Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
General Subjects
QMED
1.
2.
(1.2.7.1-7) If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh
water as a condensing medium, what statement is true?
o
o
(a) The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat; the central cooling fresh water loses latent heat.
(b) The refrigerant vapor loses sensible heat, the central cooling fresh water gains latent heat.
(c) The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water gains sensible heat.
(d) The refrigerant vapor gains latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses sensible heat.
3.
(1.2.7.1-8) What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil heat
exchanger such as a air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler?
o
o
o
4.
(1.2.7.1-1) If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a diesel
engine are sea water-cooled, what statement is true?
o
o
o
(a) Sea water flows through the shells of both the lube oil and jacket water coolers.
(b) Sea water flows through the tubes of the lube oil cooler and through the shell of the jacket
water cooler.
(c) Sea water flows through the tubes of the jacket water cooler and through the shell of the lube
oil cooler.
(d) Sea water flows through the tubes of both the lube oil and jacket water coolers.
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General Subjects
QMED
5.
(1.2.7.1-9) If a sea water-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the sea water inlet and
outlet connections on the opposite end water boxes, in terms of the number of passes, what
statement is true?
o
o
6.
o
o
7.
(1.2.8.1-2) In the system illustrated, which of the following readings should be indicated on the
pressure gage, if the load (x) is 8000 lbs (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64.5 sq. cm)?
Illustration GS-0062
o
o
o
8.
(1.2.8.1-3) Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing an hydraulic
oil's viscosity?
o
o
o
(a) Pressure
(b) Pour point
(c) Cloud point
(d) Vacuum
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General Subjects
QMED
9.
(1.2.8.1-4) The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are
generally __________.
o
o
10. (1.2.8.1-5) Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the
__________.
o
o
11. (1.2.8.2-2) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________. Illustration
GS-0098
o
o
o
12. (1.2.8.2-3) An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45, as shown in
the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________. Illustration GS-0068
o
o
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General Subjects
QMED
13. (1.2.8.2-5) Item "F" shown in the illustration represents two hydraulic pumps that are __________.
Illustration GS-0103
o
o
o
(a) motor operated with one pump located in the engine room at the shaft alley door and the other
in a common passage way
(b) manually operated with one pump located at the shaft alley door and the other in a common
passage way
(c) motor operated with one pump located on the engine room side and the other on the shaft
alley side of the watertight door
(d) manually operated with one pump located in the engine room and the other in the shaft alley
of the watertight door
14. (1.2.8.2-1) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a/an __________.
Illustration GS-0097
o
o
o
15. (1.2.8.2-4) Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________. Illustration GS0103
o
o
o
(a) shut down the remotely operated electric motor driven pump when the watertight door has
closed
(b) act as a power source to operate the pumps indicated as "F"
(c) act as a power source to operate the pump indicated as "E"
(d) shut down the operation of pump "E" when the watertight door has closed
16. (1.2.8.3-1) Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the
__________.
o
o
o
(a) ram
(b) actuator
(c) reservoir
(d) accumulator
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General Subjects
QMED
17. (1.2.8.3-4) The component which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, dust-like particulate
contamination from hydraulic fluid is a/an __________.
o
o
o
(a) accumulator
(b) separator
(c) strainer
(d) filter
18. (1.2.8.3-5) Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high-pressure use is
represented by figure __________. Illustration GS-0100
o
o
o
(a) A or B
(b) A or C
(c) B or C
(d) C or D
19. (1.2.8.3-6) The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength is the __________.
o
o
o
20. (1.2.8.3-7) The discharge capacity of the axial piston hydraulic pump, shown in the illustration, is
__________. Illustration GS-0058
o
o
o
21. (1.2.8.3-8) To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would
have to be done?
o
o
o
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General Subjects
QMED
22. (1.2.8.3-3) In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high-pressure return is provided by
__________. Illustration GS-0118
o
o
o
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
23. (1.2.8.3-2) Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well
below the fluid surface level to __________.
o
o
24. (1.2.9.1-1) Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and
displaying both positive and negative pressures?
o
o
o
25. (1.2.9.1-4) Which of the following direct reading gauges would most likely be used in the application
of a pump suction pressure gauge?
o
o
26. (1.2.9.1-3) Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring two
pressures and displaying the difference between the two?
o
o
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General Subjects
QMED
27. (1.2.9.1-7) Which of the following system applications would require the use of a siphon tube (pigtail)
to prevent gauge damage?
o
o
o
28. (1.2.9.1-8) When reading a pressure that fluctuates severely on a direct reading pressure gauge,
what should be done?
o
o
o
(a) Attempt to determine the midpoint between the maximum and minimum pressures and use
this as an estimate of the average pressure.
(b) The pulsation dampening needle valve should be throttled down (without closing) until the
fluctuation ceases.
(c) The maximum and minimum pressures should be noted and added together and divided by
two to obtain the average pressure.
(d) The pulsation dampening needle valve should be opened wider until the fluctuation ceases.
29. (1.2.9.1-10) If a standard bourdon tube type pressure gauge that is designed to measure and display
gauge pressure reads 43.8 psig, what would be the equivalent absolute pressure?
o
o
30. (1.2.9.3-5) When determining the level of a potable water hydro-pneumatic header tank fitted with a
tubular sight glass, what must be taken into consideration?
o
o
o
(a) The sight glass must be drained, blown down, and re-filled before each reading is taken.
(b) The actual water level in the hydro-pneumatic header tank is somewhat higher than the level
shown in the sight glass.
(c) The actual water level in the hydro-pneumatic header tank is somewhat lower than the level
shown in the sight glass.
(d) The actual water level in the hydro-pneumatic header tank is identical to the level shown in the
sight glass.
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General Subjects
QMED
31. (1.2.9.3-4) What statement best represents the characteristics of innage and ullage tank soundings?
o
o
o
(a) Innage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the top of the tank, and ullage is
the distance between the surface of the liquid and the bottom of the tank.
(b) Innage is the distance between the oil/water interface and bottom of the tank, and ullage is the
distance between the oil/water interface and the top of the tank.
(c) Innage is the distance between the oil/water interface and top of the tank, and ullage is the
distance between the oil/water interface and the bottom of the tank.
(d) Innage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the bottom of the tank, and ullage
is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the top of the tank.
32. (1.2.9.3-9) What is the operating principle upon which a bubble tube system operates in indicating
liquid tank level?
o
o
(a) The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the top of the tank is
proportional to the liquid level in the tank.
(b) The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the bottom of the tank
is inversely related to the liquid level in the tank.
(c) The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the bottom of the tank is
proportional to the liquid level in the tank.
(d) The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the top of the tank
is inversely related to the liquid level in the tank.
33. (1.2.9.3-1) What statement is true concerning the vent pipes and sounding tubes associated with a
vented tank?
o
o
o
(a) Both the vent pipe and the sounding tube attach to an end at an opening at the top of the tank.
(b) The vent pipe attaches to and ends at an opening at the top of the tank, and the sounding
tube passes through the tank top and extends almost to the tank bottom.
(c) Both the vent pipe and the sounding tube pass through the tank top and extend almost to the
tank bottom.
(d) The sounding tube attaches to and ends at an opening at the top of the tank, and the vent
pipe passes through the tank top and extends almost to the tank bottom.
34. (1.2.9.3-6) In what application would a reflex type flat gauge glass be used?
o
o
o
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General Subjects
QMED
35. (1.2.9.3-2) What statement best represents the characteristics of an innage tape and bob for the
purposes of taking a vented tank sounding?
o
o
o
(a) The bob has a cupped end and sinks in the liquid when lowered by the tape.
(b) The bob has a pointed end and sinks in the liquid when lowered by the tape.
(c) The bob has a cupped end and floats on the surface of the liquid when lowered by the tape.
(d) The bob has a pointed end and floats on the surface of the liquid when lowered by the tape.
36. (1.2.9.4-4) What is the operating principle of a variable area flow meter, such as a rotameter?
o
o
o
(a) The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of the fluid flow.
(b) The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow.
(c) The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow.
(d) The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of the fluid flow.
37. (1.2.9.2-7) If a thermometer reads 80oC, what is the equivalent temperature in oF?
o
o
o
(a) 12 F
o
(b) 76 F
o
(c) 112 F
o
(d) 176 F
38. (1.2.9.2-10) If the mercury has become separated in a liquid-in-glass thermometer, what can be
done to correct this situation?
o
o
o
(a) After removing the thermometer, hold the thermometer by the lower end and try to recombine
the mercury by several full arm swings.
(b) Repeatedly tap the side of the thermometer until the mercury recombines.
(c) After removing the thermometer, hold the thermometer by the upper end and try to recombine
the mercury by several full arm swings.
(d) It is not possible to correct this situation.
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General Subjects
QMED
39. (1.2.9.2-2) What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of differential expansion
of dissimilar metals as the temperature rises and features a rotary dial scale?
o
o
o
40. (1.2.9.2-8) If a thermometer reads 850oF, what is the equivalent temperature in oC?
o
o
o
(a) 454 C
o
(b) 490 C
o
(c) 1,472 C
o
(d) 1,585 C
41. (1.2.10-4) What type of grease is the most commonly used aboard ship?
o
o
o
42. (1.2.10-6) If an engine lubricating oils viscosity is given as SAE 20W as compared to SAE 20, what
is the significant difference between the two lubricating oils?
o
o
o
(a) The SAE 20W oil is primarily designed for year-round (low and high ambient temperature
service) and SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service.
(b) The SAE 20W oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service, and the SAE 20
oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service.
(c) The SAE 20W oil is primarily designed for year-round (low and high ambient temperature
service) and SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service.
(d) The SAE 20W oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service, and the SAE 20
oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service.
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General Subjects
QMED
43. (1.2.10-3) What statement is true concerning viscosity index as it applies to lubricating oils?
o
o
o
(a) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively high rate of change of viscosity as the
pressure changes.
(b) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively low rate of change of viscosity as the
temperature changes.
(c) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively low rate of change of viscosity as the
pressure changes.
(d) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively high rate of change of viscosity as the
temperature changes.
44. (1.2.10-7) If an engine lubricating oils viscosity is given as 20W-50, what does this mean?
o
o
o
(a) The oil is formulated to meet the low temperature requirements of SAE 20W oil and the 100 C
(high) temperature requirements of SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil.
o
(b) The oil is formulated to meet the 100 C (high) temperature requirements of SAE 20W oil and
the low temperature requirements of SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil.
(c) The oil is a mixture of equal amounts of SAE 20W and SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round
oil.
(d) The oil is a mixture of equal amounts of SAE 20W and SAE 50W oil and as such is a yearround oil.
45. (1.2.10-2) For a lubricating oil, what is the relationship between viscosity and temperature?
o
o
o
(a) As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil may
increase or decrease, depending upon the lubricant.
(b) As the temperature of a lubricating oil varies in either direction, the viscosity of the lubricating
oil remains constant.
(c) As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil also
increases.
(d) As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil decreases.
46. (1.2.4.7-1) The control of exhaust temperature on a solid waste/sludge incinerator is critical. How is
this temperature normally controlled?
o
o
o
(a) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating by the admission of combustion air into
the combustion chamber.
(b) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the admission of auxiliary fuel to the
burner.
(c) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the exhaust gas flow.
(d) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the admission of relatively cool ambient
air into the exhaust stream.
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General Subjects
QMED
47. (1.2.1.1-11) One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to
__________. Illustration GS-0119
o
o
o
49. (1.2.1.1-7) Which one of the following is a difference between a typical relief valve and a typical
safety valve?
o
o
(a) The actuator closing spring on a relief valve is in a compressed state whereas the actuator
closing spring on a safety valve acts in tension.
(b) Relief valves are capable of being gagged whereas safety valves are not.
(c) A relief valve gradually opens as pressure increases above set point pressure whereas a
safety valve fully opens at the set point pressure.
(d) The blow down of a relief valve is greater than the blow down of a safety valve.
50. (1.2.1.1-12) The air compressor shown in the illustration, when used aboard a vessel is typically
operated as __________. Illustration GS-0119
o
o
o
51. (1.2.1.1-6) The primary function of the device illustrated is to __________. Illustration GS-0029
o
o
o
(a) remove all but the frictional load of an air compressor at start-up
(b) intensify the pressure developed by an air compressor during its normal running operation
(c) pre-charge the cylinders of an air compressor prior to the start-up of the unit
(d) open the discharge valves during the compressor s operation to supply compressed air
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General Subjects
QMED
52. (1.2.1.1-8) The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to __________. Illustration GS0120
o
o
53. (1.2.1.2-6) The line labeled "E", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______.
Illustration GS-0175
o
o
o
54. (1.2.1.2-3) The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________. Illustration GS-0153
o
o
(a) direct the flow of the oily-water mixture against the coalescer bed
(b) support the tank access panel
(c) prevent separated oil from mixing with the incoming bilge water
(d) allow the oil accumulated to exit the device, while remaining separated from the liquid
55. (1.2.1.2-5) The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the ______.
Illustration GS-0175
o
o
o
56. (1.2.1.2-8) Which of the valves listed for the device shown in illustration will be open while the unit is
operating in the back flush mode? Illustration GS-0153
o
o
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General Subjects
QMED
57. (1.2.1.3-2) In the operation of a lube oil clarifier, the position of the oil/water interface should be
__________.
o
o
o
(a) non-existent
(b) maintained by the number of disks in the disk stack
(c) maintained by the diaphragm-type, weir control valve
(d) maintained by the ring dam
58. (1.2.1.3-4) A centrifuge will satisfactorily remove which of the listed substances from lube oil?
o
o
(a) Gasoline
(b) Diesel fuel
(c) Carbon particles
(d) Fuel oil
59. (1.2.1.3-7) Of the many impurities commonly found in marine lubricating oil, which of the following
CANNOT be removed by a centrifugal purifier at normal operating speeds and temperatures?
o
o
o
60. (1.2.1.3-6) When water is removed from lube oil passing through a centrifugal purifier, the water
removed will __________.
o
o
o
(a) force the diameter of the oil column within the bowl to be narrowed
(b) be retained in the bowl
(c) displace water from the heavy phase discharge port, but of an amount less than that removed
from the oil
(d) displace an equal amount of water from the bowl seal
61. (1.2.4.6-9) Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to meet a wide variation in
steaming loads on an auxiliary boiler, are __________.
o
o
o
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General Subjects
QMED
62. (1.2.4.6-5) Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is correct?
o
o
o
63. (1.2.4.6-11) A photoelectric cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management
system __________.
o
o
o
64. (1.2.4.6-10) The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired
auxiliary boiler, is to prevent __________.
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
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General Subjects
QMED
67. (1.2.4.6-7) The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by
__________.
o
o
o
68. (1.2.4.6-6) The boiler shown in the illustration would be classed as __________. Illustration MO0064
o
o
o
69. (1.2.4.6-3) Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to __________.
o
o
o
70. (1.2.1.4-1) Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by
centrifuging?
o
o
o
(a) Sludge
(b) Gasoline
(c) Fuel oil
(d) Lube oil
71. (1.2.1.4-3) For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should be accomplished with
the fuel at the lowest practicable __________.
o
o
o
(a) throughput
(b) additive percent
(c) Cetane number
(d) TBN number
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General Subjects
QMED
72. (1.2.4.5-1) Which of the following technologies would be associated with a Type III marine sanitation
device?
o
o
73. (1.2.4.5-3) By what means is biological sewage treatment plant effluent disinfected before discharge
overboard?
o
o
74. (1.2.4.5-4) If a biological sewage treatment plant consists of three chambers, what is the sequential
order of treatment chambers within the plant?
o
o
75. (1.2.4.5-5) Besides promoting mixing of the bacterial population with the fecal waste material, what
is the purpose of aeration system as used in a biological sewage treatment plant?
o
o
o
(a) The air provides an oxygen source for the aerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it
helps promote settling in the aeration chamber.
(b) The air provides an oxygen source for the anaerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it
helps promote settling in the aeration chamber.
(c) The air provides an oxygen source for the anaerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it
helps prevent settling in the aeration chamber.
(d) The air provides an oxygen source for the aerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it
helps prevent settling in the aeration chamber.
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General Subjects
QMED
76. (1.2.2-8) What type of respiratory protection provides the greatest protection from the various
respiratory hazards, is specifically designed for emergency and rescue situations, but has time
constraints associated with its use?
o
o
o
(a) A power tool fitted with a three conductor cable and three-prong plug may be safely used with
an ungrounded outlet as long as a three prong receptacle to two prong plug adapter is used.
(b) Power tools other than those as approved as double-insulated require the use of two
conductor cables, two-prong plugs, and ungrounded receptacles.
(c) Unless the power tool is an approved double-insulated type, an ungrounded power tool has
the potential to cause a fatal accident due to electrical shock.
(d) Double-insulated power tools require the use of three conductor cables, three-prong plugs,
and grounded receptacles.
78. (1.2.2-1) Back injuries are one of the most common injuries that result in lost work time. What is the
proper technique for lifting an object?
o
o
o
(a) Bend over and grasp the object firmly. While keeping the legs straight, lift the object by
straightening the back. Move the object while standing erect and keep object away from the body.
(b) Bend the knees and grasp the object loosely. While keeping the back straight, lift the object by
straightening the legs. Move the object while standing erect and keep object away from the body.
(c) Bend over and grasp the object loosely. While keeping the legs straight, lift the object by
straightening the back. Move the object while standing erect and keep object close to the body.
(d) Bend the knees and grasp the object firmly. While keeping the back straight, lift the object by
straightening the legs. Move the object while standing erect and keep object close to the body.
79. (1.2.2-9) What statement is true concerning the use of wrenches and drive tools as used to
manipulate threaded fasteners?
o
o
(a) When extra leverage is needed for wrenches and drive tools, the use of a cheater bar is
recommended.
(b) Push wrenches and drive tool handles rather than pull them for greater control and balance
and to avoid injury.
(c) Six point sockets are less prone to slippage than twelve point sockets.
(d) For initial breaking loose and final tightening of fasteners, the use of open end wrenches is
recommended.
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QMED
80. (1.2.2-6) What type of eye protection affords the best protection from severe exposure to airborne
impact hazards?
o
o
o
81. (1.2.3.1-1) The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.
o
o
82. (1.2.3.1-2) Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured
roller bearings?
o
o
o
83. (1.2.3.1-3) Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?
o
o
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QMED
85. (1.2.3.1-5) Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each
other?
o
o
o
(a) Ball
(b) Roller
(c) Tapered roller
(d) Needle
86. (1.2.3.1-6) Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities than ball bearings?
o
o
87. (1.2.3.2-3) In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by
__________.
o
o
o
88. (1.2.3.2-6) To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high operating temperature, the
recommended amount of grease injected into a ball or roller bearing is approximately __________.
o
o
o
89. (1.2.3.2-1) Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug
temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery
has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that __________.
o
o
o
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90. (1.2.3.2-2) When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should __________.
o
o
91. (1.2.3.2-5) Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft?
o
o
o
92. (1.2.3.2-4) Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on
pumps?
o
o
o
93. (1.2.3.3-1) Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.
o
o
o
(a) filled with grease to 65% of the total open spaces within the bearing
(b) operated at designed high-speed
(c) completely packed full of grease
(d) in use for a long time
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QMED
95. (1.2.4-9) When applying paint with a brush, which of the following pairs of techniques are
recommended?
o
o
o
(a) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover the entire length of the bristles, and the paint
should be applied in parallel strokes only.
(b) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover only the ends of the bristles, and the paint
should be applied in cross strokes only.
(c) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover the entire length of the bristles, and the paint
should be applied in cross strokes only.
(d) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover only the ends of the bristles, and the paint
should be applied in parallel strokes only.
96. (1.2.4-3) When an aluminum plate is bolted to a steel plate, what is required at the bolted joint to
minimize bimetallic corrosion?
o
o
o
(a) The plates should be electrically insulated from one another by use of non-conductive gaskets
and non-conductive ferrule sleeves with the bolts.
(b) The plates should be bonded together electrically by joining the plates by a bonding strap in
addition to bolting together.
(c) Steel and aluminum are so close together on the Noble series that no particular provision
need be made for bolting steel and aluminum plates together.
(d) The plates should be bolted together in such a way as to ensure good electrical contact
between the plates.
97. (1.2.4-2) What material is most commonly used as a sacrificial anode for the purposes of minimizing
the galvanic corrosion of steel and cast iron?
o
o
(a) Bronze
(b) Platinum
(c) Zinc
(d) Brass
98. (1.2.4-4) Before primers and finish coats may be applied to a metal surface, the surface must be
properly prepared. What statement is true concerning surface preparation?
o
o
(a) Dirt, oil and grease must be removed. Rust and mill scale may remain.
(b) All dirt, rust and mill scale must be removed. Oil and grease can remain.
(c) All dirt, oil, grease, rust, mill scale, and loose paint must be removed.
(d) All previous paint must be removed.
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99. (1.2.4-7) In preparing the surface of a metal for application of primers and finish coats, which of the
listed hand tools is appropriate for surfaces with significant pitting?
o
o
100.
o
o
o
101.
(1.2.12-6) Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER
tags?
o
o
102.
(1.2.12-2) Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER
tags?
o
o
o
103.
(1.2.12-5) Under what conditions is a CAUTION tag installed at equipment control stations in
preparation for performing maintenance or repairs?
o
o
o
(a) When operation of the equipment will harm the equipment ONLY.
(b) When operation of the equipment will endanger personnel ONLY.
(c) When operation of the equipment will endanger personnel OR harm the equipment.
(d) When operation of the equipment requires temporary special instructions to be provided.
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104.
(1.2.12-1) When installing DANGER tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in
preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?
o
o
(a) Orange
(b) Red
(c) Yellow
(d) Green
105.
(1.2.14.1-4) What statement is true concerning the polishing coalescer filter of an oily-water
separator?
(a) The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of
entrained water of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water
that sink to the bottom of the filter housing.
(b) The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil
of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that sink to the
bottom of the filter housing.
(c) The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained
water of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water that rise to
the top of the filter housing.
(d) The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil
of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that rise to the top of
the filter housing.
106.
(1.2.14.1-5) Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check
valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is
closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve "D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water
separator unit? Illustration GS-0175
o
o
(a) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
(b) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging overboard with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
(c) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
(d) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging overboard with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
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107.
(1.2.14.1-3) What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oilywater mixture associated with an oily-water separator?
o
o
(a) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
(b) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
(c) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
(d) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
108.
(1.2.14.2-1) A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage
by __________.
o
o
o
109.
(1.2.14.2-2) Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of
sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?
o
o
(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) Type IV
110.
(1.2.15-3) Which characteristic of fuel oil is the most significant when determining the temperature
to which the fuel oil must be heated for proper atomization?
o
o
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111.
(1.2.15-2) Which of the listed characteristics of fuel oil establishes the danger point as far as
transferring, pumping, and firing procedures are concerned?
o
o
o
(a) Viscosity
(b) Fire point
(c) Specific gravity
(d) Flash point
112.
o
o
o
113.
(1.2.15-9) The main reason for having a low suction line on the fuel oil service or settling tanks is
to __________.
o
o
114.
o
o
o
115.
(1.2.17-6) What application often requires a valve to be remotely operated from a control station,
where the valve itself is operated by an electric, pneumatic, or hydraulic motor?
o
o
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116.
(1.2.17-2) Where is the location of a chain-operated valve when a chain wheel is attached to the
stem and is associated with an endless chain for operation?
o
o
o
(a) The valve is located too far directly above the deck where it is operated from.
(b) The valve is located too far directly across from the location where it is operated.
(c) The valve is located too far directly below the deck where it is operated from.
(d) A chain-operated valve can be used in any of the applications listed above.
117.
(1.2.17-8) What is the purpose of the torque limit switch as fitted on an electric motor operated
rising stem gate valve?
o
o
o
(a) The torque limit switch protects the valve from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the
valve from fully opening.
(b) The torque limit switch protects the motor from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the
valve from fully opening.
(c) The torque limit switch protects the motor from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the
valve from fully closing.
(d) The torque limit switch protects the valve from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the
valve from fully closing.
118.
(1.2.17-3) In what application is a remote valve operator most likely to be located outside the
machinery space when the valve itself is located within the machinery space?
o
o
o
119.
(1.2.17-9) Remote valve operators are frequently fitted with a hand wheel for local operation if the
motor fails. If this is so, what is the procedure for local manual control?
o
o
o
(a) First move the lever to disengage the motor clutch, and then rotate the hand wheel.
(b) Just rotate the hand wheel in the appropriate direction for valve operation.
(c) First move the lever to engage the motor clutch, and then rotate the hand wheel.
(d) Motor operated valves are generally not fitted with local hand wheels.
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120.
(1.2.18-2) On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, ratings may form part of the
engineering watch. For engine room watch ratings, what is the customary time to relieve the watch?
o
o
o
121.
(1.2.18-5) In terms of the personal safety of an engine room watch standing rating, which alarm
response would be the most immediately critical?
o
o
122.
(1.2.18-4) On vessels exceeding 1600 GRT, who is responsible for the practical upkeep of
machinery and the manning of the engine room?
o
o
o
123.
(1.2.19.1-6) The welding symbol reference line using the inverted "V indicates __________.
Illustration GS-0076
o
o
o
124.
o
o
o
(1.2.19.1-10) When arc welding, the flux that covers the electrode is used to __________.
(a) control penetration
(b) reduce metal fatigue and warpage
(c) increase heat transfer
(d) reduce oxidation
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125.
(1.2.19.1-13) A weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at right angles to
each other, and is called a __________.
o
o
o
126.
(1.2.19.1-2) In the illustration, the welded neck flange is attached to the pipe by a __________.
Illustration GS-0078
o
o
o
127.
(1.2.19.1-3) Setting up a welding job, where the work is the positive pole and the electrode is the
negative pole for the arc, is known as a/an __________.
o
o
128.
o
o
o
(1.2.19.1-9) Which illustration correctly depicts a double bevel groove weld? Illustration GS-0077
(a) 4A
(b) 3B
(c) 4B
(d) 6B
129.
(1.2.19.2-11) Which of the following procedures would be correct when first lighting-off an
oxyacetylene torch?
o
o
o
(a) Open the acetylene valve very slightly to light-off and then open and adjust the oxygen valve.
(b) Open the oxygen valve very slightly to light-off and then open and adjust the acetylene valve.
(c) Open the acetylene valve very slightly and the oxygen valve the same amount to light-off.
(d) Open the oxygen valve wide open and the acetylene valve slightly to light-off.
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130.
(1.2.19.2-10) Which of the following is true concerning the hose threads on compressed gas
oxyacetylene regulators and torches?
o
o
o
(a) The torch oxygen inlet hose thread connection is "left handed".
(b) The acetylene regulator hose outlet thread connection is "right handed".
(c) The oxygen regulator hose outlet thread connection is "left handed".
(d) The torch acetylene inlet hose thread connection is "left handed".
131.
(1.2.19.2-3) When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you should
close the __________.
o
o
o
(a) cylinder valves and close torch valves when pressure in hoses and regulators is zero
(b) cylinder valves and close torch valves with 4 to 5 pounds of pressure in the hoses
(c) cylinder valves only
(d) hand valves on the torch only
132.
o
o
o
133.
(1.2.19.2-1) With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels, hard-facing, and
the welding of non-ferrous alloys, such as monel, the best flame to use is termed a/an __________.
o
o
134.
o
o
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135.
o
o
136.
o
o
o
137.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.6-4) The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the metal __________.
(a) tougher
(b) harder
(c) smoother
(d) softer
138.
o
o
(1.2.11.6-1) The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its __________.
(a) ductibility
(b) elasticity
(c) malleability
(d) fusibility
139.
o
o
o
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140.
o
o
o
141.
o
o
o
142.
(1.2.11.8.2-13) The lathe tool shown as figure "N" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
__________. Illustration GS-0090
o
o
o
143.
(1.2.11.8.2-15) The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is properly called the
__________. Illustration GS-0164
o
o
o
144.
(1.2.11.8.2-7) Which of the illustrated figures represents the use of a right hand roughing tool?
Illustration GS-0090
o
o
(a) Figure P
(b) Figure S
(c) Figure T
(d) Figure V
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145.
(1.2.11.8.2-9) Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a smooth finish cut for
figure I? Illustration GS-0009
o
o
o
(a) A
(b) F
(c) G
(d) D
146.
(1.2.11.8.2-6) The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that
the latter __________.
o
o
147.
(1.2.11.8.2-12) The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as
__________. Illustration GS-0090
o
o
148.
(1.2.11.8.2-8) The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
__________. Illustration GS-0090
o
o
149.
(1.2.11.8.1-22) Which of the metals listed below can be cut with the highest operating lathe
speed?
o
o
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150.
(1.2.11.8.1-9) To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18 inch work piece, the tailstock of the
lathe must be set over __________.
o
o
o
151.
(1.2.11.8.1-18) The 60 taper angle machined on work supported by lathe centers is most easily
machined by the __________.
o
o
o
152.
(1.2.11.8.1-5) For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers,
you should use a __________.
o
o
153.
(1.2.11.8.1-26) To properly cut even numbered threads using the lathe thread dial indicator
shown in the illustration, you should close the lathe split or half-nut on __________. Illustration GS0084
o
o
o
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154.
(1.2.11.8.1-1) Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jaw
independent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck?
o
o
155.
(1.2.11.8.1-30) Two separate work pieces are to have a taper cut with the same taper per inch,
using the offset tailstock method. After the first piece is completed, the tailstock offset must be
changed if there is a change in the __________.
o
o
156.
(1.2.11.8.1-3) If the distances "A" and/or "B" as shown in the illustration are excessively
increased, the tool will __________. Illustration GS-0085
o
o
157.
(1.2.11.8.1-12) A work piece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each
end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test
cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.
o
o
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158.
(1.2.11.8.1-29) When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per inch produced
is determined by the speed relationship between the __________.
o
o
o
159.
(1.2.11.8.1-17) To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage the
__________.
o
o
o
160.
(1.2.11.8.1-7) Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a
__________.
o
o
o
(a) spindle
(b) lathe dog
(c) crotch center
(d) chuck
161.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.8.1-2) A tailstock 'dead center' has been given that name because it __________.
(a) is dead centered on the tailstock spindle
(b) must be removed by clamping in the chuck
(c) fits into the dead center of the work piece
(d) does not revolve
162.
(1.2.11.8.1-28) To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe using the thread dial
indicator illustrated, you should close the lathe split, or half-nut on __________. Illustration GS-0084
o
o
o
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163.
(1.2.11.8.1-24) If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and the work piece tends to climb
over the top of the cutoff tool, you should __________.
o
o
164.
(1.2.11.9-3) To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it to make a bearing
shim, you should use a __________.
o
o
165.
(1.2.11.9-11) Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the thimble to
__________.
o
o
166.
(1.2.11.9-14) What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "G" in
the illustration? Illustration GS-0083
o
o
167.
o
o
o
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168.
(1.2.11.9-9) The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an inside caliper is to use a/an
__________.
o
o
o
169.
(1.2.11.9-16) A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal to
__________.
o
o
o
170.
(1.2.11.9-13) The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustration is
__________. Illustration GS-0082
o
o
171.
(1.2.11.9-4) The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when
__________.
o
o
o
172.
(1.2.11.9-10) For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a vernier scale making it possible to
read in increments of __________.
o
o
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173.
(1.2.11.9-12) The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is
__________. Illustration GS-0081
o
o
o
174.
o
o
175.
o
o
o
176.
(1.2.11.1.6-2) The tool best suited for cutting pipeline flange gaskets to the correct size is
__________.
o
o
o
177.
(1.2.11.1.6-4) The best tool to use when attempting to widen the opening of a flanged joint, in
preparation for renewing the gasket, is a __________.
o
o
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178.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.1.2-5) When coming to the end of a cut using a hand hacksaw, you should __________.
(a) reduce cutting speed and pressure
(b) increase cutting speed and pressure
(c) change to a finer cut blade
(d) stop applying the cutting fluid
179.
(1.2.11.1.2-9) Which of the saws listed would be more suitable for cutting metal in tight quarters
or flush to a surface where a hand-held hacksaw frame could not be used?
o
o
180.
(1.2.11.1.2-1) To cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should use a blade
with what number of teeth per inch?
o
o
(a) 14
(b) 18
(c) 24
(d) 32
181.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.1.2-4) A hacksaw blade will start a cut more easily if you __________.
(a) file a nick where the cut is to be started
(b) turn the saw blade at right angles to the saw frame
(c) coat the saw blade with soap before starting the cut
(d) apply maximum pressure at the start of the cut
182.
(1.2.11.1.2-3) Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied only on the
__________.
o
o
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183.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.1.2-2) To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame, the __________.
(a) teeth should point toward the handle
(b) blade can be installed in any position for normal use
(c) blade should be kept loose in the frame
(d) teeth should point away from the handle
184.
o
o
o
185.
(1.2.11.1.2-7) When using a hand-held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of speed for cutting
should be __________.
o
o
186.
(1.2.11.1.2-6) The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw blade is known as
the __________.
o
o
(a) set
(b) pitch
(c) rake
(d) thread gauge
187.
(1.2.11.1.5-4) Which of the screwdrivers listed has a tip surrounded by parallel fluted ridges
resembling the ridges of a splined socket wrench?
o
o
o
(a) Standard
(b) Reed and Prince
(c) Phillips
(d) Torx
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188.
(1.2.11.1.5-5) Which type of screwdriver listed would have a 'Keystone' type vertical crosssectional tip?
o
o
(a) Torx
(b) Standard
(c) Phillips
(d) Allen
189.
(1.2.11.1.5-8) Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed with the shaft made from double coil
wire or tightly coiled steel?
o
o
190.
o
o
191.
(1.2.11.1.5-6) Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision assembly of small
parts?
o
o
o
192.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.1.5-3) Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with a four-way or cross type slot?
(a) Standard screwdriver
(b) Phillips screwdriver
(c) Reed and Prince screwdriver
(d) Both B and C are correct
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193.
o
o
o
194.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.1.5-1) Some heavy duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to __________.
(a) prevent the shank from bending
(b) allow turning with a wrench
(c) permit striking with a hammer
(d) allow it to be used as a pry bar
195.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.1.1-14) It is necessary to 'chalk' a file when the metal you are filing is __________.
(a) aluminum
(b) monel
(c) mild steel
(d) stainless steel
196.
o
o
(1.2.11.1.1-3) Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a fine finish on metal?
(a) Float
(b) Second cut
(c) Mill
(d) Warding
197.
o
o
o
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198.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.1.1-2) Double cut files are most effective when used for __________.
(a) finish work
(b) rough work
(c) draw filing
(d) sharpening tools
199.
(1.2.11.1.1-6) Heavy pressure on the ends of a file will cause the work surface to become
__________.
o
o
(a) smooth
(b) rough
(c) rounded
(d) tapered
200.
(1.2.11.1.1-13) Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under pressure, against the work, is
called __________.
o
o
201.
(1.2.11.1.1-4) A metal file has become clogged with filings and should be cleaned with a file
__________.
o
o
(a) scraper
(b) card
(c) dressing tool
(d) oilstone
202.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.1.1-1) Which of the following types of files is generally used for finishing?
(a) A double cut file
(b) A single cut file
(c) Any bastard cut file
(d) Only a double bastard cut file
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203.
(1.2.11.1.1-8) Which of the files listed is tapered on all sides and used to enlarge rectangularshaped holes and slots?
o
o
o
(a) Square
(b) Round
(c) Half round
(d) None of the above
204.
(1.2.11.1.1-9) The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to
the __________.
o
o
o
205.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.1.4-3) A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used because __________.
(a) pieces may fly off the chisel and injure your eyes
(b) it must be held firmly by the head to strike it
(c) the chisel cannot be struck squarely
(d) the hammer head may be chipped
206.
(1.2.11.1.4-5) What precautions should be followed when using a chisel having a mushroomed
head?
o
o
o
207.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.1.4-7) Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting __________.
(a) V-grooves and inside sharp angles
(b) oil grooves in bearings
(c) keyways having square corners
(d) holes through metal plate
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208.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.1.4-4) The temper is likely to be drawn out from a chisel edge when you __________.
(a) soak it in hot oil for lengthy periods
(b) hold it next to a wet grinding wheel
(c) grind the cutting angle too small
(d) grind it for long periods of time with excessive pressure
209.
o
o
(1.2.11.1.4-6) Which of the chisels listed should be used for cutting oil grooves?
(a) Square nose
(b) Diamond point
(c) Round nose
(d) Flat cold
210.
(1.2.11.1.4-8) Which of the listed punches can be properly used to free a tapered pin 'frozen' in its
hole?
o
o
211.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.1.4-2) The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the __________.
(a) round nose chisel
(b) cape chisel
(c) flat cold chisel
(d) diamond point chisel
212.
o
o
o
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213.
o
o
o
214.
(1.2.11.1.3-5) In order to tighten the bolts of a crank pin bearing to the exact tension specified by
the engine manufacturer, you should use a/an __________.
o
o
215.
o
o
216.
(1.2.11.1.3-3) Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of its slipping off
while tightening a nut or bolt?
o
o
217.
o
o
o
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218.
o
o
o
219.
(1.2.11.1.3-1) The open end wrench size for a 3/4 inch American National Standard hex head
machine bolt is __________.
o
o
220.
o
o
o
221.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.2-4) If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should __________.
(a) start tapping with a plug tap
(b) chamfer the edges of the holes
(c) flood the tap with mineral oil
(d) tap the holes without cutting oil
222.
(1.2.11.2-7) When internal threading for piping where the work permits the tap to be run entirely
through you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a __________.
o
o
o
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223.
(1.2.11.2-2) If you are cutting external threads by hand and you start the die at an angle, the
threads will __________.
o
o
224.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.2-6) The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a thread __________.
(a) die
(b) chaser
(c) tap
(d) broach
225.
o
o
o
226.
(1.2.11.2-3) With respect to machine shop "taps and dies"; a plug tap is correctly used for
__________.
o
o
227.
(1.2.11.2-5) If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions
would probably be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?
o
o
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228.
(1.2.11.3-16) The device "F" shown in the illustration is best used to __________. Illustration GS0080
o
o
229.
(1.2.11.3-12) Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screw?
Illustration GS-0080
o
o
o
(a) figure G
(b) figure L
(c) figure C
(d) figure D
230.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.3-4) The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is __________.
(a) threaded with national coarse threads
(b) made of nickel-cadmium metal
(c) made of non-corrosive metal
(d) not clad with any coating
231.
(1.2.11.3-8) What is the primary function of the devices shown in the illustration? Illustration GS0156
o
o
(a) The transit washers transmit the rotary motion of the cap screw to the actuating assembly.
(b) The locking plates are used to prevent the fastening devices from vibrating loose.
(c) The grounding straps help prevent electrolysis by improving the conductivity between the
components.
(d) These abrasion resistors prevent damage to the surface around the bolt holes when tightening
the bolts.
232.
(1.2.11.3-7) The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications.
Which figure indicates the improper method for using these devices? Illustration GS-0156
o
o
(a) "A"
(b) "B"
(c) "C"
(d) "D"
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233.
(1.2.11.3-1) With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, 'pitch' is the
__________.
o
o
o
(a) angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and the crests of the thread
(b) angle formed by adjacent flanks of a thread
(c) number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of the screw
(d) distance between corresponding points on adjacent threads
234.
(1.2.11.3-11) Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST desirable for use as a set screw?
Illustration GS-0080
o
o
o
(a) figure A
(b) figure F
(c) figure G
(d) figure L
235.
(1.2.11.3-6) Which of the following types of nuts would be best suited to use when it is important
that a nut not work itself loose due to vibration?
o
o
236.
(1.2.11.4-8) Which of the devices shown in the illustration is designed for both inside and outside
measurements? Illustration GS-0073
o
o
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
237.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.4-6) To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a __________.
(a) caliper
(b) steel rule
(c) micrometer
(d) scribing circle
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238.
o
o
o
239.
(1.2.11.4-10) Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a piece of sheet
metal?
o
o
240.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.4-9) To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a __________.
(a) hook rule
(b) flexible steel rule
(c) folding rule
(d) machinist's steel rule
241.
o
o
242.
(1.2.11.4-1) A metal scribe commonly found on a Combination Square measuring tool should only
be used to __________.
o
o
o
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243.
o
o
o
244.
(1.2.11.4-5) To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you should
measure __________.
o
o
245.
(1.2.11.4-3) Which of the devices shown in the illustration should be used with a bridge gage?
Illustration GS-0073
o
o
o
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
246.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.5-5) All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent __________.
(a) electric shock if the tool is shorted
(b) grounding the plastic case through a short
(c) burning out the motor from an overload
(d) overloading the motor from a short
247.
o
o
o
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248.
(1.2.11.5-3) A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to prevent the
__________.
o
o
249.
(1.2.11.5-2) Which practices should be followed at all times when using an electric grinding
machine?
o
o
o
250.
o
o
o
(1.2.11.5-4) The blade for a power hacksaw should be installed with the teeth __________.
(a) pointing toward the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth blade and away from the motor if using a 10
or 14 tooth blade
(b) pointing either toward or away from the motor end of the machine
(c) pointing away from the motor end of the machine
(d) pointing toward the motor end of the machine
251.
o
o
o
(1.2.16.1.1-2) The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________.
(a) discharge head
(b) total head
(c) suction head
(d) net positive suction head
252.
(1.2.16.1.1-6) The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing
boxes, is to __________.
o
o
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253.
(1.2.16.1.1-1) Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a
centrifugal pump?
o
o
o
254.
(1.2.16.1.1-11) The shaft sleeve for the pump illustrated is identified by the item numbered as
__________. Illustration GS-0143
o
o
o
(a) 14
(b) 17
(c) 27
(d) 68
255.
(1.2.16.1.1-8) Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, corrosion, and wear at
the stuffing box is usually prevented by __________.
o
o
256.
(1.2.16.1.1-17) The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as
designed is to __________.
o
o
o
257.
o
o
o
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258.
o
o
259.
o
o
o
260.
o
o
o
261.
(1.2.16.1.1-7) Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is
prevented by __________.
o
o
262.
(1.2.16.1.2-2) To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after repacking the stuffing box,
which of the following procedures should be carried out?
o
o
o
(a) Operating the pump slowly and applying oil freely to the shaft until the packing is properly
seated.
(b) Tightening the gland in all the way and then backing it off slightly.
(c) Lubricate the lantern ring with cylinder oil before installing new turns of packing.
(d) Tighten the packing in small increments while the pump is operating.
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263.
o
o
264.
(1.2.16.1.2-7) Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be
avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?
o
o
o
265.
(1.2.16.1.2-5) When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing
is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.
o
o
o
(a) loosened, and then retightened with the pump running under normal conditions
(b) loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box
(c) left in that position
(d) tightened an additional 10% to compress the packing
266.
(1.2.16.1.2-1) What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve
during routine maintenance inspection?
o
o
o
(a) Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak off for lubrication.
(b) Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower speed.
(c) Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve bore.
(d) Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve.
267.
(1.2.16.1.2-4) When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following
precautions should be observed?
o
o
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268.
o
o
269.
(1.2.16.4.1-1) One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal pump is
the absence of a __________.
o
o
270.
(1.2.16.4.1-3) Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a
propeller type pump?
o
o
o
271.
(1.2.16.4.1-2) Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of
fluids at relatively low pressures?
o
o
o
272.
(1.2.16.5.2-3) The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to
__________.
o
o
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273.
o
o
o
(1.2.16.5.2-1) Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?
(a) Vegetable oil.
(b) Graphite and oil.
(c) Engine oil.
(d) Oil mixed with kerosene.
274.
(1.2.16.5.2-4) When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the
packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the
butted ends __________.
o
o
(a) 45 apart
(b) 90 apart
(c) 120 apart
(d) 180 apart
275.
(1.2.16.5.2-5) To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating
pump, you should __________.
o
o
o
276.
(1.2.16.5.2-2) Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a
steam reciprocating pump?
o
o
277.
o
o
o
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278.
o
o
o
279.
(1.2.16.5.3-5) Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will
cause the __________.
o
o
o
280.
(1.2.16.5.3-2) Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from
delivering its rated capacity?
o
o
o
281.
(1.2.16.5.3-4) A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service
pump could be caused by __________.
o
o
282.
o
o
o
(1.2.16.6.1-6) A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.
(a) slightly opened
(b) throttled
(c) halfway opened
(d) fully opened
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283.
(1.2.16.6.1-2) Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the
lobe edges?
o
o
o
284.
(1.2.16.6.1-4) Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because
__________.
o
o
285.
o
o
o
286.
(1.2.16.6.1-3) Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear pump by
__________.
o
o
287.
(1.2.16.6.1-7) How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear
pump?
o
o
(a) The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity.
(b) The pump can only be used for light oils.
(c) The viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump operation.
(d) The pump cannot handle fluids more viscous than lubricating oil.
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288.
(1.2.16.6.1-1) The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by
__________.
o
o
289.
(1.2.16.6.1-9) One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the
__________.
o
o
290.
(1.2.16.6.1-11) The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an
__________. Illustration GS-0075
o
o
o
291.
(1.2.16.6.1-8) Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the
discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?
o
o
o
(a) One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been completed.
(b) The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears instead of two.
(c) Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller.
(d) The gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump.
292.
(1.2.16.6.1-5) The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will
decrease with an increase in the pump __________.
o
o
o
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293.
(1.2.16.1.3-6) Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be
indicated by which of the following operational problems?
o
o
o
(a) The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually slackens off to an abnormally low
flow.
(b) The motor over current protective device continually shuts the pump down.
(c) The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods.
(d) Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest.
294.
(1.2.16.1.3-1) You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to
slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.
o
o
o
(a) suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to decrease
(b) suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift
(c) discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts
(d) discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure
295.
(1.2.16.1.3-4) Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused
by __________.
o
o
o
(a) cavitations
(b) corrosion
(c) electrolysis
(d) abrasion
296.
o
o
o
(1.2.16.1.3-2) A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the __________.
(a) seal ring is improperly located
(b) pump is not primed
(c) water seal pipe is plugged
(d) impeller is flooded
297.
(1.2.16.1.3-5) Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal
pump is caused by __________.
o
o
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298.
o
o
o
299.
(1.2.16.5.1-2) Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid
piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the
discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?
o
o
300.
o
o
301.
(1.2.16.5.1-9) When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck
equipment should be __________.
o
o
o
302.
(1.2.16.5.1-8) When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should
remain open?
o
o
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303.
(1.2.16.5.1-7) When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the cushioning valves
should be __________.
o
o
o
304.
(1.2.16.5.1-5) Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide
valve?
o
o
305.
o
o
(a) Direct-acting
(b) Vertical
(c) Diffuser
(d) High-pressure
306.
(1.2.16.5.1-6) The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by
__________.
o
o
o
307.
(1.2.16.3.1-7) Spring reinforced oil seals are generally installed with the tail or lip of the seal
facing __________. Illustration GS-0152
o
o
o
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308.
o
o
o
309.
(1.2.16.3.1-6) Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the
rotating and stationary seal members shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0071
o
o
310.
(1.2.16.3.1-1) Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a
stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?
o
o
o
(a) If packing fails, the pump can be kept running temporarily by tightening the gland, but if a
mechanical seal fails it must be totally renewed to stop the leakage.
(b) Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear, but mechanical seals are not.
(c) The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but the sealing surface of a
packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft.
(d) Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by the liquid being pumped, but mechanical seals
do not require cooling.
311.
(1.2.16.3.1-8) One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing
is that __________.
o
o
o
(a) seal failure usually requires the immediate removal of the pump from service
(b) it requires periodic disassembly and adjustment
(c) it is unsuitable for high-pressure applications
(d) it is unsuitable for high temperature applications
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312.
(1.2.16.3.1-5) Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubrication of the seal
faces to minimize deposits of foreign matter on those surfaces. Which of the following pressures and
lubricants are required?
o
o
313.
(1.2.16.3.1-4) Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or
highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?
o
o
314.
(1.2.16.3.1-2) Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical
seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?
o
o
315.
o
o
o
316.
o
o
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317.
(1.2.16.2.1-2) The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the
__________.
o
o
o
(a) compressor
(b) injector
(c) siphon
(d) diffuser
318.
o
o
o
319.
(1.2.13.1.2-2) Copper tubing is manufactured and classified as type K, L, and M. Which type
would offer the greatest wall thickness for a given nominal size?
o
o
o
(a) Type K
(b) Type L
(c) Type M
(d) Type K, L and M have identical wall thicknesses
320.
o
o
o
(1.2.13.1.3-6) The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of __________.
(a) admiralty metal
(b) Monel
(c) stellite
(d) a resilient material
321.
(1.2.13.1.3-3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the valve shown in the
illustration? Illustration GS-0047
o
o
o
(a) The valve only requires one turn of the hand wheel to fully open.
(b) The valve seats cannot be replaced or repaired.
(c) The valve is normally used to throttle the flow of liquid.
(d) The valve is a non-rising stem design.
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322.
(1.2.13.1.3-5) The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommended when requiring
__________.
o
o
323.
o
o
324.
o
o
o
325.
(1.2.13.1.1-12) Allowances may be made for the expansion and contraction in piping by the use
of expansion joints or __________.
o
o
326.
(1.2.13.1.1-5) When replacing a gasket in a six-bolt flanged joint, in what order should the bolts
be tightened?
o
o
o
(a) Install and tighten bolts in pairs which are opposite each other in the flange (1-4, 2-5, and 3-6).
(b) Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order in the counter-clockwise
direction.
(c) Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order in the clockwise direction.
(d) Install and tighten bolts 1, 3, 4, 2, 5, and 6, in that order.
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327.
o
o
o
(1.2.13.1.1-3) To properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange, you should __________.
(a) cut grooves into the flange with a chisel to ensure good gasket contact
(b) place the gasket over the flange and knock off the excess material with a lead mallet
(c) make up the flanged joint to make an impression of the flange surfaces to insure a pattern for
proper alignment
(d) remove excess gasket material by trimming with scissors or tin snips
328.
o
o
329.
o
o
330.
(1.2.13.1.1-6) If you were uncertain as to what type of gasket material to install in a pipeline, you
should __________.
o
o
(a) make up the joint without a gasket until you can check with the chief
(b) check the ship's plans or manufacturer's instructions
(c) turn the old gasket over and install it again
(d) leave the old gasket in and cover it with Permatex
331.
o
o
o
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332.
o
o
(1.2.13.1.1-15) Fittings used to close the ends of pipe are called 'pipe _____________'.
(a) tees
(b) closures
(c) caps
(d) ells
333.
o
o
o
(1.2.13.1.1-7) To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the gasket __________.
(a) and let cool slowly in the air
(b) and quench it in oil
(c) and carbonize it
(d) cherry red and quench in water
334.
(1.2.13.1.1-14) Which of the following descriptions should be included when identifying the length
for pipe nipples?
o
o
335.
o
o
o
(1.2.13.1.1-10) Piping cross-sections over 12 inches in diameter are sized by the __________.
(a) outside diameter
(b) wall thickness
(c) threaded diameter
(d) inside diameter
336.
o
o
o
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337.
(1.2.13.2.1-1) To remove a hand-held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has gone all the
way through a hole, you should __________.
o
o
o
338.
o
o
o
339.
o
o
(1.2.13.2.1-9) A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for __________.
(a) enlarging existing threads
(b) straightening tapered threads
(c) restoring damaged threads
(d) cutting original threads
340.
o
o
o
(1.2.13.2.1-3) The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe __________.
(a) cutter
(b) ratchet cutter
(c) threader
(d) stock and die
341.
o
o
o
(1.2.13.2.1-2) Taps and dies used for threading pipe are __________.
(a) not hardened
(b) not fluted
(c) straight
(d) tapered
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342.
o
o
o
(1.2.13.2.1-7) When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a die, you should __________.
(a) tap the die with a hammer to break up the chips
(b) continue turning until the end of the pipe has gone through the die and is flush with the die
face
(c) never use a lubricant
(d) start the die at a slight angle with the work to create tapered threads
343.
(1.2.13.2.1-8) A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the shaft to be threaded is slightly
__________.
o
o
o
344.
(1.2.13.2.1-6) Which of the illustrations depicts the correct procedure for applying pipe dope?
Illustration GS-0046
o
o
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
345.
o
o
o
346.
o
o
o
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347.
(1.2.13.2.2-2) The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings is called a
__________.
o
o
o
348.
o
o
o
349.
(1.2.13.2.2-4) Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of the same size will fit inside is
termed __________.
o
o
o
(a) swaging
(b) flaring
(c) stretching
(d) belling
350.
o
o
o
351.
o
o
o
(1.2.5.1.2-7) All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are painted __________.
(a) red
(b) orange
(c) white
(d) yellow
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352.
o
o
o
(1.2.5.1.2-3) What color is used to indicate the last shot of anchor chain?
(a) Yellow
(b) Red
(c) Blue
(d) White
353.
o
o
o
(1.2.5.1.2-8) All of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted __________.
(a) white
(b) orange
(c) yellow
(d) red
354.
(1.2.5.1.2-9) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, pressure relief of the main
pressure piping is provided by __________. Illustration GS-0160
o
o
(a) D
(b) E
(c) L
(d) M
355.
(1.2.5.1.3-1) A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding
__________.
o
o
356.
(1.2.5.1.3-2) When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or off
position, the spring set brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is __________.
o
o
(a) opened hydraulically and held open by spring action whenever the electrical supply is secured
(b) engaged by spring action plus hydraulic pressure
(c) engaged by spring action and only released by hydraulic pressure
(d) released by spring action and hydraulically locks the winch when the drum ceases rotating
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357.
(1.2.5.1.3-3) The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be set up tight enough
to drive the winch drum and should slip only when __________.
o
o
358.
(1.2.5.2-2) If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring winch, and are not
certain as to the type of fluid to use, you should __________.
o
o
o
(a) add any oil that has the same viscosity as the hydraulic fluid
(b) add fluid that is the same color as the fluid in the reservoir
(c) add turbine oil because it is always a good substitute
(d) check the winch manufacturer's instruction book
359.
o
o
o
360.
(1.2.5.2-4) The hydraulic pump which would be mounted on the unit shown in the illustration, may
begin to cavitate if __________. Illustration GS-0118
o
o
o
361.
(1.2.5.2-5) If a lifeboat winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an excessive speed, you
should __________.
o
o
o
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362.
(1.2.5.2-1) The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type that is running hot
is to __________.
o
o
363.
(1.2.5.3-4) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is
on, but the wildcat turns slowly or not at all, even without a load being applied, and nearly normal
pressure is indicated on the high side of the system, the probable cause is the __________.
Illustration GS-0160
o
o
(a) manual transfer valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated
(b) relief valve "L" is not closing
(c) replenishing pump coupling is broken
(d) pressure from "E" has failed to bleed off when "J" is placed in the operating position
364.
(1.2.5.3-5) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is
on, but the wildcat does not turn, the pressure developed on either side of the system increases to
half of the normal operating pressure regardless of the direction of movement in which the servo
control is placed, the probable cause is the __________. Illustration GS-0160
o
o
365.
(1.2.5.3-6) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, the main pressure relief valve
opens as the load increases its strain on the system. The probable cause is the __________.
Illustration GS-0160
o
o
o
(a) manual transfer valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated
(b) replenishing pump discharge check valves are continuously open
(c) spring set point "I" is set too high for normal loads
(d) relief valve control shuttle has shifted to the wrong position during windlass operation
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366.
(1.2.5.3-2) The hydraulic system of a deck winch has been drained, flushed, and refilled with
hydraulic fluid. An erratic knocking noise from the hydraulic motor when the winch is started would
indicate __________.
o
o
367.
(1.2.5.3-1) Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat brake becomes
excessively worn?
o
o
368.
(1.2.5.3-3) Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor windlass can result
from a/an __________.
o
o
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1.
(2.2.1.1-1) One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the
discharge valve closed, is that the __________.
o
o
o
2.
(2.2.1.1-2) In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in
the illustration, how many suction side valves must be open? Illustration GS-0042
o
o
o
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
3.
(a) to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty
(b) when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water
circulation
(c) to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction
(d) if the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means
4.
(2.2.1.1-4) Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by
__________.
o
o
o
5.
(2.2.1.1-5) Under what conditions is it permissible to pump machinery space bilges directly
overboard without processing by an oily-water separator?
o
o
o
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6.
o
o
(a) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used
as a bilge pump but using either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(b) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a
bilge pump but independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(c) The means by which a cargo-hold bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge
pump but independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(d) The means by which a cargo-hold bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge
pump but using either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
7.
(a) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used
as a bilge pump and drawing a suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds or automatic
bilge suction valves.
(b) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used
as a bilge pump and drawing a suction directly on the bilge independent of any bilge manifolds or
automatic bilge suction valves.
(c) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a
bilge pump and drawing a suction directly on the bilge independent of any bilge manifolds or
automatic bilge suction valves.
(d) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a
bilge pump and drawing a suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge
suction valves.
8.
(2.2.1.1-8) Which of the following bilge pumping applications would most likely use a non-automated
centrifugal pump under manual supervision?
o
o
o
9.
(2.2.1.2-1) Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the No.6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which
combination of valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closed? Illustration
GS-0139
o
o
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10. (2.2.1.2-2) Which of the following ballasting operations performed in conjunction with off-loading
cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?
o
o
o
(a) Filling a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
(b) Draining a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
(c) Draining a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
(d) Filling a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
11. (2.2.1.2-3) Which of the following deballasting operations performed in conjunction with loading
cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?
o
o
o
(a) Draining a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
(b) Filling a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
(c) Filling a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
(d) Draining a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
12. (2.2.1.2-4) With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary
purpose of the fore peak and after peak tanks?
o
o
o
13. (2.2.1.2-5) With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary
purpose of the double bottom ballast tanks?
o
o
o
(a) Adjusting the overall draft of the vessel or correcting a condition of list.
(b) Adjusting the trim of the vessel.
(c) Correcting a condition of sagging of the vessel.
(d) Correcting a condition of hogging of the vessel.
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14. (2.2.1.2-6) With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant
by the term "ballasting"?
o
o
(a) Ballasting is the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for loading
cargo.
(b) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of list.
(c) Ballasting is the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading
cargo.
(d) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of hogging or sagging.
15. (2.2.1.2-7) With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant
by the term "deballasting"?
o
o
o
(a) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of hogging or sagging.
(b) Ballasting is the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for loading
cargo.
(c) Ballasting is the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading
cargo.
(d) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of list.
16. (2.2.1.2-8) With regards to a ballast system associated with an oil tanker, what is meant by the term
"segregated" ballast?
o
o
o
(a) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from engine room bilge systems.
(b) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from cargo or fuel oil systems.
(c) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from sea water circulating or fire main systems.
(d) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from clean bilge systems.
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17. (2.2.1.2-9) Besides retention of ballast water onboard or use of approved onboard ballast water
treatment equipment, what is another acceptable means for a vessel to be in compliance with the
ballast water management regulations?
o
o
o
(a) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 3 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
(b) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 12 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
(c) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 25 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
(d) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from
any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
18. (2.2.1.2-10) What is the primary reason why the ballast water management regulations exist as
applicable to vessels equipped with ballast tanks operating in U.S. waters?
o
o
o
(a) Prevent invasion of non-indigenous foreign marine species into U.S. waters.
(b) Prevent oil pollution of environmentally sensitive areas within U.S. waters.
(c) Prevent changes in salinity or salt content of coastal U.S. waters.
(d) Prevent sedimentary deposits in ports and harbor areas of U.S. waters.
19. (2.2.2.1-1) After coolers are used with air compressors to __________.
o
o
o
20. (2.2.2.1-2) The device shown in the illustration is used to __________. Illustration GS-0029
o
o
o
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21. (2.2.2.1-3) If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service air receiver, the compressor
mechanical unloading system will __________.
o
o
22. (2.2.2.1-4) Over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler is prevented by the __________.
o
o
o
23. (2.2.2.1-5) The air charge leaving an intercooler, or after cooler of an air compressor can be
expected to be __________.
o
o
o
24. (2.2.2.1-6) Which of the listed valve types is typically used for suction and discharge valves on
modern low-pressure air compressors?
o
o
(a) Sliding
(b) Rotary
(c) Reed
(d) Poppet
25. (2.2.2.1-7) In order to distribute the side pressures over a wide area of the cylinder walls and liners,
which of the listed types of pistons are used in modern low-pressure air compressors?
o
o
(a) Barrel
(b) Valve-in-head
(c) Trunk
(d) Differential
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26. (2.2.2.1-8) Which of the following compressors would be used for a dead ship start-up of a ship's
service diesel-generator on a motor ship?
o
o
o
27. (2.2.2.1-9) Which of the following compressors on a motor ship would most likely operate at
approximately 100 psig?
o
o
o
28. (2.2.2.1-10) If an air compressor is fitted with a hand-off-auto (H-O-A) control station, what statement
concerning operation is true?
o
o
o
(a) In the hand mode, the compressor will run continuously with unloading.
(b) In the hand mode, the compressor will cycle on and off.
(c) In the auto mode, the compressor will run continuously with unloading.
(d) In the off mode, the compressor will cycle on and off.
29. (2.2.2.2-1) If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing during startup, you should
__________.
o
o
30. (2.2.2.2-2) If one drive belt on an air compressor is found to be worn you should __________.
o
o
o
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31. (2.2.2.2-3) The main bearings of a reciprocating air compressor are tapered roller bearings. When
mounted, these bearings are given a 'cold' end clearance to __________.
o
o
o
(a) allow for longitudinal expansion of the crankshaft as the unit warms up
(b) reduce torsional vibration in the crankshaft
(c) prevent longitudinal thrust in the crankshaft
(d) allow for crank web deflection
32. (2.2.2.2-4) After disassembly, the safest way to remove carbon deposits from air compressor inlet
and discharge valves is to use __________.
o
o
o
(a) gasoline
(b) diesel oil
(c) naphtha
(d) ammonia
33. (2.2.2.2-5) How often should the air receivers on a compressed air system be drained of moisture
and emulsions?
o
o
o
(a) Daily
(b) Weekly
(c) Monthly
(d) Quarterly
34. (2.2.2.2-6) When checking the oil level on a reciprocating air compressor fitted with a dipstick, under
what conditions should the oil level be checked?
o
o
o
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35. (2.2.2.2-7) As an indication that an air compressor air intake filter needs to be replaced or cleaned,
what statement is true?
o
(a) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than
with a clean filter.
(b) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than
with a clean filter.
(c) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than
with a clean filter.
(d) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than
with a clean filter.
36. (2.2.2.2-8) Which of the following statements represents the proper procedural sequence for
adjusting the metering rate of an in-line lubricator as used in a ship's service air system hose
station? Assume that the pressure regulator has been properly set.
o
o
(a) Establish normal air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip rate
or further close needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate.
(b) Establish normal air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip rate
or further close needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate.
(c) Temporarily shut-off air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip
rate or further close needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate. Re-establish normal air
flow.
(d) Temporarily shut-off air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip
rate or further close needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate. Re-establish normal air
flow.
37. (2.2.2.2-9) Which of the following statements represents the proper criteria to decide when to drain a
filter/moisture separator as used in a ship's service air system hose station?
o
o
(a) The bowl should be drained daily with no need to check the moisture level.
(b) The bowl should be drained whenever moisture droplets appear in the bowl.
(c) The bowl should be drained before the moisture level reaches the lower baffle.
(d) The bowl should be drained after the bowl completely fills with moisture.
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38. (2.2.2.2-10) In a twin-tower desiccant type air dryer using silica gel as an adsorbing agent, what is
the procedure for rejuvenating the tower presently on service when the desiccant becomes saturated
with moisture?
o
o
o
(a) The towers are shifted, and the off-going tower is refrigerated.
(b) Heat is applied to the tower on service and it remains on service while heating.
(c) The tower on service is refrigerated and it remains on service while cooling.
(d) The towers are shifted, and heat is applied to the off-going tower.
39. (2.2.2.3-3) Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a reciprocating air compressor
is caused by __________.
o
o
o
40. (2.2.2.3-1) A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a low-pressure
reciprocating air compressor will __________.
o
o
41. (2.2.2.3-2) Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will cause __________.
o
o
42. (2.2.2.3-4) Which of the following problems would be the probable cause for the faulty operation of a
reciprocating air compressor suction valve?
o
o
o
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43. (2.2.2.3-5) In a low-pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency normally results from
__________.
o
o
o
44. (2.2.2.3-6) Which of the following causes would most likely result in excessively high belt-driven
reciprocating air compressor drive motor running current draw?
o
o
o
45. (2.2.2.3-7) If a reciprocating air compressor was operating at a compression ratio that exceeded its
design parameters, what would be the effect?
o
o
o
(a) Higher than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity.
(b) Lower than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity.
(c) Higher than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity.
(d) Lower than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity.
46. (2.2.2.3-8) If a belt-driven reciprocating air compressor is operating at a lower than design
displacement capacity (in cubic feet per minute), which of the following would be a cause?
o
o
o
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47. (2.2.2.3-9) If a reciprocating air compressor has cylinder suction or discharge valves that fail to
properly seat, what statement is true concerning the result?
o
o
o
(a) The compressor would have longer running periods at higher displacement capacity between
operating cycles.
(b) The compressor would have shorter running periods at lower displacement capacity between
operating cycles.
(c) The compressor would have shorter running periods at higher displacement capacity between
operating cycles.
(d) The compressor would have longer running periods at lower displacement capacity between
operating cycles.
48. (2.2.2.3-10) What statement is true concerning carbon deposit formation on reciprocating
compressor cylinder valves?
o
o
o
(a) The rate of carbon deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and directly proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
(b) The rate of carbon deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and inversely proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
(c) The rate of carbon deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and inversely proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
(d) The rate of carbon deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and directly proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
49. (2.2.3.2-12) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG D/A" represent?
Illustration EL-0095
o
o
o
(a) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and conditions these as digital signals for
transmission to digital actuators.
(b) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and converts these to analog signals for transmission
to analog actuators.
(c) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and converts these to digital signals for transmission
to digital actuators.
(d) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and conditions these as analog signals for
transmission to analog actuators.
50. (2.2.3.2-9) Which of the following rotational shaft speed sensors produces a digital signal?
o
o
o
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51. (2.2.3.2-2) What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring running gear
bearing temperatures in a diesel engine in that it requires no contact with the bearing?
o
o
o
52. (2.2.3.2-4) What is another name for the control mode used in a process control system that uses
two-point control?
o
o
o
53. (2.2.3.2-10) Which of the following liquid level sensors would be most suitable for measuring the
liquid level in a pressure vessel, such as a water-tube boiler steam drum?
o
o
o
54. (2.2.3.2-11) Which of the following illustrations represents the proper method of circuit grounding for
a low level analog signal cable? Illustration EL-0124
o
o
o
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
55. (2.2.3.2-8) What type of primary element for a pressure transmitter would be most suitable for
measuring oil-fired boiler furnace and forced-draft pressures?
o
o
o
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56. (2.2.3.2-13) As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what statement is true concerning the voltage
sensing unit? Illustration EL-0066
o
o
o
(a) The voltage sensor delivers an AC signal voltage equal in magnitude to the alternator output
voltage to the comparator.
(b) The voltage sensor delivers a relatively low value of DC signal voltage proportional to the
alternator output voltage to the comparator.
(c) The voltage sensor delivers a relatively low value of single phase AC signal voltage
proportional to the alternator output voltage to the comparator.
(d) The voltage sensor delivers a DC signal voltage equal in magnitude to the alternator output
voltage to the comparator.
57. (2.2.3.2-7) In a closed-loop process control system featuring negative feedback, what is the function
of the error detector within the controller?
o
o
(a) The error detector computes the sum of the measured value of the controlled variable and the
desired value (set point).
(b) The error detector computes the quotient of the measured value of the controlled variable and
the desired value (set point).
(c) The error detector computes the difference between the measured value of the controlled
variable and the desired value (set point).
(d) The error detector computes the product of the measured value of the controlled variable and
the desired value (set point).
58. (2.2.3.2-5) In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the action of
measuring the difference between the actual result and the desired result and using that difference
to drive the actual result toward the desired result?
o
o
o
(a) Gain
(b) Feedback
(c) Instability
(d) Dead band
59. (2.2.3.2-3) What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring diesel engine
exhaust and boiler stack temperatures and generates its own electromotive force?
o
o
o
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60. (2.2.3.2-6) In a closed-loop process control system, what statement concerning feedback is true as it
relates to stability and the direction of error displacement?
o
o
(a) Negative feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same direction
as the error displacement.
(b) Positive feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same direction
as the error displacement.
(c) Negative feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite
direction as the error displacement.
(d) Positive feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite
direction as the error displacement.
61. (2.2.3.1-13) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what
statement is true concerning the units labeled "ROS" which are remote operating system
workstations? Illustration EL-0096
o
o
o
(a) Operator access to control functions among the various ROS locations differ depending on
system configuration and need.
(b) The ROS located in the ship's office is designated as the master ROS.
(c) The ROS located in the wheelhouse is designated as the master ROS.
(d) Operator access to control functions among the various ROS locations are all identical.
62. (2.2.3.1-1) Which of the listed central operating system types requires conversion of continuous
analog signals from the sensing and transmitting devices to discrete bits of information that can be
understood by the system computer for the purposes of processing and control?
o
o
o
(a) Pneumatic
(b) Digital
(c) Electric/electronic
(d) Direct connected
63. (2.2.3.1-4) As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram for a central operating system
configured for supervisory control, what is becoming the industry standard for transmission of analog
signals for a measured variable? Illustration EL-0094
o
o
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64. (2.2.3.1-3) As shown in figure "B" in the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for supervisory control, what is the function of the block "ANALOG (A-D MUX)"?
Illustration EL-0094
(a) A high-speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a large
number of analog sensors in a short period of time and converting these to signals to digital
values for processing by the CPU.
(b) A low-speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a small
number of analog sensors in a long period of time and converting these to signals to digital values
for processing by the CPU.
(c) A low-speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a small
number of digital sensors in a long period of time and converting these to signals to analog values
for processing by the CPU.
(d) A high-speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a large
number of digital sensors in a short period of time and converting these to signals to analog
values for processing by the CPU.
65. (2.2.3.1-8) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL CONTACT"
represent? Illustration EL-0095
o
o
o
(a) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and conditions these as analog
signals for CPU processing.
(b) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and converts these to analog signals
for CPU processing.
(c) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and converts these to digital signals
for CPU processing.
(d) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and conditions these as digital
signals for CPU processing.
66. (2.2.3.1-9) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what
statement is true concerning the area networks? Illustration EL-0096
o
o
o
(a) The LAN is a dual redundant network and the partitioned CAN is also a dual redundant
network, with no interconnectivity between the two networks.
(b) The LAN is a dual redundant network and the partitioned CAN is also a dual redundant
network, with both networks being interconnected.
(c) The LAN is a single non-redundant network and the partitioned CAN is a dual redundant
network, with both networks being interconnected.
(d) The LAN is a single non-redundant network and the partitioned CAN is a dual redundant
network, with no interconnectivity between the two networks.
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67. (2.2.3.1-11) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what
statement is true concerning the data communication pathways labeled "Dual CAN"? Illustration EL0096
o
o
o
(a) These are control area networks providing supply and return pathways for communication.
(b) These are control area networks providing redundancy so as to maintain communications
despite a bus failure.
(c) These are communication access nodes providing redundancy so as to maintain
communications despite a node failure.
(d) These are communication access nodes providing supply and return pathways for
communication.
68. (2.2.3.1-7) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG A/D" represent?
Illustration EL-0095
o
o
o
(a) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and converts these to digital signals
for CPU processing.
(b) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and conditions these as digital
signals for CPU processing.
(c) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and converts these to analog signals
for CPU processing.
(d) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and conditions these as analog
signals for CPU processing.
69. (2.2.3.1-2) As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for supervisory control, which statement is true concerning the block "COMPUTER" with
respect to closed-loop control processes? Illustration EL-0094
o
o
(a) The computer normally has no role in the various closed-loop control processes. It is only
used for backup control purposes.
(b) The computer has no role in the various closed-loop control processes regardless of the
control mode.
(c) The computer provides the set point input data to the analog controllers, but the analog
controllers actually control the closed-loop processes.
(d) The computer provides the set point input data to the process control loop, as well as the
measured variable data. The analog controllers are only used for manual backup control.
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70. (2.2.3.1-5) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG D/A" represent?
Illustration EL-0095
o
o
(a) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and converts these to digital signals for transmission
to the digital actuators.
(b) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and conditions these to analog signals for
transmission to the analog actuators.
(c) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and converts these to analog signals for transmission
to the analog actuators.
(d) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and conditions these to digital signals for transmission
to the digital actuators.
72. (2.2.4.2-8) A roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed. What
thermal method of mounting the bearing would be most appropriate?
o
o
o
73. (2.2.4.2-1) After adding grease to a ball bearing with a hand-held grease gun, you should
__________.
o
o
o
(a) close the bearing housing drain and add a little extra grease to compensate for air pockets in
the bearing
(b) run the machine with the bearing housing drain plug open for a short while
(c) save the used grease for chemical analysis
(d) remove the grease fitting and leave open to allow excess grease to escape
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74. (2.2.4.2-4) A roller bearing should normally be filled to what fraction of its space cavity?
o
o
o
75. (2.2.4.2-10) What is the primary indication of a grease lubricated bearing that is over-lubricated in
terms of the quantity of grease in the housing?
o
o
o
76. (2.2.4.2-9) Rolling element bearings may experience fatigue failure after a length of service. What is
the first evidence of the beginnings of fatigue failure?
o
o
o
77. (2.2.4.2-11) Which of the following statements concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps is
true?
o
o
78. (2.2.4.2-6) A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed
with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?
o
o
o
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79. (2.2.4.2-7) A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the housing in which it is being installed
with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?
o
o
o
80. (2.2.4.2-2) In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by
__________.
o
o
81. (2.2.4.1-3) Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each
other?
o
o
o
(a) Roller
(b) Tapered roller
(c) Needle
(d) Ball
82. (2.2.4.1-5) With respect to shaft bearing load absorption capability in terms of direction, what is
meant by a radial load?
o
o
o
(a) A radial load is a load applied perpendicular to the axis of the shaft.
(b) A radial load is a load applied parallel to the axis of the shaft.
(c) A radial load is a load applied perpendicular and parallel to the axis of the shaft.
(d) A radial load is a load applied tangent to the circumference of the shaft.
83. (2.2.4.1-1) The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.
o
o
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84. (2.2.4.1-8) Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a rolling-element bearing
which substitutes fluid friction for rolling contact friction?
o
o
85. (2.2.4.1-7) Concerning the start-up of plain bearings utilizing the three modes of hydrodynamic
lubrication, what is the correct sequence of modes from start-up through coming up to operational
speed?
o
o
o
(a) First full-film lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally mixed-film lubrication.
(b) First boundary lubrication, followed by mixed-film lubrication, then finally full-film lubrication.
(c) First boundary lubrication, followed by full-film lubrication, then finally mixed-film lubrication.
(d) First mixed-film lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally full-film lubrication.
86. (2.2.4.1-6) With respect to shaft bearing load absorption capability in terms of direction, what is
meant by an axial load?
o
o
o
(a) An axial load is a load applied parallel to the axis of the shaft.
(b) An axial load is a load applied tangent to the circumference of the shaft.
(c) An axial load is a load applied perpendicular and parallel to the axis of the shaft.
(d) An axial load is a load applied perpendicular to the axis of the shaft.
87. (2.2.5.4.1-9) In order for a reverse osmosis fresh water generator to be able to overcome the
osmotic pressure without damaging the spiral-wound membrane modules, the pressure must be
controlled. What is the location of the pressure regulator?
o
o
o
88. (2.2.5.4.1-3) Regarding a reverse osmosis type fresh water generator using multiple spiral-wound
membrane modules, what statement is true?
o
o
o
(a) Modules may be piped in series to increase the fresh water throughput.
(b) Modules may be piped in series to increase the fresh water purity.
(c) Modules may be piped in parallel to increase the fresh water purity.
(d) Modules may be piped in series to decrease the likelihood of fouling.
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89. (2.2.5.4.1-10) To ensure potable water of drinking quality, chemical treatment is required for reverse
osmosis fresh water generators. What is the purpose of chemical pre-treatment?
o
o
(a) Chemical pre-treatment removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the sea water
inlet to the unit to prevent fouling of the membrane modules.
(b) Chemical pre-treatment removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the fresh water
leaving the unit prior to distribution to the various fresh water storage tanks.
(c) Chemical pre-treatment sterilizes the sea water entering the unit to prevent bacteria from
becoming resident in the reverse osmosis unit filters and membrane modules.
(d) Chemical pre-treatment sterilizes the fresh water leaving the unit prior to distribution to the
various fresh water storage tanks.
90. (2.2.5.3.3-4) If the distilling plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than normal, while the
second stage absolute pressure remains satisfactory, the probable fault is due to __________.
o
o
o
91. (2.2.5.3.3-1) A high reading is only indicated at the salinity cells labeled "W" and "6" shown in the
illustration. This would be the probable result of __________. Illustration GS-0053
o
o
(a) a tube leak in item 'IV', which contributes to a surging absolute pressure in "III"
(b) carryover from "III"
(c) a faulty cell at location "6" and a tube leak in item "I"
(d) erosion of item "3" or the valve opened too wide if used
92. (2.2.5.3.3-2) Scale formation in a flash-type evaporator is usually found in the __________.
o
o
93. (2.2.5.3.3-7) If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash
evaporator, you should suspect __________.
o
o
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94. (2.2.5.3.3-8) While standing watch in the engine room, you notice a high reading at a salinity cell
located in the loop seal between two stages of a flash type evaporator. This would indicate
__________.
o
o
o
95. (2.2.5.3.3-6) Indicated high salinity of the distillate discharged from a flash-type distilling plant will be
a result of __________.
o
o
96. (2.2.5.3.1-3) Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in a flash-type
evaporator are removed by the __________.
o
o
o
(a) condensers
(b) demisters
(c) splash baffles
(d) spray pipes
o
o
98. (2.2.5.3.1-8) The absolute pressure maintained in the shell of the salt water feed heater on most
flash evaporators used on steam propelled vessels is __________.
o
o
o
(a) slightly less than the supplied live steam pressure at the reducing valve outlet
(b) slightly less than the absolute pressure of the L.P. extraction
(c) slightly lower than the first stage vacuum
(d) slightly higher than the second stage vacuum
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99. (2.2.5.3.1-11) In the unit illustrated, the feed water temperature is required to be increased to 165F
or greater and must exist at this temperature when leaving __________. Illustration GS-0053
o
o
o
(a) I
(b) III
(c) IV
(d) V
100.
(2.2.5.3.1-5) The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part
by the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the __________.
o
o
o
101.
(2.2.5.3.1-4) In a two stage flash distilling plant, which of the pumps listed is vented to the shell of
the second stage in order to remove vapor from the pump suction?
o
o
102.
(2.2.5.2.2.2-3) In a jacket water heated submerged tube evaporator, what is the primary factor
that determines the rate of scale build-up on the submerged tube bundle?
o
o
o
(a) The chemical composition of the jacket water coolant additive package.
(b) The sea water inlet temperature to the evaporator section.
(c) The salt content of the sea water inlet to the evaporator section.
(d) The jacket water inlet temperature to the submerged tube bundle.
103.
(2.2.5.2.2.2-9) If valve "D" is opened during the normal operation of the distiller shown in the
illustration, which of the events listed will occur? Illustration MO-0111
o
o
(a) The jacket water cooler will be overloaded, eventually causing a critical engine alarm.
(b) The amount of vapor being formed in the evaporator will decrease.
(c) The output of pump "7" will increase with a corresponding increase in pressure.
(d) The amount of vapor formed in the evaporator will increase.
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104.
(2.2.5.2.2.2-8) What would happen if valve "25" shown in the illustration, vibrated open with the
unit in operation? Illustration MO-0111
o
o
105.
(2.2.5.2.2.2-1) When securing a jacket water heated submerged tube evaporator for an extended
period of time, you should __________.
o
o
106.
o
o
(2.2.5.2.1.1-7) What is the function of device "A" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) It provides a conduit for incoming feed water.
(b) It aids in removing condenser tube bundles.
(c) It serves as a hinge for ease of opening the shell.
(d) It is only used as a lifting beam during installation.
107.
(2.2.5.2.1.1-17) The pipe identified by the letter "J" shown in the illustration is __________.
Illustration MO-0110
o
o
o
108.
(2.2.5.2.1.1-5) What occurs in the space labeled "G" of the device shown in the illustration?
Illustration MO-0110
o
o
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109.
(2.2.5.2.1.1-4) Which of the following conditions occurs in the section labeled "F" of the device
shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
o
o
o
(a) Non-condensable vapors are removed and water vapors are preheated.
(b) The sea water flowing through device "I" is cooled.
(c) The jacket water flowing through device "I" is heated.
(d) The vapors produced in section "G" are condensed and the non-condensable gases are
removed.
110.
o
o
o
(2.2.5.2.1.1-2) What is the function of device "B" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) It serves to boil off incoming feed water.
(b) It condenses the vapors formed in section "G".
(c) It removes sensible heat from the jacket water.
(d) It serves to cool incoming feed water.
111.
(2.2.5.2.1.1-8) For the operation of the illustrated device, what fluid flow would be expected at the
connection labeled "I"? Illustration MO-0110
o
o
112.
(2.2.5.2.1.1-19) The heat exchanger plates, used in the device shown in the illustration, are
produced from which of the listed materials? Illustration MO-0110
o
o
o
(a) Titanium
(b) Copper
(c) Anodized aluminum
(d) Phosphor bronze
113.
(2.2.5.2.1.1-13) Which of the following is NOT a function of the water supply through item "P"
shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
o
o
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114.
(2.2.5.4.2-3) What is the BEST indication that the membrane modules of a reverse osmosis fresh
water generator must be serviced by flushing or cleaning?
o
o
115.
(2.2.5.2.1.2-2) Which of the tools listed must be used when retightening the plate type heat
exchangers used in the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
o
o
116.
(2.2.5.2.1.2-5) Failure to establish sufficient vacuum when starting up the unit shown in the
illustration may be the result of __________. Illustration MO-0110
o
o
117.
(2.2.5.2.1.2-4) Which of the following conditions can cause high salinity of the distillate due to sea
water leakage in the illustrated device? Illustration MO-0110
o
o
o
118.
(2.2.5.2.1.2-3) If the demister used in the device shown in the illustration is improperly installed,
which of the following will occur? Illustration MO-0110
o
o
o
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119.
(2.2.5.1-2) The primary reason low-pressure evaporators produce distillate more efficiently, and
with less scale formation, than high-pressure evaporators is __________.
o
o
o
120.
o
o
o
(2.2.5.1-10) In which of the following fresh water generators would an air ejector be unnecessary?
(a) Reverse osmosis unit
(b) Submerged tube unit
(c) Titanium plate unit
(d) Flash type unit
121.
o
o
o
(2.2.5.1-9) With regard to fresh water generators, what statement concerning brine is true?
(a) Brine is the cooling medium used for chill-shocking as a means for scale removal.
(b) Brine is the unevaporated sea water of a fresh water generator as the result of distillation.
(c) Brine is the cooling medium used for cooling the distillate before distribution.
(d) Brine is the incoming sea water feed to the fresh water generator and destined for distillation.
122.
(2.2.5.1-3) In the production of fresh water from sea water through a process of heating and
cooling, the cooling phase of production is usually called __________.
o
o
(a) dehydration
(b) condensation
(c) distillation
(d) evaporation
123.
(2.2.5.1-5) Which of the following fresh water generators has an operating principle that
evaporates pre-heated sea water by causing it to undergo a pressure drop into a vacuum?
o
o
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124.
(2.2.5.3.2-2) In a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher than normal temperatures is most
likely to occur in the __________.
o
o
o
125.
(2.2.5.3.2-9) While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash
evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of the continued
presence of scale?
o
o
(a) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
(b) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
(c) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
(d) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
126.
(2.2.5.3.2-4) When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should
__________.
o
o
o
127.
o
o
o
(2.2.5.3.2-10) When should mechanical cleaning of feed water heater tubes be accomplished?
(a) Any time there is a drop-off on distillate production capacity.
(b) Any time when increased steam flow to the feed water heater shell is required to maintain
distillate production capacity.
(c) During regularly scheduled maintenance.
(d) Only when chemical cleaning fails to restore distillate production capacity to normal.
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128.
(2.2.5.3.2-7) What procedure can be used to reduce the rate of scale formation on the heating
surfaces of a flash evaporator while still maintaining the desired rate of distillate production?
o
o
(a) Decreasing the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (increase in vacuum).
(b) Increasing the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum).
(c) Chemically treating the incoming feed water.
(d) Chemically treating the outgoing brine.
129.
(2.2.5.3.2-8) While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash
evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of successful removal of
the scale?
o
o
o
(a) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
(b) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
(c) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
(d) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
130.
o
o
o
(2.2.5.2.2.1-19) Item "10" shown in the illustration is used to __________. Illustration MO-0111
(a) direct the flow from the distillate pump
(b) regulate flow from the drain pump
(c) prevent damage to device "9" by reducing turbulence
(d) cancel the effects of improper regulation developed by device "11"
131.
(2.2.5.2.2.1-10) Which device is used to prevent over pressurization of the illustrated distiller?
Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o
(a) "12"
(b) "13"
(c) "19"
(d) "26"
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132.
(2.2.5.2.2.1-11) Where is the latent heat obtained to create vapor from the feed water in the
illustrated distiller? Illustration MO-0111
o
o
133.
(2.2.5.2.2.1-12) Excess brine accumulated in the distiller, shown in the illustration, is removed
during normal operation by __________. Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o
(a) orifice "19" regulating the amount of feed water entering the distiller, thereby preventing
excess brine accumulation
(b) opening the drain valve located to the left of orifice "19"
(c) the hydrokineter labeled "21"
(d) the continuous action of ejector "22"
134.
(2.2.5.2.2.1-7) Which of the following statements describes the approximate relation between the
feed water entering the unit shown in the illustration and brine being removed? Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o
(a) Seventy-five percent of the feed water entering the unit is removed as brine.
(b) Twenty-five percent of the feed water entering the device is removed as brine.
(c) The amount of feed water entering the distiller is dependent upon the condition of device "7",
while the amount of brine leaving is dependent upon the condition of device "21".
(d) The brine will be removed at a faster rate than feed water entering to prevent the possibility of
flooding.
135.
(2.2.5.2.2.1-18) Which of the following statements describes what will occur to the volume of
water vapor as it is exposed to the lower temperatures existing in the device labeled "24" shown in
the illustration? Illustration MO-0111
o
o
(a) The latent heat of condensation is removed causing the volume to increase.
(b) The volume is increased as condensation occurs at the tube surfaces.
(c) The volume is greatly reduced, contributing to condensation within the condenser.
(d) The volume will increase if the valve labeled "J" is opened excessively, resulting in an
increase of the distiller absolute pressure.
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136.
(2.2.5.2.2.1-1) What is a function of the device labeled "1" shown in the illustration? Illustration
MO-0111
o
o
o
137.
(2.2.6-8) Hot water heaters used in potable water systems may have multiple heat sources, such
as an electric heating element and a jacket water heated tube bundle. What is the primary purpose
of such an arrangement?
o
o
o
(a) Allow the designated backup heat source to be used in the event of failure of the designated
primary heat source, whether in port or underway.
(b) Allow jacket water to be used in port and electricity to be used while underway.
(c) Allow both the heat sources to be used when the demand for hot water is high, whether in port
or underway.
(d) Allow electricity to be used in port and jacket water to be used while underway.
138.
(2.2.6-1) What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing
fixture such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains?
o
o
(a) Check valves in the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink.
(b) Location of the potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink.
(c) A "P" trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink.
(d) Location of the potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink.
139.
(2.2.6-2) What type of disinfection system has the disadvantage that it would fail to provide
residual disinfectant in the potable water?
o
o
(a) A chlorinator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank.
(b) A chlorinator located at the potable water storage tank recirculation line.
(c) An ultraviolet irradiator at the desalinator discharge to the potable water storage tank.
(d) A brominator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank.
140.
(2.2.6-3) Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing
water to a potable water system?
o
o
o
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141.
(2.2.6-4) Which of the following statements concerning the arrangements of a potable water
system is true?
o
o
o
(a) Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located above the potable water storage tanks.
(b) Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if
located above the potable water storage tanks.
(c) Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located below the potable water storage tanks.
(d) Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if
located below the potable water storage tanks.
142.
(2.2.6-5) On most commercial cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the
potable water system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained?
o
o
o
(a) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of potable water storage tank level
switches in response to system demand changes.
(b) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously while recirculating during periods of zero
demand for potable water.
(c) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously against a shut-off head during periods of
zero demand for potable water.
(d) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of the potable water hydro-pneumatic
tank pressure switch in response to system demand changes.
143.
(2.2.6-6) What is the primary purpose of the lead-lag arrangement of the two potable water
pumps supporting a typical potable water system?
o
o
o
(a) Enabling the lead pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the
lag pump to assist the lead pump only when the demand is high.
(b) Enabling the lead pump to pump against a shut-off head during periods of relatively low
demand and the lag pump to recirculate when the demand is high.
(c) Enabling the lag pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the lead
pump to assist the lag pump only when the demand is high.
(d) Enabling both potable water pumps to cycle on and off together in response to system
demand changes.
144.
(2.2.6-7) What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot
water distribution piping for a potable water system?
o
o
o
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145.
(2.2.6-9) What are the operating characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydropneumatic header tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air?
o
o
(a) Failure of the potable water pump to start with demand on the system.
(b) Extremely long running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
(c) Very short and frequent running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
(d) Failure of the potable water pump to stop with zero demand on the system.
146.
(2.2.6-10) Suppose the pressure switch used to control the "lead" potable water pump is set at 45
psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. What would be an appropriate setting
for the "lag" potable water pump?
o
o
o
(a) 40 psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop.
(b) 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 50 psig cut-out for pump stop.
(c) 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop.
(d) 50 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop.
147.
(2.2.7-10) What statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime mover
speed control governors?
o
o
(a) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by
employing temporary speed droop.
(b) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by
employing permanent speed droop.
(c) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by
employing temporary speed droop.
(d) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by
employing permanent speed droop.
148.
(2.2.7-5) Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover
speed without hunting?
o
o
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149.
(2.2.7-9) What is meant by the term "dead band" as it applies to prime mover speed control
governors?
o
o
(a) Dead band is the repeated variation of speed due to under-control by the governor and a lack
of governor power.
(b) Dead band is the change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective action
as the result of a load change.
(c) Dead band is the repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed due to over-control by
the governor.
(d) Dead band is the result of transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor
responds to load changes.
150.
o
o
o
151.
(2.2.7-3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous
governor?
o
o
o
(a) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's geared propulsion drive driving
through a fixed-pitch propeller.
(b) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a pump drive associated with maintaining a
constant pump discharge pressure.
(c) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's direct reversible propulsion drive driving
through a fixed-pitch propeller.
(d) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's service alternator drive associated with
maintaining a constant system frequency.
152.
(2.2.7-7) Which term represents how rapidly a speed control governor will complete a corrective
action as the result of a load change?
o
o
(a) Sensitivity
(b) Power
(c) Promptness
(d) Dead band
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153.
(2.2.7-2) Suppose a prime mover rotates at a steady speed of 900 rpm at rated full load and
rotates at a steady speed of 1000 rpm at no load. Assuming that no adjustments have been made to
the governor speed control setting, what is the speed regulation of the prime mover expressed in
percent?
o
o
(a) 10.0%
(b) 11.1%
(c) 88.9%
(d) 90.0%
154.
(2.2.7-1) Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to
prevent prime mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover?
o
o
155.
(2.2.7-6) Which term represents the change in speed required before a speed control governor
will initiate corrective action as the load changes?
o
o
o
(a) Promptness
(b) Power
(c) Sensitivity
(d) Dead band
156.
(2.2.9.11-2) If a hydraulic system is in continuous operation, and is equipped with an air cooled
heat exchanger, the fan should __________.
o
o
o
(a) be in continuous operation as long as the main pump prime mover is in operation
(b) come on only after the main pump prime mover is secured
(c) be controlled by a thermostat to maintain the oil temperature at less than 190F (87.8C)
(d) never be needed, except when the ambient temperature exceeds 90F (32.2C)
157.
(2.2.9.11-3) In which of the listed hydraulic systems will the installation of an oil cooler be
necessary?
o
o
o
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158.
(2.2.9.11-1) In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler, the amount of heat transferred from
the hydraulic fluid to the cooling water depends upon __________.
o
o
o
159.
o
o
o
160.
(2.2.9.13-7) While starting a hydraulic anchor windlass, you observe that hydraulic pressure does
not develop in spite of the proper operation of the electric drive motor. Which of the following actions
should you take FIRST to restore pressure?
o
o
o
(a) Inspect the disc brake on the electric motor for proper operation.
(b) Check for full voltage supply to the electric motor.
(c) Check the electric motor for an open overload relay contact.
(d) Make certain that the hydraulic reservoir is filled to the proper level.
161.
(2.2.9.13-6) You press start button on the hydraulic power unit shown in the illustration, and the
motor does not start. The first thing you should check is the ________. Illustration GS-0161
o
o
o
162.
o
o
o
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163.
(2.2.9.13-5) If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation, the cause may be
__________.
o
o
o
(a) an air leak in the pump suction line above the oil level in the reservoir
(b) due to the wrong direction of rotation of the hydraulic motor
(c) low viscosity in the hydraulic fluid
(d) an oil leak across the pump shaft packing
164.
(2.2.9.6-3) A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator speed during
retraction, with the pump operating at above maximum pressure, is known as a __________.
o
o
o
165.
(2.2.9.6-1) A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension,
with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________.
o
o
166.
(2.2.9.1-4) Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the
__________.
o
o
167.
(2.2.9.1-3) Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic
oil's viscosity?
o
o
(a) Vacuum
(b) Pressure
(c) Cloud point
(d) Pour point
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168.
o
o
o
169.
o
o
o
170.
o
o
o
(2.2.9.9-2) For which of the following reasons is a linear actuator fitted with a cushioning device?
(a) To allow the pump to temporarily operate at a pressure 10% above the relief valve setting
without lifting the relief valve.
(b) To slow the action of the piston preventing shock and damage due to hammering effects.
(c) To regulate actuator speed through the entire stroke length.
(d) All of the above.
171.
(2.2.9.9-3) Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a single-acting hydraulic
ram is correct?
o
o
(a) Hydraulic force is applied simultaneously in two directions against the ram by directional ports.
(b) The single-acting ram is not retracted by means of hydraulic force.
(c) The single-acting ram is both extended and retracted by means of hydraulic force.
(d) Hydraulic force applied to a single-acting ram results in a pulling motion.
172.
o
o
(2.2.9.4-5) In application, which of the listed sealing devices is most similar to an O-ring?
(a) V-ring
(b) U-ring
(c) Quad ring
(d) Cup seal
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173.
(2.2.9.4-6) Which of the following components listed is shown in the illustration? Illustration GS0041
o
o
o
(a) Filter
(b) Variable displacement pump
(c) Heat exchanger
(d) All of the above
174.
(2.2.9.4-1) An internal bypass is provided on some hydraulic system suction strainers to help
reduce the possibility of __________.
o
o
175.
o
o
o
176.
o
o
o
177.
(2.2.9.4-4) The device shown in the illustration is commonly known as a/an __________.
Illustration GS-0071
o
o
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178.
(2.2.9.10-1) The component used in a hydraulic system to store potential energy in the form of
hydraulic fluid under pressure, is the __________.
o
o
(a) ram
(b) pump
(c) accumulator
(d) piping
179.
(2.2.9.10-2) Which of the listed components of a hydraulic system would enable the pump to be
temporarily shutdown, and yet still provide an instantaneous source of hydraulic force?
o
o
o
(a) Accumulator
(b) Modulator
(c) Pressure compensator valve
(d) Sump actuator
180.
(2.2.9.10-5) A reservoir, as used in hydraulic systems aboard ship, is used to store hydraulic oil.
Another function is to __________.
o
o
o
181.
(2.2.9.10-3) Which of the following statements describes the functions of a reservoir used in a
hydraulic system?
o
o
o
182.
o
o
o
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183.
(2.2.9.10-6) In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high-pressure return is
provided by __________. Illustration GS-0118
o
o
o
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
184.
o
o
o
(2.2.9.10-4) The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to __________.
(a) minimize the amount of contamination deposited from return lines entering the system
(b) reduce fluid turbulence at the pump suction
(c) minimize the entrance of entrained air through the pump inlet line
(d) all of the above
185.
o
o
186.
(2.2.9.7-3) A variable displacement pump is fitted with the illustrated device, the discharge flow
rate will be reduced as described by which of the following statements? Illustration GS-0040
o
o
(a) When part "D" rotates counter-clockwise, part "E" will rotate clockwise allowing part "G" to
slide towards the set point spring F.
(b) Part "H" will move to block the replenishing pump oil flow across part "G" as flow across
hydraulic motor decreases.
(c) The increase in high side pressure will gradually increase the tilting box angle of the variable
displacement pump.
(d) As high side pressure increases part "A", "B", and "C" will work together to re-establish the
original tilting box angle.
187.
(2.2.9.7-1) If the device shown in the illustration is being used to control the output of an axial
piston pump, when part "A" is moved to the right, then part "B" __________. Illustration GS-0039
o
o
(a) will move to the right, and "C" will move to the left, but lagging behind "B"
(b) will move to the left, and "C" will move to the right, but will lag behind the movement of "A"
(c) will move to the right, as will "C"
(d) will move to the left, as will "C"
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188.
(2.2.9.7-2) Which of the following statements will be true if the position of the manual control
lever, shown in the illustration, remains unchanged after the pump is placed on stroke? Illustration
GS-0039
o
o
o
(a) Although oil will leak past part 'B', the amount of pump stroke will be maintained until the
control handle position is changed.
(b) Although the control handle position was set, the pump displacement will fluctuate from zero
to maximum flow rate until the handle is placed in its neutral position.
(c) Regardless of the control handle position, the pump will gradually move to full stroke.
(d) Regardless of the control handle position, the pump will gradually return to neutral stroke.
189.
(2.2.9.8-3) Compensated flow control or constant flow valves are used in hydraulic systems to
__________.
o
o
190.
(2.2.9.8-7) Which of the statements is true concerning the illustrated hydraulic circuit when the
directional control valve is centered? Illustration GS-0105
o
o
o
(a) Oil pressure to both sides of the actuator will be equal as the pump discharge flow is directed
across the relief valve.
(b) A pressure differential will exist between the two ends of the actuator, with pump discharge
lower than normal due to flow across the unloading valve.
(c) The oil pressure will equalize at both ends of the actuator and the pump will discharge through
the reducing valve to the sump.
(d) The load on the actuator may cause a difference in pressure to exist between the rod and cap
end, and oil discharging to the sump across the relief valve with the pump operating.
191.
(2.2.9.8-5) Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to permit the completion of
one action of a hydraulic system before a second action would be permitted?
o
o
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192.
(2.2.9.8-2) The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover system is to
__________.
o
o
o
193.
(2.2.9.8-6) Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a hydraulic system to
temporarily divert some, or all of the pump discharge until the additional flow was required?
o
o
194.
o
o
o
(2.2.9.8-1) Plug valves installed in hydraulic systems are most suitable for use as __________.
(a) two position flow control valves
(b) main supply line throttle valves
(c) variable flow control valves
(d) check and choke valves
195.
(2.2.9.5-4) If the flow rate and pressurized oil from a variable capacity pump were supplied to the
device illustrated the __________. Illustration GS-0058
o
o
196.
o
o
o
(2.2.9.5-2) The device illustrated would be best used as a __________. Illustration GS-0058
(a) power take-off driven lube oil pump
(b) variable capacity pump
(c) hydraulic hatch supply pump
(d) variable or constant speed motor
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197.
(2.2.9.5-3) To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following
would have to be done?
o
o
o
(a) Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots.
(b) Provide one additional slot and vane.
(c) Double the casing thickness.
(d) Install an enlarged control ring around the rotor.
198.
o
o
199.
(2.2.9.5-5) Both the direction of flow and fluid flow rate of a variable displacement radial piston
pump are determined by the relative positions of the __________.
o
o
200.
(2.2.9.3-4) The hydraulic tubing installation shown as figure "D" is INCORRECT and will probably
leak when in operation because the tubing __________. Illustration GS-0065
o
o
201.
(2.2.9.3-5) A flare-type tubing connector is used in the hydraulic hatch cover system and has
developed a slight leak. To stop the leak you should __________.
o
o
o
(a) shut down the power unit and use two wrenches to avoid damaging the tubing when
tightening
(b) replace both the tubing sections and the fitting
(c) keep the system in operation and tighten the flare nut
(d) stop the system and use only one wrench to tighten the flare nut
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202.
(2.2.9.3-1) Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high-pressure use is
represented by figure __________. Illustration GS-0100
o
o
(a) A or C
(b) A or B
(c) B or C
(d) C or D
203.
(2.2.9.3-3) The determining factor for the strength of a flexible rubber hydraulic hose is the
__________.
o
o
204.
(2.2.9.3-2) For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a hydraulic system, the
inside diameter can be determined if it is remembered that the inside diameter equals the outside
diameter less __________.
o
o
205.
(2.2.9.12-4) When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure
system, the oil __________.
o
o
o
206.
o
o
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207.
(2.2.9.12-7) When renewing sections of pipe in a hydraulic system, the nominal pipe size of the
piping always indicates the __________.
o
o
o
208.
o
o
o
209.
(2.2.9.12-6) New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely degreased
by using __________.
o
o
o
(a) alcohol
(b) carbon tetrachloride
(c) a water-based detergent
(d) a special petroleum solvent
210.
(2.2.9.2-3) Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________. Illustration
GS-0103
o
o
o
211.
(2.2.9.2-1) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a/an __________.
Illustration GS-0097
o
o
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212.
(2.2.9.2-4) Item "E" shown in the illustration is used in the hydraulic circuit as __________.
Illustration GS-0103
o
o
(a) one of two motor driven remotely operated pumps to open and close the watertight door
(b) the manually operated pump located in a common passage way to close the watertight door in
an emergency
(c) the manually operated pump used to open or close the watertight door from the engine room
side
(d) motor driven pump used to close the watertight door from the navigation bridge in an
emergency
213.
o
o
o
214.
o
o
o
(2.2.11.1-1) The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its __________.
(a) elasticity
(b) ductility
(c) fusibility
(d) malleability
215.
o
o
o
216.
o
o
o
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217.
o
o
o
218.
o
o
o
219.
o
o
o
220.
(2.2.11.1-7) When a metal is undergoing heat treatment, what happens when the metal is heated
above its critical temperature?
o
o
(a) The metal changes from the solid state to the molten state.
(b) The metal changes from a molten state to a vapor state.
(c) The metal undergoes a change in crystalline structure.
(d) The metal undergoes thermal contraction.
221.
(2.2.11.1-8) When a metal is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of annealing, besides
refining the grain structure, what is the determining characteristic of the metal?
o
o
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222.
(2.2.11.1-9) When a low carbon steel is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of
casehardening, what is the process that distinguishes this procedure from other hardening methods?
o
o
o
(a) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is quenched in a carbon bath.
(b) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is quenched in cold water.
(c) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is allowed to cool slowly in air.
(d) After the steel is heated above its melting temperature, it is quenched in a carbon bath.
223.
(2.2.11.1-10) What effect does preheating, concurrent heating, or post heating have on welding a
joint?
o
o
o
(a) Decreasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and relieving internal stresses.
(b) Increasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and relieving internal stresses.
(c) Decreasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and intensifying internal stresses.
(d) Increasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and intensifying internal stresses.
224.
o
o
o
225.
o
o
o
226.
(2.2.12.3-10) Referring to the illustration, what would be the result if the lower oil/water interface
detection probe became faulty? Illustration GS-0175
o
o
(a) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the oil discharge mode to initiating the
separation processing mode.
(b) The unit would not be able to transition from the overboard discharge mode to the
recirculation mode while in the separation processing mode.
(c) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the separation processing mode to
initiating the oil discharge mode.
(d) The unit would not be able to come out of the oily-water separator idle mode and begin
processing bilge water.
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227.
(2.2.12.3-2) If item "1" shown in the illustration is a compound gage indicating zero psig and the
water level in the bilges is one foot high, the unit is __________. Illustration GS-0153
o
o
o
228.
(2.2.12.3-9) Referring to the illustration, what would be the result if the upper oil/water interface
detection probe became faulty? Illustration GS-0175
o
o
o
(a) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the oil discharge mode to initiating the
separation processing mode.
(b) The unit would not be able to come out of the oily-water separator idle mode and begin
processing bilge water.
(c) The unit would not be able to transition from the overboard discharge mode to the recirculation
mode while in the separation processing mode.
(d) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the separation processing mode to
initiating the oil discharge mode.
229.
(2.2.12.1-4) What type of fuel oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to have a density
approaching that of water?
o
o
o
230.
(2.2.12.1-7) What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oilywater mixture associated with an oily-water separator?
o
o
o
(a) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
(b) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
(c) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
(d) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
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231.
(2.2.12.1-9) A typical oily-water separator has three stages of separation. Which statement
represents the correct sequential order of the stages?
o
o
o
(a) First stage: polishing filter coalescer. Second stage: inclined plate coalescer. Third stage:
gravimetric.
(b) First stage: gravimetric. Second stage: polishing filter coalescer. Third stage: inclined plate
coalescer.
(c) First stage: inclined plate coalescer. Second stage: polishing filter coalescer. Third stage:
gravimetric.
(d) First stage: gravimetric. Second stage: inclined plate coalescer. Third stage: polishing filter
coalescer.
232.
o
o
o
233.
o
o
(a) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be low in flow rate and high in turbulence.
(b) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be high in flow rate and high in turbulence.
(c) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be low in flow rate and low in turbulence.
(d) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be high in flow rate and low in turbulence.
234.
(2.2.12.1-5) What type of oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to require heating to
facilitate separation in an oily-water separator?
o
o
o
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235.
(2.2.12.1-2) What statement is true with regard to the basic operating principle of gravity
associated with an oily-water separator?
o
o
o
(a) The density of oil is less than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to rise.
(b) The density of oil is greater than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to sink.
(c) The density of oil is greater than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to rise.
(d) The density of oil is less than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to sink.
236.
(2.2.12.1-8) If an oily-water separator uses an inclined plate pack to facilitate separation, what
statement concerning the plate pack is true?
(a) The oil droplets collect on the underside of the plates and rise when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the upper side of the plates and sink when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
(b) The oil droplets collect on the upper side of the plates and sink when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the underside of the plates and rise when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
(c) The oil droplets collect on the upper side of the plates and rise when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the underside of the plates and sink when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
(d) The oil droplets collect on the underside of the plates and sink when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the upper side of the plates and rise when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
237.
(2.2.12.2-9) Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check
valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is
closed. Valve "B" is open. Valve "D" is closed. What is the operational status of the oily-water
separator unit? Illustration GS-0175
o
o
o
(a) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
(b) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
(c) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging overboard with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
(d) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging overboard with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
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238.
(2.2.12.2-8) The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the ______.
Illustration GS-0175
o
o
o
239.
(2.2.12.2-4) What is the normal direction of flow through the device shown in the illustration while
operating in the processing mode? Illustration GS-0153
o
o
(a) The oily-water mixture enters through the pressure control valve "2" and exits with the
processed liquid through valve "14".
(b) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "4" and exits as processed liquid through valve
"14".
(c) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "5" and exits the separator through valve "14" as
processed liquid.
(d) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "14" and exits with the processed liquid through
valve "4".
240.
(2.2.12.1-5) The component labeled "A" as shown in the illustration would be identified as the
__________. Illustration GS-0175
o
o
241.
(2.2.12.2-7) The line labeled "E", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the
__________. Illustration GS-0175
o
o
o
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242.
(2.2.12.2-10) Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check
valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is
closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve "D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water
separator unit? Illustration GS-0175
o
o
o
(a) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
(b) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
(c) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging overboard with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
(d) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging overboard with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
243.
(2.2.12.2-1) The components indicated as "7" and "8" as shown in the illustration, are known as
the __________. Illustration GS-0153
o
o
244.
(2.2.12.2-3) The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________. Illustration GS0153
o
o
o
(a) direct the flow of the oily-water mixture against the coalescer bed
(b) support the tank access panel
(c) allow the oil accumulated to exit the device, while remaining separated from the liquid
(d) prevent separated oil from mixing with the incoming bilge water
245.
(2.2.12.2-6) The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the ______.
Illustration GS-0175
o
o
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246.
(2.2.12.2-2) When the oily-water separator, shown in the illustration, is in operation and
processing clear bilge water, what should be the internal water level? Illustration GS-0153
o
o
(a) The water level in the tank should be slightly above the upper coalescer bed "9".
(b) The water level should be located in the lower section of the tank as controlled by flow control
valve "14".
(c) The water level should be located in the upper section of the tank.
(d) No water level is maintained in the tank.
247.
(2.2.13.2-7) How would the pressure setting of the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, pistonoperated steam pressure-reducer be raised to a higher set point? Illustration GS-0044
o
o
(a) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load reduced by rotating the
adjusting screw counter-clockwise further out of the adjusting spring chamber.
(b) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load increased by rotating the
adjusting screw clockwise further into the adjusting spring chamber.
(c) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load reduced by rotating the
adjusting screw clockwise further into the adjusting spring chamber.
(d) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load increased by rotating the
adjusting screw counter-clockwise further out of the adjusting spring chamber.
248.
(2.2.13.2-11) How would the illustrated valve respond to a complete loss of charge from the
remote bulb-to-control diaphragm power element if the valve is used as a temperature control valve
for a steam-heated heavy fuel oil service heater? Illustration GS-0045
o
o
(a) The valve would fail in the fully closed position, resulting in a low fuel oil temperature alarm.
(b) The valve would fail in the fully open position, resulting in a high fuel oil temperature alarm.
(c) It is not possible to predict how the valve will respond to a complete loss of charge from the
power element.
(d) The valve would fail in the exact position it was in before the power element lost its complete
charge, resulting in a fluctuation in fuel oil temperature as demand changes.
249.
(2.2.13.2-1) In the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated steam pressurereducing valve, what statement is true concerning the pilot and main valves? Illustration GS-0044
o
o
o
(a) The pilot valve is upward seating and the main valve is downward seating.
(b) The pilot valve is downward seating and the main valve is upward seating.
(c) The pilot valve is downward seating and the main valve is downward seating.
(d) The pilot valve is upward seating and the main valve is upward seating.
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250.
(a) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure
to decrease and the control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the
pilot valve.
(b) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure
to increase and the control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the
pilot valve.
(c) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure
to decrease and the control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close
the pilot valve.
(d) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure
to increase and the control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close
the pilot valve.
251.
(a) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure
to increase and the control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close
the pilot valve.
(b) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure
to decrease and the control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the
pilot valve.
(c) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure
to decrease and the control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close
the pilot valve.
(d) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure
to increase and the control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the
pilot valve.
252.
o
o
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253.
o
o
(a) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after
the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
(b) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure
after the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will increase.
(c) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure
after the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
(d) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after
the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will increase.
254.
o
o
o
255.
(2.2.13.3-7) Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement is true
concerning the adjustment of the popping pressure? Illustration SG-0018
o
o
256.
o
o
o
(a) Raising the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure after
the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
(b) Raising the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after
the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
(c) Raising the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure after
the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will increase.
(d) Raising the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after
the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will increase.
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257.
(2.2.13.3-6) Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement is true
concerning the adjustment of blow down? Illustration SG-0018
o
o
258.
(2.2.13.3-5) Which of the following listed valves would require "blow down" to insure proper
operation and prevent damage due to repeated and rapid opening and closing?
o
o
259.
(2.2.13.3-4) In the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement is true concerning
the opening and closing forces acting upon the disc? Illustration SG-0018
o
o
(a) The spring force acting upward on the disc is a valve opening force, and the sensed
pressure acting downward on the disc is a valve closing force.
(b) The spring force acting upward on the disc is a valve closing force, and the sensed
pressure acting downward on the disc is a valve opening force.
(c) The spring force acting downward on the disc is a valve opening force, and the sensed
pressure acting upward on the disc is a valve closing force.
(d) The spring force acting downward on the disc is a valve closing force, and the sensed
pressure acting upward on the disc is a valve opening force.
260.
(2.2.13.4-2) Referring to the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve,
what statement is true? Illustration GS-0051
o
o
o
(a) The control valve has a single disc which is upward seating.
(b) The control valve has a single disc which is downward seating.
(c) The control valve has two discs which are both upward seating.
(d) The control valve has two discs which are both downward seating.
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261.
(2.2.13.4-10) Suppose the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve is
used to control the fuel oil outlet temperature of a steam-heated heavy fuel oil heater by controlling
the steam flow. What would be the result if the stem packing was over-tightened and the stem was
unable to vertically move in either direction? Illustration GS-0051
o
o
(a) The valve would fail in the fully closed position, most likely resulting in a low fuel oil
temperature alarm condition.
(b) The valve will lose control of the fuel oil temperature with the result that the fuel temperature
will fluctuate with changes in fuel demand.
(c) The valve would fail in the fully open position, most likely resulting in a high fuel oil
temperature alarm condition.
(d) It is not possible to predict how the valve would respond to over-tightened valve stem packing.
262.
(2.2.13.4-7) Suppose the pilot controller for the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm
actuated control valve is supplied with 20 psig control air and is designed to operate the valve with a
pilot pressure ranging from 3 to 15 psig. What would be the indication of a properly adjusted spring
(6) by means of the adjusting nut (12)? Illustration GS-0051
o
o
o
(a) The valve should indicate fully open at 3 psig and should indicate fully closed at 15 psig.
(b) The valve should indicate fully closed at 3 psig and should indicate fully open at 15 psig
(c) The valve should indicate fully open at 0 psig and should indicate fully closed at 20 psig.
(d) The valve should indicate fully closed at 0 psig and should indicate fully open at 20 psig.
263.
(2.2.13.4-3) Assuming that the flow is from left to right on the illustrated pneumatically operated
diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement is true? Illustration GS-0051
o
o
(a) Inlet pressure acts on the upper surface of the top disc and the lower surface of the bottom
disc for the purpose of achieving hydraulic balance so that inlet pressure does not influence the
valve position.
(b) Inlet pressure acts on the lower surface of the top disc and the upper surface of the bottom
disc for the purpose of achieving hydraulic balance so that inlet pressure does not influence the
valve position.
(c) Inlet pressure acts on the upper surface of the top disc and the upper surface of the bottom
disc for the purpose of achieving a hydraulic assist to aid in valve closing.
(d) Inlet pressure acts on the lower surface of the top disc and the lower surface of the bottom
disc for the purpose of achieving a hydraulic assist to aid in valve opening.
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264.
(2.2.13.4-4) In the illustrated pneumatically operated, diaphragm actuated control valve, what
statement is true concerning the opening and closing forces acting upon the control diaphragm?
Illustration GS-0051
o
o
(a) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve opening force, and the pilot
pressure acting on the bottom of the control diaphragm is a valve closing force.
(b) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve closing force, and the pilot
pressure acting on the top of the control diaphragm is a valve opening force.
(c) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve opening force, and the pilot
pressure acting on the top of the control diaphragm is a valve closing force.
(d) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve closing force, and the pilot
pressure acting on the bottom of the control diaphragm is a valve opening force.
265.
(2.2.13.4-1) Referring to the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve,
what statement is true? Illustration GS-0051
o
o
o
266.
(2.2.13.4-8) Suppose the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve is
used to control the fuel oil outlet temperature of a steam-heated heavy fuel oil heater by controlling
the steam flow. What would be the result if there was a complete loss of pilot air being delivered to
the valve actuator? Illustration GS-0051
o
o
(a) The valve would fail in the fully closed position, most likely resulting in a low fuel oil
temperature alarm condition.
(b) The valve would fail in the exact position just before the loss of pilot air. The fuel temperature
will fluctuate with changes in fuel demand.
(c) The valve would fail in the fully open position, most likely resulting in a high fuel oil
temperature alarm condition.
(d) It is not possible to predict how the valve would respond to a loss of pilot air.
267.
(2.2.13.4-6) Suppose the pilot pressure is from 3 to 15 psig for the illustrated pneumatically
operated, diaphragm actuated control valve. Assuming the control valve is trimmed for a linear
response and the travel position indicator is calibrated in percentage, what would be the
approximate pilot pressure if the position indicator showed the valve to be 75% open? Illustration
GS-0051
o
o
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268.
o
o
o
(2.2.13.1-2) What statement representing the primary purpose of a steam trap is true?
(a) By draining the low point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
(b) By draining the high point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
(c) By draining the high point of a vertical run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
(d) By draining the low point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
insure good heat transfer efficiency.
269.
(2.2.13.1-9) What type of steam trap is most susceptible to damage if allowed to come into
contact with superheated steam?
o
o
o
270.
(2.2.13.1-6) Referring to the illustrated impulse steam trap, what would be the effect of threading
the control cylinder "E" upward out of the trap body? Illustration GS-0002
(a) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the
valve disk will increase.
(b) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the
valve disk will decrease.
(c) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve
disk will decrease.
(d) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve
disk will increase.
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271.
(2.2.13.1-5) Referring to the illustrated impulse steam trap, what would be the effect of threading
the control cylinder "E" downward further into the trap body? Illustration GS-0002
(a) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the
valve disk will decrease.
(b) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the
valve disk will increase.
(c) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve
disk will increase.
(d) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve
disk will decrease.
272.
(2.2.13.1-4) In order for a steam trap to be effective in accomplishing its intended purpose, what
statement is true regarding its installation?
o
o
o
(a) The steam trap should never be painted, but should be covered with insulation.
(b) The steam trap should be painted to reduce corrosion and should be covered with insulation.
(c) The steam trap should be painted to reduce corrosion but should never be covered with
insulation.
(d) The steam trap should never be painted and should never be covered with insulation.
273.
(2.2.14.3-1) In the illustration shown, an efficient seal is maintained between the suction cover
and the volute by __________. Illustration GS-0012
o
o
274.
(2.2.14.3-5) In the pump shown in the illustration, what is the distance from the bottom of the inlet
to the bottom end of the motor shaft? Illustration GS-0011
o
o
o
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275.
(2.2.14.3-3) What is the length of the stud used to secure the packing gland shown in the
illustration? Illustration GS-0012
o
o
o
(a) 1 inch
(b) 1 1/4 inches
(c) 1 1/2 inches
(d) 2 1/2 inches
276.
(2.2.14.3-6) The working depth of the gear illustrated is represented by __________. Illustration
GS-0111
o
o
o
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) I
277.
(2.2.14.3-4) What is the distance between the center of the discharge outlet and the top of the
motor illustrated? Illustration GS-0011
o
o
o
278.
(2.2.14.3-7) The term, whole depth of the gear, shown in the illustration, is equal to __________.
Illustration GS-0111
o
o
o
(a) A + D
(b) B + D
(c) C + A
(d) C + D
279.
(2.2.14.4-9) The illustration is drawn to a scale of 3/8 inch = 1 inch. What is the full size
dimension of "X", if the scale lengths for "E" = 5/8", "F" = 1 3/8", "G" = 2 1/8", and "H" = 5 3/4"?
Illustration GS-0007
o
o
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280.
(2.2.14.4-2) The physical feature indicated for each of the smallest diameter ends of the device
illustrated is that they are __________. Illustration GS-0008
o
o
o
(a) threaded
(b) smooth surfaced with opposing machined flats
(c) smoothed surfaced only
(d) threaded with opposing machined flats
281.
(2.2.14.4-3) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the device shown in the
illustration? Illustration GS-0008
o
o
o
(a) The areas dimensioned 0.64 in length are flats on the shaft.
(b) The areas dimensioned 0.64 in length are steps in the shaft diameter.
(c) If the piece is symmetrical about the 3/16 hole, the threaded ends have longitudinal tolerance
dimensions of 0.789 inch to 0.825 inch.
(d) All the 0.03 under cuts must be taken into account when adjusting lengths to meet the
specified tolerances.
282.
(2.2.14.4-4) Figure "B", shown in the illustration, is dimensioned to indicate a/an __________.
Illustration GS-0019
o
o
o
283.
(2.2.14.4-8) In the illustration shown, what is the distance indicated by dimension "I"? Illustration
GS-0001
o
o
284.
(2.2.14.4-5) The illustration shown represents a blueprint of a metal __________. Illustration GS0028
o
o
o
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285.
(2.2.14.4-1) The dimension of the sensing gap in the left hand limit sensor assembly shown in the
illustration is __________. Illustration GS-0010
o
o
o
286.
(2.2.14.4-10) The shaft shown in the illustration has an overall length of 42 inches in addition to
the following dimensions of "A" = 8", "B" = 8", "C" = 10", and "D"=8 3/16". The tapered length "X" is
__________. Illustration GS-0133
o
o
287.
(2.2.14.4-7) The letters 'NPT' used in the notation 1/8-27 NPT as shown in the illustration,
indicates the __________. Illustration GS-0010
o
o
o
288.
o
o
o
289.
(2.2.14.2-7) In the figure shown in the illustration, the standard blueprint symbols above the
letters "A", "B", and "C" indicate __________. Illustration GS-0036
o
o
o
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290.
(2.2.14.2-3) How many hidden lines are shown in the right side (end) view of the drawing
illustrated? Illustration GS-0021
o
o
o
(a) None
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Six
291.
o
o
o
292.
o
o
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
293.
(2.2.14.2-1) In the illustration shown, what is the proper description of the hole represented by
"C"? Illustration GS-0015
o
o
o
294.
o
o
o
(2.2.14.2-10) In the illustration, line "J" is used to depict a/an _________. Illustration GS-0006
(a) hidden line
(b) cutting plane line
(c) outline
(d) centerline
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295.
(2.2.14.2-4) Which of the conditions listed does the blueprint symbol shown in the illustration
represent? Illustration GS-0028
o
o
o
296.
o
o
o
297.
o
o
(a) A
(b) E
(c) C
(d) D
298.
(2.2.14.5-1) Using the information in the illustration shown, the tail of the welding symbol will
__________. Illustration GS-0030
o
o
299.
(2.2.14.1-1) As shown in the illustration, if figure "21" indicates the "TOP VIEW" of an
orthographic projection, and figure "11" indicates the "FRONT VIEW", which figure would best
represent the correct "RIGHT SIDE VIEW"? Illustration GS-0165
o
o
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300.
(2.2.14.1-5) The exploded drawing shown in the illustration is intended to show the __________.
Illustration GS-0025
o
o
301.
(2.2.14.1-7) Of the views labeled "1", "2", "3", and "4", select the one that correctly represents the
right side view of the unnumbered object in the illustration. Illustration GS-0003
o
o
o
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
302.
(2.2.14.1-2) Which of the figures shown in the illustration depicts an orthographic projection?
Illustration GS-0142
o
o
o
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
303.
(2.2.20.1-1) In order for heat transfer to take place between two substances, what essential
condition must exist?
o
o
o
304.
(2.2.20.1-2) What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy from
one location to another by fluid in motion?
o
o
(a) Sublimation
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation
(d) Conduction
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305.
(2.2.20.1-3) What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy within
a body or between two bodies in direct contact?
o
o
(a) Radiation
(b) Conduction
(c) Sublimation
(d) Convection
306.
(2.2.20.1-4) What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy
through a transparent medium by means of electromagnetic energy in the infrared spectrum?
o
o
(a) Conduction
(b) Sublimation
(c) Radiation
(d) Convection
307.
(2.2.20.1-7) Overall heat transfer processes often involve two or more modes of heat transfer.
Specifically, when heat is being transferred from one side of an air compressor cylinder wall to the
opposite side, what mode of heat transfer is associated with that particular part of the
overall process?
o
o
o
(a) Radiation
(b) Natural convection
(c) Forced convection
(d) Conduction
308.
(2.2.20.1-8) What statement is true concerning the heat transfer rates through a heat exchanger
boundary wall by conduction?
o
o
o
(a) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall, and
directly proportional to the area of the wall and the wall thickness.
(b) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall and
the area of the wall, and directly proportional to the wall thickness.
(c) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall, and
inversely proportional to the area of the wall and the wall thickness.
(d) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall and
the area of the wall, and inversely proportional to the wall thickness.
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309.
(2.2.20.1-9) What statement is true concerning heat transfer rates by the heat transfer mode of
natural convection?
o
o
o
(a) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is
directly proportional to the temperature gradient.
(b) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in
turn, is directly proportional to the temperature gradient.
(c) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is
inversely proportional to the temperature gradient.
(d) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in
turn, is inversely proportional to the temperature gradient.
310.
o
o
311.
o
o
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312.
(2.2.20.2-3) If Boyles' law describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of ideal
gases, what statement is true?
o
o
(a) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional
to its pressure.
(b) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely
proportional to its pressure.
(c) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to
its temperature.
(d) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional
to its temperature.
313.
(2.2.20.2-4) If Charles' law describes the relationship between the temperature and volume of
ideal gases, what statement is true?
o
o
(a) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional
to its temperature.
(b) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely
proportional to its pressure.
(c) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to
its temperature.
(d) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional
to its pressure.
314.
(2.2.20.2-5) What term is defined as the quantity of heat necessary to raise the temperature of a
unit mass of a substance one degree?
o
o
o
315.
o
o
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316.
(2.2.20.2-7) What term is defined as the amount of heat required to convert a unit mass of a
substance from a liquid to a vapor at constant temperature and pressure?
o
o
o
317.
o
o
o
318.
o
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319.
o
320.
(2.2.15.1-8) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for electric
propulsion where the drive motors are outside the ship's hull?
o
o
321.
(2.2.15.1-7) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Zdrive?
o
o
o
322.
(2.2.15.1-5) Which of the following propulsor types would be used with unidirectional propulsion
shafting rotation?
o
o
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323.
(2.2.15.1-4) When an electricity generating plant features shaft-driven generators, what type of
propulsor is generally used for main propulsion?
o
o
324.
(2.2.15.1-2) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Voith
Schneider drive?
o
o
o
325.
(2.2.15.1-3) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a screw
propeller of the conventional design?
o
o
o
326.
(2.2.15.1-10) Which of the following propulsor types does not require the use of a separate rudder
for steerage?
o
o
o
327.
(2.2.15.1-6) What type of propeller consists of a flat disc set flush with the under surface of the
vessel's hull with a number of vertical, rudder like blades projecting from it?
o
o
o
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328.
o
o
o
(a) If the hydraulic actuator is outboard, a mechanical pull-push rod is located within the propeller
shaft. If the hydraulic actuator is inboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the propeller shaft.
(b) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard or outboard, the blade rotating mechanism is actuated by a
mechanical pull-push rod located within the propeller shaft.
(c) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard or outboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the
propeller shaft in either case.
(d) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard, a mechanical pull-push rod is located within the propeller
shaft. If the hydraulic actuator is outboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the propeller
shaft.
329.
(2.2.15.5-1) The gears used for virtually all marine propulsion reduction gear sets are of what
type?
o
o
330.
(2.2.15.5-5) Which of the listed reduction gear sets has the input and output shafts in-line with
one another?
o
o
o
331.
o
o
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332.
o
o
o
(2.2.15.5-4) For a parallel axis single reduction gear, what statement is true?
(a) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed. The
driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed.
(b) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed. The
driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed.
(c) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed. The
driven gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed.
(d) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed. The driven
gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed.
333.
(2.2.15.5-10) Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive
featuring a double reduction?
o
o
o
334.
o
o
o
335.
o
o
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336.
(2.2.15.5-11) An 8" diameter wheel is driving a 20" diameter wheel via a pair of belts. The power
input is supplied by a 5 HP motor rotating the driving wheel at 300 RPM. If the efficiency of the
transmission is 80%, what RPM and torque is delivered to the driven wheel?
o
o
o
337.
(2.2.15.5-2) Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive
featuring a single reduction?
o
o
338.
(2.2.15.5-7) Which of the following couplings or clutches allows, within limits, a certain degree of
slip?
o
o
o
339.
(2.2.15.2-5) What statement is true concerning the ability of a line shaft bearing to adapt to shaft
misalignment as the ship's hull flexes?
o
o
o
(a) Some line shaft bearings may have only a bottom half bearing shell, which allows for
deflection upwards only. Other line shaft bearings may be spherically-seated self-aligning
bearings or conventional non-aligning type bearings.
(b) All line shaft bearings have only a top half bearing shell, which allows for deflection
downwards only. As such no provision is made for allowing for deflection in other directions.
(c) All line shaft bearings have only a bottom half bearing shell, which allows for deflection
upwards only. As such no provision is made for allowing for deflection in other directions.
(d) Some line shaft bearings may have only a top half bearing shell, which allows for deflection
downwards only. Other line shaft bearings may be spherically-seated self-aligning bearings or
conventional non-aligning type bearings.
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340.
(2.2.15.2-9) Concerning the arrangements of a disk-oiled line shaft bearing, what statement is
true?
o
o
(a) The disk is clamped to the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution
of the oil to the bearing is by the action of an oil wick.
(b) The disk fits loosely on the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution
of the oil to the bearing is by wick action.
(c) The disk is clamped to the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution of
the oil to the bearing is by the action of an oil scraper.
(d) The disk fits loosely on the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution
of the oil to the bearing is similar to the action of oiling rings.
341.
(2.2.15.2-7) Which line shaft bearing is most likely to have both upper and lower half bearing
shells on merchant ships?
o
o
o
342.
o
o
o
(2.2.15.2-3) What statement is true concerning the lubrication of line shaft bearings?
(a) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by wick lubrication.
(b) Line shaft bearing are generally lubricated by force-feed lubrication.
(c) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by gravity feed lubrication.
(d) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by oiling rings or discs.
343.
(2.2.15.2-1) If a main propulsion shafting arrangement is such that no strut or strut bearing is
required, what is an alternative name given to the propeller shaft, which is the section of shafting that
the propeller is attached to?
o
o
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344.
(2.2.15.2-6) What statement is true concerning the purpose of an independent main thrust
bearing where used?
o
o
(a) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb axial thrust and maintain the shaft in
proper axial alignment.
(b) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb radial thrust and to transmit the
radial thrust developed by the propeller to the ship's hull.
(c) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb axial thrust and to transmit the axial
thrust developed by the propeller to the ship's hull.
(d) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb radial thrust and maintain the shaft
in proper radial alignment.
345.
o
o
o
(2.2.15.2-4) What statement is true concerning the arrangement of line shaft bearing housings?
(a) Line shaft bearing housings are typically split half pedestal type bearing housings.
(b) Line shaft bearing housings are typically split half flange type bearing housings.
(c) Line shaft bearing housings are typically single-piece flange type bearing housings.
(d) Line shaft bearing housings are typically single-piece pedestal type bearing housings.
346.
(2.2.15.2-10) What type of bearing is most generally used as an independent main thrust block on
merchant ships?
o
o
o
347.
(2.2.15.4-8) What type of propulsor is typically used in electric motor driven, transverse, tunnel
bow thrusters to limit the starting current of the single speed drive motor?
o
o
o
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348.
o
o
o
(a) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located inside the hull, and with a podded
propulsor the prime mover is located outside the hull.
(b) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located outside the hull, and with a podded
propulsor the prime mover is located inside the hull.
(c) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is not steerable, and with a podded propulsor the
propulsor is steerable.
(d) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is steerable, and with a podded propulsor the
propulsor is not steerable.
349.
(2.2.15.4-9) What is the primary advantage of transverse bow and stern tunnel thrusters when
installed on ships?
o
o
350.
o
o
351.
(2.2.15.4-3) With respect to the vectoring ring of a steerable internal duct thruster, what statement
represents the operating principle of the vectoring ring?
o
o
(a) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the inlet guide vanes to the pump inlet.
(b) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the deflector vanes of the pump
discharge.
(c) The vectoring ring is used to control the speed and direction of rotation of the pump.
(d) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the vanes on the pump impeller.
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352.
(2.2.15.4-10) Which set of operating conditions would be most problematic in terms of the
deterioration of the insulation resistance of the drive motor of an electric motor driven transverse
tunnel bow thruster?
o
o
(a) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly cold.
(b) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
warm.
(c) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
cold.
(d) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
warm.
353.
o
o
o
(2.2.15.4-5) With respect to a "pusher" type azimuthing thruster, what statement is true?
o
(a) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of the gear
unit, but the gear unit is in the wake of the azimuthing thruster's propeller.
o
(b) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the gear unit is directly abaft of and in the wake of the
azimuthing thruster's propeller.
o
(c) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the gear unit is directly abaft of the azimuthing thruster's
propeller, but the azimuthing thruster's propeller is in the wake of the gear unit.
o
(d) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of and in
the wake of the gear unit.
354.
o
o
o
355.
o
o
o
(2.2.15.3-2) What statement is true with respect to the back of a propeller blade?
(a) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the pressure side.
(b) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the pressure side.
(c) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the suction side.
(d) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the suction side.
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356.
o
o
o
(2.2.15.3-5) What statement is true with respect to the pressure side of a propeller blade?
(a) The pressure side of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream
during ahead motion and is also known as the back of the blade.
(b) The pressure side of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during
ahead motion and is also known as the back of the blade.
(c) The pressure side of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during
ahead motion and is also known as the face of the blade.
(d) The pressure side of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream
during ahead motion and is also known as the face of the blade.
357.
o
o
o
358.
o
o
359.
o
o
360.
o
o
o
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361.
o
o
362.
(2.2.16.4.1-6) One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the
__________.
o
o
363.
(2.2.16.4.1-8) Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or
highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?
o
o
364.
(2.2.16.4.1-3) Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the
lobe edges?
o
o
o
365.
(2.2.16.4.1-9) One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing
is that __________.
o
o
o
(a) seal failure usually requires the immediate removal of the pump from service
(b) it is unsuitable for high-pressure applications
(c) it requires periodic disassembly and adjustment
(d) it is unsuitable for high temperature applications
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366.
(2.2.16.4.1-10) Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the
rotating and stationary seal members shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0071
o
o
o
(a) spring
(b) notch and keyway
(c) seal retaining ring
(d) bellows
367.
(2.2.16.4.1-1) The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an
__________. Illustration GS-0075
o
o
o
368.
o
o
369.
(2.2.16.4.1-7) Spring reinforced oil seals are generally installed with the tail or lip of the seal
facing __________. Illustration GS-0152
o
o
o
370.
(2.2.16.4.1-5) The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by
__________.
o
o
o
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371.
(2.2.16.3.3-5) Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be
avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?
o
o
o
372.
(2.2.16.3.3-4) What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve
during routine maintenance inspection?
o
o
o
(a) Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower speed.
(b) Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak off for lubrication.
(c) Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve bore.
(d) Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve.
373.
(2.2.16.3.3-1) When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following
precautions should be observed?
o
o
(a) For good lubrication, apply a fine grade lapping compound between the shaft and packing.
(b) Replace all of the packing rings.
(c) Block off the sealing water connection.
(d) Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft.
374.
o
o
o
375.
o
o
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376.
o
o
o
377.
(2.2.16.3.3-3) When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing
is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.
o
o
o
(a) loosened, and then retightened with the pump running under normal conditions
(b) loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box
(c) left in that position
(d) tightened an additional 10% to compress the packing
378.
(2.2.16.4.4-2) The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will
decrease with an increase in the pump __________.
o
o
o
379.
(2.2.16.4.4-4) Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the
discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?
o
o
o
(a) One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been completed.
(b) The gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump.
(c) The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears instead of two.
(d) Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller.
380.
(2.2.16.4.4-3) How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear
pump?
o
o
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381.
(2.2.16.4.4-1) Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because
__________.
o
o
o
(a) it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this pump
(b) these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles
(c) stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps
(d) they are essentially self-priming and capable of a high suction lift
382.
(2.2.16.1-6) If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated pressure at the pump
suction, the remainder is the __________.
o
o
383.
(2.2.16.1-7) Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a
centrifugal pump?
o
o
o
384.
o
o
(2.2.16.1-1) The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________.
(a) suction head
(b) net positive suction head
(c) discharge head
(d) total head
385.
(2.2.16.1-2) If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated pressure at the pump
suction, the remainder is the __________.
o
o
o
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386.
o
o
o
387.
(2.2.16.1-3) Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a
centrifugal pump?
o
o
388.
(2.2.16.3.1-4) Water leaking from a pump packing gland is kept away from the bearing housing by
the use of __________.
o
o
389.
o
o
o
390.
o
o
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391.
(2.2.16.3.1-2) Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is
prevented by __________.
o
o
392.
(2.2.16.3.1-9) Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a
stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?
o
o
(a) Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear, but mechanical seals are not.
(b) Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by the liquid being pumped, but mechanical seals
do not require cooling.
(c) If packing fails, the pump can be kept running temporarily by tightening the gland, but if a
mechanical seal fails it must be totally renewed to stop the leakage.
(d) The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but the sealing surface of a
packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft.
393.
(2.2.16.3.1-10) Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical
seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?
o
o
(a) Bronze.
(b) Carbon.
(c) Copper and carbon.
(d) Copper.
394.
o
o
o
(2.2.16.3.1-1) Item "B" in the pump illustration is the __________. Illustration GS-0129
(a) wearing ring
(b) stuffing box
(c) shaft sleeve
(d) packing gland
395.
(2.2.16.6-2) Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of fluids
at relatively low pressures?
o
o
o
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396.
(2.2.16.6-1) Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a
propeller type pump?
o
o
397.
o
o
o
398.
(2.2.16.5.4-1) If you have a duplex, single acting, reciprocating pump making 140 strokes/minute
with a 3" diameter cylinder, and a 12" stroke with a 94% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of
this pump?
o
o
(a) 28 gpm
(b) 38 gpm
(c) 48 gpm
(d) 58 gpm
399.
(2.2.16.5.3-2) To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating
pump, you should __________.
o
o
o
400.
o
o
o
(2.2.16.5.3-4) Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?
(a) Oil mixed with kerosene.
(b) Graphite and oil.
(c) Engine oil.
(d) Vegetable oil.
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401.
(2.2.16.5.3-5) The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to
__________.
o
o
o
402.
(2.2.16.5.3-1) When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the
packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the
butted ends __________.
o
o
(a) 45 apart
(b) 90 apart
(c) 120 apart
(d) 180 apart
403.
(2.2.16.5.3-3) Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a
steam reciprocating pump?
o
o
o
404.
o
o
o
(2.2.16.4.2-1) A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.
(a) slightly opened
(b) halfway opened
(c) throttled
(d) fully opened
405.
(2.2.16.5.2-4) Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will
cause the __________.
o
o
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406.
(2.2.16.5.2-2) When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck
equipment should be __________.
o
o
o
407.
o
o
408.
(2.2.16.5.2-8) Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from
delivering its rated capacity?
o
o
(a) A leaking snifter valve allowing air to enter the suction side of the pump
(b) Excessive suction lift
(c) Air trapped in the discharge expansion chamber
(d) All of the above
409.
(2.2.16.5.2-6) A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service
pump could be caused by __________.
o
o
410.
(2.2.16.5.2-7) When piston rod packing persists in leaking on a reciprocating steam pump, the
cause may be __________.
o
o
o
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411.
(2.2.16.3.2-7) You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to
slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.
o
o
o
(a) suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to decrease
(b) discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts
(c) suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift
(d) discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure
412.
o
o
o
413.
o
o
414.
(2.2.16.3.2-1) The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as
designed is to __________.
o
o
(a) use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records
(b) close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
(c) closely observe the pump discharge temperature
(d) momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
415.
(2.2.16.3.2-4) Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be
indicated by which of the following operational problems?
o
o
(a) The motor over current protective device continually shuts the pump down.
(b) The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods.
(c) The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually slackens off to an abnormally low
flow.
(d) Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest.
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416.
o
o
o
(2.2.16.3.2-8) A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the __________.
(a) seal ring is improperly located
(b) water seal pipe is plugged
(c) impeller is flooded
(d) pump is not primed
417.
(2.2.16.3.2-9) Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal
pump is caused by __________.
o
o
o
418.
(2.2.16.3.2-3) If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed the
__________.
o
o
419.
(2.2.16.3.2-5) Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused
by __________.
o
o
o
(a) cavitation
(b) abrasion
(c) corrosion
(d) electrolysis
420.
(2.2.16.5.1-5) The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by
__________.
o
o
o
(a) changing the setting of the tappet collars on the pilot valve operating rod
(b) variations in the throttle adjustment
(c) twisting the stay rod in a clockwise direction
(d) increasing or decreasing the number of packing rings around the piston rod
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421.
(2.2.16.5.1-4) Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide
valve?
o
o
422.
(2.2.16.5.1-3) Which of the listed devices is used to control the admission of steam to the steam
cylinder of a reciprocating pump?
o
o
o
423.
(2.2.16.5.1-2) Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid
piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the
discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?
o
o
o
(a) Two sets of suction and discharge valves in the liquid cylinder.
(b) One set of valves in the water chest and another set in the liquid cylinder.
(c) Two relief valves, one on each of the liquid cylinders.
(d) Two sets of valves, one set each for suction and discharge located in the water chest.
424.
(2.2.16.7-1) The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the
__________.
o
o
(a) injector
(b) diffuser
(c) compressor
(d) siphon
425.
o
o
o
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426.
(2.2.16.7-3) Which of the following methods applies to how a vacuum is created by a jet pump or
an eductor?
o
o
427.
(2.2.18-12) According to the illustration, which of the following conditions would most likely cause
pump "A" to short cycle? Illustration GS-0173
o
o
o
(a) The hydro-pneumatic expansion tank is operating with an insufficient air charge.
(b) The hydro-pneumatic tank is operating with a low water level.
(c) A low water level exists in the potable water storage tank.
(d) Pump "A" wearing rings have excessive clearance.
428.
(2.2.18-6) The flame screens installed on sewage system tank vents prevent explosions by
__________.
o
o
429.
(2.2.18-8) If water continues to flow excessively from the device shown in the illustration, the
problem is most likely due to __________. Illustration GS-0155
o
o
o
(a) "E" being stuck or held in a position other than indicated in the illustration
(b) a hole developing in "B"
(c) a hole being formed in the outboard edge of "C"
(d) item "H" being fouled or plugged
430.
(2.2.18-10) Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of
sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?
o
o
(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) Type IV
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431.
(2.2.18-11) A constant pressure range is maintained in the potable water system of many vessels
by using __________.
o
o
432.
(2.2.18-7) If water continues to trickle into the toilet bowl after the device shown in the illustration
has apparently closed, the problem is likely due to __________. Illustration GS-0155
o
o
433.
(2.2.18-9) A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage
by __________.
o
o
o
434.
(2.2.21.1-1) Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system
may be of the open or closed type. In a closed type system, what would be the normal temperature
range of the water?
o
o
435.
(2.2.21.1-2) Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system
may be of the open or closed type. Referring to the illustrated central-station hookup for a hot water
heating system drawing, what would be the normal temperature range of the water? Illustration GS0151
o
o
o
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436.
(2.2.21.1-3) Referring to the illustrated diagram for a central-station hookup for a hot water
heating system, what statement represents the configuration of the system? Illustration GS-0151
o
o
o
(a) The system is a single zone system, with multiple circulating pumps and multiple heating coils.
(b) The system is a multi-zone system, with multiple circulating pumps and multiple heating coils.
(c) The system is a single zone system, with one circulating pump and one heating coil.
(d) The system is a multi-zone system, with one circulating pump and one heating coil.
437.
o
o
(2.2.21.1-4) What type of pump is invariably used as a circulator in a hydronic heating system?
(a) Diaphragm pump
(b) Reciprocating pump
(c) Centrifugal pump
(d) Rotary pump
438.
(2.2.21.1-5) Referring to the illustrated drawing of the central-station hookup for a hot water
heating system, what statement is true concerning the air separator on the heated water outlet of the
converter? Illustration GS-0151
o
o
(a) The air separator removes the entrained air introduced within the converter and ultimately
released by the expansion tank vent.
(b) The air separator removes the entrained air introduced by the heating steam and ultimately
released by the condensate returns gravity draining to the atmospheric drains tank.
(c) The air separator removes the entrained air introduced with the makeup water at the
expansion tank and ultimately released by the heating process within the converter.
(d) The air separator removes the entrained air introduced by the heated air via the zone return
lines and ultimately released by the heating process within the converter.
439.
o
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440.
o
o
o
441.
(2.2.21.1-8) It is absolutely essential that hydronic heating system hot water piping be kept free of
air. Assuming that a system is initially properly filled with water, what is the primary source of air
contamination?
o
o
442.
(2.2.21.1-9) What advantage does a 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system have over a 2-pipe
hydronic heating/cooling system?
o
o
(a) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system can serve twice as many zones as a 2-pipe hydronic
heating/cooling system.
(b) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires double the amount of piping as compared
to a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system serving the same number of zones.
(c) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system allows simultaneous heating and cooling of different
zones, whereas a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system does not.
(d) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires one-half the amount of piping as compared
to a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system serving the same number of zones.
443.
o
o
o
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444.
(2.2.21.2-1) Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices for
shipboard steam heating systems?
o
o
o
(a) Provide a dirt pocket and strainer ahead of the steam trap on a unit heater return.
(b) Provide all units with a dirt trap and gate valve in the supply and a check valve on the return.
(c) Wherever possible install vertical runs for condensate piping.
(d) Provide orifice-type bypasses for all traps and automatic valves.
445.
o
o
o
(2.2.21.2-3) What type of fan is most commonly used in ducted air conditioning systems?
(a) Propeller fan
(b) Centrifugal fan
(c) Vane-axial fan
(d) Tube-axial fan
446.
o
o
o
(2.2.21.2-4) What type of centrifugal fan is characterized by the highest operating efficiency?
(a) Forward-curved blade fans
(b) Backward-curved blade fans
(c) Flat blade fans
(d) Radial blade fans
447.
(2.2.21.2-5) What pressure drop across an air conditioning filter is indicative of a need to replace
or clean the filter as appropriate?
o
o
448.
(2.2.21.2-6) Concerning air conditioning system steam heating coils, what statement is true?
o
o
o
(a) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and, if possible, vertically installed.
(b) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and, if possible, horizontally installed.
(c) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and, if possible, horizontally installed.
(d) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and, if possible, vertically installed.
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449.
o
o
(2.2.21.2-7) Concerning air conditioning system hot water heating coils, what statement is true?
(a) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and vertically installed.
(b) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and horizontally installed.
(c) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and horizontally installed.
(d) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and vertically installed.
450.
(2.2.21.2-8) What type of heating coil is generally preferred in heating spaces with electronic
equipment?
o
o
451.
(2.2.21.2-9) What statement is true concerning steam-heated, hot water heated, or electricheated convectors?
o
o
(a) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening at the top and discharge relatively
warm air through an outlet grille at the bottom and are located on bulkheads near the deck.
(b) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening at the top and discharge relatively
warm air through an outlet grille at the bottom and are located on bulkheads near the overhead.
(c) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening at the bottom and discharge
relatively warm air through an outlet grille at the top and are located on bulkheads near the deck.
(d) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening at the bottom and discharge
relatively warm air through an outlet grille at the top and are located on bulkheads near the
overhead.
452.
(2.2.21.2-10) Concerning air conditioning system dry expansion cooling coils, what statement is
true?
o
o
o
(a) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the finned-coil type and horizontally installed.
(b) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the finned-coil type and vertically installed.
(c) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the bare-coil type and horizontally installed.
(d) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the bare-coil type and vertically installed.
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453.
o
o
o
454.
o
o
(a) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo-hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid
desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber.
(b) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo-hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid
desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
(c) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo-hold is condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
(d) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo-hold is condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber.
455.
o
o
o
(a) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by
means of a heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.
(b) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed into the desiccant by
means of a cooling coil located in the regeneration chamber.
(c) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed into the desiccant by
means of a heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.
(d) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by
means of a cooling coil located in the regeneration chamber.
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456.
(2.2.21.3-4) With regard to the cooling and heating coils and humidification and regeneration
chambers of a liquid cargo-hold dehumidification system, which statement is true?
(a) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil and
is known as the regeneration chamber.
(b) The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil
and is known as the regeneration chamber.
(c) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and
is known as the regeneration chamber.
(d) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as
the regeneration chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil
and is known as the humidification chamber.
457.
(2.2.21.3-5) To prevent damage to dry cargoes, the cargo-hold ventilation and dehumidification
systems play a key role. In terms of the maintained dew point, what statement is true?
o
o
(a) The dew point temperature of the cargo-hold is normally maintained 10 F above the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
(b) The dew point temperature of the cargo-hold is normally maintained at a constant temperature
regardless of the surface temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
o
(c) The dew point temperature of the cargo-hold is normally maintained 10 F below the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
(d) The dew point temperature of the cargo-hold is normally maintained at the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
458.
(2.2.21.3-6) To determine the average cargo-hold dew point temperature, at what location would
the dew point be measured?
o
o
(a) The dew point is taken near the bottom of the cargo-hold.
(b) The dew point is taken at the ventilation exhaust trunk.
(c) The dew point is taken at the ventilation supply trunk.
(d) The dew point is taken near a central location of the cargo-hold.
459.
(2.2.21.3-7) What common feature is found on both liquid-desiccant and solid-desiccant cargohold dehumidification systems?
o
o
(a) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to absorb moisture into the
desiccant.
(b) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to absorb moisture into the desiccant.
(c) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to drive the moisture out of the desiccant.
(d) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to drive the moisture out of the
desiccant.
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460.
o
o
o
(2.2.21.4-1) What type of HVAC system is ideally designed to serve a large public space?
(a) A single zone system
(b) A terminal reheat system
(c) A dual duct system
(d) A variable air volume system
461.
(2.2.21.4-2) What type of HVAC system is characterized by poor air distribution and ventilation
and low system heat loads?
o
o
o
462.
(2.2.21.4-3) Referring to illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? Illustration GSRA-09
o
o
o
463.
(2.2.21.4-4) Referring to the illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? Illustration
GS-RA-42
o
o
464.
(2.2.21.4-5) Referring to the illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? Illustration
GS-RA-43
o
o
o
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465.
(2.2.21.4-6) What type of HVAC system is characterized by having a split supply air stream, with
one for cold air and the other for hot air?
o
o
o
466.
(2.2.21.4-7) What type of HVAC system is characterized by having control dampers in locations
other than the outside air supply, outside air exhaust, and recirculation damper applications?
o
o
o
467.
(2.2.21.5-1) In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what prevents the simultaneous flow of
steam through the preheat coil and flow of chilled water through the cooling coil? Illustration GS-RA09
o
o
o
(a) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set several degrees lower than the
design off-coil temperature associated with the cooling coil.
(b) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set equal to the design off-coil
temperature associated with the cooling coil.
(c) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set several degrees higher than
the design off-coil temperature associated with the cooling coil.
(d) Simultaneous steam flow through the preheater and chilled water flow through the cooling coil
is permitted for the purposes of space humidity control.
468.
(2.2.21.5-2) In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the
functioning of the diverting relay as it controls the cooling coil flow and the exhaust, outside air and
recirculation dampers? Illustration GS-RA-09
(a) The diverting relay processes the humidistat control signal as long as the space humidity is
below the humidistat set point. The diverting relay processes the room thermostat control signal if
the space humidity exceeds the humidistat set point.
(b) The diverting relay processes the room thermostat control signal as long as the space
humidity is below the humidistat set point. The diverting relay processes the room humidistat
control signal if the space humidity exceeds the humidistat set point.
(c) The diverting relay processes the room thermostat control signal as long as the
space temperature is below the thermostat set point. The diverting relay processes the room
humidistat control signal if the space temperature exceeds the thermostat set point.
(d) The diverting relay processes the humidistat control signal as long as the space temperature
is below the thermostat set point. The diverting relay processes the room thermostat control
signal if the space temperature exceeds the thermostat set point.
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469.
(2.2.21.5-3) In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the
relationship between the exhaust, outside air and recirculation dampers? Illustration GS-RA-09
o
o
o
(a) The more the exhaust and outside air dampers are open, the more the recirculation damper is
closed, and vice versa.
(b) The more the exhaust and recirculation dampers are open, the more the outside air damper is
closed, and vice versa.
(c) The exhaust, outside air, and recirculation dampers are all open or closed to the same degree
for all operating conditions.
(d) The more the outside air and recirculation dampers are open, the more the exhaust damper is
closed, and vice versa.
470.
(2.2.21.5-4) In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the
functioning of the winter outside air duct thermostat? Illustration GS-RA-42
(a) During the heating season, the winter thermostat senses the outside air temperature and
closes the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly
lower than typical indoor air temperatures.
(b) During the heating season, the winter thermostat senses the inside air temperature and opens
the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly lower than
typical indoor air temperatures.
(c) During the heating season, the winter thermostat senses the outside air temperature and
opens the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly lower
than typical indoor air temperatures.
(d) During the heating season, the winter thermostat senses the inside air temperature and closes
the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly lower than
typical indoor air temperatures.
471.
(2.2.21.5-5) In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the
functioning of the summer outside air duct thermostat? Illustration GS-RA-42
(a) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and
closes the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly
higher than typical indoor air temperatures.
(b) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and
opens the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly
higher than typical indoor air temperatures.
(c) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and
closes the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher
than typical indoor air temperatures.
(d) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and
opens the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher
than typical indoor air temperatures.
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472.
(2.2.21.5-6) In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the
functioning of the supply air duct thermostats controlling the preheater steam flow and the cooling
coil chilled water flow? Illustration GS-RA-42
o
o
o
(a) The thermostat controlling the preheater steam flow is set several degrees lower than
the design cooling coil off-coil temperature to prevent simultaneous flows.
(b) The thermostat controlling the preheater steam flow is set several degrees higher than
the design cooling coil off-coil temperature to prevent simultaneous flows.
(c) The thermostat controlling the preheater steam flow is set at the design cooling coil off-coil
temperature to allow simultaneous flows.
(d) The thermostat controlling the preheater steam flow is set at the design cooling coil off-coil
temperature to prevent simultaneous flows.
473.
(2.2.21.5-7) Referring to the illustrated single zone HVAC system diagram, what statement is true
concerning the damper controls? Illustration GS-RA-09
o
o
o
(a) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally open and the recirculation damper is
normally closed and all three dampers are controlled by a single pilot air signal.
(b) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally closed and the recirculation damper is
normally open and each damper is controlled by its own pilot air signal.
(c) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally closed and the recirculation damper is
normally open and all three dampers are controlled by a single pilot air signal.
(d) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally open and the recirculation damper is
normally closed and each damper is controlled by its own pilot air signal.
474.
(2.2.21.5-8) Referring to the illustrated dual duct multiple zone HVAC system, how is the space
temperature directly controlled? Illustration GS-RA-43
o
o
o
(a) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically proportioning the cold and hot air
streams at the mixing unit.
(b) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the chilled water flow
through the cooling coil.
(c) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the steam flow through the
reheat coil.
(d) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the steam flow through the
preheat coil.
475.
(2.2.21.6-1) What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured by
an ordinary thermometer?
o
o
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476.
(2.2.21.6-2) What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured
with a sling psychrometer?
o
o
o
477.
(2.2.21.6-3) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, if the dry bulb temperature is 70 F
and the relative humidity is 50%, what is the absolute humidity? Illustration GS-RA-22
o
o
478.
(2.2.21.6-4) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, if the measured dry bulb temperature
o
o
is 80 F and the measured wet bulb temperature is 70 F, what is the determined relative humidity?
Illustration GS-RA-22
o
o
(a) 45%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 95%
479.
(2.2.21.6-5) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose air at a dry bulb temperature
o
of 60 F and a relative humidity of 52% passes over a heating coil, resulting in sensible heat gain,
o
and the off-coil temperature is now 80 F. What is off-coil relative humidity? Illustration GS-RA-22
o
o
(a) 19%
(b) 27%
(c) 55%
(d) 70%
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480.
(2.2.21.6-6) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the heating season
that air passes over a heating coil, and this results in sensible heat gain with no change in moisture
content. What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process line? Illustration GSRA-22
o
o
o
(a) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the right of the coil inlet.
(b) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet above the coil inlet.
(c) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the left of the coil outlet.
(d) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet below the coil inlet.
481.
(2.2.21.6-7) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the cooling season
that air passes over a cooling coil with a mean surface temperature above the dew point
temperature, and this results in sensible heat loss with no change in moisture content. What
statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process line? Illustration GS-RA-22
o
o
(a) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet below the coil inlet.
(b) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the left of the coil inlet.
(c) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet above the coil inlet.
(d) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the right of the coil inlet.
482.
(2.2.21.6-8) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the cooling season
that air passes over a cooling coil with a mean surface temperature below the dew point
temperature, and this results in sensible heat loss and dehumidification. What statement represents
the direction of the air conditioning process line? Illustration GS-RA-22
o
o
o
(a) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the left and below the coil
inlet.
(b) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the right and below the coil
inlet.
(c) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the left and above the coil
inlet.
(d) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the right and above the coil
inlet.
483.
(2.2.21.6-9) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, under what conditions are the dry
bulb, wet bulb, and dew point temperatures for air all equal in value? Illustration GS-RA-22
o
o
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484.
(2.2.21.6-10) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the heating season
where steam is injected into the air stream, this results in sensible heat gain and humidification.
What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process line? Illustration GS-RA-22
o
o
o
(a) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the right and below the coil
inlet.
(b) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the left and above the coil
inlet.
(c) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the left and below the coil
inlet.
(d) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the right and above the coil
inlet.
485.
(2.2.23-3) Probably the most useful troubleshooting tools used in a predictive maintenance
management program for shipboard machinery are vibration meters, analyzers, and monitors. What
is the term that represents the rate of change of the velocity as a result of a part vibrating during its
periodic or oscillatory motion?
o
o
486.
(2.2.23-8) In examining a baseline vibration signature and the historical record of periodic
vibration analyses, what must be considered for the evaluation of rotating machinery?
o
o
(a) Minimum vibration limits and the change in vibration levels over time.
(b) Maximum vibration limits and the change in vibration levels over time.
(c) Change in vibration levels over time, with no regard to maximum vibration limits.
(d) Maximum vibration limits only, with no regard for the change in vibration levels over time.
487.
o
(2.2.23-7) When performing a vibration analysis for rotating machinery, what is essential?
(a) A baseline vibration signature should be established as a reference, but no historical record of
periodic analyses need be maintained. Vibration amplitudes at various frequencies are compared.
(b) A baseline vibration signature should be established as a reference, and a historical record of
periodic analyses should be maintained. Vibration amplitudes at various frequencies are
compared.
(c) A historical record of periodic analyses should be maintained, but no baseline vibration
signature need be established as a reference. Vibration amplitudes at various frequencies are
compared.
(d) A baseline vibration signature should be established as a reference, and a historical record of
periodic analyses should be maintained. Vibration amplitudes are compared with no need to
examine frequencies.
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488.
(2.2.23-6) What is the most useful measurement that represents the severity of vibration
associated with periodic or oscillatory motion?
o
o
o
489.
o
o
o
490.
(2.2.23-4) Probably the most useful troubleshooting tools used in a predictive maintenance
management program for shipboard machinery are vibration meters, analyzers, and monitors. What
is the term that represents the number of vibration cycles per unit time as a result of a part vibrating
during its periodic or oscillatory motion?
o
o
491.
(2.2.25.2-15) The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is
__________. Illustration GS-0081
o
o
o
492.
(2.2.25.2-1) If a micrometer were opened to a distance of 0.0001 inch, you would say the reading
is __________.
o
o
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493.
(2.2.25.2-12) The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when
__________.
o
o
o
494.
o
o
o
(2.2.25.2-3) One turn of the micrometer barrel will linearly move the spindle __________.
(a) 0.025 inch
(b) 0.110 inch
(c) 0.205 inch
(d) 0.250 inch
495.
(2.2.25.2-10) To determine the diameter of a small hole, which of the listed tools must be used
with inside calipers to get an accurate reading?
o
o
496.
(2.2.25.2-6) The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an inside caliper is to use a/an
__________.
o
o
o
497.
(2.2.25.2-16) What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "G" in
the illustration? Illustration GS-0083
o
o
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498.
o
o
o
499.
(2.2.25.2-4) A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal to
__________.
o
o
o
500.
(2.2.25.3-7) If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions
would probably be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?
o
o
o
501.
o
o
(2.2.25.3-1) If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should __________.
(a) start tapping with a plug tap
(b) chamfer the edges of the holes
(c) tap the holes without cutting oil
(d) flood the tap with mineral oil
502.
(2.2.25.3-2) When internal threading for piping where the work permits the tap to be run entirely
through you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a __________.
o
o
o
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503.
(2.2.25.3-6) With respect to machine shop "taps and dies"; a plug tap is correctly used for
__________.
o
o
o
504.
(2.2.25.1-10) Which of the devices shown in the illustration should be used with a bridge gage?
Illustration GS-0073
o
o
o
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
505.
o
o
506.
(2.2.25.1-13) The ruler indicated in the illustration is commonly referred to as a/an _________.
Illustration GS-0023
o
o
507.
(2.2.25.1-1) Which of the devices shown in the illustration is designed for both inside and outside
measurements? Illustration GS-0073
o
o
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
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508.
o
o
(2.2.25.1-5) To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a __________.
(a) folding rule
(b) hook rule
(c) flexible steel rule
(d) machinist's steel rule
509.
(2.2.25.1-9) To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you should
measure __________.
o
o
o
510.
(2.2.25.4-9) Which of the figures in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with figure
"B" of the device shown in illustration GS-0124? Illustrations GS-0080 and GS-0124
o
o
o
(a) figure F
(b) figure B
(c) figure C
(d) figure G
511.
(2.2.25.4-4) Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screw?
Illustration GS-0080
o
o
o
(a) figure G
(b) figure L
(c) figure C
(d) figure D
512.
(2.2.25.4-6) With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, 'pitch' is the
__________.
o
o
o
(a) number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of the screw
(b) angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and the crests of the thread
(c) angle formed by adjacent flanks of a thread
(d) distance between corresponding points on adjacent threads
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513.
o
o
o
(2.2.25.4-11) The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is __________.
(a) made of non-corrosive metal
(b) made of nickel-cadmium metal
(c) not clad with any coating
(d) threaded with national coarse threads
514.
(2.2.25.4-16) Which of the figures in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with figure
"C" in illustration GS-0015? Illustrations GS-0015 and GS-0080
o
o
(a) figure A
(b) figure F
(c) figure K
(d) figure D
515.
(2.2.25.4-17) What class of screw thread is indicated with a machine screw described as 1/2-13
NC-2?
o
o
o
(a) 1/2
(b) 13
(c) NC
(d) 2
516.
(2.2.25.4-12) Which of the following types of nuts would be best suited to use when it is important
that a nut not work itself loose due to vibration?
o
o
517.
(2.2.25.4-14) Which figure shown in the illustration, is the nut lock improperly used? Illustration
GS-0156
o
o
o
(a) "A"
(b) "B"
(c) "C" and "D"
(d) "C" and "E"
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518.
(2.2.25.4-7) The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications.
Which figure indicates the improper method for using these devices? Illustration GS-0156
o
o
(a) "A"
(b) "B"
(c) "C"
(d) "D"
519.
(2.2.25.4-3) Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST desirable for use as a set screw?
Illustration GS-0080
o
o
o
(a) figure A
(b) figure F
(c) figure G
(d) figure L
520.
(2.2.25.4-2) Which of the following is true when comparing the different "class of fit" for machine
threads on bolts and nuts?
o
o
o
521.
o
o
(a) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(b) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(c) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(d) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
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522.
o
o
(a) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(b) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(c) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(d) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
523.
(2.2.28.1-3) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint leveroperated pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
windlass clutch control levers?
o
o
o
(a) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the wildcats only. They have no
control over the warping heads.
(b) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the warping heads only. They
have no control over the wildcats.
(c) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage both the warping heads and the
wildcats.
(d) The clutch control levers are used to either engage or disengage the warping heads or the
wildcats, depending upon the windlass design.
524.
(2.2.28.1-4) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint leveroperated pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
pedestal-mounted controller?
o
o
(a) The pedestal-mounted controller allows the wildcats to rotate in either direction of rotation, but
the warping heads in only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.
(b) The pedestal-mounted controller allows both the warping heads and the wildcats to rotate in
either direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.
(c) The pedestal-mounted controller allows both the warping heads and the wildcats to rotate in
only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.
(d) The pedestal-mounted controller allows the warping heads to rotate in either direction of
rotation, but the wildcats in only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to
maximum.
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525.
(2.2.28.1-5) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint leveroperated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
manual brake hand wheels?
o
o
(a) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with both the wildcats
and the warping heads.
(b) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the warping
heads only.
(c) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the wildcats only.
(d) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with either the
wildcats or the warping heads, depending upon the windlass design.
526.
(2.2.28.1-6) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint leveroperated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
warping heads and wildcats?
(a) The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the wildcats by
disengaging the wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor,
the wildcats will rotate.
(b) The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping heads by
disengaging the warping head clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive
motor, the wildcats will rotate.
(c) The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the wildcats by
disengaging the wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor,
the warping heads will rotate.
(d) The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping heads by
disengaging the warping head clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive
motor, the warping heads will rotate.
527.
(2.2.28.1-7) In attempting to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic
anchor windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting?
o
o
o
(a) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump
stroke control being in other than the neutral position.
(b) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the wildcat clutches
being disengaged.
(c) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with hand wheel
operated wildcat band brakes being set.
(d) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump
stroke control being in the neutral position.
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528.
(a) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by disengaging the
wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with
the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged.
(b) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by
disengaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the
anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged.
(c) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by engaging
the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain
payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.
(d) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by engaging the
wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with
the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.
529.
o
o
(2.2.28.2-1) As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a capstan, what statement is true?
(a) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(b) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(c) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(d) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
530.
(2.2.28.2-2) Which capstan drive arrangement requires a flexible coupling between the reduction
gear output shaft and the capstan head input shaft?
o
o
(a) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer, and capstan head
are all located on the weather deck.
(b) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are hung from the
underside of the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck.
(c) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are mounted on the
deck below the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck.
(d) A flexible coupling is required on all three drive arrangements listed above.
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531.
o
o
532.
o
o
o
533.
(2.2.28.2-5) As it pertains to the automatic hoist winch brake of an electro-hydraulic cargohandling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?
o
o
(a) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(b) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the
hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(c) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the
hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(d) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when
the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
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534.
(2.2.28.2-6) As it pertains to the luffing motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargohandling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?
o
o
(a) When the hoist block is raised to a maximum permissible height with respect to the boom, the
luffing pump shall be placed on stroke and the luffing winch brake released.
(b) When the hoist block is raised to a maximum permissible height with respect to the boom, the
luffing pump shall be stroked to zero and the luffing winch brake set.
(c) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum
permissible height, the luffing pump shall be stroked to zero and the luffing winch brake set.
(d) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum
permissible height, the luffing pump shall be placed on stroke and the luffing winch brake
released.
535.
(2.2.28.2-7) As it pertains to the hoist motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargohandling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?
o
o
(a) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum
permissible height, the hoist pump shall be placed on stroke and the hoist winch brake released.
(b) When the hoist cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum condition or when the hoist block is
raised to a maximum permissible height relative to the boom, the hoist pump shall be placed on
stroke and the hoist winch brake released.
(c) When the hoist cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum condition or when the hoist block is
raised to a maximum permissible height relative to the boom, the hoist pump shall be stroked to
zero and the hoist winch brake set.
(d) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum
permissible height, the hoist pump shall be stroked to zero and the hoist winch brake set.
536.
(2.2.28.2-8) For an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what event would
result in an immediate stop to all crane motions, including slewing, hoisting, and luffing?
o
o
(a) All motions are stopped by the action of the boom maximum outreach and minimum
outreach limit switches.
(b) All motions are stopped by the action of the slewing platform limit switches.
(c) All motions are stopped by the loss of electric power to the crane.
(d) All motions are stopped by the action of the safe working load cutout switch or the slack wire
limit switch.
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537.
(2.2.28.2-9) What statement is true concerning the door interlock devices associated with a
winding drum or traction drive passenger elevator onboard ship?
o
o
o
(a) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still open and only allow
elevator operation if the doors are proved closed.
(b) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still closed and only
allow elevator operation if the doors are proved open.
(c) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when
elevators are not to be used.
(d) Door interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency
when elevators are required to be used.
538.
(2.2.28.2-10) What statement is true concerning the platform interlock devices associated with a
winding drum or traction drive cargo elevator onboard ship?
o
o
(a) Platform interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency
when elevators are required to be used.
(b) Platform interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when
elevators are not to be used.
(c) Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the platform is at other than a deck
level and only allow door operation when the platform is proved at a deck level.
(d) Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the platform is proved at a deck level
and only allow door operation when the platform is at a position other than a deck level.
539.
(2.2.27.3-9) Which of the following level indicating system sensor types is ideally suited for
discrete-level detection as opposed to continuous-level detection?
o
o
540.
(2.2.27.3-5) What type of liquid level indicator which senses head or pressure requires a supply of
compressed air?
o
o
o
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541.
(2.2.27.1-6) Which of the listed temperature sensors is made of heat-treated metallic oxides and
generally has a negative coefficient of resistance?
o
o
o
542.
(2.2.27.1-5) Which of the listed temperature sensors consists of finely coiled wire, such as
platinum, where the resistance varies directly with temperature?
o
o
(a) Thermistor
(b) Bimetallic device
(c) Resistance temperature detector
(d) Thermocouple
543.
o
o
o
544.
o
o
(a) -10 F
o
(b) 0 F
o
(c) +10 F
o
(d) +25 F
545.
o
o
o
(2.2.27.1-7) What is the application for a temperature measuring device known as a pyrometer?
(a) Moderate to high temperature applications such as engine cooling and lubrication.
(b) Extremely low temperature applications such as cryogenics.
(c) Low to moderate temperature applications such as refrigeration and air conditioning.
(d) Extremely high temperature applications such as boiler or engine exhaust temperatures.
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546.
(2.2.27.1-2) In what electrical temperature transmitting system is the system voltage generated by
the magnitude of temperature difference between hot and cold junctions?
o
o
547.
(2.2.27.1-11) Suppose that a standard remote reading bourdon tube thermometer has a scale of
o
40 to 240 F. If the accuracy of the thermometer is plus or minus 1% of the span, what would the
o
range of measured temperature be if the thermometer indicates 180 F?
o
o
548.
(2.2.27.1-4) If it is desired to determine the temperature difference between two locations using
thermocouples, what wiring technique can be used to accomplish this?
o
o
o
(a) The two thermocouples would be wired in series-opposing to measure the difference between
the two temperatures.
(b) The two thermocouples would be wired in parallel to measure the differences between the two
temperatures.
(c) The two thermocouples would be wired in series-aiding to measure the difference between the
two temperatures.
(d) It is not possible to measure a temperature difference using two thermocouples.
549.
(2.2.27.1-3) If it is desired to determine the average temperature across a large duct, what
thermocouple wiring technique can be used to generate an emf proportional to the average
temperature?
o
o
(a) Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired series-aiding, where the sum of the
individual voltages is divided by the number of thermocouples.
(b) Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired in parallel, where the sum of the
individual voltages is divided by the number of thermocouples.
(c) Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired series-opposing, where the sum of the
individual voltages is divided by the number of thermocouples.
(d) Only one thermocouple can be used, and the hot junction must be strategically located to get
an effective average temperature.
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550.
o
o
o
551.
(2.2.27.5-1) Which of the following speed tachometers produces an analog signal proportional to
the shaft speed?
o
o
552.
(2.2.27.5-3) What statement is true concerning the arrangement and operation of the viscosity
sensor as used for sensing the viscosity of heavy fuel oil?
o
o
(a) The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed variable capacity pump and a capillary
tube which produces a pressure drop at variable flow which is inversely proportional to the oil
viscosity.
(b) The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed variable capacity pump and a capillary
tube which produces a pressure drop at variable flow which is proportional to the oil viscosity.
(c) The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed fixed capacity pump and a capillary tube
which produces a pressure drop at constant flow which is inversely proportional to the oil
viscosity.
(d) The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed fixed capacity pump and a capillary tube
which produces a pressure drop at constant flow which is proportional to the oil viscosity.
553.
(2.2.27.2-15) What is used to protect a direct sensing steam pressure gauge from damage from
contact with steam?
o
o
o
(a) The installation of a damping needle valve in the entrance to the gauge.
(b) The installation of a siphon tube (pig-tail) oriented horizontally in the entrance to the gauge.
(c) The installation of thermal insulation on the gauge.
(d) The installation of a siphon tube (pig-tail) oriented vertically in the entrance to the gauge.
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554.
(2.2.27.2-1) Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately
used for measuring pressures very close to atmospheric pressure such as boiler furnace draft
pressure?
o
o
o
555.
(2.2.27.2-12) Suppose that a standard bourdon tube pressure gauge has a scale of 0 to 1000
psig. If the accuracy of the gauge is plus or minus .5% of the span, what would the range of
measured pressure be if the gauge indicates 690 psig?
o
o
556.
o
o
557.
(2.2.27.2-7) In which of the following applications would a mechanical pressure seal be used with
a pressure measuring instrument?
o
o
o
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558.
(2.2.27.2-11) Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately
used for measuring most pressures, typically above 10 psig and is by far the most common type?
o
o
559.
o
o
(a) 8 psig
(b) 12 psig
(c) 15 psig
(d) 24 psig
560.
o
o
561.
(2.2.27.4-5) Which of the following flow meter primary devices works on the constriction type,
differential head principle?
o
o
(a) Turbine
(b) Vortex
(c) Venturi tube
(d) Magnetic
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562.
o
o
563.
(2.2.27.4-1) What type of flow measuring device would measure totalized flow volume as
opposed to an instantaneous flow rate?
o
o
564.
(2.2.27.6-2) For an analog electronic transmission system for instrumentation and control
purposes, what is a common industry standard for electronic signal current range?
o
o
(a) 0 to 10 mA
(b) 1 to 10 A
(c) 4 to 20mA
(d) 4 to 20 A
565.
(2.2.27.6-1) For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation and control purposes, what
is a common industry standard for pneumatic signal pressure range?
o
o
(a) 0 to 10 psig
(b) 0 to 100 psig
(c) 3 to 15 psig
(d) 3 to 150 psig
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566.
o
o
o
567.
(2.2.27.7-3) A reading taken with a portable hand-held vibration meter is capable of indicating
which of the following conditions?
o
o
568.
(2.2.27.7-2) Which of the following statements is NOT a function of an effective vibration analysis
program?
o
o
569.
(2.2.31-11) Under which of the listed conditions can the engine room retake the throttle control
from the bridge of an automated vessel?
o
o
o
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570.
(2.2.31-8) Preferably when should the bridge be informed when engine room situations may
affect the speed, maneuverability, power supply, or other essentials for the safe operation of the
ship?
o
o
(a) The bridge should be informed after any changes are made, as soon as practical.
(b) The bridge need not be informed of any changes being made, as it will soon be obvious.
(c) The bridge should be informed before any changes are made, if at all possible.
(d) The bridge should be informed simultaneously as any changes are made, if at all possible.
571.
(2.2.31-2) On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, the duty engineer is responsible
for making machinery space rounds when the engine room is unattended. How often should these
machinery space rounds be performed by the duty engineer?
o
o
572.
(2.2.31-6) On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, under what conditions must the
propulsion console be continuously manned?
o
o
o
573.
o
o
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574.
(2.2.30.1-1) On deep-draft ships, what statement is true concerning high and low sea suctions for
machinery space sea water cooling systems?
(a) A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is
used primarily while underway.
(b) A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is
used primarily while underway.
(c) A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway,
and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water.
(d) A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway,
and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water.
575.
(2.2.30.1-3) What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a high sea
suction to a low sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?
o
o
o
576.
(2.2.30.1-4) What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a low sea
suction to a high sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?
o
o
o
(a) Reducing the total number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
(b) Increasing the number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
(c) Underway operations or encountering rough seas.
(d) Entering port or shallow water.
577.
(2.2.30.1-5) What provision is made for sea chests for removal of solid debris restricting the entry
grating into the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system?
o
o
(a) The debris is continuously removed by blowing the sea chest clear with either compressed air
or steam by cracking open the blow valve, as appropriate.
(b) The debris may be removed by blowing the sea chest clear with either compressed air or
steam, as appropriate.
(c) The debris may be removed by draining the sea chest clear by opening a drain valve located
at the bottom of the sea chest.
(d) The debris is continuously removed by draining the sea chest clear by cracking open a drain
valve located at the bottom of the sea chest.
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578.
(2.2.30.1-2) What provision is made for sea chests for removal of air ingested into the sea chest
of a machinery space sea water cooling system?
o
o
(a) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating
from the top of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges.
(b) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating
from the top of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load line.
(c) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating
from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges.
(d) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating
from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load line.
579.
(2.2.30.1-6) What provision is made for sea chests for removal of ice from within the sea chest of
a machinery space sea water cooling system during operation in icy waters?
o
o
(a) The ice may be removed by using the chemical de-icing antifreeze connection, if provided.
(b) The ice may be removed by using the fire main flushing connection, if provided.
(c) The ice may be removed by using the steaming out sea chest blow connection, if provided.
(d) The ice may be removed by using the compressed air sea chest blow connection, if provided.
580.
(2.2.30.1-7) Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, which
pump can be used to pump out the main machinery space bilge in a flooding emergency? Illustration
SP-SW-01
o
o
o
(a) The two-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(b) The auxiliary sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(c) The single-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(d) Any of the sea water service pumps can be used for this purpose.
581.
(2.2.30.1-8) Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, which
pump is considered a high-head pump operating with the highest discharge pressure? Illustration
SP-SW-01
o
o
o
(a) The two-speed main sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump.
(b) The auxiliary sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump.
(c) The single-speed main sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump.
(d) Any of the sea water service pumps are considered high-head pumps.
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582.
(2.2.30.1-9) Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning sea water service system to auxiliary circulating sea water system
cross-connect capability? Illustration SP-SW-01
(a) In the event of auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple sea water service pumps may be
used to supply both the sea water service system and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat
exchangers.
(b) In the event of auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple sea water service pumps may be
used to supply the sea water service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary circulating sea
water system heat exchangers.
(c) In the event of multiple sea water service system pump failures, the auxiliary circulating pump
may be used to supply both the sea water service system and auxiliary circulating sea water
system heat exchangers.
(d) In the event of multiple sea water service system pump failures, multiple main circulating
pumps may be used to supply the sea water service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary
circulating sea water system heat exchangers.
583.
(2.2.30.1-10) Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning main circulating to auxiliary circulating sea water system cross-connect
capability? Illustration SP-SW-01
(a) It is possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main circulating pump(s),
and it is possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the auxiliary circulating
pump.
(b) In the event of multiple sea water service system pump failures, multiple main circulating
pumps may be used to supply the sea water service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary
circulating sea water system heat exchangers.
(c) While it may be possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the auxiliary
circulating pump, it is not possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main
circulating pump(s).
(d) While it may be possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main
circulating pump(s), it is not possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the
auxiliary circulating pump.
584.
(2.2.30.1-11) Classification society requirements stipulate that main sea water cooling pumps be
furnished with redundancy with either two dedicated pumps or with one dedicated pump and
one standby pump available for other sea water services. Referring to the illustrated motor ship sea
water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning meeting these classification society
requirements? Illustration MP-CW-01
o
o
(a) The standby main sea water cooling pump may also function as a fire pump.
(b) The standby main sea water cooling pump may also function as a clean bilge pump.
(c) The standby main sea water cooling pump may also function as a ballast pump.
(d) Both main sea water cooling pumps are dedicated to main engine cooling only.
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585.
(2.2.30.2-1) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the main engine jacket water cooling temperature control system?
Illustration MP-CW-06
o
o
o
(a) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a mixer and is used
to control the main engine jacket water inlet header temperature.
(b) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a diverter and is
used to control the main engine jacket water inlet header temperature.
(c) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a mixer and is used
to control the main engine jacket water outlet header temperature.
(d) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a diverter and is
used to control the main engine jacket water outlet header temperature.
586.
(2.2.30.2-2) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the main engine jacket water cooling system heat recovery capability
as associated with generating fresh water? Illustration MP-CW-06
o
o
o
(a) The main engine jacket water heater is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in
generating fresh water at the evaporator.
(b) The main engine jacket water cooler is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in
generating fresh water at the evaporator.
(c) The evaporator standby heater is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in
generating fresh water at the evaporator.
(d) The evaporator itself is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in generating
fresh water at the evaporator.
587.
(2.2.30.2-3) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the jacket water heater? Illustration MP-CW-06
o
o
o
(a) The jacket water heater is used only when the engine is idle to keep the engine warm.
(b) The jacket water heater is used under low engine load conditions to provide supplemental
heat for the evaporator.
(c) The jacket water heater is used only when the engine is idle for the sole purpose of generating
fresh water at the evaporator.
(d) The jacket water heater is used under high engine load conditions to dissipate excess engine
heat.
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588.
(2.2.30.2-4) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the standby heating coil? Illustration MP-CW-06
o
o
(a) The standby heating coil is used under high engine load conditions to supplement the jacket
water cooler.
(b) The standby heating coil is used only when the engine is idle to keep the engine warm.
(c) The standby heating coil is used under low engine load conditions to provide supplemental
heat for the evaporator.
(d) The standby heating coil is used under high engine load conditions to dissipate excess engine
heat.
589.
(2.2.30.2-5) For a typical diesel engine jacket water cooling system, what location would be
generally used to introduce water treatment chemicals?
o
o
o
590.
(2.2.30.2-6) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the evaporator? Illustration MP-CW-06
o
o
(a) The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to
generate fresh water and is piped in series with and after the jacket water cooler.
(b) The evaporator uses heat recovered from the jacket water cooler sea water as a heat source
to generate fresh water and is piped in series with and prior to the jacket water cooler.
(c) The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to
generate fresh water and is piped in series with and prior to the jacket water cooler.
(d) The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to
generate fresh water and is piped in parallel with the jacket water cooler.
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591.
(2.2.30.2-7) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the turbocharger bypass line associated with the jacket water cooling
system? Illustration MP-CW-06
(a) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling
water flow so that the turbocharger receives a greater flow rate of cooling water as compared
to the main engine cooling water jackets.
(b) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice works in conjunction with
the deaerator to remove entrained air from the jacket water outlet.
(c) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling
water flow so that the turbocharger receives a lesser flow rate of cooling water as compared
to the main engine cooling water jackets.
(d) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling
water flow so that the turbocharger receives the same flow rate of cooling water as does the main
engine cooling water jackets.
592.
(2.2.30.2-8) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, which set
of cooling water pumps would MOST likely require a priming maintenance system or the use of deep
well pumps? Illustration MP-CW-06
o
o
593.
(2.2.30.2-9) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, which
cooling system has cooling water passing through passages within components that are
continuously undergoing motion? Illustration MP-CW-06
o
o
594.
(2.2.30.2-10) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, which
cooling system tanks are MOST likely to have oil separation capability? Illustration MP-CW-06
o
o
(a) SSDG fresh water expansion tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank.
(b) Injector cooling water tank and piston cooling water drain tank.
(c) Piston cooling water drain tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank.
(d) Injector cooling water tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank.
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595.
o
o
596.
(2.2.22.1.1-2) In accordance with federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, for U.S nonoceangoing ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling
bilge slops?
o
o
(a) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or
in a slops tank and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility.
(b) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million
oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
(c) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it
is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility.
(d) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million
oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
597.
(2.2.22.1.1-3) In accordance with federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing
ships of less than 400 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it
pertains to handling bilge slops?
(a) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to be equipped with an approved
15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge
alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15
ppm.
(b) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to be equipped with an approved
15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge
alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds
15 ppm.
(c) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is EITHER required to retain onboard all oily
mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to be equipped to discharge these
mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be equipped with an approved oilywater separator.
(d) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures
in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception
facility.
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598.
(a) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge
these mixtures to a reception facility.
(b) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to
have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge
when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
(c) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is EITHER
required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to
be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be
equipped with an approved oily-water separator.
(d) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required
to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge
when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
599.
(a) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to be equipped with an
approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oilcontent bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content
exceeds 15 ppm.
(b) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to retain onboard all oily
mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a
reception facility.
(c) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is EITHER required to retain onboard all
oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to be equipped to discharge these
mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be equipped with an approved oilywater separator.
(d) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to be equipped with an
approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content
bilge alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content
exceeds 15 ppm.
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600.
(2.2.22.1.1-6) In what part of 33 CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific
machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker that
must be entered into an Oil Record Book?
o
o
601.
(2.2.22.1.1-7) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal
regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400
gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. This includes
disposal of oil residues and overboard discharge of bilge water that has accumulated in machinery
spaces, as well as other operations. Who is responsible for signing the Oil Record Book entry for the
specific operation?
o
o
602.
(2.2.22.1.1-8) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal
regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400
gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. Which of the
listed machinery space operations must be documented in the Oil Record Book?
o
o
o
(a) Discharge overboard of bilge water that has accumulated in the dry cargo-holds.
(b) Taking on ballast water into double bottom sea water ballast tanks.
(c) Discharge of ballast from double bottom sea water ballast tanks.
(d) Discharge of waste oil or sludge to a reception facility.
603.
o
o
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604.
o
o
o
(a) When the discharge is necessary for the purpose of securing the safety of a ship or saving life
at sea.
(b) When the oil content of the effluent without dilution is less than 100 parts per million.
(c) When the oil or oily mixture originates from tanker cargo pump room bilges.
(d) When the oil or oily mixture is mixed with tanker cargo residues.
605.
o
o
o
606.
o
o
o
(a) Ground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.
(b) Unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.
(c) Floating dunnage, lining, or packing material.
(d) Plastic or garbage mixed with plastic.
607.
o
o
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608.
o
o
609.
o
o
610.
o
o
o
(a) The garbage containing plastics must be either discharged ashore to an approved reception
facility or incinerated onboard the ship.
(b) The garbage containing plastics must be incinerated onboard ship. Discharge ashore to an
approved reception facility is not permitted.
(c) The garbage containing plastics must be discharged ashore to an approved reception facility.
Incineration onboard the ship is not permitted.
(d) The garbage containing plastics must be discharged ashore to an approved plastics recycling
facility.
611.
(2.2.22.1.2-1) Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of the
term "sewage"?
o
o
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612.
(2.2.22.1.2-2) Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a
"Type I Marine Sanitation Device"?
o
o
(a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.
(b) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage.
(c) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
(d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
613.
(2.2.22.1.2-3) Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a
"Type II Marine Sanitation Device"?
o
o
o
(a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
(b) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
(c) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage.
(d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.
614.
(2.2.22.1.2-4) Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a
"Type III Marine Sanitation Device"?
o
o
(a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
(b) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage.
(c) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.
(d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
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615.
(2.2.22.1.2-5) Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a
Type III Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of untreated sewage is
prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage
is UNACCEPTABLE?
o
o
(a) Using a non-releasable wire-tire to hold each valve leading to an overboard discharge in the
closed position.
(b) Closing each valve leading to an overboard discharge and removing the handle.
(c) Closing and tagging each valve leading to an overboard discharge.
(d) Padlocking each valve leading to an overboard discharge in the closed position.
616.
(2.2.22.1.2-6) Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a
Type II Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of treated or untreated
sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge
of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical to close the seacock and prevent its opening?
o
o
(a) Making an announcement over the public address system advising all concerned that the
vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
(b) Placing a warning sign on the door to the space enclosing the toilets advising all concerned
that the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
(c) Locking the door to the space enclosing the toilets with a padlock or door handle key lock to
prevent entry when the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
(d) Placing of tape forming an "X" over toilet and urinal bowls to convey to all concerned that the
vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
617.
(2.2.22.1.2-7) Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is less
than 3 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?
o
o
o
(a) The discharge of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of disinfected sewage is
permitted.
(b) The discharge of comminuted and disinfected sewage is permitted.
(c) The discharge of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of comminuted sewage is
permitted.
(d) The discharge of any sewage, treated or untreated, is prohibited.
618.
(2.2.22.1.2-8) Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is more
than 3, but less than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?
o
o
o
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619.
(2.2.22.1.2-9) Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is more
than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?
o
o
620.
(2.2.22.1.4-1) Which of the following fire extinguishing agents which may be found aboard ship is
designated as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that
Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?
o
o
(a) CO2
(b) Halon 1301
(c) Cartridge-operated dry chemical
(d) Cartridge-operated dry powder
621.
(2.2.22.1.4-2) Which of the following refrigerants which may be found aboard ship is designated
as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete
the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?
o
o
o
(a) R-12
(b) R-134a
(c) R-404A
(d) R-410A
622.
(2.2.22.1.4-3) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the nitrous
oxide (NOx) emissions associated with certain diesel engines are required to operate under certain
acceptable limits. To which of the listed engine applications would the NOx emission regulations
apply?
o
o
o
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623.
(2.2.22.1.4-4) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the sulfur
content of any fuel oil used onboard ships shall not exceed what percentage by weight?
o
o
(a) 1.5%
(b) 3.0%
(c) 4.5%
(d) 6.0%
624.
(2.2.22.1.4-5) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, in the absence
of an exhaust gas cleaning system, what is the maximum allowable sulfur content for a fuel to be
burned while the ship is operating in an emissions control area?
o
o
o
(a) 1.5%
(b) 3.0%
(c) 4.5%
(d) 6.0%
625.
(2.2.22.1.4-6) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the
listed substances are prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?
o
o
o
626.
(2.2.22.1.4-7) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the
listed substances are prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?
o
o
o
627.
(2.2.22.1.4-8) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is the
minimum allowable flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-fed shipboard incinerator while in
operation?
o
o
(a) 450 C
o
(b) 650 F
o
(c) 850 F
o
(d) 1050 F
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628.
o
o
o
(a) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine, AND it may be burned only in
unrestricted waters (other than in port, in harbors, or estuaries).
(b) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine, AND it may be burned without
restriction in terms of vessel location.
(c) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned only in unrestricted
waters (other than in port, in harbors, or estuaries).
(d) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned without restriction
in terms of vessel location.
629.
(2.2.26.2.1-8) The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that
the latter __________.
o
o
630.
(2.2.26.2.1-13) The lathe tool shown as figure "N" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
__________. Illustration GS-0090
o
o
o
631.
(2.2.26.2.1-3) Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a smooth finish cut for
figure I? Illustration GS-0009
o
o
o
(a) A
(b) F
(c) G
(d) D
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632.
(2.2.26.2.1-15) The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is properly called the
__________. Illustration GS-0164
o
o
o
633.
o
o
o
(2.2.26.2.1-1) The tool shown in the illustration is called a __________. Illustration GS-0072
(a) center gage
(b) crotch center
(c) drill gage
(d) thread gage
634.
(2.2.26.2.1-12) Which lathe tool shown in the illustration would best be used on a work piece to
perform a right hand facing operation? Illustration GS-0090
o
o
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) V
635.
(2.2.26.2.1-16) Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jaw
independent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck?
o
o
o
636.
(2.2.26.2.1-5) The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as
__________. Illustration GS-0090
o
o
o
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637.
(2.2.26.2.1-9) Which of the illustrated figures represents the use of a right hand roughing tool?
Illustration GS-0090
o
o
(a) Figure P
(b) Figure S
(c) Figure T
(d) Figure V
638.
(2.2.26.2.1-2) The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
__________. Illustration GS-0090
o
o
o
639.
(2.2.26.2.1-6) Which single illustrated lathe tool could be used to turn down the stock in figure II?
Illustration GS-0009
o
o
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) G
640.
(2.2.26.2.1-11) In machine shop practice, a center gage is used for checking the angle of
__________.
o
o
641.
o
o
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642.
(2.2.26.2.2-9) A work piece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each
end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test
cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.
o
o
643.
(2.2.26.2.2-3) To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18 inch work piece, the tailstock of the
lathe must be set over __________.
o
o
o
644.
(2.2.26.2.2-21) Before power to a lathe is turned on, it is a good shop practice to first hand feed
the carriage to ensure __________.
o
o
645.
o
o
o
(2.2.26.2.2-15) Which of the following statements best defines 'depth of cut' in lathe work?
(a) The chip length that will be removed from the work in 1 minute.
(b) The distance to tool point advances with each revolution of the work.
(c) The distance the work piece circumference moves past the cutting tool point in 1 minute.
(d) The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the work piece.
646.
(2.2.26.2.2-5) If you are machining work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin
to squeal, you should first __________.
o
o
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647.
(2.2.26.2.2-11) To properly cut even numbered threads using the lathe thread dial indicator
shown in the illustration, you should close the lathe split or half-nut on __________. Illustration GS0084
o
o
648.
(2.2.26.2.2-18) To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe using the thread dial
indicator illustrated, you should close the lathe split, or half-nut on __________. Illustration GS-0084
o
o
o
649.
o
o
(2.2.26.1.2-11) All straight shank twist drills must be mounted or held in a __________.
(a) tapered sleeve
(b) morse sleeve
(c) drill chuck
(d) drill socket
650.
(2.2.26.1.2-1) When drilling holes larger than 1/2 inch, drilling a smaller hole first is a good
practice. This is called a pilot hole, and the pilot drill should have a diameter __________.
o
o
o
(a) slightly larger than the web thickness of the larger drill
(b) smaller than the dead center of chisel edge of the larger drill
(c) small enough to ensure the maximum cut by the larger drill
(d) equal to at least 1/2 the diameter of the larger drill
651.
o
o
(2.2.26.1.2-8) Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without lubrication?
(a) Tungsten
(b) Steel
(c) Brass
(d) Monel
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652.
o
o
653.
o
o
o
(2.2.26.1.2-6) A tapered shank drill is removed from the drill press spindle with a __________.
(a) vice grip
(b) drill drift
(c) leather mallet
(d) taper punch
654.
(2.2.26.1.2-7) Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, the location of the hole center should be
__________.
o
o
o
655.
(2.2.26.1.2-13) Failing to decrease the feed pressure on a drill as its point begins to break
through the bottom of the work piece will cause the drill to __________.
o
o
o
656.
(2.2.26.1.2-12) Generally speaking, when using a twist drill to bore a hole in metal, the harder the
metal, the greater the drill's required __________.
o
o
o
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657.
(2.2.26.1.2-5) One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill press is to
__________.
o
o
o
658.
(2.2.26.1.2-10) Before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop practice to follow is to
__________.
o
o
o
659.
(2.2.19.4-1) The action necessary to use the steering gear room trick wheel when transferring the
steering control from the wheelhouse to local control is to __________.
o
o
o
(a) align the trick wheel to the rudder angle position before engaging
(b) set the six-way control valve in the trick wheel position
(c) open the power transfer switch before engaging the trick wheel
(d) always place the rudder in the amidships position to engage the trick wheel
660.
(2.2.19.4-2) A command signal input to the steering gear has initiated rudder movement for 20
right rudder. The follow-up mechanism at the beginning of the rudder movement will __________.
Illustration GS-0123
o
o
o
661.
o
o
o
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662.
(2.2.19.4-4) When the helm angle position is changed, the series of corresponding events of the
steering gear will include __________.
I. rate of steering gear ram movement will be proportional to amount of helm angle input
II. degree of tilting plate (box) angle will be proportional to the amount of helm angle input
o
o
o
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
663.
(2.2.19.1-1) Hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, change over valves, utilized in a two ram
hydraulic steering gear, serve to __________.
o
o
(a) allow an alternate main pump to start in the fully loaded condition thus developing immediate
full torque
(b) prevent both units from operating simultaneously which could result in doubling the flow of oil
and pressure leading to over pressurization of the system
(c) prevent either main pump from being hydraulically motored when idle by cross pressure flow
(d) all of the above
664.
(2.2.19.1-2) The rudder torque capacity of the four ram steering gear illustrated is rated at
44,210,000 inch-pounds with one power unit in operation. If the four ram system was able to be
operated as a two ram system with both power units on line, what would be the available torque?
Illustration GS-0067
o
o
665.
(2.2.19.1-3) When responding to a 'right rudder' command from the amidships position, which
parts of the steering gear system illustrated will be subjected to the highest pressure? Illustration
GS-0137
o
o
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666.
o
o
667.
o
o
o
(2.2.19.2-1) The device shown in the illustration is a/an __________. Illustration GS-0116
(a) vane type steering gear
(b) oil scraper ring stuffing box for a crosshead engine
(c) diesel engine motor mount
(d) mechanical shaft seal
668.
(2.2.19.2-2) If it is necessary to prevent the rudder from moving while a repair is made on the
steering system using the illustrated actuator __________. Illustration GS-0116
o
o
o
669.
(2.2.19.3.2-3) If oil under pressure is supplied to the area noted as "N" on the vane in the
illustration __________. Illustration GS-0116
o
o
(a) "O" will be hydraulically locked in place even though oil is returned to the main pump from the
area between "M" and "I"
(b) "O" will rotate clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I"
(c) "O" will rotate counter-clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I"
(d) "Q" will rotate counter-clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I"
670.
(2.2.19.2-4) The operation of the device shown in the illustration is dependent upon __________.
Illustration GS-0116
o
o
(a) all items, similar to "I" move as the rudder stock rotates
(b) all items, similar to "N" move as the rudder stock rotates
(c) both "I" and "N" move as the rudder stock rotates
(d) neither "I" nor "N" move as the rudder stock rotates
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1.
(3.2.1.2-8) As a result of a load or set point change, in addition to minimizing the maximum value of
the error, what are the two additional objectives of a closed-loop control system?
o
o
o
(a) The closed-loop control system should maximize the settling time and maximize the residual
error.
(b) The closed-loop control system should minimize the settling time and minimize the residual
error.
(c) The closed-loop control system should minimize the settling time and maximize the residual
error.
(d) The closed-loop control system should maximize the settling time and minimize the residual
error.
2.
3.
(3.2.1.1-9) In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the action of
measuring the difference between the actual result and the desired result and using that difference
to drive the actual result toward the desired result?
o
o
(a) Instability
(b) Gain
(c) Feedback
(d) Dead band
4.
(3.2.1.1-5) In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by the proportional mode of
control?
o
o
o
(a) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the gain.
(b) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the rate at which the
error is changing.
(c) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the accumulation of
error over time.
(d) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the error.
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5.
(3.2.1.1-6) In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by the integral mode of control?
o
o
o
(a) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the rate at which the
error is changing.
(b) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the error.
(c) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the gain.
(d) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the accumulation of
error over time.
6.
(3.2.1.1-10) In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the progressive
reduction or suppression of oscillation in a component?
o
o
o
(a) Saturation
(b) Damping
(c) Hysteresis
(d) Dead band
7.
(3.2.2.2-4) Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or
wheel puller with a ________.
o
o
8.
(3.2.2.2-3) When removing roller bearings from a shaft, the force of the puller should be applied to
the bearing __________.
o
o
o
9.
(3.2.2.2-2) In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by
__________.
o
o
o
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10. (3.2.2.1-2) Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each
other?
o
o
o
11. (3.2.2.1-4) Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?
o
o
o
12. (3.2.2.1-5) Which of the following statements concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps is
true?
o
o
o
13. (3.2.2.1-1) The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.
o
o
o
14. (3.2.2.3-2) As the speed of an oil lubricated ball bearing increases, fluid friction, due to churning,
generates heat. This condition may be avoided by __________.
o
o
o
(a) reducing the quantity of lubricant until only a mist of oil is present on the ball bearings
(b) installing oil rings on the ball bearings
(c) adding more lubricant until the ball bearings are completely covered with a layer of oil
(d) maintaining a continuous fluid film of oil on the bearings
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o
o
o
16. (3.2.2.3-1) Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.
o
o
o
17. (3.2.3.1-1) Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the No.6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which
combination of valves illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closed? Illustration
GS-0139
o
o
18. (3.2.3.1-2) In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in
the illustration, how many suction side valves must be open? Illustration GS-0042
o
o
o
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
19. (3.2.3.1-3) One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the
discharge valve closed, is that the __________.
o
o
o
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20. (3.2.3.1-4) The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used __________.
o
o
o
(a) if the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means
(b) to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction
(c) when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water
circulation
(d) to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty
21. (3.2.3.1-5) Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by
__________.
o
o
o
22. (3.2.3.2-1) As routine maintenance, the bilge manifold valves are periodically removed and
examined. Prior to re-securing the valve bonnets, the valve __________.
o
o
o
23. (3.2.3.3-1) The aft starboard bilge well is clogged, and back flushing has not been successful. The
next practical solution would be to __________.
o
o
(a) place 20 gallons ( 75.7 L) of fuel oil tank wash into the affected bilge well to clear the blockage
(b) change the trim of the ship to port in order to pump out the bilges for the remainder of the
voyage
(c) properly and safely empty the well with a portable pump then manually muck it out
(d) all of the above
24. (3.2.3.3-2) The bilge system has been performing well; however, the aft starboard engine room bilge
well suddenly fails to be pumped out. Which of the following should be done first to determine the
cause?
o
o
o
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25. (3.2.3.3-3) You are unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well that is fouled, with
one foot of water over the top of the bilge well, what action should be carried out?
o
o
(a) Send the wiper into the well with only a scoop and pail.
(b) Simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps.
(c) Remove the bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line.
(d) It is only necessary to transfer half the contents of a drum of degreaser into the bilge well.
26. (3.2.3.3-4) If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, the __________.
o
o
(a) bilge well connected to that valve, plus the second bilge well being pumped will be completely
emptied
(b) bilge well aft connected to that valve will siphon its contents to the forward bilge wells
(c) bilge system will lose vacuum and prevent the other bilges from being pumped out
(d) all of the above
27. (3.2.3.3-5) If an operating bilge pump is developing good vacuum, but is unable to discharge any
water, which of the following problems is the most probable cause?
o
o
28. (3.2.3.3-6) If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum, but is unable to sufficiently pump out the
bilges, you would check for all of the following EXCEPT __________.
o
o
o
29. (3.2.4.4.3-4) Under what conditions would the pre-treatment capabilities of a reverse osmosis fresh
water generator MOST likely be overloaded, and as a result, these conditions should generally be
avoided?
o
o
o
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30. (3.2.4.4.3-2) If a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator has fouled membrane modules, what
statement is true?
o
o
(a) The freshwater production rate would be higher than normal, and the feed pressure would be
higher than normal.
(b) The freshwater production rate would be higher than normal, and the feed pressure would be
lower than normal.
(c) The freshwater production rate would be lower than normal, and the feed pressure would be
higher than normal.
(d) The freshwater production rate would be lower than normal, and the feed pressure would be
lower than normal.
31. (3.2.4.4.3-1) What is the BEST indication that the pre-treatment filter (or filters) of a reverse osmosis
fresh water generator must be serviced by cleaning or replacement?
o
o
o
32. (3.2.4.4.3-3) What is the BEST indication that the membrane module is damaged and is no longer
semi-permeable and allowing the solute to pass through?
o
o
33. (3.2.4.2.1-6) Item "M" shown in the illustration is the __________. Illustration MO-0110
o
o
o
34. (3.2.4.2.1-7) Which of the following is NOT a function of the water supply through item "P" shown in
the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
o
o
o
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35. (3.2.4.2.1-2) What is the function of item 'D' shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
o
o
o
36. (3.2.4.2.1-4) What is the function of device "A" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
o
o
o
37. (3.2.4.2.1-3) Which of the following conditions occurs in the section labeled "F" of the device shown
in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
o
o
o
(a) The vapors produced in section "G" are condensed and the non-condensable gases are
removed.
(b) The jacket water flowing through device "I" is heated.
(c) The sea water flowing through device "I" is cooled.
(d) Non-condensable vapors are removed and water vapors are preheated.
38. (3.2.4.1.1-12) Feed water supplied to a flash type distilling plant will flash to vapor in the first-stage
due to __________.
o
o
o
(a) temperature being higher than the evaporation temperature of the supplied feed water
(b) heat exchange surfaces being directly in the path of the entering feed water
(c) orifices finely atomizing the heated feed water entering the flash chamber
(d) flash chamber pressure being lower than the saturation pressure corresponding to the feed
water temperature
39. (3.2.4.1.1-9) The vacuum maintained in the salt water feed heater shell of a flash-type evaporator is
generally accomplished by __________.
o
o
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40. (3.2.4.1.1-14) Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in a flash-type
evaporator are removed by the __________.
o
o
o
41. (3.2.4.1.1-6) Regarding the low pressure evaporator steam control orifice in the live steam supply
line, the steam at the outlet of the orifice if not properly conditioned will be developed as
__________.
o
o
o
42. (3.2.4.1.1-11) Under normal operating conditions, the highest temperature and pressure conditions
existing for flash-type evaporators will occur in the __________.
o
o
o
43. (3.2.4.1.1-2) Where a two-stage air ejector set is used in a two-stage flash evaporator, the first-stage
air ejector takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator, and the second stage air ejector
__________.
o
o
44. (3.2.4.1.1-4) The temperature of the steam flow to the saltwater feed heater, in a flash type
evaporator can be manipulated by a/an __________.
o
o
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45. (3.2.4.1.1-13) The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part by
the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the __________.
o
o
o
46. (3.2.4.1.1-3) Steam supply for the operation of the low pressure evaporators may be obtained
directly from the __________.
o
o
o
47. (3.2.4.2.1.1-1) In a flash type evaporator, all saltwater headers are vented through individual vent
cocks to the __________.
o
o
o
48. (3.2.4.3.2-2) Which of the following acids is preferable and most commonly used for scale removal
from the heating surfaces of the jacket-water heated submerged-tube evaporator?
o
o
o
49. (3.2.4.3.2-1) When securing a jacket-water heated submerged tube evaporator for an extended
period of time, you should __________.
o
o
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50. (3.2.4.3.1-6) What is the function of the item "7" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o
(a) This jacket water pump circulates salt water through the jacket water cooling system to
provide engine cooling.
(b) This jacket water pump circulates fresh water throughout the engine cooling and distiller
heating systems.
(c) This jacket water pump supplies the distiller with sea water feed while also powering the
eductors.
(d) This circulating salt water pump will supply feed water for the operation of the distiller.
51. (3.2.4.3.1-5) Excess brine accumulated in the distiller, shown in the illustration, is removed during
normal operation by __________. Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o
(a) orifice "19" regulating the amount of feed water entering the distiller, thereby preventing
excess brine accumulation
(b) opening the drain valve located to the left of orifice "19"
(c) the hydrokineter labeled "21"
(d) the continuous action of ejector "22"
52. (3.2.4.3.1-10) During operation which device listed removes air and non-condensable gases from
the unit shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o
(a) "21"
(b) "22"
(c) "25"
(d) "27"
53. (3.2.4.3.1-7) Which of the following statements represents the two major functions provided by the
item labeled "20" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o
(a) The pump supplies the motive force to the ejectors and removes the excess distillate.
(b) The pump is used to drain the shell when the unit is secured, in addition to powering the
ejectors.
(c) The pump provides for venting of associated equipment while also powering the ejectors.
(d) The pump supplies the motive fluid to the ejectors in addition to supplying the feed water to
the distiller.
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54. (3.2.4.3.1-4) Which device is used to prevent over pressurization of the illustrated distiller?
Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o
(a) "12"
(b) "13"
(c) "19"
(d) "26"
55. (3.2.4.3.1-9) Which of the following statements concerning the systems shown in the illustration is
correct? Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o
(a) The jacket water primarily loses its heat at the cooler and is further heated in the evaporator
section.
(b) The feed water gains heat in section "23", while the vapor gives up heat in section "24".
(c) The jacket water absorbs heat in the evaporator section, while giving up its heat in the distiller
section.
(d) The feed water acquires heat passing through devices "2"and "23".
56. (3.2.4.3.1-2) Which of the valve arrangements listed would be correct for operating the distillation
plant shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o
(a) Valves "C", "J", "K", "L", "M" open, valves "A", "B", "D", and "H" closed.
(b) Valves "D", "H", "J", "K", "L", "M" open, valves "I", "G", "F", and "E" closed.
(c) Valves "H", "J", "K", "L", "M" open, valve "D" closed.
(d) Valves "J", "K", "L", "M" open, valves "D" and "H" closed.
57. (3.2.4.3.1-3) Which of the following statements describes the approximate relation between the feed
water entering the unit shown in the illustration and brine being removed? Illustration MO-0111
o
o
(a) The brine will be removed at a faster rate than feed water entering to prevent the possibility of
flooding.
(b) Twenty-five percent of the feed water entering the device is removed as brine.
(c) Seventy-five percent of the feed water entering the unit is removed as brine.
(d) The amount of feed water entering the distiller is dependent upon the condition of device "7",
while the amount of brine leaving is dependent upon the condition of device "21".
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58. (3.2.4.1.3-16) The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes
of the __________.
o
o
o
59. (3.2.4.1.3-11) The efficiency and output capacity of a low pressure distilling plant will be reduced if
the last effect shell __________.
o
o
o
60. (3.2.4.1.3-17) In a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher than normal temperatures is most
likely to occur in the __________.
o
o
o
61. (3.2.4.1.3-13) Which of the listed problems could produce a high absolute pressure within a flash
type evaporator?
o
o
o
62. (3.2.4.1.3-5) The quantity and density of brine discharged from the last effect of a flash type
evaporator should be kept at a constant value so as to __________.
o
o
o
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63. (3.2.4.1.3-9) While the illustrated system is operated using the steam supply through "F" the strainer
in line "4" becomes fouled, this will result in __________. Illustration GS-0053
o
o
o
64. (3.2.4.1.3-8) The efficiency and output capacity of a low pressure distilling plant will be reduced if the
last effect shell __________.
o
o
o
65. (3.2.4.1.3-12) Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could occur through __________.
o
o
o
66. (3.2.4.1.3-4) A high reading is indicated at the salinity cells labeled "Y", "Q", and "6" shown in the
illustration. This would be the probable result of __________. Illustration GS-0053
o
o
o
67. (3.2.4.1.3-15) Irregular feeding or surging of the feed water supply to a flash evaporator may be
attributed to __________.
o
o
o
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68. (3.2.4.1.3-3) A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal between two stages of a flash
type evaporator would indicate __________.
o
o
o
69. (3.2.4.1.3-2) Carryover in a flash type distilling plant can be a result of __________.
o
o
o
70. (3.2.4.1.3-6) While the illustrated system is operated using the steam supply through "F" the strainer
in line "4" becomes fouled, this will result in __________. Illustration GS-0053
o
o
o
71. (3.2.4.1.3-1) If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash
evaporator, you should suspect __________.
o
o
72. (3.2.4.3.3-5) What would happen if valve "25" shown in the illustration, vibrated open with the unit in
operation? Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o
(a) The absolute pressure of the unit would increase, causing a decrease in distillate output.
(b) The unit would automatically shut down due to the closing of the low pressure contacts.
(c) Jacket water would be automatically by-passed around the distiller.
(d) The unit would continue to operate with no adverse effects.
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73. (3.2.4.3.3-4) If the wearing rings of device "7" shown in the illustration become worn, how will the
evaporation rate in "23" be affected? Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o
74. (3.2.4.3.3-6) If valve "D" is opened during the normal operation of the distiller shown in the
illustration, which of the events listed will occur? Illustration MO-0111
o
o
(a) The jacket water cooler will be overloaded, eventually causing a critical engine alarm.
(b) The amount of vapor formed in the evaporator will increase.
(c) The amount of vapor being formed in the evaporator will decrease.
(d) The output of pump "7" will increase with a corresponding increase in pressure.
75. (3.2.4.3.3-2) Which of the conditions listed would indicate a large condenser tube leak within the
distiller shown in the illustration? See Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o
(a) A slow continuous rise in the lube oil cooler outlet temperature indicated at device "4".
(b) The activation of the salinity monitoring equipment's annunciator circuit.
(c) A decrease in the level of the main engine expansion tank as indicated by a low level alarm.
(d) An increase in distiller output resulting from the combination of jacket water and the distillate
produced.
76. (3.2.4.3.3-3) If valve "H" shown in the illustration is opened wide while the distiller is in operation,
__________. Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o
(a) the absolute pressure of the unit will increase with an associated decrease in shell
temperature
(b) the absolute pressure of the unit will increase due to the increased affect of the air ejector
(c) the absolute pressure of the unit will not be affected, but the rate of condensation will be
decreased
(d) the absolute pressure of the unit will increase with an associated increase in shell temperature
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77. (3.2.4.3.3-1) What would be the first indication that a tube leak has occurred in area "23"? Illustration
MO-0111
o
o
o
78. (3.2.4.4.1-3) For the successful operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, why is the high
pressure pump required to operate in the 750 to 1200 psig range for a discharge pressure?
o
o
o
(a) To successfully force the salt water through the pre-filter (or pre-filters).
(b) To successfully force the salt water through the chemical pre-treatment device.
(c) To overcome the pore size of the semi-permeable membrane.
(d) To overcome the osmotic pressure generated by the difference in solution concentrations.
79. (3.2.4.4.1-2) Regarding a reverse-osmosis type freshwater generator using multiple spiral-wound
membrane modules, what statement is true?
o
o
o
80. (3.2.4.4.1-1) Regarding a freshwater generator of the reverse-osmosis type, what statement is true?
o
o
o
81. (3.2.4.1.2-4) When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should
__________.
o
o
o
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83. (3.2.4.1.2-6) When performing a hydrostatic test on a low pressure evaporator to determine the
source of suspected air leaks you should use __________.
o
o
o
84. (3.2.4.1.2-10) Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of heat exchangers to
__________.
o
o
o
85. (3.2.4.1.2-11) The floating end of a shell-and-tube type cooler utilizes a packing ring to __________.
o
o
o
86. (3.2.4.1.2-1) The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes of
the __________.
o
o
o
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87. (3.2.4.1.2-8) On which of the following heated surfaces of a flash type evaporator would you be more
likely to find soft scale formation?
o
o
o
88. (3.2.4.1.2-2) In the operation of a two-stage flash type distilling plant, the rate of scale formation is
greatly reduced by __________.
o
o
o
89. (3.2.4.4.2-2) What component of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator could be isolated and
replaced with the unit remaining in service?
o
o
o
o
o
(a) The unit is left filled with saltwater and treated with anti-bacterial growth inhibitor.
(b) The unit must be flushed with freshwater and treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor.
(c) The unit must be flushed with freshwater if anti-bacterial growth inhibitor is unavailable.
(d) The unit must be treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor if the unit is not flushed with
freshwater.
91. (3.2.4.2.2-2) Which of the tools listed must be used when retightening the plate type heat
exchangers used in the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
o
o
o
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92. (3.2.4.5.1-5) Which of the following statements represents the basic principle of operation of an
electrical salinity indicator?
o
o
93. (3.2.4.5.1-2) A salinity indicating system functions on the basic principle of measuring the
__________.
o
o
o
94. (3.2.4.5.1-3) The instrument always used in conjunction with a salinometer is a __________.
o
o
o
(a) thermometer
(b) pyrometer
(c) hygrometer
(d) hydrometer
96. (3.2.4.2.3-1) If the demister used in the device shown in the illustration is improperly installed, which
of the following will occur? Illustration MO-0110
o
o
o
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97. (3.2.5-3) What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing
fixture such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains?
o
o
o
(a) Location of the potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink.
(b) Check valves in the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink.
(c) A "P" trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink.
(d) Location of the potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink.
98. (3.2.5-4) Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing
water to a potable water system?
o
o
o
99. (3.2.5-5) On most commercial cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the
potable water system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained?
o
o
o
(a) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of the potable water hydro pneumatic
tank pressure switch in response to system demand changes.
(b) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously against a shut-off head during periods of
zero demand for potable water.
(c) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously while recirculating during periods of zero
demand for potable water.
(d) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of potable water storage tank level
switches in response to system demand changes.
100.
(3.2.5-6) What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot
water distribution piping for a potable water system?
o
o
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101.
(3.2.5-7) What are the operating characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydropneumatic header tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air?
o
o
(a) Failure of the potable water pump to start with demand on the system.
(b) Extremely long running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
(c) Very short and frequent running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
(d) Failure of the potable water pump to stop with zero demand on the system.
102.
(3.2.6-1) Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to
prevent prime mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover?
o
o
o
103.
(3.2.6-2) Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous
governor?
o
o
o
(a) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's geared propulsion drive driving
through a fixed-pitch propeller.
(b) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a pump drive associated with maintaining a
constant pump discharge pressure.
(c) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's direct reversible propulsion drive driving
through a fixed-pitch propeller.
(d) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's service alternator drive associated with
maintaining a constant system frequency.
104.
(3.2.6-3) Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover
speed without hunting?
o
o
(a) Sensitivity
(b) Stability
(c) Dead band
(d) Promptness
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105.
(3.2.6-4) What is meant by the term "hunting" as it applies to prime mover speed control
governors?
o
o
(a) Hunting is the repeated variation of speed due to under-control by the governor and a lack of
governor power.
(b) Hunting is the result of the transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor
responds to load changes.
(c) Hunting is the repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed due to over-control by the
governor.
(d) Hunting is the change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective action as
the result of a load change.
106.
(3.2.6-5) What statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime mover
speed control governors?
o
o
(a) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by
employing permanent speed droop.
(b) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by
employing permanent speed droop.
(c) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by
employing temporary speed droop.
(d) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by
employing temporary speed droop.
107.
(3.2.7.1-8) For a typical diesel engine jacket water cooling system, what location would be
generally used to introduce water treatment chemicals?
o
o
o
108.
(3.2.7.1-4) Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, which pump
can be used to pump out the main machinery space bilge in a flooding emergency? Illustration SPSW-01
o
o
(a) The single-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(b) The auxiliary sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(c) The two-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(d) Any of the sea water service pumps can be used for this purpose.
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109.
(3.2.7.1-2) What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a low sea
suction to a high sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?
o
o
o
(a) Increasing the number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
(b) Reducing the total number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
(c) Underway operations or encountering rough seas.
(d) Entering port or shallow water.
110.
(3.2.7.1-9) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the turbocharger bypass line associated with the jacket water cooling
system? Illustration MP-CW-06
(a) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling
water flow so that the turbocharger receives a greater flow rate of cooling water as compared
to the main engine cooling water jackets.
(b) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling
water flow so that the turbocharger receives the same flow rate of cooling water as does the main
engine cooling water jackets.
(c) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling
water flow so that the turbocharger receives a lesser flow rate of cooling water as compared
to the main engine cooling water jackets.
(d) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice works in conjunction with
the deaerator to remove entrained air from the jacket water outlet.
111.
o
o
o
(a) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(b) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(c) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(d) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
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112.
(3.2.8.1-6) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint leveroperated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
warping heads and wildcats?
(a) The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping heads by
disengaging the warping head clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive
motor, the wildcats will rotate.
(b) The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the wildcats by
disengaging the wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor,
the warping heads will rotate.
(c) The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping heads by
disengaging the warping head clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive
motor, the warping heads will rotate.
(d) The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the wildcats by
disengaging the wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor,
the wildcats will rotate.
113.
o
o
o
(a) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(b) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(c) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(d) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
114.
(a) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by disengaging the
wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with
the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged.
(b) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by engaging
the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain
payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.
(c) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by
disengaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the
anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged.
(d) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by engaging the
wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with
the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.
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115.
(3.2.8.1-5) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint leveroperated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
manual brake hand wheels?
o
o
(a) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with both the wildcats
and the warping heads.
(b) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the warping
heads only.
(c) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the wildcats only.
(d) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with either the
wildcats or the warping heads, depending upon the windlass design.
116.
o
o
(3.2.8.2-1) As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a capstan, what statement is true?
(a) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(b) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(c) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(d) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
117.
o
o
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118.
(3.2.8.2-2) Which capstan drive arrangement requires a flexible coupling between the reduction
gear output shaft and the capstan head input shaft?
o
o
(a) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are hung from the
underside of the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck.
(b) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are mounted on
the deck below the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck.
(c) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer, and capstan head
are all located on the weather deck.
(d) A flexible coupling is required on all three drive arrangements listed above.
119.
(3.2.8.2-10) What statement is true concerning the platform interlock devices associated with a
winding drum or traction drive cargo elevator onboard ship?
o
o
(a) Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the platform is proved at a deck level
and only allow door operation when the platform is at a position other than a deck level.
(b) Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the platform is at other than a deck
level and only allow door operation when the platform is proved at a deck level.
(c) Platform interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency
when elevators are required to be used.
(d) Platform interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when
elevators are not to be used.
120.
(3.2.8.2-8) For an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what event would
result in an immediate stop to all crane motions, including slewing, hoisting, and luffing?
o
o
(a) All motions are stopped by the action of the slewing platform limit switches.
(b) All motions are stopped by the loss of electric power to the crane.
(c) All motions are stopped by the action of the safe working load cutout switch or the slack wire
limit switch.
(d) All motions are stopped by the action of the boom maximum outreach and minimum
outreach limit switches.
121.
o
o
o
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122.
(3.2.9.3-4) If a hydraulic pump sounds like it is pumping rocks when in operation, the problem is
most likely ________.
o
o
o
(a) cavitation
(b) slippage
(c) galvanic action
(d) None of the above
123.
(3.2.9.3-14) If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation, the cause may be
__________.
o
o
124.
o
o
125.
(3.2.9.3-8) Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused by misalignment of the system
components and by __________.
o
o
o
126.
o
o
o
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127.
(3.2.9.2-1) If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on the system, you will
__________.
o
o
128.
(3.2.9.2-7) When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure
system, the oil __________.
o
o
o
129.
(3.2.9.2-10) When new piping sections have been fabricated for installation in a hydraulic system,
prior to installation the piping should be __________.
o
o
130.
(3.2.9.2-2) Before doing any work on a hydraulic system equipped with accumulators, you should
__________.
o
o
131.
(3.2.9.1.3-3) A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during
extension, with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________.
o
o
o
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132.
(3.2.9.1.2-1) In order for the hydraulic pump installed in a constant flow system to maintain
adequate flow, the pump suction should __________.
o
o
(a) be taken directly off the reservoir bottom without regard to filters or strainers
(b) be provided with three to five 1/2 inch holes in the vertical, suction line to prevent pump
starvation should the strainer become fouled
(c) be arranged to develop a maximum vacuum of approximately 10" of mercury
(d) be arranged to develop the theoretically maximum attainable vacuum
133.
(3.2.10.1-8) Which type of lubricating oil method is LEAST likely to have a lube oil strainer or
filter?
o
o
(a) Pressure-feed
(b) Static-feed
(c) Gravity-feed
(d) Force-feed
134.
(3.2.10.1-10) In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil
reservoir/sump residence time?
o
o
(a) The lower the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as delivered
by the pump.
(b) The lower the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
(c) The lower the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as delivered
by the pump.
(d) The lower the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
135.
(3.2.10.1-9) In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil
reservoir/sump residence time?
o
o
(a) The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
(b) The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
(c) The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
(d) The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
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136.
(3.2.10.1-7) On a bearing using an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse
conditions would indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a minimum?
o
o
o
(a) Weekly
(b) Monthly
(c) Quarterly
(d) Annually
137.
(3.2.10.1-4) If the bearings of a piece of machinery are fed by a gravity feed lubricating oil
system, what statement is true?
o
o
o
(a) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges to the lube
oil gravity tank. The oil then gravity feeds the bearings and the return oil drains to the lube oil
reservoir/sump.
(b) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil gravity tank and discharges directly to the
bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank.
(c) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump.
(d) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank which overflows to the
lube oil reservoir/sump.
138.
(3.2.10.1-1) A bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be
serviced by removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished?
o
o
o
139.
(3.2.10.1-3) On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, how often should the
bottom of the bearing sump be drained of impurities?
o
o
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140.
(3.2.10.2-3) Which of the following statements best describes the filtering ability of a fine mesh
metal lube oil strainer?
o
o
o
(a) A 200 wire mesh screen and a 100 wire mesh screen both prevent passage of the same size
particles, but each allows a different number of particles to pass through.
(b) A 100 wire mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than a 200 wire mesh
screen.
(c) A 200 mesh screen has larger wires than a 100 mesh screen.
(d) A 200 wire mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than a 100 wire mesh
screen.
141.
(3.2.10.2-5) Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to clean the element while leaving
the system on the line?
o
o
(a) Bypass
(b) Canister
(c) Duplex
(d) Simplex
142.
(3.2.11.2-1) Referring to the illustration, an oil/water separator is in the recirculation mode due to
high oil content of the processed water outlet. What action may be required before the unit is
capable of discharging overboard once again? Illustration GS-0175
o
o
o
143.
(3.2.11.3-2) Referring to the illustration, suppose the oily-water separator vessel compound
gauge is showing an unusually deep vacuum for operating in the separation processing mode with
the separator service pump running. The oil content is 8.3 ppm. What is most likely the cause?
Illustration GS-0175
o
o
o
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144.
(3.2.11.3-3) Referring to the illustration, suppose after initiating the oil discharge mode, the oilywater separator fails to come out of the oil discharge mode in a timely fashion. Cracking open the
upper sampling valve reveals the presence of water exiting under a positive pressure. What is most
likely the cause? Illustration GS-0175
o
o
(a) The oil discharge check valve fails to open, and as a result no oil actually discharges.
(b) The upper oil/water interface detection probe fails to end the oil discharge mode.
(c) The lower oil/water interface detection probe fails to initiate the oil discharge mode.
(d) The clean water supply solenoid fails to open, and as a result provides no discharge pressure.
145.
(3.2.11.3-5) Referring to the illustration, suppose while in the oil separation processing mode, the
oil content detector display screen shows 17.9 ppm and the oily-water separator is discharging back
to the bilge water holding tank for recirculation. What is most likely the cause? Illustration GS-0175
o
o
o
(a) The bilge water holding tank contents is excessively contaminated with oil.
(b) The oily-water separator bilge suction strainer is excessively clogged.
(c) The oily-water separator service pump is excessively worn.
(d) The bilge water holding tank level is excessively high resulting in a high level alarm.
146.
(3.2.11.3-1) If item "1" in the illustrated oily-water separator indicates an abnormally deep
vacuum, which of the following conditions is the most probable cause? Illustration GS-0153
o
o
147.
(3.2.11.3-4) Referring to the illustration, suppose after initiating the oil discharge mode, the oilywater separator fails to come out of the oil discharge mode in a timely fashion. Cracking open the
upper sampling valve reveals the presence of oil exiting under positive pressure. What is most likely
the cause? Illustration GS-0175
o
o
(a) The clean water supply solenoid fails to open, and as a result provides no discharge pressure.
(b) The oil discharge check valve fails to open, and as a result no oil actually discharges.
(c) The lower oil/water interface detection probe fails to initiate the oil discharge mode.
(d) The upper oil/water interface detection probe fails to end the oil discharge mode.
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148.
(3.2.11.1-2) When the oily-water separator, shown in the illustration, is in operation and
processing clear bilge water, what should be the internal water level? Illustration GS-0153
o
o
(a) The water level should be located in the lower section of the tank as controlled by flow control
valve "14".
(b) The water level in the tank should be slightly above the upper coalescer bed "9".
(c) The water level should be located in the upper section of the tank.
(d) No water level is maintained in the tank.
149.
(3.2.11.1-5) The component labeled "A", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the
__________. Illustration GS-0175
o
o
o
150.
(3.2.11.1-6) The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the ______.
Illustration GS-0175
o
o
151.
(3.2.11.1-3) The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________. Illustration GS0153
o
o
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152.
(3.2.11.1-7) The line labeled "E", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______.
Illustration GS-0175
o
o
o
153.
(3.2.11.1-4) What is the normal direction of flow through the device shown in the illustration while
operating in the processing mode? Illustration GS-0153
o
o
(a) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "4" and exits as processed liquid through valve
"14".
(b) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "5" and exits the separator through valve "14" as
processed liquid.
(c) The oily-water mixture enters through the pressure control valve "2" and exits with the
processed liquid through valve "14".
(d) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "14" and exits with the processed liquid through
valve "4".
154.
(3.2.13.1-1) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a VoithSchneider drive?
o
o
155.
(3.2.13.1-2) When an electricity generating plant features shaft-driven generators, what type of
propulsor is generally used for main propulsion?
o
o
o
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156.
(3.2.13.1-3) What type of propeller consists of a flat disc set flush with the under surface of the
vessel's hull with a number of vertical, rudder-like blades projecting from it?
o
o
157.
(3.2.13.1-4) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for electric
propulsion where the drive motors are outside the ship's hull?
o
o
158.
(3.2.13.1-5) Which of the following propulsor types does not require the use of a separate rudder
for steerage?
o
o
159.
o
o
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160.
o
o
o
(a) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is not steerable, and with a podded propulsor the
propulsor is steerable.
(b) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is steerable, and with a podded propulsor the
propulsor is not steerable.
(c) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located outside the hull, and with a podded
propulsor the prime mover is located inside the hull.
(d) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located inside the hull, and with a podded
propulsor the prime mover is located outside the hull.
161.
o
o
o
(3.2.13.2-3) With respect to a "tractor" type azimuthing thruster, what statement is true?
o
(a) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the gear unit is directly abaft of the azimuthing thruster's
propeller, but the azimuthing thruster's propeller is in the wake of the gear unit.
o
(b) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the gear unit is directly abaft of and in the wake of the
azimuthing thruster's propeller.
o
(c) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of the gear
unit, but the gear unit is in the wake of the azimuthing thruster's propeller.
o
(d) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of and in
the wake of the gear unit.
162.
(3.2.13.2-4) What type of propulsor is typically used in electric motor driven, transverse, tunnel
bow thrusters to limit the starting current of the single speed drive motor?
o
o
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163.
(3.2.13.2-5) Which set of operating conditions would be most problematic in terms of the
deterioration of the insulation resistance of the drive motor of an electric motor driven transverse
tunnel bow thruster?
o
o
o
(a) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
warm.
(b) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly cold.
(c) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
warm.
(d) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
cold.
164.
(3.2.13.3-1) Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive
featuring a single reduction?
o
o
165.
o
o
o
(3.2.13.3-2) For a parallel axis single reduction gear, what statement is true?
(a) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed. The
driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed.
(b) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed. The
driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed.
(c) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed. The
driven gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed.
(d) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed. The driven
gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed.
166.
(3.2.13.3-3) Which of the following couplings or clutches would be able to prevent the
transmission of torsional vibrations from an engine to a reduction gear?
o
o
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167.
o
o
168.
(3.2.13.3-5) Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive
featuring a double reduction?
o
o
o
169.
(3.2.13.4-1) If a main propulsion shafting arrangement is such that a strut and strut bearing is
required, what is the name of the section of shafting that passes through the hull penetration to the
closest watertight bulkhead?
o
o
o
170.
o
o
o
(3.2.13.4-2) What statement is true concerning the arrangement of line shaft bearing housings?
(a) Line shaft bearing housings are typically split half pedestal type bearing housings.
(b) Line shaft bearing housings are typically single-piece pedestal type bearing housings.
(c) Line shaft bearing housings are typically single-piece flange type bearing housings.
(d) Line shaft bearing housings are typically split half flange type bearing housings.
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171.
(3.2.13.4-3) What statement is true concerning the purpose of an independent main thrust
bearing where used?
o
o
o
(a) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb axial thrust and to transmit the axial
thrust developed by the propeller to the ship's hull.
(b) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb axial thrust and maintain the shaft in
proper axial alignment.
(c) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb radial thrust and maintain the shaft
in proper radial alignment.
(d) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb radial thrust and to transmit the
radial thrust developed by the propeller to the ship's hull.
172.
(3.2.13.4-4) Concerning the proper lubrication of a ring-oiled line shaft bearing, what statement is
true?
o
o
(a) The oil level should be maintained high enough so that some oil is seen exiting the bearing
along the shaft.
(b) The oil level should be high enough so that the oiling rings dip into the oil, but the rings must
not be allowed to freely rotate with the shaft.
(c) The oil level should be high enough so that the oiling rings dip into the oil, and the rings must
freely rotate with the shaft.
(d) The oil level should be maintained high enough so that the entire bearing is continuously
flooded.
173.
(3.2.13.4-5) What type of bearing is most generally used as an independent main thrust block on
merchant ships?
o
o
o
174.
(3.2.14.1.2-2) When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing
is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.
o
o
o
(a) loosened, and then retightened with the pump running under normal conditions
(b) left in that position
(c) tightened an additional 10% to compress the packing
(d) loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box
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175.
o
o
o
176.
(3.2.14.1.1-4) You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to
slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.
o
o
o
(a) suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift
(b) discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts
(c) suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to decrease
(d) discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure
177.
(3.2.14.1.1-1) The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as
designed is to __________.
o
o
(a) use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records
(b) closely observe the pump discharge temperature
(c) close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
(d) momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
178.
(3.2.14.1.1-8) After a disassembly of a single stage centrifugal pump, one finds the outer
circumference of the impeller badly pitted and worn. Not having a spare impeller on board, it is
decided to turn down the impeller to eliminate the wear/pitting. What will be the pump capacity, in
GPM, after the reduction of impeller diameter by 0.5 inches? GIVEN: Original pump capacity = 30
GPM Original impeller diameter = 8 in.
o
o
179.
(3.2.14.1.1-2) If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed the
__________.
o
o
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180.
o
o
o
181.
(3.2.14.1.1-3) Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused
by __________.
o
o
o
(a) corrosion
(b) abrasion
(c) electrolysis
(d) cavitation
182.
(3.2.14.1.1-6) When ordering a new centrifugal pump for installation, what is the advantage of a
pump with a double suction impeller over a single suction impeller?
o
o
183.
(3.2.14.1.1-9) One is informed by the owner that two of the vessel's electrically driven centrifugal
cooling water pumps will be replaced with two of higher capacity pumps. No modification of existing
piping will be involved. What should be your concerns from an operational perspective?
o
o
o
(a) Upgrading of circuit breakers and controllers and possible increased erosion of discharge
piping due to increased system velocities.
(b) Piping should be of no concern since it is designed with a safety factor. Electrical power
should be of concern.
(c) Electrical power should be of no concern due to safety margins designed into power systems.
Increased erosion may be a long term consideration.
(d) One should not be concerned operationally since all systems are designed with future
modifications/upgrades in mind.
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184.
(3.2.14.1.1-11) On disassembling a centrifugal pump for overhaul, the third engineer reports
holes drilled axially in the back side of a single suction closed impeller. The reason for the these
holes is which of the following?
o
o
o
185.
(3.2.14.1.3-4) While making a round in the lower engine room you discover a leak in the suction
pipe to the main salt water pump. How would proceed to correct this problem?
o
o
o
(a) Use a type of banded patch (from a simple gasket with hose clamps to forge clamp style) on
the pipe to seal the hole in the pipe until a permanent repair can be made.
(b) Wrap the leaky section of pipe with duct tape to slow the leak down.
(c) Let the pipe leak until a permanent repair can be made at your next port call.
(d) Monitor the leak to see if it worsens.
186.
(3.2.14.1.3-5) When reviewing log books, the main salt water cooling pump discharge pressure
has decreased in the three years since overhaul. Which of the following would most likely be the
cause of the problem?
o
o
187.
(3.3.4.1-48) What would cause a pump casing distortion that may lead to casing crack(s), leaks
and eventual mechanical pump problems?
o
o
o
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188.
(3.2.14.1.3-6) When opening a ballast pump for inspection, the wear ring clearance is found to be
approaching maximum. Which of the following would be expected?
o
o
o
189.
(3.2.14.1.3-1) Your centrifugal ballast pump is producing a pressure less than the designed
discharge pressure. What could be the cause?
o
o
190.
(3.2.14.1.3-2) The shipyard has just reassembled an overhauled centrifugal pump. On testing,
water is coming from the mechanical seal area. Which of the following are likely reasons for the
leakage?
o
o
o
191.
o
o
o
(3.2.14.2.1-1) A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.
(a) slightly opened
(b) throttled
(c) halfway opened
(d) fully opened
192.
(3.2.15-5) According to the illustration, which of the following conditions would most likely cause
Pump "A" to short cycle? Illustration GS-0173
o
o
o
(a) The hydro-pneumatic expansion tank is operating with an insufficient air charge.
(b) The hydro-pneumatic tank is operating with a low water level.
(c) A low water level exists in the potable water storage tank.
(d) Pump "A" wearing rings have excessive clearance.
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193.
o
o
o
194.
(3.2.15-4) Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage
and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?
o
o
(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) Type IV
195.
(3.2.15-2) Coast Guard regulations concerning marine sanitation devices may be found in
__________.
o
o
o
196.
o
o
o
(3.2.15-1) Marine sanitation devices installed on vessels must be certified by the __________.
(a) U.S. Coast Guard
(b) American Bureau of Shipping
(c) Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers
(d) Environmental Protection Agency
197.
(3.2.17.3-5) What advantage does a 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system have over a 2-pipe
hydronic heating/cooling system?
o
o
(a) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires double the amount of piping as compared
to a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system serving the same number of zones.
(b) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system allows simultaneous heating and cooling of different
zones, whereas a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system does not.
(c) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system can serve twice as many zones as a 2-pipe hydronic
heating/cooling system.
(d) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires one-half the amount of piping as compared
to a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system serving the same number of zones.
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198.
o
199.
(3.2.17.3-4) It is absolutely essential that hydronic heating system hot water piping be kept free of
air. Assuming that a system is initially properly filled with water, what is the primary source of air
contamination?
o
o
o
200.
(3.2.17.3-1) Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system
may be of the open or closed type. Referring to the illustrated central-station hookup for a hot water
heating system drawing, what would be the normal temperature range of the water? Illustration GS0151
o
o
o
201.
o
o
o
(3.2.17.3-2) What type of pump is invariably used as a circulator in a hydronic heating system?
(a) Reciprocating pump
(b) Centrifugal pump
(c) Rotary pump
(d) Diaphragm pump
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202.
(3.2.17.1-6) What type of HVAC system is characterized by a having a split supply air stream,
with one for cold air and the other for hot air?
o
o
203.
(3.2.17.1-2) What type of HVAC system is characterized by poor air distribution and ventilation
and low system heat loads?
o
o
204.
(3.2.17.1-5) Referring to illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? Illustration GSRA-43
o
o
205.
(3.2.17.1-7) What type of HVAC system is characterized by having control dampers in locations
other than the outside air supply, outside air exhaust, and recirculation damper applications?
o
o
o
206.
o
o
o
(3.2.17.1-1) What type of HVAC system is ideally designed to serve a large public space?
(a) A dual duct system
(b) A terminal reheat system
(c) A variable air volume system
(d) A single zone system
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207.
(3.2.17.1-3) Referring to illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? Illustration GSRA-09
o
o
o
208.
(3.2.17.4-6) To determine the average cargo hold dew point temperature, at what location would
the dew point be measured?
o
o
o
209.
o
o
(a) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber.
(b) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid
desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
(c) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
(d) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid
desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber.
210.
o
o
o
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211.
o
o
o
(a) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by
means of a heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.
(b) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by
means of a cooling coil located in the regeneration chamber.
(c) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed into the desiccant by
means of a cooling coil located in the regeneration chamber.
(d) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed in to the desiccant by
means of a heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.
212.
(3.2.17.4-7) What common feature is found on both liquid-desiccant and solid-desiccant cargohold dehumidification systems?
o
o
(a) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to drive the moisture out of the
desiccant.
(b) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to drive the moisture out of the desiccant.
(c) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to absorb moisture into the desiccant.
(d) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to absorb moisture into the
desiccant.
213.
(3.2.17.4-5) To prevent damage to dry cargoes, the cargo hold ventilation and dehumidification
systems play a key role. In terms of the maintained dew point, what statement is true?
o
o
(a) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained at the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
o
(b) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10 F above the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
o
(c) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10 F below the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
(d) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained at a constant temperature
regardless of the surface temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
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214.
(3.2.17.4-4) With regard to the cooling and heating coils and humidification and regeneration
chambers of a liquid cargo-hold dehumidification system, what statement is true?
(a) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as
the regeneration chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil
and is known as the humidification chamber.
(b) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and
is known as the regeneration chamber.
(c) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil and
is known as the regeneration chamber.
(d) The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil
and is known as the regeneration chamber.
215.
(3.2.17.2-3) In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the
functioning of the summer outside air duct thermostat? Illustration GS-RA-42
(a) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and
opens the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly
higher than typical indoor air temperatures.
(b) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and
opens the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher
than typical indoor air temperatures.
(c) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and
closes the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly
higher than typical indoor air temperatures.
(d) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and
closes the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher
than typical indoor air temperatures.
216.
(3.2.17.2-5) Referring to the illustrated dual duct multiple zone HVAC system, how is the space
temperature directly controlled? Illustration GS-RA-43
o
o
o
(a) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically proportioning the cold and hot air
streams at the mixing unit.
(b) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the steam flow through the
preheat coil.
(c) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the chilled water flow
through the cooling coil.
(d) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the steam flow through the
reheat coil.
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217.
(3.2.17.2-4) Referring to the illustrated single zone HVAC system diagram, what statement is true
concerning the damper controls? Illustration GS-RA-09
o
o
(a) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally open and the recirculation damper is
normally closed and all three dampers are controlled by a single pilot air signal.
(b) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally closed and the recirculation damper is
normally open and all three dampers are controlled by a single pilot air signal.
(c) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally closed and the recirculation damper is
normally open and each damper is controlled by its own pilot air signal.
(d) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally open and the recirculation damper is
normally closed and each damper is controlled by its own pilot air signal.
218.
(3.2.17.2-2) In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the
relationship between the exhaust, outside air and recirculation dampers? Illustration GS-RS-09
o
o
(a) The more the exhaust and recirculation dampers are open, the more the outside air damper is
closed, and vice versa.
(b) The more the outside air and recirculation dampers are open, the more the exhaust damper is
closed, and vice versa.
(c) The more the exhaust and outside air dampers are open, the more the recirculation damper is
closed, and vice versa.
(d) The exhaust, outside air, and recirculation dampers are all open or closed to the same degree
for all operating conditions.
219.
(3.2.17.2-1) In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what prevents the simultaneous flow of
steam through the preheat coil and flow of chilled water through the cooling coil? Illustration GS-RA09
o
o
o
(a) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set several degrees lower than the
design off-coil temperature associated with the cooling coil.
(b) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set equal to the design off-coil
temperature associated with the cooling coil.
(c) Simultaneous steam flow through the preheater and chilled water flow through the cooling coil
is permitted for the purposes of space humidity control.
(d) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set several degrees higher than
the design off-coil temperature associated with the cooling coil.
220.
(3.2.17.5-5) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, under what conditions are the dry
bulb, wet bulb, and dew point temperatures for air all equal in value? Illustration GS-RA-22
o
o
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221.
(3.2.17.5-4) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the cooling season
that air passes over a cooling coil with a mean surface temperature above the dew point
temperature, and this results in sensible heat loss with no change in moisture content. What
statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process line? Illustration GS-RA-22
o
o
(a) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the right of the coil inlet.
(b) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the left of the coil inlet.
(c) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet below the coil inlet.
(d) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet above the coil inlet.
222.
(3.2.17.5-2) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, if the dry bulb temperature is 70 F
and the relative humidity is 40%, what is the absolute humidity? Illustration GS-RA-22
o
o
223.
(3.2.17.5-1) What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured by
an ordinary thermometer?
o
o
o
224.
(3.2.17.5-3) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose air at a dry-bulb temperature
o
of 60 F and a relative humidity of 52% passes over a heating coil, resulting in sensible heat gain,
o
and the off-coil temperature is now 80 F. What is off-coil relative humidity? Illustration GS-RA-22
o
o
(a) 19%
(b) 27%
(c) 55%
(d) 70%
225.
(3.2.18.3-3) The minimum number of crew members permitted by law to operate your vessel can
be determined by checking the __________.
o
o
o
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226.
(3.2.18.3-4) The Certificate of Inspection for your vessel was issued in January. In March of the
same year you need to replace a cooling water pump for the refrigeration system. What action would
be appropriate?
o
o
(a) Defer informing the Coast Guard of the pump's replacement until the mid-period inspection.
(b) Replace the pump, as the Coast Guard need not be informed of the pump replacement.
(c) Inform the Coast Guard if the replacement will involve welding or burning.
(d) Inform the nearest Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection of the pump replacement.
227.
(3.2.18.3-5) The minimum firefighting equipment to be maintained onboard a tank vessel, can be
determined from the __________.
o
o
o
228.
(3.2.18.3-2) The unlicensed crew requirements listed on the Certificate of Inspection reads as
follows: 3 firemen/watertenders; 3 oilers. The vessel is about to depart on a foreign voyage, and
has in the crew: 3 firemen/watertenders, 2 oilers, and one man, whose merchant mariner's
document is endorsed QMED, any rating. You should __________.
o
o
o
229.
(3.2.18.3-1) An international and coastwise load line assignment and certificate has been issued
to a vessel by the American Bureau of Shipping, under the authority of Coast Guard Regulations (46
CFR), for a period of __________.
o
o
o
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years
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230.
o
o
o
231.
o
o
o
(3.2.18.1-1) Where would you find a list of the firefighting equipment required on your vessel?
(a) Muster List ("Station Bill")
(b) Certificate of Inspection
(c) Official logbook
(d) In the captain's desk
232.
o
o
o
(3.2.18.1-3) A Coast Guard engineer's license can be suspended or revoked for __________.
(a) having your wages garnished
(b) being responsible for an oil spill ashore
(c) failure to attend safety meetings
(d) conviction of any misdemeanor ashore
233.
(3.2.18.1-2) The duties of a chief engineer upon taking charge of the department include
__________.
o
o
o
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234.
(3.2.18.2-3) In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), it is the duty of the chief
engineer to acquire and seal a sample of fuel oil received whenever fuel oil bunkers are taken. This
sample must be preserved until __________.
o
o
o
235.
(3.2.18.2-1) Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight
doors in an emergency?
o
o
236.
(3.2.18.2-4) Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight
doors in an emergency?
o
o
237.
(3.2.18.4-1) A water line ruptures under pressure and floods the engine room causing $(USA)
30,000 damage to the machinery. By law, this must be reported to the __________.
o
o
o
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238.
(3.2.18.4-5) When a ships officer signs off a trainee's successful completion of one or more
practical demonstrations, they are attesting to the trainee's____________.
o
o
o
(a) ability to perform the practical demonstration only at the time the skill was assessed
(b) overall competency
(c) knowledge of how to perform the task and nothing more
(d) ability to perform the specific task not only at the time of demonstration, but also for the future
239.
(3.2.18.4-4) In order to assess each trainee in the performance of a practical demonstration, the
assessor should __________.
o
o
o
(a) sign off the remaining half of all skills to be demonstrated based upon the success of the first
half of the skill demonstration
(b) create a unique set of subjective questions for each trainee
(c) evaluate according to their discretion, simply by their ability to "tell" when a candidate is
performing well
(d) refer to a checklist that represents the skill process as required on board the vessel
240.
(3.2.18.4-2) A trainee is on board your vessel and will need to be assessed in the demonstration
of practical skills. Ideally you should assess their skill __________.
o
o
o
(a) after they have received training and personally practiced the skill
(b) immediately after they have received training
(c) after they have observed the skill demonstrated once
(d) before they have received training
241.
o
o
(a) another licensed officer has witnessed the performance of the demonstration
(b) the pre-brief with the trainee has been completed
(c) the entire practical demonstration has been successfully completed and personally observed
by the licensed officer
(d) the majority of any portion of the skill has been demonstrated
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242.
(3.2.18.4-3) One important objective of a practical skill demonstration for mariner certification is to
__________.
o
o
(a) institute busy work for both the trainee and assessor
(b) establish if the trainee can perform certain tasks at a later time
(c) determine the degree of competence of the trainee during the assessment
(d) subjectively prevent trainee's from being licensed or certified
243.
o
o
o
244.
(3.2.21.1-2) Control system diagrams use standard symbols to describe the component function
required for the system to achieve its intended control functions. Standard symbols are used to allow
engineers to describe the logic and component functions. Define the function of symbol "I" as shown
in the illustration. See Illustration GS-0180
o
o
245.
(3.2.21.2-3) While calibrating an electronic 4-20 mA or 3-15 PSI pneumatic controller, what is the
value of 'Live Zero'?
o
o
o
(a) '0' for input span and another value for output range.
(b) 4 mA or 3 PSI for process output range.
(c) '0' for span and range.
(d) 4 mA or 3 PSI.
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246.
(3.2.21.2-2) While calibrating a 4-20 mA electronic, or a 3-15 PSI pneumatic controller, with a
process output of 50-250 PSI, what is the controller span/range you are dealing with?
o
o
247.
o
o
o
(a) Proportional.
(b) Derivative and Proportional.
(c) Integral and Derivative.
(d) All are equally important.
248.
o
o
(a) By decreasing reset, the system's oscillations should subside vs. set point after an upset.
(b) By decreasing gain, the process should return to a straight line response vs. set point after an
upset.
(c) By decreasing gain gradually, the process should stabilize in a 'quarter wave' response to
system's upsets vs. the set point.
(d) By increasing gain, the system's oscillations should subside vs. set point after an upset.
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249.
(3.3.12.2.2-5) Prior to getting underway on the navigable waters of the United States, within 12
hours, according to 33 CFR regulations governing ports and waterways safety, certain tests are
required. Which of the following are included in the tests that must be performed?
(1) Operation of the main propulsion machinery, ahead and astern.
(2) Operation of the low lube oil pressure trip on the main engine.
(3) Operation of the reverse power relay on the emergency generator.
(4) Operation of the over speed trip on the ship's service diesel generator.
(5) Operation of the emergency generator.
o
o
250.
(3.3.12.2.2-3) Prior to entering the navigable waters of the United States after an international
voyage, your vessel must conduct drills according to 33 CFR regulations for ports and waterways
safety that test steering system functionality and log that in the vessel logbook, unless the drill is
conducted and logged on a regular basis at least once every three months. Within how many hours
of arrival must these drills be performed?
o
o
o
(a) 6 hours
(b) 12 hours
(c) 24 hours
(d) 48 hours
251.
(3.3.12.2.2-4) Prior to entering the navigable waters of the United States after an international
voyage, your vessel must conduct drills according to 33 CFR regulations for ports and waterways
safety that test steering system functionality and log that in the vessel logbook, unless the drill is
conducted and logged on a regular basis at least once every three months. Which of the following
functions must be tested for?
o
o
o
(a) Operation of the main steering gear from within the steering gear compartment utilizing the
means of communication between the navigating bridge and the steering gear compartment.
(b) Operation of the main steering gear from each bridge wing, if fitted, utilizing the normal means
of communication on the bridge wings.
(c) Operation of the auxiliary steering gear from the main navigating bridge utilizing the normal
means of communication in the wheelhouse.
(d) Operation of the auxiliary steering gear from each bridge wing, if fitted, utilizing the normal
means of communication on the bridge wings.
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252.
(3.3.12.2.2-1) Prior to arrival in Charleston, SC your vessel must conduct drills within 48 hours
prior to entry and log that in the vessel logbook. Alternatively, you can log regularly
scheduled quarterly drills according to 33 CFR regulations governing ports and waterways safety.
Which of the following are included in the drills that must be performed?
(1) Operation of the main steering gear from within the steering gear compartment.
(2) Operation of the means of communications between the navigating bridge and the steering
compartment.
(3) Operation of the alternative power supply for the steering gear, if the vessel is so equipped.
(4) Operation of the low lube pressure trip on the main engine.
(5) Operation of the reverse power relay on the ship's diesel generator.
o
o
253.
o
o
o
(a) 75 dB(A)
(b) 85 dB(A)
(c) 90 dB(A)
(d) 110 dB(A)
254.
(3.3.14.3-9) Various tests while conducting a fuel oil analysis can be performed on board to
facilitate proper centrifugation. What test provides the key data for selecting the correct purifier
gravity disk for fuel oil centrifugal purifiers?
o
o
o
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255.
(3.3.14.3-10) Compatibility of fuel is easily checked onboard ship to insure that serious problems
do not result. What statement concerning fuel incompatibility is true?
o
o
o
(a) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency to form sludge, and therefore must not
be blended.
(b) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency to separate out from one another, and
therefore must be vigorously blended.
(c) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency to form sludge, and therefore must be
vigorously blended.
(d) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency to separate out from one another, and
therefore must not be blended.
256.
(3.3.14.3-5) Which of the following fuel sampling methods would present the most reliable,
accurate, and cost-effective option for shipboard use?
o
o
o
257.
(3.3.14.3-8) Various tests while conducting a fuel oil analysis can be performed on board to
facilitate proper fuel storage, handling, and treatment. What tests are most important for determining
what temperatures to maintain throughout the fuel forwarding and service systems?
o
o
o
258.
(3.3.2.3-3) In response to a fire on the main deck or in the accommodation spaces, who would
ordinarily report immediately to the scene of the fire and act as second in command of the fire team
led by the chief mate?
o
o
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259.
(3.3.2.3-5) Automatic fire, smoke, and heat detectors are crucial in sizing-up a fire. Which of the
following statements about the number of zones reporting is true?
o
o
o
(a) The number of zones reporting gives an indication of the size of the fire or the extent to which
it has spread.
(b) The number of zones reporting gives an indication of the rate of development of the fire.
(c) The number of zones reporting gives an indication of the intensity of the fire.
(d) The number of zones reporting gives an indication of the stage of development of the fire.
260.
(3.3.2.3-2) In response to a fire in the engine room, who would ordinarily report immediately to the
engine control room and assume command of the engine room?
o
o
261.
(3.3.2.3-7) Which of the following represents the visual factors that an officer in charge of a fire
scene would use to size-up a fire?
o
o
o
262.
(3.3.2.1-6) Of all the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component
contains information about emergency duty station locations and responsibilities for each crew
member by position AND name?
o
o
o
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263.
(3.3.2.1-5) Of all the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component
contains information pertaining to general instructions, fire and emergency instructions and signals,
abandon ship instructions and signals, and assigns individual emergency response duties and
responsibilities for each crew member by position?
o
o
264.
(3.3.2.1-1) An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan.
Which statement is true concerning the fire control plan for a vessel?
o
o
(a) The fire control plan is a set of drawings for each deck of the vessel and contains information
on vessel arrangements and fire suppression systems and locations of firefighting equipment.
(b) The fire control plan is a set of written descriptions for each deck of the vessel and contains
information on vessel arrangement and fire suppression systems and locations of firefighting
equipment.
(c) The fire control plan is a set of drawings for each deck of the vessel and contains information
for how to extinguish a fire in a particular space.
(d) The fire control plan is a set of written instructions and contains information for how to
extinguish a fire in a particular space.
265.
o
o
o
266.
(3.3.2.1-2) An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan.
What types of drawings are generally furnished in the fire control plan?
o
o
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267.
(3.3.13.2.3-2) When looking for IMO regulations on a vessel's oil water separator, the information
will be found in which of the following documents?
o
o
(a) SOLAS
(b) ISM manuals
(c) MARPOL
(d) CFRs
268.
(3.3.7.2.1-7) What statement is true concerning the checks to be undertaken in the "checks prior
to transfer" section of the bunkering safety checklist where the transfer is from barge-to-ship?
o
o
(a) These are checks to be performed solely by the person in charge (PIC) of the barge's role of
the bunkering operation.
(b) These are checks to be performed jointly by the persons in charge (PICs) of both the barge's
and ship's roles of the bunkering operation.
(c) These are checks to be performed solely by the person in charge (PIC) of the ship's role of the
bunkering operation.
(d) These are checks to be performed jointly by the person in charge (PIC) of the ship's role of
the bunkering operation and the USCG marine inspector.
269.
o
o
270.
(3.3.7.2.1-3) Fuel tank tables are given in volumes whereas fuel is delivered by weight in tons.
How is volume change represented by beginning and ending ullages converted into weight?
o
o
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271.
(3.3.9.4-4) In setting up a managerial control system, the standard must be established, and a
means of measuring performance against that standard must be established. What statement is true
concerning the comparison between performance and the standard?
o
o
(a) Any deviation must be determined and documented for record-keeping purposes. No further
action is necessary.
(b) Any deviation must be determined. No further action is necessary.
(c) Any deviation must be determined and analyzed to determine what caused the deviation.
Corrective action is taken as necessary.
(d) Any deviation must be determined and analyzed to determine what caused the deviation. No
further action is necessary.
272.
(3.3.9.4-1) What type of managerial controls measure actions or activities that have already
occurred and implement corrective action if needed?
o
o
273.
(3.3.4.1.3-1) A periodic hydrostatic test is being performed on a main steam line between the
boiler drum and the throttle valve which has a maximum allowable working pressure of 960 psig. In
accordance with 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to piping
systems, what is the required hydrostatic test pressure for this procedure?
o
o
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274.
o
o
o
(a) An internal inspection of the non-metallic expansion joint is performed every 5 years
regardless of the frequency of periodic vessel inspections.
(b) An internal inspection of the non-metallic expansion joint is performed every 2.5 years
regardless of the frequency of periodic vessel inspections.
(c) An internal inspection of the non-metallic expansion joint is performed at every periodic ship
inspection.
(d) An internal inspection of the non-metallic expansion joint is performed whenever an external
inspection reveals excessive wear or other signs of deterioration or damage.
275.
o
o
(a) When the marine inspector determines that a hydrostatic test is warranted, the system must
be completely drained and re-pressurized with compressed air.
(b) When the marine inspector determines that a hydrostatic test is warranted, the system must
be completely drained and refilled with water as only water can be used as a hydrostatic test
medium.
(c) When the marine inspector determines that a hydrostatic test is warranted, the system must
be completely drained, cleaned with an appropriate solvent, and refilled with water as only water
can be used as a hydrostatic test medium.
(d) When the marine inspector determines that a hydrostatic test is warranted, the fired thermal
fluid heater heating medium fluid can be used as a hydrostatic test medium.
276.
(3.3.1.2.-5) The design of a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating.
One of the characteristics of a job design is skill variety, which is the extent to which a job requires a
worker to use a broad range of skills and talents to perform the job successfully. What is true about
skill variety?
o
o
o
(a) Generally, the greater the variety of the skills that are performed, the lower the level of intrinsic
motivation.
(b) Generally, the greater the variety of the skills that are performed, the greater the level of
extrinsic motivation.
(c) Generally, the greater the variety of the skills that are performed, the lower the level of
extrinsic motivation.
(d) Generally, the greater the variety of the skills that are performed, the greater the level of
intrinsic motivation.
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277.
(3.3.1.2-4) Which of the following actions would motivate employees by making their job
intrinsically more rewarding?
o
o
(a) Providing clear performance objectives and setting of concrete, specific, challenging goals.
(b) Providing timely performance feedback and acknowledging progress on a daily, regular basis.
(c) Changing the job routine to instill a feeling being challenged or achieving an accomplishment.
(d) Rewarding employee performance through the reward system available to you as a manager.
278.
(3.3.1.2.-6) The design of a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating.
One of the characteristics of a job design is task significance, which is the extent to which the job
substantially impacts the work or lives of others. What is true about task significance?
o
o
o
(a) Generally, the greater the significance of tasks that are performed, the greater the level of
intrinsic motivation.
(b) Generally, the greater the significance of tasks that are performed, the greater the level of
extrinsic motivation.
(c) Generally, the greater the significance of tasks that are performed, the lower the level of
intrinsic motivation.
(d) Generally, the greater the significance of tasks that are performed, the lower the level of
extrinsic motivation.
279.
(3.3.12.6-2) According to the 46 CFR regulations applicable to tests, drills, and inspections for
offshore supply vessel operations, for an OSV that is expected to be away from shore for at least 48
hours, what is the requirement for when testing communications between the pilot house and the
engine room must be accomplished prior to departure?
o
o
280.
(3.3.3.3-3) During the Special Survey the propeller is removed and shaft pulled into the vessel.
Which of the following tests must be performed on the propeller shaft prior to refitting?
o
o
o
(a) The tapered section must be checked for cracks using non-destructive testing.
(b) The entire shaft must be checked for cracks using non-destructive testing.
(c) The propeller flange must be checked for cracks using non-destructive testing.
(d) The shaft weight must be checked prior to refitting.
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281.
(3.3.9.5-3) Which of the following diagrams or charts is particularly useful for understanding and
identifying the causes of problems?
o
o
282.
(3.3.9.5-2) Which of the following would represent an attempt to reduce the frequency of required
overhauls for machinery?
o
o
283.
(3.3.12.1.3-3) You are the relieving the Chief Engineer of a general cargo vessel of more than
1600 gross tons on an international voyage. You have just signed on the vessel and after reviewing
the machinery running hours you notice the Emergency Generator has not been run in over sixty
days. How would you proceed?
o
o
o
(a) During your next port stay arrange with the Captain to run the Emergency Generator under
load for at least two hours.
(b) During your next port stay arrange with the Captain to run the Emergency Generator under a
full electrical load for only one hour.
(c) During your next port stay arrange with the Captain to test run the Emergency Generator for
two hours at 75% of full load.
(d) No action is required; the emergency generator only needs to run during loss of ship's power
or during ship yard periods.
284.
(3.3.12.1.3-6) According to the Code of Federal Regulations (46 CFR) for Tank Vessels, what is
the minimum allowable flashpoint for a fuel to be burned in a steam boiler?
o
o
(a) 100 F
o
(b) 120 F
o
(c) 140 F
o
(d) 160 F
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285.
(3.3.12.1.3-1) The firefighting equipment on your general cargo vessel was last inspected by a
shore side contractor 12 months ago. To remain in compliance with the Federal Code of Regulations
(46 CFR), as chief engineer, what should your appropriate action be?
o
o
o
(a) You should notify the master or the person in charge of the firefighting equipment to arrange
for an annual inspection of the ship's firefighting equipment by a qualified shore side contractor,
as soon as possible.
(b) You should arrange an inspection of the ship's firefighting equipment by a qualified shore side
contractor eighteen months after the date of the last inspection.
(c) You should arrange an inspection of the firefighting equipment by the third mate.
(d) Nothing needs to be done at this time.
286.
(3.3.12.1.3-5) According to the Code of Federal Regulations (46 CFR) for Passenger Vessels, for
how long do the drawn and sealed half-pint fuel samples need to be maintained and preserved on
board?
o
o
(a) The samples need to be preserved for the length of the voyage.
(b) The samples need to be preserved until that fuel supply is exhausted.
(c) The samples need to be preserved for a period of one year.
(d) There is no requirement for preserving fuel samples.
287.
(3.3.3.2-4) What responsibilities does a Senior Officer have while on Builder's Sea Trials of a new
vessel to which one will be assigned?
o
o
o
(a) Be involved operationally with shipyard operators/crew, and report any possible deficiencies to
the owner's representatives.
(b) Be involved operationally with the shipyard operating personnel, and assist in operations.
(c) Witness/observe operations and tests, report any perceived discrepancies to regulatory
bodies on board.
(d) None operationally, observe/witness tests and document any possible discrepancies to
owners' representatives.
288.
(3.3.15.2-8) Which of the following maintenance criteria would be the basis of planned
maintenance?
o
o
o
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289.
(3.3.15.2-7) Which of the following maintenance criteria would be the basis of condition-based
maintenance?
o
o
o
290.
o
o
o
291.
o
o
292.
o
o
o
293.
o
o
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294.
(3.3.8.1-9) In preparing for the assessment of a mariner for competency, the assessor must
establish that the appropriate conditions will be present for the assessment. What should the
assessor do if the required conditions would adversely affect the normal operation of the ship?
o
o
o
(a) The assessment should be postponed until such time that the assessment conditions required
would not affect the normal operation of the ship.
(b) Under these circumstances, the particular assessment competence should be signed off
without a performance demonstration.
(c) For functional realism, the assessment should be carried out as originally planned even
though it may affect the normal operation of the ship.
(d) Under these circumstances, the normal performance criteria can be substituted with a verbal
explanation of required actions.
295.
o
o
o
(3.3.8.1-1) What statement is true concerning assessment validity and assessment reliability?
(a) Assessment reliability is a pre-condition for assessment validity, but not vice versa.
(b) Assessment reliability is not a pre-condition for assessment validity, and assessment validity
is not a pre-condition for assessment reliability.
(c) Assessment reliability is a pre-condition for assessment validity, and assessment validity is a
pre-condition for assessment reliability.
(d) Assessment validity is a pre-condition for assessment reliability, but not vice versa.
296.
(3.3.8.1-3) Which of the following statements defines reliability as it pertains to assessing mariner
proficiency or competency?
o
o
(a) An assessment is reliable when it accurately measures the job-critical knowledge, skills, and
abilities required for proficient job performance.
(b) An assessment is reliable when it consistently obtains the same results across mariners with
comparable skills.
(c) An assessment is reliable when it accurately measures the critical knowledge, skills, and
abilities required of the assessment platform.
(d) An assessment is reliable when it consistently obtains the same results when repeated for the
same mariner.
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297.
(3.3.6.1-4) As you manage the engine room familiarization training program for new engine
department employees, what should you explain to these new employees?
o
o
o
(a) There is really insufficient time for familiarization training that is mandated, and the new
employee should not worry about it.
(b) The familiarization training that is mandated is excessive overkill, and the new employee
should not worry about it.
(c) The employee should do his or her best and the appropriate entries shall be made in the
training record book regardless of familiarity achieved.
(d) The employee has the obligation to notify his or her supervisor if they don't feel sufficiently
familiar to be competent.
298.
(3.3.6.1-3) If there is any doubt that a newly employed engine department crew member is
sufficiently familiar with the engine room equipment, operating and maintenance procedures needed
for the proper performance of his or her duties, what should be done?
o
o
o
(a) The employee should be allowed to perform his or her duties without supervision in the hopes
that he or she will eventually become familiar enough to be competent.
(b) The employee should be demoted and required to function at the lowest level for the entire
duration of his or her assignment.
(c) The employee should be immediately terminated and arrangements made for a relief to be
sent out whenever practical.
(d) The employee should be provided a period of close supervision until there is no longer any
doubt that he or she is familiar enough to be competent.
299.
(3.3.6.1-5) Who onboard is responsible for identifying all new crew members and insuring that the
safety training and shipboard familiarization training program is implemented according to written
policy and procedures?
o
o
o
300.
(3.3.4.1.8-2) You are requested by Port State Authority to present records pertaining to Flag State
inspections. Which of the following records would you present?
o
o
(a) U.S. Coast Guard and American Bureau of Shipping inspection records.
(b) American Bureau of Shipping inspection records.
(c) U.S. Coast Guard inspection records.
(d) Last Port State Control inspection records.
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301.
(3.3.12.2.1-3) In accordance with the federal regulation in 33CFR Subchapter O, which discharge
of oil or oily mixture to sea is permissible?
o
o
(a) When the oil or oily mixture is mixed with tanker cargo residues.
(b) When the oil content of the effluent without dilution is less than 100 parts per million.
(c) When the discharge is necessary to for the purpose of securing the safety of a ship or saving
life at sea.
(d) When the oil or oily mixture originates from tanker cargo pump room bilges.
302.
(3.3.12.2.1-1) In what part of 33CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific
machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker that
must be entered into an Oil Record Book?
o
o
303.
(3.3.12.2.1-2) In accordance with federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for U.S nonoceangoing ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling
bilge slops?
o
o
(a) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or
in a slops tank and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility.
(b) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million
oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
(c) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it
is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility.
(d) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million
oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
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304.
(3.3.12.2.1-4) Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a
Type II Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of treated or untreated
sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge
of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical to close the seacock and prevent its opening?
o
o
o
(a) Placing a warning sign on the door to the space enclosing the toilets advising all concerned
that the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
(b) Placing of tape forming an "X" over toilet and urinal bowls to convey to all concerned that the
vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
(c) Making an announcement over the public address system advising all concerned that the
vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
(d) Locking the door to the space enclosing the toilets with a padlock or door handle key lock to
prevent entry when the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
305.
(3.3.7.1.3-4) When transitioning from full sea speed to maneuvering speed on a slow-speed
diesel powered vessel that features a direct-drive fixed-pitch propeller propulsion arrangement, how
should this be accomplished?
o
o
o
(a) The engine should be decelerated from full sea speed to maneuvering speed very gradually,
but should transition through any critical speeds without any lingering.
(b) The engine should be decelerated from full sea speed to maneuvering speed very gradually,
even if it means lingering for extended periods of time at critical speeds.
(c) The engine should be decelerated from full sea speed to maneuvering speed very gradually,
without any concern for critical speeds as they will not be encountered.
(d) The engine should be decelerated from full sea speed to maneuvering speed very quickly and
should transition through any critical speeds without any lingering.
306.
(3.3.7.1.3-2) As a management level engineering officer on a motor vessel equipped with engines
capable of burning both high sulfur content residual fuels and low sulfur content distillate fuels,
on approaching arrival to a US port, when would you plan for the fuel changeover to be
accomplished?
o
o
o
(a) When entering the SOx emission control area set by local authorities.
(b) When entering US territorial boundaries 12 miles from the coastline.
(c) When entering the US economic exclusion zone 200 miles from the coastline.
(d) When entering US navigable waters 3 miles from the coastline.
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307.
(3.3.7.1.3-3) As a management level engineering officer on a motor vessel equipped with engines
capable of burning both high sulfur content residual fuels and low sulfur content distillate fuels, on
approaching arrival to a US port, for planning purposes, what must be done?
o
o
(a) The fuel changeover is commenced precisely as the vessel enters the SOx emissions control
area.
(b) The fuel changeover is commenced BEFORE the vessel enters the SOx emissions control
area to allow time for the high sulfur fuel to be flushed out of the fuel lines.
(c) The fuel changeover is commenced approximately 1 nautical mile either side of the SOx
emissions control area.
(d) The fuel changeover is commenced AFTER the vessel enters the SOx emissions control area
to allow time for the high sulfur fuel to be flushed out of the fuel lines.
308.
(3.3.16.2-1) As a management level engineering officer, you are apt to be the primary investigator
investigating the root cause of the failure of a piece of machinery. In collecting the necessary data
for the root cause analysis, what should be your FIRST priority?
o
o
309.
(3.3.11.1-1) As a chief engineer you are reviewing the engine room logbook. You must insure that
all entries are made properly. What should be your criteria for how a watch officer makes a
correction to an incorrect log entry?
o
o
o
(a) The incorrect entry should be completely obliterated and the new correct entry made just
below the obliterated incorrect entry.
(b) The new correct entry should be written directly on top of the old incorrect entry making every
effort to cleverly disguise the incorrect entry.
(c) The incorrect entry is to be completely erased and the new correct entry written on top of the
erasure so no evidence remains of the incorrect entry.
(d) The incorrect entry should have a thin line drawn through the error and be initialed by the
person making the correction so that the incorrect entry is still visible.
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310.
o
o
311.
(3.3.14.4-1) When using a thermal imager for the purpose of conducting a thermo graphic
analysis of equipment, what form of energy produces the thermal signature radiating from the object
surface?
o
o
312.
o
o
o
313.
(3.3.7.1.1-3) As a management level engineering officer planning for the departure of a vessel,
what would be the preferred document to use to make sure that you did not miss any important
steps?
o
o
o
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314.
(3.3.7.1.1-6) When transitioning from maneuvering speed to full sea speed on a slow-speed
diesel-powered vessel that features a direct-drive fixed-pitch propeller propulsion arrangement, how
should this be accomplished?
o
o
(a) The engine should be accelerated from maneuvering speed to at sea speed very gradually,
without any concern for critical speeds as they will not be encountered.
(b) The engine should be accelerated from maneuvering speed to at sea speed very gradually,
but should transition through any critical speeds without any lingering.
(c) The engine should be accelerated from maneuvering speed to at sea speed very gradually,
even if it means lingering for extended periods of time at critical speeds.
(d) The engine should be accelerated from maneuvering speed to at sea speed very quickly and
should transition through any critical speeds without any lingering.
315.
(3.3.7.1.1-1) A containership is scheduled to depart the Port of Houston, TX at 0600 on April 7th
on a voyage to exceed 48 hours. What is the EARLIEST time that the steering gear could be tested
prior to getting underway and be in compliance with the cargo and miscellaneous vessel regulations
of 46 CFR?
o
o
316.
(3.3.7.1.1-5) As a management level engineering officer on a motor vessel equipped with engines
capable of burning both high sulfur content residual fuels and low sulfur content distillate fuels, on
departure from a US port, when would you plan for the fuel changeover be accomplished?
o
o
317.
(3.3.7.1.1-7) You are a management level engineering officer on a motor vessel. For departure
planning purposes, when is the "standby" order typically rung?
o
o
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318.
(3.3.7.1.1-2) A very large crude carrier is scheduled to depart of the Port of Long Beach, CA at
0800 on June 28th on a voyage to exceed 48 hours. What is the EARLIEST time that the
communication means between the wheelhouse and the engine control room could be tested prior to
getting underway and be in compliance with the tank vessel regulations of 46 CFR?
o
o
319.
(3.3.1.3-5) Leadership style sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees.
Which of the following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for adopting a
structuring and telling leadership style?
o
o
320.
(3.3.1.3-3) Some managers think the average person likes work, willingly assumes responsibility,
and is trustworthy. What type of leadership style is such a manager likely to adopt?
o
o
o
321.
o
o
o
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322.
o
o
323.
o
o
o
324.
(3.3.9.7-2) What is usually the last step in trying to resolve a grievance filed by a crew member as
established by the collective bargaining agreement between the company and the crew member's
union?
o
o
(a) Filing a formal grievance with port committee made up of both company and union
representatives in port before terminating articles.
(b) Filing a formal grievance with a company and union agreed-upon arbitrator for binding
arbitration.
(c) Filing a formal grievance with the union's designated representative (or committee) onboard
before terminating articles.
(d) Attempting to resolve the conflict by the crew member and the affected supervisor as
immediately as practical.
325.
(3.3.9.7-4) What federal agency enforces the prohibition of employment discrimination based on
race, color, religion, sex, or national origin as it applies to shipboard employment onboard US flag
vessels?
o
o
o
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326.
(3.3.1.6-2) As a manager, which of the following conflict management styles is considered the
most appropriate for resolving conflict and is considered both an assertive and a cooperative
approach?
o
o
o
(a) Collaborating
(b) Forcing
(c) Avoiding
(d) Accommodating
327.
(3.3.1.6-3) As a manager, one of the practices of positive confrontation reduction skills essential
to conflict resolution involves a type of listening. What type of listening would be most effective in
resolving a conflict?
o
o
o
328.
(3.3.5-5) If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided
from ashore, what statement is true as it relates to preparing a refrigeration system for lay-up?
o
o
o
(a) The refrigeration system should be evacuated with a deep-vacuum pump so that the entire
refrigerant charge is transferred to the atmosphere.
(b) The refrigeration system should be evacuated with a recovery unit so that the entire
refrigerant charge is transferred to a recovery cylinder.
(c) The refrigeration system should be left in an idle condition with the refrigerant charge
dispersed throughout the system.
(d) The refrigeration system should be pumped down so that the entire refrigerant charge is
stored and isolated in the receiver tank.
329.
(3.3.5-7) If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided
from ashore, what statement is true as it relates to keeping gearboxes, turbine casings, and engine
crankcases dry and free of moisture?
o
o
o
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330.
(3.3.5-4) If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided
from ashore, boilers may be laid up dry. What statement is true as it relates to protecting boiler
firesides?
o
o
o
(a) A cap may be installed on the forced draft air intake, and a ventilating unit may be installed to
blow cooled air into the furnace.
(b) A cap may be installed on the forced draft air intake, and a ventilating unit may be installed to
blow heated air into the furnace.
(c) A cap may be installed on the uptake outlet, and a ventilating unit may be installed to blow
cooled air into the furnace.
(d) A cap may be installed on the uptake outlet, and a ventilating unit may be installed to blow
heated air into the furnace.
331.
(3.3.5-2) If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided
where freezing is not a concern; boilers may be laid up wet. What statement concerning wet boiler
lay-up is true?
o
o
(a) The boiler should be completely filled with ordinary fresh water (such as potable water) until
water issues from the atmospheric vent.
(b) The boiler should be filled with dearated and chemically treated water until the water level is
brought to the top of the sight glass.
(c) The boiler should be completely filled with dearated and chemically treated water until water
issues from the atmospheric vent.
(d) The boiler should be filled with ordinary water (such as potable water) until the water level is
brought to the top of the sight glass.
332.
(3.3.5-3) If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided
from ashore, boilers may be laid up dry. What statement concerning dry boiler lay-up is true as it
relates to protecting boiler watersides?
o
o
o
(a) The steam and water drums should be opened up to permit air circulation. Under no
circumstances should desiccant be placed inside the closed-up steam and water drums.
(b) Desiccant should be placed inside the steam and water drums and the drums should be
opened to permit air circulation.
(c) Desiccant should be placed inside the closed-up steam and water drums. Under no
circumstances should the steam and water drums be opened up to permit air circulation.
(d) The steam and water drums can be opened up to permit air circulation, or as an alternative
desiccant can be placed inside the closed-up steam and water drums.
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333.
(3.3.9.3-5) It has been demonstrated that delegation can enhance employee development. To
avoid a fear of failure, what must a manager avoid when delegating decision-making power to an
employee?
o
o
(a) Under-estimating the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too
easy.
(b) Over-estimating the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too
easy.
(c) Over-estimating the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too
difficult.
(d) Under-estimating the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too
difficult.
334.
(3.3.9.3-4) What would be a legitimate reason why some managers don't delegate authority to
subordinates?
o
o
(a) They fail to delegate authority to subordinates due to a general lack of trust in others.
(b) They fail to delegate authority to subordinates due to an irrational fear of employees making
mistakes.
(c) They assess that the subordinates require more training, coaching, and experience in certain
assignments.
(d) They feel that when they delegate authority to subordinates they lose power and control.
335.
o
o
o
(3.3.9.3-1) As a first assistant or chief engineer, what is the source of your authority?
(a) Coercive power and control-of-information power.
(b) Legitimate power and expert power.
(c) Reward power and referent power.
(d) Absolute power and control-of-information power.
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336.
(3.3.2.2-1) Fire and emergency training has three major components: knowledge sessions, skills
sessions, and drills. What is the essential difference between skills sessions and drills if applicable?
o
o
(a) Skills sessions and drills both provide crew members an opportunity to engage in a practical
exercise in a realistic setting.
(b) Skills sessions provide crew members an opportunity to practice skills in a convenient training
location, whereas drills provide crew members an opportunity to engage in a practical exercise in
a realistic setting.
(c) Skills sessions and drills both provide crew members an opportunity to practice skills in a
convenient training location.
(d) Skills sessions provide crew members an opportunity to engage in a practical exercise in a
realistic setting, whereas drills provide crew members an opportunity to practice skills in a
convenient training location.
337.
(3.3.2.2-7) In planning for a fire and emergency drill, to insure drill success within the context of a
comprehensive fire and emergency training program, what should be planned for?
o
o
(a) The fire drill should be a simulated outbreak in a low fire risk area and for each fire drill the
location should remain the same.
(b) The fire drill should be a simulated outbreak in a low fire risk area and for each fire drill the
location should be changed.
(c) The fire drill should be a simulated outbreak in a high fire risk area and for each fire drill the
location should be changed.
(d) The fire drill should be a simulated outbreak in a high fire risk area and for each fire drill the
location should remain the same.
338.
(3.3.2.2-5) What are the necessary components of a fire and emergency training program
onboard ship?
o
o
(a) Classroom knowledge sessions and specific practical skills make up the fire and emergency
training program. Fire and emergency drill exercises are not considered training.
(b) Fire and emergency drill exercises and specific practical skills sessions make up the fire and
emergency training program. Classroom knowledge sessions are not considered training.
(c) Classroom knowledge sessions, specific practical skills sessions, and fire and emergency drill
exercises all makeup the fire and emergency training program.
(d) Fire and emergency drill exercises only make up the fire and emergency training program.
Classroom knowledge sessions and specific practical skills sessions are not considered training.
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339.
(3.3.2.2-8) According to the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS), how
often are fire and emergency drills to be conducted at sea and in port?
o
o
o
(a) Weekly
(b) Monthly
(c) Quarterly
(d) As needed
340.
(3.3.2.2-4) Once a fire and emergency drill is conducted, the drill ideally should be critiqued.
What of the following statements best describes the essential characteristics of an effective critique?
o
o
(a) Determining what went right and what went wrong and identifying areas where change and
improvements are necessary to the fire control plan or to the general arrangement plan.
(b) Determining what went right and what went wrong and identifying areas where change and
improvements are necessary to the pre-fire plan or to the emergency skills training plan.
(c) Determining what went right only and focusing only on the positive to reinforce effective and
productive behavior that promoted team functionality.
(d) Determining what went wrong only and focusing only on the negative in an attempt to
extinguish ineffective or counter-productive behavior that worked against team functionality.
341.
(3.3.1.5-2) What type of meeting is most likely to be one that is most appropriate to use group
consensus as a process?
o
o
o
342.
o
o
o
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343.
(3.3.1.5-1) As a manager considering which approach to use at a meeting, what type of meeting
is most likely to be one that is most appropriate to use a leader-controlled approach as opposed to a
group-centered approach?
o
o
o
344.
(3.3.1.5-6) As a manager conducting a meeting, what action should you take when an attendee
exhibits disruptive or inappropriate behavior?
o
o
o
345.
(3.3.9.1-4) Once a problem has been defined and the root cause (or causes) identified, the next
step in the decision-making process is developing alternative solutions to the problem. What
statement best reflects how many alternatives should be considered?
o
o
346.
(3.3.4.1.2-4) In accordance with 46 CFR 61, which of the following pressure vessels listed on the
ship's Certificate of Inspection would be exempt from hydrostatic testing?
o
o
o
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347.
o
o
o
348.
o
o
(a) Unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.
(b) Plastic or garbage mixed with plastic.
(c) Floating dunnage, lining, or packing material.
(d) Ground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.
349.
o
o
350.
(3.3.4.2-2) During a vessel dry-docking survey which of the following items are typically required
by Class to be surveyed?
o
o
(a) Sea chests and tail shaft wear down readings only.
(b) Tail shaft wear down readings and rudder assembly only.
(c) Sea chests, tail shaft wear down readings and rudder assembly.
(d) Rudder assembly and sea chests only.
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351.
(3.3.4.2-9) As Chief Engineer you join a vessel enrolled in Continuous Machinery Survey.
Approximately what percent of the machinery should be surveyed per year throughout the Special
Survey cycle?
o
o
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 50%
352.
(3.3.4.2-5) You are putting together a list of Class required work for a vessel's next special
survey. Which of the following items would be required by Class?
o
o
353.
(3.3.4.2-8) The intermediate survey for a vessel is typically carried out at what point in the survey
cycle?
o
o
o
354.
o
o
355.
(3.3.4.2-4) You have recently joined a vessel and are reviewing the classification society
survey due dates. The last special periodic survey of the vessel was ten months previous. Within
what time frame can the annual machinery surveys be completed?
o
o
o
(a) 3 months plus or minus the anniversary date of the last special survey.
(b) 2 months plus or minus the anniversary date of the last special survey
(c) 1 month plus or minus the anniversary date of the last special survey
(d) On the anniversary month of the last special survey
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356.
(3.3.11.3-3) According to the 33 CFR regulations pertaining to the Oil Record Book, how long
must the Oil Record Book be maintained on board those vessels for which the regulations apply?
o
o
357.
(3.3.11.3-4) According to the 33 CFR regulations pertaining to signatures required in the Oil
Record Book, what statement is true?
o
o
(a) The officer in charge of the engineering watch signs each entry occurring on the watch, and
the chief engineer signs each page.
(b) The officer in charge of the navigational watch signs each entry occurring on the watch, and
the master signs each page.
(c) The person in charge of an operation signs for that entry, and the master signs each page.
(d) The person in charge of an operation signs for that entry, and the chief engineer signs each
page.
358.
(3.3.12.1.2-7) One of your ship's indirect-drive steering gear drive motors needs to be replaced.
What minimum short-time rating should the replacement motor have in hours?
o
o
o
359.
(3.3.12.1.2-9) According to the electrical engineering regulations of the CFR, which of the
following electrical repairs is permitted?
o
o
(a) Splice a damaged conductor with twist-on connectors if the insulated cap is firmly secured to
prevent loosening due to vibration.
(b) Splice a flexible cord or cable with twist-on connectors if smaller than 18 AWG.
(c) Connect a flexible cord or cable to a fitting with so that tension is not transmitted to joints or
terminal screws.
(d) Extend the length of a circuit with twist-on connectors if in an enclosure and wrapped securely
with insulating tape.
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360.
(3.3.12.1.2-8) The operating motor on one of your ship's watertight doors needs to be replaced.
What minimum short-time rating should the replacement motor have in hours?
o
o
o
(a) 1/12
(b) 1/4 hour
(c) 1/2 hour
(d) 1 hour
361.
(3.3.12.1.2-2) Coast Guard electrical engineering regulations specify capacity ratings for electrical
equipment. Based on the inspection of the cables on one of your ship's service generators, you've
decided that the cables need to be replaced. The current-carrying capacity of the replacement
generator cables should be what percent of the continuous generator rating?
o
o
362.
(3.3.4.1.1-5) Assuming the inspection interval for a boiler as specified by 46 CFR 61 is 2.5 years,
which statement is true?
o
o
o
(a) Two tests are required over a 5 year period, and no more than 2 years can elapse between
any test or inspection and its immediate predecessor.
(b) Three tests are required over a 5 year period, and no more than 1 year can elapse between
any test or inspection and its immediate predecessor.
(c) Three tests are required over a 5 year period, and no more than 2 years can elapse between
any test or inspection and its immediate predecessor.
(d) Two tests are required over a 5 year period, and no more than 3 years can elapse between
any test or inspection and its immediate predecessor.
363.
o
o
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364.
(3.3.9.2-3) Which of the following document types would offer the greatest flexibility in carrying
out its intent?
o
o
o
(a) Policies
(b) Regulations
(c) Rules
(d) Standing orders
365.
(3.3.9.2-2) Before a plan can be effectively executed, the objective of the plan must be defined.
What statement concerning the definition of a plan objective best represents the proper writing of an
objective as an engineering department management level officer?
o
o
(a) Reduce overtime expenditures department-wide for all engineering department employees for
the upcoming deployment as compared to the last trip.
(b) Reduce overtime expenditures department-wide for all engineering department
employees 10% for the upcoming deployment as compared to the last trip.
(c) Reduce overtime expenditures 10% for the upcoming deployment as compared to the last trip.
(d) Reduce overtime expenditures department-wide for all engineering department
employees 10%.
366.
(3.3.9.2-4) For planning purposes graphical charts can be a useful tool. What type of chart is
good for a visual progress report and identifies work stages or activities on the vertical axis and the
scheduled completion dates on the horizontal axis?
o
o
o
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367.
(a) The draft loss interlock switch must be tested to insure that a safety shutdown occurs when
there is insufficient draft to support combustion. There is no requirement to test the draft loss
interlock switch at boiler startup.
(b) The draft loss interlock switch must be tested to insure that boiler startup is prevented when
there is insufficient draft to support combustion. There is no requirement to test the draft loss
interlock switch for boiler safety shutdown.
(c) The draft loss interlock switch must be tested to insure that a safety shutdown occurs and a
boiler startup is prevented when there is insufficient draft to support combustion.
(d) Either the draft loss interlock switch must be tested to insure that a safety shutdown occurs or
boiler startup is prevented when there is insufficient draft to support combustion. There is no
requirement to perform both tests.
368.
o
o
o
(a) Upon a normal cycling or safety shutdown, the fuel control solenoid valve coil under test
physically moves to the closed position.
(b) Upon a normal cycling or safety shutdown, voltage is removed from the fuel control solenoid
valve coil under test.
(c) Upon a normal cycling or safety shutdown, voltage is applied to the fuel control solenoid valve
coil under test.
(d) Upon a normal cycling or safety shutdown, the fuel control solenoid valve coil under test
closes with no visible leakage into the burner(s).
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369.
(a) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be raised to a value above what is
required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is required to restart
automatically upon restoration of normal pressure.
(b) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be raised to a value above what is
required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset must be required before
boiler restart.
(c) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be lowered to a value below what is
required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset must be required before
boiler restart.
(d) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be lowered to a value below what is
required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is required to restart
automatically upon restoration of normal pressure.
370.
(a) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel temperature must be raised to a value above what is
required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset must be required before
boiler restart.
(b) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel temperature must be lowered to a value below what is
required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is required to restart
automatically upon restoration of normal temperature.
(c) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel temperature must be lowered to a value below what is
required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset must be required before
boiler restart.
(d) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel temperature must be raised to a value above what is
required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is required to restart
automatically upon restoration of normal temperature.
371.
o
o
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 1,2,3,4,5
(c) 1,2,3,5
(d) 1,2,5
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372.
o
o
373.
(3.3.7.1.4-3) What statement is true concerning the engineering watch in port being handed over
while an important operation, such as transferring fuel, is being performed?
o
o
(a) The important operation should be concluded by the relieving officer, except when otherwise
ordered by the chief mate.
(b) The important operation should be concluded by the relieving officer, except when otherwise
ordered by the chief engineer.
(c) The important operation should be concluded by the officer being relieved, except when
otherwise ordered by the chief engineer.
(d) The important operation should be concluded by the officer being relieved, except when
otherwise ordered by the chief mate.
374.
(3.3.7.1.4-2) While in port, ships of what propulsive power and over are required to have an
officer in charge of the engineering watch at all times?
o
o
375.
(3.3.13.1.4-5) In accordance with the international MARPOL AnnexVI regulations, what is the
minimum allowable flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-fed shipboard incinerator while in
operation?
o
o
(a) 450 C
o
(b) 650 F
o
(c) 850 F
o
(d) 1050 F
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376.
(3.3.13.1.4-2) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the nitrous
oxide (NOx) emissions associated with certain diesel engines are required to operate under certain
acceptable limits. To which of the listed engine applications would the NOx emission regulations
apply?
o
o
o
377.
(3.3.13.1.4-1) Which of the following fire extinguishing agents which may be found aboard ship is
designated as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that
Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?
o
o
o
378.
(3.3.14.2-7) With a machinery lubricating oil analysis program, it is important to monitor trends
over time. What would be indicated by elevated copper levels associated with a recent sample of
used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil?
o
o
379.
(3.3.14.2-6) With a machinery lubricating oil analysis program, it is important to monitor trends
over time. What would be indicated by a sudden increase in metallic content of a recent sample of
used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil?
o
o
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380.
(3.3.14.2-10) Elevated metal levels present in a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase
lubricating oil is indicative of a condition. What would high iron levels indicate?
o
o
381.
(3.3.7.1.2-6) On a vessel classed for a periodically unmanned engine room, which of the below
listed events will trigger the annunciation of the engineer's assistance needed alarm?
o
o
(a) Failure of the duty engineer to conduct a machinery space round every four hours.
(b) Failure of the duty engineer to acknowledge an ECC alarm in a reasonable period of time.
(c) Failure of the duty engineer to contact the bridge watch in the agreed-upon time.
(d) Loss of the backup power supply to the ECC alarm system.
382.
(3.3.7.1.2-5) On a vessel classed for a periodically unmanned engine room, which of the below
listed items are a mandatory part of the maintenance program check-off list for transitioning to
unmanned status at the end of the work day according to the 46 CFR regulations for automated selfpropelled vessel manning?
I) Routine daily maintenance has been performed.
II) Fire and flooding hazards have been minimized.
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383.
o
o
(a) Tankers are authorized for periodically unmanned engine rooms while underway as long as
manual control measures can be implemented in a reasonable period of time when necessary.
(b) Tankers are required to maintain a continuous engineering watch while underway and be
capable of implementing manual control measures in a reasonable period of time when
necessary.
(c) Tankers are required to maintain a continuous engineering watch while underway and be
capable of implementing manual control measures immediately when necessary.
(d) Tankers are authorized for periodically unmanned engine rooms while underway as long as
manual control measures can be implemented immediately when necessary.
384.
(a) The engineering watch need NOT be physically present in the machinery spaces or in the
main control space but be on call and must consist of at least one appropriately endorsed
licensed or credentialed officer.
(b) The engineering watch must be physically present in the machinery spaces or in the main
control space and must consist of at least two appropriately endorsed licensed or credentialed
officers.
(c) The engineering watch need NOT be physically present in the machinery spaces or in the
main control space but be on call and must consist of at least two appropriately endorsed
licensed or credentialed officers.
(d) The engineering watch must be physically present in the machinery spaces or in the main
control space and must consist of at least one appropriately endorsed licensed or credentialed
officer.
385.
(3.3.7.1.2-3) As a management level engineering officer planning for transitioning from the
maneuvering watch posted when departing a US port to at sea manning on a vessel classed for a
periodically unmanned engine room, in consultation with the ship's master, when would the transition
take place?
o
o
o
(a) When leaving the navigable waters of the US which is 3 nautical miles from the coast line.
(b) When leaving the applicable emission control area which varies with the port area.
(c) When leaving the US exclusive economic zone which is 200 miles from the coast line.
(d) When leaving the US territorial limit which is 12 miles from the coast line.
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386.
(3.3.6.2-5) Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training
your crew how to pump bilges:
"Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping
out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session
the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water
holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There
shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations."
What role does the phrase "where a bilge pocket requires pumping out" serve in the objective
statement?
o
o
o
387.
(3.3.6.2-6) Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training
your crew how to pump bilges:
"Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping
out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session
the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water
holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There
shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations."
What role does the phrase "pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water
holding tank" serve in the objective statement?
o
o
o
388.
o
o
o
(a) Direct observation and reviewing critiques of the execution of shipboard fire and emergency
drills performed by the existing crew.
(b) Reviewing marine casualty and damage reports attributed to fires that have occurred on the
vessel in the past.
(c) Analyzing insurance premium costs relevant to fires that have occurred on the vessel in the
past.
(d) Analyzing statistical data collected relevant to fires that have occurred on the vessel in the
past.
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389.
(3.3.6.2-7) You are conducting a training session on how to parallel alternators manually. What
delivery technique would be most effective to ensure transfer of learning with the desired outcome
that the officers under training actually are able to successfully parallel manually in the future?
o
o
o
(a) After preliminary discussion, demonstrations, and active practice, ask the officer trainees to
parallel alternators at the actual switchboard.
(b) After preliminary discussion and practice recitals, ask the officer trainees to recite the
procedure in a classroom setting.
(c) After preliminary discussion, show a video demonstrating the procedure to the officer trainees
in a classroom setting.
(d) After preliminary discussion, demonstrate the procedure at the actual switchboard to the
officer trainees.
390.
(3.3.6.2-3) Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training
your crew how to pump bilges:
"Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping
out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session
the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water
holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There
shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations."
o
o
(a) shall be
(b) will be able to pump
(c) have been disabled
(d) using
391.
(3.3.6.2-4) Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training
your crew how to pump bilges:
"Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping
out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session
the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water
holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There
shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations."
What role does the phrase "in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure
checklist" serve in the objective statement?
o
o
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392.
(3.3.10-2) One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining
agreement dispute is mediation. What is meant by mediation?
o
o
(a) Settlement reached as the result of litigation as part of a judicial proceeding in court.
(b) Negotiated settlement between company and union representatives facilitated by an impartial
person.
(c) Direct, in-house negotiated settlement between company and union representatives to avoid
litigation.
(d) Agreement to abide by a binding decision rendered by a company and union agreed-upon
impartial person.
393.
(3.3.10-3) One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining
agreement is arbitration. What is the role of the arbitrator?
o
o
(a) The arbitrator conducts independent fact-finding and renders a decision based on the results
of that investigation.
(b) The arbitrator makes a binding decision based on the evidence and the arguments presented
by both sides.
(c) The arbitrator facilitates settlement by negotiation by working with both sides to reach
common ground.
(d) The arbitrator appoints a fact-finder from each side to investigate the dispute and report back
to the principals.
394.
(3.3.3.4-8) What project management scheduling chart is a bar chart with the activity or task
descriptions displayed on the left and listed vertically from top to bottom, and the calendar displayed
on the top and laid out horizontally from left to right?
o
o
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395.
(a) The Gantt chart makes it easy to visualize task dependencies and milestones, whereas the
PERT chart makes it easy to visualize progress with respect to an actual calendar. Both are bar
charts.
(b) The PERT chart (which is a line diagram) makes it easy to visualize task dependencies and
milestones, whereas the Gantt chart (which is a bar chart) makes it easy to visualize progress
with respect to an actual calendar.
(c) The PERT chart (which is a bar chart) makes it easy to visualize task dependencies and
milestones, whereas the Gantt chart (which is a line diagram) makes it easy to visualize progress
with respect to an actual calendar.
(d) The Gantt chart makes it easy to visualize task dependencies and milestones, whereas the
PERT chart makes it easy to visualize progress with respect to an actual calendar. Both are line
diagrams.
396.
o
o
(a) The shipyard repairs contract is time-limited with specific start and end dates, is cost-defined,
and is very general in terms of repairs contracted for.
(b) The shipyard repairs contract is time-limited with specific start and end dates, is cost-defined,
and is very specific in terms of repairs contracted for.
(c) The shipyard repairs contract is time-limited with specific start and end dates, is of
undetermined cost, and is very specific in terms of repairs contracted for.
(d) The shipyard repairs contract is open-ended in terms of time, is cost-defined, and is very
specific in terms of repairs contracted for.
397.
(3.3.1.1-3) Attitudes, biases, and prejudices towards certain groups (nationalities, races, religions,
and sexes) can pose formidable challenges to communication. This is because an individual is
judged by group association rather than by getting to know the individual and recognizing individual
differences. What is the tendency called?
o
o
o
(a) Stereotyping
(b) Stereo graphing
(c) Individualizing
(d) Monotyping
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398.
o
o
o
(a) Disciplining fairly and consistently, showing contempt for your employee's abilities, and
advocating on their behalf.
(b) Disciplining unfairly and inconsistently, respecting your employee's abilities, and advocating
on their behalf.
(c) Disciplining fairly and consistently, respecting your employee's abilities, and requiring them to
advocating on their own behalf.
(d) Disciplining fairly and consistently, respecting your employee's abilities, and advocating on
their behalf.
399.
(3.3.1.1-4) What form of communication provides the greatest information richness, which is the
amount of verbal and non-verbal information that a communication channel carries?
o
o
400.
o
o
o
(a) Conversing with the employee in your office with the employee sitting on the opposite side of
the desk from you.
(b) Conversing with the employee in the ship's office with the employee sitting on the opposite
side of the desk from you.
(c) Conversing with the employee in his/her workspace or a neutral area without regard to being
interrupted.
(d) Conversing with the employee in his/her workspace or a neutral area with privacy assured.
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401.
(3.3.1.1-8) An important communication tool for managers is known as active listening. It helps
better insure that managers understand employees and that feedback is encouraged. What is active
listening?
o
o
(a) Active listening is when you allow the employee to finish what they are saying before
speaking.
(b) Active listening is when you maintain eye contact with the employee the whole time they are
speaking.
(c) Active listening is when you make a response that states what you have heard from the
employee.
(d) Active listening is when you listen to an employee with undivided attention and not be
distracted.
402.
(3.3.12.5-4) You are relieving the chief engineer on a self-propelled mobile offshore drilling unit.
What machinery and equipment are you required to inspect prior to assuming your duties?
o
o
403.
(3.3.9.6-1) A performance appraisal (employee evaluation) is the process used to determine what
extent an employee is performing a job in the way that is was intended to be done. Properly done
and in the interest of employee development, what should be the focus of the appraisal?
o
o
(a) The appraisal should be conducted without the benefit of an interview as this process often
causes discomfort for the employee and the supervisory manager.
(b) It should focus only on past performance with an emphasis on shortcomings so that the
employee fears for the future.
(c) Although it should examine all aspects of past performance, it should be constructive and
future oriented with an eye towards the path to improvement.
(d) It should focus on the positive and totally ignore any past shortcomings so that the employee
can maintain positive self-esteem.
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404.
(3.3.9.6-2) Even though conducting an employee appraisal interview may be one of the least liked
aspects of the job of a manager, why are they important?
o
o
o
(a) The interview will provide the opportunity to provide feedback and motivate employees.
(b) The interview will provide the basis for establishing command authority.
(c) The interview will provide the opportunity to instill fear in the employee.
(d) The interview will provide the opportunity to communicate repercussions for poor
performance.
405.
(3.3.9.6-5) The "hot stove" rule is sometimes used to illustrate the principles of fair, effective
discipline. Which of the following principles illustrates the principle of discipline carrying a clear
warning?
o
o
o
406.
(3.3.16.1-5) When analyzing trend analysis data in reference to a given limit value for the
purposes of scheduling corrective maintenance, what statement is true?
o
o
(a) The current data should be compared to the limit value without any concern for the historical
trend or for the rate of change over time.
(b) The current data should be analyzed for the historical trend and for the rate of change over
time, but without any concern for the limit value.
(c) The current data should be compared to the limit value and analyzed for the historical
trend and for the rate of change over time.
(d) The current data should be compared to the limit value and the historical trend, but without
any concern for the rate of change over time.
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407.
(3.3.11.4-1) While a vessel is underway in periodically unmanned engine room status, the oilywater separator is undergoing extensive maintenance and repairs and will not be available for
service for another 24 hours. With bilge holding tanks nearing capacity, as chief engineer you wish
to be informed of when the oily-water separator is available for service. How would you best insure
that you will be so informed?
o
o
(a) The request would be written as a note posted in the vicinity of the engineering department
coffee mess.
(b) The request would be written as a special instruction in the chief engineer's night order book.
(c) The request would be written as a note inserted into the chief engineer's standing order book.
(d) The request would be made of the duty engineer orally assuming that the word shall be
passed on to his or her relief.
408.
(3.3.11.4-2) As a chief engineer, which of the following instructions would be most appropriately
entered into the Chief Engineer's night orders due to the non-routine nature of the instruction?
o
o
(a) All discharges, transfers, or disposal of bilge water must be logged in the oil record book by
the officer in charge of the operation.
(b) The officer in charge of the engineering watch shall notify the chief engineer without delay
when No.2 SSDG repairs are complete and the generator has been prepared for testing.
(c) When the engine room is in the periodic unmanned condition, the duty engineer shall be
immediately available and on call to attend the machinery spaces.
(d) The officer in charge of the engineering watch shall notify the chief engineer without delay
when a malfunction occurs which may be such as to endanger the safe operation of the ship.
409.
(3.3.11.4-3) As a chief engineer, which of the following instructions would most appropriately
be written into the chief engineer's night orders due to the non-routine nature of the special
instruction?
o
o
(a) The OICEW shall notify the chief engineer without delay when the No.1 main feed pump
repairs are complete and it is ready to be put back into service.
(b) When the engine room is in the manned condition, the OICEW shall at all times be readily
capable of operating the propulsion equipment in response to needs for changes in direction or
speed.
(c) The OICEW shall notify the chief engineer without delay when a malfunction occurs which
may be such as to endanger the safe operation of the ship.
(d) When the ship enters congested waters, upon notification from the bridge, the OICEW shall
ensure that all machinery involved with maneuvering can be placed in the manual mode of
operation.
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410.
o
o
o
411.
o
o
o
412.
(3.3.4.1.4-8) Suppose a water-lubricated stern tube bearing is being evaluated for wear where the
propulsion machinery is located amidship. If the tailshaft diameter is 10.5 inches, according to 46
CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to machinery and equipment,
what would be the maximum clearance diameter permissible before the bearing must be re-bushed?
o
o
413.
(3.3.7.2.2-3) If two centrifuges are to be simultaneously used in series to treat residual fuel
contaminated with both water and solids, how should the centrifuges be configured?
o
o
(a) The first centrifuge should be set up as a clarifier and the second centrifuge should be set up
as a purifier.
(b) The first centrifuge should be set up as a purifier and the second centrifuge should be set up
as a clarifier.
(c) The first centrifuge should be set up as a purifier and the second centrifuge should also be set
up as a purifier.
(d) The first centrifuge should be set up as a clarifier and the second centrifuge should also be set
up as a clarifier.
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414.
(3.3.7.2.2-8) Which of the following statements represents acceptable practice for heavy fuel oil
settling tank heating?
o
o
o
(a) When filled, the heat source to the settling tank should be cut in and maintained at all times
regardless of the actual temperature of the tank contents.
(b) When filled, the heat source to a settling tank should be cut in and out often enough to
maintain the ideal settling temperature and not allow the temperature to gradually fall.
(c) When filled, no heat should be applied to the settling tank as gravity alone is sufficient to
provide for proper settling as long as the fuel is not allowed to drop below the pour point
temperature.
(d) When filled, the heat source to the settling tank should be cut in until the ideal settling
temperature is reached, then secured allowing the fuel to remain undisturbed for as long as
possible.
415.
(3.3.7.2.2-7) Which of the following statements represents acceptable practice for heavy fuel oil
storage tank heating?
o
o
(a) The heavy fuel oil storage tanks currently on suction (or shall be within 24 hours) should be
o
maintained 5-10 C below the fuel pour point until the fuel is transferred.
(b) The heavy fuel oil storage tanks currently on suction (or shall be within 24 hours) should be
o
maintained 5-10 C above the fuel pour point until the fuel is transferred.
(c) The heavy fuel oil storage tanks currently on suction (or shall be within 24 hours) should be
o
maintained 5-10 C below the fuel flash point until the fuel is transferred.
o
(d) All the heavy fuel oil storage tanks should be maintained 5-10 C above the fuel pour point for
the entire voyage.
416.
(3.3.7.2.2-2) For the most efficient centrifuging of residual fuels on motor vessels, the lower the
viscosity of the fuel as achieved by preheating, the more efficiently solids and moisture can be
removed. For planning purposes, what is the typically the recommended upper limit of preheating for
residual fuel oil centrifugation on motor ships?
o
o
(a) 85 C
o
(b) 90 C
o
(c) 98 C
o
(d) 112 C
417.
(3.3.3.1-3) In new construction or during significant steel plate replacements, what is the
procedure of 'line heating'?
o
o
o
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418.
(3.3.14.1-13) Vibration analysis can provide comparative data of operating condition of rotating
machinery. At what positions should such readings be taken at bearing housings and foundations?
o
o
419.
(3.3.14.1-14) While examining results of vibration analysis of a rotating piece of machinery, you
find find very high amplitude/displacement readings at a very high frequency at one measuring point.
What would that indicate?
o
o
420.
(3.3.14.1-6) When reviewing results of vibration analysis, vibration at a bearing occurs at the
same frequency as the motor rpm, with a displacement in the radial direction that is twice that of the
axial direction. Which of the following could this indicate?
o
o
421.
(3.3.14.1-11) When measuring vibration, an engineer should be concerned with recording the
velocity or displacement of the measurement. Which other factor should also be of concern?
o
o
(a) kW
(b) Frequency
(c) Amplitude
(d) Amps
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422.
(3.3.14.1-15) While examining vibration analysis of a particular piece of rotating machinery, one
of the measurement location readings exhibits high amplitude/displacement in vertical and horizontal
direction at 2 X RPM frequency. What would this indicate?
o
o
o
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