
d. synthesize
b. resolution
c. octave
d. decade
155. Zero beat is also known as _________.
a. phase acquisition
b. loop acquisition
c. push-in acquisition
d. frequency acquisition
156. Capture range is also known as
_________.
a. pull-in range
b. lock range
c. acquisition range
d. hold-in range
152. It is used to generate many output

frequencies through the addition, subtraction,
multiplication, and division of a smaller
157. Half of the lock range is equal to
number of fixed frequency sources.
_________.
a. power amplifier
a. capture range
b. frequency synchronizer
b. hold-in range
c. oscillator
c. pull-in range
d. free-running frequency
d. frequency synthesizer
153. A type of frequency synthesis in which
multiple output frequencies are generated by
mixing the outputs from two or more
crystal-controlled frequency sources or by
dividing
or multiplying the output frequency
form a single-crystal oscillator.
a. direct frequency synthesis
b. constant frequency synthesis
c. indirect frequency synthesis
d. multiple frequency synthesis
154. It is the minimum frequency separation
between output frequencies for the synthesizer.
a. dynamic range
158. The _________ gain for a PLL is

simply the product of the individual gains or
transfer
function for the loop.
a. loop
b. capture
c. lock
d. closed
159. Considered as the main source of an
internal noise.
a. Flicker
b. Thermal agitation
c. Device imperfection
d. Temperature change
160. What is the first symbol of a radio

signal emission having amplitude modulated
main
carrier?
a. C
b. B
c. H
d. A
161. The method of determining the
bandwidth requirements for any processing
system is
referred to as:
a. frequency spectrum
b. frequency analysis
c. spectral analysis
d. bandwidth analysis
162. When two-equal frequencies are mixed
together, the result is
a. zero-bias
b. zero-beat
c. zero-modulation
d. off-beat
163. Noise uniformly distributed over the
voice frequency band is called _________
noise.
a. impulse
b. quantizing
c. intermodulation
d. white
164. In psophometric noise weighting, one
picowatt is equivalent to 800 Hz tone with a
power of
a. -90 dBm
b. -85 dBm
c. -65 dBm
d. none of the above
dBa?
a. -90 dBm
b. -82 dBm
c. -67 dBm
d. -85 dBm
dBm?
a. -90 dBm
b. -82 dBm
c. -67 dBm
d. -85 dBm
167. At what power level does a 1 kHz tone
causes zero interference (144 weighted)?
a. 90 dB
b. 90 dBm
c. -90 dB
d. -90 dBm
168. A tone of _________ Hz causes more
interference than do other frequencies, in a
voice
channel.
a. 300
b. 1000
c. 3400
d. 4000
169. A power of a standard test tone is
normally _________.
a. 0 mW
b. 1 W
c. 1 dB
d. 1 mW
170. The standard test tone has a frequency

of _________ Hz.
a. 1000
b. 10
c. 100
d. none of these
171. In an analog voice frequency channel,
the unwanted change in phase or frequency
caused by modulation of another signal
is;
a. Intrinsic noise
b. white noise
c. intermodulation
d. phase-jitter
172. The kind of noise that is caused by
mismatched lines;
a. echo noise
b. impulse noise
c. partition noise
d. intermodulation noise
random noise measurement, F1A weighted?
a. -90 dBm
b. -82 dBm
c. -67 dBm
d. -85 dBm
174. A ten times power change in a
transmission system is equivalent to:
a. 10 dB
b. 100 dB
c. 20 dB
d. 10 dB
175. If the transmitter output power of 10
watts is doubled, the gain derived is about:
a. 6 dB
b. 4 dB
c. 13 dB
d. noise of the above
176. When the power ratio of the input to
output is 1/100, the loss of the circuit, in dB, is
a. 20
b. -20
c. -10
d. 3
177. An antenna which has a power gain of
30 dB would mean it could increase the output
of
the transmitter by:
a. 10,000 times
b. 1,000 times
c. 100 times
d. 1 million times
178. In a double-tuned circuit, and peak
output with _________ coupling.
a. under
b. over
c. optimum
d. medium
179. The frequency band used by cellular
telephones and cellular telephones and mobile
communication services is _________.
a. UHF
b. EHF
c. VHF
d. VLF
180. The radio wavelength known as
_________ falls within the medium frequency
range.
a. centimetric
b. decametric
c. hectometric
d. myriametric
181. In a double-tuned circuit, maximum
bandwidth with _________ coupling
a. under
b. over
c. optimum
d. critical
182. Decreasing the Q of a resonant circuit
causes its bandwidth to _________.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. become constant
d. become narrow
c. white noise
d. flicker noise
186. The electromagnetic spectrum is
managed worldwide by the _________
organization.
a. FCC
b. SI
c. ANSI
d. ITU
187. Unwanted mixer output signals are
eliminated by a _________.
a. filter
b. multiplexer
c. mixer
d. amplifier
188. The bandwidth of a double-tuned

183. Most impedance-matching networks
transformer depends upon the degree of
are _________ filters, so they eliminate
_________
harmonics.
between primary and secondary
a. high-pass
windings.
b. low-pass
a. mutual inductance
c. bandpass
b. coupling coefficient
d. bandstop
c. limiting factor
184. _________ are types of noise generated
d. filtering
by equipments that produces sparks.
189. In a double-tuned circuit, minimum
a. equipment noise
b. atmospheric noise
bandwidth is obtained with _________
c. space noise
coupling.
d. internal noise
a. under
b. over
185. A high-frequency noise occurs when
c. optimum
the time taken by change carriers to cross a
d. critical
junction is comparable to the period of
the signal
190. A basic circuit of a frequency of a
a. pink noise
synthesizer is a _________.
b. transit-time noise
a. PLL
b. LC oscillator
c. Crystal oscillator
d. RC oscillator
191. The output frequency of a synthesizer
is changed by varying the _________ of the
divider between the VCO and the phase
detector.
a. Mixer output
b. IF output
c. Frequency division ratio
d. Voltage division ratio
192. The PLL is often combined with
_________ circuits to produce multiple
frequencies.
a. Local oscillator
b. Mixer
c. RF amplifier
d. AF amplifier
193. A crystal oscillator has superior
_________ over an LC oscillator.
a. amplitude stability
b. frequency stability
c. phase stability
d. voltage stability
194. If a parallel LC circuit is at resonance,
increasing C will cause the current to
_________
the applied voltage.
a. lead
b. lag
c. lead-lag
d. lag-lead
195. Information sent in the form of coded

dots and dashes is called _________
transmission.
a. baudot
b. continuous-wave
c. digital
d. any of these
196. Fixed-frequency or channel operation
of a transmitter is obtained by using a
_________.
a. LC oscillator
b. RC oscillator
c. crystal oscillator
d. synthesizers
197. Combining a feedback capacitor with
the internal capacitance of the transistor forms a
_________ circuit which is used to
cancel the self-oscillation.
a. filter
b. tank
c. bridge
d. feedback
198. Untuned RF transformers permit
_________ operation over a wide frequency
range.
a. narrowband
b. middleband
c. broadband
d. any of these
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN
WAVE
PROPAGATI
ON
By
Melvin C. Arceo
ENCODED BY:
1. The cumulative sum of the direct,
ground-reflected, and surface waves is
reflected to as _________.
a. Space wave
b. Ground wave
c. Sky wave
d. Direct waves
2. The D layer of the ionosphere reflects
_________ waves.
a. MF and HF
b. VLF and MF
c. MF and VHF
d. VLF and LF
3. A diversity scheme wherein the same
radio signal is repeated or transmitted
more than once.
a. polarization diversity
b. field component diversity
c. time diversity
d. frequency diversity
4. The disadvantage of ground wave
propagation is
a. Ground waves require a relatively
high transmission power
b. Ground waves are limited to very
low, low and medium frequencies
requiring large antennas
c. Ground losses very considerably
with surface material
d. Any of these
5. A range of microwave frequencies more
easily passed by the atmosphere than the
others is called a
a. window
b. critical frequency
c. gyro frequency range
d. resonance in the atmosphere
6. It is simply the orientation of the electric
field vector in respect to the surface of
the Earth
a. Polarization
b. Wavefront
c. Rays
d. Power density
7. For an isotropic antenna radiating 100W
of power, what is power density 1000m
from the source?
a. 1.99 uW/m^2
b. 7.96 uW/m^2
c. 3.22 uW/m^2
d. 9.17 uW/m^2
8. The ground wave eventually disappears,
as moves away from the transmitter,
because of
b. loss of line-of-sight conditions
c. maximum single hop distance
limitations
d. tilting
9. If the electric field is propagating
parallel to the surface of the Earth, the
polarization is _________.
a. Circular
b. Vertical
c. Horizontal
d. Elliptical
10. A taxi company uses a central
dispatcher, with an antenna at the top of
a 15m tower, to communicate with taxi
cabs. The taxi antennas are on the roofs
of the cars, approximately 1.5m above
the ground. What is the maximum
communication distance between the
dispatcher and a taxi?
a. 21 km
b. 30 km
c. 25 km
d. 33 km
11. The E layer of the ionosphere aid
_________ propagation and reflects
_________ waves
a. MF, HF
b. HF, MF
c. LF, MF
d. MF, LF
12. When microwave signals follows the
curvature of the earth, it is known as
a. the Faraday effect
b. ducting
c. tropospheric scatter
d. ionospheric scatter
13. If the polarization vector rotates 360
degrees as the wave moves one
wavelength through space and field
strength is equal at all angles of
polarization, the polarization is

_________.
a. Vertically polarized
b. Horizontally polarized
c. Circularly polarized
d. Elliptically polarized
14. _________ travels essentially in a
straight line between the transmit and the
receive antennas
a. Direct waves
b. Sky waves
c. Space waves
d. Surface waves
15. Variations brought about the revolution
of the earth around the sun
a. weather variation
b. cyclical variation
c. diurnal variation
d. seasonal variation
16. The dielectric strength of air is about
3MV/m. Arching is likely to take place
at field strengths greater than that. What
is the maximum power density of an
electromagnetic wave in air?
a. 40 GW/m^2
b. 15.5 GW/m^2
c. 23.9 GW/m^2
d. 18.9 GW/m^2
17. It is a single location from which rays
propagate equally in all directions
a.
b.
c.
d.
point source
omnidirectional source
ideal polarization
isotropic polarized
18. Diffraction of electromagnetic waves

a. is caused by reflections from the
ground
b. arises only with spherical waveforms
c. will occur when the waves pass
through a large slot
d. may occur around the edge of a
sharp obstacle
19. The critical frequency at a particular
time is 11.6MHz. What is the MUF for a
transmitting station if the required angle
of incidence for propagation to a desired
destination is 70 degrees?
a. 34 MHz
b. 45 MHz
c. 40 MHz
d. 15.5 MHz
20. The rate at which energy passes through
a given surface area in free space is
called _________.
a. capture power
b. capture area
c. captured power density
d. power density
21. A radio wave moves from air (relative
permittivity is 1) to glass (relative
permittivity is 7.8). Its angle of
incidence is 30 degrees. What is the

angle of refraction?
a. 10.3 degrees
b. 11.2 degrees
c. 20.4 degrees
d. 0.179 degrees
22. It is the intensity of the electric and the
magnetic fields of the electromagnetic
wave propagating in free space
a. field intensity
b. field density
c. power intensity
d. power intensity
23. Radio propagation was predicted
mathematically by
a. Heinrich R. Hertz
b. Guglielmo Marconi
c. James Clerk Maxwell
d. Alexander Graham Bell
24. Tropospheric scatter is used with
frequencies in the following range
a. HF
b. VHF
c. UHF
d. VLF
25. A point source that radiates power at a
constant rate uniformly in all directions.
a. isotropic source
b. isotropic radiator
c. point source
d. any of these
26. The transmitting distance with direct

waves is limited to short distances and
strictly a function of the _________ of
the transmitting and receiving antenna.
a. frequency
b. phase
c. power
d. height
30. The signal refracted back from the

ionosphere strikes the earth and is
reflected back up to the ionosphere again
to be bent and sent back to earth.
a. skip transmission
b. multi-hop transmission
c. multi transmission
d. hop transmission
27. One nautical mile is equal to _________

statute miles.
a. 2.12
b. 1.15
c. 2.54
d. 1.90
31. Electromagnetic waves are refracted

when they
a. pass into a medium of different
dielectric constant
b. are polarized at right angles to the
direction of propagation
c. encounter a perfectly conducting
surface
d. pass through a small slot in a
conducting plane
28. It is the deflection or bending of

electromagnetic waves such as radio
waves, light or even sound when the
waves cross the boundary line between
two mediums with different
characteristics.
a. reflection
b. diffraction
c. refraction
d. dispersion
29. The reduction of power density with
distance is equivalent to a power loss.
a. absorption
b. attenuation
c. distance loss
d. power dissipation
32. The reduction in power density due to

nonfree-space propagation
a. absorption
b. attenuation
c. power dissipation
d. distance loss
33. _________ is the signal that is radiated
by the antenna into the atmosphere
where it is bent or reflected back to
earth.
a. ground wave signal
b. sky wave signal
c. space wave signal

d. direct waves signal
34. It is a type of fading having different
effect different frequencies
a. Selective fading
b. Polarization fading
c. Interference fading
d. Absorption fading
35. It is defined as the modulation or
redistribution of energy within a wave
front as it passes near the edge of an
opaque object.
a. refraction
b. scattering
c. reflection
d. diffraction
36. What type of modulation is primarily
used in ground wave propagation?
a. Frequency modulation
b. Amplitude modulation
c. Phase modulation
d. Pulse modulation
37. It states that every point on a given
spherical wavefront can be considered as
a secondary point source of
electromagnetic waves from which other
secondary waves or wavelets are
radiated outward.
a. Hertzian principle
b. Maxwells principle
c. Huygens principle
d. Marconis principle
38. Calculate the electric field intensity, in
volts per meter, 20 km from a 1-kW
source.
a. 3.44 mW/m
b. 7.65 mW/m
c. 8.66 mW/m
d. 1.45 mW/m
39. The absorption of radio waves by the
atmosphere depends on
a. their frequency
b. their distance from the transmitter
c. the polarization of waves
medium
40. Calculate the radio horizon for a 500-ft
transmitting antenna and receiving
antenna of 20 ft.
a. 23.1 mi
b. 31.2 mi
c. 14.8 mi
d. 37.9 mi
41. Calculate the power received from a 20W transmitter, 22,000 miles from earth,
if the receiving antenna has an effective
area of 1600m^2
a. 4.06 x 10^-12 W
b. 2.03 x 10^-12 W
c. 1.02 x 10^-12 W
d. 0.91 x 10^-12 W
42. As electromagnetic waves travel in free
space, only one of the following can
happen to them
a. absorption
b. attenuation
c. refraction
d. reflection
43. Electromagnetic waves travelling within
Earths atmosphere is called
a. Space wave
b. Surface wave
c. Terrestrial wave
d. Sky-wave
46. The constant temperature stratosphere is

called _________.
a. E-layer
b. S-layer
c. isothermal region
d. ionosthermal region
47. It is the tendency of the sun to have
grayish-black blemishes, seemingly at
random times and at random place, on its
fiery surface.
a. solar intensity
b. sunspot
c. solar flare
d. solar flux
44. Calculate the power density in watts per

square meter (on earth) from a 10-W
satellite source that is 22,000 miles from
earth.
a. 3.17 x 10^ -16 W/m^2
b. 6.35 x 10^ -16 W/m^2
c. 2.31 x 10^ -16 W/m^2
d. 1.21 x 10^ -16 W/m^2

b. is due to the transverse nature of
the waves
c. results from the longitudinal nature
of waves
medium
45. It is termed used to describe variations in

signal strength that occur at the receiver
during this time a signal is being
received.
a. skipping
b. attenuation
c. absorption
d. fading
49. It is an earth-guided electromagnetic

wave that travels over the surface of the
Earth
a. Surface waves
b. Sky waves
c. Direct waves
d. Space waves
50. Frequencies in the UHF range normally

propagate by means of
a. Ground waves
b. Sky waves
c. Surface waves
d. Space waves
51. The curvature of the Earth presents a
horizon to space wave propagation
commonly called _________.
a. Optical horizon
b. Radio horizon
c. Horizontal horizon
d. Vertical horizon
52. Electromagnetic waves that are directed
above the horizon level is called
_________.
a. direct waves
b. sky waves
c. space waves
d. surface waves
53. The refracting and reflecting action of
the ionosphere and the ground is called
a. sliding
b. skipping
c. hopping
d. boosting
54. An electrical energy that is escaped in
free space
a. Electrical signal
b. Electromagnetic waves
c. Magnetic waves
d. Electromagnetism
55. The layer of the ionosphere which
farthest from the sun
a. D layer
b. E layer
c. F1 layer
d. F2 layer
56. A condition which manifest itself in the
form of double-image distortion
a. running
b. fading
c. ghosting
d. snowing
57. The D layer of the ionosphere absorbs
_________ waves.
a. LF and MF
b. MF and HF
c. HF and VHF
d. VHF and UHF
58. The E layer of the ionosphere is
sometimes called _________
a. Kennely-Heavisides
b. Sporadic-E layer
c. E-densed layer
d. Kennely layer
59. It is defined as the higher frequency that
can be propagated directly upward and
still be returned to earth by the

ionosphere
a. critical angle
b. maximum usable frequency
d. virtual height
60. The maximum vertical angle at which
electromagnetic waves can be
propagated and still be reflected back by
the ionosphere
a. numerical aperture
b. incident angle
c. critical angle
d. refracted angle
61. It is defined as the plane joining all
points of equal phase
a. rays
b. electromagnetic wave
c. wavefront
d. isotropic source
62. It is the height above Earths surface
from which a reflected wave appears to
have been reflected.
a. virtual height
b. maximum height
c. vertical height
d. horizontal height
63. It is the highest frequency that can be
used for sky wave propagation between
two specific points on Earths surface
a.
b.
c.
d.
optimum working frequency

maximum usable frequency
critical frequency
maximum frequency
64. The polarization of electromagnetic

waves can be determined by the
direction of the
a. E field
b. H field
c. propagation
d. both E and H field
65. 85 percent of the maximum usable
frequency (MUF) is called _________.
a. maximum usable frequency
b. optimum working frequency
d. maximum frequency
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pedersen ray
Light ray
Huygens ray
Millers ray
68. Undesired radiated energy from a radio

transmitter or in another source.
a. ESD
b. EMI
c. RFI
d. ESI
69. The area between where the surface
waves are completely dissipated and the
point where the first sky wave returns to
earth is called _________.
a. skip distance
b. skip distance zone
c. optical horizon
d. quiet zone
a.
b.
c.
d.
free-space path loss

free space loss
path loss
any of these
72. To increase the transmission distance of

a UHF signal, which of the following
should be done?
a. increase the antenna gain
b. increase antenna height
c. increase transmitter power
d. increase receiver sensitivity
66. It is defined as the minimum distance

from the transmit antenna that a sky
wave at a given frequency will be
returned to earth.
a. skip distance
b. skip zone
c. skip frequency distance
d. skip zone frequency
70. The undesired radiated energy that may

cause interference with other electronic
equipment in the vicinity.
a. ESD
b. EMI
c. RFI
d. ESI
73. For a carrier frequency of 6 GHz and a

distance of 50 km, determine the freespace path loss
a. 132 dB
b. 123 dB
c. 142 dB
d. 152 dB
74. A microwave-transmitting antenna is
550 ft high. The receiving antenna is 200
ft high. The maximum transmission
distance is
a. 20 mi
b. 33.2 mi
c. 38.7 mi
d. 53.2 mi
67. At distance greater than the skip

distance, two rays can take different
paths and still be returned to the same
point on Earth. The two rays are called
lower rays and _________.
71. It is defined as the loss incurred by an

electromagnetic wave as it propagates in
a straight line through a vacuum with no
absorption or reflection of energy from
nearby objects.
75. Indicate which one of the following term

applies to troposcatter propagation
a. SIDs
b. Fading
c. Atmospheric storms
d. Faradays rotation
76. Line-of-sight communications is not a
factor in which frequency range?
a. VHF
b. UHF
c. HF
d. Microwave
77. VLF waves are used for some types of
services because
a. of the low powers required
b. the transmitting antenna are of
convenient size
c. they are very reliable
d. affected by the solar cycle
78. Microwave signals propagate by way of
the
a. direct wave
b. sky wave
c. surface wave
d. standing wave
79. Indicate which of the following
frequencies cannot be used for reliable
beyond-the-horizon terrestrial
communications without repeaters:
a. 20 kHz
b. 15 MHz
c. 900 MHz
d. 12 GHz
80. The type of radio wave responsible for

long-distance communications by
multiple skips is the
a. ground wave
b. direct wave
c. surface waves
d. sky wave
a. absorbed by the F2 layer
b. reflected by the D layer
c. capable of use for long-distance
communications on the moon
d. affected by the solar cycle
82. The ionosphere has its greatest effect on
signals in what frequency range?
a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300 MHz
d. above 300 MHz
83. Distances near the skip distance should
be used for sky-wave propagation
a. to avoid tilting
b. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray
interference
c. to avoid Faraday effect
d. so as not to exceed the critical
frequency
84. Ground-wave communications is most
effective in what frequency range?
a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300 MHz
d. above 300 MHz
85. The ionosphere causes radio signals to
be
a. diffused
b. absorbed
c. refracted
d. reflected
86. Helical antenna are often used for
satellite tracking at VHF because of
a. troposcatter
b. superrefraction
c. ionospheric refraction
d. the Faraday effect
87. A ship-to-ship communication system is
plagued by fading. The best solution
seem to use of
a. a more directional antenna
b. a broadband antenna
d. space diversity
88. It is defined as the ratio of the electric
field intensity of the reflected wave to
that of the incident wave
a. refractive index
b. numerical aperture
c. reflection coefficient
d. absorption coefficient
89. It is the measure of energy received per

unit time, per unit area, per unit
frequency interval.
a. solar intensity
b. sunspot
c. solar flare
d. solar flux
90. A long period with lack of any solar
activity
a. El Nio
b. La Nia
c. Maunder period
d. Sunspots
communication between two given

points by the way of the ionosphere.
a. MUF
b. LUF
c. OWF
d. MMF
94. It is the area that lies between the outer
limit of the ground-wave range and the
inner edge of energy return from the
ionosphere
a. skip distance
b. skip zone
c. virtual height
d. optical horizon
91. As a ground-wave signal moves away

from the transmitter, the ground wave
eventually disappears due to the
a. absorption
b. tilting
c. refraction
d. diffraction
95. Variations brought about by the rotation

of the earth around its axis.
a. cyclical rotation
b. seasonal variation
c. diurnal variation
d. weather variation
92. It is the lowest layer of the atmosphere

where all weather disturbances takes
place
a. D layer
b. Stratosphere
c. Ionosphere
d. Troposphere
96. Ionospheric irregularity caused by solar

flares, which are gigantic emissions of
hydrogen from the sun.
a. Sudden ionospheric disturbances
b. Dillenger fadeouts
c. Mogul-Delliger fadeouts
d. Any of these
93. It is the lower limit of the range of

frequencies that provide useful
97. It is a type of fading caused by so-called

Faraday effect or Faraday rotation
a. interference fading
b. absorption fading
c. selective fading
d. polarization fading
98. Radio horizon is _________ greater than
the optical horizon.
a. one-third
b. four-third
c. two-third
d. twice
99. An increase in temperature with height
which gives rise to superrefraction or
ducting is known as _________.
a. height inversion
b. depth inversion
c. temperature inversion
d. ionospheric inversion
100. A region in which superrefraction
occurs which is formed in the
troposphere when the
layer of cool air becomes trapped
underneath a layer of warmer air.
a. duct
b. dielectric area
c. gateway
d. window
101. A range of frequency little attenuated
by the atmosphere is called
a. slide
b. door
c. window
d. frame
102. It is defined as either of two acute

angles formed by the intersection of the
two portions
of the tropospheric
scatter beam tangent to the earths
surface.
a. critical angle
b. scatter angle
c. backscatter angle
d. sidescatter angle
103. It is a device that permits two different
transmitters to operate with a single
antenna
a. duplexer
b. diplexer
c. isolator
d. circulator
104. It is a gradual shift in polarization of
the signal in the medium.
a. fading
b. faraday effect
c. ghosting
d. multipath fading
105. A diversity scheme wherein the
receiver receives two fading signals
from two different
directions
a. frequency diversity
b. time diversity
c. angle diversity
d. space diversity
106. The radio wavelength known as
_________ falls within the medium
frequency range
a. centimetric wave
b. decametric wave
c. hectometric wave
d. myriametric wave
107. The most dense of all ionized layer of
the ionosphere
a. E
b. F1
c. F2
d. D
108. The frequency band used as subcarriers, or signals which carry the
baseband modulating information but in
turn modulate another higher-frequency
carrier is _________.
a. LF
b. MF
c. VLF
d. VH
109. The range of frequency band termed as
super high frequency (SHF) is within
_________.
a. 30-300 GHz
b. 30-300 MHz
c. 3-30 GHz
d. 300-3000 MHz
b. is horizontal
c. is circular
d. cannot be determined from the
information given
112. The surface wave is effective only at
frequencies below about _________
MHz.
a. 30
b. 3
c. 300
d. 0.3
113. What wave propagation are attenuated
within a few miles?
a. space
b. sky
c. ground
d. direct
114. What happens to wave velocity as it
passes from air to ionosphere?
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remain the same
d. not a factor
110. Electric field that lies in a plane

perpendicular to the earths surface.
a. circular polarization
b. vertical polarization
c. horizontal polarization
115. What wavelength radiations tend to be

transmitted entirely between ionosphere
and earth?
a. long
b. short
c. medium
d. millimeter
111. The magnetic field of an antenna is

perpendicular to the earth. The
antennas polarization
a. is vertical
116. What effect do sunspots have on the

ionosphere?
a. makes more rare and regular
b. makes more dense and irregular
c. makes less dense and regular

d. makes less dense and irregular
b. to conserve the energy used

c. to create diversity
d. to improve noise performance
117. What is a double-hop signal?

a. ground, ionosphere, ground and back
122. Scatter transmission is used at what
to ionosphere
frequencies?
b. ground, ground, ionosphere, and
a. EHF and VLF
ionosphere
b. HF and VHF
c. ionosphere, ionosphere, ground and
c. VHF and UHF
ground
d. ELF and VLF
d. ionosphere, ground, ionosphere and
123. Over what areas ducts often form?
back to ground
a. desert
118. What is the major cause of fading?
b. water
a. phase difference
c. forest
b. topographic variation
d. mountain
c. climate
124. Polarization named for _________
d. ionosphere variation
component of the wave?
119. Where is the skip zone?
a. static
a. between the sky and the first reflected
b. magnetic
wave
c. direction
d. propagation
b. between end of ground and first
reflected wave
c. between end of ground and farthest
125. What polarization is employed in an
reflected wave
AM broadcasting?
d. between the end of sky to the farthest
a. horizontal
reflected wave
b. parallel
c. transverse
120. What wave is the same day or night?
d. vertical
a. sky
b. space
c. direct
d. ground
121. Why do HF communications system
shift frequencies at different times of day?
a. to take advantage of best reflected
signals
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN
DIGITAL
AND DATA
COMMUNIC
ATIONS
By
Melvin C. Arceo
D. secure communications
6. A LAN device that use to interconnect two
ENCODED BY: networks that use different protocols and
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D. formats
1. It is defined as knowledge or intelligence that
A. Gateways
is communicated between two or more points.
B. Routers
A. Carrier
C. Bridges
B. Sideband
D. Hubs
7. A pulse modulation technique as the width of
C. Information
D. Broadband
a constant amplitude pulse is varied proportional
2. What is the category of data transmission if
to the amplitude of the analog signal at the time
the binary pulse is maintained for the entire bit
the signal is sampled.
time?
A. Pulse Width Modulation
A. Return to zero
B. Pulse Length Modulation
B. Bipolar
C. Pulse Duration Modulation
C. Unipolar
D. All of these
8. The FDM telephone systems accommodate
D. Non return to zero
3. Which medium is most widely used in
many channels by
LANs?
A. Increasing the multiplexer size
A. Twin lead
B. Using many final carriers
B. Fiber-optic cable
C. Narrowing the bandwidth of each
C. Twisted pair
D. Using multiple levels of
D. Coax
multiplexing
4. These are used for transmission of PCM
9. It is the transmittal of digitally modulated
encoded time-division multiplexed digital signal analog signals (carrier) between two or more
A. I carriers
points in a communications system.
B. E carriers
A. Digital Modulation
C. A carriers
B. Digital Transmission
C. Digital Communications
D. T carriers
5. Which of the following is not a typical FDM
D. Pulse Modulation
application?
10. Indicate which of the following systems is
A. telemetry
digital
B. stereo broadcasting
A. Pulse-position modulation
C. telephone
B. Pulse-code modulation
C. Pulse-width modulation
D. Pulse-frequency modulation
11. Classification of protocol that interprets a
frame of data as a group of successive bit
combined into predetermined pattern of fixed
length, usually 8 bits each.
A. Character-oriented protocols
B. Byte-oriented protocols
C. Bit-oriented protocol
D. Character and Byte-oriented
protocols
12. Dividing the data block by a constant
produces a remainder that is used for error
detection. It is called the
A. Vertical redundancy checking
B. Horizontal redundancy checking
C. Block check character
D. Cyclic redundancy check
13. Which of the following is not a benefit of
spread spectrum?
A. Jam-proof
B. Security
C. Immunity to fading
D. Noise proof
14. Converting analog signals to digital is done
by sampling and _________.
A. quantizing
B. companding
C. pre-emphasis
D. mixing
15. It is a process of converting an infinite
number of possibilities to a finite number of
conditions
A. Sampling
B. Coding
C. Quantization
D. Aliasing
16. In T1, it is equal to the reciprocal of the
sample rate
A. Slot time
B. Transmission time
C. Frame time
D. Bit rate
17. What is the final output of a multiplexer?
A. Baseband
B. Composite baseband
C. Information
D. Composite carrier
18. The baud rate
A. is always equal to the bit transfer rate
B. is equal to the twice the bandwidth
of an ideal channel
C. is not equal to the signaling rate
D. is equal to one-half the bandwidth of
an ideal channel
19. Bit errors in data transmission are usually
caused by
A. equipment failures
B. typing mistakes
C. noise
D. Poor S/N ratio at receiver
20. A digital modulation technique which is a
form of constant-amplitude angle modulation
similar to standard frequency modulation except
the modulating signal is binary signal that varies
between two discreet voltage levels.
A. QAM
B. ASK
C. PSK
D. FSK
21. Start and stop bits, respectively, are
A. Mark, space
B. Space, mark
C. Space, space
D. Mark, mark
22. It is the processing of analog signals using
digital methods and includes bandlimiting and
signals with filters, amplitude equalization, and
phase shifting
A. Digital communications
B. Digital signal processing
C. Data communications
D. Carrier recovery method
23. It is a network access method used primarily
with LANs configured in a ring topology using
either baseband or broadband transmission
formats.
A. Ethernet
B. Token passing
C. Token ring
D. Token bus
24. A small telephone switching system that can
be used as a LAN is called
A. Ring
B. WAN
C. UART
D. PBX
25. The most common method used for
sampling voice signals in PCM systems.
A. unnatural sampling
B. flat top smpling
C. natural sampling
D. free sampling
26. In PCM, it converts the PAM samples to
parallel PCM codes
A. Analog-to-digital Converter
B. Digital-to-analog Converter
C. Pre-emphasis circuit
D. Compander
27. The OSI layer that provides the control
functions necessary to establish manage, and
terminate the connections as required to satisfy
the user request.
A. Application layer
B. Network layer
C. Session layer
D. Physical layer
28. In PAM demultiplexing, the receiver clock
is derived from
A. standard radio station WWW
B. a highly accurate internal oscillator
C. the PAM signal itself
D. the 60-Hz power line
29. It is also known as digital modulation
A. digital transmission
B. digital sampling
C. digital radio
D. data transmission
30. Time-division multiplex
A. can be used with PCM only
B. combines five groups into a
supergroup
C. stacks 24 channels in adjacent
frequency slots
D. interleaves pulses belonging to
different transmissions
31. It is a numerical indication of how

efficiently a PCM code is utilized
A. Coding efficiency
B. Companding
C. Pre-emphasis
D. Dynamic Range
32. Type of PCM which is designed to take
advantage of the sample-to sample redundancies
in the typical speech waveform
A. Single-bit PCM code
B. Pulse code modulation
C. Differential PCM
D. Data modulation
33. The Basic Rate Interference (BRI) of ISDN
has a total bit rate of ______
A. 192 kbps
B. 148 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 1.544 Mbps
34. A form of angle-modulated, constant
amplitude digital modulation similar to
conventional phase modulation except its input
is binary digital signal and there are limited
number of output phase possible
A. ASK
B. PSK
C. FSK
D. QAM
35. The main circuit in a PSN generator is
A. XOR
B. Multiplexer
C. Shift register
D. Mixer
36. The circuit that performs demultiplexing in

an FDM is _____
A. Op-amp
B. Bandpass filter
C. Discriminator
D. Subcarrier oscillator
37. _____ defines how a user gets control of the
channel so as to allow transmission.
A. channel access
B. collision detection
C. collision avoidance
D. carrier sense
38. The fastest LAN topology is
A. ring
B. bus
C. star
D. square
39. It is a theoretical expectation of the bit error
rate in the system
A. probability of errors
B. error detection
C. error control
D. bit error rate
40. It is simply the data rate at which serial
PCM bits are clocked out of the PCM encoder
onto the transmission line.
A. line speed
B. baud rate
C. output rate
D. bit rate
41. A quantizing is _____
A. Multiplexer
B. Demultiplexer
C. A/D converter
D. D/A converter
42. Refers to the rate of change of a signal on a
transmission medium after encoding and
modulation have occurred
A. baud rate
B. phase shift
C. bit rate
D. frequency deviation
43. The magnitude difference between adjacent
steps in quantization is called _____
A. Quantum
B. Step size
C. Resolution
D. Any of these
44. It is a set of rules implementing and
governing an orderly exchange of data between
layers of two devices, such as line control units
and front-end processors.
A. Data Link Protocol
B. Network Protocol
C. Pont to Point Protocol
D. File Transfer Protocol
45. A signaling system in which each letter of
the alphabet is represented by a different symbol
is not used because
A. it would be too difficult for an
operator to memorize
B. it is redundant
C. noise would introduce too many
errors
D. too many pulses per letter are
required
46. A modulation process that involves

conversion of a waveform from analog to digital
form by means of coding
A. PDM
B. PCM
C. PLM
D. PAM
47. What is the bandwidth required to transmit
at a rate of 10 Mbps in the presence of a 28-Db
S/N ratio?
A. 1.075 MHz
B. 10 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 10.75 MHz
48. The slope of the analog signal is greater than
the delta modulator can maintain
A. overload distortion
B. granular noise
C. slope overload
D. peak limiting
49. A scheme in which several channels are
interleaved and then transmitted together is
known as
A. frequency division multiplex
B. time-division multiplex
C. a group
D. a supergroup
50. The best frequency demodulator is
A. PLL discriminator
B. Pulse-averaging discriminator
C. Foster-Seeley discriminator
D. Ratio detector
51. What property distinguishes digital radio

systems from conventional analog
A. the type of carrier used in
transmission of data
B. the nature of the modulating signal
C. the type of modulation of data to be
used
D. the nature of the transmitter and
receiver to be used
52. The circuit switch is a _____ switch.
A. See-through
B. Transparent
C. Vague
D. Opaque
53. A carrier recovery circuit is not needed with
A. FSK
B. BPSK
C. DPSK
D. QAM
54. The Hartley-Shannon theorem sets a limit on
the
A. the highest frequency that may be
sent over a given channel
B. maximum capacity of a channel
with a given noise level
C. maximum number of coding levels in
a channel with a given noise level
D. maximum number of quantizing
levels in a channel of a given bandwidth
55. The phase relationship between signaling
elements for BPSK is the optimum signaling
format and occurs only when two binary signal
levels are allowed and when one signal is the

exact negative of the other
A. Antipodal signaling
B. Carrier recovery
C. Squaring loop
D. Phase referencing
56. Pulse-amplitude modulation signals are
multiplexed by using
A. Subcarrier
B. Bandpass filters
C. A/D Converters
D. FET switches
57. It is the ratio of the transmission bit rate to
the minimum bandwidth required for a
particular modulation scheme.
A. Bandwidth efficiency
B. All of these
C. Information density
D. Spectral efficiency
58. Ethernet is a baseband transmission system
designed by _____
A. Thomas Murray and Robert Metcalfe
B. David Boggs and Thomas Murray
C. Thomas Murray and Emile Baudot
D. Robert Metcalfe and David Boggs
59. It is a system where the digital signals are
placed directly on the coaxial cable.
A. Broadband
B. Baseband
C. CSMA/CD
D. Token ring
60. A basic group B
A. occupies the frequency range from
60 to 108 kHz
B. consists of erect channels only

C. is formed at the group translating
equipment
D. consists of five supergroups
61. Which of the following is not primarily a
type of data communications?
A. telephone
B. teletype
C. telegraph
D. CW
62. Packets which is self-contained and travels
through the network independent of other
packets of the same message by whatever means
available.
A. Packet
B. Frame
C. Datagram
D. Data
63. Transmitting the data signal directly over the
medium is referred to as
A. baseband
B. broadband
C. ring
D. bus
64. The main reason that serial transmission is
preferred to parallel transmission is that?
A. serial is faster
B. serial requires only a single channel
C. serial requires multiple channels
D. parallel is too expensive
65. Which of the following is not a LAN?
A. PBX system
B. Hospital system
C. Office building system
D. Cable TV system
66. A modulation technique where data rates in
excess of 56 kbps can be achieved over
telephone circuits
A. ASK
B. Trellis code modulation
C. GSK
D. any of these
67. It is how the primary designates the
secondary as a designation or recipient of data.
A. Line turnaround
B. Selection
C. Line control
D. Control protocol
68. It is the process of compressing and
expanding and is a means of improving the
dynamic range of a communications system.
A. Pre-emphasis
B. Filtering
C. De-emphasis
D. Companding
69. The supergroup pilot is
A. applied at each multiplexing bay
B. used to regulate the gain of individual
repeaters
C. applied at each adjustable equalizer
D. fed in at a GTE
70. The time it takes to transmit one TDM frame
is called _____
A. Slot time
B. Frame time
C. Transmission time
D. any of these
71. It is the thermal noise power normalized to

1-Hz bandwidth
A. power density ratio
B. thermal noise
C. noise power density
D. ambient temperature noise
72. It is the procedure used to decide which
device has the permission to transmit at any
given time.
A. Flow control
B. Sequence control
C. Line control
D. Frame
73. Any rounded-off errors in the transmitted
signal are reproduced when the code is
converted back to analog in the receiver
A. Aperture error
B. Quantization error
C. Aperture distortion
D. Slope overload
74. The biggest disadvantage of PCM is
A. its inability to handle analog signals
B. the high error rate which is quantizing
noise introduces
C. its incompatibility with TDM
D. the large bandwidths that are
required for it
75. T1 stands for
A. Transmission one
B. Telecommunication one
C. Telex one
D. Transmission line one
76. Involves compression in the transmitter after
the input pulse has been converted to a linear
PCM code and then expansion in the receiver

prior to PCM coding
A. analog companding
B. A-law companding
C. digital companding
D. u-law companding
77. Mark and space refer respectively to
A. dot and dash
B. message and interval
C. binary 1 and binary 0
D. on and off
78. Variation of biphase that is used for
encoding SMPTE (Society of Motion Picture
and Television Engineers) time code data and
for recording on video tapes
A. Biphase-M
B. B8Z
C. Manchester
D. UPNRZ
79. Pulse-width modulation may be generated
A. by differentiating pulse-position
modulation
B. with a monostable multivibrator
C. by integrating the signal
D. with a free-running multivibrator
80. The ISDN channel D designates _____
which contains control information.
A. Data
B. Flow
C. Control
D. Bearer
81. A transmission of binary data which
involves the transmission of two non-zero
voltage level
A. Unipolar
B. Polar
C. Bipolar
D. Nonreturn to Zero
82. Switching systems
A. improve the efficiency of data
transfer
B. are not used in data systems
C. require additional lines
D. are limited to small data networks
83. It involves converting standard logic levels
to a form more suitable to telephone
transmission lines
A. Transmission line encoding
B. Physical line encoding
C. Digital line encoding
D. Multiplexing
84. The primary advantage of digital
transmission
A. economical
B. reliability
C. noise immunity
D. efficiency
85. Part of the PCM system that prevents
aliasing or foldover distortion
A. Bandpass filter
B. Anti-foldover distortion
C. Anti-aliasing
D. Any of these
86. It is defined as the process of transforming
messages or signals in accordance with a
definite set of rules.
A. Quantizing
B. Sampling
C. Coding
D. Decoding
87. The PCM code for each channel occupies a
fixed time slot called
A. Frame time
B. Baud
C. Transmission line
D. Epoch
88. The building block of a parity or BCC
generator is _____.
A. Shift register
B. XOR
C. 2-to-4 level converter
D. UART
89. An IC that contains A/D and D/A
converters, companders, and parallel-to-serial
converters is called a
A. Codec
B. Data converter
C. Multiplexer
D. Modem
90. Data Communications refers to the
transmission of
A. voice
B. video
C. computer data
D. all of above
91. The number of amplitude, frequency, or
phase changes that take place per second is
known as the
A. data rate in bits per second
B. frequency of operation
C. speed limit
D. baud rate
92. The basic modulator and demodulator

circuits in PSK are
A. PLLs
B. Balanced modulators
C. Shift registers
D. Linear summers
93. What is the result if the input of ADC is
changing while performing vonersion?
A. Aperture error
B. Overload distortion
C. Aliasing
D. Aperture distortion
94. Information capacity is convenient to
express as
A. baud
B. bits
C. dot length
D. bits per second or bps
95. Which medium is the least susceptible to
noise?
A. twin lead
B. fiber-optic cable
C. twisted pair
D. coax
96. The RS-232 interface
A. interconnects data sets and
transmission circuits
B. uses several different connectors
C. permits custom wiring of signal lines
to the connector pins as desired
D. all of the above
97. The ISDN channel B designates _____
A. Bearer
B. Data
C. Control
D. Flow
98. Data transmission of the character at a time
with start and stop bits is known as what type of
transmission?
A. asynchronous
B. serial
C. synchronous
D. parallel
99. Sampling technique that when the tops of
the sample pulses retain their natural shape
during the sample interval
A. unnatural sampling
B. flat top sampling
C. natural sampling
D. free sampling
100. A modem converts
A. Analog signals to digital
B. Digital signals to analog
C. Digital signals to analog and viceversa
D. none of these
101. It is a large scale integration chip designed
for use in telecommunication industry for
private branch exchanges, central office
switches, digital handsets and digital echo
suppressors.
A. Vocoder
B. Modem
C. Codec
D. Muldem
102. What is the type of mastergroup used for
low-capacity microwave systems?
A. A600
B. U600
C. L600
D. L400
103. An FDM hierarchy which is formed by
frequency-division multiplexing five groups
containing 12 channels each for a combined
bandwidth of 240 kHz
A. Supergroup
B. Group
C. Mastergroup
D. Jumbogroup
104. The result whenever the sampling rate is
less than the twice the highest audio frequency
A. peak limiting
B. overload distortion
C. alias
D. quantizing noise
105. The most critical and difficult part of
receiving a direct-sequence spread spectrum is
A. Frequency synthesis
B. Synchronism
C. PSN code generation
D. Carrier recovery
106. An FDM hierarchy which is formed by
frequency-division multiplexing 10 supergroups
together for a combined capacity of 600 voice
band message channels
A. Supergroup
B. Group
C. Mastergroup
D. Jumbogroup
107. It is the transmittal of digital signals
between two or more points in a
A. digital transmittal
B. digitals communications
C. digital radio
D. data communications
108. It is logically equivalent to making
telephone call through the DDD network except
no direct end-to-end connection is made
A. Normal call
B. Completed call
C. Logical call
D. Virtual call
109. It is a proposed network designed by major
telephone companies in conjunction with the
ITU-T with the intent of providing worldwide
telecommunications support for voice, data,
video, and facsimile information within the
same network.
A. ISDN
B. Broadband communications
C. ATM
D. Ethernet
110. Full duplex operation
A. requires two pairs of cables
B. can transfer data in both directions at
once
C. requires modem at both ends of the
circuit
D. all of these
111. The most widely used data
communications code is
A. Morse
B. ASCII
C. Baudot
D. EBCDIC
112. Ten bit errors in two million transmitted.

The bit error rate is
A.
B.
C.
D.
113. It is a type of FSK where the mark and
space frequencies are synchronized with the
input binary rate
A. QFSK
B. GFSK
C. CPFSK
D. GSK
114. A form of digital modulation similar to
PSK except the digital information is contained
in both the amplitude and the phase of the
transmitted carrier.
A. ASK
B. FSK
C. QAM
D. PSK
115. For a 16-PSK and a transmission system
with a 10 kHz bandwidth, determine the
maximum bit rate
A. 40,000 bps
B. 80,000 bps
C. 20,000 bps
D. 16,000 bps
116. It is an empirical record of a systems
actual bit error performance.
A. probability of error
B. error detection
C. error control
D. bit error rate
117. It is a function of the carrier-to-noise

power ration and the number of possible
encoding conditions used
A. probability of error
B. error detection
C. error control
D. bit error rate
118. It is used to compare two or more digital
modulation systems that use different
transmission rates, modulation scheme or
encoding techniques
A. Energy per bit-to-noise power
density ratio
B. Noise power density
C. power density ratio
D. carrier-to-noise ratio
119. Indicate which of the following is not a
binary code.
A. Morse
B. Baudot
C. CCITT-2
D. ARQ
120. To permit the selection of 1 out of 16
equiprobable events, the number of bits required
is
A. 2
B. log 16 base 10
C. 8
D. 4
121. The type of modulation most often used
with direct-sequence spread spectrum is
A. QAM
B. SSB
C. FSK
D. PSK
122. Indicate the false statement. In order to
combat noise,
A. the channel bandwidth may be
increased
B. redundancy may be used
C. the transmitted power may be
increased
D. the signaling rate may be reduced
123. Which of the following is not commonly
used method of error detection?
A. Parity
B. BCC
C. CRC
D. redundancy
A. time-division multiplex
B. frequency-division multiplex
D. pulse width modulation
125. In order to reduce quantizing noise, one
must
A. increase the number of standard
amplitudes
B. send pulses whose sides are more
nearly vertical
C. use an RF amplifier in the receiver
D. increase the number of samples per
second
126. Companding is used
A. to overcome quantizing noise in PCM
B. in PCM transmitters, to allow
amplitude limiting in the receivers
C. to protect small signals in PCM

from quantizing distortion
D. in PCM receivers, to overcome
impulse noise
127. Transmitting data as serial binary words is
called _____.
A. digital communications
B. quantizing
C. PAM
D. PCM
128. Emphasizing low-level signals and
compressing higher-level signals is called
A. quantizing
B. companding
C. pre-emphasis
D. sampling
129. Which circuit is common to both
frequency-hopping and direct-sequence spread
spectrum transmitters?
A. Correlator
B. Frequency synthesizer
C. PSN code generator
D. Sweep generator
130. One of the most important aspect of any
communication system because its costly and
limited
A. bandwidth
B. equipments
C. time
D. personnel
131. It consist essentially of sampling analog
information signals and then converting those
samples into discreet pulses of transporting the
pulses from a source to destination over a

physical transmission medium
A. pulse modulation
B. amplitude modulation
C. frequency modulation
D. digital modulation
132. He is credited with inventing PCM in 1937
A. N.S. Kapany
B. A.H. Reeves
C. E.H. Alpine
D. A.C.S. Van Heel
133. Data communications uses
A. analog methods
B. digital methods
C. either of these
D. neither of these
134. An integrated circuit that performs the
PCM encoding and decoding functions
A. Codec
B. Modem
C. Muldem
D. Digital-to-analog converter
135. A synchronous transmission usually begins
with which character?
A. SYN
B. STX
C. SOH
D. ETB
136. A theorem that establishes the minimum
sampling rate that can be used for a given PCM
systems
A. Nyquist sampling theorem
B. Nyquist minimum bandwidth
C. Nyquist minimum bandwidth
D. Any of these
137. Sixteen different levels (symbols) are used
to encode binary data. The channel bandwidth is
36 MHz. the maximum channel capacity is
A. 187 Mbps
B. 72 Mbps
C. 288 Mbps
D. 2.176 Gbps
138. Assigning PCM codes to absolute
magnitudes
A. Coding
B. Quantizing
C. Sampling
D. Any of these
139. A popular PC protocol is
A. Parity
B. Xmodem
C. CRC
D. LRC
140. It is the ratio of the largest possible
magnitude to the smallest possible magnitude
that can be decoded by the digital-to-analog
converter in the receiver
A. Coding efficiency
B. Companding
C. Pre-emphasis
D. Dynamic range
141. Devices used for digitizing speech signals
only
A. codec
B. muldem
C. vocoders
D. modem
142. What is the minimum bandwidth required

to transmit 56 kbps binary signal with no noise?
A. 14 kHz
B. 56 kHz
C. 28 kHz
D. 112 kHz
143. Type of PCM that uses single-bit PCM
code to achieve digital transmission of analog
signals
A. Adaptive delta modulation
C. Differential modulation
D. Delta modulation
144. It is a delta modulation system where the
step size of the Digital-to-Analog converter is
automatically varied, depending on the analog
input signal
A. Adaptive delta modulation
C. Differential modulation
D. Delta modulation
145. A QAM modulator does not use _____
A. XNOR
B. Bit splitter
C. Balanced modulator
D. 2-to-4 level converter
146. It is a form of phase-division multiplexing
where two data channels modulate the same
carrier frequency that is shifted 90 degrees in
phase.
A. PSK
B. FSK
C. QAM
D. ASK
147. One eight0bit PCM code is called ______

A. FDM frame
B. TDM time slot
C. TDM frame
D. FDM time slot
148. It is a communication system that uses
digital pulse rather than analog signals to
encode information
A. Digital carrier system
B. Digital baseband system
C. Digital service system
D. Digital broadband system
149. A special device that upgrades signals from
one level to a higher level of the hierarchy in
multiplexing
A. Muldem
B. Vocoder
C. Modem
D. Codec
150. A transmission of binary data which
involves the transmission of only a single nonzero voltage level.
A. Unipolar
B. Polar
C. Bipolar
D. Nonreturn to zero
151. If the active time of the binary pulse is less
than 100% of the bit time
A. Non return to zero
B. Bipolar
C. Unipolar
D. Return to zero
152. It is a popular type of line encoding that

produces a strong timing component for clock
recovery and does not cause wandering
A. Digital biphase
B. diphase
C. Manchester code
D. Any of these
153. Statistical TDMs are also called
A. Intelligent TDMs
B. Asynchronous TDM
C. Stat mux
D. Any of these
154. A chip that combines the codec and filter
functions in the same LSI chip
A. Monolithic
B. Combo chip
C. Film IC
D. Hybrid chip
155. It is the basic building block of FDM
hierarchy
A. Character channel
B. Broadband channel
C. Message channel
D. Information capacity
156. It is the next higher level in the FDM
hierarchy above the basic message channel and
consequently is the first multiplexing step for
combining message channels
A. Supergroup
B. Group
C. Mastergroup
D. Jumbogroup
157. It is the modulating signal in a
communications system
A. Broadband
B. Baseband
C. Carrier
D. Any of these
158. What type of mastergroup that can be
further multiplexed and used for higher-capacity
microwave radio systems?
A. A600
B. U600
C. L600
D. L400
159. It is essentially the same with FDM, where
several signals are transmitted using different
carriers, occupying non-overlapping bands of
frequency and wavelengths.
A. Time division multiplexing
B. Wave division multiplexing
C. Space division multiplexing
D. Frequency division multiplexing
160. In order to separate channels in the TDM
receiver, it is necessary to use
A. AND gates
B. bandpass filters
C. differentiation
D. integration
161. To separate channels in an FDM receiver,
it is necessary to use
A. AND gates
B. bandpass filters
C. differentiation
D. integration
162. In FDM, multiple signals
A. transmit at different times
B. share a common bandwidth
C. use multiple channels

D. modulate one another
163. Frequency modulation in FDM usually
accomplished with a
A. reactance modulator
B. varactor
C. VCO
D. PLL
LAN medium?
A. twin lead
B. twisted pair
C. fiber-optic cable
D. coax
165. A mainframe computer connected to
multiple terminals and PCs usually uses which
configuration?
A. bus
B. ring
C. star
D. tree
166. How many voice channels are there in
supermaster group?
A. 300
B. 900
C. 3600
D. 10800
167. In a PAM/TDM system, keeping the
multiplexer and DEMUX channels step with
one another is done by a
A. clock recovery circuit
B. sync pulse
C. sampling
D. sequencer
168. It is the process of volume compression

before transmission and expansion after
detection.
A. pre-emphasis
B. de-emphasis
C. coding
D. companding
169. Which of the following is correct?
A. The bit rate may be greater than
the baud rate
B. The baud rate may be greater than the
bit rate
C. The bit and baud rate are always the
same
D. The bit and baud rates are not related
170. Function of data link protocol that
coordinates the rate at which data are
transported over a link and generally provides
an acknowledgement mechanism that ensures
that data are received in the destination.
A. Flow control
B. Line discipline
C. Polling
D. Selection
171. A classification of protocol, which is a
discipline for a serial-by-bit information transfer
over data communications channel.
A. Message oriented
B. Bit-oriented protocol
C. Clock oriented protocol
D. Asynchronous protocol
172. A LAN device that interconnects two or
more device running identical internetwork
protocols.
A. Bridges
B. Gateways
C. Switches
D. Routers
173. The magnitude of a quantum in
quantization of PCM codes.
A. Maximum decodable voltage
B. Dynamic range
C. Resolution
D. Coding level
174. It comprises of either a single L600
mastergroup or up to three U600 mastergroups
A. Message channel
B. Radio channel
C. Baseband channel
D. Wide channel
175. It is a multiplexing system similar to
conventional time-division multiplexing except
that it was developed to be used with optical
fibers
A. SONET
B. Frame relay
C. ATM
D. X.25
176. Higher order TDM levels are obtained by
A. dividing pulse widths
B. using the a-law
C. using u-law
D. forming supermastergroups
177. Results when the sample exceeds the
highest quantization interval
A. Overload distortion
B. Quantization error
C. Quantization noise
D. Granular noise
178. The event which marked the start of the
modern computer age was
A. design of the ENIAC computer
B. development of Hollerith code
C. development of the transistor
D. development of disk drives for data
storage
179. A forward error correcting code corrects
errors by
A. requiring partial transmission of the
entire signal
B. requiring retransmission of the entire
signal
C. requiring no part of the signal to be
transmitted
D. using parity to correct the errors in all
cases
180. The carrier used with a BPSK demodulator
is
A. Generated by an oscillator
B. The BPSK signal itself
C. Twice the frequency of the
transmitted carrier
D. Recovered from the BPSK signal
181. Digital signals
A. do not provide a continuous set of
values
B. represent values as discrete steps
C. can utilize decimal or binary systems
D. all of these
182. Each signal in an FDM signal
A. modulates the main carrier
B. modulates the final carrier
C. is mixed with all the others before

modulation
D. serves as a subcarrier
183. In digital modulation, if the information
signal is digital and the amplitude of the carrier
is varied proportional to the information signal.
A. Quartenary Shift Keying (QAM)
B. Phase Shift Keying (PSK)
C. Frequency Shift Keying (FSK)
D. Amplitude Shift Keying (ASK)
184. Slow speed modems
A. FSK
B. BPSK
C. QPSK
D. QAM
185. The data rate for IEEE 802.11b is _____.
A. 10 Mbps
B. 1.544 Mbps
C. 2.048 Mbps
D. 11 Mbps
186. Type of analog companding used in the
United States and Japan
A. log-PCM companding
B. A-law companding
C. u-law companding
D. any of these
187. A rule of procedure that defines how data
is to be transmitted is called
A. handshake
B. error-detection
C. data specifications
D. protocol
188. A longitudinal redundancy check produces
A. block check character
B. parity bit
C. CRC
D. error correction
189. Multiplexing is the process of
A. Several signal sources transmitting
simultaneously to a receiver on common
frequency
B. Sending the same signal over multiple
channels to multiple destinations
C. Transmitting multiple signals over
multiple channels
D. Sending multiple signals
simultaneously over a single channel
190. What is the relationship of bit rate and
baud in QPSK and 8-PSK?
A. bit rate is greater than baud
B. bit rate is always less than the baud
C. bit rate is never greater than the baud
D. bit rate is slightly less than the baud
191. A common method of achieving carrier
recovery for BPSK
A. Trellis code
B. Bandwidth efficiency
C. Squaring loop
D. Carrier recovery
192. What is the relationship of bit rate and
baud in FSK and PSK?
A. greater than
B. slightly greater than
C. less than
D. equal
193. The modulation used in FDM telephone
system is
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. PSK
194. In digital modulation, a diagram which is
similar to phasor diagram except that the entire
phasor is not drawn and only the peaks of the
phasor are shown
A. constellation diagram
B. Venn diagram
C. phasor diagram
D. schematic diagram
195. Digital signals may be transmitted over the
telephone network if
A. their speed is low enough
B. they are converted to analog first
C. they are ac instead of dc
D. they are digital only
196. Most FDM telemetry system use
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. PSK
197. In TDM, multiple signals
A. share a common bandwidth
B. modulate subcarriers
C. are sampled at high speeds
D. take turns transmitting
198. It is highly theoretical study of efficient use
of bandwidth to propagate information through
electronic communications system
A. information capacity
B. data communications
C. information theory
D. information technology
199. Another name for parity is

A. Vertical redundancy check
B. Block check character
C. Longitudinal redundancy check
D. Cyclic redundancy check
200. It is the process of gathering data on some
particular phenomenon without the presesnce of
human monitors
A. Telemetry
B. Telecommand
C. Telecommunications
D. Remote control
201. A convenient technique for determining the
effects of the degradations introduced into the
pulses as they travel to the regenerator.
A. Standing wave ratio
B. Eye patterns
C. Reflection coefficient
D. Any of these
202. Spread spectrum stations sharing a band
are identified by and distinguished from one
another
A. PSN code
B. Frequency of operation
C. Clock rate
D. Modulation type
203. The ASCII code has
A. 4 bits
B. 5 bits
C. 7 bits
D. 8 bits
204. The first file transfer protocol designed to
facilitate transferring data between two personal
computers over the public switched telephone

network
A. X modem protocol
B. Y modem protocol
C. Z modem protocol
D. BLAST
205. For a single-channel PCM system with a
sample rate of 6000 samples per second and a
seven-bit compressed PCM code, what is the
line speed?
A. 21,000 bps
B. 42,000 bps
C. 14,000 bps
D. 12,000 bps
206. It is often used to compare the performance
of one digital modulation technique to another
A. Bandwidth efficiency
B. Spectral efficiency
C. Information density
D. All of these
207. It is the process of extracting a phasecoherent reference carrier from a receiver signal
A. Phase referencing
B. Trellis code
C. Squaring loop
D. any of these
208. It is the measure of how much information
can be propagated through a communication
system and is a function of a bandwidth of the
transmission line
A. information theory
B. information capacity
C. information technology
D. digital communications
209. In delta modulation, the modulator is

sometimes called _____.
A. continuous ADC
B. tracking ADC
C. variable slope ADC
D. slope ADC
210. The code which provides for parity checks
is
A. Baudot
B. ASCII
C. CCITT-2
D. EBCDIC
211. Form of multiplexing that constitutes
propagating signals from different cables that
sre contained within the same trench
A. Wavelength division multiplexing
B. Wave division multiplexing
C. Space division multiplexing
D. Frequency division multiplexing
212. For an 8-PSK system, operating with an
information bit rate of 24 kbps, determine the
bandwidth efficiency
A. 8 bits/cycle
B. 2 bits/cycle
C. 3 bits/cycle
D. 4 bits/cycle
213. Element of a PCM system that periodically
samples the analog input signal and converts
those samples to a multilevel PAM signal
A. Bandpass filter
B. Sample-and-hold circuit
C. Analog-to-digital converter
D. Digital-to-analog converter
214. It is the ratio of the average carrier power

to the thermal noise power
A. Signal-to-noise ratio
B. Noise figure
C. Noise factor
D. Carrier-to-noise ratio
215. A form of switching which is hold and
forward
A. Packet switching
B. Message switching
C. Circuit switching
D. Digital switching
216. It can be used to categorize the type of
transmission
A. Duty cycle
B. Companding
C. Coding efficiency
D. Dynamic range
217. Type of multiplexing where multiple
sources that originally occupied the same
frequency spectrum are each converted to a
different frequency band and transmitted
simultaneously over a single transmission
medium.
A. FDM
B. ATM
C. TDM
D. Spread spectrum
218. It is a solicitation sent from the primary to
a secondary to determine if the secondary has
data to transmit
A. Selection
B. Polling
C. Error control
D. Master control
219. Function of data link control that specifies
the means of detecting and correcting
transmission errors
A. Error control
B. Selection
C. Protocol
D. Synchronization
220. The Hartley law states that
A. the maximum rate of information
transmission depends on the channel
bandwidth
B. the maximum rate of information
depends on the depth of modulation
C. redundancy is essential
D. only binary codes may be used
221. It represents the number of independent
symbols that can be carried through a system in
a given unit of time.
A. information theory
B. information capacity
C. information technology
D. digital communications
222. The Shannon-Hartley law
A. refers to distortion
B. defines the bandwidth
C. describes signaling rates
D. refers to noise
223. The most basic digital symbol used to
represent information
A. bit
B. baud
C. bits per second
D. any of these
224. Function of data link protocol that

coordinates hop-to-hop data delivery where a
hop maybe a computer, a network controller or
a network-connecting device such as router.
A. Flow control
B. Error control
C. Line discipline
D. Selection
225. Quadrature amplitude modulation is
A. Amplitude modulation only
B. QPSK only
C. AM plus QPSK
D. AM plus FSK
226. The most common modulation system used
for telegraphy is
A. frequency-shift keying
B. two-tone modulation
D. single-tone modulation
227. It is used to encode the minimum amount
of speech information necessary to reproduce a
perceptible message with a fewer bits that those
needed by a conventional encoder/decoder
A. codec
B. muldem
C. vocoders
D. modem
228. It is the transmission of information in any
form from one source to one or more destination
A. Modulation
B. Multiplexing
C. Encoding
D. Decoding
229. A form of switching which is stored and

forward
A. Packet switching
B. Message switching
C. Circuit switching
D. Digital switching
230. In digital modulation, it is similar to
standard amplitude modulation except there is
only two amplitudes possible
A. frequency shift keying
B. quartenary amplitude modulation
C. amplitude shift keying
D. phase shift keying
231. The technique of using modulation and
FDM to transmit multiple data channels of a
common medium is known as
A. baseband
B. broadband
C. ring
D. bus
232. Which of the following is not a benefit of
companding
A. minimizes noise
B. minimizes number of bits
C. minimizes quantizing error
D. minimizes signal bandwidth
233. Transmissions from multiple sources occur
in the same facility but not at the same time
A. Time Division Multiplexing
B. Frequency Division Multiplexing
C. Wave Division Multiplexing
D. Space Division Multiplexing
234. A 9600-baud rate signal can pass over the

voice grade telephone line if which kind of
modulation is used?
A. BPSK
B. QPSK
C. DPSK
D. QAM
235. Indicate which of the following pulse
modulation systems is analog
A. PCM
B. PWM
C. Differential PCM
D. Delta
236. The modulation system inherently most
noise-resistant is
A. SSB, suppressed carrier
B. frequency modulation
C. pulse-position modulation
D. pulse-code modulation
237. It is simply the number of bits transmitted
during one second and expressed in bits per
second
A. baud
B. bits
C. bit rate
D. pulse repetition rate
238. It is the most prevalent encoding technique
used for TDM signals
A. PAM
B. PLM
C. PPM
D. PCM
239. The characters making up the message in a

synchronous transmission are collectively
referred to as the data
A. set
B. sequence
C. block
D. collection
240. A virtual circuit which is logically
equivalent to a two-point dedicated private-line
circuit except slower
A. Switched Virtual Circuit
B. Permanent Virtual Circuit
C. Switched Leased Circuit
D. Permanent Leased Circuit
241. To a conventional narrowband receiver, a
spread spectrum signal appears to be like
A. Noise
B. Fading
C. A jamming signal
D. An intermittent connection
242. It is a low-quality video transmission for
use between non-dedicated subscribers
A. Digital phone
B. Picturephone
C. Cameraphone
D. Cellphone with camera
243. Pulse code modulation is preferred to PAM
because of its
A. resistance to quantizing errror
B. simplicity
C. lower cost
D. superior noise immunity
244. A CRC generator uses which component?
A. balanced modulator
B. shift register
C. binary adder
D. multiplexer
245. A signaling element is sometimes called
A. information
B. data
C. symbol
D. intelligence
246. Which of the following words has the
correct parity bit? Assume odd parity. The last
bit is the parity bit.
A. 1111111 1
B. 1100110 1
C. 0011010 1
D. 0000000 0
247. It is a digital interface that provides the
physical connection to the digital carrier
network
A. Modem
B. Codec
C. Muldem
D. DSU/CSU
248. It is the only digitally encoded modulation
technique that is commonly used for digital
transmission
A. PAM
B. PCM
C. PLM
D. PPM
249. The most common circuit used for
demodulating binary FSK signals
A. phase locked loop
B. Foster-Seeley discriminator
C. varactor
D. phase shift method

250. A digital modulation technique also known
as on-off keying
A. PSK
B. FSK
C. QUAM
D. OOK
ENCODED BY:
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN
MISCELLAN
EOUS
TOPICS
By
Melvin C. Arceo
1. It is the provision of voice communication

using Internet Protocol (IP) technology, instead
of traditional circuit switched technology
A. VOIP
B. Bluetooth
C. WIFI
D. WIMAX
2. Bluetooth enabled electronic devices connect
and communicate wirelessly through shortrange, ad hoc networks known as _____.
A. nanonet
B. scatternet
C. piconet
D. netnet
3. Each device can simultaneously communicate
with up to ______ other devices with a single
piconet.
A. 8
B. 5
C. 10
D. 7
4. The core specification version of Bluetooth
that uses Enhanced Data Rate (EDR)
A. Version 1.0
B. Version 2.0
C. Version 1.2
D. Version 2.1
5. Bluetooth technology operates in the _____
band.
A. ISM
B. C band
C. MSI
D. Ku band
6. Bluetooth technology operates in the band
A. 2.4 to 2.485 GHz
B. 2.42 to 2.44 GHz
C. 2.48 to 2.52 GHz
D. 2.3 to 2.45 GHz
7. The hopping rate of Bluetooth is
A. 1000 hops/sec
B. 1600 hops/sec
C. 1500 hops/sec
D. 2500 hops/sec
8. Technology used by Bluetooth designed to
reduce interference between wireless
technologies sharing the 2.4 GHz spectrum
A. AFH
B. DSSS
C. OFDM
D. FHSS
9. The signal hops among ______ frequencies at
1 MHz intervals to give a high degree of
interference immunity
A. 80
B. 78
C. 81
D. 79
10. Class 3 radios used for Bluetooth technology

have a range of up to
A. 1 ft
B. 2 ft
C. 3 ft
D. 4 ft
11. Class 2 radios used for Bluetooth most
commonly found in mobile devices have a range
of ______.
A. 10 ft
B. 20 ft
C. 15 ft
D. 30 ft
12. Class 1 radios used primarily in industrial
use cases have a range of
A. 100 meters
B. 25 meters
C. 10 meters
D. 50 meters
13. Bluetooth technology uses ______ of power.
A. 2.6 mW
B. 2.5 mW
C. 2,8 mW
D. 2.7 mW
14. What is the data rate used by Bluetooth
technology using version 1.2 specification?
A. 1 Mbps
B. 2 Mbps
C. 3 Mbps
D. 4 Mbps
15. What is the data rate used by Bluetooth
technology using version 2.0 + EDR
specification?
A. 1 Mbps
B. 3 Mbps
C. 2 Mbps
D. 4 Mbps
16. Bluetooth technology has built-in security
such as _____ bit encryption
A. 64
B. 16
C. 32
D. 128
17. The symbol rate for Bluetooth is
A. 1 Mega symbol per sec
B. 3 Mega symbol per sec
C. 2 Mega symbol per sec
D. 4 Mega symbol per sec
18. In satellite communications, for an angle of
inclination 0f 63.4 degrees, the rotation of the
line of apsides is ____ degrees
A. 0
B. 5
C. 15
D. 3
19. An international agreement initially
mandated that all satellites placed in the Clarke
or Geosynchronous orbit must be separated by
at least
A. 22,300 mi
B. 3400 mi
C. 1833 mi
D. 5544 mi
20. The radiation pattern of earth coverage
antennas of satellites have a beamwidth of
approximately ______.
A. 15 degrees
B. 17 degrees
C. 10 degrees
D. 11 degrees
21. ______ is a new nonvoice value added
service that allows information to be sent and
received across a mobile telephone network.
A. WiFi
B. Wimax
C. GPRS
D. HSCSD
22. Theoretical maximum speeds of up to _____
kbps are achievable with GPRS using all _____
timeslots at the same time.
A. 64, 8
B. 171.2, 8
C. 128, 7
D. 183.5, 7
23. It is the latest standard of MPEG under
development that will support download and
execution of multimedia applications.
A. MPEG-21
B. MPEG-A
C. MPEG-7
D. MPEG-E
24. A new standard line of MPEG standard
called multimedia application format is _____.
A. MPEG-A
B. MPEG-C
C. MPEG-B
D. MPEG-D
25. MPEG standard on which such products as
Digital Television set top boxes and DVD are
based
A. MPEG-1
B. MPEG-4
C. MPEG-2
D. MPEG-7
26. MPEG standard on which such products as
Video CD and MP3 are based
A. MPEG-1
B. MPEG-7
C. MPEG-21
D. MPEG-3
27. MPEG standard for multimedia for the fixed
and mobile web
A. MPEG-1
B. MPEG-4
C. MPEG-2
D. MPEG-7
28. MPEG standard for description and search
of audio and visual content.
A. MPEG-1
B. MPEG-7
C. MPEG-21
D. MPEG-3
29. The MPEG standard for the Multimedia
Framework
A. M3W
B. MPEG-4
C. MPEG-7
D. MPEG-21
30. Coding of moving pictures and associated
audio for digital storage media at up to about 1.5
Mbps.
A. MPEG-3
B. MPEG-2
C. MPEG-4
D. MPEG-1
31. Used in MPEG to remove spatial

correlation.
A. Discrete Shine Transform
B. Discreet Cosine Transform
C. Discreet Secant Transform
D. Discreet Cosecant Transform
32. MPEG-4 builds on the proven success on
one of the following fields
A. Digital television
B. Interactive multimedia
C. Interactive graphics applications
D. Any of these
33. The maximum effective power allowed for
RFID is _____.
A. 0.5 watt
B. 3 watts
C. 1 watt
D. 0.25 watt
34. The use and operation of RFIDs shall be
allowed in the following frequency bands
except:
A. 13.533-13.567 MHz
B. 2446-2454 MHz
C. 918-920 MHz
D. 254-365 MHz
35. _____ are radio systems based on local area
networking solutions that require higher data
rates and consequently greater bandwidth for
new multimedia applications spectrum
requirements
A. WIFI
B. HiperLAN
C. WIMAX
D. VOIP
36. _____ refers to the determination of the

position, velocity and/or other characteristics of
an object, or the obtaining of information
relating to these parameters, by means of the
propagation properties of radio waves.
A. position determination
B. radio determination
C. velocity determination
D. range determination
37. Radio microphones has power of _____ mW
or less.
A. 20
B. 40
C. 30
D. 50
38. _____ referred to as wireless microphones
or cordless microphones, are small, low power,
unidirectional transmitters designed to be worn
on the body, or hand held, for the transmission
of sound over short distances for personal use.
A. directional microphone
B. parabolic microphone
C. radio microphone
D. spy microphone
39. _____ are intended to carry data in suitable
transporters, generally known as tags, and to
retrieve data, by hand- or manine-readable
means, at a suitable time and place to satisfy
particular application needs.
A. RFID
B. HiperLan
C. transponder tags
D. bluetooth
40. _____ also referred to as dedicated shortrange communications for transport information
and control systems are systems providing data
communication between two or more road
vehicles and between road vehicles and the road
infrastructure for various information-based
travel and transport applications, including
automatic toll-collection, route and parking
guidance, collision avoidance and similar
applications.
A. RTTY
B. TICS
C. RTTT
D. RSSD
41. _____ for use with implanted medical
devices, like pacemakers, implantable
defibrillators, nerve stimulators, and other types
of implanted devices.
A. MICS
B. TICS
C. AIDS
D. PACER
42. What is the frequency band for biomedical
devices?
A. 40.66-40.70 MHz
B. 13.90-14.40 MHz
C. 50.44-51.09 MHz
D. 32.10-33.89 MHz
43. The electric field intensity of biomedical
devices?
A. 1000 V/m at 3m
B. 10 V/m at 3m
C. 100 V/m at 3m
D. 1 V/m at 3m
44. _____ refers to the use of radio

communication devices for the transmission of
signals to initiate, modify or terminate functions
of equipment at a distance.
A. telemetry
B. wireless application
C. telecommand
D. radio beacon
45. The data rate used by IEEE 802.11b
A. 11 Mbps
B. 55 Mbps
C. 54 Mbps
D. 12 Mbps
46. The operating frequency of IEEE 802.11b
A. 2.4 GHz
B. 5.5 GHz
C. 5 GHz
D. 2.5 GHz
47. The operating frequency of IEEE 802.11a
A. 2.5 GHz
B. 5 GHz
C. 5.5 GHz
D. 2.1 GHz
48. The data rate of IEEE 802.11a
A. 55 Mbps
B. 53 Mbps
C. 54 Mbps
D. 50 Mbps
49. _____ is a standards-based wireless
technology that provides high-throughput
broadband connections over long distances.
A. Wimax
B. Wibro
C. Wifi
D. Winar
50. _____ is a wireless broadband technology
being developed by the Korean telecoms
industry.
A. Wimax
B. Wibro
C. Wifi
D. Winar
51. What is the operating frequency of Wibro?
A. 2.1 GHz
B. 2.3 GHz
C. 2.2 GHz
D. 2.4 GHz
52. What is the base station data throughout for
Wibro?
A. 30 to 50 Mbps
B. 40 to 60 Mbps
C. 50 to 70 Mbps
D. 60 to 80 Mbps
53. The maximum radius for Wibro is ____.
A. 2 km
B. 3 km
C. 4 km
D. 5 km
54. _____ is a published specification set of
high level communication protocols designed to
use small, low-power digital radios based on the
IEEE 802.15.4 standard for wireless personal
area networks.
A. bluetooth
B. wpan
C. zigbee
D. wlan
55. In a Zigbee network, a single device that

controls the network is called _____.
A. master
B. server
C. coordinator
D. pointer
56. Devices being controlled in a zigbee
network are known as _____.
A. end devices
B. clients
C. slaves
D. beggars
57. The modulation scheme used by IEEE
802.11b
A. OFDM
B. CCK
C. QPSK
D. FDM
58. The modulation scheme used by IEEE
802.11a
A. OFDM
B. CCK
C. QPSK
D. FDM
59. The World Wide Web or WWW was
invented in the year _____.
A. 1991
B. 1990
C. 1989
D. 1995
60. He invented the World Wide Web or WWW
A. Karel Capek
B. Tim Berners-Lee
C. Jon Von Neumann
D. Bill Gates
61. The number of satellites used by GLONASS
A. 30
B. 26
C. 24
D. 31
62. A 3G technology that delivers broadbandlike data speeds to mobile devices.
A. EDGE
B. HSCSD
C. VOIP
D. 3GSM
63. ADSL has maximum distance of _____.
A. 16,000 feet
B. 8,000 feet
C. 18,000 feet
D. 12,000 feet
64. ______ is an implementation of ADSL that
automatically adjusts the connection speed to
adjust for the quality of the telephone line.
A. ADSL
B. SDSL
C. RADSL
D. HDSL
65. A type of DSL that was developed to
support exceptionally high-bandwidth
applications such as High-Definition Television
(HDTV).
A. VDSL
B. SDSL
C. ADSL
D. XDSL
66. A method for moving data over regular
phone lines which is much faster than a regular
phone connection and the wires coming into the

subscribers premises are the same copper wires
used for regular phone service.
A. VOIP
B. DSL
C. Cable Internet
D. POTS
67. What is the IEEE designation for Bluetooth?
A. 802.15
B. 802.14
C. 802.10
D. 802.16
68. The IEEE designation for wireless LAN
A. 802.12
B. 802.13
C. 802.5
D. 802.11
69. The IEEE designation for broadband
wireless network
A. 802.16
B. 802.15
C. 802.14
D. 802.13
70. The file extension for jpeg
A. .jpg
B. .jpe
C. .jfif
D. any of these
71. In SMS, the number of characters being sent
in the network is _____ when Latin alphabet is
used.
A. 80
B. 160
C. 65
D. 100
72. In SMS, the number of characters being sent
in the network is _____ when non-Latin
alphabet is used.
A. 50
B. 60
C. 70
D. 80
73. It is an enhancement of data services of all
current GSM networks, it allows you to access
nonvoice services at 3 times faster
A. GPRS
B. HSCSD
C. VOIP
D. 3GSM
74. A language derived from HTML especially
for wireless network characteristics.
A. Delphi
B. PHP
C. Pearl
D. WML
75. The founding father of the Internet
A. Tim Burners-Lee
B. Vinton Gray Cerf
C. Jon Von Neumann
D. Carel Kapek
76. What term is used by in asynchronous
transfer mode (ATM) system to describe a byte?
A. harmonic
B. octet
C. actave
D. bit
77. The relative permittivity of silicon is _____
A. 11.7
B. 1.17
C. 1.18
D. 11.8
78. One of the following is NOT classified as a
Customer Premises Equipment (CPE) by the
NTC.
A. Automatic Teller Machine
B. Videophone Terminal Equipment
C. VSAT
D. ISDN Terminal Equipment
79. Zigbee network layer supports the following
topologies except:
A. tree
B. bus
C. star
D. mesh
80. An Internet Messaging service can be either
_____.
A. user-based or company based
B. sender-based or receiver based
C. network-based or device-based
D. feature-based or attachment-based
81. The level of ____ within an IM program
brings up the issue of privacy.
A. users signed up
B. advertising
C. technology
D. presence awareness
82. One reason behind the success of the
Internet is the fact that it is built on _____.
A. open standard
B. user trust
C. safe architecture
D. solid ground
83. Which of the following is not an additional

revenue opportunity offered by advance
messaging services?
A. electronic commerce
B. advertising
C. targeted marketing
D. taxes
84. ADSL increases existing twisted-pair access
capacity by _____.
A. twofold
B. threefold
C. thirtyfold
D. fiftyfold
85. What appears to be the practical limit for
analog modems over a standard telephone?
A. 33 kbps
B. 28.8 kbps
C. 24 kbps
D. 19.2 kbps
86. Which of the parameters will need to be
incorporated into next generation billing
solutions to calculate new 3G charges?
A. number of packets
B. location
C. quality of service
D. any of these
87. Which of the following is not considered as
3G service?
A. streaming video
B. wireless voice
C. interactive shopping
D. on-line banking and stock trading
88. ATM timing requirements feature _____
elements.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 32
D. 64
89. All are required for broadband media
services delivery over IP except:
A. high bandwidth
B. a broadband connection
C. a narrowband connection
D. DSL
90. All are network components for broadband
media services except
A. video server
B. catv box
C. set-top box
D. video encoder
91. A Cable Modem Termination System
(CMTS) provides an Ethernet network with a
geographic reach of up to _____.
A. 1 mile
B. 10 miles
C. 100 miles
D. any of these
92. The upstream data channel specification
requirement for cable modem feature which of
the following?
A. 64 and 256 QAM formats
B. data rates from 320 kbps to 10
Mbps
C. 6 MHz-occupied spectrum that
coexists with other signals in the cable plant
D. all of the above
93. DWDM enables different formats, such as
______, to be transmitted over the optical layer.
A. IP and ATM
B. ATM and SONET
C. SONET and SDH
D. all of the above
94. Future DWDM terminals will have the
capacity to transmit _____ volumes of an
encyclopedia in one second.
A. 90
B. 250
C. 1500
D. 90000
95. DWDM allows the transmission of _____
over the optical layer.
A. voice and e-mail
B. multimedia and video
C. data
D. all of the above
96. Which of the following is expected to take
the largest share of the three DSL varieties?
A. SDSL
B. HDSL
C. ADSL
D. IDSL
97. Which of the following standards defines
procedures and message sequences used for fax
communications?
A. T.10
B. T.30
C. T.37
D. T.38
98. The _____ is a particular set of standards
that allows the internetworking of products from
different vendors. It usually embodies a fiber-
optic ring that will permit transmission in both

directions.
A. local-area network (LAN)
B. wide-area network (WAN)
C. synchronous optical network
(SONET)
D. common channel signaling network
99. H.255 can be defined as _____.
A. media stream control
B. control signaling
C. call signaling
D. media stream transport
A. media stream control
B. control signaling
C. media stream transport
D. registration and admission
A. multimedia services over B-ISDN
B. multimedia services over guaranteed
QoS networks
C. multimedia services over packet
networks
D. multimedia services over SCN
A. multimedia services over B-ISDN
B. multimedia services over guaranteed
QoS networks
C. multimedia services over packet
networks
D. multimedia services over ISDN
103. One of the major advances that result from
implementing intelligent networks is that _____.
A. computers no longer have control

over the network
B. wide-area service outages are much
less likely
C. services can be adapted to user
needs more efficiently
D. service providers are now limited to a
single equipment provider
104. The development of the intelligent network
places increased emphasis on a consistent
_____.
A. switch model
B. network model
C. intelligence model
D. call model
105. How many layers are there to the PCS air
resistance?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
106. What is the maximum possible number of
characters in a PCS message?
A. 64
B. 256
C. 1021
D. 239
107. Signaling units are broken up into units of
how many bits?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
108. Two digital signals whose transitions occur

at almost the same rate are _____.
A. asynchronous
B. synchronous
C. plesiochronous
D. none of these
109. Which of the following are not basic
SONET network elements?
A. switch interference
B. digital loop carrier
C. service control point
D. add/drop multiplexer
110. Higher-order SDH cross-connects route
what entity?
A. 1.5 Mbps
B. ATM cells
C. management data channels
D. payload within 155 Mbps
111. Scrambling is used in SDH for which
reason?
A. to randomize the bit sequence for
better transmission performance
B. to reduce the power consumption of
equipment
C. to allow for upgrade to higher bit
rates
D. to prevent unauthorized access
112. FDMA allocated ____ users per channel.
A. 1
B. 3
C. 6
D. 10
113. The G.723.1 specification for audio codecs,
recommended by the VoIP Forum, requires:
A. 6.3 kbps
B. 7.9 kbps
C. 8.4 kbps
D. 10.4 kbps
114. ITUs H.320 standard defines the protocols
for transporting voice, data and video over;
A. PSTN
B. ISDN networks
C. the public internet
D. GSM network
115. Which of the following is not a layer in the
WAP gateway stack?
A. WDP
B. context manager
C. TCP
D. WSP
116. Queries to the HLR are performed to find
the location of the serving MSC in _____.
A. TDMA
B. CDMA
C. GSM
D. all of the above
117. The SMSC delivers messages directly to
the _____.
A. HLR
B. VLR
C. MSC
D. BSC
118. Which of the following pairs of
technologies use IS-41?
A. GSM and TDMA
B. CDMA and GSM
C. TDMA and CDMA
D. all of the above
119. Which of the following technologies has

significant advantages in medium-density and
high-density population areas because it is
capable of carrying higher levels of traffic,
provides better voice quality, and can transmit
data at higher rates?
A. GSM
B. PCS
C. CT-2
D. DECT
120. IS-41 is a standard currently being
embraced by wireless providers because it
encourages _____.
A. increased network capabilities
B. paging
C. roaming
D. all of the above
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN
CELLULAR
TELEPHONY
By
Melvin C. Arceo
ENCODED BY:
1. Base station transmitter output power of
Improved Mobile System (IMTS)
A.100-W to 200-W range

B. 200-W to 300-W range
C. 150-W to 400-W range
D. 300-W to 400-W range
2. The chipping rate of WCDMA (UMTS)
A. 3.84 Mcps
B. 3.6484 Mcps
C. 1.25 Mcps
D. 1.22 Mcps
3. A technique that divides the group of
channels into smaller groupings or
segments of mutually exclusive
frequencies; cell sites, which are within
the reuse distance is assigned their own
segment of the channel group
A.
B.
C.
D.
sectoring
dualization
partitioning
segmentation
4. The actual voice channel where mobile

users communicate directly with other
mobile or wireline subscriber through
the base station
A.
B.
C.
D.
control channel
forward channel
reverse channel
voice channel
5. Supervisory Audio Tones(SAT) have the

following frequencies except:
D. 5.1 ms
A.
B.
C.
D.
5940 Hz
5970 Hz
6000 Hz
6030 Hz
6. Each cell site contains a

A.
B.
C.
D.
Repeater
Control computer
Direct-link to a branch exchange
Touch-tone processor
7. A class II mobile phone using AMPS

has an ERP of
A.
B.
C.
D.
-6dBW
-4dBW
2dBW
6dBW
8. The wideband designation in WidebandCDMA (WCDMA) denotes a bandwidth

of
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.5 MHz
3 MHz
4.5 MHz
5MHz
9. An automobile travels at 60km/hr. Find

the time between fades in the car uses a
PCS phone at 1900 MHz.
A. 2.4 ms
B. 3.4 ms
C. 4.7 ms
10. A cellular system is capable of coping

with handoffs once every 2 minutes.
Suppose this system is in the city with
maximum car speeds of 65km/hr. What
is the maximum cell radius for this urban
system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.08 km
3 km
5 km
2 km
11. How wide is the spectrum bandwidth of

a single GSM carrier?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16 kHz
200 kHz
100 kHz
50 kHz
12. Changing the time order of digital

information before transmission to
reduce the effect of burst errors in the
channel.
A.
B.
C.
D.
progression
interleaving
epoch
raking
13. The bandwidth of WCDMA is ___ times

larger than GSM.
A. 5
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
14. It is the process in which the same set of
frequencies can be allocated to more
than one cell, provided that the cells are
separated by a sufficient distance
A.
B.
C.
D.
frequency reuse
handoff
clustering
radio survey
15. A connection is momentarily broken

during the cell-to-cell transfer is called
______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
hard handoff
soft handoff
medium handoff
light handoff
16. Transmission from mobile stations to the

base stations is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
forward link
reverse link
control link
user link
17. It is a database in the PCS network that

stores information about the user,
including home subscription information
and what supplementary services the
user is subscribed to.
A. visitor location register
B. home location register

C. equipment identification register
D. authentication register
18. Determine the transmit power for a
CDMA mobile unit that is receiving a
signal from the base station at 100 dBm
A.
B.
C.
D.
12 dBm
24 dBm
36 dBm
14 dBm
19. When transmitting digital information,

voice transmission is inhibited, this is
called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
quieting
muting
blank-and-burst
any of these
20. A metropolitan area of 1000 square km

is to be covered by cells with a radius of
2 km. How many cell sites would be
required, assuming hexagonal cells?
A.
B.
C.
D.
72
73
74
75
21. Refers to a land station in a maritime

mobile services
A. coast station
B. maritime station
C. coast earth station

D. ship earth station
22. Class of orthogonal spreading coded
used in CDMA communication.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Color code
Walsh code
PCS code
CDMA
23. In a spread spectrum system, the

tendency for a stronger signals to
interfere with the reception of weaker
signals.
A.
B.
C.
D.
near-far field
near-far effect
direct-sequence
spread-spectrum
24. Macrocells have base stations transmit

power between _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
3W to 7W
1W to 6W
2W to 8W
0.1W to 5W
25. It is when the area of a cell, or

independent component coverage areas
of a cellular system, is further divided,
thus creating more cell areas.
A. cell splitting
B. cell clustering
C. cell partitioning
D. cell sectoring
26. It is when a mobile unit moves from one
cell to another from one company's
service area to another company's
service area.
A.
B.
C.
D.
roaming
handoff
handover
paging
27. It is a 34-bit binary code that represents

the 10-digit telephone number
A.
B.
C.
D.
electronic serial number

system identification
digital color code
mobile identification number
28. The bandwidth of WCDMA is __ times

larger than CDMAone.
A.
B.
C.
D.
4
5
6
7
29. Receive channel 22 is 870.66 MHz.

Receive channel 23 is
A.
B.
C.
D.
870.36 MHz
870.63 MHz
870.96 MHz
870.69 MHz
30. In mobile wireless communication, the

radio equipment and the propagation
path
A.
B.
C.
D.
FSL
air interface
direct link
mobile interface
31. The signaling fone may be transmitted

on the voice channel during a call in
what frequency?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25 kHz
20 kHz
15 kHz
10 kHz
32. Station in the mobile service not

intended to be used while in motion.
A.
B.
C.
D.
base station
fixed station
coast station
land station
33. In the GSM system, a "smart card"

containing all user information, which is
inserted into the phone before use.
A.
B.
C.
D.
IMSI
IMEI
IMTS
SIM
34. Determine the number of channels per

cluster of a cellular telephone area
comprised of 10 clusters with seven cells

in each cluster and 10 channels in each
cell.
A.
B.
C.
D.
70 channels per cluster

35. Determine the channel capacity if 7

macrocells with 10 channels per cell is
split into 4 minicells
A.
B.
C.
D.
120 channels per area

36. Technique of spread spectrum that

breaks message into fixed-size blocks of
data with each block transmitted in
sequence except on the different carrier
frequency.
A.
B.
C.
D.
spread spectrum
time-division multiplexing
frequency-hopping
direct sequence
37. A base and mobile is separated by 5 km.

What is the propagation time for a signal
traveling between them?
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.5 usec
18.9 usec
20.8 usec
16.7 usec
38. A digital identification associated with a

cellular system
A.
B.
C.
D.
MIN
ESN
SAT
SIM
39. A new regulation issued by the National

Telecommunications Commission
providing for the guideline for mobile
personal communication having a global
coverage using satellite.
A.
B.
C.
D.
NMT
GMPCS
GSM
TACS
40. The following are the typical cluster size

except
A.
B.
C.
D.
3
7
12
15
41. Provides a centralized administration

and maintenance point for the entire
network end interfaces with the public
telephone network through the telephone
wireline voice trunks and data links
A.
B.
C.
D.
PSTN
MTSO
central offices
MSC
42. It is a digital telephone exchange located

in the MTSO that is the heart of a
telephone system
A.
B.
C.
D.
mobile switching center

electronic switching center
gateway switching center
electronic mobile switching
center
43. A database in the PCS network that

stores information pertaining to the
identification and type of equipment that
exist in the mobile unit.
A. visitor location register
B. home location register
C. equipment identification
register
44. When a signal from a mobile cellular
unit drops below a certain level, what
action occurs?
A. The unit is "handed off" to a
closer cell.
B. The call is terminated.
C. The MTSO increases power
level.
D. The cell site switches antenna.
45. A method of transmitting data on AMPS
cellular telephone voice channels that
are temporary unused.
A. cellular digital packet data
B. digital color code
C. control mobile attenuation code

D. electronic serial code
46. A vehicle travels through a cellular
system at 100 km per hour.
Approximately how often will handoffs
occur if the cell radius is 10 km.
A.
B.
C.
D.
12 min
14 min
16 min
18 min
47. In the GSM system, a telephone number

that is unique to a given user,
worldwide.
A.
B.
C.
D.
IMTS
IMEI
IMSI
SIM
48. An area divided into hexagonal shapes

that fit together to form a honeycomb
pattern is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
cluster
transport area
cell
area of responsibility
49. Determine the channel capacity of a

cellular telephone area comprised of
twelve macrocell with ten channels per
cell
A. 12 channels per area
B. 120 channels per area

C. 1200 channels per area
D. 12000 channels per area
50. Transmission from base stations to
mobile stations is called ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
forward link
reverse link
control link
user link
51. The output power of a cellular radio is

controlled by the
A.
B.
C.
D.
user or caller
cell site
called party
MTSO
52. EDGE channel size is about

A.
B.
C.
D.
250 kHz
200 kHz
150 kHz
100 kHz
53. A switching facility connecting cellular

telephone base stations to each other and
to the public switched telephone
network.
A.
B.
C.
D.
MTSO
MSC
VLR
AuC
54. A radio land station in the land mobile

service
A.
B.
C.
D.
land station
ship earth station
base station
mobile station
55. Transmission of brief text messages,

such as pages or e-mail, by cellular radio
or PCS.
A.
B.
C.
D.
SMS
MMS
paging
raking
56. The point when the cell reaches

maximum capacity occurs when the
number of subscribers wishing to place a
call at any given time equals the number
of channels in the cell
A.
B.
C.
D.
saturation
blocking traffic
maximum traffic load
any of these
57. In IS-41 standard, it is a process where

the mobile unit notifies a serving MTSO
of its presence and location through a
base station controller.
A.
B.
C.
D.
dependent registration
autonomous registration
air interface
BTS to BSC interface
58. Cellular telephones use which operation?

A.
B.
C.
D.
simplex
half-duplex
full-duplex
triplex
59. A receiver capable of receiving several

versions of the same signal with
different arrival times and combining the
received versions into a single signal
with better quality
A.
B.
C.
D.
scanners
rake receivers
mobile subscriber unit
mobile stations
60. In CMTS, the most important database

for GSM is ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
VLR
HLR
BTS
AUC
61. In CMTS, the number of duplex voice

channels for AMPS is ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
676
285
395
790
62. A geographic cellular radio coverage

area containing three of more group of
cells
A.
B.
C.
D.
cluster
cell
radio channel
MSC/VLR area
63. A flawless cell-to-cell transfer is called

____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
hard handoff
soft handoff
heavy handoff
light handoff
64. The bit length of System Identification

(SID)
A.
B.
C.
D.
32
15
10
8
65. The RF power output of a transmitter in

a cellular mobile telephone system
authorized by NTC for use in the
Philippines.
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.5 dBm
31.5 dBm
34.8 dBm
22.1 dBm
66. A class III mobile phone using AMPS

has an ERP of
A. 4 W
B. 1.6 W
C. 600 mW
D. 1.4 W
67. ____ is measuring the propagated field
strength over the projected service area.
A.
B.
C.
D.
radio monitoring
radio sounding
radio survey
none of these
68. Transmission of data in two directions

on a channel by using different time
slots for each directions.
A.
B.
C.
D.
time-division multiplexing
time-division multiple access
time-division duplexing
time-division
69. When the cluster size is reduced with a

constant cell size, what happens to the
total channel capacity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
decreases
increases
stays constant
depends on the number of cell
cites
70. The transfer of a mobile unit from one

base station's control to another base
station's control
A. handoff
B. paging
C. roaming
D. dualization
71. What is the frequency deviation of
AMPS?
A.
B.
C.
D.
12 kHz
6 kHz
3 kHz
18 kHz
72. The bit length of Digital Color Code

(DCC)
A.
B.
C.
D.
2
3
4
5
73. A transmit channel has a frequency of

837.6 MHz. The receive channel
frequency is
A.
B.
C.
D.
729.6 MHz
837.6 MHz
867.6 MHz
882.6 MHz
74. A frequency-hopping spread-spectrum

system hops to each of 100 frequencies
every 10 seconds. How long does it
spread on each frequency?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.2 sec/hop
0.4 sec/hop
0.3 sec/hop
0.1 sec/hop
75. What is the transmission rate of a GSM

cellular system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
128 kbps
240 kbps
64 kbps
270 kbps
76. A card with an embedded integrated

circuit that can be used for functions
such as storing subscriber information
for a PCS system.
A.
B.
C.
D.
smart card
SIM
Intelligent card
Credit card
77. It is a means of avoiding full-cell

splitting where the entire area would
otherwise need to be segmented into
smaller cells.
A.
B.
C.
D.
segmentations
dualization
sectoring
splitting
78. A channel used for transferring control

and diagnostic information between
mobile users and a central cellular
telephone switch through the base
stations.
A.
B.
C.
D.
forward channel
voice channel
control channel
reverse channel
79. It is the provision of voice

communication using internet protocol
technology, instead of traditional circuit
switched technology.
A.
B.
C.
D.
WAP
GPRS
VOIP
WIFI
80. Determine the total number of channel

capacity of a cellular telephone area
comprised of 10 clusters with seven cells
in each cluster and 10 channels in each
cell.
A.
B.
C.
D.
7 channels
70 channels
700 channels
7000 channels
81. Technique used in spread spectrum that

adds a high-bit rate pseudorandom code
to a low bit rate information signal to
generate a high-bit rate pseudorandom
signal closely resembling noise that
contains both the original data signal and
pseudorandom noise.
A.
B.
C.
D.
direct-sequence
frequency-division multiplexing
frequency hopping
CDMA
82. Refers to the first generation of local

loop system in telecommunication
technology
A.
B.
C.
D.
TACS
DECT
Analog cellular
GSM
83. An information sent by the base station

in a cellular radio system set the power
level of the mobile transmitter.
A. cellular digital packet data
B. digital color code
C. control mobile attenuation
code
D. electronic serial code
84. A 32-bit binary code permanently
assigned to each of the mobile unit
A.
B.
C.
D.
supervisory audio tone

station class mark
electronic serial number
visitor location register
85. It serves as central control for all users

within that cell
A.
B.
C.
D.
base stations
antennas
transceivers
mobile subscriber units
86. What modulation technique is used by

Advanced Mobile Phone System
(AMPS)
A. WBFM
B. VSB
C. NBFM
D. FSK
87. A database in the PCS network that
stores information about subscribers in a
particular MTSO serving area
A. international mobile subscriber
identification
B. visitor location register
C. home location register
88. In cellular phone, a memory location
that stores the telephone number(s) to be
used on the system.
A.
B.
C.
D.
EPROM
UVPROM
EEPROM
NAM
89. A province in the Philippines has an area

2000 sq. kms. It has to be covered by a
cellular mobile telephone service using
cells with a radius of 3 kms. Assuming
hexagonal cells, find the number of cell
sites needed.
A.
B.
C.
D.
100
500
166
145
90. The modulation technique used by GSM

cellular system.
A. QAM
B. Phase Shift Keying
C. Gaussian Minimum Shift
Keying
D. Frequency Shift Keying
91. Microcells have base stations transmit
power between ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.4W to 0.7W
1W to 6W
0.5W to 8W
0.1W to 1W
92. Determine the receive carrier

frequencies for AMPS channel 3 and
channel 991
A.
B.
C.
D.
870.09 MHz and 869.04 MHz

879.09 MHz and 859.04 MHz
869.09 MHz and 870.04 MHz
869.04 MHz and 870.09 MHz
93. Decreasing co-channel interference

while increasing capacity by using
directional antenna is called ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
clustering
splitting
partitioning
sectoring
94. Soft handoff normally takes ____ of

time delay.
A. 400 ms
B. 300 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 100 ms
95. Component of a cellular telephone
network that manages each of the radio
channels at each site.
A.
B.
C.
D.
base station controllers

base transceiver stations
mobile switching center
mobile telephone switching
center
96. The bit length of Station Class Mark

(SCM).
A.
B.
C.
D.
4
5
8
10
97. The master control center for a cellular

telephone system is the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cell site
MTSO
Central office
Branch office
98. The maximum frequency deviation of an

FM cellular transmitter is
A.
B.
C.
D.
6 kHz
12 kHz
30 kHz
45 kHz
99. A receiver channel has a frequency is

872.4 MHz. to develop an 82.2 MHz IF,
the frequency synthesizer must apply an
local oscillator signal of ____ (The local
oscillator is usually higher than the
receive frequency)
A.
B.
C.
D.
790.2 MHz
827.4 MHz
954.6 MHz
967.4 MHz
100.
A class I mobile phone using
AMPS has an ERP of
A.
B.
C.
D.
6 dBW
2 dBW
-2 dBW
-6 dBW
101.
A mobile telephone service using
trunked channels but not cellular nature
A.
B.
C.
D.
IMTS
MTSO
IMSI
IMEI
102.
The GSM cellular radio system
uses GMSK in a 200-kHz, with a
channel data rate of 270.833 kbps.
Calculate the frequency shift between
mark and space in kHz?
A.
B.
C.
D.
135.4165
153.6514
315.4651
513.1654
D. PCS
103.
A cellular system is capable of
coping with a handoffs once every 2
minutes. What is the maximum cell
radius if the system must be capable of
working with cars traveling at highway
speed of 120 km/hr?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 km
1 km
4 km
6 km
104.
Radio communication operation
service between mobile and land stations
or between mobile stations.
A.
B.
C.
D.
land mobile
land mobile satellite service
mobile service
maritime mobile service
105.
A multiple access technique used
in GSM cellular system.
A.
B.
C.
D.
FDMA
CDMA
TDMA
TACS
106.
This is the Nordic analog mobile
radio telephone system originally used in
Scandinavia
A. NMT
B. GSM
C. PCN
107.
The combination of the mobile
cellular phone and the cell-site radio
equipment is known as
A.
B.
C.
D.
108.
forward link
base transceiver station
air interface
base station controller
The duplex frequency of GSM
A.
B.
C.
D.
40 MHz
80 MHz
120 MHz
30 MHz
109.
The channel separation of GSM
channel
A.
B.
C.
D.
270 kHz
200 kHz
120 kHz
60 kHz
110.
The number of control channels
for AMPS
A.
B.
C.
D.
25
23
21
19
111.
The modulation technique used
audio signal for TACS
A.
B.
C.
D.
112.
FM
FSK
TFSK
QAM
D. BSC
116.
It is the functional entity from
which the operator monitors and controls
the mobile communication system.
B. Quarterwavelength Shifted
QPSK
C. GFSK
D. Trellis coding
Speech coding rate for GSM

A.
B.
C.
D.
113.
80 kbps
25 kbps
21 kbps
13 kbps
A. Operation and Maintenance

System
B. Mobile Switching Center
C. Gateway Mobile Switching
Center
D. Operation and Support System
Number of channels for GSM

A.
B.
C.
D.
333
666
124
248
114.
It is a database that contains
information about the identity of mobile
equipment that prevents calls from
stolen, unauthorized, or defective mobile
stations.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equipment Identity Register

Authentication Center
Home Location Register
Visitor Location Register
115.
It provides all the control
functions and physical links between the
MSC and BTS
A. OSS
B. OMC
C. MSC
117.
A node in the switching system
of GSM that provides integrated voice,
fax and data messaging.
A. Gateway Mobile Switching
Center
B. Mobile Service Node
C. GSM Internetworking Unit
D. Message Center
118.
It is a node in the switching
system of GSM that handles mobile
intelligent network services.
A. Message Center
B. Gateway Mobile Switching
Center
C. Mobile Service Unit
D. Mobile Switching Center
119.
The modulation scheme used for
NADC
A. NFSK
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN
SATELLITE
COMMUNIC
ATIONS
By
Melvin C. Arceo
D. 25,000 km/hr
4. The circuit that provides channelization
in a transponder is the
ENCODED BY:
1. It is a celestial body that orbits around a
planet.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Primary body
Satellite
Heavenly bodies
Quasars
2. It is a position and timing service that is

available to all GPS users on a
continuous, worldwide basis with no
direct charge.
A.
B.
C.
D.
PPI
PPS
SPS
SSP
3. The geometric shape of a non-circular

orbit of a satellite is ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ellipse
Parabolic
Hyperbolic
Paraboloid
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mixer
Local oscillator
Bandpass filter
HPA
5. The three axes referred to the three-axis

attitude stabilization are; except
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pitch
Yaw
Roll
Speed
6. A ground station is operating to a

geostationary satellite at a 5 degrees
angle of elevation. Calculate the roundtrip time between ground station to
satellites in a geostationary orbit.
A.
B.
C.
D.
456.45 ms
275.58 ms
137.79 ms
126.89 ms
7. The escape velocity of the earth is

approximately
A. 30,000 km/hr
B. 25,000 mi/hr
C. 35,000 m/s
8. A satellite radio repeater is called ____.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Repeater
Transponder
Satellite
Mixer
9. Calculate the angle of declination for an

antenna using a polar mount at a latitude
of 45 degrees.
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.2 degrees
1.3 degrees
4.2 degrees
6.81 degrees
10. The time transfer accuracy used with

reference to the Universal Transmitter
Mercator Grid is ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
UTC
UTMG
GMT
UTM
11. It is caused by the inertia of the satellite

balanced by the earths gravitational
pull.
A. Centrifugal force
B. Centripetal force
C. Speed
D. Earths rotation
12. In satellites, it includes control
mechanism that support the payload
operation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Bus
Payload
Ground segment
Space segment
13. A satellite transmitter operates at a 4

GHz with a transmitter power of 7W and
an antenna gain of 40 dBi. The receiver
has antenna gain of 30 dBi, and the path
length is 40,000 km. calculate the signal
strength at the receiver.
A.
B.
C.
D.
-88 dBm
-98 dBm
-77 dBm
-79.8 dBm
14. The satellite subsystem that monitors

and controls the satellite is the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Propulsion system
Power subsystem
Communications subsystem
Telemetry,
tracking,
command subsystems
15. Standard positioning service has time

transfer accuracy to Universal Transfer
Mercator Grid within ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
140 nanoseconds
340 nanoseconds
230 nanoseconds
530 nanoseconds
16. A satellite remains in orbit because the

centrifugal force caused by its rotation
around the Earth is counterbalanced by
Earths ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Centripetal force
Inertia
Gravitational pull
Speed
17. A TVRO installation for use with Cband satellite (download frequency at 4
GHz), has a diameter of about 3.5 meters
and an efficiency of 60%. Calculate the
gain.
A.
B.
C.
D.
41 dB
19 dB
29 dB
9 dB
and
18. Which of the following is not a typical
output from the GPS receiver?
A. Latitude
B. Speed
C. Altitude
D. Longitude
19. The law that states that a satellite will
orbit a primary body following an
elliptical path.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1st law of Kepler

2nd law of Kepler
3rd law of Kepler
4th law of Kepler
20. Telephone communication takes place

between two earth stations via a satellite
that is 40,000 km from each station.
Suppose Bill, at station 1, asks a
question and Sharon, at station 2,
answers immediately, as soon as she
hears the question. How much time
elapses between the end of Bills
question and the beginning of Sharons
reply, as heard by Bill?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.26 sec
3.2 sec
0.52 sec
1.6 sec
21. In GPS, it is accomplished by

manipulating navigation message orbit
data (epsilon) and/or the satellite clock
frequency (dither).
A.
B.
C.
D.
Selective availability
Reverse error notification
Forward error notification
Two dimensional reporting
22. The modulation normally used with

digital data is
A.
B.
C.
D.
AM
FM
SSB
QPSK
nd
23. Keplers 2 law is known as

A.
B.
C.
D.
Law of gravity
Law of areas
Newtons law of motion
Harmonic law
24. A receiving antenna with a gain of 40 dB

looks at a sky with a noise temperature
of 15 K. the loss between the antenna
and the LNA input, due to the feedhorn
is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise
temperature of 40K. Calculate the G/T?
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.4 dB
39 dB
20.6 dB
11.2 dB
25. The operational satellites of Navstar

GPS are revolving around Earth in ____
orbital planes.
A.
B.
C.
D.
4
3
5
6
26. Keplers 3rd law is also known as

A.
B.
C.
D.
Law of gravity
Law of areas
Newtons law of motion
Harmonic law
27. The basic technique used to stabilize a

satellite is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gravity-forward motion balance

Spin
Thruster control
Solar panel orientation
28. Calculate the length of the path to a

geostationary satellite from an earth
station where the angle of elevation is 30
degrees.
A.
B.
C.
D.
55 x 10^3 km
13 x 10^3 km
23 x 10^3 km
39 x 10^3 km
29. Navstar GPS is a ____.

A.
B.
C.
D.
LEO
MEO
HEO
GEO
30. The satellite is orbiting in the same

direction as the Earths rotation and at
angular velocity greater than that of the
Earth.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Retrograde
Synchronous
Posigrade
Asynchronous
31. Find the orbital period of the satellite in

a circular orbit 500 km above the Earths
surface
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.6 hrs
3.2 hrs
2.4 hrs
6.4 hrs
32. Satellite orbiting in the opposite

direction as the Earths rotation and at
angular velocity less than that of the
Earth
A. Asynchronous
B. Synchronous
C. Posigrade
D. Retrograde
33. A transponder that demodulates the
baseband signals and then demodulates a
carrier is known as ____ transponder.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Single-conversion
Double-conversion
Regenerative
Degenerative
34. Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellite orbits

around the earth at a height of
approximately ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
3000 miles
1000 miles
575 miles
370 miles
35. Power amplification in a transponder is

usually provided by
A.
B.
C.
D.
klystron
TWT
Transistor
Magnetron
36. Which of the following clocks is

developed for Galileo satellite?
A. Cesium Atomic Frequency Standard
B. Rubidium Atomic
Frequency
Standard
C. Ruby Atomic Frequency Standard

D. Hydrogen Frequency Standard
37. Master control station of GPS is located
in ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Colorado
California
Alaska
New York
38. Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) satellite

orbits around the earth at a height
approximately ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
3,000 miles to 6,000 miles

39. A satellite stays in orbit because the

following two factors are balanced
A.
B.
C.
D.
Satellite weight and speed

Gravitational pull and inertia
Centripetal force and speed
Satellite weight and the pull of the
moon and sun
40. A ____ circuit in the transponder

performs the frequency conversion.
A. HPA
B. Mixer
C. Local oscillator
D. LPA
41. Geosynchronous satellites are highaltitude earth-orbit satellites with heights
about ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
22,300 miles
21,000 miles
8,000 miles
10,400 miles
42. The input circuit to a transponder is the

____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
BPF
HPA
LPA
Any of these
43. The access scheme used by GPS

A.
B.
C.
D.
FDMA
OFDMA
TDMA
CDMA
44. The point in an orbit which is located

farthest from earth
A.
B.
C.
D.
Perigee
Apogee
Line of apsides
Point of shoot
45. Using very narrow beamwidth antennas

to isolate signals on the same frequency
is known as ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Spatial isolation
Footprint
Frequency reuse
Boresight
46. The point in an orbit which is located

closest to Earth
A.
B.
C.
D.
Point of shoot
Apogee
Line of apsides
Perigee
C. Orbit
D. Center
49. In satellite communications, the type of
modulation used in voice and video
signals is
A.
B.
C.
D.
AM
FM
SSB
QPSK
50. In satellite communications, type of orbit

which is virtually all orbits except those
travel directly above the equator or
directly over the North or the South
poles.
52. It is the angle between the earths

equatorial plane and the orbital plane of
the satellite measured counterclockwise.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Angle of elevation
Angle of azimuth
Angle of inclination
Angle of tetrahedron
53. Which of the following types of HPA is

not used in earth stations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
TWT
Klystron
Transistors
Magnetron
54. Galileo satellites mass is ____.

47. The most popular satellite frequency
range is 4 to 6 GHz and is called the
____ band.
A.
B.
C.
D.
C
L
Ka
Ku
48. All satellites rotate around the earth in

an orbit that forms a plane that passes
through the center of gravity of earth
called ____.
A. Focus
B. Geocenter
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equatorial orbit
Polar orbit
Geosynchronous orbit
Inclined orbit
51. A common up-converter and downconverter IF insatelite communications

is
A.
B.
C.
D.
36 MHz
40 MHz
70 MHz
500 MHz
A.
B.
C.
D.
880 kg
675 kg
900 kg
540 kg
55. The point where a polar or inclined orbit

crosses the equatorial plane traveling
from north to south
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ascending node
Line of nodes
Descending node
Diagonal nodes
56. The receive GCE system in an earth

station performs what function/s
A.
B.
C.
D.
Modulation and multiplexing

Up conversion
Demodulation and demultiplexing
Down conversion
57. The term generally associated with the

table showing the position of a heavenly
body on the number of dates in a regular
sequence.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Astronomical almanac
Smith
Ephemeris
Space reporting
58. The point where a polar or inclined orbit

crosses the equatorial plane traveling
from south to north.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ascending node
Descending node
Diagonal node
Inclined node
59. The line joining the ascending and

descending node is called ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Line of apsides
Line of nodes
Line of shoot
Any of these
60. When the satellite rotates in an orbit

directly above the equator, usually in
circular pattern. This type of orbit is
called ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Polar orbit
Synchronous orbit
Geosynchronous satellite
Equatorial orbit
61. The Navstar GPS satellite system was

declared fully operational as of ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
April 17, 1995

April 24, 1995
April 27, 1995
April 10, 1995
62. The HPAs in most satellites are

A.
B.
C.
D.
TWTs
Vacuum tubes
Klystrons
Magnetrons
63. The physical location of a satellite is

determined by its
A.
B.
C.
D.
Distance from the earth

Latitude and longitude
Reference to the stars
Position relative to the sun
64. When the satellite rotates in a path that

takes it over the north and south poles in
an orbit perpendicular to the equatorial
plane. This type of orbit is called ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inclined orbit
Polar orbit
Diagonal orbit
65. The azimuth angles and the angle of

elevation is collectively known as ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Antennas look angles

Antennas see angles
Antennas keep angles
Antennas satellite angles
66. The point on the surface of the Earth

directly below the satellite.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Satellite point
Latitude
Longitude
Subsatellite point
67. It is the vertical angle formed between

the direction of travel of an
electromagnetic wave radiated from an
earth station antenna pointing directly
toward a satellite and the horizontal
plane.
A. Angle of depression
B. Angle of inclination
D. Angle of azimuth
68. The unique number used to encrypt the
signal from that of the GPS satellite.
A.
B.
C.
D.
SV
UV
PRN
ESN
69. The minimum acceptable angle of

elevation
A.
B.
C.
D.
6 degrees
4 degrees
5 degrees
7 degrees
70. It is the horizontal angular distance from

a reference direction either the southern
or northern most point of the horizon.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Angle of elevation
Latitude
Longitude
Azimuth
71. It is defined as the horizontal pointing

angle of an earth station antenna.
A. Angle of inclination
B. Azimuth angle
C. Latitude
D. Longitude
72. Determines the farthest satellite away
that can be seen looking east or west of
the earth stations longitude
A.
B.
C.
D.
Radio horizon
Optical horizon
Terrestrial limits
Limits of visibility
73. The spatial separation of a satellite is

between ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 to 6 degrees
1 to 2 degrees
5 to 8 degrees
8 to 16 degrees
74. The geographical representation of a

satellite antennas radiation pattern is
called a ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Field intensity
Footprint
Radiation propagation
Polarization
75. The GPS satellite identification which is

assigned according to the order of the
vehicles launch.
A. SV
B. EV
C. PRN
D. ESN
76. The smallest beam of a satellite that
concentrates their power to very small
geographical areas.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hemispherical beam
Global beam
Spot beam
Any of these
77. Satellites radiation pattern that typically

target up to 20% of the Earths surface.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hemispherical beam
Global beam
Spot beam
Any of these
78. The key electronic component in a

communications satellite is the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Telemetry
Command and Control system
On-board computer
Transponder
79. The radiation pattern that has a satellites

antenna beamwidth of 17 degrees and
are capable of covering approximately
42% of the earths surface.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hemispherical beam
Earth beam
Spot beam
Any of these
84. Navstar GPS satellite grouping that can

operate continuously for 180 days
between uploads from the ground.
A.
B.
C.
D.
80. The first active satellite

A.
B.
C.
D.
Moon
Sputnik I
Score
Echo
81. Sputnik
I
transmitted
information for
A.
B.
C.
D.
Block III
Block IIa
Block II
Block IIR
85. It was the first artificial satellite used for

relaying terrestrial communications
telemetry
1 week
21 days
15 days
30 days
A.
B.
C.
D.
Score
Explorer I
Sputnik I
Syncom I
86. Which of the following satellite

rebroadcast President Eisenhowers
1958 Christmas message?
82. The US counterpart of Sputnik I

A.
B.
C.
D.
Syncom
Telstar
Echo
Explorer I
83. Explorer I lasted for ____.

A.
B.
C.
D.
5 months
6 months
12 months
2 months
A.
B.
C.
D.
Telstar I
Telstar II
Echo
Score
87. The satellite or space segment of Navstar

GPS is consist of ____ operational
satellites.
A.
B.
C.
D.
30
24
14
20
88. It was the first satellite to accomplish

transatlantic transmission.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Courier
Echo
Telstar
Syncom
89. It is the first transponder-type satellite

A.
B.
C.
D.
Telstar I
Sputnik I
Syncom
Courier
90. The
first
active
satellite
to
simultaneously receive and transmit
radio signals.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Telstar I
Telstar II
Intelsat
Syncom
91. The satellite communications channel in

a transponder are defined by the
A.
B.
C.
D.
LNA
Bandpass filter
Mixer
Input signals
92. The satellite that was damaged by

radiation from a newly discovered Van
Allen Belts and consequently lasted for
two weeks.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Telstar I
Telstar II
Intelsat
Syncom
93. As the height of a satellite orbit gets

lower, the speed of the satellite
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increases
Decreases
Remains the same
None of the above
94. The satellite that was lost in space in its

first attempt to place it in a
geosynchronous orbit.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Syncom I
Telstar I
Telstar II
Courier
95. Intelsat I which was the first commercial

telecommunications satellite is called
____.
A. Domsat
B. Molniya
C. Early bird
D. Courier
96. Block II Navstar GPS satellites can
operate for approximately ____ between
the receiving updates and corrections
from the control segment of the system.
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.5 days
3.5 days
6 days
7 days
97. The angle of inclination of a satellite in

polar orbit is nearly ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
45 degrees
90 degrees
30 degrees
60 degrees
98. It is the time it takes earth to rotate back

to the same constellation
A.
B.
C.
D.
Revolution
Rotation
Sidereal period
Year
99. Satellites with orbital pattern like

Molniya are sometimes classified as
A. LEO
B. MEO
C. GEO
D. HEO
100.
The process of maneuvering a
satellite within a preassigned window is
called
A.
B.
C.
D.
Satellite keeping
Station controlling
Station keeping
Satellite controlling
101.
Navstar GPS satellite grouping
capacble of detecting certain error
conditions,
then
automatically
transmitting a coded message indicating
that it is out of service.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Block I
Block IIa
Block II
Block IIR
102.
Galileo Satellites has a lifespan
of ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
> 12 years
> 15 years
> 20 years
> 25 years
103.
The height of a satellite in a
synchronous equatorial orbit is
A. 100 mi
B. 6800 mi
C. 22,300 mi
D. 35,860 mi
D. Angle of azimuth
108.
A circular orbit around the
equator with 24-h period is called
104.
An orbit that is 36,000 km away
from the geocenter of the earth is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
Clarke orbit
Clarke belt
Any of these
105.
The main function
communications satellite is as
A.
B.
C.
D.
of
Repeater
Reflector
Beacon
Observation platform
106.
Navstar GPS grouping intended
to be used only for self testing.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Block I
Block III
Block II
Block IIR
107.
It is the direction of maximum
gain of the earth station antenna
A. Footprint
B. Boresight
A.
B.
C.
D.
Elliptical orbit
Geostationary orbit
Polar orbit
Transfer orbit
109.
A classification of satellite that
uses the angular momentum of its
spinning body to provide roll and yaw
stabilization.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Roll stabilizer satellite

Yaw stabilizer satellite
Spinner stabilizer satellite
Three-axis stabilizer satellite
110.
Most satellites operate in which
frequency band?
A.
B.
C.
D.
30 to 300 MHz
300 MHz to 3 GHz
3 to 30 GHz
Above 300 GHz
111.
The method of assigning adjacent
channels
different
electromagnetic
polarization is called
A. Frequency reuse
B. Polarization
C. Multi-accessing
D. Interference
112.
It implies that more than one user
has an access to one or more radio
channels
A.
B.
C.
D.
Co-channel interference
Satellite multi-accessing
Frequency reuse
Diversity
113.
The main power sources for a
satellite are
A.
B.
C.
D.
Batteries
Solar cells
Fuel cells
Thermoelectric generators
114.
A type of satellites multipleaccessing method that allows all users
continuous and equal access of the entire
transponder bandwidth by assigning
carrier frequencies on a temporary basis
using statistical assignment process.
A.
B.
C.
D.
TDMA
FDMA
DAMA
CDMA
115.
Batteries are used to power all
satellite subsystems
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
All the time

Only during emergencies
During eclipse periods
To give the solar arrays a rest
116.
The highly accurate timing
clocks onboard the GPS satellite.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plutonium clocks
Cesium atomic clocks
Hydrogen clocks
Fossil clocks
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
121.
to
Wandering
Celestial navigation
Piloting
Radio navigation
The jet thrusters are usually fired
A. Main attitude
B. Put the satellite into transfer orbit
C. Inject the satellite into the
geosynchronous orbit
D. Bring the satellite back to earth
Ranging
Detection
Navigation
Driving
118.
Galileo satellite
positioned in ____.
120.
The
most
ancient
and
rudimentary method of navigation is
____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
117.
It is defined as the art or science
of plotting, ascertaining, or directing the
course of movement.
Perigee
Apex
Zenith
Apogee
system
is
5 circular orbits
3 circular orbits
2 circular orbits
6 circular orbits
119.
The maximum height of an
elliptical orbit is called the
122.
A method of navigation where
direction and distance are determined
from precisely timed sightings of
celestial bodies, including the stars and
the moon.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Electronic navigation
Heavenly navigation
Radio navigation
Celestial navigation
123.
Navstar
satellite
takes
approximately ____ hours to orbit Earth.
A.
B.
C.
D.
20
6
12
18
124.
A method of navigation where it
fixes a position or direction with respect
to familiar, significant landmarks such as
railroad tracks, water towers, barns,
mountain peaks and bodies or water.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dead reckoning
Radio navigation
Wandering
Piloting
125.
How can multiple earth stations
share a satellite on the same frequencies?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Frequency reuse
Multiplexing
Mixing
They cant
126.
A navigation technique that
determines position by extrapolating a
series of measured velocity increments.
A. Piloting
B. Wandering
C. Radio navigation
D. Dead reckoning
127.
A geostationary satellite
A. Is motionless in space (except for its

gain)
B. Is not really stationary at all, but
orbits the Earth within a 24-hr
period
C. Appears stationary over the Earths
magnetic pole
D. Is located at a height of 35,800 km to
ensure global coverage
128.
The average elevation of Navstar
GPS satellite is ____ statue miles above
the Earth.
A.
B.
C.
D.
6724
7689
5978
9476
129.
Most
commercial
satellite
activity occurs in which band(s)
A.
B.
C.
D.
L
C and Ku
X
S and P
130.
Indicate the correct statement
regarding satellite communications
A. If two earth stations do not face a

common satellite, they should
communicate via a double-satellite
hop.
B. Satellites are allocated so that it is
impossible for two earth stations not
to face the same satellite.
C. Collocated earth stations are used for
frequency diversity.
D. Satellite earth station must have as
many receive chains as there are
carriers transmitted to it.
131.
Satellite used for intercontinental
communications are known as
A.
B.
C.
D.
Comsat
Domsat
Marisat
Intelsat
132.
Identical telephone numbers in
different parts of the country are
distinguished by their
A.
B.
C.
D.
Language digits
Access digits
Area codes
Central office codes
133.
The GPS satellites has an angle
of elevation at the ascending node of
____ with respect to the equatorial
plane.
A.
B.
C.
D.
134.
A.
B.
C.
D.
30 degrees
55 degrees
50 degrees
45 degrees
Telephone traffic is measured
With echo cancellers
By the relative congestion
In terms of the grade of service
In erlangs
135.
is not a submarine cable
A.
B.
C.
D.
TAT-7
INTELSAT V
ATLANTIS
CANTAT 2
136.
The typical bandwidth of a
satellite band is
A.
B.
C.
D.
36 MHz
40 MHz
70 MHz
500 MHz
137.
The operational satellites of
Navstar GPS are revolving around Earth
in orbital planes are approximately ____
degrees apart with ____ satellites in each
plane.
A.
B.
C.
D.
60, 4
30, 5
50, 5
40, 3
138.
is an American domsat system
A.
B.
C.
D.
INTELSAT
TELSTAR
COMSAT
INMARSAT
139.
Which of the following is not
usually a part of a transponder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
140.
A.
B.
C.
D.
LNA
Mixer
Modulator
HPA
Who is the oldest man in space?
John Glenn
Neil Armstrong
Yuri Gagarin
Edwin Aldrin
141.
It refers to the satellite
orientation with respect to the earth.
A. Satellites attitude
B. Satellite position
C. Satellite location
D. Satellite orbit
142.
Precise positioning service has
time transfer accuracy to UTC within
A.
B.
C.
D.
100 nanoseconds
300 nanoseconds
200 nanoseconds
400 nanoseconds
143.
The fully deployed Galileo
satellite system consists of ____
satellites.
A.
B.
C.
D.
144.
A.
B.
C.
D.
27 operational + 3 active spares

Galileo satellite is ____.
Medium Earth Orbit (MEO)
Low Earth Orbit (LEO)
Geosynchronous Earth Orbit (GEO)
Highly Elliptical Orbit (HEO)
145.
Galileo satellites are at circular
planes at ____ altitude above Earth.
A.
B.
C.
D.
23,500 mi
36,500 km
35,800 mi
23,222 km
146.
Galileo satellites are inclined at
the orbital planes of ____ with reference
to the equatorial plane.
A.
B.
C.
D.
64 degrees
17 degrees
56 degrees
34 degrees
c) waveguides
d) load
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN
ANTENNA
By
Melvin C. Arceo
6) Calculate the angle of declination for an

antenna using a polar mount at a latitude of
45 degrees.
2) A directional antenna with two or more
a) 3.2 degrees
elements is known as
b) 1.3 degrees
a) folded dipole
c) 4.2 degrees
b) ground plane
d) 6.81 degrees
c) loop
d) array
3) The ratio of the focal length to the diameter 7) The cone angle of the flare angle of a
of the mouth of the parabola is called _____.
conical horn antenna is approximately
a) 55 degrees
a) aperture
b) focal point
b) 45 degrees
c) foci
c) 40 degrees
d) major axis
d) 50 degrees
4) The impedance of a dipole is about
a) 50-ohm
b) 73-ohm
c) 93-ohm
d) 300-ohm
8) Electrical energy that has escaped into free

space in the form of transverse
electromagnetic waves
a) radio waves
b) frequency
c) signal
5) A special type if transmission lint that
d) wavelength
consists of a conducting metallic tube
through
which
high-frequency 9) The length of the ground plane vertical at
electromagnetic energy is propagated.
146 MHz is
ENCODED BY:
a) medium
a) 1.6 ft.
b) microstrip
b) 1.68 ft.
1) It is a metallic conductor system capable of
c) stripline
c) 2.05 ft.
radiating and capturing electromagnetic
d) 3.37 ft.
d) waveguide
energy.
a) transmission lines
10) Using a small reflector to beam waves to the
b) antenna
larger parabolic reflector is known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
focal feed
horn feed
cassegrain feed
coax feed
d) wavelength
19) It is a polar diagram representing field

strengths or power densities at various
angular relative to an antenna
a) sidelobe
b) front lobe
c) radiation pattern
d) radiation constant
15) A popular half-wavelength antenna is the

a) ground plane
b) end-fire
11) The plane parallel to the mutually
c) collinear
perpendicular line in the electric and
d) dipole
magnetic fields is called _____
16) Calculate the gain of a parabolic antenna 20) For a transmit antenna with a radiation
a) wavefront
b) point source
using a 2.5-m radius dish operating at 10
resistance of 72 ohms, an effective antenna
c) isotropic source
GHz.
resistance of 8 ohms, a directivity gain of 20
d) rays
a) 166.673 dB
and an input power of 100W, determine the
b) 83.7 dB
antenna gain.
12) What is the beamwidth of a parabolic
c) 52.2 dB
a) 12.55 dB
antenna with a diameter of 5 meters and an
d) 45.6 dB
b) 10.43 dB
operating frequency to 10 GHz?
c) 11.21 dB
a) 0.5 degrees
17) It is the ratio of the radiated to the reflected
d) 9.78 dB
b) 0.675 degrees
energy
a) radiation resistance
21) The radiation pattern plotted in terms of
c) 0.348 degrees
d) 3.48 degrees
electric field strength or power density
b) radiation efficiency
c) radiation constant
a) absolute radiation pattern
d) radiation antenna
b) relative radiation pattern
13) The horizontal radiation pattern of a dipole
c) absolute front lobe pattern
is a
18) The feed mechanism in a parabolic antenna
d) absolute sidelobe pattern
a) circle
that radiates the electromagnetic energy
22) Calculate the characteristic impedance of a
b) figure of eight
a) primary antenna
c) clover leaf
b) reflectors
quarter-wavelength section used to connect
d) narrow beam
c) secondary antenna
a 300-ohm antenna to a 75-ohm line
d) focal point
a) 150 ohms
14) The size of the antenna is inversely
b) 120 ohms
proportional to _____
c) 130 ohms
d) 110 ohms
a) frequency
b) power
c) radiation resistance
23) Plots of field strength or power density with

d) 95.5 %
respect to the value at a reference point
a) absolute frontlobe pattern
28) The line bisecting the major lobe, or
b) relative radiation pattern
pointing from the center of the antenna in
c) relative frontlobe pattern
the direction of maximum radiation is called
_____.
d) relative radiation pattern
a) line of shoot
24) What must be the height nof a vertical
b) diagonal shoot
radiator one-half wavelength high if the
c) bisecting shoot
operating frequency is 1100 kHz?
d) antenna shoot
a) 120 m
29) The ammeter connected at the base of a
b) 136 m
c) 115 m
Marconi antenna has a certain reading. If
d) 124 m
this reading is increased 2.77 times, what is
the increase in output power?
25) Lobes adjacent to the front lobe
a) 3.45
a) diagonal lobes
b) 1.89
c) 2.35
b) side lobes
c) front lobes
d) 7.67
d) back lobes
30) Refers to a field pattern that is close to the
26) Lobes in a directional exactly opposite of
antenna
the front lobe
a) induction field
a) side lobes
b) far field
b) adjacent lobes
c) radiation
c) front lobes
d) capture field
d) back lobes
31) A half-wave dipole is driven a 5-W signal at
27) Calculate the efficiency of an antenna that
225MHz. A receiving dipole 100 km.
has a radiation resistance of 73 ohms and an
Calculate the received power into a 73-ohm
effective dissipation resistance of 5 ohms.
receiver.
a) 98.3 %
a) 23.5 pW
b) 7.57 pW
b) 93.6 %
c) 90.7 %
c) 5.64 pW
d) 1.26 pW
32) It is the resistance that, if it replaced the
antenna, would dissipate exactly the same
amount of power that the antenna radiates.
a) directivity gain
b) antenna efficiency
c) radiation resistance
d) antenna resistance
33) What is the effective radiated power of a
television broadcast station if the output of
the transmitter is 1000W, antenna
transmission line loss is 50W, and the
antenna power gain is 3.
a) 1250 W
b) 2370 W
c) 2130 W
d) 2850 W
34) It is the ratio of the power radiated by an
antenna to the sum of the power radiated and
the power dissipated.
a) radiation resistance
b) coupling resistance
c) antenna efficiency
d) antenna beamwidth
35) It is the ratio of the power radiated by the
antenna to the total input power.
a) antenna efficiency
b) reflection coefficient
c) standing wave ratio
d) radiation resistance
39) If the field intensity of 25 mV/m develops

b) power gain
2.7 V in a certain antenna, what is its
c) directive gain
effective height?
d) total gain
a) 110 m
b) 100 m
43) A ship-radio telephone transmitter operates
36) If a 500-kHz transmitter of a constant power
c) 98 m
on 2738 kHz. At a certain point distant from
produces field strength of 100 V/m at a
the transmitter, the 2738-kHz signal is
d) 108 m
distance of 100 mil from the transmitter,
measured field at 147 mV/m, the second
what would be the field strength at a 40) The magnetic field of an antenna is
harmonic field at the same decibels, how
distance of 200 mi from the transmitter?
perpendicular to the earth. The antennas
much has the harmonic emission been
a) 45V/m
polarization ______.
attenuated
below
the
2738-kHz
b) 100 V/m
a) is vertical
fundamental?
a) 43.2 dB
c) 50 V/m
b) is horizontal
d) 35 V/m
c) is circular
b) 51.2 dB
d) cannot be determined from the
c) 35.1 dB
37) An antenna that transmits or receives
information given
d) 25.1 dB
equally well in all directions is said to be
______.
44) It is the equivalent power that an isotropic
antenna would have to radiate to achieve the
a) omnidirectional
b) bi-directional
same power density in the chosen direction
c) unidirectional
41) If the power of a 500-kHz transmitter is
at a given point as another antenna.
d) quadsidirectional
increased from 150W to 300W, what would
a) EIRP
be the percentage change in field intensity at
b) ERP
38) It is the ratio of the power density radiated
a given distance from the transmitter?
c) IRL
in a particular direction to the power density
d) RSL
a) 141 %
radiated to the same point by a reference
b) 150 %
antenna, assuming both antennas are
c) 100 %
45) When energy is applied to the antenna at a
radiating the same amount of power.
d) 133 %
point of high-circulating current.
a) power gain
a) voltage-fed antenna
42) It is the same with directive gain except that
b) power-fed antenna
b) directive gain
c) total gain
the total power fed to the antenna is used
c) current-fed antenna
d) system gain
and the antenna efficiency is taken into
d) impedance-fed antenna
account.
a) system gain
c) 98 %
d) 96 %
46) For a transmitter antenna with a power gain
of 10 and an input power of 100W, 50) The field surrounding the antenna do not
determine the EIRP in watts.
collapse their energy back into the antenna
but rather radiate it out into space.
a) 30 dBW
b) 40 dBW
a) induction field
c) 50 dBW
b) near field
d) 20 dBW
c) radiation field
d) magnetic field
47) If the energy is applied at the geometrical
center of antenna, the antenna is said to be
________.
a) center-fed
b) end-fed
51) For receive power density of 10W/m2 and a
c) quarterwave-fed
receive antenna with a capture area of 0.2
d) halfwave-fed
m2, determine the captured power.
a) 0.5 W
48) For a transmit antenna with a power gain of
b) 2 W
10 and an input power of 100W, determine
c) 1 W
the power density at a point 10 km from the
d) 1.5 W
transmit antenna
a) 0.574 W/m2
52) The property of interchangeability for the
2
transmitting and receiving operations is
b) 0.796 W/m
2
c) 1.24 W/m
known as _____.
2
d) 0.981 W/m
a) efficiency
b) accuracy
49) For a transmit antenna with a radiation
c) reciprocity
resistance of 72 ohms, an effective antenna
d) polarization
resistance of 8 ohms, a directive gain of 20
and an input power of 100W, determine the 53) The length of a doublet at 27 MHz is
antenna efficiency.
_____.
a) 8.67 ft.
a) 90 %
b) 96 %
b) 17.3 ft.
c) 18.2 ft.
d) 34.67 ft.
54) Refers to the orientation of the electric field
radiated from an antenna.
a) efficiency
b) beamwidth
c) polarization
d) accuracy
55) At frequencies below 2 MHz, what type of
antenna is usually used?
a) Marconi antenna
b) Hertzian antenna
c) Herzt antenna
d) Elementary doublet
56) The angular separation between two halfpower points in the major lobe of the
antennas plane radiation pattern.
a) bandwidth
b) polarization
c) efficiency
d) beamwidth
57) Hertz antenna are predominantly used with

frequencies above
a) 3 MHz
b) 4 MHz
c) 5 MHz
d) 2 MHz
58) Defined as the frequency range over which

antenna operation is satisfactory.
a) beamwidth
b) channel
c) bandwidth
d) baseband
63) The feedpoint presents and ac load to the
transmission line called
59) One of the following is not a
a) antenna output impedance
omnidirectional antenna.
b) antenna input impedance
a) half-wave dipole
c) feedpoint impedance
d) center feed impedance
b) log-periodic
c) discone
d) marconi
64) A helical antenna is used for satellite
tracking because of its
60) The point on the antenna where the
a) circular polarization
transmission line is connected is called
b) maneuverability
_____.
c) broad bandwidth
a) center feed
d) good front to back ratio
b) end feed
65) The simplest type of antenna
c) feedpoint
d) voltage feed
a) elementary doublet
b) half-wave dipole
61) A popular vertical antenna is the _____.
c) quarterwave dipole
a) collinear
d) 5/8 wavelength dipole
b) dipole
66) Zoning is used with a dielectric antenna in
c) ground plane
d) broadside
order to
a) reduce the bulk of the lens
62) The discone antenna is
b) increase the bandwidth of the lens
a) a useful direction-finding antenna
c) permit pin-point focusing
b) used as a radar receiving antenna
d) correct the curvature of the wavefront
c) circularly polarized like other circular
from a horn that is too short
antennas
67) It is an electrically short dipole.
d) useful as a UHF receiving antenna
a)
b)
c)
d)
short dipole
quarterwave dipole
half-wave dipole
yagi antenna
68) Cassegrain feed is used with parabolic

reflector to
a) increase the gain of the system
b) increase the bandwidth of the system
c) reduce the size of the main reflector
d) allow the feed to be placed at a
convenient point
69) The half-wave dipole is generally referred to

as ______.
a) Yagi antenna
b) Hertzian antenna
c) Marconi antenna
d) Hertz antenna
70) Top loading is sometimes used with an
antenna in order to increase its
a) effective height
b) bandwidth
c) beamwidth
d) input capacitance
71) What is the directivity of a Hertz antenna?
a) 1.64
b) 2.18
c) 2.15
d) 1.75
d) top hat
d) series inductors
76) Which of the following terms does not apply 80) Indicate the antenna that is not wideband;
72) The standard reference antenna for the
to the Yagi-Uda array
a) discone
directive gain is the _____.
a) good bandwidth
b) folded dipole
a) infinitesimal dipole
b) parasitic elements
c) helical
c) folded dipole
b) isotropic antenna
d) Marconi
c) elementary doublet
d) high gain
d) half-wave dipole
77) It effectively cancels out the capacitance
73) An antenna which is one-quarter wavelength
component of the antenna input impedance.
long, mounted vertically with the lower end
a) ground plane
81) It is formed when two or more antenna
either connected directly to ground or
b) top hat
elements are combined to form a single
grounded through the antenna coupling
antenna.
c) loading coil
network.
d) shunt capacitance
a) antenna elements
a) loop antenna
b) antenna arrays
b) hertzian antenna
78) Indicate which of the following reasons for
c) driven elements
the use of an earth mat with antennas is
d) parasitic elements
c) monopole antenna
d) turnstile antenna
false:
a) impossibility of a good ground 82) One of the following is not a reason for the
74) An antenna that is circularly polarized is the
conduction
use of an antenna coupler:
b) provision of an earth for the antenna
a) to make the antenna look resistive
a) helical
b) small circular loop
b) to provide the output amplifier with the
c) protection of personnel working
c) parabolic reflector
correct load impedance
underneath
d) Yagi-Uda
d) improvement of the radiation pattern of
c) to discriminate against harmonics
the antenna
d) to prevent reradiation of local
oscillators
79) A metallic array that resembles a spoke
wheel placed at the top of an antenna, it 83) It is an individual radiator, such as half or
75) It is a wire structure placed below the
increases the shunt capacitance to ground
quarter-wave dipole
antenna and erected above the ground.
reducing the overall antenna capacitance.
a) antenna element
a) ground plane
a) loading coil
b) antenna array
c) reflector
b) counterpoise
b) top loading
c) ground lines
c) series capacitance
d) director
d) must be horizontally polarized

84) Indicate which of the following reasons for 88) One of the following is very useful as a
using counterpoise with antennas is false:
multiband HF receiving antenna. This is the:
a) impossibility of a good ground
a) conical horn
connection
b) folded dipole
b) protection of personnel working
c) log-periodic
d) square loop
underneath
c) provision of an earth for the antenna
d) rockiness of the ground itself
89) A parasitic element that is longer than the
driven element from which it receives
85) Type of antenna element that is directly
energy.
connected to the transmission lines and
a) driven element
receives from or is driven by the source.
b) director
a) driven array
c) parasitic element
b) parasitic array
d) reflector
c) driven element
d) parasitic element
90) One of the following consists of nonresonant
antennas.
86) Which of the following antennas is best
a) rhombic antenna
excited from a waveguide?
b) folded-dipole antenna
a) biconical
c) end-fire antenna
d) broadside antenna
b) horn
c) helical
d) discone
91) A parasitic element that is shorter than its
associated driven element.
a) redirector
b) director
c) reflector
87) Type of antenna element that is not
connected to the transmission lines.
a) parasitic array
92) An ungrounded antenna near the ground.
b) driven array
a) acts as a single antenna near the ground
c) parasitic array
b) is unlikely to need an earth mat
c) acts as an antenna array
93) It is a non resonant antenna capable of

operating satisfactory over a relatively wide
bandwidth, making it ideally suited for HF
transmission.
a) turnstile antenna
b) loop antenna
c) rhombic antenna
d) discone antenna
94) A wide-bandwidth multielement driven
array is the _____.
a) end-fire
b) log-periodic
c) yagi
d) collinear
95) It is a linear array antenna consisting of a
dipole and two or more parasitic elements:
one reflector and one director.
a) broadside antenna
b) end-fire antenna
c) yagi-uda antenna
d) phased array antenna
96) An antenna which is consists of a cone that
is truncated in a piece of circular waveguide.
a) pyramidal horn antenna
b) circular horn antenna
c) rectangular horn antenna
d) conical horn antenna
a)
b)
c)
d)
7 degrees
12 degrees
19 degrees
28 degrees
c) 4.8 dB
d) 6.6 dB
97) Which antenna has a unidirectional radiation

pattern and gain?
106) It is a group of antennas or group of
a) dipole
antenna arrays that when connected
b) ground plane
102) It is a ration of the highest to the lowest
together, function as a simple whose
frequency over which n antenna will
beamwidth and direction can be changed
c) yagi
d) collinear
satisfactoru operate.
electronically withour having to physically
a) channel ratio
move any of the individual antennas or
98) An antenna formed by placing two dipoles
antenna elements within the array.
b) bandwidth ratio
at right angles to each other, 90 degrees out
c) reflection ratio
a) end fire antenna
of phase.
d) dynamic range
b) broadside antenna
a) discone antenna
c) phased array antenna
103) An antenna has a power gain of 15. The
d) log-periodic antenna
b) turnstile antenna
c) bicone antenna
power applied to the antenna is 32 W. The
d) 5/8 wavelength shaped
effective radiated power is ______.
107) Conductors in multielement antennas
a) 15 W
that do not receive energy directly from the
b) 32 W
transmission line are known as ______.
99) The radiation pattern of collinear and
c) 120 W
a) parasitic element
broadside antennas is _____.
b) driven element
d) 480 W
a) omnidirectional
c) the boom
104) It is simply a single-turn coil of wire that
d) receptor
b) bi-directional
c) unidirectional
is significantly shorter than one wavelength
d) clover-leaf shaped
and carries RF current.
108) It is a broad VHF or UHF antenna that is
a) turnstile antenna
suited for applications for which radiating
100) What is the bandwidth ratio of logcircular rather than horizontal or vertical
b) loop antenna
periodic antenna?
c) rhombic antenna
polarized electromagnetic waved are
d) long-wire antenna
required
a) 10:1
b) 5:1
a) discone antenna
c) 20:1
b) bicone antenna
d) 1:10
105) A coax has an attenuation of 2.4 dB per
c) log-periodic antenna
100 ft. The attenuation of 275 ft.
d) helical antenna
101) Which beam width represents the best
a) 2.4 dB
antenna directivity
b) 3.3 dB
109) Mode of propagation of helical antennas

d) front-to-back ratio
where electromagnetic radiation is in the
117) The energy near the edge of the
direction at right angles to the axis of the 113) The horizontal radiation pattern of a
parabolic dish that does not reflect but rather
helix.
vertical dipole is a _____.
is diffracted around the edge of the dish.
a) figure of eight
a) normal mode
a) spillover
b) axial mode
b) corona
b) circle
c) helix mode
c) narrow beam
c) dissipated power
d) helical mode
d) clover leaf
d) copper loss
114) An antenna that provides extremely high 118) Determines the angular aperture of the
gain and directivity and very popular for
reflector, which indirectly determines how
microwave
radio
and
satellite
much the primary radiation is reflected by
110) Mode of propagation of helical antennas
communications link
the parabolic dish.
where radiation of the antenna in the axial
a) helical antenna
a) numerical aperture
direction and produces a broadband
b) V number
b) parabolic antenna
relatively directional pattern
c) hyperbolic antenna
c) aperture number
a) helical mode
d) log-periodic antenna
d) aperture angle
b) normal mode
115) Part of a parabolic antenna that houses 119) For a 2-m diameter parabolic reflector
c) axial mode
d) helix mode
the primary antenna which radiates
with 10W of power radiated by the feed
electromagnetic waves toward the reflector.
mechanism operating at 6 GHz with transmit
111) In a Yagi antenna, maximum direction
antenna efficiency of 55 % and an aperture
a) feed mechanism
of radiation is toward the
b) focal point
efficiency of 55 % determine the
c)
center
feed
beamwidth.
a) director
b) driven element
d) feed antenna
a) 1.25 degrees
c) reflector
116) It is a passive device that simply reflects
b) 2.25 degrees
d) sky
the energy radiated by the feed mechanism
c) 1.5 degrees
into a concentrated, highly directional
d) 1.75 degrees
112) It is defined as the ratio of the antenna
emission in which the individual waved are
maximum gain in the forward direction to its
all in phase with each other.
120) Type of lead mechanism where the
maximum gain in its backward direction.
a) director
primary radiating source is located just
a) side-to-back ratio
b) parabolic segment
behind a small opening at the vertex of the
b) front-to-side ratio
paraboloid rather than at the focus.
c) reflector
c) back-to-side ratio
d) feed mechanism
a) cassegrain feed
b) center feed
c) horn feed
d) antenna feed
121)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Discone radiation pattern is

omnidirectional
unidirectional
figure of eight
bi-directional
122)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Which is properly terminated antenna?

dipole
marconi
hertz
rhombic
129) In antennas, which gives more forward

125) Radiation resistance is the ratio of
gain?
______.
a) reflector
a) radiated power to antenna center current
b) driven element
c) parasitic element
b) radiated power to the square of the
antenna center current
d) director
c) voltage to any point of the antenna
d) square of voltage to thesquare of current 130) Which of the following is longer?
at any point in the antenna
a) director
b) reflector
126) Consists of basic antenna connected to a
c) driven element
transmission line plus one or more
additional conductors
131) Which is closer to the driven element?
a) parasitic array
b) directors
a) parasitic element
c) driven array
b) driven element
d) reflectors
c) director
d) reflector
123) An example of a Marconi antenna is

132) How much do they differ in length from
_____.
127) Which of the following is not a driven
a half-wavelength?
array
a) quarter wave vertical tower
a) 5%
b) collinear
b) 10%
a) yagi
c) yagi
b) broadside
c) 15%
d) rhombic
c) collinear
d) 20%
d) end fire
124) At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what
values of current and voltage exist compared 128) What is used to determine phase
to the remainder of the antenna?
difference between two broadcast antennas?
a) minimum voltage and maximum current
a) a phase monitor
b) minimum voltage and minimum current
b) a frequency monitor
133) How much move feed-point impedance
c) equal voltage and current
c) an amplitude monitor
does a folded-dipole have than normal
d) a power monitor
dipole?
d) maximum voltage and minimum
a) two times as much
current
b) three times as much

c) four times as much
d) five times as much
138) How is the V-beam made unidirectional?

a) impedance terminated
b) capacitive terminated
c) inductive terminated
134) How is it possible to produce 70-ohm
d) resistor terminated
twin lead?
a) by folding more parasitic element
b) by manufacturing
c) by increasing the radiation resistance
d) by increasing the length of the antenna
139) Why might a rhombic be better than a Vbeam?
135) With similar size parabolic, plane
a) it is resistor terminated
reflector, and corner-reflector beams, which
b) more acreage needed
has greates gain?
c) less acreage needed
a) plane reflector
d) it is unidirectional
b) parabolic
c) corner-reflector beam
140) Why is it usual rhombic nor frequencyd) V-beam
sensitive?
a) unidirectional
136) With similar size, which has the
b) terminated with its characteristic
narrowest lobes?
impedance
c) less acreage required
a) parabolic
b) V-beam
d) main lobe is greater than back lobe
c) corner-reflector beam
d) plane reflector
141) In what direction is the null of small
diameter loop in relation to the plane of the
137) Why would the wires of V beam be
loop?
closer together when used on higher
a) 45 degrees angle
frequencies?
b) 180 degrees angle
a) main lobe lays further to wire
c) 360 degrees angle
b) main lobe lays closer to wire
d) 90 degrees angle
c) secondary lobes closer to wire
d) secondary lobes further to wire
142) When is a loop unidirectional?
a) when horizontal
b) when vertical
c) when circular
d) when unidirectional
143) Why are verticals sometimes
loaded?
a) to resonate on high frequency
b) to decrease the electrical length
c) to resonate on low frequency
d) to look better
top-
144) Why is pi-network superior to direct

coupling to an antenna?
a) reduce harmonic radiation
b) better frequency response
c) better radiation of energy
d) reduce power dissipation
145) Why might L networks be used between

an antenna and transmission line?
a) step impedance up
b) step impedance down
c) better radiation of energy
d) reduce power radiation
146) Why are antenna ammeters often shorted
out or disconnected from the antenna expect
when readings are desired?
a) to replace it with dummy
b) not to interfere with transmission
c) for proper reception of signals

d) to protect from lightning
151) Under what condition might a harmonic

c) feed 360 degrees apart electrically
of a transmission be heard at a distant point
d) feed 90 degrees apart electrically
when the fundamental cannot be?
147) Device to split transmission line current
a) when the carrier is weak
156) A section which would be a complete
to two or more antenna towers
antenna by itself
b) when fundamental is too weak
a) splitter
c) when harmonics are weak
a) bay
b) coupler
d) when the harmonics are amplified
b) reflector
c) isolator
c) paraboloid
152) Field gain can be measured in ______.
d) hyperboloid
d) phasor circuit
a) volts
148) What method can be used to determine
b) dB
the feed-point impedance of a vertical
c) ohms
157) In what range of frequencies are most
antenna?
omnidirectional
horizontally
polarized
d) both volts and dB
antennas used?
a) resistance substitution
b) impedance matching
153) What is involved in the ERP of an
a) VHF and UHF
c) dissipated resistance measurement
antenna?
b) HF and VHF
d) grounding the antenna
a) input power times field gain
c) UHF and HF
b) input power squared times field gain
d) LF and MF
149) In what unit is field intensity measured/
c) output power times field gain
a) volts
d) output power squared times field gain
b) amperes
c) watts/m
154) Why do ground radials assure constant
feed-point impedance?
d) mV/m
a) virtual ground constant in any
150) How fast does low-frequency field
weather
strength attenuate?
b) ensure strength of signals
c) produce a signal image
a) directly proportional to distance
b) inversely proportional to distance
d) creates good ground
c) directly proportional to time
d) inversely proportional to time
155) What feed requirements must be met to
produce a circular radiation pattern when
using two crossed dipoles?
a) feed 180degrees apart electrically
b) feed 45 degrees apart electrically
ENCODED BY:
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN
MICROWAV
E
COMMUNIC
ATIONS
By
Melvin C. Arceo
a) a nonconductor with magnetic

properties
b) an intermetallic compound
with
particularly good conductivity
c) an insulator which heavily attenuates
magnetic fields
d) a microwave semiconductor invented by
Faraday
5) The primary purpose of the helix in a

1) IF repeaters are also called
traveling-wave tube is to
a) prevent the electron beam from
a) heterodyne receiver
b) mixer/receiver
spreading in the long tube
c) radio receiver
b) reduce the axial velocity of the RF
d) FM receiver
field
c) ensure the broadband operation
2) It is the difference between the nominal
d) reduce the noise figure
output power of a transmitter and the
minimum input power required by a receiver 6) The attenuator is used in the travelling-wave
a) RSL
tube to
b) IRL
a) help bunching
c) system gain
b) prevent oscillations
d) FSL
c) prevent saturation
d) increase the gain
3) A phenomenon whereby the frequency of a
reflected of a reflected signal is shifted if
there is relative motion between the source
and reflecting object.
7) A magnetron is used only as
a) amplifier
a) Doppler effect
b) Hall effect
b) oscillator
c) Marconi effect
c) mixer
d) Maxwell effect
d) frequency multiplier
4) A ferrite is
8) A backward-wave oscillator is based on the
a)
b)
c)
d)
rising-sun magnetron
crossed-field amplifier
coaxial magnetron
traveling-wave tube
c) 60 degrees
d) 80 degrees
c) very significant extension of the

maximum range
d) more accurate tracking enemy targets
13) The diameter of a parabolic reflector should 17) Refers to more than one transmission path or
9) Stripline and microstrip transmission lines
be at least how many wavelengths at the
method of transmission available between
are usually made with
operating frequency?
transmitter and a receiver.
a) coax
a) 1
a) diversity
b) parallel lines
b) 2
b) polarization
c) twisted pair
c) 5
c) efficiency
d) accuracy
d) PCBs
d) 10
10) Which of the following is not a microwave 14) A type of microwave repeater where the 18) A solution to the blind speed problem is to
tube?
received RF carrier is down-converted to an
a) change the Doppler frequency
a) Traveling-wave tube
IF frequency, amplified filtered and further
b) vary the RF
demodulated to baseband.
c) use monopulse
b) Cathode-ray tube
c) Klystron
a) RF repeater
d) use MTI
d) Magnetron
b) IF repeater
c) baseband repeater
11) Indicate which is not true. Compared with
d) radio repeater
19) A direct path that exist between the transmit
other types of radar, phased array radar has
and receive antennas
the following advantages
15) In order to reduce cross-sectional
a) LOS
a) very fast scanning
dimensions, the waveguide to use is
b) direct waves
b) ability to track and scan simultaneously
a) circular
c) space waves
d) terrestrial waves
c) circuit simplicity
b) ridged
d) ability
to
track
many
targets
c) rectangular
simultaneously
d) flexible
20) The function of the quartz delay line in an
MTI radar is to
12) Given the frequency and dimensions of 5 16) Indicate which one of the following
a) help in subtracting a complete scan
GHz and 7 cm by 9 cm respectively, the
applications or advantages of radar beacons
from the previous scan
beam of the pyramidal horn is about
is false:
b) match the phase of the coho and the stalo
______.
a) target identification
c) match the phase of the coho and the
a) 27 degrees
b) navigation
output oscillator
b) 53 degrees
d) delay a sweep so that the next sweep can

a) the target position and range
be subtracted from it
25) A pyramidal horn used at 5 GHz has an
b) the target range, but not position
aperture that is 7 cm by 9 cm. The gain is
c) the target position, but not range
21) Type of diversity where it modulates two
about
d) neither range nor position, but only
different RF carrier frequencies with the
velocity
a) 10.5 dB
same IF intelligence, then transmitting both
b) 11.1 dB
RF signals to a given destination.
c) 22.6 dB
30) The glass tube of a TWT may be coated
a) polarization diversity
d) 35.8 dB
with aquadag to
b) quad diversity
a) help focusing
c) space diversity
26) Type of diversity where the output of the
b) provide attenuation
transmitter is fed to two or more antennas
c) improve bunching
d) frequency diversity
that are physically separated by an
d) increase gain
22) The coho in MTI radar operates at the
appreciable wavelengths
a) quad diversity
31) Type of diversity which consists of a
a) intermediate frequency
b) transmitted frequency
b) wavelength diversity
standard frequency diversity path where the
c) received-frequency
two transmitter/receiver pair at one end of
c) space diversity
d) pulse operation frequency
d) hybrid diversity
the path are separated from each other and
connected to different antennas that are
23) Which type of diode does not ordinarily 27) The Doppler effect is used in (indicate the
vertically separated as in space diversity
operate with reverse bias?
false statement)
a) quad diversity
a) Varactor
a) moving-target plotting on the PPI
b) IMPATT
b) the MTI system
c) space diversity
c) Snapp-off
c) FM radar
d) hybrid diversity
d)
CW
radar
d) Tunnel
32) The biggest disadvantage of CW Doppler
24) What happens when a horn antenna is made 28) A type of diversity where a single RF carrier
radar is that
longer?
is
propagated
with
two
different
a) it does not give the target velocity
electromagnetic polarization.
a) gain increases
b) it does not give the target range
b) beam width decreases
a) space diversity
c) a transponder is required at the target
c) bandwidth increases
d) it does not give the target position
d) bandwidth decreases
c) polarization diversity
d) hybrid diversity
33) The combination of the frequency, space,
polarization and receiver diversity into one
29) The A scope displays
system
a)
b)
c)
d)
hybrid diversity
quad diversity
space diversity
wavelength diversity
a)
b)
c)
d)
flap attenuator
vane attenuator
slot attenuator
directional coupler
a) it will interfere with the operation of the

transmitter
b) the receiver might be overloaded
c) it will not be received
d) the target will appear closer than it
really is
34) If the target cross section is changing, the 38) After a target has been acquired, the best
best system for accurate tracking in
scanning system for tracking is
a) lobe switching
a) nodding
42) Points in the microwave system baseband
b) sequential lobing
b) spiral
signals either originate or terminate
c) conical switching
a) terminator
c) conical
d) helical
d) monopulse
b) terminal stations
c) terminating equipment
35) The multicavity klystron
39) A duplexer is used
d) terminal equipment
a) to couple two different antennas to a
a) is not good low-level amplifier because
transmitter without mutual interference
43) A half wavelength, closed section of a
of noise
b) has a high repeller voltage to ensure a
waveguide that acts as a parallel resonant
b) to allow the one antenna to be used for
rapid transmit time
circuit is known as _____.
reception or transmission without
c) is not suitable for pulse operation
a) half-wave section
mutual interference
d) needs a long transmit time through the
c) to prevent interference between two
b) cavity resonator
buncher cavity to ensure current
antennas when they are connected to a
c) LCR circuit
modulation
receiver
d) directional couple
d) to increase the speed of pulses in pulsed
36) An arrangement that avoids a service
radar
44) Decreasing the volume of a cavity causes its
interruption during periods of deep fades or
resonant frequency to
equipment failures.
40) Type of protection switching arrangement
a) increase
a) service switching arrangement
where each working radio channel has a
b) decrease
dedicated backup or spare channel
c) remains the same
b) protection switching arrangement
c) interruption switching arrangement
a) hot swap
d) drop to zero
d) equipment switching arrangement
b) hot backup
45) The IF bandwidth of a radar receiver is
c) hot standby
37) A type of attenuator where attenuation is
d) hot diversity
inversely proportional to the
accomplished by insertion of a thin card of
a) pulse width
resistive material through a slot in the top of 41) If a return echo arrives after the allocated
b) pulse repetition frequency
a waveguide
pulse interval,
c) pulse interval
d) the target will appear closer than it really

is
c) prevent frequency changes in

magnetron
d) allow accurate range measurements
the
46) Which of the following devices are not

being used in microwave power amplifier?
50) The power that leaks out of the back and
a) klystron tubes
sides of the transmit antenna interfering with
b) traveling wave tubes
the signal entering with the signal entering
c) IMPATT
the input of a nearby receive antenna.
d) magnetron
a) ringaround
b) ringabout
47) Which is not true? A high PRF will
c) roundabout
a) make the returned echoes easier to
d) turnaround
distinguish from noise
b) make the target tracking easier with 51) Which of the following is not true: The radar
conical scanning
cross section of a target
a) depends on the frequency used
c) increase the maximum range
d) have no effect on the range resolution
b) may be reduced by special coating of the
target
48) It is a unidirectional device often made up of
c) depends on the aspect of a target, if this
ferrite material used in conjunction with a
nonspherical
channel-combining network to prevent the
d) is equal to the actual cross-sectional
output from interfering with the output of
area for small targets
another transmitter
a) circulator
52) It is a general term applied to the reduction
b) magic tee
in signal strength at the input to a receiver
c) isolator
a) fading
d) rat race
b) attenuation
c) absorption
49) Which is not true about the following: Flatd) ghosting
topped rectangular pulses must be
transmitted in radar to
53) Indicate which of the following cannot be
a) allow a good minimum range
followed by the word waveguide
a) elliptical
b) make the returned echoes easier to
b) flexible
distinguish from the noise
c) coaxial
d) ridged
54) If the ratio of the antenna diameter to the
wavelength in a radar system is high, this
will result in (indicate the false statement)
a) large maximum range
b) good target discrimination
c) difficult target acquisition
d) increased capture area
55) High-power TWTs are replacing what in

microwave amplifiers?
a) MESFETs
b) Magnetrons
c) Klystrons
d) IMPATT diodes
56) The most widely used microwave antenna is
a
a) half-wave dipole
b) quarter-wave probe
c) single loop
d) horn
57) Applies to propagation variables in the
physical radio path which affect changes in
path loss between the transmitter at one
station and its normal receiver at the other
station.
a) ghosting
b) absorption
c) attenuation
d) fading
d) Eb/No
66) A microwave tube amplifier uses an axial

magnetic field and a radial electric field.
This is the
a) reflex klystron
b) coaxial magnetron
c) traveling-wave magnetron
d) CFA
67) Figure of merit used to indicate how much
the signal-to-noise ratio deteriorates as a
signal passes through a circuit or series of
circuits
a) noise factor
b) signal to noise ratio
c) carrier to noise ratio
d) dynamic range
58) If the antenna diameter in a radar system is 62) For proper operation, a magnetron must be
increased by a factor of 4, the maximum
accompanied by a
range will be increased by a factor of
a) cavity resonator
a) square root of 2
b) strong electric field
b) 2
c) permanent magnet
d) high dc voltage
c) 4
d) 8
63) A police radar speed trap functions at a
59) If the peak transmitted power in a radar
frequency of 1.024 GHz in direct line with
system is increased by a factor of 15, the
your car. The reflected energy from your car
maximum range will be increased by a
is shifted 275 Hz in frequency. Calculate the
factor of
speed in miles per hour?
a) 60 mph
a) 2
b) 4
b) 70 mph
c) 8
c) 80 mph
68) What is the peak power of a radar pulse if
d) 16
the pulse width is 1s, the pulse repetition
d) 90 mph
rate is 900, and the average power is 18 W?
60) Varactor and step-recovery diodes are 64) It is the ratio of the wideband carrier to the
a) 10 kW
widely used in what type of circuit?
wideband noise power
b) 15 kW
a) amplifier
a) carrier to noise ratio
c) 20 kW
b) oscillator
b) signal to noise ratio
d) 30 kW
c)
energy
per
bit
per
noise
density
ratio
c) frequency multiplier
d) mixer
d) noise figure
69) The point where the antenna is mounted
with respect to the parabolic reflector is
61) It is defined as line loss incurred by an 65) What is the duty cycle of a radar pulse if the
called the
electromagnetic wave as it propagates in a
pulse width is 1s, the pulse repetition rate
a) focal point
straight line through a vacuum with no
is 900, and the average power is 18 W?
b) center
absorption or reflection of energy from
c) locus
a) 0.09 %
nearby objects.
b) 0.99 %
d) tangent
a) IRL
c) 0.90 %
d) 1.00 %
70) The operating frequency of klystron and
b) FSL
c) RSL
magnetrons is set by the
a)
b)
c)
d)
cavity resonators
DC supply voltage
inputsignal frequency
Number of cavities
71) Using a small reflector to beam waves to the

larger parabolic reflector is known as
a) focal feed
b) horn feed
c) cassegrain feed
d) coax feed
72) If the noise figures and gains of each of the
amplifiers in cascade is 3 dB and 10 dB
respectively. What is the total noise figure?
a) 2.12 dB
b) 3.24 dB
c) 1.24 dB
d) 4.23 dB
73) One of the following is unlikely to be used

as a pulsed device
a) multicavity klystron
b) BWO
c) CFA
d) TWT
74) Calculate the maximum ambiguous range
for a radar system with PRT equal to 400s.
a) 13.8 mi
b) 43.5 mi
c) 16.4 mi
d) 32.8 mi
78) Calculate the coupling of a directional

75) When electromagnetic waves are propagated
coupler that has 70 mW into the main guide
in a waveguide
and 0.35 mW out the secondary guide.
a) they travel along the broader walls of the
a) 13 dB
guide
b) 23 dB
c) 33 dB
b) they are reflected from the walls but
d) 10 dB
do not travel along them
c) they travel through the dielectric without
the walls
d) they travel along all four walls of the
waveguide
79) The wavelength of a wave in a waveguide
a) is greater than in free space
76) What is the distance in nautical miles to a
b) depends only on the waveguide
target if it takes 123 s for a radar pulse to
dimensions and the free space
travel from the radar antenna to the target,
wavelength
back to the antenna, and be displayed on the
c) is inversely proportional to the phase
PPI scope?
velocity
d) is directly proportional to the group
a) 10 nmi
b) 5 nmi
velocity
c) 20 nmi
d) 15 nmi
80) A rectangular waveguide is 1 cm by 2 cm.
Calculate the cutoff frequency
77) Waveguides are used mainly for microwave
a) 3.5 GHz
signals because
b) 15 GHz
a) they depend on straight-line propagation
c) 7.5 GHz
which applies to microwaves only
d) 4 GHz
b) losses would be too heavy at lower
frequencies
81) The main difference between the operation
c) there are no generators powerful enough
of transmission liners and waveguides is that
to excite them at lower frequencies
a) the latter is not distributed, like
transmission lines
d) they would be too bulky at lower
b) the former can use stubs and quarterfrequencies
wave transformers, unlike the latter
c) maximum usable range

c) transmission lines use the principal
mode of propagation, and therefore do
d) any of these
not suffer from low-frequency cut-off
d) terms such as impedance matching and 86) When a particular mode is excited in a
standing-wave ratio cannot be applied to
waveguide, there appears an extra electric
waveguides
component, in the direction of propagation.
The resulting mode is
82) The useful power of the transmitter that is
a) transverse electric
contained in the radiated pulses is termed as
b) transverse magnetic
______.
c) longitudinal
a) rms power
d) transverse-electromagnetic
b) rated power
87) In radars, echoes that arrive after the
c) peak power
d) average power
transmission of the next pulse are called
_____.
83) In radars, echoes that are produced when
a) second return echoes
the reflected beam is strong enough to make
b) second time around echoes
a second trip
c) multiple time around echoes
a) double range echoes
d) any of these
b) double frequencies echoes
c) second return echoes
88) When electromagnetic waves are reflected at
d) second time around echoes
an angle from a wall, their wavelength along
the wall is
84) Indicate the false statement. Compared with
a) the same as the free space
equivalent transmission lines, 3 GHz
b) the
same
as
the
wavelength
waveguides
perpendicular to the wall
a) are less lossy
c) shortened because of the Doppler effect
b) can carry higher powers
d) greater than in the actual direction of
c) are less bulky
propagation
d) have lower attenuation
85) The range beyond which targets appear as 89) A radar mile is equivalent to
second return echoes is called
a) 2000 mi
a) maximum range
b) 2000 m
b) maximum unambiguous range
c) 2000 yd
d) 2000 km
90) As a result of reflections from a plane
conducting wall, electromagnetic waves
acquire an apparent velocity of light in space
a) velocity of propagation
b) normal velocity
c) group velocity
d) phase velocity
91) In radars, the time between pulses is called

______.
a) rest time
b) duration time
c) delay time
d) propagation time
92) Indicate the false statement. When the freespace wavelength of a signal equals the
cutoff wavelength of the guide
a) the group velocity of the signal becomes
zero
b) the phase velocity of the signal becomes
infinite
c) the characteristic impedance of the guide
becomes infinite
d) the wavelength within the waveguide
becomes infinite
93) In radars, the duration of the pulse is
a) duty cycle
b) pulse width
c) pulse amplitude
d) pulse cycle
c) repeaters
d) beacons
d) shunt tee
94) A signal propagated in a waveguide has a

102) Which one of the following waveguide
full wave electric intensity change between 98) A choke flange may be used to couple two
tuning components is not easily adjustable?
two further walls, and no component of the
waveguides
a) screw
electric field in the direction of propagation.
a) to help the alignment of the waveguides
b) stub
The mode is
b) because it is simpler than any other join
c) iris
a) TE11
d) plunger
c) to compensate for discontinuities at
b) TE10
the join
c) TM22
d) to increase the bandwidth of the system 103) What type of waveguide is widely used?
a) circular
d) TE20
99) The resonant frequency of a cavity may be
b) ridged
95) In radars, the number of the pulses
varied by changing any of these parameters
c) flexible
transmitted per second is called
except:
d) rectangular
a) cavity volume
a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition time
b) cavity inductance
104) A piston attenuator is a
c) pulse repetition phase
c) cavity capacitance
a) vane attenuator
d) pulse number of repetition
d) cavity resistance
b) waveguide below cutoff
c) mode filter
96) Which of the following is incorrect? The 100) In order to couple two generators to a
d) flap attenuator
dominant mode of propagation is preferred
waveguide system without coupling them to
with rectangular waveguides because
each other, which could not be use?
105) Waveguides act as _____.
a) it leads to the smallest waveguide
a) rat-race
a) low-pass filter
dimensions
b) bandpass filter
b) E-plane T
c) hybrid ring
b) the resulting impedance can be
c) high-pass filter
d) magic T
d) band-stop filter
matched directly to coaxial lines
c) it is easier to excite than other modes
d) propagation of it without any spurious 101) A type of tee so-named because of the 106) Cylindrical cavity resonators are not
generation can be ensured
side arms shunting the E field for the TE
used with klystron because they have
97) It is a mean of employing radio waves to
modes, which is analogous to voltage in the
a) a Q that is too low
detect and locate objects such as aircraft,
transmission lines
b) a shape whose resonant frequency is too
ships and land masses.
a) magic tee
difficult to calculate
a) detectors
b) rat tee
c) harmonically
related
resonant
c) series tee
b) radars
frequencies
d) too heavy losses

107) In waveguides, if no component of the E
field is in the direction of propagation the
mode is said to be
a) TE
b) TM
c) TEM
d) TME
108) A directional coupler with three or more
holes is sometimes used in preference to the
two-hole coupler
a) because it is more efficient
b) to increase coupling of the signal
c) to reduce spurious mode generation
d) to increase the bandwidth of the
system
109) The smallest free-space wavelength that

is just unable to propagate in the waveguide
a) cutoff wavelength
b) cutoff frequency
c) cutoff waveguide length
d) cutoff phase
110) It is the minimum frequency of waves
that can propagate through the waveguide
a) cutoff frequency
b) cutoff wavelength
c) cutoff phase
d) cutoff waveguide length
115) A PIN diode is

111) A common application of magnetrons is
a) a metal semiconductor point-contact
in
diode
b) a microwave mixer diode
a) Radar
b) Satellites
c) often used as a microwave detector
c) Two-way radio
d) suitable for use as a microwave switch
d) TV sets
116) A common omnidirectional microwave
112) In waveguides, it is the velocity at which
antenna is the
the wave changes phase
a) horn
a) waveguide velocity
b) parabolic reflector
b) group velocity
c) helical
c) phase velocity
d) bicone
d) total velocity
117) The output of a helical antenna is
113) The maximum power that may be
a) vertically polarized
handled by a ferrite component is limited by
b) horizontally polarized
the
c) circularly polarized
d) linearly polarized
a) curie temperature
b) saturation magnetization
c) line width
118) For
some
applications,
circular
d) gyromagnetic resonance
waveguides may be preferred to rectangular
ones because of
114) In waveguides, it is the velocity at which
a) the smaller the cross section needed at
the wave propagates
any frequency
a) phase velocity
b) lower attenuation
c) freedom from spurious modes
b) group velocity
c) total velocity
d) rotation of polarization
d) waveguide velocity
119) A helical antenna is made up of a coil
and a
a) director
b) reflector
c) dipole
d) horn
124) One of the reasons why vacuum tubes

a) prevent mode jumping
eventually fail at microwave frequencies is
b) prevent cathode back-heating
120) In a klystron amplifier, velocity
that their
c) ensure bunching
modulation of the electron beam is produced
d) improve the phase-focusing effect
a) noise figure increases
by the
b) transmit time becomes too short
a) collector
c) shunt capacitive reactances becomes too 129) Signal propagation in a waveguide is by
b) catcher cavity
large
a) electrons
c) cathode
d) series inductance reactances becomes
b) electric and magnetic fields
too small
c) holes
d) buncher cavity
d) air pressure
125) A rectangular waveguide has a width of
1 inch and a height of 0.6 inch. Its cutoff 130) The dominant mode in most waveguides
frequency is
is
121) Increasing the diameter of a parabolic
a) 2.54 GHz
a) TE 0,1
reflector causes which of the following:
b) 3.0 GHz
b) TE 1,2
a) decreased beamwidth
c) TM 0,1
c) 5.9 GHz
b) increased gain
d) 11.8 GHz
d) TM 1,1
c) none of the above
d) decreased beamwidth and increased 126) The TWT is sometimes preferred to the 131) Periodic permanent-magnet focusing is
multicavity klystron amplifier, because the
used with TWTs to
gain
former
a) allow pulsed operation
122) For
low
attenuation,
the
best
a) is more efficient
b) improve electron bunching
transmission medium is
b) has a greater bandwidth
c) avoid the bulk of electromagnet
a) flexible waveguide
c) has a higher number of modes
d) allow coupled-cavity operation at the
b) ridged waveguide
d) produces higher output power
highest frequencies
c) rectangular waveguide
d) coaxial line
127) The most common cross section of a 132) A popular microwave mixer diode is the
waveguide is a
a) Gunn
123) Low-power Gunn diodes are replacing
a) square
b) Varactor
b) circle
a) Reflex klystron
c) Hot carrier
b) TWTs
c) triangle
d) IMPATT
c) Magnetrons
d) rectangle
d) Varactor diodes
128) The cavity magnetron uses strapping to
142) The main advantage of the TWT over a

klystron for microwave amplification is
138) In a TWT, the electron beam, is densitya) lower cost
modulated by a
b) smaller size
a) Permanent magnet
c) higher power
b) Modulation transformer
d) wider bandwidth
c) Helix
d) Cavity resonator
143) A magnetic field is used in the cavity
magnetron to
a) prevent anode current in the absence of
oscillations
b) ensure that the oscillations are pulsed
139) Which of the following is not a common
c) help in focusing the electron beam, thus
preventing spreading
a) radar
d) ensure that the electrons will orbit
b) mobile radio
around the cathode
c) telephone
d) spacecraft communications
144) A waveguide has a cutoff frequency of
17 GHz. Which of the signals will not be
140) Indicate the false statement. Transit time
passed by the waveguide?
in microwave tubes will be reduced if
a) 15 GHz
a) the electrodes are brought closer
b) 18 GHz
together
c) 22 GHz
b) a higher node current is used
d) 25 GHz
c) multiple or coaxial loads are used
d) the anode voltage is made larger
d) 22 GHz
133) A
magnetron
whose
oscillating
frequency is electronically adjustable over a
wide range is called a
a) coaxial magnetron
b) dither-tune magnetron
c) frequency-agile magnetron
d) VTM
134)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The main benefit of using microwave is

lower-cost equipment
sampler equipment
greater transmission distances
more spectrum space for signals
135) Which diode is a popular microwave

oscillator?
a) IMPATT
b) Gunn
c) Varactor
d) Schottly
136) Which of the following is not a

disadvantage of microwave?
a) higher cost equipment
b) line-of-sight transmission
c) conventional components are not usable
d) circuits are more difficult ro analyze
141) Coaxial cable is not widely used for long 145) When the electric field in a waveguide is
microwave transmission lines because of its
perpendicular to the direction of wave
137) Which of the following is a microwave
a) high loss
propagation, the mode is said to be
frequency?
b) high lost
a) vertical polarization
a) 1.7 MHz
c) large size
b) transverse electric
b) 750 MHz
c) horizontal polarization
d) excessive radiation
c) 0.98 MHz
d) transverse magnetic
c) improve the power gain

d) increase the efficiency of the klystron
d) L band
146) The TWT is sometimes preferred to the

magnetron as a radar transmitter output tube
156) What is the designation of the highestbecause it is
frequency microwave band?
151) What are limits of microwaves?
a) capable of longer duty cycle
a) R band
b) a more efficient amplifier
a) 1 25,000 GHz
b) Ka band
c) more broadband
b) 1 50,000 GHz
c) V band
d) less noisy
c) 1 75,000 GHz
d) L band
d) 1 100,000 GHz
147) A magnetic field is introduced into a
waveguide by a
152) The following transmission lines are
used for microwave frequencies, except:
a) probe
b) dipole
a) waveguide
c) stripline
157) What is reduced by using choke flanges?
b) twin lead
d) capacitor
c) coax
a) refraction
d) stripline
b) reflection
148) A reflex klystron is used as a/n
c) absorption
a) amplifier
153) How much must a waveguide be?
d) cancellation
b) oscillator
a) over a half-wave
c) mixer
b) over a quarterwave
158) What is the name of the microwave
d) frequency multiplier
c) over a wavelength
transmission line that is used in printed
d) over three-fourths of a wavelength
circuits?
149) Indicate the false statement: Manganese
a) microstrip
ferrite may be used as a
154) How high must a waveguide be?
b) coax
a) circulator
a) over a wavelength
c) twin lead
b) isolator
d) twisted pair
b) over a quarter wave
c) over a half wave
c) garnet
d) phase shifter
d) over two wavelengths
159) Where is the resistive load placed in a
directional coupler?
150) Indicate the false statement. Klystron 155) What is the designation of the lowesta) front end of the primary
amplifiers may use intermediate cavities to
frequency microwave band?
b) front end of the secondary
a) V band
c) back end of the primary
a) prevent oscillations that occur in twob) X band
cavity klystron
d) back end of the secondary
b) increase the bandwidth of the device
c) Ku band
160) One of the following is a type of

b) Klystron
bolometer
c) Magnetron
a) calorimeter
d) BWO
b) thermocouple
165) Which microwave tube has a series of
c) barreter
d) carreter
cavities?
a) magnetron
161) Why are bolometers not used to detect
b) klystron
modulation?
c) TWT
d) BWO
a) thermal sluggishness
b) inefficiency
c) less accurate
166) Which microwave tube has a helix
d) less precise
a) klystron
b) magnetron
162) The advantage of a resonant cavity over
c) multicavity klystron
a hairpin tank?
d) BWO
a) lesser Q
b) wider bandwidth
167) Which microwave tube has a horseshoe
magnet?
c) higher Q
d) efficiency
a) magnetron
b) klystron
c) TWT
d) BWA
169) Which vacuum tube do you think

oscillate at the highest frequency
a) Magnetron
b) Gunn
c) Klystron
d) BWO
170) How would a balun be used to change
200 ohms to 50 ohms?
a) use a higher turns ratio
b) use a higher frequency
c) reverse it
d) use low frequency
171) How could a balun change 100 ohms to
900 ohms
a) use 3:1 turns ratio
b) use 1:3 turns ratio
c) use 9:1 turns ratio
d) use 1:9 turns ratio
172) How high a frequency can transistor

generate?
168) What is the advantage of a gridless
a) above 10 GHz
163) What type of coupling is used between a
klystron
b) above 5 GHz
waveguide and a waveguide wavemeter?
a) power input
c) above 2 GHz
a) loop antenna
b) gain
d) above 7.8 GHz
b) quarterwave antenna
c) attenuator
173) What is the microwave application of a
c) hole
d) power output
d) E probe
varactor?
a) mixer
164) Which microwave tube has a repeller?
b) frequency multiplier
a) TWT
c) demodulator
d) demultiplexer
178) What is the advantage of LSA over a

a) many antennas
Gunn Diode?
b) less interference
174) What diode does better than varactor in
a) more efficient
c) easy coupling
microwave frequencies?
b) higher power
d) one antenna only
c) less noise
a) step recovery
b) tunnel
d) higher frequency
183) To what must the fourth port be
c) PIN
connected in a tunnel diode amplifier?
d) Gunn
179) What is wrong with the term Gunn
a) resistor
Diode?
b) inductor
a) not a gun
c) capacitor
b) not a semiconductor
d) impedance
c) not a diode
d) should be spelled with single n
184) To what must the third port be connected
175) The following diodes can generate
in a multiplexer circulator
microwave AC except:
180) What is important property do ferrites
a) reflecting short circuit
a) Tunnel
have which is used as a switch?
b) absorbing short circuit
b) LSA
a) faraday rotation
c) reflecting open circuit
c) IMPATT
d) absorbing open circuit
b) resonance absorption
c) magnetic properties
d) Magnetron
d) high curie temperature
185) What does radar mean?
176) For what are PIN diodes used in
a) radio detection and range
microwave?
b) radio direction and radiation
a) mixers
c) radio direction and range
d) range direction radiation
b) modulators
c) oscillators
d) amplifier
181) Which is used in circulators?
186) In what distance unit are marine radars
a) resonance absorption
calibrated?
177) What is the other name for LSA diodes?
b) magnetic properties
a) statute miles
a) negative resistance
c) ion resonance
b) kilometers
b) bulk-effect
d) faraday rotation
c) nautical miles
c) tunneling effect
d) feet
d) time-space
182) What is the advantage of using a
circulator with two transmitter and two
receivers?
c) bearing
d) round
196) What type of oscillator determines the

PRR?
187) What time unit is the equivalent of a
a) blocking
radar mile?
192) What is the ability to separate adjacent
b) pulse
equidistant targets called?
c) square
a) 12.3 microseconds
b) 6.8 microseconds
a) bearing resolution
d) blocking or pulse
c) 4.5 microseconds
b) narrow bandwidth
d) 7.1 microseconds
c) high frequency
197) What other circuit might be used as an
d) shorter wavelength
oscillator that determines the PRR?
188) In what frequency band does marine
a) trapezoidal generator
radar operate?
b) unbalanced multivibrator
a) 9.5 GHz S band
c) bistablemultivibrator
b) 3 GHz X band
d) sinewave generator
c) 9.5 GHz Ku band
193) What is the approximate rotational rate 198) Why are hydrogen-gas thyratrons used
d) 3 GHz S band
of a radar antenna?
in radar?
189) To what two circuits would a radar timer
a) 20 rpm
a) fast-ionize
circuit feed signals?
b) 5 rpm
b) cheaper
a) modulator and mixer
c) 25 rpm
c) accurate
b) amplifier and circulator
d) efficient
d) 10 rpm
c) modulator and circulator
d) amplifier and modulator
194) How is radar CRTs differ from TV?
a) square
190) What is the target display on a CRT
b) round
called?
c) rectangular
a) crosshair
d) trapezoidal
199) What is the other name for a pulseforming network in radars?
b) blip
c) center spot
195) What circuits make up the radar
a) tuned circuit
d) round
transmitter?
b) oscillators
a) multivibrator
c) delay line
191) What is the main bang on a PPI radar
b) trapezoidal oscillator
d) capacitive circuits
set?
c) sinewave generator
a) blip
200) What determines the PRR in odd-time
d) blocking oscillator
radar sets?
b) center spot
a)
b)
c)
d)
tuned circuit frequency

oscillator frequency
spark gap speed
MOPA transmitter time
c) LSA
d) TWT
205) To what tube is a dc keep-alive voltage 210) What solid-state types might be used as
applied?
a radar receiver?
201) What is used to carry RF energy from
a) Oscillator
a) Gunn diode
magnetron to antenna in a radar set?
b) Transmit-Receive Mixer
b) Tunnel diode
a) helix
c) Circulator
c) Hot carrier diode
b) parallel wireline
d) Isolator
d) Step recovery diode
c) coax
206) In radar, if the mixer diode burns out,
d) waveguide
what are replaced?
202) What is the method of illuminating a
a) tube
parabolic reflector with RF?
b) mixer
c) antenna
211) What does an ATR tube aid?
a) horn
b) cassegrain
a) transmitting
d) diode
c) helix
b) receiving
d) coax
207) What is the cavity between magnetron
c) both transmitting and receiving
and mixer cavity called?
d) neither transmitting and receiving
203) How would a radar reflector be
a) ATR
parabolic-shaped
b) TR
212) To what is the AFC voltage applied in a
a) circularly
c) Transmit
klystron?
b) vertically
d) Receive
a) cathode
b) grid
c) horizontally
d) none of these
208) Radar receivers use what Ifs
c) plate
a) 20 MHz and lower
d) any of these
204) In what way are radar emissions similar
b) 10 MHz and higher
to microwave ovens?
213) Sea return is the control that desentisizes
c) 30 MHz or higher
a) can transmit
d) 10 MHz and lower
a radar receiver for _____
b) can receive
a) 5 10 microseconds
209) What kind of local oscillators does a
b) 15 20 microseconds
c) can cook
d) can transceiver
radar receiver use?
c) 10 15 microseconds
d) 20 25 microseconds
a) klystron
b) magnetron
214)
a)
b)
c)
d)
In radars, how is blooming prevented?

limit modulation
video signal
limit the carrier signal
limit the audio signal
215)
a)
b)
c)
d)
How is brilliance controlled in radars?

audio gain
IF gain
RF gain
video gain
216)
a)
b)
c)
d)
How is sensitivity limited in radars?

RF gain
video gain
audio gain
IF gain
217) How much intensifying pulse is used in

radars?
a) Just enough to produce light flicker
on screen
b) should be high to produce light flicker
on screen
c) should be low to produce light flicker on
screen
d) any amount of intensifying pulse will do
218) If echo signals are developed as negative

d) A pulsating DC
pulses, to what part of the CRT would they
be fed in radar?
a) anode
b) grid
223) What is fed to a control transformer
rotor?
c) cathode
nd
d) 2 grid
a) A pulsating DC
b) power-line AC
219) What starts the range-marker circuit
c) DC source
ringing in radars?
d) none
a) intensifying pulse
b) IF gain
224) What is used to indicate the bow of the
c) AC signal
ship on the CRT?
d) Carrier signal
a) tail flash
b) body flash
220) Why is a selsyn pair not too successful
c) heading flash
for radar antenna synchronization?
d) none
a) constant lead angle
225) When is an echo box used on ships?
b) variable lag angle
c) constant lag angle
a) testing only
d) variable lead angle
b) direction finding
c) auto alarm
221) What is fed to the rotor of a selsyn
d) ship detection
motor?
226) What qualification must a person have
a) power-line AC
b) DC source
before he is eligible to make repairs to a
c) A pulsating DC
radar set?
d) None
a) NTC endorsement
b) repair license
222) What is fed to the rotor selsyn
c) repair endorsement
generator?
d) radar endorsement
a) none
227) What is the advantage of using Doppler
b) power-line AC
c) DC source
radar?
a)
b)
c)
d)
shows only moving target

shows stationary target
shows both moving and stationary target
produce blips with stationary targets
228) How would Doppler radar give speed

indications?
a) adjust output burst
b) correct RF carrier output
c) switch amplitude detector
d) calibrate discriminator output
229) What is another application of Doppler

radar?
a) distance between radar and stationary
target
b) ground speed indicator
c) ground missile indicator
d) enemy base station
230) Why are signal nulls used in Radio
Direction Finders work?
a) sharper than maximums
b) sharper than minimums
c) duller than maximums
d) duller than minimums
231) How many are signal nulls in one loop
rotation Radio Direction Finders?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 2
d) any of these
236) In RDF, what happens to a radio wave

path as it moves outward across a coastline
232) Under what conditions do the horizontal
as less than 90 degrees?
portions of a loop pick up difference
a) bends away from the shore
currents in RDF?
b) travels along the shore
a) ground waves
c) bends towards shore
d) travels across the shore
b) sky waves
c) space waves
d) direct waves
237) What is the result of antenna effect in
RDF?
233) The method of balancing a loop used in
a) rotated 90 degrees
RDF?
b) nulls shift
a) Capacitor to ground
c) decreases land effect
b) Capacitor to sense antenna
d) coastline refraction
c) Sense antenna to one side of loop
238) What is the result of re-radiation of
d) Any of these
signals in RDF?
234) For what are unidirectional readings
a) great circle error
used in loops for RDF?
b) non-opposite minimums
c) polarization errors
a) resolve a 180 degrees ambiguity
b) resolve a 90 degrees ambiguity
d) nulls shifted
c) resolve a 360 degrees ambiguity
d) resolve a 270 degrees ambiguity
239) What causes night effect in direction
finding?
a) ground plus space wave
b) sky plus space wave
c) ground plus sky waves
235) What kind of antenna is a sense antenna
d) ground wave alone
used in RDF?
a) circular
240) At what time of the day is direction
finder bearings least accurate
b) vertical
c) horizontal
a) sunset
b) sunrise
c) mid-day
d) sunset and sunrise
245) What forms the error signal that actuates

the ADF servo-motor?
a) 75-Hz carrier
b) 114-Hz carrier
c) 114-Hz sideband
d) 75-Hz sideband
few minutes, what else must be known to

determine the ships position?
a) speed
b) elapses time
c) ships course
d) any of these
241) At what angles are quadrantal errors

250) What important point regarding-loop
maximum in direction finding
246) Which ADF antenna is used for manual
RDF system maintenance?
operation?
a) insulation at top of loop
a) 45 degrees
b) 90 degrees
a) parabolic antenna
b) clean moving contacts
c) 180 degrees
c) oil bearing of loop
b) loop antenna
d) 270 degrees
c) half-wave dipole
d) any of these
d) helical antenna
242) How are quadrantal errors corrected?
a) 330 degrees
b) 360 degrees
c) 315 degrees
d) 215 degrees
247) Which ADF antenna is used for simple
243) How is it that none of the 120-550 kHz
receive operation?
ADF circuits are tuned to the desired
a) loop antenna
station?
b) sense antenna
a) narrowband amplifiers
c) quarterwave antenna
d) parabolic antenna
b) broadband amplifiers
c) IF amplifiers
d) Mixers
248) What is heard by earphones in the ADF?
a) 3 kHz beat
244) What is the only hand-tuned circuit in
b) 1 kHz beat
the ADF?
c) 2 kHz beat
a) 3125-kHz signal local oscillator
d) 5 kHz beat
b) 4125-kHz signal local oscillator
MULTIPLE CHOICE
249) If two bearing are determined from a
c) 2182-kHz signal local oscillator
d) 2230-kHz signal local oscillator
radio beacon or station over a period of a
QUESTIONS IN
TELEPHONY
AND
FACSIMILE
By
Melvin C. Arceo
A. switching points
B. service points
C. point codes
D. service switching points
3. A PABX is normally connected to the central 8. It is comprised of two or more facilities,

office via an interface device called
interconnected in tandem, to provide a
transmission path between a source and a
A. branch exchange unit
destination
B. subscriber loop unit
A. telephone line
C. foreign exchange unit
D. local exchange unit
B. telephone set
C. telephone circuit
4. The most widely used fax standard is
D. telephone trunk
A. group 1
B. group 2
C. group 3
D. group 4
5. The modern Touch-tone telephone is called
ENCODED BY:
1. The simplest and most straightforward form
of telephone service is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
Public switch telephone network

Mobile telephone switching office
Plain and old telephone service
Central office service
A. busy signal
B. ringing signal
C. ringback signal
D. dial tone
A. 600-type telephone set

B. 2500-type telephone set
C. 2800-type telephone set
D. 1500-type telephone set
9. The drum diameter of a facsimile machine is

90.2 mm and the scanning pitch is 0.2 mm per
scan. Find the index of cooperation according to
CCITT
A. 451
B. 2.22 x 10^-3
C. 1417
D. 144
10. It is the ratio in dB of the power of a signal

at that point to the power the same signal would
6. Signals that provides call status information, be 0-dBm at any point in the transmission
such as busy or ringback signals
system
A. supervising
B. hybriding
C. controlling
D. ringing
A. data level
B. baseband level
C. voice level
D. transmission level
2. _______ are local telephone switches

7. A signal sent back to the calling party at the 11. It is an indirect method of evaluating the
equipped with SS7-compatible software and
same time the ringing signal is sent to the called phase delay characteristics of the circuit
terminating signal links
party
A. phase delay distortion

B. envelope delay distortion
C. non-linear distortion
D. linear distortion
C. subscriber loop
D. any of these
16. It is simply the frequency response of a

transmission medium referenced to a 1004-Hz
12. It is characterized by high-amplitude peaks test tone
of short duration having an approximately flat
frequency response
A. attenuation distortion
B. differential gain
A. crosstalk
C. 1004-Hz deviation
B. interference
D. any of these
C. impulse noise
D. drop out
17. The time delay measured in angular units,
such as degrees or radians is called __________
13. It is the presence of one or more continuous,
unwanted tones within the message channels,
A. propagation time
the tones are often caused by crosstalk or cross
B. phase delay
modulation between adjacent channels in a
C. holding time
transmission
system
due
to
system
D. system delay time
nonlinearities.
18. It is a communications term that indicates
A. multiple-frequency interference
the presence of a signal power comparable to
the power of an actual message transmission
B. single-frequency interference
C. co-channel interference
D. desensitizing
A. dynamic range
B. loaded
14. That portion of the local loop that is strung
C. node
between the poles
D. reference
20. Exchanges connected directly to the local

loops are called ______________
A. central office
B. local exchange
C. exchange offices
D. any of these
21. It provides functionality of communicating
with the voice switch by creating the packets or
signal units necessary for transmission over the
SS7 network
A. switching points
B. service points
C. point codes
D. service switching points
22. In a 4-wire telephone set connection, (used
to connect telephone set to central office
switching) the green coded wire is used
_______________
A. as ground wire
B. to transmit the signal
C. to receive the signal from the far end
D. as a spare or for special purpose
applications
19. It is any device used to originate and 23. A technique where the called subscriber is
terminate calls and to transmit and receive served by any other central office, the switching
signals into and out of the telephone network
equipment will have to transfer the digit dialed
to the called switching equipment.
A. instrument
15. It is the primary cause of attenuation and
B. station equipment
A. loop signaling
phase distortion on a telephone circuit
C. station
B. step-by-step switching
D. any of these
C. interoffice calling
A. local line
D. duplex signaling
B. local loop
A. aerial
B. distribution cable
C. feeder cable
D. twisted-pair
24. Electromagnetic coupling between two or

more physically interconnected transmission 29. Type of loop signaling which is widely used
media is what type of crosstalk?
in new switching systems to supervise trunks
between two central offices.
A. coupling crosstalk
B. transmission crosstalk
A. battery and ground pulsing
C. linear crosstalk
B. reverse battery signaling
D. non-linear crosstalk
C. loop pulsing
25. The number of dedicated lines used to
D. duplex signaling
interconnect 100 parties
30. Printed documents to be transmitted by fax
A. 99 lines
are converted into a baseband electrical signal
B. 1250 lines
by the process of
C. 4950 lines
D. 3450 lines
A. reflection
B. scanning
26. Class of switching office which is the local
C. modulation
exchange where the subscriber loops terminated
D. light variations
and received dial tone.
31. The transmission speed of group 4 fax is
A. 4800 baud
A. Class 5
B. Class 4C
B. 9600 baud
C. Class 3
C. 56 kbps
D. Class 1
D. 192 kbps
27. The maximum intelligibility of voice 32. It is a distortion formed if SSB is used
frequency is between
where the information bandwidth is greater than
half of the carrier frequency.
A. 2000 and 3000 Hz
A. near-far effect
B. 1000 and 3000 Hz
C. 2500 and 4000 Hz
B. hauffman effect
D. 1000 and 2500 Hz
C. kendall effect
D. herringbone effect
28. It is the state of the telephone when it is idle.
33. It is simply an unshielded twisted pair
transmission line consisting of two insulated
A. on-hook
B. off-hook
conductors twisted together.
C. semi-hook
D. hook-in
A. local loop
B. local line
C. subscriber loop
D. any of these
34. It is an audible signal comprised of two
frequencies: 350 Hz and 440 Hz
A. dial tone
B. ringback signal
C. busy tone
D. call waiting tone
35. It enables the destination station of a
telephone call to display the name of the
telephone number of the calling party before the
telephone is answered.
A. conference call
B. call wait
C. call forwarding
D. caller id
36. The largest cable used in a local loop,
usually 3600 pair of copper wires placed
underground or in conduit.
A. feeder cable
B. distribution cable
C. drop wire
D. drop-wire cross-connect cables
37. A weighting technique that assumes a
perfect receiver only, therefore its weighting
curve corresponds to the frequency response of
the ear only.
A. relative noise weighting
B. above relative noise weighting
C. C-message noise weighting
D. psophometric noise weighting
38. The difference between the absolute delays

of all frequencies.
A. relative phase delay
B. phase delay distortion
C. absolute phase delay
D. phase distortion
39. A special type of line conditioning that sets
the minimum requirements for signal-to-noise
ratio a nonlinear distortion.
A. A-type line conditioning
B. B-type line conditioning
C. C-type line conditioning
D. D-type line conditioning
40. It is a form of incidental phase modulation
a continuous uncontrolled variations in the zero
crossings of a signal.
A. crosstalk
B. co-channel interference
C. phase jitter
D. spikes
41. A type of crosstalk which is a direct result of
nonlinear
amplification
in
analog
communications system
A. linear crosstalk
B. transmittance crosstalk
C. nonlinear crosstalk
D. coupling crosstalk
42. The operator of the telephone instrument
A. subscriber
B. destination
C. source
D. terminal
43. It is a system of sensors, switches and other
electronic and electrical devices that allow
subscriber to give instructions directly to the
switch without having to go through the
operator.
A. manual switching system
B. automated switching system
C. common switching system
D. crossbar switching system
44. Toll offices are connected to other toll
offices with _____________
A. intertoll trunks
B. intratoll trunks
C. interoffice trunks
D. intraoffice trunks
45. The highest ranking office in the DDD
network in term of size of the geographical area
served and the trunk options available.
A. End office
B. Sectional center
C. Regional center
D. Toll center
46. He invented the automatic line selector,
which led to the automatic telephone system.
A. Alexander Bain
B. Alexander Graham Bell
C. Thomas Edison
D. Almon Strowger
47. It allows customers to change to a different

service and still keep the same phone number
A. changing
B. porting
C. transporting
D. portability
48. By definition, speech power is equal to v.u.
reading minus ___________
A. 1.8 dB
B. 4 dB
C. 1.4 dB
D. 3 dB
49. When the telephone set is in the
____________ state, a direct current from the
central office (CO) flows through the transmitter
and receiver of the handset.
A. on-hook
B. off-hook
C. semi-hook
D. hook-in
50. Type of loop signaling which involves
opening and closing the loop to dial to or
through the central office.
A. ear and mouth
B. duplex
C. loop pulsing
D. interoffice calling
51. When the image at the receiving end of a
facsimile transmission is elongated vertically,
A. the transmitter IOC is less than the

56. A signal sent from the switching machine
receiver IOC
B. the transmitter IOC is greater than the back to the calling station whenever the system
receiver IOC
cannot complete call because of equipment
C. the transmitter IOC is equal to the unavailability.
receiver IOC
D. the IOC is not a factor
A. busy tone
B. call waiting tone
52. In FM fax, the frequencies for black and
C. fax tone
white are
D. congestion tone
A. 1500 and 2300 Hz
B. 2200 and 1500 Hz
C. 1300 and 2400 Hz
D. 1070 and 1270 Hz
53. It is a measure of the faithful reproduction of
scanned prints in a facsimile communications.
A. fidelity
B. contrast
C. legibility
D. chroma
54. The feedback signals that help prevent the
speaker from talking too loudly.
A. busy tone
B. ringback tone
C. dial tone
D. sidetone
57. The final length of cable pair that terminates

at the SNI
A. aerial
B. drop wire
C. distribution cable
D. cross-connect cables
58. It is the difference in circuit gain
experienced at a particular frequency with
respect to the circuit gain of a reference
frequency.
A. dynamic range
B. absorption distortion
C. attenuation distortion
D. selective fading
60. An envelope delay distortion test on a basic

telephone channel indicated that an 1800-Hz
carrier experienced the minimum absolute delay
of 400 us. The maximum envelope delay for a
basic telephone channel is 1750 us within the
frequency range 800 Hz to 2600 Hz. What is the
maximum envelope delay?
A. 2150 microsec
B. 2550 microsec
C. 3000 microsec
D. 3400 microsec
61. In SS7 signaling points, codes that are
carried in signaling messages exchanged
between signaling points to identify the source
and destination of each message
A. signaling points
B. service points
C. switching points
D. point codes
62. Stage of the step-by-step switching system
that is composed of switches to complete the
connection to the called subscriber.
A. line equipment
B. switch train
C. connectors
D. switching network
59. In telephone systems, a special type of line

conditioning that pertains to line impairments
for which compensation can be made with
55. It is the exchange of signaling messages filters and equalizers.
63. ____________ is the switching system that
between switching machines
is a branch of the local central office.
A. A-line conditioning
A. loop signaling
B. B-line conditioning
A. local exchange
B. station signaling
C. C-line conditioning
B. branch exchange
D. D-line conditioning
C. subscriber loop
C. interoffice signaling
D. pulse signaling
D. line
64. Most fax printers are of which type?

A. Impact
B. Thermal
C. Electrosensitive
D. Laser xerographic
extended to the subscribers location on a drop 72. Circuits that are designed and configured for
wire
their use only and often referred to as private
circuits or dedicated circuits.
A. feeder cable and distribution cable
B. drop wire and aerial cable
A. switched circuits
C. distribution cable and drop-wire crossB. leased circuits
C. virtual circuits
connect cables
D. distribution cable and aerial cable
D. switched virtual circuits
65. Aside from tip and ring used in local loops

the third wire when used is called __________. 69. In telephone systems, a special type of line
conditioning that specifies the maximum limit
A. reserve
for attenuation distortion and envelope delay
distortion.
B. sleeve
C. ground
D. none of these
A. A-line conditioning
B. B-line conditioning
66. Acknowledgement and status signals that
C. C-line conditioning
ensure the process necessary to set up and
D. D-line conditioning
terminate a telephone call are completed in an
orderly and timely manner,
70. A the receiver, the phase difference at the
different carrier frequencies is called
_________.
A. call progress tones and signals
B. call waiting tones and signals
C. incoming call tones and signals
A. envelope delay distortion
D. call termination tones and signals
B. phase delay
C. envelope delay
67. POCSAG stands for
D. propagation time
A. Post Office Code Standardization
Advisory Group
B. Post Office Code System Advisory
Group
C. Paging Operation Code Standardization
Advisory Group
D. Paging Operation Code System Advisory
Group
68. The location where individual cable pairs
within a distribution cable are separated and
73. It is a programmable matrix that allows

circuits to be connected to one another.
A. circuit switch
B. tap switch
C. equipment switch
D. cross switch
74. Interstate long distance telephone calls
require a small telephone office called
_________.
A. sectional office
B. regional office
C. toll office
D. end office
75. A call that cannot be completed because the

necessary trunk circuits or switching paths are
71. It is a sudden, random changes in the phase not available.
of the signal. They are classified as temporary
variations in the phase of the signal lasting
A. blocking
longer than 4 ms.
B. holding
C. storing
D. none of these
A. phase hits
B. phase jitter
C. interference
76. A mandate that requires all telephone
D. distortion
companies to support the porting of telephone
number.
A. national number portability

B. regional number portability
C. local number portability
D. sectional number portability
77. The connection between the telephone and
the central offices switching equipment.
A. subscriber loop
B. relay circuits
C. line sensors
D. supervisory relay
78. An exact reproduction of a document or
picture provided at the receiving end.
A. television
B. telecommunication
C. facsimile transmission
D. mobile communication
81. Early paging system uses what modulation

technique?
A. pulse modulation
B. amplitude modulation
C. phase modulation
D. frequency modulation
82. A device that serves as a demarcation point
between local telephone company responsibility
and subscriber responsibility for telephone
service.
A. standard network interface
B. subscriber line interface card
C. system network architecture
D. network interface card
83. It is the actual time required for a particular

frequency to propagate from a source to a
79. What type of graphics are commonly destination through a communications channel.
transmitted by radio fax?
A. relative phase delay
A. Newspaper text
B. phase delay distortion
B. Architectural drawings
C. absolute phase delay
C. Cable movies
D. phase distortion
D. Satellite weather photos
84. It is a sudden, random change in the gain of
80. It is comprised of a transmitter, receiver, an the circuit resulting in a temporary change in the
electrical network for equalization, associated signal level.
circuitry to control sidetone levels and to
regulate signal power and necessary signaling
A. spikes
circuitry.
B. gain hits
C. jitter
D. echo
A. telephone
B. television
C. facsimile
85. A typical echo suppressor suppresses the
D. computer
returned echo by how much?
A. 10 dB
B. 30 dB
C. 45 dB
D. 60 dB
86. In telephony, functions that supply and
interpret control and supervisory signals needed
to perform the operation
A. calling functions
B. maintenance functions
C. signaling functions
D. transmission functions
87. It is a central location where subscribers are
interconnected, either temporarily or on a
permanent basis.
A. central offices
B. exchange offices
C. exchanges
D. any of these
88. It is simply a path between two subscribers
and is comprised of one or more switches, two
local loops or possibly one or more trunk
circuits.
A. way
B. route
C. path
D. mode
89. It defines the procedures and protocols
necessary to exchange information over the
PSTN using a separate digital signaling network
to provide wireless and wireline telephone call
setup, routing and control.
A. any of these
B. common channel signaling system no. 7
C. SS7
D. C7
to connect telephone set to central office
switching) the red coded wire is used
__________.
94. A signal that is sent from the switching

machine back to the calling station whenever
the called telephone number is off-hook.
A. dial tone signal
B. ringback signal
C. busy signal
D. off-hook signal
95. A smaller version of the feeder cable

A. as ground wire
containing less wire pairs.
A. aerial
B. drop wire
applications
C. feeder cable
D. distribution cable
91. The connection between two central offices
96. It is a parameter equivalent to TLP except
A. line
that it is used as a reference for data
transmission.
B. trunk
C. loop
D. signaling
A. transmission level point
B. data level point
92. In facsimile, the length of time required to
C. voice level point
transmit a document
D. baseband transmission point
A. propagation time
B. transmission rate
97. He developed the first instrument that
C. holding time
transmitted music over a wire
D. transmission time
A. Philipp Reis
93. It is a combination of passive components
B. Antonio Meucci
that are used to regulate the amplitude and
C. Thomas Edison
frequency response of the voice signals.
D. Almon Strowger
A. equalizer circuit
B. balanced transformer
D. hybrid network
A. balanced transformer
B. hybrid circuits
D. hybrid transformers
99. A switchboard with four digits can
accommodate how many telephone numbers?
A. 1,000
B. 10,000
C. 100,000
D. 9999
100. The trunk circuits that are terminated in
tandem switches are called
A. tie trunks
B. tandem trunks
C. office trunks
D. exchange trunks
101. The class of switching office that provides
service to small groups of class 4 offices within
a small area of state.
A. Class 1
B. Class 4
C. Class 2
D. Class 3
102. A device used to measure speech volume
A. volume unit meter
B. volume milliammeter
C. volume pulse meter
D. volume intensity meter
98. It is used to convert two-wire circuits to

four-wire circuits which is similar to hybrid coil
found in standard telephone sets.
103. The communications between two or three
central offices is called
A. interoffice link
B. trunk
C. interoffice calling
D. loop
104. In telephony, the -48V dc voltage was used
rather than ac voltages because
A. to prevent power supply hum
B. to allow service to continue in the event
of power outage
C. because people are afraid of ac
D. all of these
105. Category of signaling message that
indicates a request of service, such as going offhook or ringing in the destination telephone
A. dial tone
B. signaling
C. supervising
D. alerting
106. Occurs in coherent SSBSC systems, such
as those using frequency division multiplexing
when the received carrier is not reinserted with
the exact phase relationship to the received
signal as the transmit carrier possessed.
A. phase delay distortion
B. phase jitter distortion
C. phase intercept distortion
D. all of these
B. local loops
C. subscriber loops
D. any of these
B. the transmitter IOC is greater than the

receiver IOC
C. the transmitter IOC is equal to the
receiver IOC
108. A telephone call completed within a single
D. the IOC is not a factor
local exchange is called
112. It is a special balanced transformer used to
A. intraoffice call
convert a two-wire circuit into a four-wire
B. intraexchange call
circuit and vice-versa.
C. intraswitch call
A. equalizer circuit
D. any of these
B. balanced transformer
109. Type of Class 4 toll center usually had only
outward operator service or perhaps no operator
D. hybrid network
service at all.
113. It is a method originally used to transfer
A. Class 2
digits in the telephone set to the local switch.
B. Class 4P
C. Class 1
A. tone dialing
D. Class 3
B. dial pulsing
C. battery and ground pulsing
D. reverse battery pulsing
to connect telephone set to office central
switching) the yellow coded wire is used 114. It is the time required to propagate a
_______________.
change in an AM envelope through a
transmission medium
A. as ground wire
A. envelope delay distortion
B. phase delay
C. envelope delay
D. propagation time
applications
111. When the image at the receiving end of a 115. It is the primary source of transmission
facsimile
transmission
us
elongated errors in data circuits
107. It is simply the dedicated cable facility horizontally,
used to connect an instrument at a subscribers
A. impulse noise
station to the closest telephone office.
A. the transmitter IOC is less than the
B. crosstalk
receiver IOC
C. gain hits
A. subscriber lines
D. interference
116. It eliminates the echo by electrically

subtracting it from the original signal rather than
disabling the amplifier in the return circuit.
B. progressive switching
C. point-to-point switching
D. step-by-step switching
121. The frequency range of maximum voice

A. echo suppressors
energy is between
B. echo limiters
C. echo cancellers
A. 150 and 300 Hz
B. 300 and 3400 Hz
D. any of these
117. In telephony, functions that involve the
C. 250 and 500 Hz
actual transmission of a subscribers messages
D. 100 and 300 Hz
and any necessary control signals.
122. The oldest of the automatic switching
system
A. transmission functions
B. signaling functions
C. maintenance functions
A. manual switching
D. calling functions
B. step-by-step
C. common control
118. The first computer-controlled central office
D. Electronic
switching system used in PSTN
123. Group 3 fax used which modulation?
A. No.7 ESS
B. No.2 ESS
A. QAM
C. No.5 ESS
B. FSK
D. No. 1 ESS
D. FM
119. It is an exchange without a local loops
connected to it
124. Signals that provides information in the
form of announcements, such as number
A. double office
changed to another number, a number no longer
in service, and so on
B. tandem office
C. exchange office
D. local office
A. addressing
B. ringing
120. The 5-class switching hierarchy is a
C. controlling
__________ scheme that establishes an end-toD. supervising
end route mainly through trial and error.
A. interleaved switching
125. The switch closure in an off-hook

condition causes a range of dc current to flow
on the loop, what is that range of current?
A. 23 mA to 50 mA
B. 15 mA to 30 mA
C. 10 mA to 20 mA
D. 20 mA to 80 mA
126. These are unused sections of cables that are
connected in shunt working cable pair, such as a
local loop. They are used for party lines to
connect to the same local loop.
A. cross-connect loop
B. drop wire tap
C. bridge tap
D. wire tap
127. The time delay encountered by a signal as
it propagates from a source to a destination is
called ____________.
A. propagation time
B. phase delay
C. holding time
D. system delay time
128. It is the decrease in gain of more than 12
dB lasting longer than 4 ms and is a
characteristics of temporary open circuit
conditions and are generally caused by deep
fades in radio facilities or by switching delays.
A. echo
B. jitter
C. gain hits
D. dropouts
129. It is similar to the local loop except that it

is used to interconnect two telephone offices.
A. trunk lines
B. subscriber loop
C. local lines
D. subscriber lines
130. Calls that are placed between two stations
that are connected to different local exchanges.
A. interoffice calls
B. interswitch calls
C. interexchange calls
D. any of these
131. _________ is defined as a momentary onhook condition that causes loop making and
breaking from the telephone set dialer toward
the central office.
A. dial tone
B. dial pulsing
C. on-hook
D. off-hook
132. In facsimile technology, it is a number
derived from the width-height ratio.
A. numerical aperture
B. scanning spot
C. index of cooperation
D. cut-off frequency
133. In RJ-11, the RJ stands for
A. Recommended Jack
B. Released Jack
C. Registered Jack
D. Radio Jack
outside of the network, and transfer of SS7

messages to other signaling points within the
134. A cross-connect point used to distribute the network.
larger feeder cable into smaller distribution
cables
A. point codes
B. signaling points
A. SLIC
C. service points
D. switching points
B. serving area interface
C. LATA
D. cross-connect cabinet
139. The connection between the subscriber and
his own particular central office.
135. The process used to improve a basic
telephone channel is called
A. trunk
B. line
A. line turnaround
C. signaling
D. pulsing
B. line conditioning
C. line sensing
D. line improvement
140. It is a measure of how well we can
distinguish closely spaced objects or identify
136. In telephony, functions that identify and small items on a print.
connect subscribers to a suitable transmission
path
A. resolution
B. legibility
A. transmission functions
C. contrast
B. signaling functions
D. hue
C. switching functions
D. calling functions
141. It is the exchange of signaling messages
over local loops between stations and telephone
137. The telephone switching plan that allows a company switching machines
certain degree of route selection when
A. loop signaling
establishing a phone call.
B. station signaling
C. interoffice signaling
A. NPA
D. pulse signaling
B. switching hierarchy
C. toll hierarchy
142. Modern paging system uses what
D. interoffice hierarchy
modulation technique?
138. It provides access to the SS7 network
access to databases used by switches inside and
A. FSK and QPSK

B. PSK and QAM
C. ASK and FSK

D. FSK and PSK
A. FCC
B. DOD
C. CCITT
D. IEEE
152. A device that combines the transmitter and

the receiver to operate over the same wire pair.
143. The talker hears a returned portion of the

A. balancing network
signal as an echo, what is the round-trip time of
B. diaphragm
delay for an echo to quite annoying?
148. Telephone set component placed directly
C. hybrid
across the tip and ring to alert the designation
D. relay
A. 15 msec
party of an incoming call
B. 25 msec
153. Group 2 fax that uses fax standard is
C. 35 msec
A. transmitter
B. receiver
A. SSB
D. 45 msec
B. FSK
C. ringer
144. When subscriber initiates a long distance
D. dialer
calls, the local exchange connects the caller to
D. PSK
the toll office through a facility called 149. The reference frequency of a typical voice- 154. A signal sent from the central office to a
________.
band circuit is typically around _________.
subscriber whenever there is an incoming call
A. interoffice toll trunk
B. intraoffice toll trunk
C. interoffice exchange trunk
D. intraoffice exchange trunk
145. Range of speech power
A. 1500 Hz
B. 1300 Hz
C. 1700 Hz
D. 1800 Hz
A. busy signal
B. ringing signal
C. ringback signal
D. dial tone
150. The most versatile and popular crossbar 155. It is defined as the optimum level of a test
switch was __________.
tone on a channel at some point in a
A. 100 1000 uW
B. 10 100 uW
A. #4YB
B. 5#YB
C. 10 1000 uW
A. transmission level point
D. 1000 10000 uW
B. data level point
C. #5XB
D. #5ZB
C. voice level point
146. Which resolution produces the best quality
D. baseband transmission point
fax?
151. A telephone service that uses a common
800 area code regardless of the location of the 156. A type of crosstalk which is caused by
A. 96 lpi
destination.
inadequate control of the frequency response of
B. 150 lpi
the transmission system, poor filter design, or
C. 200 lpi
poor filter performance.
A. wide area telephone service
B. local area telephone service
D. 400 lpi
C. metropolitan area telephone service
A. single-channel crosstalk
147. Facsimile standards are set by the
D. personal area telephone service
B. transmittance crosstalk
C. linear crosstalk
D. coupling crosstalk
161. It can be defined as any disturbance created

D. more than 300 Hz but less than 400 Hz
in a communications channel by signals in other
157. Class of switching office that could provide communications channel.
166. 10 or more subscribers connected in a
service to geographical regions varying in size
central office exchange using same local loop
from part of the state to all of several states,
A. wire tapping
A. crosstalk
depending on population density.
B. interference
B. party lines
C. hits
C. eaves dropping lines
D. jitter
D. monitor lines
A. sectional center
B. end office
C. regional center
162. Type of Class 4 toll center which provides 167. He designed and built the first transmitter
D. toll center
human operators for both outward and inward and receiver for a telephone set.
calling service.
158. By definition, speech power is equal to v.u.
A. Alexander Graham Bell
reading minus 1.4 dB plus log of N, where N is
A. Class 4P
B. Alexander Bain
B. Class 5
C. Antonio Meucci
A. The number of lines used
D. Philipp Reis
C. Class 4C
B. The number of transmitters used
D. Class 1
168. If a switching machine is set to accept
C. The number of persons speaking
D. The number of listeners listening
163. A type of signaling was developed as an pulses at a rate of 10 pulses per second with a
alternative to loop signaling.
60% break, find the make interval of the switch.
159. The most commonly used light sensor in a
modern fax machine is a
A. 60 ms
A. ear and mouth
B. duplex
B. 100 ms
A. Phototube
C. loop pulsing
C. 40 ms
B. Phototransistor
D. interoffice calling
D. 25 ms
C. Liquid-crystal display
164. Signals that provide the routing 169. How many point-to-point links are required
D. Charged coupled device
information, such as calling and called numbers. to connect 50 telephones together?
160. Systems that are simplex wireless
communications systems designed to alert
A. routing
A. 2255
subscribers of awaiting messages
B. calling
B. 1225
C. controlling
C. 2250
D. 1552
A. paging
D. addressing
B. searching
C. texting
165. Phase jitters occur at what frequency?
170. The first commercial switchboard was
D. calling
installed in
A. less than 300 Hz
B. more than 300 Hz
A. Connecticut
C. more than 400 Hz
B. Boston
C. Pennsylvania
D. Washington
176. The following frequencies are developed

using 1.8 kHz used for scanner in facsimile, 181. With what type transmitter is fax
except:
transmitted on HF?
171. Where is a fax scanner found?

A. at the end of fax signals
B. at origin of fax signals
C. at receive end of fax system
D. at the input of a fax transmitter
172. What is the standard scanning LPI rates?
A. 120
B. 25
C. 400
D. 195
173. What tone is used to start fax?
A. 400 Hz
B. 100 Hz
C. 300 Hz
D. 500 Hz
174. What tone is used to stop fax?
A. 450 Hz
B. 500 Hz
C. 150 Hz
D. 250 Hz
A. 300 Hz
B. 100 Hz
C. 450 Hz
D. 60 Hz
A. AM
B. FM
C. PM
D. SSB
177. To what is the output of a scanner fed in 182. With what type transmitter is fax
fax?
transmitted on VHF?
A. transmitter
B. receiver
C. mixer
D. oscillator
A. FM
B. PM
C. SSB
D. AM
178. Basically, in facsimile, what is a scanner 183. The helix wire forms one end of the circuit
helix?
of facsimile; what forms the other?
A. clear sided drum with one turn scratch
B. clear sided drum with two turn scratch
C. opaque sided drum with one turn
scratch
D. opaque sided drum with two turn scratch
179. A recorder helix in facsimile?
A. insulated drum with one turn wire
B. opaque drum with one turn scratch
C. clear sided with one turn wire
D. insulated drum with one turn scratch
A. insulated wire
B. drum
C. blade
D. transmit circuit
184. What emf is required across the circuit in
facsimile to form a dark spot?
A. 40 V
B. 60 V
C. 25 V
D. 70 V
175. What tones carry map information using

facsimile?
180. In fax, the following are scanner signals
where the switcher switch in except:
185. In a facsimile recorder what is used to
A. 1300 Hz and 2400 Hz
make 1,500-Hz ac stronger than 2300 Hz?
B. 2400 Hz and 2500 Hz
A. 300 Hz
C. 1200 Hz and 2400 Hz
B. phasing signal
A. non-linear slope filter
D. 1500 Hz and 2300 Hz
C. 90 Hz
B. linear slope filter
D. map signals
C. active slope filter
D. passive slope filter

D. never wears
186. In a recorder of facsimile, what is used to
generate 60-Hz ac?
191. What should bring the left margin of the
map to the left side of the paper in the recorder
A. 3.0 kHz oscillator and logic gates
of facsimile?
B. 2.4 kHz mixer and logic gates
C. 3.0 kHz oscillator and logic divider
A. map signals
D. 2.4 kHz oscillator and logic divider
B. phasing signals
C. automatic switch
187. If the tuning meter reads full scale, what
D. 90 Hz
would this indicate in facsimile?
A. 1300 signal
B. 2400 signal
C. 1400 signal
D. 1500 signal
1. A device that was constructed from mirrors

and selenium detectors that transmitted sound
waves over a beam of light.
A. lightphone
B. photophone
C. cameraphone
D. walletphone
188. If the tuning meter reads midscale, what

A. average
B. mistuned
C. peak
D. minimum
189. If the tuning meter reads low-scale, what
A. 1500 signal
B. 1700 signal
C. 2300 signal
D. 2400 signal
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN
FIBER
OPTICS

By
190. Why is the blade an endless loop in
facsimile?
A. wears faster
B. wears slower
C. wears average speed
ENCODED BY:
Melvin C. Arceo
2. Which fiber-optic system is better?

A. 3 repeaters
B. 8 repeaters
C. 11 repeaters
D. 20 repeaters
3. What is the frequency limit of a copper wire?
A. approximately 0.5 MHz
B. approximately 1.0 MHz
C. approximately 40 GHz
D. none of the above
4. They were granted patents for scanning and
transmitting television images through uncoated
fiber cables.
9. He coined the term fiber optics in 1956.

A. Baird and Hansel
B. Bockham and Kao
C. Kapron and Keck
D. Maiman and Schawlow
A. Kapany
B. Kao
C. Bockham
D. Keck
5. The product of the bit rate and distance of a

fiber-optic system is 2 Gbits-km/s. What is the 10. They wrote a paper describing how it was
maximum rate at 5 km?
possible to use stimulated emission for
amplifying light waves (laser) as well as
A. 100 Mbits/s
microwaves (maser).
B. 200 Mbits/s
A. Theodore Maiman
C. 400 Mbits/s
D. 1000 Gbits/s
B. KC Kao and GA Bockham
C. Charles Townes and Arthur Schawlow
6. Approximately what is the frequency limit of
D. Kapron, Keck and Maurer
the optical fiber?
11. The scientist who built the first optical
A. 20 MHz
maser
B. 1 MHz
C. 100 MHz
A. Charles Townes
B. GA Bockham
D. 40 GHz
C. Theodore Maiman
7. They experimented with light transmission
D. ACS Van Heel
cables through bundle of fibers and lead to the
development of flexible fiberscope.
12. A single fiber can handle as many voice
channels as
A. Townes, Schawlow and Kao
B. Maiman, Kao and Bockham
A. a pair of copper conductors
C. Maurer, Kapron and Keck
B. a 1500-pair cable
C. a 500-pair cable
D. Van Heel, Hopkins and Kapany
D. a 1000-pair cable
8. Photodiodes operate properly with
13. They proposed a new communication
A. forward bias
medium using cladded fiber cables.
B. reverse bias
C. neither forward nor reverse bias
A. Kao and Bockham
D. either forward or reverse bias
C. Kapron, Keck and Maurer
D. Maiman and Schawlow

14. An incident ray can be defined as
A. a light ray reflected from a flat surface
B. a light directed toward a surface
C. a diffused light ray
D. a light ray that happens periodically
15. Developed an optical fiber with losses less
that 2 dB/km
A. Kao and Bockham
C. Maiman and Schawlow
D. Kapron, Keck and Maurer
16. The band of light frequencies that are too
high to be seen by the human eye.
A. Ultraviolet
B. Visible light
C. Infrared
D. Yellow
17. Which of the following is the fastest light
sensor?
A. PIN photodiode
B. Photovoltaic diode
C. Photodiode
D. Avalanche photodiode
18. Range of infrared
A. 360 nm to 440 nm
B. 670 nm to 10^3 nm
C. 110 nm to 240 nm
D. 770 nm to 10^6 nm
24. The band of light frequencies that are too

19. The term dispersion describes the process of low to be seen by the human eye
B. mechanical fatigue
C. stress fatigue
D. coating fatigue
A. Infrared
A. separating light into its component
B. X-rays
29. The term critical angle describes
frequencies
B. reflecting light from a smooth surface
C. Visible
C. the process by which light is absorbed by
A. the point at which light is refracted
D. Ultraviolet
an uneven rough surface
B. the point at which light becomes invisible
D. light scattering
25. Which of the following terms best describes
C. the point at which light has gone from
20. The band of light frequencies to which the reason that light is refracted at different the refractive mode to the reflective mode
human eye will respond
angles?
D. the point at which light has crossed the
boundary layers from one index to another
A. Infrared
A. Photon energy changes with wavelength
B. Light is refracted as a function of surface 30. The ratio of the speed of light in air to the
B. Visible light
C. Ultraviolet
smoothness
speed of light in another substance is called
D. Cosmic ray
C. The angle is determined partly by a and b
A. speed factor
D. The angle is determined by the index
21. Laser light is very bright because it is
B. index of reflection
of the materials
C. index of refraction
A. pure
26. Range of wavelengths of ultraviolet
D. speed gain
B. white
A. 670 nm to 10^3 nm
31. The three essential types of fiber commonly
C. coherent
D. monochromatic
B. 440 nm to 540 nm
used today except:
C. 110 nm to 240 nm
22. Which of the following is the fastest light
A. Plastic core and cladding
D. 10 nm to 390 nm
sensor?
B. Plastic core and glass cladding
27. Single frequency light is called
C. Glass core and glass cladding (SCS)
A. PIN photodiode
D. Glass core and plastic cladding (PCS)
B. Photovoltaic diode
A. pure
C. Photodiode
B. intense
32. What phenomenon will result if the glass
C. coherent
fiber is exposed to long periods of high
D. Avalanche photodiode
humidity?
D. monochromatic
23. Range of wavelength of visible light
28. The coating in a fiber helps protect fiber
A. stress fatigue
A. 670 nm to 10^3 nm
from moisture, which reduces the possibility of
B. core corrosion
B. 440 nm to 540 nm
the occurrence of a detrimental phenomenon
C. stress corrosion
C. 110 nm to 240 nm
called
D. cladding corrosion
33. The law that states When visible light of
D. 390 nm to 770 nm
high frequency electromagnetic radiation
A. static fatigue
illuminates a metallic surface, electrons are

emitted is known as ____________.
38. Most fiber optic light sources emit light in
which spectrum?
A. Einstein law of photon
B. Marconis law
A. visible
C. Maxwells law
B. infrared
C. ultraviolet
D. Planks law
D. X-ray
34. Both LEDs and ILDs operate correctly with
39. A packet of energy which is equal to the
difference between the two energy levels.
A. forward bias
B. reverse bias
C. neither forward nor reverse bias
A. Photons
D. either forward or reverse bias
B. Electronvolt
C. Quantum
35. Any energy above the ground state is called
D. Quanta
___________.
40. It is the science of measuring only light
A. normal state
waves that are visible to the human eye.
B. above-ground state
A. Radiometry
C. excited state
D. spontaneous state
B. Photometry
C. Ophthalmology
36. The process of decaying from one energy
D. Optometry
level to another energy level is called
__________.
41. The refractive index number is
A. Spontaneous emission
B. Excited emission
C. Absorption
D. Any of these
B. Photometry
C. Ophthalmology
D. Optometry
43. Which light emitter is preferred for highspeed data in a fiber-optic system?
A. incandescent
B. LED
C. neon
D. laser
44. Light intensity is generally described in
terms of __________ and measured in
_________.
A. Luminous flux density; Lumens per
unit area
B. Luminous flux intensity; Lumens per unit
area
C. Luminous flux density; Lumens per unit
volume
D. Luminous flux intensity; Lumens per unit
volume
45. In radiometric terms, it measures the rate at

which electromagnetic waves transfer light
the energy
A. a number which compares

transparency of a material with that of air
B. a number of assigned by the manufacturer
A. Optical radiation
to the fiber in question
B. Optical impedance
C. a number which determines the core
C. Optical illusion
37. The process of moving from one energy diameter
D. Optical power
level to another is called ____________.
D. a term describing core elasticity
46. It is described as the flow of light energy
past a given point in a specified time
A. Spontaneous emission
42. It is a science of measuring light throughout
B. Excited emission
the entire electromagnetic spectrum
A. Optical radiation
B. Optical impedance
C. Absorption
D. Spontaneous decay
C. Optical illusion
A. Radiometry
51. In refraction that occurs in air/glass

interfaces, among the visible light, which is the
47. The term single mode and multimode are bent the least?
best described as
A. violet
A. a number of fibers placed into fiber-optic
B. blue
cable
C. red
B. the number of voice channels each fiber
D. orange
can support
C. the number of wavelengths each fiber 52. Ratio of the velocity of propagation of a
light ray in free space to the velocity of
can support
D. the index number
propagation of a light ray in free space in a
given material.
48. Optical power is sometimes called
__________.
A. refractive index
B. standing wave ratio
A. Radiant emission
C. velocity factor
B. Radiant power
D. propagation velocity
C. Radiant flux
D. Radiant optics
53. It is the angle at which the propagating ray
strikes the interface with respect to the normal.
49. In refraction that occurs in air/glass
interfaces, among the visible light, which is bent
A. refracted angle
the most?
B. incident angle
C. reflected angle
A. red
D. critical angle
B. violet
C. yellow
54. It is the angle formed between the
D. green
propagating ray and the normal after the ray has
entered the second medium.
50. Fiber-optic cables with attenuation of 1.8,
3.4, 5.9 and 18 dB are linked together. The total
A. angle of incidence
loss is
B. angle of reflection
C. propagation angle
A. 7.5 dB
D. angle of refraction
B. 19.8 dB
55. Between silicon and gallium arsenide, which
C. 29.1 dB
D. 650 dB
has the greatest index of refraction?
D. Optical power
A. Gallium arsenide
B. Neither of silicon nor gallium arsenide
C. Silicon
D. They are equal
56. A fiber-optic cable has a loss of 15dB/km.
The attenuation in a cable 1000 ft long is
A. 4.57 dB
B. 9.3 dB
C. 24 dB
D. 49.2 dB
57. Medium 1 is a glass (n1=1.5) and medium 2
is an ethyl alcohol (n2=1.36). For an angle of
incidence of 30 degrees, determine the angle of
refraction.
A. 44.5 degrees
B. 14.56 degrees
C. 33.47 degrees
D. 75 degrees
58. The minimum angle of incidence at which
the light ray may strike the interface of two
media and result in an angle of refraction of 90
degrees or greater.
A. optimum angle
B. angle of refraction
C. refracted angle
D. critical angle
59. The higher the index number
A. the higher the speed of light
B. the lower the speed of light
C. has no effect on the speed of light
D. the shorter the wavelength propagation
64. More than one path for light rays to take

60. The maximum angle in which external light down the fiber
rays may strike the air/glass interface and still
propagate down the fiber.
A. Multimode
B. Step-index
C. Single mode
A. Acceptance cone half-angle
B. Acceptance cone
D. Graded index
C. Critical angle
D. Angle of incidence
65. The three major groups of the optical system
are
61. It is the figure of merit used to measure the
magnitude of the acceptance angle.
A. the components, the data rate and the
response time
A. acceptance angle
B. the source, the link and the receiver
C. the transmitter, the cable and the receiver
B. numerical aperture
C. index profile
D. the source, the link and the detector
D. refractive index
66. Infrared light has a wavelength that is
62. The effect of a large magnitude of the
numerical aperture
A. less than 400 nm
B. more than 700 nm
C. less than 700 nm
A. The amount of external light the fiber
D. a little over 400 nm
will accept is greater.
B. The amount of external light the fiber
will accept is less.
67. How many modes possible with a
C. The amount of modal dispersion will be multimode step-index with a core diameter of
less.
50 um, a core refractive index of 1.6, a cladding
D. The amount of chromatic dispersion will refractive index of 1.584, and a wavelength of
be greater.
1300 nm.
63. Only one path for light rays to take down the
fiber
A. Multimode
B. Step-index
C. Single mode
D. Graded index
A. 456
B. 213
C. 145
D. 372
68. It is a graphical representation of the
magnitude of the refractive index across the
fiber.
A. mode
B. index profile
C. numerical aperture
D. refractive index
69. A type of index profile of an optical fiber
that has a central core and outside cladding with
a uniform refractive index
A. multimode
B. graded index
C. step-index
D. single mode
70. A type of index of an optical fiber that has
no cladding and whose central core has a nonuniform refractive index.
A. graded index
B. multimode
C. single mode
D. step-index
71. Results in reduction in the power of light
wave as it travels down the cable.
A. power loss
B. absorption loss
C. resistive loss
D. heat loss
72. Which of the following is not a factor in
cable light loss?
A. reflection
B. absorption
C. scattering
D. dispersion
73. It is analogous to power dissipation to

copper cables, impurities in the fiber absorb the 78. For a single mode optical cable with
light and covert it to heat.
0.25dB/km loss, determine the optical power
100km from a 0.1-mW light source.
A. power loss
A. -45 dBm
B. absorption loss
C. resistive loss
B. -15 dBm
D. heat loss
C. -35 dBm
D. -25dBm
74. It is caused by valence electrons in the silica
material from which the fiber are manufactured. 79. Light rays that are emitted simultaneously
from an LED and propagated down an optical
A. ion resonance absorption
fiber do not arrive at the far end of the fiber at
B. infrared absorption
the same time results to
C. ultraviolet absorption
D. visible light absorption
A. intramodal dispersion
B. pulse length dispersion
75. It is a result of photons of light that are
C. modal dispersion
absorbed by the atoms of the glass core
D. wavelength dispersion
molecule.
80. Chromatic dispersion can be eliminated by
A. ion resonance absorption
__________.
A. using a monochromatic light source
D. visible light absorption
B. using a very small numerical aperture
fiber
76. It is caused by hydroxide ions in the material
C. using a graded-index fiber
D. using a very sensitive photodetector
A. visible light absorption
81. Type of bend that occurs as a result of
differences in thermal contraction rates between
the core and the cladding material.
D. ion resonance absorption
77. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least
modal dispersion?
A. Macrobending
B. Microbending
C. Quad bending
A. single-mode step-index
B. multimode step-index
D. Constant-radius bending
C. single-mode graded-index
D. multimode graded-index
82. These bends are caused by excessive

pressure and tension and generally occur while
fiber are bent during handling or installation.
A. microbending
B. macrobending
C. constant-radius bending
D. kinks
83. As light is coupled in a multiport deflective
device, the power is reduced by
A. 1.5 dB
B. 0.1 dB
C. 0.5 dB
D. 0.001 dB
84. It is caused by the difference in the
propagation time of light rays that take different
paths down the fiber.
A. modal dispersion
B. microbending
C. Rayleigh scattering
D. chromatic dispersion
85. How can modal dispersion reduced entirely?
A. Use a graded index fiber
B. Use a single-mode fiber
C. Use a monochromatic light source
D. Use a very sensitive light detector
86. It indicates what signal frequencies can be
propagated through a given distance of fiber
cable.
A. Bandwidth Distance Product
B. Pulse width dispersion
C. Rise time
D. Cutoff frequency
87. For a 300-m optical fiber cable with a
bandwidth distance product of 600 MHz-km,
determine the bandwidth.
A. 5 GHz
B. 1 GHz
C. 2 GHz
D. 3 GHz
88. For an optical fiber 10 km long with a pulse
spreading constant of 5 ns/km, determine the
maximum digital transmission rates using
Return to Zero (RZ) and Nonreturn to Zero
(NRZ).
A. 5 Mbps and 10 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps and 5 Mbps
C. 10 Mbps and 20 Mbps
D. 20 Mbps and 10 Mbps
89. What is the spectral width of a standard
LED?
A. 20 to 40 nm
B. 30 to 50 nm
C. 10 to 30 nm
D. 40 to 60 nm
90. What is the spectral width of an ILD?
A. 0.1 nm to 1 nm
B. 2 nm to 5 nm
C. 1 nm to 3 nm
D. 3 nm to 4 nm
91. When connector losses, splice losses and

D. dark current
coupler losses are added, what is the limiting
factor?
96. The time it takes a light induced carrier
travel across the depletion region of the
A. source power
semiconductor.
B. fiber attenuation
C. connector and splice loss
A. dispersion
B. response time
D. detector sensitivity
C. irradiance
92. A pn-junction diode emits light by
D. transit time
spontaneous emission
97. The range of wavelength values that a given
photodiode will respond.
A. LED
B. APD
C. PIN
A. spectral response
D. Zener diode
B. permeance
C. dark current
93. Which type of fiber optic cable is best for
D. reluctance
very high speed data?
98. The term responsivity as it applies to a light
detector is best described as
A. the time required for the signal to go
D. multimode graded-index
from 10 to 90 percent of maximum amplitude
B. the ratio of the diode output current to
94. A measure of conversion efficiency of a the input optical power
photodetector.
C. the ratio of the input power to output
power
A. Efficiency
D. the ratio of output current to input current
B. Responsivity
C. Dark current
99. The minimum optical power a light detector
D. Spectral response
can receive and still produce a usable electrical
output signal.
95. The leakage current that flows through a
photodiode with no light input
A. light responsivity
B. light sensitivity
A. dark voltage
C. light collectivity
B. dark impedance
D. illumination
C. dark power
100. Type of lasers that uses a mixture of

helium and neon enclosed in glass tube.
D. gas lasers
D. multimode step-index

application of fiber-optic cable?
110. Cable attenuation is usually expressed in
A. gas lasers
B. solid lasers
terms of
C. semiconductor lasers
A. computer networks
D. liquid lasers
B. long-distance telephone system
A. loss per foot
C. closed-circuit TV
B. dB/km
101. Type of lasers that use organic dyes
C. intensity per mile
D. consumer TV
enclosed in glass tube for an active medium.
D. voltage drop per inch
106. Total internal reflection takes place if the
light ray strikes the interface at an angle with 111. Which cable length has the highest
A. liquid lasers
B. plasma lasers
what relationship to the critical angle?
attenuation?
C. neon lasers
D. ruby lasers
A. less than
A. 1 km
B. greater than
B. 2 km
102. A popular light wavelength fiber-optic
C. equal to
C. 95 ft
cable is
D. zero
D. 500 ft
A. 0.7 micrometer
B. 1.3 micrometer
C. 1.5 micrometer
D. 1.8 micrometer
107. Loss comparisons between fusion splices 112. The mechanical splice is best suited for
an mechanical splices
A. quicker installation under ideal condition
B. minimum attenuation losses
A. 1:10
B. 10:1
C. field service conditions
103. Type of lasers that use solid, cylindrical
C. 20:1
D. situations in which cost of equipment is
crystals such as ruby
D. 1:20
not a factor
108. The operation of a fiber-optic cable is 113. The upper pulse rate and informationbased on the principle of
carrying capacity of a cable is limited by
A. refraction
B. reflection
A. pulse shortening
C. dispersion
B. attenuation
104. Type of lasers that are made from
D. absorption
C. light leakage
semiconductor ph-junctions commonly called
D. modal dispersion
ILDs
type of fiber-optic cable?
114. The core of a fiber-optic cable is made of
A. semiconductor lasers
B. liquid lasers
A. air
C. plasma lasers
B. multimode graded-index
B. glass
A. solid lasers
B. ILD
C. gas lasers
D. liquid lasers
C. diamond
D. quartz
119. The main benefit of light wave 124. Which of the following cables will have
115. The core of fiber-optic cable is surrounded communications over microwaves or any other the highest launch power capability?
by
communications media are
A. 50/125/0.2
A. wire braid shield
A. lower cost
B. 85/125/0.275
B. Keviar
B. better security
C. 62.5/125/0.275
D. 100/140/0.3
C. cladding
C. wider bandwidth
D. plastic insulation
D. freedom from interface
125. Which type of fiber-optic cable is the most
116. The speed of light in plastic compared to 120. Which of the following is not a part of the widely used?
the speed of light in air is
optical spectrum?
A. infrared
A. less
B. more
B. ultraviolet
C. single-mode graded index
C. the same
C. visible color
D. multimode graded index
D. zero
D. x-rays
126. The term power budgeting refers to
117. Which of the following is not a major 121. The wavelength of a visible extends from
benefit of a fiber-optic cable?
A. the cost of cable, connectors, equipment
A. 0.8 to 1.6 um
and installation
A. immunity from interference
B. the loss of power due to defective
B. 400 to 750 nm
B. no electrical safety problems
C. 200 to 660 nm
components
C. excellent data security
D. 700 to 1200 nm
C. the total power available minus the
D. lower cost
attenuation losses
122. Single-mode step-index cable has a core
D. the comparative costs of fiber and copper
118. EMD is best described by which diameter in the range of
installations
statement?
A. 100 to 1000 micrometer
127. It refers to the abrupt of change in
B. 50 to 100 micrometer
refractive index from core to clad
A. 70 percent of the core diameter and
70% of the fiber NA should be filled with
C. 2 to 15 micrometer
D. 5 to 20 micrometer
light.
A. step index
B. 70 percent of the fiber diameter and 70%
B. graded index
of the cone of acceptance should be filled 123. Refraction is the
C. semi-graded index
with light.
D. half step index
C. 70 percent of input light should be
A. bending of light
measured at the output.
B. reflection of light waves
D. 70 percent of the unwanted wavelengths
C. distortion of light waves
should be attenuated by the fiber.
D. diffusion of light waves
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN
AMPLITUDE
MODULATIO
N
By
Melvin C. Arceo
ENCODED BY:
SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin
1. The process of impressing a low frequency
information signals onto a high-frequency
carrier signal is called _____.
a. demodulation
b. oscillation
c. modulation
d. amplification
2. A silicon varactor diode exhibits a
capacitance of 200pF at zero bias. If it is in
parallel with a 60-pF capacitor and a 200-uH
inductor, calculate the range of resonant
frequency as the diode varies through a reverse
bias of 3 to 15V.
a. 679kHz to 2.13MHz
b. 966kHz to 1.15MHz
c. 355kHz to 3.12MHz
d. 143 kHz to 4.53MHz
3. A process where the received signal is
transformed into its original form.
a. demodulation
b. damping
c. amplification
d. oscillation
4. It is the process of changing the amplitude of
a relative high frequency carrier signal in
proportion with the instantaneous value of the
modulating signal.
a. frequency modulation
b. digital modulation
c. phase modulation
d. analog modulation
5. Most of the power in an AM signal is in the
a. carrier
b. upper sideband
c. lower sideband
d. modulating signal
6. Amplitude modulation is the same as
a. linear mixing
b. analog multiplexing
c. signal summation
d. multiplexing
7. The shape of the amplitude-modulated wave
is called ______.
a. sidebands
c. envelope
d. carrier signal
8. In a diode modulator, the negative half of the
AM wave is supplied by
a. tuned circuit
b. transformer
c. capacitor
d. inductor
9. It is a term used to describe the amount of
amplitude change present in an AM waveform.
a. coefficient of modulation
b. any of these
c. depth of modulation
d. modulation index
10. When the modulation index in an AM wave
is greater than one it will cause _______.
a. any of these
b. splatter
c. overmodulation
d. buck-shot
11. The ideal value of modulation index in AM.
a. 1
b. 0
c. 100
d. infinity
12. When the amplitude of the information in an
AM modulator is equal to zero, what is the
value of the modulation index?

a. 1
b. 0
c. 100
d. infinity
13. Amplitude modulation can be produced by
a. having the carrier vary a resistance
b. having the modulating signal vary a
capacitance
c. varying the carrier frequency
d. varying the gain of the amplifier
14. When the modulation index is equal to zero,
the total transmitted power is equal to
________.
a. one of the sidebands
b. carrier
c. double sidebands
d. an AM wave
15. When the modulation takes place prior to
the output element of the final stage of the
transmitter, prior to the collector of the output
transistor in a transistorized transmitter, this is
called ______.
a. high-level modulation
b. low-level modulation
c. zero-modulation
d. constant modulation
16. A circuit that monitors the received signal
level and sends a signal back to the RF and IF
amplifiers to adjust their gain automatically.
a. automatic phase control
b. automatic gain control
c. automatic frequency control
d. automatic volume control
17. When the modulation takes place in the final

element of the final stage where the carrier
signal is at its maximum amplitude, it is called
_____.
a. constant modulation
b. zero-modulation
c. low-level modulation
d. high-level modulation
18. If a superheterodyne receiver is tuned to a
desired signal at 1000kHz and its conversion
(local) oscillator is operating at 1300kHz, what
would be the frequency of an incoming signal
that would possibly cause image reception?
a. 1600 kHz
b. 2300 kHz
c. 1250 kHz
d. 3420 kHz
19. When modulation requires a much higher
amplitude modulating signal to achieve a
reasonable percent modulation, this is called
c. zero-modulation
d. constant modulation
20. Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier
amplitude with the modulating signal by passing
it through an attenuator work on principle of
a. rectification
b. resonance
c. variable resistance
d. absorption
21. A circuit which function is to raise the
amplitude of the source signal to a usable level
while producing minimum nonlinear distortion
adding as little thermal noise as possible.

a. power amplifier
b. non-linear amplifier
c. buffer amplifier
d. preamplifier
22. A circuit that has a low-gain, high-input
impedance linear amplifier which is used to
isolate the oscillator from the high-power
amplifiers.
a. power amplifier
b. bandpass filter
c. signal driver
d. buffer amplifier
23. With high-level transmitters, which of the
following is not a primary function of the
modulator circuit?
a. it provides the capacity necessary for
modulation to occur
b. it serves as a final amplifier
c. it serves as a frequency up-converter
d. it serves as a mixer
24. It is a form of amplitude distortion
introduced when positive and negative
alternations in the AM modulated signal are not
equal.
a. phase shift
b. carrier shift
c. amplitude variations
d. frequency shift
25. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by
two sine waves with modulation indices of 0.3
and 0.4, the total modulation index
a. is 1
b. cannot be calculated unless the phase
relations are known

c. is 0.5
d. is 0.7
26. The component used to produce AM AT
very high frequencies is a
a. varactor
b. thermistor
c. cavity resonator
d. PIN diode
27. It is also known as upward modulation
a. carrier shift
b. amplitude variations
c. frequency shift
d. phase shift
28. Also known as downward modulation
a. carrier shift
b. amplitude variations
c. frequency shift
d. phase shift
29. It is a form of amplitude modulation where
signals from two separate information sources
modulate the same carrier frequency at the same
time without interfering with each other.
a. QPSK
b. QUAM
c. PSK
d. FSK
30. A receiver has a dynamic range of 81 dB. It
has 0.55nW sensitivity. Determine the
maximum allowable input signal.
a. 59 mW
b. 69 mW
c. 79 mW
d. 88 mW
31. The information sources modulate the same

carrier after it has been separated into two
carrier signals are at 90 degrees out of phase
with each other.
a. QPSK
b. QUAM
c. PSK
d. FSK
32. Demodulating quadrature AM signal
requires a carrier recovery circuit to reproduce
the original carrier frequency and phase and two
balanced modulators to actually demodulate the
signals. This is called ________.
a. asynchronous detection
b. quadrature demodulation
c. synchronous detection
d. quadrature detection
33. Quadrature amplitude modulation is also
known as ________.
a. phase division multiplexing
b. phase division modulation
c. phase amplitude multiplexing
d. phase angle modulation
34. Amplitude modulation generated at a very
low voltage or power amplitude is known as
c. collector modulation
d. minimum modulation
35. It is the first stage of the receiver and is
therefore often called the receiver front end.
a. mixer
b. RF section
c. local oscillator
d. IF stage
36. In an SSB transmitter, one is most likely to
find a
a. class C audio amplifier
b. tuned modulator
c. class B RF amplifier
d. class A RF output amplifier
37. The section of the receiver than downconverts the received RF frequencies to
intermediate frequencies.
a. RF section
b. local oscillator
c. power amplifier
d. mixer
38. The circuit that demodulates the AM wave
and converts it to the original information
signal.
a. power amplifier
b. local oscillator
c. detector
d. IF section
39. A collector modulator has a supply voltage
of 48V. The peak-to-peak amplitude of the
modulating signal for 100 percent modulation is
a. 24V
b. 48V
c. 96V
d. 120V
41. The noise reduction ratio achieved by
reducing the bandwidth is called
a. dynamic range
b. noise figure
c. bandwidth efficiency
d. bandwidth improvement
42. It is the minimum RF signal level that can

be detected at the input to the receiver and still
produce a usable demodulated information
signal.
a. selectivity
b. sensitivity
c. Q-factor
d. bandwidth
43. For ideal AM, which of the following is true
a. m = 0
b. m = 1
c. m < 1
d. m > 1
46. It is defined as the difference in decibels
between the minimum input level necessary to
discern the signal and the input level that will
overdrive the receiver and produce distortion.
a. dynamic range
b. noise figure
47. It is the input power range over which the
receiver is useful.
a. dynamic range
b. noise figure
48. It is defined as the output power when the
RF amplifier response is 1-dB less than the ideal
linear gain response.
a. 1-dB compression point
b. 1-dB threshold point
c. 1-dB shoot-off point
d. 1-dB pinch-off point
49. It is the measure of the ability of a

communications system to produce, at the
output of the receiver, an exact replica of the
original source information.
a. sensitivity
b. threshold
c. selectivity
d. fidelity
50. A SSB signal generated around a 200-kHz
carrier. Before filtering, the upper and lower
sidebands are separated by 200 Hz. Calculate
the filter Q required to obtain 40-dB
suppression.
a. 1500
b. 1900
c. 2500
d. 2000
51. The predominant cause of phase distortion.
a. overmodulation
b. buffering
c. filtering
d. clipping
52. It is the total phase shift encountered by a
signal and can generally be tolerated as long as
all frequencies undergo the same amount of
phase delay.
a. differential phase shift
b. absolute phase shift
c. relative phase shift
d. integrated phase shift
53. ________ occurs when different frequencies
undergo different phase shifts and may have a
detrimental effect on the complex waveform.
a. differential phase shift
b. absolute phase shift

c. relative phase shift
d. integrated phase shift
54. What is the minimum AM signal needed to
transmit information
a. carrier plus sidebands
b. carrier only
c. one sideband
d. both sidebands
55. The circuit that recovers the original
modulating information from an AM signal is
known as a
a. modulator
b. demodulator
c. mixer
d. crystal set
56. __________ occurs when the amplitudeversus-frequency characteristics of a signal at
the output of a receiver cover from those in the
original information signal.
a. frequency distortion
b. digital distortion
c. phase distortion
d. amplitude distortion
57. The circuit used to produced modulations
called
a. modulator
b. demodulator
c. variable gain amplifier
d. multiplexer
58. It is the result pf non-uniform gain in
amplifiers and filters.
a. harmonic distortion
b. amplitude distortion
c. frequency distortion
d. phase distortion
59. It is a result of harmonic and
intermodulation distortion and is caused by nonlinear amplification.
a. amplitude distortion
b. phase distortion
c. harmonic distortion
d. frequency distortion
60. The most commonly used amplitude
demodulator is the
a. diode mixer
b. balanced modulator
c. envelope detector
d. crystal filter
61. It is a special case of intermodulation
distortion and a predominant cause of frequency
distortion.
a. second-order intercept distortion
b. phase distortion
c. third-order intercept distortion
d. first-order intercept distortion
62. A display of signal amplitude versus
frequency is called the
a. time domain
b. frequency spectrum
c. amplitude modulation
d. frequency domain
63. It is a parameter associated with frequencies
that fall within the passband of the filter.
a. coupling loss
b. diffusion loss
c. insertion loss
d. filter loss
64. A circuit that generates the upper and lower

sidebands but no carrier is called
a. amplitude modulator
b. diode detector
c. class C amplifier
d. balanced modulator
65. Vestigial sideband modulation (C3F) is
normally used for
a. HF point-to-point communications
b. monaural broadcasting
c. TV broadcasting
d. stereo broadcasting
66. It is generally defined as the ratio of the
power transferred to a load with a filter in the
circuit to the power transferred to a load without
a filter.
a. distortion loss
b. insertion loss
c. filter loss
d. harmonic loss
67. The modulation index of an AM wave is
changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is
a. unchanged
b. halved
c. doubled
d. increased by 50 percent
68. The inputs to a balanced modulator are
1MHz and a carrier of 1.5 MHz. The outputs are
a. 500kHz and 1.5MHz
b. 2.5MHz and 1.5MHz
c. 1.5MHz and 500kHz
d. 500kHz and 2.5MHz
69. It is an indication of the reduction the signalto-noise ration as a signal propagates through
the receiver.
a. noise figure
b. equivalent noise temperature
c. noise factor
d. signal-to-noise ratio
70. Types of receivers where the frequencies
generated in the receiver and used for
demodulation are synchronized to oscillator
frequencies generated in the transmitter.
a. coherent
b. asynchronous
c. non-coherent
d. none of these
71. Types of receiver where either no
frequencies are generated in the receiver of the
frequencies used for demodulation are
completely independent form the transmitter's
carrier frequency.
a. synchronous
b. coherent
c. asynchronous
d. any of these
72. A widely used balanced modulator is called
the ________.
a. diode bridge circuit
b. full-wave bridge rectifier
c. lattice modulator
d. balanced bridge modulator
73. Non-coherent detection is also known as
________.
a. frequency detection
b. noise detection
c. phase detection
d. envelope detection
74. It is one of the earliest type of AM receiver

a. TRF
b. transistorized
c. superhet
d. Armstrong
75. Which of the following is not true about the
disadvantages of tuned radio frequency
receiver?
a. their bandwidth is inconsistent and
varies with center frequency when tuned over a
wide range of input frequencies
b. it is unstable due to the large number
of RF amplifiers all tuned to the same center
frequency
c. their gains are not uniform over a very
wide frequency range
d. it is very complex to construct
76. In a diode ring modulator, the diode acts like
a. variable resistors
b. switches
c. rectifiers
d. variable capacitors
77. It means to mix two frequencies together in
a non-linear device or to translate on frequency
to another using non-linear mixing.
a. oscillation
b. heterodyne
c. modulation
d. amplification
78. An AM transmitter antenna current is
measured with no modulation and found to be
2.6 amperes. With modulation, the current rises
to 2.9 amperes. The percentage modulation is
a. 35%
b. 70%
c. 42%
d. 89%
79. Its primary purpose is to provide enough
initial bandlimiting to prevent a specific
unwanted radio frequency from entering the
receiver.
a. detector
b. predetector
c. preselector
d. mixer
80. It function is to reduce the noise bandwidth
of the receiver and provides initial step
toward reducing the overall receiver bandwidth
to the minimum bandwidth required to pass the
information signals.
a. preselector
b. detector
c. mixer
d. predetector
81. The output of a balanced modulator is
a. AM
b. FM
c. SSB
d. DSB
82. What is the first active device encountered
by the received signal in the receiver?
a. mixer
b. RF amplifier
c. local oscillator
d. detector
83. The IF section is also known as
a. bandpass filters
b. IF strip
c. IF filter
d. intermediate filters
84. The detector in an AM receiver is known as
a. audio detector
b. power detector
c. first detector
d. amplitude limiter
85. A carrier of 880kHz is modulated by a 3.5
kHz sine wave. The LSB and USB are,
respectively
a. 873 and 887kHz
b. 876.5 and 883.5kHz
c. 883.5 and 876.5kHz
d. 887 and 873kHz
86. The most commonly used filter in SSB
generators uses
a. LC networks
b. mechanical resonators
c. crystals
d. RC networks and op-amps
87. Its purpose of the detector section is to
convert the IF signals back to the original source
information.
a. mixer
b. audio amplifier
c. converter
d. detector
88. It means that the two adjustments are
mechanically tied together so that a single
adjustment will change the center frequency of
the preselector, at the same time, change the
oscillator frequency.
a. high-side injecting
b. low-side injecting
c. gang tuning
d. local oscillator tracking
89. In a low-level AM system, amplifiers
following the modulated stage must be
a. linear devices
b. harmonic devices
c. class C amplifiers
d. nonlinear devices
90. When the local oscillator is tuned above the
radio frequency, it is called
a. local oscillator tracking
b. low-side injection
c. gang tuning
d. high-side injection
91. The equivalent circuit of a quartz us a
a. series resonant circuit
b. parallel resonant circuit
c. none of these
d. series and parallel resonant circuit
92. It is the ability of the local oscillator in a
receiver to oscillate either above or below the
selected radio frequency carrier by an amount
equal to the intermediate frequency throughout
the entire radio frequency brand.
a. tracking
b. mixing
c. heterodyning
d. tuning
93. The difference between the actual local
oscillator frequency and the desired frequency is
called ________.
a. mixing error
b. gang error
c. tracking error
d. quantizing error
94. What technique is used to prevent tracking
error?
a. using RLC circuit
b. using tuned circuit
c. using three-point tracking
d. using ganged capacitors
95. a crystal lattice filter has a crystal
frequencies pf 27.5 and 27.502MHz. The
bandwidth is approximately
a. 2kHz
b. 3kHz
c. 27.501MHz
d. 55.502MHz
96. ___________ is any frequency other than
selected radio frequency carrier that, if allowed
to enter a receiver and mix it with local
oscillator, will produce a cross-product
frequency that is equal to the intermediate
frequency
a. image frequency
b. intermediate frequency
c. aliasing frequency
d. ghost
97. It is a equivalent to a second radio frequency
that will produce an IF that will interfere with
the IF from the desired radio frequency.
a. aliasing frequency
b. image frequency
c. interference
d. intermediate frequency
98. An SSB generator has a sideband filter
centered at 3.0MHz. The modulating signal is
3kHz. To produce both upper and lower
sidebands, the following carrier frequencies

must be produced:
a. 2.7 and 3.3MHz
b. 3.3 and 3.6MHz
c. 2997 and 3003kHz
d. 3000 and 3003kHz
99. It is a numerical measure of the ability of the
preselector to reject the image frequency.
a. image frequency rejection ratio
b. noise figure
c. numerical aperture
d. signal-to-noise ratio
100. _________ occurs when a receiver picks
up the same station at two nearby points on the
receiver tuning dial.
a. spurious pointing
b. under coupling
c. double spotting
d. optimal coupling
101. In the phasing method of SSB generation,
one sideband is cancelled due out to
a. phase shift
b. sharp selectivity
c. carrier suppression
d. phase inversion
102. It is caused by poor front-end selectivity or
inadequate image frequency rejection.
a. optimal coupling
b. double spotting
c. spurious pointing
d. under coupling
103. It is a high-gain, low noise, tuned amplifier
that, when used is the first active encountered
by the receiver signal.
a. mixer
b. local oscillator
c. RF amplifier
d. detector
104. It is a high performance microwave
receiver at the input stage. In the RF section of
optimize their noise figure.
a. high-power amplifier
b. low noise amplifier
c. buffer amplifier
d. local oscillator
105. A balanced modulator used to demodulates
a SSB signal is called
a. transponder
b. product detector
c. converter
d. modulator
106. Which of the following is not the other
name of a balanced modulator?
a. balanced mixer
b. product detector
c. product modulator
d. none of these
107. ________ amplifiers are relatively high
gain tuned amplifiers that are very similar to RF
amplifiers, except that it operates over a
relatively narrow, fixed frequency band.
a. IF amplifiers
b. low-noise amplifiers
c. buffer amplifiers
d. high-power amplifier
108. Type of tuned circuit where both the
primary and secondary sides of the transformer
are tuned tank circuits
a. RLC tuned circuit

b. double-tuned circuit
c. single-tuned circuit
d. LC tuned circuit
109. Frequency translation is done with a circuit
called _______.
a. summer
b. multiplier
c. filter
d. mixer
110. Low noise RF amplifiers use what type
biasing?
a. class A
b. class B
c. class AB
d. class C
111. Its purpose is to down-convert the
incoming radio frequencies to intermediated
frequencies.
a. local oscillator
b. RF amplifier
c. detector
d. mixer
112. It is a non-linear amplifier similar to
modulator, except that the output is turned to
different between the RF and local oscillator
frequencies.
a. RF amplifier
b. local oscillator
c. mixer
d. detector
113. Mixing for frequency conversion is the
same as
a. rectification
b. AM
c. linear summing
d. filtering
114. The most common technique used for
coupling IF amplifiers
a. resistive coupling
b. inductive coupling
c. capacitive coupling
d. direct coupling
115. When the modulation index of an AM
wave doubled, the antenna current is also
doubled. The AM system being used is
a. single-sideband, full carrier (H3E)
b. vestigial sideband (C3F)
c. single sideband, suppressed carrier
(J3E)
d. double sideband, full carrier (A3E)
116. The ability of a coil to induce a voltage
within its own windings is called
a. mutual inductance
b. coefficient coupling
c. self- inductance
d. inductance
117. If the carrier of a 100 percent modulated
AM wave is suppressed the precentage power
saving will be
a. 50
b. 150
c. 100
d. 66.66
118. The ability of one coil to induce a voltage
in another coil is called _________.
a. coefficient coupling
b. mutual inductance
c. inductance
d. self-inductance
119. Which of the following cam be used as a
mixer?
a. balanced modulator
b. FET
c. diode modulator
d. all of the above
120. It is the ratio of the secondary flux to
primary flux
a. Q factor
b. coefficient coupling
c. self-inductance
d. coefficient of modulation
121. Type of coupling where the secondary
voltage is relatively low and the bandwidth is
narrow.
a. tight coupling
b. optimum coupling
c. loose coupling
d. critical coupling
122. An AM signal, transmitted information is
contained within the
a. carrier
c. sidebands
d. envelope
123. Typer of coupling which has high gain and
a broad bandwidth
a. optimum coupling
b. tight coupling
c. double coupling
d. loose coupling
124. It is the point where the reflected resistance
is equal to primary resistance and the Q of the

primary tank circuit is halved and the bandwidth
doubled.
a. critical coupling
b. tight coupling
c. loose coupling
d. optimum coupling
125. The desired output from a mixer is usually
selected with a
a. phase-shift circuit
b. crystal filter
c. resonant circuit
d. transformer
126. It is caused by the reactive element of the
reflected impedance being significant enough to
change the resonant frequency of the primary
tuned circuit.
a. optimum coupling
b. critical coupling
c. double peaking
d. flux linkage
127. IF transformers come as specially designed
tuned circuits in groundable metal packages
called _______.
a. IF cans
b. IF container
c. IF strip
d. IF tetrapack
128. The AM detector is sometimes called
_______.
a. first detector
b. third detector
c. second detector
d. fourth detector
129. The mixer is sometimes called _________.

a. first detector
b. third detector
c. second detector
d. fourth detector
130. The two inputs to a mixer are the signal to
be translated and a signal from
a. modulator
b. filter
c. antenna
d. local oscillator
131. AM demodulator is commonly called
_________.
a. phase detector
b. peak detector
c. frequency detector
d. transistor detector
132. A type of detector that detects the shape of
the input envelope
a. peak detector
b. phase detector
c. diode detector
d. shape detector
133. The ratio of the peak modulating signal
voltage to the peak carrier voltage is referred to
as
a. voltage ratio
b. decibels
c. modulation index
d. mix factor
134. A circuit that automatically increases the
receiver gain for weak RF input levels and
automatically decreases the receiver gain when
a strong RF signal is received.
a. automatic volume control

b. automatic frequency control
c. automatic gain control
d. automatic phase control
135. Which is not a type of AGC?
a. simple AGC
b. forward AGC
c. delayed AGC
d. complex AGC
136. The value Vmax and Vmin as read from
AM wave on an oscilloscope are 3.0 and 2.8.
The percentage of modulation is
a. 10 percent
b. 41.4 percent
c. 80.6 percent
d. 93.3 percent
137. Amplitude modulation is used for
broadcasting because
a. it is more noise immune than other
modulation systems
b. compared to other systems it requires
less transmitting power
c. its use avoids receiver complexity
d. no other modulation system can
provide the necessary bandwidth for high
fidelity
138. Type of AGC that prevents the AGC
feedback voltage from reaching the RF or IF
amplifiers until the RF level exceeds a
predetermined magnitude.
a. forward AGC
b. delayed AGC
c. complex AGC
d. simple AGC
139. A circuit with a purpose to quiet a receiver

in the absence of a received signal.
a. automatic gain control
c. squelch circuit
d. automatic volume control
140. A section of a audio stage of a receiver that
removes sporadic, high amplitude noise
transients of short duration, such as impulse
noise.
a. squelch circuit
b. clampers
c. clippers
d. peak detector
141. A circuit that detects the occurrence of a
high-amplitude, short duration noise spike then
mutes the receiver by shutting off a portion of
the receiver of the duration of the pulse.
a. squelch circuit
b. limiter
c. clamper
d. blanking circuit
142. The opposite modulation is
a. reverse modulation
b. downward modulation
c. unmodulation
d. demodulation
143. For good imag-frequency rejection, what is
the desired value of the intermediate frequency?
a. relatively low IF
b. very low IF
c. relatively high IF
d. very high IF
144. With high-gain selective amplifiers that are
stable and easily neutralized. what is the desired

value of intermediate frequency?
a. low IF
b. medium IF
c. high IF
d. very high IF
145. It is defined as the ratio of the demodulated
signal level at the output receiver to the RF
signal level at the input to the receiver.
a. received signal level
b. figure of merit
c. effective radiated power
d. net receiver gain
146. It is the process of modifying the
characteristic of one signal in accordance with
some characteristic of another signal.
a. multiplexing
b. mixing
c. modulation
d. summing
147. The imaginary line on the carrier waveform
of the amplitude modulated signal is called
__________.
a. sidebands
b. envelope
c. spurious emission
d. information
148. Indicate the false statement regarding the
advantages of the phase cancellation method of
obtaining SSB over the filter method is false:
a. more channel space available
b. transmitter circuits must be stable,
giving better spectrum
c. the signal is more noise resistant
d. much less power is required for the

same signal strength
149. Indicate which one of the following
advantages of the phase cancellation method of
obtaining SSB over the filter method is false:
a. switching from one sideband to the
other simpler
b. it is possible to generated SSB at any
frequency
c. SSB with lower audio frequencies
present can be generated.
d. There are more balanced
modulators, therefore the carrier is
suppressed better
150. The most commonly used filters is SSB
generation are
a. mechanical
b. RC
c. LC
d. low-pass
152.One of the following cannot be used to
remove the unwanted sideband in SSB. This is
the
a. filter system
b. phase-shift method
c. third method
153. R3E modulation is sometimes used to
a. allow the receiver to have a frequency
synthesizer
b. simplify the frequency stability
problem in reception
c. reduce the power that must be
transmitted
d. reduce the bandwidth required for

transmission
154. To provide two or more voice circuits with
the same carrier, it is necessary to use
a. ISB
b. carrier reinsertion
c. SSB with pilot carrier
d. Lincomplex
155. A type of AGC is similar to conventional
AGC except that the receive signal is monitored
closer to the front end of the receiver and the
correction voltage is fed forward to the IF
amplifiers
a. ISB
b. delayed AGC
c. complex AGC
d. simple AGC
156. Having an information signal change some
characteristics of a carrier signal is called
a. multiplexing
b. modulation
c. duplexing
d. linear mixing
157. A circuit that compensates for minor
variations in the received RF signal level
a. automatic volume control
c. automatic gain control
d. automatic phase control
158. Which of the following is not true about
AM?
a. the carrier amplitude varies
b. the carrier frequency remains constant
c. the carrier frequency changes
d. the information signal amplitude

changes the carrier amplitude
159. A modulator circuit performs what
mathematical operation on its two inputs?
a. addition
b. multiplication
c. division
d. square root
160. If m is greater than 1, what happens?
a. normal operation
b. carrier drops to 0
c. information signal is distorted
161. The outline of the peaks of a carrier has the
shape of modulating signal and is called
_______.
a. trace
b. wave shape
c. envelope
d. carrier variation
162. Overmodulation occurs when
a. Vm > Vc
b. Vm < Vc
c. Vm = Vc
d. Vm = Vc = 0
163. The new signal produced by modulation
are called __________.
a. spurious emission
b. harmonics
c. intermodulation products
d. sidebands
164. An AM signal has a carrier power of 5W,
the percentage of modulation is 80 pecent. The
total power sideband is _________.
a. 0.8 W
b. 1.6 W
c. 2.5 W
d. 4.0 W
165. For 100 percent modulation, what
percentage of power is in each sideband
a. 25 percent
b. 33.3 percent
c. 50 percent
`
d. 100 percent
166. An AM transmitter has a percentage of
modulation of 88, the carrier power is 440 W.
The power in one sideband is
a. 85 W
b. 110 W
c. 170 W
d. 610 W
167. An AM signal without the carrier is called
______.
a. SSB
b. vestigial sidebands
c. FM signal
d. DSB
168. It is a form of amplitude modulation in
which the carrier is transmitted at full power,
but only one of the sidebands is transmitted.
a. SSBFC
b. SSBSC
c. SSBRC
d. ISB
169. With single-sideband full carrier, 100%
modulation would mean a carrier power of how
many percent of the total transmitted power?
a. 80%
b. 20%
c. 50%
d. 40%
which the carrier is suppressed and one of the
sidebands removed
a. SSBFC
b. ISB
c. vestigial sideband
d. SSBSC
which one sideband is totally removed and the
carrier voltage is reduced to approximately 10%
of its unmodulated amplitude
a. inderpendent sideband
b. SSBFC
c. SSBRC
d. SSBSC
which a single carrier frequency is
independently modulated by two different
modulating signal.
a. vestigial sideband
b. DSBFC
c. independent sideband
d. SSBFC
which the carrier and one complete sideband are
transmitted, but only part of the second sideband
is transmitted.
a. independent sideband
b. vestigial sideband
c. DSBFC
d. SSBSC
174. It is the rms power developed at the crest
of the modulation envelope of SSBSC.

a. carrier power
b. total transmitted power
c. sideband power
d. peak envelope power
175. Which of the following is not true about
single-sideband transmission?
a. power is conserved
b. selective fading is eliminated
c. bandwidth is conserved
d. tuning is easy
176.A circuit that produces a double sideband
suppressed carrier signal is called
____________.
a. filter
b. mixer
c. demodulator
177. A balanced modulator is sometimes called
_________.
a. balanced ring modulator
b. balanced resistor modulator
c. balanced lattice modulator
d. any of these
178. A type of filter that receives electrical
energy, converts it to mechanical vibrations and
then converts the vibrations back to electrical
energy at its output.
a. crystal filter
b. mechanical filter
c. LC filter
d. SAW filter
179. A type of filter that uses acoustic energy
rather than electromechanical energy to provide
excellent performance for precise bandpass

filtering.
a. SAW filter
b. RC filter
c. mechanical filter
d. crystal filter
180. The difference between the IF and the BFO
frequencies is called _________.
a. information signal
b. beat frequency
c. carrier signal
d. heterodyned signal
181. It is a circuit which is a narrowband PLL
that tracks the pilot carrier in the composite
SSBRC receiver signal and uses the recovered
carrier to regenerate coherent local oscillator
frequencies in the synthesizer.
a. beat frequency oscillator
b. mechanical filter
c. local oscillator
d. carrier recovery circuit
182. A system that provides narrowband voice
communications for land mobile services with
nearly the quality achieved with FM systems
and do it using less than one-third the
bandwidth.
a. SSBSC
b. DSBFC
c. ACSSB
d. SSBAC
183. It is a process of combining transmissions
from more than one source and transmitting
them over a common facility such as metallic or
optical fiber cable or a radio-frequency channel.
a. buffering
b. modulation
c. multiplexing
d. demultiplexing
184. It is an analog method of combining two or
more analog sources that originally occupied the
same frequency band in such a manner that the
channels do not interfere with each other.
a. ATM
b. FDM
c. TDM
d. WDM
185. It is a multiplexing method that uses
double-sideband suppressed-carrier transmission
to combine two information sources into a
single composite waveform.
a. QM
b. WDM
c. TDM
d. FDM
186. Single-sideband transmitters are rated in
_________.
a. rms power
b. dc power
c. average power
187. In an SSB transmitter, one is most likely to
find a __________.
a. class C audio amplifier
b. tuned modulator
c. class B RF amplifier
d. class A RF output amplifier
188. Indicate in which one of the following only
one sideband is transmitted:
a. H3E
b. A3E
c. B8E
d. C3F
189. One of the following cannot be used to
remove the unwanted sideband in SSB. This is
the
a. filter system
c. third method
a. allow the receiver to have a frequency
synthesizer
b. simplify the frequency stability
problem in reception
c. reduce the power that must be
transmitted
d. reduce the bandwidth required for
transmission
191. To provide two or more voice circuits with
the same carrier, it is necessary to use
a. ISB
b. carrier reinsertion
c. SSB with pilot carrier
d. Lincomplex
192. The main advantage of SSB over standard
AM or DSB is
a. less spectrum is used
b. simpler equipment is used
c. less power is consumed
d. a higher modulation percentage
193. In SSB, which sideband is the best to use?
a. upper
b. lower
c. neither
d. depends upon the use
194. The output of an SSB transmitter with a
3.85 MHz carrier and a 1.5 kHz sine wave
modulating tone is
a. a 3.8485 MHz sine wave
b. a 3.85 MHz sine wave
c. 3.85, 3.8485 and 3.8515 MHz sine
waves
d. 3848.5 and 3851.5 MHz sine waves
195. An SSB transmitter produces a 400 V peak
to peak signal across a 52 ohm antenna load.
The PEP output is
a. 192.2 W
b. 384.5 W
c. 769.2 W
d. 3077 W
196. The output power of SSB transmitter is
usually expressed is terms of
a. average power
b. RMS power
c. peak to peak power
197. An SSB transmitter has a PEP rating of 1
kilowatts. The average output power is in the
range of
a. 150 to 450 W
b. 100 to 300 W
c. 250 to 333 W
d. 3 to 4 kW
198. In amplitude modulation technique, the
unmodulated carrier is referred to as having___..
a. 100% modulation
b. 0% modulation
c. 50% modulation
d. overmodulated
199. What is the process in radio
communication where the information or
intelligent signal is at lower frequency is put
unto higher radio frequency for transmission to
receiving station?
a. detection
b. mixing
c. modulation
d. demodulation
200. Which of the following signals is
suppressed by balanced modulator circuit?
a. 1st IF signal
b. carrier signal
c. harmonics
d. 2nd IF signal
ANGLE
MODULATIO
N
By
Melvin C. Arceo
ENCODED BY:
SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN
1. He developed the first successful FM radio

system
a. B.E.Alpine
b. N.S. Kapany
c. E.H. Armstrong
d. A.C.S. Van Heel
2. Results whenever the phase angle of
sinusoidal wave is varied with respect to time
a. angle modulation
b. digital modulation
c. amplitude modulation
d. pulse modulation
3. In the spectrum of a frequency -modulated
wave
a. the carrier frequency disappears with a
large modulation index
b. the amplitude of any sideband
depends on the modulation index
c. the total number of sidebands depends
on the modulation index
d. the carrier frequency cannot disappear
4.What is the frequency swing of an FM
broadcast transmitter when modulated 60%
a. 60 kHz
b. 45 kHz
c. 30 kHz
d. 25 kHz
5. Varying the frequency of a constant amplitude carrier directly proportional to the
amplitude to the modulating signal at a rate
equal to the frequency of the modulating signal
a. amplitude modulation
b. angle modulation
c. phase modulation
d. frequency modulation
6. The amount of frequency deviation from the
carrier center frequency in an FM transmitter is
proportional to what characteristic of the
frequency signal?
a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. phase
d. shape
7. It is a modulation where the angle of a wave
carrier is varied from its reference value
b. angle modulation
c. analog modulation
d. digital modulation
8. Both FM and PM are types of what kind of
modulation?
a. amplitude
b. phase
c. angle
d. duty cycle
9. Varying the phase of a constant amplitude
carrier displacement proportional to the
amplitude of the modulating signal at a rate
equal to the frequency of the modulating signal.
b. angle modulation
c. phase modulation
d. frequency modulation
10. The difference between phase and frequency
modulation
a. is purely theoretical because they are
the same in practice
b. is too great to make the two systems
compatible
c. lies in the poorer audio responses of
phase modulation
d. lies in the different definitions of the
modulation index
11. The relative angular displacement of the
carrier phase in radians with respect to the
reference phase is called __________.
a. phase deviation
b. carrier deviation
c. frequency deviation
d. information deviation
12. If the amplitude of the modulating signal
decreases, the carrier deviation
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
d. goes to zero
13. On an FM signal, maximum deviation
occurs at what point on the modulating signal?
a. zero-crossing points
b. peak positive amplitudes
c. peak negative amplitude
d. both peak positive and negative
amplitudes
14. The amount of oscillator frequency increase
and decrease around the carrier frequency is
called _________.
a. frequency deviation
b. phase shift
c. intelligence frequency
d. baseband
15. The relative displacement of the carrier
frequency in hertz in respect to its unmodulated
value is called _____________.
b. phase deviation
c. information deviation
d. carrier deviation
16. A pre-emphasis circuit provides extra noise
immunity by
a. boosting the bass frequencies
b. amplifying the higher audio

frequencies
c. preamplfying the whole audio band
d. converting the phase modulation to
FM
17. It is the instantaneous change in phase of the
carrier at a given instant of time and indicates
how much phase of the carrier is changing with
respect to its reference phase.
a. instantaneous frequency
b. instantaneous frequency deviation
c. instantaneous phase
d. instantaneous phase deviation
18. Calculate the amount of frequency deviation
caused by a limited noise spike that still cause
an undesired phase shift of 35 degrees when the
input frequency is 5kHz.
a. 2.40kHz
b. 3.05kHz
c. 1.29kHz
d. 4.45kHz
19. Which of the following determines the rate
of carrier deviation?
a. intelligence frequency
b. frequency deviation
c. carrier frequency
d. broadband frequency
20. It is the precise phase of the carrier at a
given instant of time
a. instantaneous phase deviation
b. instantaneous phase
c. instantaneous frequency deviation
d. instantaneous frequency
21. In PM, a frequency shift occurs while what
characteristic of the modulating signal is

changing?
a. shape
b. phase
c. frequency
d. amplitude
22. In FM, it is a device that in which amplitude
variations are derived in response to frequency
or phase variations
a. detector
b. discriminator
c. demodulator
d. receiver
23. Maximum frequency deviation of a PM
signal occurs at
a. zero-crossing points
b. peak positive amplitudes
c. peak negative amplitude
d. peak positive and negative amplitude
24. Since noise phase-modulates the FM wave,
as the noise sideband frequency approaches the
carrier frequency, the noise amplitude
a. remains constant
b. is decreased
c. is increased
d. is equalized
25. It is the instantaneous change in frequency
of the carrier and is defined as the first time
derivative of the phase deviation
26. Since noise phase- modulates the FM wave,
as the noise sideband frequency approaches the

carrier frequency, the noise amplitude
a. remains constant
b. is decreased
c. is increased
d. is equalized
27. It is the precise frequency of the carrier at a
given instant of time is defined as the first time
derivative of the instantaneous phase.
28. It is the output-versus-input transfer
functions for modulators which give the
relationship between the output parameter
changes in respect to specified changes in the
input signal.
b. deviation sensitivity
c. transconductance curve
d. phase deviation
29. When the modulating frequency is doubled,
the modulation index is halved, and the
modulating voltage remains constant. The
modulation system is
b. phase modulation
c. frequency modulation
d. any of the above
30. In PM, carrier frequency deviation is not
proportional to:
a. modulating signal amplitude
b. carrier amplitude and frequency
c. modulating signal frequency

d. modulator phase shift
31. To compensate for increases in carrier
frequency deviation with an increase in
modulating signal frequency, what circuit is
used between the modulating signal and phase
modulator?
a. low-pass filter
b. high-pass filter
c. phase shifter
d. bandpass filter
32. Indicate which one of the following is not an
advantage of PM over AM:
a. better noise immunity is provided
b. lower bandwidth is required
c. the transmitted power is more useful
d. less modulating power is required
33. With phase modulation, the maximum
frequency deviation occurs during what value of
the modulating signal?
a. positve peak value
b. rms value
c. negative peak value
d. zero crossings
34. With frequency modulation, maximum
frequency deviation occurs _____ of the
modulation signal.
a. positive peak value
b. both positive and negative peak
value
c. negative peak value
d. zero crossings
36. With phase modulation, peak phase
deviation is called _________.
a. modulation index
c. phase deviation
d. instantaneous phase
37. The FM produced by PM is called
a. FM
b. PM
c. indirect FM
d. indirect PM
38. In a broadcast superheterodyne receiver, the
a. local oscillator operates below the
signal frequency
b. mixer input must be tuned to the
signal frequency
c. local oscillator frequency is normally
double the OF
d. RF amplifier normally works at
455kHz above the carrier frequency
39. If the amplitude of the modulating signal
applied to a phase modulator is constant, the
output signal will be
a. zero
b. the carrier frequency
c. above the carrier frequency
d. below the carrier frequency
40. To prevent overloading of the last IF
amplifier in the receiver, one should use the
a. squelch
b. variable sensitiivity
c. variable selectivity
d. double conversion
41. The peak-to-peak frequency deviation is
sometimes called __________.
a. phase deviation
b. peak phase deviation

c. carrier swing
d. instantaneous frequency
42. A 100MHz carrier is deviated 50 kHz by
4kHz signal. The modulation index is
a. 5
b. 8
c. 12.5
d. 20
43. With angle modulation, it is defined as the
ratio of the frequency deviation actually
produced to the maximum frequency deviation
allowed by law stated in percent form.
a. modulation index
b. percent modulation
c. frequency deviation
d. phase deviation
44. In a broadcast FM system, the input S/N = 4.
Calculate the worst case S/N at the output if the
receiver's internal noise effect is negligible.
a. 19.8:1
b. 21.6:1
c. 23:1
d. 15:1
45. It is a circuit in which the carrier is varied in
such a way that its instantaneous phase is
proportional to the modulating signal.
a. frequency modulators
b. amplitude modulators
c. phase modulators
d. mixers
46. In a ratio detector
a. the linearity is worse than in a
phase discriminator
b. stabilization against signal strength

variations is provided
c. the output is twice that obtainable
from the similar phase discriminator
d. the circuit is the same as in a
discriminator, except that the diodes are
reversed
47. The maximum deviation of an FM carrier is
2kHz by a maximum modulating signal of
400Hz. The deviation ratio is
a. 0.2
b. 5
c. 8
d. 40
48. The unmodulated carrier is a singlefrequency sinusoid commonly called
_________.
a. unrest frequency
b. rest frequency
c. frequency-modulated frequency
d. carrier frequency
49. It is a circuit in which the carrier is varied in
such a way that its instantaneous phase is
proportional to the integral of the modulating
signal
a. phase modulator
b. phase deviator
c. amplitude deviator
d. frequency modulator
50. The typical squelch circuit
a. cuts off an audio amplifier when the
carrier is absent
b. eliminates the RF interference when
the signal is weak
c. cuts off an IF amplifier when the AGC

is maximum
d. cuts off an IF amplifier when the
AGC is minimum
51. Frequency modulators are also known as
_________.
a. phase deviators
b. frequency deviators
c. phase modulators
d. amplitude deviators
52. A 70 kHz carrier has a frequency deviation
of 4 kHz with a 1000Hz signal. What is the
bandwidth of the FM signal?
a. 4kHz
b. 7kHz
c. 10 kHz
d. 28 kHz
53. The controlled oscillator synthesizer is
sometimes preferred to the direct one because
a. it is simpler piece of equipment
b. its frequency stability is better
c. it does not require crystal oscillators
d. it is relatively free of spurious
frequencies
54. A system with a differentiator followed by
an FM modulator is called
a. PM modulator
b. FM modulator
c. PM demodulator
d. FM demodulator
55. The image frequency of a superheterodyne
receiver
a. is created within the receiver itself
b. is due to insufficient adjacent channel
rejection
c. is not rejected by the IF tuned
circuits
d. is independent of the frequency to
which the receiver is tuned
56. A system with FM demodulator followed by
an integrator
a. PM modulator
b. PM demodulator
c. FM modulator
d. FM demodulator
57. A system with an integrator followed by a
PM modulator
a. PM modulator
b. FM modulator
c. PM demodulator
d. FM demodulator
58. An FM transmitter has a maximum
deviation of 12kHz and a maximum modulating
frequency of 12 kHz. The bandwidth by
Carson's rule is
a. 24kHz
b. 33.6kHz
c. 38.8kHz
d. 48kHz
59. A system with PM demodulator followed by
a differentiator
a. PM modulator
b. FM modulator
c. PM demodulator
d. FM demodulator
60. A receiver has poor IF selectivity. It will
therefore also have poor
a. blocking
b. double-spotting
c. diversity reception
d. sensitivity
61. Three point tracking is achieved with
a. variable selectivity
b. the padder capacitor
c. double spotting
d. double conversion
62. He mathematically proved that for a given
modulating signal frequency a frequencymodulated wave cannot be accommodated in a
narrower bandwidth than an amplitude
modulated wave.
a. R.C. Alpine
b. E.H. Armstrong
c. J.R. Carson
d. J.J. Thomson
63. The maximum allowed deviation of the FM
sound signal in TV is 25 kHz. If the actual
deviation is 18kHz, the percent modulation is
a. 43 percent
b. 72 percent
c. 96 percent
d. 139 percent
64. The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is
tuned to a frequency higher than the incoming
frequency
a. to help the image frequency rejection
b. to permit easier tracking
c. because otherwise an intermediate
frequency could not be produced
d. to allow adequate frequency
coverage without switching
benefit of FM over AM?

a. greater efficiency
b. noise immunity
c. capture effect
d. lower complexity and cost
66. Low-index FM systems are also known as
__________.
a. wideband FM
b. narrowband FM
c. commercial FM
d. medium FM
67. For high-index signal, a method of
determining the bandwidth is called ________
approach
a. quasi-stationary
b. quasi-movement
c. quasi-deviation
d. any of these
68. When a receiver has a good blocking
performance, this means that
a. it does not suffer from double-spotting
b. its image frequency rejection is poor
c. it is unaffected by AGC derived
from a nearby transmission
d. its detector suffers from burnout
69. He established a general rule to estimate the
bandwidth for all angle-modulated system
regardless of the modulation index.
a. R.C. Alpine
b. E.H. Armstrong
c. J.R. Carson
d. J.J. Thomson
70. An AM receiver uses a diode detector for
demodulation. This enables it satisfactority to
receive
a. single-sideband, suppressed carrier
b. single-sideband, reduced carrier
c. independent sideband
d. single-sideband, full carrier
71. The primary disadvantage of FM is its
a. higher cost and complexity
b. excessive use of spectrum space
c. noise susceptibility
d. lower efficiency
72. A rule that approximates the bandwidth
necessary to transmit an angle-modulated wave
as twice the sum of the peak frequency
deviation and the highest modulating frequency.
a. Carson's rule
b. Shannon's rule
c. Hartley's law
d. Hartley-Shannon law
73. It is the worst case modulation index and is
equal to the maximum peak frequency deviation
divided by the maximum modulating signal
frequency
a. peak phase deviation
c. deviation ratio
d. signal to noise ratio
74. The receiver circuit that rids FM noise is the
a. modulator
b. demodulator
c. limiter
d. low-pass filter
75. The phenomenon of a strong FM signal
dominating a weaker signal on a common
frequency is referred to as the

a. capture effect
b. blot out
c. quieting factor
d. domination syndrome
76. The highest side frequencies form one
channel are allowed to spill over into adjacent
channels producing an interference known as
_________.
a. co-channel interference
b. adjacent channel interference
c. splatter
d. overmodulation
77. A pre-emphasis is usually a ________.
a. high-pass filter
b. band-stop filter
c. low-pass filter
d. bandpass filter
78. Frequency modulation transmitters are more
efficient because their power is increased by
what type of amplifier?
a. class A
b. class B
c. class C
d. all of the above
79. Noise interferes mainly with modulating
signals that are
a. sinusoidal
b. non-sinusoidal
c. low frequencies
d. high frequencies
80. A de-emphasis is usually a _________.
a. high pass filter
b. band-stop filter
c. low-pass filter
d. bandpass filter
81. A pre-emphasis is a __________.
a. integrator
b. differentiator
c. either integrator or differentiator
d. neither integrator or differentiator
82. A de-emphasis is a _____________.
a. integrator
b. differentiator
c. either integrator or differentiator
d. neither integrator or differentiator
83. Pre-emphasis circuit boost what modulating
frequencies before modulation?
a. high frequencies
b. mid-range frequencies
c. low frequencies
d. all of the above
84. The primary disadvantage of direct PM
a. relatively unstable LC oscillators must
be used to produce carrier frequency which
prohibits using crystal oscillators
b. relatively high frequency deviations
and modulation indices are easily obtained due
to the fact that the oscillators are inherently
unstable.
c. crystal oscillators are inhrently
stable and therefore more difficult for them
to achieve high phase deviations and
modulation indices
d. carrier oscillator is isolated form the
actual modulator circuit and therefore can be
stable source.
85. It is an angle modulation in which the
frequency of the carrier is deviated by the

modulating signal
a. direct PM
b. PM
c. indirect FM
d. any of these
86. One of the following is a method of
performing frequency up conversion
a. heterodyning
b. amplification
c. modulation
d. none of these
87. A pre-emphasis circuit is a
a. low-pass filter
b. high-pass filter
c. phase shifter
d. bandpass filter
88. Pre emphasis is compensated for the
receiver by a
a. phase inverter
b. bandpass filter
c. high-pass filter
d. low-pass filter
89. A circuit that compares the frequency of the
noncrystal carrier oscillator to a crystal
reference oscillator and then produces a
correction voltage proportional to the difference
between the two frequencies
a. AFC
b. squelch circuit
c. AGC
d. heterodyning circuit
90. A frequency selective device whose output
voltage is proportional to the difference between
the input frequency and its resonant frequency

a. modulator
b. squelch circuit
c. frequency discriminator
d. FM transmitters
91. Allows FM receiver to differentiate between
two signals received with the same frequency
but different amplitudes
a. flywheel effect
b. amplitude limiting
c. noise immunity
d. capture effect
92. If an FM transmitter employs one doubler,
one tripler, and one quadrupler, what is the
carrier frequency swing when the oscillator
frequency swing is 2kHz?
a. 24 kHz
b. 48 kHz
c. 14 kHz
d. 12 kHz
93. The cut-off frequency of pre-emphasis and
de-emphasis circuits is
a. 1 kHz
b. 2.122 kHz
c. 5 kHz
d. 75 kHz
94. Which of the following is not a disadvantage
of angle modulation?
a. wide bandwidth
b. complex
c. high cost
d. less noise
95. In FM receivers, which of the following
rejects the image frequency?
a. preselector
b. detector
c. IF amplifier
d. mixer
96. In FM receivers, which of the following
provides most gain and selectivity of the
receiver?
a. detector
b. RF amplifier
c. local oscillator
d. IF amplifier
97. Another name for Voltage Variable
Capacitor is
a. PIN diode
b. varactor diode
c. snap diode
d. hot carrier diode
98. The depletion region in a junction diode
forms what part of a capacitor?
a. plates
b. leads
c. package
d. dielectric
99. Which of the following removes the
information from the modulated wave in FM
receivers?
a. amplifiers
b. mixer
c. speakers
d. discriminator
100. The final IF amplifier in FM receivers is
sometimes called ___________.
a. tuned amplifier
b. limiter
c. passband filter
d. any of these
101. _________ are frequency-dependent
circuits designed to produce an output voltage
that is proportional to the instantaneous
frequency at its output
a. PM receivers
b. PM demodulators
c. FM demodulators
d. FM receivers
102. Increasing the reverse bias on a varactor
diode will it cause its capacitance to
a. decrease
b. increase
c. remains the same
d. drop to zero
103. The capacitance of a varactor diode is in
what general range?
a. pF
b. nF
c. uF
d. F
104. Which of the following is the simplest
form of tuned-circuit frequency discriminator?
a. Foster-Seeley discriminator
b. Ratio detector
c. slope detector
d. PLL detector
105. It is simply two single-ended slope
detectors connected in parallel and fed 180
degrees out phase.
b. quadrature detector
c. balanced slope generator
d. PLL detector
106. The frequency change in crystal oscillator
produced by a varactor diode is
a. zero
b. small
c. medium
d. large
107. A phase modulator varies the phase shift of
the
a. carrier
c. modulating voltage
d. sideband frequency
108. Which of the following tuned-circuit
frequency discriminator is relatively immune to
amplitude variations in its input signal?
a. ratio detector
b. slope detector
c. balanced slope detector
d. quadrature detector
109. In FM demodulators, it is also called
coincidence detector
a. quadrature demodulator
b. PLL demodulator
c. Foster-Seely discriminator
d. ratio detector
110. The widest phase variation is obtained with
________.
a. RC low-pass filter
b. RC high-pass filter
c. LR low-pass filter
d. LC resonant circuit
111. An FM receiver provides 100dB of voltage
gain prior to the limiter. Calculate the receiver's
sensitivity if the limiter's quieting for an FM

receiver is 300mV?
a. 4.5 uV
b. 3.0 uV
c. 2.1 uV
d. 1.3 uV
112. The small frequency change produced by a
phase modulator can be increased by using
___________.
a. amplifier
b. mixer
c. frequency multiplier
d. frequency divider
113. In FM receiver, limiters produce a
constant-amplitude output of all signals above a
prescribed minimum input level called
_________.
a. threshold voltage
b. capture level
c. quieting level
d. any of these
114. The inherent ability of FM to diminish the
effects of interfering signals is called _______.
a. capture effect
b. noise suppression
c. adjacent channel rejection
115. A crystal oscillator whose frequency can be
changed by an input voltage is called _______.
a. VCO
b. VXO
c. VFO
d. VHF
116. Which oscillators are preferred for carrier
generators because of their good frequency
stability?
a. LC
b. RC
c. LR
d. crystal
117. Which of the following frequency
demodulators requires an input limiter?
a. Foster-Seely discriminator
b. Pulse-averaging discriminator
c. quadrature detector
d. PLL
118. Provides a slight automatic control over the
local oscillator circuit and compensates for its
drift that would otherwise cause a station to
become detuned.
a. AGC
b. AFC
c. VVC
d. VCO
119. ________ of an FM receiver is the
maximum dB difference signal strength between
two received signals necessary for the capture
effect to suppress the weaker signal.
a. capture effect
b. capture gain
c. capture ratio
d. capture loss
120. When two limiter stages are used, there is
called ___________.
a. double limiting
b. two-time limiting
c. reserve limiting
d. ratio limiting
121. Which discriminator averages pulses in a
low-pass filter?
a. ratio detector
b. PLL
d. pulse-averaging discriminator
122. Which of the frequency demodulator is
considered the best overall?
a. ratio detector
b. PLL
c. quadrature
123. One of the prominent advantage of FM
over PM is
a. FM requires frequency multipliers to
increase the modulation index and frequency
deviation to useful levels
b. the voltage controlled oscillators of
FM can be directly modulated and produce
outputs with high frequency deviations and
high modulation
c. the modulation index of FM is
independent of the modulating signal frequency
d. FM offers better signal-to-noise
performance than PM
124. What special speaker is used for low
frequency?
a. baffle
b. base
c. tweeter
d. woofer
125. Each speaker assembly at the receiver
reproduces exactly the same information
a. monophonic
b. multiphonic
c. stereophonic
d. any of these
126. In a pulse averaging discriminator, the
pulse are produced by a(n)
a. astable multivibrator
b. zero-crossing detector
c. one-shot
d. low-pass filter
127. A reactance modulator looks like a
capacitance of 35pF in parallel with the
oscillator-tuned circuit whose inductance is 50
uH and capacitance is 40 pF. What is the center
frequency of the oscillator prior to FM?
a. 1.43 MHz
b. 2.6 MHz
c. 3.56 MHz
d. 3.8 MHz
128. The frequency of an SCA channel
subcarrier is _______.
a. 38 kHz
b. 15 kHz
c. 67 kHz
d. 53 kHz
129. The L-R stereo channel in FM broadcasting
is between
a. 50 Hz to 15 kHz
b. 60 kHz to 74 kHz
c. 23 kHz to 53 kHz
d. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
130. An FM demodulator that uses a differential
amplifier and tuned circuits to convert
frequency variations into voltage variations is
the
a. quadrature detector
b. Foster-Seeley discriminator
c. differential peak detector
131. The output amplitude of the phase detector
in a quadrature detector is proportional to
a. pulse width
b. pulse frequency
c. input amplitude
d. the phase shift value at center
132. The output to a PLL is 2MHz. In order for
the PLL to be locked. The VCO output must be
a. 0 MHz
b. 1 MHz
c. 2 MHz
d. 4 MHz
133. With stereo transmission, the maximum
frequency deviation is
a. 75 kHz
b. 15 kHz
c. 25 kHz
d. 3 kHz
134. The L + R stereo channel occupies
_________.
a. 50 Hz to 15 kHz
b. 60 kHz to 74 kHz
c. 23 kHz to 53 kHz
d. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
135. The band of frequencies over which a PLL
will acquire or recognize an input signal is
called the
a. circuit bandwidth
b. capture range
c. band of acceptance
d. lock range
136. The three primary frequency bands are

allocated by FCC for two-way FM radio
communications except:
a. 132 MHz to 174 MHz
b. 450 MHz to 470 MHz
c. 806 MHz to 947 MHz
d. 1026 MHz to 1035 MHz
137. The maximum frequency deviation for
two-way transmitters is typically
a. 25 kHz
b. 5 kHz
c. 75 kHz
d. 3 kHz
138. Decreasing the input frequency to be
locked PLL will cause the VCO output to
a. decrease
b. increase
c. remains constant
d. jump to the free-running frequency
139. The range of frequencies over which a PLL
will track input signal variations is known as the
a. circuit bandwidth
b. capture range
c. band of acceptance
d. lock range
140. The maximum modulating signal
frequency for two-way transmitter is typically
a. 3 kHz
b. 5 kHz
c. 15 kHz
d. 75 kHz
141. Over a narrow range of frequencies, the
PLL acts like a
a. low-pass filter
b. bandpass filter
c. tunable oscillator
d. frequency modulator
142. The output of a PLL frequency
demodulator is taken from the
a. low-pass filter
b. VCO
c. phase detector
d. none of these
143. The primary advantage of FM over AM
a. capture effect
b. noise immunity
c. FM can use class C amplifiers
d. FM is more efficient
144. The usual cutoff frequency of pre-emphasis
and de-emphasis in broadcast FM?
a. 50 Hz
b. 75 Hz
c. 2122 Hz
d. 3183 Hz
145. The maximum deviation for narrowband
FM?
a. 2500
b. 5
c. 1.67
d. 75
146. Which of the following is best frequency
demodulator in use?
b. ratio detector
c. slope detector
d. PLL
147. The range of frequencies over which the
PLL will capture an input signal is known as
________.
a. lock range
b. capture range
c. bandwidth
d. sidebands
148. Type of FM demodulator that is widely
used in TV audio demodulators
a. ratio detector
c. PLL
149. A variation of Foster-Seeley discriminator
widely used in oldr TV receiver designs
a. ratio detector
b. PLL
d. crosby modulator
will track an input is called
a. lock range
b. capture range
c. track range
d. driving range
151. What is the maximum deviation for
monoaural TV sound
a. 25 kHz
b. 75 kHz
c. 50 kHz
d. 125 kHz
152. What is the maximum deviation for stereo
TV sound?
a. 25 kHz
b. 75 kHz
c. 50 kHz
d. 125 kHz
153. In FM stereo broadcasting, the L + R signal
a. double-sideband modulates a
subcarrier
b. modulates the FM carrier
c. frequency modulates a subcarrier
d. is not transmitted
154. In FM stereo broadcasting, the L - R signal
a. double-sideband modulates a
subcarrier
b. modulates the FM carrier
c. frequency modulates a subcarrier
155. The SCA signal if used in FM broadcasting
is transmitted via
a. a 19 kHz subcarrier
b. a 38 kHz subcarrier
c. a 67 kHz subcarrier
d. the main FM carrier
156. Which of the following is considered as an
indirect method of generating FM?
a. reactance modulator
b. balanced modulator
c. varactor diode modulation
d. armstrong system
157. In an FM system, if the modulation index
is doubled by halving the modulating frequency,
what will be the effect on the maximum
deviation?
a. remains the same
b. doubles
c. decrease by 1/2
d. increase by 1/4
158. Determine from the following the common
use of DSB in broadcast and
telecommunication.
a. satellite communications
b. FM/TV stereo
c. two-way communications
d. telephone systems
159. Phase modulation emission type
a. F3F
b. G3E
c. F3E
d. F3C
will cause the input of the VCO signals to
remain synchronized is known as the
_________ range.
a. capture
b. lock
c. acquisition
d. any of these
161. If the PLL input is zero, the VCO will
operate at its ____________ frequency.
a. free-running
b. natural
c. operating
d. any of these
162. Since a PLL will only respond to signals
over a narrow frequency range, it acts likes a
________.
a. low-pass filter
b. high-pass filter
c. bandpass filter
d. bandstop filter
163. In a PLL demodulating an FM signal, the
VCO output is an exact reproduction of the
___________.
a. modulating signal
b. carrier signal
c. carrier amplitude
d. VCO output
164. In a PLL demodulating an FM signal, the
VCO output is an exact reproduction of the
________.
a. FM input
b. VCO input
c. modulating signal
d. error signal
165. After the IF stages have been aligned, the
next state to align in FM receiver is
a. local oscillator
b. limiter stage
c. RF amplifier
d. mixer stage
166. The modulation system used for telegraphy
is
a. frequency-shift keying
b. two-tone modulation
c. purse-code modulation
d. single-tone modulation
a. Facsimile
b. RTTY
c. modulated CW
d. television
168. What is a frequency discriminator?
a. a circuit for filtering two closely
adjacent signals
b. a circuit for detecting FM signals
c. an FM generator
d. an automatic bandswitching circuit
169. Type of radio communication transmission

utilizing frequency modulation technique
a. television video
b. broadcasting in 535-1606 kHz
c. single sideband HF transmission
d. television audio
170. Why was FM first developed?
a. to compete with AM
b. to overcome noise
c. to increase listeners
d. to supplement AM
171. To what feature of the modulating tone is
FM deviation proportional?
a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. phase
d. phase shift
172. Which of the following is not a basic filed
of FM?
a. broadcast
b. TV video
c. mobile communications
d. amateur radio
173. Under what condition would a 1 kHz AF
signal produce a single pair of FM sidebands?
a. wideband
b. broadcast FM
c. TV audio FM
d. narrowband FM
174. What deviation is considered 100% for FM
broadcast stations?
a. 75 kHz
b. 220 kHz
c. 270 kHz
d. 75 kHz or 220 kHz

175. In FM broadcasting, what is the highest
required modulating frequency?
a. 75 kHz
b. 50 kHz
c. 25 kHz
d. 15 kHz
176. In FM broadcasting, what is the lowest
required modulating frequency?
a. 50 Hz
b. 30 Hz
c. 10 Hz
d. 5 Hz
177. What is the disadvantage of slope detection
of FM>
a. no discrimination against noise
b. less AF distortion
c. less AF out
d. no filtering of carrier
178. What is the unction of the dc that comes
out of the dc amplifier in a PLL-type FM
detector?
a. carrier signal
b. filter signal
c. error signal
d. phase signal
179. What is the function of the dc that comes
out of the dc amplifier in a PLL-type FM
detector?
a. oscillators
b. AF signal
c. RF signal
d. carrier signal
180. Why should discriminators be tuned for a
straight characteristic S-curve?

a. less AF distortion
b. greater AF out
c. less RF out
d. less RF distortion
181. What band for high-Q coils be more
desirable for stagger-tuned-type discriminator
transformer?
a. wide
b. intermediate
c. interfacing
d. narrow
182. In a Foster-Seeley circuit, the AF output
voltage is ________.
a. varying DC
b. varying AC
c. steady DC
d. steady AC
183. In a stagger-tuned discriminator, the AF
output voltage is _________.
a. varying DC
b. varying AC
c. steady DC
d. steady AC
184. In a ratio detector, the AF output voltage is
a. steady AC
b. varying AC
c. steady DC
d. varying DC
185. In a gated-beam detector, the AF output
voltage is _________.
a. steady DC
b. varying AC
c. varying DC
d. steady AC
186. Which of the following discriminator
circuits require limiters ahead of them?
a. quadrature detector
b. foster-seeley discriminator
c. slope detector
d. stagger-tuned
circuits provide an automatic gain control
voltage?
a. ratio detector
b. balanced slope detector
d. stagger-tuned detector
circuits has its diodes in series?
a. ratio
c. round-travis detector
d. slope detector
189. To what frequency must the gated-beam
quadrature circuit be tuned in a TV receiver?
a. 10.7 MHz
b. 455 kHz
c. 70 MHz
d. 4.5 MHz
190. To what frequency must the gated-beam
quadrature circuit be tuned in an FM broadcast
receiver?
a. 4.3 MHz
b. 10.7 MHz
c. 11 MHz
d. 4.8 MHz
192. With what FM detectors would AGC be an
advantage?
a. foster-seeley detector
b. ratio detector
193. What is the reason for using pre-emphasis?
a. increase amplitude
b. reduce carrier shift
c. amplify RF signal
d. reduce noise reception
194. What are the two types of stages in an FM
receiver that differ from those in an AM
receiver?
a. limiting IF and detectors
b. oscillators and IF amplifiers
c. mixers and RF amplifiers
d. local oscillators and mixers
195. What special circuits are used in a squelch
system that can follow changing noise levels?
a. noise amplifiers
b. rectifier
c. dc amplifier
d. any of these
196. Why might FM be better than AM for
mobile ________.
a. better coverage
b. not affected by solar cycles
c. reduce flutter
d. not absorbed by ionosphere
197. What is the order of circuit alignment in an
FM receiver?
a. discriminator, limiters, IF, mixer
and RF
b. RF, limiters, IF, mixer and
discriminator
c. limiters, mixer, RF, discriminator and
IF
d. RF, mixer, RF, IF, limiters and
discriminator
198. What is the another name for the reactancetube modualtor?
a. Crosby
b. Foster-Seeley
c. Round Travis
d. Messier
199. What effect would be produced if a small
inductance were used in plasce of the 50 pF
capacitance in the reactance-tube modulator?
a. the circuit becomes resistive
b. reactance modulator looks like an
inductive circuit
c. reactance modulator looks like Xc
d. any of these
200. The following are significant circuits in the
AFC system except:
a. crystal
b. mixer
c. IF
d. filter
201. Besides the reactance-tube modulator, what
is another method of producing direct FM?
a. armstrong modulator
b. voltage variable capacitor
c. impeadance modulator
d. slug indicator
202. What is the advantage of PM?
a. can use crystal oscillator
b. uses more multistage
c. less selective fading

d. simplicity
203. What was the first broadcast FM system
called?
a. Arc transmitter
b. MOPA
c. Armstrong
d. crystal
204. Why are limtiers used in FM transmitters?
a. any of these
b. clip noise peaks
c. prevent overdrive of discriminators
d. prevent overdeviation
205. Why are limiters used in FM receivers?
a. provide better noise performance
b. clip noise peaks
c. prevent overdrive of discriminators
d. any of these
206. What signals might feed into an FM
broadcast station audio control console?
a. microphones
b. turntables
c. remote lines
d. any of these
Chapter 1: Introduction to Communication Systems

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The theory of radio waves was originated by:
a. Marconi
b. Bell
c. Maxwell
d. Hertz
ANS: C
2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was:
a. Marconi
c. Maxwell
b. Bell
d. Hertz
ANS: A
3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by:
a. Marconi
c. Maxwell
b. Bell
d. Hertz
ANS: D
4. A complete communication system must include:
a. a transmitter and receiver
b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel
c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer
d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel
ANS: B
5. Radians per second is equal to:
a. 2 f
b. f 2
c. the phase angle

ANS: A
6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on:
a. the carrier frequency
c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio
b. the signal-to-noise ratio
d. the baseband frequency range
ANS: D
7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called:
a. sub-channeling
c. SINAD
b. signal switching
d. multiplexing
ANS: D
8. TDM stands for:
a. Time-Division Multiplexing
b. Two-level Digital Modulation
c. Time Domain Measurement

ANS: A
9. FDM stands for:
a. Fast Digital Modulation
b. Frequency Domain Measurement
c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing
ANS: C
10. The wavelength of a radio signal is:
a. equal to f c
b. equal to c
c. the distance a wave travels in one period
d. how far the signal can travel without distortion
ANS: C
11. Distortion is caused by:
a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies
b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other
c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies
d. all of the above
ANS: D
12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its:
a. frequency-domain representation
c. spectrum
b. Fourier series
d. all of the above
ANS: D
13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is:
a. approximately 3 kHz
c. at least 5 kHz
b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz
ANS: A
14. Noise in a communication system originates in:
a. the sender
c. the channel
b. the receiver
d. all of the above
ANS: D
15. "Man-made" noise can come from:
a. equipment that sparks
b. temperature
c. static
d. all of the above
ANS: A
16. Thermal noise is generated in:
a. transistors and diodes
b. resistors
ANS: D
c. copper wire
d. all of the above
17. Shot noise is generated in:

a. transistors and diodes
b. resistors
c. copper wire
ANS: A
18. The power density of "flicker" noise is:
a. the same at all frequencies
b. greater at high frequencies
c. greater at low frequencies

d. the same as "white" noise
ANS: C
19. So called "1/f" noise is also called:
a. random noise
b. pink noise
c. white noise
d. partition noise
ANS: B
20. "Pink" noise has:
a. equal power per Hertz
b. equal power per octave
c. constant power
ANS: B
21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is:
a. VT = sqrt(V1 V1 + V2 V2)
c. VT = sqrt(V1 V2)
d. VT = V1 + V2
b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2
ANS: A
22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as:
a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage
b. signal power divided by noise power
c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power
ANS: B
23. SINAD is calculated as:
a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage
b. signal power divided by noise power
c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power
ANS: D
24. Noise Figure is a measure of:
a. how much noise is in a communications system
b. how much noise is in the channel
c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal
d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB
ANS: C
25. The part, or parts, of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are:
a. its amplitude
c. its amplitude, frequency, and direction
b. its amplitude and frequency
d. its amplitude, frequency, and phase angle
ANS: D
COMPLETION
1. The telephone was invented in the year ____________________.
ANS: 1863
2. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year ____________________.
ANS: 1901
3. The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the ____________________ band.
ANS: base
4. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the ____________________.
ANS: channel
5. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is ____________________.
ANS: zero
6. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for ____________________.
ANS: bandwidth
7. The more information per second you send, the ____________________ the bandwidth required.
ANS:
greater
larger
wider
8. In ____________________, you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry multiple
signals.
ANS: FDM
9. In ____________________, multiple signal streams take turns using the channel.
ANS: TDM
10. VHF stands for the ____________________ frequency band.
ANS: very high

11. The VHF band starts at ____________________ MHz.
ANS: 30
12. The UHF band starts at ____________________ MHz.
ANS: 300
13. A radio signal's ____________________ is the distance it travels in one cycle of the carrier.
ANS: wavelength
14. In free space, radio signals travel at approximately ____________________ meters per second.
ANS: 300 million
15. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the _________________________.
ANS: spectrum analyzer
16. Mathematically, a spectrum is represented by a ____________________ series.
ANS: Fourier
17. Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called ____________________.
ANS:
noise blanking
blanking
18. For satellite communications, ____________________ noise can be a serious problem.
ANS: solar
19. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of ____________________ in a conductor.
ANS: electrons
SHORT ANSWER
1. Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system.
ANS:
Source, Transmitter, Channel, Receiver, Destination
2. Name five types of internal noise.
ANS:
Thermal, Shot, Partition, 1/f, transit-time
3. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"?
ANS:
White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible frequencies. Likewise, thermal noise has
equal power density over a wide range of frequencies.
4. What is "pink noise"?
ANS:
Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors, and red is at the low end of the visible
spectrum. Likewise, pink noise has higher power density at lower frequencies.
5. Suppose there is 30 V from one noise source that is combined with 40 V from another noise source.
Calculate the total noise voltage.
ANS:
50 V
6. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise, both across the same 100-ohm load, what is the signalto-noise ratio in dB?
ANS:
20 dB
7. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output signal-to-noise ratio of 80
dB. Find NF, both in dB and as a ratio.
ANS:
20 dB, NF = 100
8. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. Find its noise figure.
ANS:
1.5
9. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. Find the total NF for the pair.
ANS:
5.4
10. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to that of pure thermal noise.
How would you control the amount of noise generated?
ANS:
When current flows through a diode, it generates shot noise that can be represented as a current source,
the output of which is a noise current. The equation for the noise current is very similar to the equation for
thermal noise voltage. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional to the diode current, controlling
the diode current controls the noise power.
Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called:
a. base time
c. charge time
b. transit time
d. Miller time
ANS: B
2. A real capacitor actually contains:
a. capacitance and resistance only
b. capacitance and inductance only
c. capacitance, inductance, and resistance

d. reactance only
ANS: C
3. Bypass capacitors are used to:
a. remove RF from non-RF circuits
b. couple RF around an amplifier
c. neutralize amplifiers
d. reduce the Miller effect
ANS: A
4. A resonant circuit is:
a. a simple form of bandpass filter
b. used in narrowband RF amplifiers
c. both a and b
ANS: C
5. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will:
a. raise the Q of the tuned circuit
b. lower the Q of the tuned circuit
c. "multiply" the Q
d. have no effect on Q
ANS: B
6. The "Miller Effect" can:
a. cause an amplifier to oscillate
b. cause an amplifier to lose gain
c. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier

d. all of the above
ANS: D
7. The Miller Effect can be avoided by:
a. using a common-emitter amplifier
b. using a common-base amplifier
c. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit

d. it cannot be avoided
ANS: B
8. In a BJT, the Miller Effect is due to:
a. inductance of collector lead
b. collector-to-emitter capacitance
ANS: D
c. base-to-emitter capacitance
d. base-to-collector capacitance
9. In RF amplifiers, impedance matching is usually done with:

a. RC coupling
c. direct coupling
b. transformer coupling
d. lumped reactance
ANS: B
10. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by:
a. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback
b. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane
c. decoupling it
ANS: A
11. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it requires:
a. a nonlinear circuit
b. a linear amplifier
c. a signal containing harmonics
d. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency
ANS: A
12. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires:
a. loop gain equal to unity
b. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees
c. both a and b, but at just one frequency
ANS: C
13. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called:
a. the loop-gain criteria
c. the Bode criteria
b. the Hartley criteria
d. the Barkhausen criteria
ANS: D
14. The Hartley oscillator uses:
a. a tapped inductor
b. a two-capacitor divider
c. an RC time constant
d. a piezoelectric crystal
ANS: A
15. The Colpitts VFO uses:
a. a tapped inductor
b. a two-capacitor divider
c. an RC time constant
d. a piezoelectric crystal
ANS: B
16. The Clapp oscillator is:
a. a modified Hartley oscillator
b. a modified Colpitts oscillator
ANS: B
c. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator

d. only built with FETs
17. A varactor is:

a. a voltage-controlled capacitor
b. a diode
c. used in tuner circuits

d. all of the above
ANS: D
18. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are:
a. used for a precise frequency
b. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million)
c. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions
d. all of the above
ANS: D
19. If two signals, Va = sin(at) and Vb = sin(bt), are fed to a mixer, the output:
a. will contain 1 = a + b and 2 = a b
b. will contain 1 = a / b and 2 = b / a
c. will contain = (a + b ) / 2
ANS: A
20. In a balanced mixer, the output:
a. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies
b. contains the input frequencies
c. does not contain the input frequencies
d. is a linear mixture of the input signals
ANS: C
21. "VFO" stands for:
a. Voltage-Fed Oscillator
b. Variable-Frequency Oscillator
c. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator
d. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator
ANS: B
22. A "frequency synthesizer" is:
a. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency
b. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency
c. a fixed-frequency RF generator
d. same as a mixer
ANS: A
COMPLETION
1. Generally, conductor lengths in RF circuits should be ____________________.
ANS: short
2. At UHF frequencies and above, elements must be considered as ____________________ instead of as
being "lumped".
ANS: distributed
3. When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground, it is called a ____________________.
ANS: ground-plane
4. Interactions between parts of an RF circuit can be reduced by using ____________________ between
them.
ANS: shielding
5. In high-frequency RF circuits, the placement of wires and ____________________ can be critical.
ANS: components
6. A ____________________ circuit is used to remove RF from the DC voltage bus.
ANS: decoupling
7. A ____________________ capacitor is used to short unwanted RF to ground.
ANS: bypass
8. The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the ____________________ of the tuned circuit.
ANS: Q
9. A value of ____________________ or more for Q is required for the approximate tuned circuit equations
to be valid.
ANS: 10
10. In a class C RF amplifier, the ____________________ extracts one frequency from all the harmonics
contained in the device current (e.g. collector current).
ANS: tuned circuit
11. Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called ____________________.
ANS: neutralization
12. A Colpitts oscillator uses a ____________________ voltage divider to provide feedback.
ANS: capacitive
13. Electrically, a piezoelectric crystal has both a ____________________ and a ____________________
resonant frequency.
ANS: series, parallel
14. To produce sum and difference frequencies, a mixer must be a non-____________________ circuit.
ANS: linear
15. At some bias point, a diode or a transistor can act as a ____________________-law mixer.
ANS: square
SHORT ANSWER
1. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for 10 MHz?
ANS:
5.4 H
2. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100 kHz?
ANS:
100
3. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator. What should be the value
of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria?
ANS:
0.1
4. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts oscillator?
ANS:
It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large value capacitors in the feedback
divider.
5. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts, what will be the capacitance at 4 volts?
ANS:
30 pF
6. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20C, and a tempco of +10 ppm per degree Celsius. What
will be the shift in frequency at 70C? What percentage is that?
ANS:
50 kHz, 0.05%
7. Two sinusoidal signals, V1 and V2, are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. V1 is a 20-MHz signal; V2 is a 5MHz signal. What frequencies would you expect at the output of the mixer?
ANS:
15 MHz and 25 MHz
8. Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2.39 has a reference frequency of 1 MHz
and a fixed-modulus divider of 10. What should be the value of the programmable divider to get an output
frequency of 120 MHz?
ANS:
12
Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. AM stands for:
a. Audio Modulation
b. Amplitude Modulation
c. Angle Modulation
d. Antenna Modulation
ANS: B
2. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to:
a. the baseband signal
b. the carrier signal
c. the amplitude signal

ANS: A
3. If the audio Va sin(at) modulates the carrier Vc sin(ct), then the modulation index, m, is:
a. m = a / c
c. m = (Va / Vc)2
b. m = Va / Vc
d. m = Va / a
ANS: B
4. The equation for full-carrier AM is:
a. v(t) = (Ec + Em) sin(ct)
b. v(t) = (Ec + Em) sin(mt) + sin(ct)
c. v(t) = (Ec Em) sin(mt) sin(ct)

d. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(mt)) sin(ct)
ANS: D
5. Overmodulation causes:
a. distortion
b. splatter
c. both a and b
ANS: C
6. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. The modulation index, m, is:
a. m = Emin / Emax
c. m = (Emax Emin) / (Emax + Emin)
b. m = Emax / Emin
d. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax Emin)
ANS: C
7. If Va sin(at) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(ct), it will produce the frequencies:
a. c + a and c a
c. c + a and 2c + 2a
b. (c + a)/2 and (c a)/2
ANS: A
8. At 100% modulation, the total sideband power is:
a. equal to the carrier power
c. half the carrier power
b. twice the carrier power
d. 1.414 carrier power
ANS: C
9. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier, the bandwidth of the AM signal will be:
a. 5 kHz
c. 1.005 MHz
b. 10 kHz
ANS: B
10. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index, you would expect:
a. the audio to get louder at the receiver
c. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase
b. the received RF signal to increase
d. all of the above
ANS: D
11. The modulation index can be derived from:
a. the time-domain signal
b. the frequency-domain signal
c. both a and b
ANS: C
12. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be:
a. requires too much bandwidth
c. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios
b. requires too much power
d. all of the above
ANS: C
13. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM:
a. is more efficient
b. requires a more complex demodulator circuit
c. requires less bandwidth
d. all of the above
ANS: D
14. The SC in SSB SC stands for:
a. single-carrier
b. suppressed-carrier
c. sideband-carrier
ANS: B
15. PEP stands for:
a. Peak Envelope Power
b. Peak Efficiency Power
c. Peak Envelope Product

ANS: A
16. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation, what will it radiate with no modulation?
a. 1000 watts
c. 250 watts
b. 500 watts
d. 0 watts
ANS: D
17. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because:
a. AM is susceptible to noise
b. commercial AM stations use low power

c. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth
d. all of the above
ANS: C
18. The type of information that can be sent using AM is:
a. audio
c. digital data
b. video
d. all of the above
ANS: D
19. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a
modulation index of m2. The total modulation index is:
a. m1 + m2
c. sqrt(m1 m2 + m2 m1)
b. (m1 + m2) / 2
d. sqrt(m1 m1 + m2 m2)
ANS: D
20. To demodulate a USB SSB signal, the receiver must:
a. be set to USB mode
c. both a and b
b. reinsert the carrier
ANS: C
COMPLETION
1. An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very ____________________.
ANS: simple
2. A disadvantage of AM is its ____________________ use of power.
ANS: inefficient
3. The ____________________ of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband signal.
ANS: envelope
4. In AM, modulating with a single audio tone produces ____________________ sidebands.
ANS: two
5. Compared to the USB, the information in the LSB is ____________________.
ANS: the same
6. Compared to the USB, the power in the LSB is ____________________.
ANS: the same
7. In AM, total sideband power is always ____________________ than the carrier power.
ANS: less
8. In AM, as the modulation index increases, the carrier power _________________________.
ANS: remains constant
9. The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is ____________________.
ANS: one
10. In AM, a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of ____________________.
ANS: 6000 Hz
11. With a 1-MHz carrier, if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz, then the USB will extend up to
____________________.
ANS: 1010 kHz
12. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation, it will put out ____________________ watts
with 100% modulation.
ANS: 150
SHORT ANSWER
1. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation. How much power will it generate with 20%
modulation?
ANS:
102 watts
2. If the carrier power is 1000 watts, what is the power in the USB at 70.7% modulation?
ANS:
125 watts
3. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. If the modulation indexes for the tones are 0.3, 0.4, and 0.5,
then what is the total modulation index?
ANS:
0.707
4. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is 100 volts and the
minimum Vpp is 25 volts. What is the modulation index?
ANS:
0.6
5. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna. If the peak output voltage of the transmitter is 20
volts, what is the PEP?
ANS:
4 watts
Chapter 4: Angle Modulation

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The FM modulation index:
a. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency
b. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency
c. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency
d. is equal to twice the deviation
ANS: B
2. One way to derive FM from PM is:
a. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator
b. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator
c. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator
d. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator
ANS: A
3. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because:
a. there can only be a finite number of sidebands
b. it is equal to the frequency deviation
c. it is band-limited at the receiver
d. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible
ANS: D
4. Mathematically, the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of:
a. ordinary trigonometry and algebra
c. Taylor series
b. Bessel functions
d. fractals
ANS: B
5. FM bandwidth can be approximated by:
a. Armstrong's Rule
b. Bessel's Rule
c. Carson's Rule
ANS: C
6. NBFM stands for:
a. National Broadcast FM
b. Non-Broadcast FM
c. Near Band FM
d. Narrowband FM
ANS: D
7. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise, it is called:
a. the capture effect
c. the noise effect
b. the threshold effect
d. the limit effect
ANS: B
8. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called:

a. the capture effect
c. the "two-station" effect
b. the threshold effect
ANS: A
9. Pre-emphasis is used to:
a. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies
b. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies
c. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies
d. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations
ANS: A
10. A pre-emphasis of 75 s refers to:
a. the time it takes for the circuit to work
b. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs
c. the time delay between the L and R channels
d. the time-constant of the filter circuits used
ANS: D
11. FM stereo:
a. uses DSBSC AM modulation
b. is implemented using an SCA signal
c. has a higher S/N than mono FM

d. is not compatible with mono FM
ANS: A
12. An SCA signal:
a. can use amplitude modulation
b. can use FM modulation
c. is monaural
d. all of the above
ANS: D
13. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily:
a. using measurements at points where J0 equals one
b. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero
c. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero
d. only by using Bessel functions
ANS: B
COMPLETION
1. FM and PM are two forms of ____________________ modulation.
ANS: angle
2. PM is extensively used in ____________________ communication.
ANS: data
3. Compared to AM, the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually ____________________.

ANS: better
4. Compared to AM, the bandwidth of FM is usually ____________________.
ANS:
wider
greater
5. FM transmitters can use Class ____________________ amplifiers since amplitude linearity is not
important.
ANS: C
6. Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal ____________________ as modulation is applied.
ANS: stay constant
7. In FM, the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous ____________________ of the
modulating signal.
ANS: amplitude
8. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the ____________________ of the
modulating signal.
ANS: frequency
9. Mathematically, the number of sidebands in an FM signal is ____________________.
ANS: infinite
10. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency, their power ____________________.
ANS: decreases
11. Mathematically, the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as ____________________.
ANS: any number
12. In FM, as the modulating frequency decreases, the modulation index ____________________.
ANS: increases
13. In FM, as the frequency deviation decreases, the modulation index ____________________.
ANS: decreases
14. As the FM modulation index increases, the number of significant sidebands ____________________.
ANS: increases
15. For certain values of mf, such as 2.4, the amplitude of the carrier frequency ____________________.
ANS:
disappears
goes to zero
16. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using ____________________ rule.
ANS: Carson's
17. FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely using ____________________ functions.
ANS: Bessel
18. The ____________________ effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy environment.
ANS: threshold
19. The ____________________ effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM signals that are
close to each other in frequency.
ANS: capture
20. Rest frequency is another name for an FM ____________________ frequency.
ANS: carrier
SHORT ANSWER
1. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz deviation in carrier
frequency, what is the deviation sensitivity of the modulator?
ANS:
5 kHz / volt
2. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz, what is the modulation index?
ANS:
2
3. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3?
ANS:
9 kHz
4. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V, what will be the modulation index caused by
a 1-volt, 1-kHz audio signal?
ANS:
2
5. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM transmitter?
ANS:
48.4 watts
6. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM
transmitter?
ANS:
673 watts
7. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM
transmitter?
ANS:
200 mW (0.2 watt)
8. Using Carson's rule, what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2
being modulated by a 5-kHz signal?
ANS:
30 kHz
9. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4.1, what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2
being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of the total power?
ANS:
30 kHz
10. How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of mf (2.4, 5.5, etc) to measure the
frequency deviation of an FM modulator?
ANS:
Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier. Using a spectrum analyzer, adjust the audio
frequency until the carrier amplitude vanishes. Record the audio frequency. Then do the calculation: =
fm mf where mf will have one of the known values. For example, if fm is measured to be 2 kHz when mf is
5.5, then is 11 kHz.
Chapter 5: Transmitters
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called:
a. agility
c. VFO
b. expansion
d. spread-spectrum
ANS: A
2. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out:
a. is a measure of efficiency
c. may require water cooling
b. heats the transmitter
d. all of the above
ANS: D
3. Baseband compression produces:
a. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high
b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud
c. a smaller number of signals
ANS: B
4. ALC stands for:
a. Amplitude Level Control
b. Automatic Level Control
c. Accurate Level Control

ANS: B
5. In an AM transmitter, ALC is used to:
a. keep the modulation close to 100%
b. keep the modulation below 100%
c. maximize transmitted power

d. all of the above
ANS: D
6. With high-level AM:
a. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear
b. minimum modulation power is required
c. minimum RF power is required

d. all of the above
ANS: A
7. With high-level AM:
a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A
b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B
c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C

d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB
ANS: C
8. With low-level AM:
a. the RF amplifiers must be Class A
b. the RF amplifiers must be Class B
c. the RF amplifiers must be linear

d. the RF amplifiers must be low-power
ANS: C
9. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that:
a. is complex
c. has variable frequency
b. has variable amplitude
d. all of the above
ANS: B
10. In high-level AM, "high-level" refers to:
a. the power level of the carrier
b. the power level of the modulation
c. the power level of the final RF amplifier

ANS: D
11. In high-level AM, the power in the sidebands comes from:
a. the modulating amplifier
c. the driver stage
b. the RF amplifier
d. the carrier
ANS: A
12. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation, the voltage of the final RF stage will be:
a. approximately half the DC supply voltage
b. approximately twice the DC supply voltage
c. approximately four times the DC supply voltage
ANS: C
13. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of:
a. 50 ohms resistive
c. 300 ohms resistive
b. 75 ohms resistive
d. 600 ohms resistive
ANS: A
14. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching?
a. pi network
c. both a and b
b. T network
d. a bridge circuit
ANS: C
15. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor is called:
a. a heavy load
c. a temporary load
b. a dummy load
d. a test load
ANS: B
16. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor must be:
a. wire-wound
c. 1% tolerance or better
b. noninductive
d. all of the above
ANS: B
17. A Class D amplifier is:
a. very efficient
c. essentially pulse-duration modulation
b. essentially pulse-width modulation
d. all of the above
ANS: D
18. To generate a SSB signal:
a. start with full-carrier AM
b. start with DSBSC
c. start with a quadrature signal

d. all of the above
ANS: B
19. The carrier is suppressed in:
a. a balanced modulator
b. a mixer
c. a frequency multiplier
ANS: A
20. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use:
a. a mechanical filter
c. both a and b
b. a crystal filter
ANS: C
21. A direct FM modulator:
a. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator
b. integrates the modulating signal
c. both a and b
ANS: A
22. An indirect FM modulator:
a. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator
b. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator
c. both a and b
ANS: B
23. AFC stands for:
a. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion
b. Automatic Frequency Centering
c. Automatic Frequency Control

d. Audio Frequency Control
ANS: C
24. Frequency multipliers are:
a. essentially balanced modulators
b. essentially Class C amplifiers
c. essentially mixers
ANS: B
25. With mixing:
a. the carrier frequency can be raised
b. the carrier frequency can be lowered
c. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value
d. the deviation is altered

ANS: C
COMPLETION
1. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the ____________________ oscillator.
ANS: carrier
2. In the USA, the ____________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's
frequency.
ANS: FCC
3. In Canada, _________________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's
frequency.
ANS: Industry Canada
4. Frequency ____________________ is the ability of a transmitter to change frequency without a lot of
retuning.
ANS: agility
5. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by ____________________.
ANS: PEP
6. Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called ____________________.
ANS: compression
7. The opposite of compression is called ____________________.
ANS: expansion
8. ALC is a form of ____________________.
ANS: compression
9. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more ____________________.
ANS: efficiently
10. Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be ____________________.
ANS: linear
11. To isolate the oscillator from load changes, a ____________________ stage is used.
ANS: buffer
12. The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is ____________________ than the DC supply
voltage.
ANS: higher
13. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a ____________________-ohm load.
ANS: 50
14. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a ____________________ network for
impedance matching.
ANS: T
15. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ____________________ levels.
ANS: harmonic
16. Severe impedance ____________________ can destroy a transmitter's output stage.
ANS: mismatch
17. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a ____________________ into one "box".
ANS: receiver
18. To allow a high modulation percentage, it is common to modulate the ____________________ as well as
the power amplifier in transistor modulators.
ANS: driver
19. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse-____________________ modulation.
ANS: duration
20. Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class ____________________ amplifiers.
ANS: D
21. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed, ____________________ is used to operate at
more than one frequency.
ANS: mixing
22. To generate a SSB signal, it is common to start with a ____________________ signal.
ANS: DSBSC
23. Indirect FM is derived from ____________________ modulation.

ANS: phase
24. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a ____________________ modulator.
ANS: reactance
25. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a ____________________ loop.
ANS: phase-locked
SHORT ANSWER
1. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0.001%, what is the range of possible frequencies?
ANS:
50 MHz 500 hertz
2. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a 12-volt car battery?
ANS:
75.8%
3. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power supply with no modulation.
Assuming high-level modulation, how much power does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100%
modulation?
ANS:
50 watts
4. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC, what is the maximum
collector voltage at 100% modulation?
ANS:
400 volts
5. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz. The audio modulation
frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. To pass the USB, what should be the center frequency of an ideal
crystal filter?
ANS:
10.005 MHz
6. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of 10 MHz. What is the
minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier
frequency of 50 MHz?
ANS:
40 MHz
7. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz deviation. If frequency
multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz, what will be the new carrier frequency?
ANS:
4 MHz
8. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz. Explain how you
could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz.
ANS:
First, put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20-kHz deviation. Then
mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz deviation.
Chapter 6: Receivers
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The two basic specifications for a receiver are:
a. the sensitivity and the selectivity
b. the number of converters and the number of IFs
c. the spurious response and the tracking
d. the signal and the noise
ANS: A
2. The superheterodyne receiver was invented by:
a. Foster
c. Armstrong
b. Seeley
d. Hertz
ANS: C
3. Trimmers and padders are:
a. two types of adjusting tools
b. small adjustable resistors
c. small adjustable inductors

d. small adjustable capacitors
ANS: D
4. "Skin effect" refers to:
a. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface
b. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal
c. the increase of wire resistance with frequency
ANS: C
5. The "front end" of a receiver can include:
a. the tuner
b. the RF amplifier
c. the mixer
d. all of the above
ANS: D
6. "IF" stands for:
a. intermediate frequency
b. intermodulation frequency
c. indeterminate frequency
d. image frequency
ANS: A
7. AGC stands for:
a. Audio Gain Control
b. Automatic Gain Control
ANS: B
8. The frequency of the local oscillator:
a. is above the RF frequency
c. Active Gain Control

d. Active Gain Conversion
b. is below the RF frequency

c. can be either above of below the RF frequency
d. is fixed, typically at 455 kHz.
ANS: C
9. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because:
a. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses
b. it increases sensitivity
c. it increases selectivity
d. it is cheaper
ANS: D
10. Basically, sensitivity measures:
a. the weakest signal that can be usefully received
b. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received
c. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier
ANS: A
11. Basically, selectivity measures:
a. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select
b. with two signals close in frequency, the ability to receive one and reject the other
c. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator
d. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer
ANS: B
12. When comparing values for shape factor:
a. a value of 1.414 dB is ideal
b. a value of 0.707 is ideal
c. a value of 1.0 is ideal

d. there is no ideal value
ANS: C
13. When comparing values for shape factor:
a. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4
b. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2
c. both values are basically equivalent

ANS: A
14. Distortion in a receiver can occur in:
a. the mixer
b. the detector
c. the IF amplifiers
d. all of the above
ANS: D
15. Phase distortion is important in:
a. voice communications systems
b. color video receivers
ANS: B
c. monochrome video receivers

d. all of the above
16. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by:

a. the AGC
c. the dynamic range of the receiver
b. noise generated in the receiver
d. the type of detector circuit being used
ANS: B
17. Image frequencies occur when two signals:
a. are transmitted on the same frequency
b. enter the mixer, with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency
c. enter the mixer, one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the
IF
d. enter the mixer, and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF
ANS: C
18. An image must be rejected:
a. prior to mixing
b. prior to IF amplification
c. prior to detection
d. images cannot be rejected
ANS: A
19. Image frequency problems would be reduced by:
a. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor
b. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer
c. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer
ANS: C
20. A common AM detector is the:
a. PLL
b. envelope detector
c. ratio detector
d. all of the above
ANS: B
21. An FM detector is the:
a. PLL
b. ratio detector
d. all of the above
ANS: D
22. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because:
a. they are faster than silicon diodes
b. they are cheaper than silicon diodes
c. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity
d. all of the above
ANS: C
23. A common SSB detector is:
a. a PLL
b. a diode
ANS: D
c. a BFO
d. a product detector
24. BFO stands for:

a. Beat Frequency Oscillator
b. Barrier Frequency Oscillator
c. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator

d. Bistable Frequency Oscillator
ANS: A
25. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC, you need to:
a. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator
b. reinject the carrier
c. use double conversion
d. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC
ANS: B
26. Which would be best for DSBSC:
a. carrier detection
b. coherent detection
c. envelope detection
d. ratio detection
ANS: B
27. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is:
a. Foster-Seeley detector
c. a PLL detector
b. a quadrature detector
d. all of the above
ANS: C
28. The function of a limiter is:
a. to remove amplitude variations
b. to limit spurious responses
c. to limit dynamic range

d. to limit noise response
ANS: A
29. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called:
a. AGC
c. AFC
b. squelch
d. limiting
ANS: B
30. LNA stands for:
a. Limited-Noise Amplifier
b. Low-Noise Amplifier
c. Low-Noise Audio
d. Logarithmic Noise Amplification
ANS: B
31. AFC stands for:
a. Audio Frequency Compensator
b. Autodyne Frequency Compensation
c. Automatic Frequency Control

d. Autonomous Frequency Control
ANS: C
32. The function of AFC is:
a. maintain a constant IF frequency
b. match the local oscillator to the received signal
c. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency

ANS: B
33. SAW stands for:
a. Symmetrical Audio Wave
b. Surface Acoustic Wave
c. Silicon-Activated Wafer
d. Software-Activated Wave
ANS: B
34. The important property of a SAW is:
a. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver
b. it allows software radios to be built
c. it is a stable bandpass filter

ANS: C
35. The main function of the AGC is to:
a. keep the gain of the receiver constant
b. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant
c. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude
d. all of the above
ANS: C
36. DSP stands for:
a. Dynamic Signal Properties
b. Direct Signal Phase
c. Distorted Signal Packet

d. Digital Signal Processor
ANS: D
37. SINAD stands for:
a. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion
b. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion
c. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio
d. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio
ANS: D
38. TRF stands for:
a. Tuned Radio Frequency
b. Tracking Radio Frequency
c. Transmitted Radio Frequency

d. Tuned Receiver Function
ANS: A
COMPLETION
1. Almost all modern receivers use the _________________________ principle.
ANS: superheterodyne
2. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year ____________________.
ANS: 1887
3. When two tuned circuits ____________________ each other, it means that when the frequency of one is
adjusted, the other changes with it.
ANS: track
4. The ____________________ effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency.
ANS: skin
5. The superhet was invented in the year ____________________.
ANS: 1918
6. In a receiver, the ____________________ refers to the input filter and RF stage.
ANS: front end
7. In a superhet, the output of the ____________________ goes to the IF amplifiers.
ANS: mixer
8. In a superhet, the ____________________ frequency is the difference between the local oscillator
frequency and the received signal frequency.
ANS:
intermediate
IF
9. The ____________________ circuit adjusts the gain of the IF amplifiers in response to signal strength.
ANS: AGC
10. An ____________________ converter uses the same transistor for both the local oscillator and the mixer.
ANS: autodyne
11. In low-side injection, the local oscillator is ____________________ than the received signal frequency.
ANS: lower
12. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to separate two signals that are close to each other in
frequency.
ANS: Selectivity
13. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to receive and successfully demodulate a very weak
signal.
ANS: Sensitivity
14. A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double-____________________ receiver.

ANS: conversion
15. A multiple-conversion receiver will have better rejection of ____________________ frequencies.
ANS: image
16. A demodulator is also called a ____________________.
ANS: detector
17. An ____________________ detector uses a diode to half-wave rectify an AM signal.
ANS: envelope
18. A ____________________ detector is used for SSB signals.
ANS: product
19. A BFO produces a locally generated ____________________.
ANS: carrier
20. A DSBSC signal requires a ____________________ detection circuit.
ANS: coherent
21. FM detectors have a characteristic ____________________-shaped curve.
ANS: S
22. While still commonly found, the Foster-Seeley and ratio detectors are ____________________.
ANS: obsolescent
23. Unlike the PLL detector, the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes in ____________________ of the
input signal.
ANS: amplitude
24. A dual-____________________ MOSFET is useful for AGC.
ANS: gate
25. Diode mixers are too ____________________ to be practical in most applications.
ANS: noisy
26. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must be Class ____________________.
ANS: A
27. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually ____________________ coupled for the response to have a flat
top and steep sides.
ANS: over
28. Multiple IF stages can be ____________________-tuned to increase the bandwidth.
ANS: stagger
29. Compared to tuned circuits, ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require ____________________.
ANS: adjustment
30. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a ____________________ frequency than the incoming
signal.
ANS: higher
31. In a block converter, the frequency of the first local oscillator is ____________________.
ANS:
fixed
constant
32. Typically, AGC reduces the gain of the ____________________ amplifiers.
ANS: IF
33. An ____________________-meter is designed to indicate signal strength in many communications
receivers.
ANS: S
34. The effectiveness of FM ____________________ is measured by a receivers quieting sensitivity.
ANS: limiting
35. A ____________________ refers to any kind of FM or PM detector.
ANS: discriminator
SHORT ANSWER
1. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. Approximately what bandwidth would you
expect it to have at 4 MHz?
ANS:
20 kHz
2. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF, what is the frequency of the local oscillator when the receiver
is tuned to 5 MHz?
ANS:
6 MHz
3. An IF filter has a 60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a 6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz. What is the shape
factor value?
ANS:
1.25
4. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency. Assuming high-side injection, what would be the image
frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz?
ANS:
60 MHz
5. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1.5 MHz. What would be the acceptable
frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz?
ANS:
1.5 MHz 100 hertz
6. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and secondary. What value
of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling?
ANS:
0.06
7. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier with optimal coupling
need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz?
ANS:
0.01
Chapter 7: Digital Communications

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The first digital code was the:
a. ASCII code
b. Baudot code
c. Morse code
ANS: C
2. In digital transmission, signal degradation can be removed using:
a. an amplifier
c. a regenerative repeater
b. a filter
d. all of the above
ANS: C
3. TDM stands for:
a. Time-Division Multiplexing
b. Time-Domain Multiplexing
c. Ten-Digital Manchester
d. Ten Dual-Manchester
ANS: A
4. Hartley's Law is:
a. I = ktB
b. C = 2B log2M
c. C = B log2(1 + S/N)
d. SR = 2fmax
ANS: A
5. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is:
a. I = ktB
b. C = 2B log2M
c. C = B log2(1 + S/N)
d. SR = 2fmax
ANS: B
6. The Shannon Limit is given by:
a. I = ktB
b. C = 2B log2M
c. C = B log2(1 + S/N)
d. SR = 2fmax
ANS: C
7. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as:
a. I = ktB
b. C = 2B log2M
c. C = B log2(1 + S/N)
d. SR = 2fmax
ANS: D
8. Natural Sampling does not use:
a. a sample-and-hold circuit
b. true binary numbers
ANS: A
c. a fixed sample rate

d. an analog-to-digital converter
9. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion?

a. They are two types of sampling error.
b. You can have one or the other, but not both.
c. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion.
d. They are the same thing.
ANS: D
10. Foldover distortion is caused by:
a. noise
b. too many samples per second
c. too few samples per second

d. all of the above
ANS: C
11. The immediate result of sampling is:
a. a sample alias
b. PAM
c. PCM
d. PDM
ANS: B
12. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique:
a. PDM
c. PPM
b. PWM
d. PPS
ANS: D
13. Quantizing noise (quantization noise):
a. decreases as the sample rate increases
b. decreases as the sample rate decreases
c. decreases as the bits per sample increases
d. decreases as the bits per sample decreases
ANS: C
14. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of:
a. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal
b. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion
c. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample
ANS: A
15. Companding is used to:
a. compress the range of base-band frequencies
b. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates
c. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low
d. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission
ANS: C
16. In North America, companding uses:
a. the Logarithmic Law
b. the A Law
c. the Law (alpha law)

d. the Law (mu law)
ANS: D
17. In Europe, companding uses:
a. the Logarithmic Law
b. the A Law
c. the Law (alpha law)

d. the Law (mu law)
ANS: B
18. Codec stands for:
a. Coder-Decoder
b. Coded-Carrier
c. Code-Compression
ANS: A
19. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives:
a. 4-bit numbers
c. 12-bit numbers
b. 8-bit numbers
d. 16-bit numbers
ANS: B
20. Compared to PCM, delta modulation:
a. transmits fewer bits per sample
b. requires a much higher sampling rate
c. can suffer slope overload

d. all of the above
ANS: D
21. In delta modulation, "granular noise" is produced when:
a. the signal changes too rapidly
c. the bit rate is too high
b. the signal does not change
d. the sample is too large
ANS: B
22. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice:
a. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality
c. only over shorter distances
b. with a lower bit rate but the same quality d. only if the voice is band-limited
ANS: B
23. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity:
a. AMI
c. unipolar NRZ
b. Manchester
d. bipolar RZ
ANS: C
24. Manchester coding:
a. is a biphase code
b. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period
c. provides strong timing information
d. all of the above
ANS: D
25. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
ANS: A
26. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to:
a. detect errors
b. carry signaling
c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver

d. all of the above
ANS: C
27. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to:
a. detect errors
b. carry signaling
c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver

d. all of the above
ANS: B
28. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
ANS: D
29. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is:
a. 8 k
c. 64 k
b. 56 k
d. 1.544 106
ANS: A
30. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is:
a. 1.544 Mb/s
b. 64 kb/s
c. 56 kb/s
d. 8 kb/s
ANS: B
31. In DS-1, bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at:
a. 1.544 MB/s
c. 56 kb/s
b. 64 kb/s
d. 8 kb/s
ANS: A
32. A T-1 cable uses:
a. Manchester coding
b. bipolar RZ AMI coding
c. NRZ coding
d. pulse-width coding
ANS: B
33. The number of frames in a superframe is:
a. 6
b. 12
ANS: B
34. A typical T-1 line uses:
c. 24
d. 48
a. twisted-pair wire
b. coaxial cable
c. fiber-optic cable
d. microwave
ANS: A
35. "Signaling" is used to indicate:
a. on-hook/off-hook condition
b. busy signal
c. ringing
d. all of the above
ANS: D
36. A vocoder implements compression by:
a. constructing a model of the transmission medium
b. constructing a model of the human vocal system
c. finding redundancies in the digitized data
d. using lossless techniques
ANS: B
37. Compared to standard PCM systems, the quality of the output of a vocoder is:
a. much better
c. about the same
b. somewhat better
d. not as good
ANS: D
COMPLETION
1. Digitizing a signal often results in ____________________ transmission quality.
ANS:
improved
better
2. To send it over an analog channel, a digital signal must be ____________________ onto a carrier.
ANS: modulated
3. To send it over a digital channel, an analog signal must first be ____________________.
ANS: digitized
4. In analog channels, the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually ____________________ as the
length of the channel increases.
ANS:
decreases
gets worse
5. The ____________________ value of a pulse is the only information it carries on a digital channel.
ANS: binary
6. A ____________________ repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses on a digital cable.

ANS: regenerative
7. There are techniques to detect and ____________________ some errors in digital transmission.
ANS: correct
8. Converting an analog signal to digital form is another source of ____________________ in digital
transmission systems.
ANS:
error
noise
9. ____________________-division multiplexing is easily done in digital transmission.
ANS: Time
10. All practical communications channels are band-____________________.
ANS: limited
11. ____________________ Law gives the relationship between time, information capacity, and bandwidth.
ANS: Hartley's
12. Ignoring noise, the _________________________ theorem gives the maximum rate of data transmission
for a given bandwidth.
ANS: Shannon-Hartley
13. The ____________________ limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth
and a given signal-to-noise ratio.
ANS: Shannon
14. ____________________ sampling is done without a sample-and-hold circuit.
ANS: Natural
15. The ____________________ Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals to digital
format.
ANS: Nyquist
16. ____________________ distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate.
ANS: Foldover
17. ____________________ means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter "assume the
identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent digitally.
ANS: Aliasing
18. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulse-____________________ modulated signal.
ANS: amplitude
19. ____________________ modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme.
ANS: Pulse-code
20. ____________________ noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into digital format.
ANS: Quantizing
21. ____________________ is used to preserve dynamic range using a reasonable bandwidth.
ANS: Companding
22. In North America, compression is done using the ____________________-law equation.
ANS:
mu
23. In Europe, compression is done using the ____________________-law equation.
ANS: A
24. A ____________________ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa.
ANS: codec
25. In a PCM system, the samples of the analog signal are first converted to ____________________ bits
before being compressed to 8 bits.
ANS: 12
26. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is ____________________.
ANS:
1
one
27. Delta modulation requires a ____________________ sampling rate than PCM for the same quality of
reproduction.
ANS: higher
28. ____________________ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't change.
ANS: Granular
29. In delta modulation, ____________________ overload can occur if the analog signal changes too fast.
ANS: slope
30. The ____________________ size varies in adaptive delta modulation.
ANS: step
31. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about ____________________ the bit rate
of PCM.
ANS: half
32. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have ____________________ continuity.
ANS: DC
33. In AMI, binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in ____________________.
ANS: polarity
34. Long strings of ____________________ should be avoided in AMI.
ANS: zeros
35. Manchester code has a level ____________________ in the center of each bit period.
ANS: transition
36. Manchester coding provides ____________________ information regardless of the pattern of ones and
zeros.
ANS: timing
37. There are ____________________ channels in a DS-1 frame.
ANS: 24
38. DS-1 uses a ____________________ bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver.
ANS: framing
39. In DS-1, each channel is sampled ____________________ times per second.
ANS: 8000
40. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of ____________________ bits per second.
ANS: 1.544 106

41. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a ____________________.
ANS: superframe
42. From a group of twelve frames, signaling bits are "stolen" from every ____________________ frame.
ANS: sixth
43. ____________________ compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses fewer bits to do
it.
ANS: Lossless
SHORT ANSWER
1. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100,000 bits over a channel with a
bandwidth of 2,000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10.
ANS:
5 seconds
2. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12,000 bits per second if the
number of levels transmitted is 8.
ANS:
2000 hertz
3. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a signal-to-noise ratio of
15?
ANS:
16 kbps
4. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize an analog signal with frequency
components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300 hertz?
ANS:
6600 samples/second
5. What is the approximate dynamic range, in dB, of a linear PCM system that uses 12 bits per sample?
ANS:
74 dB
6. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and running at 8000 samples per
second?
ANS:
64 kbps
7. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame, what would the useable data-rate be for each channel in the
frame?
ANS:
56 kbps
8. Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt, what is the output voltage of a -law compressor
if the input voltage is 0.388 volt?
ANS:
0.833 volt
Chapter 8: The Telephone System

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. DTMF stands for:
a. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency
b. Dial Tone Master Frequency
c. Dual-Tone Multifrequency
d. Digital Trunk Master Frequency
ANS: C
2. PSTN stands for:
a. Public Switched Telephone Network
b. Private Switched Telephone Network
c. Primary Service Telephone Network

d. Primary Service Telephone Numbers
ANS: A
3. POTS stands for:
a. Private Office Telephone System
b. Primary Office Telephone Service
c. Primary Operational Test System

d. Plain Old Telephone Service
ANS: D
4. LATA stands for:
a. Local Access and Transport Area
b. Local Access Telephone Area
c. Local Area Telephone Access

d. Local Area Transport Access
ANS: A
5. A LATA is a:
a. a local calling area
b. a type of digital local network
c. a way of accessing a tandem office

d. a way of accessing a central office
ANS: A
6. Central offices are connected by:
a. local loops
b. trunk lines
c. both a and b
ANS: B
7. Local loops terminate at:
a. a tandem office
b. a toll station
c. a central office
d. an interexchange office
ANS: C
8. Call blocking:
a. cannot occur in the public telephone network
b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure
c. occurs only on long-distance cables
d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded
ANS: D
9. In telephony, POP stands for:
a. Post Office Protocol
b. Point Of Presence
c. Power-On Protocol
ANS: B
10. The cable used for local loops is mainly:
a. twisted-pair copper wire
b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire
c. coaxial cable
d. fiber-optic
ANS: A
11. FITL stands for:
a. Framing Information for Toll Loops
b. Fiber In the Toll Loop
c. Framing In The Loop

d. Fiber-In-The-Loop
ANS: D
12. Loading coils were used to:
a. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data
b. reduce the attenuation of voice signals
c. reduce crosstalk
d. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop
ANS: B
13. DC current flows through a telephone:
a. when it is on hook
b. when it is off hook
c. as long as it is attached to a local loop

d. only when it is ringing
ANS: B
14. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is:
a. 20 A to 80 A
c. 2 mA to 8 mA
b. 200 A to 800 A
d. 20 mA to 80 mA
ANS: D
15. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as:
a. step-by-step switching control
c. common control
b. crossbar control
d. ESS
ANS: C
16. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is:
a. 48 volts DC
c. 90 volts DC
b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC
d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC
ANS: A
17. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is:
a. 48 volts DC
b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC
c. 90 volts DC
d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC
ANS: D
18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to:
a. allow lines to be "conditioned"
c. allow signals to be multiplexed
b. prevent "singing"
d. all of the above
ANS: C
19. VNL stands for:
a. voltage net loss
b. volume net loss
c. via net loss

d. voice noise level
ANS: C
20. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to:
a. eliminate reflections
c. improve signal-to-noise ratio
b. prevent oscillation
d. reduce power consumption
ANS: B
21. The reference noise level for telephony is:
a. 1 mW
b. 0 dBm
c. 1 pW
d. 0 dBr
ANS: C
22. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is:
a. 6
c. 24
b. 12
d. 60
ANS: B
23. Basic FDM groups can be combined into:
a. supergroups
b. mastergroups
c. jumbogroups
d. all of the above
ANS: D
24. In telephone system FDM, voice is put on a carrier using:
a. SSB
c. PDM
b. DSBSC
d. PCM
ANS: A
25. PABX stands for:
a. Power Amplification Before Transmission
b. Private Automatic Branch Exchange
c. Public Automated Branch Exchange
d. Public Access Branch Exchange
ANS: B
26. SLIC stands for:

a. Single-Line Interface Circuit
b. Standard Line Interface Card
c. Subscriber Line Interface Card

d. Standard Local Interface Circuit
ANS: C
27. In DS-1, bits are "robbed" in order to:
a. provide synchronization
b. carry signaling
c. cancel echoes
d. check for errors
ANS: B
28. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called:
a. compensation
b. rectification
c. justification
d. frame alignment
ANS: C
29. ISDN stands for:
a. Integrated Services Digital Network
b. Information Services Digital Network
c. Integrated Services Data Network

d. Information Systems Digital Network
ANS: A
30. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because:
a. it took to long to develop
b. it is too slow
c. it has been surpassed by newer technologies
d. all of the above
ANS: D
31. ADSL stands for:
a. All-Digital Subscriber Line
b. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line
c. Allocated Digital Service Line

d. Access to Data Services Line
ANS: B
32. Compared to ISDN, internet access using ADSL is typically:
a. much faster
c. much more expensive
b. about the same speed
ANS: A
COMPLETION
1. A ____________________ is a local calling area.
ANS: LATA
2. Central offices are connected together by ____________________ lines.
ANS: trunk
3. One central office can be connected to another through a ____________________ office.
ANS: tandem
4. With 7-digit phone numbers, ____________________ thousand telephones can connect to a central
office.
ANS: ten
5. Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to an
overload of lines being used.
ANS: blocking
6. New ____________________ switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals.
ANS: digital
7. Most local loops still use ____________________ copper wire.
ANS: twisted-pair
8. As compared to a hierarchical network, a ____________________ network never needs more than one
intermediate switch.
ANS: flat
9. ____________________ coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies.
ANS: Loading
10. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the red wire is called ____________________.
ANS: ring
11. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the green wire is called ____________________.
ANS: tip
12. Of the red and green 'phone wires, the ____________________ wire is positive with respect to the other.
ANS: green
13. A telephone is said to have ____________________ the line when the central office sends it dial tone.
ANS: seized
14. The ____________________ functions are provided by a SLIC.
ANS: BORSCHT
15. A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing fullduplex operation over a single pair of wires.
ANS: hybrid
16. In a crosspoint switch, not all ____________________ can be in use at the same time.
ANS: lines
17. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively ____________________ signal voltage.
ANS: large
18. The generic term for Touch-Tone signaling is ____________________.
ANS: DTMF
19. A ____________________ line provides more bandwidth than a standard line.
ANS: conditioned
20. In the telephone system, amplifiers are called ____________________.
ANS: repeaters
21. An echo ____________________ converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex operation.
ANS: suppressor
22. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response of a
typical telephone receiver.
ANS: C-message
23. In FDM telephony, the modulation is usually ____________________.
ANS:
SSB
SSBSC
24. In FDM telephony, ____________________ bands separate the channels in a group.
ANS: guard
25. Because of "bit robbing", a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only ____________________ kbps when
used to send digital data.
ANS: 56
26. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth and
twelfth frames.
ANS: superframe
27. In DS-1C, ____________________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock rates.
ANS: stuff
28. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________________ signals because they use the same pair of
wires as the voice signal.
ANS: in-channel
29. SS7 is the current version of _________________________ signaling.
ANS: common-channel
30. SS7 is a ____________________-switched data network.
ANS: packet
31. In ISDN, the ____________________ channel is used for common-channel signaling.
ANS: D
32. In ISDN, the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data.
ANS: B
33. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated ____________________ equipment.
ANS: TE1
34. The A in ADSL stands for ____________________.
ANS: asymmetrical
35. In ADSL, the speed from the network to the subscriber is ____________________ than the speed in the
opposite direction.
ANS:
greater
faster
SHORT ANSWER
1. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current is 40
mA, what is the DC resistance of the local loop?
ANS:
1000 ohms
2. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current is 40
mA, what is the DC resistance of the telephone?
ANS:
200 ohms
3. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text.)
ANS:
697 Hz and 1209 Hz
4. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay.
ANS:
1 dB
5. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm, what is its level in dBrn?
ANS:
90 dBrn
6. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. If C-weighting
produces a 10-dB loss, what would the signal level be in dBrnc0?
ANS:
65 dBrnc TLP
Chapter 9: Data Transmission
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In practical terms, parallel data transmission is sent:
a. over short distances only
c. over any distance
b. usually over long distances
d. usually over a coaxial cable
ANS: A
2. The five-level teletype code was invented by:
a. the Morkum Company
b. the Teletype Company
c. Western Union
d. Emile Baudot
ANS: D
3. Data codes are also called:
a. character codes
b. character sets
c. they do not have any other name

d. both a and b
ANS: C
4. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called:
a. FIGS data
c. numerical data
b. binary data
d. all of the above
ANS: B
5. Character codes include:
a. alphanumeric characters
b. data link control characters
c. graphic control characters

d. all of the above
ANS: D
6. ASCII stands for:
a. American Standard Character-set 2
b. American Standard Code for Information Interchange
c. American Standard Code 2
d. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange
ANS: B
7. BS, FF, and CR are examples of:
a. nonstandard character codes
b. escape characters
c. control characters
ANS: C
8. LF stands for:
a. Line Feed
c. Line Forward
b. Link Feed
d. Link Forward
ANS: A
9. UART stands for:
a. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter
b. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter
c. Unaltered Received Text
d. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text
ANS: A
10. In asynchronous transmission, the transmitter and receiver are:
a. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits
b. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock
c. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits
d. not synchronized at all, hence the name "asynchronous"
ANS: C
11. In asynchronous transmission, the time between consecutive frames is:
a. equal to zero
c. equal to the start and stop bit-times
b. equal to one bit-time
d. not a set length
ANS: D
12. In synchronous transmission, the frames are:
a. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames
b. much longer than asynchronous frames
c. 128 bytes long
d. 1024 bytes long
ANS: B
13. Synchronous transmission is used because:
a. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency
b. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required
c. it is easier to implement than asynchronous
d. all of the above
ANS: A
14. In synchronous transmission, the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using:
a. the clock bits
c. the CRC bits
b. the data bits
d. a separate clock line
ANS: B
15. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission:
a. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed
b. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization
c. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted
d. the channel must be noise-free
ANS: A
16. BISYNC:
a. is an IBM product
b. is a character-oriented protocol
c. requires the use of DLE

d. all of the above
ANS: D
17. HDLC:
a. is an IBM product
b. is a bit-oriented protocol
c. is identical to SDLC
d. all of the above
ANS: B
18. The use of flags in SDLC requires:
a. "bit-stuffing"
b. different flags at either end of a frame
c. FEC
d. ARQ
ANS: A
19. The initials ARQ are used to designate:
a. automatic request for resynchronization
b. automatic request for retransmission
c. automatic receiver queue

d. automatic request for queue
ANS: B
20. ARQ is used to:
a. correct bit errors
b. correct synchronization problems
c. put data into a temporary buffer

ANS: A
21. FEC stands for:
a. Fixed Error Control
b. Forward Error Control
c. Forward Error Correction

d. False Error Condition
ANS: C
22. VRC is another name for:
a. FEC
b. ARQ
c. LRC
d. parity
ANS: D
23. CRC stands for:
a. Control Receiver Code
b. Correct Received Character
c. Cyclic Redundancy Check

d. Cycle Repeat Character
ANS: C
24. Huffman codes:
a. allow errors to be detected but not corrected
b. allow errors to be detected and corrected
c. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected
d. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed

ANS: D
25. Run-length encoding is used to:
a. encrypt data
b. compress data
c. correct data
ANS: B
26. Public-key encryption:
a. allows the use of digital signatures
b. is used to convey symmetric keys
c. avoids the "password problem"

d. all of the above
ANS: D
27. SDLC stands for:
a. Synchronous Data Link Control
b. Synchronous Data Line Control
c. Synchronous Data Link Character

d. Synchronous Data Line Character
ANS: A
28. HDLC is:
a. a bit-oriented protocol
b. based on SDLC
c. an ISO standard
d. all of the above
ANS: D
COMPLETION
1. Parallel transmission can be used only for ____________________ distances.
ANS: short
2. The term "baud" was named after Emil ____________________.
ANS: Baudot
3. Data codes are also called ____________________ codes.
ANS: character
4. The ____________________ code is a 7-bit code commonly used in communication between personal
computers.
ANS: ASCII
5. The two letters ____________________ designate the code character used to advance a printer to the next
page.
ANS: FF
6. An asynchronous frame begins with the ____________________ bit.

ANS: start
7. An asynchronous frame ends with the ____________________ bit.
ANS: stop
8. At the end of an asynchronous frame, the line will be at the ____________________ level.
ANS:
mark
binary 1
9. An integrated circuit called a ____________________ is used in an asynchronous communication system
to convert between parallel and serial data.
ANS: UART
10. When receiving digital data, ____________________ are used to hold data until they can be read.
ANS: buffers
11. Synchronous communication is more ____________________ than asynchronous since there are fewer
"overhead" bits.
ANS: efficient
12. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 ____________________ to maintain synchronization in synchronous
transmission.
ANS: transitions
13. Clock sync is derived from the stream of ____________________ bits in synchronous transmission.
ANS: data
14. In the ____________________ protocol, each frame begins with at least two SYN characters.
ANS: BISYNC
15. In HDLC, each frame starts with an 8-bit ____________________.
ANS: flag
16. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are ____________________.
ANS: 01111110
17. BCC stands for ____________________ check character.
ANS: block
18. DLE stands for data link ____________________.
ANS: escape
19. HDLC uses bit-____________________ to prevent accidental flags.
ANS: stuffing
20. ____________________ errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad.
ANS: Burst
21. FEC stands for ____________________ error correction.
ANS: forward
22. An ____________________ scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission of bad blocks.
ANS: ARQ
23. Parity fails when an ____________________ number of bits are in error.
ANS: even
24. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting ____________________ errors.
ANS: burst
25. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data ____________________.
ANS: compression
26. A ____________________ is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to protect data.
ANS: cipher
27. A ____________________ is often used to generate an encryption key because it is easier to remember.
ANS: password
28. If the key is ____________________ enough, private-key encryption can be quite secure.
ANS: long
29. Messages cannot be ____________________ using a public key.
ANS: decrypted
30. Because it is ____________________-intensive, public-key encryption can be slow.
ANS: computation
SHORT ANSWER
1. How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code?
ANS:
64
2. What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them as hexadecimal (hex)
numbers?
ANS:
20 hex (32 decimal)
3. The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers?
ANS:
30H to 39H
4. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8 bits), what is the
shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec long?
ANS:
10 seconds
5. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data, a parity bit, and two stop bits (it could happen).
Calculate the efficiency of the communication system.
ANS:
66.7%
6. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit BCC at the end. The frame
carries 1024 bytes of actual data. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system.
ANS:
97.0%
Chapter 10: Local Area Networks

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. CSMA stands for:
a. Client-Server Multi-Access
b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access
c. Carrier Server Master Application

ANS: B
2. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for:
a. Carrier Detection
b. Carrier Delay
c. Collision Detection
d. Collision Delay
ANS: C
3. The Internet is:
a. a network of networks
b. a very large client-server network
c. a very large CSMA/CD network

d. not really a network at all
ANS: A
4. Most LANs:
a. are based on Ethernet
b. use CSMA/CD
c. use UTP cable

d. all of the above
ANS: D
5. Dumb terminals are still used:
a. in token-passing networks
b. in networks requiring central monitoring
c. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring
ANS: B
6. In a circuit-switched network:
a. communication is half-duplex only
b. each channel carries only one data stream
c. connection is usually done using a bus topology
d. all of the above
ANS: B
7. Each computer on a network is called a:
a. hub
b. token
c. node
d. circuit
ANS: C
8. Compared to CSMA/CD systems, token-passing rings are:
a. slower
c. not as widely used
b. more expensive
d. all of the above
ANS: D
9. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to:
a. a central ring
c. a node
b. a central bus
ANS: D
10. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called:
a. packets
c. carriers
b. nodes
d. tokens
ANS: A
11. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called:
a. a collision
c. excess traffic
b. contention
d. multiple access
ANS: B
12. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called:
a. a collision
c. excess traffic
b. contention
d. multiple access
ANS: A
13. One type of network that never has a collision is:
a. CSMA
c. token-passing
b. Ethernet
d. all networks have collisions
ANS: C
14. In an Ethernet-based network, a switch can be used to reduce the number of:
a. nodes
c. packets
b. users
d. collisions
ANS: D
15. The effect of too many collisions is:
a. the network goes down
b. the network slows down
c. the cable overheats

d. data is lost
ANS: B
16. MAU stands for:
a. Multistation Access Unit
b. Multiple Access Unit
c. Multiple Auxiliary Units

ANS: A
17. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is:
a. EIA 232
c. IEEE 802.3
b. IEEE 488.1
d. CCITT ITU-E
ANS: C
18. Ethernet was invented by:
a. IBM
b. INTEL
c. Xerox
d. Digital Equipment Corporation
ANS: C
19. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses:
a. Manchester encoding
c. NRZ encoding
b. Three-Level encoding
d. AMI encoding
ANS: A
20. A 100BaseT cable uses:
a. fiber-optic cable
b. twisted-pair copper wires
c. RG-58U coaxial cable

d. 50-ohm coaxial cable
ANS: B
21. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means:
a. the cable carries baseband signals
b. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps
c. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system
ANS: A
22. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is:
a. to increase the data rate
b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress
d. all of the above
ANS: C
23. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is:
a. to increase the data rate
b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress
d. all of the above
ANS: C
24. NIC stands for:
a. Network Interface Card
b. Network Interface Cable
c. Network Interface Code

d. Network Internal Code
ANS: A
25. 10BaseT cable typically uses:
a. a BNC connector
c. an RJ45 connector
b. a T connector
d. an RS11 connector
ANS: C
26. UTP stands for:
a. Untwisted-Pair copper wire
b. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire
c. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet

d. Unicode Text Packet
ANS: B
27. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables, CAT-5 cables:
a. are cheaper
c. allow faster bit rates
b. are easier to crimp connectors onto
d. all of the above
ANS: C
28. A hub:
a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it
b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports
c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network
d. are more common in token-passing networks
ANS: A
29. A switch:
a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it
b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports
c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network
d. are more common in token-passing networks
ANS: B
30. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is:
a. it is cheaper when used in large networks
b. it is faster when used in large networks
c. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks
d. all of the above
ANS: C
31. Broadband LANs:
a. modulate the data onto a carrier
b. use coaxial cables
c. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access
d. all of the above
ANS: D
32. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in:
a. peer-to-peer networks
c. both a and b
b. client-server networks
ANS: B
33. Record locking is used to:

a. store records securely on a server
b. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously
c. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to
ANS: C
34. The software that runs a client-server network must be:
a. UNIX-based
c. multitasking
b. WINDOWS-based
d. Novell certified
ANS: C
35. A "thin" client is:
a. basically, a PC with no disk drives
b. a node that rarely sends data
c. same as a "dumb" terminal

d. all of the above
ANS: A
COMPLETION
1. A LAN is a ____________________ Area Network.
ANS: Local
2. The Internet is a network of ____________________.
ANS: networks
3. In a ____________________ network, all nodes are connected to a central computer.
ANS: star
4. In a ____________________-switched network, users have a dedicated channel for the duration of
communications.
ANS: circuit
5. The ____________________ of a network describes how it is physically connected together.
ANS: topology
6. Ring networks often use ____________________-passing.
ANS: token
7. A ____________________ is a short section of a message in digital form.
ANS: packet
8. ____________________ is when two nodes try to seize the same cable at the same time.
ANS: Contention
9. A ____________________ occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the same baseband cable.
ANS: collision
10. In CSMA/CD networks, all collisions must be ____________________.
ANS: detected
11. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be ____________________ before using it.
ANS:
quiet
free
unused
available
12. A "____________________" cable links clusters of computers together.
ANS: backbone
13. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to ____________________ bits per second.
ANS: 100 mega
14. In CSMA/CD, packets must have a ____________________ length to ensure that collisions are detected.
ANS: minimum
15. In CSMA/CD, the ____________________ of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are detected.
ANS: length
16. A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its ____________________.
ANS: NIC
17. A 100BaseTX cable is a ____________________ cable.
ANS: fiber-optic
18. Hubs can be ____________________ to form, in effect, one big hub.
ANS: stacked
19. A switch looks at the ____________________ of each incoming packet.
ANS: address
20. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce ____________________.

ANS: contention
SHORT ANSWER
1. Explain how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring.
ANS:
A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a prescribed order. So it doesn't matter
how the physical connection is made. It still works like a token-passing ring.
2. What is the key difference between a hub and a switch?
ANS:
A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub. A switch sends a packet to a specific port
based on the address in the packet.
3. What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star network?
ANS:
If the central computer in a star network fails, the entire network is inoperative. If a node fails in a
CSMA/CD network, it can be disconnected and the network still functions.
4. Why do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit?
ANS:
If a packet is too short, nodes at either end of a cable could get on, send a packet, and get off before the
packets travel far enough to collide. The collision would not be detected.
5. What is a NIC address, and why is it unique?
ANS:
The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the factory. Each factory uses
a different sequence of numbers, so the chances of two NICs on the same network having the same
address is extremely small.
Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. MAN stands for:
a. Manchester Access Network
b. Multiple-Area Network
c. Metropolitan-Area Network
d. Multiple Access Network
ANS: C
2. Packet switching is based on:
a. store-and-forward
b. switched circuits
c. real-time delivery
d. all of the above
ANS: A
3. SNA stands for:
a. Standard Network Access
b. Small Network Access
c. Standard Network Architecture

d. Systems Network Architecture
ANS: D
4. The number of layers in ISO OSI is:
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 8
ANS: C
5. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the:
a. physical layer
c. cable layer
b. link layer
d. transport layer
ANS: A
6. Bad frames are usually detected by the:
a. frame layer
b. physical layer
c. error-check layer
d. link layer
ANS: D
7. A virtual circuit is set up by the:
a. user
b. link layer
c. network
d. frame
ANS: C
8. Frame Relay:
a. is faster than X.25
b. does less error checking than X.25
ANS: D
c. allows for variable length packets

d. all of the above
9. ATM stands for:

a. Asynchronous Transfer Mode
b. Asynchronous Transmission Mode
c. Asynchronous Transmission Model

d. Automatic Test Mode
ANS: A
10. A bridge:
a. separates a network into "collision domains"
b. looks at the address of each packet
c. operate at the data-link level
d. all of the above
ANS: D
11. IP stands for:
a. Internet Process
b. Internet Protocol
c. Interconnect Protocol
d. Interconnect Procedure
ANS: B
12. TCP stands for:
a. Transmission Control Process
b. Transmission Control Protocol
c. Transfer Connection Protocol

ANS: B
13. Together, TCP/IP consists of:
a. 5 layers
b. 7 layers
c. an application and a process

d. datagrams
ANS: A
14. IP is a:
a. connection-oriented protocol
b. virtual circuit
c. connectionless protocol
d. non-robust protocol
ANS: C
15. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network:
a. is essentially forever
b. depends on elapsed time since transmission
c. depends on number of "hops" between nodes
d. is approximately 200 milliseconds
ANS: C
16. UDP stands for:
a. User Datagram Protocol
b. User Data Protocol
ANS: A
17. HTTP stands for:
a. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure
c. User Data Packet

d. Universal Data Packet
b. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure

c. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure
d. Hypertext Transport Protocol
ANS: D
18. HTTP allows the use of:
a. dumb terminals
b. file transport
c. browsers
ANS: C
19. HTML stands for:
a. Hypertext Markup Language
b. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level
c. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer

d. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language
ANS: A
20. HTML allows:
a. telneting
b. high-speed file transfer
c. web page layout

d. all of the above
ANS: C
21. FTP stands for:
a. File Transfer Protocol
b. File Transport Protocol
c. File Test Procedure

d. Fast Transport Packet
ANS: A
22. FTP is used to:
a. transfer files between a server on the network and a user
b. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted"
c. transport packets at maximum speed through the network
ANS: A
23. SMTP stands for:
a. Short Message Transport Protocol
b. Simple Message Transport Protocol
c. Simple Mail Transport Protocol

d. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure
ANS: C
24. ISP stands for:
a. Internet Service Protocol
b. Internet Service Provider
c. Internet Service Procedure

ANS: B
25. The standard Internet address (or URL) is:
a. a 32-bit binary number
b. four groups of base-ten numbers
c. running out of available values

d. all of the above
ANS: D
26. DNS stands for:
a. Domain Name Server
b. Domain Name System
c. Domain Numbering System

d. Domain Naming System
ANS: A
27. A DNS:
a. has become obsolete on the Internet
b. translates words to numbers
c. stores all domain addresses
d. describes the Internet address-naming procedure
ANS: B
28. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by:
a. a DNS
c. a "firewall"
b. a "brick wall"
d. the use of "spoofing" protocols
ANS: C
29. OSI stands for:
a. Open Systems Interconnection
b. Open Standard Interconnection
c. Open Systems Internet

ANS: A
COMPLETION
1. A ____________________-Area Network would extend typically across a city.
ANS: Metropolitan
2. A ____________________-Area Network could extend across a nation.
ANS: Wide
3. A dedicated telephone line can be ____________________ on a monthly basis.
ANS: leased
4. The use of digital circuit-____________________ lines is cheaper than dedicated lines.
ANS: switched
5. Packet switching is done on a store-and-____________________ network.
ANS: forward
6. A ____________________ is a hierarchy of procedures for implementing digital communications.
ANS: protocol
7. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at the ____________________ layer.
ANS: physical
8. Bad frames are usually detected at the ____________________ layer.
ANS: data-link
9. Setting up a path through the network is done by the ____________________ layer.
ANS: network
10. The X.25 protocol was developed by the ____________________.
ANS: CCITT
11. In X.25, the data-link layer is called the ____________________ layer.
ANS: frame
12. In X.25, the network layer is called the ____________________ layer.
ANS: packet
13. The physical route of a ____________________ circuit changes each time it is used.
ANS: virtual
14. Frame Relay requires channels with low ____________________ rates.
ANS: bit-error
15. Compared to X.25, Frame Relay does ____________________ error checking.
ANS: less
16. All ATM frames contain just ____________________ bytes.
ANS: 53
17. Small frame size and a high-speed channel allow ____________________-time communications.
ANS: real
18. ____________________ simply regenerate and retransmit packets in a network.
ANS: Repeaters
19. ____________________ look at the address inside a packet to decide whether or not to retransmit it.
ANS: Bridges
20. ____________________ decide the best network path on which to forward a packet.
ANS: Routers
21. TCP/IP goes back to the ____________________ of the 1970s.
ANS:
ARPANET
DARPANET
22. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP, ____________________ was used first.
ANS: TCP/IP
23. A ____________________ protocol does not track packets after they are sent.
ANS: connectionless
24. HTTP allows the use of ____________________ that jump to other pages on the web.
ANS: hyperlinks
25. The Internet "backbone" mostly uses high-speed ____________________ cables.
ANS: fiber-optic
26. A ____________________ translates words in an Internet address to numbers.
ANS: DNS
27. Intranets usually connect to the Internet through a ____________________ for security.
ANS: firewall
28. Voice over ____________________ is telephony done over the Internet.
ANS: IP
29. "____________________" is another term for real-time transmission over the Internet.
ANS: Streaming
30. Most people gain access to the Internet by subscribing to an ____________________.
ANS: ISP
SHORT ANSWER
1. Name the three parts of an IP address as used on the Internet.
ANS:
Network number, Subnet number, Host number
2. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual" circuit?
ANS:
A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on the network have messages for each
other. The actual physical path can change while packets are being sent. Virtual means it behaves like
direct circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it is not a direct circuit.
3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of variable size?
ANS:
The processing required to store and forward packets of different lengths is greater than that required for
packets of a fixed length. More processing implies more time per packet, which implies fewer packets per
second through the network.
4. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into layers in a protocol stack? Why not
just have one layer that does it all?
ANS:
Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job. One big layer could not be adapted to
newer media etc as easily as a system of independent layers. Think of subroutines in a computer program.
5. What is a "hop"?
ANS:
Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next store-and-forward node in the network, it is considered to
be one "hop".
6. What does it mean to say a packet has a lifetime measured in hops?
ANS:
Each packet contains a number representing the maximum number of allowed hops. At each hop, this
number is reduced by one. When it gets to zero, the packet is deleted from the network.
7. Why should packets have a lifetime?
ANS:
If they didn't, then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the network would continuously
increase. At some point, there would be no bandwidth left to carry real traffic.
Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. FSK stands for:
a. Full-Shift Keying
b. Frequency-Shift Keying
c. Full-Signal Keying
ANS: B
2. PSK stands for:
a. Pulse-Signal Keying
b. Pulse-Shift Keying
c. Phase-Signal Keying
d. Phase-Shift Keying
ANS: D
3. QAM stands for:
a. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
b. Quadrature Amplitude Masking
c. Quadrature Amplitude Marking

ANS: A
4. In the equation I = ktB, I is measured in:
a. amperes
b. amperes per second
c. bits
d. bits per second
ANS: C
5. In the equation C = 2Blog2M, M is the:
a. margin of noise
b. modulation index
c. number of possible states per symbol

d. maximum number of symbols per second
ANS: C
6. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when:
a. the eye is maximally open
c. the eye is half open
b. the eye is maximally closed
d. the eye alternately opens and closes
ANS: A
7. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of:
a. too many bits high
c. intermodulation distortion
b. too many bits low
d. intersymbol interference
ANS: D
8. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use:
a. FSK
c. PSK
b. AFSK
d. QAM
ANS: A
9. Instead of a single bit, a QPSK symbol contains:

a. a byte
c. a dibit
b. 4 bits
d. a Q-bit
ANS: C
10. To reduce the need for linearity, /4 DQPSK uses:
a. angles of 0, 90, 180, and 270 degrees
c. angles of /4, 2/4, 3/4, and 4/4
b. angles of 45, 135, 225, and 315 degrees
d. double phase-shift angles
ANS: B
11. For QAM, a "constellation diagram" shows:
a. location of symbols in "symbol space"
b. separation of symbols in "symbol space"
c. effects of noise on symbols

d. all of the above
ANS: D
12. For QAM, the two dimensions of its symbol space are:
a. amplitude and frequency
c. frequency and phase angle
b. amplitude and phase angle
d. I-bits and Q-bits
ANS: B
13. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were:
a. 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK
c. 1200 bps, full-duplex, FSK
b. 600 bps, full-duplex, FSK
d. 1200 bps, half-duplex, FSK
ANS: A
14. ITU is an abbreviation for:
a. International Telephony Unit
b. International Telephony Union
c. International Telecommunications Union

d. International Telecommunications Units
ANS: C
15. The ITU is under the auspices of:
a. CCITT
b. the U.N.
c. IEEE
d. ANSI
ANS: B
16. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for:
a. noise and interference
b. uneven phase and frequency response
c. low SNR
d. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel
ANS: B
17. The bits sent to allow equalization are called:
a. Gaussian bits
b. random bits
c. a training sequence
d. a random sequence
ANS: C
18. The V.90 standard is issued by:
a. the EIA
b. the TIA
c. the ITU
d. the ISO
ANS: C
19. MNP2, MNP3, MNP4, and MNP10 are all:
a. data-compression schemes
b. error-correction protocols
c. both a and b
ANS: B
20. MNP5 and V.42 bis are both:
a. data-compression schemes
b. error-correction protocols
c. both a and b
ANS: A
21. In RS-232, flow control is done using:
a. RTS/CTS handshake
b. XON/XOFF characters
c. both a and b
ANS: C
22. The official name for RS-232C is:
a. RS-232C
b. EIA-232D
c. ISO-232C/D
d. ANSI-232C
ANS: B
23. In RS-232, a modem would be:
a. a DTR
b. a DSR
c. a DCE
d. a DTE
ANS: C
24. In RS-232, a personal computer would be:
a. a DTR
b. a DSR
c. a DCE
d. a DTE
ANS: D
25. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin:
a. 1
c. 5
b. 3
d. 7
ANS: C
26. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin:
a. 1
c. 5
b. 3
d. 7
ANS: D
27. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are:
a. TD and RD
b. TD, RD, and signal ground
c. TD, RD, DSR, and signal ground

d. TD, RD, RTS, CTS, and signal ground
ANS: B
28. Hardware flow control uses:
a. XON and XOFF
b. TD and RD
c. RTS and CTS

d. DSR and DCD
ANS: C
29. Software flow control uses:
a. XON and XOFF
b. TD and RD
c. RTS and CTS

d. DSR and DCD
ANS: A
30. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin:
a. +15 volts
c. +9 volts
b. +12 volts
d. all of the above
ANS: D
31. DSL stands for:
a. Data Signal Line
b. Digital Signal Line
c. Digital Subscriber Line

d. Double-Speed Loop
ANS: C
32. ADSL stands for:
a. Asynchronous DSL
b. Asymmetrical DSL
c. Analog DSL
d. All DSL
ANS: B
33. In a CATV system, HFC stands for:
a. Head Frequency Control
b. Hybrid Frequency Control
c. Hybrid Fiber-Coax
d. Hybrid Fiber Control
ANS: C
34. In a CATV system, CMTS stands for:
a. Cable Modem Terminal Server
b. Cable Modem Transmission System
c. Cable Modem Terminal System

d. Cable Modem Transmission Server
ANS: A
35. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for:
a. Any DSL scheme
c. ADSL Lite
b. ADSL
ANS: C
COMPLETION
1. RTS means Request To ____________________.
ANS: Send
2. The response to RTS is ____________________.
ANS: CTS
3. FSK stands for Frequency-Shift ____________________.
ANS: Keying
4. DSR stands for ____________________ Set Ready.
ANS: Data
5. QAM stands for ____________________ Amplitude Modulation.
ANS: Quadrature
6. The number of symbols per second is called the ____________________ rate.
ANS: baud
7. The 2 bits of information in a QPSK symbol is called a ____________________.
ANS: dibit
8. QPSK uses ____________________ different phase angles.
ANS: four
9. DPSK stands for ____________________ PSK.
ANS: Delta
10. The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a ____________________ diagram.
ANS: constellation
11. ITU stands for International _________________________ Union.
ANS: Telecommunications
12. In QAM modems, ____________________ coding adds extra bits to improve performance on a noisy
line.
ANS: Trellis
13. ____________________ is used in a high-speed modem to compensate for uneven frequency and phase
response on a line.
ANS: Equalization
14. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dial-up line is about ____________________ bps.
ANS: 54k
15. The nominal maximum speed on an RS-232 cable is ____________________ bps.
ANS: 20k
16. In RS-232, the ____________________ line is asserted when the analog carrier from another modem is
being received.
ANS:
CD
DCD
RLSD
17. Between hardware flow control and software flow control, ____________________ flow control is
preferred.
ANS: hardware
18. A voltage higher than ____________________ volts should be considered a high on an RS-232 receiver.
ANS: 3
19. A ____________________ modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial ports.
ANS: null
20. ADSL stands for ____________________ DSL.
ANS: Asymmetrical
21. A typical CATV system is organized as a ____________________ network.
ANS: tree
22. In a CATV system using cable modems, a ____________________ is used to put several channels of data
onto a fiber-optic backbone.
ANS: CMTS
23. ____________________ is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable modems to a CMTS.
ANS: Ranging
24. ____________________ systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while sharing the line with dialup service.
ANS: ADSL
25. The ____________________ version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the subscriber end.
ANS: lite
26. ____________________ modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow bands called tones or
bins for ADSL.
ANS: DMT
27. A DSLAM is a DSL Access ____________________.
ANS: Multiplexer
SHORT ANSWER
1. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per second with 16 possible
states per symbol.
ANS:
4000
2. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8 phase angles and 2
amplitude levels?
ANS:
16
3. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a data rate of 36 Mbps. If
half the modems are active at any given time, what bit rate can a customer expect?
ANS:
720 kbps
4. A DMT system uses 4.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. Approximately how many bins are there?
ANS:
230
5. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second, how many possible states must a symbol have to
achieve a data rate of 1200 bps?
ANS:
Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. TDMA stands for:
a. Time Domain Multiple Access
b. Time-Division Multiple Access
c. Tone Division Multiple Access

ANS: B
2. CDMA stands for:
a. Code-Division Multiple Access
b. Carrier Division Multiple Access
c. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement

ANS: A
3. TDMA is used instead of TDM when:
a. all the signals come from the same source
b. the signals come from different sources
c. TDM is used in RF communications
d. they mean the same thing
ANS: B
4. When calculating the maximum number of users, a limiting factor in FDM is:
a. the type of media used
c. the bandwidth of each signal
b. the length of the channel
d. all of the above
ANS: C
5. A DS-1 signal contains:
a. 12 channels
b. 24 channels
c. 32 channels
d. 64 channels
ANS: B
6. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is:
a. 64 kbps
c. 1.536 Mbps
b. 256 kbps
d. 1.544 Mbps
ANS: D
7. Besides data bits, a DS-1 frame contains a:
a. timing bit
b. T-bit
c. signaling bit
d. framing bit
ANS: D
8. In DS-1, a bit is "stolen" out of each channel:
a. every frame
b. every other frame
c. every sixth frame

d. every twelfth frame
ANS: C
9. Moving signals from one line to another is called:
a. time switching
c. line switching
b. space switching
d. cross-point switching
ANS: B
10. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called:
a. time switching
c. signal switching
b. space switching
d. crosspoint switching
ANS: A
11. A digital space switch is a:
a. multiplexer
b. TDM switch
c. computerized Strowger switch

d. crosspoint switch
ANS: D
12. Spread-spectrum can be done by using:
a. computer-controlled frequency reuse
b. frequency-hopping
c. direct-sequence method
d. all of the above
ANS: D
13. The term "chip rate" is used in describing:
a. computer-controlled frequency reuse
b. frequency-hopping
c. direct-sequence method
d. all of the above
ANS: C
14. For a given data rate, direct-sequence systems, compared to standard RF systems, use:
a. about the same bandwidth
c. much less bandwidth
b. much more bandwidth
d. approximately double the bandwidth
ANS: B
15. "Processing gain" is another term for:
a. RF gain
b. computer speed
c. spreading gain
d. improved signal-to-noise ratio
ANS: C
16. To calculate processing gain, divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by:
a. the digital data bit rate
c. the S/N ratio
b. bandwidth of original baseband
d. the chip size
ANS: B
17. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be:
a. a narrowband receiver
c. a direct-conversion receiver
b. a wideband receiver
d. a CDMA receiver
ANS: A
18. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be:
a. a narrowband receiver
c. a direct-conversion receiver
b. a wideband receiver
d. a "chip-rate" receiver
ANS: B
19. CDMA:
a. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum
b. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum
c. cannot be used on an RF channel
d. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously
ANS: D
20. For optimal performance, CDMA requires the use of:
a. orthogonal PN sequences
c. true-random PN sequences
b. non-orthogonal PN sequences
ANS: A
COMPLETION
1. Multiplexing allows many signals to ____________________ a channel.
ANS: share
2. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA, TDMA, and ____________________.
ANS: CDMA
3. In FDM, each signal uses part of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time.
ANS: all
4. In TDM, each signal uses all of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time.
ANS: part
5. Using CDMA on a radio channel, all signals can transmit ____________________ of the time.
ANS: all
6. DS-1 is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing.
ANS: time
7. The AM radio band is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing.
ANS: frequency
8. A DS-1 frame contains one sample from each of ____________________ channels.

ANS: 24
9. T1 uses the ____________________ line code.
ANS: AMI
10. Each DS-1 frame contains a total of ____________________ bits.
ANS: 193
11. A DS-1 frame is transmitted at a rate of ____________________ bits per second.
ANS: 1.544 Meg
12. Each sample in a DS-1 frame contains ____________________ bits.
ANS: 8
13. A group of twelve DS-1 frames is called a ____________________.
ANS: superframe
14. Switching signals from one line to another is called ____________________ switching.
ANS: space
15. Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called ____________________ switching.
ANS: time
16. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are called ____________________ fading.
ANS: Rayleigh
17. A PN sequence is a ____________________-random noise sequence.
ANS: pseudo
18. One method of spread-spectrum is frequency ____________________.
ANS: hopping
19. It is ____________________ to jam a spread-spectrum signal.
ANS: difficult
20. It is ____________________ to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal.
ANS: difficult
21. The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called ____________________.
ANS: chips
22. A chipping-rate of at least ____________________ times the bit rate of the data is common.
ANS: ten
23. The 'C' in CDMA stands for ____________________.
ANS: code
24. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system, when no two transmitters use the same frequency at the same
time the PN sequences are said to be ____________________.
ANS: orthogonal
SHORT ANSWER
1. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and bandwidth for digital
transmission?
ANS:
The more bandwidth, the less time it takes to send a given amount of information. So the more bandwidth
available, the higher the possible bit rate.
2. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100 kHz of bandwidth and
the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz?
ANS:
9
3. Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal?
ANS:
Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same part of the spectrum the
information signal occupies. Because a spread-spectrum signal is, by definition, spread out over a very
wide bandwidth, jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal.
4. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal?
ANS:
In a spread-spectrum transmission, the signal power at any given frequency in its band is so low that it is
virtually indistinguishable from noise. An eavesdropper would not know a signal was being sent. And
without knowing the exact sequence being used, it is virtually impossible to "de-spread" the signal.
5. Why is autocorrelation used to receive direct-sequence spread-spectrum signals?
ANS:
Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even when the signal-to-noise ratio is less
than one, as it is in spread-spectrum.
6. What is meant by "orthogonal sequences" in CDMA?
ANS:
During transmission, the PN sequences determine which parts of the available bandwidth the spreadspectrum signal will occupy. Assume you have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2. At some point in time,
suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to occupy frequencies f11, f12, f13, and so forth. Now suppose
PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy frequencies f21, f22, f23, and so forth. If the two sets of
frequencies, (f11, f12, f13, ...) and (f21, f22, f23, ...), have no frequencies in common, then the two PN
sequences are said to be orthogonal.
Chapter 14: Transmission Lines

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. SWR stands for:
a. Shorted Wave Radiation
b. Sine Wave Response
c. Shorted Wire Region

ANS: D
2. TDR stands for:
a. Total Distance of Reflection
b. Time-Domain Reflectometer
c. Time-Domain Response
d. Transmission Delay Ratio
ANS: B
3. An example of an unbalanced line is:
a. a coaxial cable
b. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable
c. an open-wire-line cable
d. all of the above
ANS: A
4. When analyzing a transmission line, its inductance and capacitance are considered to be:
a. lumped
c. equal reactances
b. distributed
d. ideal elements
ANS: B
5. As frequency increases, the resistance of a wire:
a. increases
c. stays the same
b. decreases
d. changes periodically
ANS: A
6. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called:
a. I2R loss
c. the skin effect
b. the Ohmic effect
d. there is no such effect
ANS: C
7. As frequency increases, the loss in a cable's dielectric:
a. increases
c. stays the same
b. decreases
d. there is no loss in a dielectric
ANS: A
8. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on:
a. the resistance per foot of the wire used
b. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot
c. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot
d. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot
ANS: D
9. For best matching, the load on a cable should be:
a. lower than Z0
c. equal to Z0
b. higher than Z0
d. 50 ohms
ANS: C
10. The characteristic impedance of a cable:
a. increases with length
b. increases with frequency
c. increases with voltage

ANS: D
11. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on:
a. the wire resistance
c. the inductance per foot
b. the dielectric constant
d. all of the above
ANS: B
12. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit:
a. would reflect as a positive pulse
b. would reflect as a negative pulse
c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
d. would not reflect at all
ANS: B
13. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance:
ANS: D
14. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit:
ANS: A
15. The optimum value for SWR is:
a. zero
b. one
c. as large as possible
d. there is no optimum value
ANS: B
16. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause:
a. standing waves
b. loss of power to load
c. higher voltage peaks on cable

d. all of the above
ANS: D
17. VSWR stands for:
a. variable SWR
b. vacuum SWR
c. voltage SWR
ANS: C
18. The impedance "looking into" a matched line:
a. is infinite
c. is the characteristic impedance
b. is zero
d. 50 ohms
ANS: C
19. A Smith Chart is used to calculate:
a. transmission line impedances
b. propagation velocity
c. optimum length of a transmission line

d. transmission line losses
ANS: A
20. Compared to a 300-ohm line, the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power:
a. would be less
c. would be the same
b. would be more
d. cannot be compared
ANS: B
21. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable:
a. directly
c. by using a "balun"
b. by using a filter
d. cannot be connected
ANS: C
22. On a Smith Chart, you "normalize" the impedance by:
a. assuming it to be zero
c. multiplying it by 2
b. dividing it by 2
d. dividing it by Z0
ANS: D
23. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents:
a. the voltage
c. the impedance
b. the current
ANS: D
24. The center of the Smith Chart always represents:
a. zero
c. the characteristic impedance
b. one
ANS: C
25. A TDR is commonly used to:
a. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable
b. find the position of a defect in a cable
c. replace a slotted-line
d. all of the above
ANS: B
COMPLETION
1. A cable that lacks symmetry with respect to ground is called ____________________.
ANS: unbalanced
2. Parallel lines are usually operated as ____________________ lines since both wires are symmetrical with
respect to ground.
ANS: balanced
3. Normally, a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its ____________________ impedance.
ANS: characteristic
4. Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines for relatively ____________________ frequencies.
ANS: low
5. To analyze a transmission line, it is necessary to use ____________________ parameters instead of
lumped ones.
ANS: distributed
6. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the ____________________ effect.
ANS: skin
7. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the ____________________ field inside
the wire.
ANS: magnetic
8. Dielectrics become more ____________________ as the frequency increases.
ANS: lossy
9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit ____________________.
ANS: length
10. Characteristic impedance is sometimes called ____________________ impedance.
ANS: surge
11. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a ____________________ line.
ANS: matched
12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with the ____________________
polarity.
ANS: opposite
13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a ____________________
wave.
ANS: standing
14. SWR stands for ____________________-wave ratio.
ANS: standing
15. The ideal value for SWR is ____________________.
ANS: one
16. Transmission line impedances can be found using a ____________________ chart.
ANS: Smith
17. Short transmission-line sections called ____________________ can be used as capacitors or inductors.
ANS: stubs
18. Any cable that radiates energy can also ____________________ energy.
ANS: absorb
19. A ____________________-dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches the load.
ANS: 3
20. It is often best to measure SWR at the ____________________ end of a cable.
ANS: load
21. Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the ____________________ voltage of
its dielectric.
ANS: breakdown
22. To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart, you divide it by ____________________.
ANS: Z0
23. The ____________________ of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic impedance.
ANS: center
24. A ____________________ wavelength transmission line can be used a transformer.
ANS: one-quarter
25. A slotted line is used to make measurements in the ____________________ domain.
ANS: frequency
SHORT ANSWER
1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance per foot. Calculate its
characteristic impedance.
ANS:
Z0 = 200 ohms
2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of the wire is .04 inch. Calculate,
approximately, its characteristic impedance.
ANS:
386 ohms
3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant r = 2.6 , what is the velocity factor for
the cable?
ANS:
0.62
4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to travel 3000 kilometers along the
cable?
ANS:
12.5 ms
5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required for a 90 phase shift at 100 MHz?
ANS:
0.6 meters
6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts, what is the maximum
voltage along the cable?
ANS:
200 volts
7. A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms, but is terminated with a 75-ohm resistive load.
What SWR do you expect to measure?
ANS:
1.5
8. If a cable has an SWR of 1.5, what will be the absolute value of its voltage coefficient of reflection?
ANS:
0.2
9. A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0.2 transmits 100 watts into
the line. How much power is actually absorbed by the load?
ANS:
96 watts
10. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable, what would be the normalized value of an impedance
equal to 200 + j50 ohms?
ANS:
4 + j1
Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by:
a. Armstrong
c. Maxwell
b. Hertz
d. Marconi
ANS: C
2. Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by:
a. Armstrong
c. Maxwell
b. Hertz
d. Marconi
ANS: B
3. The technology that made cell phones practical was:
a. the microprocessor chip
c. high-power microwave transmitters
b. the miniature cell-site
d. all of the above
ANS: A
4. Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with:
a. high power levels
c. reuse of frequencies
b. high antennas
d. all of the above
ANS: C
5. Which of the following are electromagnetic:
a. radio waves
b. light
c. gamma waves
d. all of the above
ANS: D
6. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are:
a. perpendicular to each other
c. both a and b
b. perpendicular to the direction of travel
ANS: C
7. TEM stands for:
a. Transverse Electromagnetic
b. Transmitted Electromagnetic
c. True Electromagnetic
ANS: A
8. In free space, radio waves travel at a speed of:
a. 3 106 meters per second
c. 3 106 miles per second
6
b. 300 10 meters per second
d. 300 106 miles per second
ANS: B
9. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave:

a. vertical
c. circular
b. horizontal
d. all of the above
ANS: D
10. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna:
a. vertical
c. circular
b. horizontal
d. all of the above
ANS: D
11. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is:
a. 1
c. 3
b. 2
d. many
ANS: B
12. An antenna has "gain" as compared to:
a. an isotropic radiator
b. a vertically polarized radiator
c. a ground-wave antenna
ANS: A
13. EIRP stands for:
a. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power
b. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
c. the Effective Internal Reflected Power
d. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power
ANS: B
14. The "attenuation of free space" is due to:
a. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space
b. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere
c. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront
d. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront
ANS: C
15. Ground waves are most effective:
a. below about 2 MHz
b. above about 20 MHz
c. at microwave frequencies
d. when using horizontally polarized waves
ANS: A
16. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off:
a. a flat insulating surface of the right size
b. a flat dielectric surface of the right size
c. a flat metallic surface of the right size

d. a flat body of water
ANS: C
17. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of:
a. reflection
c. refraction
b. diffusion
d. diffraction
ANS: D
18. Space waves are:
a. line-of-sight
b. reflected off the ionosphere
c. same as sky waves
d. radio waves used for satellite communications
ANS: A
19. Sky waves:
a. are line-of-sight
b. "bounce" off the ionosphere
c. are same as space waves
d. are radio waves used for satellite communications
ANS: B
20. Sky waves cannot be "heard":
a. close to the transmitter
b. far from the transmitter
c. in the "silent" zone

d. in the "skip" zone
ANS: D
21. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called:
a. fading
b. diffraction
d. spatial diversity
ANS: A
22. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of:
a. fading
b. diffraction
c. multipath distortion
d. cancellation due to reflection
ANS: C
23. A "repeater" is used to:
a. send a message multiple times over a channel
b. send a message over multiple channels at the same time
c. extend the range of a radio communications system
d. cancel the effects of fading
ANS: C
24. Cellular phone systems rely on:
a. high power
b. repeaters
c. the radio horizon

d. the reuse of frequencies
ANS: D
25. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit:
a. the cell area is increased
c. the power levels are increased
b. the cell area is split
d. the number of channels is reduced
ANS: B
26. As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another:
a. a "handoff" process occurs
c. both cells will handle the call
b. a "sectoring" process occurs
d. nothing occurs
ANS: A
27. To receive several data streams at once, a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses:
a. a "funnel" receiver
c. multiple receivers
b. a "rake" receiver
ANS: B
28. The troposphere is the:
a. highest layer of the atmosphere
b. middle layer of the atmosphere
c. lowest layer of the atmosphere

d. the most ionized layer of the atmosphere
ANS: C
29. Meteor-trail propagation is:
a. used for radio telephony
b. used to send data by radio
c. also called "ducting"

d. not possible
ANS: B
COMPLETION
1. Radio waves were mathematically predicted by ____________________.
ANS: Maxwell
2. Radio waves were first demonstrated by ____________________.
ANS: Hertz
3. Radio waves are ____________________ electromagnetic waves.
ANS: transverse
4. The propagation speed of radio waves in free space is ____________________ m/sec.
ANS: 300 106
5. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called ____________________.
ANS: photons
6. Unlike sound or water waves, radio waves do not need a ____________________ to travel through.
ANS: medium
7. The dielectric strength of clean dry air is about ____________________ volts per meter.
ANS: 3 106
8. Waves from an ____________________ source radiate equally in all directions.
ANS: isotropic
9. The wavefront of a point source would have the shape of a ____________________.
ANS: sphere
10. At a far distance from the source, a radio wavefront looks like a flat ____________________-wave.
ANS: plane
11. The polarization of a radio wave is the direction of its ____________________ field.
ANS: electric
12. The electric field of a radio wave is ____________________ to its magnetic field.
ANS: perpendicular
13. Both the electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are ____________________ to its propagation
direction.
ANS: perpendicular
14. With ____________________ polarization, the direction of a radio wave's electric field rotates as it
travels through space.
ANS: circular
15. An antenna is said to have ____________________ in a certain direction if it radiates more power in that
direction than in other directions.
ANS: gain
16. The watts per square meter of a radio wave ____________________ as the wave-front moves through
space.
ANS: decrease
17. Reflection of plane-waves from a smooth surface is called ____________________ reflection.
ANS: specular
18. ____________________ is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across the boundary between two
different dielectrics.
ANS: Refraction
19. The process of ____________________ makes radio waves appear to "bend around a corner".
ANS: diffraction
20. ____________________ waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a "line-of-sight" fashion.
ANS: Space
21. ____________________ waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along the earth's surface.
ANS: Ground
22. ____________________ waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere due to refraction.
ANS: Sky
23. The ____________________ zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received.
ANS: skip
24. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of ____________________ distortion.
ANS: multipath
25. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by ____________________ waves interfering
with direct waves.
ANS: reflected
26. Cell phones typically operate at a ____________________ power level.
ANS: low
27. The ____________________ of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share a geographical area.
ANS: reuse
28. ____________________ is when a cell-site uses three directional antennas, each covering a third of the
cell area, to reduce interference.
ANS: Sectoring
29. The use of ____________________ chips makes cell phones a practical technology.
ANS: microprocessor
SHORT ANSWER
1. A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6.3 1010 F/m and the same permeability as free space. What is
the characteristic impedance of that dielectric?
ANS:
45 ohms
2. If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt, what is the power density 10,000 meters from the
source?
ANS:
796 pW/m2
3. What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the power density at 3000 meters from
the source is 1 W/m2?
ANS:
113 watts
4. If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/m2 of power density to function, how far away from a 1-watt point source
will it continue to work?
ANS:
8.9 km
5. A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers 50 km apart. What, approximately,
is the minimum height for the towers assuming all the towers are the same?
ANS:
37 meters
6. A mobile radio is being used at 1 GHz in an urban environment with lots of reflecting structures. If the
car is traveling 36 km/hour, what is the expected time between fades?
ANS:
15 msec
Chapter 16: Antenna
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to:
a. the radiated signal
c. the SWR
b. the reflected signal
d. all of the above
ANS: A
2. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called:
a. a Marconi antenna
b. a Hertz antenna
c. a Yagi antenna
ANS: B
3. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually:
a. one wavelength
c. slightly longer than a half-wavelength
b. one half-wavelength
d. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength
ANS: D
4. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the:
a. standing wave pattern around the antenna c. radiation resistance of the antenna
b. SWR along the feed cable
d. I2R loss of the antenna
ANS: C
5. Measured on the ground, the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is
strongest:
a. in one direction
c. in all directions
b. in two directions
d. depends on the number of elements
ANS: B
6. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called:
a. directivity
c. active antenna
b. selectivity
d. resonance
ANS: A
7. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is:
a. 0 dB
c. 10 dB
b. 3 dB
d. infinite
ANS: A
8. An antenna's beamwidth is measured:
a. from +90 to 90
b. from front to back
c. between half-power points

d. between the minor side-lobes
ANS: C
9. ERP stands for:
a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern
b. Effective Radiation Pattern
c. Equivalent Radiated Power

d. Effective Radiated Power
ANS: D
10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by:
a. radio signals reflecting off the ground
b. buildings and other structures on the ground
c. fading
d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground
ANS: A
11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be:
a. mounted vertically
b. mounted horizontally
c. at least one half-wavelength long

d. at least one wavelength long
ANS: A
12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a:
a. dipole
b. folded dipole
c. ferrite "loop-stick"
ANS: C
13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by:
a. gamma rays
c. helical rotation
b. Faraday Rotation
d. the distance traveled
ANS: B
14. A nonresonant antenna:
a. will not transmit
b. will not receive
c. will cause SWR on the feed cable

d. all of the above
ANS: C
15. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be:
a. resistive
c. capacitive
b. inductive
d. infinite
ANS: A
16. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using:
a. a shorted stub
c. an LC network
b. a loading coil
d. all of the above
ANS: D
17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased:
a. the number of lobes increases
c. efficiency decreases
b. the number of nodes decreases
ANS: A
18. Arrays can be:
a. phased
b. driven
c. parasitic
d. all of the above
ANS: D
19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a:
a. Marconi
c. Log-Periodic Dipole
b. Yagi
d. stacked array
ANS: B
20. LPDA stands for:
a. Low-Power Dipole Array
b. Low-Power Directed Array
c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array

d. Log Power Dipole Array
ANS: C
21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is:
a. collimated
c. dispersed
b. phased
ANS: A
22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the:
a. center
c. focus
b. edges
d. horn
ANS: C
23. Antennas are often tested in:
a. an echo chamber
b. an anechoic chamber
c. a vacuum chamber
d. an RF reflective chamber
ANS: B
24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with:
a. a slotted line
c. an EIRP meter
b. a dipole
d. a field-strength meter
ANS: D
COMPLETION
1. An antenna is the interface between the transmission line and ____________________.
ANS: space
2. Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave ____________________.
ANS: dipole
3. The length of a half-wave dipole is about ____________________ % of a half-wave in free space.
ANS: 95
4. The ____________________ resistance is the portion of an antenna's input impedance due to transmitted
radio waves leaving the antenna.
ANS: radiation
5. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole is about ____________________
.
ANS: 70
6. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is about ____________________ .
ANS: 280 300
7. The vertical angle of radiation is called the angle of ____________________.
ANS: elevation
8. Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with ____________________ coordinates.
ANS: polar
9. As compared to a ____________________ source, a half-wave dipole has a gain of about 2 dBi.
ANS:
point
isotropic
10. Antenna gain measured in ____________________ is with reference to a half-wave dipole.
ANS: dBd
11. ____________________ is the same as the gain for a lossless antenna.
ANS: Directivity
12. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole is ____________________ dB.
ANS: 0
13. The ____________________ of a directional antenna is the angle between its half-power points.
ANS: beamwidth
14. ERP stands for ____________________ radiated power.

ANS: effective
15. ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna's ____________________.
ANS: gain
16. A ____________________ is required to connect a coaxial cable to a center-fed dipole antenna.
ANS: balun
17. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with ____________________ polarization.
ANS: horizontal
18. A folded dipole has ____________________ bandwidth than a standard dipole.
ANS:
wider
greater
more
19. A monopole antenna is typically mounted in the ____________________ direction.
ANS: vertical
20. The length of a typical monopole antenna is ____________________ wavelength.
ANS:
one-quarter
1/4
21. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a ____________________ plane.
ANS: ground
22. A vertical antenna has an _________________________ radiation pattern for ground-based receivers.
ANS: omnidirectional
23. The number of driven elements in a Yagi antenna is typically ____________________.
ANS: one
24. The reflector on a Yagi antenna is called a ____________________ element.
ANS: parasitic
25. An LPDA is a ____________________ dipole array.
ANS: log-periodic
26. If an LPDA had five elements, the number of driven elements it had would be ____________________.
ANS: five
27. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the ____________________.
ANS: focus
28. A ____________________ beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other.
ANS: collimated
29. A microwave ____________________ antenna is essentially an extension of a waveguide.
ANS: horn
30. An ____________________ chamber is often used to test microwave antennas.
ANS: anechoic
SHORT ANSWER
1. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz.
ANS:
475 millimeters
2. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts?
ANS:
95 watts
3. If an antenna has 10.14 dB of gain compared to a point source, how much gain does it have compared to a
half-wave dipole?
ANS:
8 dB
4. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt?
ANS:
10 watts
5. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. What is the RMS
current in the antenna?
ANS:
1 ampere
6. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. What is the RMS
voltage at the feed-point of the antenna?
ANS:
100 volts
Chapter 17: Microwave Devices

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at:
a. 100 MHz
c. 10 GHz
b. 1 GHz
d. 100 GHz
ANS: B
2. The UHF range is:
a. below the microwave range
b. inside the microwave range
c. above the microwave range

d. same as the microwave range
ANS: A
3. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on:
a. the shape of the waveguide
c. the point of signal injection
b. the power level of the signal
ANS: A
4. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is:
c. TE 10
a. TE 01
b. TM 01
d. TM10
ANS: C
5. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is:
a. TE 01
c. TE 11
d. TM11
b. TM 01
ANS: C
6. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because:
a. it is dominant
c. it is the only mode possible
b. of its circular symmetry
d. it is more efficient
ANS: B
7. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide:
a. is fixed
b. depends on the frequency it carries
c. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section
d. both b and c
ANS: D
8. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide:
a. with a magnetic field probe
c. through a hole in the waveguide
b. with an electric field probe
d. all of the above
ANS: D
9. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by:
a. their insertion loss
c. their directivity
b. their coupling specification
d. all of the above
ANS: D
10. Striplines and microstrips are used to:
a. couple sections of waveguide
b. couple waveguides to antennas
c. couple components on a circuit board

ANS: C
11. A resonant cavity is a type of:
a. tuned circuit
b. defect in a waveguide
c. antenna
ANS: A
12. A TEE connector used with waveguides is:
a. an H-plane TEE
b. an E-plane TEE
c. a "magic" TEE
d. all of the above
ANS: D
13. TWT stands for:
a. Transverse Wave Transmission
b. Transverse-Wave Tube
c. Traveling-Wave Tube
d. Traveling-Wave Transmission
ANS: C
14. An "isolator" is a device that:
a. isolates frequencies in a waveguide
b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only
c. separates signals among various ports
d. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide
ANS: B
15. A "circulator" is a device that:
a. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide
b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only
c. separates signals among various ports
d. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide
ANS: C
16. GaAs stands for:
a. gallium arsenide
b. gallium assembly
ANS: A
c. gallium astenite
17. IMPATT stands for:

a. impact avalanche and transit time
b. induced mobility at transmission time
c. implied power at transmission terminal

ANS: A
18. YIG stands for:
a. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium
b. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium
c. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet
ANS: C
19. A YIG can be tuned by applying:
a. an electric field
b. a magnetic field
c. mechanical pressure
d. an "exciter" signal
ANS: B
20. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the:
a. TWT
c. magnetron
b. klystron
d. YIG
ANS: C
21. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the:
a. TWT
c. magnetron
b. klystron
d. YIG
ANS: A
22. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the:
a. TWT
c. magnetron
b. klystron
d. YIG
ANS: B
23. A microwave phased array is often made using:
a. slots
c. Fresnel lenses
b. Yagis
d. all of the above
ANS: A
24. RADAR stands for:
a. radio ranging
b. radio depth and ranging
c. radio detection and ranging

d. remote detection and ranging
ANS: C
25. RADAR uses:
a. pulsed transmission
b. continuous transmission
ANS: D
c. the Doppler effect

d. all of the above
26. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar:

a. increases with increasing repetition rate
c. decreases with increasing pulse period
b. decreases with increasing repetition rate
ANS: B
27. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar:
a. increases with increasing pulse duration
c. is always a tenth of the maximum range
b. decreases with increasing pulse duration d. none of the above
ANS: A
COMPLETION
1. ____________________ is the effect of a pulse "spreading out" as it travels through a waveguide.
ANS: Dispersion
2. The electric field is ____________________ along the walls of a rectangular waveguide.
ANS: zero
3. The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the ____________________ mode.
ANS: dominant
4. In TE10 mode, the ____________________ field peaks in the middle of the waveguide cross section.
ANS: electric
5. In TE20 mode, the electric field has ____________________ peaks in the waveguide cross section.
ANS: two
6. In a circular waveguide, ____________________ mode is used because of its circular symmetry.
ANS: TM01
7. A waveguide acts as a ____________________-pass filter.
ANS: high
8. In a waveguide, group velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light.
ANS: slower
9. In a waveguide, phase velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light.
ANS: faster
10. In a waveguide, impedance ____________________ as frequency increases.
ANS: decreases
11. A ____________________ TEE is a combination of E-plane and H-plane TEES.
ANS: hybrid
12. The Q of a resonant cavity is very ____________________ compared to lumped LC circuits.
ANS: high
13. A wavemeter is a resonant ____________________ with an adjustable plunger.
ANS: cavity
14. A Gunn device oscillates because of its negative ____________________.
ANS: resistance
15. Both magnetrons and TWTs are slow ____________________ tubes.
ANS: wave
16. Both klystrons and TWTs are ____________________-beam tubes.
ANS: linear
17. A ____________________ antenna is just a waveguide with a hole in it.
ANS: slot
18. A ____________________ antenna is a flat piece of copper on an insulating substrate with a ground
plane on the other side.
ANS: patch
19. The radar cross section of a target is typically ____________________ than its actual size.
ANS: smaller
20. The frequency of the returned signal will be ____________________ than the transmitted signal if the
target is moving toward the radar antenna.
ANS: higher
SHORT ANSWER
1. Calculate the TE10 cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the longer dimension of its cross
section is 5 cm.
ANS:
3 GHz
2. Calculate the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency.
ANS:
260 106 meters per second
3. Calculate the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency.
ANS:
346 106 meters per second
4. Calculate the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-GHz cutoff frequency.
ANS:
173 millimeters
5. Find the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with dE = dH= 60 mm.
ANS:
14.8
6. Find the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k pulses per second.
ANS:
15 km
7. Find the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2-sec duration pulses.
ANS:
300 meters
Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave Communication Systems

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Another term for a single microwave link is a:
a. section
c. skip
b. hop
d. jump
ANS: B
2. Microwave systems use:
a. FM
b. SSB
c. QAM
d. all of the above
ANS: D
3. The typical reliability of a microwave system is:
a. 90%
c. 99.9%
b. 99%
d. 99.99%
ANS: D
4. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about:
a. 2 watts
c. 200 watts
b. 20 watts
ANS: A
5. In analog microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the:
a. reliability
c. jitter
b. noise level
d. all of the above
ANS: B
6. In digital microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the:
a. reliability
c. jitter
b. noise level
d. all of the above
ANS: C
7. LOS stands for:
a. Loss Of Skip
b. Loss Of Signal
c. Line-Of-Sight
d. Line-Of-Signal
ANS: C
8. Too much antenna gain causes:
a. a very narrow microwave beam
b. a very wide microwave beam
ANS: A
c. excessive noise
d. jitter
9. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least:

a. 60% of the Faraday zone
c. 60% of the height of the antenna tower
b. 60% of the Fresnel zone
d. 60% of the highest obstacle height
ANS: B
10. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as:
a. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value
b. an ERP level that exceeds a given value
c. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value
ANS: A
11. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a:
a. low level of transmitted power
b. high level of ERP
c. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio
d. good energy per bit per noise density ratio
ANS: D
12. Fading is caused by:
a. multipath reception
b. attenuation due to weather
c. ducting
d. all of the above
ANS: D
13. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using:
a. diversity
c. high-gain antennas
b. power
d. all of the above
ANS: A
14. Repeaters are used in a microwave system:
a. always
b. when distance exceeds line-of-sight
c. above 10 GHz
d. below 10 GHz
ANS: B
15. Microwave repeaters can be:
a. IF type
b. baseband type
c. regenerative type
d. all of the above
ANS: D
16. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is:
a. less bandwidth is required
c. it requires less power
b. accumulation of noise is reduced
d. all of the above
ANS: B
17. MMDS stands for:
a. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System
b. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System

c. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System
d. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems
ANS: C
18. LMDS stands for:
a. Local Microwave Distribution System
b. Local Multipoint Distribution System
c. Local Multichannel Distribution System
d. Low-power Microwave Distribution System
ANS: B
19. LMDS is:
a. bidirectional
b. unidirectional
c. multidirectional
ANS: A
COMPLETION
1. One microwave link is called a ____________________.
ANS: hop
2. STL stands for ____________________-to-transmitter links.
ANS: studio
3. A typical microwave system has about one hour per ____________________ or less of downtime.
ANS: year
4. Adding more links causes ____________________ in a digital microwave system.
ANS: jitter
5. In microwave systems, it is more convenient to use noise ____________________ than noise figure in
calculations.
ANS: temperature
6. In digital microwave systems, the energy per bit per ____________________ is a key parameter.
ANS: noise density
7. Multipath reception can cause 20 dB or more of ____________________.
ANS: fading
8. Two antennas stacked one above the other on a tower is an example of ____________________ diversity
in a microwave system.
ANS: space
9. The ability to use two frequencies simultaneously is an example of ____________________.
ANS: diversity
10. Microwave systems generally use less than ____________________ watts of power.
ANS: ten
11. ____________________ are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond the line-of-sight
distance.
ANS: Repeaters
12. Analog microwave systems use both IF and ____________________ repeaters.
ANS: baseband
13. Microwave digital radio techniques reduce the accumulation of ____________________ as a signal goes
from link to link.
ANS: noise
14. MMDS is unidirectional, but ____________________ is bidirectional.
ANS: LMDS
SHORT ANSWER
1. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km, what would it be, approximately, for a
microwave beam?
ANS:
16 km
2. A line-of-sight microwave link operating at 4 GHz has a separation of 40 km between antennas. An
obstacle in the path is located midway between the two antennas. By how much must the beam clear the
obstacle?
ANS:
16.4 meters
3. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km. How many dBm of power gets to
the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt, and both the sending and receiving antennas have a gain of
20 dBi?
ANS:
42.4 dBm
4. A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of 150 K. Calculate the noise
temperature of the antenna/feed-line system referenced to the receiver input.
ANS:
201 K
5. A microwave receiver receives 60 dBm of signal. The noise power is 100 dBm. What is the carrier-tonoise power ratio?
ANS:
40 dB
Chapter 19: Television

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. NTSC stands for:
a. National Television Systems Commission
b. National Television Systems Committee
c. National Television Systems Council
d. Nippon Television Systems Commission
ANS: B
2. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the:
a. FCC
c. EIA
b. IRE
d. IEEE
ANS: C
3. RGB stands for:
a. Red-Green Burst
b. Red-Green Brightness
c. Red-Green Bandwidth
d. Red-Green-Blue
ANS: D
4. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is:
a. 525
c. 1024
b. 625
d. 1250
ANS: A
5. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is:
a. 25
c. 50
b. 30
d. 60
ANS: B
6. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is:
a. 25
c. 50
b. 30
d. 60
ANS: D
7. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is:
a. 3 : 4
b. 4 : 3
c. 525 : 625
d. 625 : 525
ANS: B
8. Luminance refers to:
a. brightness
b. contrast
c. chroma
d. raster
ANS: A
9. Luminance is measured in:
a. foot-candles
b. lumins
c. IRE units
d. NTSC units
ANS: C
10. The maximum luminance level is called:
a. max white
b. peak white
c. all white
d. whiter than white
ANS: B
11. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of:
a. white
c. whiter than white
b. black
d. blacker than black
ANS: B
12. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of:
a. white
c. whiter than white
b. black
d. blacker than black
ANS: D
13. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to:
a. maintain horizontal sync
b. maintain vertical sync
c. equalize the DC level

d. all of the above
ANS: A
14. When measured in lines, horizontal resolution:
a. is greater than vertical resolution
b. is about the same as vertical resolution
c. is less than vertical resolution
d. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines
ANS: B
15. The smallest picture element is called a:
a. dot
b. pic
c. pixel
ANS: C
16. In a color TV receiver, Y I Q refers to:
a. luminance signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color component
b. composite color signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color component
c. composite video signal, in-phase video component, quadrature video color component
d. a method of demodulating stereo sound
ANS: A
17. Compared to the luminance signal, the horizontal resolution for color is:
a. much greater
c. much less
b. about the same
d. resolution does not apply to color
ANS: C
18. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
a. SSB
c. suppressed-carrier AM
b. vestigial sideband AM
d. FM
ANS: B
19. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
a. SSB
d. FM
ANS: D
20. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
a. SSB
d. FM
ANS: C
21. The function of the "color burst" is to:
a. detect the presence of a color video signal
b. regenerate the color sub-carrier
c. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line
d. all of the above
ANS: D
22. SAP stands for:
a. separate audio program
b. separate audio pulse
c. sync amplitude pulse

d. sync audio pulse
ANS: A
23. The horizontal output transformer is also called:
a. the isolation transformer
c. the flyback transformer
b. the video transformer
d. the yoke
ANS: C
24. Compared to a monochrome CRT, the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is:
a. about the same
c. much lower
b. much higher
d. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration
ANS: B
25. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done:
a. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal
b. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal
c. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal
d. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal

ANS: A
26. AFPC stands for:
a. allowed full picture chroma
b. automatic frequency and phase control
c. automatic frequency and picture control

ANS: B
COMPLETION
1. ____________________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a TV.
ANS: Aquadag
2. The ____________________ standard for TV has been in use since 1953.
ANS: NTSC
3. Video systems form pictures by a ____________________ process.
ANS: scanning
4. During the horizontal blanking interval, the electron beam ____________________ from right to left.
ANS: retraces
5. The NTSC specifies a ____________________ video signal.
ANS: composite
6. The ____________________ ratio of a CRT screen is the ratio of width to height.
ANS: aspect
7. Brightness information is called ____________________.
ANS:
luma
luminance
8. Color information is called ____________________.
ANS:
chroma
chrominance
9. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ____________________.
ANS: porch
10. Odd and even fields are identified by the ____________________ of the vertical sync pulse.
ANS: position
11. Each horizontal scan line takes ____________________ microseconds, not including blanking.
ANS: 62.5
12. Horizontal blanking lasts ____________________ microseconds.
ANS: 10
13. Vertical blanking lasts about ____________________ milliseconds.
ANS: 1.3
14. Picture elements are called ____________________.
ANS: pixels
15. The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is ____________________.
ANS: 525
16. The human eye is most sensitive to the color ____________________.
ANS: green
17. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately ____________________ MHz.
ANS: 3.58
18. SAP stands for ____________________ audio program.
ANS: separate
19. The second anode of a CRT is often called the ____________________.
ANS: ultor
20. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ____________________ kV.
ANS: 20 to 30
21. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ____________________ to generate the picture.
ANS: phosphor
22. The horizontal output transformer is called the ____________________ transformer.
ANS: flyback
23. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ____________________ filter.
ANS: comb
24. The color ____________________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a
monochrome signal.
ANS: killer
25. Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in ____________________.
ANS: dBmV
26. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ____________________ end.
ANS: head
27. A ____________________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases.
ANS: vectorscope
28. Color intensity is called ____________________.
ANS: saturation
29. The ____________________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue.
ANS: phase
30. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct color
phosphor dots.
ANS: purity
31. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct triad of
phosphor dots.
ANS: convergence
Chapter 20: Satellite Communications

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about:
a. 3,578 km
c. 357,800 km
b. 35,780 km
d. depends on satellite velocity
ANS: B
2. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called, respectively,:
a. apogee and perigee
c. uplink and downlink
b. perigee and apogee
d. downlink and uplink
ANS: A
3. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its:
a. earth station
c. footprint
b. downlink
d. plate
ANS: C
4. The velocity required to stay in orbit:
a. is constant
b. is zero (freefall)
c. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth
d. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth
ANS: D
5. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called:
a. azimuth and elevation
c. declination and elevation
b. azimuth and declination
d. apogee and perigee
ANS: A
6. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range:
a. 5 to 25 watts
c. 500 to 2500 watts
b. 50 to 250 watts
d. depends on its orbit
ANS: B
7. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of:
a. 101 watts
c. 103 watts
2
b. 10 watts
d. 104 watts
ANS: C
8. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of:
a. transponders
c. solar cells
b. batteries
d. all of the above
ANS: A
9. "Station-keeping" refers to:
a. antenna maintenance
b. power-level adjustments
c. orbital adjustments
ANS: C
10. DBS stands for:
a. decibels of signal
b. down-beam signal
c. direct-broadcast system
d. direct-broadcast satellite
ANS: D
11. LNA stands for:
a. low-noise amplifier
b. low north angle
c. low-noise amplitude
d. low-noise array
ANS: A
12. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called:
a. backdown
c. power-down
b. backoff
d. EIRP drop
ANS: B
13. TVRO stands for:
a. television receive only
b. television repeater only
c. television remote origin

ANS: A
14. TDMA stands for:
a. transponder-directed multiple antennas
b. television distribution master antenna
c. time-division multiple access

d. transmit delay minimum aperture
ANS: C
15. VSAT stands for:
a. video satellite
b. video signal antenna terminal
c. very small antenna terminal

d. very small aperture terminal
ANS: D
16. On the uplink from a terminal, a VSAT system uses:
a. high power to a small antenna
c. low power to a large antenna
b. low power to a small antenna
d. LEO satellites
ANS: B
17. A typical VSAT system is configured as a:
a. star
b. mesh
c. ring
d. repeater
ANS: A
18. LEO stands for:
a. long elliptic orbit
b. low-earth orbit
c. lateral earth orbit

d. longitudinal earth orbit
ANS: B
19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require:
a. a constellation of satellites
c. very high power
b. tracking dish antennas
d. all of the above
ANS: A
20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are:
a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz
c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz
b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz
ANS: B
COMPLETION
1. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit takes ____________________ hours to complete one orbit.
ANS: 24
2. The ____________________ is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite.
ANS: uplink
3. The ____________________ is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station.
ANS: downlink
4. A satellite in a ____________________ orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the equator.
ANS: geostationary
5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called ____________________ satellites.
ANS: orbital
6. A geosynchronous orbit is about ____________________ km above the earth.
ANS: 35,780
7. A ____________________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite broadcasts to.
ANS: footprint
8. All satellite orbits are ____________________ in shape.
ANS: elliptical
9. The ____________________ is the distance of a satellite's closest approach to the earth.
ANS: perigee
10. The ____________________ is a satellite's farthest distance from the earth.
ANS: apogee
11. An antenna's ____________________ is its angular direction between east and west.
ANS: azimuth
12. An antenna's ____________________ is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface.
ANS: elevation
13. An antenna's ____________________ is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis.
ANS: declination
14. Satellites using the ____________________ band operate on 12 GHz.
ANS: Ku
15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about ____________________ milliseconds.
ANS: 500
16. A ____________________ is a type of repeater used on communications satellites.
ANS: transponder
17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its ____________________.
ANS: diameter
18. VSAT systems commonly use a ____________________ network configuration.
ANS: star
19. To date, LEO satellite systems have been a financial ____________________.
ANS: failure
20. C-band antennas are ____________________ than Ku-band antennas.
ANS: larger
SHORT ANSWER
1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. The loss
between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise
temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T.
ANS:
25 dB
2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature.
ANS:
139 K.
3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite 38,000 km away. The
satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1
MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver.
ANS:
38 dB
Chapter 21: Cellular Radio

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. AMPS stand for:
a. American Mobile Phone System
b. Analog Mobile Phone Service
c. Advanced Mobile Phone System

d. Advanced Mobile Phone Service
ANS: D
2. PCS stands for:
a. Personal Communications Service
b. Personal Communications Systems
c. Personal Cell phone Service

d. Portable Communications Systems
ANS: B
3. RCC stands for:
a. Radio Common Carrier
b. Radio Cellular Carrier
c. Regional Cellular Carrier

ANS: A
4. MSC stands for:
a. Mobile Switching Center
b. Mobile Service Cellular
c. Maximum Signal Carrier

d. Minimum Signal Carrier
ANS: A
5. MTSO stands for:
a. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output
b. Maximum Transmitted Signal Output
c. Mobile Telephone Switching Office

d. Mobile Transmission Time-Out
ANS: C
6. MIN stands for:
a. Manual Identification Number
b. Mobile Identification Number
c. Maximum In-band Noise

d. Minimum In-band Noise
ANS: B
7. NAM stands for:
a. Numerical Access Mode
b. Numerical Assignment Mode
c. Number Access Module

d. Number Assignment Module
ANS: D
8. ESN stands for:
a. Electronic Serial Number
b. Emitted Signal Number
ANS: A
c. Emission Strength Number

9. SCM stands for:

a. Service Class Mark
b. Station Class Mark
c. Signal Class Mark

d. Serial-Code Mode
ANS: B
10. SCM identifies the:
a. code number of a cell phone
b. base-station class
c. signal classification (analog or digital)

d. maximum power level of a cell phone
ANS: D
11. SID stands for:
a. Sequential Interrupt Demand
b. Standard Identification Number
c. System Identification Number

d. Signal Intensity Descriptor
ANS: C
12. The SID is used by a cell phone to:
a. identify the type of system (analog or digital)
b. recognize an AMPS system
c. set its transmitted power level
d. recognize that it is "roaming"
ANS: D
13. DCC stands for:
a. Digital Color Code
b. Digital Communications Code
c. Digital Communications Carrier

d. Direct Channel Code
ANS: A
14. SAT stands for:
a. Station Antenna Tower
b. Supervisory Audio Tone
c. Supervisory Access Tone

ANS: B
15. CMAC stands for:
a. Control Mobile Attenuation Code
b. Control Mobile Access Code
c. Central Mobile Access Control

d. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control
ANS: A
16. The CMAC is used to:
a. control access to the cell site
b. set the access code of the cell phone
c. set the transmit power of the cell phone
d. select the transmit channel for the cell phone
ANS: C
17. In an AMPS system, voice is sent using:
a. AM
c. FSK
b. FM
d. CDMA
ANS: B
18. In an AMPS system, control-channel signals are sent using:
a. AM
c. FSK
b. FM
d. CDMA
ANS: C
19. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is:
a. less than 600 W.
c. between 1 and 2 watts
b. less than 600 mW.
d. 4 watts
ANS: B
20. BSC stands for:
a. Base Station Controller
b. Base Signal Controller
c. Basic Service Contract

d. Basic Service Code
ANS: A
21. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the:
a. BSC
c. RF interface
b. MTSO
d. air interface
ANS: D
22. The optimum cell-site radius is:
a. 2 km
b. 0.5 km
c. as small as possible
ANS: D
23. Phone traffic is measured in:
a. calls
b. erlangs
c. number of users
d. number of blocked calls
ANS: B
24. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is:
a. increase the number of cells
c. increase the ERP
b. decrease the number of cells
d. decrease the ERP
ANS: A
25. CDPD stands for:
a. Code-Division Packet Data
b. Cellular Digital Packet Data
ANS: B
COMPLETION
c. Coded Digital Packet Data

d. Cellular Digital Pulse Data
1. AMPS uses the ____________________-MHz band.

ANS: 800
2. ____________________ is still the most common cellular phone system in North America.
ANS: AMPS
3. Frequency ____________________ is what makes cellular phone systems complex.
ANS: reuse
4. A ____________________ occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell site to another.
ANS: handoff
5. If a cell-site radius drops below ____________________ km, handoffs will occur too frequently.
ANS: 0.5
6. The number of ERP classes in AMPS is ____________________.
ANS: three
7. A cell phone permanently installed in a car would be ERP class ____________________.
ANS:
I
one
8. The maximum ERP of class III cell phones is ____________________.
ANS: 600 mW
9. A portable, handheld cell phone would be ERP class ____________________.
ANS:
III
three
10. Mobile transmitter power is controlled by the ____________________.
ANS: land station
11. A MAC is a mobile ____________________ code.
ANS: attenuation
12. For security, you should always assume that AMPS transmissions are ____________________.
ANS: public
13. A mobile switching center is also called an ____________________.
ANS: MTSO
14. The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of ____________________.
ANS: traffic
15. Telephone call traffic is measured in ____________________.
ANS: erlangs
16. A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have a ____________________ call.
ANS: dropped
17. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell ____________________.
ANS: splitting
18. A ____________________ site is a very small unit that can mount on a streetlight pole.
ANS: microcell
19. Very small cells called ____________________ are used for reliable indoor reception.
ANS: picocells
20. Compared with AMPS, digital cellular phones require ____________________ bandwidth.
ANS: less
SHORT ANSWER
1. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than analog cell phone systems.
ANS:
1. Digital is inherently more secure because of its format.
2. Digitized voice signals are easily encrypted.
2. If a 28.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone, how many words of text would be lost during a
100-msec handoff interruption assuming 10 bits per letter and 5 letters per word?
ANS:
57.6
3. A certain cell site contains 200 cell phones. The probability that a given cell phone is being used is 15%.
What is the traffic in erlangs?
ANS:
30
4. What is "trunking gain"?
ANS:
For a given probability of being blocked, the maximum allowable traffic per channel increases as the
number of channels increases.
Chapter 22: Personal Communications Systems
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Current PCS systems are referred to as:
a. first-generation
b. second-generation
c. third-generation
d. digital-generation
ANS: B
2. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is:
a. 800 MHz
c. 1.9 GHz
b. 900 MHz
d. 12 GHz
ANS: C
3. The "forward" PCS channel is:
a. from the base to the mobile
b. from the mobile to the base
c. from mobile to mobile

d. same as the uplink
ANS: A
4. Compared to AMPS, PCS cell sites are:
a. bigger
b. smaller
c. distributed
d. higher-power
ANS: B
5. AMPS was designed for:
a. POTS
b. voice
c. use built into an automobile

d. all of the above
ANS: D
6. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is:
a. 2
c. 4
b. 3
d. many
ANS: B
7. CDMA technology was invented by:
a. AT&T
b. Lucent
c. Bell Labs
d. Qualcomm
ANS: D
8. GSM is used in:
a. Asia
b. Europe
ANS: D
c. North America
d. all of the above
9. In GSM, voice channels are called:

a. traffic channels
b. voice channels
c. bearer channels
d. talking channels
ANS: A
10. AMPS uses:
a. CDMA
b. TDMA
c. spread-spectrum
ANS: D
11. Other things being equal, battery life in a GSM phone should be:
a. less than in a TDMA phone
c. greater than in a TDMA phone
b. no better than in an AMPS phone
d. no better than a TDMA phone
ANS: C
12. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in:
a. no PCS system
c. TDMA only
b. GSM only
d. both GSM and TDMA
ANS: D
13. GSM uses:
a. frequency hopping
b. direct-sequence modulation
c. CDMA
d. all of the above
ANS: A
14. In GSM, SIM stands for:
a. Short Inbound Message
b. Subscriber-Initiated Message
c. Subscriber ID Module
d. Subscriber ID Method
ANS: C
15. IMSI stands for:
a. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification
b. International Mobile Subscriber Identification
c. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification
d. Intermodulation System Interference
ANS: B
16. IS-95 uses:
b. TDMA
c. CDMA
d. all of the above
ANS: C
17. IS-136 uses:
b. TDMA
c. CDMA
d. all of the above
ANS: B
18. In CDMA:
a. all frequencies are used in all cells
b. each cell uses half the available frequencies
c. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base
d. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone
ANS: A
19. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are:
a. common
b. unique
c. rotating
d. orthogonal
ANS: D
20. The next generation of PCS is expected to have:
a. faster data rates
c. wider roaming area
b. Internet access
d. all of the above
ANS: D
COMPLETION
1. PCS stands for ____________________ Communications System.
ANS: Personal
2. Current PCS systems are called ____________________-generation systems.
ANS: second
3. In North America, PCS is assigned the ____________________-MHz band.
ANS: 1900
4. Compared to AMPS, PCS cells are ____________________ in size.
ANS: smaller
5. Besides TDMA and CDMA, ____________________ is also used in North America for PCS.
ANS: GSM
6. The spread-spectrum technique used in IS-95 PCS is ____________________.
ANS:
CDMA
direct sequence
7. The spread-spectrum technique used in GSM is _________________________.

ANS: frequency hopping
8. Unlike AMPS, CDMA allows for a ____________________ handoff.
ANS: soft
9. The orthogonal PN sequences used in CDMA are called a ____________________ code.
ANS: Walsh
10. Unlike other systems, in CDMA ____________________ frequencies are used in all cells.
ANS: all
11. PN stands for Pseudo-____________________ Noise.
ANS: random
12. ____________________ diversity is inherent in any spread-spectrum system.
ANS: Frequency
13. RF channel S/N ratios ____________________ than zero are typical in CDMA systems.
ANS: less
14. CDMA uses a ____________________-rate vocoder.
ANS: variable
15. A phone user typically talks less than ____________________% of the time during a conversation.
ANS: 50
16. CDMA requires ____________________-loop power control to work properly.
ANS: closed
17. GPRS stands for General ____________________ Radio Service.
ANS: Packet
18. IMT stands for International ____________________ Telecommunications.
ANS: Mobile
19. UPT stands for ____________________ Personal Telecommunications.
ANS: Universal
20. UWT stands for Universal ____________________ Telecommunications.

ANS: Wireless
21. W-CDMA stands for ____________________ CDMA.
ANS: Wideband
SHORT ANSWER
1. What is the advantage of a "soft" handoff?
ANS:
No calls are dropped.
2. If CDMA receivers hear all frequencies all the time, how do they pick a specific frequency?
ANS:
Each frequency is modulated using a separate orthogonal PN sequence. To demodulate, the receiver uses
the PN sequence specific to the channel it wants.
3. What is the effect of cochannel interference in CDMA?
ANS:
It increases the background noise level, but CDMA can tolerate a lot of such noise.
4. How does GSM achieve frequency diversity?
ANS:
It uses limited frequency hopping.
5. Why was PCS assigned to 1.9 GHz instead of the 800-MHz band used for AMPS?
ANS:
The 800 MHz band was already overcrowded.
6. Why would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a battery in a TDMA phone?
ANS:
A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots. A GSM phone is active during one out
of every eight.
7. What is the advantage of using offset QPSK over standard QPSK?
ANS:
With standard QPSK, the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero. With offset QPSK, it never goes to
zero. Linearity requirements are less strict for offset QPSK transmitters.
8. What is the "near/far" effect in CDMA, and what causes it?
ANS:
A stronger station farther away can "drown out" a weaker station that is near. This happens when the
power transmitted by mobile units is not well controlled by the base.
Chapter 23: Paging and Wireless Data Networking
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Pagers use:
a. the VHF band only
b. the UHF band only
c. both the VHF and UHF bands
d. the VHF band, the UHF band, and the ISM band
ANS: C
2. ISM stands for:
a. IEEE Standard Message
b. IEEE Secure Message
c. Industrial, Scientific, and Messaging

d. Industrial, Scientific, and Medical
ANS: D
3. CAPCODE is:
a. an encryption scheme used for pagers
b. an addressing scheme used for pagers
c. an error-detection scheme used for pagers
d. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers
ANS: B
4. In a one-way pager system:
a. all pages are sent from all transmitters
b. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area
c. transmitters use relatively high power
d. all of the above
ANS: D
5. POCSAG stands for:
a. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group
b. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group
c. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group
d. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group
ANS: C
6. A typical pager system does not:
a. require "handoffs"
b. allow "roaming"
c. require error detection

d. all of the above
ANS: A
7. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is:
a. 802.10
c. 802.12
b. 802.11
d. 802.13
ANS: B
8. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the:
a. VHF band
c. ISM band
b. UHF band
d. infrared band
ANS: C
9. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of:
a. CSMA/CA
c. CDMA
b. CSMA/CD
d. all of the above
ANS: A
10. BSS stands for:
a. Basic Service Set
b. Basic Service System
c. Bluetooth Service System

ANS: A
11. Bluetooth uses:
a. CDMA
b. frequency hopping
c. QPSK
d. all of the above
ANS: B
12. Bluetooth uses the:
a. VHF band
b. UHF band
c. ISM band
d. infrared band
ANS: C
13. TDD stands for:
a. Time-Division Duplex
b. Time-Delayed Duplex
c. Time Delay Difference

d. Total Distance Delay
ANS: A
14. A Bluetooth "piconet" has:
a. 2 nodes
b. 2 to 4 nodes
c. 2 to 8 nodes
d. 2 to 16 nodes
ANS: C
15. Two or more connected piconets forms a:
a. micronet
b. multinet
c. TDD net
d. scatternet
ANS: D
16. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is:
a. 10 cm to 1 meter
c. 10 cm to 100 meters
b. 10 cm to 10 meters
d. within 10 feet
ANS: B
17. IRDA stands for:
a. Infrared Data Association
b. Infrared Digital Association
c. Infrared Restricted Data Area

d. Infrared Roaming Data Area
ANS: A
18. The range of an IRDA system is:
a. 1 meter
b. 10 meters
c. 1 foot
d. 10 feet
ANS: A
19. Infrared networks:
a. cannot penetrate walls
b. can use diffused infrared beams
c. can use reflected infrared beams

d. all of the above
ANS: D
20. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is:
a. 1 meter
c. several hundred meters
b. several meters
d. several thousand meters.
ANS: D
COMPLETION
1. Each pager has a unique address called a ____________________.
ANS: capcode
2. Many pagers can share a frequency using ____________________.
ANS: TDMA
3. The POCSAG was devised by the British ____________________ Office.
ANS: Post
4. A POCSAG message uses a ____________________-bit error correction code.
ANS: 10
5. IEEE ____________________ covers wireless LANs.
ANS: 802.11
6. The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of ____________________ for wireless LANs.
ANS: 1 watt
7. Bluetooth uses the ____________________ band.
ANS: ISM
8. A network of 2 to 8 Bluetooth devices is called a ____________________.
ANS: piconet
9. A Bluetooth scatternet consists of 2 or more ____________________.
ANS: piconets
10. An IRDA system is deliberately restricted to a range of ____________________.
ANS: 1 meter
Chapter 24: Fiber Optics
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Compared to the core, the index of refraction of the cladding must be:
a. the same
c. less
b. greater
d. doesn't have an index of refraction
ANS: C
2. Fiber-optic cables do not:
a. carry current
b. cause crosstalk
c. generate EMI
d. all of the above
ANS: D
3. Single-mode fiber is made from:
a. glass
b. plastic
c. both a and b
ANS: A
4. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used:
a. in an explosive environment
b. to connect a transmitter to an antenna
c. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard
ANS: B
5. A single-mode cable does not suffer from:
a. modal dispersion
b. chromatic dispersion
c. waveguide dispersion
d. all of the above
ANS: A
6. Scattering causes:
a. loss
b. dispersion
c. intersymbol interference
d. all of the above
ANS: A
7. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about:
a. 40 dB per km
c. 0.4 dB per km
b. 4 db per km
d. zero loss
ANS: C
8. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about:
a. 0.02 dB
c. 1 dB
b. 0.2 db
d. 3 dB
ANS: A
9. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about:
a. 0.02 dB
c. 1 dB
b. 0.2 db
d. 3 dB
ANS: B
10. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector:
a. ST
c. SMA
b. SC
d. all of the above
ANS: D
11. The quantum of light is called:
a. an erg
b. an e-v
c. a photon
d. a phonon
ANS: C
12. LASER stands for:
a. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation
b. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
c. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays
d. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays
ANS: B
13. APD stands for:
a. Avalanche Photodiode
b. Advanced Photodiode
c. Avalanche Photo Detector

d. Advanced Photo Detector
ANS: A
14. In a PIN diode, leakage current in the absence of light is called:
a. baseline current
c. dark current
b. zero-point current
d. E-H current
ANS: C
15. For a light detector, responsivity is measured in:
a. amps per watt
c. mA per joule
b. W per amp
d. sec per W
ANS: A
COMPLETION
1. In the core, the angle of incidence equals the angle of ____________________.
ANS: reflection
2. The core is surrounded by the ____________________.

ANS: cladding
3. The ____________________ angle is where refraction changes to reflection.
ANS: critical
4. An electron-volt is a measure of ____________________.
ANS: energy
5. The numerical aperture is the ____________________ of the angle of acceptance.
ANS: sine
6. Optical fiber relies on total ____________________ reflection.
ANS: internal
7. Chromatic dispersion is also called ____________________ dispersion.
ANS: intramodal
8. With optical fiber, ____________________ light is more common than visible light.
ANS: infrared
9. In multimode fiber, ____________________ index has less dispersion than step index.
ANS: graded
10. For laser diodes, the term ____________________ is used instead of bandwidth.
ANS: linewidth
11. Dispersion can be expressed in units of ____________________ rather than bandwidth.
ANS: time
12. ____________________ interference is when one pulse merges with the next pulse.
ANS: Intersymbol
13. The optical fiber is free to move around in a ____________________ cable.
ANS: loose-tube
14. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a ____________________ cable.
ANS: tight-buffer
15. A ____________________ is a short length of fiber that carries the light away from the source.
ANS: pigtail
16. Good connections are more critical with ____________________-mode fiber.
ANS: single
17. A ____________________ diode is the usual light source for single-mode cable.
ANS: laser
18. The quantum of light is called the ____________________.
ANS: photon
19. A ____________________ diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable.
ANS: PIN
20. For safety, you should never ____________________ at the end of an optical fiber unless you know it is
not connected to a light source.
ANS: look
Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. FDDI stands for:
a. Fiber Digital Data Interface
b. Fiber Distributed Data Interface
c. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface

d. Frequency-Division Data Interface
ANS: B
2. FITL stands for:
a. Fiber In The Loop
b. Fiber Input Timing Loss
c. Frequency Input to The Loop

d. Fiber Input Timing Loop
ANS: A
3. FTTC stands for:
a. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint
b. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee
c. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable
d. Fiber To The Curb
ANS: D
4. SONET stands for:
a. Simple Optical Network
b. Standard Optical Network
c. Synchronous Optical Network

ANS: C
5. DWDM stands for:
a. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation
b. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation
c. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation
d. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing
ANS: D
6. A Soliton is a:
a. defect in the glass
b. type of particle
c. type of pulse
d. type of optical network
ANS: C
7. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called:
a. bit stuffing
c. SDH
b. bit-synch
d. WDM
ANS: A
8. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called:
a. gain margin
c. excess gain
b. system margin
d. overdrive
ANS: B
9. Typically, repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to:
a. 1000 miles
c. 100 km
b. 100 miles
d. 10 km
ANS: C
10. In SONET, OC-1 stands for:
a. Optical Carrier level one
b. Optical Coupler unidirectional
c. Optical Channel one

d. Optical Cable type 1
ANS: A
11. In SONET, STS stands for:
a. Synchronous Transport Signal
b. Synchronous Transport System
c. Synchronous Transmission Signal

d. Synchronous Transmission System
ANS: A
12. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is:
a. FDDI
c. gigabit Ethernet
b. high-speed Ethernet
d. all of the above
ANS: D
13. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is:
a. common
b. experimental
c. obsolete
d. not possible
ANS: B
14. OTDR stands for:
a. Optical Time-Delay Response
b. Optical Timing Delay Requirement
c. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer

d. Optical Time-Division Relay
ANS: C
15. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called:
a. FDDI
c. FITL
b. FTTC
d. SONET
ANS: B
COMPLETION
1. FTTC stands for Fiber To The ____________________.
ANS: Curb
2. FITL stands for Fiber In The ____________________.
ANS: Loop
3. SDH stands for Synchronous Data ____________________.
ANS: Hierarchy
4. WDM stands for ____________________-division multiplexing.
ANS: Wavelength
5. SONET stands for ____________________ Optical Network.
ANS: Synchronous
6. FDDI stands for Fiber ____________________ Data Interface.
ANS: Distributed
7. Optical amplifiers use ____________________-doped glass.
ANS: erbium
8. Optical amplifiers use a ____________________ laser.
ANS: pump
9. Dense ____________________ allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable.
ANS: WDM
10. The OC-1 line rate is ____________________ Mbps.
ANS: 51.84
11. SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals.
ANS: stuffing
12. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame.
ANS: pointer
13. FDDI systems use two ____________________ rings to carry signals.
ANS: token
14. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions.
ANS: opposite
15. Each ____________________ in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater.

ANS: node
16. FDDI uses ____________________ mode cables.
ANS: multi
17. The data rate of an FDDI system is ____________________ bps.
ANS: 100 M
18. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for information
about signal routing and setup.
ANS: overhead
19. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is ____________________.
ANS: 810
20. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is ____________________.
ANS: 774
21. The number of rows in a SONET frame is ____________________.
ANS: 9
22. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________.
ANS: 4
23. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________.
ANS: 1
24. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead.
ANS: transport
25. In SONET, SPE stands for synchronous payload ____________________.
ANS: envelope
SHORT ANSWER
1. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds?
ANS:
1 MHz
2. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter, receiver, and cable each have a rise
time of 50 nanoseconds.
ANS:
86.6 nanoseconds
MULTIPLE CHOICES
QUESTIONS IN
Communications Engineering
By: S. S. Cuervo & K. L. N. Suello
400 Solved Problems
Noise
problems solved
Amplitude Modulation
problems solved
Frequency Modulation
problems solved
71
101
56
________________
Total = 400
problems solved
Encoded by:
Pante, Riel Djoshua P.
Table of Contents
Transmission Lines
problems solved
Radio Wave Propagation
problems solved
Antenna
problems solved
65
TRANSMISSION LINES
1. A parallel wire line spaced at 1.27 cm
has a diameter of 0.21 cm. what is the
characteristic impedance?
39
68
a.
b.
c.
d.
300 ohms
400 ohms
500 ohms
600 ohms
2. In a coaxial line if the inner diameter is

0.51 cm and the center conductor has a
diameter of 0.22 cm. what is the
characteristic impedance?
a. 50.1 ohms
b. 50.2 ohms
c. 50.3 ohms
d. 50.4 ohms
3. A strip line is formed using a multilayer
board (dielectric constant = 2). The
center track is 0.15 inch wide and 0.005
inch thick and the PC board first layer
thickness is 0.05 inch thick, with an
overall board thickness of twice the
single layer. What is the characteristic
impedance?
a. 14.7 ohms
b. 14.8 ohms
c. 14.9 ohms
d. 15.0 ohms
4. In an improperly loaded transmission
line, determine the power reflected from
the load if the incident power at the load
is 500 W and the reflection coefficient is
0.71.
a. 252.04 W
b. 252.05 W
c. 252.06 W
d. 252.07 W
5. In wire communications system,
calculate the return loss in dB, if the load
impedance is 600 ohms and the

characteristic impedance of the line is
300 ohms.
a.
b.
c.
d.
9.52 dB
9.53 dB
9.54 dB
9.55 dB
6. The VSWR on a loss free line of 50 ohm

characteristic impedance is 4.2.
Determine the value of the purely
resistive load impedance which is known
to be larger than 50 ohms.
a. 210 ohms
b. 211 ohms
c. 212 ohms
d. 213 ohms
7. A micro strip line is formed using a
0.095 inch thick PC board, with a
bottom ground plane and a single 0.15
inch wide, 0.008 inch thick track on the
top. What is its characteristic
impedance?
a. 72.1 ohms
b. 72.2 ohms
c. 72.3 ohms
d. 72.4 ohms
8. Determine the impedance of a balanced
2 wire with unequal diameters d1 = 12
mm and d2 = 10 mm. the spacing
between wires is 30mm.
a. 35.35 M ohms
b. 35.36 M ohms
c. 35.37 M ohms
d. 35.38 M ohms
9. For a parallel wire line, determine the
conductance if the conductivity is 200 x
10-6 S/m and the conductor diameter
spacing is 10mm.
a. 1.23mS/m
b. 1.24mS/m
c. 1.25mS/m
d. 1.26mS/m
10. What is the characteristic impedance of
an open line with conductors 4 mm in
diameter separated by 15 mm?
a. 241.52 ohms
b. 241.53 ohms
c. 241.54 ohms
d. 241.55 ohms
11. The forward power in a transmission line
is 150 W and the reverse power is 20 W.
Calculate the SWR on the line.
a. 2.13
b. 2.14
c. 2.15
d. 2.16
coaxial cable using a solid polyethylene
dielectric having a relative permeability
of 2.3, an inner conductor of 1 mm
diameter and an outer conductor of

diameter 5mm?
a. 63.4 ohms
b. 63.5 ohms
c. 63.6 ohms
d. 63.7 ohms
13. Calculate the velocity factor of a coaxial
cable used as a transmission line, with
the characteristic impedance of 50 ohms;
capacitance is 40 pF/m, and inductance
equal to 50microH/m.
a. 0.0745 ft
b. 0.0746 ft
c. 0.0747 ft
d. 0.0748 ft
14. What is the actual length in feet of a one
quarter wavelength of a coaxial cable
with a velocity of 0.69 at 40 MHz?
a. 4.23 ft
b. 4.24 ft
c. 4.25 ft
d. 4.26 ft
15. What is the actual length in feet of one
half wavelengths of a coax with velocity
factor of 0.63 at 28 MHz?
a.
b.
c.
d.
11.07 ft
11.08 ft
11.09 ft
11.10 ft
16. What is the actual length in feet of one

quarter wavelength of a coax with a
velocity factor of 0.68 at 39 MHz?
a. 5.577 ft
b. 5.576 ft
c. 5.575 ft
d. 5.574 ft
half wavelength of a coax with a
a. 11.10 ft
b. 11.11 ft
c. 11.12 ft
d. 11.13 ft
half wavelength of a coax with a
a. 11.16 ft
b. 11.17 ft
c. 11.18 ft
d. 11.19 ft
quarter wavelength of a coax with a
a. 4.05 ft
b. 4.06 ft
c. 4.07 ft
d. 4.08 ft
20. An amplifier with a 20 dB gain is
connected to another with 10 dB gains
by means of a transmission line with a

loss of 4 dB; if a signal with a power
level of 14 dBm were applied to the
system, calculate the power output.
a. 11dBm
b. 12dBm
c. 13dBm
d. 14dBm
21. An attenuator has a loss of 26 dB. If a
power of 3 W is applied to the
attenuator, find the output power.
a. 7.54mW
b. 7.55mW
c. 7.56mW
d. 7.57mW
22. What would be the approximate series
impedance of a quarter wave matching
line used to match a 600 ohms feed to
70 ohms antenna?
a. 204. 94 ohms
b. 204.95 ohms
c. 204.96 ohms
d. 204.97 ohms
23. What is the impedance of a balance 4
wire with a diameter of 0.25 cm and
spaced 2.5 cm apart using an insulator
with a dielectric constant of 2.56
a. 98 ohms
b. 99 ohms
c. 100 ohms
d. 101 ohms
single wire with diameter d = 0.25 mm
placed at the center between grounded
parallel planes separated by 1 mm apart?
The wire is held by a material with a
velocity factor of 0.75.
a. 71 ohms
b. 72 ohms
c. 73 ohms
d. 75 ohms
25. What is the phase coefficient of a
transmission line at the frequency of 10
MHz if the velocity of propagation is 2.5
x 108m/s?
a. 0.25rad/m
b. 0.26rad/m
c. 0.27rad/m
d. 0.28rad/m
26. Determine the conductance of a two wire
open line with the following parameters;
D = 4 in; d = 0.1 in. and p = 2.6 x108
ohms-m.
a. 2.75 x 10-9 S/m
b. 2.76 x 10-9 S/m
c. 2.77 x 10-9 S/m
d. 2.78 x 10-9 S/m
27. What is the input impedance of a
transmission line if its characteristic
impedance is 300 ohms and the load is
600 ohms? Assume a quarter wavelength

sections only.
impedance is 52 ohms and the

capacitance is 75pF/m.
a. 149 ohms
b. 150 ohms
c. 151 ohms
d. 152 ohms
28. Determine the standing wave ratio of a
300 ohms line whose load is 400 + j150
ohms.
a. 1.013uH
b. 1.014uH
c. 1.015uH
d. 1.016uH
32. An open wire transmission line with a 2
mm diameter each separated by 12 mm.
calculate the characteristic impedance.
a. 1.67
b. 1.68
c. 1.69
d. 1.70
29. What proportion of the incident power is
reflected back for the load for a 75 ohms
line terminated with ZL = 50 j25 ohms.
a. 297 ohms
b. 298 ohms
c. 299 ohms
d. 300 ohms
33. A coaxial cable with inner diameter of 3
mm and an outer diameter of 9 mm.
determine the characteristic impedance if
the dielectric is polyethylene having ER
= 2.3.
a. 7.82%
b. 7.83%
c. 7.84%
d. 7.85%
30. What is the attenuation of a 50 ohms
coaxial cable if it has a resistance of
0.121 ohms/m?
a. 1.21 x10-3Np/m
b. 1.22 x10-3Np/m
c. 1.23 x10-3Np/m
d. 1.24 x10-3Np/m
31. Find the inductance of a 5 meter length
transmission line if its characteristic
a. 43.2 ohms
b. 43.3 ohms
c. 43.4 ohms
d. 43.5 ohms
34. A coaxial transmission line uses Teflon
as dielectric. What is the propagation
velocity if the signal?
a.
b.
c.
d.
207 x 106 m/s

208 x 106 m/s
209 x 106 m/s
210 x 106 m/s
35. A 530 MHz signal is propagating along

a RG 8/u coaxial cable with a velocity
factor 0.66. If a 75 degree phase shift is
needed, what is the length if the
transmission line?
a. 7.6 cm
b. 7.7 cm
c. 7.8 cm
d. 7.9 cm
36. Calculate the SWR of the line if the
characteristic impedance of the line is 75
ohms and is terminated by 50 ohms.
a. 1.4
b. 1.5
c. 1.6
d. 1.7
37. A transmitter sends a 5 W of power to a
75 ohms line. Suppose the transmitter
and the line is matched but the load is
not. Determine the power absorbed by
the reflection is 0.75.
a. 2.1821 W
b. 2.1822 W
c. 2.1823 W
d. 2.1825 W
38. A generator sends a 250 W of power
down a line. If the SWR of the line is
2.5, determine the power absorbed by
the load.
a. 204.0 W
b. 204.1 W
c. 204.2 W
d. 204.3 W
39. A 75 ohm characteristics impedance
transmission line is terminated in by a
load impedance of 120 ohms. Determine
the input impedance looking into the line
1 meter long, if the line has a velocity
factor of 0.9 and operates at a frequency
of 50 MHz.
a. 34.4 j12.2 ohms
b. 354 j12.2 ohms
c. 36. 4 j12.2 ohms
d. 37. 4 j12.2 ohms
40. A parallel tuned circuit is to be
constructed from a shorted section of
parallel wire lie. If the operating
frequency is 2.4 GHz and dielectric used
is polyethylene, what is the length of the
shorted section?
a. 2.0622 cm
b. 2.0623 cm
c. 2.0624 cm
d. 2.0625 cm
41. The transmitter has an output power of
150 W. suppose the line is 50 meters
long and perfectly matched with a loss
of 3 dB/100m, how much power is
received in the antenna?
a. 106.1 w
b. 106.2 w
c. 106.3 w
d. 106.4 w
42. TDR equipment receives the signal 250
ns after the test signal had been
transmitted. If the discontinuity of the
line is found 35 meter from the test
point, what is the velocity factor of the
line?
a. 0.933
b. 0.656
c. 0.588
d. 0.2685
43. The line has 97% velocity factor. If the
two minima are located 30 cm apart,
determine the frequency.
a. 485 MHz
b. 488 MHz
c. 478 MHz
d. 456 MHz
44. The power incident in the line is 20 W.
assuming the reflected power is 15 W
what is the SWR of the line?
a. 1.71
b. 1.75
c. 1.25
d. 1.26
45. A transmission line 90 meter long has a
characteristic impedance of 75 ohms.
The line is
connected through a 15
V dc source and 75 ohms source
resistance at time t = 0. What is the
voltage across the input immediately

after t = 0?
a. 0 and 7.5 V
b. 1 and 2.3 V
c. 45 and 29 V
d. 69 and 56V
46. A transmission line 90 meter long has a
The line is connected through a 15 V dc
source and 75 ohms source resistance at
time = 0. The voltage at the input end
changes to 10 V, with the same polarity
as before, at time t = 1.5 micro seconds.
What is the resistance that terminates the
lines?
a. 465 ohms
b. 896 ohms
c. 563 ohms
d. 150 ohms
47. A parallel wire transmission line has an
inductance of 120 nH/m and a
Calculate the capacitance of the line.
a. 2.25Pf/m
b. 1.17pF/m
c. 26.25pF/m
d. 15.89pF/m
48. A radio frequency 50 ohms transmission
line is connected to a coil with internal
resistance of 20 ohms and inductive
reactance of 5 ohms at a frequency of 10
MHz. the line is to be matched to the
load by means of a quarter wave line and
a stub that are connected across the load.
Calculate the characteristic impedance of

the quarter wave transformer.
a. 56.2 ohms
b. 32.5 ohms
c. 32.6 ohms
d. 25.3 ohms
49. An open wire line has a 3 mm diameter
separated 6 mm from each other by an
air dielectric. Calculate the characteristic
impedance of the line.
a. 555 ohms
b. 166 ohms
c. 584 ohms
d. 126 ohms
50. A radio frequency coaxial transmission
line has a characteristic impedance of 50
ohms and is connected across the
terminals of a signal generator. The
sending end voltage is 10 V. assuming
that the generator, line and the load are
matched; determine the current which
flows into the line.
a. 200 ma
b. 562 ma
c. 100 ma
d. 26 ma
51. A certain instrument measures the input
impedance of a line and gave a reading
of 1200 ohms when its far end terminals
open circuited and 300 ohms when it is
short circuited. Calculate the
characteristic impedance of the line.
a. 489 ohms
b. 600 ohms
c. 259 ohms
d. 546 ohms
52. A transmission line has an inductance of
253 nH/m and a capacitance of 56 pF/m.
if the physical length of the line is 1.5 m,
calculate its electrical length at a
frequency of 265 MHz.
a. 1.2
b. 1.4
c. 1.6
d. 1.5
53. A radio frequency transmission line has
a capacitance of 46. 8 pF/m and a phase
constant of 30 degree per meter.
Determine the inductance of the line at a
frequency of 30 MHz.
a. 148Nh/m
b. 425nH/m
c. 165nH/m
d. 125nH/m
54. The reflected current at the load of a
mismatched line is 3 mA. If the
reflection coefficient of the load is 0.7,
what is the incident current?
a. 4.3 ma
b. 1.2 ma
c. 8.2 ma
d. 1.7 ma
55. A radio frequency transmission lines has
a characteristic impedance of 75 ohms.
If the line is terminating by an aerial
with an input impedance of 72 ohms,
calculate the SWR of the line.
a. 1.04
b. 4.02
c. 6.15
d. 2.06
56. A lossless transmission line is connected
to a 10 ohms load. If the SWR = 5.
Calculate the percentage of the incident
power that is dissipated in the load.
a. 89%
b. 56%
c. 15%
d. 23%
57. The reflection coefficient on a loss free
line of 72 ohms characteristic impedance
is 60%. Calculate the load impedance
(purely resistive) and which is smaller
than 72 ohms.
a. 56 ohms
b. 18ohms
c. 45ohms
d. 12ohms
58. A radio frequency 50 ohms transmission
line is connected to a coil with an
internal resistance of 20 ohms and
inductive reactance of 5 ohms at a
frequency of 10 MHz. the line is to be
matched to the load by means of a
quarter wave line and a stub that are
connected across the load. Calculate the
reactance of the stub.
a. 56.2ohms
b. 54.2ohms
c. 83.3ohms
d. 12.2ohms
59. A lossless line has 75 ohms

characteristic impedance and is
connected to 50 ohms load. If the
sending end current of 1 mA flows into
the line. Calculate the power reflected
from the load.
a. 3uW
b. 4uW
c. 5uW
d. 6uW
60. A loss free line transmission line has an
inductance of 263.2 nH/m and a
capacitance of 46.8 pF/m. if the
generator produces a sinusoidal voltage
at 3 MHz of 2 V peak, determine the
phase change if the line is 3 meter long.
a. 23.25 degrees
b. 11.34 degrees
c. 56.12 degrees
d. 78.2 degrees
61. An AM transmitter sends a 50 W of
power into a 75 ohms lossless coaxial
cable. The input impedance of the
antenna at the feed point is 300 ohms.
How much power is radiated assuming
unity gain, no coupling loss and the
antenna is lossless?
a. 56 w
b. 87 w
c. 15 w
d. 32 w
62. A properly terminated line has a line loss
of 1 dB/120m. If the power output of the
transmitter is 100 W, how much power

reached the load 30 m away?
a. 12.21 w
b. 94.41 w
c. 26.18 w
d. 110.12 w
63. The output power of the transmitter is
100 W. how strong must the signal be at
the antenna if the antenna is connected
to a transmission line 50 meters long
with reflection coefficient of 0.4 and an
attenuation constant of 5 dB/100m?
a. 47.23 w
b. 15.12 w
c. 7893.12w
d. 154.01 w
64. A coaxial line having an impedance of
50 ohms is used in a cable TV system as
drop cable. If the maximum line voltage
are 15 V and 12 V minimum. What is
the SWR of the line?
a. 4.01
b. 1.24
c. 5.23
d. 1.25
65. An SWR meter is used to measure the
degree of mismatch on the line. The
SWR meter records 1.6 when the line is
terminated with 50 ohms and 2.2 when
the load is change to 176 ohms. What is
the characteristic impedance of the line?
a. 90 ohms
b. 100 ohms
c. 80 ohms
d. 740 ohms
RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION

1. How far away is the radio horizon of an
antenna 100 ft high?
a. 14.14 miles
b. 5.23 miles
c. 144.15 miles
d. 568.1 miles
2. What is the maximum line of sight
distance between a paging antenna 250
ft. high and a pager receiver 3.5 ft of the
ground?
a. 26 miles
b. 25 miles
c. 21 miles
d. 23 miles
3. At a certain time, the MUF for
transmissions at an angle of incidence of
75 degree is 17 MHZ. what is the critical
frequency?
a. 2.32 MHz
b. 56.2 MHz
c. 4.4 MHz
d. 10.215 MHz
4. What power density is required to
produce electric field strength of 100
volts per meter in air?
a. 26.5 W/m2
b. 56.23 W/m2
c. 14.20 W/m2
d. 15.12 W/m2
5. If the critical frequency is 10 MHz in

sky wave propagation, what is the best
frequency to use assuming 30 degree of
radiation angle?
a. 17 MHz
b. 15 MHz
c. 16 MHz
d. 12 MHz
6. In sky wave propagation, what is the
critical frequency if the maximum
number of free electrons in a certain
ionosphere later is 1.5 x1012 per cubic
meter?
a. 45 MHz
b. 79 MHz
c. 16 MHz
d. 11 MHz
7. In wave propagation, determine the
refractive index of an ionosphere layer
with 100 x 106 free electrons per cubic
meter at 5 MHz frequency.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 0.3
d. 0.99
8. What is the resultant field strength
between waves travelling in different
paths when the product of the antenna
heights above the reflecting plane is
equal to half wavelength times the total
direct distance path between the two
antennas?
a. 1 V/m
b. 2 V/m
c. 0 V/m
d. 3 V/m
9. According to the Philippine Electronics
Code, the maximum accumulated
Permissible Dose of 68 years old man
is?
a. 456rems
b. 250rems
c. 123rems
d. 320rems
10. In a VHF mobile radio system, the base
station transmits 100 W at 160 MHz
frequency using half wave dipole
antenna 20 meters above ground.
Calculate the field strength at a receiving
antenna at a height of 4 meters and a
distance of 30 km.
a. 41.78uV/m
b. 12.02uV/m
c. 157.0uV/m
d. 65.48uV/m
repeater with 450 W transmitting power
output, 4 dB feed line loss, 6 dB
duplexer loss, and 7 dB circulator loss
and feed line antenna gain of 25 dB?
a. 245.2 w
b. 1254.02 w
c. 2839.31 w
d. 15.21 w
12. A microwave transmitting antenna is
600 feet high. The receive antenna is 240
feet high. The maximum transmission
distance is?
a. 23.22 m
b. 15 m
c. 487.5m
d. 56.55 m
13. As specified by the National Committee
on Radiation Protection Measurement
(USA), what would be the maximum
accumulated permissible does to the
whole body of a 50 year old man?
a. 160rems
b. 125rems
c. 14rems
d. 102rems
14. The total power delivered to the radiator
of an isotropic antenna is 200,000 W.
determine the power density at a
distance of 100 meters.
a. 2 W/m2
b. 1.59 W/m2
c. 2 W/m2
d. 459 W/m2
15. Calculate the electric field intensity in
mill volts per meter at 30 kW from a 5
km source.
a. 189.74 mV/m
b. 456.20 mV/m
c. 14.21 mV/m
d. 158.0 mV/m
16. What is the index of refraction of a
certain substance if a light travel through
the substance at 100 meters at a time is
to 140 meters to air?
a. 2.2
b. 1.4
c. 15.2
d. 48.2
17. Determine the critical frequency value of
an HF signal if its maximum usable
frequency is 7050.50 kHz at 35 degrees
incidence.
a. 12.22 MHz
b. 5.775 MHz
c. 124.255 MHz
d. 789.02 MHz
18. Determine the effective radiated power
of 20 kW TV broadcast transmitter
whose antenna has a field gain of 2.
a. 45kW
b. 12kW
c. 65kW
d. 80kW
19. What is the free space loss, in dB,
between two microwave parabolic
antennas 38 kilometer apart operating at
7 GHz?
a. 140.89 dB
b. 12.02 dB
c. 785.1 dB
d. 201.2 dB
20. In sky wave propagation, if the critical
frequency is 25 MHz, what is the best
frequency to use? Assume radiation
angle of 45 degree.
a. 23 MHz
b. 45.2 MHz
c. 30 MHz
d. 25 MHz
21. If the maximum number of free electrons

in a certain ionosphere layer is 2 x
1012per m3, what is its critical
frequency?
a. 12.73 MHz
b. 56.2 MHz
c. 154.0 MHz
d. 21.01 MHz
22. What is the refractive index of an
ionosphere layer with 100 x 105 free
electrons per m3? Assume frequency to
be at 20 MHz
a. 1
b. 2
c. 0.99
d. 3
23. If the velocity of propagation in a certain
medium is 200 x 106, what is its
refractive index?
a. 1.2
b. 1.5
c. 1.3
d. 1.4
24. What is the propagation velocity of a
signal in a transmission line whose
inductance and capacitance are 5 micro
H/m and 20 micro F/m respectively?
a. 2.02 x 103 m/s
b. 236 x 103 m/s
c. 145 x 103 m/s
d. 100 x 103 m/s
25. AGILA satellite is located 36000 km
above the earths surface. Assuming free
space condition what is the path loss of
the signal if the operating frequency is 3

GHz?
a. 193.07 db
b. 23.2 db
c. 489 db
d. 1256.20 db
26. A certain earth station transmitter output
power is 10 kW, transmitting antenna
gain 100 dBi, receiving antenna gain 75
dBi, uplink and downlink frequency of
2.4 GHz and 2 GHz, respectively. What
is the received signal level at the
satellite?
a. 12uW
b. 125uW
c. 45uW
d. 7.71uW
27. The two half wave dipole antennas are
positioned maximum transmission and
reception of signal. If the input power at
the feed point is 150 W, what is the
voltage induced at the feed point if the
antennas are spaced 1 km apart and
operating at 126 MHz?
a. 45.21 mV
b. 65.63 mV
c. 12 mV
d. 1254.2 mV
e.
28. A mobile radio system base station is
installed 50 meters above the ground and
transmits 150 W at 54 MHz if the
transmitting antenna gain is 5.17, how
far will the receiving antenna be, if the
antenna height is 30 m and the received

field strength is 22 micro V/m.
a. 153313 m
b. 25421m
c. 125789m
d. 99856m
29. Antenna heights of transmitting and
receiving antenna are found to be 20
meters and 10 meters respectively. What
is the maximum distance of the two
antennas if troposphere transmission is
used?
a. 12.21mi
b. 45.23mi
c. 19.55 mi
d. 65.2mi
30. The antenna is beam 30 degree above
the ground for optimum transmission.
Determine the transmission range, if
ionosphere transmission is used and
virtual height is 200 km. assuming, the
earth is flat.
a. 89 km
b. 458 km
c. 564 km
d. 693 km
31. The antenna is beam 10 degree above
the ground for optimum transmission.
Determine the transmission range, if
ionosphere transmission is used and
virtual height is 200 km.
a. 1604 km
b. 5986 km
c. 2015 km
d. 6453 km
32. The signal propagates in fresh water
with an average conductivity of 2.5 S/m.
determine the attenuation coefficient if
the relative permittivity of the medium is
65 and signal frequency is 3 kHz.
a. 172.02 x10-3Np/m
b. 45 x10-3Np/m
c. 789 x10-3Np/m
d. 15 x10-3Np/m
33. A microwave radio link is installed on a
hill 100 m high above the ground. The
link is 10 km from the ground station, is
set to transmit 10 W from a parabolic
dish having a gain of 3000 over
isotropic. Calculate the signal strength
received if the height of the ground
station is 10 m operating frequency at
250 MHz.
a. 78.1 mV/m
b. 99.34 mV/m
c. 45 mV/m
d. 56.23 mV/m
34. A VHF radio is to be established via the
ionosphere. Assuming the earth is flat
with the critical frequency of 5 MHz, the
angle of elevation is 45 degree.
Calculate the optimum working
frequency.
a. 8 MHz
b. 5 MHz
c. 6 MHz
d. 56 MHz
35. An unknown medium was used in

communication system. If the
characteristic impedance of that medium
is 150 ohms, what is the relative
permittivity?
a. 5.23
b. 20.51
c. 2.51
d. 2.54
36. A shortwave transmitter uses sky wave
propagation. What is the angle of
incidence if the MUF is 19 MHz and the
critical frequency is 5 MHz?
a. 45.2
b. 15.36
c. 74.7
d. 15.25
37. What is the critical angle of the signal
when it passes from glass, with relative
permittivity of 7.8 into air?
a. 7.4
b. 5.2
c. 3.2
d. 51.2
38. A TV broadcast station has a
transmitting antenna located 20 m above
the ground. What is the height above the
ground of the receiving antenna 30 km
from the transmitter?
a. 4.5m
b. 7.9m
c. 65.2m
d. 15.25m
39. What is the angle of incidence of the

radio wave signal as it moves from air to
glass, if the angle of refraction is 8.2
degree?
a. 2.93
b. 6.26
c. 8.5
d. 56.2
ANTENNA
1. Two half wave dipole antennas are
positioned for optimum transmission
and reception. Calculate the open
circuit voltage induced in one
lambda over 2 dipole when 20 W of
power at 250 MHz is radiated from
another lambda over 2 dipole 100 km
away.
a. 119.32uV
b. 45.25uV
c. 78.2uV
d. 89uV
2. For an antenna in a form of a linear
conductor or an array of conductors
calculate the effective length at 3
MHz.
a. 56.2 m
b. 23.5 m
c. 31.83 m
d. 56.3 m
3. To minimize interference, a 500
MHz dish needs to have a 1 degree
beam width. What is the
corresponding gain in dB?
a. 56 db
4.
5.
6.
7.
b. 45.2 db
c. 48.2 db
d. 44.7 db
A dish designed for operation at 150
MHz is operated at twice that
frequency. By what factor do gain
change?
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
e. 1
What is the power gain in dB of a
uniformly illuminated parabolic
reflector whose half power beam
width is 3 degrees?
a. 45.2 db
b. 33.5 db
c. 56.5 db
d. 783db
In aperture antennas for microwave
communications, what is the aperture
number if the angular aperture is 55
degree?
a. 0.48
b. 5.2
c. 48.2
d. 12.2
What is the effective area of a
Hertzian dipole antenna for unity
efficiency at 3 MHz?
a. 1190 m2
b. 236 m2
c. 486 m2
d. 1154 m2
8. For an antenna in a form of a linear
conductor, what is the effe3ctive
length at 10.5 MHz?
a. 5.05
b. 2.03
c. 90.3
d. 9.09
9. A certain antenna has a gain of 7 dB
with respect to an isotropic radiator.
What is the effective area if it
operates at 200 MHZ?
a. 0.897 m2
b. 12 m2
c. 0.5 m2
d. 0.65 m2
10. Determine the gain of an antenna
with respect to a dipole if its gain
with respect to isotropic is 50 dBi.
a. 4.5 dB
b. 47.86 dB
c. 45.25 dB
d. 96.2 dB
11. If an antenna has a length of 0.125
lambdas then what is the radiation
resistance?
a. 12.34 ohms
b. 78 ohms
c. 14.23 ohms
d. 56.2 ohms
12. What is the horizontal beam width of
a pyramidal horn antenna if its width
is one wave length?
a. 78
b. 23
c. 80
d. 14
13. At 2 MHz, what is the effective area
of the Hertzian dipole for unity
efficiency?
a. 2677.5 m2
b. 45.25 m2
c. 7855.2 m2
d. 5699 m2
14. A helical has the following
dimensions; pitch is 1/3 wavelength;
diameter is wavelength and turns
is 27. What is the gain in dB?
a. 45.2 dB
b. 5603 dB
c. 59.2 dB
d. 19.2 dB
15. What is the phase separation of two
antennas 3/8 wavelengths apart?
a. 45
b. 56
c. 135
d. 270
16. A 400 feet antenna is to be operated
at 6200 kHz. What is the wavelength
at this frequency?
a. 48.39m
b. 45.26m
c. 23.56m
d. 15.26m
17. A microwave communications uses
plane reflectors as passive repeaters.
The diameter of the parabolic
antenna is 18 feet while the effective

area is 310 ft2. Determine the
reflector coupling factor.
a. 0.5
b. 0.6
c. 0.9
d. 0.91
18. A TVRO installation for use with a
C- band satellite has a diameter of
about 3.5 meters and an efficiency of
60%. Calculate its beam width.
a. 4.2
b. 1.5
c. 2.3
d. 5.2
19. A 500 kHz antenna radiates 500 W
of power. The same antenna
produces field strength equal to 1.5
mV/m. if the power delivered by the
antenna is increased to 1 kW, what
would be the expected field
intensity?
a. 2.12 mV/m
b. 45 mV/m
c. 3.13 mV/m
d. 5.2 mV/m
20. What is the effective radiated power
of a repeater with 250 W
transmitting power output, 3 dB feed
line loss, 4 dB duplexer loss, 5 dB
circulator loss and feed line antenna
gain of 20 dB?
a. 456.2w
b. 1577.61w
c. 4599.2w
d. 7853.2w
21. What is the length in feet of an
antenna wire for 5 MHz if the
antenna is 3.5 waves in length?
a. 688.8 ft
b. 563.23 ft
c. 865.23ft
d. 485.21ft
22. If the antenna current increases 3.4
times, how much does the radiated
power increase?
a. 45.2
b. 11.56
c. 89.2
d. 4.2
23. Determine the effective radiated
power of a transmitter if the input
power to the final amplifier of 370
W with 60% efficiency if the field
gain of the antenna is 1.3, assuming
100% transmission line efficiency.
a. 452.1 W
b. 123.2W
c. 784.6W
d. 375.18W
24. The transmitting antenna has a gain
of 10 dB, and power output of 6000
W. determine the effective radiated
power.
a. 30000W
b. 40000W
c. 50000W
d. 60000W
25. What is the approximate length of a

half wave dipole antenna radiating at
6450 kHz?
a. 72.5 ft
b. 45.3ft
c. 45.8ft
d. 78.2 ft
26. Determine the approximate length of
a simple whip quarter wave antenna
at UHF frequency of 450.25 MHz.
a. 0.35 ft
b. 0.15ft
c. 0.89ft
d. 0.52ft
27. What is the length if a simple quarter
wave antenna using a VHF
frequency of 150. 55 MHz?
a. 1.55 ft
b. 2.63ft
c. 4.25ft
d. 7.23ft
28. Find the approximate width of a
pyramidal horn antenna that will
operate at 10000 MHz intended to
have a beam width 10 degree.
a. 26cm
b. 24cm
c. 45cm
d. 78cm
29. Determine the gain of a 6 ft
parabolic dish operating at 1800
MHZ.
a. 45.12dB
b. 28.17dB
c. 12.5dB
d. 32.02dB
30. A dipole antenna requires to be feed
with 20 kW of power to produce a
given signal strength to a particular
distant point. If the addition of a
reflector makes the same field
strength available with an input
power of 11 kW. What is the gain in
dB obtained by the use of the
reflector?
a. 8.5 dB
b. 4.6 dB
c. 2.6 dB
d. 1.6 dB
31. What is the gain, in dB of a helical
antenna with diameter of lambda
over 3, 10 turns at pitch of lambda
over 4, used at 100 MHz?
a. 18.2dB
b. 16.1dB
c. 52.3dB
d. 17.6dB
32. The frequency of operation antenna
cut to length of 3.4 m.
a. 44.12 MHz
b. 45.2 MHz
c. 78.2 MHz
d. 56.8 MHz
33. What is the effective radiated power
of a repeater with 200 W
transmitting power output, 2 dB feed
line loss, 2 dB duplexer loss, and 3
dB circulator los and feed line

antenna gain of 10 dB?
a. 458 W
b. 398W
c. 896W
d. 126W
34. Determine the dB gain of a receiving
antenna which delivers a microvolt
antenna which delivers a microvolt
signal to a transmission line over that
of an antenna that delivers a 2 micro
volt signal under identical
circumstances.
a. -7dB
b. -8dB
c. -9dB
d. -6dB
35. The actual length of the Marconi
antenna used in AM transmitter is 34
m. what is the operating frequency of
the transmitter, if the velocity factor
is 0.9?
a. 5.2 MHz
b. 1.98 MHz
c. 4.2 MHz
d. 3.2 MHz
36. What is the ohmic resistance of the
antenna, if the efficiency of the
antenna is 0.96 and the radiation
resistance is 72 ohms?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
37. What is the gain of a half wave

dipole antenna if the antenna has an
efficiency of 92%?
a. 4.2
b. 1.3
c. 1.6
d. 1.51
38. The output power of an FM
transmitter is 25 W. if the gain of the
antenna referred to isotropic is 50,
what is the ERP of the antenna?
a. 85.23dBw
b. 45.23dBw
c. 89.5dBw
d. 28.83dBw
39. A satellite tracking device uses a
helical antenna that is operating at
1.2 GHz. If the optimum diameter of
the antenna is 8 mc and 10 turns,
what is the gain of the antenna?
a. 42.13dB
b. 15.78dB
c. 15.6dB
d. 15.89dB
40. A helical shape antenna with eight
turns is used to track satellite that is
operating at 1.2 Ghz. If the spacing
for the antennas is 10 cm, what is the
beam width of the antenna?
a. 28.9
b. 56.2
c. 65.3
d. 21.3
41. A certain antenna with twelve turns

is used to operate at a frequency of
1.2 GHz. What is the total length of
the antenna?
a. 75 cm
b. 56cm
c. 23cm
d. 14cm
42. An earth satellite station needed an
antenna that can amplify 2500 times
bigger than the input signal. If the
engineers assigned agreed to build an
antenna with parabolic reflector, and
operates at 3.4 GHz, what is its
diameter?
a. 452 cm
b. 120cm
c. 180cm
d. 5620cm
43. Calculate the operating frequency of
a half wave dipole if the actual
length is 3.5 meter.
a. 40.7MHz
b. 21.3 MHz
c. 56.2 MHz
d. 58.1 MHz
44. Calculate the actual length of a half
wave dipole operating at a frequency
of 67.25 MHz.
a. 4.2m
b. 1.2m
c. 3.1m
d. 2.12m
45. An antenna with a radiation

resistance of 50 ohms and a loss
resistance of 3 ohms receives 150
watts of power from a transmitter.
How much power is radiated into
space?
a. 141.51W
b. 235.21W
c. 563.25W
d. 612.35W
46. An antenna with a radiation
resistance of 75 ohms and a loss
resistance of 5 ohms, receives a 150
watts of power from a transmitter.
How much power is wasted?
a. 56.2w
b. 5.35w
c. 154.2w
d. 9.375w
47. What is the efficiency of the antenna
if the radiation resistance is 72 ohms
and the loss resistance is 2 ohms?
a. 89.2%
b. 97.3%
c. 56.2%
d. 100%
48. A half wave dipole with a gain of
2.14 dBi is fed, by means of lossless,
matched line by a 25 watts
transmitter. What is the electric field
strength of the signal measured 15
km from the antenna in free space in
the direction of maximum radiation?
a. 2.34 mV/m
b. 5.23 mV/m
c. 4.56 mV/m
d. 45.26 mV/m
49. A transmitter supplied 125 watts of
power to an antenna with an
efficiency of 95%. What is the power
density measured at a distance of 30
km from the antenna in the direction
of maximum radiation? Assume the
transmission line is lossless and
perfectly matched.
a. 10.5nW/m2
b. 11.2nW/m2
c. 21.02nW/m2
d. 13.23nW/m2
50. A dipole antenna is designed to have
94% efficiency. Determine the EIRP
of this antenna if it is fed by a 50
watts transmitter.
a. 14.52dbw
b. 16.72dbw
c. 15.72dbw
d. 18.72dbw
51. Determine the actual length of a
Marconi antenna operating at a
frequency of 1625 kHz.
a. 42.85m
b. 41.85m
c. 43.85m
d. 44.85m
52. A parabolic antenna used in the
satellite earth station has a beam
width of 3 degree. If the antenna is
operating at a frequency of 14 GHz,
what is the minimum diameter of the

antenna?
a. 0.5m
b. 0.6m
c. 0.2m
d. 0.3m
satellite earth station has beam width
of 3 degree. What is the gain of the
antenna if the antenna efficiency is
85%?
a. 4256
b. 4587
c. 4567
d. 1546
satellite earth station has a beam
width of 3 degree. Calculate the
effective area of a 3 m dish with an
illumination efficiency of 0.7 at 3
GHz.
a. 5.95m2
b. 6.95 m2
c. 4.95 m2
d. 8.95 m2
55. The signal field strength 10 km from
the Yagi antenna in the optimum
direction is 12 mV/m, and 180
degrees from the optimum direction
at the same distance the field
strength is reduced to 2 mV/m. what
is the front to back ratio of the
antenna?
a. 14.6dB
b. 15.6dB
c. 17.6dB
d. 18.6dB
56. A Yagi antenna must be fed with 5
kW of power to produce the same
field strength at a given point as that
of a half wave dipole antenna fed
with 10 kW of power. Determine the
gain of the Yagi antenna relative to
isotropic.
a. 4.14dB
b. 3.14dB
c. 5.14dB
d. 6.14dB
57. Two antennas are fed with equal
power. If the power density
measured of the antenna under test is
2 micro W/m2 and 8 micro W/m2 for
the standard antenna. What is the
gain of the antenna under test
referred to dipole if the gain of the
standard antenna is 30 dBi?
a. 20.86
b. 19.86
c. 21.86
d. 22.86
58. A Yagi antenna with front to back
ratio of 10 dB radiates power of 10
watts in the opposite direction.
Determine the power output of the
transmitter, if the gain of the antenna
is 10 dBi?
a. 8W
b. 9W
c. 1W
d. 10W
59. The power radiated on a dipole is 2
W. if the input power to the antenna
is 2.6 W and the current fed is 2 A,
calculate the ohmic resistance of the
dipole.
a. 0.11 ohms
b. 1.2 ohms
c. 0.16 ohms
d. 0.15 ohms
60. The power supplied to the antenna is
5 kW. If the efficiency of the dipole
is 0.7, determine the power loss of
the antenna.
a. 2.5kW
b. 3.2kW
c. 6.1kW
d. 1.5kW
61. A half wave dipole is designed to
intercept maximum power at 300
MHz. calculate the effective aperture
of a half wave dipole.
a. 0.16 m2
b. 0.13 m2
c. 0.12 m2
d. 0.15m2
62. A vertical whip antenna is located in
field strength of 7 mV/m. if the
effective length of the antenna is 1
m. calculate the voltage induced into
the antenna.
a. 7mV
b. 5mV
c. 6mV
d. 9mV
63. An aerial that is mounted vertically
is operating at 3 MHz is 100 m high.
It carries a current that varies linearly
from a maximum of 10 A at the base
to 0 A to the top. Determine the
effective height of the aerial.
a. 200m
b. 300m
c. 100m
d. 400m
64. A half wave dipole requires to be fed
with 10 kW of power to produce 2
mV/m signal strength 5 km from the
antenna. The field strength is
measured again and the result is the
same, but this time a reflector is
added to the antenna and the input
power is only 3 kW. What is the gain
of the antenna referred to isotropic
with the additional reflector?
a. 5.37dB
b. 6.37dB
c. 98.37dB
d. 7.37dB
65. An antenna wit parabolic dish
reflector has a beam width of 2
degrees and a gain of 30 dBi.
Calculate the power density at a
range of 5 km at an angel of 1 degree
to the direction of maximum
radiation if the power radiated is 1.8
W.
a. 5.86uW/m2
b. 2.86uW/m2
c. 9.86uW/m2
d. 4.86uW/m2
66. A half wave dipole antenna is used
to operate at 54 MHz. considering
end effect, what is the effective area
of the antenna?
a. 5.64 m2
b. 4.64 m2
c. 9.64 m2
d. 3.64m2
67. A helical antenna is used to track
satellites in space. If the antenna
consists of 15 turns, spacing 15 cm,
and diameter 19.1 m, what is the
operating frequency of the antenna to
transmit the signal efficiently?
a. 500 MHz
b. 400 MHz
c. 300 MHz
d. 200MHz
68. A satellite earth station uses an
antenna with parabolic reflector that
has a gain of 30 dBi at 3.2 GHz.
What is its gain if the operating
frequency is changed to 21.5 GHz,
assuming the other parameters
remain the same?
a. 56.55dBi
b. 59.55dBi
c. 58.55dBi
d. 46.55dBi
NOISE
1. The signal to noise ratio is 30 dB at
the input to an amplifier and 27.3 dB
at the output. What is the noise
temperature of the amplifier?
a. 250.1K
b. 249.4K
c. 249.5K
d. 249.6K
2. A 3 stage amplifier has the following
power gains and noise figures for
each stage; Stage 1, power gain = 10,
noise figure = 3; stage 2, power gain
= 20, noise figure = 4, stage 3, power
gain = 30, noise figure = 5. Calculate
the total noise figure.
a. 5.1dB
b. 5.2dB
c. 5.3dB
d. 5.4dB
3. An amplifier operating over a 4 MHz
bandwidth has a 100 ohms input
resistance. It is operating 27 degree
Celsius, has a voltage gain of 200
and has input signal of 5 micro Vrms.
Determine rms output noise signal?
a. 512uV
b. 514uV
c. 523uV
d. 515uV
4. Determine the noise current for a
diode with a forward bias of 1 mA
over a 100 kHz bandwidth?
a. 0.0057uA
5.
6.
7.
8.
b. 0.0056uA
c. 0.0024uA
d. 0.0051uA
A transistor amplifier has a measured
S/N power of 10 at its input and 5 at
its output. Calculate the transistors
NF.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Two resistors, 5 kilo ohms and 20
kilo ohms are at 27 degree Celsius.
Calculate the thermal noise voltage
for a 10 kHz bandwidth if they are in
series.
a. 2.031uV
b. 2.056uV
c. 2.045uV
d. 2.035uV
Calculate the thermal noise voltage
of the two resistors, 5 kilo ohms and
20 kilo ohms at 27 degree Celsius if
they are connected in parallel.
a. 0.91uV
b. 0.54uV
c. 0.81uV
d. 0.56uV
Calculate the overall noise figure
referred to the input of a mixer stage
that has a noise figure if 15 dB
preceded by an amplifier that has a
noise figure of 6 dB and an available
power gain of 20 dB
a. 6.32dB
b. 5.32dB
c. 9dB
d. 4.32dB
9. What is the input equivalent signal to
noise ratio for a receiver with a noise
figure of 15 dB and an output signal
noise to ratio 60 dB?
a. 45dB
b. 65dB
c. 85dB
d. 75dB
10. What is the noise level in a voice
channel if the S/N is 71.25 dB?
Express noise level in pWpO?
a. 45
b. 12
c. 46
d. 42
11. If the occupied baseband of white
noise test signal is 60 4028 kHz.
Determine the bandwidth ratio.
a. 35.2dB
b. 31.07dB
c. 38.1dB
d. 36.2dB
12. Calculate the equivalent noise
temperature of a receiver with a
noise figure of 1.5 dB.
a. 119.64K
b. 118.65K
c. 112.63K
d. 118.26K
13. What is the overall signal to noise

ratio in dB of a tandem connection
with the following individual signal
to noise ratio. First stage = 10 dB;
second stage = 15 dB and third stage
= 20 dB?
a. 5.84dB
b. 8.48dB
c. 5.98dB
d. 5.12dB
14. If all the stages in a tandem circuit
have identical signal to noise of 15
dB, then what is the overall signal to
noise ratio in dB of the connection
when there are 5 stages?
a. 8.05dB
b. 8.06dB
c. 8.01dB
d. 8.02dB
15. In psophometric noise measurement,
what is the psophometric noise
power in pWp if the psophometer
reads 10 mV of noise voltage?
a. 0.167x10-18
b. 0.168x10-18
c. 0.166x10-18
d. 0.165x10-18
16. Determine the effective noise
temperature of an antenna system at
the far end of the feed line if the
effective sky noise temperature is
200 K and antenna and feed line loss
is 10.
a. 289K
b. 288K
c. 282K
d. 281K
bandwidth has an 80 ohms input
resistance. It is operating at 27
degree Celsius, has a voltage gain of
200 and an input signal of 6 micro
Vrms. Calculate the output rms noise.
a. 326.6uV
b. 327.6uV
c. 325.6uV
d. 324.6uV
bandwidth has a 100 ohm input
resistance. It is operating at 27
degrees Celsius, has a voltage gain
of 200 and an input signal of 6 micro
Vrms. Calculate the output rms
noise.
a. 573.5uV
b. 574.5uV
c. 575.5uV
d. 576.5uV
19. A transistor amplifier has a measured
S/N power of 100 at its input and 20
at its output. Determine the noise
figure of the transistor.
a. 6.99dB
b. 6.09dB
c. 6.9dB
d. 6.89dB
20. Convert noise factor of 4.02 to
equivalent noise temperature. Use
300 K for environmental

temperature.
a. 903 K
b. 904 K
c. 905 K
d. 906 K
21. When measuring a voice channel dB
test point level, the meter reads -76
dBm. Calculate the reading in
dBrnCO.
a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
d. 18
22. A diode generator is required to
produce 12 micro volts of noise in a
receiver with an input impedance of
75 ohms and a noise power
bandwidth of 200 kHz. Determine
the current through the diode in milli
amperes.
a. 398mA
b. 399mA
c. 400mA
d. 401mA
23. A 3 stage amplifier has stages with
the following specifications; stage 1,
power gain is 10, noise figure is 2;
stage 2, power gain is 20, noise
figure is 4, stage 3, power gain is 30,
noise figure is 5. Calculate the total
noise figure of the system, assuming
matched condition.
a. 3.65dB
b. 3.66dB
c. 3.67dB
d. 3.68dB
24. 2 resistors rated 5 ohms and 10 ohms
are connected in series and are at 27
degree Celsius. Calculate their
combined thermal noise voltage for a
10 kHz bandwidth.
a. 0.04uV
b. 0.05uV
c. 0.06uV
d. 0.07uV
25. A transistor has a measured S/N
power of 60 at its input and 19 at its
output. Determine the noise figure of
the transistor.
a. 2dB
b. 3dB
c. 4dB
d. 5dB
26. A transistor amplifier has a measured
S/N power of 80 at its input and 25
at the output. Determine the noise
figure of the transistor.
a. 5.04dB
b. 5.05dB
c. 5.06dB
d. 5.07dB
27. A satellite receiver has a noise figure
of 1.6 dB. Find its equivalent noise
temperature.
a. 132.2K
b. 131.2K
c. 130.2K
d. 129.2K
28. An amplifier with an overall gain of
20 dB is impressed with a signal
whose power level is 1 watt.
Calculate the power output in dBm.
a. 40dBm
b. 45dBm
c. 50dBm
d. 55dBm
29. The signal power of the input to an
amplifier is 100 micro W and the
noise power is 1 microW. At the
output, the signal power is 1 W and
the noise power is 40 mW. What is
the amplifier noise figure?
a. 6.01dB
b. 6.1dB
c. 6.02dB
d. 6.2dB
30. A 3 stage amplifier is to have an
overall noise temperature no greater
than 70 degree K. the overall gain of
the amplifier is to be at least 45 dB.
The amplifier is to be built by adding
a low noise first stage to an existing
amplifier with existing
characteristics as follows; stage 2 has
20 dB power gain; 3 dB noise figure.
Stage 3 has 15 dB power gain and 6
dB noise figure that the first stage
can have.
a. 0.56db
b. 0.66db
c. 0.76db
d. 0.86db
31. What is the effect on the signal to
noise ratio of a system if the
bandwidth is doubled, considering
all other parameters to remain
unchanged except the normal
thermal noise only? The S/N will be?
a.
b. 1/3
c. 2/3
d. 1/4
32. Determine the shot noise for a diode
with a forward bias of 1.40 mA over
an 80 kHz bandwidth.
a. 4.nA
b. 5.nA
c. 6.nA
d. 7.nA
33. Given a noise factor of 10, what is
the noise figure in dB?
a. 5dB
b. 10dB
c. 15dB
d. 20dB
34. Express the ratio in decibels of
power ratio 50 is to 10 Watts.
a. 6.59dB
b. 6.99dB
c. 6.79dB
d. 6.89dB
35. The resistor R1 and R2 are
connected in series at 300 degrees K
and 400 degrees K temperature
respectively. If R1 is 200 ohms, and

R2 is 300 ohms, find the power
produced at the load over a
bandwidth of 100 kHz.
a. 0.497fw
b. 0.496fw
c. 0.495fw
d. .494fw
36. If voltage change is equal to twice its
original value, what is its
corresponding change in dB?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
37. A 20000 ohms resistor is at room
temperature. Calculate the threshold
noise voltage for a bandwidth of 100
kHz.
a. 5.657uV
b. 5.658uV
c. 5.659uV
d. 5.660uV
38. 3 amplifiers are cascaded together.
Determine the total noise figure in
dB if the noise figure of each
amplifier is equal to 3 dB and the
amplifier gain is 10 dB each.
a. 3.24dB
b. 3.25dB
c. 3.26dB
d. 3.27dB
39. For an equivalent noise bandwidth of
10 MHz in a satellite system and a
noise power of 0.0280 pW,

determine the noise density in dBW
a. -205.56dBw
b. -205.59dBw
c. -205.50dBw
d. -205.53dBw
40. 2 resistors, 20 K ohms and 50 K
ohms are at ambient temperature.
Calculate for a bandwidth equal to
100 kHz, the thermal noise voltage
for the 2 resistors connected in
parallel.
a. 4.78uV
b. 4.780uV
c. 4.79uV
d. 5.90uV
41. A receiver connected to an antenna
whose resistance is 50 ohms has an
equivalent noise resistance of 30
ohms. What is the receivers noise
temperature?
a. 174.01K
b. 174.1K
c. 174K
d. 175K
42. The equivalent noise temperature of
the amplifier is 25 K. what is the
noise figure?
a. 0.36dB
b. 0.41dB
c. 0.46dB
d. 0.51dB
43. The signal in a channel is measured
to be 23 dB while noise in the same
channel is measured to be 9 dB. The

signal to noise ratio therefore is?
a. 14dB
b. 28dB
c. 42dB
d. 56dB
44. Find the noise voltage applied to the
receiver input if a 300 ohms resistor
is connected in series to a 300 ohms
antenna of a television receiver.
a. 2.70uV
b. 2.7uV
c. 2.80uV
d. 2.8uV
45. A diode noise generator produces 90
nA in a receiver with an input
impedance of 75 ohms, resistive and
a noise power bandwidth of 250
kHz. What must the current through
the diode be?
a. 100.24mA
b. 101.24mA
c. 100.25mA
d. 101.25mA
46. 2 resistors in series (R1 = 50 ohms;
T1 = 350 degree K) and (R2 = 100
ohms; T2 = 450 degree K).
Determine the total noise voltage
over a bandwidth of 120 kHz.
a. 543.4nV
b. 543.3nV
c. 643.4nV
d. 643.3nV
47. A certain company manufactures an

AM receiver with a noise
temperature of 450 degree K.
calculate the noise figure of the
receiver.
a. 4.0dB
b. 4.1dB
c. 4.2dB
d. 4.3dB
48. Calculate the noise temperature if the
input signal to noise ratio is 20 and
the output signal to noise ratio is 5.
a. 800K
b. 870K
c. 940K
d. 1010K
49. Calculate the bias current of the
diode of it produces 150 nA noise
current over a 300 kHz bandwidth.
a. 234.1mA
b. 234.01mA
c. 234.2mA
d. 234.02mA
50. Noise voltage at the input of an
amplifier is 1 micro V. what is the
signal voltage of the input signal to
noise ratio is 20 dB.
a. 10uV
b. 100uV
c. 1000uV
d. 10,000uV
51. A receiver has a noise power of 1
nW at the input of the receiver. What
would be the signal power if the

signal to noise ratio is 40 dB?
a. 5uV
b. 10uV
c. 15uV
d. 20uV
52. What would be the noise voltage
generated of a 73 ohms resistor at
room temperature over the
bandwidth of an FM channel?
a. 452.nV
b. 472.nV
c. 492.nV
d. 512.nV
53. A 3 stage amplifier in cascade has
the following parameters. Stage 1
has a gain of 5 and noise factor 2;
stage 2 has a gain of 8 and noise
factor 4; stage 3 has again of 15 and
a noise factor of 6. Find the overall
noise factor of the system.
a. 2.725
b. 2.726
c. 2.727
d. 2.728
54. What is the noise power of a resistor
at room temperature with noise
bandwidth of 2.5 MHz?
a. 10x10-15w
b. 10x10-16w
c. 10x10-17w
d. 10x10-18w
55. What is the noise voltage given that
R = 200 K ohms at a temperature of
27 degree Celsius and noise

bandwidth of 54 MHz?
a. 423.uV
b. 424.uV
c. 425.uV
d. 426.uV
56. Calculate the noise voltage generated
by 5 kilo ohms, 10 kilo ohms and 15
kilo ohms, resistors connected in
series. Given that the temperature is
25 degree Celsius, and noise
bandwidth of 75 MHz.
a. 192.4uV
b. 193.4uV
c. 194.4uV
d. 195.4uV
57. Calculate the noise voltage generated
by 3 kilo ohms, 10 kilo ohms, 21
kilo ohms, resistors connected in
parallel. Given that the temperature
is 17 degree Celsius, and noise
a. 21.3uV
b. 21.03uV
c. 22.3uV
d. 22.03uV
58. The shot noise current on a diode is
25 nA if 2.5 mA direct current is
flowing thru it. What is the effective
noise bandwidth of the diode?
a. 781.24khz
b. 781.25khz
c. 782.24khz
d. 782.25khz
59. A radio receiver uses a single

parallel tuned circuit, designed to
resonate at 1605 kHz. The Q factor
of the receiver is 50 and the channel
bandwidth is limited to 10 kHz.
What is the noise voltage of the
receiver at the input at room
temperature if the capacitance of the
tuned circuit is 20 pF?
a. 0.9uV
b. 0.8uV
c. 0.7uV
d. 0.6.uV
60. A mixer with input resistance of 300
ohms has equivalent noise resistance
of 100 ohms. What is the noise
voltage at the input when the
effective noise bandwidth is 25 kHz,
the source voltage is 2 micro V and
with internal resistance of 20 ohms?
a. 0.217uV
b. 0.218uV
c. 0.219uV
d. 0.220uV
61. In a TVRO circuit the antenna is
connected directly into the amplifier.
To match the input impedance of the
antenna and the 15 K ohms input
resistance of the amplifier a coupling
system is used with 10:1 ratio. The
amplifier has an equivalent noise
resistance of 150 kilo ohms. What is
the noise voltage seen at the
amplifiers input terminal? Given that
the effective noise bandwidth is 20

kHz at room temperature.
a. 7.0uV
b. 7.1uV
c. 7.2uV
d. 7.3uV
62. A mixer with input resistance of 200
ohms has an equivalent noise
resistance of 100 ohms. What is the
S/N at the input if the effective noise
bandwidth is 25 kHz, a source
voltage of 2 micro V and with
internal resistance of 20 ohms?
a. 18.46dB
b. 18.47dB
c. 18.48dB
d. 18.49dB
63. What is the effective noise
bandwidth of a parallel tuned circuit
with 5 kilo ohms and 250 nF?
a. 800hz
b. 600hz
c. 400hz
d. 200hz
64. What is the effective noise
bandwidth of a parallel resonant
circuit that has a Q factor of 100 and
resonant frequency of 5 MHz?
a. 78.54khz
b. 78.55khz
c. 78.56khz
d. 78.57khz
65. A parallel tuned circuit with 20 pF
tuning capacitor has an effective
noise bandwidth of 15 kHz. What is

the noise voltage across the circuit at
room temperature if the resonant
frequency is 5 MHZ and a Q factor
of 50?
a. 4.4uV
b. 4.04uV
c. 4.5uV
d. 4.05uV
66. In a TVRO circuit the antenna is
connected directly into the amplifier.
To match the input impedance of the
antenna and the 15 kilo ohms input
resistance of the amplifier a coupling
system is used. The amplifier has an
equivalent noise voltage of 7.1 micro
V at the input. Determine the
antenna EMF to produce an S/N of
30 dB if the transformer coupling has
a turns ratio of 10:1. Given that the
effective noise bandwidth is 20 kHz
at room temperature.
a. 44.8uV
b. 44.9uv
c. 44.10uV
d. 44.11uV
67. 4 telephone circuits are connected in
tandem. What is the overall S?N
ratio of each circuit has a S/N of 30
dB.
a. 12dB
b. 24dB
c. 36dB
d. 48dB
68. What is the output S/N ratio if the

noise factor is 20 and 25 dB input
S/N ratio?
a. 6324.56
b. 6325.56
c. 6326.56
d. 6327.56
69. An AM receiver with RF amplifier,
mixer and an AF amplifier has an
overall noise figure of 60. The mixer
has a noise factor of 20 and power
gain of 30, and AF amplifier has
noise factor and power gain of 30
and 50 respectively. What is the
noise factor of the RF amplifier if
their power gain is 50?
a. 59.5
b. 59.6
c. 59.7
d. 59.8
70. A TVRO parabolic dish reflector
mixer stage has a noise figure of 20
dB and is preceded by an LNB with
a power gain of 10 dB and an
equivalent noise temperature of 60
degree K. what is the effective noise
temperature at the input of LNB?
a. 2921K
b. 2931K
c. 2941K
d. 2951K
71. In a microwave communications
system, determine the noise power in
dBm for an equivalent noise

a. -103.98dBm
b. -103.97dBm
c. -103.96dBm
d. -103.95dBm
AMPLITUDE MODULATION
1. Determine the power saving in
percent when the carrier is
suppressed in an AM signal
modulated to 80%.
a. 75.76%
b. 75.77%
c. 75.78%
d. 75.79%
2. Find the percent of modulation of an
AM signal if 8 V signal carrier is
modulated by 3 different frequencies
with amplitude 1 V, 2 V and 3 V
a. 46.8%
b. 46.9%
c. 47.8%
d. 47.9%
3. An SSB transmitter radiates 100 W
in a 75 ohms load. The carrier signal
is modulated by 2 tones, with
frequencies 2 kHz and 3 kHz wit
equal magnitude and only the lower
sideband is transmitted with a
suppressed carrier. What is the peak

voltage across the load?
a. 122.5V
b. 122.6V
c. 122.7V
d. 122.8V
4. An AM transmitter delivers 100 W
carrier powers, when the supplies
deliver 10 A from a 15 V. what load
impedance is required by this
amplifier in order for it to deliver the
rated power?
a. 1.24ohms
b. 1.25ohms
c. 1.26ohms
d. 1.27ohms
5. In AM, what is the sideband power
percentage assuming 100%
modulation and with carrier total
power of 100 W and 150 W
respectively.
a.
b. 1/3
c.
d. 2/3
6. An AM receiver uses a double tuned
IF transformer with coupling
constant of 1.5 kc. the quality factor
of the primary and secondary
winding is 60 and 30 respectively.
What is the bandwidth of the
transformer if the IF is 455 MHz?
a. 16.38khz
b. 16.37khz
c. 16.36khz
d. 16.35khz
7. A measure of steepness of the skirts
or the skirt selectivity of a receiver is
the shape factor. What is the shape
factor of a receiver whose 60 dB
bandwidth is 12 kHz and a 6 dB
bandwidth of 3 kHz?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
8. A 200 V without modulation and 250
V with modulation is measured
across a 50 ohms resistive load using
true RMS reading meter. What is the
overall efficiency without
modulation if the transmitter draws 1
kW of power from the ac line?
a. 60%
b. 70%
c. 80%
d. 90%
9. An Am transmission of 3 kW is
100% modulated. If it is transmitted
as an SSB signal, what would be the
power transmitted?
a. 500W
b. 1000W
c. 1500W
d. 2000W
10. The dc power supply of an SB
transmitter is 24 V. what is the
average power if the transmitter if on
voice peaks the current achieves a

maximum of 9.3 A?
a. 74.4W
b. 74.5W
c. 74.6W
d. 74.7W
11. An AM receiver is tuned to
broadcast station at 600 kHz.
Calculate the image rejection in dB,
assuming that the input filter consists
of one tuned circuit with a Q of 40.
a. 37.57dB
b. 38.57dB
c. 39.57dB
d. 40.57dB
12. An SSB system transmits a peak
envelope power of 100 W into a 75
ohms load. The carrier signal is
modulated by two tones, with
frequencies 2 kHz and 3 kHz with
equal magnitude and only the lower
sideband is transmitted with a
suppressed carrier. Determine the
average power into the load.
a. 25W
b. 50W
c. 75W
d. 100W
13. In the SSB, determine the maximum
suppression of the unwanted
sideband if the deviation from a
perfect 90 degree phase shift is 5
degree?
a. 27.2dB
b. 27.3dB
c. 27.4dB
d. 27.5dB
14. An AM transmitter has an output
power of 100 W at no modulation
with efficiency of 60%. What will be
the output power with 97%
modulation?
a. 147W
b. 148W
c. 149W
d. 150W
15. A standard AM receiver is tuned to a
station at 650 kHz. If the
intermediate frequency of the
receiver is 455 kHz, what is the
image frequency?
a. 1550khz
b. 1560khz
c. 1570khz
d. 1580khz
16. An AM signal has a carrier
frequency of 400 MHz and
amplitude if 5 Vp. It is modulated by
a sinusoidal wave with frequency of
2 kHz and peak amplitude of 2 Vp.
What are the lower and upper
sideband frequencies?
a. 300.002mhz
b. 400.002mhz
c. 500.002mhz
d. 600.002mhz
17. Given an audio power of 500 W
which will modulate an RF amplifier
to 50% modulation. Find the Dc

power input.
a. 1000W
b. 2000W
c. 3000W
d. 4000W
18. A CB transmitter supplies a total
power of 120 W to an aerial.
Suppose the carrier is amplitude
modulated to a depth of 80%, how
much power is wasted by the carrier
signal?
a. 31W
b. 61W
c. 91W
d. 121W
19. An IF transformer of a radio receiver
operates at 455 kHz. The primary
circuit has a Q of 50 and the
secondary has a Q of 40. Find the
bandwidth using the optimum
coupling factor.
a. 15.288khz
b. 30.288khz
c. 45.288khz
d. 60.288khz
20. A spectrum analyzer is used ti
measure the magnitude of a certain
signal with respect to its frequency.
Suppose the equipment shows a
carrier at 12 dBm, with two
sidebands 8 dB below the carrier,
what is the depth of modulation of
the signal?
a. 0.6
b. 0.7
c. 0.8
d. 0.9
21. Determine the modulation index of
the signal given the following
parameters. Emax = 10 Vp, Emin = 4
Vp.
a. 0.67
b. 0.68
c. 0.69
d. 0.70
22. A DSB-SC system must suppress the
carrier by 50 dB for its original value
of 10 W. To what value must the
carrier be reduced?
a. 0
b. 0.1
c. 1
d. 2
23. An SSBSC signal is modulated with
two audio tones having frequencies
of 1200 and 2700 Hz. The receiver is
mistuned so that the BFO is at
2.9993 MHz. What will be the output
frequencies of the detector if the
signal is LSB and the IF of the
receiver is 3 MHz?
a. 350hz
b. 700hz
c. 1050hz
d. 1400hz
24. A transistor has a power dissipation
rating of 30 W. assuming that the
transistor is the only element that

dissipated power in the circuit,
calculate the power an amplifier,
using this transistor, could deliver
the load if it operates as class A with
an efficiency of 30%.
a. 12.86W
b. 12.85W
c. 12.84W
d. 12.83W
25. An Am signal supplies 150 W of
carrier power when it is modulated
by a single sine wave to a depth of
70%. Suppose the total transmitted
power increases by 10% when
another sine wave simultaneously
amplitude modulates the carrier,
determine the modulation index of
the second sine wave.
a. 0.5
b. 0.4
c. 0.3
d. 0.2
26. What rms current must a wire carry
to deliver an average power if 500 W
to a 4 ohm loudspeaker?
a. 9.18A
b. 10.18A
c. 11.18A
d. 12.18A
27. A superheterodyne receiver has an IF
of 455 kHz and is experiencing
image channel interference on a
frequency of 1570 kHz. The receiver

is tuned to?
a. 200khz
b. 400khz
c. 600khz
d. 800khz
28. An AM transmitter with a 100 kW
carrier transmits 123 kW when two
tones modulated. Calculate the
modulation index of the second sine
wave if the total transmitted power is
110 when modulated by a single sine
wave.
a. 0.545
b. 0.546
c. 0.547
d. 0.548
29. When measuring the selectivity of a
receiver, you discover that a signal
level of 450 microV on an adjacent
channel is required to give the same
output as 1 microV signal on the
channel to which the receiver is
tuned. Calculate the adjacent channel
selectivity in dB.
a. 212dB
b. 159dB
c. 106dB
d. 53dB
30. A 300 V without modulation and 350
V with modulation are measure
across a 50 ohms resistive load using
true RMS reading meter. What is the
amount of power supplied in the
transmitter when modulated if the

efficiency os 60%.
a. 4083.33W
b. 8083.33W
c. 12,083.33W
d. 16,083.33W
31. A transistor RF amplifier is required
to produce 15 W of carrier power
when operating from a 12 V supply.
What is the load impedance as seen
from the collector?
a. 16.8ohms
b. 12.8ohms
c. 8.8ohms
d. 4.8ohms
32. The output of a power amplifier if an
AM transmitter is 50 W with an
efficiency of 60% and is collector
modulated. How much audio power
is required to be supplied to this
stage for 100% modulation?
a. 42.65W
b. 41.65W
c. 40.65W
d. 39.65W
33. The values of Vmax and Vmin as
read from an AM wave on an
oscilloscope are 2.6 and 0.29
respectively. Determine the
percentage modulation.
a. 79.9%
b. 69.9%
c. 59.9%
d. 49.9%
34. A 3 stages RF amplifier of an AM

transmitter has an output power of 25
kW. What is the power supplied at
the second stage if the gain of the
last stage is 10 dB?
a. 2.5W
b. 5W
c. 7.5W
d. 10W
35. An AM transmitter supplies a 10 kW
of carrier power to a 50 ohms load. It
operates at a carrier frequency of 1.2
MHz and is 85% modulated by a 3
MHz sine wave. Calculate the RMS
voltage of the signal.
a. 825V
b. 1650V
c. 2475V
d. 3300V
36. An AM signal has a modulation
carrier power if 10 watts. The
percentage of modulation is 90%.
The total sideband power is?
a. 4.05W
b. 4.06W
c. 4.07W
d. 4.08W
37. A class C amplifier has a carrier
output power of 100 W and an
efficiency of 75%, when operating
from a 20 V supply. If the audio
power is 25 W, what is the
impedance seen looking into the
power amplifier from the modulation

transformer secondary?
a. 8
b. 16
c. 24
d. 32
38. An AM signal has the following
characteristics; carrier frequency =
150 MHz; modulating frequency = 3
MHz; peak carrier voltage = 40 V
and peak modulation voltage = 30 V.
calculate the peak voltage of the
lower sideband frequency.
a. 15V
b. 30V
c. 45V
d. 60V
frequency of 3 MHz and amplitude
of 3 Vpeak. What is the amplitude of
the sidebands if the modulation
index is 0.6?
a. 0.9V
b. 1.0V
c. 1.1V
d. 1.2V
40. An Am transmitter has an output
power of 30 kW. If the last stage of
the RF amplifier has a gain of 20 dB
and an efficiency of 75%, how much
current does the amplifier draw from
a 125 V supply?
a. 160mA
b. 320mA
c. 480mA
d. 640mA
41. A receiver has two uncoupled tuned
circuits before the mixer, each with a
Q of 75. The signal frequency is
100.1 MHz and IF is 10.7 MHz. if
the local oscillator uses high side
injection, what is the image rejection
ratio on dB?
a. 29.33dB
b. 29.66dB
c. 29.99dB
d. 30.33dB
42. An amplitude signal has a maximum
positive envelope voltage of 14 V
and a minimum of 2 V. what is the
total transmitted power if the carrier
power is 10 kW and suppressing one
of the sidebands?
a. 10.41kW
b. 11.41kW
c. 12.41kW
d. 13.41kW
43. The average collector current of a
transistor RF amplifier operating
class C is 250 mA. If the efficiency
of the amplifier is 50% and operating
at 50 V supply, how much audio
power is needed for 100%
modulation?
a. 3.25W
b. 6.25W
c. 9.25W
d. 12.25W
44. A radio transmitter has to operate at

a temperature of 34 degrees Celsius.
If its signal is derived from a crystal
oscillator with a temperature
coefficient of plus 1 pm per degree
centigrade and it transmits at exactly
150 MHz at 20 degrees centigrade,
find the transmitting frequency.
a. 150.0021 MHz
b. 160.0021 MHz
c. 170.0021 MHz
d. 180.0021 MHz
45. A standard AM radio can receive
signal from 565 1650 kHz. If an
AM receiver is tuned at 854 kHz,
what is the frequency of the image
signal?
a. 1564 kHz
b. 2356 kHz
c. 1764 kHz
d. 1587 kHz
46. An AM transmitter is modulated by
two sine waves at 1.5 kHz and 2.5
kHz, with modulations of 20% and
80% respectively. Calculate the
effective modulation index.
a. 0.26
b. 0.45
c. 0.84
d. 0.82
47. Calculate the power in one sideband
of an AM signal whose carrier power
is 50 watts. The unmodulated current
is 2 A while the modulated current is

2.4 A
a. 15W
b. 14W
c. 16W
d. 11 W
48. An AM broadcast transmitter has a
sideband power output of 5 kW.
Calculate the carrier power if the
modulation index is 0.5.
a. 45kW
b. 40kW
c. 56kW
d. 52kW
49. If a transmitters supplies 8 kW to the
antenna when it is unmodulated,
determine the total radiated power
when modulated at 30%.
a. 8.36kW
b. 5.23kW
c. 8.21kW
d. 2.56kW
50. An LC tuned circuit is used to detect
an AM radio frequency band ranging
from 535 to 1695 kHz. What us the
bandwidth at 1695, if its bandwidth
is 12 kHz at 535 kHz?
a. 45.65 kHz
b. 34.21 kHz
c. 21.36 kHz
d. 56.23kHz
51. A class C collector modulated
amplifier has an output carrier power
of 100 W and an efficiency of 80%.
How much audio power must be

supplied to the amplifier for 100%
modulation?
a. 62.5W
b. 26.3W
c. 59.2W
d. 12.2W
52. What is the range of the upper
sideband of an amplitude modulated
signal whose carrier is 2.5 MHz and
the intelligence component is 50 Hz
to 20 kHz?
a. 5.23 MHz
b. 2.52 MHz
c. 23.2 MHz
d. 1.23MHz
53. An SSB transmitter generates USB
signal with Vpeak = 10 V. determine
the peak envelope power across a 50
ohms load resistance.
a. 1W
b. 2W
c. 3W
d. 7W
54. CB radio wave signal is developed
using a full carrier DSB-AM. For
high fidelity, the system requires a
frequency response from 50 Hz to 15
kHz. What bandwidth would it used
to satisfy the requirement?
a. 35 kHz
b. 32 kHz
c. 30 kHz
d. 31kHz
55. The frequency response of an audio

signal that amplitude modulates the
carrier signal is 6 dB down at 2.5
kHz deom its level at 1.25 kHz.
What will be the modulation index
due to a 2.5 kHz signal with the
same signal at the input, if a 1.25
kHz signal modulates the carrier to
85%?
a. 0.236
b. 0.425
c. 12.033
d. 0.569
56. In an AM transmitter, the final RF
power amplifier is high level
modulated. The dc supply voltage is
48 V with a total current of 3.5 A.
how much AF power is required for
100% modulation?
a. 48W
b. 84W
c. 56W
d. 23W
57. An AM transmitter supplies of 20
kW of carrier power to a 75 ohms
load. Calculate the maximum
instantaneous voltage the will be
developed across the load.
a. 1546V
b. 5642V
c. 1722V
d. 1732V
58. What is the peak envelope power of
a SSB transmitter that produces a
peak to peak voltage of 178 V across

a 75 ohms antenna load?
a. 56.2W
b. 52.8W
c. 62.5W
d. 63.2W
59. What oscillator frequency is needed
to heterodyne 626 kHZ up to 3.58
MHz?
a. 4.206 MHz
b. 2.036 MHz
c. 5.021 MHz
d. 3.021MHz
60. An SSB system requires 100 W of
transmitted power fir reliable
transmission. How much power is
needed if DSBFC is used instead of
SSB?
a. 500W
b. 600W
c. 700W
d. 800W
61. A carrier signal simultaneously
modulated by two sine waves at 1.5
kHz and 0.8 kHz with modulation
index 0.3 and 0.6 respectively.
Calculate the total modulation index.
a. 0.32
b. 0.67
c. 0.25
d. 0.87
62. A CB transmitter supplies a total
power of 200 W to an aerial.
Supposed the carrier is modulated to
a depth of 70% using DSBFC AM.

By how much will the signal to noise
ratio be improved if the modulation
technique used is SSB instead of
DSBFC AM?
a. 10dB
b. 11dB
c. 12dB
d. 13dB
63. What is the power in one sideband of
an AM signal whose carrier is 300
W, with 80% modulation?
a. 45W
b. 46W
c. 48W
d. 12W
64. A filter type SSB generator uses an
ideal band pass filter with a center
frequency of 5 MHz and a bandwidth
of 2.7 kHz. What frequency should
be used for the carrier oscillator if
the generator is to produce a USB
signal with a baseband frequency
response having a lower limit of 280
Hz?
a. 4.99837 MHz
b. 5.23154 MHz
c. 3.21548 MHz
d. 7.26456 MHz
65. What will be the total sideband
power of the AM transmitting station
whose carrier power is 1200 W and a
modulation of 95%?
a. 125.2W
b. 541.5W
c. 154.2W
d. 985.02W
frequency of 115 MHz modulated by
a single sine wave. The modulated
signal developed a maximum
positive envelope voltage of 8 V and
a minimum of 2 V. what is the
magnitude of the peak voltage of the
unmodulated carrier?
a. 1V
b. 2V
c. 3V
d. 5V
67. A transistor RF power amplifier
operating class C is designed to
produce 40 W output with a supply
voltage of 60 V. if the efficiency is
70% what is the average collector
current?
a. 952.4mA
b. 895.3mA
c. 784.6mA
d. 896.2mA
68. A radio technician measure 350 V
without modulation and 400 V with
modulation at the output of an AM
transmitter with 50 ohms resistive
load using true RMS reading meter.
What is the modulation index of the
signal?
a. 0.56
b. 0.78
c. 0.65
d. 0.98
69. A certain amateur radio station is
tuned a t200 kHz with an image
frequency at 460 kHz. Determine the
intermediate frequency of the
receiver.
a. 150 kHz
b. 140 kHz
c. 130 kHz
d. 160kHz
70. What is the local oscillator frequency
range in commercial AM broadcast
if it is equal to 455 kHz?
a. 2055 kHz
b. 2065 kHz
c. 2045 kHz
d. 2068 kHz
71. A super heterodyne receiver tunes at
the frequency range from 25 to 50
MHz. what is the IF frequency of the
receiver if the range of the local
oscillator is 10 MHz to 35 MHz.
a. 16 MHz
b. 15 MHz
c. 14 MHz
d. 13MHz
72. A receiver has a sensitivity of 0.5
micro V and a blocking dynamic
range of 70 dB. What is the strongest
signal that can be present along with
a 0.5 micro V signal without
blocking taking place?
a. 1.56mV
b. 1.53mV
c. 1.54mV
d. 1.58mV
73. A receiver can handle a maximum
signal level of 100 mV without
overloading is 100 dB, what is the
sensitivity of the receiver?
a. 1uV
b. 2uV
c. 3uV
d. 4uV
74. What is the shape factor of the filter
if 10 kHz bandwidth is measured
below 6 dB and 30 kHz below 60
dB?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
75. An AM transmitter uses high level
modulation. The RF power amplifier
draws 12 A from a 22 V supply,
putting out a carrier power of 140
watts. What impedance would be
seen at the modulation transformer
secondary?
a. 1.23 ohms
b. 1.83 ohms
c. 1.56 ohms
d. 1.82ohms
76. Calculate the highest and lowest
frequencies for a sub carrier signal at
629 kHz with bandwidth of + or
500 kHz.
a. 126 kHz
b. 125 kHz
c. 124 kHz
d. 129 kHz
77. A tuned transformer has a kopt = 1.5
kc operating at a frequency of 455
kHz. The primary of Q is 75. What is
the band width of the tuned
transformer?
a. 13.3 kHz
b. 14.5 kHz
c. 12.5 kHz
d. 16.3 kHz
78. A 12 W of power is being supplied
in the modulating amplifier for 100%
modulation. What is the carrier
power output of the radio transmitter
at an efficiency of 75%?
a. 15W
b. 18W
c. 19W
d. 20W
79. A transmitted signal 5 meters in
wavelength is received by an antenna
coil having a 50 ohm resistance and
a 0.01 H inductance. What is the
capacitance of the tuner shunting the
antenna coil at this point?
a. 0.704fF
b. 0.705fF
c. 0.506fF
d. 0.404fF
80. Assuming 100% modulation, what
would be the transmitted power in
the upper sideband of an AM signal

if the carrier power is 1000 watts?
a. 150W
b. 250W
c. 650W
d. 350W
81. A certain radio transmitter has a
carrier power output of 150 W and
an efficiency of 80%. How much
power is dissipated in the transistor
with 80% modulation?
a. 50W
b. 56W
c. 49.3W
d. 49.5W
82. An AM transmitter uses a high level
modulation. The RF power amplifier
runs from a 12 V source, putting out
a carrier power of 85 W, with an
efficiency of 85%, what load
impedance is required in order for it
to deliver the rated power?
a. 0.85
b. 0.84
c. 0.86
d. 0.89
83. An AM mobile transmitter supplies 5
load. The carrier signal is modulated
by a 3 kHz sine wave to a depth of
80% at a frequency of 10 MHz.
determine the sideband power.
a. 1600W
b. 1200W
c. 1500W
d. 1800W
84. If the percentage modulation of an
AM amplifier is 88% and the
modulating signal is 1 V, the carrier
has amplitude of?
a. 1.12V
b. 1.13V
c. 1.15V
d. 1.14V
85. An AM receiver uses a low side
injection for the locas oscillator, with
an IF of 455 kHz. The local
oscillator is operating at 2.1 MHz.
What is th e IF of the signal?
a. 1.645 MHz
b. 1.256 MHz
c. 1.459 MHz
d. 1.256MHz
86. An AM signal has the following
characteristics, the carrier frequency
is 150 MHz, the modulating signal
frequency is 3 kHz, the carrier
voltage is 60 V, and where the
modulating signal voltage is 30 V.
find the peak voltage of the lower
side frequency.
a. 16V
b. 15V
c. 12V
d. 13V
87. The average collector current of a
transistor RF amplifier operating
class C is 250 mA. If the efficiency
of the amplifier is 60% and operating

at 50 V supply, what is the power
output of the amplifier?
a. 5.5W
b. 6.5W
c. 7.5W
d. 8.5W
88. An AM transmitter is rated 100 W at
100% modulation. How much power
required for the carrier?
a. 66.67W
b. 55.57W
c. 44.57W
d. 99.67W
89. An AM mobile transmitter supplies 5
load. The carrier signal is modulated
by a 3 kHz sine wave to a depth of
80% at a frequency of 10 MHz.
Determine the peak voltage of the
modulating signal.
a. 548.2V
b. 548.7V
c. 565.7V
d. 585.1V
frequency of 3 MHz and amplitude
of 2 Vpeak. What is the sideband
frequency if the bandwidth of the
AM signal is 20 kHz?
a. 3.02 MHz
b. 5.23 MHz
c. 1.25 MHz
d. 6.31 MHz
91. At 100% modulation, the sum of the

effective voltages in both sidebands
is equal to?
a. 50.2%
b. 60.2%
c. 70.7%
d. 80.5%
92. An AM transmitter transmits 40 kW
with no modulation. How much
power will it transmit if modulation
index increases by 80%?
a. 52.8kW
b. 56.2kW
c. 53.8kW
d. 54.6kW
93. 100% modulation in AM means a
corresponding increase in total
power by?
a. 60%
b. 70%
c. 50%
d. 80%
94. An AM transmitter delivers 100 W
carrier powers, when the supplies
deliver 8 A from a 15 V. how much
power must be supplied by the
modulating amplifier 85%
modulation?
a. 45W
b. 23.5W
c. 12.4W
d. 43.35W
95. A collector modulated class C
amplifier has a carrier output power
of 100 W, and with an efficiency of

60%, calculate the transistor power
dissipation, assuming that all the
power dissipation that occurs comes
from the transistor.
a. 66.67W
b. 65.63W
c. 689.23W
d. 68.32W
96. An AM transmitter transmits 40 kW
with no modulation. How much
power will it transmit if modulation
index is 80%?
a. 52.8kW
b. 52.3kW
c. 52.4kW
d. 52.9kW
97. A filter type SSB generator uses an
ideal band pass filter wit h a center
frequency of 5 MHz and a bandwidth
of 2.7 kHz. What frequency should
be used for the carrier oscillator if
the generator is to produce a USB
signal with a baseband frequency
response having a lower limit of 280
Hz?
a. 4552.35 kHz
b. 4998.37 kHz
c. 4557.65 kHz
d. 4875.56kHz
98. The voice signal is modulated using
a SSBSC technique with two audio
tones having frequencies of 700 and
1200 Hz. The modulated signal has a
suppressed carrier frequency in the

IF receiver of 3 MHz. the receiver is
mistuned causes the BFO to generate
2.995 MHz. Determine the output
frequencies of the demodulator if the
signal is USB.
a. 200 and 700 Hz
b. 300 and 800 Hz
c. 400 and 900 Hz
d. 500 and 1000Hz
99. 3 audio waves with 100, 200 and 300
V amplitude respectively,
simultaneously modulate a 450 V
carrier. What is the total percent of
modulation of the AM wave?
a. 86%
b. 85%
c. 84%
d. 83%
100. An AM broadcast transmitter
output power is 15 kW if the carrier
is simultaneously modulated with
another sine wave at 50%
modulation. What is the modulation
index of the other sine wave if the
carrier power is 12 kW?
a. 0.5
b. 0.2
c. 0.6
d. 0.4
101. What is the maximum
suppression for a phase error of 3
degree?
a. 31.64dB
b. 31.65dB
c. 31.62dB
d. 31.52dB
FREQUENCY MODULATION
1. Using Carsons rule, what is the

bandwidth of an FM signal with
5 kHz maximum frequency
deviation and 2.5 kHz maximum
modulating frequency?
a. 14 kHz
b. 16 kHz
c. 18 kHz
d. 15kHz
2. Calculate the maximum
bandwidth required of a standard
FM broadcast station.
a. 156 kHz
b. 180 kHz
c. 154 kHz
d. 160 kHz
3. The operating frequency of an
FM transmitter is 168.96 MHz.
calculate the frequency of the
carrier crystal oscillator if it uses
three frequency multipliers a
doubler, a tripler and a
quadrupler.
a. 7.04 MHz
b. 7.05 MHz
c. 7.06 MHz
d. 7.07MHz
4. What frequency deviation is
caused by noise in an FM
receiver which has an input S/N
of 2.8 and the modulating
frequency of 1.5 kHz?
a. 569.2Hz
b. 587.3Hz
c. 547.8Hz
d. 569.2Hz
5. In GM broadcasting, what is the
carrier frequency in MHz of a
station with a channel number of
285?
a. 104.9 MHz
b. 104 MHz
c. 8 MHz
d. 104.5 MHz
6. In FM broadcasting, what is the
channel number of the station
with a given carrier of 99.1

MHz?
a. 254
b. 259
c. 258
d. 256
7. What is the rms output voltage of
a PLL FM detector if it uses
VCO with proportionality
constant of 299 kHz/V and if it
receives an FM signal with a
deviation of 65 kHz sine-wave
modulated?
a. 0.25V
b. 0.23V
c. 0.24V
d. 0.26V
8. A phase-locked loop has a VCO
with free-running frequency of
19 MHz. as the frequency of the
reference input is gradually
raised from zero, the loop locks
at 8 MHz and comes out of lock
again at 14 MHz. determine the
lock range.
a. 5 MHz
b. 6 MHz
c. 8 MHz
d. 9 MHz
9. A phase modulator has kp =
2rad/V. what rms voltage of a
sine wave would cause a peak
phase deviation of 30 degrees?
a. 0.184V
b. 0.156V
c. 0.187V
d. 0.185V
10. A system uses a deviation of 100
kHz and a modulating frequency
of 15 kHz. What is the
approximate bandwidth?
a. 235 kHz
b. 234 kHz
c. 230 kHz
d. 236kHz
11. A phase-locked loop has a VCO
with a free-running frequency of
14 MHz. as the frequency of the
reference input is gradually
raised from zero. The loop locks
at 12 MHz and comes out of lock
again at 18 MHz. calculate the
capture range.
a. 4 MHz
b. 5 MHz
c. 6 MHz
d. 7MHz
12. What is the frequency swing of
an FM broadcast transmitter
when modulated 80%?
a. 60 kHz
b. 62 kHz
c. 63 kHz
d. 64kHz
13. Determine the modulation index
of a standard FM broadcast
having a hypothetical maximum
carrier frequency deviation of +-
12 kHz and a maximum

modulating frequency of 4 kHz.
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
14. What is the modulation index of
an FM transmitter whose
frequency deviation is 50 kHz,
while its audio frequency is 10
kHz?
a. 8
b. 6
c. 7
d. 5
15. The carrier swing necessary to
provide 80% modulation in the
FM broadcasting band is ____?
a. 120 kHz
b. 130 kHz
c. 140 kHz
d. 150 kHz
16. An FM signal has a center
frequency of 100 MHz but is
swinging between 100.01 MHz
and 99.999 MHz at a rate of 100
times per second, what is the

modulation index of the signal?
a. 110
b. 100
c. 90
d. 80
17. If the frequency fed to the preamplifier of a basic transmitter
with multipliers is composed of a
pair of triples and a doublers
multipliers is 198 MHz. what
frequency should the oscillator
operate?
a. 10 MHz
b. 11 MHz
c. 12 MHz
d. 13MHz
18. For commercial FM broadcasting
the maximum permissible range
in modulation index is 5 2500.
What is the maximum bandwidth
needed for this system?
a. 180 kHz
b. 190 kHz
c. 200 kHz
d. 210kHz
19. A portable radio transmitter has
determine the output frequency
24. The output signal of a PM
to operate at temperatures from
of the modulator.
demodulator is 0.54 V. what is
5 degrees to 35 degrees C. if its
a. 87.59 MHz
the sensitivity of the demodulator
signal is derived from a crystal
b. 95.32 MHz
if the phase deviation is 30o?
oscillator with a temperature
c. 87.95 MHz
a. 0.99rad/V
coefficient of +1 ppm per degree
d. 84.65 MHz
b. 0.98rad/V
centigrade, and it transmit at
22. Calculate the frequency deviation
c. 0.97rad/V
exactly 145 MHz at 20 degrees
of an Fm modulator that has kf =
C, find the transmitting
20 kHz/V and operates at a
frequency at 35 degrees C.
carrier frequency of 99.1 MHz
maximum phase shift of r/3 rad
a. 145.002175 MHz
modulated by a 2.5 Vrms sine
for a modulating frequency of
b. 145.002174 MHz
wave.
300 Hz. What is the maximum
c. 145.002176 MHz
a. 70.5 kHz
frequency deviation of the
d. 145.002154MHz
b. 70.6 kHz
system?
c. 70.7 kHz
a. 315 Hz
d. 70.8kHz
b. 314 Hz
20. What FM channel is 107.5 MHz

carrier?
a. 299
23. Find the deviation ratio of an FM
d. 0.96rad/V
25. A PM transmitter produces a
c. 316 Hz
b. 298
broadcast transmitter if the
c. 297
frequency of the modulating
d. 296
signal varies from 30 Hz to 20
has a sensitivity of kf = 3 kHz/V.
kHz.
how much phase deviation does
modulating signal to and FM
a. 3.75
it produces with a sine wave
modulator is -2V, sensitivity kf =
b. 3.74
input of 3 V peak at a frequency
25 kHz/V and operating at a
c. 3.73
of 2 kHz?
carrier frequency of 88 MHz.
d. 3.72
a. 4.2rad
21. The instantaneous value of the
d. 317Hz
26. An FM communication system
b. 4.5rad
c. 4.3rad
0.26; J1 = 0.34; J2 = 0.49; J3 =
b. 35dB
d. 4.8rad
0.31.
c. 36dB
a. 3.4W
d. 37dB
27. An FM broadcast transmitter

rated output power is 5 W. what
b. 3.5W
is the peak voltage developed
c. 3.6W
transmits a 3 kHz test tone, and a
across a 50 ohms resistive load?
d. 3.2W
frequency deviation of 15 kHz.
a. 22.34V
30. An FM broadcast transmitter has
32. An FM broadcast station
Determine the modulation index.
b. 22.35V
a deviation of 25 kHz and a
a. 2
c. 22.36V
modulating frequency of 8 kHz.
b. 3
d. 22.37V
Calculate the power that is
c. 5
unaccounted, if the total power
d. 4
28. An FM system has a modulation

index of 3 and its corresponding
PT is 10 W. J0 = -0.26; J1 = 0.34;
33. An FM signal with modulation
Bessel coefficient; Jo = -0.26; J1
J2 = 0.49; J3 = 0.31.
index of 4 and modulating
= 0.34; J2 = 0.49; J3 = 0.31. Find
a. 0.289W
frequency of 8 kHz. What is the
the RMS carrier voltage if the
b. 0.288W
frequency deviation of the
total power is 5 W. developed
c. 0.283W
signal?
across a 50 ohms resistive load.
d. 0.254W
a. 36 kHz
a. 4.16V
31. A certain FM station transmitted
b. 35 kHz
b. 4.11V
a modulating frequency of 25
c. 31 kHz
c. 4.23V
kHz and a frequency deviation of
d. 32kHz
d. 4.56V
75 kHz. What is the approximate
29. Suppose the total power of an
34. A certain FM modulator has kf =
signal-to-noise ratio at the
25 kHz/V. Suppose the peak
FM signal is 7W. What is the
detector output if the signal-to-
amplitude of the modulating
power of the second sideband if
noise ratio at the input to the
signal is 3 V at a frequency of 3
the modulation index is 3? J0 = -
receiver detector is 20 dB?
kHz, determine the modulation
a. 34dB
index of the signal.
a. 25
the modulation index of the
modulating signal if the
b. 26
signal is 15, determine the
sensitivity of the modulator is 50
c. 27
sensitivity of the modulator.
rad/V.
d. 28
a. 3.54rad/V
a. 40mV
b. 3.53rad/V
b. 300mV
modulator increases by 50 kHz.
c. 3.55rad/V
c. 220mV
What is the dc voltage applied to
d. 3.52rad/V
d. 100mV
35. The output frequency of the
the FM modulator, if the
38. The modulation index of the PM
40. With a maximum frequency
deviation sensitivity is 25
signal is 2. If a modulating signal
deviation of 75 kHz, what is the
kHz/V?
that has amplitude of 50 mV at a
maximum phase deviation that
a. 5V
frequency of 3 kHz phase
can be present in an FM radio
b. 4V
modulates a 90 kHz carrier
broadcast signal, assuming it
c. 3V
signal, what would be the new
transmits a baseband frequency
d. 2V
modulation index of the signal?
of 50 Hz to 20 kHz?
Assume that the amplitude of the
a. 1560rad
frequency of the modulated
modulating signal is increased by
b. 1500rad
signal is 95.05 MHz. if a 5 kHz
50%.
c. 1540rad
signal modulates a 95 MHz
a. 5
d. 1546rad
carrier, calculate the modulation
b. 4
index of the signal.
c. 3
modulated signal is 86 degree.
a. 10
d. 2
What is the modulation index of
36. The maximum instantaneous
b. 1
39. A sine wave of frequency 15 kHz
41. The phase shift of a phase
the said signal?
c. 11
modulates a carrier at 101.1
a. 1.2
d. 12
MHz. the peak frequency
b. 1.5
deviation is 75 kHz. Determine
c. 1.3
the peak amplitude of the
d. 1.6
37. A PM signal has a RMS signal of

3 V at a frequency of 3 kHz. If
42. Determine the modulation index
d. 19W
47. An FM receiver sufficiently
of an FM signal, given that the
45. A 50 ohms dummy load is used
receives only the carrier and the
modulating frequency is 25 kHz
to test a certain FM station.
first two sets of sidebands. If the
and frequency deviation of 75
Suppose the measured power is
total power of the signal is 10 W,
kHz.
12.5 W, what is the voltage level
deviation is 25 kHz, and the
a. 3
of the second sideband if a
modulation index is 10, how
b. 5
frequency of 5 kHz test tone is
much power is transmitted at the
c. 4
used and a 10 kHz frequency
carrier frequency?
d. 6
deviation?
a. 485mW
43. Suppose a certain FM signal uses
a. 8.45Vrms
b. 484mW
a frequency deviation of 100 kHz
b. 8.56Vrms
c. 456mW
and a modulating index of 5.
c. 8.75Vrms
d. 481mW
Calculate the band width using
d. 8.26Vrms
Carsons rule.
48. The calculated bandwidth using
46. An FM receiver can sufficiently
Carsons rule is 40 kHz if the
a. 250kHz
receives only the carrier and the
modulating frequency of the
b. 240kHz
first two sets of side bands. If the
signal is 5 kHz. Using the same
c. 260kHz
total power of the signal is 20 W,
signal, what is the bandwidth if
d. 230kHz
deviation of 25 kHz, and a
sidebands with more than 1% of
modulation index of 10, what is
the signal voltage are
of power. If the modulation index
the percentage of the total signal
considered?
of the signal is 7, how much
power will it receive?
a. 61 kHz
power is transmitted at the carrier
a. 96.62%
b. 62 kHz
frequency if Jo = 0.4?
b. 96.65%
c. 60 kHz
a. 16W
c. 96.68%
d. 63kHz
b. 17W
d. 96.56%
44. An FM station transmits 100 W
c. 18W
49. An FM transmitter operates with

a carrier power of 10 W. what is
the total signal power if the
a. 12dB
that is modulated to 10 kHz
modulation index of the signal is
b. 13dB
deviation by a sine wave?
5?
c. 14dB
a. 5 kHz/V
a. 308W
d. 15dB
b. 6 kHz/V
b. 309W
52. An FM receiver is tuned at 99.1
c. 7 kHz/V
c. 310W
MHz. what is the IF rejection
d. 8 kHz/V
d. 311W
ratio if the receiver consists of a
50. The maximum phase deviation
55. An FM receiver uses a tuned
single tuned circuit with Q of 45?
transformer operating at 10.7
given to the signal by the noise
a. 23dB
MHz. what is the bandwidth
voltage is 0.01radian. What is the
b. 24dB
using the optimum coupling
signal to noise ratio at the
c. 25dB
factor if the primary circuit has a
detectors input?
d. 26dB
Q of 50 and the secondary has Q
a. 41dB
53. An FM detector receives an FM
b. 42dB
signal with a deviation of 15
a. 383.6 kHz
c. 43dB
kHz. What is the peak to peak
b. 383.7 kHz
d. 40dB
output voltage of the detector if
c. 383.8 kHz
its sensitivity is 75 microV/Hz?
d. 383.9 kHz
51. An FM receiver detects a 100
of 35?
mV signal. A spurious signal is
a. 2.25V
56. An FM super heterodyne receiver
also detected by the receiver that
b. 2.26V
is tuned to a frequency of 88
resulted to an S/N of 40 dB at the
c. 2.27V
MHz. what is the local oscillator
detectors output. Determine the
d. 2.28V
frequency if low side injection is
minimum S/N ratio at the
54. An FM receiver uses PLL to
used at the mixer?
detectors output if the
detect the signal. What is the
a. 77.3 MHz
modulating frequency is 2 kHz
sensitivity of the VCO in the
b. 77.4 MHz
and frequency deviation of 50
PLL if the output of the detector
c. 77.5 MHz
kHz.
is 1.25 Vp from an FM signal
d. 77.6MHz
1.
Which of the following is used by LAN

switches for making the forwarding
decision?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2.
Which of the following is not one of the

STP port states?
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
Reduces
Has no effect on
Extends
Enlarge
What transport layer protocol does TFTP

use?
a.
b.
c.
d.
6.
Collision Domain
Network Domain
Broadcast Domain
Network Segment
Using repeaters does which of the

following in a collision domain?
a.
b.
c.
d.
5.
Blocking
Learning
Listening
Transmitting
What is network area called where two or

more Ethernet stations are separated by a
bridge or Layer 2 switch in which data
frames originate and collide?
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
IP address
MAC address
Network address
Host address
TCP
IP
UDP
CFP
Which of the following protocols operates

at the TCP/IP Internet layer?
a.
b.
c.
d.
IP
ICMP
ARP
All of the above
9.
What internet protocol is used to map a

known IP address to an unknown MAC
address?
a.
b.
c.
d.
UDP
ICMP
ARP
RARP
10. The modulation index of an amplitude

modulated wave is changed from 0 to 1.
The transmitted power is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Doubled
Halved
Increased by 50%
Unchanged
11. Calculate the modulation index if

instantaneous voltage of modulating
signal and carrier are 40sinmt and
50sinct, respectively
16. In AM signal, the peak antenna current is

13 Amp and the minimum current is 7
Amp. The percentage modulation is
a.
b.
c.
d.
17. For a trapezoid pattern, the modulation

index is given as
a.
b.
c.
d.
0.4
0.5
0.8
1.2
12. The tuned circuit of the oscillator in a

simple AM transmitter employs a 40H
coil and a 12 nF capacitor. If the oscillator
output is modulated by audio frequency
of 5kHz, what are the lower and upper
sideband frequency and the bandwidth
required to transmit this amplitude
modulated wave?
a.
c.
d.
230 kHz
235 kHz
225 kHz
10 kHz
13. Which of the following cannot be used to

demodulate SSB?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Complete phase shift modulator

Product detector
Diode balanced modulator
Bipolar
transistor
balanced
modulator
a.
b.
c.
What is the first thing that happens when

DHCP client boots?
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPBOOT
DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPACK
If a device doesnt know the MAC address

of a device on an adjacent network, is
sends an ARP request to what?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Default gateway
The closest router
The router interface
All of the above
14. For a 100% AM modulated wave carrier

suppressed, the percentage power saving
will be
a.
b.
c.
d.
100
50
150
66.66
15. EPROM contents can be erased by

exposing it to
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ultraviolet rays
Infrared rays
Burst of microwaves
Intense heat radiations
Its resistance value

Its operating temperature
Both its resistance value
operating temperature
Its operating frequency
and
20. Two sequences X1 (n) and X2 (n) are

relatedby X2(n) = X1(-n), in the z-domain,
their ROCs are
a.
b.
c.
d.
The same
Reciprocal of each other
Negative of each other
Complements of each other
21. Millmans theorem is applicable during

determination of
a.
7.
There is no reflection of the

incident wave
The reflection is maximum due to
termination
There are a large number of
maximum and minimum on the line
The incident current is zero for any
applied signal
19. The noise generated by a resistor depends

upon
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
(X+Y)/(X-Y)
(X-Y)/2(X+Y)
(X+Y)/2(X-Y)
(X-Y)/(X+Y)
18. In a transmission line terminated by a

characteristic impedance, Zo
b.
a.
b.
c.
d.
20%
30%
50%
100%
b.
c.
d.
Load current in a network of

generators and impedances with
two output terminals
Load condition of maximum power
transfer
Dual of a network
Load current in a network with
more than one voltage source
22. The noise output of a resistor is amplified

by a noiseless amplifier having a gain of
60 and a bandwidth of 20 kHz. A meter
connected to the output of the amplifier
reads 1mV rms. If the bandwidth of the
amplifier is reduced to 5 kHz with its gain
remaining constant, what does the meter
read now?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0.5 mV
3.471 mV
16 mV
8.33 mV
23. In broadcast superheterodyne receiver,

have no RF amplifier, the loaded Q of the
antenna coupling circuit ( at the input
mixer ) is 50, if image frequency is 2 MHz
and intermediate frequency is 455 kHz,
calculate the rejection ratio
a.
b.
c.
d.
1.29
4.4
64.5
100
30. For a broad side linear array which of the

following is not correct
a.
b.
c.
d.
24. A tuned circuit is having a 15H coil with a

resistance of 25 is connected in parallel
with a 67.6pF variable capacitor. Calculate
the bandwidth of the tuned circuit
a.
b.
c.
d.
5 MHz
18.85 MHz
3.77 kHz
265.252 kHz
25. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in

dielectric medium of relative permittivity
equals to 9. Relative to free space, the
velocity of propagation in the dielectric is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Increased by a factor of 9
Increased by a factor of 3
Unchanged
Reduced by a factor of 1/3
26. The carrier swing of a frequency

modulated signal is 70 kHz and the
modulating signal is a 7kHz sine wave.
Determine the modulation index of the
FM signal.
a.
b.
c.
d.
0.1
5
7
35
27. What is the maximum power received at a

distance of 0.5 km over a free space for 1
GHz frequency. System consisting of
transmitting antenna with a 2.5 dB gain
and a receiving antenna with a 20 dB
gain? The transmitting antenna is fed with
150 watt power
a.
b.
c.
d.
150 watts
100 watts
60.52 watts
30.26 watts
28. The magnetic field intensity (in mA) at the

centre of a circular coil of diameter and
carrying current of 2A is
a.
b.
c.
d.
8
4
3
2
29. A LOS microwave link has a time

availability of 99.97%. What is the
unavailability?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0.03%
0.05%
0.3%
0.5%
The maximum radiation occurs

perpendicular to the line of the
array at = 90
The progressive phase shift ()
between elements is zero
Width principal lobe is less than of
an end array
The maximum radiation occurs
along the line of array at = 0
31. Compute the EIRP in dBm where the

transmitter output is 200 mW at the
waveguide flange, the transmission line
losses are 4.7 dB and the antenna gain is
37.7 dB
a.
b.
c.
d.
+37.3 dB
23 dBm
+55.6 dBm
+32.6 dBm
32. Compute the free-space loss for a path 31

statute miles long with a transmit
frequency of 6135 MHz
a.
b.
c.
d.
36.58 dB
142.17 dB
143.17 dB
35.68 dB
33. A microwave radio link transmitter has an

output of 1W at the waveguide flange;
transmission flange; transmission line
losses from the flange to the antenna
feed are 3 dB, and the gain of the antenna
is 31 dB. Compute the EIRP in dBW
a.
b.
c.
d.
+28 dBW
+31 dBW
+3 dBW
-28 dBW
34. Compute the free space loss for a path 42

km long with a transmit frequency of
4.041 GHz
a.
b.
c.
d.
159.18 dB
137.25 dB
141.16 dB
181 dB
35. In this network topology, each device has

a dedicated point-to-point link only to a
central controller, usually called a hub.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ring topology
Bus topology
Mesh topology
Star topology
36. Which layer of the OSI model is

responsible
for
coordinating
the
exchanges between the layer 7
applications or services that are in use?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Application
Session
Data-link
Physical
37. It enables a host computer to send and

receive data across shared or public
networks as if it were a private network
with all the functionality
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ethernet
CSMA/CD
VPN
TCP/IP
38. An AM demodulator can be implemented

with a linear multiplier followed by a
a.
b.
c.
d.
Low pass
High pass
Band pass
Band stop
39. Iridium is the satellite network which is

used for voice transmission, data, fax, and
paging services across any corner of the
world. Originally, iridium technology used
_____ satellites for its working
a.
b.
c.
d.
77
71
74
76
40. Calculate the isotropic receive level (IRL)

of an audio link where the EIRP is
+28dBW, the FSL is 137.25dB, and the
atmospheric gaseous absorption loss is
0.6dB
a.
b.
c.
d.
-109.85dBW
-137.25dBW
+109.85dBW
+137.25dBW
41. The theoretical efficiency of a class D

amplifier is
a.
b.
c.
d.
75%
85%
90%
100%
42. If a 1MHz carrier is amplitude modulated

with a 5kHz audio signal, the upper-side
frequency is _____ kHz.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1005
1000
995
None of the above
43. In saturation, VCE is

a.
b.
c.
d.
0.7V
Equal to Vcc
Minimum
Maximum
44. Collector-feedback bias is

a.
b.
c.
d.
Based on the principle of positive

feedback
Based on beta multiplication
Based on the principle of negative
feedback
Not very stable
45. An LED (light emitting diode)

a.
b.
c.
d.
Emits light when reverse-biased

Senses light when reverse-biased
Emits light when forward-biased
Acts as a variable resistance
46. If a sinusoidal voltage is applied to the

base of a biased npn transistor and the
resulting sinusoidal collector voltage is
clipped near zero volts, the transistor is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Being driven into saturation

Being driven into cutoff
Operating nonlinearly
Answers (a) and (c)
Answers (b) and (c)
47. The cathode of a zener diode in a voltage

regulator is normally
a.
b.
c.
d.
More positive than the anode

More negative than the anode
At +0.7 volt
Grounded
48. A certain common emitter amplifier has a

voltage gain of 100. If the emitter bypass
capacitor is removed,
a.
b.
c.
d.
The circuit will become unstable

The voltage gain will decrease
The voltage gain will increase
The Q-point will shift
49. The output spectrum of a _____

modulator includes upper-side and lowerside frequencies and the carrier frequency
a.
b.
c.
Balanced
Standard amplitude
None of the above
50. The communication channel immediately

above or below the desired channel
frequency
a.
b.
c.
d.
Alternate channel
Near field
Far field
Adjacent channel
51. The noise-reduction effect that occurs

with strong FM signals.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Skin effect
Attenuation
Threshold effect
Crosstalk
52. In what year did C.E. Shannon introduce a

two-valued Boolean Algebra also called
Switching Algebra.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
1934
1945
1936
1938
1944
53. Who postulated the existence of a

Memristor, the 4th passive electronic
device, in 1971?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Leon Chua
Stan Williams
Martin Reynolds
Gregory Snider
None
54. For a citizens band receiver using highside injection with an RF carrier of 27 MHz
and an IF center frequency of 455kHz,
determine the IFRR (image frequency
rejection ratio) for a preselector Q of 100.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
0.0663
6.7058
3.35029
0.0335
None
55. How may basic tone (frequencies) are

there in a 12-key DTMF keypad
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
5
6
7
8
9
56. For a quadbit input of I=0, I=0, Q=0, and

Q=0 (0000), determine the output
amplitude and phase for the 16-QAM
modulator.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
0.131 sin(ct - 135)

0.331 sin(ct - 125)
0.331 sin(ct - 135)
0.113 sin(ct - 105)
None

following specifications: d=0.025 inches,
D=0.15 inches and r=2.23.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
71.9 ohms
67.31 ohms
33.52 ohms
3.333 ohms
None
58. For a transmit antenna with radiation

resistance Rr=72 ohms, an effective
antenna resistance Re=8 ohms, a directive
gain D=20, and an input power Pin=100W,
determine the effective radiated power in
dBW.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
323.5dBW
3.255dBW
3255dBW
32.55dBW
None
59. For a signal measurement of -42 dBm, a

noise measurement of 16 dBrnc, and -40
dBm TLP, determine the signal to noise
ratio in dB.
a.
31 dB
b. 33 dB
c.
34 dB
d. 32 dB
e. None
60. In PCM systems, analog signals are
transmitted as _____
a.
b.
c.
d.
Binary codes
Waveforms
Pulse codes
Modulated waves
61. The following are advantages of a Peer-topeer Network EXCEPT

a.
b.
c.
d.
Low cost
Easy to set up
No server required
No centralized control of security
62. It is a scheme that combines

convolutional coding and modulation.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Trellis coded modulation

Pulse coded modulation
Convolutional coded modulation
Spread spectrum
63. The VHF, UHF and microwave signals

travel in a(n)
a.
b.
c.
d.
Fading curve line

Curved line
Straight line
Unpredictable
64. An antenna has a directivity of 20 and a

radiation efficiency of 90%. Compute the
gain in dB
a.
b.
c.
d.
18
0.9
20
12.55
65. The primary benefit of multiplexing is

_____
a.
b.
c.
d.
Economy
Noise reduction
Faster transmission
Simple design
66. It is the physical medium that is used to

send the signal from the transmitter to
the receiver.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Communication channel
Air channel
Free space
Transmission
67. An infrared LED is optically coupled to a

photodiode. When the LED is turned off,
the reading on an ammeter in series with
the reversed biased photodiode will
a.
b.
c.
d.
Not change
Decrease
Increase
Fluctuate
68. The standard word-size in a PCM audio

system is _____ bits
a.
b.
c.
d.
4
8
16
32
69. Most telemetry multiplex system used

_____ modulation
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pulse code
Time
Amplitude
Frequency
70. A certain fiber-optic cable has the

following characteristics: n1=1.82 and
n2=1.73. What is the value of c?
a.
b.
c.
d.
71.90
0.95
18.1
1.81
71. It is established by Shannon dealing with

the basic limits on communication of
information
75. Light may be propagated along a fiberoptic cable in which of the following
modes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Multimode step index

Single-mode step index
Multimode graded index
All of the above
82. If you are checking a 60 Hz full wave

bridge rectifier and observe that the
output has a 60 Hz ripple,
a.
b.
c.
d.
76. It is the process of using the complex

networking devices, such as bridges,
switches, and routers to break up the
collision domains is known as which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sectioning
Segmentation
Collision domain reduction
Micro sectioning
77. In order for a light ray to propagate along

a fiber-optic cable, what must be the
relationship be between the angle of
incidence and the critical angle?
a.
b.
c.
d.
i > c
i < c
i = c
None of the above
78. A series of pulses in which amplitude of

the information signal at a given time is
coded as a binary number.
a.
b.
c.
d.
PAM
PCM
PPM
PWM
Shannon Theory
Information Theory
Sampling rate Theory
Communications Theory
79. Signals and channels that satisfy the

condition that their bandwidth is much
smaller than the carrier frequency are
called
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
PPM
PCM
PAM
PWM
73. It has a flat power spectral density over

the entire frequency range
a.
b.
c.
d.
White noise
Thermal noise
Pink noise
Transit noise
74. Calculate gm for a JFET having IDSS = 10 mA,

Vp = -5V, VGSQ = -2.5V
a.
b.
c.
d.
2mS
3mS
4mS
5mS
a.
b.
c.
d.
Narrowband bandpass signals and

channels
Modulating signals and channels
Coding signals and channels
Bandlimited signals and channels
80. Which of the following is not a part of an

AM superheterodyne receiver?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
Mixer
If amplifier
DC restorer
Detector
Audio amplifier
Local oscillator
81. It occurs when the transmitted signal

arrives at the receiver via multiple
propagation paths at different delays
a.
b.
c.
d.
Signal multipath
Signal diversity
Signal reception
Signal arrival
Source encoding
Data transmission
Modulation
Noise suppression
84. For an op-amp with negative feedback,

the output is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Equal to input
Increased
Fed back to the inverting input
Fed back to the non-inverting input
85. Which of the following is not an

advantage of networking reference
models?
a.
b.
d.
e.
72. A series of pulse in which the timing of
each pulse represents the amplitude of
the information signal at a given time.
is
83. It is the process of efficiently converting

the output of either an analog or digital
source into a sequence of binary digits
c.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The circuit is working properly

There is an open diode
The transformer secondary
shorted
The filter capacitor is leaky
They encourage standardization by

defining
what functions
are
performed at particular layers of the
model
They prevent changes in one layer
from causing a need for changes in
other layers, speeding development
They ensure that networks perform
better
They encourage vendors to build on
each others development through
use of a common framework
None of the above
86. It is a fundamental characteristics of a

data communication system which refers
to the variation in the packet arrival time
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Jitter
Accuracy
Timeliness
Delivery
All of the above
87. A se of rules that govern data

communications. It represents an
agreement between the communicating
devices. Without it, two devices may be
connected but not communicating
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Message
Sender
Receiver
Medium
Protocol
88. Compute the thermal noise threshold of a

receiver in dBm with a 12dB noise figure
and an IF bandwidth of 4.2 MHz
a.
b.
c.
d.
-95.77
-125.77
+95.77
+125.77
89. It is a type of coding where the adjacent

signals amplitudes differ by one binary
digit
a.
b.
c.
d.
Binary coding
Gray coding
Encoding
Keying
90. To transmit N signals each band limited to

fm Hertz by TDM will require a minimum
bandwidth of
a.
b.
c.
d.
fm
2fm
Nfm
2Nfm
91. A point charge of 100 uC is embedded in

an extensive mass of Bakelite which has a
relative permittivity of 5. Calculate the
total energy contained in the electric field
outside a radial distance of 1 cm.
96. A radio link receiving system has a LNA

with a noise figure of 1.3 dB and the IF
has a bandwidth of 30 MHz. Compute the
thermal noise threshold in dBm
a.
b.
c.
d.
97. In a superheterodyne broadcast receiver,

the frequency of local oscillator is
a.
b.
c.
d.
898.76 J
988.76 J
788.96 J
989.76 J
None
92. Reduction in effective cross-sectional area

of a conductor with increasing frequency
a.
b.
c.
d.
Skin effect
Feedback
Attenuation
Fading
93. Holes in an n-type semiconductor are

a.
b.
c.
d.
Minority carriers that are thermally

produced
Minority carrier that are produced
by doping
Majority carriers that are thermally
produced
Majority carriers that are produced
by doping
94. It is the earliest form of digital electrical

communication system
a.
b.
c.
d.
Telegraphy
Telephone
Morse code
Fax
95. A phase-locked loop (PLL) is a feedback

circuit consisting of a
a.
b.
c.
d.
Phase detector
Low-pass filter
VCO
All of the above
Higher than the incoming signal

frequency
Lower than the incoming signal
frequency
Equal to the incoming signal
frequency
Twice the incoming signal frequency
98. What is (are) the function(s) of the

capacitor C1 and C2 in an FET circuit?
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
-125.93 dBW
-95.93 dBm
+125.93 dBm
+95.93 dBm
To create an open circuit for dc

analysis
To
isolate
the
dc
biasing
arrangement from the applied signal
and load
To create a short-circuit equivalent
for ac analysis
All of the above
99. It is the name given to a phenomenon

that Edison observed in 1875 and refined
later in 1883, while he was trying to
improve his new incandescent lamp. The
effect was that, in a vacuum, electrons
flow from a heated element like an
incandescent filament to a cooler metal
plate
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Thermionic emission
Photonics
Redshift
Spintronics
None
100. An oscillator differs from an amplifier

because the oscillator
a.
b.
c.
d.
Has more gain

Requires no input signal
Requires no dc supply
Always has the same output
Which of the following connectors has the lowest attenuation at UHF?

Ans. Type N-connector
In TV, time allocated per horizontal retrace

Ans. 10.2 sec
Parts of superheterodyne responsible for bandpass of the receiver

Ans. IF amplifier
Percentage of primary color used in color TV are needed to

produce the brightest white
Ans. 30% red, 59% green, 11% blue
*What type of 2nd detector is used for AM?

Ans. Diode
What is the disadvantage of slope detection of FM?
Ans. No noise discrimination
FM detectors not used in mobiles
Ans. Balanced modulator
Tunes the receiver to different stations
Ans. Local oscillator
Advantage of using a high IF
Ans. Better image rejection
In FM receiver which circuit removes amplitude variations?
Ans. Limiter
Another name for popcorn noise
Ans. burst noise
A type of devices noise whose intensity decreases with frequency
Ans. Flicker
*Industrial noise frequency
Ans. 15-160 MHz
Reference frequency of CCITT psophometric noise measurement
Ans. 800 Hz
In TV, the color phasor has what phase for the I signal
Ans. 57 degree
*If a broadcast station is transmitting but not modulating,

what is heard in a receiver tuned to its frequency?
Ans. Nothing
Which band channel 14 of TV channel belongs?
Ans. UHF
What do you call the combining circuit used in TV?
Ans. Matrix
A type of microphone which has a permanent magnet
Ans. Ribbon
What determines the purity received colors?
Ans. Q & I amplitude
Microphone which has a Z output
Ans. Crystal
Normally, for how long must broadcast station logs be kept
for the NTC?
Ans. 1 year
Device that prevents aural RF from entering the video
transmitter and vice versa
Ans. Diplexer
*What is the blanking level for negative transmission?
Ans. 75%
Frequency for the pilot subcarrier for commercial stereo FM

Ans. 19 kHz
Average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given

direction through cross sectional area of a sqm at right angle
to the direction
Ans. Sound pressure
In video system, what determines the maximum number of vertical

picture elements?
Ans. No. of lines on the screen
What would be produced by weak blue, weak green, weak

red on color CRT?
Ans. Gray
*What does aspect ratio mean?

Ans. Ratio of screen height to its width
Where is color burst found?

Ans. Back porch
How many oscillators does a black and white TV contain?

Ans. 2
Frequency of color burst

Ans. 3.58 MHz
Which of the following is not a major component of color TV receiver?

Ans. Sync analyzer
How many cathodes are there in a shadow mask tube?

Ans. 3
Portion of TV signal used to synchronize the video information on

recording tape
Ans. Vertical tape
Where is the degaussing coil in a TV set?

Ans. Around the tube face
Frequency of VCR control signal

Ans. 30 Hz
*How many electron beams leave the electron gun on a single-gun
CRT?
Ans. 3
In a single-gun color CRT, what electron beam travels straight through
the tube?
Ans. Green
The typical output voltage from a magnetic microphone

Ans. 1 mV
Modulation index of AM wave is changed from 0 to 1, the
transmitter power is
Ans. Increased by 50%
Method generating SSB signal that utilizes one balanced
modulator circuit
Ans. Filter method
In a TV picture tube, what is the purpose of large picture tube voltage?

Ans. Attracts electrons toward the face of the tube
What is the lowest number of sections required by

communication receivers?
Ans. 4
How many horizontal lines are used to develop a TV raster in NTSC

standard?
Ans. 525
Connecting a headset directly across the tuner in a simple

AM radio receiver
Ans. Will not produce sound in the headset
An AM signal displayed on an oscilloscope has maximum span of 5 V

and minimum 1 V. What is modulation index?
Ans. 67%
*DSBSC system mist suppresses the carrier by 50 dB from original
value of 10 W. What value must the carrier be reduced?
Ans. 0.0001 W
*A system uses a deviation of 100 kHz and modulating signal of 15
kHz, what is approximate BW?
Ans. 230 kHz
A system has 150 kHz of BW for a 10 kHz modulating signal, what is
approximate deviation?
Ans. 65 kHz
Which of the following is not a continuous wave modulation?
Ans. PCM
Determine the power save in % when the carrier is suppressed in an
AM signal modulated to 80%
Ans. 75.8%
*What are the letter, number designations of carrier and one SB?
Ans. H3E
*What determines the selectivity of a receiver?
Ans. The bandwidth of the tuned circuit
What is the major disadvantage of a superheterodyne receiver?
Ans. Excellent selectivity and sensitivity
How many mixers are in an SSB receiver?
Ans. 2
What is the purpose of AFC in an FM receiver?
Ans. To help maintain a steady LO frequency
The signal in a channel is measured to be 23 dB while noise is 9 dB.
What is S/N?
Ans. 14 dB
Which of the following is not application of PLL?
Ans. AM discriminator
When the loop in a PLL is locked, what is the difference in frequency
detected by the phase detector?
Ans. 0 degree
What circuit accompanies a mixer?
Ans. Local oscillator
Not a class of laser radiation
Ans. Class X
Optical fiber with smallest beamwidth
Ans. Glass fiber core
Einstein
Ans. First documented prediction that laser light was possible
Maiman
Ans. First person to produce laser light
Number the fiber optic receiver, the light detector
Ans. Has a still signal as an output
Fiber optic cable operates near
Ans. 800 THz
Layer
Ans. May be used as an optical fiber transmitter
Responsitivity
Ans. Receiver parameter
Laser
Ans. Optical transmitter without cladding and rectifier

SONET
Ans. Optical network ensured standard that light has a
connectivity
ILS system
Ans. Cockpit which provides 2 separate items of
information in relation to the runway
DME
Ans. Time interval below interrogatory pulse and the
reply from a radar beacon
Plane wave
Ans. Wave far from its source
422-9342
Ans. Time dialing push bottoms held down 0.25
microseconds and 0.25 interdigit
Not are advantages of fiber optic
Ans. Cabling splicing and simplicity
VHF-ship station transmitter
Ans. 1 W
Effects an EM wave produces when in interacts with water
Ans. Due to EF
Dead areas
Ans. Shading of the RF signal by hills
What values of L and C in an L network are required to
match a 10 ohm resistor amplifier impose to a 50 ohm load
at 27 MHz?
Ans. L = 118 nH, C = 236 pF
EM wave transport
Ans. Energy
Pitch in sound
Ans. Color in light
Less than 3 kW (ERP)
Ans. Operational maintenance of an FMBC station
exempted from DO. 88
Not changes frequency
Ans. Fiber optic
Reference index of glass
Ans. 1.5
n1>n2
Ans. TIR
At critical angle
Ans. Reference angle equal to 90 degrees
mm illumination recommended for reading
Ans. 8000 Ix
Ionosphere
Ans.
Photophone
Ans. First device voice using light
Critical angle
Ans. Determine stray / refracted with in the medium
Fiber optic cable
Ans. Not commonly used in Fiber optic
*Irradiance
Ans. P/A in fiber optic
Monitor
Ans. Not a major section required by lasers
Circular/ellipsoidal cross section placed within/or first below

the floor and transmitter the destination duct or cell to the
terminal of ionospace
Ans. Header
Part of body most sensitive to laser

Ans. Eyes & skin
*UV radiation
Ans. Most common type of damage to the human eye by laser
*Erytherma (erythema, in choices)
Ans. Damage to skin by laser radiation
Signal received and intelligence frequency due is double kfactor

Ans. Second harmonic
Step index single mode

Ans. Most widely used
Fading due to intelligence below reflected waves

Ans. Reflection multipath
Infrared absorption
Ans. Photons of light absorbed
*422-43-42 pulse dialing 0.35 sec interdigit delay

Ans. 4.1 sec
Responsitivity unit
Ans. A/W
Optical fiber silicon glass

Ans. 3 layers
*Not a characteristic of light detector

Ans. Dispersion
Electric field strength

Ans. V/W
Infrared range
Ans. 700-1200 nm
Pilot carrier signal

Ans. Rev and transmit a signal
*Single mode fiber optic core diameter

Ans. 0.01 nm
Step
Index
Ans. 0.02 nm
A system where cables and/or wires are placed within the

ceiling space and poked up through the fire resistant floor
struction to the office or room above
Ans. Poke through
Multimode
optical
fiber
diameter
Visible light LCDs not used

Ans. High losses
Increasing light intensity, fast optic switching due to ___
Ans. A purification of optical signal
Optical fiber for telecommunication
Ans. 5 miles
Increasing in photons that produces a photoelectron/ electron hole pair
Ans. Quantum efficiency
A closet which by terminating facilities for key telephone system
services, stations, and central offices and PBX lines but does not
contain key telephone system circuitry
Ans. Satellite closet
PMT
Ans. High sensitivity and BW (optical detector)
Average loss of fiber splice
Ans. 0.15
Mechanical splice attenuation
Ans. 0.1 dB or less
Commonly used electron optic crystal polarization
Ans. Lithium niobate
Modulation information
Ans. Intensity and polarization
Amount of voltage induced in a wave by an EM wave
Ans. Field strength
Determine amplitude of side bands phase detector
Ans. Bessel function
Quadrature detector
Ans. Differential amplifier
D, E, F layers
Ans. Kennely Heaviside layer
Telephone set ringing side

Ans. -42 to -52 Vdc
Reference of subscriber by sending a dial tone
Ans. First selector
Beamwidth of reflector antenna in base station
Ans, 60 degrees
Sensitivity of cell receiver
Ans. 50 dB
Volume
Ans. Speech
High loss in the opposite direction
Ans. Echo suppression
Connector arrangement, customer move to one location to
connecting same telephone number
Ans. TPS
Same facility not same time
Ans. TDM
Common light session in medium fax
Ans. CCD
Frequency for black and white
Ans. 1500 & 2300 Hz
*VSB AM
Ans. G2 fax
QAM
Ans. G3 fax
8 allowable tone frequency
Ans. Touch tone telephone
Cell CDMA bandwidth
Ans. 1.23 MHz
Intend to connect the channel
Ans. Common line
Block cells held
Ans. Poisson
*Used by PCN (Personal Communication Network)
Ans. Modified GSM
TDMA
Ans. DECT
ERLANG C
Ans. Block calls delays
*GFSK
Ans. DECT
BPSK
Ans. Cell CDMA
Digital AMPS
Ans. Noted call, according standard circuit
TIA radio capacity
Ans. Used formed spectrum efficiency
Echo completely out of control
Ans. Singing
Number of circuit in tandem
Ans. 12
Difference of entry
Ans. CCITT mode
Tiny particles (light)
Ans. Quantum theory
Splitting of white light
Ans. Dispersion
*Object returned to a converging lens than its focal point
Ans. Virtual mirror
Circular opening thru the four structure
Ans. Sleeve
Do not exhibit by longitudinal waves
Ans. Polarization
Fusion splice
Ans. 0.09 dB
Connector type of splice
Ans. 0.38 dB
200,000 hrs
Ans. LED lifetime
50,000 hrs
Ans. ILDs lifetime
Pave
Ans. Pole energy x PRR
Easy to conduct but directly change excitation
Ans. Semiconductor layer
SM GI
Ans. Not common
Limits information carrying capacity of a cable
Ans. Modal dispersion
Visible light range
Ans. 400-750 nm
Transmission line does not depend on
Ans. Length
Conduction loss
Ans. Skin effect/increased efficiency
SWR
Ans. 1:1
Thermistor
Ans. Semiconductor bolometer
Waveguide acts as a
Ans. High pass filter
Quarter wavelength
Ans. Stub-shorted
Quarter wavelength
Ans. At the end high impedance
Nearest to the load
Ans. Matching stubs
Reflection coefficient (open)
Ans. 1
Low power oscillator
Ans. Tunnel diode
Aspect ratio
Ans. 2:1
Ideal transmission conductor
Ans. Silver
Partition L or C
Ans. Iris
Use varactor
Ans. PARAMP
*Offset frequency of VHF repeaters
Ans. 5 MHz
*Morse code basic unit
Ans. Dot length
Velocity modulation
Ans. Klystron
Negligible conductivity
Ans. Telephone relay
LEO satellite distances
Ans. 22,300 miles
*Best terrain
Ans. Forested
T9-DS1
Ans. 1.544 kbps
2 out of 7 codes
Ans. Touch tone
Solution to degradation in SNR
Ans. Companding
Ans. Navigational satellites
Satellite attitude
Ans. Orientation
Standard test tone
Ans. 1 mW
k-factor
Ans. 4/3
FDMA
Ans. Concept 100% earth covering
Polar orbit
Ans. Footprint
CDMA concept change in carrier frequency
Ans. Frequency hopping
Automatic switching machines exchange induction coil
Ans. 3 digit address code
Different spreads at different voice frequency
Ans. Network error delay distance
Flag bits
Ans. ESS Co status
Single booster antenna dish
Ans. Low noise amplifier
1 hop space diversity
Ans. 2 receivers
720 erlang
Ans. 25920 ccs
Reduce crosstalk
Ans. Frequency frogging
*B channel
Ans. 64 kbps
Beamwidth is inversely proportional to
Ans. Wavelength/distance (radar out)
Transmitter-receiver switch
Ans. Duplexer
ILS horizontal dev
Ans. Localizer
Range versus azimuth
Ans. PPI
Time difference measurement hyperbolic
Ans. LORAN
VLF
Ans. Omega
Marker beacon
Ans. Distance information
*Marker beacon
Ans. 75 MHz
Direction not to true north
Ans. Azimuth
TACAN
Ans. Bearing and distance
Steady red ATC light signal
Ans. Stop taxiing
Minimum ceiling 1000 ft
Minimum visibility 3 mi
VFR in control zone
Phase measured
Ans. OMEGA
Radar mile
Ans. 12.36 microseconds
RRPM
Ans. Rotational rate radar antenna
Bow of the ship
Ans. Leading flash
Stationary two loop RDF system
Ans. Goniometer
Doppler radar uses ___ as second detector
Ans. Discriminator
Error transmission (loran system)
Ans. Blinking
*Frequency loran C
Ans. 100 kHz
B-scan
Ans. Range and bearing
On star board beacon
Ans. 90 degrees from the nose of the ship
Middle number ILS
Ans. 1300 Hz
Localizer
Ans. 108-112 MHz
Strong echo at close range
Ans. Multiple echoes
Airplane pitch
Ans. Elevator
Affect bandwidth
Ans. Material dispersion
1.3-1.3 micro
Ans. Length losses
*Standard in Laser
Ans. ANSI Z136
Skews rays
Ans. Spiral path/do not pay core axis
Not a kind of optical dispersion
Ans. Luminance dispersion
High (nano) for glass
Ans. Pseudo effect
Highest modal dispersion
Ans. Step Index Multi Mode
Multiple signal over
Ans. TDM
Optical fiber
Ans. 250-500 Hz
Maximum voice
Ans. Energy
Electrolytic recording
Ans. Fax
*Hemiglobe pattern
Ans. Crosstalk
Estimation discrete channel
Ans. Modulator channel detector
DECT
Ans. 1.88-1.90 GHz
12 simultaneously calls (system support)

120 simultaneously calls DECT machine recover losses
Triple conversion
Ans. Normal
Superheterodyne receiver
Ans. Diode mixer (non linear)
TACS
Ans. 1000 channels
*Supervisory Audio Tone (SAT)
Ans. 6000 Hz
*PCS power output
Ans. 10 mW
Discrete particle
Ans. Shot noise
Board examinees at least have
Ans. 10 yrs experience
With out regular teaching
Ans. 5 yrs
*MPDP Ans. 100000
*Billboard size
Ans. 50x100 cm
*MPD
Ans. 5000 fine
Residency (examiner)
Ans. 5 yrs
*MPEG-4
Ans. DivX
Picture carrier
Ans. UHF
MPEG-2
Ans. Cosine
When receptacles are connected to a 30-A branch circuit,

the maximum allowable cord and plug connected load shall
not be more than ___
Ans. 24 A
At least how many receptacle outlet(s) shall be installed in
the bathroom?
Ans. 1
Rigid metal conduit shall be supported at least every ___ m
Ans. 3
What is the maximum allowable voltage drop for the
distribution panel to the farthest load?
Ans. 5%
An exposed wiring method using cleats, knobs, tubes, and
flexible tubings for the protection and support of single
insulated conductor run in or on building and not concealed
by the building structure
Ans. Open wiring on insulators
Conductors in concealed knob and the tube wiring shall
maintain a clearance of NOT less than ___ between the
conductor and the surface over which it passes
Ans. 26 mm
General purpose and appliance branch circuits using type
FCC cable shall have ratings NOT exceeding ___ A
Ans. 20
What refers to a unit or an assembly or sections and
associated fittings, forming a rigid structural system used to
support cables?
Ans. Cable tray
Overcurrent in transformers affect all of the following
EXCEPT
Ans. Breather effectiveness
The rating of the branch circuit serving a continuous load
shall NOT exceed ___ percent of the continuous load
Ans. 125
One or more non-metallic surface extensions shall be
permitted to be run in any direction from an existing outlet,
but NOT on the floor or within ___ from the floor
Ans. 50 mm
32.38 Mbps
Ans. Actual data rate PTV
When a conduit enters a box, fitting or other enclosure, a

___ shall be provided to protect the wire from abrasions
Ans. Bushing
In banks and office buildings, a unit load of ___ VA per square meter
shall be included for the general purpose receptacle outlets when the
actual number of outlets is known
Ans. 8
Bonding jumpers which connect communications cable

grounding conductors and the grounding electrode of the
building shall NOT be smaller than what copper size?
Ans. 14.0 sq. mm
Type AC cable shall be permitted in one of the following. Which one?

For branch circuits
For feeders
In cable trays where identified for such usage
Ans. All of the choices
In hospitals, the general lighting load required shall be ___

VA/sq. m
Ans. 16
Interlocked type armored cable or corrugated sheath cables shall have

a bending radius of NOT less than ___ times the external diameter of
the metallic sheath
Ans. 7
The radius of the inner edge of any bend for MI cables shall NOT be
less than ___ times the diameter of the cable
Ans. 5
The rating of the branch circuit using flat cable assemblies shall NOT
exceed ___
Ans. 30 A
Each plate electrode shall expose NOT less than ___ of the
surface to exterior soil
Ans. One-fifth square meter
Non-metallic sheathed cable shall NOT have a bending
radius less than ___ times the diameter of the cable
Ans. 5
Conductors after the final overcurrent device and before the
load served are called ___
Ans. Branch circuit conductors
Intermittent operation in which the load conditions is
regularly recurrent
Ans. Periodic duty
In every drawing, the title block shall be a standard strip, which shall
contain the name of the project, owner, title of the sheet, scale used,
name and signature of the PEE? How wide is this strip?
Ans. 40 mm
Rod electrodes of steel or iron shall be at least ___ in diameter
Ans. 16 mm
Suppose a voice frequency of 400 Hz is transmitted on an AM radio

station operating on 590 kHz the voice frequency 400 Hz in not the ___
frequency
Ans. Modulated
The technique used in some special microwave receivers to reduce
noise level even in microwave frequency is known as ___
Ans. Operating with cryogenic condition
The formula used to calculate the overall noise performance of a
receiver or of multiple stage of RF amplification is ___ formula
Ans. Friis formula
Most people commonly receive unconscious in sound level of ___ dB
Ans. 6 to 10
The perceptible repetition of sound is called ___
Ans. Echo
*In FDM communications, U600 master group occupies ___ bandwidth
Ans. 2520 kHz
*Used for ionospheric transmission is the optimum working frequency it
is chosen to be about ___ percent less than MUF
Ans. 15
Transmitter power output in single sideband operation is expressed in
terms of ___
Ans. PEP
*What resistor has a typical flicker noise voltage range of 0.02 to 0.20
microvolts?
Ans. Metal film
How many groups are there in (CCITTS FDM hierarchy) a

supermastergroup?
Ans. 75
*The number of voice band channel of (North American)
TDM communication system with signaling rate of 44.736
Mbps is ___
Ans. 672
*A fiber optic light electron PIN diode is lightly doped in ___
material
Ans. Intrinsic
*The band designator for communications system using
frequency in the band (27-6 GHz)
Ans. Ka
In second symbol in the designation of a radio emission
under the ITU rules refer to ___
Ans. A number signifying the nature of signals
modulating the main carrier
According to the ITU emission designation, the third symbol
refers to the type of information to be transmitted. What
symbol is used for telephony?
Ans. E
The dominant loss mechanisms in silica fiber used in fiber
optics
Ans. Absorption and Rayleigh scattering loss
The average maximum data rate for fiber optics is ___
Ans. 50
*In a spread spectrum frequency hopping system, a ___
circuit selects the frequency modulated by the synthesizer
Ans. PSN code generator
Using the TE mode, microwave power can only be
transmitted if free rectangular guides provided ___
Ans. The width dimension is greater than one-half of the
wavelength of the lowest frequency of operation
*The scientist who profounded the theory of electromagnetic radiation

Ans. James Maxwell
*In FDM, how many voice band channels are there in a

jumbo group?
Ans. 3600
What is the relation of the refractive index of an ionosphere layer used

in HF radio communications to its altitude?
Ans. The higher the layer, the smaller the refractive index
*In FDM, how many voice band channels are there in a DS-2
digital signal hierarchy for TDM signals?
Ans. 96
For SSB transmitter, the average power is typically ___ of the peak
envelope power, with a typical human speech
Ans. to 1/3
*Another name for optical density

Ans. Radiant flux
How many significant sidebands are present in FM, if the modulation

index is 1.0 (according to Bessel function)?
Ans. 3
Noise when measured across tip and ring terminals of a network shall
be ___ dBrncO
Ans. 15
NTC has defined outdoor radio equipment devices used for wireless
data network as those effective radiated power exceeds ___
Ans. 250 mW
*According to the NTC memorandum circular, a spectrum user free of
1000 per indoor radio station used for wireless data network shall be
paid by public telecomm entity with a data rate in excess of ___ Mbps
Ans. 11
It is defined as a figure of merit used to express the degree of
modulation achieved in an FSK
Ans. H-factor
*The NTC authorized transmit frequency range for cordless

telephone sets operating in the UHF band is ___ MHz
Ans. 1.725 to 1.79
Maximum radiated power of cordless telephone authorized
by NTC for the Philippines is ___
Ans. 5 mW
*The frequency stability of cellular mobile telephone
transmitter authorized by NTC for use in the Philippines
Ans. 2.5 kHz and 2.5 ppm
*One of the following is not classified as CCPE by NTC
Ans. ATM (automated teller machine)
Light rays comprising a node of propagation using FO which
pass thru the longitudinal axis of the fiber are called ___
Ans. Meridianal
When a plan EM wave propagates in free space, it travels as
___
Ans. TEM
*The critical maximum value of the external incident angle for which
light will propagate in the fiber is known as ___
Ans. Acceptance angle
*Which among the IEEE standard that refers to the global

specification for wireless LAN?
Ans. 802.11b
*Most common IF carrier frequency

Ans. 70 MHz
*The ISM frequency range used for Bluetooth application is

___
Ans. 2.402-2.480 GHz
IF bandwidth of microwave ___ highest baseband frequency

Ans. 2 times
Unit used to indicate the loudness of tone compared to the intensity of
1000 Hz tone
Ans. Phon
Agreed standard for measuring loudness is the loudness sensation
produced by 1000 Hz sine wave ___ above the listeners threshold of
hearing
Ans. 40 dB
Unit of pitch
Ans. Mel
*Octave ratio for 2 frequencies
Ans. 2
Unit of sound absorption
Ans. Sabine
Carbon microphone used in
Ans. Variable resistance
The loudness standard can also be defined in a pure tone of loudness
40 phons producing loudness sensation of one
Ans. Sone
Antenna utilizing the ground as part of its resonant circuit
Ans. Marconi
Antenna complete in itself and capable of self oscillation
Ans. Hertz
Radiation resistance in the ratio of
Ans. Radiated power to the square of current
*Example of Marconi type antenna
Ans. Quarter wavelength vertical tower
The gain in the direction of one of the major lobes of the radiation
pattern
Ans. Directivity gain
Father of internet
Ans. Vinton Cerf
Citizen band radio service is a two way voice communication device for
sue in personal service activities it uses a frequency range from ___
Ans. 26.965 to 27.405 MHz
This refers to the ability of individuals, business, and organization to
retain their existing telephone numbers and use the same quality of
service when switching to a new local services provider
Ans. Local number portability
Which of the following is an open standard that allows PCs,
peripherals cordless telephone and other consumer electronics
devices to communicate and interoperate with one another without the
complexity and express associated with installing new wires
Ans. Shared wireless access protocol
Flicker noise in radio communications is also referred to as ___
Ans. Pink noise
The sound characteristics related to a sonic time pattern is known as
___
Ans. Rhythm
The aspect ratio for HDTV

Ans. 16:9
In sound recording, a type of cassette tape known as the
chrome tape is the type ___
Ans. 2
*The meaning of MP3
Ans. Motion picture experts group 1, audio layer 3
The access method of Ethernet is ___
Ans. CSMA/CD
How many voice channels are there in master group?
Ans. 600
*A jitter is a term used to magnify phased shifts of the
information transmitted. The term used to define jitter above
10 Hz is ___
Ans. Wander
*The radio wavelength known as ___ falls within the medium
frequency range
Ans. Hectometric waves
A type of disc antenna system where the subreflector is
elliptical in form is known as
Ans. Gregorian feed
The minimum service performance standard for drop call
rate for cellular mobile telephone service as promulgated by
the NTC is ___ percent
Ans. 5
*CMTS operations are encouraged to improve the grade of
service by 1% every 2 years until ___% is reached
Ans. 4
As promulgated by the NTC, newly authorized CMTS
operators may have a drop call rate of ___ after 1 year of
start of operations
Ans. 7
CMTS operators are encouraged by NTC to improve the
drop call rate by 1% every 2 years the DCR is ___%
Ans. 2
*The NTC requires mandatory installation of navigational
satellite aids equipment particular NAVTEX receiver and
EPIRB equipment to passenger and general cargo vessels
engaged in coastwise trade with a gross tonnage of ___
Ans. 150
*Mandatory date of compliance to NTC requirement by
installing NAVTEX receiver by cargo and passenger vessels
and ships engaged in coast wise trade is on before ___
Ans. September 30, 2002
The NTC has allocated the frequency band ___ for wireless
interface for PABX systems and customer premise
equipment
Ans. 1880-1920 MHz
The spectrum user fee charged by NTC for PTE such as
CMTS operators is ___ Philippine Peso per 1 MHz
bandwidth efficiency
Ans. 500,000
NTC memorandum circular governing rules and regulations in CATV

and PBS services generally prohibits ___
Ans. Carrying of TV programs for distribution
A 3G wireless system can increase its network capacity by ___ percent
as compared to lower generation wireless system
Ans. 70
*One of the following is nor a system specification for 3G wireless
system
Ans. IMT 2000
In CMTS, the frequency separation between forward and reversed
channel is ___
Ans. 45 MHz
*In analog CMTS (AMPS), the narrow band control channel using 395
duplex voice channels is channel ___
Ans. 21
*The period for a single time slot in the GSM-TDMA lot structure is ___
microseconds
Ans. 577 (in choices), 557 correct answer
*Among the connectors the transmission lines for coax, which is the
least expensive as is widely used for CATV, VCRS, and TV sets
Ans. F-7 type (F-type in choices)
*Typical value of the velocity factor of an open wire transmission line is
___
Ans. 0.9
A sound of the separation between two co-channel cells and the cell
radius is known as co-channel ___
Ans. Interface reduction
*In telecommunications, short haul connections refers to a connection
not exceeding ___
Ans. 150 km
What is a wavelength of a violet ray of light in micron (4000
Angstrom)?
Ans. 0.4
*Among visible light rays of blue, green, yellow, and orange which has
the longest wavelength?
Ans. Orange
One of this falls within the visible frequency range
Ans. 0.4 to 0.8
Which of the following does not fall under the optical spectrum?
Ans. Gamma rays
The bending of light rays due to change in velocity as a result of
traveling from one medium to another
Ans. Refraction
What is the infrared range used for fiber optics in Angstrom?
Ans. 7,000 to 12,000
Which among the following maintains plastic, quartz, crystal, silicon,
and glass has the best optical characteristics and lowest loss?
Ans. Glass
In fiber optic system, the core of PCS finer is ___
Ans. Glass
What is the primary specification of a fiber cable usually expressed as
the loss in dB/km?
Ans. Attenuation
*What is the most widely used light generator in a fiber optic system?
Ans. Injection laser diode
Ans. Adding an undoped or intrinsic layer between the P

and N semiconductor
Fiber optic wavelength used because of an attenuation null
at this wavelength
Ans. 1.3 microns
What is a measure of the quality of a fiber optic system?
Ans. Maximum distance between repeaters
Which fiber optic cable length has the lowest attenuation?
Ans. 1000 ft
Presently, the average maximum distance
repeaters in a fiber optic system is between ___
Ans. 10-30 km
between
The speed of light in air compared to speed of light in glass

is ___
Ans. Higher
Fiber optics performance is usually indicated by ___
Ans. Product of bit rate and distance
The index of refraction of glass compared to water is ___
Ans. Lower
*Critical angle maximum angle of incidence Result in an
angle of refraction of ___ degrees or greater
Ans. 90
Figure of merit to measure light gathering or light collecting
ability of optical fiber
Ans. Numerical aperture
Blind speed (solution)
Ans. Vary the pulse repetitive rate
*The highest frequency that can be generated by an IMPATT
microwave diode is ___
Ans. 30 GHz
*In a telephone channel, if the total via net loss of a given
trunk circuit exceeds approximately 2.5 dB, a device known
as ___ is inserted
Ans. Echo suppressor
*In a telephone system, what traffic model is based on the
assumption that calls are not held in the system until it is
satisfied?
Ans. Erlang C
*What executive order regulates the operation of CATV
systems in the Philippines?
Ans. EO 205
*In CMTS, the most important database in a GSM network is
___
Ans. HLR
The data rate of information transfer among mobile devices
using Bluetooth technology is ___
Ans. 1 Mbps
What is the new access method used in 3G mobile
telephony?
Ans. WCDMA
*In CMPTS operation, what is the number of times in every
second that the mobile station submits measurements
reports to the BSC?
Ans. Twice
Frequency of unmodulated carrier of an FM
Ans. Rest frequency
The sensitivity and response time of a photodiode can be increased by

____
Adjustable resonant cavity, undergo power absorption at resonance

Ans. Frequency meter
Amount of power lost in device due to the path of energy flow
Ans. Insertion loss
What determines station that will be selected by a tuner?
Ans. Resonant frequency of tuner
Periodic waveform consists of odd harmonics
Ans. Square wave
Major problem with VHF oscillator
Ans. Poor frequency stability
What happens to a spectrum of repetitive pulse in the pulse width
decrease?
Ans. More harmonic of the same phase
Keyed AGC is AGC that
Ans. Is used in TV receivers
Main disadvantage, single tube transmitter
Ans. Frequency instability
*Reduced by rounding off square wave emission
Ans. Bandwidth
Gained by operating oscillator on some sub harmonic of frequency
Ans. Frequency stability
Hamming bits added to a data block containing 128 bits
Ans. 8
*Class of bias that produces least harmonics
Ans. Class A
Type of field that Faraday shield stops
Ans. Electrostatic
Device used to make modulated visible
Ans. Oscilloscope
*Result, balanced modulation if not perfectly balanced
Ans. The carrier is transmitted
*Advantage, series modulation
Ans. generate high power
Ans. 1 kHz
*When no power is applied to a transmission system, the
VSWR is ___
Ans. equal to zero
The reference standard test tone normally used is indicated
as zero ___
Ans. dBm
To raise the power levels of AM signals, the class of
amplifier used is ___
Ans. class A
The characteristic impedance of coaxial cables commonly
available are 75 ohms and ___
Ans. 50 ohms
The scope of radar system displays ___
Ans. target range but not position
1 Angstrom is equal to how many microns?
Ans. 10
100 Angstroms is equal to how many microns?
Ans. 0.01
10 microns is equal to ___ Angstroms
Ans. 100,000
A light wave is 8000 Angstrom long, what is the wavelength
in nanometer?
Ans. 800
Low contrast picture in which white seems flat and lacking in
detail suggests ___
Ans. low beam current
Camera tube that has minimum lag
Ans. Plumbicon
Part or visible spectrum where camera pick up that has the
greatest output
Ans. Yellow green
Precise scanning size and linearity are most important in ___
Ans. single-tube color
Filter attenuates signals, passes below and above that band

Ans. Band stop
Beam alignment magnets for camera tube are adjusted while

rocking which control?
Ans. electrical focus
Method of expressing the amplitude of complex non periodic signal

Ans. volume
Special effects and protection switching

Ans. SEG
To provide 2 or more voice circuits with same carrier

Ans. ISM emission
Gamma of picture tube of TV

Ans. 2.2
*SI unit, magnetic field intensity

Ans. Ampere/meter
If the camera control be placed for max change the lens to

one side with ___
Ans. shorter focal length
Small amount of signal applied to input port that leaks to the output
port
Ans. feed through loss
Typical value of vidicon dark current

Ans. 0.2 A
Multiplexing, oldest and simplest

Ans. space division multiplexing
Focal length = 8, diameter = 4, f rating is

Ans. 2
Device displays signal state of many lines simultaneously

Ans. logic analyzer
Diagonal screen size of picture tube, 17CPU

Ans. 17 inches
When the load absorbs all the power transmitted, it means that the
load impedance is ___
Ans. equal to Zo of the line
For TV, in what deflection angle does maximum detection

angle of 45 degrees either side of center correspond ___
Ans. 90 degrees
What is the frequency of the standard test tone conducted on audio

equipment?
Heater voltage of TV receiver picture tube

Ans. 6.3 V
10
Ans. I
Typical anode capacitance of a TV picture glass envelop
Ans. 2000 pF
Radiator of light from the screen of a TV picture tube as it is excited
Ans. luminescence
In a frequency synthesizer, smallest amount which output frequency
can be changed
Ans. resolution
Internal capacitance, causes feedback produces same effect on
Ans. Miller effect
*Small length of wire found in some RF equipment, connected only at
one end and uses a capacitance to ground
Ans. gimmick
Movement of a signal from one frequency to another using mixeroscillator combination
Ans. frequency translation
False
Ans. the fully saturated color is mostly
Color with most luminance
Ans. yellow
*Hue of color 90 leading sync burst phase
Ans. cyan
Average voltage of 350 MHz modulated chrominance signal
in TV
Ans. brightness of color
Second IF value for color in TV receiver in any station
Ans. 3.58 MHz
If 3.58 MHz class C amplifier
Ans. no color
Suppressed carrier frequency of channel 4 of a group using FDM

telephony
Ans. 96 kHz
Continued emission of light, following excitation of the

screen of TV picture tubes to decay to ___ percent of its
maximum value is known as screen persistence
Ans. one
What determines the bandwidth of a transmitted signal?

Ans. highest frequency component of the modulating signal
Normal decay time for TV picture tube

Ans. 5 ms
What happens in standard AM transmission, no modulating signal is

being transmitted?
Ans. there are no sidebands
*Which is the most positive element in electron gun of TV?

Ans. 2nd anode
B83 form of modulation is also known as ___

Ans. Independent Sideband Emission
Shadow mask for color TV has about ___ holes

Ans. 300,000
If a 500 Hz modulation of a 1 MHz carrier has 3rd harmonic distortion,

what is emission bandwidth?
Ans. 3 kHz
Limit of x-ray level set by DOH. The limit is ___ milliroentgen

per hour as measured from a point ___ from any surfaces of
the receiver
Ans. 0.5, 2 miles
Shape trapezoidal pattern at 100% modulation

Ans. triangle
Equalizing pulse repetition rate for horizontal

Ans. 31500 Hz
Feature of modulating tone, FM deviation is proportional

Ans. amplitude
*How many flyback lines are produced during vertical retrace

for each field when retrace time is 3% of the vertical trace
time?
Ans. 8
Modulating 2 waves of the same frequency but with ___ phase

difference is equivalent to modulating both amplitude and phase of the
same carrier
Ans. 90 degrees
In TV, how much time passes by between one vertical sync

pulse in an odd field and the next in an even field?
Ans. 1/60 sec
What will normal AM receiver detect from an unmodulated RF AC

wave?
Ans. nothing
Width of H-blanking pulse

Ans. 10.2 s
Splatter
Ans. overmodulation
*Time period for the visible H trace

Ans. 53.5 s
Value of maximum instantaneous peak power if PEP = 6 W

Ans. 12 W
Horizontal lines that are blanked out in the frame of TV

receiver by V blanking
Ans. 4.2
Scheme in the transmission of 2 separate info signal using 2 AM

carrier at same frequency differ in phase by 90 degrees
Ans. QAM
Colloquial term describes additional side frequencies produced by
overmodulation or distortion in AM
Ans. splatter
The interfering beat frequency of 920 kHz is between 3.58 MHz color
subcarrier and ___
Ans. 4.5 MHz intercarrier sound
Not tuned to 3.58 MHz
Ans. video pre amplifier
1.3 MHz bandwidth
Width of V blanking pulse

Ans. 1333 s
Pulses in V blanking corresponds to 3H lines wide
Ans. V sync
*Given 635 s vertical retrace time, the number of complete
horizontal lines scanned during vertical flyback is ___
Ans. 10
One half line scanning
Ans. exact interlacing
Intermediate power amplifier (IPA) transmitter is also known
as ___
11
Ans. Driver
Reference for noise temperature in C
Ans. 17
Three major types of demodulators
Ans. Foster-Seeley, Quadrature, PLL
What determines the resolutions of the picture in a TV receiver?
Ans. The frequency response of the video signal
Standard output level, composite video signal
Ans. 1 Vpp
*Composite video signal consists of
Ans. Camera signal, blanking sync
Luminance signal
Ans. 30% red
*Color level control is set
Ans. BPA
Making the aperture of a camera lens smaller by stopping down the
iris to diameter of 1/sqrt 2 reduces light by ___
Ans. Half
Camera tube that uses lead oxide (PbO)
Ans. Plumbicon
*Camera signal output with out sync
Ans. Non composite video
The recommended length of 120 radials of AM broadcast tower used
to improve ground conductivity should be equal to ___
Ans. Antenna height
Bending of radio waves from high density to low density
Ans. Refraction
Type of synchronization used in data communication where

in the beginning and end of a character code is identified
Ans. Character synchronization
In data communication employing FSK, baud rate is ___ of
bit rate
Ans. Equal
Number of independent symbols that can be carried out
through communication system
Ans. Information capacity
Form of digital modulation using its modulation A binary
pulse stream that varies between 2 discrete voltage levels
Ans. FSK
Form of angle modulation constant envelope digital
modulation, wherein the input voltage used is binary digital
signal
Ans. Phase shift keying
The fundamental frequency of a binary square used in a
voltage controlled oscillator is
Ans. bit rate
Electrical length of a Marconi antenna needed for AM
broadcasting can be increased by ___ by radiator and
coupling
Ans. Using series loading of capacitor
Grounding system of an AM broadcast tower radiator may
be improved using radial wires known as ___
Ans. Counterpoise
Number of lines scanned per frame in the raster on a picture
tube
Ans. 525
Antenna whose technical equivalent is /4 line which is open-circuited

Ans. Dipole
In the frame for which interlaced scanning is used alternate

lines are skipped during vertical scanning
Ans. The vertical scanning frequency is doubled for 3060 Hz
Marconi type of antenna is a grounded ___ vertical antenna

Ans. /4
For TV, horizontal flyback is 10%. This time equals ___

Ans. 6.4 s
Antenna used in mobile comm. Mounted on vehicles

Ans. Marconi
Statement not true

Ans. The klystron effect
Table of all possible combinations of variables

Ans. Truth table
*Width of vertical sync pulse with serration

Ans. 6 half lines/3 lines
Another name for bandwidth efficiency

Ans. Information density
Sawtooth generator circuits produce

Ans. Timing
Digital modulation where it is not necessary to recover a phase

coherent carrier but instead make use of received signaling which is
delayed by one signal element time slot and compared to the next
signal element
Ans. Differential phase shift keying
*Frequency wrong
Ans. 31000 Hz for vertical scanning
Boolean function expressed as sum of minterms or product of

maxterms are said to be in what form?
Ans. Canonical
Greater p-p amplitude

Ans. Saturation
Bell Systems selective calling system is example of ___

Ans. Asynchronous data protocol
The time when the FET is on is called ___
Ans. Acquisition
For error correction, this method is used when there is a human being
at the received terminal to analyze the received data and make
decision on its integrity
Ans. Symbol substitution
Contrast control
Ans. Y video amplifier
SPL stated in terms of peak values of pressure variations,

stated in bars or ___
Ans. N/m2
In an intelligibility test, group of listener is ahead to record
syllables the number of correctly recorded syllables as a
percentage of number transmitted is termed ___
Ans. Articulation efficiency
Audible sound that can be detected by human ear are in
range ___
Ans. 16 Hz 16 kHz
12
Pre modulation system most noise resistant

Ans. FM
Pre emphasis provides extra noise immunity by ___
Ans. Converting phase modulation to FM
SSB modulation is classified as ___
Ans. AM
Used to suppress carrier in single sideband transmitters
Ans. Balance modulator
If the distance between the listener and the source is tripled, intensity
is reduced to ___
Ans. 1/9
Decreasing distance by , intensity increase ___
Ans. 4 times
Increases in SPL in dB if pressure is increased 4 times
Ans. 12 dB
Carrier is said to be overmodulated if the positive peak rises to value
___ of the maximum unmodulated carrier
Ans. More than twice
100% modulated if ___ the maximum unmodulated carrier
Ans. Twice
Antenna assuming having similar size, has largest gain
Ans. Parabolic
Theoretical (mathematical) expectation of the error rate for a given
system
Ans. Probability of error
Most reliable scheme for error detection
Ans. CRC
Type of PCM modulation that uses a single bit PCM code to achieve
digital transmission of analog signals
Ans. Delta modulation
Advantage of digital over analog transmission
Ans. Noise immunity
Unique binary word used to decode each earth stations

transmission employing CDMA in satellite communications
system
Ans. Chip code
Multiple access system used in satellite communications
most use today
Ans. TDMA
In satellite communications, frequency hopping is a form of
___
Ans. CDMA
Method used to interface terrestrial voice band channels with
satellite channels where an individual terrestrial channel is
assigned to a particular set channel for the duration of a call
Ans. DNI
Not a non-ideal parameters of a satellite system link budget
Ans. Satellite back off loss
Unit used to measure dosage of X-radiation from x-ray is
___
Ans. Roentgen per hour
Which of the following is the biggest disadvantage of PCM
systems?
Ans. The large bandwidth required
The reason why companding is employed in PCM system is
___
Ans. To protect small signal in PCM from quantizing
distortion
The communication antenna used with a rotating satellite,
whose main beam is continuously adjusted in the direction
with respect to the satellite, so that the antenna illuminate a
given area on the earths surface is called the ___ antenna
Ans. Despun
A weak horizontal amplifier in a color TV receiver can cause
___
Ans. Insufficient width of the picture
In PCM, the ___ circuit periodically samples the analog input and
converts those samples to a multilevel PAM signal
Ans. Sample and hold
In order to cover most of the earths surface, as the earth

turns under the satellite path during the 24 hour period, the
orbit of the Global Positioning System must maintain ___
degrees inclination with respect to the equator
Ans. 55
In PCM, Nyquist sampling theorem avoid distortion the minimum

sampling rate should be equal to ___ value of the highest audio
frequency
Ans. Twice
The reason why the received signal from a satellite,

stabilized by a computer pulsed electromagnet exhibits a
fairly rapid pulse fading effect is because ___
Ans. The satellite is rotating
In data communication circuit, synchronous data format is used to

achieve what type of synchronization?
Ans. Bit
High definition television picture contains about ___ times as

much information as the present NTSC TV
Ans. 5
Multiple accessing arrangement for satellite communications system

wherein earth station transmits within the same frequency band and
have no limitation on when they transmit on or which carrier frequency,
carrier separation is accomplished with envelop encryption/decryption
techniques
Ans. CDMA
The transfer arrangement which refers to the Universal

Transverse Accelerator grid
Ans. UTC
each earth station be transmission are assigned specified uplink

and downlink frequency bands within an allotted satellite channel
bandwidth and may be pre assigned or demand assigned
Ans. FDMA
Spread spectrum another name used to denote multiple access
system in satellite communications because there is no limitation on
the bandwidth
Ans. CDMA
What is the effect on the SNR system (in dB) if the

bandwidth is doubled, considering all other parameters to
remain unchanged except the normal thermal noise only.
The SNR will be ___
Ans. Decreased by 3 dB
The protocol that uses the checksum method of error
detection is the ___ protocol
Ans. XMODEM
Classical Ethernet system
Ans. Bus
13
The cable mostly used by the 10 and 100 Mbps Ethernet installation is
the ___ cable
Ans. ISTP
*In a cable television (CATV) system providing internet access, a 6
MHz TV channel can provide data rate of ___ Mbps
Ans. 27
*What is the current digital video specification applying video
compression?
Ans. MPEG-4
In accordance with the Philippine Electronics Code, the maximum
radiation from electronic equipment must not exceed ___ per week in
order not to experience genetic and sometimes damage to cells
Ans. 100 mr
The term used for rf radiation damage to cells of reproductive tissues
Ans. Genetic
For solid microwave parabolic antenna/reflectors the maximum axial or
thrust force of a wind loads occur at a wind angle of ___ degrees for
normal
Ans. 56
Heavy loading as defined in the Philippine Electronics Code refer to
the loading taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight
for ___ km per hour wind velocity
Ans. 245
Light loading
Ans. 160
The data signaling channel in a cellular system that handles the
administrative overhead is known as the ___ channel
Ans. Paging
Among the following systems, which one uses CDMA as a method of
multiplexing?
Ans. IS-95
*The effective radiated power (ERP) of class II cellular mobile phone
normally used in GSM system is ___ watts
Ans. 1.6
*The electronic serial number (ESN) assigned at the factory of cellular
mobile phone, consists of ___ bits
Ans. 32
The speech coding rate of GSM cellular mobile system is ___
Ans. 13 kbps
The modulation system employed by the European Cordless
Telephone
Ans. GFSK
The propagation velocity of longitudinal waves depends on the ___ of
the medium
Ans. Compressibility
Reverberation time, time taken
Ans. One millionth
*The maximum penalty for violating a provision of RA 9292 for any
person is ___
Ans. Php1M fine and 6 years imprisonment
*The maximum continuous term of office of members of the Board of
Electronics Engineering is ___ years
Ans. 6
The standard IF frequency for the picture tube can be of TV receivers
using NTSC standard
Ans. 45.75 MHz
Ans. 651.25
*Using NTSC standard, what is the carrier frequency of UHF
TV channel 28?
Ans. 559.75 MHz
An MPEG-4 based video compression technology uses a
radio format known as ___
Ans. DivX
*Which of the standards given below is for terrestrial digital
TV transmission?
Ans. 8-V.58 (8- VSB?)
*The actual data rate for terrestrial digital TV transmission, to
allow for the addition of synchronizing and error correction
bit is ___
Ans. 32.38 Mbps
MPEG-2 video compression uses discrete ___ transform
algorithm
Ans. Cosine
Among the resistor associated with transistor as a result of
the discrete particle of the current carriers in all forms of
semiconductor is known as ___ noise
Ans. Shot
In what acoustical scale are all intervals exactly constant?
Ans. Diatonic
In FDM, with an L600 master group, what is the carrier
frequency of super group 10?
Ans. 3100
To be nominated as a member of the Board of Electronics
Engineering under RA 9292, one must be in active practice
of the profession for a period of at least ___ years
Ans. 10
The power output of SSB transmitter is normally expressed
as the ___ power
Ans. Peak envelop
In radio communication, what do you call a point on a line,
between the earths center and an observer, located farther
from the earths center than the point?
Ans. Nadir
In April 2002, the IEEE published their 802.16 standard for
broadband wireless access (BWA), more commonly known
as ___
Ans. WIMAX
In preparing the power budget for the fiber optic system, it is
customary to include the margin of safety to compensate for
variations in source, losses due to bends and for repair
splices. What is the typical margin of safety used?
Ans. 5-10 dB
The ITU body that provides secretarial support for the work
of the ITU-T sector and services for the participants in the
ITU-T
work,
diffuse
information
on
international
telecommunications worldwide, and establishes agreement
with
many
international
standards
development
organizations is the ___
Ans. Telecommunications Standardization Bureau
The typical bandwidth of single mode step index fiber is ___
Ans. 50 to 100 GHz/km
In telephony, the cable used for customer loop in telephone
exchanges, which has a round trip loop resistance of 170
ohm/100 mile is ___
Ans. AWG No. 22
Using NTSC standard, the picture carrier of channel 44 of UHF TV is

___ MHz
14
In sky wave propagation, what is the most commonly used operating

frequency offering the least amount of problems?
Ans. Optimum working frequency
Among the following materials used by acoustic engineers, which has
the highest absorption coefficient for sound waves?
Ans. Celotex
The microwave tube that is a linear beam tube, in which the interaction
between the beam and the RF field is continuous, is the ___
Ans. Traveling wave tube
The rate of digital communication that is achievable with single mode
step index is ___
Ans. 2 Gbytes
In microwave communications, which of the following concepts may be
used to analyze interference by obstacles near the path of a radar
beam?
Ans. Fresnel zone
In fiber optics, the main disadvantage of plastic over glass fiber is ___
Ans. High attenuation
Bar codes are those omnipresent black and white striped stickers that
often times appear on almost every consumer items in the US and in
the Philippines. Code 39 is an example of what type of bar code?
Ans. Discrete code
In integrated services digital network (ISDN) the ISDN

channel which is projected to carry electronic mail with a
transmission rate between 4.8 to 64 kbps is the ___ channel
Ans. B
Ribbon microphone is an example of ___ microphone
Ans. Pressure-gradient
In digital transmission using delta modulation method, what
normally causes error in the demodulated signal?
Ans. Slope overload
*Under RA 9292, Electronics technician may apply for
registration without examination within ___ years after the
effectivity of the Republic Act
Ans. 5
Republic Act 9292 became effective in ___ 2004
Ans. May 27,
*The paid-up capitalization requirement for the grant of
mobile phone dealers permit as provided for in NTC
Memorandum Circular 08-08-2004 is ___ pesos
Ans. 100,000
Which of the following refers to the cost-effective standard-based

wireless solution that specifically supports low data rates, low power
consumption, security and reliability and is also known as IEEE
802.15.4?
Ans. Zigbee
*A duly authorized mobile phone service center (MPSC) as

required under NTC Memorandum Circular 07-08-2004 to
properly identify its business and location by posting
conspicuously at the entrance of the premises a sign board
of at least ___ by ___ dimension, indicating its business
name, type of services offered, address, and MBPC permit
number
Ans. 50 cm by 100 cm
What is the speed of cellular digital packet data (CDPP), which is one
of the oldest devices for sending data over a cellular communications
network, and is a CDPP that provides a way of passing internet
protocol (IP) data packets over analog cellular network?
Ans. 19.2
*The penalty for violating the provision of Memorandum

Circular 07-08-2004 of the National Telecommunication
Commission (NTC), specifically unauthorized servicing of
mobile phones is ___ pesos per unit
Ans. 5,000
A relatively new category of wireless communication which uses laser

operating in the near-infrared region of the light spectrum is ___
Ans. Free-space optics
*Frequency band most suitable for LOS

Ans. VHF
Wireless internet service providers (WISPs) use Wi-Fi technology to

provide internet access to airport, hotel, convention centers, coffee
shops, and other public places. When users are within the range of an
antenna, WISPs offer access to the internet at speed up to ___ Mbps
Ans. 11
The typical light scattering (Rayleigh scattering) loss at 820 nm of light
wavelength is ___
Ans. 2.5 dB
In telephony M88 loading coil (88 mH loading coil) is placed at an
interval of ___ feet
Ans. 9,000
An electronic method of reducing or removing unwanted sound by the
production of a pressure wave of equal amplitude but opposite sign to
the unwanted sound is called ___
Ans. Active noise control
Ambiphony, in the context of studio acoustics, is ___
Ans. A method of adjusting reverberation within a studio or
concert hall by means of a loudspeaker feedback system
What service is provided by broadband ISDN (B-ISDN) providers, that
offers a means for bi-directional end-to-end data transmission, in real
time, between two subscribers or between a subscriber and the service
provider called?
Ans. Conversational service
In synchronous transfer mode (ATU) well format __ indicates the mode
source and packet destination
Ans. Virtual channel identifier
*Most densed of all the ionized layer of the ionosphere

Ans. F2
/2 antenna radiator when used at 150 MHz approximate
length
Ans. 1 meter
Beyond the horizon propagation
Ans. Troposcatter
Radiation occurring on frequency which are whole or
multiple of the original desired frequency is ___ radiation
Ans. Harmonic
An instrument used to measure the relevant height, a layer
in the ionosphere used for wave propagation
Ans. Ionosonde
It is one particular frequency known as ___ frequency. The
periodic time of the wave frequency becomes equal to the
time required for one complete revolution about the earths
magnetic fields axis making the lectum path a very wide
single loop
Ans. Gyro
Also known as Mogul-Delinger fadeout
Ans. Sudden ionospheric disturbance
Frequency band used with submarines
Ans. ELF
*Super high frequency
Ans. 3-30 GHz
15
Ans. Back lobe radiation

Present only during daytime
Ans. D layer
Loss due to valence electron
Ans. UV absorption
An array of simple diodes fed in phase and having a

radiation pattern whose maximum directivity is along the axis
normal to the plane of the array
Ans. Broadside array
The velocity of radio waves ___ as it passes from air to the ionosphere
Ans. Increases
A microwave antenna formed from a circular waveguide

Ans. Conical horn antenna
Ducts often are formed over

Ans. Bodies of water
What is the bridge circuit in conjunction with a turnstile

antenna for the purpose of feeding 2 separate signals to a
single antenna?
Ans. Circulator
Area directly above a vertical antenna

Ans. Curve of silence
*Phase separation of 2 antennas 3/8 apart
Ans. 135 degrees
Fiber optics
Ans. N. S. Kapany
Type of laser used for fiber optic communications
Ans. Semiconductor laser
One of these is not an advantage of ILDs over LEDs
Ans. More temperature dependent
One of these is not an advantage of a planar heterojunction LED over
planar diffuse LED
Ans. Light is emitted in many directions
Range of frequency used for fiber optic system is
Ans. 100-1000 THz
The statement Incoming light is partially absorbed and partially
transmitted equally in all directions is known as ___
Ans. The Lambertian reflection
In broadband ISDN (B-ISDN), the channel rate of H21 is ___
Ans. 32.786 Mbps
The digital rate for T1 carrier service is ___
Ans. 1.544 Mbps
Ethernet is a baseband system using CSMA/CD operating at ___
Ans. 10 Mbps
The multiplexing scheme used by baseband transmission usually with
aggregate clock frequencies derived from a central, traceable source
is ___
Ans. TDM
What mode of transmission in public data network is used in which
data are transferred from sound to the network then to the destination
in an asynchronous data format?
Ans. Start/stop mode
What is the signal rate of RS 232 normally used as an interface
between DTE and DCE?
Ans. 20 kbps
CCITT V.26 modem has a modulation rate of ___
Ans. 1200 bauds
Synchronous modems cost more than asynchronous modems
because ___
Ans. They must contain clock recovery circuits
Which OSI layer has inter-host communication?
Ans. Session layer
In data communications, the T in 10 Base T normally represents ___
Ans. The type of cable used
Form of unwanted radiation working against the main beam caused by
feeding a parabolic reflector with an isotropic source
A word in telegraphy consists of ___ characters plus a word

space
Ans. 7 and
Very popular used for optical system and satellites telemetry
links
Ans. Bi-phase codes
Technique that allows correction of data of the receiver
Ans. FEC
System where transmitted receive
approximately the same speed
Ans. Asynchronous
clock
free-run
at
Layer that accepts and structures the messages for the

application
Ans. Presentation
Manages traffic on the link
Ans. Data link
Type of antenna array consisting of a linear arrangement of
a simple diodes 90 degrees out of phase and have a
radiation pattern of maximum directivity in the plane of the
array
Ans. End-fire array
Type of antenna capable of transmitting (receiving) a TEM
wave polarized in any direction
Ans. Helical antenna
A region within the influence of the induction field of an
antenna
Ans. Near field
An example of parasitic array
Ans. Yagi-Uda
Structures made of plastic material used to enclose the
complete antenna assembly to protect the antenna from the
weakness and to reduce wind and snow loading
Ans. Radome
Layers task with the end-to-end accountability through a
network
Ans. Network
Modern digital systems use a ___ to demodulate a PAM
signal
Ans. LPF
*A signal which varies between 3 levels
Ans. Bipolar code
Based on the representing most commonly used characters
with the fewest number of bits
Ans. Huffman encoding
Uses convolutional coding technique
Ans. Trellis coding
16
Typical SNA topology is ___

Ans. Hierarchal topology
Typical PBX configuration
Ans. Star topology
It describes the function of the physical level protocol
Ans. Error checking
Which of the following achieves code transparency with frequency?
Ans. Bit-oriented protocol
Can be used to demodulate a PAM signal
Ans. LPF
Most common modulation technique for radio telegraphy
Ans. FSK
Data transfer uses handshaking principle
Ans. Synchronous data transfer
Band most suitable for SSB generation
Ans. 3-30 MHz
Lowest layer of the ionosphere used for HF propagation
Ans. C
Only layer existing at night
Ans. F2
Sunspot cycle radio wave propagation occurs every how many years?
Ans. 11
C-band satellite channel 4
Downlink = 6065 MHz
Ans. 3840 MHz (uplink)
Frequency not used in TV
Ans. 108-114 MHz
*CATV specified zone
Ans. 56 km
Log books
Ans. 2 years
CATV primetime
Ans. 6 pm to 11 pm
*Determines the rate of frequency swing for an FM broadcast
transmitter
Ans. Modulation frequency
*Horizontal resolution of a broadcast TV receiver in the Philippines
Ans. 428 lines nov 2006
Resonant acoustic device consisting of air cavity connected

to a larger space by relatively small opening or neck
Ans. Helmholtz resonator
Ability of sound device whose instantaneous waveform to
that of sine wave
Ans. Pure tone
Persistence of sound in an space of multiple reflection
or scattering for the sound source has stopped?
Ans. Reverberation
Sound reduction index is also called ___
Ans. Transmission loss
An underwater acoustic pressure sensor
Ans. Hydrophone
The average absorption for a person is ___
Ans. 4.7 sabines
___ surfaces must be avoided since they result in
undesirable focusing of sound
Ans. Concave
Time duration for one horizontal trace in a TV receiver
Ans. 52 s
*Horizontal synchronizing pulses in a TV occurs after every
___
Ans. Scanning line
Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during ___
Ans. Vertical blanking
Demodulation of the sound signal in a TV receiver is
accompanied by the ___
Ans. Discriminator
Measure of the propagation of info content of speech sound
that can be understood correctly
Ans. Intelligibility
Coating in the interior of the faceplate of a picture tube, that
gives off light when struck by an electron beam
Ans. Aquadag
What is the name often referred to as picture tube?
Ans. Kinnie
Small system network designed to distribute direct to home
TV signals throughout a single dwelling block
Ans. SMATV
*What is the color subcarrier for channel 5?

Ans. 80.83 MHz
Transmission of sound from one room thru common walls,

floor, or ceilings
Ans. Flanking transmission
Which stages in broadcast transmitter are normally class C?

Ans. Modulated amplifier
What deviation is considered 10% for FMBC stations?

Ans. 75 kHz
*Term in asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) system to describe a byte

Ans. Octet
Horizontal scanning time for 1 pixel

Ans. 0.125 s
Two emission designation of TV

Ans. F3F and C3F
*For 2 pixels
Ans. 0.25 s
Complex number equal to the ratio of complex pressure amplitude to

the complex amplitude of the volume velocity
Ans. Acoustic impedance
For 12.5 pixels

Ans. 1.56 s
Acoustic energy flowing per unit measure per unit time

Ans. Acoustic intensity
Room where boundaries absorb effectively all incident sound
Ans. Anechoic room
Used for both recording and playback

Ans. VHS
Video heads rotate
Ans. Writing speed
17
Typical frequency for FM luminance signal in VCR recording

Ans. 3.5 MHz
Color-under technique
Ans. Chroma frequencies are reduced
*Oscillator frequency needed to heterodyne 629 kHz up to 3.58 MHz
Ans. 4.21 MHz
*Comb filter
Ans. Cancel chroma crosstalk
Switching for each field required for
Ans. Video heads
Servo control of speed and phase used for the
Ans. Video head scanner
The part that rotates to meter out the tape at constant speed
Ans. Capstan
Ans. EDGE
EDGE
Ans. Enhanced Data Rates for Global Evolution
Typical separation distance between satellites 1833 miles
Ans. 40
*Bluetooth spread spectrum
Ans. Frequency hopping
Channel capacity
7 nanocells
10 channels/cell split into 4 minicells
Ans. 336 channels/area
Most commonly used LNA in satellites transponder
Ans. Tunnel
Minimum acceptable degree of elevation
Ans. 5 degrees
To make the tape speed the same in recording, the tape speed is
regulated by ___
Ans. Control-track pulse
Send or receive
Ans. Session
Tilting the video head tape

Ans. Zero guard bands
Multi drop network

Ans. Polling
*Uses laser light beam for playback

Ans. VLP
PCM
Ans. SQC
In CED, disk capacitance varies

Ans. Pit depth
Error control in HF radio data transmission

Ans. ARQ
GPS (navstar)
Ans. MEO
Asynchronous data modulation

Ans. FSK
*27-30 GHz satellite band

Ans. Ka
CCITT V.26
Ans. 1200 bauds
*Wi-Fi
Ans. 802.11b
Citcuit that performs the inverse mapping and delivers to the

user destination, a reproduction of the original digital source
output
Ans. Source coding
Bluetooth maximum distance

Ans. 10 m
IRIDIUM (leosat) height
Ans. 480 miles
Mabuhay (geosat) orbital location
Ans. 146E, longitude
*MEO frequency band
Ans. 1.2-1.66 GHz
Multiplexing baseband transmission

Ans. TDM
Ethernet CSMA/CD bit rate
Ans. 10 Mbps
Basic super group
Ans. 312 to 552 kHz
*Keplers third law

Ans. Cube
Digital network single network for processing and

transmitted to the user
Ans. SDH
*Geosat earth coverage

Ans. 42.5%
Digital modulation scheme modems

Ans. PSK
*SPADE digital modulation technique

Ans. QPSK
Total information processes

Ans. Throughput
Channel 13 color subcarrier

Ans. 211.25 MHz
Pulse group in loudness

Ans. PDM
Channel 7 color subcarrier

Ans. 178.83 MHz
Nose generated by signals passing through digital filters

while coefficients or other parameters are being changed in
an adapter manner
Ans. Zipper noise
Bluetooth standard
Ans. 802.15
GPRS uplink data rate
Ans. 14 kpbs
Method of encoding audio signal used in US standard 1.544

Mbps 24 channel PCM system
Ans. Mu Law
*3G wireless technology broadband like data speeds
18
Extraneous recovery bit that has introduced a bit stream usually by a

noise source
Ans. Glitch
Device that can divide a data character into several with channels to
share its facilities usually at slower data rates
Ans. Converter
Protocol used to connect after packet switching network
Ans. X.75
*ISDN BRI
Ans. 2B + D
ANSI bit oriented protocol
Ans. ADCCP
If intensity doubles, then ___

Ans.
Marconi antenna current
Ans. Maximum at the base
Antenna /10 long
Ans. Elementary doublet
Notch antenna
Ans. Open-ended slot antenna
FM polarization
Ans. Horizontal polarization
Very slow signal strength antenna
Ans. Null
A modulation process in which a frame of fixed width pulses transmitter

whose polarization indicates whether the demodulation output shorted
rise or fall at each pulse
Ans. Delta modulation
Which frequency band omni-horizontally polarized antenna

used?
Ans. VHF & UHF
*Data together scheme that uses handshaking

Ans. Synchronous data time scheme
A section which would be complete antenna by itself

Ans. Bay
Radio telegraphy modulation

Ans. FSK
Discone polarization
Ans. Vertical
Used to demodulate a PAM signal

Ans. Low pass filter
Noise at the receiver

Ans. V
Achieves code transparency with ring

Ans. Bit oriented protocol
Reference tone level for dBa

Ans. -85 dBm
*Not function of the physical level protocol

Ans. Error checking
dBrn reference tone level

Ans. -90 dBm
Family of interchange circuits

Ans. V.24
EIA-F1A
Ans. -85 dBm
Topology which is relatively immune to bottleneck

Ans. Mesh topology
Advantage of top loading

Ans. Improved radiation efficiency
Typical PBX configuration

Ans. Star topology
*Reliable measurement for comparing amplitude noise

characteristics
Ans. Noise factor
Typical SNA topology

Ans. Hierarchical topology
Coding used convolutional coding techniques
Ans. Trellis coding
The modulated picture carrier wave includes the composite video
signal as the ___
Ans. Symmetric envelop of amplitude variations
Statement TRUE
Ans. Negative transmission means that the carrier amplitude
*Fiber optic maximum data rate
Ans. 10 Gbps
G-4
Ans. Truck Ethernet
Software that measures a packet of data
Ans. Internet protocol
*OSI layer transmission of bits
Ans. Physical layer
In PLL demodulating an FM signal
Ans. VCO
*Input PLL frequency demodulator, fm
Ans. Error signal
Gain level being too high for signals entering the modulation
Ans. Distortion and splatter
RF carrier
Ans. LOB
Mixer
Ans. Converter
Maximum side band suppression using filter design
Ans. 50 dB
SPL = 20 log (ft^2/2.089)
Two main characteristics of sound waves
Ans. Pitch and loudness
IEEE 802.4
Ans. Token passing for bus topology
ISDN encoding technique
Ans. 2BIQ encoding
BRI
Ans. 2B + 2D
Uses connecting medium as a multi channel device
Ans. Broadband transmission
Characters transmitted other than data
Ans. Overhead
19
Start bit
Ans. Logic 0
Minimum quality circuit available using the PTN
Ans. Basic voice channel
RS 232C
Ans. 25 pins
Bridge
Ans. Physical and data link
Network OS within several building in grouped
Ans. Novell network
Serial to parallel and vice versa
Ans. DTE
*Which ground based navigational system has a center frequency of
108-118 MHz?
Ans. DME/VOR
In analog CMTS, the interfering signal strength remains approximately
less than ___ percent of the desired signal strength to ensure
negligible interference
Ans. 2
*In order to avoid reflections, the load impedance used to terminate
RG 62 is compared as ___ ohms
Ans. 93
*The relative permittivity of silicon is ___
Ans. 11.7
*There are ___ transistors in CMOS inverter
Ans. 2
Channel 4 in the Philippine TV uses ___ as its visual carrier

frequency
Ans. 67.25 MHz
*One of these frequency bands is not used by TV
broadcasting stations in the Philippines
Ans. 72-76 MHz
*For TV broadcasting stations median field strength required
for various grades of service are oftentimes expressed in
dBu. It signifies the field strength in decibels above ___
Ans. One microvolt per meter
*Which executive order (EO) provides the policy guideline for
compulsary
interconnection
of
authorized
public
telecommunications carrier?
Ans. 59
*Which among the Philippine Congressional Issuances
provides for the installation, operation, and maintenance of
public telephones and/or public calling stations in each
municipality in the Philippines?
Ans. RA 6849
An optic fiber with 3.2 m diameter core was used for
communication; the core and cladding indexes for refraction
are 1.59 and 1.51, respectively. Calculate the cutoff
wavelength on micrometer.
Ans. 1.27
Determine the optical power in microwatts 60 km from a 0.1
milliwatt source on a single mode fiber that has 0.25 dB/km
loss.
Ans. 3.165
*What do you call a text code that makes use of 16-bit long code words
Ans. Unicode
Calculate the power driven to the speaker of a radio

receiver, if the antenna receives 8 microvolts signal into its
50 ohm input impedance.
Ans. -119 dBW
A CPU feature, designed to begin processing a new instruction as

soon as the previous instruction reaches the next stage of the machine
cycle is known as ___
Ans. Pipelining
Calculate the optical power in microvolts at a distance 60 km

from a 0.1 milliwatts source, on a single mode fiber that has
a 0.25 dB/km loss.
Ans. 3.165
*They are transition or edge triggered devices known as ___

Ans. Flip-flops
A digital transmission system has a BER of 10,000 and is

100 milliwatts bits long. Calculate the expected number of
error.
Ans. 10,000
*Which of the following coaxial cable is also known as the UHF

connector?
Ans. PL-529 (in choices), PL-259 (correct answer)
Velocity factor of coaxial cables vary from ___ to ___
Ans. 0.6 to 0.8
Calculate the noise bandwidth of a tuned circuit whose

dynamic resistance is 1.4 k, while the capacitance is 20 pF.
Ans. 8.9 MHz
*High speed networks as defined by the National Telecommunications

Commission Memorandum Circular are networks in ICT that have a
capacity of at least ___
Ans. 2.048 Mbps
*Crosstalk in telephony, refers to the unwanted coupling

between signal paths and contribute the crosstalk coupling
loss in dBx core unit of crosstalk in dB above reference
coupling if the crosstalk coupling is 20 dBx.
Ans. 70
*The policy adopted to improve the provision of local exchange carrier

services is embodied in Executive Order No. ___
Ans. 109
Determine the excess noise ratio (ENR) in dB of a device if

the temperature is 990 K.
Ans. 3.8
*The law governing the regulation of radio communications in the

Philippines is ___
Ans. Act 3846
In optical communication system, calculate the dispersion

factor in ns/km if the maximum data rate for a length of 10
km is 1.33 Mbps.
Ans. 15
*Using satellite transmission, what frequency band is used for

navigation (marine and aeronautical communications)?
Ans. L band
One of the following is NOT a primary type of hybrid data used to
combine digitally encoded signals with FDM signal and transmit them
as one composite baseband signal
Ans. DVD
A radio transmitter radiates 100 W power when 100%

modulated. How much power is saved when the carrier and
one sideband is suppressed?
Ans. 83 W
The maximum value that a characteristic impedance of an
air dielectric parallel wire could have is ___ ohms.
20
Ans. 83
Using a uniformly illuminated parabolic reflector, calculate the halfpower beamwidth for an antenna with a gain of 40 dB.
Ans. 1.4 degrees
*Calculate the antenna power gain for beamwidth of 10 degrees.
Ans. 26 dB
In digital modulation system, what is the input rate to MSK modulator, if
the mark frequency is 5 MHz. Assume n is equal to unity.
Ans. 10 Mbps
Calculate the absorption in metric sabine contributed by 30 persons
inside a room.
Ans. 13
*The velocity of sound in dry air medium is 331.45 m/s. Calculate the
new velocity if there is an increase of temperature equal to 10C.
Ans. 337.52 m/s
Using the impedance tube method of measuring absorption coefficient
of sound waves, calculate the absorption coefficient when the
amplitudes of the incident and the reflected sound waves are 30 and
25 respectively.
Ans. 99
A transmitter with 10 kW carrier power transmits 12 kW when
modulated with a single sine wave at 50% modulation. Calculate the
total transmitted power.
Ans. 13.25 kW
Calculate the image frequency for a standard AM broadcast band
receiver (IF=455 kHz) and tuned to 540 kHz.
Ans. 1450 kHz
What is the noise voltage of a parallel combination of 3 1kilo ohm
resistors on a 1 MHz frequency range?
Ans. 2.31 microvolts
Calculate the percentage of maximum coupling for waveguide coupling
if the loop coupler for a magnetic field is rotated 30 degrees to the field.
Ans. 50%
Calculate the image frequency for a standard AM broadcast station
receiver in the Philippines tuned to 540 kHz.
Ans. 1450 kHz
What power in watts is required of an 8 level code, it 8 watts is
necessary for a binary code?
Ans. 392
In cellular system with frequency reuse of 7, for a total of 1200 voice
channels, calculate the radio capacity.
Ans. 171
A radar mile is the time required for a radar pulse to travel one mile to
an object and return to the receiver. One radar nautical mile is
equivalent to how many microseconds?
Ans. 12.36
In an SSB communication system, what is the maximum suppression
of the unwanted sideband, if the duration from a perfect 90 degree
phase shift is 6 degrees?
Ans. 25.6 dB
Determine the transient time in cycles, that electrons make

in repeller space, for a practice reflex klystron microwave
oscillator if the mode used is 2?
Ans. 2.75
*Calculate the power in a 1 millisecond pulse of the energy
generated by one photon for infrared light energy at 1.550
micrometers (Plancks constant is equal to 6.68 * 10^-34 Js).
Ans. 1.22 x 10^-16
In radar system set up by the police to tract speed violators,
calculate the lowest value of radar pulse repetition frequency
(PRF) that can be used to ensure that the first blind speed is
above 55 km/s (the wavelength used is 15 cm).
Ans. 733 kHz
A communication receiver has a 1 MHz bandwidth and a 20
dB noise figure. If a signal-to-noise ratio of 10 dB is desired,
what should be the sensitivity?
Ans. -84 dBm
In a radar system, the relative velocity of a target and the
source is 200 megameter/second and the transmitting
frequency is 10 GHz, what is the Doppler frequency
difference?
Ans. 6.67 GHz
Calculate the Doppler shift for a 500 MHz signal when the
target is moving directly towards the radar at a relative
velocity of 240 m/s.
Ans. 800 Hz
The antenna current of an AM transmitter is 10 A when not
modulated, but increases to 11 A when modulated. Calculate
the percentage modulation,
Ans. 64.8%
In an optical fiber and its cladding have refractive indexes of
1.2 and 1.195 respectively. Determine the acceptance angle.
Ans. 6.28 degrees
For a multi-mode step index fiber with a glass core (n1 =
1.55) and a fused quartz cladding (n2 = 1.46) determine the
critical angle.
Ans. 70.38 degrees
Medium 1 is made of glass, while medium 2 is made of ethyl
alcohol. Their refractive indexes are 1.45 and 1.34
respectively. For an angle of incidence of 37 degrees,
determine the angle of refraction.
Ans. 40.63 degrees
What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater with
200 W transmitting power output, 2 dB duplexer loss, 2 dB
feed line loss, 3 dB circulator loss, and feed line antenna
gain of 10 dB?
Ans. 398 W
For an Ethernet bus that is
An amplifier NF = 3 dB
Determine Teq
Ans. 288.5 K
*3 stage amplifier
Calculate the approximate tower separation in feet, if two towers

operating on 950 kHz antenna are separated by 120 electrical
degrees.
Ans. 345
The front-to-back ratio for an antenna with a forward gain of 15 dB and
the reverse gain of -2dB is
Ans. 17 dB
Stage 1
Power gain 10
Noise 2
Calculate NF
Ans. 2.32
3 stage amplifier
Teq 70 K
Gt 45 dB
Stage 1
stage 2
20
4
stage 3
30
5
stage 2
stage 3
21
NF(max) = ?
Power gain
Ans. 0.56
3 dB
20 dB
6 dB
15 dB
An amplifier has a noise figure of 4 dB. If the signal-to-noise ratio of its

input is 30 dB, what is the signal-to-noise ratio at its output in dB?
Ans. 26
Find the modulation index of a 20 V carrier is amplitude modulated by
three different frequencies with amplitudes 1 V, 2 V, and 3 V
respectively.
Ans. 0.187
In an SSBSC system, what will be the value of the maximum
instantaneous peak power if the peak envelope power (PEP) is 6
watts?
Ans. 12 W
A phase modulation system operates with a modulation index of 1.2.
What is the maximum phase shift in degrees?
Ans. 69
Solution:
1.2rad
180
rad
Frequency 10 octaves above 30 Hz

Ans. 30.72 kHz
Calculate highest and lowest frequency subcarrier signal at 629 kHz
with bandwidth of 500 kHz.
Ans. 1129 and 129 kHz
Solution: 629+500/629-500
Octaves of frequency range 1 to 8 MHz
Ans. 3
Formula:
2n
f2
f1
Reliability = 99.999%
Outage = ?
Ans. 53 minutes
R = 99.999%
Amount of loss in dB
Ans. 50 dB
Solution:
L = -10 log(1 R)
*Vp-p = 240 V
R = 100
PEP = ?
Solution:
2
Vpp
PEP
/R
2
Ans. 72 W
= 50 kHz
fm = 5 kHz
BW = ?
Ans. 110 kHz
*A = 42,241.0979
P = 0.9972
H=?
= AP^2/3
h = 6370
Ans. 591,437,697.7
Peak visual transmitter power = 5 kW
Peak aural transmitter power = ?
Ans. 20% 5 kW
11th octave above 1 Hz

Ans. 2048 Hz
=?
Rin = 10 cm
TE11
Kr = 1084
Ans. 0.034 m
N=?
Unclad fiber
Diameter core = light used
n = 1.55
Ans. 6
*Rectangular waveguide
W = 0.8 m
H = 0.6 m
F = 12 GHz
=?
Ans. 4.06 cm
Degree of inclination
U = 35790 km
R = 6378 km
Ans. 1.94
of 4th harmonic of a 1 meter long radio wave
Ans. 0.25
*Ncore = 1.54, nclad = 1.5
NA = ?
Ans. 0.352
Semiconductor diode
E = 1.9 eV, f = ?
Ans. 459 THz
*Given:
400 ft antenna at f = 6200 kHz
=?
Ans. 0.488
Length of antenna = 3.5, fo = 5 MHz
L=?
Ans. 295.2 ft
Determine in Angstrom of the light frequency 322 THz.
Ans. 9317
N1 = 1.55, n2 = 1.36, = 33
ref = ?
Ans. 38.37
*Calculate video frequency response corresponding to the
horizontal resolution of 200 lines of a TV.
Ans. 2.5 MHz
In facsimile transmission, if the drum diameter is 60 mm and
the scanning pitch is 0.1 mm, calculate the index of
cooperation using IEEE recommendation.
Ans. 1885
A coaxial cable used as a transmission line has an inner
diameter of 0.05 in and an outer diameter of 0.2 in. Calculate
the characteristic impedance of the cable when the material
used is polyethylene.
Ans. 55
*A microwave communications uses plane reflectors as
passive repeaters. The diameter of the parabolic antenna is
18 ft., while the effective area is 310 ft^2. Determine the
reflector coupling factor.
Ans. 0.906 as encoded
22
*What is the characteristics impedance of a basic parallel wire line if its

diameter is 0.023 in with spacing of 0.4 in apart, if it uses a dielectric
material made of continuous polyvinyl chloride?
Ans. 234 ohms
What is the dynamic range for 10 bit sign magnitude PCM

code?
Ans. 54 dB
What would be the MPD of a 50 year old man?

Ans. 160 rems
Vmax = 2.6 V, Vmin = 0.29, determine percent modulation.

Ans. 11.15%
R = 20,000 ohms, T = 290 K, calculate the noise threshold voltage BW

= 100 kHz
Ans. 5.65 V
Given pulse spreading constant = 10 ns/m and cable length

= 100 m. Determine maximum bit rate in Mbps for UPNRZ
transmission.
Ans. 0.5 Mbps
Parallel combination, R = 10 k,C = 0.5 F. Calculate the effective

noise bandwidth.
Ans. 50 Hz
Noise factor of 10, determine the noise figure.
Ans. 10
*Determine the resolution for 8 bit linear PCM with maximum

decoded voltage 1.27 Vp.
Ans. 0.005
Frequency swing of FM modulation = 80%.
Ans. 129 kHz
Sample rate of 30 kHz in PCM, determine the maximum analog input

frequency.
Ans. 15 kHz
Pc = 10 W, m = 90%, total transmitted power = ?

Ans. 4.05 W
Speed of sound is 1000 ft/s, what frequency has a wavelength of 24

in?
Ans. 500 Hz
Input signal of 1.5 MHz is mixed with local oscillator of 5

MHz. A filter selects an IF, the output is ___
Ans. 3.5 MHz
Average power = 500 W, 4 ohm loudspeaker, determine RMS current.

Ans. 11 A
An AM current reads 8 A with an unmodulated carrier. With

75% modulation, what is antenna current?
Ans. 9.38 A
Plate voltage = 2000 V, plate current = 500 mA, modulated 50%.

Determine audio power.
Ans. 125 W
Find audio power, modulated 65%, dc power output is 1 kW.
Ans. 201 W
In satellite communications, total transmit power = 5000 W,

determine energy per bit, transmission rate = 30 Mbps.
Ans. -40 dBW
*Audio power = 500 W, modulated 50%. Find RC power input.

Ans. 4000 W
Earth station transmitter with output power = 10 kW, back off

loss = 3 dB, branching loss = 4 dB, gain = 40 dB, determine
EIRP.
Ans. 73 dBW
5 kW antenna, field intensity of 50 V/m in receiver what 20 kW

produce?
Ans. 100 V/m
Equivalent noise bandwidth 10 MHz (satellite system) noise

power = 0.0280 pW, determine noise density in dBW.
Ans. -205.5 dBW
If antenna current increased 3 dB times, radiated power increase

Ans. 11.56 times
Half-wave antenna radiates transceiver operating on 7 MHz.

Determine physical length.
Ans. 66.9 ft
*Antenna current increases 2.8 times, field strength increase

Ans. 2.8
Two towers of 1000 kHz separated by 128. What is the tower
separation in ft?
Ans. 328 ft
*Voltage in antenna = 2.7 V, field intensity in the antenna site is 27
mV/m. What is the effective height?
Ans. 100 m
Determine efficiency, Pin = 1050 W, I = 9A, R = 8
Ans. 61.7%
Determine ERP input power 320 W, 60% efficiency, field gain is 1.3 at
100 V/m eff.
Ans. 319.7 W
G = 10 dB, Pt = 6000 W, determine ERP

Ans. 6000 W
Determine bandwidth efficiency for QPSK modulation at rate
10 Mbps.
Ans. 2 bits/cycle
*For 16 QAM, determine the bandwidth efficiency
Ans. 4 bits/cycle
For BPSK modulation with fc = 80m MHz, input bit rate of 10
Mbps, determine minimum Nyquist bandwidth.
Ans. 10 MHz
For QPSK, fc = 70 MHz, fc = 10 Mbps, determine minimum
Nyquist bandwidth.
Ans. 5 MHz
*500 kHz antenna radiates 500 W of power, field strength equal to 1.5
mV/m, power delivered by antenna increased to 1 kW, what would be
the expected field intensity?
Ans. 2.12
*For 8PSK, data rate = 10 MHz, fc = 70 MHz. Determine bit

rate in the bi-phase channel.
Ans. 3.33 Mbps
Determine impedance of quarter wavelength line to match 600 ohm

feed to 70 ohm antenna.
Ans. 205 ohm
*Determine channel capacity of 4 kHz channel with S/N = 10

dB.
Ans. 13885 bps
*Determine bandwidth efficiency of a 16 QAM modulation using 20

Mbps input.
Ans. 4 Mbps
Bandwidth required to send 132 voice grade channels by

FDM on an international satellite.
Ans. 10 MHz
23
Bandwidth needed to support a capacity 20000 bps (using Shannon

theory), when the ratio of power to noise is 200.
Ans. 2605 Hz
Channel capacity for signal power of 200 W, noise power of 10 W, and
bandwidth of 2 kHz.
Ans. 8815 bps
*Calculate the peak power in a 120 mV NRZ square wave on a 600
ohm channel.
Ans. 12 W
Binary data is to be transmitted at 10 kbps, what minimum bandwidth
to pass the fastest information change undistorted?
Ans. 5 kHz
Aspect ratio, 6 MHz NTSC TV
Ans. 1.33
*How long does it take to scan 2 picture elements when 400 are
scanned in 60 s?
Ans. 0.3 s
Calculate the time of one horizontal line for frames operated at 25 Hz
with 62.5 interlaced lines/frame of a TV receiver.
Ans. 64 s
500 candle power that is located 12 ft from a surface provides how
many lux?
Ans. 37.57
Signal power at input to an amplifier is 100, noise power is 1 W. At
the output, signal power is 1 W noise power is 90 mW. Noise figure = ?
Ans. 6 dB
Transistor has power dissipation of 30 W, calculate the power an
amplifier could deliver to the load if it operates in class A, efficiency is
30%.
Ans. 12.80 W
Telephone system local loop has resistance of 1 kohm and telephone
connected off hook resistance is 200 ohms. Calculate voltage when
phone is off hook.
Ans. 8 V
*A tone measures 80 dBrnc at the output of a 4 wire central office.
What will it be at a local loop that is -8 dB TLP?
Ans. 74 dBrnc
*Frequency which 400 Hz baseband frequency will be translated for
channel 7 of a group of FDM system
Ans. 83.6 kHz
Carrier frequency = 150 MHz
Modulating frequency = 3 kHz
Em = 30 V
Find peak voltage of the lower side frequency/ upper side frequency.
Ans. 15 V
*Transmitter supplies 10 kW of carrier power. Rload = 50 ohms, fc =
1.2 MHz, m = 0.85, fm = 3 MHz. Calculate rms voltage.
Ans. 825 V
Kf = 30 MHz/V, fc = 175 MHz, Em = 4 V, determine frequency
deviation.
Ans. 169.8 kHz
*Kp = 2 rad/V, peak phase deviation = 30 degrees, what is rms
voltage?
Ans. 0.185 V
FM communication transmitter maximum frequency deviation = 5 kHz,
range of fm = 300 Hz to 4 kHz, what is the maximum phase shift?
Ans. 16.2 rad
Kp = 3 rad/V, sine wave input of 2 V peak at a frequency of 2

kHz, what is the frequency deviation?
Ans. 12 kHz
Maximum frequency deviation = 2.5 kHz, fm = 300 Hz to 3
kHz, what is minimum phase shift?
Ans. 8.33 rad
Frequency deviation = 5 kHz, fm = 500 Hz, (S/N)input = 20
dB, calculate (S/N)output.
Ans. 40 dB
Phase modulation system, modulation index = 1.2, what is
maximum phase shift?
Ans. 69 degrees
Fc = 220 MHz, m = 3, fm = 2 kHz, what is bandwidth using
Carsons rule?
Ans. 16 kHz
Ethernet bus, 500 meters length, velocity factor = 0.66,
communication rate = 10 Mbps, calculate total number of bits
by each station before collision, both stations transmit.
Ans. 25 bits
Asynchronous communication system uses ASCII at 9600
bps with light bit, 1 start bit, 0 parity bit, and 1 stop bit.
Express in words/minute (assume word has 5 char/letter and
1 space)
Ans. 9600 words/min
Attenuator loss = 26 dB, power applied = 3 W, Po = ?
Ans. 7.54 mW
An amplifier with 20 dB gain is connected to another with 10
dB gain by means of a transmission line with a loss of 4 dB,
if a signal with a power level of -14 dBm were applied to the
system, calculate the power output.
Ans. 12 dBm
An amplifier with an overall gain of 20 dB is impressed with a
signal whose power level is 1 watt. Calculate the power
output in dBm.
Ans. 50
*A signal in a cable TV system has an amplitude of 4 mV in
a 75 ohm resistance line. Calculate its level in dBm.
Ans. -36.7
A 300 ohm resistor is connected across the 300 ohm
antenna input of a TV receiver. The bandwidth of the
receiver is at 27C. Find the noise voltage applied to the
receiver input.
Ans. 2.73 V
*A diode generator is required to produce 12 V of noise in a
receiver with an input impedance of 75 ohms and a noise
power of 200 kHz. Determine the current through the diode
in mA.
Ans. 400
R1 and R2 connected in series at 300 K and 900 K. If R1 =
200 ohms, R2 = 300 ohms, find P at the load (RL = 500
ohms), bandwidth = 100 kHz.
Ans. 0.496 fW
*Receiver produces noise power of 250 mW with no signal.
The output increases to 5 W when the signal is applied,
calculate (S/N)/N in dB.
Ans. 13
*What is the cut off frequency of a rectangular waveguide
that has a width of 0.6 in and a height of 0.36 in?
Ans. 9842.5 MHz
24
*How often will hand offs occur when a vehicle travels through CMTS
at 100 kph speed if the distance between cell sites is 10 km?
Ans. 360 s
Transmitter 600 ft, height receive antenna 240 ft, find

transmission distance.
Ans. 56.5 miles
What is the speed of 1 data channel, if a PCM has a sampling rate of

8000 samples per second?
Ans. 64 kbps
Calculate electric field intensity in mV/m at 30 kW from 5 km

source
Ans. 12.9
*Calculate the time delay in nanoseconds introduced by a 100 ft

coaxial cable with a dielectric constant of 2.3.
Ans. 154
Total power delivered isotropic antenna 200,000 W,

determine power density at 100 meters.
Ans. 1.59 W/m2
Calculate the phase shift offered by 75 ft line using a solid polyethylene

dielectric having a dielectric constant of 2.3 and operating on 5 MHz
frequency.
Ans. 208 degrees
In pulse code modulation assuming uniform quantization,

calculate the signal-to-noise ratio in dB, for a 6-bit code
word.
Ans. 37.8
*The choir in the church composed of 20 member sings silent night. A

soloist sings in a passage and is then joined by the rest of the choir
members singing with the same intensity. What is the difference in the
sound intensity level in two cases?
Ans. 13 dB
Calculate the wavelength of a sound wave on sea water

whose frequency is 100 kHz at 25C.
Ans. 1.52 cm
*A sound pressure (RMS) of 125 microbars is equivalent to what

pressure level?
Ans. 116 dB
*A telephone signal takes 2 quarters of a second to reach is
destination Calculate the via net loss necessary for an acceptable
echo.
Ans. 100.4 dB
Step index, n-core = 1.35, = 0.03
Determine dispersion/km
Ans. 159.8 ns/km
Dcore = 50 m, wavelength = 0.82 m, NA = 0.343
Determine V number
Ans. 64.6
A simple mode fiber is made with dcore = 10 m and is coupled to a
light source with a wavelength 2 m. Its core glass has n = 1.55,
determine the clad required for producing single mode propagation,
VCO = 2.045
Ans. 1.547
Pw = 1.0 s, PRR = 900, average plate power input = 45 W, peak
power = ?
Ans. 50 kW
If acceptance acceptance = 20 degrees, NA = ?
Ans. 34
FO cable loss = 16 dB/km, if l = 200 ft, determine attenuator.
Ans. 9.76 dB
Surface index = 1.55, refractive index = 1.51, determine NA.
Ans. 0.305
Glass refractive index 1.56 clad with another glass refractive index
1.51 determine the acceptance angle.
Ans. 17.7 degrees
Carrier frequency of 6 GHz and a distance 40 km, determine FSL.
Ans. 140 dB
In a microwave communications, determine the noise power in dBm,
1.4 dBm for noise bandwidth of 10 MHz.
Ans. 104 dBm
(C/N)min = 22 dBm with 10 MHz bandwidth. Determine minimum
received carrier power.
Ans. -82 dBm
3 amplifiers cascaded, NF = 3 dB, G = 10 dBm, determine Nft
Ans. 5.00 dB
The threshold point of a QPSK system is plus or minus ___

Ans. 0.785
In acoustics if the low frequency edge of a band is 10 Hz,
what is the high frequency edge of the band 10 octaves
wide?
Ans. 10,240 Hz
In radar communications system, calculate the range in
range in meters for a target, if the time between the
transmission and reception of the signal is 167 reception.
Ans. 25,050
Calculate the frequency swing of an FM broadcast
transmitter when modulated 60%.
Ans. 90 kHz
Local multipoint distribution service is a two way broadband
service that allow communication providers to offer a variety
of high bandwidth services to have and business including
broadband internet access. LMDS operates at ___
frequency range.
Ans. 27 31 GHz
Find the electric field intensity of a 1 kW broadcast
transmitter at a distance of 20 km from the source.
Ans. 8.66 mV/m
Calculate the actual deviation of an FM audio signal in a TV,
if the percentage modulation is 72%.
Ans. 18 kHz
*Transmitter is using a doubler, 2 triplers, and quadrupler.
Calculate its crystal oscillator frequency.
Ans. 2000 MHz
*A radio transmitter has to operate at a temperature of 31C.
If its signal is derived from a crystal oscillator with
temperature coefficient of 1 ppm/C, find the transmitting
frequency.
Ans. 150.0021 MHz
*An AM transmitter is modulated by two sine waves at 1.5
kHz and 2.5 kHz with modulation of 20% and 80%
respectively. Calculate the effective modulation index.
Ans. 82%
*An AM signal has the following characteristics
Carrier frequency = 150 MHz
Modulating frequency = 3 MHz
Peak carrier voltage = 40 V and peak modulation voltage is
30 V
*Calculate the peak voltage of the lower sideband and
frequency.
Ans. 15 V
25
*A telephone line has a bandwidth of 3.2 kHz and a signal-to-noise

ratio of 36 dB a signal is transmitted down the line using the level code.
Calculate the maximum theoretical data taking into account the present
of noise.
Ans. 38.4 kbps
Range of 9 dB. Calculate the number of quantizing bits/sample.
Ans. 16
A broadcast TV channel in the Philippines has a bandwidth of 6 MHz.
Calculate the minimum permissible S/N in dB using 8 level code.
Ans. 18 dB
*Calculate the maximum theoretical data rate for one satellite
transponder used for binary data transmission.
Ans. 72 Mbps
*Loudness of 80 phons is equivalent to what loudness in sone unit?
Ans. 16 sones
If the wavelength of sound is 3.5 cm in sea water, calculate its
frequency.
Ans. 43 kHz
*The helical antenna has the dimensions, pitch is 13 wavelength,
diameter is wavelength, and turns is 27. What is the gain in dB?
Ans. 19
*What is the power in one sideband of an AM whose carrier power is
50 W. The unmodulated carrier is 2 A while the modulated current is
2.4 A.
Ans. 11 W
*Calculate the open circuit voltage induced in half wave dipole whom
25 W power at 150 MHz is radiated from another half dipole 100 km
distant. Assume the antennas are positioned for optimum transmission
and reception (gain is 1.64 and effective length is equal to /).
Ans. 2.23 V
If a unit mobile radio system the base station transmits 100 V at 160
MHz frequency using half wave dipole antenna 20 m at a receiving
antenna at a height of 4 m and distance of 30 km.
Ans. 41.7 V
What would be the maximum range for tropospheric transmission
whose antenna heights are 30 m and 20 m?
Ans. 41 km
*The drum diameter of fax machine is 70 mm and the scanning pitch is
0.25 mm/s. Calculate the index of cooperation as per IEEE definition.
Ans. 880
The sound pressure level of 0 dB is equivalent to how many
microbars?
Ans. 0.002
*Determine the voltage reflection of a 300 ohms line terminated in a
load impedance of 100 + j300.
Ans. 0.52/_87
KHz tone is present in channel 4 of group are of a supergroup in FDM
communications. Determine at what frequency does the tone appear in
the supergroup output.
Ans. 326 kHz
Calculate the equivalent the noise bandwidth for a single RC low pass
filter of R = 10 k and C = 0.1 F.
Ans. 250 Hz
*When the measuring a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the
meter reads 76 dBm. Calculate the reading in dBrncO.
Ans. 18
Calculate the transmitted data stream for the following data and CRC
generating polynomials.
Ans. 1011011101001
*Determine the hamming bit for ASCII character (1011001).

Insert the hamming bit using odd parity.
Ans. 01110110001
*Rectangular waveguide used for microwave transmission
has a width of 1.4 in and height of 0.8 in.
All signal above ___ GHz will passed by the waveguide.
Ans. 4.218
*Calculate the minimum length of a pair of inductors to be
considered as a transmission line, if its operating frequency
is 800 MHz.
Ans. 37.5 mm
*Calculate the velocity factor of coaxial cable used as a
transmission line, with a characteristic impedance of a 50
ohm, capacitance is 40 pF/m, and inductance is 50 H/m.
Ans. 0.073
*The input current in a matched transmission line is 50 mA
while the load current to the line is 1 mile long. Calculate the
attenuation coefficient in db/m.
Ans. 0.01738
A rectangular waveguide has a broad wall dimension of 0.08
in and is to by a 10 GHz carrier from a coaxial cable.
Calculate the group velocity in megameter/second.
Ans. 202.2
*Calculate the free space loss between a satellite transmitter
and a satellite receiver at a distance of 25000 km using 6
GHz.
Ans. 196 dB
*Assuming there is negligible noise, what will be the data
rate of one satellite transponder used for binary data
transmission.
Ans. 72 Mbps apr 2005
*A satellite transmission with 8 W power repeater at 4 GHz
with antenna gain of 40 dB. The receiver 40,000 km away
has an antenna gain of 50 dBi. If the overall loss is 9 dB, find
the ERP.
Ans. 41 dBW
COMMUNICATIONS ENGINEERING
Topic: Acoustics and Broadcasting
Sound Intensity Level is ___
10 log(I/Iref)
The G2 master screen control of picture tubes vary the ___
DC voltage
Which of the following is a midband cable TV channel?
A or 14
The difference between the sound carrier frequencies in two
adjacent channels is ___
6 MHz
___ is/are more important for the gamma correction for the
camera tube.
Color
What is the typical anode voltage for a 25-in color picture
tube?
30 kV
To how many lux units is the illumination of 3 fc
approximately equal?
30
Static convergence is done for the ___ of the screen.
Center
26
Lowest frequency produced by a musical instrument

Fundamental
What does the color fringing on the edges of the picture

show?
Misconvergence (Your Correct Answer)
One hundred twenty microbars of pressure vibration is equal to ___

115.56 dBSPL
How many H lines are there in a complete frame?
21 lines
What are the phosphor numbers,

monochrome and color picture tubes?
P4 and P22 (Correct Answer)
respectively,
for
The gamma of the picture tube is ___

2.2 (Correct Answer)
The output of the color oscillator feeds the ___

Color demodulators
What is the gamma required for camera tube?
0.4545
Beam alignment magnets for the camera tube are adjusted

while rocking which control?
Electrical focus (Correct Answer)
Which signal has color information for 1.3-MHz bandwidth?

I
Which of the following takes more time?

V retrace (Correct Answer)
Which of the following applies for a monochrome picture?

Chroma amplifier off
The most popular plug for RG-59U coaxial cable is the ___
F connector (Correct Answer)
How many TV fields are recorded on one slant track of tape?

1
Listing of the date and time of events, programs, equipment,

test, malfunctions, and corrections in communication system
Log (Correct Answer)
In color picture tube, what does a solid red raster checked for?
Good color purity
Which of the following statements is true?
Negative transmission means that
decreases for white.
the
carrier
amplitude
With a 0.5-MHz video signal modulating the picture carrier ___

Both upper and lower side frequencies are transmitted
In video signal analysis, what are the three parts of the composite
video signal for two horizontal lines in the picture?
Camera signal
H sync
H blanking
All of the above
The midrange frequency range of sound is from ___

256 to 2048 Hz (Your Correct Answer)
In what condition does the picture tube reproduce black?
Zero beam current (Correct Answer)
When the receiver is first turned on, what current does the
ADG circuit have?
High (Your Correct Answer)
What is the velocity of sound in air?
300 m/s (Your Correct Answer)
Typical ac signal device for a 19-in picture tube?
140 Vp-p (Correct Answer)
Drifting color bars in the picture indicate trouble in the ___

AFPC for color oscillator
Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast?

MF (Correct Answer)
In picture tubes, the basic waveform for dynamic convergence is ___

Parabola or half of sine wave
The color level control is in the ___

BFA (Correct Answer)
Speaker is a device that ___

Converts current variations into sound waves
The cable converter output for the TV receiver is usually on

channel ___
3 (Your Correct Answer)
In the CED system, the disk capacitance varies with the ___
Pit depth
Given a 635-ms vertical retrace time, the number of complete
horizontal lines scanned during vertical flyback is ___
10
In which method is a G3 voltage of 200 V used for?

Low-voltage focus (Your Correct Answer)
Where are the permanent magnets used?
Static convergence (Your Correct Answer)
The beat frequency between the 3.58-MHz color subcarrier and the 4.5
MHz sound signal is ___
0.92 MHz (Your Correct Answer)
The gamma affects the ___ of the picture tube.

Contrast (Your Correct Answer)
The part that rotates to meter out the tape at constant speed is the ___
Capstan (Correct Answer)
Topic: Digital Communications
In the IRE scale for composite video signal, list the number of IRE units
used for sync, black setup, and the camera signal?
40, 7.5, 92.5 respectively (Your Correct Answer)
How many bits are there to present 8 combinations?

3
What is the usual heater voltage for picture tubes?

2.6 V (Correct Answer)
The VSWR for a line terminated in its Zo is ___
1 (Correct Answer)
The maximum deviation of the FM sound signal in kilohertz is ___
25 (Correct Answer)
Exchange of predetermined signals when a connection is

established between two dataset devices
Handshaking
A data compression scheme that uses fewer bits to
represent more frequently occurring characters or bit
patterns and more bits to represent that occur less
frequently.
Huffman code
27
___ is the physical and logical relationship between nodes in the

network.
Network topology
For a 16 QAM modem, the input to the modem is called ___
Quadbit
Two or more LAN linked together over a wide geographical area
WAN
Digital modulation scheme that represents a bit pattern by a change in
phase from the previous state
DPSK
In delta modulation, an error condition that occurs when the analog
signal is digitized varies too quickly for the system to follow.
Slope overload
Digital switching concepts that can handle more channels
TMS
Equipment that interfaces the data terminal equipment to the analog
transmission line
Modem
Equipments that are classified as non-ISDN, thus, computer terminals
are connected to the system through physical interfaces
TE2
___ is a data communications network designed to provide two-way
communications between a large varieties of data communications
terminal equipment with a relatively small geographic area.
Local Area Network
Refers to one of the commonly used internet service domain
???
___ is defined as the ratio between the minimum voltage and the
quantization noise voltage.
Signal-to-quantization noise ratio
Which theorem sets the limit on the maximum capacity of a channel
with a given noise level?
Shannon-Hartley theorem
An international organization concerned
preparing/proposing
recommendations
telecommunications
ISO
with
for
devising and
international
A seven-bit character can represent one of ___ possibilities.

128
Which computer terminal can be programmed to perform new
functions?
Intelligent terminal
Codes must be ___
Agreed upon in advance between sender and receiver
An assembly comprising of an encoder and a decoder in the same
equipment
Codec
T-1 carrier service has ___ digital bit rate.
1.544 Mbps
___ is the thermal noise power normalized to a 1-Hz bandwidth and is
characterized by the ratio of the noise power and the bandwidth.
Noise power density
Digital signals ___
Do not provide a continuous set of values
Can utilize binary system
Represent values as discrete steps
All of the above
A radio channel has a channel bandwidth of 10 kHz and a

signal-to-noise ratio of 15 dB. What is the maximum data
rate that can be transmitted using four possible outputs?
40 kbps
What is the transmission rate of a system for transmitting the
output of a microcomputer to line printer operating at a
speed 60 lines/minute? Assume that the line printer has 8
bits of data per character and prints out 90 characters/line.
720 bps
Delta modulation is a/an ___
1-bit differential PCM system
*Quantizing noise is present in ___ system.
PCM
Asynchronous transmission is ___
Is less efficient but simpler
The three common types of digital modulation techniques
used are ___
PSK, FSK, QAM
Synchronization standard where the clock transition occurs
at almost the same rate
Plesiochronous
Modems will no longer be needed when terminal equipment
and transmission system are ___
Digital
In a binary digit system, how many bits are required to
transmit 32 equiprobable events?
5 (Correct Answer)
Indicate the false statement.
In QPSK, bit rate equals baud rate
In BPSK, bit rate equals baud rate
FSK is a form of narrowband FM (Correct Answer)
PSK is a form of angular modulation
DQDB in metropolitan area network is an acronym for ___
Distributed queue dual bus (Correct Answer)
What is the Nyquist sample rate for a voice input of 10 kHz?
20 kHz (Correct Answer)
___ is a network operating system within several building in
compound.
Novell Netware (Correct Answer)
In ___ modulation the carrier is a periodic train of pulses.
Pulse (Correct Answer)
Mode of communication system where both sides of the
system can transmit at the same time
Full duplex (Your Correct Answer)
A transmission system for a multidrop network
Polling (Correct Answer)
A cellular identification that gives the serial number of the
mobile equipment
ESN (Correct Answer)
How many channels does a super group have?
60 (Correct Answer)
The North American TDMA digital cell phone standard
transmits at 24.3 kilo baud using DQPSK. What is the
channel data rate?
48.6 kbps (Correct Answer)
A means of improving the quality of a private-line circuit by
adding amplifiers and equalizers to it
28
Line conditioning (Your Correct Answer)

A group of 8 bits is called ___
Byte (Your Correct Answer)
The operating frequency of klystrons and magnetrons is set

by ___
Cavity resonators
Who promulgate communications-related military standards (MILSTD)?

DCA (Correct Answer)
Which of the following should be used by an amplifier for

best low level noise performance in the X-band?
A field effect transistor
What is one principal difference between asynchronous and

synchronous transmission?
The clocking is derived from the data in synchronous
transmission (Correct Answer)
Traveling wave tube (TWT) is basically ___

Wide band amplifier
A formal set of conventions governing the formatting and relative

timing of message exchange between two communications system
Protocol (Correct Answer)
Calculate the bandwidth required to transmit a DS-1 signal using AMI
code.
772 kHz (Correct Answer)
A transmission where data are inputted inside the carrier wave
Broadband
___ is not an application of microwave cavities.

Detector
Whenever electromagnetic waves are propagated in a
waveguide they ___
Get reflected from the walls
If the instantaneous RF potentials on the two sides of a
magnetron cavity are of opposite polarity, the operation is in
the ___
a mode
___ is a popular microwave mixer diode.
Hot carrier
Topic: Microwave Devices
Due to which of the following reasons TWT is preferred to multicavity
klystron amplifier?
Greater bandwidth
Waveguide feeders are pressurized
To reduce noise
A magic tee is a modification of
E-plane tees
In a TWT, the electron beam is density-modulated by a ___
Helix
At times, traveling wave tube is preferred to magnetron for use in
RADAR transmitter because it is ___
Capable of a larger duty cycle
What ferrite device can be used instead of a duplexer to isolate a
microwave transmitter and receiver when both are connected to the
same antenna?
Circulator
Which of the following microwave tubes is based on the principle of
velocity modulation?
Klystron
Which of the following word cannot be followed by the word
waveguide?
Coaxial
Which of the following materials is used as a cathode

material for magnetron?
Barium strontium oxide
Klystron oscillators are most often used in the frequency
range of ___
3000 to 30000 MHz
In sweep reflectometry, which of the following is directly
measured?
Return loss
With reference to a piston attenuator, which of the following
statements is correct?
It is a waveguide below cut off
Which of the following statements is correct? Magnesium
ferrite may be used as a ___
Garnet
High-power
amplifiers?
Klystrons
TWTs
are
replacing
what
in microwave
In a coaxial line, TEM mode ___

Has no cut off wavelength
For which of the following purposes an attenuator is used
with traveling wave tube?
To prevent oscillations
A reflex klystron is used as a(n) ___

Oscillator
Which of the following is not used as a microwave mixer or

detector?
PIN diode
Which of the following two ground planes are used?

Strip line
The outputs of the two arms of an E-plane tee are ___

180A/A, out of phase
Klystron operates on the ___

Principle of velocity modulation
In a two cavity klystron, the secondary cavity is called ___

Catcher
___ microwave tube amplifier uses an axial magnetic field and radial
electric field.
Coaxial magnetron
Reflex klystron
Traveling wave magnetron
None of these (Your Correct Answer)
Oscillations of a klystron tube are maintained ___

By bunches of electrons passing the cavity grids
Signal propagation in a waveguide is by ___

Electric and magnetic fields
Which of the following is the best medium for handling high

power?
The frequency of the oscillation generated by a magnetron is

mainly determined by ___
The dimension of each cavity resonator
29
Rectangular waveguide (Correct Answer)

Regarding a PIN diode which of the following statements is correct?
Preferred as a microwave switch
In traveling wave tube an attenuator is used ___
To prevent oscillations
Due to which of the following reasons the TWT is sometimes preferred
to the multicavity klystron amplifier?
It has a greater bandwidth
Coupling into and out of a traveling wave tube can be accompanied by
a ___
Cavity match
Waveguide match
Direct coax-helix match
All of these
In order to reduce cross-sectional dimensions, the waveguide to be
used should be ___
Rigid
Which of the following is used as an oscillator device in the SHF band?
PIN diode
Referred to as light source of a fiber optic which supplies a

power level of 5 to 7 milliwatts and having a narrow
spectrum of emission
Injection laser diode
Which of the following color of light rays has the shortest
wavelength?
Violet
The longer wavelengths with their faster velocities arrive at
the receiver before the shorter wavelengths, thereby
stretching the pulse. What type of dispersion is this?
Material dispersion
Chromatic dispersion
Wavelength dispersion
All of the above
When a beam of light travels through media of two different
densities if the angle of incidence is greater than the critical
angle ___ occurs
Reflection
A type of LASER made up of semiconductor p-n junction and
are commonly called Injection Laser Diode (ILD)
Semiconductor LASER
The main advantage of a TWT covers a klystron for microwave

amplification is ___
Wider bandwidth
Uses an electric arc to weld two glass fibers together

Fusion splice
What is the purpose of the electromagnetic field which surrounds a

traveling tube?
To keep the electrons from spreading out
Calculate the energy of the photon of infrared light energy at

1.55 microns.
1.28 x 10-19 J
Which of the following statements is incorrect? A 3 Hz waveguide

compared with the equivalent transmission line is ___
Less bulky
Which is not true about dispersion?

It scatters the light in forward directions only
Which of the following amplifiers has the least noise?

Parametric amplifier
The main frequency determining element of a klystron is ___
Its resonant cavity
Which type of diode does not ordinarily operate with reverse bias?
Tunnel diode
For proper operation, a magnetron must be accompanied by a ___
Permanent magnet
Microstrip is similar to which of the following?
Flat coaxial transmission line
For which of the following purposes traveling wave parametric amplifier
is used?
To provide greater bandwidth
What condition does resonance occurs in an electrical circuit?
B) when the inductive and capacitive reactances are equal
This is the source of dispersion due to waveguide that is

negligible in multimode fibers, but not in single mode fibers
specially those who operates in the vicinity of 1.27
micrometers
Waveguide dispersion
Rays that pass through the fiber axis each time they are
reflected are called ___
directional??? rays
The different angles of entry of light into an optical fiber
when the diameter of the core is many times the wavelength
of the light transmitted known as ___
Mode
A device that reduces the intensity of light in fiber optics
communications systems
Optical attenuator
Luminous efficiency is least for a ___
Low-wattage light bulb
The conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor is greater than that of

___
D) vacuum and glass
Contains N number of ports in which each port can serve as

an input or an output. Light injected into any port will appear
at all other ports.
Refractive star coupler
Topic: Fiber Optic Communications
The minimum angle of incidence at which light ray may strike

the interface of two media is called ___
Critical angle
With light frequencies, wavelength is often stated in micron, which is

equal to ___ or nanometer which is equal to ___
10-9 meter, 10-6 meter
Proposed the used of clad glass fiber as a dielectric

waveguide
Bockham and Kao
A micron is equal to ___

10-6 m (Correct Answer)
An absorption loss caused by valence electrons in the silica

material from which fibers are manufactured
Ultraviolet absorption
Type of fiber that has the highest modal dispersion

The wavelength of light has no role in ___
30
Polarization
Any small element of space in the path of a wave may be considered
as a source of secondary wavelength
Huygens Principle
The smaller the F-rating, the ___ light that lens can take in.
More
One of the following stands for SONET acronym in telecom.
Synchronous Optical Network
One of the following is related to the application of solid

materials as a medium where light travels
Fiber optics
One of the following is not common among type of fiber
optics used in electronic communications
Semi-graded multimode
It has a central core with uniform refractive index.

Step index fiber
Which is not a type of dispersion?

Modal dispersion
Material dispersion
Waveguide dispersion
None of the above
Quantity that does not change when a beam of light enters one
medium to another
Frequency
One (1) angstrom () is often used to express wavelength

which is equivalent to ___
10-10 meter
A LASER type which uses a mixture of helium and neon enclosed in a

glass tube
Gas LASER
The most common device used as a light detector in fiber

optic communications system
PIN diodes
Water has a refractive index of ___

1.33
The minimum optical power a light detector can receive and

still produce a usable output signal
Light sensitivity
Analogous to power dissipation in copper cables

Absorption loss
A non-coherent light source for optical communications system
LED
Used to remove those modes that are near the cut-off point
and may contribute to leakage losses
Mode stripping
What law does a light traveling in an optical fiber follow?

Snells
Topic: Satellite Communications
Loss due to the diffraction of light when it strikes on the irregularities

formed during the manufacturing process of the fiber optics
Rayleigh Scattering Loss
A circular orbit around the equator with a 24-h period is

called a(n) ___
Geostationary orbit
One important feature of attenuation in an optical fiber is that ___

It is constant at all modulation frequencies within the bandwidth
The earth area covered by a satellite radio beam

Footprint
The region of the optical fiber which is used to avoid the light from
escaping the fiber is the ___
Cladding
What is Keplers first law?

Planetary orbits are elliptical with sun at the focus.
What is the device used in fiber optic communication which consists of

a receiver/transmitter use to clean up and amplify digital data moving
in one direction and another in opposite direction?
Optic regenerators
The energy gap for silicon is ___
1.12 eV
A mathematical and physical concept describing propagation of
electromagnetic waves through media
Mode
Circuit used to amplify the optical signal in fiber communications link
Optical repeater
Geostationary satellites are located ___ with respect to the

equator.
0 degrees longitude
The complete bandwidth of a typical multi-purpose satellite is
___
5 kHz
What circuit is responsible in activating and deactivating
adjacent antenna elements in a mobile satellite array?
Radial divider
Refers to the satellite orientation with respect to the earth
Satellite altitude
Fiber Optic cables operate near ___ frequencies.

800 THz
With FDMA, transponder bandwidth is subdivided into

bandwidths which are capable of carrying one voice channel.
Smaller
Referred to as a limit in reducing further the loss of signal passing

through a fiber optic caused by scattering
Rayleigh Effect
For satellite communication, the lower limit of frequency is

___
10 MHz
It occurs because the core may not be perfectly centered in the

cladding.
Concentricity loss
The branch of electronics that deals with light
Optoelectronics
In a geosynchronous satellite orbital disturbances are

caused by which of the following?
Sun
Earth
Moon
All of these
The numerical aperture of the fiber is important because ___

It gives indication of how the fiber accepts and propagates light
The physical location of a satellite is determined by its ___

Latitude and longitude
31
The farthest distance from earth a satellite orbit reaches is called ___
Apogee
Which of the following is most common effective anti-jamming
technique?
Spread-spectrum modulation
___ is the first satellite transponder
Moon
For satellite communication, the frequency should be ___

the critical frequency of ionosphere.
More than
In this multiple access technique, each earth station
transmission is assigned specific uplink and downlink
frequency bands allotted satellite channel bandwidth.
Frequency division multiple accessing
Sputnik 1 was orbiting the earth in ___
90 minutes
Before transmitting to the satellite, the wide-band satellite signal is

amplified by ___
Traveling wave tube
It is the typical bandwidth of a satellite band
500 MHz
The distance between the two antennas of a geostationary

satellite system is 22,300 miles and is operating at a
downlink frequency of 12.2 GHz, what is the free space loss
in dB?
205 dB
Essentially, a satellite ___ is a radio repeater in the sky.

Transponder
A type of satellite that simply reflects a signal back to earth

Passive satellite
The energy to power electronic equipment on board in satellite is

invariably supplied by ___
Solar cells
The main function of a communications satellite is as a/an

___
Repeater
Which of the following statements is correct regarding a

communication satellite?
It is a repeater between many transmitting stations and many
receiving stations.
Shannons law relates which of the following?

Information carrying capacity to S/N ratio
The lifetime of a geosynchronous satellite is about ___

10 years
The most common carrier
communications are ___
6/4 and 14/12 GHz
frequencies
used
for
satellite
The frequency of Ku band for satellite communications

14/11 GHz
Repeaters inside communications satellites are known as ___
Transponders
For direct reception of TV signal from a communication satellite, the
type of antenna required is ___
Chicken mesh antenna
A satellite repeater serves which of the following purposes?
It translates the signal to a new frequency band.
The ___ angle measured the satellite position clockwise from the
Azimuth
What is the approximate path loss from satellite-to-earth

station?
200 dB
Long distance communication system via satellite uses
frequency in the range of ___
3 to 5 GHz
What is the local oscillator (mixer) frequency of the satellite
with an uplink frequency in GHz band?
2225 MHz
The ___ requires a larger receiving antenna and receivers
are often only able to receive C-band signals.
C-band
GPS means ___
Global Positioning Satellite
The first Intelsat satellite that was launched in 1965 was
named ___
Early Bird I
A satellite link can be made to carry ___ information when
operating digitally than in analog fashion.
More
For a satellite with time period of 2 hours, the height above the surface
must be ___
2000 km
Transponder bandwidth commonly used in satellite is ___

36 MHz
The key electronic component in a communications satellite is the ___

Transponder
A satellite battery that has more power but lighter

Lithium
The satellite communications channels in a transponder are defined by

the ___
Bandpass filter
How can multiple earth stations share a satellite on the same

frequencies?
Frequency reuse
As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite
___
Increases
What is the basic technique used to stabilize a satellite?
Spin
The round-trip propagation delay between two earth stations through a
geosynchronous satellite is ___
500 to 600 ms
32
KENNEDY 4th EDITION

MULTIPLE CHOICES
INTRO TO COMMUNICATIONS SYSTEM

1. In a communications system, noise is most likely to affect the signal
a.
b.
c.
d.
at
in
in
at
the
the
the
the
transmitter
channel
information source
destination
2. Indicate the false statement. Fourier analysis shows that a sawtooth

wave consist of
a. fundamental and subharmonic sine waves
b. a fundamental sine wave and an infinite number of harmonics
c. fundamental and harmonic sine waves whose amplitude decreases with
the harmonic number
d. sinusoidal voltages, some of which are small enough to ignore in
practice
3. Indicate the false statement. Modulation is used to
a.
b.
c.
d.
reduce the bandwidth used

separate differing transmissions
ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over long distances
allow the use of practicable antennas
4. Indicate the false statement. From the transmitter the signal

deterioration because of noise is usually
a. unwanted energy
b. predictable in character
c. present in the transmitter
d. due to any cause
5. Indicate the true statement. Most receivers conforms to the
a. amplitude-modulated group
b. frequency-modulated group
c. superheterodyne group
d. tuned radio frequency receiver group
6. Indicate the false statement. The need for modulation can best be
exemplified by the following.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Antenna lengths will be approximately /4 long

An antenna in the standard broadcast AM band is 16,000 ft
All sound is concentrated from 20 Hz to 20 kHz
A message is composed of unpredictable variations in both amplitude
and frequency
7. Indicate the true statement. The process of sending and receiving

started as early as
a.
b.
c.
d.
the middle 1930s

1850
the beginning of the twentieth century
the 1840s
8. Which of the steps is not included in the process of reception?

a.
b.
c.
d.
decoding
encoding
storage
interpretation
9. The acoustic channel is used for which of the following?

a. UHF communications
b. single-sideband communication
c. television communications
d. person-to-person voice communications
10. Amplitude modulation is the process of
a.
b.
c.
d.
superimposing a low frequency on a high frequency

superimposing a high frequency on a low frequency
carrier interruption
frequency shift and phase shift
NOISE
1. One of the following types of noise becomes of great importance at high
frequencies. It is the
a.
b.
c.
d.
shot noise
random noise
impulse noise
transit-time noise

a. HF mixers are generally noisier than HF amplifiers.
b. Impulse noise voltage is independent of bandwidth.
c. Thermal noise is independent of the frequency at which it is
measured.
d. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type.
3. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise
power generator is therefore
a. halved
b. quadrupled
c. doubled
d. unchanged
4. One of the following is not a useful quantity for comparing the noise
performance of receivers:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Input noise voltage

Equivalent noise resistance
Noise temperature
Noise figure
5. Indicate the noise whose source is in a category different from that of

the other three.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Solar noise
Cosmic noise
Atmospheric noise
Galactic noise
6. Indicate the false statement. The square of the thermal noise voltage
a.
b.
c.
d.
its resistance
its temperature
Boltzmanns constant
the bandwidth over which it is measured
7. Which of broad classifications of noise are most difficult to treat?

a. noise generated in the receiver
b. noise generated in the transmitter
c. externally generated noise
d. internally generated noise
8. Space noise generally covers a wide frequency spectrum, but the
strongest interference occurs
a.
b.
c.
d.
between 8 MHz and 1.43 GHz

below 20 Mhz
between 20 to 120 MHz
above 1.5 GHz
9. When dealing with random noise calculations it must be remembered that

a.
b.
c.
d.
all calculations
calculations are
calculations are
calculations are
are based on peak to peak values

based on peak values
based on average values
based on RMS values
10. Which of the following is the most reliable measurement for comparing
amplifier noise characteristics?
a. signal-to-noise ratio
b. noise factor
c. shot noise
d. thermal noise agitation
11. Which of the following statements is true?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Random noise power is inversely proportional to bandwidth

Flicker is sometimes called demodulation noise
Noise is mixers is caused by inadequate image frequency rejection
A random voltage across a resistance cannot be calculated
AMPLITUDE MODULATION
1. If the plate supply voltage for a plate-modulated class C amplifier is
V, the maximum plate-cathode voltage could be almost as high as
a.
b.
c.
d.
4V
3V
2V
1V
2. In a low-level AM system, amplifiers following the modulated stage must

be
a.
b.
c.
d.
linear devices
harmonic devices
class C amplifiers
nonlinear devices
3. If the carrier of a 100 percent modulated AM wave is suppressed, the

percentage power saving will be
a.
b.
c.
d.
50
150
100
66.66
4. Leak-type bias is used in a plate-modulated class C amplifier to

a.
b.
c.
d.
prevent tuned circuit damping

prevent excessive grid current
prevent overmodulation
increase the bandwidth
5. The output stage of a television transmitter is most likely to be a

a.
b.
c.
d.
plate-modulated class C amplifier

grid-modulated class C amplifier
screen-modulated class C amplifier
grid-modulated class A amplifier
6. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1. The

transmitted power is
a.
b.
c.
d.
unchanged
halved
doubled
increase by 50 percent
7. One of the advantages of the base modulation over collector modulation

of a transistor class C amplifier is
a.
b.
c.
d.
the lower modulating power required

higher power output per transistor
better efficiency
better linearity
8. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves with modulation

indices of 0.3 and 0.4; the total modulation index
a.
b.
c.
d.
is 1
cannot be calculated unless the phase relations are known
is 0.5
is 0.7
9. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because

a.
b.
c.
d.
it is more noise immune than other modulation systems.

Compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power
its use avoids receiver complexity.
no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for
high fidelity
10. What is the ratio of modulating power to total power at 100 percent
modulation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1:3
1:2
2:3
None of the above
SINGLE-SIDEBAND TECHNIQUES
1. Indicate the false statement regarding the advantages of SSB over
double sideband, full-carrier AM
a.
b.
c.
d.
More channel space is available.

Transmitter circuits must be more stable, giving better reception.
The signal is more noise-resistant
Much less power is required for the same signal strength
2. When the modulation index of an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current

is also doubled. The AM system being used is
a. Single-sideband, full carrier (H3E)
b. Vestigial sideband (C3F)
c. Single-sideband, suppressed carrier (J3E)
d. Double-sideband, full carrier (A3E)
3. Indicate which one of the following advantages of the phase
cancellation method of obtaining SSB over the filter method is false:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Switching from one sideband to the other is simpler.

It is possible to generate SSB at any frequency.
SSB with lower audio frequencies present can be generated
There are more balanced modulators; therefore the carrier is
suppressed better.
4. The most commonly used filters in SSB generation are

a.
b.
c.
d.
mechanical
RC
LC
low-pass
5. In an SSB transmitter, one is most likely to find a

a.
b.
c.
d.
class
tuned
class
class
C audio amplifier
modulator
B RF amplifier
A RF output amplifier
6. Indicate in which one of the following only one sideband is

transmitted.
a.
b.
c.
d.
H3E
A3E
B8E
C3F
7. One of the following cannot be used to remove the unwanted sideband in

SSB. This is the
a. filter system
c. third method
a.
b.
c.
d.
allow the receiver to have a frequency synthesizer

simplify the frequency stability problem in reception
reduce the power that must be transmitted
reduce the bandwidth required for transmission
9. To provide two or more voice circuits with the same carrier, it is

necessary to use
a.
b.
c.
d.
ISB
carrier insertion
SSB with pilot carrier
Lincompex
10. Vestigal sideband modulation (C3F) is normally used for

a. HF point-to-point communications
b. monoaural broadcasting
c. TV broadcasting
d. stereo broadcasting
FREQUENCY MODULATION
1. In the stabilize reactance modulator AFC system,
a. the discriminator must have a fast time constant to prevent
demodulation
b. the higher the discriminator frequency, the better the oscillator
frequency stability
c. the discriminator frequency must not be too low, or the system will
fail
d. phase modulation is converted into FM by the equalizer circuit
2. In the spectrum of a frequency-modulated wave
a. the carrier frequency disappears when the modulation index is large
b. the amplitude of any sideband depends on the modulation index
c. the total number of sidebands depends on the modulation index
d. the carrier frequency cannot disappear
3. The difference between phase and frequency modulation
a. is purely theoretical because they are the same in practice
b. is too great to make the two system compatible
c. lies in the poorer audio response of phase modulation
d. lies in the different definitions of the modulation index
4. Indicate the false statement regarding the Armstrong modulation system
a. The system is basically phase, not frequency modulation,
b. AFC is not needed, as crystal oscillator is used.
c. Frequency multiplication must be used.
d. Equalization is unnecessary
5. An FM signal with a modulation index mf is passed through a frequency
tripler. The wave in the output of the tripler will have a modulation
index of
a. mf/3
b. mf
c. 3mf
d. 9mf
6. An FM signal with a deviation is passed through a mixer, and has its
frequency reduced fivefold. The deviation in the output of the mixer is
a. 5
b. Indeterminate
c. /5
d.
7. A pre-emphasis circuit provides extra noise immunity by
a. boosting the bass frequencies
b. amplifying the higher audio frequencies
c. preamplifying the whole audio band
d. converting the phase modulation to FM
8. Since noise phase-modulates the FM wave, as the noise sideband

frequency approaches the carrier frequency, the noise amplitude
a. remains constant
b. is decreased
c. is increased
d. is equalized
9. When the modulating frequency is doubled, the modulation index is
halved, and the modulating voltage remains constant. The modulation system
is
b. phase modulation
d. any of the three
10. Indicate which one of the following is not an advantage of FM over AM:
a. Better noise immunity is provided
b. Lower bandwidth is required
c. The transmitted power is more useful
d. Less modulating power is required
11. One of the following is an indirect way of generating FM. This is the
a. reactance FET modulator
b. varactor diode modulator
c. Armstrong modulator
d. reactance bipolar transistor modulator
12. In an FM stereo multiplex transmission,
a. sum signal modulates 19 kHz subcarrier
b. difference signal modulates the 19 kHz
c. difference signal modulates the 38 kHz
d. difference signal modulates the 67 kHz
the
subcarrier
subcarrier
subcarrier
RADIO RECEIVERS
1. Indicate which of the following statements about the advantages of the
phase discriminator over the slope detector is false:
a. Much easier alignment
b. Better linearity
c. Greater limiting
d. Fewer tuned circuits
2. Show which of the following statements about the amplitude limiter is
untrue:
a. The circuit is always biased in class C, by virtue of the leak-type
bias.
b. When the input increases past the threshold of the limiting, the gain
decreases to keep the output constant.
c. The output must be tuned
d. Leak-type bias must be used
3. In a radio receiver with simple AGC
a.
b.
c.
d.
an increase in signal strength produces more AGC

the audio stage gain is normally controlled by the AGC
the faster the AGC time constant the more accurate the output
the highest AGC voltage is produced
4. In a broadcast superheterodyne receiver, the

a.
b.
c.
d.
local oscillator operates below the signal frequency

mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency
local oscillator frequency is normally double the IF
RF amplifier normally works at 455 kHz above the carrier frequency
5. To prevent overloading of the IF amplifier in a receiver, one should

use
a.
b.
c.
d.
squelch
variable sensitivity
variable selectivity
double conversion
6. A superheterodyne receiver with an IF of 450 kHz is tuned to a signal

at 1200 kHz. The image frequency is
a.
b.
c.
d.
750 kHz
900 kHz
1650 kHz
2100 kHz
7. In a ratio detector
a. the linearity is worse than in phase discriminator
b. stabilization against signal strength variations is provided
c. the output is twice that obtainable from a similar phase
discriminator
d. the circuit is the same as in a discriminator, except that the diodes
are reversed
8. The typical squelch circuit cuts off
a.
b.
c.
d.
an
RF
An
An
audio amplifier when the carrier is absent

interference when the signal is weak
IF amplifier when the AGC is maximum
IF amplifier when the AGC is minimum
9. Indicate the false statement in connection with communications

receivers.
a. The noise limiter cuts off the receivers output during a noise
pulse.
b. A product demodulator could be used for the reception of Morse code.
c. Double conversion is used to improve image rejection
d. Variable sensitivity is used to eliminate selective fading
10. The controlled oscillator synthesizer is sometimes preferred over the
direct one because
a. it is a simpler piece of equipment
b. its frequency stability is better
c. it does not require crystal oscillator
d. it is relatively free of spurious frequency
11. The frequency generated by each decade in a direct frequency
synthesizer is much higher than the frequency shown; this is done to
a.
b.
c.
d.
reduce the spurious frequency problem

increase the frequency stability of the synthesizer
reduce the number of decades
reduce the number of crystals required
12. Indicate which of the following circuits could not demodulate SSB:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Balance modulator
Product modulator
BFO
Phase discriminator
13. If a FET is used as the first AF amplifier in a transistor receiver,

this will have the effect of
a. improving the effectiveness of the AGC
b. reducing the effect of negative-peak clipping
c. reducing the effect of noise at low modulation depths
d. improving the selectivity of the receiver
14. Indicate the false statement. The superheterodyne receiver replaced
the TRF receiver because the latter suffered from
a.
b.
c.
d.
gain variation over the frequency coverage range

insufficient gain and sensitivity
inadequate selectivity at high frequencies
instability
15. The image frequency of a superheterodyne receiver

a.
b.
c.
d.
is
is
is
is
created within the receiver itself

due to insufficient adjacent channel rejection
not rejected be the IF tuned circuits
independent of the frequency to which the receiver is tuned
16. One of the main functions of the RF amplifier in a superheterodyne

receiver is to
a.
b.
c.
d.
provide improved tracking

permit better adjacent-channel rejection
increase the tuning range of the receiver
improve the rejection of the image frequency
17. A receiver has poor IF selectivity. It will therefore also have poor
a.
b.
c.
d.
blocking
double-spotting
diversion reception
sensitivity
18. Three-point tracking is achieved with

a.
b.
c.
d.
variable selectivity
the padder capacitor
double spotting
double conversion
19. The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is tuned to a frequency

higher than the incoming frequency
a.
b.
c.
d.
to help the image frequency rejection

to permit easier tracking
because otherwise an intermediate frequency could not be produced
to allow adequate frequency coverage without switching
20. If the intermediate frequency is very high (indicate false statement)

a. image frequency rejection is very good
b. the local oscillator need not be extremely stable
c. the selectivity will be poor
d. tracking will be improved
21. A low ratio of the ac to the dc load impedance of a diode detector
results in
a.
b.
c.
d.
diagonal clipping
poor AGC operation
negative-peak clipping
poor AF response
22. One of the following cannot be used to demodulate SSB:

a.
b.
c.
d.
Product detector
Diode Balance modulator
Bipolar transistor balanced modulator
Complete phase-shift generator
23. Indicate the false statement. Noting that no carrier is transmitter

with J3E, we see that
a.
b.
c.
d.
the receiver cannot use a phase comparator for AFC

adjacent-channel rejection is more difficult
production of AGC is a rather complicated process
the transmission is not compatible with A3E
24. When a receiver has good blocking performance, this means that
a.
b.
c.
d.
it does not suffer from double-spotting

its image frequency rejection is poor
it is unaffected by AGC derived from nearby transmissions
its detector suffers from burnout
25. An AM receiver uses a diode detector for demodulation. This enables it

satisfactorily to receive
a.
b.
c.
d.
single-sideband, suppressed-carrier
single-sideband, reduced-carrier
ISB
Single-sideband, full-carrier
TRANSMISSION LINES
1. Indicate the false statement. The SWR on a transmission line is
infinity; the line is terminated in
a.
b.
c.
d.
a short circuit
a complex impedance
an open circuit
a pure reactance
2. A (75-j50)- is connected to a coaxial transmission line of ZO = 75 ,

at 10 GHz. The best method of matching consists in connecting
a.
b.
c.
d.
a short-circuited stub at the load

an inductance at the load
a capacitance at some specific distance
a short-circuited stub at some specific distance from the load
3. The velocity factor of a transmission line

a.
b.
c.
d.
depends on the dielectric constant of the material used

increases the velocity along the transmission line
is govern by the skin effect
is higher for a solid dielectric than for air
4. Impedance inversion may be obtained with

a.
b.
c.
d.
a short-circuited stub
an open-circuited stub
a quarter-wave line
a half-wave line
5. Short-circuited stubs are preferred to open-circuited stubs because the

latter are
a. more difficult to make an connect
b. made of a transmission line with a different characteristic impedance
c. liable to radiate
d. incapable of giving a full range of reactances
6. For transmission-line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is
best to use a
a.
b.
c.
d.
balun
broadband directional coupler
double stub
single stub of adjustable position
7. The main disadvantage of the two-hole directional coupler is

a.
b.
c.
d.
low directional coupling

poor directivity
high SWR
narrow bandwidth
8. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel-wire line, it is best to use a

a.
b.
c.
d.
slotted line
balun
directional coupler
quarter-wave transformer
9. Indicate the three types of transmission line energy losses.

a.
b.
c.
d.
I2R, RL, and temperature

Radiation, I2R, and dielectric heating
Dielectric separation, insulation breakdown, and radiation
Conductor heating, dielectric heating, and radiation resistance.
10. Indicate the true statement below. The directional coupler is

a.
b.
c.
d.
a device used to connect a transmitter to a directional antenna

a coupling device for matching impedance
a device used to measure transmission line power
an SWR measuring instrument
RADIATION AND PROPAGATION OF WAVES

1. Indicate which one of the following terms applies to troposcatter
propagation:
a.
b.
c.
d.
SIDs
Fading
Atmospheric storms
Faraday rotation
2. VLF waves are used for some type of services because

a.
b.
c.
d.
of the low powers required

the transmitting antennas are of convenient size
they are very reliable
the penetrate the ionosphere easily
3. Indicate which of the following frequencies cannot be used for reliable

beyond-the-horizon terrestrial communications without repeaters:
a.
b.
c.
d.
20 kHz
15 MHz
900 MHz
12 GHz

a.
b.
c.
d.
absorbed by the F2 layer

reflected by the D layer
capable of use for long-distance communications on the moon
affected by the solar cycle
5. Distances near the skip distance should be used for the sky-wave
propagation
a.
b.
c.
d.
to
to
to
so
avoid tilting
prevent sky-wave and upper ray interference
avoid the Faraday effect
as nor to exceed the critical frequency
6. A ship-to-ship communications system is plagued by fading. The best

solution seems to be use of
a.
b.
c.
d.
a more directional antenna

a broadband antenna
frequency diversity
space diversity
7. A range of microwave frequencies more easily passed by the atmosphere

than are the others is called a
a.
b.
c.
d.
window
critical frequency
gyro frequency range
resonance in the atmosphere
8. Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by means of

a.
b.
c.
d.
ground waves
sky waves
surface waves
space waves
9. Tropospheric scatter is used with frequencies in the following range:

a.
b.
c.
d.
HF
VHF
UHF
VLF
10. The ground wave eventually disappears, as one moves away from the
transmitter, because of
b. loss of line-of-sight conditions
c. maximum single-hop distance limitation
d. tilting
b. is due to the transverse nature of the waves
c. results from the longitudinal nature of the waves
d. is always vertical in an isotropic medium
12. As electromagnetic waves travel in free space, only one of the
following can happen to them:
a.
b.
c.
d.
absorption
attenuation
refraction
reflection
13. The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends on

a.
b.
c.
d.
their frequency
their distance from the transmitter
the polarization of the waves
the polarization of the atmosphere
14. Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they

a.
b.
c.
d.
pass into a medium of different dielectric constant

are polarized at right angles to the direction of propagation
encounter a perfectly conducting plane
pass through a small slot in a conducting plane
15. Diffraction of electromagnetic waves

a.
b.
c.
d.
is caused by reflections from the ground

arises only with spherical wavefronts
will occur when the waves pass through a large slot
may occur around the edge of a sharp obstacle
16. When microwave signals follow the curvature of the earth, this is
known as
a. the Faraday effect
b. ducting
c. tropospheric scatter
d. ionospheric reflection
17. Helical antennas are often used for satellite tracking at VHF because
of
a. troposcatter
b. superrefraction
c. ionospheric refraction
d. the Faraday effect
ANTENNAS
1. An ungrounded antenna near the ground
a.
b.
c.
d.
acts as a single antenna of twice the height

is unlikely to need a ground screen
acts as an antenna array
must be horizontally polarized
2. One of the following consists of nonresonant antennas:

a.
b.
c.
d.
The
The
The
The
rhombic antenna
folded dipole
end-fire array
broadside array
3. One of the following is very useful as a multiband HF receiving

antenna. This is the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
conical horn
folded dipole
log periodic
square loop
4. Which of the following antennas is best excited from a waveguide?

a. Biconical
b. Horn
c. Helical
d. Discone
5. Indicate which of the following reasons for using a counterpoise with
antenna is false:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Impossibility of a good ground connection

Protection of personnel working underground
Provision of an earth for the antenna
Rockiness of the ground
6. One of the following is not a reason for the use of an antenna coupler:
a. To
b. To
c. To
d. To
make the antenna look resistive

provide the output amplifier with the correct load impedance
discriminate against harmonics
prevent reradiation of the local oscillator
7. Indicate the antenna that is not widebandL:

a.
b.
c.
d.
Discone
Folded Dipole
Helical
Marconi
8. Indicate which one of the following reasons for the use of a ground
screen with antennas is false:
a. Impossibility of a good ground connection
b. Provision of an earth for the antenna
c. Protection of personnel working underneath
d. Improvement of the radiation pattern of the antenna
9. Which one of the following terms does not apply to the Yagi-Uda array?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Good bandwidth
Parasitic elements
Folded dipole
High gain
10. An antenna that is currently polarized us the

a.
b.
c.
d.
helical
small circular loop
parabolic reflector
Yagi-Uda
11. The standard reference antenna for the directive gain is the
a. infinitesimal dipole
b. isotropic antenna
c. elementary doublet
d. half-wave dipole
12. Top loading is sometimes used with an antenna in order to increase its
a.
b.
c.
d.
effective height
bandwidth
beamwidth
input capacitance
13. Cassegrain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to

a.
b.
c.
d.
increase the gain of the system

increase the beamwidth of the system
reduce the size of the main reflector
allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point
14. Zoning is used with a dielectric antenna in order to

a.
b.
c.
d.
reduce the bulk of the lense

increase the bandwidth of the lens
increase pin-point focusing
correct the curvature of the wavefront from a horn that is too short
15. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its

a.
b.
c.
d.
circular polarization
maneuverability
broad bandwidth
good front-to-back ratio
16. The discone antenna is

a.
b.
c.
d.
useful direction-finding antenna

used as a radar receiving antenna
circularly polarized like other circular antennas
useful as UHF receiving antennas
17. One of the following is not an omnidirectional antenna:

a.
b.
c.
d.
Half-wave dipole
Log-periodic
Discone
Marconi
WAVEGUIDES, RESONATORS AND COMPONENTS

1. When an electromagnetic waves are propagated in a waveguide
a. they
b. they
c. they
d. they
travel along a broader walls of the guide

are reflected from the walls but do not travel along them
travel through the dielectric without touching the walls
travel along all four walls of the waveguide
2. Waveguides are used mainly for microwave signals because

a. they depend on straight-line propagation which applies to microwaves
only
b. losses would be too heavy at lower frequencies
c. there are no generators powerful enough to excite them at lower
frequencies
d. they would be too bulky at lower frequencies
3. The wavelength of a wave in a waveguide
a. is greater than of free space
b. depends only on the waveguide dimensions and the free-space
wavelength
c. is inversely proportional to the phase velocity
d. is directly propotional to the group velocity
4. The main difference between the operation of transmission lines and
waveguides is that
a. the latter are not distributed, like transmission lines
b. the former can use stubs and quarter-wave transformers, unlike the
latter
c. transmission lines use the principal mode of propagation, and
therefore do not suffer from low-frequency cut-off
d. terms such as impedance matching and standing-wave ratio cannot be
applied to waveguides
5. Compared with equivalent transmission lines, 3-GHz waveguides (indicate
false statement)
a. are less lossy
b. can carry higher powers
c. are less bulky
d. have lower attenuation
6. When a particular mode is excited in a waveguide, three appears an

extra electric component, in the direction of propagation. The resulting
mode is
a.
b.
c.
d.
transverse-electric
transverse-magnetic
longitudinal
transverse-electromagnetic
7. When electromagnetic waves are reflected at an angle from a wall, their

wavelength along the wall is
a.
b.
c.
d.
the same as in free space

the same as the wavelength perpendicular to the wall
shortened because of Doppler effect
greater than in the actual direction of propagation
8. As a result of reflections from a plane conducting wall,

electromagnetic waves acquire an apparent velocity greater than the
velocity of light in space. This is called the
a.
b.
c.
d.
velocity of propagation
normal velocity
group velocity
phase velocity
9. Indicate the false statement. When the free space wavelength of a

signal equals the cut-off wavelength of the guide
a. the
b. the
c. the
d. the
group velocity of the signal becomes zero

phase velocity of the signal becomes infinite
characteristic impedance of the guide becomes infinite
wavelength within the waveguide becomes infinite
10. A signal propagation in a waveguide has a full wave of electric

intensity change between the two further walls, and no component of the
electric field in the direction of propagation. The mode is
a.
b.
c.
d.
TE1,1
TE1,0
TM2,2
TE2,0
11. The dominant mode of propagation is preferred with rectangular

waveguides because (indicate false statement)
a.
b.
c.
d.
it leads to the smallest waveguide dimensions

the resulting impedance can be matched directly to coaxial lines
it is easier than the other modes
propagation of it without any spurious generation can be ensured
12. A choke flange may be used to couple two waveguides

a. to help in the alignment of the waveguides
b. because it is simpler than any other join
c. to compensate for discontinuities at the join
d. to increase the bandwidth of the system
13. In order to couple two generators to a waveguide system without
coupling them to each other, on could not use a
a.
b.
c.
d.
rat-race
E-plane T
hybrid ring
magic T
14. Which of the following waveguides tuning components is not easily

adjustable?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Screw
Stub
Iris
Plunger
15. A piston attenuator is a

a. vane attenuator
b. waveguide below cutoff
c. mode filter
d. flap attenuator
16. Cylindrical cavity resonators are not used with klystrons because they
have
a.
b.
c.
d.
a Q that is too low

a shape whose resonant frequency is too difficult to calculate
harmonically related resonant frequencies
too heavy losses
17. A directional coupler with three or more holes is sometimes used in

preference to the two-hole coupler
a.
b.
c.
d.
because it is more efficient

to increase coupling of the signal
to reduce spurious mode generation
to increase the bandwidth of the system
18. A ferrite is
a.
b.
c.
d.
a nonconductive with magnetic properties

an intemetallic compound with particularly good conductivity
an insulator which heavily attenuates magnetic fields
a microwave semiconductor invented by Faraday
19. Manganese ferrite may be used as a (indicate false answer)

a. circulator
b. isolator
c. garnet
d. phase shifter
20. The maximum power that may be handled by a ferrite component is
limited by the
a.
b.
c.
d.
Curie temperature
Saturation magnetization
line width
gyromagnetic resonance
21. A PIN diode is

a.
b.
c.
d.
a metal semiconductor point-contact diode

a microwave mixer diode
often used as a microwave detector
suitable for use as a microwave switch
22. A duplexer is used

a. to couple two different antennas to
interference
b. to allow the one antenna to be used
without mutual interference
c. to prevent interference between two
to a receiver
d. to increase the speed of the pulses
a transmitter without mutual

for reception or retransmission
antennas when they are connected
in pulses in pulsed radar
23. For some applications, circular waveguides may be preferred to

rectangular ones because of
a. the smaller cross section needed at any frequency
b. lower attenuation
c. freedom from spurious modes
d. rotation of polarization
24. Indicate which of the following cannot be followed by the word
waveguide:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Elliptical
Flexible
Coaxial
Ridged
25. In order to reduce cross-sectional dimensions, the waveguide to use is

a.
b.
c.
d.
circular
ridged
rectangular
flexible
26. For low attenuation, the best transmission medium is

a. flexible waveguide
b. ridged waveguide
c. rectangular waveguide
d. coaxial line
MICROWAVE TUBES AND CIRCUITS

1. A microwave tube amplifier uses an axial magnetic field and a radial
electric field. This is the
a.
b.
c.
d.
reflex klystron
coaxial magnetron
traveling-wave magnetron
CFA
2. One of the following is unlikely to be used as a pulsed device. It is

the
a.
b.
c.
d.
multicavity klystron
BWO
CFA
TWT
3. One of the reasons why vacuum tubes eventually fail at microwave

frequencies is that their
a.
b.
c.
d.
noise figure increases

transit time becomes too short
shunt capactitive reactances become too large
series inductive reactances become too small
4. Indicate the false statement. Transit time in microwave tubes will be

reduced if
a.
b.
c.
d.
the electrodes are brought closer together

a higher anode current is used
multiple or coaxial leads are used
the anode voltage is made larger
5. The multicavity klystron

a.
b.
c.
d.
is not a good low-level amplifier because of noise

has a higher repeller voltage to ensure a rapid transit time
is not suitable for pulsed operation
needs a long transit time through the buncher cavity to ensure
current modulation
6. Indicate the false statement. Klystron amplifiers may use intermediate

cavities to
a.
b.
c.
d.
prevent the oscillations that occur in two-cavity klystrons

increase the bandwidth of the device
improve the power gain
increase the efficiency of the klystron
7. The TWT is sometimes preferred to the multicavity klystron amplifier,

because it
a. is more efficient
b. has a greater bandwidth
c. has a higher number of modes
d. produces a higher output power
8. The transit time in the repeller space of a reflex klystron must be n +
cycles to ensure that
a.
b.
c.
d.
electrons are accelerated by the gap voltage on their return

returning electrons give energy to the gap oscillations
it is equal to the period of the cavity oscillations
the repeller is not damaged by striking electrons
9. The cavity magnetron uses strapping to

a.
b.
c.
d.
prevent mode jumping

prevent cathode back-heating
ensure bunching
improve the phase-focusing effect
10. A magnetic field is used in the cavity magnetron to

a. prevent anode current in the absence of oscillation
b. ensure that the oscillations are pulsed
c. help in focusing the electron beam, thus preventing spreading
d. ensure that the electrons will orbit around the cathode
11. To avoid difficulties with strapping at high frequencies, the type of
cavity structure used in the magnetron is th
a. hole-and-slot
b. slot
c. vane
d. rising sun
12. The primary purpose of the helix in a traveling-wave tube is to
a.
b.
c.
d.
prevent the electron beam from spreading in the long tube

reduce the axial velocity of the RF field
ensure broadband operation
reduce the noise figure
13. The attenuator is used in the traveling-wave tube to

a. help bunching
b. prevent oscillations
c. prevent saturation
d. increase gain
14. Periodic permanent-magnet focusing is used with TWTs to

a. allow pulsed operation
b. improve electron bunching
c. avoid the bulk of an electromagnet
d. allow coupled-cavity operation at the highest frequencies
15. The TWT is sometimes preferred to the magnetron as a radar transmitter
output tube because it is
a.
b.
c.
d.
capable of a longer duty cycle

a more efficient bandwidth
more broadband
less noisy
16. A magnetron whose oscillating frequency is electronically adjustable

over a wide range is called a
a. coaxial magnetron
b. dither-tuned magnetron
c. frequency-agile magnetron
d. VTM
17. Indicate which of the following is not a TWT slow-wave structure:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Periodic-permanent magnet
Coupled cavity
Helix
Ring-bar
18. The glass tube of a TWT may be coated with aquadag to

a. help focusing
b. provide attenuation
c. improve bunching
d. increase gain
19. A backward-wave oscillator is based on the
a.
b.
c.
d.
rising-sun magnetron
crossed-field amplifier
coaxial magnetron
traveling-wave tube
SEMICONDUCTOR MICROWAVE DEVICES AND CIRCUITS

1. A parametric amplifier must be cooled
a. because parametric amplification generates a lot of heat
b. to increase bandwidth
c. because it cannot operate at room temperature
d. to improve the noise performance
2. A ruby maser amplifier must be cooled
a.
b.
c.
d.
because maser amplification generates a lot of heat

to increase bandwidth
because it cannot operate at room temperature
to improve the noise performance
3. A disadvantage of microstrip compared with stripline is that microstrip

a.
b.
c.
d.
does not readily lend itself to printed circuit techniques

is more likely to radiate
is bulkier
is more expensive and complex to manufacture
4. The transmission system using two ground plane is

a.
b.
c.
d.
microstrip
elliptical waveguide
parallel-wire line
stripline
5. Indicate the false statement. An advantage of stripline over wveguide

is its
a.
b.
c.
d.
smaller bulk
greater bandwidth
higher power-handling capability
greater compatibility with solid-state devices
6. Indicate the false statement. An advantage of stripline over microstrip

is its
a.
b.
c.
d.
easier integration with semiconductor devices

lower tendency to radiate
higher isolation between adjacent circuits
higher Q
7. Surface acoustics waves propagate in

a.
b.
c.
d.
gallium arsenide
indium phosphide
stripline
quartz crystal
8. SAW devices may be used as

a.
b.
c.
d.
transmission media like stripline

filters
UHF amplifiers
Oscillators at millimeter frequencies
9. Indicate the false statement. FETs are preferred to bipolar transistors

at the highest frequencies because they
a.
b.
c.
d.
are less noisy

lend themselves more easily to integration
are capable of higher effeciencies
can provide higher gains
10. For best low-level noise performance in the X-band, an amplifier

should use
a. a bipolar transistor
b. a Gunn diode
c. a step-recovery diode
d. an IMPATT diode
11. The biggest advantage of the TRAPATT diode over the IMPATT diode is
its
a. lower noise
b. higher efficiency
c. ability to operator at higher frequencies
d. lesser sensitivity to harmonics
12. Indicate which of the following diodes will produce the highest pulsed
power output:
a. Varator
b. Gunn
c. Schottky barrier
d. RIMPATT
13. Indicate which of the following diodes does not use negative
resistnace in its operation:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Backward
Gunn
IMPATT
Tunnel
14. One of the following is not used as a microwave mixer or detector:

a.
b.
c.
d.
Crystal diode
Schottky-barrier diode
Backward diode
PIN diode
15. One of the following microwave diodes is suitable for very low-power
oscillators only:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Tunnel
avalanche
Gunn
IMPATT
16. The transferred-electron bulk effect occurs in

a. germanium
b. gallium arsenide
c. silicon
d. metal semiconductor junctions
17. The gain-bandwidth frequency of a microwave transistor, fT, is the
frequency at which the
a. alpha of the transistor falls by 3 dB
b. beta of the transistor falls by 3 dB
c. power gain of the transistor falls to unity
d. beta of the transistor falls to unity
18. For a microwave transistor to operate at the highest frequencies, the
(indicate the false answer)
a. collector voltage must be large
b. collector current must be high
c. base should be thin
d. emitter area must be large
19. A varactor diode may be useful at microwave frequencies (indicate the
false answer)
a. for electronic tuning
b. for frequency multiplication
c. as an oscillator
d. as a parametric amplifier
20. If high-order frequency multiplication is required from a diode

multiplier,
a.
b.
c.
d.
the resistive cutoff frequency must be high

a small value of the base resistance is required
a step-recovery diode must be used
a large range of capacitance variation is needed
21. A parametric amplifier has an input and output frequency of 2.25 GHz,
and is pumped at 4.5 GHz. It is
a.
b.
c.
d.
traveling-wave amplifier
degenerative amplifier
lower-sideband up-converter
upper-sideband up-converter
22. A nondegenerate parametric amplifier has an input frequency fi and a

pump frequency fp. Then idler frequency is
a.
b.
c.
d.
fi
2fi
fi f p
fp - f i
23. Traveling-wave parametric amplifiers are used to

a.
b.
c.
d.
provide a greater gain

reduce the number of varactor diodes required
avoid the need for cooling
provide greater bandwidth
24. A parametric amplifier sometimes uses a circulator to

a. prevent noise feedback
b. allow the antenna to be used simultaneously for transmission and
reception
c. separate the signal and idler frequencies
d. permit more efficient pumping
25. The nondegenerate one-port parametric amplifier should have a high
ratio of pump to signal frequency because this
a. permits satisfactory high-frequency operation
b. yields a low noise figure
c. reduce the pump power required
d. permits satisfactory
26. The tunnel diode

a. has a tiny hole through its center to facilitate tunneling
b. is a point-contact diode with a very high reverse resistance
c. uses a high doping level to provide a narrow junction
d. works by quantum tunneling exhibited by gallium arsenide only
27. A tunnel diode is loosely coupled to its cavity in order to
a.
b.
c.
d.
increase the frequency stability

increase the available negative resistance
facilitate tuning
allow operation at the highest frequencies
28. The negative resistance in a tunnel diode

a.
b.
c.
d.
is maximum at the peak point of the characteristic

is available between the peak and valley points
is maximum at the valley point
may be improved by the use of reverse bias
29. The biggest advantage of gallium antimonide over germanium for tunneldiode use it that former has a
a. lower noise
b. higher ion mobility
c. larger voltage swing
d. simpler fabrication process
30. Negative resistance is obtained with a Gunn diode because of
a.
b.
c.
d.
electron transfer to a less mobile energy level

avalanche breakdown with the high voltage gradient
tunneling across the junction
electron domains forming at the junction
31. For Gunn diodes, gallium arsenide is preferred to silicon because the
former
a.
b.
c.
d.
has a suitable empty energy band, which silicon does not have
has a higher ion mobility
has a lower noise at the highest frequencies
is capable of handling higher power densities
32. The biggest disadvantage of the IMPATT diode is its

a.
b.
c.
d.
lower efficiency than that of the other microwave diodes

high noise
inability to provide pulsed operation
low power-handling ability
33. The magnetic field is used with a ruby maser to

a.
b.
c.
d.
provide sharp focusing for the electron beam

increase the population inversion
allow room-temperature operation
provide frequency adjustments
34. The ruby maser has been preferred to the ammonia maser for microwave
amplification, because the former has
a.
b.
c.
d.
a much greater bandwidth

a better frequency stability
a lower noise figure
no need for a circulator
35. Parametric amplifiers and masers are similar to each other in that
both (indicate false statement)
a.
b.
c.
d.
must have pumping

are extremely low-noise amplifiers
must be cooled down to a few kelvins
generally required cicultators, since they are one-port devices
36. A maser RF amplifier is not really suitable for

a.
b.
c.
d.
radioastronomy
satellite communications
radar
troposcatter receiver
37. The ruby laser differs from the ruby maser in that the former
a.
b.
c.
d.
does not require pumping

needs no resonator
is an oscillator
produces much lower powers
38. The output from a laser is monochromatic; this means that it is

a.
b.
c.
d.
infrared
polarized
narrow-beam
single-frequency
39. For a given average power, the peak output power of a ruby laser may
be increased by
a. using cooling
b. using Q spoiling
c. increasing the magnetic field
d. dispensing with the Fabry-Perot resonator
40. Communications lasers are used with optical fiber, rather than in open
links, to
a. ensure that the beam does not spread
b. prevent atmospheric interference
c. prevent interference by other laser
d. ensure that people are not blinded by them
41. Indicate the false statement. The advantages of semiconductor lasers
over LEDs include
a.
b.
c.
d.
monochromatic output
higher power output
lower cost
ability to be pulsed at higher rates
DIGITAL COMMUNICATIONS
1. Digital signals
a. do not provide a continuous set of values
b. represent values as discrete steps
c. can utilize decimal or binary systems
d. all of the above
2. The event which marked the start of the modern computer age was
a.
b.
c.
d.
design of the ENIAC computer

development of the Hollerith code
development of the transistor
development of disk drives for data storage
3. The baud rate

a.
b.
c.
d.
is
is
is
is
always equal to the bit transfer rate

equal to twice the bandwidth of an ideal channel
not equal to the signaling rate
equal to one-half the bandwidth of an ideal channel
4. The Shannon-Hartley law

a.
b.
c.
d.
refers to distortion
defines bandwidth
describes signaling rates
refers to noise
5. The code which provides for parity checks is

a.
b.
c.
d.
Baudot
ASCII
EBCDIC
CCITT-2
6. A forward error-correcting code corrects errors by

a.
b.
c.
d.
requiring partial retransmission of the signal

requiring retransmission of the entire signal
requiring no part of the signal to be retransmitted
using parity to correct the errors in all cases
7. Full duplex operation

a. requires two pairs of cables
b. can transfer data in both directions at once
c. requires modems at both ends of the circuit
d. all of the above
8. The RS-232 interface

a. interconnects data sets and transmission circuit
b. uses several different connectors
c. permits custom wiring of signal lines to the connector pins as
desired
d. all of the above
a.
b.
c.
d.
improve the efficiency of data transfer

are not used in data systems
require additional lines
are limited to small data networks
10. The data transmission rate of a modem is measured in

a.
b.
c.
d.
bytes per second

baud rate
bits per second
megahertz
BROADBAND CUMMUNICATIONS SYSTEMS

1. Broadband long-distance communications were made possible by the advent
of
a.
b.
c.
d.
telegraph cables
repeater amplifiers
HF radi
Geostationary satellites
2. A scheme in which several channels are interleaved and then transmitted

together is known as
a.
b.
c.
d.
frequency-division multiplex
time-division multiplex
a group
a supergroup
3. A basic group B
a.
b.
c.
d.
occupies the frequency range from 60 to 108 kHz

consists of erect channels only
is formed at the group translating equipment
consists of five supergroups
4. Time-division multiplex
a.
b.
c.
d.
can be used with PCM only

combines five groups into a supergroup
stacks 24 channels in adjacent frequency slots
interleaves pulses belonging to different transmissions
5. The number of repeaters along a coaxial cable link depends on

a. whether separate tubes are used for the two directions of
transmission
b. the bandwidth of the system
c. the number of coaxial cables in the tube
d. the separation of the equalizers
6. A supergroup pilot is
a.
b.
c.
d.
applied at each multiplexing bay

used to regulate the gain of individual repeaters
applied at each adjustable equalizer
fed in at a GTE
7. Microwave link repeaters are typically 50 km apart

a. because of atmospheric attenuation
b. because of output tube power limitations
c. because of the Earths curvature
d. to ensure that the applied dc voltage is not excessive
8. Microwave links are generally preferred to coaxial cable for television
transmission because
a.
b.
c.
d.
they have less overall phase distortion

they are cheaper
of their greater bandwidths
of their relative immunity to impulse noise
9. Armored submarine cable is used

a.
b.
c.
d.
to protect the cable at great depths

to prevent inadvertent ploughing-in of the cable
for the shallow shore ends of the cable
to prevent insulation breakdown from the high feed voltages
10. A submarine cable repeater contains, among other equipment,

a.
b.
c.
d.
a dc power supply and regulator

filters for the two directions of transmission
multiplexing and demultiplexing equipment
pilot injected pilot extract equipment
11. A geostationary satellite

a. is motionless in space (except for its spin)
b. is not really stationary at all, but orbits the Earth within a 24-hr
period
c. appears stationary over the Earths magnetic pole
d. is located at a height of 35,800 km to ensure global coverage
12. Indicate the correct statement regarding satellite communications.
a. If two earth stations do not face a common satellite, they should
communicate via a double-satellite hop.
b. Satellites are allocated so that it is impossible for two earth
stations not to face the same satellite
c. Collocated earth stations are used for frequency diversity
d. A satellite earth station must have as many receive chains as there
are carriers transmitted to it
13. Satellite used for intercontinental communications are known as

a.
b.
c.
d.
Comsat
Domsat
Marisat
Intelsat
14. Identical telephone numbers in different parts of a country are

distinguished by their
a.
b.
c.
d.
language digits
access digits
area codes
central office codes
15. Telephone traffic is measured

a.
b.
c.
d.
with echo cancellers

by the relative congestion
in terms of the grade of service
in erlangs
16. In order to separate channels in a TDM receiver, it is necessary to

use
a.
b.
c.
d.
AND gates
bandpass filters
differentiation
integration
17. To separate channels in an FDM receiver, it is necessary to use

a.
b.
c.
d.
AND gates
bandpass filters
differentiation
integration
18. Higher order TDM levels are obtained by

a.
b.
c.
d.
dividing pulse widths

using the a-law
using the -law
forming supermastergroups
19. Losses in optical fibers can be caused by (indicate the false

statement)
a. impurities
b. microbending
c. attenuation in the glass
d. stepped index operation
20. The 1.55 m window is not yet in use with fiber optic systems
because
a. the attenuation is higher than at 0.85 m
b. the attenuation is higher that at 1.3 m
c. suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
d. it does not lend itself to wave
21. Indicate which of the following is not a submarine cable
a. TAT-7
b. INTELSAT V
c. ATLANTIS
d. CANTAT 2
22. Indicate which of the following is an American domsat system
a.
b.
c.
d.
INTELSAT
COMSAT
TELSTAR
INMARSAT
RADAR SYSTEMS
1. If the peak transmitted power in a radar system is increased by a
factor of 16, the maximum range will be increased by a factor
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
4
8
16
2. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increased by a factor of

4, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of
a. 2
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
3. If the ratio of the antenna diameter to the wavelength in a radar
system is high this will result in (indicate the false statement)
a.
b.
c.
d.
large maximum range

good target discrimination
difficult target acquisition
increased capture area
4. The radar cross section of a target (indicate the false statement)

a.
b.
c.
d.
depends on the frequency used

may be reduced by special coating of the target
depends on the aspect of a target, if this nonspherical
is equal to the actual cross-sectional area for small targets
5. Flat-topped rectangular pulses must be transmitted in radar to

(indicate the false statement)
a. allow a good minimum range
b. make the returned echoes easier to distinguish from noise
c. prevent frequency changes in the magnetron
d. allow accurate range measurements
6. A high PRF will (indicate the false statement)
a.
b.
c.
d.
make the returned echoes easier to distinguish from noise

make target tracking easier with conical scanning
increase the maximum range
have no effect on the range resolution
7. The IF bandwidth of a radar receiver is inversely proportional to the

a.
b.
c.
d.
pulse width
pulse repetition frequency
pulse interval
square root of the peak transmitted power
8. If a return echo arrives after the allocated pulse interval,

a.
b.
c.
d.
it will interfere with the operation of the transmitter

the receiver might be overloaded
it will not be received
the target will appear closer than it really is
9. After a target has been acquired, the best scanning system for tracking
is
a.
b.
c.
d.
nodding
spiral
conical
helical
10. If the target cross section is changing, the best system for accurate
tracking is
a. lobe switching
b. sequential lobing
c. conical scanning
d. monopulse
11. The biggest disadvantage of CW Doppler radar is that
a. it does not give
b. it does not give
c. a transponder is
d. it does not give
the target velocity

the target range
required at the target
the target position
12. The A scope displays

a.
b.
c.
d.
the target position and range

the target range, but not position
the target position, but not range
neither range nor position, but not only velocity
13. The Doppler effect is used in (indicate the false statement)

a.
b.
c.
d.
moving-target plotting on the PPI

the MTI system
FM radar
CW radar
14. The coho in MTI radar operates at the

a.
b.
c.
d.
intermediate frequency
transmitted frequency
received frequency
pulse repetition frequency
15. The function of the quartz delay line in an MTI radar is to

a.
b.
c.
d.
help in subtracting a complete scan from the previous scan

match the phase of the coho and the stalo
match the phase of the coho and the output oscillator
delay a sweep so that the next sweep can be subtracted from it
16. A solution to the blind speed problem is

a.
b.
c.
d.
to
to
to
to
change the Doppler frequency

vary the PRF
use monopulse
use MTI
17. Indicate which one of the following applications or advantages of

radar beacons is false:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Target identification
Navigation
Very significant extension of the maximum range
More accurate tracking of enemy targets
18. Compared with other types of radar, phased array radar has the
following advantages (indicate the false statement)
a.
b.
c.
d.
very fast scanning

ability to track and scan simultaneously
circuit simplicity
ability to track many targets simultaneously
PULSE COMMUNICATIONS
1. Indicate which of the following is not a binary code
a.
b.
c.
d.
Morse
Baudot
CCITT-2
ARQ
2. To permit the selection of 1 out of 16 equi-probable events, the number

of bits required is
a. 2
b. log10 16
c. 8
d. 4
3. A signaling system in which each letter of the alphabet is represented
by a different symbol is not used because
a. it would be too difficult for an operator to memorize
b. it is redundant
c. noise would introduce too many errors
d. too many pulses per letter are required
4. The Hartley states that
a. the maximum rate of information transmission depends on the channel
bandwidth
b. the maximum rate of information transmission depends on the depth of
modulation
c. redundancy is essential
d. only binary codes may be used
5. Indicate the false statement. In order to combat noise,
a.
b.
c.
d.
the channel bandwidth may be increased

redundancy may be used
the transmitted power may be increased
the signaling rate may be reduced
6. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is

a.
b.
c.
d.
frequency-shift keying
two-tone modulation
pulse-code modulation
single-tone modulation
7. Pulse-width modulation system used for telegraphy is

a.
b.
c.
d.
by differentiating pulse-position modulation

with a monostable
by integrating the signal
with a free-running multivibrator
8. Indicate which of the following system is digital.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Pulse-position modulation
Pulse-code modulation
Pulse-width modulation
Pulse-frequency modulation

a. time-division multiplex
b. frequency division multiplex
c. pulse-code modulation
d. pulse-width modulation
10. The modulation system inherently most noise-resistant is
a. SSB, suppressed-carrier
c. pulse-position modulation
d. pulse-code modulation
11. In order to reduce quantizing noise, one must
a.
b.
c.
d.
increase the number of standard amplitudes

send pulses whose sides are more nearly vertical
use an RF amplifier in the receiver
increase the number of samples per second
12. The Hartley-Shannon theorem sets a limit on the

a. highest
b. maximum
c. maximum
d. maximum
frequency that may be sent over a given channel

capacity of a channel with a given noise level
number of coding levels in a channel with a given noise level
number of quantizing levels in a channel of a given bandwidth
13. Indicate which of the following pulse modulation systems is analog

a.
b.
c.
d.
PCM
Differential PCM
PWM
Delta
14. Companding is used

a. to
b. in
c. to
d. in
overcome quantizing noise in PCM

PCM transmitters, to allow amplitude limited in the receivers
protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion
PCM receivers, to overcome impulse noise
15. The biggest disadvantage of PCM is

a.
b.
c.
d.
its
the
its
the
inability to handle analog signals

high error rate which its quantizing noise introduces
incompatibility with TDM
large bandwidths that are required for it
TELEVISION FUNDAMENTALS
1. The number of lines per field in the United States TV system is
a.
b.
c.
d.
262
525
30
60
2. The number of frames per second in the United States TV system is

a.
b.
c.
d.
60
262
4.5
30
3. The number of lines per second in the United States TV system is

a.
b.
c.
d.
31,500
15,750
262
525
4. The channel width in the United States TV system, in MHz, is

a.
b.
c.
d.
41.25
6
4.5
3.58
5. Interlacing is used in television to

a. produce the illusion of motion
b. ensure that all the lines on the screen are scanned, not merely the
alternate ones
c. simplify the vertical sync pulse train
d. avoid flicker
6. The signals sent by the TV transmitter to ensure correct scanning in
the receiver are called
a.
b.
c.
d.
sync
chroma
luminance
video
7. In the United States color television system, the intercarrier

frequency, in MHz, is
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.58
3.57945
4.5
45.75
8. Indicate which voltages are not found in the output of a normal

monochrome receiver video detector.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sync
Video
Sweep
Sound
9. The carrier transmitted 1.25 MHz above the bottom frequency in the
United States TV channel is the
a.
b.
c.
d.
sound carrier
chroma carrier
intercarrier
picture carrier
10. In television, 4:3 represents the

a. interlace ratio
b. maximum horizontal deflection
c. aspect ratio
d. ratio of the two diagonals
11. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during
a.
b.
c.
d.
horizontal blanking
vertical blanking
the serrations
the horizontal retrace
12. An odd number of lines per frame forms part of every one of the
worlds TV systems. This is
a. done to assist interlace
b. purely an accident
c. to ensure that line and frame frequencies can be obtained from the
same original source
d. done to minimize interference with the chroma subcarrier
13. The function of the serrations in the composite video waveform is to

a. equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical
retrace
b. help vertical synchronization
c. help horizontal synchronization
d. simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse
14. The width of the vertical sync pulse in the United States TV system is
a. 21H
b. 3H
c. H
d. 0.5H
15. Indicate which of the following frequencies will not be found in the
output of a normal TV receiver tuner:
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.5 MHz
41.25 MHz
45.75 MHz
42.17 MHz
16. The video voltage applied to the picture tube of a television receiver
is fed in
a.
b.
c.
d.
between grid and ground

to the yoke
to the anode
between grid and cathode
17. The circuit that separates sync pulses from the composite video
waveform is
a.
b.
c.
d.
the keyed AGC amplifier

a clipper
an integrator
a differentiator
18. The output of the vertical amplifier, applied to the yoke in a TV

receiver, consists of
a.
b.
c.
d.
direct current
amplified vertical sync
a sawtooth voltage
a sawtooth current
19. The HV anode supply for the picture tube of a TV receiver is generated
in the
a.
b.
c.
d.
mains transformer
vertical output stage
horizontal output stage
horizontal deflection oscillator
20. Another name for the horizontal retrace in a TV receiver is the

a.
b.
c.
d.
ringing
burst
damper
flyback
21. Indicate which of the following signals is not transmitted in color

TV:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Y
Q
R
I
22. The shadow mask in a color picture tube is used to

a. reduce x-ray emission
b. ensure that each beam hits only its own dots
c. increase screen brightness
d. provide degaussing for the screen
23. In a TV receiver, the color killer
a.
b.
c.
d.
cuts off the chroma stages during monochrome reception

ensures that no color is transmitted to monochrome receivers
prevents color overloading
makes sure that the color burst is not mistaken for sync pulses, by
cutting off reception during the back porch
INTRODUCTION TO FIBER OPTIC TECHNOLOGY

1. What is the frequency limit of copper wire?
a. approximately 0.5 MHz
b. approximately 1.0 MHz
c. approximately 40 GHz
d. None of the above
2. Approximately what is the frequency limit of the optical fiber?
a.
b.
c.
d.
20 GHz
1 MHz
100 MHz
40 MHz
3. A single fiber can handle as many voice channel as

a.
b.
c.
d.
a
a
a
a
pair of copper conductors

1500-pair cable
500-pair cable
1000-pair cable
4. An incident ray can be defined as

a.
b.
c.
d.
a
a
a
a
light ray reflected from a flat surface

light ray directed toward a surface
diffused light ray
light ray that happens periodically
5. The term dispersion describes the process of

a.
b.
c.
d.
separating light into its component frequencies

reflecting light from a smooth surface
the process by which light is absorbed by an uneven rough surface
light scattering
6. Which of the following terms describes the reason that light is

refracted at different angles?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Photon energy changes with wavelength

Light is refracted as a function of surface smoothness
The angle is determined partly by a and b
The angle is determined by the index of the materials
7. The term critical angle describes

a. the point at which
b. the point at which
c. the point at which
reflective mode
d. the point at which
index to another
light is refracted
light becomes invisible
light has gone from the refractive mode to the
light has crossed the boundary layers from one
8. The cladding which surrounds the fiber core

a.
b.
c.
d.
is used
is used
acts to
ensures
to reduce optical interference

to protect the fiber
help guide the light in the core
that the refractive index remains constant
9. The reflective index number is

a. a number which compares the transparency of a material with that of
air
b. a number assigned by the manufacturer to the fiber in question
c. a number which determines the core diameter
d. a term for describing core elasticity
10. The terms single mode and multimode are best describes as
a. the
b. the
c. the
d. the
number of fibers placed into a fiber-optic cable

number of voice channels each fiber can support
number of wavelengths each fiber can support
index number
11. The higher the index number

a.
b.
c.
d.
the
the
has
the
higher the speed of light

lower the speed of light
no effect on the speed of light
shorter the wavelength propagation
12. The three major groups in the optical system are

a. the
b. the
c. the
d. the
components, the data rate and response time

source, the link, and the receiver
transmitter, the cable, and the receiver
source, the link, and the detector
13. As light is coupled in a multipoint reflective device, the power is

reduced by
a. 1.5 dB
b. 0.1 dB
c. 0.5 dB
d. 0.001 dB
14. When connector losses, splice losses, and coupler losses are added,
what is the final limiting factor?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Source power
Fiber attenuation
Connector and splice losses
Detector sensitivity
15. The term responsivity as it applies to a light detector is best

described as
a. the time required for the signal to go from 10 to 90 percent of
maximum amplitude
b. the ratio of the diode output current to optical input power
c. the ratio of output current to output power
d. the ratio of output current to input current
16. Loss comparisons between fusion splices and mechanical splices are
a.
b.
c.
d.
1:10
10:1
20:1
1:20
17. The mechanical splice is best suited for

a.
b.
c.
d.
quicker installation under ideal conditions

minimum attenuation losses
field service conditions
situations in which cost of equipment is not a factor
18. EMD is best describe by which statement?

a. 70 percent of the core diameter and 70% of the fiber NA should be
filled with light
b. 70 percent of the fiber diameter and 70% of the cone of acceptance
should be filled with light
c. 70 percent of input light should be measured at the output
d. 70 percent of the unwanted wavelengths should be attenuated by the
fiber
19. Which of the following cables will have the highest launch power
capability?
a. 50/125/0.2
b. 85/125/0.275
c. 62.5/125/0.275
d. 100/140/0.3
20. The term power budgeting refers to

a. the
b. the
c. the
d. the
cost of cables, connectors, equipment, and installation

loss of power due to defective components
total power available minus the attenuation losses
comparative costs of fiber and copper installations
COMMUNICATIONS
b. an intermittent decrease of
transmitter power caused by
the curvature of the earths
surface
c. a decrease of signal strength at
the receiver caused by the
bends of a folded dipole in a
yaki antenna.
d. none of the preceding choices
1. On a telephone system, the loop is

open during
a. on-hook condition 9
b. off-hook condition
c. both a and b
d. none of the condition
6. A voice-grade channel is suitable

for transmission of
a. VHF signals
b. UHF signals
c. VHF and UHF signals
d. signals with a frequency
ranging from 300 to 3400 Hz 9
2. On the subscribers telephone set

employing the touch-tone technique,
how many signals are transmitted to
the telephone exchange for every
button that is pressed?
a. two VHF signals
b. one VHF signals and one
audio-frequency tone
c. two audio-frequency tones 9
d. three audible tones
7. Insertion loss is
a. caused by thermal noise that
intermodulates with the signal
traveling on the same medium.
b. a momentary disruption of
signal due to power interruption
c. a low level high frequency
signal inserted into the original
signal caused by thermal noise
d. none
of
the
preceding
choices9
3. How many different tones can a

telephone set, employing the touchtone technique, generate?
a. 10 audio frequency tones
b. 8 audible tone frequencies 9
c. 4 VHF signals
4. An Acoustic Coupler is
a. a device that radiates audible
signals via a transmitting
antenna.
b. a device that converts electric
signals into audio signals (and
vice versa), enabling to be
transmitted over the public
telephone network via a
conventional
telephone
handset. 9
c. a device that receives audible
signals and retransmits them at
VHF frequencies
8. Erlang is
a. a unit of magnetic field density
measured around a conductor
b. the number of erroneous bits
received per unit of time
c. a unit of electrical energy
radiated in space
d. equal to the number of
simultaneous calls originated
during
a
specific
hourly
period9
9. The local loop of a telephone
system is
a. a
two-wire
or
four-wire
communication circuit between
the customers premise and the
central office 9
b. a group of wires connecting a
telephone set to a modem
5. Bend loss is
a. a form of increased attenuation
caused by bends radiating from
the side of the fiber 9
65
c. the signal having a higher

frequency than the original and
transmitted back to earth by a
passive satellite.
c. a four-wire circuit connecting a

facsimile
machine
to
a
computer
d. a single piece of wire
connecting the subscribers
telephone set to another
telephone set in an adjacent
room.
13. Singing is
a. the result of intermodulating
two or more signals of different
frequencies to produce a tone
having a frequency equal to the
sum of the frequencies of the
signals intermodulated
b. the result of intermodulating
two or more signals of different
frequencies to produce a tone
having a frequency higher than
that of the signal having the
highest frequency.
c. an undesired self-sustained
oscillation
in
a
system,
generally caused by excessive
positive feedback 9
10. A communication link is

a. a piece of wire that is
connected to ground terminals
of
all
communications
equipment
in
one
establishment.
b. a channel or circuit intended to
connect other channels or
circuits 9
c. a
cable
connecting
a
transmitter to the antenna
11. A multidrop line is
a. a piece of wire with a thick
insulating material that serves
to protect the conductive
material from damage in the
event the wire is dropped.
b. a line designed to withstand
high pressure
c. a line or circuit interconnecting
several stations 9
d. none of the preceding choices.
14. Termination is the

a. result of cutting both ends of a
conductor
b. result of disconnecting a line
from a transmitter
c. all of the preceding choices9
15. Telephone signaling provides
status information like
a. busy tone, dial tone, and
ringing
b. congestion and call charge
data
c. all of the preceding choices 9
12. Echo is
a. a signal of the same amplitude
but 180 out of phase from the
original signal and mixed with
the original signal at the
transmitter to produce a more
intelligible output signal.
b. a wave which has been
reflecting or otherwise returned
with sufficient magnitude and
delay for it to be perceptible in
some manner as a wave
distinct from that directly
transmitted. 9
16. A two-wire circuit is

a. usually in the subscriber loop,
between the telephone set and
the local central office. 9
b. a circuit having only two
terminals,
both
terminals
having the same instantaneous
voltage.
66
c. a switching system that lets a

large number of telephone or
data processing subscribers
use a lesser number of
transmission lines
or
a
narrower bandwidth. 9
c. a circuit with one input

terminal, one output terminal,
and a common ground
17. A four-wire circuit is
a. used between serving central
offices
for
long-distance
connections, with one pair
being used for each direction of
transmission 9
b. is a circuit with three output
terminals and one input
terminal
c. is an oscillator that produces
four
different
frequencies
simultaneously
21. A trunk is
a. the base of a communications
tower
b. a telephone line connecting
two central offices 9
c. a
line
connecting
one
22. In a microwave communications,
the frequency range for super high
frequency in megahertz is:
a. 30 to 300
b. 300 to 3000
c. 3000 to 30000 9
d. 30000 to 300000
18. A leased line is

a. a piece of wire used in a local
area network in one building
b. a piece of wire connecting a
c. a temporary connection of one
computer to a mainframe via a
modem and a telephone line
d. a permanent circuit for private
use within a communication
network 9
23. A simple convenient means of

adjusting waveguide power level is
provided by what
a. slide screw tuner
b. slotted line attenuator
c. directional coupler attenuator
d. flap attenuator 9
19. PABX stands for

a. Private
All-purpose
Broadcasting Exchange
b. Private
Automatic
Branch
Exchange 9
c. Public Access Bi-directional
Exchange
24. It is a high gain, low noise level,

audio frequency amplifier and a
square law calibrated vacuum tube
voltmeter used to amplify and
measure the output of a crystal and
display the information.
a. standing wave indicator 9
b. power level indicator
c. voltmeter
d. pilot indicator
20. A concentrator is
a. a system that improves the
signal-to-noise
ratio
by
compressing
b. a device that varies the
characteristic of a carrier signal
in
accordance
with
the
waveform of a modulating
signal which contains useful
information.
25. It represents energy that has

neither been radiated into space not
completely transmitted.
a. standing waves 9
b. captured waves
67
Determine the signal level received at

the receiver station
a. -91 dBw
b. -89.5 dBw 9
c. -88.8 dBw
d. -90.7 dBw
c. incident waves
d. modulated waves
26. A
microwave
communication
system space loss expressed in dB is
a. 94.2 + 20 log fGHZ +20 log dmiles
b. 94.3 + 20 log fGHZ + 20 log dkm
c. 92.4 +20 log fGHZ + 20log dkm9
d. 93.5 + 20 log fGHZ +20 log dmiles
31. At a distance of 50 km, a 100 watt

microwave radio transmitter is used to
link to another microwave radio
receiver. The received signal level
should be equal to negative 80 dBm at
the frequency of 6 GHz. Determine
the first Fresnel zone radius at midpoint of path.
a. 85 ft
b. 78 ft
c. 82 ft 9
d. 75 ft
27. Given a paraboloid reflector with a

diameter D = 6 feet and is operated at
1.5 Ghz. What is the beamwidth
between nulls of the reflector, ?
a. 8
b. 8.2
c. 7.7 9
d. 7.0
28. Given a paraboloid reflector with a
diameter D = 6 feet and is operated at
1.5 GHz. What is the beamwidth
between nulls of the reflector, 0?
a. 15.3 9
b. 8.2
c. 7.7
d. 7.0
32. A waveguide with 4.5 Ghz cut-off

frequency is exited with a 6.7 Ghz
signal. What is the wavelength in the
waveguide.
a. 0.196 m
b. 0.336 m
c. 0.136 m 9
d. 0.236 m
29. Point to point communication

between A & B is 90 km (flat terrain).
Point A is on top of a hill, 900 ft. above
sea level, with a tower height of 23 m.
What is the minimum height of the
antenna at point B?
a. 65 ft
b. 73 ft
c. 75 ft
d. 69 ft 9
33. A rectangular waveguide has

dimensions of 3 cm x 5 cm. What is
the TE10 mode cut-off frequency?
a. 2 GHz
b. 3 GHz 9
c. 2.5 GHz
d. 3.5 GHz
34. What is the power density in W/m2
at a distance of 1 km from a 1000W
isotropic source?
a. 7.58 x 10-5
b. 7.95 x 10-5 9
c. 7.85 x 10-5
-5
d. 7.59 x 10
30. A microwave communication set

up had the following characteristics:
Transmitters & receivers antenna gain
------------------------------------- 10 dB
line length (transmitter & receiver) ----------------------------------------- 1.25 ft.
line loss --------------------- 1.8 dB/100ft
transmitter power ------------ 100 W
path loss ----------------------- 125 dB
modulation --------------------- 100%
35. A microwave antenna with a length

of 6 cm radiation a 12 cm wavelength
signal.
Calculate the mean field
distance
68
a.
b.
c.
d.
41. Find the forward tilt angle t for a

vertically polarized 3 Ghz wave
traveling in air along the surface of a
smooth freshwater lake.
a. 6.0
b. 6.2
c. 6.4 9
d. 6.8
6.1 cm
6.0 cm 9
6.2 cm
5.0 cm
36. A tapered termination of a length

of waveguide that provides the
impedance transformation between
waveguide impedance and free space
impedance.
a. isotropic radiator
b. horn radiator 9
c. dipole
d. parabolic reflector
42. Another term for Amplitude

Modulation (AM) is:
a. Double Sideband Full Carrier
(DSBFC) 9
b. Single Sideband Suppressed
Carrier (SSBSC)
c. Frequency Modulation (FM)
d. Pulse Code Modulation (PCM)
37. Transmission lines which can

convey electromagnetic waves only in
higher order modes are usually called
a. coaxial cable
b. twisted pair of telephone wire
c. power lines
d. waveguides 9
43. A pulse amplitude modulator uses

a modulating signal whose frequency
is 3 kHz maximum. The practical
sampling frequency is:
a. 6 kHz 9
b. 7.25 kHz
c. 2.5 kHz
d. 3 kHz
38. Refers to the ratio of an electric

field component to a magnetic field
component at the same point of the
wave
a. characteristic impedance
b. wave impedance 9
c. load impedance
d. intrinsic impedance
44. If a television channel starts at 66

MHz, the sound carrier is found at:
a. 4.5 MHz
b. 67 MHz
c. 55.25 MHz
d. 71.75 MHz 9
39. Refers to the ratio of the phasor

fields E and H for a plane (TEM) wave
in an unbounded medium
a. wave impedance
b. load impedance
c. intrinsic impedance9
d. characteristic impedance
45. A two-channel Time Division

Multiplexer with channel 1 having the
highest frequency of 3 kHz while
channel 2 has only 1 kHz. The lowest
commutating or sampling frequency is:
a. 18 kHz 9
b. 15.5 kHz
c. 6 kHz
d. 24.75 kHz
40. Defined as the quotient of the

maximum radiation intensity over the
average radiation intensity
a. aperture gain
b. directivity gain 9
c. transmission gain
d. power gain
46. The main purpose of the 19 kHz

pilot in a stereo multiplexed signal in
FM is for the receiver to:
a. Indicate stereo reception
b. Demodulate 9
69
c. Modulate
d. Over Modulate
52. Range of carrier frequencies for

commercial FM broadcasting
a. 535 kHz 1605 kHz
b. 88 GHz 108 GHz
c. 88 MHz 108 MHz
d. 0.88 kHz 1.08 kHz 9
47. A Pulse code modulator (PCM)

uses an eight-bit quantizer. If the
quantizer output has FF(Hex) and
00(Hex) which represents a quantized
voltage of 1 volt and 0 volt
respectively, then A6(Hex) represents
what:
a. 6 volts
b. 0.25 volts
c. 0.1 volts
d. 0.65 volts 9
53. They are subcarriers that are

arranged so that the channels
occupying adjacent frequency bands
with some frequency space between
them is known as:
a. Guard Bands 9
b. AM Bands
c. Band Gap
d. Band Diagram
48. Type of operation performed at the

transmitter to achieve efficient and
reliable information transmission.
a. Transmission
b. Filtering
c. Modulation 9
d. Multiplexing
54. The amplitude of a train of

constant-width pulses is varied in
proportion to the sample values of the
modulating signal
a. Phase Modulation
b. Frequency Shift Keying
c. Amplitude Shift Keying
d. Pulse Amplitude Modulation 9
49. Another name for multiplier circuit

a. Balance Modulator 9
b. Discriminator
c. Clipper
d. Integrator
55. Determine the bandwidth of an AM

transmitter if the carrier frequency is
1000 Khz and the modulating
frequency varies from 1 kHz to 10
Khz.
a. 2000 Hz
b. 2 kHz
c. 20 kHz 9
d. 20.1 kHz
50. A
process
that
uses
the
orthogonality of sines and cosines that
makes possible to transmit and
receive
to
different
signals
simultaneously on the same carrier
frequency is:
a. Time Division Multiplexing
b. Frequency
Division
Multiplexing
c. Quadrature Multiplexing 9
d. Duplexing
56. The information of an AM signal

resides in the
a. Upper Sideband only
b. Lower Sideband only
c. Upper & Lower Sideband
Only9
d. Carrier signal
57. The transmission and reception of
information is called:
a. Modulation
b. Communication 9
c. Radiation
d. Emission
51. A good example of a pilot tone

system used in commercial frequency
modulation stations.
a. Frequency Modulation
b. Frequency
Division
Multiplexing
c. Time Division Multiplexing
d. Stereo Multiplexing 9
70
b. Has high information content

c. Inflexible
d. Both a and b
58. The process of varying some

characteristic of a high frequency sine
wave in accordance with the variation
of the modulating signal is called:
a. Communication
b. Propagation
c. Restoration
d. Modulation 9
64. When are bits per second and

bands equivalent?
a. Never
b. When the transmission line
changes state each time a bit
changes 9
c. When a telephone modem
feeds your personal computer
d. always
59. A 10 Mhz carrier is amplitude

modulated by a 100 Khz signal. What
frequency components are present in
the output wave?
a. 10 MHz and 100 kHz
b. 10 MHz, 10.1 MHz and 100 kHz
c. 10 MHz, 10.1 MHz and 9.9 MHz 9
d. 10 MHz, 9.9 MHz and 9.8 MHz
65. If the maximum signaling speed on

a certain DC cable is 2000 bps, and
we are presently passing data at 600
bps, what effect would doubling the
cable length have an our ability to
communicate?
a. No effect
b. The maximum speed would
fall, but we would not be
affected because we are
operating below the maximum
speed
c. Lengthening the cable would
reduce the maximum speed to
below 600 bps, and we could
no longer communicate 9
d. The maximum speed would
rise to 4000 bpd.
60. Any unwanted form of energy

interfering the reception of wanted
signal is called:
a. Sidebands
b. Frequency spectra
c. Noise 9
d. Modulation
61. The instantaneous frequency of
the carrier signal is switched between
two (or more) values in response to
PCM code.
a. phase shift keying
b. frequency shift keying 9
d. amplitude shift keying
66. Spacing bias distortion results in:

a. Space being lengthened and
marks being shortened 9
b. Space being shortened and
marks being lengthened
c. Space being lengthened but
marks being unaffected
d. Extra spaces being printed on
the teletypewriter
62. Digital Signals

a. can provide a continuous set of
values
b. represent values as discrete
steps 9
c. cant utilize decimal or binary
systems
67. An AC transmission path has the

characteristics of
a. A low-pass filter
b. A high-pass filter
c. A band-pass filter 9
d. Both a and b
63. If you are going to receive a

message, for example FRIDAY, you
could guess that the letter after FRIDA
was Y because spoken language is
a. Redundant 9
71
73. Which of the following is not an

important cause of distortion in DC
signaling?
a. Line capacitance
b. Line Inductance 9
c. Detector hysteresis
d. Line resistance
68. The data transmission rate of a

modem is measured in
a. bytes per second
b. baud rate 9
c. bits per second
d. megahertz
69. Which is not an example of data
communications?
a. A teletype printing news
bulletins
b. A computer transmitting files to
another computer
c. An automatic teller machine
checking account balances
with the banks computer
d. a salesman telephoning orders
to the office 9
74. The telephone is attractive for

transmitting digital data because
a. Telephone calls casts are
decreasing with more modem
equipment
b. There is no basic difference
between the problems faced by
a voice signals and those faced
by digital signals
c. Digital and human speech
share
many
signal
characteristics
d. Telephones are standardized
and easy to find 9
70. Two-state (binary) communications

system are better because:
a. They can interface directly with
the analog telephone networks
b. The components are simpler,
less costly and more reliable 9
c. People think better in binary
d. Interstate calls are less costly
75. Which of the statement is true?

a. Parallel data transmission is
more complex than serial
transmission
b. Serial data transmission is
slower
than
parallel
transmission, given the same
pulse width in each case
c. A transmission line will operate
faster with parallel data than it
will with serial data. 9
d. Serial transmission is suited to
use over single pair of wire

a. improve the efficiency of data
transfer 9
b. are not used in data systems
c. require additional lines
d. are limited to small data
networks
72. What
are
the
effects
of
transmission line loading at AC?
a. Attenuation is decreased, and
signaling speed is raised
b. Attenuation is increased, and
signaling speed is decreased
c. Attenuation is decreased at
some frequencies and raised at
others 9
d. You cant tell without more
information
76. Knowing the bandwidth of circuit,

you can draw a meaningful conclusion
about many characteristics of the
circuit. Which of the following do you
not know about from knowing the
bandwidth?
a. Maximum information capacity
b. Maximum signaling speed
c. Operating frequency 9
d. You can tell about all of these if
you know bandwidth
72
77. You
are
presently
passing
baseband data at 4800 bps over a
one-mile cable. Based on Kelvins
Law, what would you expect to be a
reasonable
speed
for
data
transmission if you lengthened the
cable to four miles?
a. 2400 bps
b. 1200 bps
c. 600 bps
d. 300 bps 9
78. The correctness and accuracy of
the transmitted message content is:
a. Verified by the modem
b. Determined by the sender and
receiver,
not
by
the
communication system 9
c. Ensured by used of digital
techniques
d. Depends on how long the
signals take to arrive at the
receiver
c. requires shift characters to

provide
sufficient
combinations9
d. was invented by Emiles sister,
Bridgette
c. A device that punches paper

tape from signal received over
the communication line 9
d. A device that reads transmit
punched paper tape
82. The difference between timing and

framing is:
a. timing is concerned with the
individuals bits; framing is
concerned with the boundaries
between characters 9
b. timing
refer
to
serial
transmission; framing refers to
parallel
c. timing is concerned primarily
with a synchronous systems;
framing is concerned with
synchronous systems
86. Impact printers:

a. Strike a ribbon against the
paper to produce character
image
b. Include ink-jet and terminal
devices
c. A receiver-only-printer with a
keyboard 9
d. are rapidly becoming absolute
83. ASCII terminals are generally

defined as:
a. Terminals using synchronous
transmission in EBCDIC
b. Terminals using synchronous
transmission in ASCCI
c. Terminals using a synchronous
transmission in ASCII 9
d. any
terminal
having
an
American (dollar sign)
keyboard
79. What
is
the
function
of
regenerative repeaters?
a. To eliminate bias distortion
b. To help with loading of the
telegraph lines
c. To reshape the pulses after
they have become distorted 9
d. To reduced required signal
levels
84. Teleprinters
a. Are only for printing at remote
locations not for input
b. After both high speed operation
and a variety of formatting
controls
c. Have a printer for output and
may have a keyboard for
input9
d. Both a and b
80. Extended ASCII

a. Adds extra digits to standard
ASCII 9
b. Provides
128
additional
character definitions beyond
standard ASCII
c. Doubles the bit length of each
ASCII character
d. Provides extra characters that
you define
85. Reperforators:
a. A device for punching paper
tape off-line
b. A printer that ahs no keyboard
and the only and print the
message on paper
81. The Baudot code

a. was invented by the Baudot
brothers, Mark and Space
b. requires the escape characters
to print numbers
73
90. The principal difference between

batch
processing
and
on-line
processing is:
a. Computer resources are used
more efficiently for on-line
processing
b. Teleprinters are used for batch
processing; CRTs are used for
on- line processing
c. Transactions are grouped for
batch processing; transactions
are processed as need for online processing. 9
91. Which of the following statements
about the ASCII code is not true?
a. ASCII is an ANSI standard
b. ASCII is a BCD code 9
c. ASCII can be represented
using 8 bits
d. ASCII and CCITT Alphabet No.
5 are nearly identical
87. Serial printers

a. Are used to transmit grains
prices
b. Are faster than CRT terminals
and offer more flexibility
c. Print one character at a time 9
d. Usually used serial interfaces
92. What is the Hamming distance

between the characters 1001101 and
1011011?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3 9
88. Which of the following is not

common to punched card and
magnetic media terminals?
a. Both are used to facilitate
transmission of computer data
without having to change the
medium in which it is stored
b. Both were developed before
the teletypewriter
c. Both use the same data
transmission principles as the
teletypewriter
and
the
telegraph 9
d. both transmit data at higher
speeds than teletypewriters
93. Which of the statement is not true?

Convolutional codes:
a. Depend on both current
characters to be encoded and
those that have been encoded
previously
b. Are also called recurrent codes
c. Are used with forward error
corrections
d. Are a form of block code 9
89. CRT terminals:

a. Are most widely used hardcopy
terminals
b. Offer high-speed display and
formatting flexibility 9
c. Do
not
normally
utilize
microprocessor
d. Are strictly typewriter-style
94. What type of CRT-based terminals

most closely resembles the KSR
teletypewriter configuration?
a. Buffered terminal
b. Dumb terminal 9
c. Smart terminal
d. Bus terminal
74
100. What
is
the
primary
considerations when designing an
error control system for data
communications?
a. How many errors the system
will detect and correct
b. The overall function and needs
of the networks 9
c. The efficiency of the code that
results from the design
d. All of the preceding
95. Which of the following is not

generally used as a stand-alone data
communications terminals?
a. a microcomputer
b. Magnetic media transceivers
c. Mainframe computers 9
d. Minicomputers
96. One of the following standards
organizations
produce
standards
which are not generally used in the
U.S. which one is it?
a. CCITT 9
b. ISO
c. ANSI
d. UL
101. Which of the statement is not

true?
a. Checksums detect errors more
effectively than checking
b. Cyclic Redundancy checking
can find all of certain
c. Parity checking is capable of
providing enough information
to detect and corrects errors
d. A Hamming code of distance 5
can detect and correct 4 errors
in transmission 9
97. The
difference
between
synchronous and asynchronous data
transmission can be observed by
noting what?
a. How
fast
the
data
is
transmitted on the circuit
b. When stop and star pulses are
used9
c. How accurate the clock is
102. Pulse Amplitude Modulation is:

a. Similar to amplitude modulation
in the analog world 9
b. Used in radio communication
c. Relatively insensitive to noise
distortion
d. Aversion
of
frequency
modulation
98. Some characteristics of the

EBCDIC code are:
a. It is used exclusively on IBM
computers
b. It is binary coded decimal code
expanded
to
allow
the
transmission of letters and
control characters9
c. EBCDIC
can
easily
be
transformed into ASCII- 8 by
adding hexadecimal constant
to the ASCII- 8 code
d. all of the preceding
103. Pulse Duration Modulation

a. Is similar to FM
b. Is
difficult
to
detect
accurately9
c. Is not widely used
d. Is vulnerable to noise
104. Fourier Analysis
a. Is merely a
exercise
b. Tells us how to
train
c. Provides insight
way of looking
train9
99. One of the following techniques

will not help to correct for transmission
line errors. Which is it?
a. N-of-M codes
b. Checksums
c. Algorithmic conversions 9
d. Parity checking
75
mathematical
build a pulls
on another
at a pulse
d. Has no application in data

communications
a. As modulation index increases,

bandwidth
and
power
increases
b. As modulation index increases,
bandwidth
and
power
increases
c. As modulation index increases,
bandwidth
increases
and
power decreases 9
d. As modulation index increases,
bandwidth
decreases
and
power increases
105. What is the easiest type of

system to use for secure (encrypted)
computer communications?
a. Frequency
Division
Multiplexing
b. Pulse Code Modulation 9
c. Pulse Duration Modulation
d. Pulse Position Modulation
106. Multiplexing
a. Has been in use since the
1920s
b. Involves separating signals into
pieces that dont interfere with
anything else
c. Expands
telephone
plant
capability
d. Separates signals in space,
frequency, or time 9
110. Given a signal which ranges in

frequency from 100Hz to 10KHz, and
256 quantizing levels, what is the
minimum pulse rate required to
transmit this signal? Ignore framing
pulses
a. 10, 000 bps
b. 20, 000 bps
c. 140, 000 bps
d. 160, 000 bps 9

commonly used modern modulation
method?
a. 8-FSK 9
b. BPSK
c. 4-PSK
d. 8-QAM
111. The standard first-level digital

multiplex system in the U.S. operates
at:
a. 2.048 Mbps
b. 44.736 Mbps
c. 1.544 Mbps 9
d. 9, 600 bps
108. Why is it necessary to use

carrier in data communications?
a. Because it makes modulation
easier
b. Because data signals cannot
be
transmitted
to
their
destination without the aid of a
carrier 9
c. Because multiplexing systems
need carriers to function
properly
112. The area of coverage of a

satellite radio beam is called its:
a. Beamwidth
b. Circular polarization
c. Footprint 9
d. Identity
113. Fiber optic cables operate at
frequencies near:
a. 20 MHz
b. 200 MHz
c. 2 GHz
d. 800 THz 9
109. What is the relationship

between power level, bandwidth, and
modulation index of a frequency
modulated signal?
114. Since the optical fibers carry

light rays, the frequent y of operation
is that of light. The transmission
76
b. with
a
monostable
multivibrator9
c. by integrating the signal
d. with
a
free-running
multivibrator
wavelength used for current singlemode fibers is:

a. 1.2 micrometers 9
b. 1.5 micrometers
c. 3.0 micrometers
d. 4.0 micrometers

characteristic
of
pulse
code
modulations?
a. Applicable to any signal
waveform
b. Easily
implemented
in
hardware,
and
becoming
widely used worldwide
c. Minimize the effect of noise
during
transmission
and
provides for coding to remove
noise in the signal 9
d. does not actually transmit the
signal impressed on the
modulator
115. Which
of
the
following
statements
about
time-division
multiplexing is not true?
a. TDM is becoming less widely
used as PCM systems are
introduced 9
b. TDM is ideal for data
communications because the
data are already in digital form
c. TDM can use any of several
modulation schemes
d. TDM will probably coexist with
PDM for many years
116. Modems are used to connect
data equipment to communications
lines.
Which of the following
statements about modems is not true?
a. Modems operate at 300, 1200,
or 4800 bits per second
b. Acoustics-coupled modems are
not useful when an operator is
in attendance 9
c. Some modems can operate
without being connected to a
computer, and transfer data to
and from the computer off-line
d. none of the preceding
120. Which statements below is not

true?
a. Pulse code modulation makes
it
possible
to
make
transmission line noise effects
arbitrarily low
b. PSK
is
often
used
in
preference to FSK because it
makes more efficient use of
bandwidth
c. 8-PSK outperforms 8-QAM for
transmitting data efficiently 9
d. Nyquists Sampling Theorem
defines the parameters on
which pulse code modulation
is based
117. Which of the following is an

example
of
space-division
multiplexing?
a. Receiving television shows on
different channels
b. The
distribution
in
our
automobile
c. Telephone wires on the
poles9
121. Why establish the 4-KHz

channel as the basic building block of
multiplex systems?
a. Because multiples of four make
designing the equipment easier
b. Because supergroups and
mastergroups are easier to
form based on an even
multiple9
118. PDM maybe generated

a. by differentiating pulse-position
modulation
77
c. Because it represents the width

of a voice channel and its
guard bands
c. Are the pins that represent

received transmission and
carrier transmission
122. Direct
machine-to-machine
transmission over long distance
without modems is not practical
because:
a. Copper wire does not transmit
DC efficiently
b. A DC path that will handle data
in pulse form does not exist 9
c. Data comes from the computer
in the form of tones, not pulses
126. The CCITT V.26

modulation rate of:
a. 1200 Hz
b. 1200 bauds 9
c. 1560 cps
d. 2000 bauds
has
127. Synchronous modems cost

more than asynchronous modems
because:
a. They are larger
b. They must operate on a larger
beamwidth
c. The production volume is
larger
d. They must contain clock
recovery circuits 9
123. RS 232, RS 530, V.24, and

V.21 are examples of:
a. Standards for various types of
transmission channels
b. Standards
for
interfaces
between
terminals
and
modems 9
c. Standards
for
end-to-end
performance
of
data
communication systems
128. The digital-to-analog converts

in a synchronous modem send signals
to the:
a. Modulator
b. Transmission lines
c. Terminal
d. Equalizer 9
124. A smart modem can:

a. Detect transmission errors and
correct them automatically
b. Correctly answer multiplechoice quizzes
c. Accept commands from the
terminal via the RS 232
interface 9
129. Multiplexing is:

a. The process of increasing
bandwidth on a channel
b. A technique that enables more
than one data source to share
the use of a common line 9
c. Mailing letter at the post office
d. The ability to share frequency
by time
125. RTS/CTS:
a. Is the way of the DTE indicates
that it is ready to transmit data,
and the way the DCE indicates
that it is ready to accept data9
b. Is the way the modem
indicates ringing, and the way
the terminals indicates it is
ready for the call to be
answered
130. Demultiplexing by a time

division multiplexer occurs based
upon:
a. The position of data within a
time 9
b. The position of frame within a
group of frames
c. The activity of a connected
device
78

characteristic
of
packet-switched
networks?
a. Low cost to establish
b. Dynamic
allocation
of
Bandwidth
c. Packet-by-packet
routing
decisions made by IMOs 9
d. Sophisticated control software
d. The priority assigned to a

connected device
131. The PCM sampling rate is
8000 samples per second because:
a. The represents the maximum
rate technology supports
b. This rate allows unique values
c. This rate allows the faithful
reconstruction of an analog
signal 9
d. This rate is easily produced by
a sampling chip
137. Local area networks

heavily on the technology of:
a. Circuit switching 9
b. Message switching
c. Telephone switching
d. Packet switching
132. Message
switching,
as
compared to circuit switching, does
not offer which of the following:
a. Lower costs to users
b. Greater link efficiency
c. Improved
timeliness
of
message handling 9
d. Precedence
handling
of
messages
133.
of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
draw
138. Which of the following pieces

of information would you not expect to
find in a packet header?
a. Message segment 9
b. Packet number
c. Error-number
d. Routing information
Typical LANs support busses

139.
local
time?
a.
b.
c.
500 feet
1000 feet 9
5000 feet
10000 feet
What is the major drawback to

area networks at the present
Lack of standards 9
Not enough vendors
Cost of the interconnecting
cable
d. Software problems

dedicated or circuit-switched network?
a. Point-to-point teletype circuit
b. Torn-tape teletype 9
c. Multipoint data terminal system
140. Which of the following is to a

message switched system?
a. AUTODIN
b. ARPANET
c. SAGE 9
d. Telex
135. Based
upon
experienced
gained from ARPANET, which of the
following application is suitable for
packet switching?
a. Industrial process control
b. Military
quick-response
command and control 9
c. Electronic mail
d. Remote terminal access to
mainframe programs
141. If each character in an

XMODEM block has an ASCII value of
50 what would be the value of the
check sum added to the block?
a. 50
b. 23
c. 41
d. 25 9
79
a. in summer than in winter

b. in nighttime than in daytime
c. for high frequencies than for
low frequencies
d. in times of a very low sunspot
activity than in times of very
high sunspot activity
142. In the XMODEM protocol, the

sender waits for what character from
the
receiver
before
beginning
transmission?
a. WACK
b. ACK
c. RVI
d. NAK 9
148. For a two-wire line, Z0 is higher

when:
a. the D:d ratio is smaller
b. the wire size is larger with
respect to the spacing of the
conductors
c. the spacing is varied in
accordance with the frequency
d. the wire size is small with
respect to the spacing of the
conductors 9
143. Whether or not polarization of

an antenna is linear depends on:
a. changes in direction in which
the electric plane is radiated
b. the direction of the electricwave plane 9
c. the horizontal or vertical plane
of the electric wave
d. the direction in which the
magnetic wave is radiated
149. In practice, the transmission

lines are almost connected to
antennas that have a:
a. resistive load at the resonant
frequency 9
b. resistive load whose resistance
is
greater
than
the
characteristics impedance of
the line
c. resistive load whose resistance
is less than characteristics
d. capacitive load
144. Direct waves of very high

frequency
a. are refracted less than direct
waves of low frequency
b. lag
behind
earth-reflected
waves
c. are affected by changes in
density 9
d. have a transmission range that
can be extended greatly
145. The
distance
from
the
transmitting antenna to the point
where direct waves strikes the earth
is called:
a. radio horizon 9
b. optical horizon
c. geometric horizon
d. the line of sight
150. Typed transmission lines:

a. should be used in applications
in which the transmission line
is more than a wavelength long
b. are usually connected to the
voltage feed point or to the
current feed point 9
c. should be designed so that
corresponding points on the
conductors have opposing
fields of unequal magnitude
d. can not be converted into
untuned lines
146. The D, E, and F layers are

called:
a. Mark Space layers
b. Davidson Miller layers
c. Kennelly Heaviside layers 9
d. Maxwell layers
147. The critical frequency of the
vertically transmitted radio wave is
higher
151. The
fields:
80
magnetic
and
electric
a. reach their greatest points at

the same moment
b. occur 90 out of phase 9
c. occur 180 out of phase
d. occur 270 out of phase
c. depends on the dielectric

constant of the materials
used9
d. increases the velocity along the
transmission line
152. The three components of the

magnetic fields are in phase:
a. in space with the components
of the electric field
b. in time 9
c. four times each cycle
d. two times each cycle
157. For
transmission-line
load
matching over a range of frequencies,
it is best to use a:
a. broadband directional coupler
b. balun
c. single stub of adjustable
position
d. double stub 9
153. A transmission line with a

characteristics impedance of 450 is
terminated in a purely resistive load. It
is found by measurement that the
minimum value of voltage upon it is
7.5V, and the maximum is 9V.
What is the value of load resistance?
a. 200 or 450
b. 325 or 500
c. 375 or 540 9
d. 250 or 500
158. Skin effects refers to what?

a. The problems associated with
the insulators, or skin, of a
cable
b. The tendency of AC to flow
near the outer surface of a
conductor 9
c. The tingling feeling in your skin
when you are near highfrequency transmitters
154. A (75 j50) ohm load is to be

matched to a 75-ohm line to give SWR
= 1.
What is the characteristics
impedance of the quarter-wave
transformer, connected directly to the
load?
a. 90 ohms 9
b. 100 ohms
c. 110 ohms
d. 120 ohms
159. Why is open-wire line still

found in many telephone system
application?
a. Because data signals travel
better on open-wire line
b. Because it is not economically
sensible to replace it 9
c. Because multiplexing systems
need the bandwidth provided
by openwire
155. To couple a coaxial line to a

parallel-wire, it is best to use a:
a. directional coupler
b. quarter-wave transformer
c. balun 9
d. slotted line
160. Which
of
the
following
statements about flat unpaired cable is
not correct?
a. flat cable has a good adjacent
pair noise immunity 9
b. flat cable has poor immunity to
noise induced by sources
outside the cable
c. flat cable is widely used in data
applications
156. The velocity factor of a

transformer line:
a. is higher for a solid dielectric
than for air
b. is governed by the skin effect
81
c. Vulnerable to the right galactic

noise levels of space
d. Require demand assignment
schemes to achieve best use
d. flat cable is effective in

crumpled
locations
where
round cable will not easily fit
161. What is the relationship
between possible bandwidth and
signal frequency?
a. As
bandwidth
decreases,
signal frequency decreases
b. As signal frequency increases,
bandwidth increases 9
c. As signal frequency increases,
bandwidth decreases
d. They are not related
166. You are told that certain

satellite uses transmissions in the 4/6
GHz band. What does that mean?
a. The satellite transmits to earth
at 4 GHz, the earth station to
the satellite at 6 GHz
b. The earth station transmits at 4
GHz, the satellite transmits to
earths at 6 GHz
c. The satellite transmits to earth
in the frequency band lying
near 4 GHz, and the earth
station transmits to the satellite
in the band lying near 6 GHz 9
162. One
of
the
following
transmission impairments is not a
problem
with
a
microwave
transmission. Which not?
a. Multipath fading
b. Ducted signals
c. Rain attenuation 9
167. Which of the following system

is least affect by variations in the
refractive index of the layers of the
earths atmosphere?
a. Microwave
line
of
sight
systems
b. High frequency radio
c. Satellite systems 9
d. UHF radio systems
163. What type of cable would you

choose if you wanted an inexpensive,
longdistance,
medium-bandwidth
transmission link where several
circuits ran in parallel?
a. Open wire
b. Quaded-exchange cable
c. Quadded-toll cable 9
d. Coaxial cable
168. What is the capacitance of 55

miles No. 4 copper wire spaced 18
inches? From wire tables, we find that
No. 4 copper has radius of 0.10215 in.
a. 0.476 F 9
b. 0.086 F
c. 0.86 F
d. 0.476 F
164. One of the following is not an

advantage of coaxial cable for data
communications, which is it?
a. Wide bandwidth
b. Flexibility of the system layout
c. Noise immunity
d. Right-of-way costs 9
169. When the transmission line

matched to the load, it:
a. transfers maximum current
the load
b. transfers maximum voltage
the load
c. transfers maximum power
the load 9
d. reduces the load current

characteristic of satellite transmission
systems?
a. Long signal delays from sender
to receiver 9
b. Affected by weather in the
earths surface
82
is
to
to
to
170. If measurements are taken

along transmission line with an
oscilloscope when there are no
standing waves, the pattern would
appear as:
a. surge impedance times current
b. high voltage peak
c. impedance squared
d. a sinusoidal waveshape 9
a. To increase the electrostatic

capacitance
b. To keep it dry 9
c. To prevent it from collapsing
d. To lower the voltage
176. Waveguide is
a. a device used to determine the
wavelength of a signal
b. a braided copper wire used for
transmission
of
high
frequencies
c. a plastic tubular transmission
line for high RF network
d. a hollow metal tube used for
transmission
of
high
frequencies 9
171. A characteristics of an infinite

transmission line is that:
a. the impedance in equals the
impedance out 9
b. it carries waves at the velocity
of light
c. it can be connected to
mismatched loads
d. the impedance varies with the
length of the line
177. How can you couple into and

out of a waveguide?
a. Wrap a coil of wire around one
end of the waveguide
b. Use a piece of wire for coupling
in and out 9
c. Use a resonant tank feeding
slot in waveguide
d. Force electrons through the
wall of the waveguide
172. A quarter-wave transmission

line shorted at the end:
a. has a minimum current at the
shorted end
b. has the characteristics of a
parallel-tuned circuit 9
c. has the characteristics of a
series-tuned circuit
d. reflects a low impedance to the
supply
178. What is the noise level at the

output of the amplifier shown, if the
noise power is given by 10-5 W?
a. 80 dBrn
b. 90 dBrn 9
c. 100 dBrn
173. The outer conductor of a

coaxial transmission line is usually
grounded at the:
a. input and output 9
b. output only
c. input only
d. point of higher SWR
174.
SWR.
a.
b.
c.
d.
179. For some application, circular

waveguides maybe preferred to
rectangular ones because of:
a. lower attenuation 9
b. rotation of polarization
c. the
smaller
cross-section
needed at any frequency
d. freedom from spurious modes
A certain feed line has a high

It can be caused by:
an impedance mismatch 9
use of non-resonant
matching the load to the line
excessive transmitter output
180. In order to reduce crosssectional dimensions, the waveguide

to use is:
175. Why is nitrogen used in coaxial

cables or waveguides?
83
a.
b.
c.
d.
185. ______ is the microphone

characteristics that results in a boost
in bass frequencies for close
microphone spacing
a. Field effect
b. P.A. effect
c. Proximity effect 9
d. Reverberation
circular
rigid 9
rectangular
flexible
181. The main difference between

the operation of transmission lines and
waveguides is that:
a. Waveguides
are
not
distributed, like transmission
lines
b. Transmission lines can use
stubs and quarter wave
transformer,
unlike
the
waveguide
c. Transmission lines use the
principal mode of propagation,
and therefore do not suffer
from low-frequency cut-off 9
d. Terms such as impedance
matching and standing-wave
ratio cannot be applied to
waveguide
186.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The audio frequency range is:

20 kHz to 20 MHz
3 Hz to 20 kHz
300 Hz to 3 kHz
0 Hz to 4 kHz
20 Hz to 20 kHz 9
187.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The bass frequency range is

20 Hz to 40 Hz
1 Hz to 20 Hz
40 Hz to 160 Hz 9
10 Hz to 20 Hz
188. The high frequency range of

audio signals is
a. 2, 500 Hz to 5, 000 Hz
b. 5, 000 Hz to 10 kHz 9
c. 10 kHz to 20 kHz
d. 20, 000 Hz to 30 kHz
182. What is the optimum length of

a
Marconi
antenna
for
the
transmission of a 300 MHz signal?
The antenna velocity factor is 0.85.
a. 0.21 m 9
b. 0.22 m
c. 0.23 m
d. 0.24 m
189. The SPL in dB of a voice

paging in an office is
a. 90
b. 65 9
c. 55 60
d. 80 85
183. An ____ is defined as a volume

control for specific frequency ranges.
a. volume control
b. AGC
c. Equalizer 9
d. tone controls
190. The SPL in db of an auditorium

with contemporary music is
a. 80
b. 85 90
c. 95 100 9
d. 100 105
184. ______ are usually of the two

knots type (one for bass and one for
treble).
a. volume control
b. tone controls 9
c. AGC
d. tuning knob
191. The church in SPL in dB with

speech reinforcement only is
a. 90
b. 80 85 9
c. 85 90
d. 90 95
84
192.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Intensity can also be called as

volume
loudness 9
sharpness
bass and treble
d. 300 ft to 3, 000 ft
198. If the sound waves are
converted to electrical waves by a
microphone. What is the frequency of
the electric current?
a. 3 to 30 MHz
b. 25 to 8, 000 Hz 9
c. 4 to 40 Hz
d. 30 to 3, 000 Hz
193. The loudness of a sound

depends upon the energy of motion
imparted to the ____ molecules of the
medium transmitting the sound.
a. loudness
b. volume
c. moving
d. vibrating 9
199. For a music lover concert A is

440 Hz. If a musical note one octave
higher were played, it would be ____
that frequency.
a. one-half
b. one-fourth
c. double 9
d. triple
194. _____ is affected by the

distance between the listener and the
source of the sound and its intensity
varies inversely with the square of this
distance
a. volume
b. bass
c. treble
d. loudness 9
200. In a 220 Hz, if a note were

played one octave below it would be
_____.
a. 22 Hz
b. 27.5 Hz
c. 440 Hz
d. 110 Hz 9
195. If the distance between the

listener and the source of the sound is
doubled, the intensity is reduced to
a. 1/2
b. 1/3
c. 2/3
d. 9
201. Much of music is generally

referred to in
a. harmonics
b. good hearing
c. fidelity
d. octaves 9
196. If the distance between the

listener and the source of the sound is
decreased to 1/2 the original amount,
the intensity of the sound would be
___.
a. 2 times as great
b. 3 times as great
c. 4 times as great 9
d. 5 times as great
202. ______ is a undesired change

in wave form as the signal passes
through a device.
a. noise
b. vibration
c. distortion 9
d. harmonics
197. The frequency range of a piano

is from 25 to 8, 000 Hz. What is the
range of wavelengths in feet?
a. 45.2 ft to 0.14125 ft 9
b. 142.3 ft to 163.8 ft
c. 0.14125 ft to 45.2 ft
203. Distortion
enhances
intelligibility when an ____ is added.
a. equalizer
b. igniter
c. exciter 9
d. emulsifier
85
204. A class of signal processors

are known as
a. amplifiers
b. equalizers
c. microprocessors
d. exciters 9
a.
b.
c.
d.
211. At 20C sound travels at 1130

ft./sec.
for
two
loudspeakers
separated by 1 ft, calculate the notch
frequencies which will cause signal
misalignments?
a. 130 Hz, 230 Hz
b. 130 to 390 Hz
c. 1130, 2260, 3390 Hz 9
d. 130, 230, 460, 920 Hz
205. Hall construction and internal

finishes affect the final sound quality
a. poorly
b. mildly
c. significantly 9
d. badly
206. Positioning a loudspeaker near
a wall can dramatically alter its
frequency response in two distinct
ways namely
a. gump and dump
b. hump and notch 9
c. fade and gone
d. bad and worst
212. At room temperature, calculate

the velocity of sound in meters/sec?
a. 348.3 m/s
b. 132 m/s
c. 980 m/s
d. 348.03 m/s 9
213. Calculate the velocity of sound
in ft./sec. if the temperature is 300F?
a. 132 ft/sec
b. 1320 ft/sec
c. 1350.303 ft/sec 9
d. 1920.435 ft/sec
207. The acoustics of most auditoria

are very ____ when the room is full
compared to the empty condition
a. different 9
b. similar
c. good
d. bad
214. Atmospheric noise becomes

less severe at frequencies
a. Above 30 MHz 9
b. Below 30 MHz
c. Above 3000 KHz
d. Below 3000 KHz
208. A ____ converts acoustical

energy to electrical energy
a. electro-acoustic
b. microphone transducer 9
c. microphone
d. electric microphone
215. Indicate the noise whose

source is in category different from
that of the other three?
a. Solar noise
b. Cosmic noise
c. Atmospheric noise 9
d. Galantic noise
209. All microphone have two basic

component namely, _____.
a. wired and body
b. ceramic and crystal
c. diaphragm and generating
element 9
d. coil and magnet
210. The kinds
elements are ____.
of
expense and fidelity

complexity and ruggedness
longevity
all of the preceding 9

a. Industrial Noise is usually of
the impulse type
generating
86
b. Static is called by lightning

discharges in thunderstorms
and other
natural electric
disturbances occurring in the
atmosphere
c. Distant stars have another
source of man-made noise 9
d. Fluorescent lights are another
source of man-noise
221. Indicate the false statement:

a. HF mixers are generally noisier
then HF Amplifiers
b. Impulse noise voltage is
dependent of bandwidth9
c. Thermal noise is independent
of the frequency at which is
measured
d. Industrial noise is usually of the
impulse type

source of industrial noise?
a. Automobile ignition
b. Sun 9
c. Electric motors
d. Leakage from high voltage line
222. The total space loss of

transmission and reception for two
ground stations with uplink frequency
of 8 GHz and a downlink of 6 GHz
with angle of elevation of 3 A and 7 A
respectively is:
a. 403 dB 9
b. 100 dB
c. 20 dB
d. 215 dB
218. One of the following types of

noise becomes of great importance at
high, frequencies is the
a. Shot noise
b. Random noise
c. Impulse noise
d. Transit-time noise 9
223. The maximum propagation

delay of a geostationary satellite is:
a. 278 ms 9
b. 239 ms
c. 300 ms
d. 250 ms

a. The noise generated in a
resistance or the resistive
component of any impedance
is random
b. Random noise power is
proportional to the bandwidth
over which it is measured
c. A random voltage across the
resistor does not exist 9
d. All formula referring to the
random noise are applicable
only to the value of such noise
224. The total propagation delay

time from transmission to reception of
signals from a ground transmitter to
ground receiver with angle of elevation
at 10 degrees respectively is:
a. 273 ms 9
b. 239 ms
c. 275 ms
d. 260 ms
220. The value of the resistor

creating thermal noise is doubled.
The noise power generated is
therefore.
a. Halved
b. Quadrupled
c. Doubled
d. Unchanged 9
225. A satellite which simplify

reflects the signal without further
amplifications:
a. passive satellite 9
b. active satellite
c. geostationary satellite
d. domestic satellite
226. Essentially a satellite is a radio
repeater in the sky:
87
a.
b.
c.
d.
Transponder 9
Comparador
Duplexer
Billboard
233. Designed to receive a signal

from a transmitting station on the
ground retransmit it to a receiving
station located elsewhere
a. communication satellite 9
b. repeater
c. relay station
d. transpondent
227. The first satellite to receive and

transmit simultaneously
a. Telstar I 9
b. Telstar II
c. Score
d. Echo
228.
a.
b.
c.
d.
234. The signal path from satellite to

earth-based receiver
a. downlink signal 9
b. uplink signal
c. incident signal
d. reflected signal
The first active earth satellite

Sputnik I 9
Explorer I
Echo
Molnia
235. A satellite position is measured

by its ______ angle with respect to the
horizon
a. elevation 9
b. depression
c. azimuth
d. critical
229. Satellite that orbit in a circular

pattern with an angular velocity equal
to that of the earth
a. Geostationary 9
b. Early Bird I
c. Syncom I
d. Stationary Satellite
236. The _____ angle measured the

satellite position clockwise from the
a. azimuth 9
b. elevation
c. depression
d. critical
230. Satellite that provide services

within a single country
a. Domsat 9
b. Comsat
c. ARABSAT
d. EUTELSAT
237. The earths are that the

satellite can receive from or transmit
to
a. footprint 9
b. primary area
c. secondary area
d. coverage area
231. The round-trip propagation

delay between two earth stations
through a geosynchronous satellite is
a. 500 to 600 ms 9
b. 300 to 400 ms
c. 600 to 700 ms
d. 400 to 500 ms
232. The
signal
transmitter to satellite
a. uplink signal 9
b. reflected signal
c. incident signal
d. downlink signal
path
238. Incidentally
propose
the
geostationary scheme or orbit of the
satellite in 1940s
a. Clarke 9
b. Carl Friedrich Gauss
c. Morse
d. Stephen Gray
from
88
c. 200 to 400 ms
d. 300 to 400 ms
239. When the satellite are spaced

4 of the 360 complete circle, how
many parking space are available?
a. 90 9
b. 85
c. 80
d. 80
246. The fist satellite launched for a

geosynchronous
orbit
but
unfortunately lost during orbit injection
a. Syncom I 9
b. Telstar I
c. Sputnik I
d. Early Bird I
340. The control routine necessary

to keep the satellite in position is
referred to as
a. station keeping 9
b. station tracking
c. station monitoring
d. station maintaining
247. When the elevation angle of a

geostationary satellite is 23 and the
transmitting frequency is 3840 MHz,
what is the free space loss in dB?
a. 196 dB 9
b. 200 dB
c. 150 dB
d. 100 dB
241. Refers
to
the
satellite
orientation with respect to the earth
a. satellite altitude 9
b. satellite position
c. satellite location
d. satellite maintaining
248. What is the propagation delay

when a signal is transmitted by an
earth station to a geosynchronous
satellite about 38, 500 km above
earths equator and then received by
the same earth station?
a. 256 msec 9
b. 128 msec
c. 300 msec
d. 400 msec
242. The farthest distance from

earth, a satellite orbit reaches is called
a. apogee 9
b. perigee
c. line of apsides
d. altitude
243. The minimum distance from
earth a satellite orbit reaches is called
a. perigee 9
b. apogee
c. line of apsides
d. altitude
244. The first Intelsat satellite that
was launched in 1965 was named
a. Early Bird I 9
b. Echo
c. Telstar I
d. Courier
245. The round-trip propagation
delay between two earth stations
through a geosynchronous satellite is
a. 500 to 600 ms 9
b. 400 to 500 ms
89
c. 145 dB
d. 166 dB
257.
to
a.
b.
c.
d.
251. The elevation angle and

azimuth angle of a satellite are called
a. look angles 9
b. tracking angles
c. horizontal angles
d. vertical angle
256. When making the transition

from one energy level to another, the
atom absorbs a packet of energy
called
a. photon 9
b. proton
c. electron
d. atom
260. A ____ has a central core with

a uniform refractive index
a. step index 9
b. graded index fiber
c. single mode fiber
d. multi mode fiber
254. The most common carrier

frequencies
used
for
satellite
communications are
a. 6/4 and 14/12 GHz bands 9
b. 8/6 and 16/14 GHz bands
c. 20/18 and 28/26 GHz bands
d. 12/10 and 18/16 GHz bands
250. The distance between the two

antennas of a geostationary satellite
system is 22, 300 miles and is
operating at a downlink frequency of
12.2 GHz, what is the free space loss
in dB?
a. 205 dB 9
b. 130 dB
has
259. The
minimum
angle
of
incidence at which a light ray may
strike the interface of two media is
called
a. critical angle 9
b. angle of incidence
c. angle of refraction
d. angle of reflection
253. Satellite-to-satellite cross linklink is also called

a. intersatellite links (ISLs) 9
b. mobile link
c. broadcast link
d. fixed point link
255. One (1) angstrom (A) is often

used to express wavelength which is
equivalent to
-10
a. 10 meter 9
-12
b. 10 meter
c. 0.001 micron
d. 10-4 meter
6.625 x 10-34 J s 9
6.526 x 10-34 J s
-34
6.255 x 10 J s
5.256 x 10-34 J s
258. Gallium-arsenide
refractive index of
a. 3.6 9
b. 3.4
c. 3.3
d. 3.5
252. A satellite service between

earth stations located at fixed
geographical points on earth is called
a. fixed-point 9
b. mobile
c. broadcast
d. intersatellite
249. What is the free space

attenuation
of
a
satellite
communication system operating at
36, 000 km above the earth at 5.0
GHz?
a. 198 dB 9
b. 200 dB
c. 180 dB
d. 190 dB
Plancks constant is equivalent
261. In a ____ there is no cladding

and refractive index of the core is
nonuniform
a. graded-index fiber 9
b. step-index fiber
c. single-mode fiber
d. multi-mode fiber
262. A figure of merit that is used to
measure the light-gathering or light
collecting ability of an optical fiber
a. Numerical Aperture 9
b. Critical Aperture
c. Acceptance Cone
d. none of these
263. Developed
maser
90
the
first
optical
a.
b.
c.
d.
264.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Theodore H. Maiman 9
A. Javin
Charles H. Townes
H. H. Hopkins
270. Band of light wavelengths that

are too short to be seen by the human
eye
a. Ultraviolet 9
b. Infrared
c. Visible
d. White
Developed the helium laser.

A. Javin 9
Theodore H. Maiman
Charles H. Townes
H. H. Hopkins

the human eye will respond to.
a. Visible 9
b. Infrared
c. Ultraviolet
d. Blue
265. A type of laser that uses a

mixture of helium and neon enclosed
in a glass tube
a. Gas laser 9
b. Solid laser
c. Liquid laser
d. Semiconductor laser
272. What is the frequency of

operation of a dipole cut to length of 5
m?
a. 30 MHz 9
b. 3 MHz
c. 300 MHz
d. 0.3 MHz
266. The branch of electronics that

deals with light.
a. Optoelectronics 9
b. Microelectronics
c. Optical science
d. none of these
273. An amplifier operating over the

frequency range of 455 to 460 KHz
has a 200 K input resistor. What is
the RMS noise voltage at the input to
this
amplifier
if
the
ambient
temperature is 17C?
a. 40 V
b. 4.0 V 9
c. 400 V
d. 4.0 mV
267. A scientist who coined the term

fiber optics in 1956
a. N. S. Kapany 9
b. A. C. S. Van Heel
c. C. W. Hansell
d. H. H. Hopkins
268. Light frequencies used in fiber
optic systems are between
a. 1014 & 1015 Hz 9
b. 1012 & 1014 Hz
15
16
c. 10 & 10 Hz
d. 1016 & 1017 Hz
274. The first stage of a two-stage

amplifier has a voltage gain of 10, a
600 input resistor, a 1600
equivalent noise resistance and a 27
K output resistor. For the second
stage, these values are 25, 81 K,
and 1 M, respectively. Calculate the
equivalent input-noise resistance of
this two-stage amplifier.
a. 2, 518 k
b. 2, 518 k 9
c. 251.8 k
d. 12.518 k

are too long to be seen by the human
eye
a. Infrared 9
b. Visible
c. Ultraviolet
d. Amber
91
c. An unwanted form of energy

tending to interfere with the
proper and easy reception and
reproduction
of
wanted
signals9
d. S/N of an ideal system divided
by S/N at the output of the
receiver or amplifier under test,
both working at the same
temperature over the same
bandwidth and fed from the
same source.
275. The noise output of a resistor is

having a gain of 60 and a bandwidth
of 20 KHz. A meter connected to the
output of the amplifier reads 1 mV
RMS.
IF the bandwidth of the
amplifier is reduced to 5 KHz, its gain
remaining constant, what does the
meter read now?
a. 0.5 mV 9
b. 0.5 V
c. 5.0 mV
d. 5.0 V
279. Calculate the noise figure of

the amplifier whose RF has an input
resistance of 1000 and an
equivalent shot-noise resistance of
2000 , a gain of 25 and a load
resistance of 125 k. Given that the
bandwidth is 1.0 MHz and the
temperature is 20C, and that the
receiver is connected to an antenna
with an impedance of 75.
a. 30.3 9
b. 3.03
c. 303
d. 0.303
276. The front-end of a television

receiver, having a bandwidth of 7
MHz, and operating at a temperature
of 27C, consists of an amplifier
having a gain of 15, followed by a
mixer whose gain is 20. The amplifier
has a 300 input resistor and a shot
noise equivalent resistance of 500 ;
for the mixer, these values are 2.2 k
and 13.5 k, respectively, and the
load resistance of the mixer is 470 k.
Calculate
the
equivalent
noise
resistance for this television receiver
a. 8, 760
b. 876 9
c. 8.76
d. 0.876
280. A receiver connected to an

antenna whose resistance is 50 has
an equivalent noise resistance of 30
.
Calculate its equivalent noise
temperature if the noise figure is equal
to 1.6.
a. 17.4 K
b. 174 K 9
c. 1.74 K
d. 17 K
277. One of the following is not a

useful quantity for comparing the
noise performance of receivers.
a. input noise voltage 9
b. Equivalent noise resistance
c. Noise temperature
d. Noise figure
281. What
is
the
frequency
tolerance of a standard broadcast
station?
a. 20.5 Hz
b. 20 Hz 9
c. 19.8 Hz
d. 33 Hz

Noise figure is defined as:
a. the ratio of the s/n power
supplied to the input terminals
of a receiver or amplifier to the
S/N power supplied to the
output or load resistor
b. Noise factor expressed in
decibels
92
288. If a TV transmission is
assigned to the 82 88 MHz channel,
what
is
the
color
subcarrier
frequency?
a. 83.25
b. 86.83 MHz 9
c. 87.75
d. 83.35
282. What type of antenna site is

technically best for an AM broadcast
station?
a. dry land
b. highly elevated
c. marshly land 9
d. average terrain
283. A pre-amplifier with a -30 dBm
output is connected through a mixer
with 20 dB loss of a line amplifier.
What must be the voltage gain of the
line amplifier to feed a +6 dBm to a
600 line?
a. 60 dB 9
b. 72 dB
c. 66 dB
d. 81 dB
289. What
is
the
frequency
tolerance for TV transmission?
a. 2 kHz
b. 2.2 kHz
c. 1 kHz 9
d. 1.1 kHz
290. If the aural transmitter of a TV
station is modulation 80% by a 5 kHz
sine wave, what is the frequency
swing of the aural carrier?
a. 20 kHz 9
b. 25 kHz
c. 10 kHz
d. 12.5 kHz
284. In FM, what produces the

sidebands?
a. Baseband freq. 9
b. Signal amplitude
c. Carrier harmonics
d. Oscillator
291. Spell
out
the
following
abbreviation: FCC, ENG and CCTV
a. Federal
Communications
Commission Electronic news
gathering Closed-circuit tv 9
b. Federal
communications
commission Electronic network
guide closed caption tv
c. Federal
commission
on
communications
Electronic
network guide Closed-circuit
television
285. Do the harmonics of an FM

transmission contain modulation?
a. no
b. is not possible
c. yes 9
d. is possible
286. If a PM transmitter has a tripler
and two doublers with an output of
154.32 MHz, what is the crystal
frequency?
a. 4.6
b. 10.2
c. 4.2864 9
d. 9.8763
292. A 20 dBmV signal level is

attenuated in an 18 dB line run, and
then amplified by 22 dB. What is the
final signal level in volts?
a. 13.66 mV
b. 9.876 mV
c. 15.849 mV 9
d. 16.445 mV
287. What type of modulation does

the video and audio transmitter at a
TV broadcast station employ?
a. AM / FM 9
b. FM / FM
c. FM / AM
d. AM / AM
93
293. What is the other term for video

encryption?
a. scrambling 9
b. signature
c. encoding
d. distortion
a.
b.
c.
d.
5.24 ft
5.5 ft
6 ft 9
7.5 ft
300. A device that converts high

frequency current into electromagnetic
wave is a/an
a. antenna 9
b. loudspeaker
c. microphone
d. transistor
294. It is a standard feature on

CATV amplifiers that controls the gain
with respect to the frequency
a. gain control
b. equalizer
c slope control 9
d. attenuator
301. The amount of voltage induced

in a wire by an electromagnetic wave
is determined by the waves
a. field strength 9
b. direction of travel
c. velocity
d. frequency
295. A must test equipment for

CATV:
a. multitester
b. field level meter 9
c. oscilloscope
d. swr meter
302. An antenna supported by

insulators appears electrically longer
than its physical length due to
a. end effect 9
b. reflection
c. the ionosphere
d. the troposphere
296. The starting point for a cable

distribution system
a. launch amplifier
b. receiving system antenna
c. TVRO system
d. head end 9
297. The signal coverage area of a
satellite
a. Region
b. INTELSAT
c. Domestic
d. Footprint 9
303. In a half-wave dipole maximum

radiation occurs
a. broadside of the antenna 9
b. off the ends
c. at 45 angle to the direction of
dipole
d. when the end effects are
reduce to zero
298. What is the IF range of a

satellite TV receiver?
a. 950 to 1450 MHz 9
b. 3.7 to 4.2 GHz
c. 13.7 to 14.2 GHz
d. 40 to 42 MHz
304. An
electromagnetic
wave
consists of
a. both electric and magnetic
fields 9
b. an electric field only
c. a magnetic field only
d. non-magnetic field only
299. A feedhorn having an f/d ratio

of 0.375 is to be installed on a 16 foot
parabolic dish.
Compute for the
required spacing of the feedhorn from
the vertex of the parabolic antenna
305. Antenna
determined by
94
polarization
is
a. the direction of the electric field

vector 9
b. the frequency of the radiated
wave
c. the direction of the radiated
wave
d. the direction of the magnitude
field vector
311. A yagi antenna is an example

of a/an
a. parasitic array 9
b. driven-array
c. log-periodic array
d. omnidirectional array
312. The collinear antenna is an
example of a/an
a. driven-array 9
b. parasitic array
c. log-periodic array
d. omnidirectional array
306. What is the impedance of a

half-wave dipole?
a. 73 9
b. 36
c. 100
d. 300
313. In a Yagi antenna

a. The director is shorter than the
driven element 9
b. The elements are spaced at
least one wavelength apart
c. The reflectors are shorter than
the driven element
d. There
are
usually
more
reflectors than the direction
307. The length of a half-wave

dipole for 28 MHz is approximately
a. 17 ft 9
b. 23 ft
c. 30 ft
d. 34 ft
308. The
quarter-wave
vertical
antenna requires an excellent ground
system to fully utilize the
a. mirror image principle 9
b. ground current principle
c. troposcatter effect
d. end effect
314. The
angular
separation
between the two half-power points on
the power density radiation pattern
a. beamwidth 9
b. bandwidth
c. polarization
d. spectrum
309. A
vertical
quarter-wave
antenna has
a. an omnidirectional radiation
pattern 9
b. an input impedance of 300
c. an
unidirectional
radiation
pattern
d. a bidirectional radiation pattern
315. Is said to exist below the

ground and is a true mirror image of
the actual antenna
a. image antenna 9
b. dipole antenna
c. Marconi antenna
d. Hertz antenna
316. Known as a grounded labda/4
antenna
a. Marconi antenna 9
b. Hertz antenna
c. Image antenna
d. dipole antenna
310. If the transmitter output is 700

watts, transmission line loss is 100
watts and the antenna gain is 10, what
is the effective radiated power?
a. 6 kW 9
b. 610 kW
c. 811 kW
d. 7 kW
95
322. An interesting variation on the

dipole antenna is called
a. turnstile antenna 9
b. folded dipole
c. rhombic antenna
d. Yagi-Uda antenna
317. A device whose function is to

radiate electromagnetic energy and/or
intercept electromagnetic radiation
a. antenna 9
b. transmitter
c, transmission line
d. transceiver
323. An antenna which is used very

frequently but almost entirely as a
reception antenna and is usually found
on the back of ac-dc table radios
a. loop antenna 9
b. turnstile antenna
c. folded antenna
d. rhombic antenna
318. A
polar
diagram
which
indicates how well an antenna
transmits or receives in different
directions
a. radiation pattern and field
pattern 9
b. radiation only
c. field pattern only
d. transmitter
324. A comparison of the output, in

a particular direction of the antenna in
question and a reference antenna
a. antenna gain 9
b. antenna efficiency
c. directivity
d. antenna power
319. Defined
as
a
fictitious
resistance which would dissipate as
much power as the antenna in
question is radiating if it were
connected to the same transmission
line.
a. radiation resistance 9
b. antenna resistance
c. ohmic resistance
d. ground resistance
325. The ratio expressed in dB of

the output in most optimum direction
to the output 180 away from the
optimum direction
a. front-to-back ratio 9
b. antenna gain
c. directivity
d. antenna power
320. A resistance that represents

the actual image losses caused by the
conversion of electrical energy to heat
as a result of the resistivity of the
various conducting elements of the
antenna
a. ohmic resistance 9
b. antenna resistance
c. radiation resistance
d. ground resistance
326. The elementary doublet is a

theoretical antenna which is used as a
standard to which all the other
antenna characteristics can be
compared and is sometimes called as
a. Hertzian dipole 9
b. Marconi antenna
c. Yagi antenna
d. loop antenna
321. An antenna which has highly

directional
properties,
essentially
radiating a beam of electromagnetic
radiation
a. beam antenna 9
b. half-wave dipole
c. Hertz antenna
d. Marconi antenna
327. Defined as the ratio of the

power density in a particular direction
of one antenna to the power density
that would be radiated by an isotropic
antenna
96
a.
b.
c.
d.
directivity gain 9
antenna gain
efficiency
power gain
a.
b.
c.
d.
328. The gain of a Hertzian dipole

with respect to an isotropic antenna is
a. 1.76 dB 9
b. 2.15 dB
c. 4.15 dB
d. 5.15 dB
50 9
5
5 K
500
334. How much current flows into

the antenna having a radiation
resistance of 300 radiating 5 kW?
a. 4.08 A 9
b. 5.08 A
c. 3.08 A
d. 2.08 A
329. The gain of a half-wave dipole

compared to the isotropic antenna is
a. 2.15 dB 9
b. 3.15 dB
c. 4.15 dB
d. 5.15 dB
335. What is the Q of an antenna

with a bandwidth of 6 MHz and a
frequency of 300 MHz
a. 50 9
b. 0.5
c. 5
d. 500
330. The
angle
created
by
comparing the half-power points (3dB)
on the main radiation lobe to its
maximum power point
a. beamwidth 9
b. bandwidth
c. polarization
d. beamwidth between nulls
336. What is the length of a practical

dipole used to receive a 6 MHz radio
signals?
a. 23.75 m 9
b. 26.75 m
c. 25.75 m
d. 24.75 m
331. A network composed of

reactances and transformers used to
provide matching
a. antenna coupler or coupling
network 9
b. antenna coupler and coupling
network
c. Thevenins network
d. Nortons network
337. Calculate the noise figure of

the amplifier whose REQ equals 2518
(RT = 600) if its driven by a
generator whose output impedance is
50.
a. 39.4 9
b. 3.94
c. 394
d. 0.394
332. How much power will an

antenna having a radiation resistance
of 50 radiate when it is fed 10 A?
a. 5 kW 9
b. 500 kW
c. 0.5 kW
d. 5 kW
333. What is the radiation resistance
of an antenna which radiates 20 KW
when it draws 20 A?
97

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Radiation and wave

Test yourself- Exam 1-10

Test Yourself Exam 01

ECE Board Exam March 1996

ECE Board Exam March 1996

B. effective and ideal radiated power

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B. Generates a signal, whose frequency

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An object farther from a converging lens

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89. ECE Board Exam November 1996

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Test Yourself Exam 03

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If you have available number of power

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Reference noise temperature.

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Transmission sent in both directions

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Which transmit only one sideband?

What is the advantage of PTM over PAM?

100% modulation in AM means a

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Constant peak amplitude

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