Therapeuticsmcq200 Pharma PDF

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MCQ tips
Preparation
Try to gather as many examples as you can of old papers and previous examples of
MCQs used by the department or school in question in the past.
Do not, however, try to memorise hundreds of responses to questions. The factual
knowledge you will gain will be superficial and dissociated. It is better to look for the
topic areas that recur frequently and ensure that you have a deeper knowledge of these
topics.
Revise with friends and colleagues. You can share knowledge and techniques.
Familiarise yourself with the optical reader cards that you will be using to record your
answers in the exam. Examples should be available from the "examinations office."
You should know what type of MCQ is being set for you. Will there be negative
marking? How much time will you have and how many questions will there be?
On the day
Check that your understanding of the MCQ format is correct. "It is negative marking,
there are 300 questions, and I have two hours to complete this." Always read the stem for
each question carefully. Have you understood the question? Are there any ambiguities? If
so ask an invigilator who will alert an examiner. There are usually one or two in the
room. Allocate three quarters of the time to answering the questions and a period at the
end to checking answers and accuracy
1)DIURETICS Adverse effects EXCEPT

a hyponatraemia sometimes severe, especially in the elderly;
b hyperuricaemia most diuretics reduce urate clearance
c hyperglycaemia thiazides reduce glucosetolerance:at high doses
d hypercalcaemia thiazides reduce urinary calcium ion clearance
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2)Bulk- forming laxatives characteristics EXCEPT

A Natural bulk-forming laxat ives is Psyl l ium and Mal t soup ext ract
B Synthet ic bulk-forming laxatives are Methylcel lulose and Polycarbophi l
C "should not be used in obstructingbowel lesion
intestinal strictures, or Crohn's disease"
D not to usefor more than 1 week to treat constipation;
3)ACE inhibitors Adverse effects include except

a First-dose hypotension.
b Dry cough due to kinin accumulation stimulating cough afferents
c Hyperkalaemia in patients with hepatic impairment
d Fetal injury ACEI cause renal agenesis/failure in the fetus,
resulting in oligohydramnios
4)Angiotensin receptor stimulation causes following EXCEPT

a Vasoconstriction
b Cell growth
c Sodium and fluid retention
d Sympathetic activation
e vasodilation
5-CARDIAC GLYCOSIDES( Digitalis ) characteristics includes following EXCEPT
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a digitalis blood level of 0.8 to 1.2 ng/dL is required for action
b increasing contractility(positive inotropy) while decreasing heart rate (negative chronotropy)
c fat-soluble steroid that crosses the blood-brain barrier and enhances vagaltone.
d works directly on the heart through an actionon the sodiumpotassium (Na K ) ATPase
e decreases contractility and enhances vagaltone
6-Schizophrenia PATHOPHYSIOLOGY includes following EXCEPT

A Positive symptoms associated with DA receptor hyperactivity
B positive symptoms and cognitive symptomsmay be most closely related to DA receptor
hypofunction in the prefrontal cortex
C deficiency of glutamatergic activity produces symptoms similar to those of dopaminergic
hyperactivity
D higher whole blood 5-HT concentrations in schizophrenia
E negative symptoms and cognitive symptomsmay be most closely related to DA receptor
hypofunction in the prefrontal cortex
7-anti hypertensive drugs includes following EXCEPT

a angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEI) and
b angiotensin AT1 receptor antagonists (sartans
c beta-adrenoceptor antagonists;
d calcium channel antagonists;
8-Fibric Acids(Fibrates) characteristics include the following except

a Gemfibrozil, Fenofibrate, Clofibrate are fibrates
b Gemfibrozil reduces the synthesis of VLDL and HDL
c Gemfibrozil increases the rate of removal of triglyceride-rich lipoproteins from plasma.
d GI complaints, rash , dizziness, and transient elevations in transaminase levels and alkaline
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phosphatase are the side effects
e Clofibrate and, less commonly, gemfibrozil may enhance the formation of gallstones
f Fibrates may potentiate the effects of oral anticoagulants,
9- Classification of Antiarrhythmic Drugs includes following EXCEPT

a Ia (Quinidine,Procainamide ,Disopyramide)
b Ib (Lidocaine ,Mexiletine,lignocaine)
c Ic (Flecainide,Propafenone ,Moricizine)
d II (-Blockers)
10- Ezetimibe characteristics includes following EXCEPT

a Ezetimibe interferes with the absorption of cholesterol from the intestine,
b approved as both monotherapy and for use with a statin.
c It reduces the free LDL by increasing the metabolism
d should be reserved for patients unable to tolerate statin therapy or those who do not achieve
satisfactory lipid lowering with a statin alone.
e When used alone, it results in an approximate 18% reduction in LDL cholesterol.
11- Atrial fibrillation treatment facts include the following EXCEPT

a In haemodynamically stable patients, a rhythm-control treatment strategy is preferred for patients
with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation
b rate-control is not preferred for those with permanent atrial fibrillation.
c Digoxin is usually only effective for controlling the ventricular rate at rest
d Ventricular rate can be controlled with a beta-blocker or diltiazem or verapamil
e Digoxin only be used as monotherapy in predominantly sedentary patients"
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12 -Schizophrenia Symptoms include following EXCEPT
A Positive symptoms include hallucinations,behavior disturbance (disorganized or catatonic), and
illusions.
B Negative symptoms include alogia (poverty of speech), avolition, affective flattening, anhedonia,
ataxia and social isolation.
C Cognitive dysfunction includes impaired attention, working memory, and executive function.
D Positive symptoms include delusions, disorganized speech (association disturbance),
13- SUPRAVENTRICULAR ARRHYTHMIAS statements include the following EXCEPT

a "AF is characterized as an extremely rapid (400 to 600 atrial beats/min and disorganized atrial
activation"
b "Atrial flutter is characterized by rapid (270 to 330 atrial beats/min) but regular atrial activation."
c SUPRAVENTRICULAR ARRHYTHMIAS ARISING FROM THE SINUS NODE include Sinus tachycardia
and Sinus bradycardia
d Sinus tachycardia the rate is 100150 beats per minute with abnormal P-waves and PR interval
e "Sinus bradycardia- rate is less than 60 beats per minute
with normal complexes"
14- CALCIUM-CHANNEL BLOCKERS Adverse effects include the following EXCEPT

a nifedipine causes flushing and headache.
b negative inotropic effect of verapamil exacerbates cardiac failure
c Constipation is common with verapamil.
d nifedipine -Baroreflex activation causes tachycardia, which can worsen angina
e flushing and headache are not related to the peak plasma concentration. Slow-release
preparations are used combact this problem
15) Diabetes mellitus characteristics include following EXCEPT

a "diagnosed by measuring fasting or random blood-glucose concentration and occasionally by oral
glucose tolerance test"
b Type 1 diabetes- deficiency of insulin following autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
c type 1 diabetes require administration of insulin.
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d Type 2 diabetes, is due to reduced secretion of insulin or to peripheral resistance to the action of
insulin or to a combination of both
e "patients may be controlled on diet alone, only require oral antidiabetic drugs in type 2 dm
16) FACTS about ALPHA-ADRENOCEPTOR ANTAGONISTS include the following except

a alpha blockers include Phenoxybenzamine,Doxazosin and Prazosin
b Prazosin is a selective 1-blocker,short elimination half-life.
c Prazosin is limited by severe postural hypotension
d Doxazosin is longer lasting, permitting twice daily use
e Doxazosin i is useful in men with mild symptoms from benign prostatic hypertrophy.
17) facts about Insulin include the following EXCEPT

a regulates carbohydrate,fat, and protein metabolism.
b Insulin is not inactivated by gastro-intestinal enzymes, and therefore need not be given by
injection;
c "subcutaneous insulin injections cause lipodystrophy but can be minimised by using different
injection sites in rotation"
d Insulin is usually injected into the upper arms, thi
18) Intermediate- and long-acting insulins characteristics include the following EXCEPT
a Soluble insulin can be mixed with Intermediate and long-acting insulins (except insulin detemir and
insulin glargine)
b given once daily, particularly in elderly patients.
c "Isophane insulin is a suspension of insulin with protamine
"
d Protamine zinc insulin is usually given once daily with short-acting
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19) facts about hypertension include the following EXCEPT

a hypertension is risk factors for ischaemic heart disease, stroke, renal failure and heart failure
b Arterial blood pressure is determined by cardiac output, peripheral vascular resistance
c diastolic hypertension is common in the elderly.
d Renal disease (vascular,parenchymal or obstructive) is a cause of arterial hypertension
20) ANGIOTENSIN-CONVERTING ENZYME INHIBITORS characteristics include the following EXCEPT

a) renal protective benefits in diabetic and/or hypertensive patients
b) block the breakdown of bradykinin
c) elaboration of more kinins and less angiotensin II
d) induce a cough as a result of the decrease in kinins.
QUESTION NO:19 ANSWER :C
21) Antithyroid drugs characteristics include the following EXCEPT

a) used for hyperthyroidism either to prepare patients for thyroidectomy or for long-term
management.
b) carbimazole is the most commonly used drug in hypothyroidism
c) act primarily by interfering with the synthesis of thyroid hormones
d) Propylthiouracil should be reservedfor patients who are intolerant of carbimazole or for those
who suffer sensitivityreactions to carbimazole
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QUESTION NO:20 ANSWER
22) ANGIOTENSIN RECEPTOR BLOCKER charateristics include the following EXCEPT

a) fetal renal toxicity is a sideeffect
b) Half-lives of most ARB are long enough to permit once daily dosing.
c) action mediated by the angiotensin II subtype 1 (AT1) receptor.
d) Losartan has an inactive metabolite.
QUESTION NO:21 ANSWER:B
23) facts about -Adrenergic Blockers include the following EXCEPT
a) a -blocker should be administered early in the care of patients with STE ACS (within the first 24
hours) and continued indefinitely.
b) "reduces heart rate, myocardial contractility, and BP, thereby decreasing myocardial oxygen
demand."
c) "The reduced heart rate by beta blocker increases diastolic time thus improving ventr
24) Antipsychotic drugs characteristics include the following EXCEPT

a) "act by interfering with dopaminergic transmission in the brain by blocking dopamine D2
receptors"
b) "Patients should receive antipsychotic drugs for 46 weeks before the drug is deemed ineffective"
c) "Antipsychotic drugs should also be used with caution in Parkinsons disease , epilepsy
,depression, myasthenia
gravis, p
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25) insulin detemiror insulin glargine may be considered for those EXCEPT
a) who require assistance with injecting insulin
b) whose lifestyle is significantly restricted by recurrent symptomatic hyperglycaemia
c) "who would otherwise need twice-daily basal insulin
injections in combination with oral antidiabetic drugs"
d) who cannot use the device needed to inject isophane insulin
QUESTION NO:24 ANSWER
26) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome charateristics include the following EXCEPT

a) "Neuroleptic malignant syndrome symptoms (hyperthermia, fluctuating level of consciousness,
muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction with pallor, tachycardia, labile blood pressure, sweating,
and urinary incontinence)"
b) Discontinuation of the antipsychotic is essential in Neuroleptic malignant syndrome because
27) charateristics of diurectics include the following EXCEPT
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a) Loop Diuretics block the Na K 2Cl symporterin the ascending limb of the loop of Henle
b) Loop Diuretics increase in urinary excretion of H and K can lead to arrhythmias
c) Spironolactone inhibits the binding of aldosterone to cytosolic mineralocorticoid receptors in the
epithelial cells in the late distal tubule and collecting c
28) facts about antipsychotic treatments include the following EXCEPT

a) "Clozapine is used for schizophrenia when other antipsychotics are ineffective or not tolerated"
b) "Prescribing of more than one antipsychotic drug at the
same time is recommended"
c) "Chlorpromazine has a marked sedating effect and is useful for treating violent patients without
causing stupor"
d) "Agitated states in th
29) Carbimazole facts include the following EXCEPT

a) Carbimazole is given in a dose of 150 to 400 mg daily;
b) dose is continued until the patient becomes euthyroid, usually after 4 to 8 weeks and the dose is
then gradually reduced to a maintenance dose of 5 to 15 mg.
c) Therapy is usually given for 12 to 18 months
d) Children may be given carbimazole in an initial dose of 250 micrograms/kg
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30) facts about bipolar disorder treatment include the following EXCEPT
a) "Long-term treatment of bipolar disorder should
continue for at least two years from the last manic
episode and up to five years if the patient has risk
factors for relapse"
b) "An antidepressant drug may also be required for the treatment of co-existing depression"
c) benzodiazepines (such as lorazepam) may be helpfu
31) Thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm) treatments include the following EXCEPT
a) emergency treatment with intravenous administration of fluids
b) propranolol (5 mg)
c) hydrocortisone (10 mg every 6 hours, as sodium succinate),
d) oral iodine solution and carbimazole or propylthiouracil which may need to be administered by
nasogastric tube.
QUESTION NO(30) ANSWER :C
32) cAMP-ELEVATING AGENTS characteristics include the following EXCEPT

a) intracellular Camp levels resuilt in an decrease in contractility.
b) cAMP-ELEVATING AGENTS include -adrenergic agonists (e.g., dobutamine) or the
phosphodiesterase inhibitors milrinone (Corotrope) and amrinone(Inocor)
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c) used in acutely ill patients in the intensivecare unit

d) milrinone or amrinone increases cAMP level
33) ANGIOTENSIN RECEPTOR BLOCKERS characteristics include the following EXCEPT

a) ANGIOTENSIN RECEPTOR BLOCKERS includes losartan, candesartan, irbesartan, valsartan).
b) Long-acting drugs (e.g. candesartan)produce good 24-hour control
c) ARB has the adverse effect of dry cough
d) an ACEI or a sartan is preferred over other anti-hypertensive drugs in diabetic patients
QUESTION NO(32) ANSWER :A
34) Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa Receptor Inhibitors charateristics include the following except
a) Abciximab,eptifibatide and tirofiban are Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa Receptor Inhibitors
b) used for patients undergoing primary PCI who have received fibrinolytics.
c) should not be administered to STE ACS patients who will not be undergoing PCI.
d) may increase the risk of bleeding, especially if given i
35) Antidepressant drugs treatment facts include the following EXCEPT

a) Antidepressant drugs should not be used routinely in mild depression, and psychological therapy
should be considered initially
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b) "Drug treatment of mild depression may also be considered in patients with a history of moderate
or severe depression"
c) Since there may be an interval of 2 weeks before the antidepressant acti
36) bipolar disorder treatments facts include the following EXCEPT

a) "Antipsychotic drugs (normally olanzapine, quetiapine,
or risperidone) are useful in acute episodes of mania and hypomania"
b) "if the response to antipsychotic drugs is inadequate, lithium or valproate may be added."
c) "An antipsychotic drug may be used concomitantly
with lithium or valproate in the initial treatment
of s
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37) Drugs used in the management of asthma include the following EXCEPT
a) beta1 agonists
b) " antimuscarinic bronchodilators
"
c) theophylline,
d) "corticosteroids
"
38) Bulk- forming laxatives characteristics include the following EXCEPT.

A) Bulk- forming laxatives are natural or synthetic polysaccharide derivatives
B) Adsorb water to soften the stool and increase bulk,
C ) work only in the small intestine
D) The onset of action is slow (12-24 hour and up to 72 hours )
39) Salicylates characteristics include the following except

A) "relieve mild to moderate pain and reduce inflammation
and fever ."
B) "Analgesic and anti - inflammatory actions of aspirin results from both the acetyl and the sal
icylate portions of the drug"
C) Actions of other sal icylates (e.g., sodium salicylate, salicylsal icyl ic acid, choline sal icylate) result
only from the salicylate
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40) insulin characteristics include the following except

a) "Insulin requirements may be increased in patients with hepatic impairment"
b) "Insulin requirements may fall in patients with renal impairment and therefore dose reduction
may be necessary."
c) "The short-acting insulin analogues, insulin aspart and insulin lispro, are not known to be harmful,
and may be used during pregnancy and la
41) omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids characteristics include the following except
a) "(from fish oil), most commonly eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA),"
b) "reduce cholesterol, triglycerides, LDL, and VLDL and may elevate HDL cholesterol."
c) not useful in patients with hypertriglyceridemia,
d) "thrombocytopenia and bleeding disorders have been noted, especially with high doses (EPA,"
QUESTION NO(40) ANSWER . A
42) Atrial fibrillation characteristics include the following except

a) managed by either controlling the ventricular rate or by attempting to restore and maintain sinus
rhythm.
b) All patients with atrial fibrillation should be assessed for their risk of stroke and
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thromboembolism,
c) thromboprophylaxis given if necessary
d) "All haemodynamically unstable patients with acuteonset
atrial fibr
43) TREATMENTS for asthma in Pregnancy include the following except

a) "Drugs for asthma should preferably be administered by inhalation to minimise exposure of the
fetus"
b) Inhaled drugs, theophylline, and prednisolone can be taken as normal during pregnancy and
breast-feeding
c) "prednisolone is the preferred corticosteroid for oral administration since very little of the drug
reaches the
44) Sulfonylureas characteristics include the following except

a) "act mainly by augmenting insulin secretion and consequently are effective only when some
residual pancreatic beta-cell activity is present"
b) "considered for patients who are notoverweight, or in whom metformin is contra-indicated or not
tolerated."
c) "Glibenclamide, a short-acting sulfonylurea, is associated
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with a greater ri
45) Management of severe acute asthma include the following except

a) "All patients with severe acute asthma should be given high-flow oxygen (if available) and an
inhaled short-acting beta2 agonist via a large-volume spacer or nebuliser"
b) "give 210 puffs of salbutamol 100 micrograms/metered inhalation, each puff inhaled separately
via a large-volume spacer,and repeat at 1020 minute interval
46) Antidiabetic drugs characteristics include the following except

a) used for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
b) prescribed only if the patient fails to respond adequately to at least 3 months restriction of
energy and carbohydrate intake and an increase in physical activity.
c) For patients not adequately controlled by diet and oral hypoglycaemic drugs, insulin may be
added to t
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47) Beta-blockers characteristics include the following except

a) Propranolol is useful for rapid relief of thyrotoxic symptoms
b) may be used in conjunction with antithyroid drugs or as an adjunct to radioactive iodine
c) Beta-blockers are not useful in neonatal thyrotoxicosis and in supraventricular arrhythmias due to
hyperthyroidism
d) "Propranolol has been used in conjunction with iodine to prepare mildly thyrotoxic patients for
surgery
QUESTION NO(46) ANSWER . E
48) Treatment of Acute Attacks of gout include the following except

a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), colchicine, and ACTH are the mainstays of
treatment.
b) When comorbidities limit the use of NSAIDs or colchicine, a preferred option may be an intraarticular steroid injection, particularly when a large, easily accessible joint is involved
c) Patients should be instructed to g
49) Pharmacologic Treatment of Osteoarthritis include the following except
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a) "For hand osteoarthritis,use 1 or more of the following:Topical capsaicin Topical nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), including trolamine salicylate,Oral NSAIDs,Tramadol"
b) For patients 75 years and older,not recommends the use of topical rather than oral NSAIDs.
c) For knee osteoarthritis,recommends usi
50) DMARDs characteristics include the following except

a) DMARDs can retard or prevent disease progression and, thus, joint destruction and subsequent
loss of function.
b) until the full action of DMARDs takes effect, anti-inflammatory or analgesic medications may be
required as bridging therapy to reduce pain and swelling.
c) early treatment of RA (ie, within months of onset) with DMARDs ca
51) drugs to treat osteoporosis include the following except

a) First-line agents: alendronate, risedronate, zoledronic acid, denosumab
b) Second-line agent: ibandronate
c) Second- or third-line agent: raloxifene and teriparatide
d) Last-line agent: calcitonin
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52) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs characteristics include the following except

a) indomethacin is the traditional NSAID of choice for acute gout (unless the patient is elderly,
because of the potential for adverse CNS effects in this age group),
b) do not use aspirin in gout because it can alter uric acid levels and potentially prolong and intensify
an acute attack.
c) Avoid NSAIDs in
53) Pharmacologic Treatment of Osteoarthritis include the following except

a) Begin treatment with acetaminophen for mild or moderate osteoarthritic pain without apparent
inflammation
b) If the clinical response to acetaminophen is not satisfactory or if the clinical presentation of
osteoarthritis is inflammatory, consider using an NSAID.
c) Use the lowest effective dose or intermittent dosin
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54) Janus kinases (JAKs) inhibitors characteristics include the following except
a) Inhibition of JAKs reduces production of proinflammatory cytokines central to RA
b) Tofacitinib (Xeljanz) is an I V JAKs inhibitor as second-line treatment for moderate-to-severe active
RA
c) The indication is specific for patients who have had an inadequate response to, or are intolerant
of, methotrexate.
d)
55) Bisphosphonates characteristics include the following except

a) They have been employed for only prevention. Oral and intravenous options are available
b) Alendronate (Fosamax) is approved for the treatment of osteoporosis in men, in postmenopausal
women, and in patients with glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis.
c) The treatment dose of alendronate is 70 mg/wk, to be taken sitting upright
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56) Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers characteristics include the following except

a) Nonselective alpha-blockers - phenoxybenzamine
b) Selective short-acting alpha-1 blockers - prazosin, alfuzosin, indoramin
c) Selective long-acting alpha-1 blockers - terazosin, doxazosin, slow-release (SR) alfuzosin.
d) Partially subtype (alpha-1b)selective agents tamsulosin, silodosin
57) benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) characteristics include the following except
a) alpha-adrenergic receptorblocking agents should theoretically increase resistance along the
bladder neck, prostate, and urethra by relaxing the smooth muscle and allowing passage of urine.
b) Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) has long been accepted as the criterion standard
for relieving bladder
58) Hypercalcemia Treatment characteristics include the following except

a) volume repletion with isotonic sodium chloride solution is an effective short-term treatment for
hypercalcemia
b) administration of loop diuretics blocks Na+ and calcium reabsorption in the TALH.
c) Oral phosphate also can be used to form insoluble calcium phosphate in the gut.
d) Immobilization aggravates hyperc
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59) Severe Hypocalcemia Treatment characteristics include the following except

a) Supportive treatment (ie, IV fluid replacement, oxygen, monitoring) often is required prior to
directed treatment of hypocalcemia
b) Calcium carbonate 10% solution delivers higher amounts of calcium and is advantageous when
rapid correction is needed, but it should be administered via central venous access.
c) Ca
60) Hyperkalemia Treatment & Management characteristics include the following except
a) Perform an ECG to look for cardiotoxicity. Administer intravenous calcium to ameliorate cardiac
toxicity,
b) Remove potassium-containing salt substitutes. Examine the patient's diet. Change the diet to a
low-potassium tube feed or a 2-g potassium ad-lib diet.
c) "enhance potassium uptake by cells to decreas
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61) Treatment of Mild to Moderate Alzheimer Disease include the following except
a) Cholinesterase inhibitors (ChEIs) and mental exercises are used in an attempt to prevent or delay
the deterioration of cognition in patients with AD.
b) Centrally acting ChEIs prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine. agents have been approved as
follows:tacrine,Donepezil , Rivastigmine (Exelon, Exelon Patch),Gal
62) Migraine Headache Treatment include the following except

a) Analgesics used in migraine include acetaminophen, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
(NSAIDs), and narcotic analgesics (eg, oxycodone, morphine sulfate).
b) 5-Hydroxytryptamine1 (5-HT1) agonists (triptans) and/or opioid analgesics, alone or in
combination with dopamine antagonists (eg, prochlorperazine [Compazine]), are used for
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63) Colchicine characteristics include the following except

a) Colchicine therapy must be initiated within 24 hours of onset of the acute attack to be effective
b) colchicine causes adverse GI effects, particularly diarrhea and vomiting, in 80% of patients.
c) the New Zealand Medicines and Medical Devices Safety Authority is as follows: 1 mg loading dose
followed by 0.5 (0.6) mg every 6 hours,
64) Duloxetine characteristics include the following except

a) Duloxetine is a selective serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
b) duloxetine has been found to be effective in treating osteoarthritis pain.[
c) used in patients with knee osteoarthritis who had persistent moderate pain despite optimized
NSAID therapy,
d) duloxetine was also associated with significantly more nausea, dry mouth, diarrhea, fatigue, and
decreased appetite
QUESTION NO(63) ANSWER . D
65) Bisphosphonates characteristics include the following except

a) oral bisphosphonates include risedronate (Actonel) or risedronate delayed-release (Atelvia),
b) Ibandronate (Boniva) is another bisphosphonate that can be given orally once a week
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c) Risedronate reduced vertebral fractures by 41% and nonvertebral fractures by 39% over 3 years
d) Ibandronate is also available as an intravenous formulation that is given every 3 months
66) Alpha-1Receptor Blockade characteristics in Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia include the following
except
a) alpha-blocker therapy has been shown to reduce the overall long-term risk for acute urinary
retention (AUR) or BPH-related surgery.
b) Tamsulosin is considered the most pharmacologically uroselective of the commercially available
agents because of its highest relative affinity for the
67) Interferon beta-1b therapy characteristics include the following except

a) It is indicated for the treatment of relapsing forms of MS to reduce the frequency of clinical
exacerbations
b) It has shown efficacy in patients who have experienced a first clinical episode of MS and have MRI
features consistent with MS
c) Interferon beta-1b is administered every other day i v by self-injection
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68) Corticosteroids characteristics include the following except
a) Corticosteroids can be given to patients with gout who cannot use NSAIDs or colchicine
b) . Steroids can be given orally, intravenously, intramuscularly, intra-articularly, or indirectly via
ACTH.
c) ACTH at 40 IU IM can be given to induce corticosteroid production by the patient's own adrenal
glands
d) Prednisone can be given
69) Allopurinol characteristics include the following except

a) Allopurinol is also associated with the drug rash with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS)
syndrome
b) DRESS syndrome is a delayed-hypersensitivity response occurring 1 week after beginning
allopurinol.
c) In most patients, start at 100 mg per day (50 mg in patients with renal insufficiency) and adjust
the dose monthly according to the uric acid level until the goal of a uric acid level of 6 mg/dL or less
is achieved
d) Allopurinol should be discontinued in patients who develop a rash.
70) Intra-articular corticosteroid injections characteristics include the following except

a) Intra-articular injection of a corticosteroid or sodium hyaluronate (ie, hyaluronic acid [HA] or
hyaluronan), may provide pain relief and have an anti-inflammatory effect on the affected joint.
b) Infected joint fluid and bacteremia are contraindications to steroid injection.
c) In patients with osteo
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71) Treatment options for Tension-type or migraine headacheinclude the following except
a) Paracetamol, aspirin and NSAIDs are useful first-line treatments in adults
b) solution formulations are not preferable: patients with migraine have impaired absorption due to
gastric stasis
c) Avoid aspirin in children under 18 years. Use paracetamol or ibuprofen instead
d) Avoid combination analgesics c
72) Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease Treatment options include the following except
a) Diagnosis can be confirmed through a clear symptom response to therapy.
b) Initial therapy with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is appropriate for the majority of patients.
c) If a standard daily dose results in symptom control within one week, the diagnosis will be
confirmed
d) In 80% of people, pantoprazole
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73) use of medication in Tension-type or migraine headache include the following except
a) "Paracetamol. Do not take more than 4 g/24 hours (8 x 500 mg tablets or 8 x 665 mg tablets"
b) "Paracetamol is contained in many products: overdosing may be prevented by carefully checking
the ingredients in all products"
c) Use only one NSAID at a time (excluding low-dose aspirin)."
d) "Response to N
74) Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease Treatment characteristics include the following except
a) Pantoprazole. Recommended dose for initial therapy is 20 mg daily for two weeks.
b) H2 antagonists. Due to risk of accumulation, consider dose reduction in severe renal impairment
c) Antacids. optimum effect if taken half an hour after meals
d) separate administration with other medications by at least two hours is required because the
antacids may affect their absorption
75) NSAIDs use in Dysmenorrhea include the following except

a) NSAIDs are the most commonly used treatments for dysmenorrhea
b) NSAIDs decrease menstrual pain by decreasing intrauterine pressure and increasing PGF2alpha
levels in menstrual fluid.
c) patients receiving these medications should be monitored for more serious adverse effects,
including GI bleeding and renal dysfunction.
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d) NSAIDs
76) Ear, nose, and oropharynx infection treatment include the following except
a) "Pericoronitis-MetronidazoleSuggested duration of treatment 3 days or until symptoms resolve
Alternative, amoxicillin Suggested duration of treatment 3 days or until symptoms resolve"
b) "Gingivitis: acute necrotising ulcerative-Metronidazole Suggested duration of treatment 3 days or
until symptoms resolve
Alterna
77) Urinary tract infection treatment include the following except

a) "Pyelonephritis: acute ,A broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone and duration of treatment
1014 days"
b) "Prostatitis: acuteCiprofloxacin or ofloxacin and duration of treatment 28 days
"
c) "Prostatitis: acute,Alternative, trimethoprim and Suggested duration of treatment 28 days"
d) Urinary-tract infection: lower Tr
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78) Endocarditis:treatment include the following except

a) Flucloxacillin (or benzylpenicillin if symptoms severe) + gentamicin
b) If cardiac prostheses present, or if penicillin-allergic, or if meticillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus suspected, vancomycin + rifampicin + gentamicin
c) Endocarditis caused by staphylococci give Flucloxacillin
d) "Add rifampicin for at least 2 weeks in prosth
79) Benzylpenicillin characteristics include the following except

a) "Benzylpenicillin sodium (Penicillin G) is inactivated by
bacterial beta-lactamases"
b) "It is effective for many streptococcal (including pneumococcal), gonococcal, andmeningococcal
infections and also for anthrax"
c) "benzylpenicillin is the drug of first choice for
pneumococcal meningitis"
80) Hormonal Contraceptives levonorgestrel implants characteristics include the following except
a) levonorgestrel implant releases approximately 80 mcg of levonorgestrel per 24 hours during the
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first year of use,
b) Release of the progestational agent by diffusion provides effective contraception for 5 years.
c) Contraceptive protection begins within 48 hours of insertion if inserted during the first week of
the menstrual cycle.
d) The rods are inserted subcutaneously, usually in the woman's upper arm, where they are visible
under the skin and
can be easily palpated
QUESTION NO(79) ANSWER . c
81) "Loop Diuretics characteristics include the following

a) block the Na K 2Cl symporterin the decenting limb of the loop of Henle
b) increase in urinary excretion of H and K can lead to arrhythmias
c) increase in urinary excretion of Na and K can lead to arrhythmias
d) increase in urinary excretion of H and Na can lead to arrhythmias
82) "Spironolactone characteristics include the following except

"
a) inhibits the binding of aldosterone to cytosolic mineralocorticoid receptors
b) potential side effect is hyperkalemia
c) blocking sodium and water retention
d) retaining potassium
83)Short-acting insulins characteristics include the following

a) subcutaneously, soluble insulin has a rapid onset of action (30 to 60 minutes), and a duration of
action of up to 18 hours."
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b) I V , soluble insulin has a rapid onset of action (30 to 60 minutes), and a duration of action of up
to8 hours."
c) subcutaneously, soluble insulin has a rapid onset of action (60 to 120 minutes), a
84) Ezetimibe characteristic includes the following

A) Ezetimibe interferes with the absorption of cholesterol from the stomach,
B) Ezetimibe interferes with the absorption of triglicerides from the intestine,
C) Ezetimibe interferes with the absorption of cholesterol from the intestine,
D) Ezetimibe increases the absorption of cholesterol from the intestine,
85) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs characteristics include the following

a) Avoid NSAIDs in patients who have a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal pain, patients
with renal insufficiency,
b) Avoid NSAIDs in patients who have a history of diabetes or GI bleeding, patients with renal
insufficiency,
c) Avoid NSAIDs in patients who have a history of peptic ulcer disease or GI blee
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86) Mifepristone characteristics include the following

a) It causes contraction of the cervix and increases the sensitivity of the myometrium to the action of
prostaglandins.
b) It causes dilatation of the cervix and decreases the sensitivity of the myometrium to the action of
prostaglandins
c)It causes dilatation of the pelvis and increases the sensitivity of the myometrium to the action of
pr
87)Diabetes mellitus characteristics include the following

a) Type 1 diabetes, is due to reduced secretion of insulin or to peripheral resistance to the action of
b) Type 2 diabetes, is due to reduced secretion of insulin or to peripheral resistance to the action of
c) Type 2 diabetes, is due to increased secretion of insu
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88) Diabetes mellitus characteristics include the following

a)Type 2 diabetes is the deficiency of insulin following autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta
cells and type 1 diabetes require administration of insulin.
b) Type 1 diabetes is the deficiency of insulin following autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta
cells and type 2 diabetes require administration of insulin.
c)Type 1 diabete
89)Diabetes mellitus characteristics include the following

a)"A measure of the total glycosylated (or glycated) haemoglobin (HbA2 ) or a specific fraction
(HbA1c ) provides a good indication of glycaemic control over the previous 23 months."
b)"A measure of the total glycosylated (or glycated) haemoglobin (HbA1 ) or a specific fraction
(HbA1d ) provides a good indication of glycaemic control over the previous 23 months."
c) "A measure of the total glycosylated (or glycated) haemoglobin (HbA1 ) or a specific fraction
(HbA1c ) provides a good indication of glycaemic control over the previous 23 months...
d) "A measure of the total glycosylated (or glycated) haemoglobin (HbA2 ) or a specific fraction
e)"A measure of the total glycosylated (or glycated) haemoglobin (HbA1 ) or a specific fraction
QUESTION NO(85) ANSWER . e
90)Insulin characteristics include the following

a)Insulin is inactivated by gastro-intestinal enzymes, it must therefore be given by i v
injection;subcutaneous insulin injections cause lipodystrophy
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b)Insulin is inactivated by gastro-intestinal enzymes, it must therefore be given by injection;i v
insulin injections cause lipodystrophy
c)Insulin is not inactivated by gastro-intestina
91) Sulfonylureas characteristics include the following

a) "Glibenclamide, a short-acting sulfonylurea, is associated
with a greater risk of hypoglycaemia;" it should be avoided in the elderly
b) "Glibenclamide, a long-acting sulfonylurea, is associated
with a greater risk of hyperglycaemia;" it should be avoided in the elderly
c)"Glibenclamide, a long-acting sulfonylurea, is associated
with a
92)Diabetes mellitus treatment characteristics include the following

a)Sulfonylureas can encourage weight loss so metformin is considered the drug of choice in obese
patients.
b)Sulfonylureas can encourage weight gain so metformin is considered the drug of choice in non
obese patients.
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c)Sulfonylureas can encourage weight gain so metformin is considered the drug of choice in obese
patients...
93)Nateglinide and repaglinide characteristics include the following

a)inhibit insulin release and Both drugs have a rapid onset of action and short duration of activity"
b)stimulate insulin release and Both drugs have a rapid onset of action and short duration of
activity"..
c)stimulate insulin production and Both drugs have a slow onset of action and short duration of
activity"
d)block
94) pioglitazone, characteristics include the following

a)"pioglitazone, increases peripheral insulin resistance, leading to a reduction of blood-glucose
concentration"
b)"pioglitazone, reduces peripheral insulin resistance, leading to a reduction of blood-glucose
concentration..
c)"pioglitazone, reduces peripheral insulin secretion , leading to a reduction of blood-glucose
concentration
d)"pi
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95) Acarbose, characteristics include the following

a)"an inhibitor of intestinal alpha glucosidases,
increases the digestion and absorption of starch and sucrose"
b)"an inhibitor of intestinal alpha glucosidases,
delays the digestion and absorption of fats and sucrose"
c)"an inhibitor of stomach alpha glucosidases,
delays the digestion and absorption of starch and protein
96) Metformin characteristics include the following

a)"Metformin improves insulin resistance, may aid weight
reduction, and metformin can provoke lactic acidosis in patients with renal impairment,"
b)"Metformin improves insulin sensitivity, may aid weight
reduction, and metformin can provoke lactic acidosis in patients with renal impairment,"..
c)"Metformin improves insulin sensitivity, may
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97)Clinical manifestations of Diabetes mellitus include the following

a) oliguria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and weight loss
b) Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and weight gain
c) Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and weight loss..
d) Polyuria, dyspepsia, polyphagia, and weight loss
98) Diagnostic criteria of Diabetes mellitus by the American Diabetes Association (ADA) include the
following
a)A fasting plasma glucose (FPG) level of 126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) or less,
b)A fasting plasma glucose (FPG) level of 146 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) or higher,
c)A fasting plasma glucose (FPG) level of 126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) or higher,..
d)A fasting plasma glucose (FPG) level of 126 mg/L (9.
99) Dipeptidyl peptidase IV inhibitors characteristics include the following

a)DPP-4 inhibitors stop the action of incretin hormones by blocking its degradation and are given
once daily
b)DPP-4 inhibitors prolong the action of incretin hormones by activating its degradation and are
given once daily
c)DPP-4 inhibitors prolong the action of incretin hormones by blocking its degradation a
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100) Incretins characteristics include the following

a)Incretins increase insulin release and synthesis from pancreatic beta cells and reduce glucagon
secretion pancreatic alpha cells..
b)Incretins decrease insulin release and synthesis from pancreatic beta cells and reduce glucagon
secretion pancreatic alpha cells
c)Incretins increase insulin release and synthesis from pancreatic beta cells an
101) Insulin characteristics include the following

a)Insulin lower blood glucose by stimulating peripheral glucose metabolism and by inhibiting hepatic
glucose production;
b)Insulin lower blood glucose by inhibiting peripheral glucose uptake and by inhibiting hepatic
glucose production
c)Insulin lower blood glucose by stimulating peripheral glucose uptake and by stimulating hepatic
glucose
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102) Amylinomimetics (Pramlintide) characteristics include the following

a)Pramlintide is a synthetic analogue of human amylase It slows gastric emptying, suppresses
postprandial glucagon secretion, and regulates food intake
b))Pramlintide is a synthetic analogue of human amylin It increase gastric emptying, suppresses
postprandial glucagon secretion, and regulates food intake
c))Pramlintide i
103) Exenatide characteristics include the following

a)A glucagonlike peptide-1 (GLP-1) block incretin and promotes insulin secretion, suppresses
glucagon, and slows gastric emptying
b)A glucagonlike peptide-1 (GLP-1) mimics incretin and promotes insulin production, suppresses
glucagon, and increase gastric emptying
c)A glucagonlike peptide-1 (GLP-1) mimics amylin and promotes insulin secreti
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104)Diabetic complication characteristics include the following

a)Gastroparesis is a problem in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus .use of metoclopramide may
be helpful and its use preferably should be limited to a few days at a time
b)Gastroparesis is a problem in patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus use of metoclopramide may be
helpful and its use preferably should be limited to a few
105)Insulin regimens(Once-daily regimen) characteristics include the following

a)short or intermediate-acting insulin is given at bedtime
It is suitable only for patients with type 2 diabetes
b)Long- or short-acting insulin is given at bedtime
It is suitable only for patients with type 1 diabetes
c)Long- or intermediate-acting insulin is given in the morning
It is suitable only for patients wit
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106) Diagnostic criteria by the American Diabetes Association (ADA) for type 2 DM include the
following except
a) A random plasma glucose of 100 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) or higher in a patient with classic
symptoms of hyperglycemia or hyperglycemic crisis
b) A fasting plasma glucose of 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) or higher in a patient with classic symptoms
of hyperglycemia or hyperglycemic crisis
c)
107) insulin characteristics include the following

a) Soluble insulin by the IM is reserved for diabetic ketoacidosis, and for fine control in serious illness
and in the peri-operative period
b) NPH insulin by the IV is reserved for diabetic ketoacidosis, and for fine control in serious illness
and in the peri-operative period
c) Soluble insulin by the IV is reserved for diabetic neuropathy, a
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108)Nateglinide and repaglinide characteristics include the following

a)stimulate insulin production,Both drugs have a rapid onset of action and short duration of activity,
b)inhibit insulin release,Both drugs have a rapid onset of action and short duration of activity,
c)stimulate insulin release,Both drugs have a slow onset of action and short duration of activity,
d)stimulate insulin relea
109)Diabetic Neuropathy characteristics include the following

A)An antiemetic which promotes gastric transit, such as metoprolol or domperidone, is helpful for
gastroparesis associated with neuropathy
B)An antidiarrheal which promotes gastric transit, such as metoclopramide or domperidone, is
helpful for gastroparesis associated with neuropathy
C)An antiemetic which promotes gastric transit,
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110) exenatide characteristics include the following

a)The recommended dose of exenatide is 30 mg once weekly by subcutaneous injection
b)The recommended dose of exenatide is 2 mg once day by subcutaneous injection
c)The recommended dose of exenatide is 20 mg once weekly by IV injection
d)The recommended dose of exenatide is 2 mg once weekly by subcutaneous injection..
111) Diabetic Neuropathy characteristics include the following except

a) "Paracetamol or a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug such as ibuprofen may relieve mild to
moderate pain."
b) "Duloxetine is effective for the treatment of painful diabetic neuropathy"
c) "amitriptyline can be used if duloxetine is ineffective or unsuitable."
d) "Nortriptyline may be better tolerated than amitriptyline
112) management of diabetic ketoacidosis include the following

a) Established IV therapy with long-acting insulin analogues (insulin detemir or insulin glargine)
should be continued during treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis
b) Established SC therapy with short-acting insulin analogues (insulin detemir or insulin glargine)
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should be continued during treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis
c) Esta
113) Dipeptidyl peptidase IV inhibitors characteristics include the following

a) Saxagliptin, sitagliptin, and vildagliptin inhibit dipeptidylpeptidase-3 to increase insulin secretion
and lower glucagon secretion.
b)Saxagliptin, sitagliptin, and vildagliptin inhibit dipeptidylpeptidase-4 to decrease insulin secretion
and lower glucagon secretion.
c)Saxagliptin, sitagliptin, and vildagliptin ac
114) Diabetic Neuropathy characteristics include the following

a)treatment with morphine or oxycodone should be initiated without specialist supervision."
b)Gabapentin and carbamazepine are sometimes used for the treatment of neuropathic pain.
c)treatment with morphine or oxycodone should be initiated only under specialist supervision."
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d) b and c..
115) when glycaemic control is inadequate with existing treatment, pioglitazone can be added to the
follwing except
a) a sulfonylurea, if metformin is contra-indicated or not tolerated
b) metformin, if risks of hypoglycaemia with sulfonylurea are unacceptable or a sulfonylurea is
contraindicated or not tolerated
c) an exenatide tablet, if insulin is acceptable because of lifestyle or other personal issues..
d) a combination of metformin and a sulfonylurea, if insulin is unacceptable because of lifestyle or
other personal issues, or because the patient is obese
QUESTION NO(114) ANSWER .(d)
116)The thiazolidinedione characteristics include the following

a) pioglitazone, increases peripheral insulin resistance, leading to a reduction of blood-glucose
concentration
b)pioglitazone, reduces peripheral insulin resistance, leading to a reduction of blood-glucose
concentration..
c)pioglitazone, reduces peripheral insulin sensitivity , leading to a reduction of blood-glucose
concentra
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117) Acarbose characteristics include the following
a) an stimulant of intestinal alpha glucosidases, delays the digestion and absorption of starch and
sucrose, Flatulence is a side-effect and it tends to decrease with time"
b) an inhibitor of intestinal alpha glucosidases, increases the digestion and absorption of starch and
sucrose, Flatulence is a side-effect and it tends to decrease wi
118)management of diabetic ketoacidosis include the following

a)if systolic blood pressure is above 90mmHg give 500 mL sodium chloride 0.9% by intravenous
infusion over 1015 minutes;
b)if systolic blood pressure is below 90mmHg give 500 mL sodium bicarbonate 0.9% by intravenous
infusion over 1015 minutes;
c)if systolic blood pressure is below 90mmHg give 500 mL sodium chloride 0.9% by intra
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119) Insulin characteristics include the following
a) Insulin and its analogs increase blood glucose by stimulating peripheral glucose uptake, especially
by skeletal muscle and fat, and by inhibiting hepatic glucose production
b) Insulin and its analogs lower blood glucose by stimulating peripheral glucose uptake, especially by
skeletal muscle and fat, and by inhibiting hepatic glucose product
120) Thyroid hormones characteristics include the following

a) The pituitary gland inhibits the thyroid to make thyroid hormone,which is necessary for normal
growth and development, and it regulates cellular metabolism.
b) The pituitary gland stimulates the thyroid to make thyroid hormone,which is necessary for normal
growth and development, and it blocks cellular metabolism.
c) The pituitary
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121) Hyperthyroidism characteristics include the following
a) Excess thyroid hormone causes an decrease in the metabolic rate that is associated with increased
total body heat production and cardiovascular activity (increased heart contractility, heart rate,
vasodilation).
b) Excess thyroid hormone causes an increase in the metabolic rate that is associated with decreased
total body heat produc
122) symptoms of thyrotoxicosis include the following

a) Nervousness,Anxiety, decreased perspiration,Heat
intolerance,Tremor,Hyperactivity,Palpitations,Weight loss despite increased appetite, Reduction in
menstrual flow or oligomenorrhea
b) Nervousness,Anxiety, Increased perspiration,cold
intolerance,Tremor,Hyperactivity,Palpitations,Weight loss despite increased appetite, Reduction in
menstr
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123) Propylthiouracil characteristics include the following

a) Propylthiouracil is second line drug of choice in life-threatening severe thyrotoxicosis because ofof
inhibition of T4 -to-T3 conversion.
b) Propylthiouracil is still the drug of choice in life-threatening severe hypothyroidism because ofof
inhibition of T4 -to-T3 conversion.
c) Propylthiouracil is still the drug of choice in life-t
124) hyperthyroidism treatment characteristics include the following

a) "under-treatment with antithyroid drugs can results hypothyroidism and should be avoided
during pregnancy because of fetal goitre"
b) "Over-treatment with antithyroid drugs can results hypothyroidism and should be avoided during
pregnancy because of fetal goitre"..
c) "Over-treatment with antithyroid drugs can results hyp
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a) Iodine is used as an adjunct to antithyroid drugs for 10 to 14 days after partial thyroidectomy
b) Iodine is used as an adjunct to levothyroxine for 10 to 14 days before partial thyroidectomy
c) Iodine is used as an adjunct to antithyroid drugs for 10 to 14 days before partial thyroidectomy..
d) Iodine is used as a subst
126) Carbimazole characteristics include the following

a) Children may be given carbimazole in an initial dose of 250 milligrams/kg three times daily
b) Children may be given carbimazole in an initial dose of 250 micrograms/kg three times daily..
c) Children may be given carbimazole in an initial dose of 250 micrograms/kg one time daily
d) adults may be given carbimazole in an initial dose of
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127) symptoms of thyrotoxicosis include the following

a) Younger patients exhibit symptoms of more sympathetic activation, such as anxiety, hypoactivity,
and tremor,
b) older patients exhibit symptoms of more sympathetic activation, such as anxiety, hyperactivity,
and tremor,
c) Younger patients exhibit symptoms of more sympathetic activation, such as depression,
hyperactivity, and tremor

a) The drug of choice for hypothyroidism in the nonpregnant woman is methimazole
b) The drug of choice for hyperthyroidism in the nonpregnant woman is methimazole
c) The drug of choice for hyperthyroidism in the pregnant woman is methimazole
d) The drug of choice for hyperthyroidism in the nonpregnant woman is radio active

a) neurologic and pulmonary symptoms of thyrotoxicosis are relieved by beta-blocker therapy.
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b) neurologic and cardiovascular symptoms of hypothyroidism are relieved by beta-blocker therapy.
c) neurologic and cardiovascular symptoms of thyrotoxicosis are relieved by beta-blocker therapy.
d) neurologic and cardiovascular sympt

a) Propranolol has been used instead of iodine to prepare mildly thyrotoxic patients for surgery
b) Propranolol has been used in conjunction with iodine to prepare mildly hypothyroid patients for
surgery
c) methimazole has been used in conjunction with carbimazole to prepare mildly thyrotoxic patients
for surgery
d) Pr
131) Thionamides( carbimazole and methimazole) characteristics include the following

a) need to continue taking for a short time,do not have to go to hospital to take ,less risk of thyroid
gland becoming underactive
b) need to continue taking for a long time,do not have to go to hospital to take ,less risk of thyroid
gland becoming underactive
c) need to continue taking for a long time,do
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a) Most people only require a single dose of carbimazole treatment. If a further follow-up dose is
required it is usually given six-12 months after the first dosage
b) Most people only require two doses of radioiodine treatment. If a further follow-up dose is
required it is usually given six-12 months after the first dosage
133) Subclinical hyperthyroidism characteristics include the following

a) low or undetectable concentration of serum thyrotropin (TRH) with normal free triiodothyronine
(FT3) and free thyroxine (FT4) levels
b) high or undetectable concentration of serum thyrotropin (TSH) with normal free triiodothyronine
(FT3) and free thyroxine (FT4) levels
c) low or undetectable concentration of serum thyr
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134) Hypothyroidism characteristics include the following

a) lack of thyroid hormone production due to inadequate secretion of thyrotropin (ie, thyroidstimulating hormone [TSH]) from the pituitary gland
b) lack of thyroid hormone secretion due to inadequate secretion of thyrotropin (ie, thyroidstimulating hormone [TRH]) from the pituitary gland
c) lack of thyroid hormone secretion due t
135) TSH ,T4 and T3 Interpretation include the following EXCEPT

a) High TSH Normal T4 Normal T3 -Mild (subclinical) hypothyroidism
b) High TSH LowT4 Low or normal T3- Hyperthyroidism
c) Low TSH Normal T4 Normal T3 - Mild (subclinical) hyperthyroidism*
d) Low TSH High or normalT4 High or normal T3-Hyperthyroidism*
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136) Thyroid function tests characteristics include the following

a) In patients with secondary (pituitary dysfunction) and tertiary (hypothalamic dysfunction)
hypothyroidism both T4 and TSH levels are increased
b) In patients with secondary (pituitary dysfunction) and tertiary (hypothalamic dysfunction)
hyperthyroidism both T4 and TSH levels are reduced.
c) In patients with secondary (pituitar
137) Levothyroxine characteristics include the following

a) decreases basal metabolic rate, increases utilization and mobilization of glycogen store, promotes
gluconeogenesis
b) increases basal metabolic rate, increases utilization and mobilization of glycogen store, promotes
gluconeogenesis
c) increases basal metabolic rate, decreases utilization and mobilization of glycogen store, promotes
gl
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138) hypothyroidism treatment characteristics include the following

a) To determine the right dosage of levothyroxine initially, check your level of TSH after two to three
months
b) To determine the right dosing interval of levothyroxine initially, check your level of TSH after two
to three months
c) To determine the right dosage of carbimazole initially, check your level of TSH after two to

a) synthetic T3 replacement should be taken in the morning, 30 minutes before eating.
b) synthetic T4 replacement should be taken in the evening, 20 minutes before eating.
c) synthetic T4 replacement should be taken in the morning, 30 minutes before eating.
d) synthetic T4 replacement should be taken in the morning, 30 minutes after

a) long-term therapy has been associated with decreased bone resorption, especially in postmenopausal women on greater than replacement doses
b) short-term therapy has been associated with increased bone resorption, especially in post-
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menopausal women on greater than replacement doses
c) long-term therapy has been associated wi
141) symptoms of hypothyroidism include the following

a) tiredness,weight loss,depression,being sensitive to the cold,dry skin and hair and muscle aches
b) "tiredness,weight gain,depression,being sensitive to the cold,dry skin and hair andmuscle aches
c) "tiredness,weight gain,depression,being sensitive to the heat,dry skin and hair andmuscle aches
d) "tiredness,weight gain,depression,being s
142) Levothyroxine adverse effects include the following

a) Arrhythmias,Cramps,constipation,Nervousness,Tachycardia,
Tremor
b) "Arrhythmias,Cramps,Diarrhea,Nervousness,bradycardia,
Tremor
c) "Arrhythmias,Cramps,Diarrhea,depression,Tachycardia,
Tremor
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143) Graves Disease Treatment include the following

a) radioactive iodine is first-line therapy, especially in elderly patients, and it can be performed in an
outpatient setting.
b) radioactive iodine is first-line therapy, especially in younger patients, and it can not be performed
in an outpatient setting.
c) radioactive iodine is first-line therapy, especially in younger patients, and
144) CHRONIC (CONGESTIVE) HEART FAILURE symptoms include the following

a) symptoms ofdizziness,dyspnea (shortness of breath), chest pain, syncope(loss of consciousness),
b) symptoms of fatigue,dyspnea (shortness of breath), chest pain, syncope(loss of consciousness),
c) symptoms of fatigue,apnea (shortness of breath), chest pain, syncope(loss of consciousness),
d) symptoms of fatigue,dyspnea (
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145) Digitalis action include the following

a) act on the (H K ) ATPase and increasing contractility(positive inotropy) while decreasing heart
rate (negative chronotropy)
b) act on the (Na K ) ATPase and decreasing contractility(positive inotropy) while decreasing heart
rate (negative chronotropy)
c) act on the (Na K ) ATPase and increasing contractility(positive inotropy) while increas
146) Digitalis characteristics include the following

a) Digoxin has a short half-life and maintenance doses need to be given only once daily
b) Digoxin has a long half-life and maintenance doses need to be given only 3 times daily
c) Digoxin has a short -life and maintenance doses need to be given only twice daily
d) Digoxin has a long half-life and maintenance doses need to be given only once
147) The New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification of heart failure include the following
a) Class I: minimum limitation of physical activity
b) Class I: slight limitation of physical activity
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c) Class I: marked limitation of physical activity
d) Class I: No limitation of physical activity
148) Management of HF include the following

a) Pharmacotherapy: Diuretics, vasoconstrictors, inotropic agents, anticoagulants, beta blockers, and
digoxin
b) Pharmacotherapy: Diuretics, vasodilators, inotropic agents, anticoagulants, beta blockers, and
digoxin
c) Pharmacotherapy: Diuretics, vasoconstrictors, chronotropic agents, anticoagulants, beta blockers,
and digoxin
d) Pharmacotherapy: Diu
149) Risk factor for heart failure include include the following
a) low blood pressure- heart works harder than it has to if blood pressure is high.
b) high blood pressure- heart works harder than it has to if blood pressure is high.
c) high blood pressure- heart works lesser than it has to if blood pressure is high.
d) low blood pressure- heart works faster than it has to if blood pr
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150) HEART FAILURE characteristics include the following EXCEPT

a) heart failing to pump enough blood around the body at the right pressure.
b) heart muscle has become too weak or stiff to work properly.
c) heart needs some support to do its job, usually in the form of medicines
d) Heart failure does not causes circulatory failure,
151) Types of heart failure include the following

a) heart failure due to right ventricular systolic dysfunction (LVSD) due to the part of the heart that
pumps blood around your body (the left ventricle) becoming weak
b) heart failure due to right ventricular diastolic dysfunction (LVSD) due to the part of the heart
that pumps blood around your body (the left ventricle) becoming weak
c
152) ANGIOTENSIN-CONVERTING ENZYME INHIBITORS characteristics include the following

a) work by dilating blood vessels , which makes the blood flow more easily and reduces blood
pressure.
b) work by constricting blood vessels , which makes the blood flow more easily and reduces blood
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pressure.
c) work by constricting blood vessels , which makes the blood flow more difficult and reduces bloo

a) Hypokalaemia predisposes the patient to digitalis toxicity; it is managed by giving a potassiumsparing diuretic or, or , calcium supplementation.
b) Hyperkalaemia predisposes the patient to digitalis toxicity; it is managed by giving a potassiumsparing diuretic or, or , potassium supplementation.
c) Hypokalaemia predisposes the patient t

a) Digitalis is potent activators of cellular Na+/K+-ATPase which moves Na ions out of the cell and
brings K ions into the cell.
b) Digitalis is potent activators of cellular Na+/H+-ATPase which moves Na ions out of the cell and
brings K ions into the cell.
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c) Digitalis is potent inhibitors of cellular Na+/K+-ATPase which moves K ions out
155) diuretics characteristics include the following

a) diuretics produce diuresis by promoting the reabsorption of sodium at different segments of the
renal tubular system
b) diuretics reverse diuresis by promoting the reabsorption of sodium at different segments of the
renal tubular system
c) diuretics reverse diuresis by inhibiting the reabsorption of potassium at different segments of
the
156) Loop Diuretics characteristics include the following

a) inhibit the sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter in the thick ascending limb
b) inhibit the sodium-potassium-calcium cotransporter in the thick ascending limb
c) activate the sodium-potassium-calcium cotransporter in the thick ascending limb
d) inhibit the sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter in the thick distal tubule
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157) inhibition of sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter in the thick ascending limb cause the
following
a) increase in the distal tubular concentration of potassium, and less water reabsorption in the
collecting duct.
b) increase in the distal tubular concentration of sodium, and less water reabsorption in the
collecting duct.
c) increase in the distal tubular concentration of sodium, and
158) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors characteristics include the following

a) inhibit the transport of calcium out of the proximal convoluted tubule into the interstitium,
therefore greater sodium, bicarbonate and water loss in the urine.
b) inhibit the transport of calcium out of the late distal tubule into the interstitium, therefore greater
sodium, bicarbonate and water loss in the urine.
c)
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159) diuretics action include the following

a) diuretics increase blood volume and venous pressure. This decreases cardiac filling (preload)
b) diuretics increase blood volume and arterial pressure. This decreases cardiac filling (preload)
c) diuretics decrease blood volume and venous pressure. This increases cardiac filling (preload)
d) diuretics decrease blood volume and venous pressure
160) Arterial dilator actions include the following

a) Arterial dilator reduce pressure by decreasing peripheral vascular resistance.
b) Arterial dilator reduce arterial pressure by decreasing systemic vascular resistance.
c) Arterial dilator reduce venous pressure by decreasing systemic vascular resistance.
d) Arterial dilator increase venous pressure by decreasing systemic vascular re
161) Side-Effects of Vasodilators include the following
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a) Vasodilators can produce normal baroreceptor-mediated reflex vasoconstriction , which can lead
to orthostatic hypotension and syncope
b) Vasodilators can produce normal baroreceptor-mediated reflex vasodilation which can lead to
orthostatic hypotension and syncope
c) Vasodilators can impair normal baroreceptor-mediated reflex vasoc
162) vasodilators characteristics include the following

a) Vasodilators can lead to renal retention of calcium and water, which increases blood volume and
cardiac output
b) Vasodilators can lead to renal retention of sodium and water, which increases blood volume and
cardiac output
c) Vasodilators can lead to renal retention of sodium and water, which decreases blood volume and
cardiac output
163) Drugs used in the management of asthma include the following

a) beta2 agonists, muscarinic bronchodilators, theophylline, corticosteroids,cromoglicate and
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nedocromil
b) beta2 antagonists, antimuscarinic bronchodilators, theophylline, corticosteroids,cromoglicate and
nedocromil
c) beta 1agonists, antimuscarinic bronchodilators, theophylline, corticosteroids,cromoglicate and
nedocromil
d)
164) Administration characteristics of drugs for asthma include the following

a) "Systemic side-effects occur less frequently when a drug is given orally rather than by inhalation."
b) Systemic side-effects occur more frequently when a drug is given rectally rather than by
inhalation.
c) "Systemic side-effects occur more frequently when a drug is given orally rather than by
inhalation."
d) "
165) characteristics of Drugs for asthma in Pregnancy include the following

a) "prednisolone is the preferred corticosteroid for oral administration since very little of the drug
reaches the fetus"
b) "prednisolone is not the preferred corticosteroid for oral administration since very little of the
drug reaches the fetus"
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c) prednisolone is the preferred corticosteroid for inhalation since
166) Management of severe acute asthma characteristics include the following

a) In severe or life-threatening asthma, also consider initial treatment with salmeterol by nebuliser,
b) In severe or life-threatening asthma, also consider initial treatment with ipratropium by nebuliser,
c) In severe or life-threatening asthma, also consider initial treatment with ipratropium orally
d) In severe o
167) Moderate acute asthma characteristics include the following

a) Able to talk,Respiration (breaths/minute)<45;Pulse (beats/minute) <110; Arterial oxygen
saturation 92%, Peak flow >50% of predicted or best
b) Able to talk,Respiration (breaths/minute)<25;Pulse (beats/minute) <140; Arterial oxygen
saturation 92%, Peak flow >50% of predicted or best
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c) Able to talk,Respiration (breaths/minute)
168) Moderate acute asthma treatment characteristics include the following

a) start Inhaled short-acting beta 1 agonist via a large-volume spacer or oxygen-driven nebuliser
b) start Inhaled short-acting beta1 antagonist via a large-volume spacer or oxygen-driven nebuliser
c) start Inhaled long -acting beta2 agonist via a large-volume spacer or oxygen-driven nebuliser
d) start Inhaled long-act
169) Severe acute asthma characteristics include the following

a) "Cannot complete sentences in one breath; CHILD too breathless to talk
or feed,Respiration (breaths/minute) <25;Pulse (beats/minute) >110,Arterial oxygen saturation 92%;
Peak flow 3350% of predicted or best; "
b) "Cannot complete sentences in one breath; CHILD too breathless to talk
or feed,Respiration (breaths/minute) > 25;Pul
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170 Administration characteristics of drugs for asthma include the following

a) Drugs such as beta1 agonists, corticosteroids, and aminophylline can be given by injection in acute
severe asthma when administration by nebulisation is inadequate or inappropriate
b) Drugs such as beta2 agonists, corticosteroids, and aminophylline can be given by injection in acute
severe asthma when administrati
171) Moderate acute asthma treatment characteristics include the following

a) Prednisolone 4050 mg by mouthfor at least 5 days; CHILD 12 mg/ kg (max. 40 mg) for up to 3
days, or longer if necessary
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b) Prednisolone 40100 mg by mouthfor at least 5 days; CHILD 12 mg/ kg (max. 40 mg) for up to 3
days, or longer if necessary
c) Prednisolone 40100 mg by mouthfor at least 5 days; CHILD 12 mg/ k
172) Administration characteristicsof drugs for asthma include the following

a) Drugs given by Inhalation for the treatment of asthma include beta2 agonists, corticosteroids,
theophylline, and leukotriene receptor antagonists
b) Drugs given by inhalation for the treatment of asthma include beta 1 agonists, corticosteroids,
theophylline, and leukotriene receptor antagonists
c) Drugs given by m
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173) Contraceptives characteristics include the following
a) Hormonal contraception may produce undesirable local side effects,can be used in women of all
ages and less appropriate for those with an increased risk of pelvic inflammatory disease
b) Intra-uterine devices may produce undesirable local side effects,can be used in women of all ages
and less appropriate for those with an increased ri
174) Combined hormonal contraceptives characteristics include the following

a) "reliable and reversible,reduced dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia and reduced incidence of
premenstrual tension;
b) reliable and reversible,reduced dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia and reduced incidence of
premenstrual pain
c) "reliable and reversible,increased dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia and reduced incidence of
d) "reliable and irreversible,reduced dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia and reduced incidence of
e) "reliable and irreversible,reduced dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia and increased incidence of

a) The ethinylestradiol content of combined oral contraceptives ranges from 50 to 80 micrograms
and the majority of combined oral contraceptives contain ethinylestradiol as the oestrogen
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component;
b) The ethinylestradiol content of combined oral contraceptives ranges from 20 to 40 micrograms
and the majority of comb

a) desogestrel and gestodene have also been associated with an decreased risk of venous
thromboembolism
b) desogestrel and gestodene have also been associated with an increased risk of venous
thromboembolism
c) desogestrel and gestodene have also been associated with
an increased risk of atrial fibrillation
d) ethinylestradiol have also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism
e) desogestrel and gestodene have also been associated with an increased risk of venous pressure

a) "The risk of depression and weight gain with transdermal patches may be slightly increased
compared with combined oral contraceptives
that contain levonorgestrel."
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b) "The risk of depression and weight gain with transdermal patches may be slightly decreased
compared with combined oral contraceptives
that contain levo
178) Combined hormonal contraceptive administration characteristics include the following

a) If a woman misses 1 pill (especially from the first 7 in a packet), she may not be protected. She
should take an active pill as soon as she remembers
b) If a woman misses 2 or more pills (especially from the first 7 in a packet), she may not be
protected. She should not take an active pill as soon as s
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179) contraceptive patch characteristics include the following

a) If a contraceptive patch is partly detached for less than 24 hours, reapply to the same site or
replace with a new patch immediately;
b) If a contraceptive patch is partly detached for more than 24 hours, reapply to the same site or
replace with a new patch immediately;
c) If a contraceptive patch is partly detached for mor
180) combined oral contraceptive administration method include the following

a) If vomiting occurs within 12 hours of taking a combined oral contraceptive another pill should be
taken as soon as possible
b) If vomiting occurs within 2 hours of taking a combined oral contraceptive another pill should not
be taken as soon as possible
c) If vomiting occurs within 2 hours of taking a combined ora
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181) contraceptive Interactions characteristics include the following

a) The effectiveness of combined oral contraceptives can be reduced by drugs that induce hepatic
enzyme activity.alternative method of contraception (such as progestogen-only oral contraceptives)
is always recommended.
b) The effectiveness of combined oral contraceptives can be reduced by drugs that inhibit hepatic
enz
182) travel risk of contraceptives include the following

a) "Travel Women taking oral contraceptives decreased risk of deepvein thrombosis during travel
(over 5 hours).The risk may be reduced by exercise during the journey "
b) "Travel Women taking oral contraceptives increased risk of deepvein thrombosis during travel
(over 5 hours).The risk may be reduced by exercise during the journey "
c
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183) duloxetine dose in Generalized Anxiety Disorder include the following

a) Initially, 60 mg once daily.followed by an increase to 120 mg once daily.
b) Initially, 60 mg twice daily.followed by an increase to 120 mg once daily.
c) Initially, 30 mg once daily.followed by an increase to 120 mg once daily.
d) Initially, 30 mg once daily.followed by an increase to 60 mg once daily.
184) duloxetine side effect facts include the following

a) Orthostatic hypotension and syncope occur normaly with therapeutic dosages;effects tend to
occur within first week of therapy, but may occur any time, particularly following increases in
dosage.
b) Orthostatic hypotension and syncope reported with therapeutic dosages;effects tend to occur
within first week of therapy, but may occur any
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185) which of the folloing is correct about venlafaxine

a) Coadministration with TCAs increases risk of serotonin syndrome
b) Coadministration with Diazepam increases risk of serotonin syndrome
c) Coadministration with MAOIs increases risk of serotonin syndrome
d) Coadministration with MAOIs increases risk of skeletal muscle spasm
186) which of the following is correct about Buspirone

a) It is used for long-term treatment of anxiety disorders. it takes longer to work than the
benzodiazepines approximately one to 2 weeks
b) It is used for short-term treatment of anxiety disorders. it takes shorter to work than the
benzodiazepines approximately one to 2 weeks
c) It is used for long-term treatment of anxiety disorders
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187) which of the following is correct about benzodiazepines

a) "long -acting compounds such as lorazepam and oxazepam may be preferred in anxiety in patients
with hepatic impairment"
b) "Shorter-acting compounds such as lorazepam and oxazepam may be preferred in anxiety in
patients with renal impairment"
c) "long -acting compounds such as lorazepam and oxazepam may be preferred in anxiety in patients
with renal impairment"
d) "Shorter-acting compounds such as lorazepam and oxazepam may be preferred in anxiety in
patients with hepatic impairment"
e) "Shorter-acting compounds such as diazepam and temazepam may be preferred in anxiety in
patients with hepatic impairment"
188) which of the following is correct about benzodiazepines

a) "Diazepam or lorazepam are very occasionally administered
intramuscularly for the control of panic attacks."
b) "Diazepam or lorazepam are very occasionally administered
intravenously for the control of panic attacks."
c) "Diazepam or lorazepam are very occasionally administered
intramuscularly for the control of PTSD"
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189) which of the following is correct about Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
a) Advantages of MAOIs are low risk of withdrawal symptoms and less anticholinergic effect than
TCAs.
b) Advantages of MAOIs are low risk of dependence and less pressor effect effect than TCAs.
c) Advantages of MAOIs are low risk of withdrawal symptoms and less less pressor effect than TCAs.
d) Advantages of MAOIs are low risk of dependence and high anticholinergic effect than TCAs.
e) Advantages of MAOIs are low risk of dependence and less anticholinergic effect than TCAs.
190) Appropriate information to provide to the patient about Linagliptin includes the following
EXCEPT
a) during fever, trauma, infection and surgery reduce dose
b) not to double their next dose if a dose is missed.
c) report hypoglycemic or hyperglycemic episodes to a health care provider.
d) importance of regular daily blood glucose monitoring
e) not a substitute for diet and exercise
191) Which of the following medications is MOST likely to increase the LDL level
a) rosiglitazone , sitagliptin
b) Sitagliptin,insulin
c) linagliptin, metformin
d) Sitagliptin,pioglitazone
e) glibenclamide,insulin
192) The doctor has decided to cease the Metformin for a patient who suffered GI side effects and
asks for your advice. The MOST appropriate advice to give the doctor is the following EXCEPT
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a) advice the patient to take with food
b) The brain will stimulate the liver to release glucose and hyperglycemia will occur.
c) the patient will experience spiking blood glucose levels after eating a meal or a sweet snack
d) prescribe the extended release form of metformin
e) advice the patient to take on empty stomach and change to extended release form
193) A doctor asks for your advice when prescribing a sulfonylurea for his patient who is taking
metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which of the following would be the LEAST appropriate
a) glimepiride is the only sulfonylurea approved by the FDA for combination therapy
b) Glipizide may cause more physiologic insulin release with high risk for hypoglycemia and weight
gain than other sulfonylureas.
194) A doctor phones the pharmacy for advice on treatment for his patient with type 1 diabetes who
is suffering from recurrent hypoglycaemia and marked morning rise in blood-glucose concentration
despite optimised multiple-injection regimens (HbA1c over 8.5%). Which of the following treatments
should you recommend as the MOST appropriate,
a) advice to give Short-acting injectable insulins twice d
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195)A patient comes to the pharmacy and asks how to take his simvastatin. Which of the following
would be appropriate to recommend?
A) Take in the morning after food as cholesterol synthesis is higher in the morning
B) Take any time before food as food decreases bio availability
C) Take twice daily before food as it has got a short half life
D) Take at bedtime as the cholesterol synthesis in high at night time
E) Take at lunch with a meal as cholesterol synthesis is high after meals"
196) An individual with T2DM currently takes the following medications (metformin XR 500 mg 2
b.i.d., pioglitazone 45 mg, and glimepiride 4 mg b.i.d..)(lab data - Scr is 1.5 mg/dL) what are the
recommendation you suggest regarding the treatment
a) Metformin should not be givem with pioglitazone
b) Metformin should be discontinued when the Scr is 1.5 mg/dL for males
c) pioglitazone should be discontinued when the Scr is 1.5 mg/dL for males
d) Metformin dose should be increased when the Scr is 1.5 mg/dL for males
e) sitagliptin should be added to the regimen
197) A 400-lb male has been diagnosed with type 2diabetes and started on metformin 500 bid
.Which would be the least appropriate patient education points
a) Monitoring of vitamin B12 levels should be considered
b) Minimal weight loss can be seen initially with this agent, but is not a continued effect.
c) GI effects are common and self-limiting over 7 to 14 days.
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d) Major side effects include sweating and a metallic taste.
e) GI Effects can be minimized by taking the medication with food.
198) An individual with T2DM currently takes the following medications (metformin, pioglitazone
and insulin)(lab data -plasma glucose levels are <50 mg/dL) and he suffers sweating, shaking, vision
changes, immediate hunger,confusion, and lack of coordination.Which of the following actions
would be the LEAST appropriate.
a) check blood glucose level prior to treating, if possible.
b) treatment with 20 to 30 mg of carbohydrate
c) blood glucose level should be rechecked 15 to 20 mins after treatment.
d) If Severe hypoglycemia treat with glucose gel, syrup, or jelly placed inside the individuals check.
e) glucagon may be given by SC or IM injection.
199) A patient comes to hospital emergency department with the following symptoms deep rapid
breathing, dehydration,nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain.past medical history includes T1DM
and hypertension for 3 yrs.(lab data-plasma glucose level > 250 mg/dL;BP 180/110; positive urine
and serum ketones; arterial pH 7.3; sodium bicarbonate <15 mEq/L)what would be the most likely
diagnosis
a) hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)
b) diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
c) severe hypoglycemia
d) hypertensive emergency
e) hepatic toxicity and renal failure
200) An individual with T2DM currently takes the following medications (metformin ,pioglitazone ,
glimepiride and Amitriptyline )His past medical history injcludes depression and thoughts of suicide
and he has recently developed diabetic neuropathy.he suffers numbness and a reduced ability to
feel pain or changes in temperature, particularly in his feet . what is the LEAST appropriate
reco
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203 )A female patient compaints that her menstruation was late and lighter than normal.she had an
emergency contraception with levonorgestrel 3 weeks before .what actions you would recommend
to the patient.
1 conduct a pregnancy test
2 consult a medical practitioner or family planning clinic
3 conduct an ultrasound test to view the uterus condition
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 only
204) A 25 year old female compaints of vomiting within 2 hours of taking levonorgestrel and she had
an unprotected intercourse(within 72 hours ). Which of the following actions would be appropriate.
1 take a replacement dose soon
2 increase next levonorgestrel dose
3 take domperidone if needed
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 only
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205) A 30 yr old male patient complaints night blindness and vomiting for 2 weeks. His past medical
history is malabsorption syndrome, constipation and high cholesterol and he is on Orlistat,
Cholestyramine and Mineral oil (lab data BMI >30)
1) What is the most likely diagnosis
1-obesity 2 vitamin A deficiency 3 Xerophthalmia
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 only
206) A 30 yr old male patient complaints night blindness and vomiting for 2 weeks. His past medical
history is malabsorption syndrome, constipation and high cholesterol and he is on Orlistat,
Cholestyramine and Mineral oil (lab data BMI >30)
2) What actions you would recommend to the patient.
1- start oral vitamin A
2- start IM vitamin A
3- start IV vitamin A
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
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207)A 30 yr old male patient complaints night blindness and vomiting for 2 weeks.His past medical
history is malabsorption syndrome ,constipation and high cholesterol and he is on Orlistat,
Cholestyramine and Mineral oil (lab data BMI >30) . An IM vitamin A is prescribed by the doctor.
3) What drug related problems you identify with the regimen.
1- Orlistat decreases vitamin A GI absorptio
208) A 23 yr old patient complaints muscular weakness and heart burn for 1 month .His past medical
history is malabsorption syndrome ,heart failure and osteoporosis and he is on , Digoxin and
antacids (lab data BMI >30,25-hydroxyvitamin D -<20 ng/mL,BP 145/90)
1)what is the most likely diagnosis
1.gastric ulcer
2.vitamin D deficency
3.hypertension
a) 1 only
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209)An adult male patient comes to hospital with the following symptoms polyuria, polydipsia, and
polyphagia for 1 week ,fatigue, headache and poor wound healing for 1 month.lab data(fasting
blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dL,OGTT results of 140 to 199 mg/dL,Hb A1c 5.7 to 6.4%)
what is the most likely diagnosis
1-type 1 diabetes
2-pre diabetes
3-type 2 diabetes
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
210) A 45yrs old male patient did a routine check up and found the following data
BP >140/90 mm Hg
BMI >25 kg/m2
triglyceride > 250 mg/dL
HDL < 35 mg/Dl
what risk factors for diabetes are present in this patient
1-age
2-hypertension
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211) A 32 yrs old patients lab data shows systolic BP >149 mm Hg and diastolic BP <80 mm Hg
what action would you recommend
1.treatment is not indicated
2.life style measures should be taken
3.start treatment
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
212) A 40 yrs old male patients checked BP in hospital on two different occasions and it shows
159/98 and 148/101 mm Hg respectively. his recent medical history includes type 2 diabetes and
renal failure.
what action would you recommend
1.start treatment for hypertension
2.aim BP to 130/80 mm Hg
3.start herbal supplements
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
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213) A 45 yrs old patient who is diagnosed with stage 1 hypertension recently did a blood analysis
and found low levels of potassium ion in blood.he is currently on thiazide diuretics and got a medical
history of type 2 diabetes and gout
what drug related problems you identify
1.hypocalcemia will occur with thiazide
2.Uric acid retention may occur with thiazide
3.Blood glucose levels may incre
214) A 50 yrs old patient with stage 2 hypertension did blood test and found hyperkalemia. He is on
ACE inhibitor,calcium channel blocker and Spironolactone and has got medical history of
hyperaldosteronism and renal failure. lab data( BP: 167/109 mm Hg)
what drug related problems you can identify
1.ACE inhibitor causes hypokalemia
2.Spironolactone causes hyperkalemia
3.Spironolactone is contrai
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1)DIURETICS Adverse effects EXCEPT

2)Bulk- forming laxatives characteristics EXCEPT

3)ACE inhibitors Adverse effects include except

4)Angiotensin receptor stimulation causes following EXCEPT

5-CARDIAC GLYCOSIDES( Digitalis ) characteristics includes following EXCEPT

6-Schizophrenia PATHOPHYSIOLOGY includes following EXCEPT

7-anti hypertensive drugs includes following EXCEPT

8-Fibric Acids(Fibrates) characteristics include the following except

9- Classification of Antiarrhythmic Drugs includes following EXCEPT

10- Ezetimibe characteristics includes following EXCEPT

11- Atrial fibrillation treatment facts include the following EXCEPT

13- SUPRAVENTRICULAR ARRHYTHMIAS statements include the following EXCEPT

14- CALCIUM-CHANNEL BLOCKERS Adverse effects include the following EXCEPT

15) Diabetes mellitus characteristics include following EXCEPT

16) FACTS about ALPHA-ADRENOCEPTOR ANTAGONISTS include the following except

17) facts about Insulin include the following EXCEPT

19) facts about hypertension include the following EXCEPT

20) ANGIOTENSIN-CONVERTING ENZYME INHIBITORS characteristics include the following EXCEPT

21) Antithyroid drugs characteristics include the following EXCEPT

QUESTION NO:20 ANSWER

22) ANGIOTENSIN RECEPTOR BLOCKER charateristics include the following EXCEPT

24) Antipsychotic drugs characteristics include the following EXCEPT

26) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome charateristics include the following EXCEPT

27) charateristics of diurectics include the following EXCEPT

28) facts about antipsychotic treatments include the following EXCEPT

29) Carbimazole facts include the following EXCEPT

32) cAMP-ELEVATING AGENTS characteristics include the following EXCEPT

c) used in acutely ill patients in the intensivecare unit

33) ANGIOTENSIN RECEPTOR BLOCKERS characteristics include the following EXCEPT

35) Antidepressant drugs treatment facts include the following EXCEPT

36) bipolar disorder treatments facts include the following EXCEPT

38) Bulk- forming laxatives characteristics include the following EXCEPT.

39) Salicylates characteristics include the following except

40) insulin characteristics include the following except

42) Atrial fibrillation characteristics include the following except

43) TREATMENTS for asthma in Pregnancy include the following except

44) Sulfonylureas characteristics include the following except

45) Management of severe acute asthma include the following except

46) Antidiabetic drugs characteristics include the following except

47) Beta-blockers characteristics include the following except

48) Treatment of Acute Attacks of gout include the following except

49) Pharmacologic Treatment of Osteoarthritis include the following except

50) DMARDs characteristics include the following except

51) drugs to treat osteoporosis include the following except

52) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs characteristics include the following except

53) Pharmacologic Treatment of Osteoarthritis include the following except

55) Bisphosphonates characteristics include the following except

56) Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers characteristics include the following except

58) Hypercalcemia Treatment characteristics include the following except

59) Severe Hypocalcemia Treatment characteristics include the following except

62) Migraine Headache Treatment include the following except

63) Colchicine characteristics include the following except

64) Duloxetine characteristics include the following except

65) Bisphosphonates characteristics include the following except

67) Interferon beta-1b therapy characteristics include the following except

69) Allopurinol characteristics include the following except

70) Intra-articular corticosteroid injections characteristics include the following except

75) NSAIDs use in Dysmenorrhea include the following except

77) Urinary tract infection treatment include the following except

78) Endocarditis:treatment include the following except

79) Benzylpenicillin characteristics include the following except

81) "Loop Diuretics characteristics include the following