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General Subjects

QMED .......................................................................... Pages 1 to 78


Assistant Engineer ..................................................... Pages 79 to 234
First Assistant Engineer-Chief Engineer.................. Pages 235 to 342

General Subjects
QMED

1.

(1.2.7.1-10) The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to __________.


o
o

(a) maintain steady pressure in a system


(b) eliminate hot air from the condenser
(c) heat, or cool one fluid by means of another fluid
(d) reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

2.

(1.2.7.1-7) If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh
water as a condensing medium, what statement is true?
o
o

(a) The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat; the central cooling fresh water loses latent heat.
(b) The refrigerant vapor loses sensible heat, the central cooling fresh water gains latent heat.
(c) The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water gains sensible heat.
(d) The refrigerant vapor gains latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses sensible heat.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

3.

(1.2.7.1-8) What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil heat
exchanger such as a air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler?
o
o
o

(a) Counter flow


(b) Series flow
(c) Parallel flow
(d) Cross flow

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

4.

(1.2.7.1-1) If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a diesel
engine are sea water-cooled, what statement is true?
o
o
o

(a) Sea water flows through the shells of both the lube oil and jacket water coolers.
(b) Sea water flows through the tubes of the lube oil cooler and through the shell of the jacket
water cooler.
(c) Sea water flows through the tubes of the jacket water cooler and through the shell of the lube
oil cooler.
(d) Sea water flows through the tubes of both the lube oil and jacket water coolers.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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General Subjects
QMED

5.

(1.2.7.1-9) If a sea water-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the sea water inlet and
outlet connections on the opposite end water boxes, in terms of the number of passes, what
statement is true?
o
o

(a) The number of fluid passes cannot be determined.


(b) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is four-pass.
(c) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is single-pass.
(d) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is two-pass.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

6.

(1.2.8.1-1) Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed __________.


o

o
o

(a) solely by the charge applied by the accumulators


(b) by resistance to the fluid flow through the system
(c) only by the pump as its primary function
(d) by the thermal input to the system's fluid

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

7.

(1.2.8.1-2) In the system illustrated, which of the following readings should be indicated on the
pressure gage, if the load (x) is 8000 lbs (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64.5 sq. cm)?
Illustration GS-0062
o

o
o

(a) 80 psi (5.63 kg/cm )


2
(b) 800 psi (56.31 kg/cm )
2
(c) 8,000 psi (563.1 kg/cm )
2
(d) 80,000 psi (5631 kg/cm )

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

8.

(1.2.8.1-3) Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing an hydraulic
oil's viscosity?

o
o
o

(a) Pressure
(b) Pour point
(c) Cloud point
(d) Vacuum

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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General Subjects
QMED

9.

(1.2.8.1-4) The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are
generally __________.
o
o

(a) harmless and have no effect on system components


(b) always neutralized by oil additives
(c) gums, varnishes, and acids
(d) removed by cellulose type filters

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

10. (1.2.8.1-5) Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the
__________.
o
o

(a) reservoir expansion chamber


(b) hydraulic piping flexibility
(c) atmosphere as heat
(d) fluid as friction

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

11. (1.2.8.2-2) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________. Illustration
GS-0098
o

o
o

(a) two-stage, pump unit


(b) combined, pump unit
(c) duplex, pump unit
(d) parallel, pump unit

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

12. (1.2.8.2-3) An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45, as shown in
the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________. Illustration GS-0068
o
o

(a) is pilot controlled


(b) allows flow in one direction only
(c) can be adjusted or varied
(d) is pressure compensated

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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General Subjects
QMED

13. (1.2.8.2-5) Item "F" shown in the illustration represents two hydraulic pumps that are __________.
Illustration GS-0103
o
o
o

(a) motor operated with one pump located in the engine room at the shaft alley door and the other
in a common passage way
(b) manually operated with one pump located at the shaft alley door and the other in a common
passage way
(c) motor operated with one pump located on the engine room side and the other on the shaft
alley side of the watertight door
(d) manually operated with one pump located in the engine room and the other in the shaft alley
of the watertight door

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

14. (1.2.8.2-1) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a/an __________.
Illustration GS-0097
o
o
o

(a) combined pump unit


(b) series-flow pump unit
(c) two-stage pump unit
(d) double pump unit

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

15. (1.2.8.2-4) Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________. Illustration GS0103

o
o
o

(a) shut down the remotely operated electric motor driven pump when the watertight door has
closed
(b) act as a power source to operate the pumps indicated as "F"
(c) act as a power source to operate the pump indicated as "E"
(d) shut down the operation of pump "E" when the watertight door has closed

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

16. (1.2.8.3-1) Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the
__________.
o
o
o

(a) ram
(b) actuator
(c) reservoir
(d) accumulator

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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General Subjects
QMED

17. (1.2.8.3-4) The component which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, dust-like particulate
contamination from hydraulic fluid is a/an __________.
o
o
o

(a) accumulator
(b) separator
(c) strainer
(d) filter

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

18. (1.2.8.3-5) Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high-pressure use is
represented by figure __________. Illustration GS-0100

o
o
o

(a) A or B
(b) A or C
(c) B or C
(d) C or D

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

19. (1.2.8.3-6) The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength is the __________.
o
o
o

(a) inner tube


(b) outer cover
(c) outer armor
(d) braided inner layer(s)

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

20. (1.2.8.3-7) The discharge capacity of the axial piston hydraulic pump, shown in the illustration, is
__________. Illustration GS-0058
o

o
o

(a) increased by adding a shorter cylinder block


(b) fixed by the pump housing angle
(c) decreased by adding a longer cylinder block
(d) increased by adding a longer cylinder block

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

21. (1.2.8.3-8) To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would
have to be done?
o

o
o

(a) Provide one additional slot and vane.


(b) Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots.
(c) Install an enlarged control ring around the rotor.
(d) Double the casing thickness.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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General Subjects
QMED

22. (1.2.8.3-3) In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high-pressure return is provided by
__________. Illustration GS-0118

o
o
o

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

23. (1.2.8.3-2) Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well
below the fluid surface level to __________.
o
o

(a) prevent moisture accumulation


(b) prevent vacuum formation
(c) prevent foaming
(d) accommodate thermal expansion

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

24. (1.2.9.1-1) Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and
displaying both positive and negative pressures?
o
o
o

(a) Simplex gauge


(b) Differential pressure gauge
(c) Duplex gauge
(d) Compound gauge

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

25. (1.2.9.1-4) Which of the following direct reading gauges would most likely be used in the application
of a pump suction pressure gauge?
o
o

(a) Differential pressure gauge


(b) Vacuum gauge
(c) Compound gauge
(d) Standard pressure gauge

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

26. (1.2.9.1-3) Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring two
pressures and displaying the difference between the two?
o
o

(a) Simplex gauge


(b) Compound gauge
(c) Differential pressure gauge
(d) Duplex gauge

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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General Subjects
QMED

27. (1.2.9.1-7) Which of the following system applications would require the use of a siphon tube (pigtail)
to prevent gauge damage?
o
o
o

(a) Hydraulic oil pressure


(b) Heavy fuel oil
(c) Compressed air pressure
(d) Steam pressure

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

28. (1.2.9.1-8) When reading a pressure that fluctuates severely on a direct reading pressure gauge,
what should be done?
o

o
o

(a) Attempt to determine the midpoint between the maximum and minimum pressures and use
this as an estimate of the average pressure.
(b) The pulsation dampening needle valve should be throttled down (without closing) until the
fluctuation ceases.
(c) The maximum and minimum pressures should be noted and added together and divided by
two to obtain the average pressure.
(d) The pulsation dampening needle valve should be opened wider until the fluctuation ceases.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

29. (1.2.9.1-10) If a standard bourdon tube type pressure gauge that is designed to measure and display
gauge pressure reads 43.8 psig, what would be the equivalent absolute pressure?
o
o

(a) 29.1 psia


(b) 43.8 psia
(c) 58.5 psia
(d) 61.2 psia

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

30. (1.2.9.3-5) When determining the level of a potable water hydro-pneumatic header tank fitted with a
tubular sight glass, what must be taken into consideration?
o
o
o

(a) The sight glass must be drained, blown down, and re-filled before each reading is taken.
(b) The actual water level in the hydro-pneumatic header tank is somewhat higher than the level
shown in the sight glass.
(c) The actual water level in the hydro-pneumatic header tank is somewhat lower than the level
shown in the sight glass.
(d) The actual water level in the hydro-pneumatic header tank is identical to the level shown in the
sight glass.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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General Subjects
QMED

31. (1.2.9.3-4) What statement best represents the characteristics of innage and ullage tank soundings?
o
o
o

(a) Innage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the top of the tank, and ullage is
the distance between the surface of the liquid and the bottom of the tank.
(b) Innage is the distance between the oil/water interface and bottom of the tank, and ullage is the
distance between the oil/water interface and the top of the tank.
(c) Innage is the distance between the oil/water interface and top of the tank, and ullage is the
distance between the oil/water interface and the bottom of the tank.
(d) Innage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the bottom of the tank, and ullage
is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the top of the tank.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

32. (1.2.9.3-9) What is the operating principle upon which a bubble tube system operates in indicating
liquid tank level?
o
o

(a) The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the top of the tank is
proportional to the liquid level in the tank.
(b) The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the bottom of the tank
is inversely related to the liquid level in the tank.
(c) The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the bottom of the tank is
proportional to the liquid level in the tank.
(d) The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the top of the tank
is inversely related to the liquid level in the tank.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

33. (1.2.9.3-1) What statement is true concerning the vent pipes and sounding tubes associated with a
vented tank?
o

o
o

(a) Both the vent pipe and the sounding tube attach to an end at an opening at the top of the tank.
(b) The vent pipe attaches to and ends at an opening at the top of the tank, and the sounding
tube passes through the tank top and extends almost to the tank bottom.
(c) Both the vent pipe and the sounding tube pass through the tank top and extend almost to the
tank bottom.
(d) The sounding tube attaches to and ends at an opening at the top of the tank, and the vent
pipe passes through the tank top and extends almost to the tank bottom.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

34. (1.2.9.3-6) In what application would a reflex type flat gauge glass be used?

o
o
o

(a) Indicating a fresh water level, where the water is clear.


(b) Indicating a lubricating oil level, where the oil is honey colored.
(c) Indicating a heavy fuel oil level, where the fuel is dark.
(d) Indicating a chemically treated water level, where the water is brightly colored.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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General Subjects
QMED

35. (1.2.9.3-2) What statement best represents the characteristics of an innage tape and bob for the
purposes of taking a vented tank sounding?
o

o
o

(a) The bob has a cupped end and sinks in the liquid when lowered by the tape.
(b) The bob has a pointed end and sinks in the liquid when lowered by the tape.
(c) The bob has a cupped end and floats on the surface of the liquid when lowered by the tape.
(d) The bob has a pointed end and floats on the surface of the liquid when lowered by the tape.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

36. (1.2.9.4-4) What is the operating principle of a variable area flow meter, such as a rotameter?
o

o
o

(a) The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of the fluid flow.
(b) The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow.
(c) The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow.
(d) The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of the fluid flow.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

37. (1.2.9.2-7) If a thermometer reads 80oC, what is the equivalent temperature in oF?
o
o
o

(a) 12 F
o
(b) 76 F
o
(c) 112 F
o
(d) 176 F

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

38. (1.2.9.2-10) If the mercury has become separated in a liquid-in-glass thermometer, what can be
done to correct this situation?

o
o
o

(a) After removing the thermometer, hold the thermometer by the lower end and try to recombine
the mercury by several full arm swings.
(b) Repeatedly tap the side of the thermometer until the mercury recombines.
(c) After removing the thermometer, hold the thermometer by the upper end and try to recombine
the mercury by several full arm swings.
(d) It is not possible to correct this situation.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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General Subjects
QMED

39. (1.2.9.2-2) What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of differential expansion
of dissimilar metals as the temperature rises and features a rotary dial scale?

o
o
o

(a) Bimetallic thermometer


(b) Liquid-in-glass thermometer
(c) Bourdon tube thermometer
(d) Thermocouple pyrometer

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

40. (1.2.9.2-8) If a thermometer reads 850oF, what is the equivalent temperature in oC?

o
o
o

(a) 454 C
o
(b) 490 C
o
(c) 1,472 C
o
(d) 1,585 C

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

41. (1.2.10-4) What type of grease is the most commonly used aboard ship?
o

o
o

(a) Lime-based grease


(b) Lithium-based grease
(c) Calcium-based grease
(d) Aluminum-based grease

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

42. (1.2.10-6) If an engine lubricating oils viscosity is given as SAE 20W as compared to SAE 20, what
is the significant difference between the two lubricating oils?
o

o
o

(a) The SAE 20W oil is primarily designed for year-round (low and high ambient temperature
service) and SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service.
(b) The SAE 20W oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service, and the SAE 20
oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service.
(c) The SAE 20W oil is primarily designed for year-round (low and high ambient temperature
service) and SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service.
(d) The SAE 20W oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service, and the SAE 20
oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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General Subjects
QMED

43. (1.2.10-3) What statement is true concerning viscosity index as it applies to lubricating oils?
o

o
o

(a) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively high rate of change of viscosity as the
pressure changes.
(b) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively low rate of change of viscosity as the
temperature changes.
(c) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively low rate of change of viscosity as the
pressure changes.
(d) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively high rate of change of viscosity as the
temperature changes.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

44. (1.2.10-7) If an engine lubricating oils viscosity is given as 20W-50, what does this mean?

o
o
o

(a) The oil is formulated to meet the low temperature requirements of SAE 20W oil and the 100 C
(high) temperature requirements of SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil.
o
(b) The oil is formulated to meet the 100 C (high) temperature requirements of SAE 20W oil and
the low temperature requirements of SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil.
(c) The oil is a mixture of equal amounts of SAE 20W and SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round
oil.
(d) The oil is a mixture of equal amounts of SAE 20W and SAE 50W oil and as such is a yearround oil.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

45. (1.2.10-2) For a lubricating oil, what is the relationship between viscosity and temperature?
o
o
o

(a) As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil may
increase or decrease, depending upon the lubricant.
(b) As the temperature of a lubricating oil varies in either direction, the viscosity of the lubricating
oil remains constant.
(c) As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil also
increases.
(d) As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil decreases.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

46. (1.2.4.7-1) The control of exhaust temperature on a solid waste/sludge incinerator is critical. How is
this temperature normally controlled?
o
o
o

(a) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating by the admission of combustion air into
the combustion chamber.
(b) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the admission of auxiliary fuel to the
burner.
(c) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the exhaust gas flow.
(d) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the admission of relatively cool ambient
air into the exhaust stream.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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General Subjects
QMED

47. (1.2.1.1-11) One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to
__________. Illustration GS-0119
o
o
o

(a) act solely as a heat exchanger


(b) act as a cyclonic pneumatic dehydrator
(c) provide storage for compressed cryogenic gases
(d) act as a lube oil sump

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

48. (1.2.1.1-4) The unloading system on an air compressor will __________.


o
o
o

(a) increase compressor operating speed as necessary


(b) reduce the compressor frictional load when starting
(c) increase compressor discharge pressure on demand
(d) allow the motor to turn the compressor opposed only by friction

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

49. (1.2.1.1-7) Which one of the following is a difference between a typical relief valve and a typical
safety valve?
o
o

(a) The actuator closing spring on a relief valve is in a compressed state whereas the actuator
closing spring on a safety valve acts in tension.
(b) Relief valves are capable of being gagged whereas safety valves are not.
(c) A relief valve gradually opens as pressure increases above set point pressure whereas a
safety valve fully opens at the set point pressure.
(d) The blow down of a relief valve is greater than the blow down of a safety valve.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

50. (1.2.1.1-12) The air compressor shown in the illustration, when used aboard a vessel is typically
operated as __________. Illustration GS-0119
o
o
o

(a) a diesel engine air start unit only


(b) a constant pressure unit while operating under all load conditions
(c) an on-off cycle unit
(d) a constant capacity unit

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

51. (1.2.1.1-6) The primary function of the device illustrated is to __________. Illustration GS-0029

o
o
o

(a) remove all but the frictional load of an air compressor at start-up
(b) intensify the pressure developed by an air compressor during its normal running operation
(c) pre-charge the cylinders of an air compressor prior to the start-up of the unit
(d) open the discharge valves during the compressor s operation to supply compressed air

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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General Subjects
QMED

52. (1.2.1.1-8) The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to __________. Illustration GS0120
o
o

(a) pump refrigerant


(b) generate electricity
(c) compress air
(d) pump heavy liquids

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

53. (1.2.1.2-6) The line labeled "E", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______.
Illustration GS-0175
o

o
o

(a) oily bilge water outlet


(b) oily bilge water inlet
(c) processed oil outlet
(d) clean water flushing line

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

54. (1.2.1.2-3) The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________. Illustration GS-0153
o
o

(a) direct the flow of the oily-water mixture against the coalescer bed
(b) support the tank access panel
(c) prevent separated oil from mixing with the incoming bilge water
(d) allow the oil accumulated to exit the device, while remaining separated from the liquid

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

55. (1.2.1.2-5) The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the ______.
Illustration GS-0175
o

o
o

(a) oil discharge line


(b) clean water flushing line
(c) oily bilge water inlet
(d) tank drain line

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

56. (1.2.1.2-8) Which of the valves listed for the device shown in illustration will be open while the unit is
operating in the back flush mode? Illustration GS-0153
o
o

(a) valve "4"


(b) valves "4" and "5"
(c) valves "4" and "14"
(d) valves "4", "5", and "14"

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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General Subjects
QMED

57. (1.2.1.3-2) In the operation of a lube oil clarifier, the position of the oil/water interface should be
__________.

o
o
o

(a) non-existent
(b) maintained by the number of disks in the disk stack
(c) maintained by the diaphragm-type, weir control valve
(d) maintained by the ring dam

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

58. (1.2.1.3-4) A centrifuge will satisfactorily remove which of the listed substances from lube oil?
o
o

(a) Gasoline
(b) Diesel fuel
(c) Carbon particles
(d) Fuel oil

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

59. (1.2.1.3-7) Of the many impurities commonly found in marine lubricating oil, which of the following
CANNOT be removed by a centrifugal purifier at normal operating speeds and temperatures?

o
o
o

(a) Diesel fuel oil


(b) Metal particles
(c) Water
(d) Carbon particles

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

60. (1.2.1.3-6) When water is removed from lube oil passing through a centrifugal purifier, the water
removed will __________.
o
o
o

(a) force the diameter of the oil column within the bowl to be narrowed
(b) be retained in the bowl
(c) displace water from the heavy phase discharge port, but of an amount less than that removed
from the oil
(d) displace an equal amount of water from the bowl seal

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

61. (1.2.4.6-9) Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to meet a wide variation in
steaming loads on an auxiliary boiler, are __________.
o
o
o

(a) automatically supplied with warmer air on demand


(b) automatically supplied with more fuel on demand
(c) equipped with standard variable capacity atomizers
(d) cycled on and off in response to steam demand

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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General Subjects
QMED

62. (1.2.4.6-5) Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is correct?

o
o
o

(a) Combustion gases flow through the tubes.


(b) Flames impinge on the tubes.
(c) Combustion occurs in the tubes.
(d) Water flows through the tubes.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

63. (1.2.4.6-11) A photoelectric cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management
system __________.

o
o
o

(a) opens the burner circuit upon sensing a flame failure


(b) detects a flame failure by monitoring radiant heat from glowing refractory
(c) requires mechanical linkage to secure the burner fuel supply
(d) must be bypassed at low firing rates

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

64. (1.2.4.6-10) The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired
auxiliary boiler, is to prevent __________.
o
o

(a) accidental dry firing and overpressure


(b) uncontrolled fires in the furnace
(c) explosions in the boiler furnace
(d) overheating of the pressure parts

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

65. (1.2.4.6-8) Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to __________.


o

o
o

(a) provide a means of draining the boiler


(b) warn the engineer of low water level
(c) cool the crown sheet at high firing rates
(d) open the burners' electrical firing circuits

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

66. (1.2.4.6-2) In a coil-type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler, __________.

o
o
o

(a) steam demand response is comparatively rapid


(b) steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler
(c) unevaporated feed water is discharged through the skim tube
(d) steam demand response is slow

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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67. (1.2.4.6-7) The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by
__________.
o

o
o

(a) girder stays


(b) fire-tubes and stay-tubes
(c) external boiler plating
(d) separate crown sheets

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

68. (1.2.4.6-6) The boiler shown in the illustration would be classed as __________. Illustration MO0064
o

o
o

(a) forced circulation, coil-type


(b) single-pass, fire-tube, scotch marine
(c) two-pass, scotch marine
(d) two-pass, water-tube

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

69. (1.2.4.6-3) Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to __________.
o
o
o

(a) completely drain the boiler in an emergency


(b) prevent sludge from forming in the steam drum
(c) remove floating impurities from the boiler water surface
(d) remove settled solids from the water drum

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

70. (1.2.1.4-1) Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by
centrifuging?

o
o
o

(a) Sludge
(b) Gasoline
(c) Fuel oil
(d) Lube oil

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

71. (1.2.1.4-3) For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should be accomplished with
the fuel at the lowest practicable __________.

o
o
o

(a) throughput
(b) additive percent
(c) Cetane number
(d) TBN number

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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72. (1.2.4.5-1) Which of the following technologies would be associated with a Type III marine sanitation
device?
o
o

(a) Biological treatment plant


(b) Chemical treatment plant
(c) Sewage holding tank
(d) Direct overboard sewage discharge

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

73. (1.2.4.5-3) By what means is biological sewage treatment plant effluent disinfected before discharge
overboard?
o
o

(a) Disinfection is not required on biological sewage treatment plants.


(b) Ultraviolet light irradiation is the only approved means of disinfection.
(c) Hypochlorite tablets or liquid solution and ultraviolet irradiation are both approved means of
disinfection.
(d) Hypochlorite tablets or liquid solution is the only approved means of disinfection.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

74. (1.2.4.5-4) If a biological sewage treatment plant consists of three chambers, what is the sequential
order of treatment chambers within the plant?
o
o

(a) Sedimentation, disinfection, aeration


(b) Disinfection, aeration, sedimentation
(c) Aeration, sedimentation, disinfection
(d) Sedimentation, aeration, disinfection

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

75. (1.2.4.5-5) Besides promoting mixing of the bacterial population with the fecal waste material, what
is the purpose of aeration system as used in a biological sewage treatment plant?
o
o
o

(a) The air provides an oxygen source for the aerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it
helps promote settling in the aeration chamber.
(b) The air provides an oxygen source for the anaerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it
helps promote settling in the aeration chamber.
(c) The air provides an oxygen source for the anaerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it
helps prevent settling in the aeration chamber.
(d) The air provides an oxygen source for the aerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it
helps prevent settling in the aeration chamber.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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76. (1.2.2-8) What type of respiratory protection provides the greatest protection from the various
respiratory hazards, is specifically designed for emergency and rescue situations, but has time
constraints associated with its use?
o
o
o

(a) Emergency escape breathing apparatus


(b) Powered air-purifying respirator
(c) Reusable full-mask respirator
(d) Self-contained breathing apparatus

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

77. (1.2.2-10) What statement is true concerning portable power tools?


o
o

(a) A power tool fitted with a three conductor cable and three-prong plug may be safely used with
an ungrounded outlet as long as a three prong receptacle to two prong plug adapter is used.
(b) Power tools other than those as approved as double-insulated require the use of two
conductor cables, two-prong plugs, and ungrounded receptacles.
(c) Unless the power tool is an approved double-insulated type, an ungrounded power tool has
the potential to cause a fatal accident due to electrical shock.
(d) Double-insulated power tools require the use of three conductor cables, three-prong plugs,
and grounded receptacles.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

78. (1.2.2-1) Back injuries are one of the most common injuries that result in lost work time. What is the
proper technique for lifting an object?
o
o
o

(a) Bend over and grasp the object firmly. While keeping the legs straight, lift the object by
straightening the back. Move the object while standing erect and keep object away from the body.
(b) Bend the knees and grasp the object loosely. While keeping the back straight, lift the object by
straightening the legs. Move the object while standing erect and keep object away from the body.
(c) Bend over and grasp the object loosely. While keeping the legs straight, lift the object by
straightening the back. Move the object while standing erect and keep object close to the body.
(d) Bend the knees and grasp the object firmly. While keeping the back straight, lift the object by
straightening the legs. Move the object while standing erect and keep object close to the body.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

79. (1.2.2-9) What statement is true concerning the use of wrenches and drive tools as used to
manipulate threaded fasteners?
o
o

(a) When extra leverage is needed for wrenches and drive tools, the use of a cheater bar is
recommended.
(b) Push wrenches and drive tool handles rather than pull them for greater control and balance
and to avoid injury.
(c) Six point sockets are less prone to slippage than twelve point sockets.
(d) For initial breaking loose and final tightening of fasteners, the use of open end wrenches is
recommended.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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80. (1.2.2-6) What type of eye protection affords the best protection from severe exposure to airborne
impact hazards?
o
o
o

(a) Full-face shield


(b) Side-shielded safety glasses
(c) Eyecup or cover-type safety goggles
(d) Full-face shield and safety goggles

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

81. (1.2.3.1-1) The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.
o
o

(a) rolling member size


(b) inner race cone width
(c) manufacturer's numerical code
(d) outer ring width

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

82. (1.2.3.1-2) Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured
roller bearings?
o
o
o

(a) They have a relatively high power loss due to friction.


(b) They are not capable of maintaining alignment over long periods of time.
(c) Their lubrication is complicated and requires constant attention.
(d) They are well adapted to variable speed operation.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

83. (1.2.3.1-3) Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?
o
o

(a) Thrust bearing


(b) Piston pin bushing
(c) Spring bearing
(d) All of the above.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

84. (1.2.3.1-4) An example of an antifriction bearing is a __________.


o
o
o

(a) line shaft or spring bearing


(b) Kingsbury thrust bearing
(c) rubber cutlass strut bearing
(d) ball bearing

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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85. (1.2.3.1-5) Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each
other?

o
o
o

(a) Ball
(b) Roller
(c) Tapered roller
(d) Needle

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

86. (1.2.3.1-6) Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities than ball bearings?
o
o

(a) They have a greater tolerance for high-speed applications.


(b) They are subject to less pitting and metal fatigue.
(c) They have a greater contact area.
(d) They are installed with tighter clearances.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

87. (1.2.3.2-3) In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by
__________.

o
o
o

(a) spring force


(b) a pressure gun
(c) a Zerk fitting
(d) gravity flow

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

88. (1.2.3.2-6) To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high operating temperature, the
recommended amount of grease injected into a ball or roller bearing is approximately __________.
o

o
o

(a) 10-25% of the original void space in the bearing


(b) 25-50% of the original void space in the bearing
(c) 50-75% of the original void space in the bearing
(d) 75-95% of the original void space in the bearing

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

89. (1.2.3.2-1) Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug
temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery
has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that __________.
o
o
o

(a) all air pockets are vented from the grease


(b) dirt and grit are flushed from the bearing housing
(c) the grease is properly distributed within the bearing
(d) a path of expansion is provided for the grease

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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90. (1.2.3.2-2) When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should __________.
o
o

(a) apply even pressure to the outer race


(b) apply pressure evenly to both the inner and outer races
(c) apply even force to the inner race
(d) tap the outer race with a mallet

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

91. (1.2.3.2-5) Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft?
o
o
o

(a) An acetylene torch and hammer


(b) A tapered 'come-a-long'
(c) A steel drift pin and hammer
(d) An arbor press

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

92. (1.2.3.2-4) Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on
pumps?
o
o
o

(a) The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft.


(b) The outer race should be free to turn in its housing.
(c) Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation.
(d) They are usually pressed onto their shafts.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

93. (1.2.3.3-1) Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.
o

o
o

(a) excessive channeling of the grease


(b) high temperatures to develop as result of churning
(c) emulsification of the thickener additive
(d) gelling of the base oil

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

94. (1.2.3.3-2) A ball bearing will overheat if __________.


o
o

(a) filled with grease to 65% of the total open spaces within the bearing
(b) operated at designed high-speed
(c) completely packed full of grease
(d) in use for a long time

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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95. (1.2.4-9) When applying paint with a brush, which of the following pairs of techniques are
recommended?
o
o
o

(a) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover the entire length of the bristles, and the paint
should be applied in parallel strokes only.
(b) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover only the ends of the bristles, and the paint
should be applied in cross strokes only.
(c) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover the entire length of the bristles, and the paint
should be applied in cross strokes only.
(d) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover only the ends of the bristles, and the paint
should be applied in parallel strokes only.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

96. (1.2.4-3) When an aluminum plate is bolted to a steel plate, what is required at the bolted joint to
minimize bimetallic corrosion?

o
o
o

(a) The plates should be electrically insulated from one another by use of non-conductive gaskets
and non-conductive ferrule sleeves with the bolts.
(b) The plates should be bonded together electrically by joining the plates by a bonding strap in
addition to bolting together.
(c) Steel and aluminum are so close together on the Noble series that no particular provision
need be made for bolting steel and aluminum plates together.
(d) The plates should be bolted together in such a way as to ensure good electrical contact
between the plates.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

97. (1.2.4-2) What material is most commonly used as a sacrificial anode for the purposes of minimizing
the galvanic corrosion of steel and cast iron?
o
o

(a) Bronze
(b) Platinum
(c) Zinc
(d) Brass

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

98. (1.2.4-4) Before primers and finish coats may be applied to a metal surface, the surface must be
properly prepared. What statement is true concerning surface preparation?
o
o

(a) Dirt, oil and grease must be removed. Rust and mill scale may remain.
(b) All dirt, rust and mill scale must be removed. Oil and grease can remain.
(c) All dirt, oil, grease, rust, mill scale, and loose paint must be removed.
(d) All previous paint must be removed.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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99. (1.2.4-7) In preparing the surface of a metal for application of primers and finish coats, which of the
listed hand tools is appropriate for surfaces with significant pitting?
o
o

(a) Chipping hammer


(b) Sandpaper
(c) Wire brush
(d) Hand scraper

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

100.

o
o
o

(1.2.4-8) What is meant by the term "boxing" paint?


(a) Thoroughly mixing paint by pouring paint back and forth between two cans.
(b) Thoroughly mixing paint by using a mechanical stirrer.
(c) Removing the "skin" that has formed on the surface of the paint in the can.
(d) Stacking paint cans within a suitable box.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

101.

(1.2.12-6) Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER
tags?

o
o

(a) Whenever there is a break in the actual maintenance activity.


(b) Whenever you feel that it is safe to do so.
(c) Only when the tags have been removed by an authorized person.
(d) Whenever permission is granted by your supervisor.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

102.

(1.2.12-2) Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER
tags?

o
o
o

(a) Whenever you feel that it is safe to do so.


(b) Whenever permission is granted by your supervisor.
(c) Whenever there is a break in the actual maintenance activity.
(d) Under NO circumstances should the equipment be operated when tagged.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

103.

(1.2.12-5) Under what conditions is a CAUTION tag installed at equipment control stations in
preparation for performing maintenance or repairs?

o
o
o

(a) When operation of the equipment will harm the equipment ONLY.
(b) When operation of the equipment will endanger personnel ONLY.
(c) When operation of the equipment will endanger personnel OR harm the equipment.
(d) When operation of the equipment requires temporary special instructions to be provided.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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104.

(1.2.12-1) When installing DANGER tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in
preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?

o
o

(a) Orange
(b) Red
(c) Yellow
(d) Green

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

105.

(1.2.14.1-4) What statement is true concerning the polishing coalescer filter of an oily-water
separator?

(a) The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of
entrained water of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water
that sink to the bottom of the filter housing.
(b) The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil
of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that sink to the
bottom of the filter housing.
(c) The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained
water of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water that rise to
the top of the filter housing.
(d) The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil
of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that rise to the top of
the filter housing.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

106.

(1.2.14.1-5) Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check
valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is
closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve "D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water
separator unit? Illustration GS-0175

o
o

(a) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
(b) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging overboard with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
(c) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
(d) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging overboard with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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General Subjects
QMED

107.

(1.2.14.1-3) What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oilywater mixture associated with an oily-water separator?

o
o

(a) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
(b) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
(c) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
(d) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

108.

(1.2.14.2-1) A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage
by __________.

o
o
o

(a) pumping the sewage ashore to an approved container


(b) holding all sewage onboard
(c) treating sewage in an approved system
(d) all of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

109.

(1.2.14.2-2) Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of
sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?

o
o

(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) Type IV

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

110.

(1.2.15-3) Which characteristic of fuel oil is the most significant when determining the temperature
to which the fuel oil must be heated for proper atomization?

o
o

(a) Flash point


(b) Viscosity
(c) Pour point
(d) Specific gravity

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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QMED

111.

(1.2.15-2) Which of the listed characteristics of fuel oil establishes the danger point as far as
transferring, pumping, and firing procedures are concerned?

o
o
o

(a) Viscosity
(b) Fire point
(c) Specific gravity
(d) Flash point

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

112.
o
o
o

(1.2.15-7) When heated, fuel oil will __________.


(a) have a higher specific heat
(b) increase in specific gravity
(c) increase in viscosity
(d) expand in volume

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

113.

(1.2.15-9) The main reason for having a low suction line on the fuel oil service or settling tanks is
to __________.

o
o

(a) prevent loss of suction during rough weather


(b) facilitate water removal
(c) decrease suction head on the pump
(d) increase the amount of fuel available for use

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

114.
o

o
o

(1.2.15-4) The BTU value of fuel oil is determined by a/an __________.


(a) viscosimeter
(b) calorimeter
(c) open cup test
(d) hydrometer

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

115.

(1.2.17-6) What application often requires a valve to be remotely operated from a control station,
where the valve itself is operated by an electric, pneumatic, or hydraulic motor?

o
o

(a) A small valve that is routinely operated during plant operations.


(b) A large valve that is routinely operated during plant operations.
(c) A large valve that is rarely operated during plant operations.
(d) A small valve that is rarely operated during plant operations.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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QMED

116.

(1.2.17-2) Where is the location of a chain-operated valve when a chain wheel is attached to the
stem and is associated with an endless chain for operation?

o
o
o

(a) The valve is located too far directly above the deck where it is operated from.
(b) The valve is located too far directly across from the location where it is operated.
(c) The valve is located too far directly below the deck where it is operated from.
(d) A chain-operated valve can be used in any of the applications listed above.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

117.

(1.2.17-8) What is the purpose of the torque limit switch as fitted on an electric motor operated
rising stem gate valve?

o
o
o

(a) The torque limit switch protects the valve from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the
valve from fully opening.
(b) The torque limit switch protects the motor from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the
valve from fully opening.
(c) The torque limit switch protects the motor from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the
valve from fully closing.
(d) The torque limit switch protects the valve from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the
valve from fully closing.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

118.

(1.2.17-3) In what application is a remote valve operator most likely to be located outside the
machinery space when the valve itself is located within the machinery space?

o
o
o

(a) A valve located in a compressed air line.


(b) A valve located in a potable water transfer line.
(c) A valve located in a sea water cooling line.
(d) A valve located in a fuel oil transfer line.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

119.

(1.2.17-9) Remote valve operators are frequently fitted with a hand wheel for local operation if the
motor fails. If this is so, what is the procedure for local manual control?

o
o
o

(a) First move the lever to disengage the motor clutch, and then rotate the hand wheel.
(b) Just rotate the hand wheel in the appropriate direction for valve operation.
(c) First move the lever to engage the motor clutch, and then rotate the hand wheel.
(d) Motor operated valves are generally not fitted with local hand wheels.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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120.

(1.2.18-2) On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, ratings may form part of the
engineering watch. For engine room watch ratings, what is the customary time to relieve the watch?

o
o
o

(a) Fifteen minutes before the hour


(b) Thirty minutes before the hour
(c) On the hour
(d) Fifteen minutes after the hour

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

121.

(1.2.18-5) In terms of the personal safety of an engine room watch standing rating, which alarm
response would be the most immediately critical?

o
o

(a) M/E low lube oil pressure alarm


(b) M/E high coolant temperature alarm
(c) E/R fixed CO2 impending release alarm
(d) General emergency alarm

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

122.

(1.2.18-4) On vessels exceeding 1600 GRT, who is responsible for the practical upkeep of
machinery and the manning of the engine room?

o
o
o

(a) Chief mate


(b) Chief engineer
(c) Officer in charge of the engineering watch
(d) First assistant engineer

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

123.

(1.2.19.1-6) The welding symbol reference line using the inverted "V indicates __________.
Illustration GS-0076

o
o
o

(a) the first pass of the weld is to be back gouged


(b) the arrow side of the weld is to be surface finished
(c) the opposite side of the weld is to be surface finished
(d) a "V" groove weld is to be made

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

124.
o
o
o

(1.2.19.1-10) When arc welding, the flux that covers the electrode is used to __________.
(a) control penetration
(b) reduce metal fatigue and warpage
(c) increase heat transfer
(d) reduce oxidation

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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125.

(1.2.19.1-13) A weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at right angles to
each other, and is called a __________.

o
o
o

(a) seam weld


(b) tack weld
(c) plug weld
(d) fillet weld

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

126.

(1.2.19.1-2) In the illustration, the welded neck flange is attached to the pipe by a __________.
Illustration GS-0078

o
o
o

(a) double fillet weld only


(b) U-weld over a backing ring
(c) plug and slot weld
(d) V-weld over a backing ring

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

127.

(1.2.19.1-3) Setting up a welding job, where the work is the positive pole and the electrode is the
negative pole for the arc, is known as a/an __________.

o
o

(a) inert-arc welding circuit


(b) reverse polarity welding circuit
(c) straight polarity welding circuit
(d) shielded-arc welding circuit

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

128.
o

o
o

(1.2.19.1-9) Which illustration correctly depicts a double bevel groove weld? Illustration GS-0077
(a) 4A
(b) 3B
(c) 4B
(d) 6B

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

129.

(1.2.19.2-11) Which of the following procedures would be correct when first lighting-off an
oxyacetylene torch?

o
o
o

(a) Open the acetylene valve very slightly to light-off and then open and adjust the oxygen valve.
(b) Open the oxygen valve very slightly to light-off and then open and adjust the acetylene valve.
(c) Open the acetylene valve very slightly and the oxygen valve the same amount to light-off.
(d) Open the oxygen valve wide open and the acetylene valve slightly to light-off.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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130.

(1.2.19.2-10) Which of the following is true concerning the hose threads on compressed gas
oxyacetylene regulators and torches?

o
o
o

(a) The torch oxygen inlet hose thread connection is "left handed".
(b) The acetylene regulator hose outlet thread connection is "right handed".
(c) The oxygen regulator hose outlet thread connection is "left handed".
(d) The torch acetylene inlet hose thread connection is "left handed".

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

131.

(1.2.19.2-3) When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you should
close the __________.

o
o
o

(a) cylinder valves and close torch valves when pressure in hoses and regulators is zero
(b) cylinder valves and close torch valves with 4 to 5 pounds of pressure in the hoses
(c) cylinder valves only
(d) hand valves on the torch only

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

132.
o
o
o

(1.2.19.2-4) When welding with an oxyacetylene outfit, __________.


(a) open the acetylene valve until the hose pressure is 26 PSIG
(b) a flashback of flame into the hose is normal
(c) a leaking hose must be repaired by binding with tape
(d) open the acetylene cylinder valve only 1/4 to 1/2 turn and leave the wrench on the valve stem

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

133.

(1.2.19.2-1) With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels, hard-facing, and
the welding of non-ferrous alloys, such as monel, the best flame to use is termed a/an __________.

o
o

(a) nitriding fusion


(b) neutral flame
(c) carburizing flame
(d) oxidizing flame

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

134.
o
o

(1.2.19.3-4) Solder is an alloy of __________.


(a) copper and lead
(b) beryllium and antimony
(c) tin and lead
(d) silicon and selenium

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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135.
o
o

(1.2.19.3-2) Tinning a soldering iron will __________.


(a) add extra weight to the tip
(b) prevent the tip from overheating
(c) prevent tip oxidation when heated
(d) protect the tip from scratches

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

136.
o
o
o

(1.2.19.3-3) Flux is used when soldering, in order to __________.


(a) ensure proper tinning
(b) make the solder "flow"
(c) decrease the melting point of the solder
(d) clean the joint area

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

137.
o
o
o

(1.2.11.6-4) The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the metal __________.
(a) tougher
(b) harder
(c) smoother
(d) softer

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

138.
o
o

(1.2.11.6-1) The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its __________.
(a) ductibility
(b) elasticity
(c) malleability
(d) fusibility

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

139.

(1.2.11.6-3) When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what


metallurgical properties are achieved?

o
o
o

(a) increase in brittleness


(b) increase in corrosion resistance
(c) increase in hardening
(d) decrease in brittleness

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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140.
o
o
o

(1.2.11.6-5) Ferrous metals are metals containing __________.


(a) a large percentage of copper
(b) no iron
(c) a large percentage of aluminum
(d) a large percentage of iron

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

141.

(1.2.11.6-2) Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening


temperature and then cooling it is known as __________.

o
o
o

(a) case hardening


(b) low temperature hardening
(c) annealing
(d) tempering

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

142.

(1.2.11.8.2-13) The lathe tool shown as figure "N" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
__________. Illustration GS-0090

o
o
o

(a) curling tool


(b) hurling tool
(c) furling tool
(d) knurling tool

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

143.

(1.2.11.8.2-15) The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is properly called the
__________. Illustration GS-0164

o
o
o

(a) nose angle


(b) working relief angle
(c) side rake angle
(d) side relief angle

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

144.

(1.2.11.8.2-7) Which of the illustrated figures represents the use of a right hand roughing tool?
Illustration GS-0090

o
o

(a) Figure P
(b) Figure S
(c) Figure T
(d) Figure V

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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145.

(1.2.11.8.2-9) Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a smooth finish cut for
figure I? Illustration GS-0009

o
o
o

(a) A
(b) F
(c) G
(d) D

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

146.

(1.2.11.8.2-6) The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that
the latter __________.

o
o

(a) allows for misaligned center holes


(b) has a spring loaded catch
(c) has a headless set screw
(d) is more easily centered

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

147.

(1.2.11.8.2-12) The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as
__________. Illustration GS-0090

o
o

(a) universal turning tools


(b) parting tools
(c) form tools
(d) curvature cutting tools

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

148.

(1.2.11.8.2-8) The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
__________. Illustration GS-0090

o
o

(a) left cut side-facing tool


(b) right side end facing tool
(c) cutting-off tool
(d) universal turning tool

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

149.

(1.2.11.8.1-22) Which of the metals listed below can be cut with the highest operating lathe
speed?

o
o

(a) Cast iron


(b) Soft brass
(c) Aluminum
(d) Mild steel

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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150.

(1.2.11.8.1-9) To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18 inch work piece, the tailstock of the
lathe must be set over __________.

o
o
o

(a) 3/8 inch


(b) 1/2 inch
(c) 3/4 inch
(d) 7/8 inch

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

151.

(1.2.11.8.1-18) The 60 taper angle machined on work supported by lathe centers is most easily
machined by the __________.

o
o
o

(a) taper attachment


(b) tailstock set over method
(c) headstock set over method
(d) compound rest

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

152.

(1.2.11.8.1-5) For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers,
you should use a __________.

o
o

(a) compound rest


(b) draw-in collet chuck
(c) steady rest
(d) faceplate

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

153.

(1.2.11.8.1-26) To properly cut even numbered threads using the lathe thread dial indicator
shown in the illustration, you should close the lathe split or half-nut on __________. Illustration GS0084

o
o
o

(a) any line on the dial


(b) any unnumbered half line
(c) odd numbered lines only
(d) even numbered lines only

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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154.

(1.2.11.8.1-1) Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jaw
independent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck?

o
o

(a) The jaws on the three-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted.


(b) Since the three-jaw universal chuck is automatically self-centering, it is always more accurate
than the four-jaw independent chuck.
(c) The jaws on the four-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted.
(d) The three-jaw chuck will hold square, round, and irregular shapes in either a concentric or an
eccentric position.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

155.

(1.2.11.8.1-30) Two separate work pieces are to have a taper cut with the same taper per inch,
using the offset tailstock method. After the first piece is completed, the tailstock offset must be
changed if there is a change in the __________.

o
o

(a) diameter of the work piece


(b) angle of the cutting tool
(c) length of the work piece
(d) none of the above

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

156.

(1.2.11.8.1-3) If the distances "A" and/or "B" as shown in the illustration are excessively
increased, the tool will __________. Illustration GS-0085

o
o

(a) take a deeper cut in the work


(b) slip in the tool post
(c) chatter
(d) take a shallow cut

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

157.

(1.2.11.8.1-12) A work piece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each
end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test
cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.

o
o

(a) closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offset


(b) toward you to correct alignment
(c) away from you to correct alignment
(d) away from the headstock to decrease the misalignment

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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158.

(1.2.11.8.1-29) When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per inch produced
is determined by the speed relationship between the __________.

o
o
o

(a) lead screw and headstock spindle


(b) drive motor and spindle
(c) spindle and feed rod
(d) lead screw and feed rod

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

159.

(1.2.11.8.1-17) To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage the
__________.

o
o
o

(a) feed-change lever


(b) back gear lever
(c) thread-chasing dial
(d) split or half-nut

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

160.

(1.2.11.8.1-7) Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a
__________.

o
o
o

(a) spindle
(b) lathe dog
(c) crotch center
(d) chuck

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

161.
o
o
o

(1.2.11.8.1-2) A tailstock 'dead center' has been given that name because it __________.
(a) is dead centered on the tailstock spindle
(b) must be removed by clamping in the chuck
(c) fits into the dead center of the work piece
(d) does not revolve

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

162.

(1.2.11.8.1-28) To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe using the thread dial
indicator illustrated, you should close the lathe split, or half-nut on __________. Illustration GS-0084

o
o
o

(a) any numbered line on the dial


(b) even numbered lines only
(c) odd numbered lines only
(d) any line on the dial

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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163.

(1.2.11.8.1-24) If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and the work piece tends to climb
over the top of the cutoff tool, you should __________.

o
o

(a) stop the lathe and tighten the chuck


(b) increase the lathe spindle speed
(c) increase the height of the tool cutting edge
(d) stop the lathe and lubricate the dead center

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

164.

(1.2.11.9-3) To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it to make a bearing
shim, you should use a __________.

o
o

(a) machinist's rule


(b) feeler gage
(c) micrometer
(d) depth gage

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

165.

(1.2.11.9-11) Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the thimble to
__________.

o
o

(a) click at each increment of measure


(b) prevent the user from closing the tool with too much force
(c) stop the spindle from sliding out of the barrel
(d) eliminate ratchet movement

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

166.

(1.2.11.9-14) What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "G" in
the illustration? Illustration GS-0083

o
o

(a) 0.2280 inch


(b) 0.2340 inch
(c) 0.2470 inch
(d) 0.2520 inch

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

167.

o
o
o

(1.2.11.9-7) A micrometer screw has a pitch of __________.


(a) 40 threads per inch
(b) 50 threads per inch
(c) 75 threads per inch
(d) 100 threads per inch

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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168.

(1.2.11.9-9) The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an inside caliper is to use a/an
__________.

o
o
o

(a) outside micrometer


(b) dial indicator
(c) engineer's scale
(d) thread micrometer

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

169.

(1.2.11.9-16) A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal to
__________.

o
o
o

(a) 2 5/8 inches


(b) 2 7/16 inches
(c) 3 1/8 inches
(d) 3 9/16 inches

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

170.

(1.2.11.9-13) The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustration is
__________. Illustration GS-0082

o
o

(a) 2.308 inches


(b) 2.368 inches
(c) 2.380 inches
(d) 2.965 inches

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

171.

(1.2.11.9-4) The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when
__________.

o
o
o

(a) a dial lights on the handle


(b) the scale is read on the handle
(c) the dial is read on the handle
(d) an audible click is heard and the handle releases

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

172.

(1.2.11.9-10) For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a vernier scale making it possible to
read in increments of __________.

o
o

(a) five thousands of an inch


(b) ten thousands of an inch
(c) twenty five thousands of an inch
(d) one fortieth of an inch

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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173.

(1.2.11.9-12) The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is
__________. Illustration GS-0081

o
o
o

(a) 0.4710 inch


(b) 0.4715 inch
(c) 0.4810 inch
(d) 0.4815 inch

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

174.
o
o

(1.2.11.1.6-5) Ball peen hammers are sized according to their __________.


(a) overall length
(b) face diameter
(c) head weight
(d) peen head size

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

175.
o

o
o

(1.2.11.1.6-1) A grease gun is generally used to lubricate a __________.


(a) main turbine bearing
(b) condensate pump ball bearing
(c) diesel engine wrist pin bearing
(d) generator crosshead bearing

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

176.

(1.2.11.1.6-2) The tool best suited for cutting pipeline flange gaskets to the correct size is
__________.

o
o
o

(a) a gasket cutter


(b) a pair of tin snips
(c) a jack knife
(d) a ball peen hammer

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

177.

(1.2.11.1.6-4) The best tool to use when attempting to widen the opening of a flanged joint, in
preparation for renewing the gasket, is a __________.

o
o

(a) gasket cutter


(b) scraper
(c) flange spreader
(d) spud wrench

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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178.

o
o
o

(1.2.11.1.2-5) When coming to the end of a cut using a hand hacksaw, you should __________.
(a) reduce cutting speed and pressure
(b) increase cutting speed and pressure
(c) change to a finer cut blade
(d) stop applying the cutting fluid

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

179.

(1.2.11.1.2-9) Which of the saws listed would be more suitable for cutting metal in tight quarters
or flush to a surface where a hand-held hacksaw frame could not be used?

o
o

(a) Coping saw


(b) Stab saw
(c) Hole saw
(d) Back saw

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

180.

(1.2.11.1.2-1) To cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should use a blade
with what number of teeth per inch?

o
o

(a) 14
(b) 18
(c) 24
(d) 32

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

181.

o
o
o

(1.2.11.1.2-4) A hacksaw blade will start a cut more easily if you __________.
(a) file a nick where the cut is to be started
(b) turn the saw blade at right angles to the saw frame
(c) coat the saw blade with soap before starting the cut
(d) apply maximum pressure at the start of the cut

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

182.

(1.2.11.1.2-3) Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied only on the
__________.

o
o

(a) front of the hacksaw frame


(b) backward stroke
(c) forward stroke
(d) top of the hacksaw frame

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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183.
o
o
o

(1.2.11.1.2-2) To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame, the __________.
(a) teeth should point toward the handle
(b) blade can be installed in any position for normal use
(c) blade should be kept loose in the frame
(d) teeth should point away from the handle

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

184.
o
o
o

(1.2.11.1.2-11) A hacksaw blade will break if __________.


(a) too much pressure is applied to the blade
(b) the blade becomes loose in the frame
(c) the rate of cutting is too great
(d) all the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

185.

(1.2.11.1.2-7) When using a hand-held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of speed for cutting
should be __________.

o
o

(a) 10 to 20 strokes per minute


(b) 80 to 100 strokes per minute
(c) 40 to 50 strokes per minute
(d) 70 to 80 strokes per minute

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

186.

(1.2.11.1.2-6) The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw blade is known as
the __________.

o
o

(a) set
(b) pitch
(c) rake
(d) thread gauge

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

187.

(1.2.11.1.5-4) Which of the screwdrivers listed has a tip surrounded by parallel fluted ridges
resembling the ridges of a splined socket wrench?

o
o
o

(a) Standard
(b) Reed and Prince
(c) Phillips
(d) Torx

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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188.

(1.2.11.1.5-5) Which type of screwdriver listed would have a 'Keystone' type vertical crosssectional tip?

o
o

(a) Torx
(b) Standard
(c) Phillips
(d) Allen

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

189.

(1.2.11.1.5-8) Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed with the shaft made from double coil
wire or tightly coiled steel?

o
o

(a) Square shank


(b) Jeweler's
(c) Flexible shaft
(d) Ratchet

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

190.
o
o

(1.2.11.1.5-2) An offset screwdriver is best used for __________.


(a) tightening Allen head screws only
(b) tightening or loosening "offset type" machine screws
(c) screws you cannot reach with a straight shaft screwdriver
(d) driving self-tapping screws only

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

191.

(1.2.11.1.5-6) Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision assembly of small
parts?

o
o
o

(a) Square shanked


(b) Allen head
(c) Ratchet
(d) Jeweler's

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

192.
o
o
o

(1.2.11.1.5-3) Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with a four-way or cross type slot?
(a) Standard screwdriver
(b) Phillips screwdriver
(c) Reed and Prince screwdriver
(d) Both B and C are correct

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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193.

o
o
o

(1.2.11.1.5-9) Screwdrivers designed for electrical use should have __________.


(a) insulated handles
(b) larger than normal shanks
(c) shorter than normal shanks
(d) longer than normal shanks

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

194.
o

o
o

(1.2.11.1.5-1) Some heavy duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to __________.
(a) prevent the shank from bending
(b) allow turning with a wrench
(c) permit striking with a hammer
(d) allow it to be used as a pry bar

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

195.

o
o
o

(1.2.11.1.1-14) It is necessary to 'chalk' a file when the metal you are filing is __________.
(a) aluminum
(b) monel
(c) mild steel
(d) stainless steel

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

196.
o
o

(1.2.11.1.1-3) Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a fine finish on metal?
(a) Float
(b) Second cut
(c) Mill
(d) Warding

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

197.
o
o
o

(1.2.11.1.1-7) A new file should be broken in carefully by filing a piece of __________.


(a) monel stock using heavy pressure
(b) brass stock using heavy pressure
(c) stainless steel stock using light pressure
(d) bronze stock using light pressure

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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198.
o

o
o

(1.2.11.1.1-2) Double cut files are most effective when used for __________.
(a) finish work
(b) rough work
(c) draw filing
(d) sharpening tools

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

199.

(1.2.11.1.1-6) Heavy pressure on the ends of a file will cause the work surface to become
__________.

o
o

(a) smooth
(b) rough
(c) rounded
(d) tapered

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

200.

(1.2.11.1.1-13) Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under pressure, against the work, is
called __________.

o
o

(a) standard form filing


(b) cross filing
(c) draw filing
(d) stroke filing

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

201.

(1.2.11.1.1-4) A metal file has become clogged with filings and should be cleaned with a file
__________.

o
o

(a) scraper
(b) card
(c) dressing tool
(d) oilstone

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

202.
o

o
o

(1.2.11.1.1-1) Which of the following types of files is generally used for finishing?
(a) A double cut file
(b) A single cut file
(c) Any bastard cut file
(d) Only a double bastard cut file

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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203.

(1.2.11.1.1-8) Which of the files listed is tapered on all sides and used to enlarge rectangularshaped holes and slots?

o
o
o

(a) Square
(b) Round
(c) Half round
(d) None of the above

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

204.

(1.2.11.1.1-9) The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to
the __________.

o
o
o

(a) distance between the parallel cuts of a file


(b) size of the file
(c) coarseness of file teeth
(d) both A and C are correct

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

205.

o
o
o

(1.2.11.1.4-3) A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used because __________.
(a) pieces may fly off the chisel and injure your eyes
(b) it must be held firmly by the head to strike it
(c) the chisel cannot be struck squarely
(d) the hammer head may be chipped

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

206.

(1.2.11.1.4-5) What precautions should be followed when using a chisel having a mushroomed
head?

o
o
o

(a) Remove the ragged edges by grinding.


(b) Knock off the ragged edges with a hammer.
(c) Use only light hammer blows with the chisel.
(d) Do not strike the mushroomed portion.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

207.

o
o
o

(1.2.11.1.4-7) Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting __________.
(a) V-grooves and inside sharp angles
(b) oil grooves in bearings
(c) keyways having square corners
(d) holes through metal plate

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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208.
o
o
o

(1.2.11.1.4-4) The temper is likely to be drawn out from a chisel edge when you __________.
(a) soak it in hot oil for lengthy periods
(b) hold it next to a wet grinding wheel
(c) grind the cutting angle too small
(d) grind it for long periods of time with excessive pressure

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

209.
o
o

(1.2.11.1.4-6) Which of the chisels listed should be used for cutting oil grooves?
(a) Square nose
(b) Diamond point
(c) Round nose
(d) Flat cold

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

210.

(1.2.11.1.4-8) Which of the listed punches can be properly used to free a tapered pin 'frozen' in its
hole?

o
o

(a) Prick punch


(b) Drift punch
(c) Center punch
(d) Aligning punch

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

211.
o

o
o

(1.2.11.1.4-2) The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the __________.
(a) round nose chisel
(b) cape chisel
(c) flat cold chisel
(d) diamond point chisel

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

212.
o
o
o

(1.2.11.1.4-1) When using a chisel, you should __________.


(a) wear gloves
(b) be certain it is a non-sparking type
(c) hold the tool lightly
(d) wear safety glasses

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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213.

o
o
o

(1.2.11.1.4-9) An aligning punch is commonly used to __________.


(a) line up corresponding holes in adjacent symmetrical parts
(b) tighten tapered pins
(c) loosen jammed bolts
(d) remove snap rings

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

214.

(1.2.11.1.3-5) In order to tighten the bolts of a crank pin bearing to the exact tension specified by
the engine manufacturer, you should use a/an __________.

o
o

(a) offset box end


(b) torque wrench
(c) dial wrench
(d) hook spanner

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

215.
o
o

(1.2.11.1.3-4) Open end wrenches are __________.


(a) intended for gripping round objects
(b) used with a speeder handle
(c) nonadjustable solid wrenches
(d) not suitable for tubing fittings

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

216.

(1.2.11.1.3-3) Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of its slipping off
while tightening a nut or bolt?

o
o

(a) Open end wrench


(b) Box end wrench
(c) Crescent wrench
(d) Monkey wrench

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

217.
o

o
o

(1.2.11.1.3-8) Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a __________.


(a) strong back
(b) chain pipe wrench
(c) basin wrench
(d) monkey wrench

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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218.
o

o
o

(1.2.11.1.3-2) Needle nosed pliers are best used to __________.


(a) tighten electrical wire clamps
(b) grasp items positioned in tight places
(c) cut recessed cotter pins
(d) strip insulation from electric wire or cable

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

219.

(1.2.11.1.3-1) The open end wrench size for a 3/4 inch American National Standard hex head
machine bolt is __________.

o
o

(a) 3/4 inch


(b) 7/8 inch
(c) 1 1/4 inches
(d) 1 1/2 inches

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

220.
o

o
o

(1.2.11.1.3-7) A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when __________.


(a) the wrench jaws are at the widest open setting
(b) the bite is taken midway up the jaw teeth
(c) a maximum pull is exerted with one hand
(d) an extension is placed on the wrench handle

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

221.
o
o
o

(1.2.11.2-4) If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should __________.
(a) start tapping with a plug tap
(b) chamfer the edges of the holes
(c) flood the tap with mineral oil
(d) tap the holes without cutting oil

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

222.

(1.2.11.2-7) When internal threading for piping where the work permits the tap to be run entirely
through you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a __________.

o
o
o

(a) taper tap


(b) bottoming tap
(c) plug tap
(d) finishing tap

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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223.

(1.2.11.2-2) If you are cutting external threads by hand and you start the die at an angle, the
threads will __________.

o
o

(a) straighten out after the third revolution


(b) be out of round on the work
(c) be cut crooked on the work
(d) be rough, weak, and easily broken

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

224.

o
o
o

(1.2.11.2-6) The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a thread __________.
(a) die
(b) chaser
(c) tap
(d) broach

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

225.
o

o
o

(1.2.11.2-1) The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to __________.


(a) pipe fittings
(b) machinist's hand taps
(c) measuring instruments
(d) drill press parts

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

226.

(1.2.11.2-3) With respect to machine shop "taps and dies"; a plug tap is correctly used for
__________.

o
o

(a) reversing the threads in a hole


(b) the second cut when threading a blind hole
(c) chasing the threads on a circular rod
(d) starting the threads on a circular rod

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

227.

(1.2.11.2-5) If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions
would probably be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?

o
o

(a) Use a tapered screw extractor only.


(b) Heat the bolt with an oxyacetylene torch.
(c) Drill a hole in the center of the broken stud.
(d) Tap the bolt with a starting punch extractor.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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228.

(1.2.11.3-16) The device "F" shown in the illustration is best used to __________. Illustration GS0080

o
o

(a) secure tapered pins in position


(b) fasten pump casing flanges together
(c) assist in securing a coupling half to its shaft
(d) bolt motor frames to bedplates

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

229.

(1.2.11.3-12) Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screw?
Illustration GS-0080

o
o
o

(a) figure G
(b) figure L
(c) figure C
(d) figure D

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

230.

o
o
o

(1.2.11.3-4) The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is __________.
(a) threaded with national coarse threads
(b) made of nickel-cadmium metal
(c) made of non-corrosive metal
(d) not clad with any coating

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

231.

(1.2.11.3-8) What is the primary function of the devices shown in the illustration? Illustration GS0156

o
o

(a) The transit washers transmit the rotary motion of the cap screw to the actuating assembly.
(b) The locking plates are used to prevent the fastening devices from vibrating loose.
(c) The grounding straps help prevent electrolysis by improving the conductivity between the
components.
(d) These abrasion resistors prevent damage to the surface around the bolt holes when tightening
the bolts.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

232.

(1.2.11.3-7) The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications.
Which figure indicates the improper method for using these devices? Illustration GS-0156

o
o

(a) "A"
(b) "B"
(c) "C"
(d) "D"

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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233.

(1.2.11.3-1) With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, 'pitch' is the
__________.

o
o
o

(a) angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and the crests of the thread
(b) angle formed by adjacent flanks of a thread
(c) number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of the screw
(d) distance between corresponding points on adjacent threads

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

234.

(1.2.11.3-11) Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST desirable for use as a set screw?
Illustration GS-0080

o
o
o

(a) figure A
(b) figure F
(c) figure G
(d) figure L

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

235.

(1.2.11.3-6) Which of the following types of nuts would be best suited to use when it is important
that a nut not work itself loose due to vibration?

o
o

(a) Cap nut


(b) Castellated nut
(c) Wing nut
(d) Square nut

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

236.

(1.2.11.4-8) Which of the devices shown in the illustration is designed for both inside and outside
measurements? Illustration GS-0073

o
o

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

237.
o

o
o

(1.2.11.4-6) To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a __________.
(a) caliper
(b) steel rule
(c) micrometer
(d) scribing circle

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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238.
o

o
o

(1.2.11.4-4) The center head of a combination square set is used to __________.


(a) check the angle of thread cutting tools
(b) locate the center on round stock
(c) find right angles
(d) check degrees of angle

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

239.

(1.2.11.4-10) Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a piece of sheet
metal?

o
o

(a) Inside micrometer


(b) Circular mil
(c) Wire gauge
(d) Gauge calibrator

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

240.
o

o
o

(1.2.11.4-9) To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a __________.
(a) hook rule
(b) flexible steel rule
(c) folding rule
(d) machinist's steel rule

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

241.
o
o

(1.2.11.4-2) The purpose of the instrument illustrated is to __________. Illustration GS-0079


(a) gage resistors
(b) strip insulation from wire
(c) measure wire diameter
(d) measure insulation thickness

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

242.

(1.2.11.4-1) A metal scribe commonly found on a Combination Square measuring tool should only
be used to __________.

o
o
o

(a) clean file teeth


(b) punch gasket holes
(c) remove packing
(d) mark on metal

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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243.

o
o
o

(1.2.11.4-7) A dial indicator is used to measure __________.


(a) shaft eccentricity
(b) torque of a shaft
(c) scribed layout lines on vertical surfaces
(d) positive readings only

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

244.

(1.2.11.4-5) To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you should
measure __________.

o
o

(a) on the unmarked edge of the rule


(b) from the one inch graduation mark
(c) on the narrow edge of the rule
(d) from the zero end on the scale

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

245.

(1.2.11.4-3) Which of the devices shown in the illustration should be used with a bridge gage?
Illustration GS-0073

o
o
o

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

246.

o
o
o

(1.2.11.5-5) All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent __________.
(a) electric shock if the tool is shorted
(b) grounding the plastic case through a short
(c) burning out the motor from an overload
(d) overloading the motor from a short

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

247.

o
o
o

(1.2.11.5-1) A grinding wheel is trued with a __________.


(a) dressing tool
(b) round file
(c) lathe tool
(d) garnet stone

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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248.

(1.2.11.5-3) A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to prevent the
__________.

o
o

(a) heat of friction


(b) blade from overheating
(c) cut from clogging
(d) blade from bending

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

249.

(1.2.11.5-2) Which practices should be followed at all times when using an electric grinding
machine?

o
o
o

(a) Wear goggles or face shield.


(b) Be certain that the frame is properly grounded.
(c) Be properly trained in the use of this tool.
(d) Each of the above practices.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

250.
o
o
o

(1.2.11.5-4) The blade for a power hacksaw should be installed with the teeth __________.
(a) pointing toward the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth blade and away from the motor if using a 10
or 14 tooth blade
(b) pointing either toward or away from the motor end of the machine
(c) pointing away from the motor end of the machine
(d) pointing toward the motor end of the machine

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

251.

o
o
o

(1.2.16.1.1-2) The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________.
(a) discharge head
(b) total head
(c) suction head
(d) net positive suction head

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

252.

(1.2.16.1.1-6) The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing
boxes, is to __________.

o
o

(a) lubricate the packing


(b) distribute the sealing liquid within the stuffing box
(c) seal air from entering along the shaft
(d) cool the shaft

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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253.

(1.2.16.1.1-1) Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a
centrifugal pump?

o
o
o

(a) Suction head


(b) Pump head
(c) Discharge head
(d) Total head

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

254.

(1.2.16.1.1-11) The shaft sleeve for the pump illustrated is identified by the item numbered as
__________. Illustration GS-0143

o
o
o

(a) 14
(b) 17
(c) 27
(d) 68

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

255.

(1.2.16.1.1-8) Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, corrosion, and wear at
the stuffing box is usually prevented by __________.

o
o

(a) wearing rings


(b) internally flooded lantern rings
(c) renewable sleeves
(d) a hardened sprayed metal coating

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

256.

(1.2.16.1.1-17) The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as
designed is to __________.

o
o
o

(a) closely observe the pump discharge temperature


(b) momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
(c) use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records
(d) close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

257.
o
o
o

(1.2.16.1.1-4) A pump is defined as a device that __________.


(a) produces pressure
(b) creates a vacuum to move a liquid in all installations
(c) is to develop a pressure differential
(d) imparts energy to a fluid to move it from point "A" to point "B"

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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258.
o
o

(1.2.16.1.1-3) Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?


(a) They are particularly suited for pumping high viscosity fluids.
(b) They are always mounted in a horizontal position.
(c) The flow of liquid is developed by imparting energy due to the rotation of an impeller.
(d) They are started with the discharge valve opened.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

259.
o
o
o

(1.2.16.1.1-14) A centrifugal bilge pump requires priming __________.


(a) to initially unload the pump by having its head pressure equal to discharge pressure
(b) in order to overcome the potential energy of water in the discharge line
(c) primarily to lubricate the shaft seals
(d) due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the suction (eye) of the impeller

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

260.
o

o
o

(1.2.16.1.1-5) The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to __________.


(a) separate air from the liquid being pumped
(b) directly increase the velocity of the liquid being pumped
(c) directly increase the pressure of the liquid being pumped
(d) convert the potential energy of the liquid to kinetic energy

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

261.

(1.2.16.1.1-7) Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is
prevented by __________.

o
o

(a) lantern rings between the packing rings


(b) a compressed packing gland
(c) a liquid seal
(d) the stuffing box gland

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

262.

(1.2.16.1.2-2) To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after repacking the stuffing box,
which of the following procedures should be carried out?

o
o
o

(a) Operating the pump slowly and applying oil freely to the shaft until the packing is properly
seated.
(b) Tightening the gland in all the way and then backing it off slightly.
(c) Lubricate the lantern ring with cylinder oil before installing new turns of packing.
(d) Tighten the packing in small increments while the pump is operating.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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263.
o
o

(1.2.16.1.2-6) A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be __________.


(a) reconditioned by metalizing and machining
(b) straightened by applying heat and torsion
(c) replaced with a satisfactory spare
(d) repaired by a suitable welding process

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

264.

(1.2.16.1.2-7) Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be
avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?

o
o
o

(a) Scoring may result.


(b) Bonnet corrosion may result.
(c) Heat transfer is restricted.
(d) Valve seat will be damaged.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

265.

(1.2.16.1.2-5) When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing
is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.

o
o
o

(a) loosened, and then retightened with the pump running under normal conditions
(b) loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box
(c) left in that position
(d) tightened an additional 10% to compress the packing

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

266.

(1.2.16.1.2-1) What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve
during routine maintenance inspection?

o
o
o

(a) Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak off for lubrication.
(b) Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower speed.
(c) Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve bore.
(d) Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

267.

(1.2.16.1.2-4) When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following
precautions should be observed?

o
o

(a) Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft.


(b) Replace all of the packing rings.
(c) For good lubrication, apply a fine grade lapping compound between the shaft and packing.
(d) Block off the sealing water connection.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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268.

(1.2.16.1.2-3) A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What


corrective action is required?

o
o

(a) Throttle in on the discharge valve.


(b) Replace the wearing rings.
(c) Replace the lantern rings.
(d) Throttle in on the suction valve.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

269.

(1.2.16.4.1-1) One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal pump is
the absence of a __________.

o
o

(a) reciprocating piston in the centrifugal type pump


(b) volute in the propeller type pump
(c) velocity nozzle in the centrifugal type pump
(d) volute in the centrifugal type pump

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

270.

(1.2.16.4.1-3) Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a
propeller type pump?

o
o
o

(a) Fuel oil service booster system


(b) Fluid power transmission system
(c) Steering gear system
(d) Main circulating system

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

271.

(1.2.16.4.1-2) Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of
fluids at relatively low pressures?

o
o
o

(a) gear type


(b) reciprocating type
(c) screw type
(d) propeller type

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

272.

(1.2.16.5.2-3) The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to
__________.

o
o

(a) position the steam pistons on 3/4 stroke


(b) place the steam pistons in the mid-stroke position
(c) ensure the balance piston is on the down stroke
(d) measure the present port openings to ensure reassembly will be the same

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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273.
o

o
o

(1.2.16.5.2-1) Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?
(a) Vegetable oil.
(b) Graphite and oil.
(c) Engine oil.
(d) Oil mixed with kerosene.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

274.

(1.2.16.5.2-4) When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the
packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the
butted ends __________.

o
o

(a) 45 apart
(b) 90 apart
(c) 120 apart
(d) 180 apart

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

275.

(1.2.16.5.2-5) To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating
pump, you should __________.

o
o
o

(a) use a packing hook


(b) open the steam chest and pry the packing loose with a scraper
(c) open the throttle valve and 'blow' the old packing out
(d) do nothing, as this type of pump utilizes O-rings in lieu of packing

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

276.

(1.2.16.5.2-2) Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a
steam reciprocating pump?

o
o

(a) Reinforced rubber packing


(b) Wire impregnated high temperature packing
(c) High-pressure graphite packing
(d) Low-pressure braided asbestos packing

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

277.

o
o
o

(1.2.16.6.3-1) An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will __________.


(a) decrease pump capacity
(b) decrease pump cavitation
(c) increase discharge pressure
(d) decrease reaction ring clearance

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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278.

(1.2.16.5.3-1) An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by


__________.

o
o
o

(a) clogged suction strainers


(b) clogged drain valves
(c) scarred cylinder walls
(d) defective intake valves

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

279.

(1.2.16.5.3-5) Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will
cause the __________.

o
o
o

(a) pump to operate sluggishly


(b) pump to short stroke continuously at both ends of the stroke for both cylinders
(c) cushioning valves to wear
(d) pistons to stop in mid-stroke

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

280.

(1.2.16.5.3-2) Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from
delivering its rated capacity?

o
o
o

(a) Excessive suction lift


(b) Air trapped in the discharge expansion chamber
(c) A leaking snifter valve allowing air to enter the suction side of the pump
(d) All of the above

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

281.

(1.2.16.5.3-4) A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service
pump could be caused by __________.

o
o

(a) lower than normal supply steam pressure


(b) improper adjustment of steam cushion valves
(c) loss of air charge in the pump discharge plenum chamber
(d) lower than normal supply steam temperature

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

282.
o
o
o

(1.2.16.6.1-6) A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.
(a) slightly opened
(b) throttled
(c) halfway opened
(d) fully opened

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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283.

(1.2.16.6.1-2) Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the
lobe edges?

o
o
o

(a) Spur gear adjusters


(b) Replaceable liner plates
(c) Casing gear thrust bearings
(d) Replaceable gib inserts

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

284.

(1.2.16.6.1-4) Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because
__________.

o
o

(a) these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles


(b) it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this pump
(c) they are essentially self-priming and capable of a high suction lift
(d) stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

285.
o
o
o

(1.2.16.6.1-10) What type of pump is shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0144


(a) Double screw rotary pump
(b) Deep well centrifugal pump
(c) Simplex reciprocating pump
(d) Triple screw rotary pump

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

286.

(1.2.16.6.1-3) Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear pump by
__________.

o
o

(a) the use of shaft end caps


(b) a stuffing box
(c) overlapping spaces between gear teeth
(d) a roller bearing

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

287.

(1.2.16.6.1-7) How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear
pump?

o
o

(a) The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity.
(b) The pump can only be used for light oils.
(c) The viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump operation.
(d) The pump cannot handle fluids more viscous than lubricating oil.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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288.

(1.2.16.6.1-1) The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by
__________.

o
o

(a) changing the angle of the tilting plate


(b) moving the shaft trunnion block
(c) changing the speed of the pump
(d) moving the slide block and rotor

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

289.

(1.2.16.6.1-9) One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the
__________.

o
o

(a) stuffing box diameter


(b) pitch of the screws
(c) direction of rotation of the screws
(d) type of driving gears

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

290.

(1.2.16.6.1-11) The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an
__________. Illustration GS-0075

o
o
o

(a) area for pump packing


(b) passage for sealing liquid to enter the pump
(c) bearing surface for the rotor shaft
(d) passage for gas to be discharged

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

291.

(1.2.16.6.1-8) Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the
discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?

o
o
o

(a) One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been completed.
(b) The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears instead of two.
(c) Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller.
(d) The gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

292.

(1.2.16.6.1-5) The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will
decrease with an increase in the pump __________.

o
o
o

(a) suction pressure


(b) discharge volume
(c) torque rating
(d) rotor clearances

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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293.

(1.2.16.1.3-6) Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be
indicated by which of the following operational problems?

o
o
o

(a) The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually slackens off to an abnormally low
flow.
(b) The motor over current protective device continually shuts the pump down.
(c) The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods.
(d) Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

294.

(1.2.16.1.3-1) You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to
slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.

o
o
o

(a) suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to decrease
(b) suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift
(c) discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts
(d) discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

295.

(1.2.16.1.3-4) Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused
by __________.

o
o
o

(a) cavitations
(b) corrosion
(c) electrolysis
(d) abrasion

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

296.
o

o
o

(1.2.16.1.3-2) A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the __________.
(a) seal ring is improperly located
(b) pump is not primed
(c) water seal pipe is plugged
(d) impeller is flooded

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

297.

(1.2.16.1.3-5) Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal
pump is caused by __________.

o
o

(a) under-tightening the packing


(b) insufficient lubrication of the packing
(c) failure to seat the packing rings
(d) packing ring rotation

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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298.

(1.2.16.1.3-3) Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a


centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the
formation of __________.

o
o
o

(a) vapor pockets


(b) steam knock
(c) fluid friction
(d) water hammer action

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

299.

(1.2.16.5.1-2) Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid
piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the
discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?

o
o

(a) Two relief valves, one on each of the liquid cylinder.


(b) Two sets of valves, one set each for suction and discharge located in the water chest.
(c) One set of valves in the water chest and another set in the liquid cylinder.
(d) Two sets of suction and discharge valves in the liquid cylinder.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

300.
o
o

(1.2.16.5.1-3) The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of __________.


(a) centrifugal pumps
(b) jet pumps
(c) reciprocating pumps
(d) propeller pumps

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

301.

(1.2.16.5.1-9) When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck
equipment should be __________.

o
o
o

(a) cycled at least once a day


(b) cycled once every 4 days
(c) cycled once every week
(d) watched carefully while idled

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

302.

(1.2.16.5.1-8) When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should
remain open?

o
o

(a) Water cylinder drain valve


(b) Steam cylinder drain valve
(c) Steam supply valve
(d) Steam exhaust valve

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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303.

(1.2.16.5.1-7) When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the cushioning valves
should be __________.

o
o
o

(a) wide opened


(b) 3/4 opened
(c) half opened
(d) almost completely closed

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

304.

(1.2.16.5.1-5) Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide
valve?

o
o

(a) Moving tappets


(b) Movement of the main piston through the steam cylinder
(c) Adjusting of the tappet collars
(d) Stay rods

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

305.

(1.2.16.5.1-1) Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a steam reciprocating


pump?

o
o

(a) Direct-acting
(b) Vertical
(c) Diffuser
(d) High-pressure

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

306.

(1.2.16.5.1-6) The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by
__________.

o
o
o

(a) twisting the stay rod in a clockwise direction


(b) variations in the throttle adjustment
(c) increasing or decreasing the number of packing rings around the piston rod
(d) changing the setting of the tappet collars on the pilot valve operating rod

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

307.

(1.2.16.3.1-7) Spring reinforced oil seals are generally installed with the tail or lip of the seal
facing __________. Illustration GS-0152

o
o
o

(a) away from the oil pressure being sealed


(b) away from the bearing housing recess
(c) toward the bearing preload washer
(d) toward the oil pressure being sealed

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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308.
o
o
o

(1.2.16.3.1-3) Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical seals?


(a) They may be used in lieu of conventional packing glands for any service other than salt water.
(b) Once placed into service, leakage between the dynamic seal surfaces may be reduced by
monthly adjustment of the spring compression.
(c) They are not suitable for use on fuel oil transfer pumps.
(d) They are normally lubricated and cooled by the fluid being pumped.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

309.

(1.2.16.3.1-6) Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the
rotating and stationary seal members shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0071

o
o

(a) notch and keyway


(b) bellows
(c) spring
(d) seal retaining ring

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

310.

(1.2.16.3.1-1) Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a
stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?

o
o
o

(a) If packing fails, the pump can be kept running temporarily by tightening the gland, but if a
mechanical seal fails it must be totally renewed to stop the leakage.
(b) Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear, but mechanical seals are not.
(c) The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but the sealing surface of a
packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft.
(d) Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by the liquid being pumped, but mechanical seals
do not require cooling.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

311.

(1.2.16.3.1-8) One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing
is that __________.

o
o
o

(a) seal failure usually requires the immediate removal of the pump from service
(b) it requires periodic disassembly and adjustment
(c) it is unsuitable for high-pressure applications
(d) it is unsuitable for high temperature applications

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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312.

(1.2.16.3.1-5) Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubrication of the seal
faces to minimize deposits of foreign matter on those surfaces. Which of the following pressures and
lubricants are required?

o
o

(a) Water under negative pressure.


(b) Water under positive pressure.
(c) Oil under positive pressure.
(d) Oil under negative pressure.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

313.

(1.2.16.3.1-4) Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or
highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?

o
o

(a) Conventional stuffing box


(b) Double mechanical seal
(c) Rubber bellows mechanical seal
(d) External mechanical seal

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

314.

(1.2.16.3.1-2) Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical
seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?

o
o

(a) Copper and carbon.


(b) Copper.
(c) Carbon.
(d) Bronze.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

315.
o
o
o

(1.2.16.3.1-9) When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to ______.


(a) run the pump "dry" for initial break-in of the shaft seal
(b) polish the seating faces with emery cloth prior to assembly
(c) make the final spring collar adjustments with the pump running
(d) ensure that correct spring pressure is applied to the seating faces

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

316.

(1.2.16.2.1-3) A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the


__________.

o
o

(a) small size of impeller


(b) ease at which the wearing rings may be changed
(c) lack of moving parts
(d) discharge end being smaller than the suction end

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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317.

(1.2.16.2.1-2) The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the
__________.

o
o
o

(a) compressor
(b) injector
(c) siphon
(d) diffuser

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

318.
o
o
o

(1.2.13.1.2-1) Tubing is sized by __________.


(a) nominal inside diameter
(b) allowed working pressure
(c) cross-section area
(d) nominal outside diameter

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

319.

(1.2.13.1.2-2) Copper tubing is manufactured and classified as type K, L, and M. Which type
would offer the greatest wall thickness for a given nominal size?

o
o
o

(a) Type K
(b) Type L
(c) Type M
(d) Type K, L and M have identical wall thicknesses

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

320.
o
o
o

(1.2.13.1.3-6) The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of __________.
(a) admiralty metal
(b) Monel
(c) stellite
(d) a resilient material

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

321.

(1.2.13.1.3-3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the valve shown in the
illustration? Illustration GS-0047

o
o
o

(a) The valve only requires one turn of the hand wheel to fully open.
(b) The valve seats cannot be replaced or repaired.
(c) The valve is normally used to throttle the flow of liquid.
(d) The valve is a non-rising stem design.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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322.

(1.2.13.1.3-5) The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommended when requiring
__________.

o
o

(a) no back flow


(b) high-pressure drops
(c) close regulation of flow
(d) no pressure drops

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

323.
o
o

(1.2.13.1.3-4) The illustrated valve is known as a __________. Illustration GS-0056


(a) lift gate valve
(b) butterfly lift valve
(c) swing check valve
(d) swing globe valve

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

324.
o
o
o

(1.2.13.1.3-2) What type of valve is shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0047


(a) Check valve
(b) Butterfly valve
(c) Globe valve
(d) Gate valve

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

325.

(1.2.13.1.1-12) Allowances may be made for the expansion and contraction in piping by the use
of expansion joints or __________.

o
o

(a) union bulkhead fittings


(b) retractable flanges
(c) bends or loops in the line
(d) unions

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

326.

(1.2.13.1.1-5) When replacing a gasket in a six-bolt flanged joint, in what order should the bolts
be tightened?

o
o
o

(a) Install and tighten bolts in pairs which are opposite each other in the flange (1-4, 2-5, and 3-6).
(b) Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order in the counter-clockwise
direction.
(c) Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order in the clockwise direction.
(d) Install and tighten bolts 1, 3, 4, 2, 5, and 6, in that order.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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327.
o
o
o

(1.2.13.1.1-3) To properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange, you should __________.
(a) cut grooves into the flange with a chisel to ensure good gasket contact
(b) place the gasket over the flange and knock off the excess material with a lead mallet
(c) make up the flanged joint to make an impression of the flange surfaces to insure a pattern for
proper alignment
(d) remove excess gasket material by trimming with scissors or tin snips

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

328.

(1.2.13.1.1-17) A pipe coupling is a fitting having __________.

o
o

(a) outside threads on both ends


(b) inside threads on both ends
(c) a left-hand twist
(d) outside threads on one end and inside threads on one end

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

329.
o
o

(1.2.13.1.1-9) Which of the listed pipe sizes is not commonly used?


(a) 3/8 inch
(b) 1/2 inch
(c) 5/8 inch
(d) 3/4 inch

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

330.

(1.2.13.1.1-6) If you were uncertain as to what type of gasket material to install in a pipeline, you
should __________.

o
o

(a) make up the joint without a gasket until you can check with the chief
(b) check the ship's plans or manufacturer's instructions
(c) turn the old gasket over and install it again
(d) leave the old gasket in and cover it with Permatex

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

331.

o
o
o

(1.2.13.1.1-11) The designation 'schedule 80 extra strong' refers to __________.


(a) piping wall thickness
(b) tubing bursting strength
(c) tensile strength of bolts
(d) weight of steel plate

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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332.
o
o

(1.2.13.1.1-15) Fittings used to close the ends of pipe are called 'pipe _____________'.
(a) tees
(b) closures
(c) caps
(d) ells

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

333.
o
o
o

(1.2.13.1.1-7) To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the gasket __________.
(a) and let cool slowly in the air
(b) and quench it in oil
(c) and carbonize it
(d) cherry red and quench in water

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

334.

(1.2.13.1.1-14) Which of the following descriptions should be included when identifying the length
for pipe nipples?

o
o

(a) Standard, extra-strong, double extra-strong, and schedule 80


(b) Close, short, long, and tank
(c) Cast, wrought, stainless, and brass
(d) Fully threaded, half threaded, long, and short

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

335.

o
o
o

(1.2.13.1.1-10) Piping cross-sections over 12 inches in diameter are sized by the __________.
(a) outside diameter
(b) wall thickness
(c) threaded diameter
(d) inside diameter

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

336.
o
o
o

(1.2.13.1.1-8) Which pipe listed has the largest outside diameter?


(a) A 3/4" pipe with a standard wall thickness.
(b) A 3/4" pipe with an extra strong wall thickness.
(c) A 3/4" pipe with a double extra strong wall thickness.
(d) All have the same outside diameter.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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337.

(1.2.13.2.1-1) To remove a hand-held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has gone all the
way through a hole, you should __________.

o
o
o

(a) work the reamer side to side to dislodge it


(b) tap the reamer out with a soft faced hammer
(c) turn the tap wrench counter-clockwise, simultaneously raising the reamer
(d) turn the tap wrench clockwise, simultaneously raising the reamer

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

338.
o

o
o

(1.2.13.2.1-4) Before making up a flanged joint, you should __________.


(a) cut grooves in the flange face with a chisel
(b) be certain that the flanges line up squarely
(c) heat the pipeline to expand the bolt holes
(d) have a second spare gasket on hand

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

339.
o
o

(1.2.13.2.1-9) A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for __________.
(a) enlarging existing threads
(b) straightening tapered threads
(c) restoring damaged threads
(d) cutting original threads

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

340.
o
o
o

(1.2.13.2.1-3) The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe __________.
(a) cutter
(b) ratchet cutter
(c) threader
(d) stock and die

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

341.
o
o
o

(1.2.13.2.1-2) Taps and dies used for threading pipe are __________.
(a) not hardened
(b) not fluted
(c) straight
(d) tapered

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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342.
o

o
o

(1.2.13.2.1-7) When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a die, you should __________.
(a) tap the die with a hammer to break up the chips
(b) continue turning until the end of the pipe has gone through the die and is flush with the die
face
(c) never use a lubricant
(d) start the die at a slight angle with the work to create tapered threads

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

343.

(1.2.13.2.1-8) A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the shaft to be threaded is slightly
__________.

o
o
o

(a) center drilled


(b) peened
(c) reamed
(d) chamfered

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

344.

(1.2.13.2.1-6) Which of the illustrations depicts the correct procedure for applying pipe dope?
Illustration GS-0046

o
o

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

345.
o
o
o

(1.2.13.2.1-5) Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should __________.


(a) have a first aid kit on hand
(b) determine the size of the gasket
(c) hang a bucket under the joint
(d) be sure no pressure exists in the line

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

346.
o

o
o

(1.2.13.2.2-1) Copper coil tubing is best cut with a __________.


(a) flare cutter
(b) tubing cutter
(c) pipe cutter
(d) hand hacksaw

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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347.

(1.2.13.2.2-2) The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings is called a
__________.

o
o
o

(a) flaring tool


(b) spreader
(c) stretcher
(d) swaging tool

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

348.
o
o
o

(1.2.13.2.2-3) After cutting a piece of tubing to be flared, you should __________.


(a) crimp the tube end in order to slip on the fitting
(b) flare the tube before removing the burrs
(c) rough up the outside surface of the tube end with a file
(d) remove inside burrs with a reamer

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

349.

(1.2.13.2.2-4) Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of the same size will fit inside is
termed __________.

o
o
o

(a) swaging
(b) flaring
(c) stretching
(d) belling

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

350.
o
o
o

(1.2.5.1.2-5) A shot of anchor chain is equal to __________.


(a) 90 fathoms
(b) one - 15 foot segment
(c) one chain link
(d) one - 90 foot segment

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

351.
o
o
o

(1.2.5.1.2-7) All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are painted __________.
(a) red
(b) orange
(c) white
(d) yellow

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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352.
o

o
o

(1.2.5.1.2-3) What color is used to indicate the last shot of anchor chain?
(a) Yellow
(b) Red
(c) Blue
(d) White

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

353.
o
o
o

(1.2.5.1.2-8) All of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted __________.
(a) white
(b) orange
(c) yellow
(d) red

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

354.

(1.2.5.1.2-9) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, pressure relief of the main
pressure piping is provided by __________. Illustration GS-0160

o
o

(a) D
(b) E
(c) L
(d) M

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

355.

(1.2.5.1.3-1) A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding
__________.

o
o

(a) half the breaking strength of the mooring line


(b) 50% over the working tension of the mooring line
(c) the full breaking strength of the mooring line
(d) the maximum expected tension of the mooring line

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

356.

(1.2.5.1.3-2) When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or off
position, the spring set brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is __________.

o
o

(a) opened hydraulically and held open by spring action whenever the electrical supply is secured
(b) engaged by spring action plus hydraulic pressure
(c) engaged by spring action and only released by hydraulic pressure
(d) released by spring action and hydraulically locks the winch when the drum ceases rotating

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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QMED

357.

(1.2.5.1.3-3) The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be set up tight enough
to drive the winch drum and should slip only when __________.

o
o

(a) automatic operation of the winch is desired


(b) minimum pull is being exerted by the winch
(c) excessive loads are placed on the winch
(d) wire is being retrieved at the maximum rate

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

358.

(1.2.5.2-2) If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring winch, and are not
certain as to the type of fluid to use, you should __________.

o
o
o

(a) add any oil that has the same viscosity as the hydraulic fluid
(b) add fluid that is the same color as the fluid in the reservoir
(c) add turbine oil because it is always a good substitute
(d) check the winch manufacturer's instruction book

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

359.
o

o
o

(1.2.5.2-3) Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent __________.


(a) wear on the braking system
(b) damage to the teeth
(c) over speeding of the motor
(d) overheating of the lube oil

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

360.

(1.2.5.2-4) The hydraulic pump which would be mounted on the unit shown in the illustration, may
begin to cavitate if __________. Illustration GS-0118

o
o
o

(a) "A" is allowed to remain open


(b) "B" is over-tightened
(c) "H" were to be removed and the system operated for thirty minutes without it being replaced
(d) "D" is not kept clean

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

361.

(1.2.5.2-5) If a lifeboat winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an excessive speed, you
should __________.

o
o
o

(a) adjust the centrifugal brake mechanism


(b) engage the motor friction clutch bands
(c) adjust the davit mounted limit switches
(d) remove unnecessary weight from the boat

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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QMED

362.

(1.2.5.2-1) The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type that is running hot
is to __________.

o
o

(a) apply a light oil to the bearing housing


(b) replace the bearing with a new one
(c) allow the winch to run at slower speeds only
(d) add grease through the Zerk fitting

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

363.

(1.2.5.3-4) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is
on, but the wildcat turns slowly or not at all, even without a load being applied, and nearly normal
pressure is indicated on the high side of the system, the probable cause is the __________.
Illustration GS-0160

o
o

(a) manual transfer valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated
(b) relief valve "L" is not closing
(c) replenishing pump coupling is broken
(d) pressure from "E" has failed to bleed off when "J" is placed in the operating position

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

364.

(1.2.5.3-5) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is
on, but the wildcat does not turn, the pressure developed on either side of the system increases to
half of the normal operating pressure regardless of the direction of movement in which the servo
control is placed, the probable cause is the __________. Illustration GS-0160

o
o

(a) replenishing pump coupling is broken


(b) relief valve is not opening
(c) manual transfer valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated
(d) spring set point for "I" is too high

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

365.

(1.2.5.3-6) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, the main pressure relief valve
opens as the load increases its strain on the system. The probable cause is the __________.
Illustration GS-0160

o
o
o

(a) manual transfer valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated
(b) replenishing pump discharge check valves are continuously open
(c) spring set point "I" is set too high for normal loads
(d) relief valve control shuttle has shifted to the wrong position during windlass operation

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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QMED

366.

(1.2.5.3-2) The hydraulic system of a deck winch has been drained, flushed, and refilled with
hydraulic fluid. An erratic knocking noise from the hydraulic motor when the winch is started would
indicate __________.

o
o

(a) the fluid level in the reservoir is too high


(b) clogged suction line fluid filters
(c) air trapped in the system
(d) abrasive matter circulating in the oil

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

367.

(1.2.5.3-1) Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat brake becomes
excessively worn?

o
o

(a) The anchor will immediately drop.


(b) The clutch will overheat.
(c) The brake's effectiveness will be reduced.
(d) The driving engine will over speed.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

368.

(1.2.5.3-3) Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor windlass can result
from a/an __________.

o
o

(a) low fluid viscosity around the shaft seal


(b) low fluid level in the reservoir
(c) high oil level in the sump
(d) overload on the pump motor

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

1.

(2.2.1.1-1) One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the
discharge valve closed, is that the __________.
o
o
o

(a) motor overload will open


(b) relief valve will open
(c) motor will overheat
(d) pump will overheat

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

2.

(2.2.1.1-2) In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in
the illustration, how many suction side valves must be open? Illustration GS-0042
o

o
o

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

3.

(2.2.1.1-3) The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used __________.


o
o
o

(a) to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty
(b) when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water
circulation
(c) to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction
(d) if the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

4.

(2.2.1.1-4) Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by
__________.

o
o
o

(a) stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds


(b) using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump
(c) installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes
(d) installing a swing check before each bilge valve

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

5.

(2.2.1.1-5) Under what conditions is it permissible to pump machinery space bilges directly
overboard without processing by an oily-water separator?
o

o
o

(a) When the bilge water holding tank is full.


(b) When presented with a flooding emergency.
(c) When operating in international waters beyond the 200 mile limit.
(d) When, by visual inspection, the bilges appear to be free of oil.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

6.

(2.2.1.1-6) What is meant by the term independent bilge suction?


o

o
o

(a) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used
as a bilge pump but using either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(b) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a
bilge pump but independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(c) The means by which a cargo-hold bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge
pump but independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(d) The means by which a cargo-hold bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge
pump but using either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

7.

(2.2.1.1-7) What is meant by the term emergency bilge suction?


o

(a) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used
as a bilge pump and drawing a suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds or automatic
bilge suction valves.
(b) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used
as a bilge pump and drawing a suction directly on the bilge independent of any bilge manifolds or
automatic bilge suction valves.
(c) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a
bilge pump and drawing a suction directly on the bilge independent of any bilge manifolds or
automatic bilge suction valves.
(d) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a
bilge pump and drawing a suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge
suction valves.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

8.

(2.2.1.1-8) Which of the following bilge pumping applications would most likely use a non-automated
centrifugal pump under manual supervision?
o
o
o

(a) Shaft alley bilges


(b) Machinery space bilges
(c) Engine room bilges
(d) Dry cargo-hold bilges

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

9.

(2.2.1.2-1) Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the No.6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which
combination of valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closed? Illustration
GS-0139
o
o

(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 open; 4, 7, 8 and 9 closed.


(b) 1, 2, 7 and 9 open; 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 and 10 closed.
(c) 1, 3, 5, 6, 8 and 10 open; 2, 4, 7 and 9 closed.
(d) 3, 4, 7 and 9 open; 1, 2, 5, 6 and 10 closed.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

10. (2.2.1.2-2) Which of the following ballasting operations performed in conjunction with off-loading
cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?
o
o
o

(a) Filling a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
(b) Draining a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
(c) Draining a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
(d) Filling a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

11. (2.2.1.2-3) Which of the following deballasting operations performed in conjunction with loading
cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?

o
o
o

(a) Draining a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
(b) Filling a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
(c) Filling a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
(d) Draining a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

12. (2.2.1.2-4) With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary
purpose of the fore peak and after peak tanks?
o

o
o

(a) Adjusting the overall draft of the vessel.


(b) Adjusting the trim of the vessel.
(c) Correcting a list condition on the vessel.
(d) Correcting a condition of hogging or sagging of the vessel.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

13. (2.2.1.2-5) With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary
purpose of the double bottom ballast tanks?

o
o
o

(a) Adjusting the overall draft of the vessel or correcting a condition of list.
(b) Adjusting the trim of the vessel.
(c) Correcting a condition of sagging of the vessel.
(d) Correcting a condition of hogging of the vessel.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

14. (2.2.1.2-6) With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant
by the term "ballasting"?
o
o

(a) Ballasting is the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for loading
cargo.
(b) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of list.
(c) Ballasting is the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading
cargo.
(d) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of hogging or sagging.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

15. (2.2.1.2-7) With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant
by the term "deballasting"?
o

o
o

(a) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of hogging or sagging.
(b) Ballasting is the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for loading
cargo.
(c) Ballasting is the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading
cargo.
(d) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of list.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

16. (2.2.1.2-8) With regards to a ballast system associated with an oil tanker, what is meant by the term
"segregated" ballast?
o

o
o

(a) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from engine room bilge systems.
(b) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from cargo or fuel oil systems.
(c) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from sea water circulating or fire main systems.
(d) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from clean bilge systems.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

17. (2.2.1.2-9) Besides retention of ballast water onboard or use of approved onboard ballast water
treatment equipment, what is another acceptable means for a vessel to be in compliance with the
ballast water management regulations?
o
o
o

(a) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 3 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
(b) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 12 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
(c) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 25 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
(d) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from
any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

18. (2.2.1.2-10) What is the primary reason why the ballast water management regulations exist as
applicable to vessels equipped with ballast tanks operating in U.S. waters?

o
o
o

(a) Prevent invasion of non-indigenous foreign marine species into U.S. waters.
(b) Prevent oil pollution of environmentally sensitive areas within U.S. waters.
(c) Prevent changes in salinity or salt content of coastal U.S. waters.
(d) Prevent sedimentary deposits in ports and harbor areas of U.S. waters.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

19. (2.2.2.1-1) After coolers are used with air compressors to __________.
o
o
o

(a) dampen pressure pulses in the discharge air


(b) ensure complete expansion of the compressed air
(c) decrease the density of compressed air
(d) reduce the temperature of compressed air

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

20. (2.2.2.1-2) The device shown in the illustration is used to __________. Illustration GS-0029
o
o
o

(a) reduce the pressure in the ship's service air system


(b) maintain correct tension on the drive belts while the compressor is in operation
(c) grind sewage prior to entering the sewage treatment plant
(d) unload the cylinders of an air compressor

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

21. (2.2.2.1-3) If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service air receiver, the compressor
mechanical unloading system will __________.
o
o

(a) still function normally at start-up


(b) still function normally, but the safety interlock will stop the drive motor
(c) fail to function as designed, but the compressor having no load will start with little or no
difficulty
(d) fail to work, and the drive motor will trip the circuit breaker as the compressor will be
overloaded

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

22. (2.2.2.1-4) Over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler is prevented by the __________.
o

o
o

(a) first-stage unloader


(b) intercooler relief valve
(c) last-stage unloader
(d) after cooler relief valve

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

23. (2.2.2.1-5) The air charge leaving an intercooler, or after cooler of an air compressor can be
expected to be __________.

o
o
o

(a) at or below the dew point


(b) superheated
(c) super cooled
(d) all of the above

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

24. (2.2.2.1-6) Which of the listed valve types is typically used for suction and discharge valves on
modern low-pressure air compressors?
o
o

(a) Sliding
(b) Rotary
(c) Reed
(d) Poppet

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

25. (2.2.2.1-7) In order to distribute the side pressures over a wide area of the cylinder walls and liners,
which of the listed types of pistons are used in modern low-pressure air compressors?
o
o

(a) Barrel
(b) Valve-in-head
(c) Trunk
(d) Differential

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

26. (2.2.2.1-8) Which of the following compressors would be used for a dead ship start-up of a ship's
service diesel-generator on a motor ship?
o
o
o

(a) Ship's service air compressor


(b) Starting air compressor
(c) Topping air compressor
(d) Emergency air compressor

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

27. (2.2.2.1-9) Which of the following compressors on a motor ship would most likely operate at
approximately 100 psig?
o
o
o

(a) Starting air compressor


(b) Topping air compressor
(c) Emergency air compressor
(d) Ship's service air compressor

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

28. (2.2.2.1-10) If an air compressor is fitted with a hand-off-auto (H-O-A) control station, what statement
concerning operation is true?

o
o
o

(a) In the hand mode, the compressor will run continuously with unloading.
(b) In the hand mode, the compressor will cycle on and off.
(c) In the auto mode, the compressor will run continuously with unloading.
(d) In the off mode, the compressor will cycle on and off.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

29. (2.2.2.2-1) If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing during startup, you should
__________.
o
o

(a) check for a defective high-pressure cut-out switch


(b) check the air filter
(c) check the operation of the unloaders
(d) check for a receiver outlet valve which may be partially closed

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

30. (2.2.2.2-2) If one drive belt on an air compressor is found to be worn you should __________.
o
o
o

(a) replace that belt only


(b) adjust belt tension
(c) dress the worn belt
(d) replace all of the belts

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

31. (2.2.2.2-3) The main bearings of a reciprocating air compressor are tapered roller bearings. When
mounted, these bearings are given a 'cold' end clearance to __________.

o
o
o

(a) allow for longitudinal expansion of the crankshaft as the unit warms up
(b) reduce torsional vibration in the crankshaft
(c) prevent longitudinal thrust in the crankshaft
(d) allow for crank web deflection

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

32. (2.2.2.2-4) After disassembly, the safest way to remove carbon deposits from air compressor inlet
and discharge valves is to use __________.
o

o
o

(a) gasoline
(b) diesel oil
(c) naphtha
(d) ammonia

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

33. (2.2.2.2-5) How often should the air receivers on a compressed air system be drained of moisture
and emulsions?

o
o
o

(a) Daily
(b) Weekly
(c) Monthly
(d) Quarterly

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

34. (2.2.2.2-6) When checking the oil level on a reciprocating air compressor fitted with a dipstick, under
what conditions should the oil level be checked?
o
o
o

(a) With the compressor running at speed and unloaded.


(b) With the compressor running at speed and loaded.
(c) With the compressor in the auto mode and currently not running.
(d) With the compressor in the off mode incapable of starting.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

35. (2.2.2.2-7) As an indication that an air compressor air intake filter needs to be replaced or cleaned,
what statement is true?
o

(a) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than
with a clean filter.
(b) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than
with a clean filter.
(c) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than
with a clean filter.
(d) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than
with a clean filter.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

36. (2.2.2.2-8) Which of the following statements represents the proper procedural sequence for
adjusting the metering rate of an in-line lubricator as used in a ship's service air system hose
station? Assume that the pressure regulator has been properly set.

o
o

(a) Establish normal air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip rate
or further close needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate.
(b) Establish normal air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip rate
or further close needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate.
(c) Temporarily shut-off air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip
rate or further close needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate. Re-establish normal air
flow.
(d) Temporarily shut-off air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip
rate or further close needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate. Re-establish normal air
flow.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

37. (2.2.2.2-9) Which of the following statements represents the proper criteria to decide when to drain a
filter/moisture separator as used in a ship's service air system hose station?
o
o

(a) The bowl should be drained daily with no need to check the moisture level.
(b) The bowl should be drained whenever moisture droplets appear in the bowl.
(c) The bowl should be drained before the moisture level reaches the lower baffle.
(d) The bowl should be drained after the bowl completely fills with moisture.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

38. (2.2.2.2-10) In a twin-tower desiccant type air dryer using silica gel as an adsorbing agent, what is
the procedure for rejuvenating the tower presently on service when the desiccant becomes saturated
with moisture?
o
o
o

(a) The towers are shifted, and the off-going tower is refrigerated.
(b) Heat is applied to the tower on service and it remains on service while heating.
(c) The tower on service is refrigerated and it remains on service while cooling.
(d) The towers are shifted, and heat is applied to the off-going tower.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

39. (2.2.2.3-3) Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a reciprocating air compressor
is caused by __________.
o

o
o

(a) leaky discharge valves on the HP cylinder


(b) leaky discharge valves on the LP cylinder
(c) low ambient air pressure
(d) insufficient intercooler cooling

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

40. (2.2.2.3-1) A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a low-pressure
reciprocating air compressor will __________.
o
o

(a) prevent the valve from wire drawing


(b) provide quieter valve operation
(c) retard the opening and closing of the valve
(d) have no effect on compressor operation

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

41. (2.2.2.3-2) Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will cause __________.
o
o

(a) a clogged air intake


(b) carbon deposits on valves and pistons
(c) excessive wear on valves and cylinder liners
(d) excessive compressor discharge pressure

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

42. (2.2.2.3-4) Which of the following problems would be the probable cause for the faulty operation of a
reciprocating air compressor suction valve?
o
o
o

(a) Carbon build-up in the piston ring belt.


(b) Lifting of intercooler relief valve.
(c) Compressor operation in an area of high relative humidity.
(d) Faulty operation of a cylinder unloader.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

43. (2.2.2.3-5) In a low-pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency normally results from
__________.

o
o
o

(a) heating of the air leaving the cylinders


(b) constant enlargement of the clearance expansion volume
(c) adiabatic compression in the intercooler
(d) inaccurate valve timing

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

44. (2.2.2.3-6) Which of the following causes would most likely result in excessively high belt-driven
reciprocating air compressor drive motor running current draw?

o
o
o

(a) Excessive drive belt tension.


(b) Insufficient drive belt tension.
(c) Excessive internal running clearances.
(d) Clogged air intake filter.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

45. (2.2.2.3-7) If a reciprocating air compressor was operating at a compression ratio that exceeded its
design parameters, what would be the effect?

o
o
o

(a) Higher than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity.
(b) Lower than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity.
(c) Higher than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity.
(d) Lower than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

46. (2.2.2.3-8) If a belt-driven reciprocating air compressor is operating at a lower than design
displacement capacity (in cubic feet per minute), which of the following would be a cause?

o
o
o

(a) Insufficiently tensioned drive belts.


(b) Misalignment between the compressor and its driver.
(c) Improperly lubricated bearings.
(d) Excessively tensioned drive belts.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

47. (2.2.2.3-9) If a reciprocating air compressor has cylinder suction or discharge valves that fail to
properly seat, what statement is true concerning the result?
o
o
o

(a) The compressor would have longer running periods at higher displacement capacity between
operating cycles.
(b) The compressor would have shorter running periods at lower displacement capacity between
operating cycles.
(c) The compressor would have shorter running periods at higher displacement capacity between
operating cycles.
(d) The compressor would have longer running periods at lower displacement capacity between
operating cycles.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

48. (2.2.2.3-10) What statement is true concerning carbon deposit formation on reciprocating
compressor cylinder valves?

o
o
o

(a) The rate of carbon deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and directly proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
(b) The rate of carbon deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and inversely proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
(c) The rate of carbon deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and inversely proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
(d) The rate of carbon deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and directly proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

49. (2.2.3.2-12) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG D/A" represent?
Illustration EL-0095
o

o
o

(a) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and conditions these as digital signals for
transmission to digital actuators.
(b) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and converts these to analog signals for transmission
to analog actuators.
(c) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and converts these to digital signals for transmission
to digital actuators.
(d) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and conditions these as analog signals for
transmission to analog actuators.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

50. (2.2.3.2-9) Which of the following rotational shaft speed sensors produces a digital signal?

o
o
o

(a) Optical tachometer


(b) Brush-type DC tachometer
(c) Brushless DC tachometer
(d) AC tachometer

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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51. (2.2.3.2-2) What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring running gear
bearing temperatures in a diesel engine in that it requires no contact with the bearing?
o

o
o

(a) Thermistor probe


(b) Radiation pyrometer
(c) Resistance temperature detector
(d) Thermocouple pyrometer

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

52. (2.2.3.2-4) What is another name for the control mode used in a process control system that uses
two-point control?
o
o
o

(a) Integral control


(b) Derivative control
(c) Proportional control
(d) On-off control

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

53. (2.2.3.2-10) Which of the following liquid level sensors would be most suitable for measuring the
liquid level in a pressure vessel, such as a water-tube boiler steam drum?
o

o
o

(a) Capacitance probe


(b) Differential pressure sensor
(c) Static pressure sensor
(d) Displacement float level sensor

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

54. (2.2.3.2-11) Which of the following illustrations represents the proper method of circuit grounding for
a low level analog signal cable? Illustration EL-0124

o
o
o

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

55. (2.2.3.2-8) What type of primary element for a pressure transmitter would be most suitable for
measuring oil-fired boiler furnace and forced-draft pressures?
o

o
o

(a) Bellows pressure sensor


(b) Diaphragm pressure sensor
(c) Bourdon tube pressure sensor
(d) Strain gage pressure sensor

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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56. (2.2.3.2-13) As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what statement is true concerning the voltage
sensing unit? Illustration EL-0066
o

o
o

(a) The voltage sensor delivers an AC signal voltage equal in magnitude to the alternator output
voltage to the comparator.
(b) The voltage sensor delivers a relatively low value of DC signal voltage proportional to the
alternator output voltage to the comparator.
(c) The voltage sensor delivers a relatively low value of single phase AC signal voltage
proportional to the alternator output voltage to the comparator.
(d) The voltage sensor delivers a DC signal voltage equal in magnitude to the alternator output
voltage to the comparator.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

57. (2.2.3.2-7) In a closed-loop process control system featuring negative feedback, what is the function
of the error detector within the controller?
o
o

(a) The error detector computes the sum of the measured value of the controlled variable and the
desired value (set point).
(b) The error detector computes the quotient of the measured value of the controlled variable and
the desired value (set point).
(c) The error detector computes the difference between the measured value of the controlled
variable and the desired value (set point).
(d) The error detector computes the product of the measured value of the controlled variable and
the desired value (set point).

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

58. (2.2.3.2-5) In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the action of
measuring the difference between the actual result and the desired result and using that difference
to drive the actual result toward the desired result?
o

o
o

(a) Gain
(b) Feedback
(c) Instability
(d) Dead band

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

59. (2.2.3.2-3) What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring diesel engine
exhaust and boiler stack temperatures and generates its own electromotive force?
o
o
o

(a) Thermistor probe


(b) Resistance temperature detector
(c) Radiation pyrometer
(d) Thermocouple pyrometer

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

60. (2.2.3.2-6) In a closed-loop process control system, what statement concerning feedback is true as it
relates to stability and the direction of error displacement?
o
o

(a) Negative feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same direction
as the error displacement.
(b) Positive feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same direction
as the error displacement.
(c) Negative feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite
direction as the error displacement.
(d) Positive feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite
direction as the error displacement.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

61. (2.2.3.1-13) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what
statement is true concerning the units labeled "ROS" which are remote operating system
workstations? Illustration EL-0096

o
o
o

(a) Operator access to control functions among the various ROS locations differ depending on
system configuration and need.
(b) The ROS located in the ship's office is designated as the master ROS.
(c) The ROS located in the wheelhouse is designated as the master ROS.
(d) Operator access to control functions among the various ROS locations are all identical.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

62. (2.2.3.1-1) Which of the listed central operating system types requires conversion of continuous
analog signals from the sensing and transmitting devices to discrete bits of information that can be
understood by the system computer for the purposes of processing and control?
o

o
o

(a) Pneumatic
(b) Digital
(c) Electric/electronic
(d) Direct connected

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

63. (2.2.3.1-4) As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram for a central operating system
configured for supervisory control, what is becoming the industry standard for transmission of analog
signals for a measured variable? Illustration EL-0094
o
o

(a) 1 volt to 5 volts


(b) -10 volts to +10 volts
(c) 4 milliamps to 20 milliamps
(d) 10 milliamps to 50 milliamps

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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64. (2.2.3.1-3) As shown in figure "B" in the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for supervisory control, what is the function of the block "ANALOG (A-D MUX)"?
Illustration EL-0094

(a) A high-speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a large
number of analog sensors in a short period of time and converting these to signals to digital
values for processing by the CPU.
(b) A low-speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a small
number of analog sensors in a long period of time and converting these to signals to digital values
for processing by the CPU.
(c) A low-speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a small
number of digital sensors in a long period of time and converting these to signals to analog values
for processing by the CPU.
(d) A high-speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a large
number of digital sensors in a short period of time and converting these to signals to analog
values for processing by the CPU.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

65. (2.2.3.1-8) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL CONTACT"
represent? Illustration EL-0095
o
o
o

(a) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and conditions these as analog
signals for CPU processing.
(b) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and converts these to analog signals
for CPU processing.
(c) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and converts these to digital signals
for CPU processing.
(d) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and conditions these as digital
signals for CPU processing.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

66. (2.2.3.1-9) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what
statement is true concerning the area networks? Illustration EL-0096
o

o
o

(a) The LAN is a dual redundant network and the partitioned CAN is also a dual redundant
network, with no interconnectivity between the two networks.
(b) The LAN is a dual redundant network and the partitioned CAN is also a dual redundant
network, with both networks being interconnected.
(c) The LAN is a single non-redundant network and the partitioned CAN is a dual redundant
network, with both networks being interconnected.
(d) The LAN is a single non-redundant network and the partitioned CAN is a dual redundant
network, with no interconnectivity between the two networks.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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67. (2.2.3.1-11) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what
statement is true concerning the data communication pathways labeled "Dual CAN"? Illustration EL0096
o

o
o

(a) These are control area networks providing supply and return pathways for communication.
(b) These are control area networks providing redundancy so as to maintain communications
despite a bus failure.
(c) These are communication access nodes providing redundancy so as to maintain
communications despite a node failure.
(d) These are communication access nodes providing supply and return pathways for
communication.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

68. (2.2.3.1-7) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG A/D" represent?
Illustration EL-0095

o
o
o

(a) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and converts these to digital signals
for CPU processing.
(b) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and conditions these as digital
signals for CPU processing.
(c) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and converts these to analog signals
for CPU processing.
(d) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and conditions these as analog
signals for CPU processing.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

69. (2.2.3.1-2) As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for supervisory control, which statement is true concerning the block "COMPUTER" with
respect to closed-loop control processes? Illustration EL-0094
o
o

(a) The computer normally has no role in the various closed-loop control processes. It is only
used for backup control purposes.
(b) The computer has no role in the various closed-loop control processes regardless of the
control mode.
(c) The computer provides the set point input data to the analog controllers, but the analog
controllers actually control the closed-loop processes.
(d) The computer provides the set point input data to the process control loop, as well as the
measured variable data. The analog controllers are only used for manual backup control.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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70. (2.2.3.1-5) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG D/A" represent?
Illustration EL-0095
o
o

(a) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and converts these to digital signals for transmission
to the digital actuators.
(b) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and conditions these to analog signals for
transmission to the analog actuators.
(c) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and converts these to analog signals for transmission
to the analog actuators.
(d) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and conditions these to digital signals for transmission
to the digital actuators.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

71. (2.2.4.2-5) A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________.


o
o

(a) water in the bearing


(b) dirt in the bearing
(c) vibration while the bearing is not in operation
(d) abrasives in the lubricant

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

72. (2.2.4.2-8) A roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed. What
thermal method of mounting the bearing would be most appropriate?

o
o
o

(a) Heating the bearing in an oil-bath bearing heater.


(b) Cooling the bearing with dry ice.
(c) Cooling the shaft with liquid refrigerant.
(d) Heating the bearing with an oxyacetylene torch.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

73. (2.2.4.2-1) After adding grease to a ball bearing with a hand-held grease gun, you should
__________.
o

o
o

(a) close the bearing housing drain and add a little extra grease to compensate for air pockets in
the bearing
(b) run the machine with the bearing housing drain plug open for a short while
(c) save the used grease for chemical analysis
(d) remove the grease fitting and leave open to allow excess grease to escape

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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74. (2.2.4.2-4) A roller bearing should normally be filled to what fraction of its space cavity?
o

o
o

(a) Less than 1/4


(b) 1/3 to 1/2
(c) 1/2 to 3/4
(d) More than 3/4

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

75. (2.2.4.2-10) What is the primary indication of a grease lubricated bearing that is over-lubricated in
terms of the quantity of grease in the housing?
o
o
o

(a) The bearing temperature would tend to produce unusual vibrations.


(b) The bearing temperature would tend to run cooler than normal for the load.
(c) The bearing would tend to produce a noticeable change in sound.
(d) The bearing temperature would tend to run hotter than normal for the load.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

76. (2.2.4.2-9) Rolling element bearings may experience fatigue failure after a length of service. What is
the first evidence of the beginnings of fatigue failure?
o
o
o

(a) Discoloration of the races or rolling elements.


(b) The presence of metallic particles in the lubricant.
(c) The presence of small cracks in the rolling elements.
(d) The presence of small cracks in the races.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

77. (2.2.4.2-11) Which of the following statements concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps is
true?
o
o

(a) The outer race should be free to turn its housing.


(b) Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation.
(c) They are usually pressed on to their shafts.
(d) The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

78. (2.2.4.2-6) A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed
with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?
o

o
o

(a) the shaft


(b) the inner race
(c) the outer race
(d) the housing

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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79. (2.2.4.2-7) A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the housing in which it is being installed
with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?
o
o
o

(a) the shaft


(b) the housing
(c) the inner race
(d) the outer race

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

80. (2.2.4.2-2) In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by
__________.
o
o

(a) a pressure gun


(b) a Zerk fitting
(c) spring force
(d) gravity flow

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

81. (2.2.4.1-3) Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each
other?
o
o
o

(a) Roller
(b) Tapered roller
(c) Needle
(d) Ball

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

82. (2.2.4.1-5) With respect to shaft bearing load absorption capability in terms of direction, what is
meant by a radial load?

o
o
o

(a) A radial load is a load applied perpendicular to the axis of the shaft.
(b) A radial load is a load applied parallel to the axis of the shaft.
(c) A radial load is a load applied perpendicular and parallel to the axis of the shaft.
(d) A radial load is a load applied tangent to the circumference of the shaft.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

83. (2.2.4.1-1) The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.
o
o

(a) inner race cone width


(b) outer ring width
(c) manufacturer's numerical code
(d) rolling member size

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

84. (2.2.4.1-8) Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a rolling-element bearing
which substitutes fluid friction for rolling contact friction?
o
o

(a) a sleeve bearing


(b) a plain bearing
(c) a ball bearing
(d) a journal bearing

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

85. (2.2.4.1-7) Concerning the start-up of plain bearings utilizing the three modes of hydrodynamic
lubrication, what is the correct sequence of modes from start-up through coming up to operational
speed?
o

o
o

(a) First full-film lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally mixed-film lubrication.
(b) First boundary lubrication, followed by mixed-film lubrication, then finally full-film lubrication.
(c) First boundary lubrication, followed by full-film lubrication, then finally mixed-film lubrication.
(d) First mixed-film lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally full-film lubrication.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

86. (2.2.4.1-6) With respect to shaft bearing load absorption capability in terms of direction, what is
meant by an axial load?

o
o
o

(a) An axial load is a load applied parallel to the axis of the shaft.
(b) An axial load is a load applied tangent to the circumference of the shaft.
(c) An axial load is a load applied perpendicular and parallel to the axis of the shaft.
(d) An axial load is a load applied perpendicular to the axis of the shaft.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

87. (2.2.5.4.1-9) In order for a reverse osmosis fresh water generator to be able to overcome the
osmotic pressure without damaging the spiral-wound membrane modules, the pressure must be
controlled. What is the location of the pressure regulator?
o
o
o

(a) Suction side of the high-pressure pump.


(b) Discharge side of the high-pressure pump.
(c) Fresh water outlet from the membrane modules.
(d) Brine outlet from the membrane modules.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

88. (2.2.5.4.1-3) Regarding a reverse osmosis type fresh water generator using multiple spiral-wound
membrane modules, what statement is true?
o

o
o

(a) Modules may be piped in series to increase the fresh water throughput.
(b) Modules may be piped in series to increase the fresh water purity.
(c) Modules may be piped in parallel to increase the fresh water purity.
(d) Modules may be piped in series to decrease the likelihood of fouling.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

89. (2.2.5.4.1-10) To ensure potable water of drinking quality, chemical treatment is required for reverse
osmosis fresh water generators. What is the purpose of chemical pre-treatment?
o
o

(a) Chemical pre-treatment removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the sea water
inlet to the unit to prevent fouling of the membrane modules.
(b) Chemical pre-treatment removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the fresh water
leaving the unit prior to distribution to the various fresh water storage tanks.
(c) Chemical pre-treatment sterilizes the sea water entering the unit to prevent bacteria from
becoming resident in the reverse osmosis unit filters and membrane modules.
(d) Chemical pre-treatment sterilizes the fresh water leaving the unit prior to distribution to the
various fresh water storage tanks.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

90. (2.2.5.3.3-4) If the distilling plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than normal, while the
second stage absolute pressure remains satisfactory, the probable fault is due to __________.
o

o
o

(a) priming in the second stage


(b) an air leak through a vacuum gage line in the first stage
(c) loss of the distillate loop seal between the stages
(d) failure of the brine pump

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

91. (2.2.5.3.3-1) A high reading is only indicated at the salinity cells labeled "W" and "6" shown in the
illustration. This would be the probable result of __________. Illustration GS-0053
o
o

(a) a tube leak in item 'IV', which contributes to a surging absolute pressure in "III"
(b) carryover from "III"
(c) a faulty cell at location "6" and a tube leak in item "I"
(d) erosion of item "3" or the valve opened too wide if used

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

92. (2.2.5.3.3-2) Scale formation in a flash-type evaporator is usually found in the __________.
o
o

(a) flash chamber walls


(b) tubes of the distiller condenser
(c) tubes of the salt water feed heater
(d) tubes of the air ejector condenser

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

93. (2.2.5.3.3-7) If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash
evaporator, you should suspect __________.
o
o

(a) improper vacuum


(b) a clogged desuperheater water strainer
(c) a malfunctioning brine pump
(d) a leak in the feed water heater

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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94. (2.2.5.3.3-8) While standing watch in the engine room, you notice a high reading at a salinity cell
located in the loop seal between two stages of a flash type evaporator. This would indicate
__________.
o
o
o

(a) faulty operation of the brine overboard pump


(b) chill shocking is necessary to remove scale
(c) leakage at the second-stage condenser
(d) carryover in the first-stage

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

95. (2.2.5.3.3-6) Indicated high salinity of the distillate discharged from a flash-type distilling plant will be
a result of __________.
o
o

(a) carrying the brine level below normal


(b) reduced feed water heater temperatures
(c) leaks in the demister baffles
(d) operating at reduced vacuum conditions

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

96. (2.2.5.3.1-3) Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in a flash-type
evaporator are removed by the __________.
o

o
o

(a) condensers
(b) demisters
(c) splash baffles
(d) spray pipes

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

97. (2.2.5.3.1-1) A vacuum is initially created in a flash-type distilling plant by __________.


o

o
o

(a) the flashing of the feed water


(b) air ejectors, eductors, or a separate vacuum pump
(c) the condensation of the salt water feed
(d) condensation of the distillate

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

98. (2.2.5.3.1-8) The absolute pressure maintained in the shell of the salt water feed heater on most
flash evaporators used on steam propelled vessels is __________.
o

o
o

(a) slightly less than the supplied live steam pressure at the reducing valve outlet
(b) slightly less than the absolute pressure of the L.P. extraction
(c) slightly lower than the first stage vacuum
(d) slightly higher than the second stage vacuum

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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99. (2.2.5.3.1-11) In the unit illustrated, the feed water temperature is required to be increased to 165F
or greater and must exist at this temperature when leaving __________. Illustration GS-0053
o
o
o

(a) I
(b) III
(c) IV
(d) V

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

100.

(2.2.5.3.1-5) The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part
by the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the __________.

o
o
o

(a) throughput of the brine overboard pump


(b) steam flow rate to the air ejectors
(c) float controlled level of the feed heater
(d) capacity of the distillate pump

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

101.

(2.2.5.3.1-4) In a two stage flash distilling plant, which of the pumps listed is vented to the shell of
the second stage in order to remove vapor from the pump suction?

o
o

(a) Feed water heater drain pump


(b) Distillate pump
(c) Air ejector condenser drain pump
(d) Condenser circulating water pump

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

102.

(2.2.5.2.2.2-3) In a jacket water heated submerged tube evaporator, what is the primary factor
that determines the rate of scale build-up on the submerged tube bundle?

o
o
o

(a) The chemical composition of the jacket water coolant additive package.
(b) The sea water inlet temperature to the evaporator section.
(c) The salt content of the sea water inlet to the evaporator section.
(d) The jacket water inlet temperature to the submerged tube bundle.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

103.

(2.2.5.2.2.2-9) If valve "D" is opened during the normal operation of the distiller shown in the
illustration, which of the events listed will occur? Illustration MO-0111

o
o

(a) The jacket water cooler will be overloaded, eventually causing a critical engine alarm.
(b) The amount of vapor being formed in the evaporator will decrease.
(c) The output of pump "7" will increase with a corresponding increase in pressure.
(d) The amount of vapor formed in the evaporator will increase.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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104.

(2.2.5.2.2.2-8) What would happen if valve "25" shown in the illustration, vibrated open with the
unit in operation? Illustration MO-0111

o
o

(a) The unit would continue to operate with no adverse effects.


(b) The unit would automatically shut down due to the closing of the low-pressure contacts.
(c) The absolute pressure of the unit would increase, causing a decrease in distillate output.
(d) Jacket water would be automatically bypassed around the distiller.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

105.

(2.2.5.2.2.2-1) When securing a jacket water heated submerged tube evaporator for an extended
period of time, you should __________.

o
o

(a) fill the unit with salt water


(b) fill the unit with descaling compound
(c) completely drain the unit
(d) tightly seal the unit to exclude air

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

106.
o
o

(2.2.5.2.1.1-7) What is the function of device "A" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) It provides a conduit for incoming feed water.
(b) It aids in removing condenser tube bundles.
(c) It serves as a hinge for ease of opening the shell.
(d) It is only used as a lifting beam during installation.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

107.

(2.2.5.2.1.1-17) The pipe identified by the letter "J" shown in the illustration is __________.
Illustration MO-0110

o
o
o

(a) directly connected to the feed water supply line


(b) attached to the outlet of the brine ejector
(c) directly connected to the jacket water supply line
(d) attached to the air ejector

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

108.

(2.2.5.2.1.1-5) What occurs in the space labeled "G" of the device shown in the illustration?
Illustration MO-0110

o
o

(a) Jacket water is heated in the boiling chamber.


(b) The feed water enters the device and vaporizes under vacuum conditions.
(c) The feed water is cooled prior to being pumped into section "F".
(d) Scale accumulates at position "E".

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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109.

(2.2.5.2.1.1-4) Which of the following conditions occurs in the section labeled "F" of the device
shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110

o
o
o

(a) Non-condensable vapors are removed and water vapors are preheated.
(b) The sea water flowing through device "I" is cooled.
(c) The jacket water flowing through device "I" is heated.
(d) The vapors produced in section "G" are condensed and the non-condensable gases are
removed.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

110.
o

o
o

(2.2.5.2.1.1-2) What is the function of device "B" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) It serves to boil off incoming feed water.
(b) It condenses the vapors formed in section "G".
(c) It removes sensible heat from the jacket water.
(d) It serves to cool incoming feed water.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

111.

(2.2.5.2.1.1-8) For the operation of the illustrated device, what fluid flow would be expected at the
connection labeled "I"? Illustration MO-0110

o
o

(a) Main engine jacket water.


(b) The salt water feed.
(c) The sea water used for condensing the water vapor.
(d) The distillate discharge.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

112.

(2.2.5.2.1.1-19) The heat exchanger plates, used in the device shown in the illustration, are
produced from which of the listed materials? Illustration MO-0110

o
o
o

(a) Titanium
(b) Copper
(c) Anodized aluminum
(d) Phosphor bronze

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

113.

(2.2.5.2.1.1-13) Which of the following is NOT a function of the water supply through item "P"
shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110

o
o

(a) It supplies feed water to evaporator.


(b) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of the brine.
(c) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of the distillate.
(d) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of air and non-condensable gases.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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114.

(2.2.5.4.2-3) What is the BEST indication that the membrane modules of a reverse osmosis fresh
water generator must be serviced by flushing or cleaning?

o
o

(a) A lower than normal feed pressure.


(b) An insufficient pressure drop across the membrane modules.
(c) An excessive pressure drop across the membrane modules.
(d) An excessive pressure drop across the pre-treatment filter.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

115.

(2.2.5.2.1.2-2) Which of the tools listed must be used when retightening the plate type heat
exchangers used in the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110

o
o

(a) Torque wrench


(b) Pneumatic impact wrench
(c) Steel ruler or tape measure
(d) Cantilever wrench

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

116.

(2.2.5.2.1.2-5) Failure to establish sufficient vacuum when starting up the unit shown in the
illustration may be the result of __________. Illustration MO-0110

o
o

(a) improper operation of the brine pump


(b) neglecting to close the vent shell
(c) improper operation of the distillate pump
(d) neglecting to latch the dump valve

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

117.

(2.2.5.2.1.2-4) Which of the following conditions can cause high salinity of the distillate due to sea
water leakage in the illustrated device? Illustration MO-0110

o
o
o

(a) Improper venting during start-up.


(b) Improper venting during operation.
(c) Failure to properly tighten the bolts of the evaporator heat exchanger.
(d) Failure to properly tighten the bolts of the condenser heat exchanger.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

118.

(2.2.5.2.1.2-3) If the demister used in the device shown in the illustration is improperly installed,
which of the following will occur? Illustration MO-0110

o
o
o

(a) The vacuum of the device will increase.


(b) Interstage leakage will cause a decrease in output.
(c) The temperature of the device will decrease.
(d) There will be an increase of chlorides measured at the distillate pump salinity cell.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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119.

(2.2.5.1-2) The primary reason low-pressure evaporators produce distillate more efficiently, and
with less scale formation, than high-pressure evaporators is __________.

o
o
o

(a) due to the higher temperature of the incoming feed


(b) due to the latent heat of evaporation principle
(c) evaporation in a submerged medium produces more distillate
(d) evaporation is accomplished in a vacuum

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

120.

o
o
o

(2.2.5.1-10) In which of the following fresh water generators would an air ejector be unnecessary?
(a) Reverse osmosis unit
(b) Submerged tube unit
(c) Titanium plate unit
(d) Flash type unit

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

121.
o

o
o

(2.2.5.1-9) With regard to fresh water generators, what statement concerning brine is true?
(a) Brine is the cooling medium used for chill-shocking as a means for scale removal.
(b) Brine is the unevaporated sea water of a fresh water generator as the result of distillation.
(c) Brine is the cooling medium used for cooling the distillate before distribution.
(d) Brine is the incoming sea water feed to the fresh water generator and destined for distillation.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

122.

(2.2.5.1-3) In the production of fresh water from sea water through a process of heating and
cooling, the cooling phase of production is usually called __________.

o
o

(a) dehydration
(b) condensation
(c) distillation
(d) evaporation

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

123.

(2.2.5.1-5) Which of the following fresh water generators has an operating principle that
evaporates pre-heated sea water by causing it to undergo a pressure drop into a vacuum?

o
o

(a) Submerged tube unit


(b) Flash type unit
(c) Titanium plate unit
(d) Reverse osmosis unit

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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124.

(2.2.5.3.2-2) In a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher than normal temperatures is most
likely to occur in the __________.

o
o
o

(a) salt water feed heater


(b) second stage vapor separator
(c) distillate cooler
(d) second stage feed heater

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

125.

(2.2.5.3.2-9) While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash
evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of the continued
presence of scale?

o
o

(a) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
(b) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
(c) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
(d) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

126.

(2.2.5.3.2-4) When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should
__________.

o
o
o

(a) completely drain the unit


(b) fill the unit with descaling compound
(c) fill the unit with salt water
(d) tightly seal the unit to exclude air

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

127.
o
o
o

(2.2.5.3.2-10) When should mechanical cleaning of feed water heater tubes be accomplished?
(a) Any time there is a drop-off on distillate production capacity.
(b) Any time when increased steam flow to the feed water heater shell is required to maintain
distillate production capacity.
(c) During regularly scheduled maintenance.
(d) Only when chemical cleaning fails to restore distillate production capacity to normal.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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128.

(2.2.5.3.2-7) What procedure can be used to reduce the rate of scale formation on the heating
surfaces of a flash evaporator while still maintaining the desired rate of distillate production?

o
o

(a) Decreasing the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (increase in vacuum).
(b) Increasing the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum).
(c) Chemically treating the incoming feed water.
(d) Chemically treating the outgoing brine.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

129.

(2.2.5.3.2-8) While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash
evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of successful removal of
the scale?

o
o
o

(a) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
(b) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
(c) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
(d) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

130.

o
o
o

(2.2.5.2.2.1-19) Item "10" shown in the illustration is used to __________. Illustration MO-0111
(a) direct the flow from the distillate pump
(b) regulate flow from the drain pump
(c) prevent damage to device "9" by reducing turbulence
(d) cancel the effects of improper regulation developed by device "11"

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

131.

(2.2.5.2.2.1-10) Which device is used to prevent over pressurization of the illustrated distiller?
Illustration MO-0111

o
o
o

(a) "12"
(b) "13"
(c) "19"
(d) "26"

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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132.

(2.2.5.2.2.1-11) Where is the latent heat obtained to create vapor from the feed water in the
illustrated distiller? Illustration MO-0111

o
o

(a) During its contact period with heat exchanger "3".


(b) Only as it passes through device "20".
(c) From having passed through "23".
(d) While it is in contact with device "24".

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

133.

(2.2.5.2.2.1-12) Excess brine accumulated in the distiller, shown in the illustration, is removed
during normal operation by __________. Illustration MO-0111

o
o
o

(a) orifice "19" regulating the amount of feed water entering the distiller, thereby preventing
excess brine accumulation
(b) opening the drain valve located to the left of orifice "19"
(c) the hydrokineter labeled "21"
(d) the continuous action of ejector "22"

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

134.

(2.2.5.2.2.1-7) Which of the following statements describes the approximate relation between the
feed water entering the unit shown in the illustration and brine being removed? Illustration MO-0111

o
o
o

(a) Seventy-five percent of the feed water entering the unit is removed as brine.
(b) Twenty-five percent of the feed water entering the device is removed as brine.
(c) The amount of feed water entering the distiller is dependent upon the condition of device "7",
while the amount of brine leaving is dependent upon the condition of device "21".
(d) The brine will be removed at a faster rate than feed water entering to prevent the possibility of
flooding.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

135.

(2.2.5.2.2.1-18) Which of the following statements describes what will occur to the volume of
water vapor as it is exposed to the lower temperatures existing in the device labeled "24" shown in
the illustration? Illustration MO-0111

o
o

(a) The latent heat of condensation is removed causing the volume to increase.
(b) The volume is increased as condensation occurs at the tube surfaces.
(c) The volume is greatly reduced, contributing to condensation within the condenser.
(d) The volume will increase if the valve labeled "J" is opened excessively, resulting in an
increase of the distiller absolute pressure.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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136.

(2.2.5.2.2.1-1) What is a function of the device labeled "1" shown in the illustration? Illustration
MO-0111

o
o
o

(a) It provides a low-pressure point for combustion air filtration.


(b) It relieves the excessive pressure developed in the jacket water cooler.
(c) It aids in the removal of combustible gases formed in the crankcase.
(d) It provides a low-pressure point for adding chemicals into the jacket water system.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

137.

(2.2.6-8) Hot water heaters used in potable water systems may have multiple heat sources, such
as an electric heating element and a jacket water heated tube bundle. What is the primary purpose
of such an arrangement?

o
o
o

(a) Allow the designated backup heat source to be used in the event of failure of the designated
primary heat source, whether in port or underway.
(b) Allow jacket water to be used in port and electricity to be used while underway.
(c) Allow both the heat sources to be used when the demand for hot water is high, whether in port
or underway.
(d) Allow electricity to be used in port and jacket water to be used while underway.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

138.

(2.2.6-1) What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing
fixture such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains?

o
o

(a) Check valves in the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink.
(b) Location of the potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink.
(c) A "P" trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink.
(d) Location of the potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

139.

(2.2.6-2) What type of disinfection system has the disadvantage that it would fail to provide
residual disinfectant in the potable water?

o
o

(a) A chlorinator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank.
(b) A chlorinator located at the potable water storage tank recirculation line.
(c) An ultraviolet irradiator at the desalinator discharge to the potable water storage tank.
(d) A brominator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

140.

(2.2.6-3) Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing
water to a potable water system?

o
o
o

(a) Titanium plate type unit


(b) Multi-stage flash type unit
(c) Submerged tube type unit
(d) Reverse osmosis type unit

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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141.

(2.2.6-4) Which of the following statements concerning the arrangements of a potable water
system is true?

o
o
o

(a) Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located above the potable water storage tanks.
(b) Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if
located above the potable water storage tanks.
(c) Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located below the potable water storage tanks.
(d) Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if
located below the potable water storage tanks.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

142.

(2.2.6-5) On most commercial cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the
potable water system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained?

o
o
o

(a) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of potable water storage tank level
switches in response to system demand changes.
(b) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously while recirculating during periods of zero
demand for potable water.
(c) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously against a shut-off head during periods of
zero demand for potable water.
(d) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of the potable water hydro-pneumatic
tank pressure switch in response to system demand changes.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

143.

(2.2.6-6) What is the primary purpose of the lead-lag arrangement of the two potable water
pumps supporting a typical potable water system?

o
o
o

(a) Enabling the lead pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the
lag pump to assist the lead pump only when the demand is high.
(b) Enabling the lead pump to pump against a shut-off head during periods of relatively low
demand and the lag pump to recirculate when the demand is high.
(c) Enabling the lag pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the lead
pump to assist the lag pump only when the demand is high.
(d) Enabling both potable water pumps to cycle on and off together in response to system
demand changes.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

144.

(2.2.6-7) What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot
water distribution piping for a potable water system?

o
o
o

(a) Use of hot water recirculation loops.


(b) Use of instantaneous type hot water heaters only.
(c) Use of storage type hot water heaters only.
(d) Use of hot water heaters with multiple heat sources.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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145.

(2.2.6-9) What are the operating characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydropneumatic header tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air?

o
o

(a) Failure of the potable water pump to start with demand on the system.
(b) Extremely long running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
(c) Very short and frequent running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
(d) Failure of the potable water pump to stop with zero demand on the system.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

146.

(2.2.6-10) Suppose the pressure switch used to control the "lead" potable water pump is set at 45
psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. What would be an appropriate setting
for the "lag" potable water pump?

o
o
o

(a) 40 psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop.
(b) 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 50 psig cut-out for pump stop.
(c) 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop.
(d) 50 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

147.

(2.2.7-10) What statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime mover
speed control governors?

o
o

(a) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by
employing temporary speed droop.
(b) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by
employing permanent speed droop.
(c) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by
employing temporary speed droop.
(d) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by
employing permanent speed droop.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

148.

(2.2.7-5) Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover
speed without hunting?

o
o

(a) Dead band


(b) Stability
(c) Promptness
(d) Sensitivity

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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149.

(2.2.7-9) What is meant by the term "dead band" as it applies to prime mover speed control
governors?

o
o

(a) Dead band is the repeated variation of speed due to under-control by the governor and a lack
of governor power.
(b) Dead band is the change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective action
as the result of a load change.
(c) Dead band is the repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed due to over-control by
the governor.
(d) Dead band is the result of transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor
responds to load changes.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

150.
o

o
o

(2.2.7-4) Concerning governor speed droop, what statement is true?


(a) If speed droop is temporary, the prime mover's final speed is different for each amount of
loading.
(b) If speed droop is permanent, the prime mover's final speed is different for each amount of
loading.
(c) If speed droop is temporary, there will be no transient speed changes associated with load
changes.
(d) If speed droop is permanent, the prime mover's final speed is constant regardless of the load.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

151.

(2.2.7-3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous
governor?

o
o
o

(a) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's geared propulsion drive driving
through a fixed-pitch propeller.
(b) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a pump drive associated with maintaining a
constant pump discharge pressure.
(c) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's direct reversible propulsion drive driving
through a fixed-pitch propeller.
(d) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's service alternator drive associated with
maintaining a constant system frequency.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

152.

(2.2.7-7) Which term represents how rapidly a speed control governor will complete a corrective
action as the result of a load change?

o
o

(a) Sensitivity
(b) Power
(c) Promptness
(d) Dead band

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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153.

(2.2.7-2) Suppose a prime mover rotates at a steady speed of 900 rpm at rated full load and
rotates at a steady speed of 1000 rpm at no load. Assuming that no adjustments have been made to
the governor speed control setting, what is the speed regulation of the prime mover expressed in
percent?

o
o

(a) 10.0%
(b) 11.1%
(c) 88.9%
(d) 90.0%

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

154.

(2.2.7-1) Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to
prevent prime mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover?

o
o

(a) Over speed governor


(b) Speed-limiting governor
(c) Over speed trip
(d) Under speed trip

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

155.

(2.2.7-6) Which term represents the change in speed required before a speed control governor
will initiate corrective action as the load changes?

o
o
o

(a) Promptness
(b) Power
(c) Sensitivity
(d) Dead band

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

156.

(2.2.9.11-2) If a hydraulic system is in continuous operation, and is equipped with an air cooled
heat exchanger, the fan should __________.

o
o
o

(a) be in continuous operation as long as the main pump prime mover is in operation
(b) come on only after the main pump prime mover is secured
(c) be controlled by a thermostat to maintain the oil temperature at less than 190F (87.8C)
(d) never be needed, except when the ambient temperature exceeds 90F (32.2C)

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

157.

(2.2.9.11-3) In which of the listed hydraulic systems will the installation of an oil cooler be
necessary?

o
o
o

(a) Hatch cover system


(b) Watertight door system
(c) Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system
(d) Constant tension mooring winch system

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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158.

(2.2.9.11-1) In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler, the amount of heat transferred from
the hydraulic fluid to the cooling water depends upon __________.

o
o
o

(a) the temperature of the hydraulic fluid


(b) the flow rate of both the cooling water and the hydraulic fluid
(c) the temperature of the cooling water
(d) all of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

159.
o
o
o

(2.2.9.13-3) Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by __________.


(a) insufficient external pump slippage
(b) an increase in the number of the hydraulic fluid film layers
(c) fluctuating pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations
(d) continuous leakage through the pressure relief valve

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

160.

(2.2.9.13-7) While starting a hydraulic anchor windlass, you observe that hydraulic pressure does
not develop in spite of the proper operation of the electric drive motor. Which of the following actions
should you take FIRST to restore pressure?

o
o
o

(a) Inspect the disc brake on the electric motor for proper operation.
(b) Check for full voltage supply to the electric motor.
(c) Check the electric motor for an open overload relay contact.
(d) Make certain that the hydraulic reservoir is filled to the proper level.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

161.

(2.2.9.13-6) You press start button on the hydraulic power unit shown in the illustration, and the
motor does not start. The first thing you should check is the ________. Illustration GS-0161

o
o
o

(a) controller circuit breaker


(b) controller contactor operating coil
(c) pump discharge relief valve setting is too low
(d) suction strainer condition

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

162.
o
o
o

(2.2.9.13-2) Overheating of a hydraulic system may be a result of __________.


(a) a high oil level
(b) changing pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations
(c) continued slow recirculation of the oil
(d) incorrect fluid viscosity

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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163.

(2.2.9.13-5) If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation, the cause may be
__________.

o
o
o

(a) an air leak in the pump suction line above the oil level in the reservoir
(b) due to the wrong direction of rotation of the hydraulic motor
(c) low viscosity in the hydraulic fluid
(d) an oil leak across the pump shaft packing

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

164.

(2.2.9.6-3) A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator speed during
retraction, with the pump operating at above maximum pressure, is known as a __________.

o
o
o

(a) bleed-off circuit


(b) metered-in circuit
(c) bleed-in circuit
(d) metered-out circuit

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

165.

(2.2.9.6-1) A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension,
with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________.

o
o

(a) metered-out circuit


(b) metered-in circuit
(c) bleed-in circuit
(d) bleed-off circuit

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

166.

(2.2.9.1-4) Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the
__________.

o
o

(a) reservoir expansion chamber


(b) atmosphere as heat
(c) hydraulic piping flexibility
(d) fluid as friction

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

167.

(2.2.9.1-3) Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic
oil's viscosity?

o
o

(a) Vacuum
(b) Pressure
(c) Cloud point
(d) Pour point

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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168.

o
o
o

(2.2.9.1-2) With an increase in temperature, the volume of hydraulic fluid __________.


(a) increases
(b) contracts
(c) remains constant if pressure decreases
(d) remains the same

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

169.

(2.2.9.1-1) The pressure of an operating hydraulic system, as indicated by a pressure gauge, is a


result of the fluid flow overcoming __________.

o
o
o

(a) the load applied to the system


(b) resistance of the internal components
(c) internal resistance to flow
(d) all of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

170.
o

o
o

(2.2.9.9-2) For which of the following reasons is a linear actuator fitted with a cushioning device?
(a) To allow the pump to temporarily operate at a pressure 10% above the relief valve setting
without lifting the relief valve.
(b) To slow the action of the piston preventing shock and damage due to hammering effects.
(c) To regulate actuator speed through the entire stroke length.
(d) All of the above.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

171.

(2.2.9.9-3) Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a single-acting hydraulic
ram is correct?

o
o

(a) Hydraulic force is applied simultaneously in two directions against the ram by directional ports.
(b) The single-acting ram is not retracted by means of hydraulic force.
(c) The single-acting ram is both extended and retracted by means of hydraulic force.
(d) Hydraulic force applied to a single-acting ram results in a pulling motion.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

172.
o
o

(2.2.9.4-5) In application, which of the listed sealing devices is most similar to an O-ring?
(a) V-ring
(b) U-ring
(c) Quad ring
(d) Cup seal

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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173.

(2.2.9.4-6) Which of the following components listed is shown in the illustration? Illustration GS0041

o
o
o

(a) Filter
(b) Variable displacement pump
(c) Heat exchanger
(d) All of the above

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

174.

(2.2.9.4-1) An internal bypass is provided on some hydraulic system suction strainers to help
reduce the possibility of __________.

o
o

(a) spongy actuator movements


(b) aeration of the oil
(c) pump cavitation
(d) contamination of the oil

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

175.
o

o
o

(2.2.9.4-2) An improperly maintained filter used in a hydraulic system can __________.


(a) rupture the pump discharge piping
(b) reduce or stop the output action of the actuator
(c) cause leaking of the flexible line connections
(d) all of the above

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

176.
o
o
o

(2.2.9.4-3) Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to __________.


(a) prevent solid particles from entering the filter
(b) protect the pump from fine soluble contaminants
(c) protect the directional control valves
(d) prevent solid particles from entering the pump

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

177.

(2.2.9.4-4) The device shown in the illustration is commonly known as a/an __________.
Illustration GS-0071

o
o

(a) soft-packing seal


(b) quad seal
(c) mechanical seal
(d) spring seal

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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178.

(2.2.9.10-1) The component used in a hydraulic system to store potential energy in the form of
hydraulic fluid under pressure, is the __________.

o
o

(a) ram
(b) pump
(c) accumulator
(d) piping

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

179.

(2.2.9.10-2) Which of the listed components of a hydraulic system would enable the pump to be
temporarily shutdown, and yet still provide an instantaneous source of hydraulic force?

o
o
o

(a) Accumulator
(b) Modulator
(c) Pressure compensator valve
(d) Sump actuator

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

180.

(2.2.9.10-5) A reservoir, as used in hydraulic systems aboard ship, is used to store hydraulic oil.
Another function is to __________.

o
o
o

(a) eliminate pressure surges in the system


(b) maintain the stored oil under pressure
(c) act as a shock absorber
(d) act as a base or foundation for the power unit

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

181.

(2.2.9.10-3) Which of the following statements describes the functions of a reservoir used in a
hydraulic system?

o
o
o

(a) Separate air from the oil


(b) Trap foreign matter
(c) Dissipate heat
(d) All of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

182.

(2.2.9.10-7) A precharged bladder-type accumulator used in a hydraulic system, can be


potentially dangerous if __________.

o
o
o

(a) the bladder contacts the top of the poppet


(b) the inert gas is exposed to hydraulic oil
(c) it is precharged with dry nitrogen
(d) the charging valve stem breaks while at normal working pressure

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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183.

(2.2.9.10-6) In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high-pressure return is
provided by __________. Illustration GS-0118

o
o
o

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

184.
o
o
o

(2.2.9.10-4) The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to __________.
(a) minimize the amount of contamination deposited from return lines entering the system
(b) reduce fluid turbulence at the pump suction
(c) minimize the entrance of entrained air through the pump inlet line
(d) all of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

185.

(2.2.9.7-4) One function of a replenishing pump installed in many pressure-closed hydraulic


systems is to supply fluid flow to __________.

o
o

(a) the main system accumulators under all operating conditions


(b) a servo control circuit
(c) position a manually controlled valve
(d) the reservoir

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

186.

(2.2.9.7-3) A variable displacement pump is fitted with the illustrated device, the discharge flow
rate will be reduced as described by which of the following statements? Illustration GS-0040

o
o

(a) When part "D" rotates counter-clockwise, part "E" will rotate clockwise allowing part "G" to
slide towards the set point spring F.
(b) Part "H" will move to block the replenishing pump oil flow across part "G" as flow across
hydraulic motor decreases.
(c) The increase in high side pressure will gradually increase the tilting box angle of the variable
displacement pump.
(d) As high side pressure increases part "A", "B", and "C" will work together to re-establish the
original tilting box angle.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

187.

(2.2.9.7-1) If the device shown in the illustration is being used to control the output of an axial
piston pump, when part "A" is moved to the right, then part "B" __________. Illustration GS-0039

o
o

(a) will move to the right, and "C" will move to the left, but lagging behind "B"
(b) will move to the left, and "C" will move to the right, but will lag behind the movement of "A"
(c) will move to the right, as will "C"
(d) will move to the left, as will "C"

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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188.

(2.2.9.7-2) Which of the following statements will be true if the position of the manual control
lever, shown in the illustration, remains unchanged after the pump is placed on stroke? Illustration
GS-0039

o
o
o

(a) Although oil will leak past part 'B', the amount of pump stroke will be maintained until the
control handle position is changed.
(b) Although the control handle position was set, the pump displacement will fluctuate from zero
to maximum flow rate until the handle is placed in its neutral position.
(c) Regardless of the control handle position, the pump will gradually move to full stroke.
(d) Regardless of the control handle position, the pump will gradually return to neutral stroke.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

189.

(2.2.9.8-3) Compensated flow control or constant flow valves are used in hydraulic systems to
__________.

o
o

(a) assure constant fluid temperature


(b) allow for changes in pressure and temperature within the system
(c) compensate for major leaks in the system
(d) maintain the original fluid viscosity

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

190.

(2.2.9.8-7) Which of the statements is true concerning the illustrated hydraulic circuit when the
directional control valve is centered? Illustration GS-0105

o
o
o

(a) Oil pressure to both sides of the actuator will be equal as the pump discharge flow is directed
across the relief valve.
(b) A pressure differential will exist between the two ends of the actuator, with pump discharge
lower than normal due to flow across the unloading valve.
(c) The oil pressure will equalize at both ends of the actuator and the pump will discharge through
the reducing valve to the sump.
(d) The load on the actuator may cause a difference in pressure to exist between the rod and cap
end, and oil discharging to the sump across the relief valve with the pump operating.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

191.

(2.2.9.8-5) Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to permit the completion of
one action of a hydraulic system before a second action would be permitted?

o
o

(a) Unloading valve


(b) Sequence valve
(c) Counterbalance valve
(d) Pressure-reducing valve

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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192.

(2.2.9.8-2) The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover system is to
__________.

o
o
o

(a) prevent oil backflow to the actuators


(b) prevent the hydraulic pump from overheating
(c) restrict the oil supply to the hatch covers not in use
(d) control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

193.

(2.2.9.8-6) Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a hydraulic system to
temporarily divert some, or all of the pump discharge until the additional flow was required?

o
o

(a) compound, pressure-relief valve


(b) unloading valve
(c) counterbalance valve
(d) sequence valve

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

194.

o
o
o

(2.2.9.8-1) Plug valves installed in hydraulic systems are most suitable for use as __________.
(a) two position flow control valves
(b) main supply line throttle valves
(c) variable flow control valves
(d) check and choke valves

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

195.

(2.2.9.5-4) If the flow rate and pressurized oil from a variable capacity pump were supplied to the
device illustrated the __________. Illustration GS-0058

o
o

(a) speed would decrease, horsepower and torque would increase


(b) horsepower, torque, and speed would increase proportionally
(c) horsepower, torque, and speed would decrease proportionally
(d) speed would increase, horsepower and torque would decrease

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

196.
o
o
o

(2.2.9.5-2) The device illustrated would be best used as a __________. Illustration GS-0058
(a) power take-off driven lube oil pump
(b) variable capacity pump
(c) hydraulic hatch supply pump
(d) variable or constant speed motor

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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197.

(2.2.9.5-3) To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following
would have to be done?

o
o
o

(a) Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots.
(b) Provide one additional slot and vane.
(c) Double the casing thickness.
(d) Install an enlarged control ring around the rotor.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

198.
o
o

(2.2.9.5-1) A two-stage hydraulic pump unit is used to __________.


(a) produce twice the flow rate than if only one element were to be used
(b) supply two individual flows to the same segments of the system if one of the pump elements
were to fail
(c) develop the same flow rate across both pump elements with the discharge pressure of the
second pump element being substantially higher than that of the first stage
(d) establish two individual flows to segregated segments of one system

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

199.

(2.2.9.5-5) Both the direction of flow and fluid flow rate of a variable displacement radial piston
pump are determined by the relative positions of the __________.

o
o

(a) pump shaft and central valve


(b) floating ring and cylinder body
(c) floating ring and pump shaft
(d) pump shaft and horizontal ports

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

200.

(2.2.9.3-4) The hydraulic tubing installation shown as figure "D" is INCORRECT and will probably
leak when in operation because the tubing __________. Illustration GS-0065

o
o

(a) will contract in diameter and expand in length under pressure


(b) will stretch and overstress the male threads on the fitting
(c) and its fittings cannot be properly installed and tightened
(d) cannot flex at right angles to the pressure applied by the fluid because it is not properly
twisted

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

201.

(2.2.9.3-5) A flare-type tubing connector is used in the hydraulic hatch cover system and has
developed a slight leak. To stop the leak you should __________.

o
o
o

(a) shut down the power unit and use two wrenches to avoid damaging the tubing when
tightening
(b) replace both the tubing sections and the fitting
(c) keep the system in operation and tighten the flare nut
(d) stop the system and use only one wrench to tighten the flare nut

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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202.

(2.2.9.3-1) Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high-pressure use is
represented by figure __________. Illustration GS-0100

o
o

(a) A or C
(b) A or B
(c) B or C
(d) C or D

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

203.

(2.2.9.3-3) The determining factor for the strength of a flexible rubber hydraulic hose is the
__________.

o
o

(a) Teflon sleeve


(b) braided layer
(c) synthetic rubber inner tube
(d) external cover

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

204.

(2.2.9.3-2) For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a hydraulic system, the
inside diameter can be determined if it is remembered that the inside diameter equals the outside
diameter less __________.

o
o

(a) the wall thickness


(b) 1.5 times the wall thickness
(c) 2 times the wall thickness
(d) 2.5 times the wall thickness

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

205.

(2.2.9.12-4) When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure
system, the oil __________.

o
o
o

(a) viscosity will increase


(b) viscosity will decrease
(c) volume will increase
(d) floc point will increase

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

206.
o
o

(2.2.9.12-2) To charge a bladder type hydraulic accumulator __________.


(a) remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the system's
design pressure
(b) increase the pneumatic pressure until the hydraulic system reaches its design pressure
(c) remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the accumulator
preload pressure
(d) allow the accumulator to completely fill with gas charge at atmospheric pressure, shut off the
air chamber, and add hydraulic fluid until proper pressure is reached

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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207.

(2.2.9.12-7) When renewing sections of pipe in a hydraulic system, the nominal pipe size of the
piping always indicates the __________.

o
o
o

(a) actual inside diameter


(b) actual outside diameter
(c) wall thickness
(d) size for threaded connections

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

208.
o
o
o

(2.2.9.12-5) Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when __________.


(a) the system has been idle for a long period of time
(b) adding small amounts of oil to the system
(c) the system has been overheated
(d) the system has been drained and then filled with new oil

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

209.

(2.2.9.12-6) New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely degreased
by using __________.

o
o
o

(a) alcohol
(b) carbon tetrachloride
(c) a water-based detergent
(d) a special petroleum solvent

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

210.

(2.2.9.2-3) Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________. Illustration
GS-0103

o
o
o

(a) act as a power source to operate the pump indicated as "E"


(b) shut down the operation of pump "E" when the watertight door has closed
(c) act as a power source to operate the pumps indicated as "F"
(d) shut down the remotely operated electric motor driven pump when the watertight door has
closed

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

211.

(2.2.9.2-1) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a/an __________.
Illustration GS-0097

o
o

(a) combined pump unit


(b) series-flow pump unit
(c) double pump unit
(d) two-stage pump unit

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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212.

(2.2.9.2-4) Item "E" shown in the illustration is used in the hydraulic circuit as __________.
Illustration GS-0103

o
o

(a) one of two motor driven remotely operated pumps to open and close the watertight door
(b) the manually operated pump located in a common passage way to close the watertight door in
an emergency
(c) the manually operated pump used to open or close the watertight door from the engine room
side
(d) motor driven pump used to close the watertight door from the navigation bridge in an
emergency

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

213.

(2.2.9.2-2) An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45, as shown


in the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________. Illustration GS-0068

o
o
o

(a) is pilot controlled


(b) allows flow in one direction only
(c) is pressure compensated
(d) can be adjusted or varied

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

214.
o
o
o

(2.2.11.1-1) The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its __________.
(a) elasticity
(b) ductility
(c) fusibility
(d) malleability

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

215.

(2.2.11.1-2) Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening


temperature and then cooling it is known as __________.

o
o
o

(a) case hardening


(b) low temperature hardening
(c) annealing
(d) tempering

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

216.

(2.2.11.1-3) When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what


metallurgical properties are achieved?

o
o
o

(a) decrease in brittleness


(b) increase in hardening
(c) increase in brittleness
(d) increase in corrosion resistance

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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217.

o
o
o

(2.2.11.1-4) When metal is tempered, it becomes __________.


(a) less brittle
(b) more brittle
(c) less tough
(d) harder

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

218.
o
o
o

(2.2.11.1-5) What is the purpose of heat treating steel?


(a) Develop ductility
(b) Improve machining qualities
(c) Relieve stresses
(d) All of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

219.

o
o
o

(2.2.11.1-6) Monel metal is an alloy composed mainly of __________.


(a) nickel and copper
(b) zinc and copper
(c) bronze and tin
(d) copper and tin

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

220.

(2.2.11.1-7) When a metal is undergoing heat treatment, what happens when the metal is heated
above its critical temperature?

o
o

(a) The metal changes from the solid state to the molten state.
(b) The metal changes from a molten state to a vapor state.
(c) The metal undergoes a change in crystalline structure.
(d) The metal undergoes thermal contraction.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

221.

(2.2.11.1-8) When a metal is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of annealing, besides
refining the grain structure, what is the determining characteristic of the metal?

o
o

(a) Change in chemical composition


(b) Softened condition
(c) High tensile strength
(d) Induction of toughness

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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222.

(2.2.11.1-9) When a low carbon steel is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of
casehardening, what is the process that distinguishes this procedure from other hardening methods?

o
o
o

(a) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is quenched in a carbon bath.
(b) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is quenched in cold water.
(c) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is allowed to cool slowly in air.
(d) After the steel is heated above its melting temperature, it is quenched in a carbon bath.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

223.

(2.2.11.1-10) What effect does preheating, concurrent heating, or post heating have on welding a
joint?

o
o
o

(a) Decreasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and relieving internal stresses.
(b) Increasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and relieving internal stresses.
(c) Decreasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and intensifying internal stresses.
(d) Increasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and intensifying internal stresses.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

224.
o
o
o

(2.2.11.1-11) What is meant by the term tensile strength of a material?


(a) The ability to resist shearing stresses.
(b) The ability to resist bending stresses.
(c) The ability to resist compression stresses.
(d) The ability to resist stretching stresses.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

225.
o

o
o

(2.2.11.1-12) What is meant by the term toughness as it applies to a material?


(a) The ability to resist penetration.
(b) The ability to resist repeated application and release of force.
(c) The ability to resist continuous tension.
(d) The ability to resist continuous compression.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

226.

(2.2.12.3-10) Referring to the illustration, what would be the result if the lower oil/water interface
detection probe became faulty? Illustration GS-0175

o
o

(a) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the oil discharge mode to initiating the
separation processing mode.
(b) The unit would not be able to transition from the overboard discharge mode to the
recirculation mode while in the separation processing mode.
(c) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the separation processing mode to
initiating the oil discharge mode.
(d) The unit would not be able to come out of the oily-water separator idle mode and begin
processing bilge water.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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227.

(2.2.12.3-2) If item "1" shown in the illustration is a compound gage indicating zero psig and the
water level in the bilges is one foot high, the unit is __________. Illustration GS-0153

o
o
o

(a) in the oil discharge mode


(b) processing the bilge water
(c) damaged and should not be used
(d) not turned on

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

228.

(2.2.12.3-9) Referring to the illustration, what would be the result if the upper oil/water interface
detection probe became faulty? Illustration GS-0175

o
o
o

(a) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the oil discharge mode to initiating the
separation processing mode.
(b) The unit would not be able to come out of the oily-water separator idle mode and begin
processing bilge water.
(c) The unit would not be able to transition from the overboard discharge mode to the recirculation
mode while in the separation processing mode.
(d) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the separation processing mode to
initiating the oil discharge mode.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

229.

(2.2.12.1-4) What type of fuel oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to have a density
approaching that of water?

o
o
o

(a) Heavy residual fuel oil.


(b) Marine diesel oil.
(c) Distillate/residual fuel oil blends.
(d) Light distillate oil.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

230.

(2.2.12.1-7) What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oilywater mixture associated with an oily-water separator?

o
o
o

(a) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
(b) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
(c) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
(d) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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231.

(2.2.12.1-9) A typical oily-water separator has three stages of separation. Which statement
represents the correct sequential order of the stages?

o
o
o

(a) First stage: polishing filter coalescer. Second stage: inclined plate coalescer. Third stage:
gravimetric.
(b) First stage: gravimetric. Second stage: polishing filter coalescer. Third stage: inclined plate
coalescer.
(c) First stage: inclined plate coalescer. Second stage: polishing filter coalescer. Third stage:
gravimetric.
(d) First stage: gravimetric. Second stage: inclined plate coalescer. Third stage: polishing filter
coalescer.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

232.
o
o
o

(2.2.12.1-1) What is an engine room bilge oily-water separator designed to do?


(a) Remove small amounts of water from large amounts of oil.
(b) Remove small amounts of water from small amounts of oil.
(c) Remove small amounts of oil from small amounts of water.
(d) Remove small amounts of oil from large amounts of water.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

233.

(2.2.12.1-6) In order to facilitate separation of oil from an oily-water mixture in an oily-water


separator, what statement is true concerning the flow pattern of the oily-water?

o
o

(a) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be low in flow rate and high in turbulence.
(b) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be high in flow rate and high in turbulence.
(c) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be low in flow rate and low in turbulence.
(d) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be high in flow rate and low in turbulence.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

234.

(2.2.12.1-5) What type of oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to require heating to
facilitate separation in an oily-water separator?

o
o
o

(a) Heavy residual fuel oil.


(b) Diesel engine lubricating oil.
(c) Marine diesel oil.
(d) Steam turbine lubricating oil.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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235.

(2.2.12.1-2) What statement is true with regard to the basic operating principle of gravity
associated with an oily-water separator?

o
o
o

(a) The density of oil is less than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to rise.
(b) The density of oil is greater than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to sink.
(c) The density of oil is greater than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to rise.
(d) The density of oil is less than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to sink.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

236.

(2.2.12.1-8) If an oily-water separator uses an inclined plate pack to facilitate separation, what
statement concerning the plate pack is true?

(a) The oil droplets collect on the underside of the plates and rise when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the upper side of the plates and sink when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
(b) The oil droplets collect on the upper side of the plates and sink when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the underside of the plates and rise when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
(c) The oil droplets collect on the upper side of the plates and rise when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the underside of the plates and sink when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
(d) The oil droplets collect on the underside of the plates and sink when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the upper side of the plates and rise when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

237.

(2.2.12.2-9) Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check
valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is
closed. Valve "B" is open. Valve "D" is closed. What is the operational status of the oily-water
separator unit? Illustration GS-0175

o
o
o

(a) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
(b) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
(c) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging overboard with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
(d) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging overboard with an oil content less than 15 ppm.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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238.

(2.2.12.2-8) The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the ______.
Illustration GS-0175

o
o
o

(a) waste oil outlet line


(b) processed water outlet line
(c) clean water inlet line
(d) oily bilge water inlet line

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

239.

(2.2.12.2-4) What is the normal direction of flow through the device shown in the illustration while
operating in the processing mode? Illustration GS-0153

o
o

(a) The oily-water mixture enters through the pressure control valve "2" and exits with the
processed liquid through valve "14".
(b) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "4" and exits as processed liquid through valve
"14".
(c) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "5" and exits the separator through valve "14" as
processed liquid.
(d) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "14" and exits with the processed liquid through
valve "4".

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

240.

(2.2.12.1-5) The component labeled "A" as shown in the illustration would be identified as the
__________. Illustration GS-0175

o
o

(a) oil content monitor probe


(b) separator vessel pressure relief valve
(c) oil/water interface level sensing probe
(d) separator vessel vacuum breaker

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

241.

(2.2.12.2-7) The line labeled "E", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the
__________. Illustration GS-0175

o
o
o

(a) processed water outlet line


(b) clean water inlet line
(c) waste oil outlet line
(d) oily bilge water inlet line

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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242.

(2.2.12.2-10) Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check
valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is
closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve "D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water
separator unit? Illustration GS-0175

o
o
o

(a) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
(b) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
(c) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging overboard with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
(d) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging overboard with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

243.

(2.2.12.2-1) The components indicated as "7" and "8" as shown in the illustration, are known as
the __________. Illustration GS-0153

o
o

(a) first stage oil separator and drip pan


(b) inlet weir and inlet baffle
(c) second stage oil separator and drip pan
(d) outlet weir and outlet baffle

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

244.

(2.2.12.2-3) The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________. Illustration GS0153

o
o
o

(a) direct the flow of the oily-water mixture against the coalescer bed
(b) support the tank access panel
(c) allow the oil accumulated to exit the device, while remaining separated from the liquid
(d) prevent separated oil from mixing with the incoming bilge water

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

245.

(2.2.12.2-6) The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the ______.
Illustration GS-0175

o
o

(a) processed water outlet line


(b) clean water inlet line
(c) oily bilge water inlet line
(d) waste oil discharge line

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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246.

(2.2.12.2-2) When the oily-water separator, shown in the illustration, is in operation and
processing clear bilge water, what should be the internal water level? Illustration GS-0153

o
o

(a) The water level in the tank should be slightly above the upper coalescer bed "9".
(b) The water level should be located in the lower section of the tank as controlled by flow control
valve "14".
(c) The water level should be located in the upper section of the tank.
(d) No water level is maintained in the tank.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

247.

(2.2.13.2-7) How would the pressure setting of the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, pistonoperated steam pressure-reducer be raised to a higher set point? Illustration GS-0044

o
o

(a) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load reduced by rotating the
adjusting screw counter-clockwise further out of the adjusting spring chamber.
(b) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load increased by rotating the
adjusting screw clockwise further into the adjusting spring chamber.
(c) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load reduced by rotating the
adjusting screw clockwise further into the adjusting spring chamber.
(d) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load increased by rotating the
adjusting screw counter-clockwise further out of the adjusting spring chamber.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

248.

(2.2.13.2-11) How would the illustrated valve respond to a complete loss of charge from the
remote bulb-to-control diaphragm power element if the valve is used as a temperature control valve
for a steam-heated heavy fuel oil service heater? Illustration GS-0045

o
o

(a) The valve would fail in the fully closed position, resulting in a low fuel oil temperature alarm.
(b) The valve would fail in the fully open position, resulting in a high fuel oil temperature alarm.
(c) It is not possible to predict how the valve will respond to a complete loss of charge from the
power element.
(d) The valve would fail in the exact position it was in before the power element lost its complete
charge, resulting in a fluctuation in fuel oil temperature as demand changes.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

249.

(2.2.13.2-1) In the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated steam pressurereducing valve, what statement is true concerning the pilot and main valves? Illustration GS-0044

o
o
o

(a) The pilot valve is upward seating and the main valve is downward seating.
(b) The pilot valve is downward seating and the main valve is upward seating.
(c) The pilot valve is downward seating and the main valve is downward seating.
(d) The pilot valve is upward seating and the main valve is upward seating.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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250.

(2.2.13.2-9) Suppose the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated temperature


control valve is part of the temperature control system for a steam-heated heavy fuel oil service
heater for a steam boiler. If there was a decrease in demand for fuel by the boiler, what statement
correctly represents how the valve would initially respond? Illustration GS-0045

(a) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure
to decrease and the control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the
pilot valve.
(b) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure
to increase and the control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the
pilot valve.
(c) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure
to decrease and the control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close
the pilot valve.
(d) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure
to increase and the control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close
the pilot valve.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

251.

(2.2.13.2-10) Suppose the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated temperature


control valve is part of the temperature control system for a steam-heated heavy fuel oil service
heater for a steam boiler. If there was an increase in demand for fuel by the boiler, what statement
correctly represents how the valve would initially respond? Illustration GS-0045

(a) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure
to increase and the control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close
the pilot valve.
(b) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure
to decrease and the control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the
pilot valve.
(c) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure
to decrease and the control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close
the pilot valve.
(d) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure
to increase and the control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the
pilot valve.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

252.
o
o

(2.2.13.3-8) As it pertains to safety valves, what is the definition of blow down?


(a) Blow down is the feature of a valve that allows drainage of condensate away from the disc to
prevent sticking.
(b) Blow down is the difference between the maximum allowable working pressure and the valve
popping pressure.
(c) Blow down is the difference between the valve popping pressure and the valve reseating
pressure.
(d) Blow down is the difference between the maximum allowable working pressure and the valve
reseating pressure.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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253.

(2.2.13.3-10) Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement


concerning the blow down adjusting ring (B) is true? Illustration SG-0018

o
o

(a) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after
the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
(b) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure
after the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will increase.
(c) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure
after the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
(d) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after
the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will increase.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

254.

o
o
o

(2.2.13.3-3) Concerning safety valves, what statement is true?


(a) Safety valves are designed to open wide when lifted by excessive pressure and only reseat
when the pressure has dropped significantly.
(b) Safety valves are always set to relieve at a pressure exceeding the maximum allowable
working pressure of the system.
(c) Safety valves are designed to throttle and adjust the flow rate to just keep up with the capacity
of the pressure source.
(d) Safety valves are designed to open wide when lifted by excessive pressure and immediately
reseat when the pressure has dropped by a very small amount.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

255.

(2.2.13.3-7) Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement is true
concerning the adjustment of the popping pressure? Illustration SG-0018

o
o

(a) Popping pressure is adjusted by rotating the release nut (A).


(b) Popping pressure is adjusted by rotating the adjusting ring (B).
(c) Popping pressure is adjusted by rotating the compression screw after first loosening the
compression screw locking nut (C).
(d) Popping pressure is adjusted by rotating the seat bushing (G).

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

256.

(2.2.13.3-9) Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement


concerning the blow down adjusting ring (B) is true? Illustration SG-0018

o
o
o

(a) Raising the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure after
the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
(b) Raising the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after
the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
(c) Raising the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure after
the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will increase.
(d) Raising the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after
the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will increase.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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257.

(2.2.13.3-6) Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement is true
concerning the adjustment of blow down? Illustration SG-0018

o
o

(a) Blow down is adjusted by rotating the release nut (A).


(b) Blow down is adjusted by rotating the adjusting ring (B).
(c) Blow down is adjusted by rotating the compression screw after first loosening the compression
screw locking nut (C).
(d) Blow down is adjusted by rotating the seat bushing (G).

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

258.

(2.2.13.3-5) Which of the following listed valves would require "blow down" to insure proper
operation and prevent damage due to repeated and rapid opening and closing?

o
o

(a) Pressure-reducing valve


(b) Pressure-relief valve
(c) Safety valve
(d) Pressure-regulating relief valve

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

259.

(2.2.13.3-4) In the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement is true concerning
the opening and closing forces acting upon the disc? Illustration SG-0018

o
o

(a) The spring force acting upward on the disc is a valve opening force, and the sensed
pressure acting downward on the disc is a valve closing force.
(b) The spring force acting upward on the disc is a valve closing force, and the sensed
pressure acting downward on the disc is a valve opening force.
(c) The spring force acting downward on the disc is a valve opening force, and the sensed
pressure acting upward on the disc is a valve closing force.
(d) The spring force acting downward on the disc is a valve closing force, and the sensed
pressure acting upward on the disc is a valve opening force.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

260.

(2.2.13.4-2) Referring to the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve,
what statement is true? Illustration GS-0051

o
o
o

(a) The control valve has a single disc which is upward seating.
(b) The control valve has a single disc which is downward seating.
(c) The control valve has two discs which are both upward seating.
(d) The control valve has two discs which are both downward seating.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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261.

(2.2.13.4-10) Suppose the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve is
used to control the fuel oil outlet temperature of a steam-heated heavy fuel oil heater by controlling
the steam flow. What would be the result if the stem packing was over-tightened and the stem was
unable to vertically move in either direction? Illustration GS-0051

o
o

(a) The valve would fail in the fully closed position, most likely resulting in a low fuel oil
temperature alarm condition.
(b) The valve will lose control of the fuel oil temperature with the result that the fuel temperature
will fluctuate with changes in fuel demand.
(c) The valve would fail in the fully open position, most likely resulting in a high fuel oil
temperature alarm condition.
(d) It is not possible to predict how the valve would respond to over-tightened valve stem packing.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

262.

(2.2.13.4-7) Suppose the pilot controller for the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm
actuated control valve is supplied with 20 psig control air and is designed to operate the valve with a
pilot pressure ranging from 3 to 15 psig. What would be the indication of a properly adjusted spring
(6) by means of the adjusting nut (12)? Illustration GS-0051

o
o
o

(a) The valve should indicate fully open at 3 psig and should indicate fully closed at 15 psig.
(b) The valve should indicate fully closed at 3 psig and should indicate fully open at 15 psig
(c) The valve should indicate fully open at 0 psig and should indicate fully closed at 20 psig.
(d) The valve should indicate fully closed at 0 psig and should indicate fully open at 20 psig.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

263.

(2.2.13.4-3) Assuming that the flow is from left to right on the illustrated pneumatically operated
diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement is true? Illustration GS-0051

o
o

(a) Inlet pressure acts on the upper surface of the top disc and the lower surface of the bottom
disc for the purpose of achieving hydraulic balance so that inlet pressure does not influence the
valve position.
(b) Inlet pressure acts on the lower surface of the top disc and the upper surface of the bottom
disc for the purpose of achieving hydraulic balance so that inlet pressure does not influence the
valve position.
(c) Inlet pressure acts on the upper surface of the top disc and the upper surface of the bottom
disc for the purpose of achieving a hydraulic assist to aid in valve closing.
(d) Inlet pressure acts on the lower surface of the top disc and the lower surface of the bottom
disc for the purpose of achieving a hydraulic assist to aid in valve opening.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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264.

(2.2.13.4-4) In the illustrated pneumatically operated, diaphragm actuated control valve, what
statement is true concerning the opening and closing forces acting upon the control diaphragm?
Illustration GS-0051

o
o

(a) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve opening force, and the pilot
pressure acting on the bottom of the control diaphragm is a valve closing force.
(b) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve closing force, and the pilot
pressure acting on the top of the control diaphragm is a valve opening force.
(c) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve opening force, and the pilot
pressure acting on the top of the control diaphragm is a valve closing force.
(d) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve closing force, and the pilot
pressure acting on the bottom of the control diaphragm is a valve opening force.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

265.

(2.2.13.4-1) Referring to the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve,
what statement is true? Illustration GS-0051

o
o
o

(a) The control valve is direct-acting and normally open (NO).


(b) The control valve is indirect-acting and normally open (NO).
(c) The control valve is direct-acting and normally closed (NC).
(d) The control valve is indirect-acting and normally closed (NC).

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

266.

(2.2.13.4-8) Suppose the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve is
used to control the fuel oil outlet temperature of a steam-heated heavy fuel oil heater by controlling
the steam flow. What would be the result if there was a complete loss of pilot air being delivered to
the valve actuator? Illustration GS-0051

o
o

(a) The valve would fail in the fully closed position, most likely resulting in a low fuel oil
temperature alarm condition.
(b) The valve would fail in the exact position just before the loss of pilot air. The fuel temperature
will fluctuate with changes in fuel demand.
(c) The valve would fail in the fully open position, most likely resulting in a high fuel oil
temperature alarm condition.
(d) It is not possible to predict how the valve would respond to a loss of pilot air.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

267.

(2.2.13.4-6) Suppose the pilot pressure is from 3 to 15 psig for the illustrated pneumatically
operated, diaphragm actuated control valve. Assuming the control valve is trimmed for a linear
response and the travel position indicator is calibrated in percentage, what would be the
approximate pilot pressure if the position indicator showed the valve to be 75% open? Illustration
GS-0051

o
o

(a) 4.5 psig


(b) 6.0 psig
(c) 7.5 psig
(d) 9.0 psig

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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268.

o
o
o

(2.2.13.1-2) What statement representing the primary purpose of a steam trap is true?
(a) By draining the low point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
(b) By draining the high point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
(c) By draining the high point of a vertical run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
(d) By draining the low point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
insure good heat transfer efficiency.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

269.

(2.2.13.1-9) What type of steam trap is most susceptible to damage if allowed to come into
contact with superheated steam?

o
o
o

(a) Mechanical traps relying on the principle of buoyancy.


(b) Thermodynamic traps relying on the principle of condensate undergoing a pressure drop and
flashing.
(c) Thermostatic traps relying on the principle of differing expansion rates for dissimilar metals.
(d) Thermostatic traps relying on the principle of expansion/contraction of a volatile fluid.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

270.

(2.2.13.1-6) Referring to the illustrated impulse steam trap, what would be the effect of threading
the control cylinder "E" upward out of the trap body? Illustration GS-0002

(a) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the
valve disk will increase.
(b) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the
valve disk will decrease.
(c) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve
disk will decrease.
(d) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve
disk will increase.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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271.

(2.2.13.1-5) Referring to the illustrated impulse steam trap, what would be the effect of threading
the control cylinder "E" downward further into the trap body? Illustration GS-0002

(a) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the
valve disk will decrease.
(b) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the
valve disk will increase.
(c) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve
disk will increase.
(d) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve
disk will decrease.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

272.

(2.2.13.1-4) In order for a steam trap to be effective in accomplishing its intended purpose, what
statement is true regarding its installation?

o
o
o

(a) The steam trap should never be painted, but should be covered with insulation.
(b) The steam trap should be painted to reduce corrosion and should be covered with insulation.
(c) The steam trap should be painted to reduce corrosion but should never be covered with
insulation.
(d) The steam trap should never be painted and should never be covered with insulation.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

273.

(2.2.14.3-1) In the illustration shown, an efficient seal is maintained between the suction cover
and the volute by __________. Illustration GS-0012

o
o

(a) good metal-to-metal contact


(b) sealant between the two parts
(c) an asbestos gasket
(d) compressing the packing rings

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

274.

(2.2.14.3-5) In the pump shown in the illustration, what is the distance from the bottom of the inlet
to the bottom end of the motor shaft? Illustration GS-0011

o
o
o

(a) 45 1/4 inches


(b) 45 5/16 inches
(c) 53 5/8 inches
(d) 57 5/8 inches

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

275.

(2.2.14.3-3) What is the length of the stud used to secure the packing gland shown in the
illustration? Illustration GS-0012

o
o
o

(a) 1 inch
(b) 1 1/4 inches
(c) 1 1/2 inches
(d) 2 1/2 inches

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

276.

(2.2.14.3-6) The working depth of the gear illustrated is represented by __________. Illustration
GS-0111

o
o
o

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) I

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

277.

(2.2.14.3-4) What is the distance between the center of the discharge outlet and the top of the
motor illustrated? Illustration GS-0011

o
o
o

(a) 34 5/8 inches


(b) 35 inches
(c) 35 5/8 inches
(d) 36 inches

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

278.

(2.2.14.3-7) The term, whole depth of the gear, shown in the illustration, is equal to __________.
Illustration GS-0111

o
o
o

(a) A + D
(b) B + D
(c) C + A
(d) C + D

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

279.

(2.2.14.4-9) The illustration is drawn to a scale of 3/8 inch = 1 inch. What is the full size
dimension of "X", if the scale lengths for "E" = 5/8", "F" = 1 3/8", "G" = 2 1/8", and "H" = 5 3/4"?
Illustration GS-0007

o
o

(a) 1.625 inches


(b) 4.333 inches
(c) 6.094 inches
(d) 15.333 inches

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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280.

(2.2.14.4-2) The physical feature indicated for each of the smallest diameter ends of the device
illustrated is that they are __________. Illustration GS-0008

o
o
o

(a) threaded
(b) smooth surfaced with opposing machined flats
(c) smoothed surfaced only
(d) threaded with opposing machined flats

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

281.

(2.2.14.4-3) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the device shown in the
illustration? Illustration GS-0008

o
o
o

(a) The areas dimensioned 0.64 in length are flats on the shaft.
(b) The areas dimensioned 0.64 in length are steps in the shaft diameter.
(c) If the piece is symmetrical about the 3/16 hole, the threaded ends have longitudinal tolerance
dimensions of 0.789 inch to 0.825 inch.
(d) All the 0.03 under cuts must be taken into account when adjusting lengths to meet the
specified tolerances.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

282.

(2.2.14.4-4) Figure "B", shown in the illustration, is dimensioned to indicate a/an __________.
Illustration GS-0019

o
o
o

(a) interference fit


(b) clearance of 0.005 inch
(c) running fit
(d) tolerance of 0.005 inch

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

283.

(2.2.14.4-8) In the illustration shown, what is the distance indicated by dimension "I"? Illustration
GS-0001

o
o

(a) 1 1/2 inches


(b) 1 3/4 inches
(c) 1 7/8 inches
(d) 2 inches

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

284.

(2.2.14.4-5) The illustration shown represents a blueprint of a metal __________. Illustration GS0028

o
o
o

(a) rod with a conventional break


(b) tube with a broken out section
(c) pipe with a missing center section
(d) bar with a sawn out section

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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285.

(2.2.14.4-1) The dimension of the sensing gap in the left hand limit sensor assembly shown in the
illustration is __________. Illustration GS-0010

o
o
o

(a) 1/8 inch


(b) 1/4 inch
(c) 3/8 inch
(d) 1/2 inch

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

286.

(2.2.14.4-10) The shaft shown in the illustration has an overall length of 42 inches in addition to
the following dimensions of "A" = 8", "B" = 8", "C" = 10", and "D"=8 3/16". The tapered length "X" is
__________. Illustration GS-0133

o
o

(a) 6.375 inches


(b) 7.812 inches
(c) 8.185 inches
(d) 8.312 inches

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

287.

(2.2.14.4-7) The letters 'NPT' used in the notation 1/8-27 NPT as shown in the illustration,
indicates the __________. Illustration GS-0010

o
o
o

(a) thread series


(b) thread profile
(c) class of finish
(d) class of fit

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

288.

o
o
o

(2.2.14.2-2) In the illustration, line "C" is a __________. Illustration GS-0006


(a) dimension line
(b) leader line
(c) cutting plane line
(d) phantom line

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

289.

(2.2.14.2-7) In the figure shown in the illustration, the standard blueprint symbols above the
letters "A", "B", and "C" indicate __________. Illustration GS-0036

o
o
o

(a) the use of internal threads


(b) hole tolerance
(c) finished diameter
(d) interference fit

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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290.

(2.2.14.2-3) How many hidden lines are shown in the right side (end) view of the drawing
illustrated? Illustration GS-0021

o
o
o

(a) None
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Six

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

291.

o
o
o

(2.2.14.2-6) In the illustration, line "D" is a/an __________. Illustration GS-0006


(a) hidden line
(b) sectioning line
(c) outline
(d) phantom line

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

292.

(2.2.14.2-9) A 'centerline' depicted in a drawing or blueprint is represented by which of the figures


shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0031

o
o

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

293.

(2.2.14.2-1) In the illustration shown, what is the proper description of the hole represented by
"C"? Illustration GS-0015

o
o
o

(a) Counter bored


(b) Countersunk
(c) Counter drilled
(d) Spot faced

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

294.
o

o
o

(2.2.14.2-10) In the illustration, line "J" is used to depict a/an _________. Illustration GS-0006
(a) hidden line
(b) cutting plane line
(c) outline
(d) centerline

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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295.

(2.2.14.2-4) Which of the conditions listed does the blueprint symbol shown in the illustration
represent? Illustration GS-0028

o
o
o

(a) All surfaces are to be machine finished.


(b) A groove must be machined at the points designated.
(c) The thread form to be machined on the bolt.
(d) The surface should be finished with a welded overlay.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

296.

o
o
o

(2.2.14.2-5) In the illustration, line "C" is a __________. Illustration GS-0006


(a) dimension line
(b) leader line
(c) cutting plane line
(d) phantom line

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

297.

(2.2.14.2-8) A 'centerline' depicted in a drawing or blueprint is represented by which of the figures


shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0031

o
o

(a) A
(b) E
(c) C
(d) D

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

298.

(2.2.14.5-1) Using the information in the illustration shown, the tail of the welding symbol will
__________. Illustration GS-0030

o
o

(a) designate the type of weldment


(b) designate the welding specifications
(c) specify the size of weldment
(d) specify the direction of welding

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

299.

(2.2.14.1-1) As shown in the illustration, if figure "21" indicates the "TOP VIEW" of an
orthographic projection, and figure "11" indicates the "FRONT VIEW", which figure would best
represent the correct "RIGHT SIDE VIEW"? Illustration GS-0165

o
o

(a) Figure "2"


(b) Figure "8"
(c) Figure "10"
(d) Figure "15"

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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300.

(2.2.14.1-5) The exploded drawing shown in the illustration is intended to show the __________.
Illustration GS-0025

o
o

(a) total number of parts in the assembled component


(b) parts aligned for the correct order of reassembly
(c) disassembled component in a one point perspective view
(d) parts without using hidden lines

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

301.

(2.2.14.1-7) Of the views labeled "1", "2", "3", and "4", select the one that correctly represents the
right side view of the unnumbered object in the illustration. Illustration GS-0003

o
o
o

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

302.

(2.2.14.1-2) Which of the figures shown in the illustration depicts an orthographic projection?
Illustration GS-0142

o
o
o

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

303.

(2.2.20.1-1) In order for heat transfer to take place between two substances, what essential
condition must exist?

o
o
o

(a) The two substances must be of different state of matter.


(b) The two substances must be of different specific gravity.
(c) The two substances must be of different pressure.
(d) The two substances must be of different temperature.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

304.

(2.2.20.1-2) What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy from
one location to another by fluid in motion?

o
o

(a) Sublimation
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation
(d) Conduction

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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305.

(2.2.20.1-3) What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy within
a body or between two bodies in direct contact?

o
o

(a) Radiation
(b) Conduction
(c) Sublimation
(d) Convection

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

306.

(2.2.20.1-4) What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy
through a transparent medium by means of electromagnetic energy in the infrared spectrum?

o
o

(a) Conduction
(b) Sublimation
(c) Radiation
(d) Convection

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

307.

(2.2.20.1-7) Overall heat transfer processes often involve two or more modes of heat transfer.
Specifically, when heat is being transferred from one side of an air compressor cylinder wall to the
opposite side, what mode of heat transfer is associated with that particular part of the
overall process?

o
o
o

(a) Radiation
(b) Natural convection
(c) Forced convection
(d) Conduction

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

308.

(2.2.20.1-8) What statement is true concerning the heat transfer rates through a heat exchanger
boundary wall by conduction?

o
o
o

(a) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall, and
directly proportional to the area of the wall and the wall thickness.
(b) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall and
the area of the wall, and directly proportional to the wall thickness.
(c) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall, and
inversely proportional to the area of the wall and the wall thickness.
(d) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall and
the area of the wall, and inversely proportional to the wall thickness.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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309.

(2.2.20.1-9) What statement is true concerning heat transfer rates by the heat transfer mode of
natural convection?

o
o
o

(a) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is
directly proportional to the temperature gradient.
(b) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in
turn, is directly proportional to the temperature gradient.
(c) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is
inversely proportional to the temperature gradient.
(d) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in
turn, is inversely proportional to the temperature gradient.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

310.
o
o

(2.2.20.2-1) What statement represents the first law of thermodynamics?


(a) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first
body must be greater than the internal energy taken up by the second body.
(b) When heat is transferred from one body to another, there is no mathematical relationship
between the internal energy given up by the first body and the internal energy taken up by the
second body.
(c) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first
body must be less than the internal energy taken up by the second body.
(d) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first
body must be equal to the internal energy taken up by the second body.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

311.
o
o

(2.2.20.2-2) What statement represents the second law of thermodynamics?


(a) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is unidirectional
from the relatively cold body to the relatively hot body.
(b) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow between the two
bodies is unpredictable.
(c) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is unidirectional
from the relatively hot body to the relatively cold body.
(d) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is bidirectional
from the relatively hot body to the relatively cold body and from the relatively cold body to the
relatively hot body.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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312.

(2.2.20.2-3) If Boyles' law describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of ideal
gases, what statement is true?

o
o

(a) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional
to its pressure.
(b) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely
proportional to its pressure.
(c) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to
its temperature.
(d) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional
to its temperature.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

313.

(2.2.20.2-4) If Charles' law describes the relationship between the temperature and volume of
ideal gases, what statement is true?

o
o

(a) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional
to its temperature.
(b) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely
proportional to its pressure.
(c) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to
its temperature.
(d) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional
to its pressure.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

314.

(2.2.20.2-5) What term is defined as the quantity of heat necessary to raise the temperature of a
unit mass of a substance one degree?

o
o
o

(a) Specific volume


(b) Specific gravity
(c) Latent heat
(d) Specific heat

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

315.
o
o

(2.2.20.2-6) What statement represents the ideal gas law?


(a) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is inversely proportional to its pressure and inversely
proportional to its temperature.
(b) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is directly proportional to its pressure and directly
proportional to its temperature.
(c) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is inversely proportional to its pressure and directly
proportional to its temperature.
(d) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is directly proportional to its pressure and inversely
proportional to its temperature.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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316.

(2.2.20.2-7) What term is defined as the amount of heat required to convert a unit mass of a
substance from a liquid to a vapor at constant temperature and pressure?

o
o
o

(a) Latent heat of fusion


(b) Specific heat of vaporization
(c) Sensible heat of vaporization
(d) Latent heat of vaporization

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

317.

o
o
o

(2.2.20.2-8) What term is defined as the rate of doing work?


(a) Power
(b) Kinetic energy
(c) Mechanical work
(d) Potential energy

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

318.
o

(2.2.20.2-9) What statement is true concerning thermal energy in transition?


(a) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of a temperature difference. The
resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a
change of state of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of temperature of the
substance.
(b) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of a temperature difference. The
resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a
change of temperature of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of state of the
substance.
(c) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of differences in state. The
resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a
change of temperature of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of state of the
substance.
(d) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of differences in state. The
resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a
change of state of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of temperature of the
substance.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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319.
o

(2.2.20.2-10) What statement is true concerning the internal energy of a substance?


(a) The internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a substance is a function of the state
of matter of the substance, whereas the internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a
substance are in no way related to the temperature of a substance.
(b) The internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a substance is a function of
the temperature of the substance, whereas the internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of
a substance are in no way related to the state of matter of a substance.
(c) The internal potential molecular energy of a substance is a function of the state of matter of
the substance, whereas the internal kinetic molecular energy of a substance is a function of the
temperature of the substance.
(d) The internal potential molecular energy of a substance is a function of the temperature of the
substance, whereas the internal kinetic molecular energy of a substance is a function of the state
of matter of the substance.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

320.

(2.2.15.1-8) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for electric
propulsion where the drive motors are outside the ship's hull?

o
o

(a) Jet drive


(b) Azimuthing propulsor
(c) Azipod propulsor
(d) Cycloidal propeller

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

321.

(2.2.15.1-7) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Zdrive?

o
o
o

(a) Azimuthing propulsor


(b) Jet drive
(c) Cycloidal propeller
(d) Azipod propulsor

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

322.

(2.2.15.1-5) Which of the following propulsor types would be used with unidirectional propulsion
shafting rotation?

o
o

(a) Fixed-pitch propeller


(b) Controllable-pitch propeller
(c) Tandem propellers
(d) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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323.

(2.2.15.1-4) When an electricity generating plant features shaft-driven generators, what type of
propulsor is generally used for main propulsion?

o
o

(a) Tandem propellers


(b) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
(c) Controllable-pitch propeller
(d) Fixed-pitch propeller

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

324.

(2.2.15.1-2) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Voith
Schneider drive?

o
o
o

(a) Ducted propeller


(b) Tandem propellers
(c) Vane wheel
(d) Cycloidal propeller

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

325.

(2.2.15.1-3) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a screw
propeller of the conventional design?

o
o
o

(a) Fixed-pitch propeller


(b) Cycloidal propeller
(c) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
(d) Controllable-pitch propeller

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

326.

(2.2.15.1-10) Which of the following propulsor types does not require the use of a separate rudder
for steerage?

o
o
o

(a) Cycloidal propellers.


(b) Contra-rotating propellers.
(c) Tandem propellers.
(d) Conventional fixed-pitch propeller.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

327.

(2.2.15.1-6) What type of propeller consists of a flat disc set flush with the under surface of the
vessel's hull with a number of vertical, rudder like blades projecting from it?

o
o
o

(a) Contra-rotating propeller


(b) Tandem propeller
(c) Helicoidal propeller
(d) Cycloidal propeller

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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328.

(2.2.15.1-9) Concerning the operating mechanism of a controllable-pitch propeller, what


statement is true?

o
o
o

(a) If the hydraulic actuator is outboard, a mechanical pull-push rod is located within the propeller
shaft. If the hydraulic actuator is inboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the propeller shaft.
(b) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard or outboard, the blade rotating mechanism is actuated by a
mechanical pull-push rod located within the propeller shaft.
(c) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard or outboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the
propeller shaft in either case.
(d) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard, a mechanical pull-push rod is located within the propeller
shaft. If the hydraulic actuator is outboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the propeller
shaft.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

329.

(2.2.15.5-1) The gears used for virtually all marine propulsion reduction gear sets are of what
type?

o
o

(a) Single spur gears


(b) Single helical gears
(c) Double helical gears
(d) Double bevel gears

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

330.

(2.2.15.5-5) Which of the listed reduction gear sets has the input and output shafts in-line with
one another?

o
o
o

(a) Parallel axis gearing


(b) Bevel gearing
(c) Worm gearing
(d) Epicyclic gearing

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

331.
o
o

(2.2.15.5-9) What is a shipboard application for a worm gear drive?


(a) Main propulsion reduction gear.
(b) Turbo-generator reduction gear.
(c) Main engine turning gear.
(d) Auxiliary power take-off gear.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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332.

o
o
o

(2.2.15.5-4) For a parallel axis single reduction gear, what statement is true?
(a) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed. The
driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed.
(b) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed. The
driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed.
(c) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed. The
driven gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed.
(d) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed. The driven
gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

333.

(2.2.15.5-10) Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive
featuring a double reduction?

o
o
o

(a) Slow-speed diesel


(b) Medium-speed diesel
(c) High-speed diesel
(d) Gas turbine

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

334.

o
o
o

(2.2.15.5-3) What is an example of an epicyclic gear?


(a) Planetary gear
(b) Articulated gear
(c) Nested gear
(d) Locked train gear

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

335.

o
o

(2.2.15.5-8) Concerning main propulsion reduction gears, what statement is true?


(a) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high-speed and low
torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low-speed and high torque.
(b) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high-speed
and high torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low-speed and low
torque.
(c) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low-speed and low
torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high-speed and high torque.
(d) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low-speed and high
torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high-speed and low torque.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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336.

(2.2.15.5-11) An 8" diameter wheel is driving a 20" diameter wheel via a pair of belts. The power
input is supplied by a 5 HP motor rotating the driving wheel at 300 RPM. If the efficiency of the
transmission is 80%, what RPM and torque is delivered to the driven wheel?

o
o
o

(a) 120 RPM at 4 HP


(b) 160 RPM at 4 HP
(c) 220 RPM at 4.5 HP
(d) 220 RPM at 4.8 HP

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

337.

(2.2.15.5-2) Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive
featuring a single reduction?

o
o

(a) Slow-speed diesel


(b) Medium-speed diesel
(c) Steam turbine
(d) Gas turbine

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

338.

(2.2.15.5-7) Which of the following couplings or clutches allows, within limits, a certain degree of
slip?

o
o
o

(a) Inflatable tire type clutch


(b) Flexible coupling
(c) Multiple disk friction clutch
(d) Electromagnetic clutch

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

339.

(2.2.15.2-5) What statement is true concerning the ability of a line shaft bearing to adapt to shaft
misalignment as the ship's hull flexes?

o
o
o

(a) Some line shaft bearings may have only a bottom half bearing shell, which allows for
deflection upwards only. Other line shaft bearings may be spherically-seated self-aligning
bearings or conventional non-aligning type bearings.
(b) All line shaft bearings have only a top half bearing shell, which allows for deflection
downwards only. As such no provision is made for allowing for deflection in other directions.
(c) All line shaft bearings have only a bottom half bearing shell, which allows for deflection
upwards only. As such no provision is made for allowing for deflection in other directions.
(d) Some line shaft bearings may have only a top half bearing shell, which allows for deflection
downwards only. Other line shaft bearings may be spherically-seated self-aligning bearings or
conventional non-aligning type bearings.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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340.

(2.2.15.2-9) Concerning the arrangements of a disk-oiled line shaft bearing, what statement is
true?

o
o

(a) The disk is clamped to the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution
of the oil to the bearing is by the action of an oil wick.
(b) The disk fits loosely on the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution
of the oil to the bearing is by wick action.
(c) The disk is clamped to the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution of
the oil to the bearing is by the action of an oil scraper.
(d) The disk fits loosely on the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution
of the oil to the bearing is similar to the action of oiling rings.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

341.

(2.2.15.2-7) Which line shaft bearing is most likely to have both upper and lower half bearing
shells on merchant ships?

o
o
o

(a) The intermediate line shaft bearing.


(b) The forward most line shaft bearing.
(c) All line shaft bearings have only a lower bearing shell.
(d) The aftermost line shaft bearing.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

342.
o
o
o

(2.2.15.2-3) What statement is true concerning the lubrication of line shaft bearings?
(a) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by wick lubrication.
(b) Line shaft bearing are generally lubricated by force-feed lubrication.
(c) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by gravity feed lubrication.
(d) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by oiling rings or discs.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

343.

(2.2.15.2-1) If a main propulsion shafting arrangement is such that no strut or strut bearing is
required, what is an alternative name given to the propeller shaft, which is the section of shafting that
the propeller is attached to?

o
o

(a) Line shaft


(b) Tail shaft
(c) Thrust shaft
(d) Head shaft

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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344.

(2.2.15.2-6) What statement is true concerning the purpose of an independent main thrust
bearing where used?

o
o

(a) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb axial thrust and maintain the shaft in
proper axial alignment.
(b) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb radial thrust and to transmit the
radial thrust developed by the propeller to the ship's hull.
(c) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb axial thrust and to transmit the axial
thrust developed by the propeller to the ship's hull.
(d) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb radial thrust and maintain the shaft
in proper radial alignment.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

345.

o
o
o

(2.2.15.2-4) What statement is true concerning the arrangement of line shaft bearing housings?
(a) Line shaft bearing housings are typically split half pedestal type bearing housings.
(b) Line shaft bearing housings are typically split half flange type bearing housings.
(c) Line shaft bearing housings are typically single-piece flange type bearing housings.
(d) Line shaft bearing housings are typically single-piece pedestal type bearing housings.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

346.

(2.2.15.2-10) What type of bearing is most generally used as an independent main thrust block on
merchant ships?

o
o
o

(a) Pivoted-shoe thrust bearing.


(b) Split-half journal type bearing.
(c) Plain thrust bearing.
(d) Single piece bushing.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

347.

(2.2.15.4-8) What type of propulsor is typically used in electric motor driven, transverse, tunnel
bow thrusters to limit the starting current of the single speed drive motor?

o
o
o

(a) Fixed-pitch propeller


(b) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
(c) Cycloidal propeller
(d) Controllable-pitch propeller

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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348.

(2.2.15.4-4) What statement represents the fundamental difference between an azimuthing


thruster and a podded propulsor?

o
o
o

(a) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located inside the hull, and with a podded
propulsor the prime mover is located outside the hull.
(b) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located outside the hull, and with a podded
propulsor the prime mover is located inside the hull.
(c) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is not steerable, and with a podded propulsor the
propulsor is steerable.
(d) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is steerable, and with a podded propulsor the
propulsor is not steerable.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

349.

(2.2.15.4-9) What is the primary advantage of transverse bow and stern tunnel thrusters when
installed on ships?

o
o

(a) They provide increased overall propulsive reverse thrust.


(b) They provide increased maneuverability at low ship speeds.
(c) They provide increased overall propulsive forward thrust.
(d) They provide increased maneuverability at high ship speeds.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

350.
o
o

(2.2.15.4-1) Concerning transverse fixed tunnel thrusters, what statement is true?


(a) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented fore-to-aft, usually located at the stern of a
vessel, and used for docking, undocking, and low-speed maneuvering.
(b) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented athwart ships, usually located at the bow of a
vessel, and used to supplement main propulsion for higher sustained speeds.
(c) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented athwart ships, usually located at the bow of a
vessel, and used for docking, undocking, and low-speed maneuvering.
(d) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented fore-to-aft, usually located at the stern of a
vessel, and used to supplement main propulsion for higher sustained speeds.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

351.

(2.2.15.4-3) With respect to the vectoring ring of a steerable internal duct thruster, what statement
represents the operating principle of the vectoring ring?

o
o

(a) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the inlet guide vanes to the pump inlet.
(b) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the deflector vanes of the pump
discharge.
(c) The vectoring ring is used to control the speed and direction of rotation of the pump.
(d) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the vanes on the pump impeller.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

352.

(2.2.15.4-10) Which set of operating conditions would be most problematic in terms of the
deterioration of the insulation resistance of the drive motor of an electric motor driven transverse
tunnel bow thruster?

o
o

(a) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly cold.
(b) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
warm.
(c) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
cold.
(d) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
warm.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

353.
o
o
o

(2.2.15.4-5) With respect to a "pusher" type azimuthing thruster, what statement is true?
o

(a) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of the gear
unit, but the gear unit is in the wake of the azimuthing thruster's propeller.
o
(b) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the gear unit is directly abaft of and in the wake of the
azimuthing thruster's propeller.
o
(c) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the gear unit is directly abaft of the azimuthing thruster's
propeller, but the azimuthing thruster's propeller is in the wake of the gear unit.
o
(d) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of and in
the wake of the gear unit.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

354.
o
o
o

(2.2.15.4-2) Concerning steerable internal duct thrusters, what statement is true?


(a) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the direction of
rotation of the pump.
(b) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by reversing the pitch
angle of the pump impeller.
(c) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the orientation of
the pump inlet guide vanes.
(d) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the orientation of
the water discharge vectoring ring.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

355.
o
o
o

(2.2.15.3-2) What statement is true with respect to the back of a propeller blade?
(a) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the pressure side.
(b) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the pressure side.
(c) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the suction side.
(d) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the suction side.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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356.
o
o
o

(2.2.15.3-5) What statement is true with respect to the pressure side of a propeller blade?
(a) The pressure side of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream
during ahead motion and is also known as the back of the blade.
(b) The pressure side of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during
ahead motion and is also known as the back of the blade.
(c) The pressure side of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during
ahead motion and is also known as the face of the blade.
(d) The pressure side of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream
during ahead motion and is also known as the face of the blade.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

357.
o
o
o

(2.2.15.3-3) What is meant by the term "left-handed" propeller?


(a) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the starboard side and which can rotate in
either direction.
(b) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the port side and which can rotate in either
direction.
(c) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the counter-clockwise direction when
viewed from ahead.
(d) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the counter-clockwise direction when
viewed from astern.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

358.
o
o

(2.2.16.4.3-1) An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will __________.


(a) increase discharge pressure
(b) decrease pump cavitation
(c) decrease pump capacity
(d) decrease reaction ring clearance

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

359.
o
o

(2.2.16.3.4-3) The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to __________.


(a) separate air from the liquid being pumped
(b) convert the potential energy of the liquid to kinetic energy
(c) directly increase the velocity of the liquid being pumped
(d) directly increase the pressure of the liquid being pumped

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

360.
o
o
o

(2.2.16.3.4-2) The primary function of a centrifugal pump volute is to __________.


(a) develop a high velocity liquid
(b) limit hydraulic end thrust
(c) initiate flow
(d) convert velocity to pressure

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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361.
o
o

(2.2.16.3.4-4) Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?


(a) They are always mounted in a horizontal position.
(b) They are started with the discharge valve opened.
(c) The flow of liquid is developed by imparting energy due to the rotation of an impeller.
(d) They are particularly suited for pumping high viscosity fluids.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

362.

(2.2.16.4.1-6) One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the
__________.

o
o

(a) direction of rotation of the screws


(b) type of driving gears
(c) pitch of the screws
(d) stuffing box diameter

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

363.

(2.2.16.4.1-8) Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or
highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?

o
o

(a) Rubber bellows mechanical seal


(b) Double mechanical seal
(c) External mechanical seal
(d) Conventional stuffing box

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

364.

(2.2.16.4.1-3) Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the
lobe edges?

o
o
o

(a) Replaceable gib inserts


(b) Casing gear thrust bearings
(c) Spur gear adjusters
(d) Replaceable liner plates

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

365.

(2.2.16.4.1-9) One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing
is that __________.

o
o
o

(a) seal failure usually requires the immediate removal of the pump from service
(b) it is unsuitable for high-pressure applications
(c) it requires periodic disassembly and adjustment
(d) it is unsuitable for high temperature applications

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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366.

(2.2.16.4.1-10) Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the
rotating and stationary seal members shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0071

o
o
o

(a) spring
(b) notch and keyway
(c) seal retaining ring
(d) bellows

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

367.

(2.2.16.4.1-1) The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an
__________. Illustration GS-0075

o
o
o

(a) passage for sealing liquid to enter the pump


(b) bearing surface for the rotor shaft
(c) area for pump packing
(d) passage for gas to be discharged

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

368.
o
o

(2.2.16.4.1-4) What type of pump is shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0144


(a) Deep well centrifugal pump
(b) Simplex reciprocating pump
(c) Triple screw rotary pump
(d) Double screw rotary pump

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

369.

(2.2.16.4.1-7) Spring reinforced oil seals are generally installed with the tail or lip of the seal
facing __________. Illustration GS-0152

o
o
o

(a) away from the bearing housing recess


(b) toward the bearing preload washer
(c) away from the oil pressure being sealed
(d) toward the oil pressure being sealed

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

370.

(2.2.16.4.1-5) The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by
__________.

o
o
o

(a) moving the slide block and rotor


(b) changing the angle of the tilting plate
(c) moving the shaft trunnion block
(d) changing the speed of the pump

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

371.

(2.2.16.3.3-5) Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be
avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?

o
o
o

(a) Scoring may result.


(b) Valve seat will be damaged.
(c) Heat transfer is restricted.
(d) Bonnet corrosion may result.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

372.

(2.2.16.3.3-4) What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve
during routine maintenance inspection?

o
o
o

(a) Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower speed.
(b) Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak off for lubrication.
(c) Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve bore.
(d) Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

373.

(2.2.16.3.3-1) When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following
precautions should be observed?

o
o

(a) For good lubrication, apply a fine grade lapping compound between the shaft and packing.
(b) Replace all of the packing rings.
(c) Block off the sealing water connection.
(d) Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

374.

o
o
o

(2.2.16.3.3-8) When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to ______.


(a) ensure that correct spring pressure is applied to the seating faces
(b) polish the seating faces with emery cloth prior to assembly
(c) run the pump "dry" for initial break-in of the shaft seal
(d) make the final spring collar adjustments with the pump running

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

375.

(2.2.16.3.3-2) A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What


corrective action is required?

o
o

(a) Throttle in on the suction valve.


(b) Replace the lantern rings.
(c) Replace the wearing rings.
(d) Throttle in on the discharge valve.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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376.

o
o
o

(2.2.16.3.3-7) A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be __________.


(a) replaced with a satisfactory spare
(b) straightened by applying heat and torsion
(c) repaired by a suitable welding process
(d) reconditioned by metalizing and machining

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

377.

(2.2.16.3.3-3) When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing
is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.

o
o
o

(a) loosened, and then retightened with the pump running under normal conditions
(b) loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box
(c) left in that position
(d) tightened an additional 10% to compress the packing

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

378.

(2.2.16.4.4-2) The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will
decrease with an increase in the pump __________.

o
o
o

(a) discharge volume


(b) suction pressure
(c) torque rating
(d) rotor clearances

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

379.

(2.2.16.4.4-4) Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the
discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?

o
o
o

(a) One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been completed.
(b) The gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump.
(c) The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears instead of two.
(d) Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

380.

(2.2.16.4.4-3) How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear
pump?

o
o

(a) The pump can only be used for light oils.


(b) The viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump operation.
(c) The pump cannot handle fluids more viscous than lubricating oil.
(d) The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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Assistant Engineer

381.

(2.2.16.4.4-1) Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because
__________.

o
o
o

(a) it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this pump
(b) these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles
(c) stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps
(d) they are essentially self-priming and capable of a high suction lift

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

382.

(2.2.16.1-6) If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated pressure at the pump
suction, the remainder is the __________.

o
o

(a) total suction head


(b) pump head
(c) apparent net positive suction head
(d) discharge head

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

383.

(2.2.16.1-7) Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a
centrifugal pump?

o
o
o

(a) Total head


(b) Discharge head
(c) Pump head
(d) Suction head

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

384.
o
o

(2.2.16.1-1) The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________.
(a) suction head
(b) net positive suction head
(c) discharge head
(d) total head

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

385.

(2.2.16.1-2) If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated pressure at the pump
suction, the remainder is the __________.

o
o
o

(a) apparent net positive suction head


(b) pump head
(c) discharge head
(d) total suction head

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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386.

o
o
o

(2.2.16.1-4) A pump is defined as a device that __________.


(a) imparts energy to a fluid to move it from point "A" to point "B"
(b) creates a vacuum to move a liquid in all installations
(c) produces pressure
(d) is to develop a pressure differential

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

387.

(2.2.16.1-3) Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a
centrifugal pump?

o
o

(a) Discharge head


(b) Suction head
(c) Pump head
(d) Total head

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

388.

(2.2.16.3.1-4) Water leaking from a pump packing gland is kept away from the bearing housing by
the use of __________.

o
o

(a) shaft sleeves


(b) water seals
(c) water flingers
(d) lantern rings

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

389.
o

o
o

(2.2.16.3.1-12) Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical seals?


(a) They may be used in lieu of conventional packing glands for any service other than salt water.
(b) They are normally lubricated and cooled by the fluid being pumped.
(c) They are not suitable for use on fuel oil transfer pumps.
(d) Once placed into service, leakage between the dynamic seal surfaces may be reduced by
monthly adjustment of the spring compression.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

390.

(2.2.16.3.1-8) A recirculating, or bleed-off line is installed on a centrifugal pump in order to


__________.

o
o

(a) equalize pressure on both sides of the suction valve disc


(b) establish a back pressure at the labyrinth seal to eliminate leakage
(c) prevent the pump from overheating when operating at shutoff head
(d) decrease the net positive suction head

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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391.

(2.2.16.3.1-2) Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is
prevented by __________.

o
o

(a) lantern rings between the packing rings


(b) a compressed packing gland
(c) a liquid seal
(d) the stuffing box gland

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

392.

(2.2.16.3.1-9) Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a
stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?

o
o

(a) Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear, but mechanical seals are not.
(b) Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by the liquid being pumped, but mechanical seals
do not require cooling.
(c) If packing fails, the pump can be kept running temporarily by tightening the gland, but if a
mechanical seal fails it must be totally renewed to stop the leakage.
(d) The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but the sealing surface of a
packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

393.

(2.2.16.3.1-10) Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical
seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?

o
o

(a) Bronze.
(b) Carbon.
(c) Copper and carbon.
(d) Copper.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

394.
o
o
o

(2.2.16.3.1-1) Item "B" in the pump illustration is the __________. Illustration GS-0129
(a) wearing ring
(b) stuffing box
(c) shaft sleeve
(d) packing gland

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

395.

(2.2.16.6-2) Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of fluids
at relatively low pressures?

o
o
o

(a) reciprocating type


(b) screw type
(c) gear type
(d) propeller type

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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396.

(2.2.16.6-1) Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a
propeller type pump?

o
o

(a) Steering gear system


(b) Main circulating system
(c) Fuel oil service booster system
(d) Fluid power transmission system

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

397.

o
o
o

(2.2.16.5.4-2) The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of __________.


(a) reciprocating pumps
(b) jet pumps
(c) centrifugal pumps
(d) propeller pumps

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

398.

(2.2.16.5.4-1) If you have a duplex, single acting, reciprocating pump making 140 strokes/minute
with a 3" diameter cylinder, and a 12" stroke with a 94% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of
this pump?

o
o

(a) 28 gpm
(b) 38 gpm
(c) 48 gpm
(d) 58 gpm

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

399.

(2.2.16.5.3-2) To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating
pump, you should __________.

o
o
o

(a) use a packing hook


(b) open the throttle valve and 'blow' the old packing out
(c) open the steam chest and pry the packing loose with a scraper
(d) do nothing, as this type of pump utilizes O-rings in lieu of packing

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

400.
o

o
o

(2.2.16.5.3-4) Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?
(a) Oil mixed with kerosene.
(b) Graphite and oil.
(c) Engine oil.
(d) Vegetable oil.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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401.

(2.2.16.5.3-5) The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to
__________.

o
o
o

(a) position the steam pistons on 3/4 stroke


(b) measure the present port openings to ensure reassembly will be the same
(c) ensure the balance piston is on the down stroke
(d) place the steam pistons in the mid-stroke position

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

402.

(2.2.16.5.3-1) When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the
packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the
butted ends __________.

o
o

(a) 45 apart
(b) 90 apart
(c) 120 apart
(d) 180 apart

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

403.

(2.2.16.5.3-3) Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a
steam reciprocating pump?

o
o
o

(a) High-pressure graphite packing


(b) Wire impregnated high temperature packing
(c) Low-pressure braided asbestos packing
(d) Reinforced rubber packing

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

404.
o
o
o

(2.2.16.4.2-1) A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.
(a) slightly opened
(b) halfway opened
(c) throttled
(d) fully opened

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

405.

(2.2.16.5.2-4) Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will
cause the __________.

o
o

(a) cushioning valves to wear


(b) pump to operate sluggishly
(c) pump to short stroke continuously at both ends of the stroke for both cylinders
(d) pistons to stop in mid-stroke

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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406.

(2.2.16.5.2-2) When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck
equipment should be __________.

o
o
o

(a) cycled at least once a day


(b) cycled once every 4 days
(c) cycled once every week
(d) watched carefully while idled

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

407.

(2.2.16.5.2-5) An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by


__________.

o
o

(a) scarred cylinder walls


(b) clogged suction strainers
(c) clogged drain valves
(d) defective intake valves

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

408.

(2.2.16.5.2-8) Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from
delivering its rated capacity?

o
o

(a) A leaking snifter valve allowing air to enter the suction side of the pump
(b) Excessive suction lift
(c) Air trapped in the discharge expansion chamber
(d) All of the above

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

409.

(2.2.16.5.2-6) A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service
pump could be caused by __________.

o
o

(a) lower than normal supply steam temperature


(b) loss of air charge in the pump discharge plenum chamber
(c) improper adjustment of steam cushion valves
(d) lower than normal supply steam pressure

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

410.

(2.2.16.5.2-7) When piston rod packing persists in leaking on a reciprocating steam pump, the
cause may be __________.

o
o
o

(a) a loose tappet collar


(b) an open snifter valve
(c) clogged suction strainers
(d) misalignment of the crosshead guide

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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411.

(2.2.16.3.2-7) You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to
slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.

o
o
o

(a) suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to decrease
(b) discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts
(c) suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift
(d) discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

412.
o

o
o

(2.2.16.3.2-2) A centrifugal bilge pump requires priming __________.


(a) primarily to lubricate the shaft seals
(b) due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the suction (eye) of the impeller
(c) in order to overcome the potential energy of water in the discharge line
(d) to initially unload the pump by having its head pressure equal to discharge pressure

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

413.

(2.2.16.3.2-6) Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a


centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the
formation of __________.

o
o

(a) steam knock


(b) vapor pockets
(c) fluid friction
(d) water hammer action

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

414.

(2.2.16.3.2-1) The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as
designed is to __________.

o
o

(a) use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records
(b) close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
(c) closely observe the pump discharge temperature
(d) momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in pressure

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

415.

(2.2.16.3.2-4) Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be
indicated by which of the following operational problems?

o
o

(a) The motor over current protective device continually shuts the pump down.
(b) The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods.
(c) The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually slackens off to an abnormally low
flow.
(d) Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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416.
o
o
o

(2.2.16.3.2-8) A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the __________.
(a) seal ring is improperly located
(b) water seal pipe is plugged
(c) impeller is flooded
(d) pump is not primed

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

417.

(2.2.16.3.2-9) Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal
pump is caused by __________.

o
o
o

(a) failure to seat the packing rings


(b) packing ring rotation
(c) under-tightening the packing
(d) insufficient lubrication of the packing

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

418.

(2.2.16.3.2-3) If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed the
__________.

o
o

(a) motor controller overload would open


(b) pump would eventually overheat
(c) relief valve would continuously cycle open
(d) motor would overheat

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

419.

(2.2.16.3.2-5) Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused
by __________.

o
o
o

(a) cavitation
(b) abrasion
(c) corrosion
(d) electrolysis

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

420.

(2.2.16.5.1-5) The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by
__________.

o
o
o

(a) changing the setting of the tappet collars on the pilot valve operating rod
(b) variations in the throttle adjustment
(c) twisting the stay rod in a clockwise direction
(d) increasing or decreasing the number of packing rings around the piston rod

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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421.

(2.2.16.5.1-4) Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide
valve?

o
o

(a) Adjusting of the tappet collars


(b) Movement of the main piston through the steam cylinder
(c) Moving tappets
(d) Stay rods

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

422.

(2.2.16.5.1-3) Which of the listed devices is used to control the admission of steam to the steam
cylinder of a reciprocating pump?

o
o
o

(a) Pump rod


(b) Valve operating differential
(c) Crosshead arm
(d) Pilot valve and operating rod

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

423.

(2.2.16.5.1-2) Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid
piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the
discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?

o
o
o

(a) Two sets of suction and discharge valves in the liquid cylinder.
(b) One set of valves in the water chest and another set in the liquid cylinder.
(c) Two relief valves, one on each of the liquid cylinders.
(d) Two sets of valves, one set each for suction and discharge located in the water chest.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

424.

(2.2.16.7-1) The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the
__________.

o
o

(a) injector
(b) diffuser
(c) compressor
(d) siphon

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

425.

(2.2.16.7-2) A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the


__________.

o
o
o

(a) discharge end being smaller than the suction end


(b) ease at which the wearing rings may be changed
(c) small size of impeller
(d) lack of moving parts

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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426.

(2.2.16.7-3) Which of the following methods applies to how a vacuum is created by a jet pump or
an eductor?

o
o

(a) A propeller drawing a fluid through a Venturi nozzle.


(b) A reciprocating plunger directly applying force to a fluid.
(c) A rapidly moving stream of fluid passing through a nozzle.
(d) Centrifugal force converted into potential energy.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

427.

(2.2.18-12) According to the illustration, which of the following conditions would most likely cause
pump "A" to short cycle? Illustration GS-0173

o
o
o

(a) The hydro-pneumatic expansion tank is operating with an insufficient air charge.
(b) The hydro-pneumatic tank is operating with a low water level.
(c) A low water level exists in the potable water storage tank.
(d) Pump "A" wearing rings have excessive clearance.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

428.

(2.2.18-6) The flame screens installed on sewage system tank vents prevent explosions by
__________.

o
o

(a) allowing the escape of flammable vapors


(b) dissipating the heat of a flame
(c) absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity
(d) preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

429.

(2.2.18-8) If water continues to flow excessively from the device shown in the illustration, the
problem is most likely due to __________. Illustration GS-0155

o
o
o

(a) "E" being stuck or held in a position other than indicated in the illustration
(b) a hole developing in "B"
(c) a hole being formed in the outboard edge of "C"
(d) item "H" being fouled or plugged

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

430.

(2.2.18-10) Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of
sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?

o
o

(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) Type IV

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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431.

(2.2.18-11) A constant pressure range is maintained in the potable water system of many vessels
by using __________.

o
o

(a) constant speed supply pumps


(b) variable speed supply pumps
(c) an air-cushion in the hydro-pneumatic tank
(d) a pressure regulator in the pressure tank discharge piping

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

432.

(2.2.18-7) If water continues to trickle into the toilet bowl after the device shown in the illustration
has apparently closed, the problem is likely due to __________. Illustration GS-0155

o
o

(a) "A" being cocked into a fully open position


(b) "E" being stuck or held in a position other than horizontal
(c) "C" having developed a warp or ripple at the seating surface
(d) a problem with "H" that allows continuous low flow across the device

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

433.

(2.2.18-9) A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage
by __________.

o
o
o

(a) pumping the sewage ashore to an approved container


(b) holding all sewage onboard
(c) treating sewage in an approved system
(d) all of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

434.

(2.2.21.1-1) Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system
may be of the open or closed type. In a closed type system, what would be the normal temperature
range of the water?

o
o

(a) 180F to 200F


(b) 220F to 240F
(c) 260F to 280F
(d) 320F to 360F

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

435.

(2.2.21.1-2) Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system
may be of the open or closed type. Referring to the illustrated central-station hookup for a hot water
heating system drawing, what would be the normal temperature range of the water? Illustration GS0151

o
o
o

(a) 180 F to 200 F


o
o
(b) 220 F to 240 F
o
o
(c) 260 F to 280 F
o
o
(d) 320 F to 360 F

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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436.

(2.2.21.1-3) Referring to the illustrated diagram for a central-station hookup for a hot water
heating system, what statement represents the configuration of the system? Illustration GS-0151

o
o
o

(a) The system is a single zone system, with multiple circulating pumps and multiple heating coils.
(b) The system is a multi-zone system, with multiple circulating pumps and multiple heating coils.
(c) The system is a single zone system, with one circulating pump and one heating coil.
(d) The system is a multi-zone system, with one circulating pump and one heating coil.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

437.
o
o

(2.2.21.1-4) What type of pump is invariably used as a circulator in a hydronic heating system?
(a) Diaphragm pump
(b) Reciprocating pump
(c) Centrifugal pump
(d) Rotary pump

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

438.

(2.2.21.1-5) Referring to the illustrated drawing of the central-station hookup for a hot water
heating system, what statement is true concerning the air separator on the heated water outlet of the
converter? Illustration GS-0151

o
o

(a) The air separator removes the entrained air introduced within the converter and ultimately
released by the expansion tank vent.
(b) The air separator removes the entrained air introduced by the heating steam and ultimately
released by the condensate returns gravity draining to the atmospheric drains tank.
(c) The air separator removes the entrained air introduced with the makeup water at the
expansion tank and ultimately released by the heating process within the converter.
(d) The air separator removes the entrained air introduced by the heated air via the zone return
lines and ultimately released by the heating process within the converter.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

439.
o

(2.2.21.1-6) What statement is true concerning a one-pipe hydronic heating system?


(a) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet temperature to each
heating coil progressively rises as the water passes through each successive series-connected
coil.
(b) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet temperature to each
heating coil progressively rises as the water passes through each successive series-connected
coil.
(c) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet temperature to each
heating coil progressively drops as the water passes through each successive series-connected
coil.
(d) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet temperature to each
heating coil progressively drops as the water passes through each successive series-connected
coil.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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440.
o

o
o

(2.2.21.1-7) What statement is true concerning a two-pipe hydronic heating system?


(a) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as each series-connected heating coil has its
own separate supply teeing off a supply main.
(b) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as each parallel-connected heating coil has its
own separate supply teeing off a supply main.
(c) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as each series-connected heating coil has its
own separate supply teeing off a supply main.
(d) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as each parallel-connected heating coil has its
own separate supply teeing off a supply main.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

441.

(2.2.21.1-8) It is absolutely essential that hydronic heating system hot water piping be kept free of
air. Assuming that a system is initially properly filled with water, what is the primary source of air
contamination?

o
o

(a) The introduction of air with the convector steam supply.


(b) The introduction of air via the makeup water.
(c) The introduction of air via the expansion tank vent.
(d) The introduction of air via the atmospheric drains tank vent.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

442.

(2.2.21.1-9) What advantage does a 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system have over a 2-pipe
hydronic heating/cooling system?

o
o

(a) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system can serve twice as many zones as a 2-pipe hydronic
heating/cooling system.
(b) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires double the amount of piping as compared
to a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system serving the same number of zones.
(c) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system allows simultaneous heating and cooling of different
zones, whereas a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system does not.
(d) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires one-half the amount of piping as compared
to a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system serving the same number of zones.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

443.
o

o
o

(2.2.21.2-2) Water hammer in a steam heating system can be caused by __________.


(a) filling the auxiliary boiler with cold water
(b) steam admitted to a cold pipe
(c) filling the auxiliary boiler with hot water
(d) draining a soot blower line before cracking the steam supply valve

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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444.

(2.2.21.2-1) Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices for
shipboard steam heating systems?

o
o
o

(a) Provide a dirt pocket and strainer ahead of the steam trap on a unit heater return.
(b) Provide all units with a dirt trap and gate valve in the supply and a check valve on the return.
(c) Wherever possible install vertical runs for condensate piping.
(d) Provide orifice-type bypasses for all traps and automatic valves.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

445.
o

o
o

(2.2.21.2-3) What type of fan is most commonly used in ducted air conditioning systems?
(a) Propeller fan
(b) Centrifugal fan
(c) Vane-axial fan
(d) Tube-axial fan

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

446.
o

o
o

(2.2.21.2-4) What type of centrifugal fan is characterized by the highest operating efficiency?
(a) Forward-curved blade fans
(b) Backward-curved blade fans
(c) Flat blade fans
(d) Radial blade fans

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

447.

(2.2.21.2-5) What pressure drop across an air conditioning filter is indicative of a need to replace
or clean the filter as appropriate?

o
o

(a) 0.1 inches of water column


(b) 0.5 inches of water column
(c) 1.0 inches of water column
(d) 5.0 inches of water column

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

448.

(2.2.21.2-6) Concerning air conditioning system steam heating coils, what statement is true?

o
o
o

(a) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and, if possible, vertically installed.
(b) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and, if possible, horizontally installed.
(c) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and, if possible, horizontally installed.
(d) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and, if possible, vertically installed.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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449.
o
o

(2.2.21.2-7) Concerning air conditioning system hot water heating coils, what statement is true?
(a) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and vertically installed.
(b) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and horizontally installed.
(c) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and horizontally installed.
(d) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and vertically installed.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

450.

(2.2.21.2-8) What type of heating coil is generally preferred in heating spaces with electronic
equipment?

o
o

(a) Hot water heating coil


(b) Steam heating coil
(c) Electric-resistance heating coil
(d) Thermal-oil heating coil

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

451.

(2.2.21.2-9) What statement is true concerning steam-heated, hot water heated, or electricheated convectors?

o
o

(a) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening at the top and discharge relatively
warm air through an outlet grille at the bottom and are located on bulkheads near the deck.
(b) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening at the top and discharge relatively
warm air through an outlet grille at the bottom and are located on bulkheads near the overhead.
(c) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening at the bottom and discharge
relatively warm air through an outlet grille at the top and are located on bulkheads near the deck.
(d) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening at the bottom and discharge
relatively warm air through an outlet grille at the top and are located on bulkheads near the
overhead.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

452.

(2.2.21.2-10) Concerning air conditioning system dry expansion cooling coils, what statement is
true?

o
o
o

(a) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the finned-coil type and horizontally installed.
(b) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the finned-coil type and vertically installed.
(c) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the bare-coil type and horizontally installed.
(d) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the bare-coil type and vertically installed.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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453.

o
o
o

(2.2.21.3-1) Concerning cargo-hold dehumidification, what statement is true?


(a) Cargo-hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively dry air from the outside and
exhausting relatively humid air to the outside.
(b) Cargo-hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively humid air from the outside and
exhausting relatively dry air to the outside.
(c) Cargo-hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively dry air from the outside and
exhausting relatively humid air to the outside.
(d) Cargo-hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively humid air from the outside
and exhausting relatively dry air to the outside.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

454.

(2.2.21.3-2) Which statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification


system?

o
o

(a) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo-hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid
desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber.
(b) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo-hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid
desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
(c) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo-hold is condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
(d) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo-hold is condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

455.

(2.2.21.3-3) What statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification


system?

o
o
o

(a) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by
means of a heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.
(b) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed into the desiccant by
means of a cooling coil located in the regeneration chamber.
(c) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed into the desiccant by
means of a heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.
(d) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by
means of a cooling coil located in the regeneration chamber.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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456.

(2.2.21.3-4) With regard to the cooling and heating coils and humidification and regeneration
chambers of a liquid cargo-hold dehumidification system, which statement is true?

(a) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil and
is known as the regeneration chamber.
(b) The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil
and is known as the regeneration chamber.
(c) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and
is known as the regeneration chamber.
(d) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as
the regeneration chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil
and is known as the humidification chamber.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

457.

(2.2.21.3-5) To prevent damage to dry cargoes, the cargo-hold ventilation and dehumidification
systems play a key role. In terms of the maintained dew point, what statement is true?

o
o

(a) The dew point temperature of the cargo-hold is normally maintained 10 F above the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
(b) The dew point temperature of the cargo-hold is normally maintained at a constant temperature
regardless of the surface temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
o
(c) The dew point temperature of the cargo-hold is normally maintained 10 F below the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
(d) The dew point temperature of the cargo-hold is normally maintained at the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

458.

(2.2.21.3-6) To determine the average cargo-hold dew point temperature, at what location would
the dew point be measured?

o
o

(a) The dew point is taken near the bottom of the cargo-hold.
(b) The dew point is taken at the ventilation exhaust trunk.
(c) The dew point is taken at the ventilation supply trunk.
(d) The dew point is taken near a central location of the cargo-hold.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

459.

(2.2.21.3-7) What common feature is found on both liquid-desiccant and solid-desiccant cargohold dehumidification systems?

o
o

(a) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to absorb moisture into the
desiccant.
(b) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to absorb moisture into the desiccant.
(c) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to drive the moisture out of the desiccant.
(d) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to drive the moisture out of the
desiccant.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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460.

o
o
o

(2.2.21.4-1) What type of HVAC system is ideally designed to serve a large public space?
(a) A single zone system
(b) A terminal reheat system
(c) A dual duct system
(d) A variable air volume system

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

461.

(2.2.21.4-2) What type of HVAC system is characterized by poor air distribution and ventilation
and low system heat loads?

o
o
o

(a) A variable air volume system


(b) A single zone system
(c) A dual duct system
(d) A terminal reheat system

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

462.

(2.2.21.4-3) Referring to illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? Illustration GSRA-09

o
o
o

(a) A dual duct system


(b) A terminal reheat system
(c) A variable air volume system
(d) A single zone system

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

463.

(2.2.21.4-4) Referring to the illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? Illustration
GS-RA-42

o
o

(a) A single zone system


(b) A terminal reheat system
(c) A dual duct system
(d) A variable air volume system

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

464.

(2.2.21.4-5) Referring to the illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? Illustration
GS-RA-43

o
o
o

(a) A dual duct system


(b) A variable air volume system
(c) A single zone system
(d) A terminal reheat system

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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465.

(2.2.21.4-6) What type of HVAC system is characterized by having a split supply air stream, with
one for cold air and the other for hot air?

o
o
o

(a) A dual duct system


(b) A single zone system
(c) A terminal reheat system
(d) A variable air volume system

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

466.

(2.2.21.4-7) What type of HVAC system is characterized by having control dampers in locations
other than the outside air supply, outside air exhaust, and recirculation damper applications?

o
o
o

(a) A terminal reheat system


(b) A single zone system
(c) A dual duct system
(d) A variable air volume system

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

467.

(2.2.21.5-1) In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what prevents the simultaneous flow of
steam through the preheat coil and flow of chilled water through the cooling coil? Illustration GS-RA09

o
o
o

(a) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set several degrees lower than the
design off-coil temperature associated with the cooling coil.
(b) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set equal to the design off-coil
temperature associated with the cooling coil.
(c) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set several degrees higher than
the design off-coil temperature associated with the cooling coil.
(d) Simultaneous steam flow through the preheater and chilled water flow through the cooling coil
is permitted for the purposes of space humidity control.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

468.

(2.2.21.5-2) In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the
functioning of the diverting relay as it controls the cooling coil flow and the exhaust, outside air and
recirculation dampers? Illustration GS-RA-09

(a) The diverting relay processes the humidistat control signal as long as the space humidity is
below the humidistat set point. The diverting relay processes the room thermostat control signal if
the space humidity exceeds the humidistat set point.
(b) The diverting relay processes the room thermostat control signal as long as the space
humidity is below the humidistat set point. The diverting relay processes the room humidistat
control signal if the space humidity exceeds the humidistat set point.
(c) The diverting relay processes the room thermostat control signal as long as the
space temperature is below the thermostat set point. The diverting relay processes the room
humidistat control signal if the space temperature exceeds the thermostat set point.
(d) The diverting relay processes the humidistat control signal as long as the space temperature
is below the thermostat set point. The diverting relay processes the room thermostat control
signal if the space temperature exceeds the thermostat set point.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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469.

(2.2.21.5-3) In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the
relationship between the exhaust, outside air and recirculation dampers? Illustration GS-RA-09

o
o
o

(a) The more the exhaust and outside air dampers are open, the more the recirculation damper is
closed, and vice versa.
(b) The more the exhaust and recirculation dampers are open, the more the outside air damper is
closed, and vice versa.
(c) The exhaust, outside air, and recirculation dampers are all open or closed to the same degree
for all operating conditions.
(d) The more the outside air and recirculation dampers are open, the more the exhaust damper is
closed, and vice versa.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

470.

(2.2.21.5-4) In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the
functioning of the winter outside air duct thermostat? Illustration GS-RA-42

(a) During the heating season, the winter thermostat senses the outside air temperature and
closes the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly
lower than typical indoor air temperatures.
(b) During the heating season, the winter thermostat senses the inside air temperature and opens
the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly lower than
typical indoor air temperatures.
(c) During the heating season, the winter thermostat senses the outside air temperature and
opens the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly lower
than typical indoor air temperatures.
(d) During the heating season, the winter thermostat senses the inside air temperature and closes
the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly lower than
typical indoor air temperatures.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

471.

(2.2.21.5-5) In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the
functioning of the summer outside air duct thermostat? Illustration GS-RA-42

(a) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and
closes the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly
higher than typical indoor air temperatures.
(b) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and
opens the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly
higher than typical indoor air temperatures.
(c) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and
closes the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher
than typical indoor air temperatures.
(d) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and
opens the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher
than typical indoor air temperatures.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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472.

(2.2.21.5-6) In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the
functioning of the supply air duct thermostats controlling the preheater steam flow and the cooling
coil chilled water flow? Illustration GS-RA-42

o
o
o

(a) The thermostat controlling the preheater steam flow is set several degrees lower than
the design cooling coil off-coil temperature to prevent simultaneous flows.
(b) The thermostat controlling the preheater steam flow is set several degrees higher than
the design cooling coil off-coil temperature to prevent simultaneous flows.
(c) The thermostat controlling the preheater steam flow is set at the design cooling coil off-coil
temperature to allow simultaneous flows.
(d) The thermostat controlling the preheater steam flow is set at the design cooling coil off-coil
temperature to prevent simultaneous flows.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

473.

(2.2.21.5-7) Referring to the illustrated single zone HVAC system diagram, what statement is true
concerning the damper controls? Illustration GS-RA-09

o
o
o

(a) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally open and the recirculation damper is
normally closed and all three dampers are controlled by a single pilot air signal.
(b) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally closed and the recirculation damper is
normally open and each damper is controlled by its own pilot air signal.
(c) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally closed and the recirculation damper is
normally open and all three dampers are controlled by a single pilot air signal.
(d) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally open and the recirculation damper is
normally closed and each damper is controlled by its own pilot air signal.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

474.

(2.2.21.5-8) Referring to the illustrated dual duct multiple zone HVAC system, how is the space
temperature directly controlled? Illustration GS-RA-43

o
o
o

(a) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically proportioning the cold and hot air
streams at the mixing unit.
(b) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the chilled water flow
through the cooling coil.
(c) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the steam flow through the
reheat coil.
(d) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the steam flow through the
preheat coil.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

475.

(2.2.21.6-1) What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured by
an ordinary thermometer?

o
o

(a) The saturation temperature


(b) The dry bulb temperature
(c) The dew point temperature
(d) The wet bulb temperature

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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476.

(2.2.21.6-2) What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured
with a sling psychrometer?

o
o
o

(a) The wet bulb temperature


(b) The dew point temperature
(c) The saturation temperature
(d) The dry air temperature

If choice a is selected set score to 1.


o

477.

(2.2.21.6-3) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, if the dry bulb temperature is 70 F
and the relative humidity is 50%, what is the absolute humidity? Illustration GS-RA-22

o
o

(a) 38 grains of moisture per pound of dry air


(b) 45 grains of moisture per pound of dry air
(c) 51 grains of moisture per pound of dry air
(d) 58 grains of moisture per pound of dry air

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

478.

(2.2.21.6-4) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, if the measured dry bulb temperature
o
o
is 80 F and the measured wet bulb temperature is 70 F, what is the determined relative humidity?
Illustration GS-RA-22

o
o

(a) 45%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 95%

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

479.

(2.2.21.6-5) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose air at a dry bulb temperature
o
of 60 F and a relative humidity of 52% passes over a heating coil, resulting in sensible heat gain,
o
and the off-coil temperature is now 80 F. What is off-coil relative humidity? Illustration GS-RA-22

o
o

(a) 19%
(b) 27%
(c) 55%
(d) 70%

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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480.

(2.2.21.6-6) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the heating season
that air passes over a heating coil, and this results in sensible heat gain with no change in moisture
content. What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process line? Illustration GSRA-22

o
o
o

(a) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the right of the coil inlet.
(b) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet above the coil inlet.
(c) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the left of the coil outlet.
(d) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet below the coil inlet.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

481.

(2.2.21.6-7) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the cooling season
that air passes over a cooling coil with a mean surface temperature above the dew point
temperature, and this results in sensible heat loss with no change in moisture content. What
statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process line? Illustration GS-RA-22

o
o

(a) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet below the coil inlet.
(b) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the left of the coil inlet.
(c) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet above the coil inlet.
(d) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the right of the coil inlet.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

482.

(2.2.21.6-8) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the cooling season
that air passes over a cooling coil with a mean surface temperature below the dew point
temperature, and this results in sensible heat loss and dehumidification. What statement represents
the direction of the air conditioning process line? Illustration GS-RA-22

o
o
o

(a) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the left and below the coil
inlet.
(b) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the right and below the coil
inlet.
(c) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the left and above the coil
inlet.
(d) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the right and above the coil
inlet.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

483.

(2.2.21.6-9) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, under what conditions are the dry
bulb, wet bulb, and dew point temperatures for air all equal in value? Illustration GS-RA-22

o
o

(a) When the relative humidity is 0%.


(b) When the air is completely saturated with moisture and the relative humidity is 100%.
(c) When the grains of moisture per pound of dry air is zero.
(d) It is impossible for the dry bulb, wet bulb, and dew point temperatures to be the same value.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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484.

(2.2.21.6-10) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the heating season
where steam is injected into the air stream, this results in sensible heat gain and humidification.
What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process line? Illustration GS-RA-22

o
o
o

(a) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the right and below the coil
inlet.
(b) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the left and above the coil
inlet.
(c) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the left and below the coil
inlet.
(d) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the right and above the coil
inlet.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

485.

(2.2.23-3) Probably the most useful troubleshooting tools used in a predictive maintenance
management program for shipboard machinery are vibration meters, analyzers, and monitors. What
is the term that represents the rate of change of the velocity as a result of a part vibrating during its
periodic or oscillatory motion?

o
o

(a) Vibration frequency


(b) Vibration displacement
(c) Vibration acceleration
(d) Vibration velocity

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

486.

(2.2.23-8) In examining a baseline vibration signature and the historical record of periodic
vibration analyses, what must be considered for the evaluation of rotating machinery?

o
o

(a) Minimum vibration limits and the change in vibration levels over time.
(b) Maximum vibration limits and the change in vibration levels over time.
(c) Change in vibration levels over time, with no regard to maximum vibration limits.
(d) Maximum vibration limits only, with no regard for the change in vibration levels over time.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

487.
o

(2.2.23-7) When performing a vibration analysis for rotating machinery, what is essential?
(a) A baseline vibration signature should be established as a reference, but no historical record of
periodic analyses need be maintained. Vibration amplitudes at various frequencies are compared.
(b) A baseline vibration signature should be established as a reference, and a historical record of
periodic analyses should be maintained. Vibration amplitudes at various frequencies are
compared.
(c) A historical record of periodic analyses should be maintained, but no baseline vibration
signature need be established as a reference. Vibration amplitudes at various frequencies are
compared.
(d) A baseline vibration signature should be established as a reference, and a historical record of
periodic analyses should be maintained. Vibration amplitudes are compared with no need to
examine frequencies.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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488.

(2.2.23-6) What is the most useful measurement that represents the severity of vibration
associated with periodic or oscillatory motion?

o
o
o

(a) Vibration frequency


(b) Vibration acceleration
(c) Vibration displacement
(d) Vibration velocity

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

489.
o

o
o

(2.2.23-5) What is the standard unit of measure for vibration displacement?


(a) Ten thousandths of an inch (0.0001), peak to peak
(b) Thousandths of an inch (0.001), peak to peak.
(c) Hundredths of an inch (0.01), peak to peak
(d) Tenths of an inch (0.1), peak to peak

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

490.

(2.2.23-4) Probably the most useful troubleshooting tools used in a predictive maintenance
management program for shipboard machinery are vibration meters, analyzers, and monitors. What
is the term that represents the number of vibration cycles per unit time as a result of a part vibrating
during its periodic or oscillatory motion?

o
o

(a) Vibration acceleration


(b) Vibration frequency
(c) Vibration velocity
(d) Vibration displacement

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

491.

(2.2.25.2-15) The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is
__________. Illustration GS-0081

o
o
o

(a) 0.4710 inch


(b) 0.4715 inch
(c) 0.4810 inch
(d) 0.4815 inch

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

492.

(2.2.25.2-1) If a micrometer were opened to a distance of 0.0001 inch, you would say the reading
is __________.

o
o

(a) one millionth of an inch


(b) ten millionths of an inch
(c) one ten thousandth of an inch
(d) ten one thousandths of an inch

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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493.

(2.2.25.2-12) The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when
__________.

o
o
o

(a) a dial lights on the handle


(b) the dial is read on the handle
(c) the scale is read on the handle
(d) an audible click is heard and the handle releases

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

494.

o
o
o

(2.2.25.2-3) One turn of the micrometer barrel will linearly move the spindle __________.
(a) 0.025 inch
(b) 0.110 inch
(c) 0.205 inch
(d) 0.250 inch

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

495.

(2.2.25.2-10) To determine the diameter of a small hole, which of the listed tools must be used
with inside calipers to get an accurate reading?

o
o

(a) Wire gage


(b) Center gage
(c) Micrometer
(d) None of the above

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

496.

(2.2.25.2-6) The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an inside caliper is to use a/an
__________.

o
o
o

(a) thread micrometer


(b) engineer's scale
(c) dial indicator
(d) outside micrometer

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

497.

(2.2.25.2-16) What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "G" in
the illustration? Illustration GS-0083

o
o

(a) 0.2280 inch


(b) 0.2340 inch
(c) 0.2470 inch
(d) 0.2520 inch

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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498.

o
o
o

(2.2.25.2-14) The rotating part of a micrometer is known as the __________.


(a) thimble
(b) anvil
(c) sleeve
(d) frame

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

499.

(2.2.25.2-4) A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal to
__________.

o
o
o

(a) 2 5/8 inches


(b) 2 7/16 inches
(c) 3 1/8 inches
(d) 3 9/16 inches

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

500.

(2.2.25.3-7) If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions
would probably be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?

o
o
o

(a) Drill a hole in the center of the broken stud.


(b) Heat the bolt with an oxyacetylene torch.
(c) Tap the bolt with a starting punch extractor.
(d) Use a tapered screw extractor only.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

501.
o
o

(2.2.25.3-1) If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should __________.
(a) start tapping with a plug tap
(b) chamfer the edges of the holes
(c) tap the holes without cutting oil
(d) flood the tap with mineral oil

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

502.

(2.2.25.3-2) When internal threading for piping where the work permits the tap to be run entirely
through you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a __________.

o
o
o

(a) taper tap


(b) finishing tap
(c) plug tap
(d) bottoming tap

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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503.

(2.2.25.3-6) With respect to machine shop "taps and dies"; a plug tap is correctly used for
__________.

o
o
o

(a) chasing the threads on a circular rod


(b) reversing the threads in a hole
(c) starting the threads on a circular rod
(d) the second cut when threading a blind hole

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

504.

(2.2.25.1-10) Which of the devices shown in the illustration should be used with a bridge gage?
Illustration GS-0073

o
o
o

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

505.
o
o

(2.2.25.1-6) The purpose of the instrument illustrated is to __________. Illustration GS-0079


(a) strip insulation from wire
(b) gage resistors
(c) measure wire diameter
(d) measure insulation thickness

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

506.

(2.2.25.1-13) The ruler indicated in the illustration is commonly referred to as a/an _________.
Illustration GS-0023

o
o

(a) Metric Scale


(b) Engineers Scale
(c) Architects Scale
(d) Micrometer Scale

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

507.

(2.2.25.1-1) Which of the devices shown in the illustration is designed for both inside and outside
measurements? Illustration GS-0073

o
o

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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508.
o
o

(2.2.25.1-5) To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a __________.
(a) folding rule
(b) hook rule
(c) flexible steel rule
(d) machinist's steel rule

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

509.

(2.2.25.1-9) To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you should
measure __________.

o
o
o

(a) on the unmarked edge of the rule


(b) on the narrow edge of the rule
(c) from the zero end on the scale
(d) from the one inch graduation mark

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

510.

(2.2.25.4-9) Which of the figures in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with figure
"B" of the device shown in illustration GS-0124? Illustrations GS-0080 and GS-0124

o
o
o

(a) figure F
(b) figure B
(c) figure C
(d) figure G

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

511.

(2.2.25.4-4) Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screw?
Illustration GS-0080

o
o
o

(a) figure G
(b) figure L
(c) figure C
(d) figure D

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

512.

(2.2.25.4-6) With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, 'pitch' is the
__________.

o
o
o

(a) number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of the screw
(b) angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and the crests of the thread
(c) angle formed by adjacent flanks of a thread
(d) distance between corresponding points on adjacent threads

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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513.
o
o
o

(2.2.25.4-11) The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is __________.
(a) made of non-corrosive metal
(b) made of nickel-cadmium metal
(c) not clad with any coating
(d) threaded with national coarse threads

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

514.

(2.2.25.4-16) Which of the figures in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with figure
"C" in illustration GS-0015? Illustrations GS-0015 and GS-0080

o
o

(a) figure A
(b) figure F
(c) figure K
(d) figure D

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

515.

(2.2.25.4-17) What class of screw thread is indicated with a machine screw described as 1/2-13
NC-2?

o
o
o

(a) 1/2
(b) 13
(c) NC
(d) 2

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

516.

(2.2.25.4-12) Which of the following types of nuts would be best suited to use when it is important
that a nut not work itself loose due to vibration?

o
o

(a) Square nut


(b) Castellated nut
(c) Cap nut
(d) Wing nut

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

517.

(2.2.25.4-14) Which figure shown in the illustration, is the nut lock improperly used? Illustration
GS-0156

o
o
o

(a) "A"
(b) "B"
(c) "C" and "D"
(d) "C" and "E"

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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518.

(2.2.25.4-7) The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications.
Which figure indicates the improper method for using these devices? Illustration GS-0156

o
o

(a) "A"
(b) "B"
(c) "C"
(d) "D"

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

519.

(2.2.25.4-3) Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST desirable for use as a set screw?
Illustration GS-0080

o
o
o

(a) figure A
(b) figure F
(c) figure G
(d) figure L

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

520.

(2.2.25.4-2) Which of the following is true when comparing the different "class of fit" for machine
threads on bolts and nuts?

o
o
o

(a) A class 1 fit always has fewer threads per inch.


(b) A class 1 fit is tighter than a class 2 fit.
(c) A class 4 fit always has more threads per inch.
(d) A class 2 fit is looser than a class 4 fit.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

521.

(2.2.28.1-1) As it pertains to the automatic hydraulic brake of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor


windlass, what statement is true?

o
o

(a) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(b) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(c) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(d) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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522.

(2.2.28.1-2) As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a horizontal electro-mechanical


anchor windlass, what statement is true?

o
o

(a) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(b) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(c) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(d) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

523.

(2.2.28.1-3) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint leveroperated pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
windlass clutch control levers?

o
o
o

(a) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the wildcats only. They have no
control over the warping heads.
(b) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the warping heads only. They
have no control over the wildcats.
(c) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage both the warping heads and the
wildcats.
(d) The clutch control levers are used to either engage or disengage the warping heads or the
wildcats, depending upon the windlass design.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

524.

(2.2.28.1-4) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint leveroperated pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
pedestal-mounted controller?

o
o

(a) The pedestal-mounted controller allows the wildcats to rotate in either direction of rotation, but
the warping heads in only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.
(b) The pedestal-mounted controller allows both the warping heads and the wildcats to rotate in
either direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.
(c) The pedestal-mounted controller allows both the warping heads and the wildcats to rotate in
only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.
(d) The pedestal-mounted controller allows the warping heads to rotate in either direction of
rotation, but the wildcats in only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to
maximum.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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525.

(2.2.28.1-5) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint leveroperated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
manual brake hand wheels?

o
o

(a) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with both the wildcats
and the warping heads.
(b) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the warping
heads only.
(c) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the wildcats only.
(d) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with either the
wildcats or the warping heads, depending upon the windlass design.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

526.

(2.2.28.1-6) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint leveroperated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
warping heads and wildcats?

(a) The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the wildcats by
disengaging the wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor,
the wildcats will rotate.
(b) The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping heads by
disengaging the warping head clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive
motor, the wildcats will rotate.
(c) The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the wildcats by
disengaging the wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor,
the warping heads will rotate.
(d) The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping heads by
disengaging the warping head clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive
motor, the warping heads will rotate.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

527.

(2.2.28.1-7) In attempting to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic
anchor windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting?

o
o
o

(a) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump
stroke control being in other than the neutral position.
(b) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the wildcat clutches
being disengaged.
(c) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with hand wheel
operated wildcat band brakes being set.
(d) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump
stroke control being in the neutral position.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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528.

(2.2.28.1-8) As it pertains to raising and lowering an anchor with a horizontal electro-hydraulic or


electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?

(a) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by disengaging the
wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with
the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged.
(b) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by
disengaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the
anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged.
(c) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by engaging
the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain
payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.
(d) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by engaging the
wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with
the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

529.
o
o

(2.2.28.2-1) As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a capstan, what statement is true?
(a) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(b) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(c) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(d) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

530.

(2.2.28.2-2) Which capstan drive arrangement requires a flexible coupling between the reduction
gear output shaft and the capstan head input shaft?

o
o

(a) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer, and capstan head
are all located on the weather deck.
(b) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are hung from the
underside of the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck.
(c) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are mounted on the
deck below the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck.
(d) A flexible coupling is required on all three drive arrangements listed above.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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531.
o
o

(2.2.28.2-3) Concerning a conventional mooring winch, what statement is true?


(a) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load equal to the breaking strength of the mooring
line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted.
(b) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load exceeding the breaking strength of the
mooring line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted.
(c) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load approaching the breaking strength of the
mooring line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring line breakage.
(d) A low capacity brake is required to hold a load far below the breaking strength of the mooring
line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring line breakage.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

532.
o
o
o

(2.2.28.2-4) As it pertains to a "constant-tension" mooring winch, what statement is true?


(a) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render, but not recover, mooring line
using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies above a certain preset tension.
(b) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically recover, but not render, mooring line
using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies below a certain preset tension.
(c) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render, but not recover, mooring line
using the brake when the mooring line tension varies above certain preset tension.
(d) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render and recover mooring line
using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies outside of narrow preset adjustable
tension limits.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

533.

(2.2.28.2-5) As it pertains to the automatic hoist winch brake of an electro-hydraulic cargohandling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?

o
o

(a) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(b) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the
hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(c) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the
hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(d) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when
the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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534.

(2.2.28.2-6) As it pertains to the luffing motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargohandling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?

o
o

(a) When the hoist block is raised to a maximum permissible height with respect to the boom, the
luffing pump shall be placed on stroke and the luffing winch brake released.
(b) When the hoist block is raised to a maximum permissible height with respect to the boom, the
luffing pump shall be stroked to zero and the luffing winch brake set.
(c) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum
permissible height, the luffing pump shall be stroked to zero and the luffing winch brake set.
(d) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum
permissible height, the luffing pump shall be placed on stroke and the luffing winch brake
released.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

535.

(2.2.28.2-7) As it pertains to the hoist motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargohandling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?

o
o

(a) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum
permissible height, the hoist pump shall be placed on stroke and the hoist winch brake released.
(b) When the hoist cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum condition or when the hoist block is
raised to a maximum permissible height relative to the boom, the hoist pump shall be placed on
stroke and the hoist winch brake released.
(c) When the hoist cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum condition or when the hoist block is
raised to a maximum permissible height relative to the boom, the hoist pump shall be stroked to
zero and the hoist winch brake set.
(d) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum
permissible height, the hoist pump shall be stroked to zero and the hoist winch brake set.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

536.

(2.2.28.2-8) For an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what event would
result in an immediate stop to all crane motions, including slewing, hoisting, and luffing?

o
o

(a) All motions are stopped by the action of the boom maximum outreach and minimum
outreach limit switches.
(b) All motions are stopped by the action of the slewing platform limit switches.
(c) All motions are stopped by the loss of electric power to the crane.
(d) All motions are stopped by the action of the safe working load cutout switch or the slack wire
limit switch.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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537.

(2.2.28.2-9) What statement is true concerning the door interlock devices associated with a
winding drum or traction drive passenger elevator onboard ship?

o
o
o

(a) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still open and only allow
elevator operation if the doors are proved closed.
(b) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still closed and only
allow elevator operation if the doors are proved open.
(c) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when
elevators are not to be used.
(d) Door interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency
when elevators are required to be used.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

538.

(2.2.28.2-10) What statement is true concerning the platform interlock devices associated with a
winding drum or traction drive cargo elevator onboard ship?

o
o

(a) Platform interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency
when elevators are required to be used.
(b) Platform interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when
elevators are not to be used.
(c) Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the platform is at other than a deck
level and only allow door operation when the platform is proved at a deck level.
(d) Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the platform is proved at a deck level
and only allow door operation when the platform is at a position other than a deck level.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

539.

(2.2.27.3-9) Which of the following level indicating system sensor types is ideally suited for
discrete-level detection as opposed to continuous-level detection?

o
o

(a) Capacitance probes


(b) Float operated potentiometer
(c) Float actuated limit switches
(d) Differential pressure transmitter

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

540.

(2.2.27.3-5) What type of liquid level indicator which senses head or pressure requires a supply of
compressed air?

o
o
o

(a) Differential pressure transmitter


(b) Float type
(c) Diaphragm box
(d) Bubble tube system

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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541.

(2.2.27.1-6) Which of the listed temperature sensors is made of heat-treated metallic oxides and
generally has a negative coefficient of resistance?

o
o
o

(a) Bimetallic device


(b) Resistance temperature detector
(c) Thermocouple
(d) Thermistor

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

542.

(2.2.27.1-5) Which of the listed temperature sensors consists of finely coiled wire, such as
platinum, where the resistance varies directly with temperature?

o
o

(a) Thermistor
(b) Bimetallic device
(c) Resistance temperature detector
(d) Thermocouple

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

543.
o
o
o

(2.2.27.1-8) A radiation pyrometer is sensitive to what form of radiation?


(a) Infraviolet radiation
(b) Ultrared radiation
(c) Ultraviolet radiation
(d) Infrared radiation

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

544.

(2.2.27.1-9) For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic


o
temperature indicator has a calibrated scale of -40 to +40 F, what would be the actual measured
temperature if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the
industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?

o
o

(a) -10 F
o
(b) 0 F
o
(c) +10 F
o
(d) +25 F

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

545.
o
o
o

(2.2.27.1-7) What is the application for a temperature measuring device known as a pyrometer?
(a) Moderate to high temperature applications such as engine cooling and lubrication.
(b) Extremely low temperature applications such as cryogenics.
(c) Low to moderate temperature applications such as refrigeration and air conditioning.
(d) Extremely high temperature applications such as boiler or engine exhaust temperatures.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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546.

(2.2.27.1-2) In what electrical temperature transmitting system is the system voltage generated by
the magnitude of temperature difference between hot and cold junctions?

o
o

(a) Bimetallic sensor


(b) Thermocouple
(c) Thermistor
(d) Resistance temperature detector

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

547.

(2.2.27.1-11) Suppose that a standard remote reading bourdon tube thermometer has a scale of
o
40 to 240 F. If the accuracy of the thermometer is plus or minus 1% of the span, what would the
o
range of measured temperature be if the thermometer indicates 180 F?

o
o

(a) 177.6 to 182.4 F


o
(b) 178 to 182 F
o
(c) 178.2 to 181.8 F
o
(d) 179 to 181 F

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

548.

(2.2.27.1-4) If it is desired to determine the temperature difference between two locations using
thermocouples, what wiring technique can be used to accomplish this?

o
o
o

(a) The two thermocouples would be wired in series-opposing to measure the difference between
the two temperatures.
(b) The two thermocouples would be wired in parallel to measure the differences between the two
temperatures.
(c) The two thermocouples would be wired in series-aiding to measure the difference between the
two temperatures.
(d) It is not possible to measure a temperature difference using two thermocouples.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

549.

(2.2.27.1-3) If it is desired to determine the average temperature across a large duct, what
thermocouple wiring technique can be used to generate an emf proportional to the average
temperature?

o
o

(a) Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired series-aiding, where the sum of the
individual voltages is divided by the number of thermocouples.
(b) Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired in parallel, where the sum of the
individual voltages is divided by the number of thermocouples.
(c) Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired series-opposing, where the sum of the
individual voltages is divided by the number of thermocouples.
(d) Only one thermocouple can be used, and the hot junction must be strategically located to get
an effective average temperature.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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550.

o
o
o

(2.2.27.5-5) What is the operating principle upon which a salinometer is based?


(a) Conductance of water
(b) Specific gravity of water
(c) Optical transparency of water
(d) Capacitance of water

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

551.

(2.2.27.5-1) Which of the following speed tachometers produces an analog signal proportional to
the shaft speed?

o
o

(a) Toothed-rotor Hall-effect tachometer


(b) Direct current tachometer
(c) Optical tachometer
(d) Toothed-rotor variable-reluctance tachometer

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

552.

(2.2.27.5-3) What statement is true concerning the arrangement and operation of the viscosity
sensor as used for sensing the viscosity of heavy fuel oil?

o
o

(a) The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed variable capacity pump and a capillary
tube which produces a pressure drop at variable flow which is inversely proportional to the oil
viscosity.
(b) The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed variable capacity pump and a capillary
tube which produces a pressure drop at variable flow which is proportional to the oil viscosity.
(c) The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed fixed capacity pump and a capillary tube
which produces a pressure drop at constant flow which is inversely proportional to the oil
viscosity.
(d) The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed fixed capacity pump and a capillary tube
which produces a pressure drop at constant flow which is proportional to the oil viscosity.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

553.

(2.2.27.2-15) What is used to protect a direct sensing steam pressure gauge from damage from
contact with steam?

o
o
o

(a) The installation of a damping needle valve in the entrance to the gauge.
(b) The installation of a siphon tube (pig-tail) oriented horizontally in the entrance to the gauge.
(c) The installation of thermal insulation on the gauge.
(d) The installation of a siphon tube (pig-tail) oriented vertically in the entrance to the gauge.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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554.

(2.2.27.2-1) Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately
used for measuring pressures very close to atmospheric pressure such as boiler furnace draft
pressure?

o
o
o

(a) Diaphragm type pressure gauge


(b) Bellows type pressure gauge
(c) Spiral or helical type pressure gauge
(d) Bourdon tube pressure gauge

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

555.

(2.2.27.2-12) Suppose that a standard bourdon tube pressure gauge has a scale of 0 to 1000
psig. If the accuracy of the gauge is plus or minus .5% of the span, what would the range of
measured pressure be if the gauge indicates 690 psig?

o
o

(a) 640 to 740 psig


(b) 680 to 700 psig
(c) 685 to 695 psig
(d) 686.55 to 693.45 psig

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

556.

(2.2.27.2-2) For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic


pressure indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1000 psig, what would be the actual measured
pressure if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the
industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?

o
o

(a) 300 psig


(b) 500 psig
(c) 600 psig
(d) 750 psig

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

557.

(2.2.27.2-7) In which of the following applications would a mechanical pressure seal be used with
a pressure measuring instrument?

o
o
o

(a) Isolation of high-temperature products from the measuring element.


(b) Isolation of high-pressure products from the measuring element.
(c) Isolation of non-viscous products from the measuring element.
(d) Isolation of corrosive products from the measuring element.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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558.

(2.2.27.2-11) Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately
used for measuring most pressures, typically above 10 psig and is by far the most common type?

o
o

(a) Diaphragm type pressure gauge


(b) Bourdon tube pressure gauge
(c) Spiral or helical type pressure gauge
(d) Bellows type pressure gauge

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

559.

(2.2.27.2-3) For an analog electronic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if an


analog pressure indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 30 psig, what would be the actual measured
pressure if the transmitted analog signal current to the indicator is 12 mA, assuming the industry
standard of 4 to 20 mA is used for instrument current?

o
o

(a) 8 psig
(b) 12 psig
(c) 15 psig
(d) 24 psig

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

560.

(2.2.27.2-4) For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic


pressure indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 5000 psig, what would be the actual measured
pressure if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 6 psig, assuming the
industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?

o
o

(a) 1000 psig


(b) 1250 psig
(c) 1500 psig
(d) 1800 psig

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

561.

(2.2.27.4-5) Which of the following flow meter primary devices works on the constriction type,
differential head principle?

o
o

(a) Turbine
(b) Vortex
(c) Venturi tube
(d) Magnetic

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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562.

(2.2.27.4-9) For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a


pneumatic instantaneous flow indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1000 gpm, what would be the
actual measured instantaneous flow rate if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator
is 9 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?

o
o

(a) 375 gpm


(b) 500 gpm
(c) 625 gpm
(d) 750 gpm

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

563.

(2.2.27.4-1) What type of flow measuring device would measure totalized flow volume as
opposed to an instantaneous flow rate?

o
o

(a) Variable area type, such as a rotameter


(b) Constriction type, differential head such as a venturi tube
(c) Positive displacement meter, such as nutating disk
(d) Velocity flow meter such as a turbine type

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

564.

(2.2.27.6-2) For an analog electronic transmission system for instrumentation and control
purposes, what is a common industry standard for electronic signal current range?

o
o

(a) 0 to 10 mA
(b) 1 to 10 A
(c) 4 to 20mA
(d) 4 to 20 A

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

565.

(2.2.27.6-1) For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation and control purposes, what
is a common industry standard for pneumatic signal pressure range?

o
o

(a) 0 to 10 psig
(b) 0 to 100 psig
(c) 3 to 15 psig
(d) 3 to 150 psig

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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566.

(2.2.27.7-1) Vibration characteristics to establish a baseline signature or to check the mechanical


condition of machinery are measured under which of the following operative conditions?

o
o
o

(a) Low torque


(b) High torque
(c) Abnormal
(d) Normal

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

567.

(2.2.27.7-3) A reading taken with a portable hand-held vibration meter is capable of indicating
which of the following conditions?

o
o

(a) The unit being tested has bad bearings.


(b) The unit being tested is operating normally.
(c) The unit being tested has a bad stator.
(d) The unit being tested has a bad rotor.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

568.

(2.2.27.7-2) Which of the following statements is NOT a function of an effective vibration analysis
program?

o
o

(a) To verify that proper repairs have been accomplished.


(b) To check machinery condition.
(c) To verify equipment alignment.
(d) To troubleshoot suspected problems.

If choice is selected set score to 1.

569.

(2.2.31-11) Under which of the listed conditions can the engine room retake the throttle control
from the bridge of an automated vessel?

o
o
o

(a) Only with the master's permission.


(b) Only after the throttle has been placed in stop.
(c) After a 10 minute delay to the input command.
(d) Any time it is deemed necessary.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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570.

(2.2.31-8) Preferably when should the bridge be informed when engine room situations may
affect the speed, maneuverability, power supply, or other essentials for the safe operation of the
ship?

o
o

(a) The bridge should be informed after any changes are made, as soon as practical.
(b) The bridge need not be informed of any changes being made, as it will soon be obvious.
(c) The bridge should be informed before any changes are made, if at all possible.
(d) The bridge should be informed simultaneously as any changes are made, if at all possible.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

571.

(2.2.31-2) On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, the duty engineer is responsible
for making machinery space rounds when the engine room is unattended. How often should these
machinery space rounds be performed by the duty engineer?

o
o

(a) Every hour


(b) Every two hours
(c) Every four hours
(d) Every twelve hours

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

572.

(2.2.31-6) On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, under what conditions must the
propulsion console be continuously manned?

o
o
o

(a) Under standby conditions or while maneuvering


(b) Under standby conditions only
(c) While maneuvering only
(d) During the day work period

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

573.

(2.2.31-3) When entering an unattended machinery space to conduct maintenance or a


machinery space round, what must be done?

o
o

(a) The master should be telephoned at agreed to intervals.


(b) The first assistant engineer should be telephoned at agreed to intervals.
(c) The navigational watch officer should be telephoned at agreed to intervals.
(d) The chief engineer should be telephoned at agreed to intervals.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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574.

(2.2.30.1-1) On deep-draft ships, what statement is true concerning high and low sea suctions for
machinery space sea water cooling systems?

(a) A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is
used primarily while underway.
(b) A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is
used primarily while underway.
(c) A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway,
and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water.
(d) A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway,
and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

575.

(2.2.30.1-3) What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a high sea
suction to a low sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?

o
o
o

(a) Underway operations or encountering rough seas.


(b) Increasing the number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
(c) Reducing the total number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
(d) Entering port or shallow water.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

576.

(2.2.30.1-4) What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a low sea
suction to a high sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?

o
o
o

(a) Reducing the total number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
(b) Increasing the number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
(c) Underway operations or encountering rough seas.
(d) Entering port or shallow water.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

577.

(2.2.30.1-5) What provision is made for sea chests for removal of solid debris restricting the entry
grating into the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system?

o
o

(a) The debris is continuously removed by blowing the sea chest clear with either compressed air
or steam by cracking open the blow valve, as appropriate.
(b) The debris may be removed by blowing the sea chest clear with either compressed air or
steam, as appropriate.
(c) The debris may be removed by draining the sea chest clear by opening a drain valve located
at the bottom of the sea chest.
(d) The debris is continuously removed by draining the sea chest clear by cracking open a drain
valve located at the bottom of the sea chest.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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578.

(2.2.30.1-2) What provision is made for sea chests for removal of air ingested into the sea chest
of a machinery space sea water cooling system?

o
o

(a) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating
from the top of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges.
(b) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating
from the top of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load line.
(c) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating
from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges.
(d) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating
from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load line.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

579.

(2.2.30.1-6) What provision is made for sea chests for removal of ice from within the sea chest of
a machinery space sea water cooling system during operation in icy waters?

o
o

(a) The ice may be removed by using the chemical de-icing antifreeze connection, if provided.
(b) The ice may be removed by using the fire main flushing connection, if provided.
(c) The ice may be removed by using the steaming out sea chest blow connection, if provided.
(d) The ice may be removed by using the compressed air sea chest blow connection, if provided.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

580.

(2.2.30.1-7) Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, which
pump can be used to pump out the main machinery space bilge in a flooding emergency? Illustration
SP-SW-01

o
o
o

(a) The two-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(b) The auxiliary sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(c) The single-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(d) Any of the sea water service pumps can be used for this purpose.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

581.

(2.2.30.1-8) Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, which
pump is considered a high-head pump operating with the highest discharge pressure? Illustration
SP-SW-01

o
o
o

(a) The two-speed main sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump.
(b) The auxiliary sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump.
(c) The single-speed main sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump.
(d) Any of the sea water service pumps are considered high-head pumps.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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582.

(2.2.30.1-9) Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning sea water service system to auxiliary circulating sea water system
cross-connect capability? Illustration SP-SW-01

(a) In the event of auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple sea water service pumps may be
used to supply both the sea water service system and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat
exchangers.
(b) In the event of auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple sea water service pumps may be
used to supply the sea water service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary circulating sea
water system heat exchangers.
(c) In the event of multiple sea water service system pump failures, the auxiliary circulating pump
may be used to supply both the sea water service system and auxiliary circulating sea water
system heat exchangers.
(d) In the event of multiple sea water service system pump failures, multiple main circulating
pumps may be used to supply the sea water service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary
circulating sea water system heat exchangers.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

583.

(2.2.30.1-10) Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning main circulating to auxiliary circulating sea water system cross-connect
capability? Illustration SP-SW-01

(a) It is possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main circulating pump(s),
and it is possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the auxiliary circulating
pump.
(b) In the event of multiple sea water service system pump failures, multiple main circulating
pumps may be used to supply the sea water service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary
circulating sea water system heat exchangers.
(c) While it may be possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the auxiliary
circulating pump, it is not possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main
circulating pump(s).
(d) While it may be possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main
circulating pump(s), it is not possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the
auxiliary circulating pump.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

584.

(2.2.30.1-11) Classification society requirements stipulate that main sea water cooling pumps be
furnished with redundancy with either two dedicated pumps or with one dedicated pump and
one standby pump available for other sea water services. Referring to the illustrated motor ship sea
water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning meeting these classification society
requirements? Illustration MP-CW-01

o
o

(a) The standby main sea water cooling pump may also function as a fire pump.
(b) The standby main sea water cooling pump may also function as a clean bilge pump.
(c) The standby main sea water cooling pump may also function as a ballast pump.
(d) Both main sea water cooling pumps are dedicated to main engine cooling only.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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585.

(2.2.30.2-1) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the main engine jacket water cooling temperature control system?
Illustration MP-CW-06

o
o
o

(a) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a mixer and is used
to control the main engine jacket water inlet header temperature.
(b) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a diverter and is
used to control the main engine jacket water inlet header temperature.
(c) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a mixer and is used
to control the main engine jacket water outlet header temperature.
(d) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a diverter and is
used to control the main engine jacket water outlet header temperature.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

586.

(2.2.30.2-2) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the main engine jacket water cooling system heat recovery capability
as associated with generating fresh water? Illustration MP-CW-06

o
o
o

(a) The main engine jacket water heater is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in
generating fresh water at the evaporator.
(b) The main engine jacket water cooler is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in
generating fresh water at the evaporator.
(c) The evaporator standby heater is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in
generating fresh water at the evaporator.
(d) The evaporator itself is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in generating
fresh water at the evaporator.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

587.

(2.2.30.2-3) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the jacket water heater? Illustration MP-CW-06

o
o
o

(a) The jacket water heater is used only when the engine is idle to keep the engine warm.
(b) The jacket water heater is used under low engine load conditions to provide supplemental
heat for the evaporator.
(c) The jacket water heater is used only when the engine is idle for the sole purpose of generating
fresh water at the evaporator.
(d) The jacket water heater is used under high engine load conditions to dissipate excess engine
heat.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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588.

(2.2.30.2-4) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the standby heating coil? Illustration MP-CW-06

o
o

(a) The standby heating coil is used under high engine load conditions to supplement the jacket
water cooler.
(b) The standby heating coil is used only when the engine is idle to keep the engine warm.
(c) The standby heating coil is used under low engine load conditions to provide supplemental
heat for the evaporator.
(d) The standby heating coil is used under high engine load conditions to dissipate excess engine
heat.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

589.

(2.2.30.2-5) For a typical diesel engine jacket water cooling system, what location would be
generally used to introduce water treatment chemicals?

o
o
o

(a) Jacket water expansion tank.


(b) Jacket water outlet header
(c) Jacket water inlet header.
(d) Jacket water pump vent.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

590.

(2.2.30.2-6) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the evaporator? Illustration MP-CW-06

o
o

(a) The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to
generate fresh water and is piped in series with and after the jacket water cooler.
(b) The evaporator uses heat recovered from the jacket water cooler sea water as a heat source
to generate fresh water and is piped in series with and prior to the jacket water cooler.
(c) The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to
generate fresh water and is piped in series with and prior to the jacket water cooler.
(d) The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to
generate fresh water and is piped in parallel with the jacket water cooler.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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591.

(2.2.30.2-7) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the turbocharger bypass line associated with the jacket water cooling
system? Illustration MP-CW-06

(a) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling
water flow so that the turbocharger receives a greater flow rate of cooling water as compared
to the main engine cooling water jackets.
(b) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice works in conjunction with
the deaerator to remove entrained air from the jacket water outlet.
(c) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling
water flow so that the turbocharger receives a lesser flow rate of cooling water as compared
to the main engine cooling water jackets.
(d) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling
water flow so that the turbocharger receives the same flow rate of cooling water as does the main
engine cooling water jackets.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

592.

(2.2.30.2-8) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, which set
of cooling water pumps would MOST likely require a priming maintenance system or the use of deep
well pumps? Illustration MP-CW-06

o
o

(a) The main engine jacket cooling fresh water pumps.


(b) The main engine piston cooling fresh water pumps.
(c) The main engine injector cooling fresh water pumps.
(d) The ship's service diesel-generator fresh water cooling pumps.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

593.

(2.2.30.2-9) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, which
cooling system has cooling water passing through passages within components that are
continuously undergoing motion? Illustration MP-CW-06

o
o

(a) The main engine jacket water cooling system.


(b) The SSDG cooling water systems.
(c) The main engine piston cooling water system.
(d) The main engine injector cooling water system.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

594.

(2.2.30.2-10) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, which
cooling system tanks are MOST likely to have oil separation capability? Illustration MP-CW-06

o
o

(a) SSDG fresh water expansion tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank.
(b) Injector cooling water tank and piston cooling water drain tank.
(c) Piston cooling water drain tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank.
(d) Injector cooling water tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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595.

(2.2.22.1.1-1) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal


regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, for vessels of 400 gross tons and above which are all
required to carry an oily-water separator to process bilge slops, what is the design criteria in terms of
maximum oil content of the overboard discharge?

o
o

(a) 3 parts per million


(b) 15 parts per million
(c) 100 parts per million
(d) 150 parts per million

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

596.

(2.2.22.1.1-2) In accordance with federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, for U.S nonoceangoing ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling
bilge slops?

o
o

(a) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or
in a slops tank and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility.
(b) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million
oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
(c) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it
is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility.
(d) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million
oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

597.

(2.2.22.1.1-3) In accordance with federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing
ships of less than 400 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it
pertains to handling bilge slops?

(a) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to be equipped with an approved
15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge
alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15
ppm.
(b) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to be equipped with an approved
15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge
alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds
15 ppm.
(c) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is EITHER required to retain onboard all oily
mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to be equipped to discharge these
mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be equipped with an approved oilywater separator.
(d) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures
in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception
facility.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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598.

(2.2.22.1.1-4) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal


regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of 400 gross tons and above but less
than 10,000 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to
handling bilge slops?

(a) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge
these mixtures to a reception facility.
(b) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to
have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge
when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
(c) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is EITHER
required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to
be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be
equipped with an approved oily-water separator.
(d) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required
to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge
when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

599.

(2.2.22.1.1-5) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal


regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of 10,000 gross tons and above,
what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?

(a) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to be equipped with an
approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oilcontent bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content
exceeds 15 ppm.
(b) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to retain onboard all oily
mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a
reception facility.
(c) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is EITHER required to retain onboard all
oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to be equipped to discharge these
mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be equipped with an approved oilywater separator.
(d) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to be equipped with an
approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content
bilge alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content
exceeds 15 ppm.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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600.

(2.2.22.1.1-6) In what part of 33 CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific
machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker that
must be entered into an Oil Record Book?

o
o

(a) 33 CFR Part 151.15


(b) 33 CFR Part 151.25
(c) 33 CFR Part 151.55
(d) 33 CFR Part 151.2070

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

601.

(2.2.22.1.1-7) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal
regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400
gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. This includes
disposal of oil residues and overboard discharge of bilge water that has accumulated in machinery
spaces, as well as other operations. Who is responsible for signing the Oil Record Book entry for the
specific operation?

o
o

(a) The master of the vessel


(b) The officer in charge of the operation
(c) The chief engineer
(d) The first assistant engineer

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

602.

(2.2.22.1.1-8) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal
regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400
gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. Which of the
listed machinery space operations must be documented in the Oil Record Book?

o
o
o

(a) Discharge overboard of bilge water that has accumulated in the dry cargo-holds.
(b) Taking on ballast water into double bottom sea water ballast tanks.
(c) Discharge of ballast from double bottom sea water ballast tanks.
(d) Discharge of waste oil or sludge to a reception facility.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

603.

(2.2.22.1.1-9) In accordance with the federal regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O, continuing


violations of The Federal Water Pollution Control Act and international MARPOL
regulations may constitute separate violations subject to civil penalties. Which of the following
statements is true?

o
o

(a) Each hour of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation.


(b) Each day of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation.
(c) Each week of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation.
(d) Each month of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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604.

(2.2.22.1.1-10) In accordance with the federal regulation in 33 CFR Subchapter O, which


discharge of oil or oily mixture to sea is permissible?

o
o
o

(a) When the discharge is necessary for the purpose of securing the safety of a ship or saving life
at sea.
(b) When the oil content of the effluent without dilution is less than 100 parts per million.
(c) When the oil or oily mixture originates from tanker cargo pump room bilges.
(d) When the oil or oily mixture is mixed with tanker cargo residues.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

605.

(2.2.22.1.3-5) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal


regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of ground paper products,
rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical
miles of the nearest land?

o
o
o

(a) 3 nautical miles


(b) 12 nautical miles
(c) 25 nautical miles
(d) 200 nautical miles

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

606.

(2.2.22.1.3-1) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal


regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of what category of garbage is prohibited in
any waters?

o
o
o

(a) Ground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.
(b) Unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.
(c) Floating dunnage, lining, or packing material.
(d) Plastic or garbage mixed with plastic.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

607.

(2.2.22.1.3-3) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal


regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of dunnage, lining, and
packing materials that float applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the
nearest land?

o
o

(a) 3 nautical miles


(b) 12 nautical miles
(c) 25 nautical miles
(d) 200 nautical miles

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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608.

(2.2.22.1.3-7) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal


regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, the discharge or disposal of garbage on vessels of 400
gross tons and above engaged in commerce requires recordkeeping. Which of the following
discharge or disposal operations requires a detailed description of the contents of the garbage?

o
o

(a) Incineration on the ship.


(b) Discharge overboard to sea.
(c) Discharge to a reception facility.
(d) Discharge to another ship.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

609.

(2.2.22.1.3-4) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal


regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of unground paper
products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating within how many
nautical miles of the nearest land?

o
o

(a) 3 nautical miles


(b) 12 nautical miles
(c) 25 nautical miles
(d) 200 nautical miles

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

610.

(2.2.22.1.3-6) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal


regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of plastics into the sea or the navigable
waters of the United States is strictly prohibited. Which of the following statements is true concerning
the legal disposal of plastics?

o
o
o

(a) The garbage containing plastics must be either discharged ashore to an approved reception
facility or incinerated onboard the ship.
(b) The garbage containing plastics must be incinerated onboard ship. Discharge ashore to an
approved reception facility is not permitted.
(c) The garbage containing plastics must be discharged ashore to an approved reception facility.
Incineration onboard the ship is not permitted.
(d) The garbage containing plastics must be discharged ashore to an approved plastics recycling
facility.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

611.

(2.2.22.1.2-1) Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of the
term "sewage"?

o
o

(a) Victual or food wastes collected from galley sinks.


(b) Various deck drains situated within the vessel's superstructure.
(c) Human body wastes and the wastes from toilets and other receptacles intended to receive or
retain body waste.
(d) Drains collected from sinks and showers from the various heads onboard ship.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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612.

(2.2.22.1.2-2) Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a
"Type I Marine Sanitation Device"?

o
o

(a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.
(b) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage.
(c) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
(d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

613.

(2.2.22.1.2-3) Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a
"Type II Marine Sanitation Device"?

o
o
o

(a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
(b) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
(c) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage.
(d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

614.

(2.2.22.1.2-4) Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a
"Type III Marine Sanitation Device"?

o
o

(a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
(b) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage.
(c) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.
(d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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615.

(2.2.22.1.2-5) Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a
Type III Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of untreated sewage is
prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage
is UNACCEPTABLE?

o
o

(a) Using a non-releasable wire-tire to hold each valve leading to an overboard discharge in the
closed position.
(b) Closing each valve leading to an overboard discharge and removing the handle.
(c) Closing and tagging each valve leading to an overboard discharge.
(d) Padlocking each valve leading to an overboard discharge in the closed position.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

616.

(2.2.22.1.2-6) Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a
Type II Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of treated or untreated
sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge
of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical to close the seacock and prevent its opening?

o
o

(a) Making an announcement over the public address system advising all concerned that the
vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
(b) Placing a warning sign on the door to the space enclosing the toilets advising all concerned
that the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
(c) Locking the door to the space enclosing the toilets with a padlock or door handle key lock to
prevent entry when the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
(d) Placing of tape forming an "X" over toilet and urinal bowls to convey to all concerned that the
vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

617.

(2.2.22.1.2-7) Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is less
than 3 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?

o
o
o

(a) The discharge of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of disinfected sewage is
permitted.
(b) The discharge of comminuted and disinfected sewage is permitted.
(c) The discharge of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of comminuted sewage is
permitted.
(d) The discharge of any sewage, treated or untreated, is prohibited.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

618.

(2.2.22.1.2-8) Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is more
than 3, but less than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?

o
o
o

(a) The discharge of comminuted and disinfected sewage is permitted.


(b) The discharge of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of comminuted sewage is
permitted.
(c) The discharge of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of disinfected sewage is
permitted.
(d) The discharge of any sewage, treated or untreated, is prohibited.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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619.

(2.2.22.1.2-9) Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is more
than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?

o
o

(a) The discharge of comminuted and disinfected sewage is prohibited.


(b) The discharge of any sewage, treated or untreated, is permitted.
(c) The discharge of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of disinfected sewage is
permitted.
(d) The discharge of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of comminuted sewage is
permitted.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

620.

(2.2.22.1.4-1) Which of the following fire extinguishing agents which may be found aboard ship is
designated as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that
Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?

o
o

(a) CO2
(b) Halon 1301
(c) Cartridge-operated dry chemical
(d) Cartridge-operated dry powder

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

621.

(2.2.22.1.4-2) Which of the following refrigerants which may be found aboard ship is designated
as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete
the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?

o
o
o

(a) R-12
(b) R-134a
(c) R-404A
(d) R-410A

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

622.

(2.2.22.1.4-3) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the nitrous
oxide (NOx) emissions associated with certain diesel engines are required to operate under certain
acceptable limits. To which of the listed engine applications would the NOx emission regulations
apply?

o
o
o

(a) Diesel engines with a power output of more than 130kW.


(b) Diesel engines with a power output not greater than 130kW.
(c) Diesel engines powering emergency diesel-generator sets.
(d) Diesel engines powering lifeboats.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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623.

(2.2.22.1.4-4) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the sulfur
content of any fuel oil used onboard ships shall not exceed what percentage by weight?

o
o

(a) 1.5%
(b) 3.0%
(c) 4.5%
(d) 6.0%

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

624.

(2.2.22.1.4-5) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, in the absence
of an exhaust gas cleaning system, what is the maximum allowable sulfur content for a fuel to be
burned while the ship is operating in an emissions control area?

o
o
o

(a) 1.5%
(b) 3.0%
(c) 4.5%
(d) 6.0%

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

625.

(2.2.22.1.4-6) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the
listed substances are prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?

o
o
o

(a) Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)


(b) Oil residue sludges
(c) Unground garbage
(d) Sewage waste sludges

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

626.

(2.2.22.1.4-7) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the
listed substances are prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?

o
o
o

(a) Refined petroleum products containing detergent additives.


(b) Garbage containing trace amounts of heavy metals.
(c) Oil residue and sewage waste sludges.
(d) Refined petroleum products containing halogen compounds.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

627.

(2.2.22.1.4-8) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is the
minimum allowable flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-fed shipboard incinerator while in
operation?

o
o

(a) 450 C
o
(b) 650 F
o
(c) 850 F
o
(d) 1050 F

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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628.

(2.2.22.1.4-9) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is a


permissible alternative to burning oil residue sludge in an appropriate incinerator?

o
o
o

(a) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine, AND it may be burned only in
unrestricted waters (other than in port, in harbors, or estuaries).
(b) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine, AND it may be burned without
restriction in terms of vessel location.
(c) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned only in unrestricted
waters (other than in port, in harbors, or estuaries).
(d) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned without restriction
in terms of vessel location.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

629.

(2.2.26.2.1-8) The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that
the latter __________.

o
o

(a) is more easily centered


(b) has a headless set screw
(c) has a spring loaded catch
(d) allows for misaligned center holes

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

630.

(2.2.26.2.1-13) The lathe tool shown as figure "N" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
__________. Illustration GS-0090

o
o
o

(a) furling tool


(b) curling tool
(c) hurling tool
(d) knurling tool

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

631.

(2.2.26.2.1-3) Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a smooth finish cut for
figure I? Illustration GS-0009

o
o
o

(a) A
(b) F
(c) G
(d) D

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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632.

(2.2.26.2.1-15) The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is properly called the
__________. Illustration GS-0164

o
o
o

(a) side relief angle


(b) side rake angle
(c) working relief angle
(d) nose angle

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

633.

o
o
o

(2.2.26.2.1-1) The tool shown in the illustration is called a __________. Illustration GS-0072
(a) center gage
(b) crotch center
(c) drill gage
(d) thread gage

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

634.

(2.2.26.2.1-12) Which lathe tool shown in the illustration would best be used on a work piece to
perform a right hand facing operation? Illustration GS-0090

o
o

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) V

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

635.

(2.2.26.2.1-16) Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jaw
independent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck?

o
o
o

(a) The jaws on the three-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted.


(b) The three-jaw chuck will hold square, round, and irregular shapes in either a concentric or an
eccentric position.
(c) Since the three-jaw universal chuck is automatically self-centering, it is always more accurate
than the four-jaw independent chuck.
(d) The jaws on the four-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

636.

(2.2.26.2.1-5) The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as
__________. Illustration GS-0090

o
o
o

(a) form tools


(b) curvature cutting tools
(c) parting tools
(d) universal turning tools

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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637.

(2.2.26.2.1-9) Which of the illustrated figures represents the use of a right hand roughing tool?
Illustration GS-0090

o
o

(a) Figure P
(b) Figure S
(c) Figure T
(d) Figure V

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

638.

(2.2.26.2.1-2) The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
__________. Illustration GS-0090

o
o
o

(a) universal turning tool


(b) right side end facing tool
(c) left cut side-facing tool
(d) cutting-off tool

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

639.

(2.2.26.2.1-6) Which single illustrated lathe tool could be used to turn down the stock in figure II?
Illustration GS-0009

o
o

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) G

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

640.

(2.2.26.2.1-11) In machine shop practice, a center gage is used for checking the angle of
__________.

o
o

(a) drill points


(b) screw threads
(c) 60 thread cutting tools
(d) screw thread pitch

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

641.
o
o

(2.2.26.2.2-7) A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine __________.


(a) work mounted on the lathe carriage
(b) large diameter stock between centers
(c) threads on long slender shafts
(d) round stock to a finished dimension

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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642.

(2.2.26.2.2-9) A work piece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each
end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test
cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.

o
o

(a) toward you to correct alignment


(b) away from you to correct alignment
(c) closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offset
(d) away from the headstock to decrease the misalignment

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

643.

(2.2.26.2.2-3) To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18 inch work piece, the tailstock of the
lathe must be set over __________.

o
o
o

(a) 3/8 inch


(b) 1/2 inch
(c) 3/4 inch
(d) 7/8 inch

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

644.

(2.2.26.2.2-21) Before power to a lathe is turned on, it is a good shop practice to first hand feed
the carriage to ensure __________.

o
o

(a) the work piece is secure in the lathe


(b) the carriage is lubricated
(c) all locking devices have been released
(d) the lathe is level

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

645.
o
o
o

(2.2.26.2.2-15) Which of the following statements best defines 'depth of cut' in lathe work?
(a) The chip length that will be removed from the work in 1 minute.
(b) The distance to tool point advances with each revolution of the work.
(c) The distance the work piece circumference moves past the cutting tool point in 1 minute.
(d) The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the work piece.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

646.

(2.2.26.2.2-5) If you are machining work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin
to squeal, you should first __________.

o
o

(a) change the cutting bit


(b) run the lathe at a slower speed
(c) stop the lathe
(d) lubricate the centers

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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647.

(2.2.26.2.2-11) To properly cut even numbered threads using the lathe thread dial indicator
shown in the illustration, you should close the lathe split or half-nut on __________. Illustration GS0084

o
o

(a) even numbered lines only


(b) odd numbered lines only
(c) any line on the dial
(d) any unnumbered half line

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

648.

(2.2.26.2.2-18) To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe using the thread dial
indicator illustrated, you should close the lathe split, or half-nut on __________. Illustration GS-0084

o
o
o

(a) any numbered line on the dial


(b) even numbered lines only
(c) odd numbered lines only
(d) any line on the dial

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

649.
o
o

(2.2.26.1.2-11) All straight shank twist drills must be mounted or held in a __________.
(a) tapered sleeve
(b) morse sleeve
(c) drill chuck
(d) drill socket

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

650.

(2.2.26.1.2-1) When drilling holes larger than 1/2 inch, drilling a smaller hole first is a good
practice. This is called a pilot hole, and the pilot drill should have a diameter __________.

o
o
o

(a) slightly larger than the web thickness of the larger drill
(b) smaller than the dead center of chisel edge of the larger drill
(c) small enough to ensure the maximum cut by the larger drill
(d) equal to at least 1/2 the diameter of the larger drill

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

651.
o
o

(2.2.26.1.2-8) Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without lubrication?
(a) Tungsten
(b) Steel
(c) Brass
(d) Monel

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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652.
o
o

(2.2.26.1.2-2) Which material can be drilled at the highest speed?


(a) Copper
(b) High carbon steel
(c) Aluminum
(d) Medium cast iron

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

653.
o

o
o

(2.2.26.1.2-6) A tapered shank drill is removed from the drill press spindle with a __________.
(a) vice grip
(b) drill drift
(c) leather mallet
(d) taper punch

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

654.

(2.2.26.1.2-7) Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, the location of the hole center should be
__________.

o
o
o

(a) marked with chalk


(b) blued
(c) scribed
(d) center punched

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

655.

(2.2.26.1.2-13) Failing to decrease the feed pressure on a drill as its point begins to break
through the bottom of the work piece will cause the drill to __________.

o
o
o

(a) break cleanly through the bottom of the work piece


(b) form a tapered hole in the bottom of the work piece
(c) cut an elongated hole in the bottom of the work piece
(d) jam in the work piece and tend to whirl it around

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

656.

(2.2.26.1.2-12) Generally speaking, when using a twist drill to bore a hole in metal, the harder the
metal, the greater the drill's required __________.

o
o
o

(a) included point angle


(b) cutting speed
(c) diameter
(d) lip clearance

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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657.

(2.2.26.1.2-5) One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill press is to
__________.

o
o
o

(a) change the terminal connections of the drive motor


(b) move the drive belt to a smaller diameter motor pulley
(c) change to a larger diameter spindle
(d) move the drive belt to a smaller diameter spindle pulley

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

658.

(2.2.26.1.2-10) Before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop practice to follow is to
__________.

o
o
o

(a) drill to the large diameter of the taper


(b) use a tapered reamer
(c) bore a straight hole
(d) drill to the small diameter of the taper

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

659.

(2.2.19.4-1) The action necessary to use the steering gear room trick wheel when transferring the
steering control from the wheelhouse to local control is to __________.

o
o
o

(a) align the trick wheel to the rudder angle position before engaging
(b) set the six-way control valve in the trick wheel position
(c) open the power transfer switch before engaging the trick wheel
(d) always place the rudder in the amidships position to engage the trick wheel

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

660.

(2.2.19.4-2) A command signal input to the steering gear has initiated rudder movement for 20
right rudder. The follow-up mechanism at the beginning of the rudder movement will __________.
Illustration GS-0123

o
o
o

(a) be in motion with a null input


(b) be in motion providing an input to place the variable stroke pump at null stroke
(c) be in motion providing an input to place the variable stroke pump on maximum stroke
(d) not be in motion, thus a null input

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

661.

o
o
o

(2.2.19.4-3) Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________.


(a) rudder angle indicator
(b) follow-up gear
(c) telemotor position
(d) Rapson slide indicator

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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662.

(2.2.19.4-4) When the helm angle position is changed, the series of corresponding events of the
steering gear will include __________.
I. rate of steering gear ram movement will be proportional to amount of helm angle input

II. degree of tilting plate (box) angle will be proportional to the amount of helm angle input
o

o
o

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

663.

(2.2.19.1-1) Hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, change over valves, utilized in a two ram
hydraulic steering gear, serve to __________.

o
o

(a) allow an alternate main pump to start in the fully loaded condition thus developing immediate
full torque
(b) prevent both units from operating simultaneously which could result in doubling the flow of oil
and pressure leading to over pressurization of the system
(c) prevent either main pump from being hydraulically motored when idle by cross pressure flow
(d) all of the above

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

664.

(2.2.19.1-2) The rudder torque capacity of the four ram steering gear illustrated is rated at
44,210,000 inch-pounds with one power unit in operation. If the four ram system was able to be
operated as a two ram system with both power units on line, what would be the available torque?
Illustration GS-0067

o
o

(a) 11,052,500 inch-pounds


(b) 22,105,000 inch-pounds
(c) 44,210,000 inch-pounds
(d) 88,420,000 inch-pounds

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

665.

(2.2.19.1-3) When responding to a 'right rudder' command from the amidships position, which
parts of the steering gear system illustrated will be subjected to the highest pressure? Illustration
GS-0137

o
o

(a) "C" and "F"


(b) "E" and "B"
(c) "F" and "E"
(d) "B" and "C"

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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666.

(2.2.19.1-4) In an electro-hydraulic steering system, damage due to rudder shock is prevented by


__________.

o
o

(a) buffer springs


(b) relief valves
(c) oil flowing through the pumps
(d) dashpots

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

667.

o
o
o

(2.2.19.2-1) The device shown in the illustration is a/an __________. Illustration GS-0116
(a) vane type steering gear
(b) oil scraper ring stuffing box for a crosshead engine
(c) diesel engine motor mount
(d) mechanical shaft seal

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

668.

(2.2.19.2-2) If it is necessary to prevent the rudder from moving while a repair is made on the
steering system using the illustrated actuator __________. Illustration GS-0116

o
o
o

(a) secure the valves in the supply and return lines


(b) screw in the locking pin, item "J"
(c) tighten the locking pins, item "H" at each position of item "I" to keep the rudder from swinging
(d) tighten the locking screws in item "S"

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

669.

(2.2.19.3.2-3) If oil under pressure is supplied to the area noted as "N" on the vane in the
illustration __________. Illustration GS-0116

o
o

(a) "O" will be hydraulically locked in place even though oil is returned to the main pump from the
area between "M" and "I"
(b) "O" will rotate clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I"
(c) "O" will rotate counter-clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I"
(d) "Q" will rotate counter-clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I"

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

670.

(2.2.19.2-4) The operation of the device shown in the illustration is dependent upon __________.
Illustration GS-0116

o
o

(a) all items, similar to "I" move as the rudder stock rotates
(b) all items, similar to "N" move as the rudder stock rotates
(c) both "I" and "N" move as the rudder stock rotates
(d) neither "I" nor "N" move as the rudder stock rotates

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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1.

(3.2.1.2-8) As a result of a load or set point change, in addition to minimizing the maximum value of
the error, what are the two additional objectives of a closed-loop control system?
o

o
o

(a) The closed-loop control system should maximize the settling time and maximize the residual
error.
(b) The closed-loop control system should minimize the settling time and minimize the residual
error.
(c) The closed-loop control system should minimize the settling time and maximize the residual
error.
(d) The closed-loop control system should maximize the settling time and minimize the residual
error.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

2.

(3.2.1.1-4) In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by error?


o
o

(a) The progressive reduction or suppression of oscillation in a component.


(b) The criterion of good control that permits no overshoot when the set point is changed.
(c) The signal in a controller that is obtained by subtracting the measured value of the controlled
value from the set point.
(d) The ratio of the amplitude of the output signal of a component divided by the amplitude of the
input signal.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

3.

(3.2.1.1-9) In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the action of
measuring the difference between the actual result and the desired result and using that difference
to drive the actual result toward the desired result?
o
o

(a) Instability
(b) Gain
(c) Feedback
(d) Dead band

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

4.

(3.2.1.1-5) In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by the proportional mode of
control?
o
o
o

(a) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the gain.
(b) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the rate at which the
error is changing.
(c) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the accumulation of
error over time.
(d) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the error.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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First Assistant-Chief Engineer

5.

(3.2.1.1-6) In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by the integral mode of control?
o
o
o

(a) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the rate at which the
error is changing.
(b) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the error.
(c) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the gain.
(d) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the accumulation of
error over time.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

6.

(3.2.1.1-10) In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the progressive
reduction or suppression of oscillation in a component?
o

o
o

(a) Saturation
(b) Damping
(c) Hysteresis
(d) Dead band

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

7.

(3.2.2.2-4) Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or
wheel puller with a ________.
o
o

(a) jack screw


(b) ring gage
(c) split washer or backup ring
(d) split die

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

8.

(3.2.2.2-3) When removing roller bearings from a shaft, the force of the puller should be applied to
the bearing __________.
o
o
o

(a) outer race


(b) retainer plate
(c) raceway
(d) inner race

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

9.

(3.2.2.2-2) In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by
__________.
o

o
o

(a) a zerk fitting


(b) spring force
(c) gravity flow
(d) a pressure gun

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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First Assistant-Chief Engineer

10. (3.2.2.1-2) Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each
other?
o

o
o

(a) Tapered roller


(b) Ball
(c) Needle
(d) Roller

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

11. (3.2.2.1-4) Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?
o

o
o

(a) Piston pin bushing


(b) Spring bearing
(c) Thrust bearing
(d) All of the above.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

12. (3.2.2.1-5) Which of the following statements concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps is
true?
o
o
o

(a) The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft.


(b) The outer race should be free to turn its housing.
(c) Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation.
(d) They are usually pressed on to their shafts.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

13. (3.2.2.1-1) The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.
o

o
o

(a) inner race cone width


(b) manufacturer's numerical code
(c) outer ring width
(d) rolling member size

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

14. (3.2.2.3-2) As the speed of an oil lubricated ball bearing increases, fluid friction, due to churning,
generates heat. This condition may be avoided by __________.

o
o
o

(a) reducing the quantity of lubricant until only a mist of oil is present on the ball bearings
(b) installing oil rings on the ball bearings
(c) adding more lubricant until the ball bearings are completely covered with a layer of oil
(d) maintaining a continuous fluid film of oil on the bearings

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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First Assistant-Chief Engineer

15. (3.2.2.3-3) A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________.

o
o
o

(a) vibration while the bearing is not in operation


(b) abrasives in the lubricant
(c) dirt in the bearing
(d) water in the bearing

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

16. (3.2.2.3-1) Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.
o
o
o

(a) excessive channeling of the grease


(b) gelling of the base oil
(c) emulsification of the thickener additive
(d) high temperatures to develop as result of churning

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

17. (3.2.3.1-1) Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the No.6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which
combination of valves illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closed? Illustration
GS-0139
o
o

(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 open; 4, 7, 8 and 9 closed.


(b) 1, 2, 7 and 9 open; 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 and 10 closed.
(c) 1, 3, 5, 6, 8 and 10 open; 2, 4, 7 and 9 closed.
(d) 3, 4, 7 and 9 open; 1, 2, 5, 6 and 10 closed.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

18. (3.2.3.1-2) In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in
the illustration, how many suction side valves must be open? Illustration GS-0042
o

o
o

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

19. (3.2.3.1-3) One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the
discharge valve closed, is that the __________.

o
o
o

(a) pump will overheat


(b) relief valve will open
(c) motor overload will open
(d) motor will overheat

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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First Assistant-Chief Engineer

20. (3.2.3.1-4) The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used __________.

o
o
o

(a) if the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means
(b) to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction
(c) when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water
circulation
(d) to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

21. (3.2.3.1-5) Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by
__________.
o
o
o

(a) using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump


(b) installing a swing check before each bilge valve
(c) installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes
(d) stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

22. (3.2.3.2-1) As routine maintenance, the bilge manifold valves are periodically removed and
examined. Prior to re-securing the valve bonnets, the valve __________.
o
o
o

(a) disks and seats should be checked and lapped if necessary


(b) bonnet flange gaskets should be renewed if they were cut or torn
(c) stem packing should be renewed if the packing has hardened
(d) all of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

23. (3.2.3.3-1) The aft starboard bilge well is clogged, and back flushing has not been successful. The
next practical solution would be to __________.
o
o

(a) place 20 gallons ( 75.7 L) of fuel oil tank wash into the affected bilge well to clear the blockage
(b) change the trim of the ship to port in order to pump out the bilges for the remainder of the
voyage
(c) properly and safely empty the well with a portable pump then manually muck it out
(d) all of the above

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

24. (3.2.3.3-2) The bilge system has been performing well; however, the aft starboard engine room bilge
well suddenly fails to be pumped out. Which of the following should be done first to determine the
cause?
o

o
o

(a) Open the bilge pump for inspection.


(b) Attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire system is affected.
(c) Remove each of the manifold valves.
(d) Remove only the manifold valve to the affected bilge well.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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First Assistant-Chief Engineer

25. (3.2.3.3-3) You are unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well that is fouled, with
one foot of water over the top of the bilge well, what action should be carried out?
o
o

(a) Send the wiper into the well with only a scoop and pail.
(b) Simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps.
(c) Remove the bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line.
(d) It is only necessary to transfer half the contents of a drum of degreaser into the bilge well.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

26. (3.2.3.3-4) If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, the __________.
o
o

(a) bilge well connected to that valve, plus the second bilge well being pumped will be completely
emptied
(b) bilge well aft connected to that valve will siphon its contents to the forward bilge wells
(c) bilge system will lose vacuum and prevent the other bilges from being pumped out
(d) all of the above

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

27. (3.2.3.3-5) If an operating bilge pump is developing good vacuum, but is unable to discharge any
water, which of the following problems is the most probable cause?
o
o

(a) The discharge valve is clogged.


(b) The wearing rings are excessively worn.
(c) The suction strainer is clogged.
(d) The shaft is worn.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

28. (3.2.3.3-6) If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum, but is unable to sufficiently pump out the
bilges, you would check for all of the following EXCEPT __________.

o
o
o

(a) the circuit breaker


(b) for leaks in the suction piping
(c) the suction strainer
(d) relief valve is not properly seated

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

29. (3.2.4.4.3-4) Under what conditions would the pre-treatment capabilities of a reverse osmosis fresh
water generator MOST likely be overloaded, and as a result, these conditions should generally be
avoided?
o

o
o

(a) Entering low temperature seas.


(b) Entering harbors.
(c) Entering high temperature seas.
(d) Entering open seas.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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First Assistant-Chief Engineer

30. (3.2.4.4.3-2) If a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator has fouled membrane modules, what
statement is true?
o
o

(a) The freshwater production rate would be higher than normal, and the feed pressure would be
higher than normal.
(b) The freshwater production rate would be higher than normal, and the feed pressure would be
lower than normal.
(c) The freshwater production rate would be lower than normal, and the feed pressure would be
higher than normal.
(d) The freshwater production rate would be lower than normal, and the feed pressure would be
lower than normal.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

31. (3.2.4.4.3-1) What is the BEST indication that the pre-treatment filter (or filters) of a reverse osmosis
fresh water generator must be serviced by cleaning or replacement?

o
o
o

(a) An excessive pressure drop across the pre-treatment filter.


(b) An excessive salinity of the fresh water output.
(c) An insufficient fresh water production by the unit.
(d) An excessive pressure drop across the membrane modules.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

32. (3.2.4.4.3-3) What is the BEST indication that the membrane module is damaged and is no longer
semi-permeable and allowing the solute to pass through?
o
o

(a) Lower than normal fresh water production.


(b) Higher than normal brine overboard back pressure.
(c) High fresh water outlet salinity.
(d) Low fresh water outlet salinity.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

33. (3.2.4.2.1-6) Item "M" shown in the illustration is the __________. Illustration MO-0110
o
o
o

(a) salt water inlet


(b) brine water outlet
(c) feed water inlet
(d) jacket water inlet

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

34. (3.2.4.2.1-7) Which of the following is NOT a function of the water supply through item "P" shown in
the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
o

o
o

(a) It supplies feed water to evaporator.


(b) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of the distillate.
(c) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of the brine.
(d) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of air and non-condensable gases.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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First Assistant-Chief Engineer

35. (3.2.4.2.1-2) What is the function of item 'D' shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110

o
o
o

(a) It heats the entering feed water.


(b) It condenses the distillate.
(c) It heats the jacket water entering the device.
(d) It causes the jacket water to evaporate.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

36. (3.2.4.2.1-4) What is the function of device "A" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
o
o
o

(a) It aids in removing condenser tube bundles.


(b) It provides a conduit for incoming feed water.
(c) It is only used as a lifting beam during installation.
(d) It serves as a hinge for ease of opening the shell.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

37. (3.2.4.2.1-3) Which of the following conditions occurs in the section labeled "F" of the device shown
in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110

o
o
o

(a) The vapors produced in section "G" are condensed and the non-condensable gases are
removed.
(b) The jacket water flowing through device "I" is heated.
(c) The sea water flowing through device "I" is cooled.
(d) Non-condensable vapors are removed and water vapors are preheated.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

38. (3.2.4.1.1-12) Feed water supplied to a flash type distilling plant will flash to vapor in the first-stage
due to __________.
o
o
o

(a) temperature being higher than the evaporation temperature of the supplied feed water
(b) heat exchange surfaces being directly in the path of the entering feed water
(c) orifices finely atomizing the heated feed water entering the flash chamber
(d) flash chamber pressure being lower than the saturation pressure corresponding to the feed
water temperature

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

39. (3.2.4.1.1-9) The vacuum maintained in the salt water feed heater shell of a flash-type evaporator is
generally accomplished by __________.
o
o

(a) the fixed orifice provided in the steam supply line


(b) a direct unimpeded connection between second stage and salt water feed heater
(c) by an external line from the first stage via a fixed orifice
(d) a separate air ejector unit

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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First Assistant-Chief Engineer

40. (3.2.4.1.1-14) Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in a flash-type
evaporator are removed by the __________.
o
o
o

(a) spray pipes


(b) condensers
(c) splash baffles
(d) demisters

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

41. (3.2.4.1.1-6) Regarding the low pressure evaporator steam control orifice in the live steam supply
line, the steam at the outlet of the orifice if not properly conditioned will be developed as
__________.
o
o
o

(a) poor quality steam


(b) desuperheated steam
(c) saturated steam
(d) superheated steam

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

42. (3.2.4.1.1-11) Under normal operating conditions, the highest temperature and pressure conditions
existing for flash-type evaporators will occur in the __________.
o
o
o

(a) second stage


(b) first stage
(c) brine pump discharge
(d) salt water feed heater

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

43. (3.2.4.1.1-2) Where a two-stage air ejector set is used in a two-stage flash evaporator, the first-stage
air ejector takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator, and the second stage air ejector
__________.
o
o

(a) takes suction from the first stage of the evaporator


(b) takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator as well
(c) takes suction from the first stage ejector discharge
(d) is normally idle and used mainly as a standby unit

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

44. (3.2.4.1.1-4) The temperature of the steam flow to the saltwater feed heater, in a flash type
evaporator can be manipulated by a/an __________.
o
o

(a) sensor wired in with the three-way salinity dump valve


(b) pressure regulator within the supply orifice
(c) attemporator in the steam supply piping
(d) thermally actuated bypass valve

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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First Assistant-Chief Engineer

45. (3.2.4.1.1-13) The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part by
the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the __________.
o

o
o

(a) steam flow rate to the air ejectors


(b) throughput of the brine overboard pump
(c) capacity of the distillate pump
(d) float controlled level of the feed heater

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

46. (3.2.4.1.1-3) Steam supply for the operation of the low pressure evaporators may be obtained
directly from the __________.

o
o
o

(a) turbine extraction line


(b) turbo-generator steam supply line
(c) main steam line
(d) air ejector exhaust line

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

47. (3.2.4.2.1.1-1) In a flash type evaporator, all saltwater headers are vented through individual vent
cocks to the __________.
o

o
o

(a) saltwater heater shell


(b) atmosphere
(c) second-stage condenser
(d) second-stage flash chamber

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

48. (3.2.4.3.2-2) Which of the following acids is preferable and most commonly used for scale removal
from the heating surfaces of the jacket-water heated submerged-tube evaporator?
o
o
o

(a) Concentrated sulfuric acid


(b) Concentrated hydrochloric acid
(c) Muriatic acid
(d) Citric or sulfamic acid

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

49. (3.2.4.3.2-1) When securing a jacket-water heated submerged tube evaporator for an extended
period of time, you should __________.
o
o

(a) fill the unit with descaling compound


(b) tightly seal the unit to exclude air
(c) completely drain the unit
(d) fill the unit with saltwater

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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First Assistant-Chief Engineer

50. (3.2.4.3.1-6) What is the function of the item "7" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111
o

o
o

(a) This jacket water pump circulates salt water through the jacket water cooling system to
provide engine cooling.
(b) This jacket water pump circulates fresh water throughout the engine cooling and distiller
heating systems.
(c) This jacket water pump supplies the distiller with sea water feed while also powering the
eductors.
(d) This circulating salt water pump will supply feed water for the operation of the distiller.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

51. (3.2.4.3.1-5) Excess brine accumulated in the distiller, shown in the illustration, is removed during
normal operation by __________. Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o

(a) orifice "19" regulating the amount of feed water entering the distiller, thereby preventing
excess brine accumulation
(b) opening the drain valve located to the left of orifice "19"
(c) the hydrokineter labeled "21"
(d) the continuous action of ejector "22"

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

52. (3.2.4.3.1-10) During operation which device listed removes air and non-condensable gases from
the unit shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111

o
o
o

(a) "21"
(b) "22"
(c) "25"
(d) "27"

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

53. (3.2.4.3.1-7) Which of the following statements represents the two major functions provided by the
item labeled "20" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o

(a) The pump supplies the motive force to the ejectors and removes the excess distillate.
(b) The pump is used to drain the shell when the unit is secured, in addition to powering the
ejectors.
(c) The pump provides for venting of associated equipment while also powering the ejectors.
(d) The pump supplies the motive fluid to the ejectors in addition to supplying the feed water to
the distiller.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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First Assistant-Chief Engineer

54. (3.2.4.3.1-4) Which device is used to prevent over pressurization of the illustrated distiller?
Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o

(a) "12"
(b) "13"
(c) "19"
(d) "26"

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

55. (3.2.4.3.1-9) Which of the following statements concerning the systems shown in the illustration is
correct? Illustration MO-0111
o

o
o

(a) The jacket water primarily loses its heat at the cooler and is further heated in the evaporator
section.
(b) The feed water gains heat in section "23", while the vapor gives up heat in section "24".
(c) The jacket water absorbs heat in the evaporator section, while giving up its heat in the distiller
section.
(d) The feed water acquires heat passing through devices "2"and "23".

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

56. (3.2.4.3.1-2) Which of the valve arrangements listed would be correct for operating the distillation
plant shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o

(a) Valves "C", "J", "K", "L", "M" open, valves "A", "B", "D", and "H" closed.
(b) Valves "D", "H", "J", "K", "L", "M" open, valves "I", "G", "F", and "E" closed.
(c) Valves "H", "J", "K", "L", "M" open, valve "D" closed.
(d) Valves "J", "K", "L", "M" open, valves "D" and "H" closed.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

57. (3.2.4.3.1-3) Which of the following statements describes the approximate relation between the feed
water entering the unit shown in the illustration and brine being removed? Illustration MO-0111
o
o

(a) The brine will be removed at a faster rate than feed water entering to prevent the possibility of
flooding.
(b) Twenty-five percent of the feed water entering the device is removed as brine.
(c) Seventy-five percent of the feed water entering the unit is removed as brine.
(d) The amount of feed water entering the distiller is dependent upon the condition of device "7",
while the amount of brine leaving is dependent upon the condition of device "21".

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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58. (3.2.4.1.3-16) The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes
of the __________.

o
o
o

(a) salt water feed heater


(b) distillate cooler
(c) first-stage condenser
(d) flash chamber

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

59. (3.2.4.1.3-11) The efficiency and output capacity of a low pressure distilling plant will be reduced if
the last effect shell __________.

o
o
o

(a) brine density is too low


(b) pressure does not fluctuate rapidly
(c) pressure remains steady and unchanged
(d) brine density does not exceed 1.5/32nd

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

60. (3.2.4.1.3-17) In a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher than normal temperatures is most
likely to occur in the __________.
o
o
o

(a) second-stage vapor separator


(b) second-stage feed heater
(c) distillate cooler
(d) salt water feed heater

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

61. (3.2.4.1.3-13) Which of the listed problems could produce a high absolute pressure within a flash
type evaporator?
o

o
o

(a) seawater feed temperature below 165F


(b) a cracked distillate pump vent line
(c) production of high salinity distillate
(d) a leak in the first stage demister

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

62. (3.2.4.1.3-5) The quantity and density of brine discharged from the last effect of a flash type
evaporator should be kept at a constant value so as to __________.

o
o
o

(a) ensure distillate quality and distilling plant efficiency


(b) maintain a constant distillate outlet temperature
(c) prevent scale accumulation in the first effect heat exchanger surfaces
(d) prevent any salinity in the distillate produced

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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First Assistant-Chief Engineer

63. (3.2.4.1.3-9) While the illustrated system is operated using the steam supply through "F" the strainer
in line "4" becomes fouled, this will result in __________. Illustration GS-0053
o

o
o

(a) pump "K" becoming vapor bound


(b) a reduction in distillate production
(c) the temperature regulated by "L" difficult to maintain
(d) nothing unusual for the type of operation indicated as this line was unnecessary in the
installation

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

64. (3.2.4.1.3-8) The efficiency and output capacity of a low pressure distilling plant will be reduced if the
last effect shell __________.
o

o
o

(a) pressure remains steady and unchanged


(b) brine density is too low
(c) brine density does not exceed 1.5/32nd
(d) pressure does not fluctuate rapidly

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

65. (3.2.4.1.3-12) Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could occur through __________.
o
o
o

(a) valve stems


(b) gage glass packing
(c) gasketed joints
(d) all of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

66. (3.2.4.1.3-4) A high reading is indicated at the salinity cells labeled "Y", "Q", and "6" shown in the
illustration. This would be the probable result of __________. Illustration GS-0053

o
o
o

(a) carryover from "III"


(b) faulty cells at each location
(c) a leak in item "I"
(d) erosion of item "2"

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

67. (3.2.4.1.3-15) Irregular feeding or surging of the feed water supply to a flash evaporator may be
attributed to __________.
o

o
o

(a) a clogged vent line from the air eductor condenser


(b) a dirty strainer in the salt water feed pump suction line
(c) excessive pressure in the sea water feed heater
(d) erratic water flow through the air eductor

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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68. (3.2.4.1.3-3) A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal between two stages of a flash
type evaporator would indicate __________.
o
o
o

(a) faulty operation of the brine overboard pump


(b) chill shocking is necessary to remove scale
(c) leakage at the second-stage condenser
(d) carryover in the first-stage

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

69. (3.2.4.1.3-2) Carryover in a flash type distilling plant can be a result of __________.
o

o
o

(a) low distillate conductivity


(b) faulty operation of the brine overboard pump
(c) high distillate conductivity
(d) a pressure drop through the loop seal

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

70. (3.2.4.1.3-6) While the illustrated system is operated using the steam supply through "F" the strainer
in line "4" becomes fouled, this will result in __________. Illustration GS-0053

o
o
o

(a) a reduction in distillate production


(b) the temperature regulated by "L" difficult to maintain
(c) nothing unusual for the type of operation indicated as this line was unnecessary in the
installation
(d) pump "K" becoming vapor bound

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

71. (3.2.4.1.3-1) If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash
evaporator, you should suspect __________.
o
o

(a) a leak in the feed water heater


(b) a clogged desuperheater water strainer
(c) a malfunctioning brine pump
(d) improper vacuum

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

72. (3.2.4.3.3-5) What would happen if valve "25" shown in the illustration, vibrated open with the unit in
operation? Illustration MO-0111

o
o
o

(a) The absolute pressure of the unit would increase, causing a decrease in distillate output.
(b) The unit would automatically shut down due to the closing of the low pressure contacts.
(c) Jacket water would be automatically by-passed around the distiller.
(d) The unit would continue to operate with no adverse effects.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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73. (3.2.4.3.3-4) If the wearing rings of device "7" shown in the illustration become worn, how will the
evaporation rate in "23" be affected? Illustration MO-0111

o
o
o

(a) The rate of evaporation will decrease.


(b) Device "7" does not use wearing rings, as these are normally positive displacement pumps.
(c) The rate of evaporation is dependent on the level of vacuum maintained within the unit, and
not the flow of water to the unit.
(d) The rate of evaporation will not be affected as the standby pump; labeled "8" will be used
instead.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

74. (3.2.4.3.3-6) If valve "D" is opened during the normal operation of the distiller shown in the
illustration, which of the events listed will occur? Illustration MO-0111
o
o

(a) The jacket water cooler will be overloaded, eventually causing a critical engine alarm.
(b) The amount of vapor formed in the evaporator will increase.
(c) The amount of vapor being formed in the evaporator will decrease.
(d) The output of pump "7" will increase with a corresponding increase in pressure.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

75. (3.2.4.3.3-2) Which of the conditions listed would indicate a large condenser tube leak within the
distiller shown in the illustration? See Illustration MO-0111
o

o
o

(a) A slow continuous rise in the lube oil cooler outlet temperature indicated at device "4".
(b) The activation of the salinity monitoring equipment's annunciator circuit.
(c) A decrease in the level of the main engine expansion tank as indicated by a low level alarm.
(d) An increase in distiller output resulting from the combination of jacket water and the distillate
produced.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

76. (3.2.4.3.3-3) If valve "H" shown in the illustration is opened wide while the distiller is in operation,
__________. Illustration MO-0111
o
o
o

(a) the absolute pressure of the unit will increase with an associated decrease in shell
temperature
(b) the absolute pressure of the unit will increase due to the increased affect of the air ejector
(c) the absolute pressure of the unit will not be affected, but the rate of condensation will be
decreased
(d) the absolute pressure of the unit will increase with an associated increase in shell temperature

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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77. (3.2.4.3.3-1) What would be the first indication that a tube leak has occurred in area "23"? Illustration
MO-0111

o
o
o

(a) The level in area "1" would decrease.


(b) The level in area "1" would increase.
(c) The level in area "3" would decrease.
(d) The level in area "3" would increase.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

78. (3.2.4.4.1-3) For the successful operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, why is the high
pressure pump required to operate in the 750 to 1200 psig range for a discharge pressure?
o
o
o

(a) To successfully force the salt water through the pre-filter (or pre-filters).
(b) To successfully force the salt water through the chemical pre-treatment device.
(c) To overcome the pore size of the semi-permeable membrane.
(d) To overcome the osmotic pressure generated by the difference in solution concentrations.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

79. (3.2.4.4.1-2) Regarding a reverse-osmosis type freshwater generator using multiple spiral-wound
membrane modules, what statement is true?
o

o
o

(a) Modules may be piped in series to increase the freshwater throughput.


(b) Modules may be piped in series to increase the freshwater purity.
(c) Modules may be piped in parallel to increase the freshwater purity.
(d) Modules may be piped in series to decrease the likelihood of fouling.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

80. (3.2.4.4.1-1) Regarding a freshwater generator of the reverse-osmosis type, what statement is true?

o
o
o

(a) The solute is salt and the solvent is fresh water.


(b) The solute is fresh water and the solvent is salt.
(c) The solute is salt and the solvent is salt water.
(d) The solute is salt water and the solvent is salt.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

81. (3.2.4.1.2-4) When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should
__________.

o
o
o

(a) completely drain the unit


(b) tightly seal the unit to exclude air
(c) fill the unit with saltwater
(d) fill the unit with descaling compound

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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82. (3.2.4.1.2-7) Scale accumulation on evaporator heat exchange surfaces __________.


o
o
o

(a) increases brine density


(b) increases distillate salinity
(c) reduces metal corrosion
(d) reduces heat transfer

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

83. (3.2.4.1.2-6) When performing a hydrostatic test on a low pressure evaporator to determine the
source of suspected air leaks you should use __________.

o
o
o

(a) fresh water at or above the ambient temperature


(b) air and a soap solution to test all joints
(c) phosphorescent hydrazine bisodium solution visible under a black light source
(d) circulated cold fresh water, while maintaining all normal unit operating pressures

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

84. (3.2.4.1.2-10) Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of heat exchangers to
__________.

o
o
o

(a) reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals


(b) keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean
(c) prevent rapid accumulation of marine growth
(d) provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

85. (3.2.4.1.2-11) The floating end of a shell-and-tube type cooler utilizes a packing ring to __________.

o
o
o

(a) prevent leakage past the floating end tube sheet


(b) modify to a mixer type cooler
(c) dissipate heat
(d) baffle cooling water so it can be directed on a multiple pass

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

86. (3.2.4.1.2-1) The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes of
the __________.
o

o
o

(a) distillate cooler


(b) saltwater feed heater
(c) flash chamber
(d) first stage condenser

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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87. (3.2.4.1.2-8) On which of the following heated surfaces of a flash type evaporator would you be more
likely to find soft scale formation?

o
o
o

(a) Feed water heater internal tube surfaces.


(b) Internal distillate cooler tubes.
(c) Flash chamber vertical surfaces.
(d) Distilling condenser tubes.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

88. (3.2.4.1.2-2) In the operation of a two-stage flash type distilling plant, the rate of scale formation is
greatly reduced by __________.
o
o
o

(a) maintaining a relatively high feed water temperature


(b) the fact that the first-stage regulator keeps the heater shell at a constant pressure
(c) operating the unit at its rated capacity
(d) the fact that no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces anywhere in the unit

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

89. (3.2.4.4.2-2) What component of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator could be isolated and
replaced with the unit remaining in service?
o

o
o

(a) The primary pre-treatment filter.


(b) A parallel-connected membrane module.
(c) The secondary pre-treatment filter.
(d) A series-connected membrane module.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

90. (3.2.4.4.2-1) When a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator is shutdown, what must be


accomplished?
o

o
o

(a) The unit is left filled with saltwater and treated with anti-bacterial growth inhibitor.
(b) The unit must be flushed with freshwater and treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor.
(c) The unit must be flushed with freshwater if anti-bacterial growth inhibitor is unavailable.
(d) The unit must be treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor if the unit is not flushed with
freshwater.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

91. (3.2.4.2.2-2) Which of the tools listed must be used when retightening the plate type heat
exchangers used in the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110

o
o
o

(a) Steel ruler or tape measure


(b) Pneumatic impact wrench
(c) Cantilever wrench
(d) Torque wrench

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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92. (3.2.4.5.1-5) Which of the following statements represents the basic principle of operation of an
electrical salinity indicator?
o
o

(a) Measures the hydrogen ion concentration.


(b) Measures the voltage of the chloride ions.
(c) Measures the electrical resistance of the water.
(d) Determines the conductivity of the dissolved oxygen.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

93. (3.2.4.5.1-2) A salinity indicating system functions on the basic principle of measuring the
__________.
o
o
o

(a) hydrogen ion concentration of water


(b) specific gravity of water
(c) electrical inductance of water
(d) electrical conductivity of water

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

94. (3.2.4.5.1-3) The instrument always used in conjunction with a salinometer is a __________.

o
o
o

(a) thermometer
(b) pyrometer
(c) hygrometer
(d) hydrometer

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

95. (3.2.4.5.1-1) A salinity indicator is used to determine the __________.


o
o
o

(a) level of alkalinity in condensate


(b) chemical makeup of feed water
(c) cause of salt contamination
(d) location of salt water contamination

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

96. (3.2.4.2.3-1) If the demister used in the device shown in the illustration is improperly installed, which
of the following will occur? Illustration MO-0110
o
o
o

(a) The temperature of the device will decrease.


(b) Interstage leakage will cause a decrease in output.
(c) The vacuum of the device will increase.
(d) There will be an increase of chlorides measured at the distillate pump salinity cell.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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97. (3.2.5-3) What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing
fixture such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains?
o
o
o

(a) Location of the potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink.
(b) Check valves in the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink.
(c) A "P" trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink.
(d) Location of the potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

98. (3.2.5-4) Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing
water to a potable water system?

o
o
o

(a) Reverse osmosis type unit


(b) Titanium plate type unit
(c) Submerged tube type unit
(d) Multi-stage flash type unit

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

99. (3.2.5-5) On most commercial cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the
potable water system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained?

o
o
o

(a) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of the potable water hydro pneumatic
tank pressure switch in response to system demand changes.
(b) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously against a shut-off head during periods of
zero demand for potable water.
(c) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously while recirculating during periods of zero
demand for potable water.
(d) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of potable water storage tank level
switches in response to system demand changes.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

100.

(3.2.5-6) What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot
water distribution piping for a potable water system?

o
o

(a) Use of storage type hot water heaters only.


(b) Use of hot water recirculation loops.
(c) Use of hot water heaters with multiple heat sources.
(d) Use of instantaneous type hot water heaters only.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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101.

(3.2.5-7) What are the operating characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydropneumatic header tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air?

o
o

(a) Failure of the potable water pump to start with demand on the system.
(b) Extremely long running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
(c) Very short and frequent running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
(d) Failure of the potable water pump to stop with zero demand on the system.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

102.

(3.2.6-1) Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to
prevent prime mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover?

o
o
o

(a) Over speed trip


(b) Speed-limiting governor
(c) Under speed trip
(d) Over speed governor

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

103.

(3.2.6-2) Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous
governor?

o
o
o

(a) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's geared propulsion drive driving
through a fixed-pitch propeller.
(b) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a pump drive associated with maintaining a
constant pump discharge pressure.
(c) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's direct reversible propulsion drive driving
through a fixed-pitch propeller.
(d) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's service alternator drive associated with
maintaining a constant system frequency.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

104.

(3.2.6-3) Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover
speed without hunting?

o
o

(a) Sensitivity
(b) Stability
(c) Dead band
(d) Promptness

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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105.

(3.2.6-4) What is meant by the term "hunting" as it applies to prime mover speed control
governors?

o
o

(a) Hunting is the repeated variation of speed due to under-control by the governor and a lack of
governor power.
(b) Hunting is the result of the transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor
responds to load changes.
(c) Hunting is the repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed due to over-control by the
governor.
(d) Hunting is the change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective action as
the result of a load change.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

106.

(3.2.6-5) What statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime mover
speed control governors?

o
o

(a) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by
employing permanent speed droop.
(b) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by
employing permanent speed droop.
(c) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by
employing temporary speed droop.
(d) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by
employing temporary speed droop.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

107.

(3.2.7.1-8) For a typical diesel engine jacket water cooling system, what location would be
generally used to introduce water treatment chemicals?

o
o
o

(a) Jacket water outlet header.


(b) Jacket water inlet header.
(c) Jacket water pump vent.
(d) Jacket water expansion tank.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

108.

(3.2.7.1-4) Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, which pump
can be used to pump out the main machinery space bilge in a flooding emergency? Illustration SPSW-01

o
o

(a) The single-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(b) The auxiliary sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(c) The two-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(d) Any of the sea water service pumps can be used for this purpose.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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109.

(3.2.7.1-2) What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a low sea
suction to a high sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?

o
o
o

(a) Increasing the number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
(b) Reducing the total number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
(c) Underway operations or encountering rough seas.
(d) Entering port or shallow water.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

110.

(3.2.7.1-9) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the turbocharger bypass line associated with the jacket water cooling
system? Illustration MP-CW-06

(a) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling
water flow so that the turbocharger receives a greater flow rate of cooling water as compared
to the main engine cooling water jackets.
(b) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling
water flow so that the turbocharger receives the same flow rate of cooling water as does the main
engine cooling water jackets.
(c) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling
water flow so that the turbocharger receives a lesser flow rate of cooling water as compared
to the main engine cooling water jackets.
(d) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice works in conjunction with
the deaerator to remove entrained air from the jacket water outlet.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

111.

(3.2.8.1-2) As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a horizontal electro-mechanical anchor


windlass, what statement is true?

o
o
o

(a) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(b) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(c) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(d) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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112.

(3.2.8.1-6) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint leveroperated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
warping heads and wildcats?

(a) The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping heads by
disengaging the warping head clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive
motor, the wildcats will rotate.
(b) The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the wildcats by
disengaging the wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor,
the warping heads will rotate.
(c) The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping heads by
disengaging the warping head clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive
motor, the warping heads will rotate.
(d) The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the wildcats by
disengaging the wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor,
the wildcats will rotate.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

113.

(3.2.8.1-1) As it pertains to the automatic hydraulic brake of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor


windlass, what statement is true?

o
o
o

(a) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(b) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(c) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(d) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

114.

(3.2.8.1-8) As it pertains to raising and lowering an anchor with a horizontal electro-hydraulic or


electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?

(a) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by disengaging the
wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with
the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged.
(b) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by engaging
the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain
payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.
(c) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by
disengaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the
anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged.
(d) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by engaging the
wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with
the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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115.

(3.2.8.1-5) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint leveroperated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
manual brake hand wheels?

o
o

(a) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with both the wildcats
and the warping heads.
(b) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the warping
heads only.
(c) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the wildcats only.
(d) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with either the
wildcats or the warping heads, depending upon the windlass design.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

116.
o
o

(3.2.8.2-1) As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a capstan, what statement is true?
(a) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(b) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(c) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
(d) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

117.
o
o

(3.2.8.2-4) As it pertains to a "constant-tension" mooring winch, what statement is true?


(a) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render, but not recover, mooring line
using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies above a certain preset tension.
(b) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render, but not recover, mooring line
using the brake when the mooring line tension varies above certain preset tension.
(c) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render and recover mooring line
using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies outside of narrow preset adjustable
tension limits.
(d) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically recover, but not render, mooring line
using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies below a certain preset tension.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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118.

(3.2.8.2-2) Which capstan drive arrangement requires a flexible coupling between the reduction
gear output shaft and the capstan head input shaft?

o
o

(a) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are hung from the
underside of the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck.
(b) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are mounted on
the deck below the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck.
(c) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer, and capstan head
are all located on the weather deck.
(d) A flexible coupling is required on all three drive arrangements listed above.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

119.

(3.2.8.2-10) What statement is true concerning the platform interlock devices associated with a
winding drum or traction drive cargo elevator onboard ship?

o
o

(a) Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the platform is proved at a deck level
and only allow door operation when the platform is at a position other than a deck level.
(b) Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the platform is at other than a deck
level and only allow door operation when the platform is proved at a deck level.
(c) Platform interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency
when elevators are required to be used.
(d) Platform interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when
elevators are not to be used.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

120.

(3.2.8.2-8) For an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what event would
result in an immediate stop to all crane motions, including slewing, hoisting, and luffing?

o
o

(a) All motions are stopped by the action of the slewing platform limit switches.
(b) All motions are stopped by the loss of electric power to the crane.
(c) All motions are stopped by the action of the safe working load cutout switch or the slack wire
limit switch.
(d) All motions are stopped by the action of the boom maximum outreach and minimum
outreach limit switches.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

121.
o
o
o

(3.2.9.3-7) If a hydraulic pump is overheating, the cause may be __________.


(a) operation of the pump at 100% efficiency
(b) excessive fluid level in the hydraulic reservoir
(c) low discharge pressure and fluid flow
(d) excessive internal slippage in the pump

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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122.

(3.2.9.3-4) If a hydraulic pump sounds like it is pumping rocks when in operation, the problem is
most likely ________.

o
o
o

(a) cavitation
(b) slippage
(c) galvanic action
(d) None of the above

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

123.

(3.2.9.3-14) If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation, the cause may be
__________.

o
o

(a) an oil leak across the pump shaft packing


(b) due to the wrong direction of rotation of the hydraulic motor
(c) an air leak in the pump suction line above the oil level in the reservoir
(d) low viscosity in the hydraulic fluid

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

124.
o
o

(3.2.9.3-6) Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by __________.


(a) insufficient external pump slippage
(b) an increase in the number of the hydraulic fluid film layers
(c) continuous leakage through the pressure relief valve
(d) fluctuating pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

125.

(3.2.9.3-8) Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused by misalignment of the system
components and by __________.

o
o
o

(a) turbulent fluid flow


(b) excessive fluid friction
(c) fluid pressure surges
(d) hydraulic fluid contamination

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

126.
o

o
o

(3.2.9.3-2) Overheating of a hydraulic system may be a result of __________.


(a) a high oil level
(b) incorrect fluid viscosity
(c) changing pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations
(d) continued slow recirculation of the oil

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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127.

(3.2.9.2-1) If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on the system, you will
__________.

o
o

(a) cause the system to vibrate


(b) be successful every time
(c) find that the pressure will prevent the components from being tightened
(d) dislodge any scale in the tubing, and it will damage the system

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

128.

(3.2.9.2-7) When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure
system, the oil __________.

o
o
o

(a) viscosity will increase


(b) floc point will increase
(c) viscosity will decrease
(d) volume will increase

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

129.

(3.2.9.2-10) When new piping sections have been fabricated for installation in a hydraulic system,
prior to installation the piping should be __________.

o
o

(a) cleaned using a water-based detergent


(b) descaled by using a pickling solution
(c) hydrostatically tested to 100% of maximum working pressure
(d) all of the above

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

130.

(3.2.9.2-2) Before doing any work on a hydraulic system equipped with accumulators, you should
__________.

o
o

(a) completely charge the accumulators to prevent system energy loss


(b) bleed off all stored energy from the accumulators
(c) drain the accumulators and purge with oxygen
(d) pump the hydraulic fluid into the accumulators to prevent fluid loss

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

131.

(3.2.9.1.3-3) A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during
extension, with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________.

o
o
o

(a) metered-out circuit


(b) bleed-in circuit
(c) bleed-off circuit
(d) metered-in circuit

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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132.

(3.2.9.1.2-1) In order for the hydraulic pump installed in a constant flow system to maintain
adequate flow, the pump suction should __________.

o
o

(a) be taken directly off the reservoir bottom without regard to filters or strainers
(b) be provided with three to five 1/2 inch holes in the vertical, suction line to prevent pump
starvation should the strainer become fouled
(c) be arranged to develop a maximum vacuum of approximately 10" of mercury
(d) be arranged to develop the theoretically maximum attainable vacuum

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

133.

(3.2.10.1-8) Which type of lubricating oil method is LEAST likely to have a lube oil strainer or
filter?

o
o

(a) Pressure-feed
(b) Static-feed
(c) Gravity-feed
(d) Force-feed

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

134.

(3.2.10.1-10) In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil
reservoir/sump residence time?

o
o

(a) The lower the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as delivered
by the pump.
(b) The lower the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
(c) The lower the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as delivered
by the pump.
(d) The lower the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

135.

(3.2.10.1-9) In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil
reservoir/sump residence time?

o
o

(a) The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
(b) The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
(c) The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
(d) The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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136.

(3.2.10.1-7) On a bearing using an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse
conditions would indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a minimum?

o
o
o

(a) Weekly
(b) Monthly
(c) Quarterly
(d) Annually

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

137.

(3.2.10.1-4) If the bearings of a piece of machinery are fed by a gravity feed lubricating oil
system, what statement is true?

o
o
o

(a) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges to the lube
oil gravity tank. The oil then gravity feeds the bearings and the return oil drains to the lube oil
reservoir/sump.
(b) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil gravity tank and discharges directly to the
bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank.
(c) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump.
(d) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank which overflows to the
lube oil reservoir/sump.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

138.

(3.2.10.1-1) A bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be
serviced by removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished?

o
o
o

(a) Draining the bottom of the strainer housing.


(b) Rotating the handle of the lube oil strainer.
(c) Changing the filter element.
(d) Draining the bottom of the bearing lube oil sump.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

139.

(3.2.10.1-3) On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, how often should the
bottom of the bearing sump be drained of impurities?

o
o

(a) Every round


(b) Daily
(c) Bimonthly
(d) Annually

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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140.

(3.2.10.2-3) Which of the following statements best describes the filtering ability of a fine mesh
metal lube oil strainer?

o
o
o

(a) A 200 wire mesh screen and a 100 wire mesh screen both prevent passage of the same size
particles, but each allows a different number of particles to pass through.
(b) A 100 wire mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than a 200 wire mesh
screen.
(c) A 200 mesh screen has larger wires than a 100 mesh screen.
(d) A 200 wire mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than a 100 wire mesh
screen.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

141.

(3.2.10.2-5) Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to clean the element while leaving
the system on the line?

o
o

(a) Bypass
(b) Canister
(c) Duplex
(d) Simplex

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

142.

(3.2.11.2-1) Referring to the illustration, an oil/water separator is in the recirculation mode due to
high oil content of the processed water outlet. What action may be required before the unit is
capable of discharging overboard once again? Illustration GS-0175

o
o
o

(a) Flushing the oil content detector with clean water.


(b) Flushing the bilges with an emulsifying agent.
(c) Flushing the bilges with a detergent.
(d) Cleaning the bilge suction strainer.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

143.

(3.2.11.3-2) Referring to the illustration, suppose the oily-water separator vessel compound
gauge is showing an unusually deep vacuum for operating in the separation processing mode with
the separator service pump running. The oil content is 8.3 ppm. What is most likely the cause?
Illustration GS-0175

o
o
o

(a) The oily-water separator bilge suction strainer is clogged.


(b) The oily-water separator vessel relief valve is leaking.
(c) The oily-water separator service pump is worn.
(d) The bilge water holding tank level is unusually high resulting in a high level alarm.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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144.

(3.2.11.3-3) Referring to the illustration, suppose after initiating the oil discharge mode, the oilywater separator fails to come out of the oil discharge mode in a timely fashion. Cracking open the
upper sampling valve reveals the presence of water exiting under a positive pressure. What is most
likely the cause? Illustration GS-0175

o
o

(a) The oil discharge check valve fails to open, and as a result no oil actually discharges.
(b) The upper oil/water interface detection probe fails to end the oil discharge mode.
(c) The lower oil/water interface detection probe fails to initiate the oil discharge mode.
(d) The clean water supply solenoid fails to open, and as a result provides no discharge pressure.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

145.

(3.2.11.3-5) Referring to the illustration, suppose while in the oil separation processing mode, the
oil content detector display screen shows 17.9 ppm and the oily-water separator is discharging back
to the bilge water holding tank for recirculation. What is most likely the cause? Illustration GS-0175

o
o
o

(a) The bilge water holding tank contents is excessively contaminated with oil.
(b) The oily-water separator bilge suction strainer is excessively clogged.
(c) The oily-water separator service pump is excessively worn.
(d) The bilge water holding tank level is excessively high resulting in a high level alarm.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

146.

(3.2.11.3-1) If item "1" in the illustrated oily-water separator indicates an abnormally deep
vacuum, which of the following conditions is the most probable cause? Illustration GS-0153

o
o

(a) Coalescer beds are severely fouled.


(b) Process water inlet valve, item "5", is open.
(c) Suction line inlet strainer is obstructed.
(d) No problem exists as a high vacuum should be maintained in the chamber whose vacuum is
to be measured.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

147.

(3.2.11.3-4) Referring to the illustration, suppose after initiating the oil discharge mode, the oilywater separator fails to come out of the oil discharge mode in a timely fashion. Cracking open the
upper sampling valve reveals the presence of oil exiting under positive pressure. What is most likely
the cause? Illustration GS-0175

o
o

(a) The clean water supply solenoid fails to open, and as a result provides no discharge pressure.
(b) The oil discharge check valve fails to open, and as a result no oil actually discharges.
(c) The lower oil/water interface detection probe fails to initiate the oil discharge mode.
(d) The upper oil/water interface detection probe fails to end the oil discharge mode.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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148.

(3.2.11.1-2) When the oily-water separator, shown in the illustration, is in operation and
processing clear bilge water, what should be the internal water level? Illustration GS-0153

o
o

(a) The water level should be located in the lower section of the tank as controlled by flow control
valve "14".
(b) The water level in the tank should be slightly above the upper coalescer bed "9".
(c) The water level should be located in the upper section of the tank.
(d) No water level is maintained in the tank.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

149.

(3.2.11.1-5) The component labeled "A", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the
__________. Illustration GS-0175

o
o
o

(a) oil content monitor probe


(b) separator vessel pressure relief valve
(c) separator vessel vacuum breaker
(d) oil/water interface level sensing probe

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

150.

(3.2.11.1-6) The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the ______.
Illustration GS-0175

o
o

(a) oily bilge water inlet line


(b) processed water outlet line
(c) clean water inlet line
(d) waste oil discharge line

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

151.

(3.2.11.1-3) The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________. Illustration GS0153

o
o

(a) support the tank access panel


(b) allow the oil accumulated to exit the device, while remaining separated from the liquid
(c) prevent separated oil from mixing with the incoming bilge water
(d) direct the flow of the oily-water mixture against the coalescer bed

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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152.

(3.2.11.1-7) The line labeled "E", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______.
Illustration GS-0175

o
o
o

(a) clean water inlet line


(b) waste oil outlet line
(c) processed water outlet line
(d) oily bilge water inlet line

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

153.

(3.2.11.1-4) What is the normal direction of flow through the device shown in the illustration while
operating in the processing mode? Illustration GS-0153

o
o

(a) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "4" and exits as processed liquid through valve
"14".
(b) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "5" and exits the separator through valve "14" as
processed liquid.
(c) The oily-water mixture enters through the pressure control valve "2" and exits with the
processed liquid through valve "14".
(d) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "14" and exits with the processed liquid through
valve "4".

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

154.

(3.2.13.1-1) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a VoithSchneider drive?

o
o

(a) Tandem propellers


(b) Ducted propeller
(c) Cycloidal propeller
(d) Vane wheel

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

155.

(3.2.13.1-2) When an electricity generating plant features shaft-driven generators, what type of
propulsor is generally used for main propulsion?

o
o
o

(a) Controllable-pitch propeller


(b) Tandem propellers
(c) Fixed-pitch propeller
(d) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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156.

(3.2.13.1-3) What type of propeller consists of a flat disc set flush with the under surface of the
vessel's hull with a number of vertical, rudder-like blades projecting from it?

o
o

(a) Helicoidal propeller


(b) Cycloidal propeller
(c) Contra-rotating propeller
(d) Tandem propeller

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

157.

(3.2.13.1-4) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for electric
propulsion where the drive motors are outside the ship's hull?

o
o

(a) Jet drive


(b) Azipod propulsor
(c) Cycloidal propeller
(d) Azimuthing propulsor

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

158.

(3.2.13.1-5) Which of the following propulsor types does not require the use of a separate rudder
for steerage?

o
o

(a) Contra-rotating propellers.


(b) Cycloidal propellers.
(c) Conventional fixed-pitch propeller.
(d) Tandem propellers.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

159.
o
o

(3.2.13.2-1) Concerning steerable internal duct thrusters, what statement is true?


(a) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the orientation of
the pump inlet guide vanes.
(b) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by reversing the pitch
angle of the pump impeller.
(c) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the orientation of
the water discharge vectoring ring.
(d) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the direction of
rotation of the pump.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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160.

(3.2.13.2-2) What statement represents the fundamental difference between an azimuthing


thruster and a podded propulsor?

o
o
o

(a) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is not steerable, and with a podded propulsor the
propulsor is steerable.
(b) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is steerable, and with a podded propulsor the
propulsor is not steerable.
(c) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located outside the hull, and with a podded
propulsor the prime mover is located inside the hull.
(d) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located inside the hull, and with a podded
propulsor the prime mover is located outside the hull.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

161.
o

o
o

(3.2.13.2-3) With respect to a "tractor" type azimuthing thruster, what statement is true?
o

(a) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the gear unit is directly abaft of the azimuthing thruster's
propeller, but the azimuthing thruster's propeller is in the wake of the gear unit.
o
(b) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the gear unit is directly abaft of and in the wake of the
azimuthing thruster's propeller.
o
(c) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of the gear
unit, but the gear unit is in the wake of the azimuthing thruster's propeller.
o
(d) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of and in
the wake of the gear unit.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

162.

(3.2.13.2-4) What type of propulsor is typically used in electric motor driven, transverse, tunnel
bow thrusters to limit the starting current of the single speed drive motor?

o
o

(a) Cycloidal propeller


(b) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
(c) Controllable-pitch propeller
(d) Fixed-pitch propeller

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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163.

(3.2.13.2-5) Which set of operating conditions would be most problematic in terms of the
deterioration of the insulation resistance of the drive motor of an electric motor driven transverse
tunnel bow thruster?

o
o
o

(a) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
warm.
(b) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly cold.
(c) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
warm.
(d) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
cold.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

164.

(3.2.13.3-1) Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive
featuring a single reduction?

o
o

(a) Slow speed diesel


(b) Medium speed diesel
(c) Steam turbine
(d) Gas turbine

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

165.

o
o
o

(3.2.13.3-2) For a parallel axis single reduction gear, what statement is true?
(a) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed. The
driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed.
(b) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed. The
driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed.
(c) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed. The
driven gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed.
(d) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed. The driven
gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

166.

(3.2.13.3-3) Which of the following couplings or clutches would be able to prevent the
transmission of torsional vibrations from an engine to a reduction gear?

o
o

(a) Inflatable tire-type pneumatic clutch


(b) Hydraulic fluid-type clutch
(c) Multiple disk friction clutch
(d) Solid coupling

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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167.

o
o

(3.2.13.3-4) Concerning main propulsion reduction gears, what statement is true?


(a) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and low
torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and high torque.
(b) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed
and high torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and low
torque.
(c) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and low
torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and high torque.
(d) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and high
torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and low torque.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

168.

(3.2.13.3-5) Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive
featuring a double reduction?

o
o
o

(a) Slow speed diesel


(b) Medium speed diesel
(c) High speed diesel
(d) Gas turbine

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

169.

(3.2.13.4-1) If a main propulsion shafting arrangement is such that a strut and strut bearing is
required, what is the name of the section of shafting that passes through the hull penetration to the
closest watertight bulkhead?

o
o
o

(a) Tail or propeller shaft


(b) Line shaft
(c) Thrust shaft
(d) Stern tube shaft

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

170.

o
o
o

(3.2.13.4-2) What statement is true concerning the arrangement of line shaft bearing housings?
(a) Line shaft bearing housings are typically split half pedestal type bearing housings.
(b) Line shaft bearing housings are typically single-piece pedestal type bearing housings.
(c) Line shaft bearing housings are typically single-piece flange type bearing housings.
(d) Line shaft bearing housings are typically split half flange type bearing housings.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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171.

(3.2.13.4-3) What statement is true concerning the purpose of an independent main thrust
bearing where used?

o
o
o

(a) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb axial thrust and to transmit the axial
thrust developed by the propeller to the ship's hull.
(b) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb axial thrust and maintain the shaft in
proper axial alignment.
(c) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb radial thrust and maintain the shaft
in proper radial alignment.
(d) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb radial thrust and to transmit the
radial thrust developed by the propeller to the ship's hull.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

172.

(3.2.13.4-4) Concerning the proper lubrication of a ring-oiled line shaft bearing, what statement is
true?

o
o

(a) The oil level should be maintained high enough so that some oil is seen exiting the bearing
along the shaft.
(b) The oil level should be high enough so that the oiling rings dip into the oil, but the rings must
not be allowed to freely rotate with the shaft.
(c) The oil level should be high enough so that the oiling rings dip into the oil, and the rings must
freely rotate with the shaft.
(d) The oil level should be maintained high enough so that the entire bearing is continuously
flooded.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

173.

(3.2.13.4-5) What type of bearing is most generally used as an independent main thrust block on
merchant ships?

o
o
o

(a) Split-half journal type bearing.


(b) Plain thrust bearing.
(c) Single piece bushing.
(d) Pivoted-shoe thrust bearing.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

174.

(3.2.14.1.2-2) When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing
is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.

o
o
o

(a) loosened, and then retightened with the pump running under normal conditions
(b) left in that position
(c) tightened an additional 10% to compress the packing
(d) loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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175.
o

o
o

(3.2.14.1.2-5) When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to ______.


(a) make the final spring collar adjustments with the pump running
(b) ensure that correct spring pressure is applied to the seating faces
(c) run the pump "dry" for initial break-in of the shaft seal
(d) polish the seating faces with emery cloth prior to assembly

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

176.

(3.2.14.1.1-4) You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to
slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.

o
o
o

(a) suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift
(b) discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts
(c) suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to decrease
(d) discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

177.

(3.2.14.1.1-1) The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as
designed is to __________.

o
o

(a) use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records
(b) closely observe the pump discharge temperature
(c) close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
(d) momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in pressure

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

178.

(3.2.14.1.1-8) After a disassembly of a single stage centrifugal pump, one finds the outer
circumference of the impeller badly pitted and worn. Not having a spare impeller on board, it is
decided to turn down the impeller to eliminate the wear/pitting. What will be the pump capacity, in
GPM, after the reduction of impeller diameter by 0.5 inches? GIVEN: Original pump capacity = 30
GPM Original impeller diameter = 8 in.

o
o

(a) 24.78 GPM


(b) 26.37 GPM
(c) 28.12 GPM
(d) Capacity would not change.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

179.

(3.2.14.1.1-2) If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed the
__________.

o
o

(a) motor controller overload would open


(b) pump would eventually overheat
(c) relief valve would continuously cycle open
(d) motor would overheat

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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180.
o

o
o

(3.2.14.1.1-13) Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?


(a) They operate more efficiently when mounted in a horizontal position.
(b) A flow is developed by imparting kinetic energy to the fluid by the rotation of an impeller.
(c) They operate best under negative suction pressure conditions.
(d) They are particularly well suited for pumping high viscosity fluids.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

181.

(3.2.14.1.1-3) Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused
by __________.

o
o
o

(a) corrosion
(b) abrasion
(c) electrolysis
(d) cavitation

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

182.

(3.2.14.1.1-6) When ordering a new centrifugal pump for installation, what is the advantage of a
pump with a double suction impeller over a single suction impeller?

o
o

(a) Pump capacity will be doubled.


(b) The pump can be used with a reversible drive.
(c) The pump will experience less axial thrust.
(d) The pump will experience less water turbulence.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

183.

(3.2.14.1.1-9) One is informed by the owner that two of the vessel's electrically driven centrifugal
cooling water pumps will be replaced with two of higher capacity pumps. No modification of existing
piping will be involved. What should be your concerns from an operational perspective?

o
o
o

(a) Upgrading of circuit breakers and controllers and possible increased erosion of discharge
piping due to increased system velocities.
(b) Piping should be of no concern since it is designed with a safety factor. Electrical power
should be of concern.
(c) Electrical power should be of no concern due to safety margins designed into power systems.
Increased erosion may be a long term consideration.
(d) One should not be concerned operationally since all systems are designed with future
modifications/upgrades in mind.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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184.

(3.2.14.1.1-11) On disassembling a centrifugal pump for overhaul, the third engineer reports
holes drilled axially in the back side of a single suction closed impeller. The reason for the these
holes is which of the following?

o
o
o

(a) To reduce the axial thrust forces on the impeller


(b) To allow for water to recirculate for impeller cooling
(c) To reduce the power required for the pump
(d) To fit a puller for removing the impeller

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

185.

(3.2.14.1.3-4) While making a round in the lower engine room you discover a leak in the suction
pipe to the main salt water pump. How would proceed to correct this problem?

o
o
o

(a) Use a type of banded patch (from a simple gasket with hose clamps to forge clamp style) on
the pipe to seal the hole in the pipe until a permanent repair can be made.
(b) Wrap the leaky section of pipe with duct tape to slow the leak down.
(c) Let the pipe leak until a permanent repair can be made at your next port call.
(d) Monitor the leak to see if it worsens.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

186.

(3.2.14.1.3-5) When reviewing log books, the main salt water cooling pump discharge pressure
has decreased in the three years since overhaul. Which of the following would most likely be the
cause of the problem?

o
o

(a) Bus frequency lower than normal.


(b) Worn pump shaft bearings.
(c) Increased impeller and wear ring clearance.
(d) Fouled suction strainer.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

187.

(3.3.4.1-48) What would cause a pump casing distortion that may lead to casing crack(s), leaks
and eventual mechanical pump problems?

o
o
o

(a) Misaligned/stressed piping connections, deteriorated foundation, 'Loose Foot'.


(b) Excessive prime mover and pump vibrations.
(c) Loose prime mover and pump foundation bolts.
(d) Misalignment between the prime mover and the pump.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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188.

(3.2.14.1.3-6) When opening a ballast pump for inspection, the wear ring clearance is found to be
approaching maximum. Which of the following would be expected?

o
o
o

(a) Pump capacity would be decreased.


(b) Pump vibration would be decreased.
(c) Pump discharge pressure would be increased.
(d) Pump lift would be increased.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

189.

(3.2.14.1.3-1) Your centrifugal ballast pump is producing a pressure less than the designed
discharge pressure. What could be the cause?

o
o

(a) Excessive high suction head.


(b) Excessive pump speed.
(c) Worn wearing rings.
(d) Pump misalignment.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

190.

(3.2.14.1.3-2) The shipyard has just reassembled an overhauled centrifugal pump. On testing,
water is coming from the mechanical seal area. Which of the following are likely reasons for the
leakage?

o
o
o

(a) The shaft o-ring was not installed.


(b) The pump was started with the discharge valve closed.
(c) The pump was started with the suction valve closed.
(d) The pump was air bound.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

191.
o
o
o

(3.2.14.2.1-1) A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.
(a) slightly opened
(b) throttled
(c) halfway opened
(d) fully opened

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

192.

(3.2.15-5) According to the illustration, which of the following conditions would most likely cause
Pump "A" to short cycle? Illustration GS-0173

o
o
o

(a) The hydro-pneumatic expansion tank is operating with an insufficient air charge.
(b) The hydro-pneumatic tank is operating with a low water level.
(c) A low water level exists in the potable water storage tank.
(d) Pump "A" wearing rings have excessive clearance.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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193.

o
o
o

(3.2.15-6) A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a sanitary system to __________.


(a) reduce excessive cycling of the sanitary pump
(b) prevent the sanitary pump from losing suction
(c) provide a higher pressure in the system than the pump can deliver
(d) increase water flow through the system

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

194.

(3.2.15-4) Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage
and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?

o
o

(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) Type IV

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

195.

(3.2.15-2) Coast Guard regulations concerning marine sanitation devices may be found in
__________.

o
o
o

(a) 33 CFR Section 159


(b) 33 CFR Section 153
(c) 33 CFR Section 155
(d) 33 CFR Section 156

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

196.

o
o
o

(3.2.15-1) Marine sanitation devices installed on vessels must be certified by the __________.
(a) U.S. Coast Guard
(b) American Bureau of Shipping
(c) Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers
(d) Environmental Protection Agency

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

197.

(3.2.17.3-5) What advantage does a 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system have over a 2-pipe
hydronic heating/cooling system?

o
o

(a) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires double the amount of piping as compared
to a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system serving the same number of zones.
(b) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system allows simultaneous heating and cooling of different
zones, whereas a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system does not.
(c) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system can serve twice as many zones as a 2-pipe hydronic
heating/cooling system.
(d) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires one-half the amount of piping as compared
to a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system serving the same number of zones.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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198.
o

(3.2.17.3-3) What statement is true concerning a one-pipe hydronic heating system?


(a) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet temperature to each
heating coil progressively rises as the water passes through each successive series-connected
coil.
(b) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet temperature to each
heating coil progressively drops as the water passes through each successive series-connected
coil.
(c) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet temperature to each
heating coil progressively drops as the water passes through each successive series-connected
coil.
(d) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet temperature to each
heating coil progressively rises as the water passes through each successive series-connected
coil.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

199.

(3.2.17.3-4) It is absolutely essential that hydronic heating system hot water piping be kept free of
air. Assuming that a system is initially properly filled with water, what is the primary source of air
contamination?

o
o
o

(a) The introduction of air via the makeup water.


(b) The introduction of air via the expansion tank vent.
(c) The introduction of air with the convector steam supply.
(d) The introduction of air via the atmospheric drains tank vent.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

200.

(3.2.17.3-1) Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system
may be of the open or closed type. Referring to the illustrated central-station hookup for a hot water
heating system drawing, what would be the normal temperature range of the water? Illustration GS0151

o
o
o

(a) 180 F to 200 F


o
o
(b) 220 F to 240 F
o
o
(c) 260 F to 280 F
o
o
(d) 320 F to 360 F

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

201.
o

o
o

(3.2.17.3-2) What type of pump is invariably used as a circulator in a hydronic heating system?
(a) Reciprocating pump
(b) Centrifugal pump
(c) Rotary pump
(d) Diaphragm pump

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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202.

(3.2.17.1-6) What type of HVAC system is characterized by a having a split supply air stream,
with one for cold air and the other for hot air?

o
o

(a) A variable air volume system


(b) A dual duct system
(c) A terminal reheat system
(d) A single zone system

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

203.

(3.2.17.1-2) What type of HVAC system is characterized by poor air distribution and ventilation
and low system heat loads?

o
o

(a) A terminal reheat system


(b) A single zone system
(c) A variable air volume system
(d) A dual duct system

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

204.

(3.2.17.1-5) Referring to illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? Illustration GSRA-43

o
o

(a) A single zone system


(b) A variable air volume system
(c) A dual duct system
(d) A terminal reheat system

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

205.

(3.2.17.1-7) What type of HVAC system is characterized by having control dampers in locations
other than the outside air supply, outside air exhaust, and recirculation damper applications?

o
o
o

(a) A terminal reheat system


(b) A dual duct system
(c) A single zone system
(d) A variable air volume system

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

206.
o
o
o

(3.2.17.1-1) What type of HVAC system is ideally designed to serve a large public space?
(a) A dual duct system
(b) A terminal reheat system
(c) A variable air volume system
(d) A single zone system

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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207.

(3.2.17.1-3) Referring to illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? Illustration GSRA-09

o
o
o

(a) A dual duct system


(b) A terminal reheat system
(c) A variable air volume system
(d) A single zone system

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

208.

(3.2.17.4-6) To determine the average cargo hold dew point temperature, at what location would
the dew point be measured?

o
o
o

(a) The dew point is taken at the ventilation exhaust trunk.


(b) The dew point is taken at the ventilation supply trunk.
(c) The dew point is taken near a central location of the cargo hold.
(d) The dew point is taken near the bottom of the cargo hold.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

209.

(3.2.17.4-2) What statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification


system?

o
o

(a) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber.
(b) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid
desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
(c) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
(d) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid
desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

210.
o
o
o

(3.2.17.4-1) Concerning cargo-hold dehumidification, what statement is true?


(a) Cargo hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively humid air from the outside
and exhausting relatively dry air to the outside.
(b) Cargo hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively humid air from the outside and
exhausting relatively dry air to the outside.
(c) Cargo hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively dry air from the outside and
exhausting relatively humid air to the outside.
(d) Cargo hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively dry air from the outside and
exhausting relatively humid air to the outside.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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211.

(3.2.17.4-3) What statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification


system?

o
o
o

(a) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by
means of a heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.
(b) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by
means of a cooling coil located in the regeneration chamber.
(c) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed into the desiccant by
means of a cooling coil located in the regeneration chamber.
(d) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed in to the desiccant by
means of a heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

212.

(3.2.17.4-7) What common feature is found on both liquid-desiccant and solid-desiccant cargohold dehumidification systems?

o
o

(a) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to drive the moisture out of the
desiccant.
(b) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to drive the moisture out of the desiccant.
(c) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to absorb moisture into the desiccant.
(d) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to absorb moisture into the
desiccant.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

213.

(3.2.17.4-5) To prevent damage to dry cargoes, the cargo hold ventilation and dehumidification
systems play a key role. In terms of the maintained dew point, what statement is true?

o
o

(a) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained at the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
o
(b) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10 F above the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
o
(c) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10 F below the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
(d) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained at a constant temperature
regardless of the surface temperature of the cargo or ship structure.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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214.

(3.2.17.4-4) With regard to the cooling and heating coils and humidification and regeneration
chambers of a liquid cargo-hold dehumidification system, what statement is true?

(a) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as
the regeneration chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil
and is known as the humidification chamber.
(b) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and
is known as the regeneration chamber.
(c) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil and
is known as the regeneration chamber.
(d) The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil
and is known as the regeneration chamber.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

215.

(3.2.17.2-3) In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the
functioning of the summer outside air duct thermostat? Illustration GS-RA-42

(a) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and
opens the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly
higher than typical indoor air temperatures.
(b) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and
opens the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher
than typical indoor air temperatures.
(c) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and
closes the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly
higher than typical indoor air temperatures.
(d) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and
closes the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher
than typical indoor air temperatures.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

216.

(3.2.17.2-5) Referring to the illustrated dual duct multiple zone HVAC system, how is the space
temperature directly controlled? Illustration GS-RA-43

o
o
o

(a) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically proportioning the cold and hot air
streams at the mixing unit.
(b) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the steam flow through the
preheat coil.
(c) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the chilled water flow
through the cooling coil.
(d) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the steam flow through the
reheat coil.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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217.

(3.2.17.2-4) Referring to the illustrated single zone HVAC system diagram, what statement is true
concerning the damper controls? Illustration GS-RA-09

o
o

(a) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally open and the recirculation damper is
normally closed and all three dampers are controlled by a single pilot air signal.
(b) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally closed and the recirculation damper is
normally open and all three dampers are controlled by a single pilot air signal.
(c) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally closed and the recirculation damper is
normally open and each damper is controlled by its own pilot air signal.
(d) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally open and the recirculation damper is
normally closed and each damper is controlled by its own pilot air signal.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

218.

(3.2.17.2-2) In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the
relationship between the exhaust, outside air and recirculation dampers? Illustration GS-RS-09

o
o

(a) The more the exhaust and recirculation dampers are open, the more the outside air damper is
closed, and vice versa.
(b) The more the outside air and recirculation dampers are open, the more the exhaust damper is
closed, and vice versa.
(c) The more the exhaust and outside air dampers are open, the more the recirculation damper is
closed, and vice versa.
(d) The exhaust, outside air, and recirculation dampers are all open or closed to the same degree
for all operating conditions.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

219.

(3.2.17.2-1) In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what prevents the simultaneous flow of
steam through the preheat coil and flow of chilled water through the cooling coil? Illustration GS-RA09

o
o
o

(a) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set several degrees lower than the
design off-coil temperature associated with the cooling coil.
(b) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set equal to the design off-coil
temperature associated with the cooling coil.
(c) Simultaneous steam flow through the preheater and chilled water flow through the cooling coil
is permitted for the purposes of space humidity control.
(d) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set several degrees higher than
the design off-coil temperature associated with the cooling coil.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

220.

(3.2.17.5-5) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, under what conditions are the dry
bulb, wet bulb, and dew point temperatures for air all equal in value? Illustration GS-RA-22

o
o

(a) When the relative humidity is 0%.


(b) It is impossible for the dry bulb, wet bulb, and dew point temperatures to be the same value.
(c) When the air is completely saturated with moisture and the relative humidity is 100%.
(d) When the grains of moisture per pound of dry air is zero.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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221.

(3.2.17.5-4) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the cooling season
that air passes over a cooling coil with a mean surface temperature above the dew point
temperature, and this results in sensible heat loss with no change in moisture content. What
statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process line? Illustration GS-RA-22

o
o

(a) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the right of the coil inlet.
(b) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the left of the coil inlet.
(c) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet below the coil inlet.
(d) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet above the coil inlet.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.


o

222.

(3.2.17.5-2) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, if the dry bulb temperature is 70 F
and the relative humidity is 40%, what is the absolute humidity? Illustration GS-RA-22

o
o

(a) 38 grains of moisture per pound of dry air


(b) 45 grains of moisture per pound of dry air
(c) 51 grains of moisture per pound of dry air
(d) 58 grains of moisture per pound of dry air

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

223.

(3.2.17.5-1) What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured by
an ordinary thermometer?

o
o
o

(a) The dry bulb temperature


(b) The wet bulb temperature
(c) The dew point temperature
(d) The saturation temperature

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

224.

(3.2.17.5-3) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose air at a dry-bulb temperature
o
of 60 F and a relative humidity of 52% passes over a heating coil, resulting in sensible heat gain,
o
and the off-coil temperature is now 80 F. What is off-coil relative humidity? Illustration GS-RA-22

o
o

(a) 19%
(b) 27%
(c) 55%
(d) 70%

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

225.

(3.2.18.3-3) The minimum number of crew members permitted by law to operate your vessel can
be determined by checking the __________.

o
o
o

(a) Master's crew list


(b) Muster List ("Station Bill")
(c) A. B. S. Certificate
(d) Certificate of Inspection

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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226.

(3.2.18.3-4) The Certificate of Inspection for your vessel was issued in January. In March of the
same year you need to replace a cooling water pump for the refrigeration system. What action would
be appropriate?

o
o

(a) Defer informing the Coast Guard of the pump's replacement until the mid-period inspection.
(b) Replace the pump, as the Coast Guard need not be informed of the pump replacement.
(c) Inform the Coast Guard if the replacement will involve welding or burning.
(d) Inform the nearest Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection of the pump replacement.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

227.

(3.2.18.3-5) The minimum firefighting equipment to be maintained onboard a tank vessel, can be
determined from the __________.

o
o
o

(a) U.S.C.G. Firefighting Manual for Tank Vessels


(b) U.S.C.G. Equipment List
(c) vessel's current articles
(d) vessel's Certificate of Inspection

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

228.

(3.2.18.3-2) The unlicensed crew requirements listed on the Certificate of Inspection reads as
follows: 3 firemen/watertenders; 3 oilers. The vessel is about to depart on a foreign voyage, and
has in the crew: 3 firemen/watertenders, 2 oilers, and one man, whose merchant mariner's
document is endorsed QMED, any rating. You should __________.

o
o
o

(a) call the port captain and request another oiler


(b) request a waiver from the Coast Guard
(c) check if any of the firemen have enough time for an oiler's endorsement
(d) sail because your crew requirements are filled

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

229.

(3.2.18.3-1) An international and coastwise load line assignment and certificate has been issued
to a vessel by the American Bureau of Shipping, under the authority of Coast Guard Regulations (46
CFR), for a period of __________.

o
o
o

(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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230.

(3.2.18.3-6) The assessment of a trainee's practical demonstration of skills should be conducted


__________.

o
o
o

(a) within the normal routine of vessel's operation


(b) at any time of the day, particularly outside normal operations
(c) within the last six hours that the trainee will be onboard the vessel
(d) only when the trainee first arrives onboard, and preferably within the first few days

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

231.
o

o
o

(3.2.18.1-1) Where would you find a list of the firefighting equipment required on your vessel?
(a) Muster List ("Station Bill")
(b) Certificate of Inspection
(c) Official logbook
(d) In the captain's desk

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

232.
o

o
o

(3.2.18.1-3) A Coast Guard engineer's license can be suspended or revoked for __________.
(a) having your wages garnished
(b) being responsible for an oil spill ashore
(c) failure to attend safety meetings
(d) conviction of any misdemeanor ashore

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

233.

(3.2.18.1-2) The duties of a chief engineer upon taking charge of the department include
__________.

o
o
o

(a) determining if any vital engine room equipment is inoperative


(b) preparing a list of engine department personnel for the master's signature
(c) taking a complete personal inventory of all engine room spare parts
(d) obtaining a valid Certification of Inspection from the Coast Guard

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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234.

(3.2.18.2-3) In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), it is the duty of the chief
engineer to acquire and seal a sample of fuel oil received whenever fuel oil bunkers are taken. This
sample must be preserved until __________.

o
o
o

(a) that particular supply of oil is exhausted


(b) return to the first U.S. port where upon it must be sent ashore for chemical analysis and the
findings submitted to the nearest officer in charge, Marine Inspection
(c) it can be sent ashore to the proper oil company personnel for testing and the results entered in
the Oil Record Book, CG-480
(d) the voyage is completed

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

235.

(3.2.18.2-1) Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight
doors in an emergency?

o
o

(a) Coast Guard


(b) Chief engineer
(c) Master of the vessel
(d) Chief mate

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

236.

(3.2.18.2-4) Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight
doors in an emergency?

o
o

(a) Coast Guard


(b) Chief Mate
(c) Master of the vessel
(d) Chief Engineer

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

237.

(3.2.18.4-1) A water line ruptures under pressure and floods the engine room causing $(USA)
30,000 damage to the machinery. By law, this must be reported to the __________.

o
o
o

(a) insurance underwriter


(b) engine manufacturer
(c) owner or his agent
(d) U.S. Coast Guard

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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238.

(3.2.18.4-5) When a ships officer signs off a trainee's successful completion of one or more
practical demonstrations, they are attesting to the trainee's____________.

o
o
o

(a) ability to perform the practical demonstration only at the time the skill was assessed
(b) overall competency
(c) knowledge of how to perform the task and nothing more
(d) ability to perform the specific task not only at the time of demonstration, but also for the future

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

239.

(3.2.18.4-4) In order to assess each trainee in the performance of a practical demonstration, the
assessor should __________.

o
o
o

(a) sign off the remaining half of all skills to be demonstrated based upon the success of the first
half of the skill demonstration
(b) create a unique set of subjective questions for each trainee
(c) evaluate according to their discretion, simply by their ability to "tell" when a candidate is
performing well
(d) refer to a checklist that represents the skill process as required on board the vessel

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

240.

(3.2.18.4-2) A trainee is on board your vessel and will need to be assessed in the demonstration
of practical skills. Ideally you should assess their skill __________.

o
o
o

(a) after they have received training and personally practiced the skill
(b) immediately after they have received training
(c) after they have observed the skill demonstrated once
(d) before they have received training

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

241.

(3.2.18.4-6) A licensed officer designated to certify a trainee's performance of a practical


demonstration should sign off when __________.

o
o

(a) another licensed officer has witnessed the performance of the demonstration
(b) the pre-brief with the trainee has been completed
(c) the entire practical demonstration has been successfully completed and personally observed
by the licensed officer
(d) the majority of any portion of the skill has been demonstrated

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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242.

(3.2.18.4-3) One important objective of a practical skill demonstration for mariner certification is to
__________.

o
o

(a) institute busy work for both the trainee and assessor
(b) establish if the trainee can perform certain tasks at a later time
(c) determine the degree of competence of the trainee during the assessment
(d) subjectively prevent trainee's from being licensed or certified

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

243.

(3.2.21.1-1) When tuning a Proportional-Integral-Derivative (PID) controller/loop, one should


know/understand the influence of each action component on the loop. Which description of a
component is correct?

o
o
o

(a) Integral - component in which the input is proportional to the output.


(b) Proportional - component in which there is a linear relationship between set point and input.
(c) Derivative - component in which the input is proportional to the rate of change of the output.
(d) Proportional - component in which there is a linear relationship between output and input.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

244.

(3.2.21.1-2) Control system diagrams use standard symbols to describe the component function
required for the system to achieve its intended control functions. Standard symbols are used to allow
engineers to describe the logic and component functions. Define the function of symbol "I" as shown
in the illustration. See Illustration GS-0180

o
o

(a) High Select Signal Processor.


(b) Integral Processor.
(c) Low Select Signal Processor.
(d) Difference Signal Processor.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

245.

(3.2.21.2-3) While calibrating an electronic 4-20 mA or 3-15 PSI pneumatic controller, what is the
value of 'Live Zero'?

o
o
o

(a) '0' for input span and another value for output range.
(b) 4 mA or 3 PSI for process output range.
(c) '0' for span and range.
(d) 4 mA or 3 PSI.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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246.

(3.2.21.2-2) While calibrating a 4-20 mA electronic, or a 3-15 PSI pneumatic controller, with a
process output of 50-250 PSI, what is the controller span/range you are dealing with?

o
o

(a) Output process range is 0-250 PSI.


(b) Output process span is 200 PSI.
(c) Controller input ranges are 0-40 mA and 0-15 PSI.
(d) Controller process output span is 0-250 PSI.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

247.

(3.2.21.2-1) As the engineer, it is necessary to tune a proportional-integral-derivative (PID) control


loop. If the PID incorporates all three functions, which function(s) is/are dominant in the controller's
performance?

o
o
o

(a) Proportional.
(b) Derivative and Proportional.
(c) Integral and Derivative.
(d) All are equally important.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

248.

(3.2.21.3-1) A 'Proportional Only' controlled automatic process loop is oscillating continually,


above and below the set point. To stabilize this controller and loop using the 'gain' adjustment, what
controller/loop response would you expect upon process changes vs. set point?

o
o

(a) By decreasing reset, the system's oscillations should subside vs. set point after an upset.
(b) By decreasing gain, the process should return to a straight line response vs. set point after an
upset.
(c) By decreasing gain gradually, the process should stabilize in a 'quarter wave' response to
system's upsets vs. the set point.
(d) By increasing gain, the system's oscillations should subside vs. set point after an upset.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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249.

(3.3.12.2.2-5) Prior to getting underway on the navigable waters of the United States, within 12
hours, according to 33 CFR regulations governing ports and waterways safety, certain tests are
required. Which of the following are included in the tests that must be performed?
(1) Operation of the main propulsion machinery, ahead and astern.
(2) Operation of the low lube oil pressure trip on the main engine.
(3) Operation of the reverse power relay on the emergency generator.
(4) Operation of the over speed trip on the ship's service diesel generator.
(5) Operation of the emergency generator.

o
o

(a) Tests 1,2


(b) Tests 1,5
(c) Tests 2,4
(d) Tests 3,5

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

250.

(3.3.12.2.2-3) Prior to entering the navigable waters of the United States after an international
voyage, your vessel must conduct drills according to 33 CFR regulations for ports and waterways
safety that test steering system functionality and log that in the vessel logbook, unless the drill is
conducted and logged on a regular basis at least once every three months. Within how many hours
of arrival must these drills be performed?

o
o
o

(a) 6 hours
(b) 12 hours
(c) 24 hours
(d) 48 hours

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

251.

(3.3.12.2.2-4) Prior to entering the navigable waters of the United States after an international
voyage, your vessel must conduct drills according to 33 CFR regulations for ports and waterways
safety that test steering system functionality and log that in the vessel logbook, unless the drill is
conducted and logged on a regular basis at least once every three months. Which of the following
functions must be tested for?

o
o
o

(a) Operation of the main steering gear from within the steering gear compartment utilizing the
means of communication between the navigating bridge and the steering gear compartment.
(b) Operation of the main steering gear from each bridge wing, if fitted, utilizing the normal means
of communication on the bridge wings.
(c) Operation of the auxiliary steering gear from the main navigating bridge utilizing the normal
means of communication in the wheelhouse.
(d) Operation of the auxiliary steering gear from each bridge wing, if fitted, utilizing the normal
means of communication on the bridge wings.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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252.

(3.3.12.2.2-1) Prior to arrival in Charleston, SC your vessel must conduct drills within 48 hours
prior to entry and log that in the vessel logbook. Alternatively, you can log regularly
scheduled quarterly drills according to 33 CFR regulations governing ports and waterways safety.
Which of the following are included in the drills that must be performed?
(1) Operation of the main steering gear from within the steering gear compartment.
(2) Operation of the means of communications between the navigating bridge and the steering
compartment.
(3) Operation of the alternative power supply for the steering gear, if the vessel is so equipped.
(4) Operation of the low lube pressure trip on the main engine.
(5) Operation of the reverse power relay on the ship's diesel generator.

o
o

(a) Drills 2,3,5


(b) Drills 1,2,3
(c) Drills 1,4,3
(d) Drills 1,3,5

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

253.

(3.3.12.1.1-6) Machinery spaces must be designed to minimize the exposure of personnel to


noise in accordance with U.S. regulations. Machinery control room noise must not exceed which
noise level?

o
o
o

(a) 75 dB(A)
(b) 85 dB(A)
(c) 90 dB(A)
(d) 110 dB(A)

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

254.

(3.3.14.3-9) Various tests while conducting a fuel oil analysis can be performed on board to
facilitate proper centrifugation. What test provides the key data for selecting the correct purifier
gravity disk for fuel oil centrifugal purifiers?

o
o
o

(a) Calorific heat content


(b) Ignition quality
(c) Water content
(d) Density

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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255.

(3.3.14.3-10) Compatibility of fuel is easily checked onboard ship to insure that serious problems
do not result. What statement concerning fuel incompatibility is true?

o
o
o

(a) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency to form sludge, and therefore must not
be blended.
(b) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency to separate out from one another, and
therefore must be vigorously blended.
(c) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency to form sludge, and therefore must be
vigorously blended.
(d) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency to separate out from one another, and
therefore must not be blended.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

256.

(3.3.14.3-5) Which of the following fuel sampling methods would present the most reliable,
accurate, and cost-effective option for shipboard use?

o
o
o

(a) Proportional extraction sample


(b) Single grab sample
(c) Drip method sample
(d) Mixture of several grab samples

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

257.

(3.3.14.3-8) Various tests while conducting a fuel oil analysis can be performed on board to
facilitate proper fuel storage, handling, and treatment. What tests are most important for determining
what temperatures to maintain throughout the fuel forwarding and service systems?

o
o
o

(a) Pour point and viscosity.


(b) Density and compatibility.
(c) Water content and density.
(d) Ignition quality and caloric heat content.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

258.

(3.3.2.3-3) In response to a fire on the main deck or in the accommodation spaces, who would
ordinarily report immediately to the scene of the fire and act as second in command of the fire team
led by the chief mate?

o
o

(a) Chief Engineer


(b) First Assistant Engineer
(c) Second Assistant Engineer
(d) Third Assistant Engineer

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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259.

(3.3.2.3-5) Automatic fire, smoke, and heat detectors are crucial in sizing-up a fire. Which of the
following statements about the number of zones reporting is true?

o
o
o

(a) The number of zones reporting gives an indication of the size of the fire or the extent to which
it has spread.
(b) The number of zones reporting gives an indication of the rate of development of the fire.
(c) The number of zones reporting gives an indication of the intensity of the fire.
(d) The number of zones reporting gives an indication of the stage of development of the fire.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

260.

(3.3.2.3-2) In response to a fire in the engine room, who would ordinarily report immediately to the
engine control room and assume command of the engine room?

o
o

(a) Second Assistant Engineer


(b) First Assistant Engineer
(c) Chief Engineer
(d) Chief Mate

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

261.

(3.3.2.3-7) Which of the following represents the visual factors that an officer in charge of a fire
scene would use to size-up a fire?

o
o
o

(a) Observing smoke, flame, and visibly hot bulkheads.


(b) Evaluating information from initial reports of the fire.
(c) Consulting the pre-fire plan and related sources.
(d) Determining the location, type, and number of alarms reporting.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

262.

(3.3.2.1-6) Of all the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component
contains information about emergency duty station locations and responsibilities for each crew
member by position AND name?

o
o
o

(a) Pre-fire plan


(b) Station bill
(c) Fire control plan
(d) Muster list

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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263.

(3.3.2.1-5) Of all the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component
contains information pertaining to general instructions, fire and emergency instructions and signals,
abandon ship instructions and signals, and assigns individual emergency response duties and
responsibilities for each crew member by position?

o
o

(a) Pre-fire plan


(b) Fire control plan
(c) Station bill
(d) Muster list

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

264.

(3.3.2.1-1) An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan.
Which statement is true concerning the fire control plan for a vessel?

o
o

(a) The fire control plan is a set of drawings for each deck of the vessel and contains information
on vessel arrangements and fire suppression systems and locations of firefighting equipment.
(b) The fire control plan is a set of written descriptions for each deck of the vessel and contains
information on vessel arrangement and fire suppression systems and locations of firefighting
equipment.
(c) The fire control plan is a set of drawings for each deck of the vessel and contains information
for how to extinguish a fire in a particular space.
(d) The fire control plan is a set of written instructions and contains information for how to
extinguish a fire in a particular space.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

265.

(3.3.2.1-3) An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the general


arrangement drawing. What type of drawing is the general arrangement drawing?

o
o
o

(a) Side elevation view


(b) Top plan view
(c) Perspective view
(d) End elevation view

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

266.

(3.3.2.1-2) An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan.
What types of drawings are generally furnished in the fire control plan?

o
o

(a) End elevation views (from bow and stern)


(b) Perspective view (overall)
(c) Top plan views (for each deck)
(d) Side elevation views (from port and starboard)

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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267.

(3.3.13.2.3-2) When looking for IMO regulations on a vessel's oil water separator, the information
will be found in which of the following documents?

o
o

(a) SOLAS
(b) ISM manuals
(c) MARPOL
(d) CFRs

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

268.

(3.3.7.2.1-7) What statement is true concerning the checks to be undertaken in the "checks prior
to transfer" section of the bunkering safety checklist where the transfer is from barge-to-ship?

o
o

(a) These are checks to be performed solely by the person in charge (PIC) of the barge's role of
the bunkering operation.
(b) These are checks to be performed jointly by the persons in charge (PICs) of both the barge's
and ship's roles of the bunkering operation.
(c) These are checks to be performed solely by the person in charge (PIC) of the ship's role of the
bunkering operation.
(d) These are checks to be performed jointly by the person in charge (PIC) of the ship's role of
the bunkering operation and the USCG marine inspector.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

269.
o
o

(3.3.7.2.1-4) What statement is true when considering bunkering tank volume?


(a) Generally, topping-off begins at 60% of tank volume, and filling stops at 90% of tank volume.
(b) Generally, topping-off begins at 80% of tank volume, and filling stops at 90% of tank volume.
(c) Generally, topping-off begins at 90% of tank volume, and filling stops at 95% of tank volume.
(d) Generally, topping-off begins at 95% of tank volume, and filling stops at 100% of tank volume.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

270.

(3.3.7.2.1-3) Fuel tank tables are given in volumes whereas fuel is delivered by weight in tons.
How is volume change represented by beginning and ending ullages converted into weight?

o
o

(a) By multiplying the volume by the specific gravity of the fuel.


(b) By dividing the volume by the specific gravity of the fuel.
(c) By multiplying the volume by the density of the fuel.
(d) By dividing the volume by the density of the fuel.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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271.

(3.3.9.4-4) In setting up a managerial control system, the standard must be established, and a
means of measuring performance against that standard must be established. What statement is true
concerning the comparison between performance and the standard?

o
o

(a) Any deviation must be determined and documented for record-keeping purposes. No further
action is necessary.
(b) Any deviation must be determined. No further action is necessary.
(c) Any deviation must be determined and analyzed to determine what caused the deviation.
Corrective action is taken as necessary.
(d) Any deviation must be determined and analyzed to determine what caused the deviation. No
further action is necessary.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

272.

(3.3.9.4-1) What type of managerial controls measure actions or activities that have already
occurred and implement corrective action if needed?

o
o

(a) Concurrent controls


(b) Feedforward controls
(c) Feedback controls
(d) Screening controls

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

273.

(3.3.4.1.3-1) A periodic hydrostatic test is being performed on a main steam line between the
boiler drum and the throttle valve which has a maximum allowable working pressure of 960 psig. In
accordance with 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to piping
systems, what is the required hydrostatic test pressure for this procedure?

o
o

(a) 1056 psig


(b) 1200 psig
(c) 1440 psig
(d) 1920 psig

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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274.

(3.3.4.1.3-5) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as


related to piping systems, under what circumstances is an internal inspection of a non-metallic
expansion joint performed by the marine inspector?

o
o
o

(a) An internal inspection of the non-metallic expansion joint is performed every 5 years
regardless of the frequency of periodic vessel inspections.
(b) An internal inspection of the non-metallic expansion joint is performed every 2.5 years
regardless of the frequency of periodic vessel inspections.
(c) An internal inspection of the non-metallic expansion joint is performed at every periodic ship
inspection.
(d) An internal inspection of the non-metallic expansion joint is performed whenever an external
inspection reveals excessive wear or other signs of deterioration or damage.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

275.

(3.3.4.1.5-3) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as


related to fired thermal fluid heaters, regarding hydrostatic tests, what statement is true?

o
o

(a) When the marine inspector determines that a hydrostatic test is warranted, the system must
be completely drained and re-pressurized with compressed air.
(b) When the marine inspector determines that a hydrostatic test is warranted, the system must
be completely drained and refilled with water as only water can be used as a hydrostatic test
medium.
(c) When the marine inspector determines that a hydrostatic test is warranted, the system must
be completely drained, cleaned with an appropriate solvent, and refilled with water as only water
can be used as a hydrostatic test medium.
(d) When the marine inspector determines that a hydrostatic test is warranted, the fired thermal
fluid heater heating medium fluid can be used as a hydrostatic test medium.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

276.

(3.3.1.2.-5) The design of a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating.
One of the characteristics of a job design is skill variety, which is the extent to which a job requires a
worker to use a broad range of skills and talents to perform the job successfully. What is true about
skill variety?

o
o
o

(a) Generally, the greater the variety of the skills that are performed, the lower the level of intrinsic
motivation.
(b) Generally, the greater the variety of the skills that are performed, the greater the level of
extrinsic motivation.
(c) Generally, the greater the variety of the skills that are performed, the lower the level of
extrinsic motivation.
(d) Generally, the greater the variety of the skills that are performed, the greater the level of
intrinsic motivation.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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277.

(3.3.1.2-4) Which of the following actions would motivate employees by making their job
intrinsically more rewarding?

o
o

(a) Providing clear performance objectives and setting of concrete, specific, challenging goals.
(b) Providing timely performance feedback and acknowledging progress on a daily, regular basis.
(c) Changing the job routine to instill a feeling being challenged or achieving an accomplishment.
(d) Rewarding employee performance through the reward system available to you as a manager.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

278.

(3.3.1.2.-6) The design of a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating.
One of the characteristics of a job design is task significance, which is the extent to which the job
substantially impacts the work or lives of others. What is true about task significance?

o
o
o

(a) Generally, the greater the significance of tasks that are performed, the greater the level of
intrinsic motivation.
(b) Generally, the greater the significance of tasks that are performed, the greater the level of
extrinsic motivation.
(c) Generally, the greater the significance of tasks that are performed, the lower the level of
intrinsic motivation.
(d) Generally, the greater the significance of tasks that are performed, the lower the level of
extrinsic motivation.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

279.

(3.3.12.6-2) According to the 46 CFR regulations applicable to tests, drills, and inspections for
offshore supply vessel operations, for an OSV that is expected to be away from shore for at least 48
hours, what is the requirement for when testing communications between the pilot house and the
engine room must be accomplished prior to departure?

o
o

(a) 6 or fewer hours before departure.


(b) 12 or fewer hours before departure.
(c) 24 or fewer hours before departure.
(d) 48 or fewer hours before departure.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

280.

(3.3.3.3-3) During the Special Survey the propeller is removed and shaft pulled into the vessel.
Which of the following tests must be performed on the propeller shaft prior to refitting?

o
o
o

(a) The tapered section must be checked for cracks using non-destructive testing.
(b) The entire shaft must be checked for cracks using non-destructive testing.
(c) The propeller flange must be checked for cracks using non-destructive testing.
(d) The shaft weight must be checked prior to refitting.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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281.

(3.3.9.5-3) Which of the following diagrams or charts is particularly useful for understanding and
identifying the causes of problems?

o
o

(a) Run chart


(b) Histogram
(c) Fishbone diagram
(d) Control chart

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

282.

(3.3.9.5-2) Which of the following would represent an attempt to reduce the frequency of required
overhauls for machinery?

o
o

(a) Selecting spare parts suppliers on the basis of warranty policy.


(b) Selecting spare parts suppliers on the basis of reputation for quality.
(c) Selecting spare parts suppliers on the basis of cost.
(d) Selecting spare parts suppliers on the basis of promised delivery time.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

283.

(3.3.12.1.3-3) You are the relieving the Chief Engineer of a general cargo vessel of more than
1600 gross tons on an international voyage. You have just signed on the vessel and after reviewing
the machinery running hours you notice the Emergency Generator has not been run in over sixty
days. How would you proceed?

o
o
o

(a) During your next port stay arrange with the Captain to run the Emergency Generator under
load for at least two hours.
(b) During your next port stay arrange with the Captain to run the Emergency Generator under a
full electrical load for only one hour.
(c) During your next port stay arrange with the Captain to test run the Emergency Generator for
two hours at 75% of full load.
(d) No action is required; the emergency generator only needs to run during loss of ship's power
or during ship yard periods.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

284.

(3.3.12.1.3-6) According to the Code of Federal Regulations (46 CFR) for Tank Vessels, what is
the minimum allowable flashpoint for a fuel to be burned in a steam boiler?

o
o

(a) 100 F
o
(b) 120 F
o
(c) 140 F
o
(d) 160 F

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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285.

(3.3.12.1.3-1) The firefighting equipment on your general cargo vessel was last inspected by a
shore side contractor 12 months ago. To remain in compliance with the Federal Code of Regulations
(46 CFR), as chief engineer, what should your appropriate action be?

o
o
o

(a) You should notify the master or the person in charge of the firefighting equipment to arrange
for an annual inspection of the ship's firefighting equipment by a qualified shore side contractor,
as soon as possible.
(b) You should arrange an inspection of the ship's firefighting equipment by a qualified shore side
contractor eighteen months after the date of the last inspection.
(c) You should arrange an inspection of the firefighting equipment by the third mate.
(d) Nothing needs to be done at this time.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

286.

(3.3.12.1.3-5) According to the Code of Federal Regulations (46 CFR) for Passenger Vessels, for
how long do the drawn and sealed half-pint fuel samples need to be maintained and preserved on
board?

o
o

(a) The samples need to be preserved for the length of the voyage.
(b) The samples need to be preserved until that fuel supply is exhausted.
(c) The samples need to be preserved for a period of one year.
(d) There is no requirement for preserving fuel samples.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

287.

(3.3.3.2-4) What responsibilities does a Senior Officer have while on Builder's Sea Trials of a new
vessel to which one will be assigned?

o
o
o

(a) Be involved operationally with shipyard operators/crew, and report any possible deficiencies to
the owner's representatives.
(b) Be involved operationally with the shipyard operating personnel, and assist in operations.
(c) Witness/observe operations and tests, report any perceived discrepancies to regulatory
bodies on board.
(d) None operationally, observe/witness tests and document any possible discrepancies to
owners' representatives.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

288.

(3.3.15.2-8) Which of the following maintenance criteria would be the basis of planned
maintenance?

o
o
o

(a) Engine mounted sensor data


(b) Lubricating oil analysis
(c) Vibration analysis
(d) Equipment running hours

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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289.

(3.3.15.2-7) Which of the following maintenance criteria would be the basis of condition-based
maintenance?

o
o
o

(a) Vibration analysis


(b) Equipment breakdown
(c) Equipment running hours
(d) Calendar based interval of time

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

290.

(3.3.15.2-2) What type of maintenance system would be associated with a comprehensive


lubricating oil analysis program?

o
o
o

(a) Scheduled maintenance system


(b) Planned maintenance system
(c) Corrective maintenance system
(d) Predictive maintenance system

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

291.

(3.3.15.2-5) Which of the following types of maintenance would be considered a reactive


approach to maintenance as opposed to proactive?

o
o

(a) Planned maintenance


(b) Corrective maintenance
(c) Predictive maintenance
(d) Condition-based maintenance

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

292.

(3.3.15.2-6) Which of the following types of maintenance would be considered a proactive


approach to maintenance as opposed to reactive?

o
o
o

(a) Condition-based maintenance


(b) Unscheduled maintenance
(c) Failure-based maintenance
(d) Corrective maintenance

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

293.

(3.3.15.2-4) What type of maintenance system would be associated with accomplishing


maintenance after a machinery breakdown?

o
o

(a) Planned maintenance system


(b) Condition-based maintenance system
(c) Corrective maintenance system
(d) Predictive maintenance system

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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294.

(3.3.8.1-9) In preparing for the assessment of a mariner for competency, the assessor must
establish that the appropriate conditions will be present for the assessment. What should the
assessor do if the required conditions would adversely affect the normal operation of the ship?

o
o
o

(a) The assessment should be postponed until such time that the assessment conditions required
would not affect the normal operation of the ship.
(b) Under these circumstances, the particular assessment competence should be signed off
without a performance demonstration.
(c) For functional realism, the assessment should be carried out as originally planned even
though it may affect the normal operation of the ship.
(d) Under these circumstances, the normal performance criteria can be substituted with a verbal
explanation of required actions.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

295.
o

o
o

(3.3.8.1-1) What statement is true concerning assessment validity and assessment reliability?
(a) Assessment reliability is a pre-condition for assessment validity, but not vice versa.
(b) Assessment reliability is not a pre-condition for assessment validity, and assessment validity
is not a pre-condition for assessment reliability.
(c) Assessment reliability is a pre-condition for assessment validity, and assessment validity is a
pre-condition for assessment reliability.
(d) Assessment validity is a pre-condition for assessment reliability, but not vice versa.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

296.

(3.3.8.1-3) Which of the following statements defines reliability as it pertains to assessing mariner
proficiency or competency?

o
o

(a) An assessment is reliable when it accurately measures the job-critical knowledge, skills, and
abilities required for proficient job performance.
(b) An assessment is reliable when it consistently obtains the same results across mariners with
comparable skills.
(c) An assessment is reliable when it accurately measures the critical knowledge, skills, and
abilities required of the assessment platform.
(d) An assessment is reliable when it consistently obtains the same results when repeated for the
same mariner.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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297.

(3.3.6.1-4) As you manage the engine room familiarization training program for new engine
department employees, what should you explain to these new employees?

o
o
o

(a) There is really insufficient time for familiarization training that is mandated, and the new
employee should not worry about it.
(b) The familiarization training that is mandated is excessive overkill, and the new employee
should not worry about it.
(c) The employee should do his or her best and the appropriate entries shall be made in the
training record book regardless of familiarity achieved.
(d) The employee has the obligation to notify his or her supervisor if they don't feel sufficiently
familiar to be competent.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

298.

(3.3.6.1-3) If there is any doubt that a newly employed engine department crew member is
sufficiently familiar with the engine room equipment, operating and maintenance procedures needed
for the proper performance of his or her duties, what should be done?

o
o
o

(a) The employee should be allowed to perform his or her duties without supervision in the hopes
that he or she will eventually become familiar enough to be competent.
(b) The employee should be demoted and required to function at the lowest level for the entire
duration of his or her assignment.
(c) The employee should be immediately terminated and arrangements made for a relief to be
sent out whenever practical.
(d) The employee should be provided a period of close supervision until there is no longer any
doubt that he or she is familiar enough to be competent.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

299.

(3.3.6.1-5) Who onboard is responsible for identifying all new crew members and insuring that the
safety training and shipboard familiarization training program is implemented according to written
policy and procedures?

o
o
o

(a) Chief mate


(b) Designated ship's training officer
(c) Chief engineer
(d) Ship's master

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

300.

(3.3.4.1.8-2) You are requested by Port State Authority to present records pertaining to Flag State
inspections. Which of the following records would you present?

o
o

(a) U.S. Coast Guard and American Bureau of Shipping inspection records.
(b) American Bureau of Shipping inspection records.
(c) U.S. Coast Guard inspection records.
(d) Last Port State Control inspection records.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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301.

(3.3.12.2.1-3) In accordance with the federal regulation in 33CFR Subchapter O, which discharge
of oil or oily mixture to sea is permissible?

o
o

(a) When the oil or oily mixture is mixed with tanker cargo residues.
(b) When the oil content of the effluent without dilution is less than 100 parts per million.
(c) When the discharge is necessary to for the purpose of securing the safety of a ship or saving
life at sea.
(d) When the oil or oily mixture originates from tanker cargo pump room bilges.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

302.

(3.3.12.2.1-1) In what part of 33CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific
machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker that
must be entered into an Oil Record Book?

o
o

(a) 33CFR Part 151.15


(b) 33CFR Part 151.25
(c) 33CFR Part 151.55
(d) 33CFR Part 151.2070

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

303.

(3.3.12.2.1-2) In accordance with federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for U.S nonoceangoing ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling
bilge slops?

o
o

(a) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or
in a slops tank and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility.
(b) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million
oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
(c) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it
is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility.
(d) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million
oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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304.

(3.3.12.2.1-4) Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a
Type II Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of treated or untreated
sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge
of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical to close the seacock and prevent its opening?

o
o
o

(a) Placing a warning sign on the door to the space enclosing the toilets advising all concerned
that the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
(b) Placing of tape forming an "X" over toilet and urinal bowls to convey to all concerned that the
vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
(c) Making an announcement over the public address system advising all concerned that the
vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
(d) Locking the door to the space enclosing the toilets with a padlock or door handle key lock to
prevent entry when the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

305.

(3.3.7.1.3-4) When transitioning from full sea speed to maneuvering speed on a slow-speed
diesel powered vessel that features a direct-drive fixed-pitch propeller propulsion arrangement, how
should this be accomplished?

o
o
o

(a) The engine should be decelerated from full sea speed to maneuvering speed very gradually,
but should transition through any critical speeds without any lingering.
(b) The engine should be decelerated from full sea speed to maneuvering speed very gradually,
even if it means lingering for extended periods of time at critical speeds.
(c) The engine should be decelerated from full sea speed to maneuvering speed very gradually,
without any concern for critical speeds as they will not be encountered.
(d) The engine should be decelerated from full sea speed to maneuvering speed very quickly and
should transition through any critical speeds without any lingering.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

306.

(3.3.7.1.3-2) As a management level engineering officer on a motor vessel equipped with engines
capable of burning both high sulfur content residual fuels and low sulfur content distillate fuels,
on approaching arrival to a US port, when would you plan for the fuel changeover to be
accomplished?

o
o
o

(a) When entering the SOx emission control area set by local authorities.
(b) When entering US territorial boundaries 12 miles from the coastline.
(c) When entering the US economic exclusion zone 200 miles from the coastline.
(d) When entering US navigable waters 3 miles from the coastline.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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307.

(3.3.7.1.3-3) As a management level engineering officer on a motor vessel equipped with engines
capable of burning both high sulfur content residual fuels and low sulfur content distillate fuels, on
approaching arrival to a US port, for planning purposes, what must be done?

o
o

(a) The fuel changeover is commenced precisely as the vessel enters the SOx emissions control
area.
(b) The fuel changeover is commenced BEFORE the vessel enters the SOx emissions control
area to allow time for the high sulfur fuel to be flushed out of the fuel lines.
(c) The fuel changeover is commenced approximately 1 nautical mile either side of the SOx
emissions control area.
(d) The fuel changeover is commenced AFTER the vessel enters the SOx emissions control area
to allow time for the high sulfur fuel to be flushed out of the fuel lines.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

308.

(3.3.16.2-1) As a management level engineering officer, you are apt to be the primary investigator
investigating the root cause of the failure of a piece of machinery. In collecting the necessary data
for the root cause analysis, what should be your FIRST priority?

o
o

(a) Consulting with other technical experts, suppliers, and manufacturers.


(b) Collecting and preserving the physical evidence of the failure.
(c) Interviewing any directly involved watch standing or maintenance personnel.
(d) Reviewing the historical watch keeping and maintenance records.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

309.

(3.3.11.1-1) As a chief engineer you are reviewing the engine room logbook. You must insure that
all entries are made properly. What should be your criteria for how a watch officer makes a
correction to an incorrect log entry?

o
o
o

(a) The incorrect entry should be completely obliterated and the new correct entry made just
below the obliterated incorrect entry.
(b) The new correct entry should be written directly on top of the old incorrect entry making every
effort to cleverly disguise the incorrect entry.
(c) The incorrect entry is to be completely erased and the new correct entry written on top of the
erasure so no evidence remains of the incorrect entry.
(d) The incorrect entry should have a thin line drawn through the error and be initialed by the
person making the correction so that the incorrect entry is still visible.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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310.

(3.3.14.4-5) If it is desired to perform a thermo graphic analysis of a piece of equipment with a


suspected possible fault and compare the thermal signature with similar fault-free equipment, what is
the name of the thermography performed?

o
o

(a) Spectral thermography.


(b) Comparative thermography.
(c) Baseline thermography.
(d) Thermal trending.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

311.

(3.3.14.4-1) When using a thermal imager for the purpose of conducting a thermo graphic
analysis of equipment, what form of energy produces the thermal signature radiating from the object
surface?

o
o

(a) Visible light energy.


(b) Infrared energy.
(c) X-ray energy.
(d) Ultraviolet energy.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

312.

(3.3.14.4-3) If it is desired to perform a thermo graphic analysis of new equipment to gain a


thermal signature for purposes of comparison to the thermal signature for the same equipment at a
later date, what is the name of the thermography performed on the equipment when new?

o
o
o

(a) Thermal trending.


(b) Spectral thermography.
(c) Comparative thermography.
(d) Baseline thermography.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

313.

(3.3.7.1.1-3) As a management level engineering officer planning for the departure of a vessel,
what would be the preferred document to use to make sure that you did not miss any important
steps?

o
o
o

(a) Vessel-specific pre-departure check off list.


(b) Various machinery technical manuals.
(c) Shipping company policy manual.
(d) International safety management code.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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314.

(3.3.7.1.1-6) When transitioning from maneuvering speed to full sea speed on a slow-speed
diesel-powered vessel that features a direct-drive fixed-pitch propeller propulsion arrangement, how
should this be accomplished?

o
o

(a) The engine should be accelerated from maneuvering speed to at sea speed very gradually,
without any concern for critical speeds as they will not be encountered.
(b) The engine should be accelerated from maneuvering speed to at sea speed very gradually,
but should transition through any critical speeds without any lingering.
(c) The engine should be accelerated from maneuvering speed to at sea speed very gradually,
even if it means lingering for extended periods of time at critical speeds.
(d) The engine should be accelerated from maneuvering speed to at sea speed very quickly and
should transition through any critical speeds without any lingering.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

315.

(3.3.7.1.1-1) A containership is scheduled to depart the Port of Houston, TX at 0600 on April 7th
on a voyage to exceed 48 hours. What is the EARLIEST time that the steering gear could be tested
prior to getting underway and be in compliance with the cargo and miscellaneous vessel regulations
of 46 CFR?

o
o

(a) 0600 April 6th


(b) 1200 April 6th
(c) 1800 April 6th
(d) 0000 April 7th

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

316.

(3.3.7.1.1-5) As a management level engineering officer on a motor vessel equipped with engines
capable of burning both high sulfur content residual fuels and low sulfur content distillate fuels, on
departure from a US port, when would you plan for the fuel changeover be accomplished?

o
o

(a) When leaving US navigable waters 3 miles from the coastline.


(b) When leaving the SOx emission control area set by local authorities.
(c) When leaving US territorial boundaries 12 miles from the coastline.
(d) When leaving the US economic exclusion zone 200 miles from the coastline.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

317.

(3.3.7.1.1-7) You are a management level engineering officer on a motor vessel. For departure
planning purposes, when is the "standby" order typically rung?

o
o

(a) 12 hours prior to departure.


(b) 6 hours prior to departure.
(c) 1 hour prior to departure.
(d) 15 minutes prior to departure.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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318.

(3.3.7.1.1-2) A very large crude carrier is scheduled to depart of the Port of Long Beach, CA at
0800 on June 28th on a voyage to exceed 48 hours. What is the EARLIEST time that the
communication means between the wheelhouse and the engine control room could be tested prior to
getting underway and be in compliance with the tank vessel regulations of 46 CFR?

o
o

(a) 0800 June 27th


(b) 1400 June 27th
(c) 2000 June 27th
(d) 0200 June 28th

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

319.

(3.3.1.3-5) Leadership style sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees.
Which of the following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for adopting a
structuring and telling leadership style?

o
o

(a) Where the employees are able but unwilling or insecure.


(b) Where the employees are unable and unwilling or insecure.
(c) Where the employees are unable but willing or confident.
(d) Where the employees are able and willing or confident.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

320.

(3.3.1.3-3) Some managers think the average person likes work, willingly assumes responsibility,
and is trustworthy. What type of leadership style is such a manager likely to adopt?

o
o
o

(a) Transactional leadership style.


(b) Structured, autocratic leadership style.
(c) Hierarchical, dictatorial leadership style.
(d) Supportive, participative leadership style.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

321.

(3.3.15.1-8) Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database


modules would be used to generate a maintenance due report?

o
o
o

(a) Planned maintenance management module


(b) Inventory management module
(c) Requisitions management module
(d) Equipment management module

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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322.

(3.3.15.1-5) Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database


modules would contain data such as work and safety procedures?

o
o

(a) Equipment management module


(b) Requisitions management module
(c) Planned maintenance management module
(d) Inventory management module

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

323.

(3.3.15.1-10) Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database


modules would be used to generate a report tracking consumable supplies consumption?

o
o
o

(a) Requisitions management module


(b) Planned maintenance management module
(c) Inventory management module
(d) Equipment management module

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

324.

(3.3.9.7-2) What is usually the last step in trying to resolve a grievance filed by a crew member as
established by the collective bargaining agreement between the company and the crew member's
union?

o
o

(a) Filing a formal grievance with port committee made up of both company and union
representatives in port before terminating articles.
(b) Filing a formal grievance with a company and union agreed-upon arbitrator for binding
arbitration.
(c) Filing a formal grievance with the union's designated representative (or committee) onboard
before terminating articles.
(d) Attempting to resolve the conflict by the crew member and the affected supervisor as
immediately as practical.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

325.

(3.3.9.7-4) What federal agency enforces the prohibition of employment discrimination based on
race, color, religion, sex, or national origin as it applies to shipboard employment onboard US flag
vessels?

o
o
o

(a) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)


(b) U.S. Coast Guard (USCG)
(c) Maritime Administration (MARAD)
(d) International Transport Workers' Federation (ITWF)

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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326.

(3.3.1.6-2) As a manager, which of the following conflict management styles is considered the
most appropriate for resolving conflict and is considered both an assertive and a cooperative
approach?

o
o
o

(a) Collaborating
(b) Forcing
(c) Avoiding
(d) Accommodating

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

327.

(3.3.1.6-3) As a manager, one of the practices of positive confrontation reduction skills essential
to conflict resolution involves a type of listening. What type of listening would be most effective in
resolving a conflict?

o
o
o

(a) Passive listening


(b) Defensive listening
(c) Reactive listening
(d) Active listening

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

328.

(3.3.5-5) If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided
from ashore, what statement is true as it relates to preparing a refrigeration system for lay-up?

o
o
o

(a) The refrigeration system should be evacuated with a deep-vacuum pump so that the entire
refrigerant charge is transferred to the atmosphere.
(b) The refrigeration system should be evacuated with a recovery unit so that the entire
refrigerant charge is transferred to a recovery cylinder.
(c) The refrigeration system should be left in an idle condition with the refrigerant charge
dispersed throughout the system.
(d) The refrigeration system should be pumped down so that the entire refrigerant charge is
stored and isolated in the receiver tank.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

329.

(3.3.5-7) If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided
from ashore, what statement is true as it relates to keeping gearboxes, turbine casings, and engine
crankcases dry and free of moisture?

o
o
o

(a) A combination of mechanical circulation of air and dehumidification should be used.


(b) A combination of an absence of air circulation and dehumidification should be used.
(c) A combination of an absence of air circulation and humidification should be used.
(d) A combination of mechanical circulation of air and humidification should be used.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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330.

(3.3.5-4) If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided
from ashore, boilers may be laid up dry. What statement is true as it relates to protecting boiler
firesides?

o
o
o

(a) A cap may be installed on the forced draft air intake, and a ventilating unit may be installed to
blow cooled air into the furnace.
(b) A cap may be installed on the forced draft air intake, and a ventilating unit may be installed to
blow heated air into the furnace.
(c) A cap may be installed on the uptake outlet, and a ventilating unit may be installed to blow
cooled air into the furnace.
(d) A cap may be installed on the uptake outlet, and a ventilating unit may be installed to blow
heated air into the furnace.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

331.

(3.3.5-2) If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided
where freezing is not a concern; boilers may be laid up wet. What statement concerning wet boiler
lay-up is true?

o
o

(a) The boiler should be completely filled with ordinary fresh water (such as potable water) until
water issues from the atmospheric vent.
(b) The boiler should be filled with dearated and chemically treated water until the water level is
brought to the top of the sight glass.
(c) The boiler should be completely filled with dearated and chemically treated water until water
issues from the atmospheric vent.
(d) The boiler should be filled with ordinary water (such as potable water) until the water level is
brought to the top of the sight glass.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

332.

(3.3.5-3) If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided
from ashore, boilers may be laid up dry. What statement concerning dry boiler lay-up is true as it
relates to protecting boiler watersides?

o
o
o

(a) The steam and water drums should be opened up to permit air circulation. Under no
circumstances should desiccant be placed inside the closed-up steam and water drums.
(b) Desiccant should be placed inside the steam and water drums and the drums should be
opened to permit air circulation.
(c) Desiccant should be placed inside the closed-up steam and water drums. Under no
circumstances should the steam and water drums be opened up to permit air circulation.
(d) The steam and water drums can be opened up to permit air circulation, or as an alternative
desiccant can be placed inside the closed-up steam and water drums.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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333.

(3.3.9.3-5) It has been demonstrated that delegation can enhance employee development. To
avoid a fear of failure, what must a manager avoid when delegating decision-making power to an
employee?

o
o

(a) Under-estimating the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too
easy.
(b) Over-estimating the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too
easy.
(c) Over-estimating the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too
difficult.
(d) Under-estimating the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too
difficult.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

334.

(3.3.9.3-4) What would be a legitimate reason why some managers don't delegate authority to
subordinates?

o
o

(a) They fail to delegate authority to subordinates due to a general lack of trust in others.
(b) They fail to delegate authority to subordinates due to an irrational fear of employees making
mistakes.
(c) They assess that the subordinates require more training, coaching, and experience in certain
assignments.
(d) They feel that when they delegate authority to subordinates they lose power and control.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

335.
o

o
o

(3.3.9.3-1) As a first assistant or chief engineer, what is the source of your authority?
(a) Coercive power and control-of-information power.
(b) Legitimate power and expert power.
(c) Reward power and referent power.
(d) Absolute power and control-of-information power.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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336.

(3.3.2.2-1) Fire and emergency training has three major components: knowledge sessions, skills
sessions, and drills. What is the essential difference between skills sessions and drills if applicable?

o
o

(a) Skills sessions and drills both provide crew members an opportunity to engage in a practical
exercise in a realistic setting.
(b) Skills sessions provide crew members an opportunity to practice skills in a convenient training
location, whereas drills provide crew members an opportunity to engage in a practical exercise in
a realistic setting.
(c) Skills sessions and drills both provide crew members an opportunity to practice skills in a
convenient training location.
(d) Skills sessions provide crew members an opportunity to engage in a practical exercise in a
realistic setting, whereas drills provide crew members an opportunity to practice skills in a
convenient training location.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

337.

(3.3.2.2-7) In planning for a fire and emergency drill, to insure drill success within the context of a
comprehensive fire and emergency training program, what should be planned for?

o
o

(a) The fire drill should be a simulated outbreak in a low fire risk area and for each fire drill the
location should remain the same.
(b) The fire drill should be a simulated outbreak in a low fire risk area and for each fire drill the
location should be changed.
(c) The fire drill should be a simulated outbreak in a high fire risk area and for each fire drill the
location should be changed.
(d) The fire drill should be a simulated outbreak in a high fire risk area and for each fire drill the
location should remain the same.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

338.

(3.3.2.2-5) What are the necessary components of a fire and emergency training program
onboard ship?

o
o

(a) Classroom knowledge sessions and specific practical skills make up the fire and emergency
training program. Fire and emergency drill exercises are not considered training.
(b) Fire and emergency drill exercises and specific practical skills sessions make up the fire and
emergency training program. Classroom knowledge sessions are not considered training.
(c) Classroom knowledge sessions, specific practical skills sessions, and fire and emergency drill
exercises all makeup the fire and emergency training program.
(d) Fire and emergency drill exercises only make up the fire and emergency training program.
Classroom knowledge sessions and specific practical skills sessions are not considered training.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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339.

(3.3.2.2-8) According to the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS), how
often are fire and emergency drills to be conducted at sea and in port?

o
o
o

(a) Weekly
(b) Monthly
(c) Quarterly
(d) As needed

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

340.

(3.3.2.2-4) Once a fire and emergency drill is conducted, the drill ideally should be critiqued.
What of the following statements best describes the essential characteristics of an effective critique?

o
o

(a) Determining what went right and what went wrong and identifying areas where change and
improvements are necessary to the fire control plan or to the general arrangement plan.
(b) Determining what went right and what went wrong and identifying areas where change and
improvements are necessary to the pre-fire plan or to the emergency skills training plan.
(c) Determining what went right only and focusing only on the positive to reinforce effective and
productive behavior that promoted team functionality.
(d) Determining what went wrong only and focusing only on the negative in an attempt to
extinguish ineffective or counter-productive behavior that worked against team functionality.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

341.

(3.3.1.5-2) What type of meeting is most likely to be one that is most appropriate to use group
consensus as a process?

o
o
o

(a) Problem-solving meeting


(b) Information-giving meeting
(c) Fact-finding meeting
(d) Information exchange meeting

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

342.

(3.3.1.5-3) In conducting a group-centered meeting, it is important to encourage participation and


two-way communication. In addition to being an alert listener, what specific technique is particularly
helpful in getting non-contributors to participate?

o
o
o

(a) Aggressively coerce participation so that all contribute.


(b) Demand participation from all participants.
(c) Encourage participation by focusing only on the contributors.
(d) Utilize questioning techniques to encourage participation.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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343.

(3.3.1.5-1) As a manager considering which approach to use at a meeting, what type of meeting
is most likely to be one that is most appropriate to use a leader-controlled approach as opposed to a
group-centered approach?

o
o
o

(a) Problem-solving meeting


(b) Information exchange meeting
(c) Fact-finding meeting
(d) Information-giving meeting

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

344.

(3.3.1.5-6) As a manager conducting a meeting, what action should you take when an attendee
exhibits disruptive or inappropriate behavior?

o
o
o

(a) With respect, respond in a way appropriate to the behavior.


(b) Immediately expel the offending attendee from the meeting.
(c) Ignore the disruptive or inappropriate behavior.
(d) Aggressively confront the offending trainee.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

345.

(3.3.9.1-4) Once a problem has been defined and the root cause (or causes) identified, the next
step in the decision-making process is developing alternative solutions to the problem. What
statement best reflects how many alternatives should be considered?

o
o

(a) The number of alternatives is not an important consideration.


(b) Develop only one alternative.
(c) Develop as few alternatives as is feasible.
(d) Develop as many alternatives as humanly possible.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

346.

(3.3.4.1.2-4) In accordance with 46 CFR 61, which of the following pressure vessels listed on the
ship's Certificate of Inspection would be exempt from hydrostatic testing?

o
o
o

(a) Dearating feed tank.


(b) Potable water pressure tank.
(c) Starting air receiver tank.
(d) Refrigeration system receiver tank.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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347.

(3.3.13.1.3-3) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal


regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of ground paper products,
rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical
miles of the nearest land?

o
o
o

(a) 3 nautical miles


(b) 12 nautical miles
(c) 25 nautical miles
(d) 200 nautical miles

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

348.

(3.3.13.1.3-1) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal


regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of what category of garbage is prohibited in
any waters?

o
o

(a) Unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.
(b) Plastic or garbage mixed with plastic.
(c) Floating dunnage, lining, or packing material.
(d) Ground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

349.

(3.3.13.1.3-2) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal


regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of dunnage, lining, and
packing materials that float applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the
nearest land?

o
o

(a) 3 nautical miles


(b) 12 nautical miles
(c) 25 nautical miles
(d) 200 nautical miles

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

350.

(3.3.4.2-2) During a vessel dry-docking survey which of the following items are typically required
by Class to be surveyed?

o
o

(a) Sea chests and tail shaft wear down readings only.
(b) Tail shaft wear down readings and rudder assembly only.
(c) Sea chests, tail shaft wear down readings and rudder assembly.
(d) Rudder assembly and sea chests only.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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351.

(3.3.4.2-9) As Chief Engineer you join a vessel enrolled in Continuous Machinery Survey.
Approximately what percent of the machinery should be surveyed per year throughout the Special
Survey cycle?

o
o

(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 50%

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

352.

(3.3.4.2-5) You are putting together a list of Class required work for a vessel's next special
survey. Which of the following items would be required by Class?

o
o

(a) Bow thruster overhaul.


(b) Scavenging air box inspection.
(c) Hull thickness measurements.
(d) Replacement of sea valves.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

353.

(3.3.4.2-8) The intermediate survey for a vessel is typically carried out at what point in the survey
cycle?

o
o
o

(a) Between the second and third special classification surveys.


(b) After the third annual classification survey.
(c) Before the second annual classification survey.
(d) At or between the second and third annual classification surveys.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

354.

(3.3.4.2-3) During a dry-docking survey it is necessary to check the freeboard marking of a


vessel. Which of the following certificates addresses vessel freeboard markings?

o
o

(a) Tonnage Certificate


(b) International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate
(c) International Load Line Certificate
(d) MARPOL Certificate

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

355.

(3.3.4.2-4) You have recently joined a vessel and are reviewing the classification society
survey due dates. The last special periodic survey of the vessel was ten months previous. Within
what time frame can the annual machinery surveys be completed?

o
o
o

(a) 3 months plus or minus the anniversary date of the last special survey.
(b) 2 months plus or minus the anniversary date of the last special survey
(c) 1 month plus or minus the anniversary date of the last special survey
(d) On the anniversary month of the last special survey

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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356.

(3.3.11.3-3) According to the 33 CFR regulations pertaining to the Oil Record Book, how long
must the Oil Record Book be maintained on board those vessels for which the regulations apply?

o
o

(a) 1 year at a minimum.


(b) 2 years at a minimum.
(c) 3 years at a minimum.
(d) 4 years at a minimum.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

357.

(3.3.11.3-4) According to the 33 CFR regulations pertaining to signatures required in the Oil
Record Book, what statement is true?

o
o

(a) The officer in charge of the engineering watch signs each entry occurring on the watch, and
the chief engineer signs each page.
(b) The officer in charge of the navigational watch signs each entry occurring on the watch, and
the master signs each page.
(c) The person in charge of an operation signs for that entry, and the master signs each page.
(d) The person in charge of an operation signs for that entry, and the chief engineer signs each
page.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

358.

(3.3.12.1.2-7) One of your ship's indirect-drive steering gear drive motors needs to be replaced.
What minimum short-time rating should the replacement motor have in hours?

o
o
o

(a) 1/4 hour


(b) 1/2 hour
(c) 1 hour
(d) Continuous operation at 15 percent load followed by 1 hour at full load.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

359.

(3.3.12.1.2-9) According to the electrical engineering regulations of the CFR, which of the
following electrical repairs is permitted?

o
o

(a) Splice a damaged conductor with twist-on connectors if the insulated cap is firmly secured to
prevent loosening due to vibration.
(b) Splice a flexible cord or cable with twist-on connectors if smaller than 18 AWG.
(c) Connect a flexible cord or cable to a fitting with so that tension is not transmitted to joints or
terminal screws.
(d) Extend the length of a circuit with twist-on connectors if in an enclosure and wrapped securely
with insulating tape.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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360.

(3.3.12.1.2-8) The operating motor on one of your ship's watertight doors needs to be replaced.
What minimum short-time rating should the replacement motor have in hours?

o
o
o

(a) 1/12
(b) 1/4 hour
(c) 1/2 hour
(d) 1 hour

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

361.

(3.3.12.1.2-2) Coast Guard electrical engineering regulations specify capacity ratings for electrical
equipment. Based on the inspection of the cables on one of your ship's service generators, you've
decided that the cables need to be replaced. The current-carrying capacity of the replacement
generator cables should be what percent of the continuous generator rating?

o
o

(a) Less than 15 percent


(b) Less than 100 percent
(c) Less than 115 percent
(d) Less than 220 percent

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

362.

(3.3.4.1.1-5) Assuming the inspection interval for a boiler as specified by 46 CFR 61 is 2.5 years,
which statement is true?

o
o
o

(a) Two tests are required over a 5 year period, and no more than 2 years can elapse between
any test or inspection and its immediate predecessor.
(b) Three tests are required over a 5 year period, and no more than 1 year can elapse between
any test or inspection and its immediate predecessor.
(c) Three tests are required over a 5 year period, and no more than 2 years can elapse between
any test or inspection and its immediate predecessor.
(d) Two tests are required over a 5 year period, and no more than 3 years can elapse between
any test or inspection and its immediate predecessor.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

363.

(3.3.4.1.1-2) A periodic hydrostatic test is being performed on an oil-fired auxiliary water-tube


boiler with a maximum allowable working pressure of 150 psig. In accordance with 46 CFR 61, what
is the required hydrostatic test pressure for this procedure?

o
o

(a) 165.0 psig


(b) 187.5 psig
(c) 225.0 psig
(d) 300.0 psig

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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364.

(3.3.9.2-3) Which of the following document types would offer the greatest flexibility in carrying
out its intent?

o
o
o

(a) Policies
(b) Regulations
(c) Rules
(d) Standing orders

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

365.

(3.3.9.2-2) Before a plan can be effectively executed, the objective of the plan must be defined.
What statement concerning the definition of a plan objective best represents the proper writing of an
objective as an engineering department management level officer?

o
o

(a) Reduce overtime expenditures department-wide for all engineering department employees for
the upcoming deployment as compared to the last trip.
(b) Reduce overtime expenditures department-wide for all engineering department
employees 10% for the upcoming deployment as compared to the last trip.
(c) Reduce overtime expenditures 10% for the upcoming deployment as compared to the last trip.
(d) Reduce overtime expenditures department-wide for all engineering department
employees 10%.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

366.

(3.3.9.2-4) For planning purposes graphical charts can be a useful tool. What type of chart is
good for a visual progress report and identifies work stages or activities on the vertical axis and the
scheduled completion dates on the horizontal axis?

o
o
o

(a) PERT chart


(b) Pie chart
(c) Scatter plot
(d) Gantt chart

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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367.

(3.3.4.1.6-6) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to tests and inspections as related to


automatic auxiliary boilers, the draft limit control must be checked for proper operation. What
statement is true?

(a) The draft loss interlock switch must be tested to insure that a safety shutdown occurs when
there is insufficient draft to support combustion. There is no requirement to test the draft loss
interlock switch at boiler startup.
(b) The draft loss interlock switch must be tested to insure that boiler startup is prevented when
there is insufficient draft to support combustion. There is no requirement to test the draft loss
interlock switch for boiler safety shutdown.
(c) The draft loss interlock switch must be tested to insure that a safety shutdown occurs and a
boiler startup is prevented when there is insufficient draft to support combustion.
(d) Either the draft loss interlock switch must be tested to insure that a safety shutdown occurs or
boiler startup is prevented when there is insufficient draft to support combustion. There is no
requirement to perform both tests.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

368.

(3.3.4.1.6-3) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to tests and inspections as related to


automatic auxiliary boilers, the fuel supply control solenoids must be checked for proper shutdown
operation. What must be checked for?

o
o
o

(a) Upon a normal cycling or safety shutdown, the fuel control solenoid valve coil under test
physically moves to the closed position.
(b) Upon a normal cycling or safety shutdown, voltage is removed from the fuel control solenoid
valve coil under test.
(c) Upon a normal cycling or safety shutdown, voltage is applied to the fuel control solenoid valve
coil under test.
(d) Upon a normal cycling or safety shutdown, the fuel control solenoid valve coil under test
closes with no visible leakage into the burner(s).

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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369.

(3.3.4.1.6-4) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to tests and inspections as related to


automatic auxiliary boilers, the fuel pressure limit control must be checked for proper shutdown
operation. What statement is true?

(a) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be raised to a value above what is
required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is required to restart
automatically upon restoration of normal pressure.
(b) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be raised to a value above what is
required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset must be required before
boiler restart.
(c) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be lowered to a value below what is
required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset must be required before
boiler restart.
(d) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be lowered to a value below what is
required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is required to restart
automatically upon restoration of normal pressure.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

370.

(3.3.4.1.6-5) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to tests and inspections as related to


automatic auxiliary boilers burning heavy fuel oil, the fuel temperature limit control must be checked
for proper shutdown operation. What statement is true?

(a) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel temperature must be raised to a value above what is
required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset must be required before
boiler restart.
(b) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel temperature must be lowered to a value below what is
required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is required to restart
automatically upon restoration of normal temperature.
(c) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel temperature must be lowered to a value below what is
required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset must be required before
boiler restart.
(d) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel temperature must be raised to a value above what is
required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is required to restart
automatically upon restoration of normal temperature.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

371.

(3.3.4.1.6-2) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as


related to automatic auxiliary boilers, flame safeguard controls must be checked for proper shutdown
operation. Which of the following must be checked? 1) Flame failure. 2) Ignition failure. 3) Audible
alarm of shutdown. 4) Visual indication of shutdown. 5) Shutdown times.

o
o

(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 1,2,3,4,5
(c) 1,2,3,5
(d) 1,2,5

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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372.

(3.3.4.1.6-1) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as


related to automatic auxiliary boilers, safety programming controls must be checked for proper
operation, sequencing, and timing. What functions must be checked?

o
o

(a) Prepurge, ignition, and postpurge


(b) Prepurge, ignition, postpurge, and modulation
(c) Prepurge, ignition, and modulation
(d) Ignition, postpurge, and modulation

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

373.

(3.3.7.1.4-3) What statement is true concerning the engineering watch in port being handed over
while an important operation, such as transferring fuel, is being performed?

o
o

(a) The important operation should be concluded by the relieving officer, except when otherwise
ordered by the chief mate.
(b) The important operation should be concluded by the relieving officer, except when otherwise
ordered by the chief engineer.
(c) The important operation should be concluded by the officer being relieved, except when
otherwise ordered by the chief engineer.
(d) The important operation should be concluded by the officer being relieved, except when
otherwise ordered by the chief mate.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

374.

(3.3.7.1.4-2) While in port, ships of what propulsive power and over are required to have an
officer in charge of the engineering watch at all times?

o
o

(a) 750 kW/1000 HP


(b) 3000 kW/4000 HP
(c) 6000 kW/8000 HP
(d) 7500 kW/10000 HP

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

375.

(3.3.13.1.4-5) In accordance with the international MARPOL AnnexVI regulations, what is the
minimum allowable flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-fed shipboard incinerator while in
operation?

o
o

(a) 450 C
o
(b) 650 F
o
(c) 850 F
o
(d) 1050 F

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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376.

(3.3.13.1.4-2) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the nitrous
oxide (NOx) emissions associated with certain diesel engines are required to operate under certain
acceptable limits. To which of the listed engine applications would the NOx emission regulations
apply?

o
o
o

(a) Diesel engines with a power output of more than 130kW.


(b) Diesel engines with a power output not greater than 130kW.
(c) Diesel engines powering emergency diesel-generator sets.
(d) Diesel engines powering lifeboats.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

377.

(3.3.13.1.4-1) Which of the following fire extinguishing agents which may be found aboard ship is
designated as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that
Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?

o
o
o

(a) Halon 1301


(b) Cartridge-operated dry chemical
(c) CO2
(d) Cartridge-operated dry powder

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

378.

(3.3.14.2-7) With a machinery lubricating oil analysis program, it is important to monitor trends
over time. What would be indicated by elevated copper levels associated with a recent sample of
used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil?

o
o

(a) Wear of various aluminum-alloy bearings.


(b) Wear of piston rings.
(c) Wear of various lead-bronze alloy bearings.
(d) Wear of various white metal alloy bearings.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

379.

(3.3.14.2-6) With a machinery lubricating oil analysis program, it is important to monitor trends
over time. What would be indicated by a sudden increase in metallic content of a recent sample of
used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil?

o
o

(a) Sudden contamination of the lubricating oil with coolant.


(b) Sudden dilution of the lubricating oil with fuel.
(c) Increased wear rates of engine parts.
(d) Depletion of lubricating oil additives.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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380.

(3.3.14.2-10) Elevated metal levels present in a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase
lubricating oil is indicative of a condition. What would high iron levels indicate?

o
o

(a) Camshaft bearing wear.


(b) Piston ring or cylinder liner wear.
(c) Rocker arm or piston pin bushing wear.
(d) Main bearing or crank pin bearing wear.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

381.

(3.3.7.1.2-6) On a vessel classed for a periodically unmanned engine room, which of the below
listed events will trigger the annunciation of the engineer's assistance needed alarm?

o
o

(a) Failure of the duty engineer to conduct a machinery space round every four hours.
(b) Failure of the duty engineer to acknowledge an ECC alarm in a reasonable period of time.
(c) Failure of the duty engineer to contact the bridge watch in the agreed-upon time.
(d) Loss of the backup power supply to the ECC alarm system.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

382.

(3.3.7.1.2-5) On a vessel classed for a periodically unmanned engine room, which of the below
listed items are a mandatory part of the maintenance program check-off list for transitioning to
unmanned status at the end of the work day according to the 46 CFR regulations for automated selfpropelled vessel manning?
I) Routine daily maintenance has been performed.
II) Fire and flooding hazards have been minimized.

III) Plant status is suitable for unattended operation.


o
o
o

(a) I and II only


(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II, and III

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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383.

(3.3.7.1.2-1) As a management level engineering officer planning for underway operations


onboard a tanker, you must maintain manning in the engineering spaces while underway in
accordance with the certificate of inspection (COI) and the navigation safety regulations for
underway tankers as set forth in 33 CFR. Which of the following statements is true?

o
o

(a) Tankers are authorized for periodically unmanned engine rooms while underway as long as
manual control measures can be implemented in a reasonable period of time when necessary.
(b) Tankers are required to maintain a continuous engineering watch while underway and be
capable of implementing manual control measures in a reasonable period of time when
necessary.
(c) Tankers are required to maintain a continuous engineering watch while underway and be
capable of implementing manual control measures immediately when necessary.
(d) Tankers are authorized for periodically unmanned engine rooms while underway as long as
manual control measures can be implemented immediately when necessary.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

384.

(3.3.7.1.2-2) As a management level engineering officer planning for underway operations


onboard a tanker, you must maintain manning in the engineering spaces while underway in
accordance with the certificate of inspection (COI) and the navigation safety regulations for
underway tankers as set forth in 33 CFR. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) The engineering watch need NOT be physically present in the machinery spaces or in the
main control space but be on call and must consist of at least one appropriately endorsed
licensed or credentialed officer.
(b) The engineering watch must be physically present in the machinery spaces or in the main
control space and must consist of at least two appropriately endorsed licensed or credentialed
officers.
(c) The engineering watch need NOT be physically present in the machinery spaces or in the
main control space but be on call and must consist of at least two appropriately endorsed
licensed or credentialed officers.
(d) The engineering watch must be physically present in the machinery spaces or in the main
control space and must consist of at least one appropriately endorsed licensed or credentialed
officer.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

385.

(3.3.7.1.2-3) As a management level engineering officer planning for transitioning from the
maneuvering watch posted when departing a US port to at sea manning on a vessel classed for a
periodically unmanned engine room, in consultation with the ship's master, when would the transition
take place?

o
o
o

(a) When leaving the navigable waters of the US which is 3 nautical miles from the coast line.
(b) When leaving the applicable emission control area which varies with the port area.
(c) When leaving the US exclusive economic zone which is 200 miles from the coast line.
(d) When leaving the US territorial limit which is 12 miles from the coast line.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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386.

(3.3.6.2-5) Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training
your crew how to pump bilges:

"Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping
out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session
the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water
holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There
shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations."
What role does the phrase "where a bilge pocket requires pumping out" serve in the objective
statement?
o
o
o

(a) It states one of the standards of performance to be achieved.


(b) It specifies the single outcome to be achieved.
(c) It states a performance by using action words.
(d) It specifies a performance input condition.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

387.

(3.3.6.2-6) Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training
your crew how to pump bilges:
"Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping
out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session
the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water
holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There
shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations."

What role does the phrase "pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water
holding tank" serve in the objective statement?
o

o
o

(a) It specifies a performance input condition.


(b) It specifies the single outcome to be achieved.
(c) It states a performance by using action words.
(d) It states one of the standards of performance to be achieved.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

388.

(3.3.6.2-1) Before training is to be planned for, it is necessary to conduct a training needs


analysis. What would be the best source of information to analyze before providing fire emergency
skills training?

o
o
o

(a) Direct observation and reviewing critiques of the execution of shipboard fire and emergency
drills performed by the existing crew.
(b) Reviewing marine casualty and damage reports attributed to fires that have occurred on the
vessel in the past.
(c) Analyzing insurance premium costs relevant to fires that have occurred on the vessel in the
past.
(d) Analyzing statistical data collected relevant to fires that have occurred on the vessel in the
past.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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389.

(3.3.6.2-7) You are conducting a training session on how to parallel alternators manually. What
delivery technique would be most effective to ensure transfer of learning with the desired outcome
that the officers under training actually are able to successfully parallel manually in the future?

o
o
o

(a) After preliminary discussion, demonstrations, and active practice, ask the officer trainees to
parallel alternators at the actual switchboard.
(b) After preliminary discussion and practice recitals, ask the officer trainees to recite the
procedure in a classroom setting.
(c) After preliminary discussion, show a video demonstrating the procedure to the officer trainees
in a classroom setting.
(d) After preliminary discussion, demonstrate the procedure at the actual switchboard to the
officer trainees.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

390.

(3.3.6.2-3) Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training
your crew how to pump bilges:
"Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping
out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session
the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water
holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There
shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations."

What is the "action" verb associated with the above objective?


o

o
o

(a) shall be
(b) will be able to pump
(c) have been disabled
(d) using

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

391.

(3.3.6.2-4) Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training
your crew how to pump bilges:

"Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping
out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session
the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water
holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There
shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations."
What role does the phrase "in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure
checklist" serve in the objective statement?
o
o

(a) It specifies a performance input condition.


(b) It states a performance by using action words.
(c) It states one of the standards of performance to be achieved.
(d) It specifies the single outcome to be achieved.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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392.

(3.3.10-2) One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining
agreement dispute is mediation. What is meant by mediation?

o
o

(a) Settlement reached as the result of litigation as part of a judicial proceeding in court.
(b) Negotiated settlement between company and union representatives facilitated by an impartial
person.
(c) Direct, in-house negotiated settlement between company and union representatives to avoid
litigation.
(d) Agreement to abide by a binding decision rendered by a company and union agreed-upon
impartial person.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

393.

(3.3.10-3) One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining
agreement is arbitration. What is the role of the arbitrator?

o
o

(a) The arbitrator conducts independent fact-finding and renders a decision based on the results
of that investigation.
(b) The arbitrator makes a binding decision based on the evidence and the arguments presented
by both sides.
(c) The arbitrator facilitates settlement by negotiation by working with both sides to reach
common ground.
(d) The arbitrator appoints a fact-finder from each side to investigate the dispute and report back
to the principals.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

394.

(3.3.3.4-8) What project management scheduling chart is a bar chart with the activity or task
descriptions displayed on the left and listed vertically from top to bottom, and the calendar displayed
on the top and laid out horizontally from left to right?

o
o

(a) PERT chart


(b) Gantt chart
(c) Pie chart
(d) CPM chart

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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395.

(3.3.3.4-3) As it pertains to graphical tools used to visualize task scheduling in project


management, what statement best represents the difference between a Gantt chart and a PERT
chart?

(a) The Gantt chart makes it easy to visualize task dependencies and milestones, whereas the
PERT chart makes it easy to visualize progress with respect to an actual calendar. Both are bar
charts.
(b) The PERT chart (which is a line diagram) makes it easy to visualize task dependencies and
milestones, whereas the Gantt chart (which is a bar chart) makes it easy to visualize progress
with respect to an actual calendar.
(c) The PERT chart (which is a bar chart) makes it easy to visualize task dependencies and
milestones, whereas the Gantt chart (which is a line diagram) makes it easy to visualize progress
with respect to an actual calendar.
(d) The Gantt chart makes it easy to visualize task dependencies and milestones, whereas the
PERT chart makes it easy to visualize progress with respect to an actual calendar. Both are line
diagrams.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

396.

(3.3.3.4-5) Overhaul of a ship at a shipyard represents an example of a large-scale project


executed under contract. What characteristics best describe the terms of the project deliverables?

o
o

(a) The shipyard repairs contract is time-limited with specific start and end dates, is cost-defined,
and is very general in terms of repairs contracted for.
(b) The shipyard repairs contract is time-limited with specific start and end dates, is cost-defined,
and is very specific in terms of repairs contracted for.
(c) The shipyard repairs contract is time-limited with specific start and end dates, is of
undetermined cost, and is very specific in terms of repairs contracted for.
(d) The shipyard repairs contract is open-ended in terms of time, is cost-defined, and is very
specific in terms of repairs contracted for.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

397.

(3.3.1.1-3) Attitudes, biases, and prejudices towards certain groups (nationalities, races, religions,
and sexes) can pose formidable challenges to communication. This is because an individual is
judged by group association rather than by getting to know the individual and recognizing individual
differences. What is the tendency called?

o
o
o

(a) Stereotyping
(b) Stereo graphing
(c) Individualizing
(d) Monotyping

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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398.

(3.3.1.1-5) In order to establish a good climate for communication it is important to establish


mutual trust between the employee and the manager. Which of the following facilitates the trust of
employees in managers?

o
o
o

(a) Disciplining fairly and consistently, showing contempt for your employee's abilities, and
advocating on their behalf.
(b) Disciplining unfairly and inconsistently, respecting your employee's abilities, and advocating
on their behalf.
(c) Disciplining fairly and consistently, respecting your employee's abilities, and requiring them to
advocating on their own behalf.
(d) Disciplining fairly and consistently, respecting your employee's abilities, and advocating on
their behalf.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

399.

(3.3.1.1-4) What form of communication provides the greatest information richness, which is the
amount of verbal and non-verbal information that a communication channel carries?

o
o

(a) Large-group meeting


(b) One-on-one, face-to-face
(c) Small-group meeting
(d) Telephone conversation

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

400.

(3.3.1.1-6) In order to establish a good climate for communication it is important to minimize


status barriers. Which of the following techniques would be the best way to minimize status barriers
on a one-on-one, face-to-face conversation of a sensitive nature with an employee?

o
o
o

(a) Conversing with the employee in your office with the employee sitting on the opposite side of
the desk from you.
(b) Conversing with the employee in the ship's office with the employee sitting on the opposite
side of the desk from you.
(c) Conversing with the employee in his/her workspace or a neutral area without regard to being
interrupted.
(d) Conversing with the employee in his/her workspace or a neutral area with privacy assured.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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401.

(3.3.1.1-8) An important communication tool for managers is known as active listening. It helps
better insure that managers understand employees and that feedback is encouraged. What is active
listening?

o
o

(a) Active listening is when you allow the employee to finish what they are saying before
speaking.
(b) Active listening is when you maintain eye contact with the employee the whole time they are
speaking.
(c) Active listening is when you make a response that states what you have heard from the
employee.
(d) Active listening is when you listen to an employee with undivided attention and not be
distracted.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

402.

(3.3.12.5-4) You are relieving the chief engineer on a self-propelled mobile offshore drilling unit.
What machinery and equipment are you required to inspect prior to assuming your duties?

o
o

(a) Any boilers, auxiliary machinery, and industrial machinery.


(b) Any boilers, propulsion machinery, and industrial machinery.
(c) Any boilers, propulsion machinery, and auxiliary machinery.
(d) Any propulsion machinery, auxiliary machinery, and industrial machinery.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

403.

(3.3.9.6-1) A performance appraisal (employee evaluation) is the process used to determine what
extent an employee is performing a job in the way that is was intended to be done. Properly done
and in the interest of employee development, what should be the focus of the appraisal?

o
o

(a) The appraisal should be conducted without the benefit of an interview as this process often
causes discomfort for the employee and the supervisory manager.
(b) It should focus only on past performance with an emphasis on shortcomings so that the
employee fears for the future.
(c) Although it should examine all aspects of past performance, it should be constructive and
future oriented with an eye towards the path to improvement.
(d) It should focus on the positive and totally ignore any past shortcomings so that the employee
can maintain positive self-esteem.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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404.

(3.3.9.6-2) Even though conducting an employee appraisal interview may be one of the least liked
aspects of the job of a manager, why are they important?

o
o
o

(a) The interview will provide the opportunity to provide feedback and motivate employees.
(b) The interview will provide the basis for establishing command authority.
(c) The interview will provide the opportunity to instill fear in the employee.
(d) The interview will provide the opportunity to communicate repercussions for poor
performance.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

405.

(3.3.9.6-5) The "hot stove" rule is sometimes used to illustrate the principles of fair, effective
discipline. Which of the following principles illustrates the principle of discipline carrying a clear
warning?

o
o
o

(a) A hot stove doesn't care whom it burns.


(b) If you touch a hot stove, it burns you right away.
(c) A hot stove always burns you when you touch it.
(d) You know what will happen if you touch a hot stove.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

406.

(3.3.16.1-5) When analyzing trend analysis data in reference to a given limit value for the
purposes of scheduling corrective maintenance, what statement is true?

o
o

(a) The current data should be compared to the limit value without any concern for the historical
trend or for the rate of change over time.
(b) The current data should be analyzed for the historical trend and for the rate of change over
time, but without any concern for the limit value.
(c) The current data should be compared to the limit value and analyzed for the historical
trend and for the rate of change over time.
(d) The current data should be compared to the limit value and the historical trend, but without
any concern for the rate of change over time.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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407.

(3.3.11.4-1) While a vessel is underway in periodically unmanned engine room status, the oilywater separator is undergoing extensive maintenance and repairs and will not be available for
service for another 24 hours. With bilge holding tanks nearing capacity, as chief engineer you wish
to be informed of when the oily-water separator is available for service. How would you best insure
that you will be so informed?

o
o

(a) The request would be written as a note posted in the vicinity of the engineering department
coffee mess.
(b) The request would be written as a special instruction in the chief engineer's night order book.
(c) The request would be written as a note inserted into the chief engineer's standing order book.
(d) The request would be made of the duty engineer orally assuming that the word shall be
passed on to his or her relief.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

408.

(3.3.11.4-2) As a chief engineer, which of the following instructions would be most appropriately
entered into the Chief Engineer's night orders due to the non-routine nature of the instruction?

o
o

(a) All discharges, transfers, or disposal of bilge water must be logged in the oil record book by
the officer in charge of the operation.
(b) The officer in charge of the engineering watch shall notify the chief engineer without delay
when No.2 SSDG repairs are complete and the generator has been prepared for testing.
(c) When the engine room is in the periodic unmanned condition, the duty engineer shall be
immediately available and on call to attend the machinery spaces.
(d) The officer in charge of the engineering watch shall notify the chief engineer without delay
when a malfunction occurs which may be such as to endanger the safe operation of the ship.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

409.

(3.3.11.4-3) As a chief engineer, which of the following instructions would most appropriately
be written into the chief engineer's night orders due to the non-routine nature of the special
instruction?

o
o

(a) The OICEW shall notify the chief engineer without delay when the No.1 main feed pump
repairs are complete and it is ready to be put back into service.
(b) When the engine room is in the manned condition, the OICEW shall at all times be readily
capable of operating the propulsion equipment in response to needs for changes in direction or
speed.
(c) The OICEW shall notify the chief engineer without delay when a malfunction occurs which
may be such as to endanger the safe operation of the ship.
(d) When the ship enters congested waters, upon notification from the bridge, the OICEW shall
ensure that all machinery involved with maneuvering can be placed in the manual mode of
operation.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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410.

(3.3.4.1.4-4) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as


related to machinery and equipment, what functional test must be performed on boiler draft fans, fuel
oil transfer and service pumps, and machinery space ventilation fans during periodic inspections?

o
o
o

(a) Remote shutdown capability.


(b) Remote run status indication capability.
(c) Remote speed change capability.
(d) Remote startup capability.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

411.

(3.3.4.1.4-10) Planned maintenance procedures are important to maintaining the operating


condition of equipment. Your vessel is a single screw vessel. How often should you exam your
vessel's tail shaft in order to be in compliance with Coast Guard periodic testing and inspection
regulations?

o
o
o

(a) At least three times within any 5 year period.


(b) At least once every 5 years.
(c) Annually.
(d) At least twice within any 5 year period.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

412.

(3.3.4.1.4-8) Suppose a water-lubricated stern tube bearing is being evaluated for wear where the
propulsion machinery is located amidship. If the tailshaft diameter is 10.5 inches, according to 46
CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to machinery and equipment,
what would be the maximum clearance diameter permissible before the bearing must be re-bushed?

o
o

(a) 0.125 inches


(b) 0.25 inches
(c) 0.3125 inches
(d) 0.375 inches

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

413.

(3.3.7.2.2-3) If two centrifuges are to be simultaneously used in series to treat residual fuel
contaminated with both water and solids, how should the centrifuges be configured?

o
o

(a) The first centrifuge should be set up as a clarifier and the second centrifuge should be set up
as a purifier.
(b) The first centrifuge should be set up as a purifier and the second centrifuge should be set up
as a clarifier.
(c) The first centrifuge should be set up as a purifier and the second centrifuge should also be set
up as a purifier.
(d) The first centrifuge should be set up as a clarifier and the second centrifuge should also be set
up as a clarifier.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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414.

(3.3.7.2.2-8) Which of the following statements represents acceptable practice for heavy fuel oil
settling tank heating?

o
o
o

(a) When filled, the heat source to the settling tank should be cut in and maintained at all times
regardless of the actual temperature of the tank contents.
(b) When filled, the heat source to a settling tank should be cut in and out often enough to
maintain the ideal settling temperature and not allow the temperature to gradually fall.
(c) When filled, no heat should be applied to the settling tank as gravity alone is sufficient to
provide for proper settling as long as the fuel is not allowed to drop below the pour point
temperature.
(d) When filled, the heat source to the settling tank should be cut in until the ideal settling
temperature is reached, then secured allowing the fuel to remain undisturbed for as long as
possible.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

415.

(3.3.7.2.2-7) Which of the following statements represents acceptable practice for heavy fuel oil
storage tank heating?

o
o

(a) The heavy fuel oil storage tanks currently on suction (or shall be within 24 hours) should be
o
maintained 5-10 C below the fuel pour point until the fuel is transferred.
(b) The heavy fuel oil storage tanks currently on suction (or shall be within 24 hours) should be
o
maintained 5-10 C above the fuel pour point until the fuel is transferred.
(c) The heavy fuel oil storage tanks currently on suction (or shall be within 24 hours) should be
o
maintained 5-10 C below the fuel flash point until the fuel is transferred.
o
(d) All the heavy fuel oil storage tanks should be maintained 5-10 C above the fuel pour point for
the entire voyage.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

416.

(3.3.7.2.2-2) For the most efficient centrifuging of residual fuels on motor vessels, the lower the
viscosity of the fuel as achieved by preheating, the more efficiently solids and moisture can be
removed. For planning purposes, what is the typically the recommended upper limit of preheating for
residual fuel oil centrifugation on motor ships?

o
o

(a) 85 C
o
(b) 90 C
o
(c) 98 C
o
(d) 112 C

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

417.

(3.3.3.1-3) In new construction or during significant steel plate replacements, what is the
procedure of 'line heating'?

o
o
o

(a) Pre-heating steel plate edges prior to welding.


(b) Re-heating steel plating welds to eliminate welding stresses.
(c) Pre-stressing steel plates prior to welding.
(d) Heating and cooling of steel plating to remove distortions.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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418.

(3.3.14.1-13) Vibration analysis can provide comparative data of operating condition of rotating
machinery. At what positions should such readings be taken at bearing housings and foundations?

o
o

(a) Vertical and horizontal.


(b) Vertical, horizontal and axial.
(c) Axial and horizontal.
(d) Vertical and axial.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

419.

(3.3.14.1-14) While examining results of vibration analysis of a rotating piece of machinery, you
find find very high amplitude/displacement readings at a very high frequency at one measuring point.
What would that indicate?

o
o

(a) Looseness of equipment components at the measuring point.


(b) Degradation of a ball or a roller bearing.
(c) Misalignment between the prime mover and driven equipment.
(d) Imbalance between the prime mover and driven equipment.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

420.

(3.3.14.1-6) When reviewing results of vibration analysis, vibration at a bearing occurs at the
same frequency as the motor rpm, with a displacement in the radial direction that is twice that of the
axial direction. Which of the following could this indicate?

o
o

(a) Loose foundation bolts.


(b) Mechanical unbalance.
(c) Bent motor shaft.
(d) Rubbing.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

421.

(3.3.14.1-11) When measuring vibration, an engineer should be concerned with recording the
velocity or displacement of the measurement. Which other factor should also be of concern?

o
o

(a) kW
(b) Frequency
(c) Amplitude
(d) Amps

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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422.

(3.3.14.1-15) While examining vibration analysis of a particular piece of rotating machinery, one
of the measurement location readings exhibits high amplitude/displacement in vertical and horizontal
direction at 2 X RPM frequency. What would this indicate?

o
o
o

(a) Bearing problem.


(b) Imbalance.
(c) Bad belt drive.
(d) Misalignment.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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