IBPS 2012 MCQ

NOV 13 2012 Question papers of IBPS Bank PO and Clerical cadre Written Test Examination
IBPS Bank PO CWE GENERAL AWARENESS Questions

1. The Name of Abdul Karim Telgi is associated with:
(1) Oil for Food scam
(2) Stamp Paper scam
(3) Fodder scam
(4) MP LADs Fund scam
(5) Shares scam
2. Match the following books with their authors:
(A) In Line of Fire (i) Pervez Musharraf
(B) My Name is Red (ii) Orhan Pamuk
(C) Call of Honour (iii) Sagarika Ghose
(D) Blind Faith (iv) Jaswant Singh
ABCD
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(5) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
3. Consider the following statements about Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission:
(i) The budget for the scheme is approximately Rs 1000 crore.
(ii) It will cover 100 cities having population over one million.
(iii) It is aimed at infrastructure and the poor.
Which of the above is NOT true?
(1) (iii) only
(2) (i) and (ii) only
(3) (i) and (iii) only
(4) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(5) None of the above
4. The Tarapore Committee Report is concerned with which of the following:
(1) SEZs (2) SBI (3) RBI (4) Exim policy (5) Capital A/c convertibility
5. Out of the following options regarding the Railway Budget announcements, 2006, which of these
is not true?
(1) Major railway stations will have ATMs and cybercafes
(2) Central budgetary support of nearly Rs 7500 crores
(3) AC fares brought down
(4) The railways generated resources worth Rs 13,000 crores internally
(5) Railway safety fund was Rs 100 crores
6. Afghan President Hamid Karzai was recently awarded:
(1) Indira Gandhi prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development, 2005
(2) Gandhi Peace Prize, 2005
(3) Right Livelihood Award, 2006
(4) Nobel Prize for Peace, 2006
(5) Mother Teresa International Award, 2006
7. Which of the following has completed 50 years in 2006?

(1) HDFC (2) RBI (3) LIC
(4) BARC (5) SBI
8. Which of these matchings of recently appointed persons is not correct?
(1) A.K. AntonyForeign Minister
(2) M.M. SinghChairman of Planning Commission
(3) Sureesh MehtaChief of Naval Staff
(4) M. NairChief of ISRO
(5) N. GopalaswamiChief Election Commissioner
9. What is the Book of Life related to?
(1) Book which received Booker prize, 2006
(2) A new book on zoology
(3) A comprehensive dictionary on various life-forms on earth.
(4) The Human Genome Project
(5) Peace efforts in various nations
10. Who was recently invited by the U.N. Secretary General Kofi Annan to deliver a lecture on
poverty alleviation?
(1) Anil Ambani
(2) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(3) Swami Ramdev
(4) Atal Behari Vajpayee
(5) Pandit Ravi Shankar
11. Given below is the list of Forbes powerful women and their fields/posts.:
(A) ICICI Bank (i) Sonia Gandhi
(B) Pepsico (ii) Lalita Gupte
(C) German Chancellor (iii) Indra Nooyi
(D) Congress Chief (iv) Angela Merkel
Which of these matchings is correct:
ABCD
1. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
2. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
3. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
4. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
5. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
12. Considering the Tarapore Atomic Power Plant-3, which of these facts is TRUE?
1. It has 540 MW capacity
2. It is Indias 3rd such plant
3. Indias nuclear energy capacity now goes upto 3890 MW
4. It is situated in Maharashtra
(1) All the above are true
(2) 1, 2 only are true
(3) 1, 2, 3 are true
(4) 1, 3, 4 are true
(5) Only 3, 4 are true
13. On the basic needs of LPG and kerosene, approximately how much a cylinder and a litre, did
the government subsidize in early 2006?
(1) Rs 220 and Rs 12
(2) Rs 250 and Rs 20
(3) Rs 300 and Rs 30

(4) Rs 180 and Rs 10
14. The per capita income in India is estimated by:
(1) Census Commission
(2) Central Bank
(3) RBI
(4) Joint Parliamentary Committee
(5) Central Statistical Organisation
15. The Health Ministry has planned to set standards of aerated water, following the controversy
between the soft-drink giants and the
NGO, Centre for Science and Environment. What is the tentative period assigned for this?
(1) by December 2006
(2) by January 2007
(3) by August 2007
(4) by March 2007
(5) by December 2007
16. Roughly how many years has the economic liberalisation programme completed in India?
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20 (5) 50
17. Which of the following is correctly matched?
1. Asit BiswasStockholm Water Prize
2. ChandrakantaVyas Samman
3. Devi CherianRajiv Gandhi Rashtriya Ekta Samman
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3 (3) Only 1 (4) Only 2 (5) 1, 2 and 3
18. Consider the following statements regarding India and tell which one is not correct:
(1) 2005 experienced a fall in total unemployment
(2) High Security Animal Disease Lab declared India free of bird flu
(3) ULFA chairman Arbinda announced a peace truce with the army
(4) The RBI praised SEZs for creating regional balance in the future
(5) None of these
19. Regarding the online population of India (accessing the internet), as in mid-2006, which of the
following statements is true?
(1) There were approximately 18 million users
(2) The percentage increase over previous year was 20%
(3) India has the 2nd largest online population
(4) The population was measured for people aged 18 years or nmore
(5) None of these
20. NACP III can be designated as:
(1) National AIDS Control Programme
(2) National Adult Consultancy Programme
(3) National Air Craft Programme
(4) New Age Child Programme
(5) None of these
21. Match the following: State Rank according to no. of patent applications
(A) Delhi (i) 4
(B) Andhra Pradesh (ii) 2
(C) Tamil Nadu (iii) 1
(D) Maharashtra (iv) 3
ABCD
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(5) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
22. IAFs recent combat exercise on the Western front was:
(1) Garuda
(2) Gagan Shakti
(3) Vayudoot
(4) Sangha Shakti
(5) Varuna
23. Consider the following happenings/programmes:

I. D. Raju has been appointed for micro-division of reservation.
II. India will host International AIDS Conference, 2012.
III. Supreme Court upheld that State domicile was needed for contesting election to Rajya Sabha,
from a State.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(1) Only I
(2) Only I and II
(3) Only II and III
(4) Only III
(5) All of the above
24. Recently France honoured an Indian with the officer de la legion d honneur. The honour was
bestowed on:
(1) Mukesh Ambani
(2) Amitabh Bachchan
(3) Sonia Gandhi
(4) M.M. Singh
(5) Aamir Khan
25. Match the sports events/terms:
(A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy (i) Pankaj Advani
(B) Badminton (ii) Aparna Popat
(C) Shooting (iii) R.S. Rathore
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna (iv) Panjab University
ABCD
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(5) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
26. Kadima political party is associated with which country?

(1) Turkey (2) Kazakhstan (3) S. Arabia (4) Israel (5) Pakistan
27. Arrange the following States in the descending order of the number of child labourBihar, M.P.,
Rajasthan, U.P.
(1) Bihar, U.P., M.P., Rajasthan
(2) U.P., Bihar, M.P., Rajasthan
(3) M.P. Rajasthan, U.P., Bihar
(4) U.P., Rajasthan, Bihar, M.P.
28. Dronacharya award is associated with:
(1) Teaching (2) Peace (3) Science (4) Armed Forces (5) Sports Coaches
29. Ban Ki-moon, elected as next Secretary-General of the UN, belongs to:
(1) Philippines (2) Japan (3) China (4) South Korea (5) Thailand
30. Approximately what was the amount sent by NRIs to their fellowmen in India (in US $) in the
year 2004?
(1) 10 B (2) 12 B (3) 16 B (4) 18 B (5) 22 B
31. The venue of the World Economic Forum Meet, 2006 was:
(1) Davos (2) Manila (3) Beijing(4) New Delhi (5) New York
32. With regard to 2006 Foreign Trade, which one of these is not true?
(1) total merchandise export in 2005-06 was nearly $ 100 B
(2) the government announced initiatives to promote exports
(3) there was realisation of potential in sports good and toys
(4) the growth in merchandise exports was almost 25%
(5) there was decrease in trade deficit
33. The Rural Employment Guarantee Programme in Februarym2006 guarantees a minimum how
many days of employment in an year?
(1) 122 (2) 120 (3) 183 (4) 100 (5) 150
34. The 104th Constitutional Amendment Bill, deals with:
(1) Panchayati Raj System
(2) Reservation to SCs, STs and OBCs in educational institutes
(3) Sixth Pay Commission
(4) Better Schemes for the Girl Child
(5) Rural Employment Guarantee
35. Kalpana-I is actually:
(1) INSAT-2B (2) METSAT (3) PSLV (4) EDUSAT (5) None of these
36. Approximately what per cent of the Indian population lives on
$ 1 or even less a day?
(1) 25 (2) 30 (3) 35 n(4) 27 (5) 22
37. The author of Snow is:
(1) Javed Akhtar
(2) Enid Blyton
(3) Orhan Pamuk
(4) Jennifer Lopez

(5) Aishwarya Rai
38. The 10th five-year plan aims at an annual GDP growth rate of:
(1) 6% (2) 7% (3) 8% (4) 9% (5) 10%
39. The largest electronic company in India is:
(1) Videocon (2) Philips (3) National (4) TCL (5) BPL
40. The terms Grameen Bank and Microcredit are associated with:
(1) Manmohan Singh
(2) Mulayam Singh Yadav
(3) Bill Gates
(4) Aung San Su Ki
(5) Muhammad Yunus
41. In the year 2005, the per cent increase in Foreign Direct Investment in India was:
(1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 15 (4) 10 (5) 30
42. Which one is Indias Ist LPG powered car?
(1) Tatan Indigo
(2) Tata Indica
(3) Maruti 800
(4) Maruti Alto
(5) Maruti WagonR Duo
43. What is the new monthly salary of an MP?
(1) Rs 16,000
(2) Rs 14,000
(3) Rs 12,000
(4) Rs 15,000
(5) Rs 13,000
44. Which State is planning to have a port in another State?

(1) Jharkhand
(2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Uttaranchal
(4) Bihar
(5) Rajasthan
45. Who is the highest paid Indian brand ambassador?
(1) Saurav Ganguli
(2) Sachin Tendulkar
(3) Mahendra Singh Dhoni
(4) Yuvraj Singh
(5) Kapil Dev
46. The J.L. Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research was recently in the news because of:
(1) success in DNA coding
(2) Ist nano-technology lab in India
(3) ultra modern scientific courses in India
(4) international meeting of scientists

(5) None of these
47. Karvar, Sasan, Akaltara, Mudra and Ratnagiri are the sites proposed for:
(1) archaeological survey
(2) special economic zones
(3) ultra-mega power plants
(4) test sites for Indian missiles
(5) hydroelectric power projects
48. The purpose of designing MSCI indices is:
(1) to eliminate poverty from all the nations
(2) to encourage international trade
(3) to assist UNO in economic projects
(4) to study national incomes of various countries
(5) to measure stock market performances worldwide
49. New names were proposed for a few cities in South India. which of these is not correctly
matched?
1. BangalooruBangalore,
2. MysooruMysore,
3. PondichooruPondicherry
(1) Only 1 (2) 3 only (3) 2 only
(4) 1 and 2 (5) None of these
50. Indias new Chief of Naval Staff is:
(1) Sureesh Mehta
(2) Piyush Pandey
(3) N. Gopalaswamy
(4) Pranab Mukherjee
(5) Pratyush Sinha
IBPS Bank PO CWE English Language Questions

ENGLISH
Directions (Qs. 51-65): Read the following passage and answer the questions below it. A few
words are given in the bold form to help easy location while answering some questions.To some
extent, it is the nature of the intellect to narrow our vision and give it focus. Tragedy comes in
when we forget this limitation and think the intellect can comprehend things as a whole. The
intellect views the world through a slit. When a cat walks by, it observes the eye, then fur, and
then the tail, and then it infers that the eye is the cause ofnthe tail, unless of course, the cat was
walking backward. If this sounds absurd, some of the theories about biochemistry and behaviour
use very similar reasoning. Nachiketa would object, Man, why dont you open the door? Thats
just your black cat Frodo, pacing back and forth. But instead we usually get caught up in clarifying
slit-information, even though without a larger view our conclusions may be entirely wrong. To
make matters worse, we specialize. I am not against specialization per se but what often happens
is that we do not even look through whole slit; we subdivide. My field is the upper part of the tail;
yours is the lower. I might even forget about the eye and the fur. My main concern will be my
debate with a colleague in Tokyo over whether hair on the tail grows up or down. If anybody asks
how the eye fits in, I refer him to another researcher. After all, what have eyes got to do with
geotropic hair growth?
Debates like this cannot be resolved on the slit level. What is required is to open the door; then
argument becomes unnecessary. Once the door is opened, even a little, we will not quarrel over
whose slit is correct or whether we should confine ourselves to the top of it or the bottom. As long
as we see only part of the picture, logic and argumentation can never settle an issue. When the
intellect becomes calm and clear, theory gives way to demonstration. It is not beyond our reach to
see life whole. We have simply become so attached to this precious slit that we think there is no
higher mode of knowing. After a while, we become so used to slits that we put on a special mask
with just a hairline crack in front of the eyes. Try walking around wearing a mask like this and see
what happens. Every little thing will fill your field of vision.
The intellect that sees only a small corner of life makes a very poor guide. We follow it like the
blind led by the blind. I see this illustrated every day in the newspapers. To take just one urgent
example, I have read that perhaps half a million scientists and engineers around the world are
engaged in weapons research. I have no doubt that the vast mmajority of these people have no
desire for war. They feel they are onlydoing a job, playing a small role in an inevitable activity.
Nevertheless,this is not a defence industry, this is a half a million highly skilled menand women
preparing for war. Producing and selling instruments of war is one of the biggest business in the
world today. Even before the First World War, George Bernard Shaw caught the spirit of the
industry in the character of undershaft in Major Barbara. Undershaft is no sinister merchant of
death. He is just a businessman, whose credo is to give arms to all who offer an honest price for
them, without respect of persons or principles, to capitalist and socialist, to protestant and
catholic, to burglar and policeman, to black man, white man and yellow man, to all sorts and
conditions, all nationalities and faiths, all follies, all causes and all crimes. The defence-minded
intellect might object, Thats unfortunate, but defence is necessary. Everybody has to have
weapons, and somebody is going to sell them. Here is a business that is thriving. These sales,
the merchant argue, help supply allies who cannot produce needed equipment. Needed for what?
Any school boy knows that weapons are needed by people in order to kill each other. From the
evidence, we would have to conclude that death is a much more desirable goal than health,
education, or welfare. Or, look at cancer. Many researchers today maintain that perhaps seventy to
ninety per cent of all human cancers are caused by environmental agents involved in
manufacturing and processing new products. Most of these substances are relatively recent
additions to our environment. We made them, and we can cease to make them if we choose.Yet
one way or another such substances appeal to us so much that life without them seems untenable.
As a result, instead of trying to eliminate the causes of cancer, we pour millions of dollars into
what one writer calls the Vietnam of modern medicine: The Search for a Cancer Cure.
This kind of myopia is not a necessary fault of the intellect. Given a larger picture, the intellect can
rise to the occasion. Then even if the Nobel Prize is dangled before its eyes, it will refuse to work
at any project that is at the expense of life, but will give all its attention to matters of real urgency.
51. Which of these is true in context to the passage:

(1) humans are capable of unlimited applications of the mind
(2) whether the slit is small or large, conclusion is the same
(3) all researchers view through slit-like intellects
(4) it is not possible to view life as a whole
(5) the intellect is capable of adjustments
52. The passage is against:
(a) short-sightedness of the scientists
(b) the nature of the intellect
(c) narrowness of the intellect
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (a) and (b)

(4) (a) and (c)
(5) all (a), (b) and (c)
53. What should be the right approach for argumentation:
(1) to specialise in a particular field
(2) to study bio-chemistry
(3) sub-divide topics and research on them
(4) open the doors of the intellect
(5) leave attachment to our slits
54. According to the author, the intellect which sees a small corner of life, can:
(1) lead to scientific and engineering outcomes
(2) lead to follies and crimes
(3) race for better defence
(4) cause environmental pollution
(5) lead to harmful and unwanted results
55. What leads to cancer?
(1) pre-existing environmental pollutants
(2) man-made additions to environment
(3) tasty and good-looking things
(4) modern medicines
56. The difference between narrow and broad vision is:
(1) narrow vision leads to specialisations, while broad vision does not
(2) narrow vision leads to debates while broad vision easily settles them
(3) narrow vision leads to desire for war while broad vision leads to desire for defence sales
(4) narrow vision leads to greedy business while broad vision leads to fair salesmanship
(5) narrow vision leads to Nobel prizes and broad vision refuses them
57. In context to the passage, which one of these is false:
(1) weapons are needed by nations for money
(2) weapons are needed for security reasons
(3) a person with a broad intellect would not sell weapons to all
(4) the author is against specialisations
(5) scientists all over the world are preparing for war
58. The title to the passage can be:
(1) Disasters of science
(2) Nature of the intellect
(3) Intellectual misconducts
(4) Human debates
(5) Viewing life as a whole
59. The undershaft is:
(1) a very clever businessman
(2) an intellectual businessman
(3) an immoral character
(4) the major role in Major Barbara
(5) a blindly-led intellect
Directions (Qs. 60-62): In context of the above passage choose the word which is most similar
in meaning to the given word.
60. CREDO
(1) crime (2) credit (3) business (4) job (5) management
61. COMPREHEND
(1) absorb (2) digest (3) guide (4) assimilate (5) understand
62. GEOTROPIC
(1) falling to ground
(2) attracted towards earth
(3) touching the earth
(4) projected toward the earth
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 63-65): In context of the above passage choose the word which is most
opposite in meaning to the given word.
63. INEVITABLE
(1) blasting (2) accidental (3) certain (4) incidental (5) avoidable
64. MYOPIA
(1) narrowmindedness
(2) broadmindedness
(3) shortsightedness
(4) evilsightedness
(5) hypermetropia
65. UNTENABLE
(1) probable (2) cured (3) unworthy (4) worthsome (5) pleasant
Directions (Qs. 66-70): In each of the questions below four sentences are given which are
denoted by A, B, C and D. By using all four sentences, frame a meaningful para. Choose answer
from the five alternatives given and the correct order of the sentences is your answer.
66. (A) Indias patent authorities are at the centre of globalattention.
(B) Indias patent law is equipped to drive out frivolouspatent seekers and to reward meritorious
inventors
(C) If successful, Indian generic drug-makers may have topay royalties.
(D) As many MNC drug-makers have applied for patentsunder Indias new product patent law
(1) ABCD (2) ADCB (3) BACD(4) DACB (5) CABD
67. (A) Whats more, if you happen to be inching towardsretirement, your EMIs will be structured
accordingly.
(B) Future credit may get customised.
(C) The next time you get a hike in your company, restassured your Equated Monthly Instalments
(EMIs) willgo up.
(D) EMIs will now be fixed according to your affordability.
(1) DCAB (2) BCAD (3) BCDA(4) ABCD (5) CBAD
68. (A) The Tax Return Prepares Scheme has been introducedrecently to help individuals file their
income tax returns.
(B) According to this scheme, certain tax return prepareswill be specially trained.
(C) The aim is to ease the process of filing returns andreduce the cost for tax payers.
(D) However, individuals should carefully examine thisservice and its likely benefits.
(1) ABCD (2) ADCA (3) DABC(4) BACD (5) BCAD
69. (A) There is nothing more soothing to the mind, body andsoul than being on the beach front.
(B) Thats what Archil, which buys bad loans, thinks.
(C) A little bit of business can also be thrown in such asetting.
(D) The ARC thought of the idea of organising a workshopon junk bonds in an exotic beach resort
in Goa and hasroped in the Indian Banks Association.
(1) DCAB (2) ABCD (3) DACB(4) ACBD (5) CBDA
70. (A) The financial markets in the country have provided awide array of such instruments.
(B) Doing business is all about managing risk.
(C) The profit and loss account is a reflection of the risk thatis dexterously handled by CFOs.
(D) Which have been seized with alacrity by the industry.
(1) BACD (2) ABCD (3) ACBD(4) DBCA (5) BCAD
Directions (71-80): In the following passage there are blanks.Choose the correct answer from
the given options to fill the blankswhich are numbered.
71 has marked mans 72 progress from 73 times. Modernmedicine is built on the innovative 74 of
scientists and physicians suchas Louis Pasteur. He 75 in a revolution in medicine by producing a
76against rabies in 1880. 77 with Robert Koch, Pasteur founded 78. Therehas been no 79 back 80
then.
71. (1) Discovery (2) Innovation (3) Reforms(4) Applications (5) Interests
72. (1) amazing (2) alluring (3) alarming(4) charming (5) exciting
73. (1) antique (2) mid-historic (3) recent(4) remote (5) prehistoric
74. (1) fantastic (2) dilemma (3) genius(4) brain (5) intellect
75. (1) ushered (2) projected (3) prospered(4) thrushed (5) brushed
76. (1) injection (2) medicine (3) antidote(4) vaccine (5) antibody
77. (1) Along (2) Also (3) Going(4) Working (5) Enjoying
78. (1) immunology (2) pathology (3) zoology (4) botany (5) bacteriology
79. (1) viewing (2) looking (3) seeing (4) peeping (5) hopping
80. (1) till (2) from (3) until (4) since (5) by
Directions (Qs. 81-90): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below
each sentence, five pairs of words are given. Find out the correct pair of words and fill in the
blanks.
81. The world is ___ the way it is, because it is what we wanted to experience at some level of .
(1) wonderful, brightness
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
perfect, consciousness
famous, search
okay, intelligence
brilliant, dreams
82. The church of England has that it cant allow a multifaith ceremony for Prince Charles.
(1) decided, functional
(2) projected, wedding
(3) asserted, coronation
(4) ordered, birth
(5) allowed, dancing
83. The ___ are the poorest and most people in our cities.
(1) poor, helpless
(2) rural, hardworking
(3) workers, happy
(4) scheduled castes, strong
(5) homeless, vulnerable
84. Reform will not only help the U.N., but also contribute to stability in Asia.
(1) revitalise, geopolitical
(2) regenerate, economic
(3) ascend, social
(4) revolutionise, political
(5) charge, general
85. Feeling the of the higher power is an .
(1) value, dream
(2) emotions, theme
(3) presence, ecstasy
(4) absence, innocence
(5) acknowledgement, accomplishment
86. All the for a robust and sustainable growth are being putmin .
(1) ingredients, place
(2) factors, striding
(3) points, list
(4) component, consideration
(5) plans, favour
87. India is firmly in the of vote bank politics. So, the for job reservation for SC and ST in private
sector will grow.
(1) gloves, greed
(2) grip, clamour
(3) hands, rush
(4) roots, need
(5) net, suicide
88. One of the secrets Gandhi gave us is that strength doesnot come from bone and muscle, it
comes from an will.
(1) simple, inner
(2) straight, ironical
(3) wonderful, ideal
(4) tactical, iron

(5) magnificent, indomitable
89. If disasters and are the wake up call for a world that it has gone , then we are now in the
position to acknowledge it to manifest
the world we desire to experience.
(1) peace, mad (2) wars, insane (3) famines, out (4) tragedies, troublesome (5) mishaps, trivial
90. Inner-faith harmony requires that there is both and among religions.(1) value, esteem
(2) establishment, survival
(3) trust, respect
(4) harmony, co-operation
(5) co-existence, concord
Directions (Qs. 91-95): Each of the following questions consists of a sentence. Find out whether
there is any error in it.The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of thatpart
is answer. If there is no error, mark 5 as your answer. (Ignorethe errors of punctuation).
91. (1) Neither of them (2) are coming here (3) to address this(4) large gathering. (5) No error.
92. (1) Hardly she finished (2) her duty when (3) the bell(4) started ringing. (5) No error.
93. (1) More private companies should (2) be permit to enter(3) into field of communication (4) to
strengthen the network. (5) Noerror.
94. (1) Government should severely (2) punish the persons(3) involved in the (4) practice of
female foeticide. (5) No error.
95. (1) Parents should ensure (2) and cultivate (3) reading habitsbetween (4) their children. (5)
No error.
Directions (Qs. 96-100):These questions are based on idioms.From among the options, choose
the one that is closest inmeaning to the given idiom/phrase.
96. keep at an arms length:
(1) keep a good distance
(2) keep closeness
(3) avoid involvement or friendship
(4) hate
(5) give a warm welcome
97. take the bull by the horns:
(1) invite danger from an enemy
(2) prepare for unwanted situation
(3) be full of vigour
(4) face boldly
(5) None of these
98. a dark horse:
(1) a person who is not good-looking but is very good at heart
(2) a person who is specially called for an event
(3) a person having a poor reputation
(4) a person whose past is mysterious
(5) a person who is quite less known
99. pour oil on troubled waters:

(1) create a nice scenery
(2) settle down a situation
(3) aggravate matters
(4) worsen a situation
(5) create an unfavourable situation
100. to drag ones feet:
(1) slow down deliberately
(2) lazy behaviour
(3) uninterested behaviour
(4) present opposition to someone
(5) move very quietly
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
101. If the persons A and B have incomes in the ratio 7 : 5 andexpenditures in the ratio 3 : 2 and
each one of them saves Rs R, then,the income of A is:
102. If x + a is a factor of x3 + ax2 2x + a + 4, then a equals:
103. At 7 : 55 a.m. a police jeep started chasing a stolen carrunning at 85 km/hr ahead of it by 5
km. At what time will the police jeepovertake the stolen car, if its speed is 100 km/hr?
(1) 8 : 30 a.m. (2) 8 : 20 a.m. (3) 8 : 25 a.m. (4) 8 : 15 a.m.
(5) 9 : 00 a.m.
104. It takes the same time to go 20 km downstream as it takes to go 12 km upstream. If the
speed of the boat used is 8 km/hr in still water, the speed of the stream (in km/hr) is:
(1) 4 (2)1 (3)0 (4) 3 (5)2
105. Ravi and Dev have an age ratio of 15 : 8, which will be 5 : 3nin 10 years time. Their present
ages (in years) are:
(1) 15, 8 (2) 30, 16 (3) 45, 24 (4) 60, 32 (5) 75, 40
Directions (Qs. 106-108): Each of the following questions has two equations on the basis of
which you have to find the relation between a and b. Provide the answers as:
106. I: a2 10a + 25 = 0.
II: 300% of 60% + 10% of 32 = b
107. I: a2 3a 18 = 0.
II: b2 + 6b + 9 = 0
108.
Directions (Qs. 109-110): Find the approximate value of x
109. x = log10 160 (given log10 2 = 0.3010).
(1) 2.5 (2) 2.2 (3) 2.4
(4) 2.1 (5) 2.8
110. 2 sin2 x cos x + 4 = 0
Directions (Qs. 111-115): In these questions, each question is followed by two statements. On
the basis of the question asked and the given statements, you have to decide whether the data
is/are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
(1) if the data in statement I alone is sufficient, while not in II alone
(2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient, while I alone is not
(3) if the data in either statement I alone or II alone is sufficient
(4) if the data in both statements together is not sufficient
(5) if the data in both statements I and II are needed together
111. How many straight lines can be formed from 6 points in a plane?
Statement I: 4 points are collinear.
Statement II: 3 points are collinear.
112. What is the probability that Ravi and Dev contradict a given statement?
Statement I: Ravi speaks truth in 60% cases.
Statement II: Dev speaks truth in 50% cases.
113. The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years is
Rs 260. Find the sum.
Statement I: The sum amounts to Rs 5590 in 3 years and Rs 5850 in 5 years.
Statement II: The sum is doubled in 40 years.
114. Is the two-digit number N divisible by 18?
Statement I: When N is multiplied with 3, the result is a 3-digit number.
Statement II: When N is divided by 3, the remainder is 1.
115. A boat goes upstream and then returns downstream. What is the total distance?
Statement I: Upstream speed is 4 km/hr and downstream speed is 8 km/hr.
Statement II: Average speed is
116. The value of x in the inequality 2x2 x + 15 < 0 is:
117. What should be the value of the question mark:
118. 2 rice varieties costing Rs 25 per kg and Rs 35 per kg were mixed as 2 : 3 and sold so as to
gain 20%. What was the SP of the mixture (Rs/kg)?
(1) 37.2 (2) 28.6 (3) 30 (4) 32 (5) 40.5
119. A huge jar contains 2 liquids A and B in the ratio 7 : 4.When 12 litres of mixture is removed
and replaced by B, the ratio now 4 : 7. The capacity of the vessel (in litres) is:
(1) 120 (2) 240 (3) 280 (4) 300 (5) 560
120. If the difference between CI and SI on Rs 1 lakh was Rs 36 in 2 years, the rate of yearly
interest is:
121. Toffees are bought at 4 for a rupee and the same number at 6 for a rupee. Then, they are
mixed and sold at 5 per rupee. What is the net profit or loss?
(1) 2% loss
(2) 10% profit
(3) no profit or loss
(4) 4% loss
(5) None of these
122. How many triangles can be obtained from 5 coplanar points? (No 3 points are collinear).
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 10 (4) 20 (5) 8
123. If the chances that Sonu, Monu, Mahesh can solve a problem are what is the probability that
given problem can be solved if they all try?
124. In an examination, a candidate can provide answers as True or False. For ten questions, how
many sequences are possible?
(1) 512 (2) 1024 (3) 100 (4) 10 (5) 2048
Directions (Qs. 125-127): Each question comprises 4 parts, one of which may be wrong and
does not yield the same answer as the others. Find out the wrong part and if none is wrong, mark
5 as your answer.
125.
126.
127.
128.
Directions (Qs. 129-130): What should come in place of question mark in these number series:
129. 4 5 18 81 ? 2065.
(1) 388 (2) 365 (3) 350 (4) 361 (5) 1032
130. 3 ? 50.5 202.5 810.5.
(1) 6 (2) 7.5 (3) 10.5 (4) 22.5 (5) 12.5
Directions (Qs. 131-135): Study the following table carefullyand answer the questions that
follow. A few data are assigned alphabetically:(Sales of shirts and jeans sold by Co. X in various
years,Rs crores)
131. The per cent increase in the shirts sale between years2002 and 2004 is:
(1) 40% (2) 50% (3) 45%(4) 60% (5) 100%
132. The per cent increase in the jeans sale between 2001 and2005 is:
(1) 75% (2) 37.5%(3) 375% (4) 750%(5) Cant be determined
133. If G = 1.5, what per cent is sales of jeans in 2005 of salesof jeans in 2002?
(1) 150 (2) 175 (3) 87.5(4) 160 (5) 190.5
134. If C : D : G = 1 : 2 : 3, then F : B = ?
(1) 15.0 (2) 57.3(3) 7.50 (4) 3.75(5) 37.5
135. The value of A : E is:
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.8 (3) 1.01.2 (5) 1.5
Directions (Qs. 136-140): Study the pie-charts and answer thequestions below them.
136. How much extra is the availability of spending on otheritems, during 1980-2005 period?
(1) Rs 2760 (2) Rs 2000 (3) Rs 3150(4) Rs 2250 (5) Rs 2350
137. The ratio of actual spending on food in 2005 to that in 1980is:
(1) 10 : 7 (2) 20 : 9 (3) 5 : 2(4) 3 : 1 (5) 2 : 3
138. In 1980, people in rural India had 30% less earning andspent 40% on food and out of this,
expenditure on milk products was only 10%. Its value is:
(1) Rs 84 (2) Rs 92 (3) Rs 60 (4) Rs 42 (5) Rs 90
139. How much other food items are available in 2005, in Rs terms?
(1) Rs 180 (2) Rs 93 (3) Rs 642 (4) Rs 1200 (5) Rs 558
140. In relative per cent terms, is there an increase or decrease in the expenditure on milk etc?
Directions (Qs. 141-145): The following bar chart gives theamount of imports and exports of a
leather company over theyears (Imports .., Exports .. ) in Rupees crores:
141. Total imports for Ist 2 years are what per cent of totalexports for these 2 years?
(1) 50% (2) 100% (3) 120%(4) 80% (5) 200%
142. For which years is the value of the total imports equal to thetotal exports?
(1) 1970, 1990 (2) 1970, 1980 (3) 1990, 2000(4) 2000, 2005 (5) None of these
143. The ratio of exports to imports was maximum in the year:
(1) 1990, 2000, 2005 (2) 1900, 2005 (3) 2000, 2005
(4) 1970, 1990, 2000 (5) 1970, 1990, 2000
144. When was the per cent increase in exports, over theprevious 10-year, the least?
(1) 1980 (2) 2000 (3) 1990(4) 2005 (5) 1970
145. The ratio of total exports to the total of imports for all theyears is:
(1) 8 : 7 (2) 6 : 5 (3) 4 : 3 (4) 2 : 3 (5) 8 : 5
Directions (Qs. 146-150): Study the following graph andanswer the questions(No. of
motorcycles in 1,000s sold by Companies A and B, in the recent years) (A ____ , B _ _ _ _).
146. Approximately what per cent is the sale of Company A in2003, compared to its total sale?
(1) 13% (2) 12% (3) 15%(4) 11% (5) 10%
147. What per cent is total sale of Company A with respect toCompany B? (approx)
(1) 75% (2) 85% (3) 90%(4) 95% (5) 100%
148. For which year(s) did Company B experience the highest per cent increase, compared to the
previous year?
(1) 2003
(2) 2004
(3) 2004, 2005
(4) 2003, 2004
(5) 2002, 2005
149. The total sale for years 2000, 2001, 2002 for Company B forms what per cent of its total
sale? (approx)
(1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 30% (4) 35% (5) 40%
150. For Company A, which combination of year and per cent rise in sale from previous year,
correct?
(1) 200140%
(2) 200230%
(3) 2003100%
(4) 200450%
(5) 200520%
TEST OF REASONING
151. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way. Which is the one that does not belong to
that group?
(1) White (2) Indigo (3) Blue (4) Red (5) Orange
152. Cooler is related to summer in the same way which of the following is related to rain?
(1) Shirt (2) Umbrella (3) Icecream(4) Fan (5) Fridge
153. City A is larger than city B which is smaller than city D. If cityE is larger than city A but
smaller than city D, which of the following isthe largest?
(1) E (2) A (3) D(4) B (5) Cannot be determined
154. If red means blue, blue means black, black meansyellow, yellow means green, green
means white, white meansbrown and brown means indigo, then what is the colour of middle
lineof our National Flag?
(1) white (2) yellow(3) brown (4) green(5) None of these
155. If INVITATION is written as KMXHVZVHQM, then READYis written in that code as which of
the following?
(1) SCDDA (2) TDCDB(3) QFBEZ (4) TDCCANone of these
Directions (156-160): Read the following character sequencecarefully and then answer the
questions given below it.
156. If the first half of the series is reversed and similarly the second half is also reversed, then
which of the following will be the 4thto the right of 16th character from your right?
(1) P (2) % (3) B(4) S (5) C
157. What will be the 2nd last letter of the word made of the 1st,2nd, 11th, 20th and 22nd
characters of the given sequence? If no such word can be made your answer is W. If more than
one such word can made your answer is D.
(1) I (2) C (3) A(4) W (5) D
158. Which character is midway between 7th from left and 6th from right in the above series?
(1) % (2) 5 (3) S(4) P (5) .
159. If every alternate character in the above sequence from right is dropped (drop B first) then
which of the following character will be 5th to the right of 6th character from the left?
(1) C (2) 8 (3) . (4) I (5) T
160. If A C 3, 6 . $, P .. % + ? , then what will come in place of question mark.
(1) (2) . (3) (4) S (5) 8
Directions (161-165): In each question below, three statements are given followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they appear at variance from commonly known facts. Then decide which of the conclusions
logically follows from the given statements. Mark out an appropriate answer choice that you think
is correct.
Statements:
161. (a) All papers are books.
(b) All books are pages
(c) All pages are material.
Conclusions:
I. Some material are pages.
II. All books are material.
III. All papers are pages.
IV. Some books are papers.
(1) All the four follow
(2) Only II, III follow
(3) Only I, III and IV follow
(4) Either I or III and II follow
(5) None follows
Statements:
162. (a) Some bats are balls.
(b) No stars are moons
(c) All balls are moons.
Conclusions:
I. Some moons are not balls.
II. No balls are stars.
III. Some moons are not balls.
IV. Some balls are bats.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I, II and IV follow
(3) Either II or IV follows
(4) All follow
(5) None of these follows
Statements:
163. (a) All coats are pants.
(b) No pants are shirts.
(c) Some shirts are pullovers.
Conclusions:
I. No coat is a shirt.
II. Some coats are shirts.
III. All coats are shirts.
IV. Some coats are not pullovers.
(1) Only I, II and III follow
(2) Only Ist follows
(3) Only I and IV follow
(4) Either I and III or II and IV follow
(5) Only III and IV follow
Statements:
164. (a) Some pens are pencils.
(b)Some rubbers are gum.
(c) No bag is a gum.
Conclusions:
I. Some pencils are gum.

II. Some pencils are not gum.
III. some rubbers are not bag.
IV. Some rubbers are bag.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) Either I or II and either III or IV follow
(5) None of these follows
Statements:
165. (a) No fruits are bananas.
(b) No oranges are peas.
(c) All bananas are oranges.
Conclusions:
I. No bananas are peas.
II. Some oranges are not fruits.
III. Some bananas are fruits.
IV. Some oranges are bananas.
(1) Only III follows
(2) Only I, II and IV follow
(3) Either I or II follows
(4) Only I and II follow
(5) All follow
Directions (Qs. 166-170): Study the following arguments and distinguish between strong
arguments and weak arguments because they relate to the question. Strong arguments are
those which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are those
which are of minor importance and also not directly related to the question. Each question below is
followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide which of the argument is a strong and
weak. Give answer:
(1) if only argument I is strong.
(2) if only argument II is strong.
(3) if either I or II is strong.
(4) if neither I nor II is strong.
(5) if both I and II are strong.
Statement:
166. Should the government punish those schools which charge high admission fee?
Arguments:
I. Yes, where will the poor students go?
II. Yes, education has become more of a business than a pious commitment.
Statement:
167. Should there be a quota for those who are poor?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this will decrease the level of unemployment and poor
people will not be discriminated by upper caste.
II. No, we already have reservations in our jobs.
Statement:
168. Should there be no place for interview in selection?

Arguments:
I. Yes, it is a difficult part of selection.
II. No, it is the only way to judge the candidates personality and motives.
Statement:
169. Should women be provided more job opportunities?
Arguments:
I. Yes, they should go into the outside world.
II. No, they are not interested in jobs.
Statement:
170. Should government provide more benefits to those who are the only child of their parents?
Arguments:
I. Yes, it will control increase of population.
II. Yes, it will give them bright future and love of parents.
Directions (Qs. 171-175): In these questions, a statement is given, which is followed by various
assumptions. Read the statements and the assumptions and decide which one of them are implicit.
Statement:
171. Ensure freedom from thieves with this car locking system.
Assumptions:
I. This car locking system is the best.
II. It is desired to have freedom from thieves.
III. There are thieves everywhere.
(1) I and II are implicit.
(2) II and III are implicit.
(3) I and III are implicit.
(4) Only II is implicit.
(5) All are implicit.
Statement:
172. We deal in used cars. Contact us at phone no. XYZ, at the earliest possible.an
advertisement.
Assumptions:
I. Some people want to sell old cars.
II. The advertisement will be read by the needy people.
III. Used cars may not be totally useless.
(1) Only I is implicit.
(2) Only II and III are implicit.
(3) Only I and III are implicit.
(4) All I, II, III are implicit.
(5) None of I, II, III are implicit.
Statement:
173. Lalu Prasad is expected to announce several schemes for poor people in the budget.a
news reporter.
Assumptions:
I. The reporter has a fair reporting.
II. The news-reporter has genuine report sources.
III. Lalu Prasad is capable of announcing schemes.
(1) I and II are implicit.
(2) II and III are implicit.
(3) Only III is implicit.
(4) All are implicit.

(5) None is implicit.
Statement:
174. Mr X tells Mrs X: I cannot send my child to that school. Children over there smoke and
drink. Which of these assumptions is implicit?
Assumptions:
I. Smoking and drinking are not desirable of children.
II. Their child will agree to their decision.
III. The school has a good reputation.
(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) III and I
(4) I only
(5) All I, II, III
Statement:
175. Monicas advice to Sonia: Go to Chandigarh via Ambala the best route.
Assumptions:
I. Sonia wants to go to Chandigarh.
II. Monica loves advising everybody.
III. They love Chandigarh.
(1) I is implicit.
(2) II is implicit.
(3) Either I or II is implicit.
(4) Neither I nor II is implicit.
(5) Both are implicit.
Directions (Qs. 176-180): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below it:
(1) Six friends Asad, Babli, Cajole, Dev, Eva and Fatima are sitting in a closed circle facing the
centre.
(2) Cajole is between Asad and Babli.
(3) Fatima is between Eva and Asad.
(4) Eva is to the left of Dev
176. Who is on the left of Babli?
(1) Asad (2) Cajole (3) Dev (4) Eva (5) None of these
177. Who is on the left of Cajole?
(1) Dev (2) Eva (3) Asad (4) Fatima (5) None of these
178. Which pair of friends is sitting on the opposite of each other?
(1) Dev, Asad
(2) Dev, Babli
(3) Asad, Fatima
(4) Cajole, Babli
(5) None of these
179. Which of the following is sitting on the right side of Fatima?
(1) Eva (2) Dev
(3) Asad (4) Babli
(5) Cajole
180. Which of the above given statements is superfluous?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 181-185): Read the following information and answer the questions.
Four people of different nations live on the same side of a sector in four houses each of different
colour. Each person has a different favourite drink. The Englishman lives in the red house. The
following additional information is:
The Hindu drinks tea.
The Muslim lives in the first house on the left.
The Muslim lives adjacent to the blue house.
In the second house from the right they drink coffee.
The Sikh drinks banana shake.
Tea is drunk in the blue house
The pink house is to the right of red house
181. Which of the following drink coffee?
(1) Muslim
(2) Hindu
(3) Englishman
(4) Muslim and Hindu
182. The colour of Sikh house is:
(1) yellow (2) bluen(3) red (4) pink (5) None
183. The Muslim drinks which of the following drink:
(1) tea (2) coffee (3) banana shake (4) tea, coffee (5) milk
184. Who sits adjacent to Muslim?
(1) Hindu
(2) Englishman
(3) Sikh
(4) Both Hindu and Sikh
185. Which of the following statement is not true?
(1) Hindu lives in the blue house
(2) Sikh drinks banana shake and his colour of house is pink
(3) Muslim drinks coffee
(4) Yellow house is occupied by Muslim
Directions (Qs. 186-195): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below it.
Given here are the conditions to become the members of a Lake Club. A person must:
(1) be in the age group of 21-50 as on August 13, 2006.
(2) be drawing a minimum salary of Rs 1 lakh per annum.
(3) own a house.
(4) not have a family of more than five members including himself.
(5) have excellence in any field of arts and sports. However, if a person:
(6) satisfies all except (4) above, but draws a salary of more than 2 lakh per annum, the case may
be referred to the Club president.
(7) satisfies all except (3) above, the case may be referred to the Club secretary. On the basis of
above conditions and information, decide which of the following courses of action should be taken
regarding each condition.
Mark answer:
(1) if the person is eligible to be a member
(2) if the person cant be allowed the membership
(3) if the data provided is inadequate.

(4) if the case is to be referred to the Club secretary
(5) if the case is to be referred to the Club president
186. Mr Rahul Tiwari, living with his mother and father, is a college professor earning Rs 8600
monthly. He has his own house and is having a good record in the field of fine arts.
187. Ravi Tripathi, an IAS officer, draws a salary of Rs 15000 p.m. His date of birth is March 17,
1985. He lives with his mother, father and a brother. He is having his own house and holds a
certificate of being the best volleyball player in his college.
188. Mr Pankaj Pandey works as a manager in horticulture. He is 35 years old and lives as a tenant
with his wife and two daughters. He
draws a monthly salary of Rs 8700 p.m. for the last 7 years. He holds a good record in sports.
189. Mr Dev Taneja, a bachelor, lives in a private house owned by him with his parents and grand
parents. He is senior manager in American Express, drawing a salary of Rs 17000 p.m. He has won
the Trophy in Badminton and his D.O.B. is August 13, 1992.
190. Mrs Radha Kapoor, living with her husband, receives a salary of Rs 10,000 p.m. She has
completed 12 years of service in the company on January 10, 2004.
191. Mrs Poonam completed 33 years in March 2005. She stays in her own house along with his
husband and three sons. She works as G.M. in Infosys, and draws Rs 117000 per annum. She has
exhibited excellence in the field of arts.
192. Mr Ajay is a Branch Manager in SBI and draws a salary of Rs 201000 per annum. He lives in a
flat which is not owned by him, along with his wife and a son. He holds a certificate of excellence
intennis. His D.O.B. is October 15, 1980.
193. Mr Satyakam is 40 years old, lives alone in his house. He works as manager in textile mill and
earns Rs 10,200 every month.
194. Ms Kavita lives in her own house with his husband and a daughter. She is working as a
Assistant Manager in HDFC. She is 26 years old and having a excellence in painting.
195. Mr Abhinav is a bachelor working as a Computer Engineer in electron company. He draws Rs
10900 p.m. His D.O.B. is October
1982. He has been the captain of the Basketball team. He lives in his own house and having family
of four persons including him.
Directions (Qs. 196-200): An arrangement machine when given an input of words, rearrange
them following a particular rule and solve it.
Input: This chapter would give you basic concepts.
Step 1: basic this chapter would give you concepts.
Step 2: basic chapter this would give you concepts.
Step 3: basic chapter concepts this would give you.
Step 4: basic chapter concepts give this would you.
Study the logic and answer the questions that follow.
196. Input: Do not imitate others work.
Which of the following will be Step 3 for the given input?
(1) Do others not imitate work.
(2) Do imitate not others work.
(3) Work do others imitate.

(4) Do not others work imitate.
(5) None
197. Input: Adequate safety arrangements are must for kids. Which of the following will be 2nd
last step for the given input?
(1) Adequate are arrangements for kids safety must.
(2) Adequate are arrangements for kids must safety.
(3) Adequate are safety arrangements must for kids.
(4) Adequate safety are arrangements must for kids.
(5) None
198. Input: Marcus Brauchli gives inaccurate information. How many steps are required to
rearrange the above input properly.
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2 (5) None of these
199. Input: Most Indian leaders cannot even visualise free India. Which of the following will be last
step of above input?
(1) Most Indian even leaders cannot visualise free India.
(2) Cannot even free India Indian most leaders visualise.
(3) Cannot even free India most Indian leaders visualise.
(4) Cannot even free India Indian leaders most visualise.
(5) None.
200. Step IV: It is figure anti-establishment from media. Which of the following is the input of the
above mentioned step.
(1) It is figure from anti-establishment media.
(2) Media it is figure from anti-establishment.
(3) It is anti-establishment media from.
(4) Cant be determined.
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 201-205): Study the Venn-diagrams given below and answer the following
questions (The Venn-diagram gives the number of persons into various kinds of business).
201. People who are into only furniture business are:

(1) e
(2) z + a
(3) b + e + d + f
(4) e + f
(5) z + a + b + d + e + f
202. People doing furniture business and steel business, but not tea, are:
(1) y + a (2) a + b
(3) b + d (4) d + g
(5) d
203. People doing steel and plastic and furniture business are:
(1) g (2) d (3) b (4) a (5) y
204. What is the number of people into tea and furniturebusiness?
(1) z + e (2) a (3) e(4) z + a (5) b + a
205. What is the number of people carrying out all fourbusinesses?
(1) b (2) d (3) a(4) c (5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 206-210): These questions are based oninferences. Read the following passage
carefully and mark youranswers as
(1) Probably true
(2) Definitely true
(3) Probably false
(4) Definitely false
(5) Data inadequate
Most people find change stressful, so I do not find it surprising thatresearchers have discovered a
statistical relation between falling ill andthe experience of major life events such as death of a
spouse, gettingmarried, etc. Those who have experienced a higher index of such changes,
generally report a greater incidence of ill-health. Yet, most of us find that this research quite
doesnt tally with the experience.Reasoning similarly, another group found a strong correlation
between
health and hassles of lifethe thousands of little daily irritations.
206. Generally people tend to get irritated to some extent.
207. Everyone does not experience stress, only few do.
208. One should avoid big changes.
209. The approach of the two research groups is not different.
210. The researchers conclusion quite fits into everybodys life.
Directions (Qs. 211-215): Each of the following series consists of seven figures, two of which at
the ends are unnumbered. One of the five numbered figures does not fit into the series. Find out
the figure.
Directions (Qs. 216-220): The second figure of the problem figure bears a certain relationship
to the first figure. Determine the relationship and hence find out the answer from the answer
figures:
Directions (Qs. 221-225): Each question comprises question figures and answer figures. The
question figures obey a specific pattern.
From among the answer figures, choose that option which follows the series or pattern, in the next
step.
Answers
General Awareness
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (5)5. (5) Rs 1365 crores.6. (1) 7. (3)8. (1) .... Defence Minister.
9. (4) 10. (3) 11. (3)12. (4) ... 16th13. (1) 14. (5) 15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (5)18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (1)
21. (1) 22. (2)
23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (3)26. (4) ... major ruling coalition.27. (4) ... UP = 19 lakh (+).
28. (5) 29. (4) 30. (5) 31. (1)32. (5) ... (Increase, $ 25 B $ 39 B).33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (2) 36. (3)
37. (3)
38. (3) 39. (1) 40. (6) 41. (1) 42. (6)43. (1) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (3)48. (5) 49. (2) 50. (1)
English
51. (5) .... refer last few lines.
52. (4) .... refer Ist and last paragraphs.
53. (4) .... refer 2nd statement, para 2.
54. (5) .... refer last para and the main theme. Other options also followclosely.
55. (2) 56. (2) .... 2nd para. 57. (2) .. para 1. 58. (2) ... para 1, line 1 and subject theme. 59.
(5) .... 2nd line, para 3.
60. (4) 61. (5) 62. (2) 63. (5) 64. (5) 65. (1) 66. (2) 67. (2) 68. (1) 69. (4) 70. (5) 71. (2) 72. (1)
73. (5) 74. (3)
75. (1) 76. (4) 77. (1) 78. (5) 79. (2) 80. (4) 81. (2) 82. (3) 83. (5) 84. (1) 85. (3) 86. (1) 87. (2)
88. (5) 89. (2)
90. (3) 91. (2) ... it should be is instead of are.
92. (1) ... hardly should be followed by had.
93. (2) ... permitted instead of permit.
94. (5) 95. (3) ... among instead of between.
96. (3)97. (4)98. (4)99. (4)100. (3)
Quantitative Aptitude
101. (3)102. (3)103. (4)104. (5)(4)106. (3)107. (4)108. (2). (2)110. (5)111. (3)112. (5)113. (3)
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
114. (2)115. (4)116. (2)117. (3)118. (1)119. (3)120. (1)121. (4)122. (3)123. (5)124. (2)125.
(5)126. (3)
127. (3)128. (2)129. (1)130. (5)131. (2)132. (5)133. (3)134. (4)135. (1)136. (3)137. (1)138.
(1)139. (3)
149. (2)150. (5)
Reasoning
151. (1) All the others are colours of rainbow (VIBGYOR)
152. (2) Cooler is used to protect us from heat. Similarly umbrella isused to protect us from rain.
153. (3) According to first statement or sentence
.154. (4) Colour of middle line of NF is white and green means white isgiven in the statement so
green is the answer.
155. (4) The first letter moves two places forward while the secondletters moves one place
backward. This process continues forthe whole word.
156. (3) The reversed series is: 4th to the right of 16th from right is 12th (16 4) from right is B.
157. (4) The letters are A, C, P, I, T. No word can be made by using these letters.
158. (1) Seventh from left isis
159. (5) The series is after dropping characters: then 5th to the right of 6th from left is 11th from
left i.e. T
160. (2) Do it yourself.
161. (1) Using Ist and 2nd statement we get All papers are pages and by using 2nd & 3rd we get
All
books are material so, 2 & 3 follow and I & IV are conversion
of Ist statement and 3rd statement.166. (1)
167. (1) providing jobs would definitely decrease unemployment,hence 1 is strong. II is not strong
because quota for poorsdoesnt mean reservation.
168. (2) Ist is not strong but II is obviously strong.
169. (1) Ist is strong, II is void.
170. (5)
171. (4) There is no hint of use of bestand everywhere terms.
172. (4) I and II are definitely implicit. Also an advertisement is meantto be read.
173. (2) We cannot say anything about I.
174. (4)175. (1)(176 to 180). In the circle the arrangement is as shown.
176. (3) Dev.
177. (5) Because Babli is on the left of Cajole. (see diagram.)
178. (1) Dev, Asad.
179. (1) Clearly, Eva.
180. (5) Since all the statements are necessary to determine thearrangement.
(181 to 185) Based on given information, the correct sequence of datais as follows.
181. (3) see chart.
182. (4)
183. (5) Although it is not mentioned in the question but it appear thatmilk is his drink.Yellow Blue
Red Pink
Nationality Muslim Hindu Englishman Sikh
184. (1)185. (3) (Muslim drinks milkit is assumed).
186. (3) Condition 1 is missing.
187. (1) Satisfies all the condition.
188. (4) (Condition 7 is fulfilled, as the candidate does not have his own house.)
189. (5) Condition 6 is fulfilled, as the candidate has a family of 5 members.
190. (3) Conditions 1 and 5 is missing.
191. (2) She is having a family of five members and condition 6 is not
fulfilled because her salary is less than 200000.
192. (4)
195. (1) All conditions are satisfied.
(196-200) The logic is: the words are arranged in alphabetical order bynot interchanging places.
That is ,basic goes to the first placeand the whole remaining sentence is as it is.
196. (5) because in this only one step is possibleInput Do not imitate others work.Step-I Do
imitate not others work.
197. (1) Step-1 Adequate are safety arrangements must for kids.
Step-2 Adequate are arrangements safety must for kids.
Steps-3 Adequate are arrangements for safety must kids.
Steps-4 Adequate are arrangements for kids safety must.
Step-5 Adequate are arrangements for kids must safety.
And 2nd last one is step 4.
198. (2) Step-1 Brauchli Marcus gives inaccurate information.
Step-2 Brauchli gives Marcus inaccurate information.
Step-3 Brauchli gives inaccurate Marcus information.
Step-4 Brauchli gives inaccurate information Marcus.
4 Steps are required.
199. (4) Step-1 Cannot most Indian leaders even visualise free India.
Step-2 Cannot even most Indian leaders visualise free India.
Step-3 Cannot even free most Indian leaders visualise India.
Step 4 Cannot even free India most Indian leaders visualise.
Step 5 Cannot even free India Indian most leaders visualise.
Step 6 Cannot even free India Indian leaders most visualise.
Shortcut (Just arrange the input alphabetically).
200. (4) In this type of question determination of previous step or input
is not possible.
(201-205)201. (5) 202. (3) 203. (2) 204. (4) 205. (5)(206-210)
206. (2)........last lines.
207. (3)........research done on several people.
208. (5)........no such hint is made.
209. (4)........it is different......one considers big events, the otherconsiders small ones.
210. (3)........3rd sentence. (Yet, most of us....).
(211-215)
211. (5) The elements move one step Anti-clockwise in one step whilein the next the element on
extreme Anti-clockwise positionmoves Clockwise end and others move one step Anticlockwise.
212. (3) The outermost and innermost sides rotate by 90 Anticlockwisewhile the middle one
rotates by 90 Clockwise.
213. (2) In this the elements shift one step in cyclic order and oneelement is replaced by a new
one.
214. (1) In this the upper and the lower elements rotate by 180 whilemiddle element inverted
vertically in alternate steps.
215. (4)216. (4) Y changes by 180, Anti-clockwise & 2 places in Clockwisedirection.
I changes Clockwise at same place, by 90. has no rotation but goes to ends.
217. (2) Notice Clockwise and Anti-clockwise rotations as above.
218 (1) similar to above Qs.
219. (2) end point moves Anti-clockwise, 45, move 45 to top.
circle moves by 180.
220. (3) Just send elements to opposite places.
221. (1) notice how the vertically and horizontally attached components change alternately.
222. (3) triangle moves 1 place to ends/sides, Anti-clockwise, moves by places, diagonally,
moves Anti-clockwise by 135 or 1 places Anticlockwise.
223. (4) semi-circle turns Anti-clockwise and gets diminished/enlarged
alternately, T jumps to opposite side and reverses, arrow
head changes direction and places, after 2 turns.
224. (1) notice how the various elements move by side and then
from one extreme to another.
225. (2) circle changes shade and places Anti-clockwise, triangle tilts
Anti-clockwise and Clockwise alternately, 45.
DECEMBER 12 2012
uestion papers of IBPS Bank PO and Clerical cadre Written Test Examination Pattern and
Latest Question Papers\
IBPS stands for Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Common Written Examination
(CWE) for PO,Clerical and Gramin Banks Officer scale jobs
IBPS PO (CWE) Gramin Banks Latest Selection Procedures2012|Aptitude Reasoning, Data
Interpretation computer Knowledge and General Awareness Questions
IBPS Previous Years question papers with answers Detailed Test Analysis|IBPS
IBPS Quantitiative and Reasoning Questions with answers
1. Four bells will ring at intervals of 18, 24, 32 and 40 seconds. If they begin by ringing
together what time will elapse before they ring together again?
a. 1000 min
b. 2000 min
c. 1440 min
d. 1560 min
2.At what rate will the interest on Rs. 1125/- be Rs. 225 for 4 years?
a. 6%
b. 5%
c. 8%
d. 4%
3,By selling 32 books for Rs. 100/- a man loses 40%. How many books shall he sell for Rs.
100/- to gain 20%?
a. 18
b. 16
c. 10
d. 8
4.A person spends Rs. 501 in buying tables and chairs. If the cost of each chair is Rs. 15 and
table costs 40% more than the chair and total number of articles he bought was 27, how many
of each kind did he buy?
a. 16, 11
b. 15, 12
c. 13, 14
d. 10, 17
5.Milk is available in two vessels. The ratio of milk to water in each of the vessels is 9 : 7 and
11 : 8 respectively. Which vessel contains more water?
a) 2nd Vessel
b) 3rd Vessel
c) 1st Vessel
d) None
6.If 6 horses eat 108 kg of grass in 4 days, how much grass will be eaten by 20 horses in 3
days?
a) 440
b) 270
c) 430
d) None
7.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.5 lakhs and Rs.6 lakhs respectively. After 6
months A invested Rs.1 lakh and after one more year B withdrew 2 lakhs. Find the share of A
in the profit of Rs.26 lakhs at the end of the third year.
a) 2 lakhs
b) 4 lakhs
c) 7 lakhs
d) 14 lakhs
8.P and Q entered into a partnership with Rs.75000 and Rs.1,25,000 respectively. Q was the
sleeping partner. At the end of the year they shared the profit of Rs.2,40,000 in the ratio of 5 :
3. Find the salary drawn by P.
a) Rs.48000
b) Rs.96000
c) Rs.25000
d) None
9.A sum of Rs5500 is lent out in 3 parts in such a way that the interest on first part at 5% for
2 years and the interest on the second part at 6% for 5 years and that of 4% for 5 years on the
third part are equal. The ratio in which the sum is divided into three parts is .
a) 6 : 2 : 3
b) 3 : 6 : 2
c) 3 : 2 : 6
d) 6 : 3 : 2
10.Two taps A & B can fill a cistern in 12 and 16 minutes respectively. Both fill taps are
opened together, but 4 minutes before cistern is full, one tap A is closed. How much time will
the cistern take to fill?
a) 9 1/7 min.
b) 3 1/7 min.
c) 11 1/7 min.
d) None
Answers :
1.C, 2.B, 3.B, 4.A, 5.C, 6.B, 7.D, 8.B, 9.A, 10.A
IBPS Qunatitaitive aptitude Questions
1.A sum of money amounts to Rs.6050 in 2 years and to Rs.6655 in 3 years at C.I. being
compounded annually. Find the sum and the rate?
a) Rs.5000, 10%
b) Rs.6000, 20%
c) Rs.8000, 10%
d) None of these
2.A manufacturer sells an article to a wholesale dealer at a profit of 20% and the wholesale
dealer sells it to a retail merchant at a loss of 5%. Find the resultant profit or loss%
a) 14% loss
b) 14% gain
c) 12% gain
d) None
3.A man can row 6 km/hr in still water. If the speed of stream is 2km/hr, it takes him 3 hours
to row to a place and back. How far is the place?
a) 16 km
b) 10 km
c) 12 km
d) 8 km
4.A boat traveled from A to B and back to A from B in 5 hours. If the speed of boat in still
water and the speed of stream be 7.5 kmph and 1.5 kmph, then what is the distance between
A and B?
a) 80 km
b) 45 km
c) 18 km
d) 19 km
5.A mixture of 66 litres of milk and water are in the ratio of 5 : 1, water is added to make the
ratio 3 : 5. find the quantity of water added.
a) 20 litres
b) 18 litres
c) 22 litres
d) 24 litres
6.40 litres of mixture of milk and water contains 10% of water. The water to be added to
make water content 20% in the new mixture is .
a) 6 litres
b) 6.5 litres
c) 5.5 litres
d) 5 litres
7.A clock which loses 50 seconds every two minutes is set at 6.00 P.M. on a certain day. What
is the time shown by this watch if the current time is 3.00 P.M.?
a) 4 P.M.
b) 9 P.M.
c) 5 P.M.
d) 6 P.M.
8.Today is Tuesday. What day of the week it was 124 days before?
a) Wednesday
b) Thursday
c) Tuesday
d) Wednesday
9.In a km race, P beats Q by 25 m or 5 sec then find the time taken by P to complete the race.
a) 3 min 15 sec
b) 4 min 20 sec
c) 2 min 30 sec
d) 5 min 10 sec
10.9876543210 is divisible by
a) 5, 9 & 11
b) 5, 9 but not by 11
c) 9 & 11 but not by 5

d) 11 & 5 but not by 9
Answers :
1.A, 2.B, 3.D, 4.C, 5.C, 6.D, 7.B, 8.B, 9.A, 10.B
11Find the last digit of the product 8743 x 7156 x 7567 x 8452
a) 3
b) 6
c) 4
d) 2
12.Two numbers in binary system are 110010011 and 101010101. Find their difference in
decimal system.
a) 66
b) 56
c) 65
d) 62
3.The side of a square is decreased by 10%. What is the percent of change in area?
a) 20% decrease
b) 100% decrease
c) 19% decrease
d) 21% decrease
14.In an examination, 22% students failed. If the number of passed candidates was 420 more
than number of failed candidates, then the total number of candidates appeared the
examination is?
a) 300
b) 324
c) 750
d) 960
15.The average age of a family of 6 members is 22 years. If the age of the youngest member
be 7 years, the average age of the family at the birth of the youngest member is
a) 15 years
b) 17 years
c) 17.5 years
d) 18 years
16.Find the average of squares of first consecutive even numbers from 1 to 26.
a) 243
b) 236
c) 252
d) 235
17.As money : Bs money = 4 : 5 and Bs money : Cs money = 2 : 3. If A has Rs.800, then
what amount of money C has?
a) 1600
b) 2700
c) 1500
d) None
18.The income of A, B and C are in the ratio 7 : 9 : 12 and their spending are in the ratio 8 :
9 : 15. If A saves 1/4th of the income then what is the ratio of the savings of A, B and C?
a) 56 : 69: 99
b) 56 : 99 : 69
c) 69 : 56 : 99
d) None
19.A, B and C started a business. The capital of A is three fourth of as much as the capitals of
B and C together and the capital of B is two third of as much as the capitals of C and A
together. Find the share of C in the annual profit of Rs.1,75,000.
a) Rs.15000
b) Rs.30000
c) Rs.8000
d) None
20.If the S.I. for 3 years at 5% is Rs.1200 then find the C.I.
a) Rs.1206
b) Rs.1241
c) Rs.1251
d) Rs.1261
Answers :
1.D, 2.D, 3.C, 4.C, 5.D, 6.C, 7.C, 8.B, 9.D, 10.D
IBPS Reasoning Number series Questions

1. 9, 25, ?, 81, 121
a) 64
b) 36
c) 49
d) 91
2.5, 8, 13, 20, 29, ?

a) 30
b) 38
c) 32
d) 33
3.10, 13, 19, 22, 28, 31, ?

a) 37
b) 39
c) 34
d) 38
4.6, 12, 21, ?, 48

a) 33
b) 38
c) 40
d) 45
5.2, 5, 9, 14, ?, 27
a) 21
b) 20
c) 25
d) 22
6.6, 11, 21, 36, 56, ?

a) 42
b) 51
c) 91
d) 81
7.10, 18, 28, 40, 54, 70, ?

a) 88
b) 87
c) 85
d) 86
8.120, 99, ?, 63, 48, 35
a) 82
b) 80
c) 70
d) 63
9.1, 6, 15, ?, 45, 66, 91

a) 25
b) 26
c) 27
d) 28
10.2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?

a) 73
b) 75
c) 76
d) 78
Answers :
1.C, 2.B, 3.A, 4.A, 5.B, 6.D, 7.A, 8.B, 9.D, 10.B
IBPS Reasoning Questions -Calendars
1. Find the number of odd days in 200 days.

a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
2.Find the number of odd days in 425 days.

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
3.Find the number of odd days in 49 years.

a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
4.What day of the week on 26th Jan 1950?

a) Monday
b) Tuesday
c) Wednesday
d) Thursday
5.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October, 1869. What day was it of the week?
a) Thursday
b) Friday
c) Saturday
d) Sunday
6.What day of the week on 2nd June, 1988?

a) Thursday
b) Friday
c) Sunday
d) Saturday
7.What day of the week on 15th August, 1947?

a) Thursday
b) Friday
c) Sunday
d) Saturday
8.What day of the week on 31st October, 1984?

a) Thursday
b) Friday
c) Sunday
d) Saturday
9.What day of the week on 14th March, 1993?
a) Thursday
b) Friday
c) Sunday
d) Saturday
10. What day of the week on 14th November, 1889?

a) Monday
b) Wednesday
c) Thursday
d) Saturday
Answers :
1.B, 2.A, 3.C, 4.D, 5.C, 6.A, 7.B, 8.D, 9.D, 10.C
IBPS Bank PO CWE Percentage Topic Questions

1. A reduction of 10% in price of sugar enables a housewife to buy 5 kg more for Rs. 300/-.
Find the reduced price per kg of sugar
a. 5/b. 4.5/c. 6/d. None
2. From a 20lt solution of alt and water with 20% salt, 2lt of water is evaporated. Find the
new % concentration of salt
a. 20%
b. 23%
c. 25%
d. None
3. In a list of weights of candidates appearing for police selections, the weight of A is marked
as 58 kg instead of 46.4 kg. Find the percentage of correction required
a. 30
b. 20
c. 24
d. None
4. A person spends 20% of his income on rent, 20% of the rest on food, 10% of the remaining
on clothes and 10% on groceries. If he is left with Rs. 9520/- find his income
a. 10000/b. 15000/c. 20000/d. None
5. A shopkeeper offers three successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 30% to a customer. If the
actual price of the item is Rs. 10000, find the price the customer has to pay to the shopkeeper.
a. 5040/b. 4000/c. 6000/d. None
6. If 10lt solution of water and alcohol containing 10% alcohol is to be made 20% alcohol
solution, find the volume of alcohol to be added
a. 1 lt
b. 1.25 lt
c. 1.5 lt
d. 2 lt
7. A is twice B and B is 200% more than C. By what percent is A more than C?

a. 400
b. 600
c. 500
d. 200
8. In an examination, a student secures 40% and fails by 10 marks. If he scored 50%, he

would pass by 15 marks. Find the minimum marks required to pass the exam
a. 250
b. 100
c. 110
d. 125
9. If A is 20% taller than B, by what percent is B shorter than A?

a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 16.66%
d. None
10. The population of a town increases at a rate of 10% for every year. If the present
population is 12100, find the population two years ago
a. 11000
b. 9800
c. 10000
d. 10120
IBPS Bank PO CWE Aptitude Questions
1. Mohan started a business with a capital of Rs.16000. After 2 months Venu joined him with
a capital of Rs.20000. At the end of the year they got Rs.4900 as a profit. Find the share of
Mohan in this profit.
a) Rs.20000
2) Rs.24000
c) Rs.18000
d) None
2.Kiran started a business with Rs.25000. After certain months Madhav joined with
Rs.40000. At the end of the year they shared the profits in the ratio of 3 : 4. After how many
months Madhav joined?
a) 1 month
b) 2 months
c) 3 months
d) 4 months
3.Vimala and Kamala entered into a partnership with Rs.15000 and Rs.25000 respectively.
After 4 months Vimala put in Rs.5000 more. Find the share of Kamala in the annual profit of
Rs.26000.
a) Rs.15000
b) Rs.12000
c) Rs.18000
d) Rs.9000
4.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.50000 and Rs.60000 respectively. After 4
months A invested Rs.25000 more while B withdrew Rs.20000. Find the share of B in the
profit of Rs.1,70,000.
a) Rs.5000
b) Rs.10000
c) Rs.8000
d) None
5.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.45000 and Rs.36000 respectively. After 4
months they invested Rs.10000 each. Find the difference between their shares in the annual
profit of Rs.2,58,000.
a) Rs.27000
b) Rs.58000
c) Rs.54000
d) Rs.48000
6.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.5 lakhs and Rs.6 lakhs respectively. After 6
months A invested Rs.1 lakh and after one more year B withdrew 2 lakhs. Find the share of A
in the profit of Rs.26 lakhs at the end of the third year.
a) 2 lakhs
b) 4 lakhs
c) 7 lakhs
d) 14 lakhs
7.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.24000 and Rs.35000 respectively. B was a
sleeping partner. At the end of the year they received Rs.18200 each. Find the salary of A.
a) Rs.5720
b) Rs.2750
c) Rs.4720
d) None
8.P and Q entered into a partnership with Rs.75000 and Rs.1,25,000 respectively. Q was the
sleeping partner. At the end of the year they shared the profit of Rs.2,40,000 in the ratio of 5 :
3. Find the salary drawn by P.
a) Rs.48000
b) Rs.96000
c) Rs.25000
d) None
9.A and B entered into a partnership with Rs.48000 and Rs.60000 respectively. B was the
sleeping partner. A had to take 25% of total profit and the rest to be divided between them in
proportion of their capitals. If A got Rs.21000 at the end of the year then find the total profit.
a) Rs.18000
b) Rs.9000
c) Rs.36000
d) None
10.A, B and C started a business. The capital of A is three fourth of as much as the capitals of
B and C together and the capital of B is two third of as much as the capitals of C and A
together. Find the share of C in the annual profit of Rs.1,75,000.
a) Rs.15000
b) Rs.30000
c) Rs.8000
d) None
Answers :
1.B, 2.B, 3.A, 4.B, 5.C, 6.D, 7.A, 8.B, 9.C, 10.D
1. Raju buys a watch for Rs.350 and sells it for Rs.392. Find his profit percentage.
a) 9%
b) 12%
c) 14%
d) None
2.Kumar purchased an article for Rs.5200 and spent Rs.800 on its repair. He had to sell it for
Rs.5500. Find his profit or loss percentage.
a) 8 1/3 % loss
b) 7 1/2 % profit
c) 9% loss
d) None
3.A tooth paste marked Rs.80 is sold for Rs.68. Find the rate of discount.
a) 12%
b) 14%
c) 15%
d) None
4.Mr.Sharma bought 200 dozen mangoes at Rs.10 per dozen. He spent Rs.500 on
transportation. He sold them at Rs.1 each. Find the profit or loss%.
a) 4%
b) 6%
c) 5%
d) None
5.Mr.Shekar sold his bike for Rs.10500 at a profit of 5%. Find the C.P. of the bike.
a) Rs.10300
b) Rs.10700
c) Rs.10000
d) None
6.Sujan buys a binocular for Rs.1800 and sells it at 10% loss. Find its S.P.
a) Rs.1620
b) Rs.1730
c) Rs.1650
d) None
7.Ravi purchased 120 rims of paper at Rs.80 per rim. He spent Rs.280 on transportation, paid
tax at the rate of 40 paise per rim and also paid Rs.72 to the workers. He wants to gain 8%
then find the S.P. per rim.
a) Rs.89
b) Rs.90
c) Rs.95
d) None
8.A shopkeeper loses 7% by selling an item for Rs.31. For how much should he sell the ball
so as to gain 5%?
a) Rs.50
b) Rs.65
c) Rs.35
d) None
9.A shopkeeper sold some articles at Rs.35 per article and gained 40% on it. What would be
the S.P. of each article if he wants to gain 60% profit?
a) Rs.40
b) Rs.45
c) Rs.50
d) None
10.A man bought oranges at the rate of 6 for Rs.20 and sold them at 4 for Rs.16. Find his
estimated profit%.
a) 23%
b) 18%
c) 20%
d) None
Answers :
1.B, 2.A, 3.C, 4.B, 5.C, 6.A, 7.B, 8.C, 9.A, 10.C
DEC 12,2012
Question papers of IBPS Bank PO and Clerical cadre Written Test Examination Pattern and
Latest Question Papers\
IBPS stands for Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Common Written Examination
(CWE) for PO,Clerical and Gramin Banks Officer scale jobs
IBPS PO (CWE) Gramin Banks Latest Selection Procedures2012|Aptitude Reasoning, Data
Interpretation computer Knowledge and General Awareness Questions
Hi
These are the some model reasoning questions with answers previoulsy asked in different
bank tests.
IBPS Bank PO CWE Reasoning Questions
IBPS Bank PO CWE Coding and decoding,blood relation,datasufficiency questions........
1. BE' is related to 'GJ' in the same way as 'PS' is related to

1) UY
2) UX
3) UZ
4) VY
5) None of these Ans. 1 (2)
2. Among P, Q, R, S and T, each having scored different marks, R scored more marks than P
and T. Q scored less marks than T. S did not score the highest marks. Who among them
scored the highest?

1) P
2) T
3) R
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these Ans. 2 (3)
3. Pointing to a girl, Nidhi said, 'She is the daughter of my grandmother's only child.' How is
the girl related to Nidhi?
1) Sister
2) Self
3) Cousin sister
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these Ans.3 (4)
4. In a certain code MOAN is written as 5%3$ and NEWS is written as $1@8. How is SOME
written in that code?
1) 8%o51
2) 85%8
3) 8@51
4) 8%31
5. In a certain code language 'how many books' is written as 'sa da na' and 'many more days'
is written as 'ka pa da'. How is 'books' written in that code language?
1) sa
2) na
3) sa or na
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these Ans 5)(3)
6. In a certain code MAJORITY is written as 'PKBNXSHQ'. How is SANCTION written in
that code?
1) TBODMNHS
2) DOBTMNHS
3) TBODSHNM
4) DOBTOPJU
7. The position of the first and the sixth digits in the number 5120397468 are interchanged,
similarly the positions of the second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on. Which
of the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
1) 1
2) 5
3) 7
4) 9
8. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OROANISED each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three Ans. 8 (3)
9. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ITRM using each letter
only once in each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three Ans. 9 (2)
10. The position of how many digits in the number 8247531 will remain unchanged after the
digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three Ans.10 (3)
11. In a row of twenty-five children facing North, W is fifth to the right of R, who is sixteenth
from the right end of the row. What is W's position from the right end of the row?
1) Eleventh
2) Tenth
3) Twelfth
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these Ans 1)
Directions (Q. 12-14): Study the following, information carefully and answer the
questions, which follow:
Five plays A, B, C, D and E were organized in a week from Monday to Saturday with
one play each day and no play was organised on one of these days. Play D was organised
before Thursday but after Monday. Play E was organised on Saturday. Play C was not
organised on the first day. Play B was organized on the next day on which play C was
organised. Play A was organised on Tuesday.
12. On which day was play B organised?
1) Thursday
2) Friday
3) Wednesday
4) Data inadequate
13. On which day was no play organised?

1) Monday
2) Wednesday
3) Thursday
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Ans.13 (1)
14. Which play was organised on Wednesday?

1) A
2) C
3) D
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Ans.14 (3)
15. If means '+'; 'x' means '-',; '+' means 'x and '-' means '', then 24 -46 x3+4 =?
1) 36
2) 24
3) 8
4) 4
5) None of these
Ans.15 (5)
16. What should come next in the following number series? 98761234598712345987123498
1) 7
2) 1
3) 2
4) 5
5) None of these
Ans.16 (2)
17. Each consonant in the word CORDIAL is changed to the previous letter in the English
alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and the letters so
obtained are rearranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from
the right end after the rearrangement?
1) Q
2) K
3) P
4) B
5) None of these
Ans.17 (3)
18. Meena correctly remembers that her father's birthday is after eighteenth May but before
twentysecond May. Her brother correctly remembers that their father's
Birthday is before twenty-fourth May but after Twentieth May. On which date in May was
definitely their father's birthday?
1) Twentieth
2) Nineteenth
3) Eighteenth
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
Ans.18 (5)
Directions (Q. 19-20): Study the following information and answer the questions given
below:
(i) 'P Q' means 'P is sister of Q'.
(ii) 'P x Q' means 'P is brother of Q'.
(iii) 'P - Q' means 'P is mother of Q'.
(iv) 'P + Q' means 'P is father of Q'.
19. Which of the following means 'M is maternal uncle of T?
1) MK+T
2) M x K+T
3) M x K-T
4) M K - T
5) None of these
Ans.19 (4)
20. Which of the following means 'H is paternal grandfather of T?
1) H +J+T
2) T x K + H
3) H +J x T
4) H - J + T
5) None of these
Ans.20 (1)
Directions (Q. 21-25): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given
below:
832 965 748 259 614
21. Which of the following is the third digit of the second lowest number?
1) 2
2) 5
3) 8
4) 9
5) 4
Ans. 21 (5)
22. Which .of the following is the sum of the first' and the second digits of the highest
number?
1) 11
2) 15
3) 10
4) 7
5) None of these
Ans.22 (2)
23. If the positions of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged,
which of the following will be the last digit of the lowest number?
1) 5
2) 1
3) 6
4) 4
5) 3
Ans.23 (1)
24. If the positions of the first and the second digits of each of the numbers are interchanged,
which of the following will be the second digit of the second highest number?
1) 8
2) 6
3) 7
4) 5
5) None of these
Ans.24 (5)
25. Which of the following is the difference between the first and the third digits of the third
highest number?
1) 6
2) 4
3) 1
4) 7
5) None of these
Ans.25 (3)
Directions (Q. 26-31): In each of the questions below is given four statements followed
by three conclusions numbered I, II and m. You have to take the given statements to be
true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
26. Statements:All stones are poles.
All poles are desks.
Some desks are nets.
All nets are days.
Conclusions: I. Some nets are stones.
II.Some desks are stones.
III.Some days are desks.
1) Only I and II follow
2) Only I and III follow
3) Only II and III follow
4) All I, II and III follow

5) None of these
Ans.26 (3)
27. Statements: Some months are weeks.

Some weeks are years.
All years are buses.
All buses are trains.
Conclusions: I. Some trains are weeks.
II. Some buses are weeks.
III.Some trains are months.
4) All, I, II and III follow
5) None of these
Ans.27 (1)
28. Statements: Some stations are rails.

All rails are rivers.
All rivers are papers.
Some papers are cards.
Conclusions: I. Some cards are stations.
II.Some rivers are stations.
III. Some cards are rivers.
1) Norte follows
2) Only I follows
3) Only II follows
4) Only III follows
Ans.28 (3)
29. Statements: All windows are roofs.

All roofs are glasses.
Some glasses are plates.
Some plates are carpets.
Conclusions: I. Some plates are windows.
II. Some glasses are windows.

III. Some carpets are roofs.
1) None follows
2) Only I follows
3) Only II follows
4) Only III follows
Ans.29 (3)
30. Statements: All trees are jungles.

All jungles are houses.
All houses are buildings.
All buildings are villages.
Conclusions: I. Some villages are houses.
II. Some buildings are jungles.
III. Some houses are trees.
4) All I, II and III follow
5) None of these
Ans.30 (4)
31. Statements: Some books are calendars.

No calendar is a paper.
All papers are pencils.
Some pencils are chairs.
Conclusions: I. Some chairs are books.
II. No chair is a book.
III. Some pencils are calendars.
1) None follows
2) Only either I or II follows
3) Only either I or II and III follow
4) Only III follows
5) Only n follows
Ans.31 (2)
Directions (Q. 32-37): Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given
below:
M5%PU2A$43ZEK 19QRI@D7F88WN6#VJ*Y
32. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth from the right end of
the above arrangement?

1) N
2) $
3)4
4) W
5) None of these
Ans.32 (1)
33. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the sixth to the left of W in the above
arrangement?
1) U
2) D
3) E
4)
34. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans.34 (3)
35. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately followed by a symbol but not immediately preceded by a number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans.35 (3)
36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) P5A
2) 4AE
3) QIK
4) F8@
5) VN*
Ans.36 (5)
37. If all the symbols and the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the
following will be the twelfth from the left end?
1) E
2) K
3) Z
4) D
5) None of these
Ans.37 (5)
Directions (Q. 38-43): In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed
by four combinations of letters numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out
which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the
following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that
combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group
of digits/symbols, mark (5), ie 'None of these' , as your answer. Digit/Symbol : 5 @ 3 9
8 % 8 1 4 2 $ # 7 6 * Letter Code : P I MAE G F J H B D. N R Q T U .
Conditions: (i) If the first unit is a symbol and the last unit is an even digit both are to
be coded as the code for the even digit.
(ii) If the first unit is all even digit and the last unit is an odd digit their codes are to be
interchanged.
(iii) If the first unit is an odd digit and the last unit is a symbol both at e 1:0 be coded as
the code for the symbol.
(iv) If both the first and the last units are symbols both are to be coded as Z.
38. 9@374%
1) EIMQBF
2) FBQMIE
3) ZIMQBZ
4) FIMQBF
5) None of these
Ans.38 (4)
39. 29$#1
1) HEANRD
2) DEANRH
3) DEANRD
4) HEANRH
40. *479@
1) UBQEIA
2) ZBQEIA
3) ZBQEIZ
4) ABQEIU
41. % 286$3
1) FDGTNF
2) FDGTNM
3) FGDTNM
4) WGTNZ
42. 54#*@6
1) PBURIT
2) PBRUIP
3) TBRUIP
4) TBRUIT
43. $6394
1) NTMAEN
2) BTMAEB
3) ZTMAEB
4) NTMAEB
Directions (Q. 44-48): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is second to the
right of A and third to the left of C. B is second to the left of C and fourth to the right of
H. D is second to the right of G
44. Who is to the immediate left of D?

1) H
2) C
3) G
4) Data inadequate
45. Who is second to the right of E?

1) B
2) G
3) H
4) Data inadequate
46. Who is third to the left of B?

1) E
2) H
3) F
4) Data inadequate
47. What is the position of G with respect to A?

1) Third to the left
2) Third to the right
3) Fifth to the left
4) Fourth to the right
5) Fifth to the right Ans.47 (4)
48. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and
the second persons?
1) BGC
2) EFB
3) DAH
4) AEF
5) GCD Ans.48 (3)
Directions (Q. 49-54): In the following questions, the symbols @, , $, % and # are used
with the following meaning as illustrated below:
'P $ Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.

'P@Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q' means' P is not smaller than Q'.
'P Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greeter than Q'.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find
which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and
give your answer accordingly.
49. Statements: D # K K @ T, T $ M,. M '% .T
Conclusions: I. J @ T
II. J%T
III. D@T
1) Only I is true
2) Only II is true
3) Only either I or II is true
4) Only IV is true
5) Only either I or II and III are true Ans.49 (5)
50. Statements: R@N,ND, O$J, J#B

Conclusions: I. R @ J
II. J@N
III. B@D
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only I and III are true Ans.50 (3)
51. Statements: W B, B % V, V $ R, R@K

Conclusions: I. K B
II. R#B
III.V@W
1) Only I and II are true
2) Only I and III are true
3) Only II and III are true
4) AII I, II and III are true
52. Statements: H $ M, M # T, T @ D, D R
Conclusions: I. D M
II. R@M
III. H$T
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only I and II are true Ans.52 (2)
53. Statements: B % J, J @ K, K T, T $ F
Conclusions: I. F @ K
II. B@K
III.B@F
1) Only I and II are true
2) Only I and III are true
4) All I, II and III are true
54. Statements: F # B, B $ M, M @ K, J< e N

Conclusions: I. N @ M
II. F$M
III. KB
1) Only I is true
2) Only II is true
3) Only III is true
5) None is true Ans.54 (5)
Directions (55-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an. input line of words and
numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of
input and rearrangement.
Input : sale data 1823 for 95 then 38
Step I : data sale 1823 for 95 then 38
Step II : data 95 sale 18 23 for then 38
Step III : data 95 for sale 18 23 then 38
Step IV : data 95 for 38 sale 18 23 then
Step V : data 95 for 38 sale 23 18 then
Step VI : data 95 for 38 sale 23 then 18
and step VI is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the
appropriate step for the given input.
55. Input: year 39 stake47 house full 94 55 How many steps will be required to complete the
rearrangement?
1) Five
2) Six
3) Four
4) Seven
56. Step II of an input is: car 83 lost ever 324674 now How many more steps will be required
to complete the rearrangement?
1) Three
2) Four
3) Five
4) Six
57. Step III of an input is : and 79 code 27 18 new goal 34 Which of the following will
definitely be the input?
1) code and 79 27 18 new goal 34
2) code 27 18 new goal 34 and 79
3) code 27 and 1879 new goal 34
4) Cannot be determined
58. Input: water full never 35 78 16 height 28 Which of the following steps will be the last?
1) VI
2) VII
3) VIII
4) IX
5) None of these
Ans.58 (1)
59. Step II of an input is: high 69 store pay 36 43 15 there Which of the following will be step
VI?
1) high 69 pay 43 store 36 there 15
2) high 69 pay 43 store 36 15 there
3) high 69 pay 36 43 store 15 there
4) There will be no such step
60. Input: train more 2953 fast gear 3784 Which of the following steps will be the last but
one?
1) IX
2) VIII
3) VII
4) VI
5) None of these
Ans.60 (5)
Directions (Q. 61-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Following are the conditions for selecting Assistant General Manager-HR in an
organisation.
The candidate must
(i) be at least 40 years and not more than 50 years old as on 01-05-2010.
(ii) be postgraduate in Personnel
Management /HR with at least 60 per cent marks.
(iii) have post-qualification work experience of at least fifteen years out of which at least five
years as Senior Manager-HR in an organization.
(iv) have successfully implemented HR-System in his/ her organisation sometime during the
past three years.
(v) have secured at least 45 per cent marks in the selection process.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT at
(A) (ii) above but has secured at least 50 per cent marks in postgraduation and at least 65 per
cent marks in the selection process, the case is to be referred to Executive Director.
(B) (iii) above but has at least twelve years' post qualification work experience out of which
at least eight years as Senior Manager-HR in an organisation, the case is to be referred to
Chairman.
In each question below details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the courses
of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given
above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume
anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to
you as on 01-0572010.
Mark answer 1) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer 2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Mark answer 3) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
Mark answer 4) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director.
Mark answer 5) if the case is to be referred to Chairman.
61. Pranab Ghosh was born on 8th March 1968. He has been working for the past eighteen
years in an organisation out of which last seven years as Senior Manager-HR after
completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He had successfully
implemented HR-System last year in his organisation. He has secured 50 per cent marks in
the selection process.
62. Sheetal Jha has been working in an organisation for the past twenty years out of which ten
years as Senior Manager-HR after completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management
with 70 per cent marks. She was born on 2nd December 1965. She has secured 45 percent
marks in the selection process.
63. Prabir Sengupta was born on 8th May 1963. He has secured 65 percent marks in the
selection process. He has been working for the past fifteen years in an organisation, out of
which twelve years as Senior Manager HR, after completing his post graduation in HR with
55 per cent marks. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during
the last two years.
64. Shailesh Kumar has been working in an organisation for the past thirteen years, out of
which nine years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68
per cent marks. He was born on 15th September 1968. He has secured 48 per cent marks in
the selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organization two
years back.
65. Navin Chopra was born on 12th June 1967. He has been working for the past sixteen
years, out of which seven years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his post-graduation
in Personnel Management with 75 per cent marks. He has secured 44 per cent marks in the
selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation last year.
66. Meera Kulkarni has been working for the past seventeen years, out of which eight years
as Senior Manager-HR, after completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management with
66 per cent marks. She has successfully implemented HR-System in her organisation during
the last two years. She has secured 49 per cent marks in the selection process. She was born
on 14th December 1971.
67. Akash Shastri was born on 12th April 1967. He has been. working for the past sixteen
years, out of which six years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation after completing his
postgraduation in HR with 58 per cent marks. He has successfully implemented HR-System
in his organization last year. He has secured 65 per cent marks in the selection process.
68. Shekhar Jena has been working for the past fifteen years, out of which last seven years as
Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68
per cent marks. He has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on
16th.
69. Sunetra Govil was born on 5th April 1964. She has been working for the past seventeen
years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation. She has secured 48
per cent marks in the selection process. She has also secured 69 per cent marks in her postgraduation in Personnel Management. She successfully implemented HR-System in her
organisation last year.
70. Mohit Saxena was born on 27th July 1963. He has been working for the past thirteen
years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR, after completing his postgraduation
in HR with 67 per cent marks. He has secured 49 per cent marks in the Selection process. He
has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during the past three years.
Answers :(Q.61-70)
Q.No. Person (i) (ii)/(A) (iii)/(B) (iv) (V) Ans
61. Pranab 1
62. Sheetal 3
63. Prabir () 4
64. Shailesh () 5
65. Navin 2
66. Meera 2
67. Akash () 4
68. Shekhar 1
69. Sunetra 3
70. Mohit () 5
Directions (Q. 71-75): Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B).
These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent
causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other
statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices
correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Mark answer 1) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
Mark answer 2) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.
Mark answer 3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
Mark answer 4) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
Mark answer 5) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.
71. (A) The Govt has marginally increased the procurement price of wheat for the current
crop.
(B) The current wheat crop is expected to be twenty per cent more than the previous wheat
crop.
Ans.71 (1)
72. (A) The municipal authority demolished the tea stall located on the footpath on the busy
road.
(B) A large number of people have been taking their evening tea at the tea stall located on the
footpath on the main road, blocking pedestrian movement.
Ans.72 (2)
73. (A) Majority of the students left the local school as the school building was in a
dilapidated condition.
(B) The school authority decided to close down the school immediately and shift the
remaining students to a make-shift school.
Ans.73 (1)
74. (A) The braking system of the tourist bus carrying 40 passengers failed while negotiating
a stiff climb on a hilly road.
(B) The tourist bus fell into the gorge killing at least ten passengers and seriously injuring all
the remaining.
Ans.74 (1)
75. (A) The state govt has decided to boost English language education in all the schools
from the next academic year.
(B) The level of English language of the school students of the State is comparatively lower
than that of the neighbouring states.
Ans.75 (2)
Question papers of IBPS Bank PO and Clerical cadre Written Test Examination
Pattern and Latest Question Papers\
IBPS stands for Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Common Written
Examination (CWE) for PO,Clerical and Gramin Banks Officer scale jobs
IBPS PO (CWE) Gramin Banks Latest Selection Procedures2012|Aptitude Reasoning,
Data Interpretation computer Knowledge and General Awareness Questions
IBPS Bank PO (CWE) Previous Question Papers with answers
Reasoning Questions with answers
1.In a certain code language how many goals scored is written as 5 3 9 7; many more
matches is written as 9 8 2 and he scored five is written as 1 6 3. How is goals written
in that code language ?
A.5
B.7
C.5 or 7
D.Data inadequate
E.None of these
2.In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONSIDER written in
that code ?
A.RMNBSFEJ
B.BNMRSFEJ
C.RMNBJEFS
D.TOPDQDCH
E.Non of these
3.How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DLEI using each letter
only once in each word ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E. More than three
4.Among A, B,C,D and E each having different weight, D is heavier than only A and C is
lighter than B and E. Who among them is the heaviest ?
A.B
B.E
C.C
D.Data inadequate
E.None of these
5.Each odd digit in the number 5263187 is substituted by the next higher digit and each even
digit is substituted by the previous lower digit and the digits so obtained are rearranged in
ascending order, which of the following will be the third digit from the left and after the
rearrangement ?
A.2
B.4
C.5
D.6
E.None of these
6. Pratap correctly remembers that mothers birthday is before twenty third April but after
Nineteenth April, whereas his sister correctly remembers that their mothers birthday is not
on or after twenty second April. On which day in April is definitely their mothers birthday ?
A.Twentieth
B.Twenty-first
C.Twentieth or twenty-first
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
7. Ashok started walking towards South. After walking 50 meters he took a right turn and
walked 30 meters. He then took a right turn and walked 100 meters. He again took a right
turn and walked 30 meters and stopped. How far and in which direction was he from the
starting point ?
A.50 meters South
B.150 meters North
C.180 meters East
D.50 meters North
E.Non of these
8. If means +; means - means X; X means and + means - ; than ______ 15-8

x 6 12+4 = ?
A.20
B.28
C.8 4/7
D.2 2/3
E.None of these
9. Town D is towards East of town F. Town B is towards North of Town D. Town H is

towards South of town B. Towards which direction is town H from town F ?
A. East
B. South-East
C. North-East
D. Data inadequate
E. Non of these
10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SEARCHES each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
E. More than three
Directions (Qs. 11-15) : In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by
four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and
then decide which of the given conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
11. Statements :
All cups are bottles.
Some bottles are jugs.
No jug is plate.
Some plates are tables.
Conclusions :
I.Some tables are bottles.
II.Some plates are cups.
III.No table is bottle
IV.Some jugs are cups.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Only III follows
D. Only IV follows
E. Only either I or III follows
12.Statements :
Some chairs are handles.
All handles are pots.
All pots are mats.
Some mats are buses.
Conclusions :
I.Some buses are handles.
II.Some mats are chairs.
III.No bus is handle.
IV.Some mats are handles.
A. Only I, II and IV follow
B. Only II, III and IV follow
C.Only either I or III and II follow
D.Only either I or III or IV follow
E.Only either I or III and II and IV follow
Statements :
All birds are horses.
All horses are tigers.
Some tigers are lions.
Some lions are monkeys.
Conclusions :
I.Some tigers are horses.
II.Some monkeys are birds.
III.Some tigers are birds.
IV.Some monkeys are horses.
A. Only I and III follow
B. Only I, II and IV follow
C. Only II, III and IV follow
D. All I, II, III and IV follow
E. Non of these
14. Statements :
Some walls are houses
All walls are houses
Some houses are jungles.
All jungles are roads.
Conclusions :
I. Some roads are benches.
II.Some jungles are walls.
III.Some houses are benches.
IV.Some roads are houses.
A.Only I and II follow
B.Only I and III follow
C.Only III and IV follow
D.Only II, and IV follow

E.None of these
15.Statements :
Some sticks are lamps.
Some flowers are dressed.
All dressed are shirts.
Conclusions :
I.Some shirts are sticks
II.Some shirts are flowers
III.Some flowers are sticks.
IV.Some dresses are sticks
A.None follows
B.Only I follow
C.Only II follow
D.Only III follow
E.Only IV follow
Directions (Qs. 16-20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below :
A,B,C,D,E,F,G, and H are eight employees of an organization working in three departments
viz. Personnel, Administration and Marketing with not more than three of them in any
department. Each of them has a different choice of sports from football, cricket, volley ball,
badminton, lawn tens, basketball, hockey and table tennis not necessarily in the same order.
D works in Administration and does not like either football or cricket. F works in Personnel
with only A who likes table tennis. E and H do not work in the same department as D. C likes
hockey and does not work in Marketing. G does not work in Administration and does not like
either cricket or badminton. One of those who work in Administration likes football. The one
who likes volley ball works in Personnel. None of those who work on Administration likes
either badminton or lawn tennis. H does not like cricket.
16.Which of the following groups of employees work in Administration department ?
A.EGH
B.AF
C.BCD
D.BGD
E.Data inadequate
17.In which department does E work ?
A.Personnel
B.Marketing
C.Administration
D.Data inadequate
E.None of these
18.Which of the following combinations of employee-department-favourite sport is correct?
A.E-Administration-Cricket
B.F-Personnel-Lawn Tennis
C.H-Marketing-Lawn Tennis
D.B. Administration- Table Tennis

E.None of these
19.What is Es favourite sports ?
A.Cricket
B.Badminton
C.Basketball
D.Lawn Tennis
E.None of these
20.What is Gs favourite sports ?
Cricket
Badminton
Basketball
Lawn Tennis
None of these
DATA ANALYSIS AND INTERPRETATION
Directions (Qs. 21-25) : Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that
follow
Number (N) of candidates (In lakhs) appearing for an entrance Examination from Six
Different States and the percentage (P) of Candidates Clearing the same over the Years
State
Year
2004
1.2
3
42
1.0
4
51
2005
1.0
5
43
1.1
2
2006
2.0
4
38
2007
1.9
8
2008
2009
D
P
1.11 32
1.32
24
1.23
36
1.33
31
62
1.07 47
1.15
49
1.18
55
1.24
24
1.4
8
32
1.08 28
1.96
35
1.42
49
1.58
26
41
2.0
7
43
1.19 30
1.88
46
1.36
47
1.79
29
1.6
6
53
1.8
1
50
1.56 42
1.83
60
1.73
57
1.86
34
1.5
7
39
1.7
3
36
1.64 52
2.01
56
1.69
55
1.95
37
21.What is the respective ration of total number of candidates clearing the entrance exam
from State B in the year 2004 to those clearing the entrance exam from State C in the same
year ?
A.221:148
B. 218:143
C. 148:221
D. 143:218
E.None of these
22.In which year did the highest number of candidates clear the entrance exam from State D ?
A.2008
B.2006
C.2009
D.2007
E.None of these
23.What is the number of candidates not clearing the entrance exam from State A in the year
2007 ?
A.186820
B.11682
C.1868200
D.116820
E.None of these
24.What is the total number of candidates clearing the entrance exam from State E and F
together in the year 2006 ?
A.16160
B.110660
C.1.1066
D.1106600
E.None of these
25.What is the average number of candidates appearing for the entrance exam from State D in
the year 2007, 2008 and 2009 together ?
A.1.907 2/3
B.18666 1/3
C.1.866 1/3
D.190666 2/3
E.None of these
Directions (26-30) : Study the given information carefully to answer the question that follow
:
26. An urn contains 6 red, 4 blue, 2 green and 3 yellow marbles. If four marbles are picked at
random, what is the probability that at least one is blue ?
A .4/15
B. 69/91
C. 11/15
D. 2/5
E.None of these
27.If two marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that both are read ?
A. 1/6
B.1/3
C.2/15
D.2/5
E.None of these
28.If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that two are blue and one is
yellow?
A.3/91
B.1/5
C.18/455
D.7/15
E.None of these
29.If four marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that one is green, two are
blue and one is red?
A.24/455
B.13/35
C.11/15
D.7/91
E.None of these
30.If two marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that either both are green or
both are yellow?
A.5/91
B.1/35
C.1/3
D.4/105
E.None of these
Directions (31-35): Study the information carefully and answer the questions that follow
A school consisting of a total of 1560 students has boys and girls in the ratio of 7:5
respectively. All the students are enrolled in different types of hobby classes viz: Singing,
Dancing and Painting. One-fifth of the boys are enrolled in only Dancing classes. Twenty
percent of the girls are enrolled in only Painting classes. Ten percent of the boys are enrolled
in only Singing classes. Twenty four percent of the girls are enrolled in both Singing and
Dancing classes together. The number of girls enrolled in only Singing classes is two hundred
percent of the boys enrolled in the same. One-thirteenth of the boys are enrolled in all the
three classes together. The respective ratio of boys enrolled in Dancing and Painting classes
together to the girls enrolled in the same is 2:1 respectively. Ten percent of the girls are
enrolled in only Dancing classes whereas eight percent of the girls are enrolled in both
Dancing and Painting classes together. The remaining girls are enrolled in all the three classes
together. The number of girls enrolled in the same. The remaining boys are enrolled in only
Painting classes.
31. What is the number of boys who are enrolled in Dancing ?

A.318
B.364
C.292
D.434
E.None of these
32.Total number of girls enrolled in Singing is approximately what percent of the total
number of students in the school ?
A.37
B.19
C.32
D.14
E.26
33.What is the total number of students enrolled in all the three classes together ?
A.135
B.164
C.187
D.142
E.None of these
34.What is the respective ratio of the number of girls enrolled in only Painting classes to the
number of boys enrolled in the same ?
A.77 : 26
B.21 : 73
C.26 : 77
D.73 : 21
E. None of these
Directions (35-39) : Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow ----Profit (In Rs.000) Made by Six Different Shopkeepers over the Months
Month
October
November December
January
Februar
y
March
2009
2009
2009
2010
5.25
6.04
5.84
6.10
5.95
6.02
4.84
4.28
4.97
4.88
.5.04
5.12
4.99
5.82
5.48
5.45
5.68
5.36
Shopkeeper
2010
2010
5.06
5.11
5.28
5.38
5.44
5.59
5.28
4.96
5.31
5.69
4.93
5.72
5.94
6.23
5.87
6.07
6.19
6.23
35.What is the respective ratio between the profit earned by shopkeeper U in the months
February- 2010 and March-2010 together to that earned the same months ?
A.637 : 512
B.621 : 508
C.512 : 637
D.508 : 621
E.None of these
36.What is the per cent increase in profit of shopkeeper S in the month of December -2009
over the previous month ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
A.3.15
B.2.67
C.2.18
D.3.33
E.None of these
37.Which shopkeepers profit kept increasing continuously over the given months ?
A. R
B. Q
C.T
D.U
E.None of these
38.What is the difference in profit earned by shopkeeper T in January-2010 from the previous
month?
A.Rs. 640/-
B.Rs. 420/C.Rs. 380/D.Rs. 760/E.None of these

39.What was the average profit earned by shopkeeper R in the months of October-2009 and
Novemberr-2009 together?
A.5405
B.5040
C.4825
C.4950
E.None of these
Directions (40-44) : Study the given table carefully to answer the questions that follow
---Number of people staying in Five Different Localities and the Percentage Breakup of
Men, Women and Children in them
Percentage
Locality
Total No. of
People
C
M
Men
W
Women
Child
ren
5640
55
35
10
4850
34
44
22
5200
48
39
13
6020
65
25
10
4900
42
41
17
40.Total number of people staying in locality J forms approximately what percent of the
total number of people staying in locality F ?
A. 81
B. 72
C. 78
D. 93
E. 87
41.What is the total number of children staying in localities H and I together ?

A.1287
B.1278
C.1827
D.1728
E.None of these
42. The number of women staying in which locality is highest ?

A.H
B.J
C.F
D.G
E.None of these
43.What is the total number of men and children staying in locality I together ?
A.4115
B.4551
C.4515
D.4155
44.What is the respective ratio of number of men staying in locality F to the number of men
staying in locality H ?
A. 517 : 416
B. 403 : 522
C .416 : 517
D. 522 : 403
E. None of these
45.The computed interest earned by Suresh on a certain amount at the end of two years at the
rate of 8 p.c.p.a was Rs. 1,414.4. What was the total amount that Suresh got back at the end
of two years in the form of principal plus interest earned ?
A.Rs. 9,414.4
B.Rs.9,914.4
C.Rs. 9,014.4
D.Rs. 8,914.4
E.None of these
46.The respective ratio of the present ages of a mother and daughter is 7:1. Four years ago the
respective ratio of their ages was 19:1. What will be the mothers age four years from now ?
A.42 years
B.38 years
C.46 years
D.36 years
E.None of these
47.Three friends J,K and L jog around a circular stadium and complete one round in 12, 18
and 200 seconds respectively. In how many minutes will all the three meet again at the
starting point ?
A.5
B.8
C.12
D.3
E.None of these
48.4 men can complete a piece of work in 2 days. 4 women can complete the same piece of
work in 4 days whereas 5 children can complete the same piece work in 4 days. If, 2 men, 4
women and 10 children work together, in how many days can the work be completed ?
A.1 day
B.3 days
C.2 days
D.4 days
E.None of these
49. The speed of a boat when travelling downstream is 32 kms./hr., whereas when travelling
upstream it is 28 kms/hr. What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
A.27 kms./hr.
B.29 kms./hr.
C.31 kms./hr.
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Directions (50-54) : Study the following tables carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Number & Percentage of Candidates Qualified in a Competitive Examination :
Number of Candidates appeared in a Competitive Examination from five centres over the
year
NUMBER
Cent
re
Mumbai
Delhi
Kolkata
Hyderabad
Chennai
2001
35145
65139
45192
51124
37346
2002
17264
582048
52314
50248
48932
2003
24800
63309
56469
52368
51406
2004
28316
70316
71253
54196
52315
2005
36503
69294
69632
58360
55492
2006
29129
59216
64178
48230
57365
2007
32438
61345
56304
49178
58492
Approximate Percentage of Candidates qualified to appear in the Competitive

Examination from five centres over the years
PERCENTAGE
Mumbai
Delhi
Kolkata
Hyderabad
Cennai
12
24
18
17
10
28
12
21
12
15
21
23
25
10
11
27
19
24
13
23
16
23
13
14
20
21
19
11
16
19
24
20
14
50.In which of the following years was the difference in number of candidates appeared from
Mumbai over the previous year the minimum ?
A. 2004
B. 2006
C. 2007
D. 2002
E. None of these
51. In which of the following years was the number of candidates qualified from Chennai, the
maximum among the given years ?
A. 2007
B. 2006
C. 2005
D. 2003
E. None of these
52.Approximately what was the total number of candidates qualified from Delhi in 2002 and
2006 together ?
A. 27250
B. 25230
C. 30150
D. 28150
E. 26250
53.Approximately how many candidates appearing from Kolkata in 2004 qualified in the
competitive examination ?
A. 13230
B. 13540
C. 15130
D. 15400
E. 19240
54.Approximately what was the difference between the number of candidates qualified from
Hyderabad in 2001 and 2002 ?
A. 1680
B. 2440
C. 1450
D. 2060
E. 1860
IBPS Bank PO CWE General Awareness Questions
GENERAL AWARENESS/ MARKETING/ COMPUTERS
55.What is the full form of NBFC as used in the Financial Sector ?

A. New Banking Finance Company
B. National Banking & Finance Corporation
C. New Business Finance & Credit
D. Non Business Fund Company
E. None of these
56.As per the news published in various financial newspapers, the RBI is reworking the
roadmap on Capital Account Convertibility. If this is done, who amongst the following would
be able to invest in foreign projects or acquire assets outside India without any restrictions ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Public Sector Banks

Companies which are registered in India
Govt. of India
Any Individual
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Only (1)
Only (2)
Only (3)
All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
None of these
57.Many a times, we read about Special Drawing Right (SDR) in newspapers. As per its
definition, SDR is a monetary unit of the reserve assets of which of the following
organizations/agencies ?
A.World Bank
B.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
C.Asian Development Bank
D.Reserve Bank of India
E.None of these
58.Which of the following is/are the highlights of the Union Budget 2010-11 ?
1.Number of new steps taken to simplify the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) regime.
2.Rs. 16,500 crore provided to ensure that the Public Sector Banks are able to attain a
minimum 8% capital (Tier I) by March2011. More than Rs.1,74,000 crore provided for the
development of the infrastructure in the company ?
A.Only 1
B.Only2
C.Only3
D.All 1, 2 & 3
E.None of these
59.As per the news published in major financial newspapers, the Union Govt. is planning to
divest 20% stake in the state owned Hindustan Copper Ltd. What does it really mean ?
A.The Govt. will bring 20% more capital into the company
B.The Govt. will sell 20% of its total share to the public
C.The Govt. is planning to purchase 20% shares in state owned company
D.20% of the total shares in Hindustan Copper Ltd. Will be sold to its employees
E.None of these
60.As per the newspaper reports, the Govt. of India made an auction of the Third Generation
Spectrum (3 G) recently. Which of the following ministries was actively involved in the
process?
A.Ministry of Heavy Industries
B.Ministry of Science & Technology
C.Ministry of Commerce
D.Ministry of Foreign Affairs

E.None of these
61.As per the recent announcement , the Govt. of India will provide an amount of Rs.
48,0000 crore to develop Rural Infrastructure in the country. This planned development is
being undertaken under which of the following schemes ?
A.Bharat Nirman
B.Indira Aawas Yojana
C.Backward Region Grant Fund
D.Drought Mitigation Fund
E.None of these
IBPS Bank PO Computer knowledge questions
62. As per the current practice, the maximum part of the Global Foreign Exchange Reserves
(more than 60%) and Foreign Exchange Transactions (more than 90%) take place in only one
currency all over the world. Which is that currency ?
A.Euro
B.Pound Sterling
C.US Dollar
D.Yen
E.None of these
63.The RBI Governor, in one of his speeches, made a mention of Inflation Index and said
the problem in India is that which inflation index to target as there are several such indices.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT in this regard ?
A.There is one WPI index and four CPI indices
B.There are four WPI indices and one CPI index
C.There are two WPI indices and two CPI indices
D.There is one WPI index and one CPI index
E.There are ten different types of WPI and CPI indices
64.Which of the following agencies/ organizations has recently decided that all the Stock
Exchanges should introduce physical settlement of equity derivatives ?
A.Reserve Bank of India
B.Bombay Stock Exchange
C.Registrar of Companies
D.Securities and Exchange Board of India

E.All of these
65.Recently, India took part Nuclear New Build 2010 Conference organized in
A.New Delhi
B.London
C.Pairs
D.Hong Kong
E.None of these
66.Which of the following schemes announced in the Union Budget 2012-11 will have a
direct impact on the pricing pattern of fertilizers ?
A.Minimum support price for food grains
B.Instant credit for purchase of fertilizers and seeds
C.Nutrient based subsidy for fertilizers
D.Special incentives to small and marginal farmers
E.None of these
67.As we know, with the launch of Nano by Tatas, India has become favourite Small Car
Destination of the World. Other than India, which of the following countries is also a popular
destination of small cars ?
A.Britain
B.France
C.Germany
D.Thailand
E.None of these
68.Many economists and financial analysts are of the opinion that India could withstand the
recent global economic crisis comfortably because of a good fiscal consolidation and Govt.s
adherence to the targets fixed by the
A.Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
B.Banking Regulation Act
C.Finance Bill Act
D.Foreign Exchange Management Act
E.All of these
69.As per the decision taken by the competent authorities, the Qualified Institutional Buyers
(QIBs) are required to pay 100% application money to make them eligible to bid for public
issues. How much amount were the QIBs paying as application or margin money prior to this
decision ?
A.5%
B.1 %
C.10%
D.50%
E.None of these
70.The Finance Minister of India, in one of his speeches said that the current high inflation
is not because of monetary expansion but due to supply side bottlenecks in certain essential
commodities. This means that the Finance Minister is of the view that
1.the liquidity position in market is quite comfortable these days
2.Inflation being experienced these days is not cost push inflation
3.Markets are flooded with luxury goods but essential commodities are definitely in short
supply.
A.Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
C. Only 1 & 2 are true
D. All are true
E. None of these
71.North Korea and USA decided to resume their peace talk after a gap of several months.
Both the countries have a dispute over which of the following issues ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Bailout package offered by USA

Membership of ASEAN to North Korea
Nuclear programme of North Korea
Soaring relations of China with North Korea
None of these
72.Who amongst the following was the Chairperson of the 13th Finance Commission which
submitted its report to the President of India recently ?
A. Mr. M.V. Kamath
B. Dr. C. Rangarajan
C. Dr. D. Subbbarao
D. Dr. Rakesh Mohan
E. Dr. Vijay Kelkar
73. As per the news published in various newspapers, the RBI is considering the grand of
licence to some new companies, particularly NBFCs to act as full-fledged banks. Which of
the following will be considered NBFC ?
A.NABARD
B.Life Insurance Corporation of India
C.Reliance Capital
D.SEBI
E.None of these
74.As per the newspaper reports, China is likely to drop its special Yuan policy soon. What
is this special Yuan policy being followed by China at present ?
1.China had initiated the policy of Yuans exchange rate with dollar to Yuan since 2008 at a
specified rate decided by it and not by the market forces.
2.China has initiated a policy which says that all payments in China should be done in Yuan
only. No other currency is acceptable.
3.China has a policy of accepting all payments for its exports in dollar while all imports are
paid in Yuan only. US and some other nations do not agree with this.
A.Only 1
B.Only 2
C.Only 3
D.Only 1 & 2
E.None of these
Latest Current Affairs 2012
1. The Worlds Youngest MCP and CCNA, who has exceptionally highest IQ in the world ?
Vishalini 11 year old Indian girl Vishalini, Born in Thirunelveli, a small city of Tamil Nadu.
2. Name the Pakistani cricketer who was released from jail because of good behaviour after serving
half of his 6 month sentence.

Mohammad Aamer
3. Which authors autobiography release was cancelled at the Kolkata Book Fair?
Taslima Nasreen
4. Name the luxury watch collection launched by Seiko Watch India at a price range of Rs.1-5 lakh per
piece.
Ananta
5. What value of overseas inflow was injected into Indian markets in January 2012?
Rs.26,000 crore (US$5.08 billion)
6. Which guidelines have SEBI notified allowing companies to reduce promoter shareholding through
private placement?
Institutional Placement Programme (IPP)
7. Which company will acquire full control of UTV Software and Communications Ltd.?
US-based Walt Disney
8. What is the value of IPO filed by Facebook?

$5 billion
9. Expand SAR.Specific Absorption Rate
10. Who was awarded Pride of India award by the Indian American community in Washington?
Mallikarjun Kharge
11. Name the book launched by Sonu Nigam authored by Priya Kumar.
The Perfect World
12. Which Italian luxury brand is looking to bring its high-end homeware and furnishings retail stores to
India?
Giorgio Armani
13. Which country announced 3-day national mourning following violence at a football stadium in Port
Said?
Egypt
14. Who is Worlds shortest man ?

72-year-old Chandra Bahadur Dangi of Nepal
15. Which bollywood actor was honoured with a Green Globe award for outstanding effort to fight
climate change?
Abhishek Bachchan
16. Name the singer who has been appointed as anti-tobacco campaign ambassador.
Playback Singer Shann
17. Name the car model unveiled by Sahara Force India.VJM05
18. What award was conferred to Amul company in the manufacturing category recently?
Green Globe Foundation award
19. Who have been selected for the Bharat Vikas Rathna award by the All India Business Development
Association, New Delhi?
C Basavegowda, President, Mysore and Chamarajanagar District Cooperative Central Bank Ltd.
20. Who will be the only Indian driver in the Formula One for 2012 season after signing to continue with
Hispania Racing (HRT)?Narain Karthikeyan
21. Name the British energy minister who resigned recently.Chris Huhne
22. Name the car launched by Ferrari for 2012 F1 season?

F2012
23. Name the CEO of Micron Technology who died in a plane crash and who has been appointed as
CEO?
Steve Appleton and Mark Durcan
24. In which country have UN declared end of famine?

Somalia
25. Which social networking site turned 8 recently?

Facebook
26. Who has been appointed as Executive Director of Corporation Bank?

Amar Lal
27. Who won the World Squash Federation under-21 world cup?
Egypt against India 2-1
28. Which 3-day youth festival is back after a gap of 7 years in Jaipur?
Ghoomar
29. Who won the Champions Trophy womens hockey tournament for the 5th time?
Argentina
30.Name the Romanian Prime Minister who quit recently.

Emil Boc
31. Name the Managing Director and CEO of Dhanlaxmi Bank who quit recently.
Amitabh Chaturvedi
32. Name the Mumbai-based historian who passed away recently.

Sharada Dwivedi
31. Name the science communicator who passed away recently.

R.D.Sharma
32. In which currency is India set to pay for 45% of Iran oil imports?
Rupee
33. Name the Maldives President who was appointed after Mohamed Nasheed quit.
Mohammad Waheed Hassan
34. Who has been appointed as Chief executive operations for Chinas Walmart?
Greg Foran
35. Name the novelist whose 200th birthday ceremony was observed led by Prince Charles.
Chalres Dickens
36. Which company renewed sponsorship deal with Indian hockey team?
Sahara
37. Which singer is launching her own social networking website exclusively for her fans?
Lady Gaga
38. Name the book featuring the problems of NRIs living in Gulf countries released by Mohammed Ali
Shabbir and written byMohammed Saifuddin.
Expat Ride
39. India-born biologist who bags worlds 1st major international award?
Kamal Bawa
40. Which country released worlds highest resolution lunar images taken by its 2nd moon orbiter,
Change-2?
China
41. What percentage of the worlds mangrove vegetation doesI ndia account for?
3%
42. Which place in Tamil Nadu is all set to get 4th Science Park?
Coimbatore
43. Name the Indian American orthodontist who was honoured with Hind Rattan Award.
Dr.Gagan Balla
44. What sum of amount is National Housing Bank set to receive from World Bank which would help in
its refinancing programme?
$300 million(Rs.1,500 crore)
45. Name the newly elected President of Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry
(FICCI)?
R.V.Kanoria
46. Which cricket batting legend is been inducted into ICC Hall of Fame?
Sunil Gavaskar
47. Name the commission setup in accordance with Section 74 of the Meghalaya Police Act.
Police Accountability Commission
48. What sum of amount has Bank of England set to pump into economy?
50 billion pounds
49. Name the electronics retailer bought by Flipkart for $25 million.
Letsbuy
50. When is Windows 8 set to be released by Microsoft?

February 29th 2012
51. Veteran Bollywood writer-filmmaker who died recently ?

O.P. Dutta
52. Which company will stop making digital cameras, pocket video cameras and digital picture frames?
Eastman Kodak Co. (Kodak)
53. Name the Germans 1997 Tour de France winner who received 2- year ban for a blood doping
offence.
Jan Ullrich
54. Who was honoured with Lata Mangehkar award by the Madhya Pradesh government recently?
Rajesh Roshan
55. Name the site launched by an Italian computer science professor who hopes it will be a challenge
to the US technology giant Google.
Volunia
56. Which bank is set to launch Indias first Infrastructure Debt Fund (IDF)?
IDBI bank
57. Where is the wax sculpture of Novak Djokovic revealed?

Central Serbian town of Jagodina
58. Who has been appointed as non-executive chairman for India operations by Vodafone?
Analjit Singh
59. Name the bollywood writer-filmmaker who passed away recently.

O.P.Dutta
60. Why zebras have black and white stripes (recently solved mystery)?
To keep blood-sucking files away
61. Which economist is named for US Humanities medal?

Amartya Sen
62. Who is the first Indian defence minister to visit Saudi Arabia?
A.K.Antony
63. Name the former secretary-general of Basketball Federation of India who passed away recently.
Harish Sharma
64. Name the US-based pop music queen who died recently.
Whitney Houston
65. Who won the womens doubles event at the Pattaya Open 2012?
Sania Mirza and Anastasia Rodionova
66. Who has been elected as Deputy Chief of Indian Army?

Lt.Gen.Ramesh Halgali
67. Who was honoured with a posthumous Grammy award for his contributions to the music industry in
area other than performance?
Steve Jobs
68. What percentage is the planned road tax for vehicles across India?
6%
69. Who has been appointed as the Managing Director for India and SAARC operations by McAfee?
Jagdish Mahapatra
70. Who will replace Eric Simons as Indian cricket bowling coach?
Australian, Joe Dawes
71. Who took over as president of Institute of Chartered Accountants of India for the year 2012-13?
Jaydeep Shah
72. Name the renowned Urdu poet who passed away after battling lung cancer recently.
Akhlaq Mohammad Khan
73. Name the Karnataka Higher Education Minister who passed awayin Bangalore recently.
V.S.Acharya
74. Who was honoured with Serbias highest honour, the Karadjordje Star medal?
Novak Djokovic
75. At what value has Bank of Japan set to expand its asset purchase programme?
10tn yen($130 billion)
76. Where in India 9-day 20th World Book Fair is held?

New Delhi Read More
77. Where does Indias forex reserves stand for the week ended 17th February 2012?
$293.44 billion
78. Name the cricketer who was honoured with lifetime membership of the Sydney Cricket Ground.
Sachin Tendulkar
79. Which country has been ranked as the worlds richest country in the list compiled by US magazine
Forbes?
Qatar
80. Which country did India beat to qualify for London Olympics mens hockey 2012?
France
81. Which west Asian country approved for new constitution recently?
Syria
82. Which model of Nokia phone has been built with 41-megapixel sensor camera?
Nokia 808 Pureview camera phone
83. Name the chief appointed for Pakistan Air Force. Air Marshal Tahir Rafiq Butt
84. Which company signed a long-term agreement to supply 250 MW power to Bangladesh Power
Development Board?
NTPC
85. What value of second bailout pacakge did German parliament pass for Greece to help the country
avoid a default?
130 billion euros ($174.4 billion)
86. Name the digital music store launched by flipkart.com.

Flyte
87. Where in India was the inaugural World Series Hockey tournament held?
Chandigarh
88. Which company bagged Airtels network deal for Maharashtra?

Nokia Siemens
89. Who has been appointed as chairman of MindTree?

Subroto Bagchi
90. Name the online property search portal launched by HDFC in Kolkata
HDFC Red
91. Who resigned as PepsiCo India Foods CEO?

Varun Berry
92. Name the application launched by Vigyan Prasar and IGNOU as a free SMS service for mobile
users that delivers content on science and related areas.
Science@Mobile
IBPS Bank PO CWE GENERAL AWARENESS/MARKETING/COMPUTER

101. What is the full form of NBFC as used in the Financial Sector?
A. New Banking Finance Company B. National Banking & Finance Corporation
C. New Business Finance & Credit D. Non Business Fund Company E. None of these
102. As per the news published in various financial newspapers, the RBI is reworking the
road map on Capital Account Convertibility. If this is done, who amongst the following
would be able to invest in foreign projects or acquire assets outside India without any
restrictions ?
(1) Public Sector Banks (2) Companies which are registered in India
(3) Govt. of India (4) Any Individual
A. Only (1)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
E. None of these
103. Many a times, we read about Special Drawing Right (SDR) in newspapers. As per its
definition, SDR is a monetary unit of the reserve assets of which of the following
organizations/agencies ?
A. World Bank
B. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
C. Asian Development Bank
D. Reserve Bank of India
E. None of these
104. Which of the following is/are the highlights of the Union Budget 2010-11 ?
1. Number of new steps taken to simplify the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) regime.
2. Rs.16,500 crore provided to ensure that the public Sector Banks are able to attain a
minimum 8% capital (Tier-I) by March 2011.
3. More than Rs.1,74,000 crore provided for the development of the infrastructure in the
country.
A. Only (1)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. All (1), (2) & (3)
E. None of these
105. As per the news published in major financial newspapers, the Union Govt. is planning
to divest 20 % stake in the state owned Hindustan Copper Ltd. What does it really mean ?
A. The Govt. will bring 20% more capital into the company.
B. The Govt. will sell 20 % of its total share to the public.
C. The Govt. is planning to purchase 20 % shares in state owned company.
D. 20 % of the total shares in Hindustan Copper Ltd. Will be sold to its employees
E. None of these
106. As per the newspaper reports, the Govt. of India made an auction of the Third
Generation Spectrum (3G) recently. Which of the following ministries was actively involved
in the process ?
A. Ministry of Heavy Industries
B. Ministry of Science & Technology
C. Ministry of Commerce
D. Ministry of Foreign Affairs
E. None of these
107. As per the recent announcement, the Govt. of India will provide an amount of
Rs.48,000c crore to develop Rural Infrastructure in the country. This planned development is
being undertaken under which of the following schemes ?
A. Bharat Nirman
B. Indira Aawas Yojana
C. Backward Region Grant Fund
D. Drought Mitigation Fund
E. None of these
108. As per the current practice, the maximum part of the Global Foreign Exchange Reserves
(more than 60 % ) and Foreign Exchange Transaction (more than 90 %) take place in only
one currency all over the world. Which is that currency ?
A. Euro B. Pound Sterling C. US Dollar D. Yen E. None of these
109. The RBI Governor, in one of his speeches made a mention of Inflation Index and said
the problem in India is that which inflation index to target as there are several such indices.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT in this regard ?
A. There is one WPI index and four CPI indices
B. There are four WPI indices and one CPI index
C. There are two WPI indices and two CPI indices
D. There is one WPI index and one CPI index.

E. There are ten different types of WPI and CPI indices
110. Which of the following agencies/organizations has recently decided that all the Stock
Exchanges should introduce physical settlement of equity derivatives ?
A. Reserve Bank of India
B. Bombay Stock Exchange
C. Registrar of Companies
D. Securities and Exchange Board of India
E. All of these
111. Recently, India took part Nuclear New Build 2010 Conference organized in
A. New Delhi B. London C.Paris D.Hong Kong E. None of these
112. Which of the following schemes announced in the Union Budget 2010-11 will have a
direct impact on the pricing pattern of fertilizers?
A. Minimum support price for foodgrains
B. Instant credit for purchase of fertilizers and seeds
C. Nutrient based subsidy for fertilizers
D. Special incentives to small and marginal farmers
E. None of these
113. As we know, with the launch of Nano by Tatas, India has become favourite Small Car
Destination of the world. Other than India, which of the following countries is also a popular
destination of small cars?
A. Britain
B. France
C. Germany
D. Tailand
E. None of these
114. Many economist and financial analysts are of the opinion that India could withstand the
recent global economic crisis comfortably because of a good fiscal consolidation and Govt. s
adherence to the targets fixed by the
A. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
B. Banking Regulation Act
C. Finance Bill Act
D. Foreign Exchange Management Act
E. All of these
115. As per the decision taken by the competent authorities, the Qualified Institutional
Buyers (QIBs) are required to pay 100 % application money to make them eligible to bid for
public issues. How much amount were the QIBs paying as application or margin money prior
to this decision ?
A. 5% B. 1% C. 10 % D. 50 % E. None of these
116. The Finance Minister of India, in one of his speeches said that the current high
inflation is not because of monetary expansion but due to supply side bottleneck in certain
essential commodities. This means that the Finance Minister is of the view that
1. the liquidity position in market is quite comfortable these days.
2. inflation being experienced these days is not cost push inflation.
3. markets are flooded with luxury goods but essential commodities are definitely in short
supply.
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
C. Only 1 & 2 are true
D. All are true
E. None of these
117. North Korea and USA decided to resume their peace talks after a gap of several months.
Both the countries have a dispute over which of the following issues ?
A. Bailout package offered by USA
B. Membership of ASEAN to North Korea
C. Nuclear Programme of North Korea
D. Soaring relations of China with North Korea
E. None of these
118. Who amongst the following was the Chairperson of the 13th Finance Commission
which submitted its report to the president of India recently?
A. Mr. M. V. Kamath
B. Dr. C Rangarajan
C. Dr. D. Dubbarao
D. Dr. Rakesh Mohan
E. Dr. Vijay Kelkar
119. As per the news published in various newspapers, the RBI is considering the grant of
licence to some new companies, particularly NBFCs to act as full-fledged banks. Which of
the following will be considered NBFC ?
A. NABARD
B. Life Insurance Corporation of India
C. Reliance Capital
D. SEBI
E. None of these
120. As per the newspaper reports, China is likely to drop its special Yuan policy being
followed by Chine at present ?
1. China had initiated the policy of Yuans exchange rate with dollar to Yuan since 2008 at
specified rate decided by it and not by the market forces.
2. China has initiated a policy which says that all payment in China should be done in Yuan
only. No other currency is acceptable.
3. China has a policy of accepting all payments for its exports in dollar while all imports are
paid in Yuan only. US and some other nations do not agree with this.
A. only 1 B. Only 2 C. Only 3 D. Only 1 & 2 E. None of these
121. What is an intranet ?

A. Internal internet used to transfer information internally
B. Internal internet used to transfer information to the outside company
C. Internal network designed to serve the internal informational needs of a single
organization.
D. Internal network designed to transfer the information between two organzations

E. None of these
122. Which of the following groups of cricket teams was declared joint winner of the Col. C.
K. Naidu Trophy for 2009?
A. Tamil Nadu & Gujarat
B. Maharashtra & Kerala
C. Punjab & Delhi
D. West Bengal & Maharashtra
E. None of these
123. Kaiane Aldorino who was crowned miss world 2009 is from which of the following
countries ?
A. Germany B. Spain C. Austria D. Belgium E. Gibraltar
124. Which of the following teams won the Davis Cup Tennis Finals 2009 ?
A. Germany B. Spain C. Russia D. France E. None of these
125. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the CNN-IBN Indian of the year Award
for 2009?
A. Ratan Tata B. A.R. Rahman C. Manmohan Singh D. Sachin Tendulkar E. None of these
126. The deficit reduction plan of which of the following countries was reviewed recently in
the meeting of the Finance Ministers of the European Union ?
A. Germany B. Romania C. Brazil D. Hungary E. Greece
IBPS Bank PO CWE Computer Awareness Questions
127. The database administrators function in an organization is
A. to be responsible for the more technical aspects of managing the information contained in
organizational databases.
B. To be responsible for the executive level aspects of decisions regarding the information
management.
C. To show the relationship among entity clases in a data warehouse.
D. To define which data mining tools must be used to extract data.
E. None of these.
128. Every devise on the Internet has a unique--------address (also called an Internet
address) that identifies it in the same way that a street address identifies the location of a
house.
A. DH B. DA C. IP D. IA E. None of these
129. To send another station a message, the main thing a user has to know is _____
A. how the network works
B. the other stations address
C. Whether the network is packet-switched or circuit switched
D. Whether this is a voice or data network
E. None of these
130. In a client/server model , a client program

A. asks for information
B. provides information and files
C. serves software files to other computers
D. distributes data files to other computers
E. None of these
131. Control in design of an information system is used to

A. inspect the system and check that it is built as per specifications
B. ensure that the system processes data as it wa designed to and that the results are reliable.
C. ensure privacy of data processed by it
D. protect data from accidental or intentional loss
E. None of these
132. Each of the following is a true statement except.

A.on-line systems continually update the master file.
B. in on-line processing, the user enters transactions into a device that is directly connected to
the computer system
C. batch processing is still used today in older systems or in some systems with massive
volumes of transactions
D. information in batch systems will always be up-to-date
E. None of these
133. A set of interrelated components that collect, process, store and distribute information to
support decision making and control in an organization best defines
A. Communications technology
B. a network
C. an information system
D. hardware
E. None of these
134. A ____________is a computer connected to two networks .

A. link B. Server C. gateway D. bridge way E. None of these.
135. When you save a presentation

A. all slides in a presentation are saved in the same file.
B. two files are created ; one for graphics and one for content
C. a file is created for each slide
D. a file is created for each animation or graphic
E. None of these
136. In a customer database, a customers surname would be keyed into a

A. row B. text field C. record D. computed field E. None of these
137. Find the correct statement

A. Marketing is redundant in monopolistic companies
B. Performance of sales person depends on the amount of incentives paid
C. marketing is influenced by peer performance
D. An increase in market share indicates fall in business volume
E. A Mission statement is part of the Companys Propectus.
138. Storing same data in many places is called

A. iteration B. Concurrency C. redundancy D. enumeration E. None of these
139. Which of the following is the first step in the transaction processing cycle, which
captures business data through various modes such as optical scanning or an electronic
commerce website ?
A. Document and report generation

B. Database maintenance
C. Transaction processing
D. Data Entry
E. None of these
140. CRM (Customer Relationship Management ) is

A. A Pre-sales activity B. A tool for lead generation C. An ongoing daily activity D. The task
of a DSA E. All of the above
141. Bank assurance can be sold to

A. All banks
B. All insurance companies
C. Insurance Agents
D. All existing and prospective bank customers
E. All of these
142. Cross-selling is not effective for which one of the following products ?
A. Debit cards
B. Savings accounts
C. Internet banking
D. Pension loans
E. Personal loans
143. One of the following is not involved in the Growth Strategies of a Company
A. Horizontal integration
B. Vertical integration
C. Diversification
D. Intensification
E. None of these
144. A successful Blue Ocean Strategy requires

A. Effective communication
B. Innovative skills
C. Motivation
D. All of the above
E. None of these
145. Cross-selling is the basic function of

A. All employers
B. All employees
C. All sales persons
D. Planning Department
E. All of the above
146. Data mining means analyzing the data stored with

A. The DSA
B. The front-office staff
C. The back-office staff
D. The customers
E. None of these
147. SME means

A. Selling and Marketing Establishment
B. Selling and Managing Employee
C. Sales and Marketing Entity
D. Small and Medium Enterprises
E. None of these
148. One of the following is not included in the 7 Ps of marketing. Find the same.
A. product B. Price C. Production D. Promotion E. None of these
149. The target group for SME loans is
A. All Businessmen
B. All Professionals
C. All SSIs
D. All of the above
E. None of these
150. Home Loans can be best canvassed among

A. Builders
B. Flat owners
C. Land developers
D. Agriculturists
E. Individuals wanting to buy a flat or house.
IBPS Bank PO CWE QUANTITATIVE APTITUTE Questions
Directions (Qs. 1-20 ) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the
following questions ?
1. (-251 X 21 X -21) ? = 158.13
A. 250 B. 400 C.300 D.150
2. 25.6 % of 250 + ? = 119
A. 4225 B. 3025 C.2025 D. 5625 E. None of these
3. 36865 + 12473 + 21045 - 44102 = ?

A. 114485 B. 28081 C. 26281 D.114845 E. None of these
4. (15.20)2 - 103.04 ) ? = 8
A. 12 B. 6.5 C.8.2 D.16 E. None of these
5. 0.4 X 1.5 / ? 0.2

A. 2 B. 3 C. 1.2 D. 0.3 E. None of these
6. 7428 X 3/4 X 2/9 X ? = 619

A. 0.5 B. 1.5 C. 0.2 D. 2.4 E. None of these
7. (560 ) 32 ) X (720 48) = ?

A. 262.5 B. 255 C. 263.5 D. 271.25 E.None of these
8. 748 X ? X 9 = 861696
A. 122 B. 132 C. 128 D. 124 E. None of these
9. 3.2 % of 500 X 2.4 % of ? = 288

10. 333 X 33 X 3 = ?
11. (36) 2 + (47) 2 ? = 28.04

12. 3? = (28 X 24 ) 14
13. 14785 358 4158 9514 = ?

A.755 B. 825 C.721 D. 785 E. None of these
14. 156 + 328 X 0.8 = ?

15. 1148 28 X 1408 32 = ?

16. 3148877 = ?
17. 1425 + 8560 + 1680 200 = ?

18. [(12) 2 X (14) 2 } (16) = ?

A. A.282.24 B.1764 C.126 D. 104.25 E. None of these
19. 2 & 4/25 + 3 & 1/5 = ?
A. 1 &7/15 B. 6 & 4/15 C. 5 & 4/15 D. 5 & 9/25 E. None of these
20. ? X 3025 = 2695

Directions (21-25) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
number series ?
21. 7413 7422 7440 ? 7503 7548
22. 4 16 36 64 100 ?
23. 12 33 96 ? 852 2553

A.285 B. 288 C.250 D.540 E. None of these
24. 70000 14000 28000 ? 112 22.4

25. 102 99 104 97 106 ?

26. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator of the fraction
is increased by 120% , the resultant fraction is 4/11. What is the original fraction ?
A. 4/15 B. 3/11 C.5/12 D. 6/11 E. None of these
27. Mr. Rao invests a sum of Rs.41.250 at the rate of 6+ p.c.p.a. What approximate amount of
compound interest will he obatain at the end of 3 years ?
A. Rs.8,100 B. Rs. 7,425 C. Rs. 8,210 D. Rs.7,879 E. Rs. 7,295
28. The profit after selling a pair of trousers for Rs.863 is the same as the loss incurred after
selling the same pair of trousers for Rs.631. What is the cost price of the pair of trousers ?
A. Rs. 750 B. Rs.800 C. Rs. 763
D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
29. The ration of the length and the breadth of a rectangular plot is 6:5 respectively ; if the
breadth of the plot is 34 metres less than the length, what is the perimeter of the rectangular
plot ?
A. 374 metres B. 408 metres C. 814 metres D.748 metres E. None of these
30. Ninad, Vikas and Manav enter into a partnership. Ninad invests some amount at the
beginning. Vikas invests double the amount after 6 months and Manav invests thrice the
amount invested by Ninad after 8 months. They earn a Profit of Rs.45,000 at the end of the
year. What is Manavs share in the profit ?
A. Rs.25,000 B. Rs.15,000 C. Rs.12,000 D. Rs.9,000 E. None of these
31. The cost of 7 tables and 12 chairs is Rs. 48,250. What is the cost of 21 tables and 36
chairs?
A. Rs. 96,500 B. Rs.1,25,500 C. Rs. 1,44,750 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
32. A can complete a piece of work in 12 days. A and B together can complete the same
piece of work in 8 days. In how many days can B alone complete the same piece of work ?
A. 15 days B. 18 days C. 24 days D. 28 days E. None of these
33. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
question ?
6523 544 X 1.2 = ?
A. 21 B. 33 C.14 D. 8 E.28
34. Raman drove from home to a neighbouring town the speed of 50 kms/hr and on his
returning journey, he drove at the speed of 45 kms/hr. and also took an hour longer to reach
home. What distance did he cover each way ?
A. 450 kms. B. 225 kms. C. 900kms. D. 500kms. E. None of these
35. 3/4th of 2/9th of 1/5th of a number is 249.6 What is 50 % of that number ?

36. The average weight of a group of 75 girls was calculated as 47 kgs. It was later
discovered hat the weight of one of the girls was read as 45 kgs., Whereas her actual weight
was 25 klgs. What is the actual average weight of the group of 75 girls ? (Rounded off to two
digits after decimal)
A. 46.73 kgs. B. 46.6 kgs. C. 45.96 kgs. D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
37. In how many different ways can the letters of the word MIRACLEbe arranged?
38. The sum of the two digits of two digit number is 12 and the difference between the two
digits of the two digit number I s6. What is the two-digit number ?
A. 39 B. 84 C.93 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
39. If an amount of Rs.74, 336 is equally divided amongst 150 people, how much
approximate amount would each person get ?
A. Rs. 522 B. Rs.485 C. Rs.496 D. Rs.488 E. Rs.510
40. What is 170 % of 1140 ?

41. Mr. Sarang invests 6 % of his monthly salary i.e. Rs. 2,100 on insurance policies . Also he
invests 8% of his monthly salary on family medi claim policies and another 9 % of his salary
on NSCs. What is the total annual amount invested by Mr. Sarang ?

A. Rs.11,400 B. Rs. 96,600 C. Rs.8,050 D. Rs.9,500 E. None of these
42. A trader sells 145 metres of cloth for Rs.12,325 at the profit of Rs.10 per metre of cloth.
What is the cost price of one metre of cloth ?
Rs., Rs.65 B. Rs.75 C. Rs.95 D. Rs.85 E. None of these
43. There are 7 dozaen candles kept in a box. If there are 14 such boxes, how many candles
are there in all the boxes together ?
A. 1176 B. 98q C.1216 D. 168 E. None of these
44. Which of the following smallest number should be added to 6659 to make it a perfect
square ?
A. 230 B. 65 C.98 D.56 E. None of these
45. What is the greater of two number whose product is 1092 and the sum of the two numbers
exceeds their difference by 42 ?
46. Veena obtained an amount of Rs.8,376 as simple interest on a certain amount at 8 p.c.p.a
after 6 years. What is the a mount invested by Veena ?
A. Rs. 17,180 B. Rs.18,110 C. Rs.16,660 D. Rs.17,450 E. None of these
47. Two numbers are such that the sum of twice the first number and thrice the second
number is 36 and the sum of thrice the first number and twice the second number is 39.
Which is the smaller number ?
A.9 B. 5 C. 7 D.3 E. None of these
48. The difference between the present ages of Arun and Deepak is 14 years . Seven years
ago the ratio of their ages was 5 : 7 respectively. What is Deepaks present age ?
A. 49 years B. 42 Years C. 63 years D. 35 years E. None of these
49. A, b,c,d and e are 5 consecutive even numbers. If the sum of a and d is 162, what is
the sum of all the numbers ?
A. 400 B. 380 C. 420 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
50. What is 348 times of 265 ?

IBPS Bank PO CWE Reasoning,General awareness,Aptitude,computer knowledge questions
IBPS Bank PO CWE General awareness

1. Which one of the following Public Sector Organizations has offered largest ever equity
offer ?
1.SAIL
2.Coal India
3.Power Grid
4.Shipping Corporation of India
5.None of these
2. Through which one of the following sources domestic funds are raised by Companies ?
(a) IPO only
(b) FPO only
(c) Commercial papers
1.Only (a) and (b)
2.All (a), (b) and (c)
3.Only (a),and (c) Only (a)
5.Only (c)
3. Which one of the following was the reason owing to which Govt. want Reserve Bank of
India to tighten prudential norms for NBFCs?
1.To reduce liquidity in the market
2.It is as per Basel II requirements
3.It is as per Bank for International Settlement (BIS) directives
4.It is to protect NBFCs from any impact of possible economic slowdown
5.None of these
4. In the financial year 2009-10, which one of the following Banks has made highest Total
dividend Payout?
1.SBI 2.PNB 3.Bank of India 4.Canara Bank 5.None of these
5. In respect of which one of the following countries, India has proposed non payments for
import of crude oil ?
1.Iran 2.Iraq 3.Kuwait 4.Sudan 5.U.A.E.
IBPS Bank PO Numerical Ability Questions
1. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest
among them?
1.25 2.26 3.27 4 30 5.26
Answer: (3)
2. The numerator of a non-zero rational number is five less than the denominator. If the
denominator is increased by eight and the numerator is doubled, then again we get the same
rational number. The required rational number is:
1.1/8 2.4/9 3.2/8 4.3/8 5.3/8 Answer: (5)
3. Find the greatest number that will divide 640, 710 and 1526 so as to leave 11, 7, 9 as
remainders respectively.
1.36 2.37 3.42 4.29 5.47 Answer: (2)
4. Jayesh is as much younger than Anil as he is older than Prashant. If the sum of the ages of
Anil and Prashant is 48 years, what is Jayeshs age in years?
1.29 2.30 3.24 4.25 5.28 Answer: (3)
5. A bag contains one rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 5. Their total value
is Rs. 114. The value of 50 paisa coins is:
1.Rs. 28 2.Rs. 36 3.Rs. 49 4.Rs. 72 5.Rs. 50 Answer: (1)
6. A tempo is insured to the extent of 4 5 of its original value. If the premium on it at the rate
of 1.3 percent amounts to Rs. 910, the original value of the tempo is:1.Rs. 78,000 2.Rs.
78,500 3.Rs. 80,000 4.Rs. 85,000 5.Rs. 87,500 Answer: (5)
7. By selling 45 lemons for Rs. 40, a man loses 20%. How many should he sell for Rs. 24 to
gain 20% in the transaction?
1.19 2.18 3.24 4.22 5.23 Answer: (2)
8. In a ratio, which is equal to 3 : 4, if the antecedent is 12, then the consequent is: 1.10 2.16
3.20 4.22 5.18 Answer: (2)
9. A, B and C are employed to do a piece of work for Rs. 529. A and B together are supposed
to do 19/23 of the work and B and C together 8/23 of the work. What amount should A be
paid?
1.Rs. 320 2.Rs. 345 3.Rs. 355 4. Rs. 380 5.None of these Answer: (2)
10. A boy rides his bicycle 10 km at an average speed of 12 km/hr and again travels 12 km at
an average speed of 10 km/hr. His average speed for the entire trip is approximately:
1.10.4 km/hr 2.10.8 km/hr 3.12 km/hr 4.14 km/hr 5.13 km/hr Answer: (2)
11. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the probability
of both the cards being kings?
12. An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest, but he includes
the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of
10%, the effective rate of interest becomes:
1.13% 2.10.25% 3.15% 4.11% 5.None of these Answer: (2)
13. A towel, when bleached, was found to have lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth.
The percentage of decrease in area is:
1.11% 2.12% 3.20% 4.28% .33% Answer: (4)
14. What is the difference in exports between the periods March to May and June to August
(in $ million)?
1.418 2.592 3.5790 4.585 5.None of these Answer: (4)
15. If the exports of company B in the year 2003 were Rs. 77 crore, then, what were the
imports of the company in that year?
.86 crore 2.107.5 crore 3.103.95 crore 4.101 crore 5.None of these Answer: (3)
IBPS Mental Ability Verbal Questions

1. If Step IV reads to restrict the use of air conditioners, which of the following will
(1)use to of the air conditioners restrict
(2)restrict the to of air conditioners use
(3)the air conditioners of restrict use to
(4) Cant be determined
(5) None of these
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A famous museum issues entry passes to all its visitors for security easons. Visitors are
allowed in batches after every one hour. In a day there are six batches. A code is printed on
entry pass which keeps on changing for every atch. Following is an illustration of passcodes issued for each batch.
Batch I: clothes neat and clean liked are all by
Batch II: by clothes neat all are and clean liked
Batch III: liked by clothes clean and neat all are and so on
2. If pass-code for the third batch is night succeed day and hard work-to for, what will be
the pass-code for the sixth batch?
(1)work hard to for succeed night and day
(2)hard work for and succeed night to day
(3)work hard for to succeed night and day
(4)hard work for to succeed night and day
(5) None of these
3. If visit in zoo should the time day is the pass-code for the fifth batch, zoo we the should
visit day time in will be the pass-code for which of following batches?
(1)II (2)IV (3)I (4)III (5)VI
4. Sanjay visited the museum in the fourth batch and was issued a pass-code to fast rush
avoid not do very run. What would have been the pass-code for him had visited the
museum in the second bitch?
(1)rush do not avoid to run very fast
(2)rush not do-avoid to run very
(3)avoid rush not do to run very fast
(4) Date inadequate
(5) None of these
5. Subodh went to visit the museum in the second batch. He was issued a pass-code length
the day equal of an night are. However, he could not visit the museum the second batch as
he was a little late. He then preferred to visit in the fifth batch. What will be the new passcode issued to him?
(1)and of are night the length equal day
(2)and are of night the length equal day
(3)and of are night the equal day length
(4)and of are the night length day equal
(5) None of these
6. If ass-code for the second batch is to confidence hard you leads work and success, what
will be the pass-code for the fourth batch?
(1)leads success to you hard confidence and work
(2)leads success you to hard confidence and work
(3)leads success to you hard confidence work and
(4)leads to success you hard confidence and work

(5) None of these
7. If the pass-code issued for the last (sixth) batch is and pencil by all boys used are pen,
what will be the passcode for the first batch?
(1)pencil and pen are used by all boys
(2)pen and pencil used are by all boys
(3)pen and pencil are used by all boys
(4)Pencil and pen are used all by boys
(5) None of these
8. If the pass-code for the sixth batch is not go the way to of out do, what will be the passcode for the third batch?
(1)Of do to out go not way the
(2)of to do out not go way the
(3)of to go out do not way the
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Directions: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word rearrangement machine when given an input line of words, rearranges them following
a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and
the steps of rearrangement:
Input: Over you pat me crow easy to.
Steps: (I) pat over you crow easy to me
Steps: (II) crow pat over you to me easy
Steps: (III) over crow pal to me easy you
Steps: (IV) to over crow pat easy you me and so on.
As per the rule followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate step for the given input in
the following questions:
9. If Step II of an input is ge su but he for game free, what would be step VI?
(1)a for but fine he game su
(2)for free ge game su he but
(3)free ge for but game su he
(4)he ge su but game free for
(5) None of these
10. If step IV of an input is blue navy kit lime se get, which of the following would
(1)navy get lime out kit se blue
(2)lime navy get kit se blue out
(3)lime blue navy kit get out se

(4)kit blue navy se get out lime
(5) None of these
11. Input: but calm free are so not eat. Which of the following will be the 3rd step for this
input?
(1)so free but calm eat are not
(2)but calm are free not so eat
(3)are but calm free not eat so
(4)but so free eat are not calm
(5) None of these
12. If step V of an input is put down col in as mach sa , what would be the 8 th step?
(1)down in put much sa as col
(2)in put down cot much sa as
(3)much in put down sa as col
(4)col put down as much sa in
(5) None of these
13. Input: rim bye eat klin fe to low Which of the following steps would be fe low rim to bye
klin eat?
(1)VIth (2)vth (3)IVth (4)IIIrd (5)None of these
Directions: A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it
following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of
arrangement:
Input: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
Step I: Put for he watch hand pocket them.
Step II: Put he for watch pocket hand them.
Step III: Put hand pocket watch for he them.
Step IV: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
And so on goes the machine. Study the logic and answer the questions that follow:
14. If Step III of a given input be fly sky birds my su fur say, what is the seventh step of the
input?
(1)fly sky birds my su fur say
(2)fly birds sky my fur su say
(3)fly fur su my birds sky say
(4)fly su fur my sky birds say
(5) None of these
15. If Step VII of an input is slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi, what is step V of that input?
(1)slow dig hak pat dhurwa ran vi
(2)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(3)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(4)slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi

(5) None of these
IBPS Bank PO CWE English Language
Direction: In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four ords are suggested. One
of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out appropriate word in each case. The Reserve
Bank has taken a bold (46) in the development of they, the government securities and the
foreign exchange markets in (47) of their critical role in overall growth and development of
the economy and (48 ) in the transmission mechanism of monetary policy. The approach has
been one of simultaneous movements on several fronts, graduated and callibrated,with an
(49) on institutional and infrastructural development and improvements in market
microstructure. The pace of reforms was contingent (50 ) putting in place appropriatesystems
and procedures, technologies and market practices. Initiatives taken by the Reserve Bank
have brought about a (51) transformation of various segments
of the financial market. These developments by improve the depth and liquidity in domestic
financial markets have (52 ) to better price discovery of interest rates and exchange rates,
which, in turn, hae led to greater (53) in resource allocation in the economy. The increase in
size and depth of financial market has (54 ) the way for (55) use of indirect instruments.
1. (1)interest (2)participation(3)step (4)role (5)None of these
2. (1)point (2)tune 3)view (4)pursuit (5)None of these
3. (1)decisively (2)reluctantly 3)visibly (4)particularly (5)None of these
4)equilibrium (2)emphasis (3)appeasement (4)overload (5)None of these
5. (1)by (2)for (3)against (4)upon (5)None of these
6. (1)trivial (2)jubilant (3)fastidious (4)significant 5)None of these
7. (1)addressed (2)contributed (3)initiated (4)evolved (5)None of these
8. (1)measures (2)activism (3)debacle (4)efficiency (5)None of these
9. (1)paved (2)repaired (3)dug (4)elevated (5)None of these
10.(1)revolutionised (2)indiscriminate (3)flexible (4)arbitrary (5)None of these
Answers
1. (3 ) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (4)
6. (2)
7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10.(3)
IBPS Bank PO CWE Computer Knowledge Questions

1. Buffer is device/storage area
1.Where data are temporarily stored
2.Where data is permanently stored
3.Where data error occurs
4.All of the above 5.None of these
2. A network geometric arrangement in which a single connecting line is shared by a number
of nodes is called
1.Car Topology 2.Bus Topology3.Truck Topology 4.All of the above 5.None of these
3. An error in a computer program is referred as

1.Bug 2.Bit3.Virus 4.All of the above 5.None of these
4. Circuits that provide a ommunication path between two or more devices of a digital
computer system is1.Car 2.Bus3.Truck 4.All of the above5.None of these
5. A fixed number of adjacent bits that represent a particular character or symbol are referred
as 1.Byte 2.Octal 3.Bubble 4.All of the above 5.None of these
6. Cache memory is a 1.Small buffer storage 2.Permanent storage 3.Main memory 4.All of
the above 5.None of these
7. The total number of digits (symbols) available to represent numbers in a positional number
system is referred as 1.Number system 2.Base 3.Power 4.All of the above 5.None of these
8. Cache memory 1.Is a Static RAM 2.Increases the speed of processing by making current
programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate 3.Both 1. and 2. true . 4.Both 1. and 2.
are false 5.None of these
9. Following is false for BASIC1.Beginners All-Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code 2.Highlevel interactive programming language 3.Works in time sharing nvironment 4.Low level
object oriented language 5.None of these
10. A unit for measuring data transmission speed that describes the capacity of a carrier is
referred as 1.Baud 2.Bit 3.Bond 4.All of the above 5.Batch
11. A process of trying out a new product by independent users before it is finally
manufactured/developed 1.Alpha test 2.Beta Test 3.Gamma test 4.All of the above None of
these
12. A selection, choice, or condition involving two possibilities is referred as
1.Unary 2.Binary 3.Octal 4.All of the above 5.None of these
13. Base band System is 1.A networking system 2.Where the channel support a single
digital signal 3.Both 1. and 2. are true.All of the above 5.None is true
14. One of the early coding systems, based on the idea of converting each digit of a decimal
number into its binary equivalent rather than converting the entire decimal value into a pure
binary form is
1.ASCII code 2.BCD 3.ASCII-8 4.All of the above 5.None of these
15. In Batch processing

1.Several computer programs runs one after another without human interaction to run each
program individually
2.Several computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each
program individually
3.Selected computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to
un each program individually
4.All of the above
5.None is true
16. BISYNC is
1.Binary synchronous
2.A process of transmitting data
3.A half-duplex, character oriented, synchronous data communication transmission method
4.All of the above
5.None of these
17. A device that is used to transmit data from one location to another is referred as
1.Storage 2.Memory 3.Carrier 4.All of the above 5.None of these
18. Programs developed by an outside supplier and provided to the user in a machine
readable form is known as
1.Canned programs
2.Beta program
3.Alpha program
4.All of the above
5.None of these
19. A binary numbers are represented by 1.Digits 0 and 1 2.Digits 0, 1, ..., 8 3.Digits AB,
C,... 4.All of the above 5.None of these
20. BIOS is responsible for 1.Handling the particulars of input/output operations 2.Output
operations 3.Input operations 4.All of the above 5.None of these
21 BIOS is an abbreviation for 1.Binary Input/Binary Output 2.Binary synchronous
3.Binary digit 4.All of the above 5.None of these
22. BISYNC is an abbreviation for1.Binary Input/Binary Output2.Binary
synchronous3.Binary digit4.All of the above 5.None of these
23. The overall design, construction, organization and interconnecting of the various
components of a computer system is referred as1.Computer Architecture 2.Computer
Flowchart 3.Computer Algorithm 4.All of the above 5.None of these
24. A number system with a base of two is referred as 1.Unary number system 2.Binary
number system 3.Octal number system 4.All of the above 5.None of these
25. Call statement 1.A program statement which transfers program control to a subroutine.
2.A program statement that does not transfers program control to a subroutine 3.Void
statement 4.All of the above 5.None of these
Answers 1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (1)
6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (4)
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (2)
16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1)
21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (2)
IBPS Bank PO CWE Reasoning Questions

REASONING
IBPS Bank PO CWE Coding and Decoding Questions
1. In a certain code language how many goals scored is written as 5 3 9 7 : many more
matches is written as 9 8 2 and he scored five is written as 1 6 3. How is goals written
in that code language ?
A. 5 B. 7 C.5 or 7 D. Data Inadequate E. None of these
2. In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONDENSER written in

that code ?
A. RMNBSFEJ B. BNMRSFEJ C.RMNBJEFS D. TOPDQDCH C. RMNBJEFS
D.TOPDQDCH E. None of these
3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DLEI using each letter
only once in each word ?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three
4. Among A, B, C, D and E each having different weight, D is heavier than only A and C is
lighter than B and E. Who among them is the heaviest ?
A. B B. E C. C D. Data Inadequate E. None of these
5. Each odd digit in the number 6263187 is substituted by the next higher digit and each even
digit is substituted by the previous lower digit and the digits so obtained are rearranged in
ascending order, which of the following will be the third digit from the left and after the
rearrangement ?
6. Pratap correctly remembers that his mothers birthday is before twenty third April but after
Nineteenth April, whereas his sister correctly remembers that their mothers birthday is not
on or after twenty second April. On which day in April is definitely their mothers birthday ?
A. Twentieth B. Twenty first C. Twentieth or Twenty first D. Cannot be determined E.
None of
these
7. Ashok started walking towards South. After walking 50 meters he took a right turn and
walked 30 meters. He then took a right turn and walked 100 meters. He again took a right
turn and walked 30 meters and stopped. How far and in which direction was he from the
starting point ?
A. 50 meters South B. 150 meters North C. 180 meters East D. 50 meters North E. None of
these
8. If means + ; - means x ; x means and + means -; then ________ 15-8 x 6

12+ 4 = ?
A. 20 B. 28 C. 8 4/7 D.2 2/3 E. None of these
9. Town D is toward East of town F. Town B is towards North of town D. Town H is towards
South of town B. Towards which direction is town H from town F ?
A. East B. South-East C. North-East D. Data inadequate E. None of these
10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SEARCHES each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three
IBPS Bank PO CWE Logical Deductions Questions

Directions (Qs. 11-15) : In each of the questions below are given four statements
followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. Your have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
11.Statements :
All cups are bottles
Some bottles are jugs
No jug is plate
Some Plates are tables
Conclusions :
I. Some tables are bottles.
II. Some plates are cups.
III. No table is bottle.
IV. Some jugs are cups.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Only III follows
D. Only IV follows
E. Only either I or III follows
12. Statements :
Some Chairs are handles.
All Handles are pots
All pots are mats.
Some mats are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are handles.
II. Some mats are chairs.
III. No bus is Handle.
IV. Some mats are handles
A. Only I, II and IV follow
B. Only II, III and IV follow
C. Only either I or III and II follow
D. Only either I or III and IV follow
E. Only either I or III and II and IV follow
13. Statements:
All birds are horses.
All horses are tigers.
Some tigers are lions.
Some lions are monkeys.
Conclusions :
I. Some tigers are horses.
II. Some monkeys are birds.
III. Some tigers are birds.
IV. Some monkeys are horses.
A. Only I and III follow
B. Only I, II and IV follow
C. Only II, III and IV follow
D. All I, II, III and IV follow
E. None of these
14. Statements :
Some benches are walls.
All walls are houses.
Some houses are jungles.
All jungles are roads.
Conclusions :
I. Some roads are benches.
II. Some jungles are walls.
III. Some houses are benches.
IV. Some roads are houses.
A. Only I and II follow
B. Only I and III follow
C. Only III and IV follow
D. Only II, III and IV follow
E. None of these
15. Statements :
Some sticks are lamps.
Some flowers are lamps.
Some lamps are dresses.
All dresses are shirts.
Conclusions :
I. Some shirts are sticks
II. Some shirts are flowers
III. Some flowers are sticks
IV. Some dresses are sticks.
A. None of follows
B. Only I follows
C. Only II follows
D. Only III follows
E. Only IV follows
Directions (Qs. 16-20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below;
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight employees of an organization working in three
departments viz, personnel, Administration and Marketing with not more than three of
them in any department. Each of them has a different choice of sports from football,
cricket, volleyball, badminton, lawn tennis, basketball, hockey and table tennis None of
these necessarily in the same order.
D works in Administration and does not like either football or cricket. F works in
Personnel with only A who likes table tennis. E and H do not work in the same
department as D. C likes hockey and does not work in Marketing. G does not work in
Administration and does not like either cricket or badminton. One of those who work in
Administration likes football. The one who likes volleyball works in Personnel. None of
those who work in Administration likes either badminton or lawn tennis. H does not like
cricket.
16. Which of the following groups of employees work in Administration department?
A. EGH B. AF C. BCD D. BGD E. Data inadequate
17. In which department does E work ?

A. Personnel
B. Marketing
C. Administration
D. Data inadequate
E. None of these
18. Which of the following combinations of employee department-favourite sport is

correct ?
A. E- Administration Cricket
B. F-Personnel-Lawn Tennis
C. H-Marketing-Lawn Tennis
D. B-Administration Table Tennis
E. None of these
19. What is Es favourite sport ?

A. Cricket B. Badminton C. Basketball D. Lawn Tennis E. None of these
20. What is Gs favourite sport ?

A. Cricket B. Badminton C. Basketball D. Lawn Tennis E. None of these
IBPS Bank PO CWE Symbols and Notations Blood Relationship Questions
Directions (Qs. 21-25) : In the following questions, the symbols @, $, *, # and & are
used with the following meaning as illustrated below;
P $ Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P @ Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
P # Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
P& Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.
P 8 Q means P is not greater than Q.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find
which of the four conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true
and give your answer accordingly.
21. Statements : H @T, T#F, F&E, E*V
Conclusions : I. V $F
II. E @ T
III . H @ V
IV. T # V
A. Only I, II and III are true
B. Only I, II and IV are true
C. Only II, III and IV are true
D. Only I, III and IV are true
E. All I, II, III and IV are true.
22. Statements : D # R, R * K, K @ F, F $ J
Conclusions : I. J # R
II. J # K
III. R # F
IV. K @ D
A. Only I, II and III are true
B. Only II, III and IV are true.
C. Only I, III and IV are true.
D. All I, II, III and IV are true.
E. None of these.
23. Statements : N & B, B $ W, W # H, H * M
Conclusions : I. M @ W
II. H @ N
III. W & N
IV. W # N
A. Only I is true
B. Only III is true.
C. Only IV is true.
D. Only either III or IV true.
E. Only either III or IV and I are true.
24. Statements : R * D , D $ J, J #M, M @ K

Conclusions : I. K # J
II. D @ M
III. R # M
IV. D @ K
A. None is true
B. Only I is true
C. Only II is true
D. Only III is true
E. Only IV is true.
25.Statements : M $ K, K @ N, N * R, R #W
Conclusion : I. W @ K
II. M $ R
III. K @ W
IV. M @ N
A. Only I and II are true.
B. Only I, II and III are true.
C. Only III and IV are true.
D. Only II, III and IV are true.
E. None of these.
questions given below :
Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-Credit in a bank.

The candidate must -------------(i) be a graduate in any discipline with atleast 60 per cent marks.
(ii) Have post qualification work experience of at least ten years in the Advances Section
of a bank.
(iii) Be at least 30 years and not more than 40 years as on 01.04.2010.
(iv) Have secured at least 40 per cent marks in the group of discussion.
(v) Have secured at least 50 per cent marks in interview.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT________
I. at (i) above but has secured at least 50 per cent marks in graduation and at least 60 percent
marks in post graduation in any discipline the case is to be referred to the General MangerAdvance.
II. at (ii) above but has total post qualification work experience of at least seven years out of
which at least three years as Manager-Credit in a bank, the case is to be referred to Executive
Director.
In each question below details of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the
following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and subconditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are
not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases
are given to you as on 01.04.2010.
Give answer (A) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director.
Give answer (B) if the case is to be referred to General Manager-Advances.
Give answer (C) if the data are in adequate to take a decision.
Give answer (D) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Give answer (E) if the candidate is to be selected.
26. Shobaha Gupta has secured 50 per cent marks in the Interview and 40 per cent marks in
the Group Discussion. She has been working for the past eight years out of which four years
as Manager-Credit in a bank after completing her B.A degree with 60 per cent marks. She
was born on 12th September 1978.
27. Rohan Maskare was born on 8th March 1974. He has been working in a bank for the past
twelve years after completing his B.Com. degree with 70 per cent marks. He has secured 50
per cent marks in both the Group Discussion and the Interview.
28. Prakash Gokhale was born on 4th August 1977. He has secured 65 per cent marks in post
graduation and 58 per cent marks in graduation. He has been working for the past ten years in
the Advances Department of a Bank after completion his post graduation. He has secured 45
per cent marks in the Group Discussion and 50 per cent marks in the Interview.
29. Sudha Mehrotra has been working in the Advance department of a bank for the past
twelve years after completing her B. Com. Degree with 60 per cent marks. She has secured
50 per cent marks in the Group Discussion and 40 per cent marks in the Interview. She was
born on 15th February, 1972.
30. Amit Narayan was born on 28th May 1974. He has been working in the Advances
department of a bank for the past eleven years after completing his B.Sc degree with 65 per
cent marks. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the Group discussion and 50 per cent marks
in the interview.
Directions (Qs 31-35) : In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses
of action numbered (1), (2) and (3). A course of action is a step or administrative decision to
be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc.
On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the
statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s)
for pursuing.
31. Statement :
A heavy unseasonal downpour during the last two days has paralysed the normal life in the
state in which five person were killed but this has provided a huge relief to the problem of
acute water crisis in the state.
Courses of Action :
(1) The state government should set up a committee to review the alarming situation.
(2) The state government should immediately remove all the restrictions on use of potable
water in all the major cities in the state.
(3) The state government should send relief supplies to all the affected areas in the state.
A. None
B. Only (1)
C. Only (2) and (3)
D. Only (3)
E. All (1), (2), (3)
32. Statement :
A large private bank has decided to retrench one-third of its employee in view of the huge
losses incurred by it during the past three quarters.
Course of Action :
a. The Govt. should issue a notification to general public to immediately stop all trancsactions
with the bank.
b. The Govt. should direct the bank to refrain from retrenching its employees.
c. The Govt. should ask the central bank of the country to initiate an enquiry into the banks
activities and submit its report.
A. None
B. Only (1)
C. Only (2)
D. Only (3)
E. Only (1) and (3)
33. Statement :
Many political activists have decided to stage demonstrations and block traffic movement in
the city during peak hours to protest against the steep rise in prices of essential commodities.
Course of Action :
(1) The Govt. should immediately ban all forms of agitations in the country.
(2) The police authority of the city should deploy additional forces all over the city to help
traffic movement in the city.
(3) The State administration should carry out preventive arrests of the known criminals
staying in the city.
A. Only (1)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. Only (1) and (2)
E. None of these.
34. Statement :
The school dropout rate in many districts in the state has increased sharply during the last few
years as the parents of these children make them work in the field owned by others to earn
enough for them to get at least one meal a day.
Course of Action :
(1) The Govt. should put up a mechanism to provide food grains to the poor people in these
districts through public distribution system to encourage the parents to send their wards to
school.
(2) The Govt. should close down some of these schools in the district and deploy the teachers
of these schools to nearby schools and also ask remaining students to join these schools.
(3) Govt. should issue arrest warrants for all the parents who force their children to work in
fields instead of attending classes.
A. Only (1)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. Only (1) and (2)
E. None of these
35. Statement :
One aspirant was killed due to stampede while participating in a recruitment drive of police
constables.
Course of Action :
(1) Official incharge of the recruitment process should immediately be suspended.
(2) A team of officials should be asked to find out the circumstances which led to the death of
the aspirant and submit its report within a week.
(3) The Govt. should ask the home department to stagger the number of aspirants over more
number of days to avoid such incidents in future.
A. Only (1)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. Only (2) and (3)
E. None of these
36. Effect : Majority of the employees of the ailing organization opted for voluntary
retirement scheme and left the organization with all their retirement benefits within a
fortnight of launching the scheme.
Which of the following can be a probable cause of the above effect ?
A. The company has been making huge losses for the past five years and is unable to pay
salary to its employees in time.
B. The management of the company made huge personal gains through unlawful activities.
C. One of the competitors of the company went bankrupt last year.
D. The Company owns large tracts of land in the state which will fetch huge sum to its
owners.
E. None of these.
37. Statement : Most of the companies in IT and ITES sectors in India have started hiring
from engineering college campuses this year and are likely to recruit much more than yearly
recruitment of the earlier years.
Which of the following substantiates the facts stated in the above statement ?
A. IT and ITES are the only sectors in India which are hiring from engineering college
campuses.
B. Govt. has stepped up recruitment activities after a gap of five years.

C. The IT and ITES companies have now decided to visit the engineering college campuses
for tier II cities in India as well.
D. Availability of qualified engineers will substantially increase in the near future.
E. None of these
38. Cause : The Govt. has recently increased its taxes on petrol and diesel by about 10 per
cent.
Which of the following can be a possible effect of the above cause ?
A. The Petroleum companies will reduce the prices of petrol and diesel by about 10 per cent.
B. The petroleum companies will increase the prices of petrol and diesel by about 10 per
cent .
C. The petroleum companies will increase the prices of petrol and diesel by about 5 per cent.
D. The petroleum pumps will stop selling petrol and diesel till the taxes are rolled back by the
govt.
E. None of these.
39. Statement : The Govt. has decided to instruct the banks to open new branches in such a
way that there is one branch of any of the banks in every village of population 1000 and
above or a cluster of villages with population less than 1000 to provide banking services to all
the citizens.
Which of the following will weaken the step taken by the Govt. ?
A. The Private sector banks in India have stepped up their branch expansion activities in rural
India.
B. Many Govt. owned banks have surplus manpower in it urban brances.
C. All the banks including those in private sector will follow the govt. directive.
D. Large number of branches of many Govt. owned banks in the rural areas are making huge
losses every year due to lack of adequate business activities.
E. None of these.
Directions (Qs. 40-42) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below;
The center reportedly wants to continue providing subsidy to consumers for cooking gas and
kerosene for five more years. This is not good news from the point of view of reining in the
fiscal deficit. Mounting subventions for subsidies means diversion of savings by the
government from investment to consumption, raising the cost of capital in the process. The
government must cut expenditure on subsidies to create more fiscal space for investments in
both physical and social infrastructure. It should outline a plan for comprehensive reform in
major subsidies including petroleum, food and fertilizers and set goal posts.
40. Which of the following is a conclusion which can be drawn from the facts stated in the
above paragraph?
A. Subsidy provided by the government under various heads to the citizen increases the cost
of capital.
B. Govt. is unable to withdraw subsidies provided to various items.
C. Govt. subsidy on kerosene is purely a political decision.
D. Govt. does not have enough resources to continue providing subsidy on petroleum
products.
E. None of these.
41. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the
above paragraph ?
A. Indias fiscal deficit is negligible in comparison to other emerging economies in the world.
B. Subsidy on food and fertilizers are essential for growth of Indian economy.
C. Reform in financial sector will weaken Indias position in the international arena.
D. Gradual withdrawal of subsidy is essential for effectively managing fiscal deficit in India.
E. None of these.
42. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the facts stated in the above
paragraph ?
A. People in India may not be able to pay more for petroleum products.
B. Many people in India are rich enough to buy petroleum products at market cost.
C. Govt. may not be able to create more infrastructural facilities if the present level of
subsidy continues for a longer time.
D. Govt. of India has sought assistance from International financial organizations for its
infrastructural projects.
E. None of these.
questions given below;
Poverty measurement in an unsettled issue, both conceptually and methodologically.
Since poverty is a process as well as an outcome; many come out of it while others may
be falling into it. The net effect of these two parallel processes is a proportion commonly
identified as the head count ratio, but these ratios hide the fundamental dynamism
that characterizes poverty in practice. The most recent poverty reestimates by an expert
group has also missed that crucial dynamism. In a study conducted on 13,000 house
holds which represented the entire country in 1993-94 and again on 2004-05, it was
found that in the ten-year period 18.2% rural population moved out of poverty whereas
another 22.1 % fell into it over this period. This net increase of about four percentage
point was seen to have a considerable variation across states and regions.
43. Which of the following is conclusion which can be drawn from the facts stated in the
above paragraph ?
A. Accurate estimates of number of people living below poverty line in India is possible to be
made.
B. Many expert groups in India are not interested to measure poverty objectively.
C. Process of poverty measurement needs to take into account various factors to tackle its
dynamic nature.
D. People living below poverty line remain in that position for a very long time.
E. None of these.
44. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the stated in the above
paragraph ?
A. It may not be possible to have an accurate poverty measurement in India.
B. Level of poverty in India is static over the years.
C. Researchers avoid making conclusions on poverty measurement data in India.
D. Govt. of India has a mechanism to measure level of poverty effectively and accurately.
E. None of these.
45. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the
above Paragraph ?
A. Poverty measurement tools in India are outdated.
B. Increase in number of person falling into poverty varies considerably across the country
over a period of time.
C. Govt. of India has stopped measuring poverty related studies.
D. People living in rural areas are more susceptible to fall into poverty over the time.
E. None of these.
IBPS Bank PO CWE Non Verbal Reasoning Questions
Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as
established by the five Problem Figures.
Ans C In each step, element at the upper-right position gets enlarged, inverts vertically and
reaches the lower-left corner; the existing element at the lower-left position, is lost and a new
small element appears at the upper-right position.
One, two, three, one, two, three.....arcs get inverted sequentially. This inversion takes place in
an ACW direction.
IBPS PO CWE Latest Question paper with answers-- Aptitude,Reasoning,Data Intrepretation

Generalawareness,Marketing,Computer
GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Left Front has come into power in Tripura for the ________ consecutive term.
(1) Second (2) Third (3) Fourth (4) Fifth (5) Sixth
2. Who is the new head of SEBI?
(1) M. Damodaran (2) C.B. Bhave (3) Ravi Kumar (4) A.K. Khandelwal (5) Rajiv Chouhan
3. Who has won the just concluded Bangalore Open Tennis womens single title?
(1) Venus Williams (2) Maria Sharapova (3) Justin Hennin (4) Serena Williams (5) Sania Mirza
4. Who is the Chief Minister of Meghalaya?
(1) P.A. Sangma (2) Donkuper Roy (3) D.D. Lapang (4) Y.C. Apang (5) None of these
5. India was finally defeated in recently concluded Olympic Qualifying Hockey Tournament held
Santiyago by
(1) Britain (2) China (3) Austria (4) Russia (5) Japan
6. Between April and December 2007, Indias personal tax collections have risen
(1) 40 per cent (2) 45 per cent (3) 50 per cent (4) 60 per cent (5) 55 per cent
7. According to a Nasscom Deloitte study, the Indian information technology industrys
contribution to the countrys GDP in the year 200607 was
(1) 3.2 per cent (2) 3.8 per cent (3) 4.6 per cent (4) 5.2 per cent (5) 7.2 per cent
8. On February 10, 2008 the Grammy award for the album of the year went to
(1) River : The Joniletters
(2) Rehab
(3) Stupid boy
(4) Call me irresponsible
(5) Once more
9. Which actress won on February 10, 2008 in London the best actress BAFTA award?
(1) Julie Christie (2) Keira Knightley (3) Jodic Foster (4) Marion Cotillard (5) None of these
10. Russy Karanjia, the editor of the Indias first tabloid weekely passed away in Mumbai on
February 1,2008 at the age of 95. What was the name of that tabloid weekely?
(1) Surya (2) Illustrate Weekely (3) Blitz (4) The Week (5) Sunday Times
11. As per the state of the forest Report, 2005 released on February 12, 2008, in percentage of
the countrys total land area, the forest cover stands at
(1) 19.7 per cent (2) 20.6 per cent (3) 23.8 per cent (4) 18.3 per cent (5) 25.5 per cent
12. According to the 2005 report, which state has the largest area under forest cover?
(1) Chhattisgarh
(2) Jharkhand
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Andhra Pradesh
(5) Odisa
13. Global Internet major Google is going to set up its first campus in India in __________
(1) Chennai (2) Bangalore
(3) Mumbai (4) Hyderabad
(5) Kolkata
14. Which country was in February 2008 threatened by Russia of a nuclear attack in case it joins
NATO and allows the developemnt of the American missile
defence shield on its territory?
(1) Belarus (2) Ukraine (3) Uzbekistan (4) Armenia (5) None of these
15. Under the recently launched National Health Insurance Scheme for the unorganised sector
BPL workers, the total sum insured would be _______
(1) Rs. 20,000 (2) Rs. 30, 000 (3) Rs. 50, 000 (4) Rs. 75, 000 (5) Rs.80, 000
16Fulfilling the longheld demand of the people of Darjeeling, the Union Cabinet decided to create
an autonomous selfgoverning Gorkha Hill council under the _________ of the constitution
(1) Fourth schedule (2) Fifth schedule(3) Sixth schedule (4) Third schedule(5) Seventh schedule
17. As per the new advertisementpolicy what percentage of all DAVP (Directorate of advertising
and Visual Publicity) advertisements in rupee terms will go to big newspapers?
(1) 40 per cent (2) 50 per cent (3) 60 per cent (4) 70 per cent (5) 80 per cent
18. As per the new policy what percentage of all DAVPvadvertisements is to go to small
publications?
(1) 15 per cent (2) 20 per cent(3) 25 per cent (4) 30 per cent (5) 35 per cent
19. According to new policy, English newspapers are entitled to ___________ of all
advertisements.
(1) 40 per cent (2) 60 per cent (3) 30 per cent (4) 50 per cent (5) 65 per ent
20. According to the latest data released by the World Bank, the top remittance receiving country
in the world is __________
(1) India (2) China (3) Mexico (4) Brazil (5) Russia
21. Which company reently claimed to have developed the worlds most powerful memory chip,
which could help create a memory card capable of storing 80 DVD movies?
(1) LG (2) Nokia (3) Samsung (4) Motorola (5) Sony
22. The first case of genome sequencing of an individual in Asia has been reported from ____
(1) Japan (2) China (3) South Korea (4) Singapore (5) Mexico
23. As part of the 11 th plan UGC is preparing an action plan for setting up __________
(1) 8 Universities (2) 9 Universities (3) 11 Universities (4) 15 Universities (5) 20 Universities
24. The commission, centre is going to set up to look into discrimination against deprived groups
in the public and private sector is _________.
(1) Justice Commission
(2) Equality Commission
(3) Equal Treatment Commission
(4) Equal Opportunities Commission
(5) None of these
25. The first of six scorpene submarines, being built by a French company in Mazgaon is
expected to be delivered by the year______.
(1) 2010 (2) 2011 (3) 2012 (4) 2015 (5) 2018
26. Which state has been selected by the Union Government for the National Tourism Award,
200708 in the best tourism performing state/UT category?
(1) Karnataka (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Tamil Nadu (4) Madhya Pradesh (5) Maharashtra
27. Who recently replaced Fidel Castro as the President of Cuba?
(1) Raul Castro (2) Jean Castor (3) Peiter Feith (4) Paul Skinner (5) None of these
28. Who has been recently selected for the 17 th Saraswati Samman for his collection of Short
stories Taoos Chaman ki Myna?
(1) Girija Guleri (2) Naiyer Masud (3) Ram Narayan Mishra (4) Shyam Kumar Ashq (5) Nirja
Guleri
29. Rajendra Nath who died on February 13, 2008 was a famous_____________.
(1) Urdu writer (2) Southampton (3) London (4) Melbourne (5) Colambo
30. Where is the bronze statue of legendry cricket umpire Dickie Bird going to be established?
(1) Barnsley (2) Southampton (3) London (4) Melbourne (5) Colambo
31. Who was the captain of U19 Indian team that won the U19 cricket world cup concluded
recently in Kuala Lumpur?
(1) Vira Kohli (2) Ajitesh Argal (3) Sreevats Goswami (4) Ravindra Jadeja (5) Ajeet Narayan
32. India won the U19 cricket world cup, 2008 by beating _________ in the final.
(1) Pakistan (2) Sri Lanka (3) South Africa (4) Australia (5) England
33. Who won the Johnie Walker classic golf tournament in Gurgaon on March 2, 2008?
(1) Shiv Kapur (2) Jyoti Randhawa (3) Vijay Singh (4) Mark Brown (5) Tiger Wods
34. Who was the man of match of the second final played in Brisbane on March 4, 2008,
between Australia and India?
(1) M.S. Dhoni (2) Sachin Tendulkar (3) Pravin Kumar (4) Sreesanth (5) Yuvraj Singh
35. With the victories in both their games in the finals at Sydney and Brisbane India registered a
traingular series win in Australia for the __________.
(1) First time (2) Second time (3) Third time (4) Fourth time (5) Fifth time
36. Who was adjudged player of the Commonwealth Bank traingular series recently concluded in
Australia?
(1) Brett Lee (2) Nathan Bracken (3) Ishant Sharma (4) Gautam Gambhir (5) Ricky Ponting
37. Who was the leading rungetter on the either side in the Commonwealth Bank traingular
series?
(1) Sachin Tendulkar (2) Mathew Hayden (3) Gautam Gambhir (4) Adam Gilchrist (5) Michel
Hassy
38. Jose Ramos Horta who was recently injured in a predawn attack on his home by fugitive
members of the countrys armed forces is _________.
(1) Prime Minister of Kosovo (2) President of Serbia (3) Prime Minister of East Timor (4)
President of East Timor (5) None of these
39. Jens Stoltenberg who was on a satevisit to India in March, 2008 is _______.
(1) Prime Minister of Canada
(2) Prime Minister of Norway
(3) Prime Minister of Denmark
(4) President of Greece
(5) President of Japan
40. Amaresh Bachi who died on February 20, 2007 was a renowned_______.
(1) Educationist
(2) Economist
(3) Scientist
(4) Novelist
(5) None of these
GENERAL ENGLISH
Directions for Questions 41 to 50:
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases in
the passage have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the
questions. Marc Rodin flickedoff
witch of his transistor radio and rose from the table, leaving
the breakfast tray almost untouched. He walked over to the window, lit another in the endless
chain of cigarettes and gazed out at the snowencrusted landscape hich the late arriving spring
had not yet started to dismantle. He murmured a word quietly and with great venom, following up
with other strong nouns and epithets that expressed his feeling towards the French President, his
Government and the Action Service. Rodin was unlike his predecessor in almost every way.
Tall and spare, with a cadaverous face hollowed by the hatred within, he usually masked his
emotions with an unLatin frigidity. For him there had been no Ecole Polytechnic to open doors to
promotion. The son of a cobbler, he had escaped to England by fishing boat in the halcyon days
of his late teens when the Germans overran France, and had enlisted as a private soldier under
the banner of the Cross of Lorraine.
Promotion through sergeant to warrant officer had come the hard way, in bloody battles across
the face on North Africa under Koenig and later through the hedgerows of Normandy with
Leclerc. A field commission during the fight for Paris had got him the officers chevrons his
education and breeding could never have obtained and in postwar France the choice had been
between reverting to civillian life or staying in the Army.
But revert to what? He had no trade but that of cobber which his father had taught him, and he
found the working class of his native country dominated by Communists, who had also taken
over the Resistance and the Free rench of the Interior. So he stayed in the Army, later to
experience the bitterness of an officer from the ranks who saw a new young generation of
educated boys graduating from the officer schools, earning the theoretical lessons carried out in
classrooms the same chevrons he had sweated blood for. As he wanted them pass him in tank
and privilege the bitterness started to set in. There was only one thing left to do, and that was join
one of the colonial regiments, the tough crack soliders who did the flighting while the conscript
army paraded round drill squares. He managed a transfer to the colonial paratroops. Within a
year he had been a company commander in IndoChina, living among other men who spoke and
throught as he did. For a young man from a cobblers bench, promotion could still be otained
through combat, and more combat. By the end of the IndoChina campaign he was a major and
after an unhappy and frustrating year in France he was sent to Algeria. The French withdrawal
from IndoChina dn the year he spent in France had turned his latent bitterness a consuming
loathing of politicians and Communists, whom he regarded as one and the same thing. Not until
Franco was ruled by a soldier could she ever be weaned away from the grip of the treators and
lickspittles. who permeated her public life. Only in the Army were both breeds extinct. Like most
combat officers who had seen their men die and occasionally buried the hideously mutilated
bodies of those unlucky enough to be taken alive. Rodin worshipped soldiers as the true salt of
the earth, the men who sacrificed themselves in blood so that the bourgeoisie could live at home
in comfort. To learn from the civilians of native land after eight years of combat in the forests of
IndoChina batt most of them Cared not a fig for the soldiery, to read the denunciations of the
millitary by the leftwing intellectuals for more trifles like the to turing of prisoners to obtain vital
information, had set off inside March Rodin a reaction hi ch combined with the native bitterness
stemming from his own lack of opportunity, had turned into zealotry. He remained convinced that
given enough backing by the civil authorities on the spot and the Government and people back
home, Army could have beaten the VietMinh. The cession of IndoChina had been a massive
betrayal of the thousands of fine young men who had died there seemingly for nothing. For
Rodin ther would be, could be, no more betrayals. Algeria would prove it. He left the shore of
Marseilles in the spring of 1956 as ner a happy man as he would ever be, convinced that the
distant hills of Algeria would see the consummation of what he regarded as his lifes work, the
apotheosis of the French Army in the eyes of the world.
41. What was the period when Rodin escaoed to England?
(1) First half of the late arriving spring
(2) The time when Germany occupied France
(3) The period when Cross of Lorraine was disbanded
(4) When Rodin was a child cobblers work
(5) None of these
42. Which of the following best described the phrase ______ cared not a fig _______ as used in
the passage?
(1) Only A (2) Only A and B (3) Only C (4) Only B (5) Only B and C
43. Which factors made Rodin stay in the Army?
(A) He did not have any big business in civil life
(B) The parent country had Communist domination
(C) He wanted to experience the bitterness of officer rank
(1) Only A (2) Only A and B (3) Only C (4) Only B (5) Only B and C
44. According to the passage, who resisted the dominance of Communists?
(1) The native of Viet Mihn
(2) The fredom loving citizens of Algeria (3) The Marc Rodin (4) The people of France (5) None of
these
45. Which of the following best described the meaning of the phrases officer from the ranks as
used in the passage?
(1) The person who has ll essential academic qualifications and experience required to become
(2) The person who grows in the organization from lowest hierarchical position
(3) An officer who is given a rank of an officer to perform a specific task
(4) The person who struggle hard but falls to obtain a rank
(5) None of these
46. What favourable situations did Rodin find in IndoChian campaign?
(1) He could attain his lost seniority
(2) He could manage his desired posting to Algeria
(3) The people around him were of the same nature as he was
(4) He attained the rank of Majore in the Army
(5) None of these
47. What option did Robin choose in post war France situation?
(1) He joined an officers school for Army
(2) He monitored the army parade in drill squares
(3) He joined a colonial
(4) He preferred a cobblers bench
(5) None of these
48. Why the Army could not overpower VietMinh?
(1) The compating army Ignored the local civil authority
(2) The Government lacked political will to support army operation
(3) The builtin hate of the commandor did not percolate atthe soldier level
(4) The conviction held by the army chief proved to be false
(5) None of these
49. What were the outcome of battles in IndoChina?
(1) It removed the inbuilt hatred in Rodin
(2) It did not achieve the objectives for which it had been fought
(3) The French Army betraye Rodin
(4) Rodin regarded it as his lifes achievement
(5) None of these
50. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the passage?
(1) Marc Rodin was a qualified officer from Ecole Polytechnic
(2) Unlike his predecessor, the achievements in the army for Rodin were easy
(3) Rodin believed that only people who are worth their salt are soldiers
(4) Rodins father did not teach him the trade of a cobbler
(5) None of these
Directions of for Questions 51 to 53: Choose the word which has most nearly the SAME meaning
as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
51. Chevrons
(1) Colours (2) Badges (3) Skills (4) Crowns (5) Ranks
52. Conscript
(1) Commissioned (2) Secret (3) Detailed (4) Compulsive (5) Registered
53. Lickspittles
(1) Spoons (2) Approvers (3) Sycophant (4) Witnesses (5) Sincere
Direction for Questions 54 55:Choose the word which isMOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the
word printed in bold as used in the passage
54. Frigidity
(1) Warmth (2) Heat (3) Embrace (4) Negative (5) Calm
55. Denuciations
(1) Enrolment (2) Greeting (3) Rejections (4) Honouring (5) Acceptance
Directions for Questions 56 to 60 : In each question, a sentence with two words/groups of words
printed in bold type are give. One of them or both may have certain error. You have to find out
the correct word or group of ords from among the three choices A, B or C given below each
sentence which can replace the wrong word/group of words, if any, and makes the sentence
grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (5) i.e. No Correction Required as
your answer.
56. Aerobics are found to be of exreme hlepful to diabetes patients
(A) Extremely helpful (B) Of extreme hlep (C) Of extremely helpful (1) A only (2) B only (3) C only
(4) Either A or B (5) No Correction Required
57. Our emphasis is also on the quality of the producebbut not on its appearance alone.
(A) Emphasizing ___________ and
(B) Emphasis ___________ and
(C) Emphasis _________ and
(1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) None (5) No Correction Required
58. Investors have been receiving better services from Insurance Companies.
(A) Demanding ________ by
(B) Received ___________ from
(C) Received __________ by
(1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) Either A or Cb (5) No Correction Required
59. Our insistence had duly impact on their decision making processes.
(A) Due impact __________ their
(B) Duly impacted _________ their
(C) Due impacting __________ them
(1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) None (5) No Correction Required
60. Before the doctor comes, the patient had bend escaped from the ward.
(A) Reached ________ has
(B) Came _________ had
(C) Arrived _________ had been
(1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) Either A or B (5) No Correction Required
Direction for Questions 61 to 70 : Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should
replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically
meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (5)
as the answer.
61. In guest rooms, the central portion is generally reserved for sofa set.
(1) Generally is reserved
(2) Is reserved generally
(3) Was generally reserved
(4) Are generally reserved
(5) No correction required

62. The impact of the composite bow on warfare was equal to the crossbow of medieval times.
(1) Was equal to of the
(2) Is equal to the
(3) Is equal to that
(4) Was equal to that of the
63. Culture, climate and geography plays an important part in the formation of any proverb.
(1) Plays an important role
(2) Plays a important part
(3) Play an important role
(4) Play a important part
64. This book will be of particular interested to those fascinated by the recent philsophy.
(1) Of particularly interested
(2) Of particular interest
(3) Of interested in particular
(4) Particularly of Interested
65. These days developed countries have started looking down for underdeveloped countries as
it is advantageous for both the parties.
(1) Looking after (2) Looking down upon (3) To look down at (4) Looking for at (5) No correction
required
66. The methods to adopt for eradication of poverty should depend upon the magnitude and
nature of resources available.
(1) To adopt for eradicating
(2) To be adopted for eradication
(3) To be adopting to eradicate
(4) For adoption of eradication
67. In the production of desert trees, Nature seems sometimes to have been experimenting with
the truly strange
(1) Seem to have been sometimes experimenting
(2) Seems sometimes to have been experimented
(3) Sometimes seen to be experimented
(4) Sometimes seem to have experimented
68. In the first round, the participants played in the presence of an accomplice who was
committed deliberate errors
(1) Committed deliberate
(2) Was to be committed deliberate
(3) Had committed deliberately
(4) Committed deliberately
69. What prevent from winning the battle is not known
(1) What prevented them to win
(2) What prevents them from winning
(3) What prevented them form winning
(4) What prevented their winning

70. The scenario was identical to the one that was to be observed in the previous tournament.
(1) Was observing
(2) Had been observing
(3) Was observed
(4) Was to observe
Direction for Questions 71 to 75: In each question below a sentence with four words printed in
bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four boldly printed
words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the
word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. It all
the boldly printed words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence,
mark (5) i.e., All Correct as your answer.
71. The questionnaire/(1) reflected/(2) various phenomena(3)/that are sparingly (4)/experienced.
All correct/(5)
72. Contrary/(1) to popular belief,(2)/ripe fruits are not necessarily (3)/delicious. (4) All Correct
(5).
73. The most ambitious (1)/enterprise(2)/undertaken in the ancient (3)/Egypt was of the
construction (4)/of pyramids. All Correct (5)
74. The astronomical (1)/calculations (2)/were admiringly (3)/accurate. (4) All Correct (5)
75. Looking inward from the top of the rampart, (1)/ the sentries (2)/had a marvellous panerama
(3)/ spread (4)/ before them. All Correct (5)
Direction for Questions 76 to 80: Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and
(F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given
below them.
(A) No one knows their names
(B) With irrigation systems, farmers were able to raise more food with less labor.
(C) The first engineers lived in the middle East, probably round 35000 B.C.
(D) Todays city, thus, is essentially still a place where specialists live and work.
(E) Thus, an increasing number of people were relieved of agricultural chores and able to gather
in cities to practice specialties.
(F) However, they conceived and built the elevated irrigation canal.
76. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D(5) E
77. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
78. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
79. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (Last) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
80. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
NUMERICAL ABILITY
81. Three fourth of a number is equal to 60% of another number. What is the difference between
the numbers?
(1) 18 (2) 32 (3) 24 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
82. Abhijit invested in three schemes A, B and C the amounts in the ratio of 2:3:4 respectively. If
the schemes offered interest @20 p.c.p.a. 16 p.c.p.a and 15 p.c.p.a respectively, what will be the
respective ratio of the amounts after one year?
(1) 10:8:5 (2) 12:14:15 (3) 12:15:22 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
83. A train crosses a 300 metre long platform in 38 seconds while it crosses a signal pole in 18
seconds. What is the speed of the train in kmph?
(1) Cannot be determind (2) 72 (3) 48 (4) 54 (5) None of these
84. If 2x + 5y = 109 and 2x + 5 = y + 12 then y - x = ?
(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 9 (5) None of these
86. Certain number of pieces of an ariticle are to be packedin boxed, such that each box contains
145 pieces. If after packing them in 32 boxed 25 pieces are left out, what was the number of
pieces to be packed?
(1) 4566 (2) 4655 (3) 4465 (4) 4640 (5) None of these
87. Which of the following set of fractions is in ascending order?
88. 3 Girls and 4 boys are to be seated in a row on 7 chairs in such a way that all the three girls
always sit together. n how many different ways can it be done?
(1) 720 (2) 576 (3) 144 (4) 480 (5) None of these
89. In how many different ways can the leters of the word DRASTIC be arranged in such a way
that the vowels always come together?
(1) 720 (2) 360 (3) 1440 (4) 540 (5) None of these
90. Area of circle is equal to the area of a rectangle having perimeter of 50 cms, and length more
than the breadth by 3 cms. What is the diameter of the circle?
(1) 7 cms (2) 21cms (3) 28 cms (4) 14 cms (5) None of these
Directions for Questions 91 to 95:
What will come in place of the question mark (?) in following equations?
93. 135% of 480+?% of 320 = 728
(1) 25 (2) 28
(3) 125 (4) 115
(5) None of these
95. 323.00115+? = 5000.015

(1) 145.014 (2) 155
(3) 145 (4) 155.014
(5) None of these
Direction for Questions 96 to 100 : What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in following equations?
96. 35% of 121+85% of 230.25=?
(1) 225 (2) 230 (3) 240 (4) 245 (5) 228
97. 3.28.1+ 3185 4.95 = ?
(1) 670 (2) 660 (3) 645 (4) 690 (5) 685
98. 2508 15.02 + ?11 = 200
(1) 13 (2) 8 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 6
99. 42.077.998 + ( ?) 2 = 20 2
(1) 6 (2) 12 (3) 32 (4) 64 (5) 8
100. 2375.85 18.01- 4.5258.05 = ?

(1) 105 (2) 96 (3) 88 (4) 90 (5) 112
Directions 101 to 105:
What will come in place of question mark (?) in each of the following number series?
101. 445 ? 21 6 2
(1) 89 (2) 88 (3) 98 (4) 99 (5) None of these
102. 11 36 ? 178 364
(1) 86 (2) 92 (3) 74 (4) 84 (5) None of these
103. 8 36 144 504 ?
(1) 1512 (2) 1296 (3) 1728 (4) 1664 (5) None of these
104. 5 6 20 ? 412
(1) 92 (2) 85 (3) 95 (4) 87
(5) None of these
105. 23 36 95 343 ?
(1) 1541.5 (2) 1551.5 (3) 1561.5 (4) 1543.5
(5) None of these
Directions 106 to 110: In each of the following questions two questions I & II are given. You have
to solve both the equations and giveanswer
(1) 1x > y (2) If x y (3) if x < y (4) if x y (5) if x = y
106.
I. 9x2 - 36x + 35 = 0
II. 3y2 -16y + 21 = 0
107.
I. 2x2 + 3x +1 = 0
II. 2y2 - 7 y + 6 = 0
108.
I. 2x2 -17x + 35 = 0
II. 2y2 +13y + 21 = 0
109.
I. 2x - y = 3
II. 2y - x = 15
110.
I. 20x2 - 9x +1 = 0
II. 9 y2 - 9y + 2 = 0
Directions 111 to 115 :
Study the following graphs carefully to answer these questions. Quantity of various items
produced and the amount earned by selling them
Quantity produced Total = 2000 tons
111. If the expenditure incurred in production of product C per ton was Rs. 16000, what was the
per cen profit earned?
(1) 12.5 (2) 11.11 (3) 12.25 (4) 11.28 (5) None of these
112. What is the average per ton selling price of all the six products together?
(1) Rs. 20, 525 (2) Rs. 18, 500 (3) Rs.22,500 (4) Rs. 20, 500 (5) Rs. 18, 525
113. What is the selling price of product A per ton?
(1) Rs. 17, 580
(2) Rs. 18, 570
(3) Rs. 17, 850
(4) Rs. 18, 750
(5) None of these
114. Approximately, what was the average selling price per ton of products D& E together?
(1) Rs. 21, 800 (2) Rs. 22, 800 (3) Rs. 22, 000 (4) Rs. 22, 500 (5) Rs. 23, 500
115. Which product has the highest selling price per ton?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) None of these
Directions for Questions 116 to 120: Study the following table to answer these questions.
Number of Officers in various Departments of an Organization in different Scales
116. What is the ratio between the total number of employees in Scale III and Scale IV
respectivity?
(1) 19:9 (2) 9:19 (3) 17:9 (4) 9: 17 (5) None of these
117. Total number of employees in Scale VI is what per cent of the total number of employees in
Scale I ?
(1) 2.8 (2) 2.4 (3) 3.6 (4) 3.2 (5) None of these
Deptt.Scale Personnel Operations Systems Accounts Maintenance Public Relations
I 225 725 750 300 325 175
II 120 426 576 288 240 150
III 75 250 320 120 85 100
IV 40 126 144 60 30 50
V 25 65 70 35 20 35
VI 4 20 28 15 8 5
118. In Public Relations department the number o in Scale II is less than that in Scale I by what
percent? (rounded off to two diaits after decimal)
(1) 14.67 (2) 16.67(3) 14.29 (4) 16.27 (5) None of these
119. Out of the total number of employees in Personnel department, approximately what per
cent of employees are in scale II?
(1) 26.5 (2) 28
(3) 28.5 (4) 27
(5) None of these
REASONING
Directions 121 to 125: Read the following information carefully and answer questions given
below:
A, B, D, F, G, H and K are seven members of a family. The belong to three generations. There
are two married couples belonging to two different generations. D is son of H and is married to
K,F is granddaughter of B. Gs father is grandfather of A. Bs husband is fatherinlaw of K.H has
only one son.
121. How is K related to G?
(1) Sisterinlaw (2) Sister (3) Niece (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
122. Which of the following is the pair of married ladies?
(1) HK (2) HD (3) KF (4) BF (5) None of these
123. How is F related to G?
(1) Son (2) Nephew (3) Niece (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
124. How many female members are there among them?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
125. How is H related to B ?
(1) Father (2) Fatherinlaw (3) Uncle (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Directions for Questions 126 to 130: Study the following arrangement of the English alphabet
and answer the following questions:
F J M P O W R N B E Y C KAV L
DGXUHQISZT
126. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above
arrangement and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
(1) OMR (2) ECN (3) BRY (4) KYV (5) HXI
127. FMJ : TSZ in the same way as JMP : ?
(1) ZIS (2) ISZ (3) SIQ (4) ZSI(5) IZS
128. Which letter is the 10 th to the right of the letter which is exactly the middle letter between F
and D ?
(1) G (2) D (3) U (4) H (5) None of these
129. Which of the following pairs of letters has as many letters between them in the above
arrangement as there are between them in the English alphabet?
1) MR (2) EL (3) LS (4) AI (5) MO
130. If each letter is attached a value equal to its serial number in the above arrangement
starting from your left, then what will be the sum of the numbers attached to all the vowels in the
arrangement?
(1) 73 (2) 50 (3) 63 (4) 58 (5) None of these
irections for questions 131 to 135: Following is given a set of digits and the corresponding letter
code of each digit followed by certain conditions for coding.
Digit : 2 5 7 8 9 4 6 3 1
Letter Code : M R T B W K D N J
In each question one number consisting six digits followed by four combinations of letter codes.
You have to find out which of the combination of letter codes represents the set of digits based
on the abouve codes and the conditions given below and mark your answer accordingly.
Otherwise give answer (5) i.e. None of these. Conditions : (i) If both the first and the last digits of
the number are odd digits then both are to be codes as I. (ii) If both
he first and last digits of the number are even digits then both are to be coded as Y.
131. 726395 (1) IMDNWI (2) YMDNWY (3) TMDNWR (4) IMDNWR (5) None of these
132. 263847 (1) IDNBKI (2) YDNBKY (3) IDNBKY (4) MDNBKY (5) None of these
133. 591248 (1) IWJMKB (2) RWJMKY (3) YWJMKY (4) RWJMKB (5) None of these
134. 615824 (1) IJRBMI (2) IJRBMY (3) YJRBMY (4) DJRBMK (5) None of these
135. 831795 (1) INJTWR (2) BNJTWR (3) BNJTWY (4) YNJYWY (5) None of these
Directions for questions 136 to 140: In each of the questions below there are three statements
followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements.
136. Statements:All gogs are birds. Some birds are trees. No house is tree.
Conclusions:
I. Some house are dogs.
II. Some birds are dogs.
III. Some trees are dogs
(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only II follows (4) Only II and III follow (5) None of these
137. Statements :
All goats are tigers. Some tigers are horses. All horses are jackals.
Conclusions:
I. Some jackals are tigers
II. Some jackals are goats
III. Some horses are goats
(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only I and II follow (4) Only II and follow (5) All follow
138. Statements:
Some pens are tables. All tables are links. Some links are apples.
Conclusions:
I. Some apples are pens.
II. Some apples are tables.
III. Some inks are pens.
(1) None follows (2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows (4) Only III follows (5) None of these
139. Statements:
All fruits are vegetables. All pens are vegetables. All
vegetables are rains.
Conclusion:
I. All fruits are rains
II. All pens are rains
III. Some rains are vegetables
(1) None follows (2) Only I and II follow (3) Only II and III follow (4) Only I and III follow (5) All
follow
140. Statements:
Some flowers are skies. Some skies are rooms. Some
rooms are windows.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are skies
II. Some rooms are flowers
III. No sky is window
(1) Only I follows (2) Only either I or II follows (3) Only either II or III follows (4) Only either I or III
follows (5) None of these
141. In a certain code GROWTH is writen as HQPVUG and FOUR as GNVQ. How is
PROBLEMS written in that code?
(1) OQPAMDNR (2) QQNCMDNR (3) QQPAKDNR (4) QQPAMDNR (5) None of these
142. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHILDREN each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as there are between them in the English alphabet?
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 2 (5) None of these
143. Pointing to the lady in the photograph, Seema said, Her sons father is the son in law of my
mother. How is Seema related to the lady?
(1) Sister (2) Mother (3) Counsin (4) Aunt (5) None of these
144. Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one
does not belong to that group?
(1) DONE : NOED (2) WANT : NATW (3) WITH : TIHW (4) JUST : SUJT (5) HAVE : AVEH
145. Each of the vowels in the word MAGNIFY is replaced by number 2 and each consonant is
replaced by a number which is the serial number of that consonant in the word, i.e. M by 1, G by
3 and so on. What is the total all the numbers once the replacement is completed?
(1) 25 (2) 24 (3) 26 (4) 22 (5) None of these
Directions for Questions 146 to 150: In the following questions, the symbols, @, #, $, %, *are
used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
P @ Q means P is not greater than Q
P # Q means P is greater than or equal to Q
P $ Q means P is less than Q
P * Q means P is neither greater than nor less than Q
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of
the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true?
146. Statement: B $ R, R * N, K @ N
Conclusions: I. B * K II. K % R III. B # N
1) All are true (2) only I is true (3) Only I and II are true (4) Only I and III are true (5) None of
these
147. Statements:
M % R, R # T, T * N
Conclusions:
I. N % R II. M % T III. M * N
(1) Nine is true (2) Only I is true
(3) only II is true (4) Only I and III are true
(5) All are true
148. Statements:
V # T, T % N, N * M
Conclusions:
I. V % N II. M * T III. V # M
(1) All are true (2) Only I is true
(3) Inly II and III are true
(4) Only I and II are true
(5) None of these
149. Statements:
D $ K, K % W, F @ W
Conclusions:
I. F % K II. D * W III. D * F
(1) None is true (2) Only II is true

(3) Only II and and III are true
(4) Only III is true
(5) All are true
150. Statements:
J @ H, H % M, D # M
Conclusions:
I. J % D II. D * H III. M * J
(1) Only land II are true
(2) Only II and III are true
(3) Only I and III are true
(4) All are true
(5) None of these
151. In a class, among the passed students Neeta is 22nd from the top and Kalyan, who is 5
ranks below Neeta is 34th from the bottom. All the students from the class have appeared for the
exam. If the ratio of the students who passed in the exam to those who failed is 4:1 in that class,
how many students are there in the class?
(1) Data inadequate (2) 60 (3) 75 (4) 90 (5) None of these
,
152. If in a certain code, O is written as E, A, as C, M as I, S as O, N as P, E as M, I,
as A, P as N, and C as S, then how will COMPANIES be written in that code?
(1) SEIACPAMO (2) SMINCPAMO (3) SEINCPAMO (4) SEINCPMIO (5) None of these
153. If a meanigful word beginning with B can be formed from HACEB, then the fourth letter of
that word is your answer. If no such word can be formed then your answer is 5 i.e., None of
these.
(1) A (2) C (3) E (4) H
(5) None of these
154. In a certain code what else can you do for me, Mr. is written as You Mr. what can Ajay else
do me
for. How will anyone else who can do such favour to be written in that code?
(1) Can to who anyone me else do favour such
(2) Can favour anyone who me else do to such
(3) Can to anyone who me else do such favour
(4) Can to anyone who me do else favour such
(5) None of these
155. B is the husband of P. Q is the only grandson of E, who is wife of D and motherinlaw of P.
How is B related to D?
(1) Counsin (2) Soninlaw (3) Son (4) Nephew\ (5) None of these
Directions for Questions 156 to 160:There are two sets of figures. One set is called
ProblemFigures while he other set is called Answer Figures. Problem set figures from some kind
of series. You have to select one figure the Answer set figures which will continue the same
series as given in Problem set figures.
156.
157.
COMPUTER
161. Which of the following sort technique does not use divide and conquer methodology?
(1) Merge sort (2) Bubble sort (3) Quick sort (4) Both (1) and (2) (5) None of these
162. A technique which collects all defected space onto free storage list is called
(1) Static memory allocation
(2) Garbage collection
(3) Dynamic memory allocation
(5) None of these
163. Node to node delivery of the data unit is the responsibility of the laer.
(1) Physical (2) Data link (3) Transport (4) Network (5) None of these
164. Am and FM are examples of modulation
(1) Digitaldigital
(2) Digital to analog
(3) Analog to analog
(4) Analog to digital
(5) None of these
165. What is the major factor that makes co axial cable less susceptible to noise than twisted pair
cable?
(1) Inner conductor
(2) Diameter of Cable
(3) Outer conductor
(4) Insulating material
(5) None of these
166. VLF propagation occurs in
(1) Troposhere (2) Inosphere
(3) Space (4) All of the above
(5) None of these
167. ____________ is the concept of sending extra bits for use in error detection.
(1) Check (2) Redundancy(3) Checksum fault (4) Detection (5) None of these
168. A data communication system covering at area the size of a town or city is
(1) LAN (2) WAN (3) MAN (4) VPN (5) None of these
169. The ____________ model shows how to network functions of computer to be organised.
(1) ITUT (2) At and T (3) OSI (4) ISO (5) None of these
170. The physical layer is concerned with transmission of _________ over the physical medium.
(1) Programs (2) Dialogs (3) Protocols (4) Bits (5) None of these
171. Virtual memory systemallow the employment of
(1) More than address space
(2) The full address space

(3) More than hard disk capacity
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(5) Noen of these
172. A 8 bit microprocessor must have
(1) 8 address lines (2) 8 data lines(3) 8 control lines (4) Either (1) or (2) (5) None of these
173. The basic circuit of ECI supports the
(1) NAND logic (2) NOR logic (3) EXOR logic (4) OR Nor logic (5) None of these
174. In fourth generation computer, the main technology used is
(1) Transistor (2) SSI (3) MSI (4) LSI and VLSI (5) None of these
175. In a halfadder, CARRY is obtained by using
(1) OR gate (2) N and gate (3) And gate (4) ExNor gate (5) None of these
176. Assembly language programs are written using
(1) Hex Code (2) Mnemonics (3) ASCII Code (4) Either (1) or (2) (5) None of these
177. Micro instructions are kept in
(1) Main memory (2) Control store (3) Cache (4) Either (1) or (2) (5) None of these
178. The number of input lines required for a 8 to 1 multiplexes is
(1) 1 (2) 8 (3) 3 (4) 256 (5)None of these
179. Link of linked list in C of type
(1) Unsigned integer
(2) Pointer of interger
(3) Pointer of struct
(4) Either (1) or (2)
(5) None of these
180. In HTML coding which out of the following attribute HR tag suppresses the shading effect
and fields a solid line
(1) Noshade (2) Nocolor (3) Nohr (4) Either (1) or (2) (5) None of these
MARKETING
181. A technique in which the researcher shows a swt of pictures to the respondents and then
asks them to describe what they think the pictures represent?
(1) MAT (2) SAT (3) TAT (4) CAT (5) None of these
182. Which among the following are the disadvantage of Focus Group Interview?
(1) Difficulty in sample selection
(2) Samples are necessarily small
(3) Difficulty in analysing the results
(5) None of these
183. A predetermined cost for having a standard employee perform under standard conditions as
one easurable unit of the activity is
(1) Fixed cost (2) Merchandise cost (3) Selling cost (4) Standard cost (5) None of these
184. The purchase of salt of the same brand comes under
(1) Habitual buying behavior
(2) Ordinal behaviour
(3) Complex burying behaviour
(4) Dissonance reducing buying behaviour
(5) None of these
185. A situation when there is repetitive or routine basis order given by the buyer to the older
suppliers is nown as________
(1) Modified Rebuy
(2) Straight Rebuy
(3) Positive Rebuy

(4) New Task
(5) None of these
186. In Banking Serives, market can be segment on the basis of _________________
(1) Density (2) Customer (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2) (5) None of these
187. In testing the new product, concept testing is __________
(1) Customers reaction to the idea of product
(2) Salesman reaction to the idea of product
(3) To put the real product into a few selected markets
(4) To asses total product performance
(5) None of these
188. When the product is finally submitted to the market, it is known as __________.
(1) Commercialization
(2) Product testing
(3) Concept testing
(4) Market testing
(5) None of these
189. Which among the following is/are true about Brand Rejuvenation?
1) It adds value to an existing brand
(2) It refocus the attention of con summer
(3) It helps overcome the consumers boredom
(5) None of these
190. What is the full form of V.E.D.?
(1) Value Exempted Demand
(2) Vital Essential Desirable
(3) Value Expected Desirable
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(5) None of these
191. A system of distribution channef in which the producer, wholesalers and retailers act as a
unified system
(1) Vertical Marketing System
(2) Horizontal Marketing System
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Neither (1) nor (2)
(5) None of these
192. Niche marketing refers to ____________
(1) A strategy that specialises in limited or unique product category
(2) A strategy that specialises in NICHE products
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(5) None of these
193. The sales promotion, customers response
(1) Quickly (2) Slowly (3) Immediately (4) Both (1) and (3) (5) None of these
94. Which among the following is a disadvantage of Press as an Advertising medium?
(1) High cost of brand usage
(2) Short message life
(3) Suitable only for educated class
(5) None of these
195. In cash the objective of the company is to increase repeat purchase, the appropriate
promotional tool would be
(1) Coupons in print media
(2) Multiple packs
(3) Trade deals
(4) Continuity promotions
(5) None of these
196. Which among the following is the most commonly used sales promotional technique in
India?
(1) Price Deals
(2) Refunds and Refits
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(5) None of these
197. Which among the following has an impact on the morale of the salesforce?
(1) Salary
(2) Incentives
(3) Organisational structure
(5) None of these
198. In the preapproach stage of personal selling
(1) Salesman tries to know about the like and dislike of the prospect
(2) Salesman identify the prospect
(3) Test the product
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(5) None of these
199. An organisational structure designed to overcome the problems of individual sales
organisations is called
(1) Hyprid sales organisation
(2) Double sales organisation
(3) Tripls sales organisation i
(5) None of these
200. While selecting an advertising medium, which criteria should be consideredd?
(1) Coverage
(2) Fusibility
(3) Frequency
(5) None of these
IBPS general awareness question for learn and practice,IBPS aptitude, reasoning,bank based
general awareness questions with answers
1- Glencore, worlds largest diversified trading house and..signed an MoU for $ 41 billion in a deal
to create a powerhouse spanning mining, agriculture and trading.
1. MC Ewen Mining Inc
2. Xstrata -Answer
3. Kariganur Minerals Mining Industry
4. Bombay Mineral
5. None of these
2- With which of the following Indian companies did US based mattress company Restonic Corporation
sign a 25-year agreement?
1. HPCL
2. Peps Industries -Answer
3. Lakshmi Mills
4. Fab India
3- Adani Enterprises Ltd. in January 2012 announced the commissioning of Indias largest solar power
plant in..
1. Karnataka
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Gujarat -Answer
4- What is the name of the Ultra High Temperature (UHT) treated milk launched by Cavinkare Pvt. Ltd
which keeps milk afresh without refrigeration?
1. Pure + -Answer
2. Pure 100
3. Super Pure
4. None of the above
5- Who among the following Rajat Jain replaced as new Managing Director of Xerox India?
1. Konstantin Klein-Answer
2. Sandeep Jain
3. Herve Tessler
4. Mr. Thomas
6- Spark the rise is a branding initiative by which company?
1. M & M -Answer
2. TCS
3. Ford India Ltd.
4. Bharti Enterprises
7- Which of the following banks was appointed as the lead bank for the government of Indias Financial
Inclusion (FT) Plan in Mewat?
1. State bank of India
2. Syndicate Bank -Answer
3. Dena Bank
4. HDFC Bank
8- Which of the following banks organized Mass CASA Account Campaign all over India recently?
1. Dena Bank -Answer
2. HDFC Bank
3. Syndicate Bank
4. Axis Bank
9- Which of the following companies recently received the award for contribution to supply chain, and
logistics of the year at the Indian Supply Chain and Logistics Summit 2012?
1. Gati -Answer
2. Bajaj Electrical
3. Havells India
4. Andhra Electronics
10- Which company owns the cult brand- Maggi?
1. Cadbury
2. Dabur
3. Nestle -Answer
4. Britannia
Current affairs Questions -August -2012
1. Who is appointed as Chief economic advisor in the finance ministry department of India?
Raghuram Rajan
2. Who replaces Keshub Mahindra as Chairman of Mahindra and Mahindra?
Anand Mahindra
3. Which Indian state will set up Common Bio-Medical Waste Treatment Disposal Facility to manage
and handle bio medical waste of government and private hospitals in all of its districts?
Haryana
4. Who will be appointed as chairman of Barclays from 1st November 2012 succeeding Marcus Aguis?
David Walker
5. Name the provision introduced by government through Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2011 to take
over unclaimed amount of inoperative fixed deposit accounts of over 10 years ?
Depositor Education and Awareness Fund
6. What is the current rank of Saina Nehwal globally after winning bronze medal at Olympics 2012?
4th rank
7. Name the public sector undertaking oil company which posted a quarterly loss of Rs.22,451 crore for
April-June 2012 quarter.
Indian Oil Corporation (IOC)
8. Where was the 15th Confederation of Indian industry insurance summit held?
Mumbai
9. Name the former Maharashtra Health Minister who died recently.
Digvijay Khanvilkar
10. How is Dubbed Gauss known in technology world?
A virus capable of spying on financial transactions, email and social networking activities
11. Who is appointed as Prime Minister of Syria?
Wael al-Halki
12. Name the institute which will be setup to manage land records in India ?
National Institute of Land Management
13. Where was the 4th North East Cultural Festival held in India?
Naharlagun near Itanagar
14. Where was the World Tribal Day observed in India?
Ranchi, Jharkhand
15. Name the Gujarati Sahitya Akademi award winner of 2005 who died recently.
Suresh Dalal
16. Which weather pattern can cause widespread drought in Australia, parts of Africa, Southeast Asia
and India?
El Nino
17. Who is appointed as Chief Finance Officer of Cairn India?
Sudhir Mathur
18. Expand ETA. (Hint: Transactions)
Electronic Transactions Association
19. Which Indian state could lead to zero-population growth rate in 25 to 30 years according to its State
Urbanisation Report?
Kerala
20. Who is elected as interim president of Libya?
Mohammed el-Megarif
21. Which drink in India is suggested by Parliament panel to be declared as National drink?
Tea
22. Name the Indian bronze medalist who won the 60kg wrestling competition at the London Olympics
2012?
Yogeshwar Dutt
23. What is the newly set radius of distance from the existing ones between mobile towers as per DoT
norms?
1km
24. Name the team who won their 2nd consecutive Olympic hockey gold?
Netherlands
25. Name the Libyan army general who was shot dead recently.
Mohammed Hadiya Al-Feitouri
26. What is the total amount finalised for Delhi's Annual Plan 2012-13?
Rs.15,862 crores
27. Who won silver medal for India in the final of the Men's 66kg Freestyle wrestling at the Olympics
2012?
Sushil Kumar
28. Name the German bank which is in its final stage to launch trading hub in Tokyo.
Bundesbank
29. Who is appointed as Prime Minister David Cameron's Olympic legacy ambassador?
Seb Coe
30. How many stocks in BSE will be shifted to (trade-to-trade)T segment with effect from August 21st
2012?
19
31. Which Indian state has been selected as a pilot state for launching e-Biz (Government to Business)
project?
Odisha
32. SEBI recently allowed which instrument as valid address proof investors?
Aadhaar card
33. Expand NGN. (Hint: Network)
Next Generation Network
34. Name the Ex-Maharashtra Chief minister who died recently.
Vilasrao Deshmukh
35. Who is appointed as Managing Director of Tata Motors?
Karl Slym (To lead operations from 1st October 2012)
36. Who is appointed as Prime Minister of Mongolia?
Norov Althanhuyag
37. Who displayed Indian tri-color flag on the occasion of Independence Day and wished the country on
board from International Space Station?
Sunita Williams
38. Who became India's 3rd Prime Minister to hoist National flag at Red Fort for the 9th time?
Dr. Manmohan Singh
39. Which stock exchange opened its day with the colours of the Indian flag as Consul General Prabhu
Dayal rang the opening bell celebrating India's 66th Independence Day?
NASDAQ
40. Who is named as president and CEO of New York Times?
Mark Thompson (Ex-Director General BBC)
41. Expand CCP. (Hint: collection)
Cheque Collection Policies
42. Expand IFFCO. (Hint: farmers)
Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited
43. Expand MMR. (Hint: Mortality)
Maternal Mortality Rate
44. Which country will host 2016 Olympic Games?
Rio de Janerio, Brazil
45. Name the director of the movie 'Bandit Queen' who passed away.
Ashok Mehta
46. What is Geophagy?
Geophagy is a practice of eating earthy or soil like substances such as clay and chalk.
47. What is a water clock?
Clocks which dont rely upon sunlight to show time, they operate by dripping water from
containers at measured intervals.
48. What is an atomic clock?

An atomic clock uses measurements of energy released from atoms to preciselymeasure time.
49. Which Indian state received Rs.1355 crore from NABARD for construction of roads in rural areas
recently?
Rajasthan
50. Which scheme is Government of India planning to launch by August 15th 2012 aiming to boost
retail investments in the capital market?
Rajiv Gandhi equity scheme
51. TCS recently topped which company to become India's most valued company with its market
capitalisation of over Rs.2.38 lakh crore?
ONGC
52. Which sporting event's opening ceremony was held in London recently?
30th Olympics (Summer Olympics 2012)
53. Recently World Bank granted what worth of loan to Himachal Pradesh for green development?
$200 million (Rs.1,000 crore)
54. Which 3 Indian states could be in trouble as the water level at Bhakra reservoir drops and also
impact next Rabi crop, wheat?
Haryana, Punjab and Rajasthan
55. Who is set to head as 14th Finance Commission personnel in India?
Yaga Venugopal Reddy
56. Name the deadly virus which has killed 13 people in Uganda recently.
Ebola
57. Which airways will fly daily flight from Mumbai to Johannesburg route from October 2012?
South African Airways
58. Which airport is planned in Meham of Haryana state?
Cargo airport
59. Which finance company is hit by RBI's gold loan cap?
Muthoot Finance
60. Expand LTV. (Hint: loan)
Loan-to-value
61. Which country won rights to mine under Indian Ocean recently?
South Korea
62. Who is elected as the President for Andhra Pradesh Film Chamber of Commerce for the year 201213?
Tammareddy Bharadwaja
63. Which Indian state bagged best heritage tourism award at the 3-day India Tourism Mart held at
Bangalore recently?
Bihar
64. Who won the first medal (Bronze) for India at the London Olympics 2012?
Gagan Narang
65. Which country will host the 10th International Junior Science Olympiads?
Mumbai, India
66. Which Indian state will provide Rs.140 crore package to tackle drought situation?
Jharkhand
67. Name the Padma Bhushan, Kalidas Puraskar and Kalaimamani award recipient, Kuchipudi dancer
who passed away recently?
Vempati Chinna Satyam
68. Who is appointed as India Chief Executive by Deutsche bank?
Ravneet Gill
69. Expand ESI. (Hint: Sentiment)
Economic Sentiment Indicator
70. What is the extended date for e-filling of tax returns in India?
August 31st 2012
71. Which company will sponsor all Indian medal winners of 2012 London Olympics for the 2016 Rio
De Janerio Olympics?
Steel Authority of India
1. Name the Indian High jumper who won a silver medal in (F42 single leg, amputations minimal
disability category) at London Paralympics Games.
(a) Girisha Hosanagara Nagarajegowda
(b) Vijay Singh Chauhan
(c) Suresh Babu
(d) Hari Shankar Roy

Answer: (a) Girisha Hosanagara Nagarajegowda
2. The legendary tennis player from US who announced his retirement during the US open on 6
September 2012 after facing a defeat from John Martin del Potro.
(a) Roger Federer
(b) Rafael Nadal
(c) Novak Djokovic
(d) Andy Roddick
Answer: (d) Andy Roddick
3. Which Indian female wrestler won Bronze in the World Junior Championship at Pattava on 6
September 2012?
(a) Indu Choudhary
(b) Geeta Phogat
(c) Sonika Kaliraman
(d) Alka tomar
Answer: (a) Indu Choudhary
4. Name the Formula one driver who became the winner of Italian Grand Prix 2012
(a) Fernando Alonso
(b) Lewis Hamilton
(c) Sebastian Vettel
(d) Michael Schumacher
Answer: (b) Lewis Hamilton
5. Name the tennis player who became the first British man to capture US Open Grand Slam Singles
Championship after 76 years by defeating Novak Djokovic on 11 September 2012.
(a) Andy Murray
(b) Max Woonsam
(c) Jamie Murray
(d) Bunny Austin
Answer: (a) Andy Murray
6. Name the New Zealands fast bowler who retired from both International and Domestic Cricket
(a) Shane Bond
(b) Daryl Tuffey
(c) Ian Butler
(d) Chris Martin
Answer (b) Daryl Tuffey
7. The boxing Champion, Muhammad Ali who retired from the game in the year 1981 was honoured
with Medal in Philadelphia on 13 September 2012. What was the name of that medal?
(a) Liberty medal
(b) Medal of Excellence

(c) Indecorum medal
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Liberty medal
8. Which Indian player became ICC ODI cricketer of the year?
(a) Virendra Sehwag
(b) MS Dhoni
(c) Suresh Raina
(d) Virat Kohli
Answer: (d) Virat kohli
9. Which character is declared to be the official mascot for the 2014 FIFA World Cup in Brazil on 12
September 2012.
(a) Laughing Buddha
(b) A Smiling Armadillo
(c) Shera
(d) A Running Pichachhoo
Answer: (b) A Smiling Armadillo
10. Women SAF football championship 2012 was won by which country?
(a) Nepal
(b) Bhutan
(c) China
(d) India
Answer: (d) India
11. Name the two players on whom AITA (All India Tennis Association) extended ban till June 2014
(a) Mahesh Bhupati and Rohan Bopanna
(b) Sania Mirza and Rohan Bopanna
(c) Leander Paes and Sania Mirza
(d) Leander Paes and Mahesh Bhupati
Answer: (a) Mahesh Bhupati and Rohan Bopanna
12. Name the owner of Delhi franchise of hockey India
(a) Tata Group
(b) Wave Group
(c) Bharti Group
(d) Aircel and Reliance
Answer: (b) Wave Group
13. Name the person who has been appointed as full time president of Hockey India.
(a) Gayatri Shetty
(b) Mariamma koshy
(c) Bachendri Pal

(d) Dilip Tirki
Answer: (b) Mariamma koshy
14. Name the the Australian Cricketer who on 20 September 2012 announced his retirement from all
formats of Cricket.
(a) Matthew Hayden
(b) Ricky Pointing
(c) Michael Clarke
(d) Bret Lee
Answer: (a) Matthew Hayden
15. Name the BJP MLA who was elected as the President of Indian Boxing Federation on 23
September 2012.
(a) Abhishek Matoria
(b) Ashok Gehlot
(c) Mahesh Joshi
(d) Sachin Pilot
Answer: (a) Abhishek Matoria
16. Name the England football player, the captain of Chelsea in the premier league who announced his
retirement from International Football on 24 September 2012.
(a) John Terry
(b) Stevan Gerrard
(c) David Beckham
(d) Ashley Cole
Answer: (a) John Terry
17. Name the Indian boxer and London Olympic bronze medalist who on 24 September 2012 named as
the brand ambassador of super fight league.
(a) Vijendra Singh
(b) M C Mary Kom
(c) Manoj Kumar
(d) Vikas Krishan
Answer: (b) M C Mary Kom
18. Name the Former Cricketer and all-rounder, who was appointed as the Chairman of the five
member senior selection committee of BCCI on 27 September 2012.
(a) Saba Karim
(b) Vikram Rathour
(c) Sandeep Patil
(d) Rajinder Singh Hans.
Answer: (c) Sandeep Patil
19. Deepika Kumari the Sports Person from India, won Silver at Recurve World Cup on 23 September
2012 in Tokyo. Recurve world Cup is related to which Sports Event?
(a) Archery
(b) Shooting
(c) Disc Throwing
(d) Volley ball
Answer: (a) Archery
20. Which Indian golfer wrapped up a four-shot victory at the Yeangder tournament players
Championship in Chinese Taipei on 17 September 2012?
(a) Gaganjeet Bhullar
(b) Jeev Mikha Singh
(c) Shiv Kapur
(d) Jyoti Randhawa
Answer: (a) Gaganjeet Bhullar
21. The Supreme Court of India on 4 September 2012 directed the Union Government of India to re-fix
the pay scale of army officers affected by the which Pay Commission?
(a) Fourth pay Commission
(b) Sixth pay Commission
(c) Fifth Pay Commission
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Fourth pay Commission
22. At what interest rate percent per annum, The Union Cabinet gave its approval to continue interest
subsidy to Public Sector Banks (PSBs), Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Cooperatives Banks and
NABARD enabling them to provide short-term crop loans of up to Rs 3 lakhs to farmers during the year
2012-13?
(a) 7% Per annum
(b) 8.5 % Per annum
(c) 6 % Per annum
(d) 5 % per annum
Answer: (a) 7 % per annum
23. To what percent Government of India on 11 September 2012 reduced interest rates on rescheduled
crop loans from 12 percent in the drought-affected areas for the fiscal year 2012-13
(a) 8 percent
(b) 5 percent
(c) 7 percent
(d) 6 percent
Answer: (c) 7 Percent
24. The State Health Ministry of Arunachal Pradesh launched a scheme in Itanagar on 14 September
2012 for providing financial assistance upto 1.5 lakh rupees to BPL patients suffering from life
threatening diseases in the form of a onetime grant. What was the name of that scheme?
(a) Rashtriya Aarogya Nidhi
(b) Rashtriya Janseva Nidhi
(c) Rashtriya Sarvoklayan Prayojna
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Rashtriya Aarogya Nidhi
25. Name the Person of India who was appointed as Chief Economist of World Bank.
(a) Kaushik basu
(b) Jaideep Sarkar
(c) Narayan Murthy
(d) Nandan Nilkeni
Answer: (a) Kaushik basu
26. Name the person who on 13 September 2012 was appointed as the 39th chief justice of India
(a) Justice Altamas Kabir
(b) Justice A.K. Sikri
(c) Rajeev Gupta
(d) Justice Mohit Shantilal Shah
Answer: (a) Justice Altamas Kabir
27. Which person was appointed as the president of, The Indian Newspaper Society for the year 20122013 on 13 September 2012 during the 73rd annual meet of the Newspaper Society?
(a) K.N. Tilak Kumar
(b) Ravindra Kumar
(c) Ashish Bagga
(d) Pradeep Gupta
Answer: (a) K.N. Tilak Kumar
28. On which date Vayalar Ravi, Minister of Overseas Indian Affairs inaugurated the 7th Heads of
Indian Missions (HoMs) conference and announced revised Indian Community Welfare Fund (ICWF)
scheme.
(a) 15 September 2012
(b) 16 September 2012
(c) 17 September 2012
(d) 20 September 2012
Answer: (c) 17 September 2012
29. The Supreme Court of India on 14 September 2012 lifted the gag order on media reporting of troop
movement that was ordered by one of the High Court. HC order was in violation of the fundamental
right under Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution, granted to the media and every citizen of the country.
The order came from which of the high court?
(a) Allahabad High court
(b) Calcutta high court

(c) Karnataka high court
(d) Madras high court
Answer: (a) Allahabad High court
30. The Union government hiked Dearness Allowance (DA) by what percent benefiting its 80 lakh
employees and pensioners and costing the exchequer an additional Rs7,408 crore annually?
(a) 4 percent
(b) 8 percent
(c) 7 percent
(d) 6 percent
Answer: (c) 7 percent
331. On which date, the Union Cabinet of India, under the Chairmanship of Prime Minister Manmohan
Singh approved the long awaited demand for One Rank One Pension (OROP) and other benefits of exservicemen.
Answer: (b) 24 September 2012
32. Name the Union Minister who on 24 September 2012 took an additional charge of the Railway
Ministry after the exit of Mukul Roy.
(a) C.P. Joshi
(b) Nitish kumar
(c) Mamta Banerjee
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) C.P. Joshi
33. Which Indian Bollywood actress was appointed as International Goodwill Ambassador for the
United Nations Programme on HIV/AIDS (UNAIDS) ?
(a) Katrina Kaif
(b) Aishwarya Rai
(c) Kareena kapoor
(d) Madhuri Dixit
Answer: (b) Aishwarya Rai
34. The Election commission of India on 27 September 2012 directed the Political Parties and
candidates not to use which of the following in the election campaign as it was violating Article 51 (g) of
the constitution?
(a) Animals and Birds
(b) Arms and ammunition
(c) Heavy vehicles
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) Animals and birds
35. Name the Indian nuclear-capable surface-to-surface missile which on 19 September 2012 was
successfully test fired from Wheeler Island, off the Odisha Coast.
(a) Agni III
(b) Agni IV
(c) Prithvi III
(d) Agni V
Answer: (b) Agni IV
36 Scientists of the University of Michigan developed a gene therapy which they claimed could restore
the sense of olfactory function. What is this olfactory function related to?
(a) Sense of hearing
(b) Sense of smell
(c) Sense of sight
(d) Sense of touch
Answer: (b) Sense of Smell
37. Australian scientists along with US experts claimed that they have discovered treatment for
Alzheimer patients following a study finding a link to abnormalities in Alzheimer Patients. Alzheimers
disease is related to?
(a) Brain
(b) Heart
(c) Eye sightedness
(d) Liver
Answer: (a) Brain
3.8 Researchers from the Walter and Eliza Hall Institute in Australia discovered that two proteins that
work together to kill self-reactive immune cells can protect against diseases such as type1 diabetes and
rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis principally attacks which part of the body?
(a) Joints
(b) Skin
(c) Lungs
(d) Kidney
Answer: (a) Joints
39. India enter into its first multi-lateral Social Science research collaboration with four European
Nations by the approval of projects for networking and social science research cooperation in between
the researchers of these nations. The colaboration came into existence on which date?
Answer: (c) 5 September 2012

40. The Zoological Society of London and International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
released a list of 100 different species to be first in line for extinction from 48 different countries during
the World Conservation Congress held in Republic of Korea on 11 September 2012. The Indian species
that was categorised under first line of extinction was_____________
(a) Great Indian Bustard
(b) One horned Rhino
(c) Indian giant Squirrel
(d) Asiatic Lion
Answer: (a) Great Indian Bustard
London Olympics 2012 News
1. Which event will take place here at Horse Guards Parade?
a) Beach volleyball
b) Watersports
c) Boxing
The correct answer is a) Beach volleyball
2. Which of these events will be held here at the O2 Arena in Greenwich?
a) Beach volleyball
b) Watersports
c) Gymnastics
The correct answer is c) Gymnastics
3. Which event will be held here in this sweeping building?
a) Athletics
b) Track cycling
c) Fencing
The correct answer is b) Track cycling
4. Olympic football matches will be held at how many different stadia across the UK?
a) One
b) Three
c) Six
The correct answer is c) Six
5. Where in London will the Olympic tennis matches be played?

a) Queen's Club
b) Wimbledon
c) Stratford
The correct answer is b) Wimbledon
6 Which sport will be played on the Prime Minister's doorstep?
a) Fencing
b) Long jump
c) Beach volleyball
The correct answer is c) Beach volleyball
7. What is the name of the building where the track cycling event will take place?
a) Velodrome
b) Eton Manor
c) Old Trafford
The correct answer a) Velodrome
8. After the 2012 Games in London, where will the next Summer Olympic Games be held?
a) Brazil
b) Belize
c) Bolvia
The correct answer is a) Brazil
9. How much water will the Aquatics Centre use?
a) 5 million litres
b) 30 million litres
c) 10 million litres
The correct answer is c) 10 million litres
10. What type of sport will this specially-built course at Lee Valley be used for?
a) Watersports
b) Triathlon
c) Cycling
The correct answer is a) Watersports
11. Which country held the last Summer Olympic Games?

a) Bolivia
b) China
c) Denmark
The correct answer is c) China
12. Which sport will kick off the games?
a) Women's rugby
b) Women's football
c) Women's golf
The correct answer is b) Women's football
13. How many sports will feature in the games?
a) 36
b) 55
c) 70
The correct answer is a) 36
14. Which of these Olympic venues is outside London?
a) Wembley Stadium
b) Olympic Stadium
c) Millennium Stadium
The correct answer is c) Millennium Stadium
15. Who are the official London 2012 mascots?
a) Wendey and Mathew
b) William and Mary
c) Wenlock and Mandeville
The correct answer is c) Wenlock and Mandeville

18. Which sport will be played on the Prime Minister's doorstep?
a) Fencing
b) Long jump
c) Beach volleyball
The correct answer is c) Beach volleyball
19. What is the name of the building where the track cycling event will take place?
a) Velodrome
b) Eton Manor
c) Old Trafford
The correct answer a) Velodrome
20. After the 2012 Games in London, where will the next Summer Olympic Games be held?
a) Brazil
b) Belize
c) Bolvia
The correct answer is a) Brazil
21. How much water will the Aquatics Centre use?
a) 5 million litres
b) 30 million litres
c) 10 million litres
The correct answer is c) 10 million litres
22. What type of sport will this specially-built course at Lee Valley be used for?
a) Watersports
b) Triathlon
c) Cycling
The correct answer is a) Watersports
23 What is the official website of the 2012 Olympics?
Olympics2012.com
OlymicGames2012London.com -Answer
London2012.eu
London2012.com
24 The Olympic Games are organized for the ... time.
33th
43th
23th
37th
27th -Answer
25 When did the IOC decide to let London organise the 2012 Olympics?
2008
2009
2007
2005 -Answer
2006
26 How many Olympic disciplines will be played?
17
26
21
32
27 Give the end date for the 2012 Olympic Games.
August 5, 2012
July 16, 2012
August 17, 2012
August 12, 2012
28 Which sport will not be played during the 2012 Olympics?
Canoeing
Fencing
Baseball -Answer
29 What's the official name for the organisation of the 2012 Olympics?
London Organising Olympic 2012
Olympic London Official - Olympic Games and Paralympic Games
Olympic Delivery Authority
London Organising Committee of the Olympic Games and Paralympic Games
30 The 2012 Olympic Games are also known as
The 2012 Winter Olympic Games
The 2012 Summer Olympic Games -Answer

31 What is the official name for the 2012 Olympic Games?
Summer Olympics Games of the XXX Olympiad
2012 Summer Olympic Games
Games of the XXX Olympiad -Answer
32 Give the start date for the 2012 Olympic Games.
July 27, 2012 -Answer
July 20, 2012
June 30, 2012
August 1, 2012
33 Who won the first medal (Bronze) for India at the London Olympics 2012?
Gagan Narang
34 Who won silver medal for India in the final of the Men's 66kg Freestyle wrestling at the Olympics
2012?
Sushil Kumar
35 Name the team who won their 2nd consecutive Olympic hockey gold?
Netherlands
DEC 13 2012
IBPS PO CWE Clerical free solved sample placement papers,IBPS PO CWE
aptitude,reasoning english and general awareness based on bank questions with
answers and detailed soultions
Directions (1-5) What approximate value should come in place of question mark(?) in the following
questions ?(You are not expected to calculate the exact value).
1. (56)2 x 2.5385 = ?
(1) 4740
(2) 5570
(3) 6600
(4) 7960 - Ans
(5) 8880
2. (775% of 523) 777 = ?

(1) 5 - Ans
(2) 12
(3) 19
(4) 26
(5) 29
3. 783.559 + 49.0937 x 31.679 - 58.591 = ?
(1) 26600
(2) 5000
(3) 12800
(4) 2550
(5) 2280 - Ans
4. (4438 - 2874 - 559) (269 - 106 -83)
(1) 55
(2) 13 - Ans
(3) 47
(4) 29
(5) 31
5. (12.51)4 = ?
(1) 22300
(2) 23400
(3) 24500 - Ans
(4) 25600
(5) 26700
Directions (Q. 6-10) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ?
6. 2187 729 243 81 27 9 ?
(1) 36
(2) 3 - Ans
(3) 18
(4) 6
(5) 12
7. 522 1235 2661 4800 7652 11217 ?
(1) 15495 - Ans
(2) 16208
(3) 14782
(4) 16921
(5) 14069
8. 51975 9450 2100 600 240 160 ?
(1) 80
(2) 120
(3) 320 - Ans
(4) 240
(5) 300
9. 4 18
48 100 294 ?
(1) 416
(2) 480
(3) 512
(4) 384
(5) 448 - Ans
10.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
6 26 134 666 3334 16666 ?

84344
83443
84434
83334
- Ans
83344
Directions 11-20) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?
11. 4895 + 364 x 0.75 - 49 = ?
(1) 5119 - Ans
(2) 3895
(3) 3907
(4) 5210
(5) None of these
12. 5 and 1/4 +6 and 2/3+ 7 and 1/6 = ?
(1) 19.5
(2) 19 and 11/12
(3) 19 and 1/12 - Ans
(4) 19
(5) None of these
13. [(144)2 48 x 18] 36 = ?
(1) 23328
(2) 36
(3) 216
(4) 46656 - Ans
(5) None of these
14. (27)18 (27)3 = ?
(1) (27) 54
(2) (27) 21
(3) (27) 15 - Ans
(4) (27) 6
(5) None of these
Expl : (3)? = (27)18 (27)3
= (27)18-3
(:. am an = am-n)
= (27)15
15. 156 + 16 x 1.5 - 21 = ?
(1) 126
(2) 258
(3) 237
(4) 159 - Ans
(5) None of these
16. 434.43 + 43.34 + 3.44 + 4 + 0.33 = ?
(1) 421.45
(2) 455.54
(3) 485.54 - Ans
(4) 447.45
(5) None of these
17. 24336 ? = 78 x 24
(1) 6
(2) 13 - Ans
(3) 11
(4) 17
(5) None of these
18. (98)45 x (98)-35 = ?
(1) 98
(2) (98)2
(3) (98) -5
(4) (98)10 - Ans
(5) None of these
19. (78.95) - (43.35) = ?
(1) 4353.88 - Ans
(2) 4305
(3) 4235.78
(4)4148
(5) None of these
20. (23.6 % of 1254) - (16.6 % of 834) = ?
(1) 159.5
(2) 157.5 - Ans
(3) 155.5
(4) 153.5
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 21-25) In each of these questions, two equations I and II with variables a and b are
given. You have to solve both the equations to find the values of a and b.
Mark answer if
(1) a<b
(2) a<b
(3) relationship between a and b cannot be established
(4) a>b
(5) a>b
I. 16a2 = 1
II.
3b2 +7b +2 = 0
Ans : 4
From statement I, 16a2 = 1
21.
==>
a = + 1/4
From Statement II
==>
==>
3b2 +7b +2 = 0
3b2 +6b +b+2 = 0
3b(b+2) +1(b+2) = 0
(3b+1) (b+2) = 0
b = -2 or -1/3
:. a>b
22. I. a2 + 5a + 6= 0
II. b2 +7b +12 = 0
Ans : 5
From statement I, a2 + 5a + 6= 0
==>
a2 + 2a + 3a+6= 0
==>
a(a+2) (a+3)= 0
==>
(a+2) (a+3)= 0
a=-2, -3
From statement II,

b2 +7b +12 = 0
==> 2
b +4b +3b+12 = 0
==>
b(b+4) +3(b+4)= 0
==> (b+3) (b+4) = 0
b= -3, -4
:.
a>b
I. a2 +2a +1 = 0
II. b2 = + 4
Ans : 3
23.
I. a2 -5a + 6=0
II. 2b2 - 13b +21 = 0
Ans : 2
24.
I. 2a2 + a-1 =0
II. 12b2 - 17b +6 =0
Ans :1
25.
26. A 200m long train crosses a platform of double its length in 36s. What is the speed of the train in
km/h. ?
(1) 60 - Ans
(2) 48
(3) 64
(4) 66
(5) None of these
27. Work done by A in one day is half of the work done by B in one day. Work done by B is half of the
work done by C in one day. If C along can complete the work in 7 days, in how many days can A, B and
C together complete the work ?
(1) 28
(2) 14
(3) 4 - Ans
(4) 21
(5) None of these
28. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DAILY be arranged ?
(1) 60
(2) 48
(3) 160
(4) 120 - Ans
(5) None of these
29. The number obtained by interchanging the digits of a two digit number is less than the original
number by 63. If the sum of the digits of the number is 11, what is the orginal number ?
(1) 29
(2) 92 - Ans
(3) 74
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
30. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator is increased by 300%, the
resultant fraction is 15/16. What was the original fraction ?
(1) 8/11
(2) 10/11
(3) 9/13
(4) 10/13 - Ans
(5) None of these
31. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs.996 is the same as loss incurred after selling the
article for Rs.894. What is the cost price of the article ?
(1) Rs.935
(2) Rs.905
(3) Rs.945 - Ans
(4) Rs.975
(5) None of these
32. The ages of Nishi and Vinnee are in the ratio of 6:5 respectively. After 9 yr the ratio of their ages will
be 9:8. what is the difference in their ages ?
(1) 9 yr
(2) 7 Yr
(3) 5 Yr
(4) 3 Yr - Ans
(5) None of these
33. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.84000 at the end of 3 yr is Rs.30240. What would
be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same period ?
(1) Rs.30013.95
(2) Rs. 31013.95
(3) Rs.32013.95
(4) Rs.33013.95
(5) Rs.34013.95 - Ans
34. The total of the ages of a class of 75 girsl is 1050, the average age of 25 of them is 12 yr and that of
another 25 is 16 yr. find the average age of the remaining girls.
(1) 12 yr
(2) 13 yr
(3) 14 yr - Ans
(4) 15 yr
(5) None of these
35. One-fifth of the number is 81. What will 68% of that number be ?
(1) 195.2
(2) 275.4 - Ans
(3) 225.6
(4) 165.8
(5) None of these

36. In a class of 40 students and 8 teachers, each student got sweets that are 20 % of the total number
of students and each teacher got sweets that are 25% of the total number of students. How many
sweets were there?
(1) 420
(2) 400 - Ans
(3) 320
(4) 360
(5) None of these
37. What is 35% of 45% of 7/9th of 3600?
(1) 441 - Ans
(2) 414
(3) 444
(4) 411
(5) None of these
38. A committee of 3 members is to be selected out of 3 men and 2 women. What is the probability that
the committee has at least one woman ?
(1) 1/10
(2) 9/20
(3) 9/10 - Ans
(4) 1/20
(5) None of these
39. By how much is 5/12th of 516 lesser than 4/5th of 495 ?
(1) 22
(2) 15
(3) 12
(4) 27
(5) None of these - Ans
40. Ms. Deepthi jain invests 11% of her monthly salary, ie, Rs.5236 in Fixed Deposits. Later, she invests
19% of her monthly salary on Life Insurance Policies; also she invests another 7% of her monthly
salary on Mutual Funds. what is the total annual amount invested by Ms. Deepti Jain ?
(1) Rs.211344 - Ans
(2) Rs.17612
(3) Rs.105672
(4) Rs.35224
(5) Non of the above
IBPS PO CWE Clerical free solved sample placement papers,IBPS PO CWE

aptitude,reasoning english and general awareness based on bank questions with
answers and detailed soultions
Directions (1-5) What approximate value should come in place of question mark(?) in the following
questions ?(You are not expected to calculate the exact value).
1. (56)2 x 2.5385 = ?
(1) 4740
(2) 5570
(3) 6600
(4) 7960 - Ans
(5) 8880
2. (775% of 523) 777 = ?
(1) 5 - Ans
(2) 12
(3) 19
(4) 26
(5) 29
3. 783.559 + 49.0937 x 31.679 - 58.591 = ?
(1) 26600
(2) 5000
(3) 12800
(4) 2550
(5) 2280 - Ans
4. (4438 - 2874 - 559) (269 - 106 -83)
(1) 55
(2) 13 - Ans
(3) 47
(4) 29
(5) 31
5. (12.51)4 = ?
(1) 22300
(2) 23400
(3) 24500 - Ans
(4) 25600
(5) 26700
Directions (Q. 6-10) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ?
6. 2187 729 243 81 27 9 ?
(1) 36
(2) 3 - Ans
(3) 18
(4) 6
(5) 12
7. 522 1235 2661 4800 7652 11217 ?
(1) 15495 - Ans
(2) 16208
(3) 14782
(4) 16921
(5) 14069
8. 51975 9450 2100 600 240 160 ?
(1) 80
(2) 120
(3) 320 - Ans
(4) 240
(5) 300
9. 4 18
48 100 294 ?
(1) 416
(2) 480
(3) 512
(4) 384
(5) 448 - Ans
10.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
6 26 134 666 3334 16666 ?

84344
83443
84434
83334
- Ans
83344
Directions 11-20) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?
11. 4895 + 364 x 0.75 - 49 = ?
(1) 5119 - Ans
(2) 3895
(3) 3907
(4) 5210
(5) None of these

12. 5 and 1/4 +6 and 2/3+ 7 and 1/6 = ?
(1) 19.5
(2) 19 and 11/12
(3) 19 and 1/12 - Ans
(4) 19
(5) None of these
13. [(144)2 48 x 18] 36 = ?
(1) 23328
(2) 36
(3) 216
(4) 46656 - Ans
(5) None of these
14. (27)18 (27)3 = ?
(1) (27) 54
(2) (27) 21
(3) (27) 15 - Ans
(4) (27) 6
(5) None of these
Expl : (3)? = (27)18 (27)3
= (27)18-3
(:. am an = am-n)
= (27)15
15. 156 + 16 x 1.5 - 21 = ?
(1) 126
(2) 258
(3) 237
(4) 159 - Ans
(5) None of these
16. 434.43 + 43.34 + 3.44 + 4 + 0.33 = ?
(1) 421.45
(2) 455.54
(3) 485.54 - Ans
(4) 447.45
(5) None of these
17. 24336 ? = 78 x 24
(1) 6
(2) 13 - Ans
(3) 11
(4) 17
(5) None of these
18. (98)45 x (98)-35 = ?
(1) 98
(2) (98)2
(3) (98) -5
(4) (98)10 - Ans
(5) None of these
19. (78.95) - (43.35) = ?
(1) 4353.88 - Ans
(2) 4305
(3) 4235.78
(4)4148
(5) None of these
20. (23.6 % of 1254) - (16.6 % of 834) = ?
(1) 159.5
(2) 157.5 - Ans
(3) 155.5
(4) 153.5
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 21-25) In each of these questions, two equations I and II with variables a and b are
given. You have to solve both the equations to find the values of a and b.
Mark answer if
(1) a<b
(2) a<b
(3) relationship between a and b cannot be established
(4) a>b
(5) a>b
I. 16a2 = 1
II.
3b2 +7b +2 = 0
Ans : 4
From statement I, 16a2 = 1
21.
==>
a = + 1/4
From Statement II
==>
3b2 +7b +2 = 0
3b2 +6b +b+2 = 0
3b(b+2) +1(b+2) = 0
(3b+1) (b+2) = 0
==>
b = -2 or -1/3
:. a>b
22. I. a2 + 5a + 6= 0
II. b2 +7b +12 = 0
Ans : 5
From statement I, a2 + 5a + 6= 0
==>
a2 + 2a + 3a+6= 0
==>
a(a+2) (a+3)= 0
==>
(a+2) (a+3)= 0
a=-2, -3
From statement II,

b2 +7b +12 = 0
==> 2
b +4b +3b+12 = 0
==>
b(b+4) +3(b+4)= 0
==> (b+3) (b+4) = 0
b= -3, -4
:.
a>b
I. a2 +2a +1 = 0
II. b2 = + 4
Ans : 3
23.
I. a2 -5a + 6=0
II. 2b2 - 13b +21 = 0
Ans : 2
24.
I. 2a2 + a-1 =0
II. 12b2 - 17b +6 =0
Ans :1
25.
26. A 200m long train crosses a platform of double its length in 36s. What is the speed of the train in
km/h. ?
(1) 60 - Ans
(2) 48
(3) 64
(4) 66
(5) None of these
27. Work done by A in one day is half of the work done by B in one day. Work done by B is half of the
work done by C in one day. If C along can complete the work in 7 days, in how many days can A, B and
C together complete the work ?
(1) 28
(2) 14
(3) 4 - Ans
(4) 21
(5) None of these
28. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DAILY be arranged ?
(1) 60
(2) 48
(3) 160
(4) 120 - Ans
(5) None of these
29. The number obtained by interchanging the digits of a two digit number is less than the original
number by 63. If the sum of the digits of the number is 11, what is the orginal number ?
(1) 29
(2) 92 - Ans
(3) 74
(5) None of these
30. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator is increased by 300%, the
resultant fraction is 15/16. What was the original fraction ?
(1) 8/11
(2) 10/11
(3) 9/13
(4) 10/13 - Ans
(5) None of these
31. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs.996 is the same as loss incurred after selling the
article for Rs.894. What is the cost price of the article ?
(1) Rs.935
(2) Rs.905
(3) Rs.945 - Ans
(4) Rs.975
(5) None of these
32. The ages of Nishi and Vinnee are in the ratio of 6:5 respectively. After 9 yr the ratio of their ages will
be 9:8. what is the difference in their ages ?
(1) 9 yr
(2) 7 Yr
(3) 5 Yr
(4) 3 Yr - Ans
(5) None of these
33. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.84000 at the end of 3 yr is Rs.30240. What would
be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same period ?
(1) Rs.30013.95
(2) Rs. 31013.95
(3) Rs.32013.95
(4) Rs.33013.95
(5) Rs.34013.95 - Ans
34. The total of the ages of a class of 75 girsl is 1050, the average age of 25 of them is 12 yr and that of
another 25 is 16 yr. find the average age of the remaining girls.
(1) 12 yr
(2) 13 yr
(3) 14 yr - Ans
(4) 15 yr
(5) None of these
35. One-fifth of the number is 81. What will 68% of that number be ?
(1) 195.2
(2) 275.4 - Ans
(3) 225.6
(4) 165.8
(5) None of these
36. In a class of 40 students and 8 teachers, each student got sweets that are 20 % of the total number
of students and each teacher got sweets that are 25% of the total number of students. How many
sweets were there?
(1) 420
(2) 400 - Ans
(3) 320
(4) 360
(5) None of these
37. What is 35% of 45% of 7/9th of 3600?
(1) 441 - Ans
(2) 414
(3) 444
(4) 411
(5) None of these
38. A committee of 3 members is to be selected out of 3 men and 2 women. What is the probability that
the committee has at least one woman ?
(1) 1/10
(2) 9/20
(3) 9/10 - Ans
(4) 1/20
(5) None of these
39. By how much is 5/12th of 516 lesser than 4/5th of 495 ?

(1) 22
(2) 15
(3) 12
(4) 27
(5) None of these - Ans
40. Ms. Deepthi jain invests 11% of her monthly salary, ie, Rs.5236 in Fixed Deposits. Later, she invests
19% of her monthly salary on Life Insurance Policies; also she invests another 7% of her monthly
salary on Mutual Funds. what is the total annual amount invested by Ms. Deepti Jain ?
(1) Rs.211344 - Ans
(2) Rs.17612
(3) Rs.105672
(4) Rs.35224
(5) Non of the above
Dec14 2012
IBPS latest reasoning Question Papers with answers -These are the different reasoning
questionsasked
Reasoning : Solved Paper
1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Sandin CWE
(B) Stone
(C) Cement
(D) Brick
(E) Wall
Ans : (E)
2. If Yellow is called Green, Green is called Black, Black is called White, White is called
Red, Red is called Blue, Blue is called Orange then what is the colour of milk ?
(A) White
(B) Black
(C) Red
(D) Green
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. Pointing to a photograph Seema said He is the only grandson of my mothers father-inlaw.How is the man in photograph related to Seema ?
(A) Father
(B) Uncle
(C) Cousin
(D) Brother
(E) Cannot be determined
Ans : (D)
4. If + means , means , means and means + what is the value of17 +
15 135 9 70 ?
(A) 270
(B) 240
(C) 170
(D) 200
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
5. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the fourth, the fifth, the sixth, the eighth
and the eleventh letters of the word GOURMANDISE using each letter only once first letter
of the word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is X. If no
such word can be formed your answer is Y
(A) D
(B) R
(C) M
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (D)
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Nickel
(D) Copper
(E) Brass
Ans : (E)
7. In a certain code EXTRA is written as % 5 # 73 and NOSE is written as 4 @ 8%; how is
STORE written in that code ?
(A) 5#@7%
(B) 8#@7%
(C) 8#@%5
(D) 8@75%
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. In a row of children facing North, Shamika is third to the right of Nikhil who is
seventeenth from the right end of the row. Ravi is fifth to the left of Shamika and is twentieth
from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?
(A) 39
(B) 38
(C) 37
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXAMINATION each of which has
as many letters between them in the word, as they have in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
10. In a certain code ACQUIRE is written as EIRUQAC, how is DENSITY written in that
code ?
(A) YTISNDE
(B) YITSNED
(C) YTISNED
(D) YITSNDE
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions(Q. 1115) These questions are based on the following letter/number/
symbolarrangement.Study it carefully and answer the questions.
T 8 # 1 7 F J 5 % E R @ 4 DA2 B Q K 3 1 U H 6 L
11. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a vowel ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the
above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) E@%
(B) #78
(C) 5EJ
(D) U6
(E) QKB
Ans : (E)
13. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)
14. What will come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following series based on the
above arrangement ?
TL8 #6I 7HF ?
(A) FUJ
(B) JU
(C) FU
(D) JU5
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
15. Which of the following is seventh to the right of thirteenth from the right ?
(A) 1
(B)
(C) F
(D) 7
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions(Q. 1620) In each question below are given three statements followed by
twoconclus ions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements, disregarding commonly
known facts. Then decide which of the answer (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) is correct answer
and indicate
on the answersheet. Give answer
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow

Ans : (C)
16. Statements :
Some cards are plastics.
Some Plastics are metals.
All metals are pots.
Conclusions :
I. Some pots are cards.
II. No pot is a card.
Ans : (C)
17. Statements :
All chairs are tables.
All tables are trains.
All trains are buses.
Conclusions :
I. All tables are buses.
II. All trains are tables.
Ans : (A)
18. Statements :
Some machines are computers.
Some computers are calculators.
Some calculators are phones.
Conclusions :
I. Some phones are computers.
II. Some computers are machines.
Ans : (B)
19. Statements :
All spoons are bowls.
Some bowls are glasses.
Some glasses are plates.
Conclusions :
I. Some glasses are spoons.
II. Some plates are bowls.
Ans : (D)
20. Statements :
Some envelopes are packets.
Some packets are boxes.
All boxes are parcels.
Conclusions :
I. Some parcels are packets.

II. Some parcels are boxes.
Ans : (E)
Directions(Q. 2125) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
give answer
(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(C) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question
(D) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
(E) If thedata in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
21. Among D, B, J, T and F who was the first person to reach the office ?
I. D reached before J and F but after B.
II. B was not the first to reach office.
Ans : (E)
22. What is the code for not in the code language ?
I. In the code language do not go is written as la ra de.
II. In the code language go to school is written as ka ma ra.
Ans : (D)
23. How many children are there in the class ?
I. Rita ranks 23rd from the top.
II. Anita ranks 17th from the bottom and is five ranks above Rita.
Ans : (E)
24. How is Neela related to Deepa ?
I. Neelas mother is Deepas brothers wife.
II. Neela is the only granddaughter of Deepas mother.
Ans : (C)
25. R is in which direction with respect to T ?
I. R is to the east of H who is to the north of T.
II. Q is to the east of T and to the South of R
Ans : (C)
Directions(Q. 2630) These questions are based on the following arrangements I & II.
Study them carefully and answer the questions that follow
I. P T 7 A # 4 B C 3 @ K F 1 9
II. E H L 6 8 $ U 5 J M 2 D% 1
26. How many such symbols are there in arrangements I & II together each of which is
immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a numeral ?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
27. If P7 : TAL : : B3J : ?
(A) @KJ
(B) C@J
(C) C@5
(D) 3KJ
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
28. Which element will be third to the right of seventh element from right end in the
arrangement I if the order of its elements is reversed ?
(A) 7
(B) #
(C) F
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
29. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the
position of the elements in the above two arrangements ?
H7 # 8B ?
(A) U3
(B) $C
(C) 3J
(D) UC
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
30. If the third, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth elements in arrangement II are replaced by
the respective elements in arrangement I, which element will be third to the left of sixth
element the right end in arrangement II ?
(A) $
(B) B
(C) 7
(D) L
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions(Q. 3135) Symbols @, %, , $ and # are used with following meanings
A @ B means A is smaller than B.
A % B means A is greater than B.
A B means A is neither greater than nor smaller than B.
A $ B means A is either smaller than or equal to B.
A # B means A is either greater than or equal to B.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which
of
the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer
accordingly. Give answer
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.
31. Statements : G @ H, H Q, Q $ M
Conclusions : I. M % G
II. H $ M
Ans : (E)
32. Statements : F B, B @ E, E # J
Conclusions : I. F @ E
II. J $ B
Ans : (A)
33. Statements : R $ H, H % M, M # F
Conclusions : I. F $ H
II. F @ R
Ans : (D)
34. Statements : T # L, L % W, W @ V
Conclusions : I. L % V
II. T % W
Ans : (B)
35. Statements : K % L, L # T, I $ T
Conclusions : I. L % I
II. L I
Ans : (C)
Directions(Q. 3640) These questions are based on the following information
Seven persons R, J, M, Q, L, T and K conduct workshop on Developing Managerial skills in
seven different companies A, B, C, D, E, F and G on a different day of the week from
Monday to Sunday. The order of persons, companies and days of the week are not necessarily
the same. J organizes workshop in Company D on Wednesday. Q does not conduct workshop
for companies A or C and conducts on the next day of L who conducts the workshop for
Company F. T conducts workshop for Company E on Friday. K conducts workshop on
Monday but not for Company C or G. M conducts workshop for Company A but not on
Tuesday.
36. Who conducts workshop on Saturday ?
(A) M
(B) Q
(C) L
(D) Q or L
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
37. On which day does Q conduct the workshop ?
(A) Sunday
(B) Saturday
(C) Tuesday
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
38. M conducts workshop on which day ?
(A) Saturday
(B) Sunday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Thursday
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
39. Which of the following combinations of person-company and day is correct ?
(A) KBWednesday
(B) RBMonday
(C) KCMonday
(D) KGSunday
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
40. Who conducts workshop for Company C and on which day ?

(A) R, Thursday
(B) R, Tuesday
(C) Q, Saturday
(D) Q, Sunday
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions(Q. 4145) Below in each question are given two statements (a) and (b). These
statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a
common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both
the
statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship
between these two statements. Mark answer
(A) If statement (a) is the cause and statement (b) is its effect
(B) If statement (b) is the cause and statement (a) is its effect
(C) If both the statements (a) and (b) are independent causes
(D) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of some common cause
41. (a) Government of state X imposed a higher sales tax on petroleum products compared
to
the neighbouring states.
(b) All the petrol pumps in the state observed bandh in protest.
Ans : (A)
42. (a) Attendance for the All India examination held in July 2006 was poor at all the centres.
(b) Western States of the country were affected by heavy floods during July 2006.
Ans : (D)
43. (a) High Court has declared stay on construction of residential buildings on the land under
dispute.
(b) A large number of middle class salaries people had booked flats in the buildings under
dispute.
Ans : (C)
44. (a) Residents in the locality have now decided to launch a cleanliness drive.
(b) Civic authorities in the city have recorded many cases of Cholera and gastro.
Ans : (B)
45. (a) Senior citizens of the city have complained about the late night disturbance caused due
to loudspeakers used during festivals.
(b) Though, the Government has issued a directive banning late night celebrations
involving use of loudspeakers, it is not being strictly followed in some of the areas.
Ans : (E)
Directions(Q. 4650) An organization wants to recruit ManagerHRD for its umbai
division. The following criteria have been laid down, to be eligible for selection. The
candidate must
(a) Be a graduate in any discipline passed in first class with minimum 60% marks
(b) Have done post graduate degree/diploma in HRD or personnel management with
minimum
65% marks
(c) Have cleared the selection test with minimum 50% marks
(d) Have cleared the interview with minimum 45% marks
(e) Be not less than 21 years and not more than 28 years of age as on 1.2.2007.
However, if a candidate satisfies all other criteria except for
(i) At (b) above but has got-at-least two years post-qualification experience of working in
HRD department case may be referred to the Chairman of the organisation.
(ii) At (c) above but has secured minimum 45% marks in selection test and 55% marks in
interview the case may be referred to the President of the organization.
In each of the questions below, information of one candidate is given. You have to take one of
the following five decisions based on the information provided and the criteria and conditions
given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each
question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.2.2007. You have to indicate your decision
by marking answers to each question as follows. Give answer
(A) If the candidate is to be selected
(B) If the candidate is not to be selected
(C) If the case is to be referred to Chairman
(D) If the case is to be referred to President
(E) If the data provided is not adequate to decide the course of action
46. Nalini Zaveri has done her graduation in Arts in first class with 60% marks and
postgraduate management diploma in HRD with 62% marks. Her date of birth is 16.1.1981.
She has been working in the HRD department of a bank for past three years after completing
her postgraduation diploma in HRD. She has secured 55% marks in selection test and 50%
marks in interview.
Ans : (C)
47. Rajesh Nalawade is a B. Sc. In first class with 75% marks and post-graduate in personnel
management with 60% marks. He is working as an Officer in administration department of an
organisation for past two years. He has secured 55% marks in selection test and 52% marks
in interview. He has completed 26 years of age in November 2006.
Ans : (B)
48. Shyam Bansode has passed B. Com. in first class with 65% marks and MBA in personnel
management with 72% marks. He has cleared the selection test with 58% marks and
interview with 52% marks. His date of birth is 17.5.1983.

Ans : (A)
49. Nikhil Agnihotri is a postgraduate in personnel management passed out in 2005 at the age
of 24 years securing 71% marks. He has secured 62% marks in selection test and 57% marks
in interview.
Ans : (E)
50. Sujata Shirke has passed out B. Com. in first class with 62% marks in 2003 at the age of
21 years. Thereafter she has done MBA with specialization in HRD with 72% marks. She has
secured 48% marks in selection test and 58% marks in interview.
Ans : (D)
51. (B) In each subsequent figure one time the three designs remain same and next time after
shifting
one side anticlockwise direction then it remain same position. Inside shaded part of the
designs form
after rotating 90 anticlockwise in the two designs and forms after rotating 90 clockwise in a
simple
square design with this also.
52. (D) In each subsequent figure the outside bigger design < forms after rotating 45 and
90
anticlockwise respectively and the inside smaller design ^ forms after rotating 90 and 180
anticlockwise respectively.
53. (E)
54. (A) In each subsequent figure the curved lines on upper side straight horizontal line
increase in
sequence of 2, 3, 1 respectively from left to right and from upper side to lower side and one
curved line
is missing from back side each time. The curved lines on lower side straight horizontal line
increase in
sequence of 3, 4, 2 respectively from left to right and from upper side to lower side and is
also missing
1 and 2 respectively from back side.
55. (C) In each subsequent figure the designs shift half side anticlockwise first and then one
side
anticlockwise respectively and a new design forms one by one from back side each time then
forward
side respectively.
56. (E) In each subsequent figure one design forms on upper left side corner first and then
this design
shifts half side, one side and, one and half side clockwise respectively. These designs rotate
90
clockwise each time with this change also.
57. (B)
58. (A) In each subsequent figure the curved lines on the upper and lower side horizontal
lines reverse
in sequence one and three in clockwise direction from upper left respectively.
59. (B) In each subsequent figure the outside half circle forms inside after reversing and
shifting one
side anticlockwise and then it forms outside after reversing on the same side. So these
sequences
continue respectively. The second design square forms once on next side anticlockwise after
reversing
from outside to inside.
60. (E) 61. (A)
62. (C) In each subsequent figure increase in the number of triangles from upper left corner
beome on
the basis of increasing of lines three, four, five, six and seven lines respectively.
63. (B)
64. (E) In each subsequent figure the circles form on the place of two-two stars from upper
left corner.
These small circles form on the place of existing stars in the next two lines after forming upto
lower
left as 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 respectively and then two-two stars form on the place of circles from
back side.
65. (D) In each subsequent figure the square forms one side clockwise first and then half
side
anticlockwise respectively. Similarly, the circle shifts half side, one side, one and half side,
two side
and two and half side anticlockwise respectively in each subsequent figure also.
COMPUTER COMPETENCY
81. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to
each task requiring the processors attention.
(A) CPU (B) slice of time (C) stack (D) event
Ans : (B)
82. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact
with are known as:
(A) application programming interfaces (APIs).
(B) complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
(C) device drivers.
(D) bootstrap loaders.
Ans : (A)
83. An interrupt handler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
(B) peripheral device.
(C) utility program.
(D) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Ans : (D)
84. A spooler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
(B) print job.
(C) program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
(D) message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Ans : (C)
85. Virtual memory is typically located:
(A) on a floppy disk.
(B) in the CPU.
(C) in a flash card.
(D) on the hard drive.
Ans : (D)
86. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:
(A) maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
(B) hold a programs data or instructions in virtual memory when it cant fit in RAM.
(C) prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
(D) allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Ans : (B)
87. The definition of thrashing is:
(A) swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
(B) insufficient hard disk space.
(C) too many processors being managed by the operating system.
(D) inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Ans : (A)
88. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:
(A) Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
(B) Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
(C) Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
(D) Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Ans : (B)
89. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
(A) configuration.
(B) accessibility.
(C) authentication.
(D) logging in.
Ans : (C)
90. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the
computers:
(A) CPU.
(B) platform.
(C) BIOS.
(D) CMOS.
Ans : (B)
91. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates
(A) an open folder.
(B) the folder contains subfolders.
(C) a text file.
(D) a graphics file.
Ans : (B)
92. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the bootup process?
(A) Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration
settings
(B) Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration
settings
(C) Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration
settings
(D) Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating
system
Ans : (B)
93. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
(A) load the operating system into RAM.
(B) the power-on self-test.
(C) activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
(D) load application programs.
Ans : (D)
94. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating
system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
(A) BIOS
(B) API
(C) device driver
(D) supervisor program
Ans : (A)
95. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
(A) RAM.
(B) ROM.
(C) the CPU.
(D) the hard drive.
Ans : (B)
96. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the
____________ process.
(A) configuration
(B) CMOS
(C) POST
(D) ROM
Ans : (C)
97. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the
(A) registry.
(B) API.
(C) CMOS.
(D) kernel.
Ans : (D)
98. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
(A) The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
(B) The video card and video memory are tested.
(C) The BIOS identification process occurs.
(D) Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Ans : (A)
(A) an open folder.
(C) a text file.
Ans : (B)
100. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a
folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.
(A) List
(B) Thumbnails
(C) Details
(D) Icon
Ans : (C)
IBPS previous question papers
APTITUDE SECTION
1.Find the average of 38,64,27,76 & 40
a) 54
b)49
c) 78
d)45
ans: b
2.Find the average of 8,16,9,24,36,7,71 &37
a)62
b)46
c)36
d)52
ans: c
3.Find the average of 1 ,2 , &3 2/5
a)147/30 b)119/30 c)151/60 d)51/20
ans: d
4.find the average of 2/3,2 .,3 & 4 .
a)2 25/48
b)4 3/16 c)2 17/24 d)2 35/48
ans: d
5.Average of quantities is 22 and average of 36 quantities is 25. What is the average of all the 50
quantities?
a)28.32 b)23.16 c)24.16 d)22.08
ans:c
6.The average of 42 observations is 36 and average of 18 observations is 24. What is the a
average of all the 60 observations?
a)28.5 b)37.6 c)32.4 d)21.52
ans: c
7.Average marks of a candidate in 6 subjects are 52.His marks in 5 subjects are 6o,48,36,55
and 51.Find his marks in the 6th subject.
a)12 b)48 c)62
d)data inadequate
ans:c
8)The average marks of five friends in English are 61.Four of them got 48,72,59 &38.Find the
marks of the fifth friend ?
a)18 b)88 c)84
d)66
ans:b
9. The average marks obtained by Raghu in Hindi & science were 30 less than his marks in
Hindi .he got 62 marks in science .Find his marks in Hindi?
a)122 b)120 c)124
d)102
ans:a
10.The average marks obtained by Ramesh in hindi ,English science were 15 more than his
marks in English .he got a total of 102 marks in hindi &science .How many marks did he get in
English?
a)26.5 b)29
c)30.5 d)28.5
ans:d
11.what percent of 72 is 6?
a)8 1/3 b)3 1/3 c)6 1/3 d)9 1/3
ans:a
12.What percent of 40 minutes is 24 seconds ?
a)1 b)10 c)100 d)0.1
ans:a
13.what percent of 20 quintals is 100 kgs?
a)2 b)0.5 c)20 d)5
ans:d
14.What percent is 45 praise of rs.90?
a)0.5
b)2 c)10
d)20
15.What percent is 40 kgs of 2 tones?
a)2 b)20
c)10
d)25
ans:a
16.As salary is 50% more than Bs ,How much percent is Bs salary less thanAs?
a)33 %
b)33 1/3%
c)33 % d)33%
ans:b
17.If the are of a son is 25% less than the age of his father ,how much percent is the age of
father more than that of his son?
a)25% b)50%
c)33 1/3% d)50%
ans:c
18.The salary of A is 10% more than the salary of B .By what percent is the salary of B lessthan
that of A?
a)10%
b)1% c)11 1/9%
d)9 1/11%
ans:d
19.If As income is 40% less than that of B,how much percent Bs income is more than that of A?
A)60% B)40% C)66.66% D)33.33%
Ans:c
20.The price of an article is increased by 20% & afterwards it is decreased by 20% find the overll
% change .a)40% b)no change c)4%dec
d)4% inc
ans:c
21.Find the simple interest on Rs.7,500 in 4 years at 15% per annum?
a)Rs.2,750 b)Rs.2,500 c)Rs.4,500
d)Rs. 5,000
ans:c
22.Find the s.i on Rs.8,000 in 3 years 12% per annum?
a)Rs.2,760 b)Rs3,760 c)Rs.4,250 d)Rs.3,360
ans:d
23.On what sum of money will be the S.I be Rs.2,000 in 5 years at 8% per annum?
a)Rs.4,500 b)Rs.5,000 c)Rs.5,200 d)Rs.5,300
ans:b
24. On what sum if money will the S.I be Rs.2,400 in 2 year at 12% per annum?
a)Rs.8,000 b)Rs.6,000 c)Rs.7,500
d)Rs.8,500
ans:a
25.The S.I on Rs.6,000 in 3 years and 4 months is Rs.3,00 Find the r% per annum?
a)10 b)12 c)15 d)18
ans:c
Reasoning
1.If TAP is coded as SZO ,then how is FREEZE coded?
a)EQDFYG
b)ESDFYF
c)GQFDYF
d)EQDDYD
ans:d
2.In a certain code. SIKKIM is written as THLJJL .How is TRAINING written in that code?
a)SQBHOHOH
b)UQBHOHOF
c)UQBJOHHO
d)UQBJOHOH
ans:b
3.In a certain code, MENTION is written as LNEITNO. How is PATTERN written in that
code?
a)APTTREM
b)PTAETNR
c)OTAETNR
d)OTAETRN
ans:c
4.In a certain code, FORGE is written as FPTJI .How is CULPRIT written in that code?
a)CSJNPGR
b)CVMQSTU
c)CVNSVNZ
d)CXOSULW
ans:c
5.If in a code , ALTERED is written as ZOGNINW, then in the same code , RELATED would be
written ?
a)IVOZGVW
b)IVOZGWV
c)IVOGZVW
d)VIOZGVW
ans:a
If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 and NAKED is coded as 84123 , how are the following words
coded ?
6.DISTANT
a)3765485
b)4798165
c)3697185
d)4768296
7.NEMISES
a)7598656
b)8597656
c)8297626
d)7689565
8.ASSIST
a)166762 b)466765
c)488976 d)435985
9.INTIMATE
a)89786145
b)79438163
c)78579452 d)78698365
10.STAIN
a)98175 b)89483
c)68194 d)65478
6.ans:a
7. ans:c
8.ans:b
9. ans:c
10. ans:d
LETTER ANALOGY
11.AB:ZY:CD:?
a)XY
b)EF
c)XW
d)AB
ans:c
12.AEGK:MQ:?
a)ST
b)SW
c)UV
d)WS
ans:b
13.BC:GH:ST:?
a)YZ
b)UV
c)XY
d)WX
ans:c
14.PS:DG:QT:?
a)EH
b)GH c)FF
d)EG
ans:a
15.V:X:G?
a)Y b)T
c)I
d)J
ans:c
16.GT:HS:KP:?
a)PQ
b)RS
c)LO
d)LM
ans:c
17.CDF:GHJ:KLN:?
a)ORP
b)PQR
c)OPR
d)RSU
ans:c
18.ABC:CBA:DEF:?
a)FED
b)EFD
c)DEF
d)GHI
ans:a
19.ZWT:SM:LIF:?
a)EBY b)EAZ
c)EBX
d)EAX
ans:a
20.ABZ:CDY:EFW:?
a)FGU
b)VHG
c)GHK
d)GHV
ans:d
LETTER SERIES
21.U,O,I,?,A
a)E
b)C
c)S
d)G
ans:a
22.A,B,D,G,?
a)M
b)L
c)k
d)h
ans:c
23:Z,U,Q,?,L
a)I
b)K
c)M
d)N
ans:c
24.A,C,F,H,?,M
a)L b)K
c)J
d)I
ans:b
25.Z,L,X,J,V,H,T,F,?,?
a)R,D
b)R,E
c)S,E
d)Q,D
ans:a
26.Z,S,W,O,T,K,Q,G,?
a)N,C
b)N,D
c)O,C
d)O,D
ans:a
27.W,V,T,S,Q,P,N,M,?,?
a)I,J
b)J,I
c)J,K
d)K,J
ans:d
REPEATED LETTER SERIES
1_ _aba_ _ ba_ab
a)abbba b)bbab
c)baabb
d)bbaba
ans:b
2.ab _ _ _ b _bbaa
a)abaab
b)abbab
c)baaab
d)babba
ans:c
3._baa _aab _a _a
a)aabb b)aaba c)abab d)baab
ans:c
4_ _ babbba _a_ _
a)ababb b)baaab c)bbaba d)babbb
ans:d
5.aa_ ab_ aaa _a
a)aaab b)aabb c)abab d)baaa
ans:a
6.a _bbc _aab _cca _bbcc_
a)bacb b)acba c)abba d)caba
ans:b
7ab _aa _bbb _aaa _bbba _
a)abba b)baab c)aaab d)abab
ans:b
8.bc _b _c _b _ ccb_
a)cbcb b)bbcb c)cbbc
d)bcbc
ans:a
9.abb _baa _a _bab _aba
a)abba b)abab
c)ccac d)aabb
ans:a
10.abca _bcaab _ca _bbc _ a
a)ccaa b)bbaa c)abac d)abba
ans:c
DEC 14 2012.,
Reasoning
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 29
(E) 27
3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each letter only
once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is LANE written
in that code ?
(A) 5427
(B) 5247
(C) 5847
(D) 5237
(E) None of these
5. BD is related to EG and MO is related to PR in the same way as FH is related to .
(A) JM
(B) IL
(C) JL
(D) IK
(E) None of these
6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away from the
beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in descending
order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED written in
that code ?
(A) PSHBMCDRH
(B) BHSPMCDRH
(C) BHSPOCDRH
(D) BHSPNHRDC
(E) None of these
8. In a certain code language pik da pa means where are you; da na ja means you
may come and na ka sa means he may go, which of the following means come in that code
language
(A) da
(B) ja
(C) na
(E) None of these
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Zinc
(E) Steel
10. What should come next in the following number series ?
9898798769876598765498765
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) None of these
11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following five
numbers ?
254 319 963 842 697
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 9
12. Meeta correctly remembers that her fathers birthday is after 8th July but before 12th July.
Her brother correctly remembers that their fathers birthday is after 10th July but before 15th July.
On which day of July was definitely their fathers birthday ?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 10th or 11th
(E) None of these
13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many students are
there between M and H ?
(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(E) None of these
14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D scored
less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who among them
scored least marks among them ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
(A) B D F
(B) V X Z
(C) F I K
(D) M O Q
(E) L N P
Directions(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known
facts. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.

(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.
16. Statements :
Some desks are tents.
Some tents are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.
Conclusions :
I. Some ponds are tents.
II. Some ponds are desks.
17. Statements :
All chair are pens.
Some pens are knives.
All knives are rats.
Conclusions :
I. Some rats are chairs.
II. Some rats are pens.
18. Statements :
Some forests are huts.
Some huts are walls.
Some walls are nets.
Conclusions :
I. Some nets are forests.
II. Some nets are huts.
19. Statements :
All tables are windows.
All windows are rooms.
All rooms are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are tables.
II. Some rooms are tables.
20. Statements :
Some trees are boxes.
All boxes are bricks.
All bricks are dogs.
Conclusions :
I. Some dogs are trees.
II. Some bricks are trees.
21. Statements :
All goats are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are goats.
II. No root is goat.
22. Statements :
All pots are rings.
All bangles are rings.
All rings are paints.
Conclusions :
I. Some paints are pots.

II. Some bangles are paints.
Directions(Q. 23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
below
B #AR 5 8 E % M F 4 J 1 U @ H 2 9 TI 6 * W 3 P# K 7 $ Y
23. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above
arrangement ?
(A) %
(B) W
(C) $
(D) J
(E) None of these
24. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
27. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the
eleventh from the right end ?
(A) U
(B) T
(C) F
(D) H
(E) None of these
28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either
immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 1 @ 4
(B) T H
(C) W P 6
(D) # 7 3
(E) 9 2 I
Directions (Q. 3036)In each question below is given a group of digits/symbolsfollowed by four
combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the
combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter
coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer.If none of the letter
combinations correctly represents the group of digits/ symbols, mark (E) i.e. None of these as
the answer.
Digit/Symbol :
4%39$18@2#56*7d
Letter Code :
P M I T R Q J F HAE U N B G L
Conditions :
(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes are to be
interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to be coded
as the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as X.
(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as Y.
30. 4%@93*
(A) PMFTIB
(B) PMFTIP
(C) BMFTIB
(D) XMFTIX
(E) None of these
31. $1896
(A) RQJTNH
(B) HQJTNR
(C) RQJTNR
(D) YQJTNY
(E) None of these
32. 2*#836
(A) YBEJIY
(B) ABEJIN
(C) NBEJIA
(D) XBEJIX
(E) None of these
33. 8732@9
(A) TGIAFJ
(B) YGIAFY
(C) JGIAFT
(D) XGIAFX
(E) None of these
34. 7#$%35
(A) GERMIU
(B) UERMIG
(C) GERMIG
(D) XERMIX
(E) None of these

35. 931%d
(A) TIQMHL
(B) LIQMHT
(C) LIQMHL
(D) TIQMHT
(E) None of these
36. 46*389
(A) PNBIJT
Page|8
(B) XNBIJX
(C) TNBIJP
(D) PNBIJP
(E) None of these
Directions(Q. 3743) In the following questions, the symbols @, , %, $ and d are used with
the following meanings illustrated.
P % Q means P is greater than Q.
P d Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.
P @ Q means P is smaller than Q.
P Q means P is either smaller than or equal to Q.
P $ Q means P is either greater than or equal to Q.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find outwhich of the
two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answers :
37. Statements : M @ J, J R, R d K
Conclusions : I. K d J
II. K % J
38. Statements : N $ T, T d H, N @ W
Conclusions : I. W % T
II. H N
39. Statements : F @ R, R V, V $ T
Conclusions : I. V % F
II. F @ T
40. Statements : W D, D $ B, B @ H
Conclusions : I. H % D
II. W @ B
41. Statements : F d T, T $ M, M R
Conclusions : I. R $ F
II. M F
42. Statements : H $ N, N % R, R @ J
Conclusions : I. R @ H
II. J % H
Page|9
43. Statements : V % B, B $ D, D E
Conclusions : I. E d B
II. D @ V
Directions(Q. 4449) Study the following information and answer the questions givenbelow
M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to theleft of M
and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the right of W who is
second to the right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.
44. Who is to the immediate right of P ?
(A) H
(B) F
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
45. Who is to the immediate right of H ?
(A) R
(B) F
(C) M
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
46. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(A) P
(B) H
(C) W
(D) T
(E) Data inadequate
47. Who is third to the right of H ?
(A) T
(B) W
(C) R
(D) F
(E) Data inadequate
48. Who is second to the right of F ?
(A) M
(B) R
(C) T
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
49. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the
P a g e | 10
third person ?
(A) NHM
(B) PHN
(C) TRP
(D) TWF
(E) None of these
Directions(Q. 5055) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers aregiven. The
resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on thefollowing rules and the
questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress
from the left to the right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to
be subtracted from the perfect square.

(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the
second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number the second one is to be subtractedfrom the
first number.
If p is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 58
(B) 76
(C) 27
(D) 82
(E) None of these
51. 12 64 17
20 m 16
If m is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 69
(B) 85
(C) 101
(D) 121
(E) None of these
52. 85 17 35
16 19 r
If r is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 175
(B) 5
(C) 75
(D) 210
(E) None of these
53. 24 15 3
d 6 15
If d is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 37
(B) 8
(C) 22
(D) 29
(E) None of these
54. 28 49 15
h 3 12
If h is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 19
(D) 27
(E) None of these
55. 36 15 3
12 3 n
If n is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 15 / 17
(B) 32
(C) 12 / 17
(D) 36
(E) None of these

Directions(Q. 5660) Below in each question are given two statements I and II.
Thesestatements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or
acommon cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Readboth
the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts therelationship
between these two statements. Mark answers :
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
56. I. This year, the cut off percentage for admission to junior colleges have increased over the
last year.
II. This year performance of students in Xth final exam was considerably higher than theprevious
year.
57. I. The conditions of most of the national highways are very bad.
II. Govt. has now sanctioned a huge amount of money to maintain the national highways.
58. I. Many students of the local school have failed in English Language paper in the annual
examination.
II. Many students of the local school have failed in Mathematics paper in the annual examination.
59. I. Rain and thunder showers bashed the city during the past three days.
II. Many people stayed indoor during the past three days.
60. I. There has been a considerable increase in the sale of fat free food articles.
II. Now people have become more conscious about their health condition and food habits.
Directions(Q. 61-75) In each of the questions given below which one of the fiveanswer figures
on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if thesequence were continued ?
Answers with Hints
1. (D)
2. (E) All the rest are prime numbers.
3. (B) B I T E
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B)
9. (E) All the rest are pure metals.
10. (B) 98 987 9876 98765 987654 98765 4
11. (D) 963, 8 4 2, 697, 319, 254
12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (E)
20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 20th from the left end is T and 12th to the left of T is %.
24. (C) H 2 and K 7 $
25. (A)
26. (B) M F 4
27. (D) After dropping all the numbers.
B #AR E % M F J U @ H TI * W P# K $ Y
11th from the right end is H.
28. (D) # A, E % and U @
29. (E) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (E)
35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (E) 39. (A)
40. (D) 41. (B)
42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C)
49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (E) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (A)
P a g e | 14
56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (E) 59. (A) 60. (B)
lmost exams like Bank PO, Clerical, CDS, NDA, B. Ed., ETT comprise of questions from
Reasoning (also known as Mental Ability or Aptitude). Here we provide a set of fifty Solved
Sample Questions. The first fourty Questions are from verbal reasoning and last ten from nonverbal reasoning.
1. In a certain code ROPE is written as $3%6 and RITE is written as $4#6. How is PORT written
in that code?
(1) %4$#
(2) $3%#
(3) $64%
(4) %3$#
(5) None of these
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word KNIGHT, each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
3. Pointing to a photograph Nikita said She is the only grad daughter of my grandmother's
daughter'. How is the girl in photograph related to Nikita?
(1) Sister
(2) Niece/ daughter
(3) Aunt
(5) None of these
does not belong to the group?
(1) Pineapple
(2) Guava
(3) Grapes
(4) Papaya
(5) Pear
5. If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels
are replaced by the next letter which letter will be third from the left end?
(1) S
(2) B
(3) A
(4) K
(5) None of these
6. In a certain code HOUSE is written as FTVPI, how is CHAIR written in that code?
(1) DIBJS
(2) SBJID
(3) SHBGD
(4) SJBID
(5) None of these
(1) FH
(2) KM
(3) PR
(4) CE
(5) JM
8. If P Q' means P is wife of Q', P+Q' means P is father of Q' and P Q' means P is sister of
Q' then in G H +R D, how is G related to D?
(2) Mother
(3) Niece
(4) Aunt
(5) None of these
9. If the digits of the number 5726489 are arranged in ascending order, how many digits will
remain at the same position?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
(1) 17
(2) 19
(3) 23
(4) 29
(5) 27
11. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters AEHT, using each letter only
once?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
' means x', $ means +', # means ' and ' means - then what is the value of360 # 24$ 56 5
48?12. If
(1) 253
(2) 242
(3) 247
(4) 285
(5) None of these
13. If blue means pink, pink means green, green means yellow, yellow means red and red
means white then what is the colour of turmeric?
(1) green
(2) yellow
(3) red
(4) pink
(5) None of these
14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, the third, the tenth and the
eleventh letters of the word PASSIONATELY using each letter only once, second letter of that
word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your answer is X and if more than one word
can be formed your answer is Y.
(1) A
(2) E
(3) L
(4) X
(5) Y
15. In a row of children facing north Manish is fourth to the left of Suresh who is tenth from the
left end. Nisha is second to the right of Suresh and eighth from the right end of the row. Total how
many children are there in the row?
(1) 19
(2) 20(3) 21(4) 18(5) None of these
Directions (16-20): In these questions symbols , #, , $ and @ are used with different meanings
as follows:
A B' means A is smaller than B'
A # B' means A is either smaller than or equal to B'
A B' means A is greater than B'
A $ B' means A is either greater than or equal to B'
A @ B' means A is neither smaller than nor greater than B'
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the
two conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definitely true
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
16. Statements: V#S, SL, LJ
Conclusions: I. V L
II. S J
17. Statements: M#R, RJ, J#H
Conclusions: I. M #H
II. R H
18. Statements: H$F, F@G, GM
Conclusions: I. H M
II. H G
19. Statements: RJ, J T,,T # L
Conclusions: I. R @ T
II. J @ l
20. Statements: W@T, T$K, K F
Conclusions: I. W $ K
II. W @ K
Directions (21-25): In each question below there are three statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known
facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and
indicate it on the answer sheet.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is follows
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.
21. Statements:
Some pens are books.
All books are pencils.
All pencils are jars.
Conclusions:
I. All books are jars.
II. Some pens are pencils.
22. Statements:
Some bowls are spoons
Some spoons are forks
All forks are plates.
Conclusions:
I. Some bowls are forks.
II. Some spoons are plates.
23. Statements:
Some bottles are jars.
All jars are buckets.
All buckets are tanks.

Conclusions:
I. All jars are tanks.
II. Some buckets are tanks.
24. Statements:
Some phones are mobiles.
Some mobiles are computers.
Some computers are keys.
Conclusions:
I. Some phones are keys.
II. Some computes are phones.
25. Statements:
All papers are files.
Some files are folders.
All folders are bags.
Conclusions:
I. Some files are bags.
II. Some papers are folders.
Directions (26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (1) if the data is Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the
question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
26. Lalita is in which direction with respect to Sangita?
I. Lalita is to the East of Prabha who is to the South of Sangita.
II. Vinita is to the North of Lalita who is to the East of Sangita.
27. What is the code for Play' in the code language?
I. In the code language play and dance' is written as ka to pe'
II. In the code language enjoy the dance' is written as pe jo ra'.
28. How many children are there in the class?
I. Vandana's rank in the class is five ranks below Nandini who is twenty fifth from the bottom.
II. Nandini's rank is seventeenth from the top.
29. Who is tallest among Neeta, Sudha, Radha, Maya and Geeta?
I. Radha is shorter than Neeta and Sudha but not shorter than Maya and Geeta.
II. Neeta is not the tallest.
30. How many sons does Ramesh have?
I. F is sister of H who is son of Ramesh.
II. R is brother of H.
Directions (31-35): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol
arrangement . Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow:
5 D G E 7 9 $ F 1 6 R % LIAJ 3 B # 4 @ K P8 U M 2
31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) $9F
2) R6%
(3) 8PU
(4) #B4
(5) 3BJ
32. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement which element will be third to the
left of thirteenth from the left?
(1) L
(2) R
(3) 6
(4) I
(5) None of these
33. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above
arrangement?
EDH 9 7 I$F ?
(1) 6RI
(2) %R6
(3) R16
(4) %6R
(5) None of these
34. Which element will be fifth to the right of ninth from the right end if all the numbers are
removed from the above arrangement?
(1) K
(2) @
(3) P(4) #(5) None of these
35. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a vowel?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (36-40): These questions are based on the basis of following information. Study it
carefully and answer the questions.
Eight executives J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table for a meeting. J is
second to the right of P who is third to the right of K. M is second to the left of O who sits
between P and J, L is not a neighbour of K or N.
36. Who is to the immediate left of L?
(1) Q
(2) O
(3) K
(4) N
(5) None of these
37. Who is to the immediate left of K?
(1) N
(2) J
(3) Q
(5) None of these
38. Which of the following is the correct position of N?
(1) Second to the right of K
(2) To the immediate left of K
(3) To the immediate right of M
(4) To the immediate right of K
(5) None of these
39. Who is third to the right of P?
(1) L
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) N
(5) None of these
40. Which of the following groups of persons have the first person sitting between the other two?
(1) PJO
(2) OPJ
(3) OPM
(4) MPO
(5) None of these
Answers for Reasoning (Mental Aptitude) Solved Sample Question Paper:
1. (4), 2. (3), 3. (2), 4. (3), 5. (2), 6. (4), 7. (5), 8. (2), 9. (4), 10. (5), 11. (3), 12. (3), 13. (3), 14. (5),
15. (1), 16. (5), 17. (2), 18. (1), 19. (4), 20. (1), 21. (5), 22. (2), 23. (5), 24. (4), 25. (1), 26. (3), 27.
(4), 28. (5), 29. (5), 30. (5), 31. (5), 32. (2), 33. (4), 34. (1), 35. (2), 36. (5), 37. (3), 38. (4), 39. (1),
40. (2), 41. (3), 42. (4), 43. (1), 44. (5), 45. (1), 46. (4), 47. (5), 48. (1), 49. (2), 50. (3)
Computer Questions
1. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n)
____________ to each task requiring the processors attention.
(A) CPU
(B) slice of time
(C) stack (D) event Ans : (B)
17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications
interact with are known as:
(A) application programming interfaces (APIs).
(B) complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
(C) device drivers.
(D) bootstrap loaders.
Ans : (A)
18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.
(A) point-and-click
(B) user-friendly
(C) command-driven
(D) Mac
Ans : (C)
19. An interrupt handler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
(B) peripheral device.
(C) utility program.
(D) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Ans : (D)
20. A spooler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
(B) print job.
(C) program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
(D) message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Ans : (C)
21. Virtual memory is typically located:
(A) on a floppy disk.
(B) in the CPU.
(C) in a flash card.
(D) on the hard drive.
Ans : (D)
22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:
(A) maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
(B) hold a programs data or instructions in virtual memory when it cant fit in RAM.
(C) prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
(D) allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Ans : (B)
23. The definition of thrashing is:
(A) swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
(B) insufficient hard disk space.
(C) too many processors being managed by the operating system.

(D) inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Ans : (A)
24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:
(A) Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
(B) Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
(C) Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
(D) Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Ans : (B)
25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
(A) configuration.
(B) accessibility.
(C) authentication.
(D) logging in.
Ans : (C)
26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the
computers:
(A) CPU.
(B) platform.
(C) BIOS.
(D) CMOS.
Ans : (B)
27. The following message generally means:
(A) a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.
(B) the CD drive is not functioning.
(C) the BIOS is corrupted.
(D) there is a problem loading a device.
Ans : (A)
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the
boot-up process?
(A) Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings
(B) Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings
(C) Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings
(D) Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system
29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
(A) load the operating system into RAM.
(B) the power-on self-test.
(C) activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
(D) load application programs.
Ans : (D)
30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating
system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
(A) BIOS
(B) API
(C) device driver
(D) supervisor program
Ans : (A)
31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
(A) RAM.
(B) ROM.
(C) the CPU.
(D) the hard drive.
Ans : (B)
32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the
____________ process.
(A) configuration
(B) CMOS
(C) POST
(D) ROM
Ans : (C)
33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the
(A) registry.
(B) API.
(C) CMOS.
(D) kernel.
Ans : (D)
34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
(A) The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
(B) The video card and video memory are tested.
(C) The BIOS identification process occurs.
(D) Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Ans : (A)
35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT
(A) any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
(B) the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually
changed.
(C) this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
(D) virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Ans : (A)
36. The operating system allows users to organize the computers contents in a hierarchical
structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) files.
(B) folders.
(D) drives.
(D) systems.
Ans : (D)
37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT
(A) windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
(B) windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
(C) more than one window can be open at a time.
(D) toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Ans : (A)
38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT
(A) A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.
(B) Files can be generated from an application.
(C) Files are stored in RAM.
(D) Files should be organized in folders.
Ans : (C)
(A) an open folder.
(C) a text file.
Ans : (B)
40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the
best viewing option is the __________ view.
(A) List
(B) Thumbnails
(C) Details
(D) Icon Ans : (C)
Reasoning
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which
has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which
is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 29
(E) 27
3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using
each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is
LANE written in that code ?
(A) 5427
(B) 5247
(C) 5847
(D) 5237
(E) None of these
5. BD is related to EG and MO is related to PR in the same way as FH is
related to .
(A) JM
(B) IL
(C) JL
(D) IK
(E) None of these
6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as
far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number
are rearranged in descending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED
written in that code ?
(A) PSHBMCDRH
(B) BHSPMCDRH
(C) BHSPOCDRH
(D) BHSPNHRDC
(E) None of these
8. In a certain code language pik da pa means where are you; da na ja means
you
may come and na ka sa means he may go, which of the following means
come in that code language
(A) da
(B) ja
(C) na

(E) None of these
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which
is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Zinc
(E) Steel
10. What should come next in the following number series ?
9898798769876598765498765
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) None of these
11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the
following five numbers ?
254 319 963 842 697
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 9
12. Meeta correctly remembers that her fathers birthday is after 8th July but
before 12th July. Her brother correctly remembers that their fathers birthday is
after 10th July but before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their
fathers birthday ?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 10th or 11th
(E) None of these
13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How
many students are there between M and H ?
(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(E) None of these
14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual
examination, D scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C
but less than D. Who among them scored least marks among them ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) B D F
(B) V X Z
(C) F I K
(D) M O Q
(E) L N P
Directions(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements
to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements
disregarding commonly known facts. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.
16. Statements :
Some desks are tents.
Some tents are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.
Conclusions :
I. Some ponds are tents.
II. Some ponds are desks.
17. Statements :
All chair are pens.
Some pens are knives.
All knives are rats.
Conclusions :
I. Some rats are chairs.
II. Some rats are pens.
18. Statements :
Some forests are huts.
Some huts are walls.
Some walls are nets.
Conclusions :
I. Some nets are forests.
II. Some nets are huts.
19. Statements :
All tables are windows.
All windows are rooms.
All rooms are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are tables.
II. Some rooms are tables.
20. Statements :
Some trees are boxes.
All boxes are bricks.
All bricks are dogs.
Conclusions :
I. Some dogs are trees.
II. Some bricks are trees.
21. Statements :
All goats are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are goats.
II. No root is goat.
22. Statements :
All pots are rings.
All bangles are rings.
All rings are paints.
Conclusions :
I. Some paints are pots.
II. Some bangles are paints.
Directions(Q. 23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the
questions given below
B#AR58E%MF4J1U@H29TI6*W3P#K7$Y
23. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left
end of the above arrangement ?
(A) %
(B) W
(C) $
(D) J
(E) None of these
24. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which
is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a
symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of
which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by
a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
27. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the
following will be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A) U
(B) T
(C) F
(D) H
(E) None of these
28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is
either
immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or
both ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group ?
(A) 1 @ 4
(B) T H
(C) W P 6
(D) # 7 3
(E) 9 2 I
Directions (Q. 3036)In each question below is given a group of
digits/symbolsfollowed by four combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and
(D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the
group of digits/symbols based on the following letter coding system and mark
the letter of that combination as the answer.If none of the letter combinations
correctly represents the group of digits/ symbols, mark (E) i.e. None of these as
the answer.
Digit/Symbol :
4%39$18@2#56*7d
Letter Code :
PMITRQJFHAEUNBGL
Conditions :
(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the
codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol
both are to be coded as the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as
X.
(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as
Y.
30. 4%@93*
(A) PMFTIB
(B) PMFTIP
(C) BMFTIB
(D) XMFTIX
(E) None of these
31. $1896
(A) RQJTNH
(B) HQJTNR
(C) RQJTNR
(D) YQJTNY
(E) None of these
32. 2*#836
(A) YBEJIY
(B) ABEJIN
(C) NBEJIA
(D) XBEJIX
(E) None of these
33. 8732@9
(A) TGIAFJ
(B) YGIAFY
(C) JGIAFT
(D) XGIAFX
(E) None of these
34. 7#$%35
(A) GERMIU
(B) UERMIG
(C) GERMIG
(D) XERMIX
(E) None of these
35. 931%d
(A) TIQMHL
(B) LIQMHT
(C) LIQMHL
(D) TIQMHT
(E) None of these
36. 46*389
(A) PNBIJT
Page|8
(B) XNBIJX
(C) TNBIJP
(D) PNBIJP
(E) None of these
Directions(Q. 3743) In the following questions, the symbols @, , %, $ and d
are used with the following meanings illustrated.
P % Q means P is greater than Q.
P d Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.
P @ Q means P is smaller than Q.
P Q means P is either smaller than or equal to Q.
P $ Q means P is either greater than or equal to Q.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find
outwhich of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
Give answers :
37. Statements : M @ J, J R, R d K
Conclusions : I. K d J
II. K % J
38. Statements : N $ T, T d H, N @ W
Conclusions : I. W % T
II. H N
39. Statements : F @ R, R V, V $ T
Conclusions : I. V % F
II. F @ T
40. Statements : W D, D $ B, B @ H
Conclusions : I. H % D
II. W @ B
41. Statements : F d T, T $ M, M R
Conclusions : I. R $ F
II. M F
42. Statements : H $ N, N % R, R @ J
Conclusions : I. R @ H
II. J % H
Page|9
43. Statements : V % B, B $ D, D E
Conclusions : I. E d B
II. D @ V
Directions(Q. 4449) Study the following information and answer the questions
givenbelow
M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third
to theleft of M and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is
second to the right of W who is second to the right of M. F is not an immediate
neighbour of P.
44. Who is to the immediate right of P ?
(A) H
(B) F
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
45. Who is to the immediate right of H ?
(A) R
(B) F
(C) M
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
46. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(A) P
(B) H
(C) W
(D) T
(E) Data inadequate
47. Who is third to the right of H ?
(A) T
(B) W
(C) R
(D) F
(E) Data inadequate
48. Who is second to the right of F ?
(A) M
(B) R
(C) T
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
49. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and
the
P a g e | 10
third person ?
(A) NHM
(B) PHN
(C) TRP
(D) TWF
(E) None of these
Directions(Q. 5055) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers
aregiven. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based
on thefollowing rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be
answered. The operations of numbers progress from the left to the right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to
be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to be added.

(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the
even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to
be divided by the second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number the second one is to be
subtractedfrom the first number.
If p is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second
row ?
(A) 58
(B) 76
(C) 27
(D) 82
(E) None of these
51. 12 64 17
20 m 16
If m is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row
?
(A) 69
(B) 85
(C) 101
(D) 121
(E) None of these
52. 85 17 35
16 19 r
If r is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 175
(B) 5
(C) 75
(D) 210
(E) None of these
53. 24 15 3
d 6 15
If d is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second
row ?
(A) 37
(B) 8
(C) 22
(D) 29
(E) None of these
54. 28 49 15
h 3 12
If h is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second
row ?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 19
(D) 27
(E) None of these
55. 36 15 3
12 3 n
If n is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second
row ?
(A) 15 / 17
(B) 32
(C) 12 / 17
(D) 36
(E) None of these
Directions(Q. 5660) Below in each question are given two statements I and II.
Thesestatements may be either independent causes or may be effects of
independent causes or acommon cause. One of these statements may be the
effect of the other statement. Readboth the statements and decide which of the
following answer choice correctly depicts therelationship between these two
statements. Mark answers :
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
56. I. This year, the cut off percentage for admission to junior colleges have
increased over the last year.
II. This year performance of students in Xth final exam was considerably higher
than theprevious year.
57. I. The conditions of most of the national highways are very bad.
II. Govt. has now sanctioned a huge amount of money to maintain the national
highways.
58. I. Many students of the local school have failed in English Language paper in
the annual examination.
II. Many students of the local school have failed in Mathematics paper in the
annual examination.
59. I. Rain and thunder showers bashed the city during the past three days.
II. Many people stayed indoor during the past three days.
60. I. There has been a considerable increase in the sale of fat free food articles.
II. Now people have become more conscious about their health condition and
food habits.
Directions(Q. 61-75) In each of the questions given below which one of the
fiveanswer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left,
if thesequence were continued ?
Answers with Hints
1. (D)
2. (E) All the rest are prime numbers.
3. (B) B I T E
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B)
9. (E) All the rest are pure metals.
10. (B) 98 987 9876 98765 987654 98765 4
11. (D) 963, 8 4 2, 697, 319, 254
12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (E)
20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 20th from the left end is T and 12th to the left of T is %.
24. (C) H 2 and K 7 $
25. (A)
26. (B) M F 4
27. (D) After dropping all the numbers.
B#ARE%MFJU@HTI*WP#K$Y
11th from the right end is H.
28. (D) # A, E % and U @
29. (E) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (E)
35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (E) 39. (A)
40. (D) 41. (B)
42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C)
49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (E) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (A)
56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (E) 59. (A) 60. (B)
Directions (questions 1 to 5): Read the following information and answer the
questions given below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in
the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between
them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.
1. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
2. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
3. Who is at the extreme right?
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
5. What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is
different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)
7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately
precede the digit 4 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow
the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6
exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How
many such 4s and 6s together are there?
54462635642843766483
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and
letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be
the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the
descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering
the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or
before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any
vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that
vowel in the English alphabet.
9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in
the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order
followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be
5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E
FGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)
12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have
number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters
between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)
13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group.
Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)
14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship
between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the
pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)
15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN
relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)
16. If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(d) ADAMRAN
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park
17. If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would
be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How
many women are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier
than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many
days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then
turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How
far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives
cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.
21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet S in the question
22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
25. ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
Directions (questions 1 to 5):Read the following information and answer the
questions given below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in
the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between
them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.
1. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
2. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
3. Who is at the extreme right?
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
5. What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is
different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)
7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately
precede the digit 4 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately
follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6
exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How
many such 4s and 6s together are there?
54462635642843766483
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and
letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be
the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the
descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering
the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or
before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any
vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that
vowel in the English alphabet.
9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in
the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order
followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be
5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E
FGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)
12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have
number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters
between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)
13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group.
Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)
14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship
between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the
pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)
15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN
relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)
16. If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(d) ADAMRAN
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park
17. If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would
be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How
many women are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier
than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many
days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then
turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How
far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives
cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.
21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet S in the question
22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
25. ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
At the start of game, A and B between them had four times as much money as C
while B & C together had three times as much as A. At the end, A & B between
them had three times as much as C, while B & C together had twice as much as
A. B finished Rs. 200 poorer at the end. A, B, C are the only players.
1. What fraction of the total money did C have at the beginning of the game ?
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/8
(c) 2/9
(d) 1/5
2. What fraction of the total money did A win (or lose)?
(a) won 1/12
(b) lost 1/6
(c) lost 1/3
(d) won 1/5
3. What amount did B start with ?
(a) Rs. 575
(b) Rs. 375
(c) Rs. 825
(d) Rs. 275
4. What amount did C win (lose)?
(a) lost Rs. 50
(b) won Rs. 75
(c) lost Rs. 125
(d) won Rs. 175
5. How much money did A have at the end of the game?
(a) Rs. 375
(b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 325
(d) Rs. 1100
Quantitative Aptitude Model Paper Questions Test 1
1. By what number less than 1000 must 43259 be multiplied So that the last
three figures to the right of the product may be 437?
(a) 743 (b) 658 (c) 701 (d) None of these
2. By what least number must 217800 be multiplied in order to make it a perfect
square?
3. Find the least number by which 19404 must be multiplied or divided so as to
make it a perfect square.
4. Find the smallest number which is a perfect square and contains 1400 as a
factor.
5. Find in the blank indicated by a star in the number 456 so as to make it
divisible by 33
6. By what least number must 6796 by multiplied or divided in order that the
resulting number may be a perfect square?
7. Find the greatest number that will divide 964, 1238 and 1400 leaving
remainders 41,31 and 51 respectively.

8. Find the greatest number that will divide 19409 and 43037 leaving remainders
17 and 29 respectively.
9. Find the greatest number that will divide 964, 1238, 1400 leaving remainders
41, 31 and 51 respectively.
10. Find the greatest number which will divide 12288, 28200, and 44333 so as to
leave the same remainder in each case.
ANSWERS:
01.(a) 06.(b)
02.(a) 07.(a)
03.(c) 08.(b)
04.(b)
09.(b)
05.(a)
10.(a)
IBPS Specialists officers IT -Computer based questions, IBPS Specialists officers largest collection of
aptitude ,reasoning general awareness, Professional Knowledge questions with answers
1. You can use the formula pallette to
A) format cells containing numbers
B) create and edit formula containing functions-Answer
C) enter assumptions data
D) copy a range of cells
2. When a range is selected, how can you activate the previous cell?
A) Press the Alt key
B) Press Tab
C) Press Enter
D) None of above-Answer
3. Which tool you will use to join some cells and place the content at the middle of joined cell?
A) From Format Cells dialog box click on Merge Cells check box
B) From Format Cells dialog box select the Centered alignment
C) From Format Cells dialog box choose Merge and Center check box
D) Click on Merge and Center tool on formatting toolbar-Answer
4. Tab scroll buttons are place on Excel screen
A) towards the bottom right corner
B) towards the bottom left corner-Answer
C) towards the top right corner
D) towards the top left corner
5. The Name box on to the left of formula bar
A) shows the name of workbook currently working on

B) shows the name of worksheet currently working on
C) shows the name of cell or range currently working on-Answer
D) None of above
6. Each excel file is a workbook that contains different sheets. Which of the following can not be a sheet in
workbook?
A) work sheet
B) chart sheet
C) module sheet
D) data sheet-Answer
7. Which of the following is not the correct method of editing the cell content?
A) Press the Alt key-Answer
B) Press the F2 key
C) Click the formula bar
D) Double click the cell
8. You can merge the main document with data source in Excel. In mail merge operation, Word is usually
A) server
B) source
C) client-Answer
D) none
9. How can you update the values of formula cells if Auto Calculate mode of Excel is disabled?
A) F8
B) F9-Answer
C) F10
D) F11
10. You want to set such that when you type Baishakh and drag the fill handle, Excel should produce Jestha,
Aashadh and so on. What will you set to effect that?
A) Custom List-Answer
B) Auto Fill Options
C) Fill Across Worksheet
D) Fill Series
11. Where can you change automatic or manual calculation mode in Excel?
A) Double CAL indicator on status bar
B) Go to Tools >> Options >> Calculation and mark the corresponding radio button-Answer
C) Both of above
D) None of above
12. How can you show or hide the gridlines in Excel Worksheet?
A) Go to Tools >> Options >> View tab and mark or remove the check box named Gridline
B) Click Gridline tool on Forms toolbar
C) Both of above-Answer
D) None of above
13. Which of the following Excel screen components can NOT be turned on or off?
A) Formula Bar
B) Status Bar
C) Tool Bar
D) None of above-Answer
14. What happens when you press Ctrl + X after selecting some cells in Excel?
A) The cell content of selected cells disappear from cell and stored in clipboard
B) The cells selected are marked for cutting-Answer
C) The selected cells are deleted and the cells are shifted left
D) The selected cells are deleted and cells are shifted up
15. Which of the following option is not available in Paste Special dialog box?
A) Add
B) Subtract
C) Divide
D) SQRT-Answer
16. Which command will you choose to convert a column of data into row?
A) Cut and Paste
B) Edit >> Paste Special >> Transpose-Answer
C) Both of above
D) None of above
17. It is acceptable to let long text flow into adjacent cells on a worksheet when
A) data will be entered in the adjecent cells
B) no data will be entered in the adjacent cells-Answer
C) there is no suitable abbrevition for the text
D) there is not time to format the text
18. Which of the cell pointer indicates you that you can make selection?
A) Doctors symbol (Big Plus)-Answer
B) small thin plus icon
C) Mouse Pointer with anchor at the tip
D) None of above
19. Which of the cell pointer indicates that you can fill series?
A) Doctors symbol (Big Plus)
B) small thin plus icon-Answer
D) None of above
20. Which of the cell pointer indicate that you can move the content to other cell?
A) Doctors symbol (Big Plus)
B) small thin plus icon-Answer
D) None of above
21. What function displays row data in a column or column data in a row?
a. Hyperlink
b. Index
c. Transpose
d. Rows
Correct Answer: c
22. When you insert an Excel file into a Word document, the data are
a. Hyperlinked
b. Placed in a word table
c. Linked
d. Embedded
Correct Answer: b. Placed in a word table
23. Except for the function, a formula with a logical function shows the word TRUE or FALSE as a result
a. IF
b. AND
c. OR
d. NOT
Correct Answer: a
24. Macros are run or executed from the .. menu.
a. Insert
b. Frmat
c. Tools
d. Data
Correct Answer: c
25. You can open the consolidate dialog box byt choosing Consolidate from the .. menu.
a. Insert
b. Format
c. Tools
d. Data
Correct Answer: d
26. Each excel file is called a workbook because
a. It can contain text and data
b. It can be modified
c. It can contain many sheets including worksheets and chart sheets
d. You have to work hard to create it
Correct Answer: c
27. Which types of charts can excel produce?
a. Line graphs and pie charts only
b. Only line graphs
c. Bar charts, line graphs and pie charts
d. Bar charts and line graphs only
Correct Answer: c
28. How are data organized in a spreadsheet?
a. Lines and spaces
b. Layers and planes
c. Rows and columns
d. Height and width

Correct Answer: c
29. What does the VLOOKUP function do?
a. Looks up text that contain v
b. Checks whether text is the same in one cell as in the next
c. Finds related records
d. All of above
Correct Answer: c
30. Gridlines
a. May be turned off for display but turned on for printing
b. May be turned on or off for printing
c. The be turned off for display and printing
d. a, b and c
Correct Answer: d
31. You can print only an embedded chart by
a. Moving the chart to a chart sheet before you print.
b. Formatting the chart before you print
c. Selecting the chart before you print
d. a and c
Correct Answer: d
32. Which of the following is a correct order of precedence in a formula calculation?
a. Multiplication and division, exponential positive and negative value
b. Multiplication and division, positive and negative values, addition and subtraction
c. Addition and subtraction, positive and negative values, exponentiation
d. None of above
Correct Answer: d
33. A function inside another function is called a .. function.
a. Nested
b. Round
c. Sum
d. Text
Correct Answer: a
34. How should you print a selected area of a worksheet, if youll want to print a different area next time?
a. On the file menu, point to print area, and then click set print area.
b. On the file menu, click print, and then click selection under print what
c. On the view menu, click custom views, then click add
d. All of above
Correct Answer: b
35. Youar German supplier still invoices for parts in deutsche marks. How can you have Excel convert those
sums to Euros?
a. On the Insert menu, click Symbol and from the currency symbols subset, select the Euro sign.
b. On the tools menu, click Add-Ins, and select the Euro Currency Tools check box
c. Apply a selected background color
d. All of above
Correct Answer: b
36. Which function calculates your monthly mortage payment?
a. PMT (payments)
b. NPER (number of periods)
c. PV (present value)
d. All of above
Correct Answer: a
37. If you are working in English (US), Chinese or Japanese, Excel 2002 can speak data as you enter it, to help
you verify accuracy. How do you activate this feature?
a. Point to speech on the tools menu, and then click show text to speech toolbar.
b. Click validation on the data menu
c. Point to speech on the tools menu, and then click speech recognition
d. All of above
Correct Answer: a
38. Which of the following methods can not be used to enter data in a cell?
a. Pressing an arrow key
b. Pressing the tab key
c. Pressing the Esc key
d. Clicking the enter button to the formula bar
Correct Answer: c.
39. Which of the following will not set text in selected cells to italics?
a. Pressing Ctrl + I on the keyboard
b. Using the Tools Wizard Web Form menu item
c. Using the Format Cells Font menu item
d. None of the above
Correct Answer: b
40. Which of the following methods cannot be used to edit the content of cell?
a. Pressing the Alt key
b. Clicking the formula bar
c. Pressing F2
d. Double clicking the cell
Correct Answer: a
MNARCH 9 2013
IBPS Current Affairs Last Six months Bits for Ibps Bank exam,IBPS Current Affairs specialists
officers free solved question papers
1. In which country the tallest communication tower named skruty is situated ?

Answer: Tokyo (Japan)
2. Who is the worlds shortest women who is still alive ?
Answer: Jyothi Amge
3. Who is the new leader of North Korea who has been recently elected ?
Answer: Kim Jong Un
4. How many years have been completed by African National Congress recently ?
Answer: 100 yrs .
5. Who is the first Indian American person who had been elected as governor for Lousiana in states of
U.K.?
Answer: Bobby Jindal .
6. Which year is called as International Year Of Cooperative according to UNO ?
Answer: 2012 year
7. Worlds oldest yoga teacher who had been entered in Guinnes Book of Records for yoga recently ?
Answer: Bernice Bates .
8. After how many years America had totally set back his military army from Iraq ?
Answer: 9yrs
9. Shoedar cruze missile was launched and tested by by which country ?
Answer: Iran
10. Who is the American Ambassador to India in 2011?
Answer: Timothy J.Reomer.
11. For how many yrs the great leader of North Korea has headed the country ?
Answer: 17 yrs
12. Which is the Worlds first Hydrogen based three wheeler vehicle ?
Answer: High Alpha
13. Who is the person who had won the election in US Republican in Florida Primary results recently ?
Answer: Mitt Romney
14. According to the new census Jan 2012 , what is the % population of China ?
Answer: 51.27 %
15. Whos name had been kept for the fly over bridge constructed in Islamabad recently?
Answer: Yousaf Raja Gillani .
16 Who is the President who had signed on military spending bills twice recently ?
Answer: Barack Obama
17. Which is the nation which joined UNO organisation recently ?

Answer: Pakistan
18. A credit Standard and Poors , due to which reasons it had reduced the rating of France , Italy and
other 9 countries recently ?
Answer: Debt crices.
19. According to the fortune magazine s annual ranking for 100 besr companies to work for 2012,which
company stood first ?
Answer: Google.
20. Who inaugurated the new mission control center the SHAR ?
Answer: Prathiba Patil
21. Who is the Managing director for the International Monetary Fund ( I M F )?
Answer: Christine Legaude .
22. Which was the protest movement that begin against financial greed & curruption in America recently
?
Answer: Occupy wall street
23. On 20 Jan 2012, Russia had leased which nuclear powered submarine to India recently ?
Answer: K-152 Nerpa
24. Which country has got the deal of 126 fighters to India recently ?
Answer: French
25. In American International affairs website which state of Indian borders have been wrongly mapped ?
Answer: Jammu Kashmir
26. How many countries have signed the multilateral agreement to check tax evasion and avoidence
recently ?
Answer: three
27. Which two countries agreed to establish a working mechanism on consultation and coordination on
border affairs ?
Answer: India & China
28. In which feild India and Japan had made agreement to enhance their cooperation ?
Answer: Infrastructure sector
29. What is the place of India in a global press freedom index in the past years ?
Answer: 131
30. On which issue India & USA signed recently ?

Answer: Labuor & employment
31. How many agreements India had signed with Trinidad & Tobago ?
Answer: 5
32. Name the new pact which was signed by the countries recently ?
Answer: shade
33. The birthday of the great mathematician Srinivasa Ramanujam was declared as ?
Answer: National Mathematics Day
34. Where will be the first cooperative university will set up ?
Answer: Sibsagar (Assam )
35. Which year is celebrated as National Mathematics day ?
Answer: 2012
36. What is the Total per capital income of all states in India ?
Answer: Rs.54,835 /37. Which ministry had been given to Mr. Ajit singh by the U P A government ?
Answer: Civil Aviation minister
38. How many news paper companies have been registered under the Register of News papers for
India according to the authority in 2010-2011?
Answer: 4853
39. What is the mascot name for national youth festival ?
Answer: Yakhi
40. On which day our national anthem Janaganamana has completed its hundred years ?
Answer: 27-12-2011
41. Who is the first women who had been selected as Javan in Indian Army ?
Answer: Santhi Tigga
42. Who is the 19th Director General of Indian coast guard ?
Answer: M.P.Muralidharan
43. To whom was the Review commite on the Delhi School Education Act &Rules 1973 (DSEAR-79)
report was submitted?
Answer: Sheila Dikshit
44. According to the survey done by the Brand Trust Report who is the person who had won the
confidence of peoplein the country ?
Answer: Anna Hazare
45. In which five years plan the national slum development programme will be launched by the
government ?
Answer: 12th five years plan
46. Who had launched the Interanet Prahari Project worth of 299 crore recently?
Answer: P.Chidambaram
47. The ISRO chief Madhavan Nair and other three who were blacklisted in which deal, the government
quit them away?
Answer: Antrix Devas
48. From which year the implementation of common medical entrance test will be conducted according
to the medical council of India ?
Answer: 2013
49. Which is the nodel agency for all anti -terror activities in the country, for which the government gave
approval recently?
Answer: National counter Terrorism Centre
50. Who is the chief guest for the Pravasi Bharathiya Devas conference held at Jaipur on Jan 7th
2012 ?
Answer: Kamal PerseBissesor
51. Where was the United Nation Research center for the North-East set up recently ?
Answer: Guwahati
52. From which year the implementation of common medical entrance test will be conducted according
to the medical council of India ?
Answer: 2013
53. Name the project which was inagurated by Mr.Chidambaram recently worth of 299 crore ?
Answer: Interanet Prahari projet
54. The Panch Parmeshwar scheme was launched by which state government ?
Answer: Madhya Pradesh
55. In 2010-2011 ,what is the per capital income of Andhra pradesh ?
Answer: Rs.60,458/56. Name the chief minister who had won the award for great vaccine innovation ?
Answer: Nitish Kumar

57. According to the report presented by the central government our state debt in the year 2010-2011 is
?
Answer: Rs.1,32,805 crore
58. Which Indian company is going launch a new diesel plant in Gurgoan recently ?
Answer: Maruthi
59. The bullet train between which two states will announced in railway budget 2012?
Answer: Ahmedabad-Mumbai
60. For the year 2012 in which place Andhra pradesh stood in urbunisation?
Answer: 17th
61. For how many Assembly seats election have been held in Uttarakhand on 30th Jan 2012 recently?
Answer: 70
62. Which state governors period has been extended by one year by the government recently ?
Answer: Andhra pradesh
63. Which state had agreed for the establishment of internal state board for pranahita- chevella sujatha
sravanti project ?
Answer: Maharashtra
64. Who is the person replaced in the place of E.Sridharan for Delhi Metro Rail M D on 31st Dac 2011?
Answer: Mangu singh
65. In which state the 10th Pravasi Bharathi Divas event inagurated from Jan 7th to 9th 2012 ?
Answer: Jaipur
66. What is the total strentgh of Muncipalities in the state A .P ?
Answer: 161
67. Who is the governor of Tamilnadu who has been appointed recently ?
Answer: K.Rosaiah
68. Which are the two states where assembly elections had been held on 30 th Jan 2012 ?
Answer: Punjab ,Uttarkhand
69. The assembly polling were held on 28th Jan 2012 for how many seats in Manipur ?
Answer: 60
70. In which place our state warangal NIT stands according to the survey done by the country ?
Answer: 8th
71. According to the national election commission which state minister had been ordered to cover the
status of elephants which are election symbol of the party recently ?
Answer: Uttar Pradesh
72. For many seats the assembly election had been held in Punjab ?
Answer: 117
73. Which state University had given Dr. to the Bangladesh P.M Shaik Hassina recently ?
Answer: Tripura
74. In which state the united nation research center for north -east set up ?
Answer: Assam
75. Which is the first state to issue e-stamp papers in all denominations in India ?
Answer: Delhi
76. According to the National child Right which state stood in top one position ?
Answer: Kerala
77. Which state topped in the list in utilizing the fund for minorities according to the minority affairs
ministry?
Answer: Jammu & kashmir
78. How many new tourism projects have been sanctioned for Jammukashmir by the union
government?
Answer: 7
79. In which city the geospatail world forum 2012 conference was held recently ?
Answer: Hyderabad
80. Which is the forum which had conference on the current & relevant issues on global problems
recently?
Answer: World Economic Forum (WEF)
81. On which issue the conference is being organized by International Advanced Research centre for
powder metallurgy and new materials (ARCI) recently ?
Answer: Nano science technology
82. On which issue President Pratibha Paatil constituted a committee recently ?
Answer: Production of Agriculture sector
83. Who had been awarded Sialedra Kumar singh award by the (UPA) chair person Sonia Gandhi?
Answer: D.Balavenkatatesh verma

84. To whom the Guljarilal Nanda Bharat Sevak Samaj has been awardedby Kerala government?
Answer: T.K.Nair
85. The prestegious International sports Association Fair play is awarded to which player?
Answer: Mahendrasingh Dhoni
86. How many people have been awarded the prestegious Man Asia award from India ?
Answer: 3 persons
87. The Mahatma Gandhi International Award for peace & Reconsilation award has been presented to
whom ?
Answer: Dalai Lama
88. Who had given the 2011 FIFA Best player award on 9th Jan 2012?
Answer: Lionel Messi
89. Who has been shortlisted for UKs Biggest contemporary Art Prize , Artes mundi recently?
Answer: Sheela Gowda
90. Who is the person who had conferred the Ashoka Chakra on 63rd Republic Day by the president
Pratibha Patil ?
Answer: Lt.Navdeep singh
91. To which award the Indian American sciencetist Venkataram Ramakrishna has been selected by the
Britan ?
Answer: Knight hood
92. On which date the Infosis 2011 awards have been awarded recently at Banglore ?
Answer: Jan 9th
93. Which university has honoured Dr to Bangladesh P.M Shaik Hassina recently ?
Answer: Tripura university
94. For the yr2011 who had won the perstegious (CNR ) sahitya puraskaram recently?
Answer: Ratna Markandapuram Srinivas
95. Who has been presented with pride of India award by the Indian -American community in
Washinton?
Answer: Mallikarjuna Kharge
96. Which university had got the honour Universities with potecial for excellence?
Answer: Ossamania university
97. Who is the Bollywood actor who had received a green globe award from Arnold Schwaizenegger
recently ?
Answer: Abishek Bachan
98. How many researchers got Infosis prize for the year 2011, which was presented by the former
president A.P.J Abdul Kalam?
Answer: 6
99. Who had won the best steel company of India for the year 2009-2010 ?
Answer: Steel Authority of India
100. Where was the 69th golden globe awards been presented on 15 th Jan 2012 ?
Answer: Los angeles
101. Which award has been given to the famous music director A.R Rahamn for the muisc composing
for the song If I Rise ?
Answer: Critics choice movie
102. Name the person Who had run barefoot 150 km in 24 hours and made a new world record ?
Answer: Abhijeet Buruah
103. Who is the first Indian women to have received an International Grand Master tittle in the game of
chess championship to get gold medal ?
Answer: Koneru Humpy
104. Who has been selected for player of the year award given by all India football assocaition ?
Answer: Sunil chhetri
105. Who had won the world super series batmintton tittle ?
Answer: Wang-Yihan (china)
106. In which country the womens team chess championship tournament held ?
Answer: Turkey
107. For the year 2011, who had been selected for International Tennis Federation Woeld champion
award?
Answer: Novak djikovic
108. Which country had won the Hopman cup tennis tittle which held on Jan 7th 2012?
Answer: Czech republic
109. Where will the Assia criket cup matches 2012 will be conducted ?
Answer: Bangladesh
110. For which game Abinav Bindra won gold medal ?

Answer: Air rifle shooting
111. In which place the South Central Asian Gymnastics championships event held recently ?
Answer: Dhaka
112. Who is the person who had won the FIFA Ballondor award recently ?
Answer: Lionel Messi
113. International player for batmiton Sina Nehal has ranked which place recently?
Answer: 4th
114. Who are the two Indian shooters who got selected for the London olympic games ?
Answer: Manavjeet singh sidhu & Imran Hassankhan
115. Who is the first Indian tennis player who won the carier mens doubles grand slam 2012?
Answer: Leander paes
116. In the Archery championship from AP Jyothi surekha got which medal ?
Answer: Gold medal
117. In which place India stood in the International test series ranking ?
Answer: 3rd place
118. In which country the 2012 Olympic Hockey tournament is going to be held ?
Answer: London
119. Who is the Indian criket player who stood in top ten positions according to ICCranking ?
Answer: Sachin tendulkar
120. Which is the country who had invited the sand artist Sudharshan Pattnaik from Odisha to parcipate
at the International Sand Championship recently?
Answer: Japan
121. What is the revised economic GDP growth rate for 2011-2012 financial year ?
Answer: 8.4 %
122. Which are the two countries where female infant mortality is higher than male infant mortality?
Answer: India & China
123. India had signed a TIEA agreement with which country ?
Answer: Guernsey
124. What is the national infant mortality rate reduced from ?

Answer: 50 % to 47 %
125. What is industrial growth rate in Dec 2011 ?
Answer: 3.1 %
126. How much can a customer transact per day by way of mobile banking ?
Answer: Rs.50,000/127. How much money is government going to spend on economic census for the year 2012?
Answer: 800 crore
128. Name the bank which has been opened by SBI, which is exclusively for women customers ?
Answer: Vasundhara Jubilee Senoritia
129. What is the minimum investment amount per client managed by portfolio manages decided by
SEBI ?
Answer: Rs.25,000 to 5,00,000
130. How much of fund is spent on improving quality education by all states in 2009-2010 in a survey ?
Answer: 1%
131. Which country had successfully launched an observation satellite into orbit above earth recently?
Answer: Iran
132. Who will audit the performance of the schemes under the ministers of rural development ?
Answer: Comptroller & Auditor General of India
133. Regarding to check tax evasion & avoidance India had signed a multilateral agreement with which
countries recently ?
Answer: France &German
134. What is the gross national income grew in the year 2010-2011 ?
Answer: 7.9 %
135. Which powered ATMs are going to be installed in the rural areas by the government ?
Answer: Solar power
136. What is the GDP growth percentage for the year 2011-2012 according to the government
estimation ?
Answer: 6.9 %
137. Scientists had produced a artificial human semen which will help in what?
Answer: Infertile men
138. Which beverage can be treat tremors in humans recently ?

Answer: Alcohol
139. High speed bullet train was launched by which country at Quingdao ?
Answer: China
140. Which missile was successfully test fired by India recently ?
Answer: Agni-1
141. From which place the Interceptor missile was launched successfully?
Answer: Orissa
142. The earth observation satellite from where it was launched recently ?
Answer: Sriharikota
143. Which country has invented the worlds fastest K-computor recently ?
Answer: Japan
144. Which is the earth -size planet orbiting in space discovered by the NASAs kepler?
Answer: kepler- 20e & 20f
145. Who has been appointed as microfinance ombudsman for the SKS microfinance ?
Answer: Virghese Jacob
146. Who is the 19th Director general of Indian coast Guard ?
Answer: M.P.Muralidharan
147. Who is the new 7th chief minister of Arunachal pradesh ?
Answer: Naban tukisworn
148. Who is the new advocate general who was appointed by state government ?
Answer: D.Sundharam reddy
149. Who is the independent Director of Infotec enterprises for the year 2012 ?
Answer: Vikas sehgal
150. Who is the person who is US ambassador to India resigned in the year 2011 ?
Answer: Timothy Roemer
151. Which state minister had resigned recently after indictment in illegal mining scan ?
Answer: Karnataka
152. Who is the women general secretary for SAARC who resigned recently?
Answer: Fathima Dhiyana Saeed

153. M.B.Hussan Farook who died recently was the governor of which state ?
Answer: Kerala
154. The former deputy chief minister P.Jaganath rao who died recently worked in which year cabinet ?
Answer: 1982
155. Freedom fighter of Indian diplomacy who was an architect of Indo-soviet treaty passed away in
New Delhi on 31st Jan 2012 ?
Answer: A.K.Damodharam
156. Who is the P.M of Thailand who visited India and has been the chief guest for the 63rd Republic
Day ?
Answer: Yingluck Shina Watra
157. Who is the president of Mali who visited India recently ?
Answer: Amadou Toumani Toure
158. Kamla persad Bissesar is Prime minister for which country who visited India recently ?
Answer: Trindad &Tobago
159. Which countries P.M is Sheik Hasina who visited India on 12th Jan 2012 ?
Answer: Bangladesh
160. Who is the Myanmar oposition leader who is standing for parliment on 1st April by election in
2012?
Answer: Aung San Suu Kyi
161. What did the pakistan supreme court said against its P.M Yousaf Raza Gilani recently ?
Answer: Not an honest man
162. Who had been Jailed more than 20 years for charging against secretly filming T.V documentery ?
Answer: Sarah Ferguson
163. What is the magnitude of earth quake on rickter scale which took place in Japan recently ?
Answer: 7
164. Who is the author of the book who wrote 20 great personalities of India ?
Answer: Gopalkrishna Gandhi
165. Who wrote the book Pharaoh & the King ?
Viswanath Venkat Dasari
166. Which is the book writen by MarkTuly recently ?

Answer: Non stop India
167. Who wrote the book The sence of an ending ?
Answer: Julian Barnes
168. Who is the author who had recieved Business Book of the year award 2010 for his book Fault
lines?
Answer: Raghuraman rajan
169. Who had constituted a committee to increase the productivity of agriculture sector?
Answer: Pratibha Patil
170. Where was the 19th ASEAN summit took place ?
Answer: Bali ( Indonesia)
171. To whom the review committee on the Delhi Education Act & Rules 1973 submitted its report ?
172. . Who had won the US Republic Florida Primary election held recently ?
Answer: Mitt Romney
173. By the end of which year the American military is going to end the combat operations in
Afghanistan?
Answer: 2013yr
174. What is the mechanism policy of EU to double their renewable energy?
Answer: Rio+20
175. In which place the National Australia Bank was opened its Maiden Branch in India recently ?
Answer: Mumbai
176. Which country is going to grant India the MFN status by the end of 2012 ?
Answer: Pakistan
177. Who is new US abbassador to India ?
Answer: Nancy J.Powell
178. What is the bilateral trade target set up by India & China recently
Answer: $100b
179. China wants to work with India in which issue recently ?
Answer: piracy fight
180. Between which two countries the 12th defence policy group meeting was held in New delhi ?
Answer: India & US
181 .Which disease had been included in lifestyle other than diabetes and hypertension ?
Answer: cancer
182. Which are the three most happiest countries where people reside ?
Answer: Indonesia,India &Mexico
183.. From which place India is going to test its most ambitious missile Agni- V ?
Answer: Odisha
184. According to researchers which country is losing its forests more rapidly ?
Answer: India
185. Samsung had launched which type of note book into the market recently ?
Answer: series 5 ultra
186. From which date the implementation of Matatma Gandhi Rural Employment, Guarantee Act will
start ?
Answer: 4/1/2012
187. Who inaugurated the 12th polio summit 2012 which was held in NewDelhi recently ?
Answer: Manmohan singh
188. How many people died of malaria worldwide in 2010-2011 according to the world malaria report ?
Answer: 46800
189.. Name the maths social net work in face book called ?
Answer: Teaching Tomorrow
190. Which city in A.P had decided to become cycle proud and introduced no Motor vehicle zones
across 20km of roads ?
Answer: Vishakapatnam
191. Which state Government had shortlisted for the two companies for setting up the E-waste
dismantlity facilities ?
Answer: West Bengal
192. Who had launched a major state wide de- warming campaign in Delhi recently ?
193. Which state ranked top in investment proposal in the year 2011 ?
Answer: Gujarat
194. .Where was the National Conference on Governance meeting organised on Jan 29 2012 ?
Answer: New Delhi
195. . Where was the 58th annual meeting of the Indian Association of Cardiovascular & Thoracic
Surgeons held at ?
Answer: Kolkata
196. On which date the Indian -Asean summit was held for two days in NewDelhi recently ?
Answer: 12 th Feb
197. Who inaugurated the 15th National conference on e-governance held for two days ?
Answer: Mr.M.Naveen Patnaik
198. The P.M of Mauritius Navinchandra Ramloolam had been honoured with which Dr. recently ?
Answer: Doctor of law
199. Who had been awarded as sports women of the year 2012 recently at Laureus sports awards ?
Answer: Vivian Chruiyot
200. Who is the Indian to receive the pretigious honour, Manager of the Year 2011 award recently ?
Answer: Siva ram krishna prasad
Current affairs questions and answers for all competitive examinations,IBPS general awareness
and professional knowledge questions for learn and practice
Famous Indian Scientist who was honoured with the Order of Canada Award in December 2012Venkatesh Mannar
Career diplomat who on 30 December 2012 had been appointed as Australias next High
Commissioner to India- Patrick Suckling
The former captain of England cricket team and renowned commentator who died in Sydney on 29
December 2012 following lung cancer- Tony Greig
The former member of SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) on 27 December 2012 had
been appointed secretary of the Institute of Company Secretaries- MS Sahoo
Renowned Oriya novelist who on 27 December 2012 selected for the prestigious Jnanpith award for
the year 2011 for her contribution to the field of Indian literature- Pratibha Ray
The Emirati poet and translator who became the first Emirati and Arab to win the Tagore Peace PrizeShihab Ghanem
The conservative leader of Japan who was elected as the prime minister of the country by lower
house of the Parliament on 26 December 2012- Shinzo Abe
Former Union Minister of India and Veteran Congress leader who on 25 December 2012 was sworn-in
as Chief Minister of Himachal for a record sixth term in Shimla- Virbhadra Singh
The Justice who in the fourth week of December 2012 took over as the Chairperson of the National
Green Tribunal (NGT) - the apex body constituted under The National Green Tribunal Act 2010- Justice
Swatanter Kumar
The most-watched video ever on Youtube which booked a place in popular culture with
becoming Collins dictionarys word for November 2012- Gangnam Style
The Italian Prime Minister who on 21 December 2012 resigned after 13 months in office with handing
over his resignation to President Giorgio Napolitano after parliament gave final approval to the 2013
budget law- Mario Mont
The air-to-air interceptor missile which on 21 December 2012 was test launched from interim test
range (ITR) at Chandipur in Odisha- Astra
The legendary hockey player who is also Indias triple Olympic Gold Medallist died after a prolonged
illness on 20 December 2012- Leslie Claudius
The person who on 20 December 2012 awarded with the Best Administrator in India Award instituted
by K. Karunakaran Foundation- P. Chidambaram
The person who on 18 December 2012 appointed as the new chief of Border Security Force (BSF)Subhash Joshi
Bollywood Actor who on 13 December 2012 awarded with the prestigious BrandLaureate Legendary
Award in Malaysia- Shah Rukh Khan
The Indian banker and business executive who on 15 December 2012 took over as President of
FICCI, becoming the first woman to head the leading industry body- Naina Lal Kidwai
The Justice who on 14 December 2012-took over as the new Chief Justice of Calcutta High Court Arun Kumar Mishra
The inventor of bar code, which revolutionalised retail in 70s, died at 91 on 8 December 2012 at New
Jersey- Norman Woodland
Famous Bollywood actress and Bharatanatyam exponent who had been selected for the prestigious
Bharat Muni Samman of year 2012 for her outstanding contribution to the field of art and culture- Hema
Malini
The first chief minister of Uttarakhand, and the BJP Party leader who passed away on 12 December
2012- Nityanand Swami
Renowned Indian sitarist who passed away in San Diego city of California on 11 December 2012Pandit Ravi Shankar
The organization to which, the Nobel Peace Prize 2012 was awarded on 10 December 2012 at Oslo,
Norway- European Union
The city at which the 2nd meeting of the Working Mechanism for Consultation and Coordination on
India-China Border Affairs was held on 29-30 November, 2012- New Delhi
The film which was given two National Tourism Awards by the Ministry of Tourism, Government of
India on 8 December 2012 recognizing the impact it has had in promoting India as a tourism
destination- Life of Pi
The strongest ever tropical cyclone which hit Philippines in the first week of December 2012- Typhoon
Bopha
The tax expert who was appointed by the Union government of India, as the adviser to finance
minister P Chidambaram- Parthasarathi Shome
The rank at which India Stands out of 176 countries in Transparency Internationals 2012 Corruption
Perception Index (CPI) released on 5 December 2012- 94th
IPS officer of 1974-batch Bihar cadre on 3 December 2012 acquired the office as new CBI directorRanjit Sinha
The former NBC Universal chief who was named president of CNN Worldwide on 29 November 2012Jeff Zucker
Antyodaya scheme is meant to help the:Poorest of the poor section of the society
The upcoming Ultra Mega Power Projects(UMPPs) at Cheyyur and Sarguja are located respectively
in:Tamil Nadu and Chhattisgarh
Andheri's newly constructed headquarters of anti-terror force was inaugurated by N. Kumar Reddy on
August 13, 2012 in Hyderabad. What is the name of this counter-terrorist commando force?
Organization to Counter Terrorist Operations (Octopus)
Which two countries signed Agreement for the Modernisation of Indian Railways? India and Belgium
Name the Indian telecom service company which had acquired US firm WPCS International? Kavvery
Telecom
Which company was directed by the Supreme Court to refund an amount of 17400 crore of rupees to
their Investors? Sahara Group of Company
Isle of Wight rock yielded three fossil footprints of Dinosaurs. In which one of the following countries Isle
of Wight located? UK
Which Indian Company signed a pact with French Energy company GDF Suez to import LNG
(Liquefied Natural Gas)? GAIL
What was the theme of the annual World Economic Forum (WEF) meeting organized in Davos,
Switzerland?Shared Norms for a New Reality
Which core sector industry has the highest weight in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)? Electricity
IBPS PO and clerical bank based general awareness and economics based questions,
IBPS banking awareness questions with answers,IBPS previous years solved question
with answers and detailed explnations
1. Economic Survey is an annual commentary on the state of the economy of India which is put
together by ______.
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Finance Ministry (Ans)
(d) India Statistical Institute
(e) None of these
2. The Economic Survey, tabled in Parliament by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on Feb 25, 2011
has pegged the economic growth at ____ for fiscal year 2012.
(a) 8.25 - 8.75 per cent
(b) 8.50 - 9.0 per cent
(c) 8.75 - 9.25 per cent (Ans)
(d) 9.0 - 9.50 per cent

(e) None of these
3. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. The Economic Survey 2011 has favored a phased opening of foreign direct investments in multibrand retail saying it could help address concerns of consumers and farmers, besides bringing
technical know-how.
2. At present India allows 100 per cent FDI in cash and carry wholesale trading, while it is prohibited in
multi-brand retail.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (Ans)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(e) Either 1 or 2
4. The Economic Survey 2011 has been prepared under the mentorship of Finance Ministry's chief
economic advisor, who is
(a) C Rangarajan
(b) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(c) R Venkateshwar
(d) Kaushik Basu (Ans)
(e) None of these
5. According to Economic Survey 2011, agriculture is likely to grow at _____ in 2010/11.

(a) 5.1 per cent
(b) 5.2 per cent

(c) 5.3 per cent
(d) 5.4 per cent (Ans)
(e) None of these
6. According to Economic Survey 2011, what is the growth in industrial output ?

(a) 5.6 per cent
(b) 6.6 per cent
(c) 7.6 per cent
(e) None of these
7. According to Economic Survey 2011, what is the growth in manufacturing sector ?

(a) 6.1 per cent
(b) 7.1 per cent
(c) 8.1 per cent
(e) None of these
8. According to Economic Survey 2011, how much did the trade gap narrow in April-December 2010 ?
(a) $ 81.01 billion
(b) $ 82.01 billion (Ans)
(c) $ 83.01 billion
(d) $ 84.01 billion

(e) None of these
9. Which of the following statements with reference to Economic Survey 2011 is/are correct ?
1. Net bank credit has grown by 59 per cent.
2. Savings rate has gone up to 33.7 per cent.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(e) Either 1 or 2
10. The government aims at raising Rs 40,000 crore by selling its stake in public sector undertakings in
2011-12, despite missing the current year's target. As against a target of Rs. 40,000 crore, the
government has raised about ____ from disinvestment in 2010-11.
(a) Rs 22, 144 crore (Ans)
(b) Rs 23, 144 crore
(c) Rs 24, 144 crore
(d) Rs 25, 144 crore
(e) None of these
11. In 2010-11, government sold its stake in different state-run companies including Coal India, Power
Grid Corporation of India, Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam, Engineers India Ltd, Shipping Corporation of India
and Manganese Ore India Ltd. The government aims at retaining what percent of ownership and
management control in the central public sector undertakings ?
(a) 26 per cent
(b) 51 per cent (Ans)

(c) 63 per cent
(d) 74 per cent
(e) None of these
12. According to Union Budget 2011-12, exemption limit for the general category of individual taxpayers
has been enhanced by
(a) Rs 20,000 (Ans)
(b) Rs 30,000
(c) Rs 40,000
(d) Rs 50,000
(e) None of these
13. According to Union Budget 2011-12, qualifying age for Senior Citizens has been reduced from 65
years to ___ and exemption limit for Senior Citizens has been enhanced from Rs 2,40,000 to ___.
(a) 60 years, Rs.2,50,000 (Ans)
(b) 61 years, Rs.2,60,000
(c) 62 years, Rs.2,70,000
(d) 63 years, Rs.2,80,000
(e) None of these
14. A new category of Very Senior Citizens, ______ and above, has been created who will be eligible
for a higher exemption limit of ____.
(a) 75 years, Rs.4,00,000
(b) 70 years, Rs.5,00,000
(c) 80 years, Rs.5,00,000 (Ans)

(d) 85 years, Rs.4,00,000
(e) None of these
15. The Finance Minister has proposed to increase the exemption limit for general category individual
tax payers by Rs.20,000 to Rs.1,80,000 per year. This will provide a uniform tax relief of ____ to every
tax payer of this category.
(a) Rs 1000
(b) Rs 2000 (Ans)
(c) Rs 3000
(d) Rs 4000
(e) None of these
16. Union Budget 2011-12 has allocated Rs 2,14,000 crore for infrastructure in 2011-12. This is an
increase of ____ over 2010-11.
(a) 20.3 per cent
(b) 21.3 per cent
(c) 22.3 per cent
(e) None of these
17. According to Union Budget 2011-12, exports have grown by ____, while imports have recorded a
growth of ____ during April to January 2010-11 over the corresponding period last year.
(a) 29.4 per cent, 17.6 per cent (Ans)
(b) 30.4 per cent, 16.6 per cent
(c) 31.4 per cent, 15.6 per cent

(d) 32.4 per cent, 14.6 per cent
(e) None of the above
18. The Economic Survey presents a rosy picture about the per capita income by representing India's
per capita net national income (factor cost at current prices) at _____ for 2010-11.
(a) Rs 54,527 (Ans)
(b) Rs 55,527
(c) Rs 56,527
(d) Rs 57,527
(e) None of these
19. According to the Economic Survey 2010-11, what was the total Gross Domestic Saving in 200910 ?
(a) Rs. 21,07,423 crore
(b) Rs. 22,07,423 crore (Ans)
(c) Rs. 23,07,423 crore
(d) Rs. 24,07,423 crore
(e) None of these
20. According to the projection of GDP in the Economic Survey 2010-11, the economy's growth rate
has been pegged at ____ in 2010-11.
(a) 7.6%
(b) 8.6% (Ans)
(c) 9.6%
(d) 10.6%
(e) None of these
has been pegged at _____ in 2011-12.
(a) 7%
(b) 8%
(c) 9% (Ans)
(d) 10%
(e) None of these
22. According to the projection of GDP in the Economic Survey 2010-11, India's GDP at Factor Cost
(real GDP) been pegged at ___ in 2010-11.
(a) Rs. 4579232 crore
(b) Rs. 4679232 crore
(c) Rs. 4779232 crore
(d) Rs. 4879232 crore (Ans)
(e) None of these
23. What is the allocation for social sector in the total plan allocation ?
(a) 33.4%
(b) 34.4%
(c) 35.4%
(d) 36.4% (Ans)
(e) None of these
24. The Union Budget 2011-12 estimates fiscal deficit at Rs.4,12,817 crore. What is the fiscal deficit
with reference to percentage of GDP ?
(a) 2.6 per cent
(b) 3.6 per cent
(c) 4.6 per cent (Ans)
(d) 5.6 per cent
(e) None of these
25. The Union Budget 2011-12 estimates gross tax receipts to grow by ______ to Rs. 9,32,440.
(a) 24.9 per cent (Ans)
(b) 25.9 per cent
(c) 26.9 per cent
(d) 27.9 per cent
(e) None of these
26. According to the Union Budget 2011-12, what amount will be transferred to the States and UTs as
plan and non plan transfers ?
(a) Rs. 1,01,733 crore
(b) Rs. 2,01,733 crore (Ans)
(c) Rs. 3,01,733 crore
(d) Rs. 4,01,733 crore
(e) None of these
27. In the Union Budget 2011-12, Finance Minister has proposed to create a micro finance equity fund
with Small Industrial Development Bank of India (SIDBI) for providing equity to smaller micro finance
institutions. What is the value of this proposed fund ?
(a) Rs 50 crore
(b) Rs 100 crore (Ans)
(c) Rs 150 crore
(d) Rs 200 crore
(e) None of these
28. In the Union Budget 2011-12, the minimum alternate tax (MAT) rate has been hiked from 18 per
cent to ___ of book profits.
(b) 19 per cent
(c) 19.5 per cent
(d) 20 per cent
(e) None of these
29. A few new services have been brought under service tax net.
Consider the following services :
1. Hotel accommodation in excess of Rs. 1000 per day.
2. Service provided by air conditioned restaurants with licence to serve liquor
Which of these services have been brought under the tax net ?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(e) Either 1 or 2
30. The RESIDEX was launched by he National Housing Bank (NHB) to provide an index of residential
prices in India across cities and over time. In which year was RESIDEX launched ?
(a) 2006
(b) 2007 (Ans)
(c) 2008
(d) 2009
(e) None of these
31. According to Economic Survey 2010-11, housing sector contributes what per cent of national
employment ?
(a) 9 per cent (Ans)
(b) 10 per cent
(c) 11 per cent
(d) 12 per cent
(e) None of these
32. With a view to reduce wastage of farm produce, how many more mega food parks has the Finance
Minister Pranab Mukherjee announced in the Budget ?
(a) 15 (Ans)
(b) 16
(c) 17
(d) 18
(e) None of these
33. According to Union Budget 2011-12, credit flow to farmers has been raised from Rs. 3,75,000 crore
to :
(a) Rs 4,00,000 crore
(b) Rs 4,25,000 crore
(c) Rs 4,50,000 crore
(d) Rs 4,75,000 crore (Ans)
(e) None of these
34. During the first three years of the current Five Year Plan, the agriculture sector (including allied
activities) recorded an average growth of ____ against the Plan target of __ per annum.
(a) 3.03 per cent, 4 per cent
(b) 2.03 per cent, 5 per cent
(c) 4.03 per cent, 6 per cent
(d) 2.03 per cent, 4 per cent (Ans)
(e) None of these
35. The Economic Survey 2010-11 says that the overall GDP has grown by an average of 8.62 per cent
during 2004-05 to 2010-11, agricultural sector GDP has increased by only 3.46 per cent during the
same period. Agriculture sector accounts for what per cent of employment in the country (as per 2001
census) ?
(a) 56 per cent
(c) 60 per cent
(d) 62 per cent

(e) None of these
36. According to Union Budget 2011-12, Direct Taxes Code (DTC) would be finalized for enactment
during 2011-12. The proposed DTC is to be effective from _____.
(a) April 30, 2012
(b) May 1, 2012
(c) June 1, 2012
(d) April 1, 2012 (Ans)
(e) None of these
37. In the Union Budget 2011-12, Defence expenditure for 2011-12 has been pegged at Rs 1,64,415
crore, an increase of ___ over the last financial year 2010-11.
(a) Rs 16,071 crore
(b) Rs 17,071 crore (Ans)
(c) Rs 18,071 crore
(d) Rs 19,071 crore
(e) None of these
38. In the Union Budget 2011-12, how much amount has been earmarked for cleaning of rivers ?
(a) Rs 50 crore
(b) Rs 100 crore
(c) Rs 150 crore
(d) Rs 200 crore (Ans)
(e) None of these
39. In the Union Budget 2011-12, allocation under Rashtirya Krishi Vikas Yojna (RKVY) has been
increased to
(a) Rs 5860 crore
(b) Rs 6860 crore
(c) Rs 7860 crore (Ans)
(d) Rs 8860 crore
(e) None of these
40. In the Union Budget 2011-12, what amount is to be provided in 2011-12 for maintaining minimum
Tier l capital to Risk Weighted Asset Ratio (CRAR) of 8% in public sector banks ?
(a) Rs 5000 crore
(c) Rs 7000 crore
(d) Rs 8000 crore
(e) None of these
41. In the Union Budget 2011-12, what amount is to be provided in 2011-12 for maintaining CRAR in
regional rural banks ?
(a) Rs 500 crore (Ans)
(b) Rs 600 crore
(c) Rs 700 crore
(d) Rs 800 crore
(e) None of these
42. According to the Union Budget 2011-12, there is an increase in remuneration for Anganwadi
workers from _____ to _____ per month.
(a) Rs 1,500, Rs 2,000
(b) Rs 1,500, Rs 3,000 (Ans)
(c) Rs 1,000, Rs 2,000
(d) Rs 1,500, Rs 2,500
(e) None of these
43. According to the Union Budget 2011-12, what is the amount that has been proposed to be allocated
for Green India Mission from National Clean Energy Fund ?
(a) Rs 50 crore
(b) Rs 100 crore
(c) Rs 150 crore
(e) None of these
44. The Union Budget 2011-12 has proposed to distribute ten lakh Aadhaar numbers per day from
(a) Aug 1, 2011
(b) Sept 1, 2011
(c) Oct 1, 2011 (Ans)
(d) Nov 1, 2011
(e) None of these
45. According to the Union Budget 2011-12, an international award has been instituted for promoting
values of universal brotherhood as part of National celebrations of 150th birth anniversary of Gurudev
Rabindranath Tagore. What is the prize money of this award ?
(a) Rs 25 lakh
(b) Rs 50 lakh
(c) Rs 75 lakh
(e) None of these
46. According to the Union Budget 2011-12, eligibility for pension under Indira Gandhi National Old Age
Pension Scheme for BPL beneficiaries has been reduced from 64 years of age to ____ years.
(a) 55
(b) 58
(c) 60 (Ans)
(d) 62
(e) None of these
47. The Government's special support to Jammu & Kashmir is anchored in Rs 28,000 crore Prime
Minister's Reconstruction Plan. In the Union Budget 2011-12, _____ would be given as Special
Developmental Assistance to the troubled Jammu and Kashmir in the current fiscal.
(a) Rs 8,000 crore (Ans)
(b) Rs 9,000 crore
(c) Rs 10,000 crore
(d) Rs 12,000 crore
(e) None of these
48. To give a boost to the development of backward regions, the Union Budget 2011-12 has increased
allocation under the Backward Regions Grant Fund from Rs 7,300 crore to _____ .
(a) Rs 6,890 crore
(b) Rs 7,890 crore
(c) Rs 8,890 crore
(d) Rs 9,890 crore (Ans)
(e) None of these
49. Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the announcements in Budget
2011-12 ?
1. National Mission for Hybrid and Electric Vehicles will be launched.
2. 7 Mega clusters for leather products to be set up.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(e) Either 1 or 2
50. With reference to the trends in India's Fertilizers Production, which of the following statements
is/are correct ?
1. India meets 85 per cent its urea requirement through indigenous production but depends heavily on
imports for its phosphatic and potash fertilizer requirements.
2. Farmers pay only 25 to 40 per cent of the actual cost and the rest of the cost is borne by the
Government in the form of a subsidy, which is reimbursed to the manufactures/importers.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(e) Either 1 or 2
IBPS PO and clerical bank based general awareness and economics based questions,
IBPS banking awareness questions with answers,IBPS previous years solved question
with answers and detailed explnations
1. Economic Survey is an annual commentary on the state of the economy of India which is put
together by ______.
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Finance Ministry (Ans)
(d) India Statistical Institute
(e) None of these
2. The Economic Survey, tabled in Parliament by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on Feb 25, 2011
has pegged the economic growth at ____ for fiscal year 2012.
(a) 8.25 - 8.75 per cent
(b) 8.50 - 9.0 per cent
(c) 8.75 - 9.25 per cent (Ans)
(d) 9.0 - 9.50 per cent
(e) None of these
3. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. The Economic Survey 2011 has favored a phased opening of foreign direct investments in multibrand retail saying it could help address concerns of consumers and farmers, besides bringing
technical know-how.
2. At present India allows 100 per cent FDI in cash and carry wholesale trading, while it is prohibited in
multi-brand retail.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(e) Either 1 or 2
4. The Economic Survey 2011 has been prepared under the mentorship of Finance Ministry's chief
economic advisor, who is
(a) C Rangarajan
(b) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(c) R Venkateshwar
(d) Kaushik Basu (Ans)
(e) None of these
5. According to Economic Survey 2011, agriculture is likely to grow at _____ in 2010/11.

(a) 5.1 per cent
(b) 5.2 per cent
(c) 5.3 per cent
(e) None of these
6. According to Economic Survey 2011, what is the growth in industrial output ?

(a) 5.6 per cent
(b) 6.6 per cent
(c) 7.6 per cent
(e) None of these
7. According to Economic Survey 2011, what is the growth in manufacturing sector ?

(a) 6.1 per cent
(b) 7.1 per cent
(c) 8.1 per cent
(e) None of these
8. According to Economic Survey 2011, how much did the trade gap narrow in April-December 2010 ?
(a) $ 81.01 billion
(b) $ 82.01 billion (Ans)
(c) $ 83.01 billion
(d) $ 84.01 billion
(e) None of these
9. Which of the following statements with reference to Economic Survey 2011 is/are correct ?
1. Net bank credit has grown by 59 per cent.

2. Savings rate has gone up to 33.7 per cent.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(e) Either 1 or 2
10. The government aims at raising Rs 40,000 crore by selling its stake in public sector undertakings in
2011-12, despite missing the current year's target. As against a target of Rs. 40,000 crore, the
government has raised about ____ from disinvestment in 2010-11.
(a) Rs 22, 144 crore (Ans)
(b) Rs 23, 144 crore
(c) Rs 24, 144 crore
(d) Rs 25, 144 crore
(e) None of these
11. In 2010-11, government sold its stake in different state-run companies including Coal India, Power
Grid Corporation of India, Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam, Engineers India Ltd, Shipping Corporation of India
and Manganese Ore India Ltd. The government aims at retaining what percent of ownership and
management control in the central public sector undertakings ?
(a) 26 per cent
(c) 63 per cent
(d) 74 per cent
(e) None of these
12. According to Union Budget 2011-12, exemption limit for the general category of individual taxpayers
has been enhanced by
(a) Rs 20,000 (Ans)
(b) Rs 30,000
(c) Rs 40,000
(d) Rs 50,000
(e) None of these
13. According to Union Budget 2011-12, qualifying age for Senior Citizens has been reduced from 65
years to ___ and exemption limit for Senior Citizens has been enhanced from Rs 2,40,000 to ___.
(a) 60 years, Rs.2,50,000 (Ans)
(b) 61 years, Rs.2,60,000
(c) 62 years, Rs.2,70,000
(d) 63 years, Rs.2,80,000
(e) None of these
14. A new category of Very Senior Citizens, ______ and above, has been created who will be eligible
for a higher exemption limit of ____.
(a) 75 years, Rs.4,00,000
(b) 70 years, Rs.5,00,000
(c) 80 years, Rs.5,00,000 (Ans)
(d) 85 years, Rs.4,00,000
(e) None of these
15. The Finance Minister has proposed to increase the exemption limit for general category individual
tax payers by Rs.20,000 to Rs.1,80,000 per year. This will provide a uniform tax relief of ____ to every
tax payer of this category.
(a) Rs 1000
(b) Rs 2000 (Ans)
(c) Rs 3000
(d) Rs 4000
(e) None of these
16. Union Budget 2011-12 has allocated Rs 2,14,000 crore for infrastructure in 2011-12. This is an
increase of ____ over 2010-11.
(a) 20.3 per cent
(b) 21.3 per cent
(c) 22.3 per cent
(e) None of these
17. According to Union Budget 2011-12, exports have grown by ____, while imports have recorded a
growth of ____ during April to January 2010-11 over the corresponding period last year.
(a) 29.4 per cent, 17.6 per cent (Ans)
(b) 30.4 per cent, 16.6 per cent
(c) 31.4 per cent, 15.6 per cent
(d) 32.4 per cent, 14.6 per cent
(e) None of the above
18. The Economic Survey presents a rosy picture about the per capita income by representing India's
per capita net national income (factor cost at current prices) at _____ for 2010-11.
(a) Rs 54,527 (Ans)
(b) Rs 55,527
(c) Rs 56,527
(d) Rs 57,527
(e) None of these
19. According to the Economic Survey 2010-11, what was the total Gross Domestic Saving in 200910 ?
(a) Rs. 21,07,423 crore
(b) Rs. 22,07,423 crore (Ans)
(c) Rs. 23,07,423 crore
(d) Rs. 24,07,423 crore
(e) None of these
has been pegged at ____ in 2010-11.
(a) 7.6%
(b) 8.6% (Ans)
(c) 9.6%
(d) 10.6%
(e) None of these
has been pegged at _____ in 2011-12.
(a) 7%
(b) 8%
(c) 9% (Ans)
(d) 10%
(e) None of these
22. According to the projection of GDP in the Economic Survey 2010-11, India's GDP at Factor Cost
(real GDP) been pegged at ___ in 2010-11.
(a) Rs. 4579232 crore
(b) Rs. 4679232 crore
(c) Rs. 4779232 crore
(d) Rs. 4879232 crore (Ans)
(e) None of these
23. What is the allocation for social sector in the total plan allocation ?
(a) 33.4%
(b) 34.4%
(c) 35.4%
(d) 36.4% (Ans)
(e) None of these
24. The Union Budget 2011-12 estimates fiscal deficit at Rs.4,12,817 crore. What is the fiscal deficit
with reference to percentage of GDP ?
(a) 2.6 per cent

(b) 3.6 per cent
(c) 4.6 per cent (Ans)
(d) 5.6 per cent
(e) None of these
25. The Union Budget 2011-12 estimates gross tax receipts to grow by ______ to Rs. 9,32,440.
(b) 25.9 per cent
(c) 26.9 per cent
(d) 27.9 per cent
(e) None of these
26. According to the Union Budget 2011-12, what amount will be transferred to the States and UTs as
plan and non plan transfers ?
(a) Rs. 1,01,733 crore
(b) Rs. 2,01,733 crore (Ans)
(c) Rs. 3,01,733 crore
(d) Rs. 4,01,733 crore
(e) None of these
27. In the Union Budget 2011-12, Finance Minister has proposed to create a micro finance equity fund
with Small Industrial Development Bank of India (SIDBI) for providing equity to smaller micro finance
institutions. What is the value of this proposed fund ?
(a) Rs 50 crore

(c) Rs 150 crore
(d) Rs 200 crore
(e) None of these
28. In the Union Budget 2011-12, the minimum alternate tax (MAT) rate has been hiked from 18 per
cent to ___ of book profits.
(b) 19 per cent
(c) 19.5 per cent
(d) 20 per cent
(e) None of these
29. A few new services have been brought under service tax net.
Consider the following services :
1. Hotel accommodation in excess of Rs. 1000 per day.
2. Service provided by air conditioned restaurants with licence to serve liquor
Which of these services have been brought under the tax net ?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(e) Either 1 or 2
30. The RESIDEX was launched by he National Housing Bank (NHB) to provide an index of residential
prices in India across cities and over time. In which year was RESIDEX launched ?
(a) 2006
(b) 2007 (Ans)
(c) 2008
(d) 2009
(e) None of these
31. According to Economic Survey 2010-11, housing sector contributes what per cent of national
employment ?
(a) 9 per cent (Ans)
(b) 10 per cent
(c) 11 per cent
(d) 12 per cent
(e) None of these
32. With a view to reduce wastage of farm produce, how many more mega food parks has the Finance
Minister Pranab Mukherjee announced in the Budget ?
(a) 15 (Ans)
(b) 16
(c) 17
(d) 18
(e) None of these
33. According to Union Budget 2011-12, credit flow to farmers has been raised from Rs. 3,75,000 crore
to :
(a) Rs 4,00,000 crore
(b) Rs 4,25,000 crore
(c) Rs 4,50,000 crore
(d) Rs 4,75,000 crore (Ans)
(e) None of these
34. During the first three years of the current Five Year Plan, the agriculture sector (including allied
activities) recorded an average growth of ____ against the Plan target of __ per annum.
(a) 3.03 per cent, 4 per cent
(b) 2.03 per cent, 5 per cent
(c) 4.03 per cent, 6 per cent
(d) 2.03 per cent, 4 per cent (Ans)
(e) None of these
35. The Economic Survey 2010-11 says that the overall GDP has grown by an average of 8.62 per cent
during 2004-05 to 2010-11, agricultural sector GDP has increased by only 3.46 per cent during the
same period. Agriculture sector accounts for what per cent of employment in the country (as per 2001
census) ?
(a) 56 per cent
(c) 60 per cent
(d) 62 per cent
(e) None of these
36. According to Union Budget 2011-12, Direct Taxes Code (DTC) would be finalized for enactment
during 2011-12. The proposed DTC is to be effective from _____.
(a) April 30, 2012
(b) May 1, 2012
(c) June 1, 2012
(d) April 1, 2012 (Ans)
(e) None of these
37. In the Union Budget 2011-12, Defence expenditure for 2011-12 has been pegged at Rs 1,64,415
crore, an increase of ___ over the last financial year 2010-11.
(a) Rs 16,071 crore
(b) Rs 17,071 crore (Ans)
(c) Rs 18,071 crore
(d) Rs 19,071 crore
(e) None of these
38. In the Union Budget 2011-12, how much amount has been earmarked for cleaning of rivers ?
(a) Rs 50 crore
(b) Rs 100 crore
(c) Rs 150 crore
(e) None of these
39. In the Union Budget 2011-12, allocation under Rashtirya Krishi Vikas Yojna (RKVY) has been
increased to
(a) Rs 5860 crore

(b) Rs 6860 crore
(c) Rs 7860 crore (Ans)
(d) Rs 8860 crore
(e) None of these
40. In the Union Budget 2011-12, what amount is to be provided in 2011-12 for maintaining minimum
Tier l capital to Risk Weighted Asset Ratio (CRAR) of 8% in public sector banks ?
(a) Rs 5000 crore
(c) Rs 7000 crore
(d) Rs 8000 crore
(e) None of these
41. In the Union Budget 2011-12, what amount is to be provided in 2011-12 for maintaining CRAR in
regional rural banks ?
(a) Rs 500 crore (Ans)
(b) Rs 600 crore
(c) Rs 700 crore
(d) Rs 800 crore
(e) None of these
42. According to the Union Budget 2011-12, there is an increase in remuneration for Anganwadi
workers from _____ to _____ per month.
(a) Rs 1,500, Rs 2,000
(b) Rs 1,500, Rs 3,000 (Ans)

(c) Rs 1,000, Rs 2,000
(d) Rs 1,500, Rs 2,500
(e) None of these
43. According to the Union Budget 2011-12, what is the amount that has been proposed to be allocated
for Green India Mission from National Clean Energy Fund ?
(a) Rs 50 crore
(b) Rs 100 crore
(c) Rs 150 crore
(e) None of these
44. The Union Budget 2011-12 has proposed to distribute ten lakh Aadhaar numbers per day from
(a) Aug 1, 2011
(b) Sept 1, 2011
(c) Oct 1, 2011 (Ans)
(d) Nov 1, 2011
(e) None of these
45. According to the Union Budget 2011-12, an international award has been instituted for promoting
values of universal brotherhood as part of National celebrations of 150th birth anniversary of Gurudev
Rabindranath Tagore. What is the prize money of this award ?
(a) Rs 25 lakh
(b) Rs 50 lakh
(c) Rs 75 lakh
(e) None of these
46. According to the Union Budget 2011-12, eligibility for pension under Indira Gandhi National Old Age
Pension Scheme for BPL beneficiaries has been reduced from 64 years of age to ____ years.
(a) 55
(b) 58
(c) 60 (Ans)
(d) 62
(e) None of these
47. The Government's special support to Jammu & Kashmir is anchored in Rs 28,000 crore Prime
Minister's Reconstruction Plan. In the Union Budget 2011-12, _____ would be given as Special
Developmental Assistance to the troubled Jammu and Kashmir in the current fiscal.
(a) Rs 8,000 crore (Ans)
(b) Rs 9,000 crore
(c) Rs 10,000 crore
(d) Rs 12,000 crore
(e) None of these
48. To give a boost to the development of backward regions, the Union Budget 2011-12 has increased
allocation under the Backward Regions Grant Fund from Rs 7,300 crore to _____ .
(a) Rs 6,890 crore
(b) Rs 7,890 crore
(c) Rs 8,890 crore

(d) Rs 9,890 crore (Ans)
(e) None of these
49. Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the announcements in Budget
2011-12 ?
1. National Mission for Hybrid and Electric Vehicles will be launched.
2. 7 Mega clusters for leather products to be set up.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(e) Either 1 or 2
50. With reference to the trends in India's Fertilizers Production, which of the following statements
is/are correct ?
1. India meets 85 per cent its urea requirement through indigenous production but depends heavily on
imports for its phosphatic and potash fertilizer requirements.
2. Farmers pay only 25 to 40 per cent of the actual cost and the rest of the cost is borne by the
Government in the form of a subsidy, which is reimbursed to the manufactures/importers.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(e) Either 1 or 2
IBPS Specialists officers IT -Computer based questions, IBPS Specialists officers Professional
Knowledge questions with answers
1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
This machine can replace the mainframes very soon

Application servers
(Ans)
Workstations
Pentium
Power PC
All of the above
2.
a)
b)
c)
d)
What is the architecture that is used in PS/2 range of IBM computers ?

ISA
EISA
MCA
(Ans)
Local Bus
3.
a)
b)
c)
d)
MCA means
Main Computer Architecture
Micro Channel Architecture
Micro Chip Architecture
Micro Computer Architecture
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Compared to CISC processors, RISC processors contain

more registers and smaller instruction set
(Ans)
larger instruction set and less registers
less registers and smaller instruction set
more transistor elements
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
What is an application server ?

Network node that stores applications
Software that allows interchange application
Multitasking operating system
Network server currently available for use with large client-server systems. (Ans)
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Choose the one which is coprocessor :

80287
(Ans)
Graphic Accelerator
Video Graphics Array
Network adapter
7.
a)
b)
c)
Choose the one which is not necessary for a multimedia PC :

Video Card
Scanner
CD-ROM
(Ans)
d) Sound card
e) All the above
(Ans)
8.
a)
b)
c)
d)
80386 SX processor from Intel has

16 bit address bus and 32 bit data bus
8 bit data bus and 16 bit address bus
9.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
DIP switches are used to store system setup information in

PC/AT 286
(Ans)
PC/XT
PC/AT 386
Pentium
Power PC
10.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Power PC is the latest in the PC market. it is

a less power consumption PC
a microprocessor with Intel and Motorola compatible
(Ans)
the latest model microprocessor from Intel
a PC which can work both on Intel based (DOS and Unix) and Apple operating systems.
(Ans)
11. What is data highway ?

a) A road New York
b) A network of on-line database
c) A network into which subscriber machines can plug-in and communicate between one another
d) An integrated network of communica-tion supporting data transfer, TV, cable, Telephone, Video
Conferencing, Video on Demand and other communication services in one. (Ans)
12.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Choose the company that does not use Motorola chips in their computers :
APPLE
HEWLETT-PACKED
ATARI
COMPAQ
(Ans)
13. Till recently all processors produced were complex instruction set computing (CISC) processors.
The important reason for this was :
a) memory was costly and access times were large
(Ans)
b) all problems required complex instructions
c) software technology was not advances to do without complex instructions
d) RISC processor technology was not available
14. When RISC processors are used, this is true :
a) compilers are complex

(Ans)
b) large number of processor instructions are used
c) programs are more complicated than in CISC processors
d) RISC cannot be used in high performance machines like graphic workstations and network
servers.
15. Choose the one which is not a property of RISC processor
a) implements only instructions most used by programmers
b) timing constraints are eased since circuitry is simplified
c) complex operations are implemented by software
d) provides more registers for use by programs
e) All of the above are properties
(Ans)
16.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Choose the company which manufactures the multimedia accessory cards for :
IBM
Creative labs
(Ans)
Combaq
Dell
17.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Frame Grabber cards are basically used for :

capturing single frames from a video output
(Ans)
showing video in a window inside Windows
used to download a single screen//frame from computer to a video
capturing single screens in the computer while any display is on the screen.
18.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Video capture can be done presently with a Video card, using the following program :
Video for Windows
(Ans)
Windows Media Player
CI Manager
Microsoft Reader
19.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The following programs in Windows is used for recording sound using a sound card :
Media Player
Sounder
(Ans)
Multimedia Extensions
Recorder
20. In any windows program, the video clips recorded as AVI files can be directly played using the
following features :
a) GUI functions
b) Kernel functions
c) MCI functions
(Ans)
d) Video functions
21. The register which keeps track of the execution of a program and which contains the memory
address of the instruction currently being executed is known as
a) Index register
b) Memory address register
c) Program counter
(Ans)
d) Instruction register
22. The register which holds the address of the location to or from which data are to be transferred is
known as
a) index register
b) instruction register
c) memory address register
(Ans)
d) memory data register
23. If some device requires urgent service, normal execution or programs may sometimes by
preempted using.
a) an interrupt signal
(Ans)
b) a request to memory modules
c) DMA
d) All of the above
24. The register which contains the data to be written into or readout of the addressed location is
known as
a) index register
(Ans)
b) memory address register
c) memory data register
d) program counter
25.
a)
b)
c)
d)
A single bus structure is primarily found in

Main frames
Super computers
High performance machines
(Ans)
Mini and micro computers
26. In which of the following terminals the screen is regarded as an array of pixels, where each pixel is
either on or off.
a) Character map terminal
b) bit map terminal
(Ans)
c) RS-232 terminal
d) All of the above
27. On of the main feature that distinguish microprocessors from micro-computers is
a) Words are usually larger in micro-processor
b) Words are shorter in micro-processors
c) Microprocessors does not contain I/O devices

d) Computer are not fully integrated
(Ans)
28.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Microprocessor can be used to make

Computers
Digital Systems
Calculators
All the above
(Ans)
29.
a)
b)
c)
d)
In a generic microprocessor, instruction cycle time is

shorter than machine cycle time
larger than machine cycle time
(Ans)
exactly double the machine cycle time
exactly the same as the machine cycle time.
30. What tape of control pins are needed in a microprocessor to regulate traffic on the bus, in order to
prevent two devices from trying to use it at the same time.
a) Bus control
b) Interrupts
c) Bus arbitration
(Ans)
d) Status
MARCH 11 2013
1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Who is the founder of WIKIPEDIA

Bajern Strau Strup
Jimmy Wales
(Ans)
Dennis M. Ritchie
Thomas Kurtz
2.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Some viruses have a delayed payload which is sometimes called a

time
anti-virus
bomb
(Ans)
none of these
3. Which of the following is actually considered a critical wireless device ?

a) AP
(Ans)
b) WAP
c) WEP
d) WLAN
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
URL stands for

Uniform Read Locator
Uniform Resource Locator
Unicode Research Location
United Research Locator
(Ans)
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Which of the following systems run an application layer firewall using Proxy Software ?
Proxy NAT
Proxy Client
Client 32
Proxy server
(Ans)
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
A multi-purpose window which opens nearly for everything is

main desktop
explorer window
(Ans)
browser window
error window
7.
a)
b)
c)
d)
This function key is used to set the various applications available in Tally
F12
(Ans)
F9
F10
F11
8.
a)
b)
c)
d)
First biological computer was built in the year ?

2002
2003
2001
(Ans)
1999
9.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Which is first online banking firm in India

SBI
ICICI
IDBI
HDFC
(Ans)
10.
a)
b)
c)
d)
World Computer Literacy Day observed on

December 15
November 2
November 12
December 2
(Ans)
11.
a)
b)
c)
d)
'Akshaya' was first implemented in which of the following district ?

Kannur
Malappuram
(Ans)
Palakkad
Wayanad
12.
a)
b)
c)
d)
A computer programme used for business application is

BASIC
COBOL
(Ans)
FORTRAN
LOGO
13.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The language is used for development of various game is ------C++

(Ans)
C
JAVA
BASIC
14.
a)
b)
c)
d)
First cyber crime police station in Kerala

Kochi
Pattom
(Ans)
Kozhikode
Kannur
15.
a)
b)
c)
d)
An error is also know as

bug
(Ans)
debug
icon
cursor
16.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Website's main page is called its ----Home page

Browser page
(Ans)
Search page
Bookmark
17.
a)
b)
c)
d)
In MICR, C stands for

code
colour
computer
character
(Ans)
18.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Cltrl, Shift and Alt are called ---- keys

modifies
function
alphanumeric
adjustment
(Ans)
19.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Ms-Excel contains how many columns ?

256
(Ans)
250
240
255
20.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Printed copy is often called

soft copy
write copy
blank copy
hard copy
(Ans)

IBPS 2012 MCQ

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NOV 13 2012 Question papers of IBPS Bank PO and Clerical cadre Written Test Examination

IBPS Bank PO CWE GENERAL AWARENESS Questions

7. Which of the following has completed 50 years in 2006?

(3) Rs 300 and Rs 30

23. Consider the following happenings/programmes:

26. Kadima political party is associated with which country?

(4) Jennifer Lopez

44. Which State is planning to have a port in another State?

(4) international meeting of scientists

IBPS Bank PO CWE English Language Questions

51. Which of these is true in context to the passage:

(3) (a) and (b)

(4) tactical, iron

99. pour oil on troubled waters:

I. Some pencils are gum.

168. Should there be no place for interview in selection?

(4) All are implicit.

(3) if the data provided is inadequate.

(3) Work do others imitate.

201. People who are into only furniture business are:

IBPS Quantitiative and Reasoning Questions with answers

c) 9 & 11 but not by 5

IBPS Reasoning Number series Questions

2.5, 8, 13, 20, 29, ?

3.10, 13, 19, 22, 28, 31, ?

4.6, 12, 21, ?, 48

6.6, 11, 21, 36, 56, ?

7.10, 18, 28, 40, 54, 70, ?

9.1, 6, 15, ?, 45, 66, 91

10.2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?

IBPS Reasoning Questions -Calendars

1. Find the number of odd days in 200 days.

2.Find the number of odd days in 425 days.

3.Find the number of odd days in 49 years.

4.What day of the week on 26th Jan 1950?

6.What day of the week on 2nd June, 1988?

7.What day of the week on 15th August, 1947?

8.What day of the week on 31st October, 1984?

10. What day of the week on 14th November, 1889?

IBPS Bank PO CWE Percentage Topic Questions

7. A is twice B and B is 200% more than C. By what percent is A more than C?

8. In an examination, a student secures 40% and fails by 10 marks. If he scored 50%, he

9. If A is 20% taller than B, by what percent is B shorter than A?

IBPS Bank PO CWE Aptitude Questions

1. BE' is related to 'GJ' in the same way as 'PS' is related to

scored the highest?

13. On which day was no play organised?

14. Which play was organised on Wednesday?

4) All I, II and III follow

27. Statements: Some months are weeks.

28. Statements: Some stations are rails.

29. Statements: All windows are roofs.

II. Some glasses are windows.

30. Statements: All trees are jungles.

31. Statements: Some books are calendars.

the above arrangement?

44. Who is to the immediate left of D?

45. Who is second to the right of E?

46. Who is third to the left of B?

47. What is the position of G with respect to A?

'P $ Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.

50. Statements: R@N,ND, O$J, J#B

51. Statements: W B, B % V, V $ R, R@K