Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
REPORT FROM
THE EXAMINERS
2015
Table of Contents
Page 3
Statistics
Page 6
Award Winners
Page 7
Page 10
Diploma in Brewing
Page 19
Diploma in Distilling
Page 29
Page 37
Page 51
Page 52
Diploma in
Brewing
Module 1
Module 2
Module 3
Diploma in
Distilling
Module 1
Module 2
Module 3
Diploma in
Packaging
Module1
Module 2
Module 3
David Cook
Robert McCaig
Ian Smith
Marc Schmitt
Alastair Pringle
Tobin Eppard
George Ritchie
Yahia Chabane
Phil Worsley
Gary Freeman
Andrew Barker
Jean Michel Gualano
Andre Dillman
Master Brewer
Module1
Module 2
Module 3
Module 4
Module 5
General
Certificates
Douglas Murray
Michelle Pizzi
Jeremy Stephens
George Bathgate
Iain Campbell
Alan Wolstenholme
GCB
GCP
GCD
Robert Illingworth
Ian Smith
Jeremy Stead
Derek Orford
Shiona Kamermans
Michael Partridge
Bob Pursley
Robin Cooper
Ian Bearpark
Richard Westwood
Jens Voigt
Colin McCrorie
Robin Cooper
Jeremy Stead
Dick Murton
Robert Illingworth
Alan Wolstenholme
Ruth Bromley
Roland Folz
Gavin Duffy
Angus Steven
Gavin Duffy
Robin Cooper
Zane Barnes
Angus Steven
Dick Charlton
Thomas Shellhammer
Cameroun
Australia
Canada
China
Shanghai - AB InBev
Shanghai - British Council
Congo
Barbados
Belgium
Czech Republic
Botswana
Gaborone - SABMiller
Denmark
Burundi
Dominica
Egypt
England
New Zealand
Auckland - Lion
Christchurch - Christchurch Polytechnic
Dunedin - Lion
Nelson - Nelson Marlborough Inst. of Technology
Nigeria
Reunion
Romania
Russia
Moscow - AB InBev
Ulyanovsk - SABMiller RUS
Scotland
Seychelles
South Africa
Fiji
France
Germany
Berlin - VLB
Ghana
Sri Lanka
Greece
St Lucia
Guernsey
St Vincent
Hungary
Sudan
Iceland
Swaziland
India
Sweden
Indonesia
Switzerland
Ireland
Tanzania
Thailand
Trinidad
UAE
Uganda
USA
Albany GA - MillerCoors
Arcata CA - Humboldt State University
Boston MA - University of Massachusetts Boston
Brevard NC - Blue Ridge Community College
Bridgewater Corners VT - Long Trail Brewing Co.
Cincinnati OH - Samuel Adams Brewing Co.
Cottleville MO - St Charles Community College
Davis CA - University of California (Davis)
Edwardsville IL - Southern Illinois University
Elkton VA - MillerCoors
Florida FL - Florida International University
Fort Worth TX - MillerCoors
Golden CO.- MillerCoors
Greensboro NC - UNC Greensboro
Holland MI - New Holland Brewing Co.
Italy
Japan
Kenya
Lesotho
Malaysia
Mozambique
N.Ireland
Netherlands
Zoeterwoude - Heineken
USA (cont)
Irwindale CA - MillerCoors
Kingshill VI - University of Virgin Islands
Madison WI - University of Wisconsin-MBAA
Mankato MN - Mankato Test Center
Maryland MD - Frederick Community College
Milwaukee WI - Miller Coors
New York NY - Cambridge Business Institute
Oregon OR - Oregon State University
Portsmouth NH - Craft Brew Alliance, Inc.
Roanoke VA - Roanoke Higher Education Center
San Diego CA - White Labs Inc.
St Croix VI - Diageo
St Louis MO - AB InBev
Trenton OH - MillerCoors
Provo UT - Brigham Young University
Woodinville WA-Craft Brewers Alliance
Vietnam
Wales
Magor AB Inbev
Zambia
Zimbabwe
THE STATISTICS
Number of candidates who sat each module
Exam
Module
2015
2014
2013
Exam
Diploma in
Module 1
336
358
410
Master Brewer
Brewing
Module 2
269
338
287
Module 3
239
205
186
47
94
95
60
33
38
Module 1
Module 2
29
35
31
Module 3
23
20
16
12
13
Diploma in
62
65
32
Packaging
Module 2
41
23
33
Module 3
23
28
13
22
Module
2015
2014
2013
Module1
43
33
34
Module 2
25
16
40
Module 3
22
23
27
Module 4
15
22
18
Module 5
15
16
Module
2015
2014
2013
Exam
Module
2015
2014
2013
Master Brewer
Module1
51% (52%)
46% (52%)
56% (51%)
Diploma in
Module 1
65% (51%)
57% (46%)
71% (50%)
Brewing
Module 2
56% (45%)
44% (41%)
53% (43%)
Module 2
56% (57%)
56% (53%)
55% (53%)
Module 3
23% (35%)
53% (46%)
64% (52%)
Module 3
46% (46%)
48% (51%)
48% (51%)
Diploma in
Module 1
75% (52%)
83% (54%)
89% (58%)
Module 4
73% (60%)
73% (58%)
61% (52%)
Distilling
Module 2
45% (38%)
60% (48%)
58% (46%)
Module 5
87%
86%
100%
Module 3
61% (49%)
75% (58%)
81% (56%)
Diploma in
Module 1
59% (46%)
66% (55%)
69% (58%)
Packaging
Module 2
67% (49%)
65% (57%)
82% (56%)
Module 3
61% (46%)
92% (62%)
100% (-)
3000
2770
2500
FD/FBPB
2269
GCB/P/D/S
1890
2000
DB
1661
DD
1500
Dipl Pack
Mbrew
1000
BD
Total Applicants
500
0
2010
2011
2012
2013
2014
2015
MASTER BREWER:
IBD Section
Irish
DIPLOMA IN BREWING:
John S Ford Award Best Overall Candidate
Marc-Andrew Nadeau Molson Coors (Canada)
Kyle Moskovitz
SAB Miller (South Africa)
International
Africa
Asia Pacific
UK-Midlands
Asia Pacific
DIPLOMA IN DISTILLING :
Worshipful Company of Distillers Scholarship Award - Best Overall Candidate
Alan Wardlaw
Diageo Global Supply (United Kingdom)
UK-Scottish
UK-Scottish
Irish
UK-Southern
DIPLOMA IN PACKAGING:
Encric Award Diploma in Packaging Module 1
Samuel Gubunje
Delta Beverages Pvt. Ltd. (Zimbabwe)
Africa
Asia Pacific
Africa
UK-Great Northern
Asia Pacific
Heineken (Ethiopia)
(Non-Member)
(Non-Member)
(Non-Member)
Read around dont limit yourself to the provided notes. Read the Brewer & Distiller International. Use the Learning
Zone via http://www.ibdlearningzone.org.uk/
Remember by failing to prepare, you are preparing to fail. Treat it as a project over months (not weeks).
Do not try and question spot the syllabus is being examined
Read the question
Answer the question you are asked (and on a new page)
Avoid being vague or wooly
Record questions answered in order on the font of the booklet
Manage your time v marks on offer
Diagrams practice, suitably sized, use colour and annotate
Write as legibly as possible and in ink
Everything stems from the syllabus. Accordingly each Diploma syllabi will be reviewed and reshaped to ensure it is contemporary, appropriately
weighted and without unnecessary complexity. New syllabi will be subject to cycles of draft and review before anonymous review from
appropriate industry experts.
Modules will be reshaped to remove duplication, repetition and, where appropriate, content will be reallocated across the modules.
Whilst all the Diploma examinations will retain the three Module format, examinations across the portfolio will be a mix of long and short
questions with a minimum pass rate for each.
The structure of Module 3 will adopt a common format, although the content will be flexed as appropriate by discipline.
The revision notes will be retired and replaced by headlines and knowledge resources. The headlines will provide the big picture and
immutable facts. The knowledge resources will provide the contemporary information via articles, book chapters etc. These will be linked to
the syllabus and sourced on-line.
Examiners
Im doubtless biased but all the Examiners and Moderators do a magnificent job! They deliver reasoned examination questions, marking schemes and then
in mid-summer spend an inordinate amount of time marking. Whilst obviously remunerated, this (from my experience) is undeniably hard work especially
with tight deadlines and time out shipping scripts around the world. Application of the above top tips would make the Examiners experience so much
better and, in passing, guarantee you a better result!
The BOE continues to develop in terms of mix, experience and gender. The examiner without portfolio approach enables potential examiners to be gently
introduced into the hurly-burly of the BOE without the immediate responsibility of setting and marking scripts. As noted above, much change is afoot which
will be reflected in some musical chairs and addition of new Examiners.
Thanks
The process that delivers IBD examinations is increasingly complex and demanding. Huge thanks are due to the Curlew Street team who manage the
interaction with candidates and pull together the logistics, locations, scripts and generally make things happen in a timely and efficient way. Thanks are also
due to the good people at examination centers who coordinate, arrange and, most importantly, securely invigilate the process. My thanks to all my
colleagues in the Board of Examiners for their steadfast commitment, good humour, constructive challenge, professionalism and end-to-end delivery of IBD
examinations. It is also important to acknowledge the support of the IBD Council and immediate past, present and future Presidents, Alan Barclay, Charlie
Bamforth and Katherine Smart. Finally as ever, a big thank you to Steve Curtis, Simon Jackson and Shane McNamara at the IBD for their fellowship,
unceasing hard work and shared vision of what good looks like for IBD examinations. As this is the last Report under Simons leadership, a personal thank
you for his vision, support and wise council. I look forward to working with the new CEO, Jerry Avis.
As ever, I would welcome any feedback good or bad, big or small on IBD examinations. This is especially welcome from members who would like to know
more without commitment of potentially becoming an Examiner.
David Quain
(please contact via david.quain@nottingham.ac.uk)
Examination team Robert Illingworth, Ian Smith, Jeremy Stead, Shiona Kamermans, Derek Orford, Michael
Partridge, Bob Pursley, Robin Cooper, Ian Bearpark, Richard Westwood and Jens Voigt
The question about a lauter tun runoff profile was not particularly well
answered, the key point that many candidates didnt identify was the
failure of the rakes to descend properly on the second and third rakes
leading to high differential pressure and poor runoff rates.
Many candidates were woefully unprepared for taking this exam, which
reflects the low pass rate. One candidate, when presented with Paper 2
Long Answer Questions, reportedly said, I didnt expect this and didnt sit
the paper. Some of those who failed showed a notable degree of
enthusiasm and passion for brewing and described their practical
experiences and how they had solved difficulties, but without being able to
elucidate the scientific principles underlying their actions. It is to be hoped
that in future years that passion and conviction can be harnessed to the
science that world class brewing is based on.
Brewhouse management
There was no improvement this year in the number of candidates
calculating correctly the numbers of brews that could be carried out in a
week, only 5% got it right. A further 30% were out by one brew and 28%
were out by two brews. Many of the rest were a long way off. The key to
this computation is to work out which stage in the process is the longest
and thus is the rate-limiting stage. The time this step takes to carry out is
then the cycle time of successive brews. Finally, it is necessary to take into
account the extra time required at the start of the week for the cycle to
get established and that required at the end of the week to run out the
last brew. It is possible that a similar question might be asked in next
years exam: I urge all prospective candidates to revise this aspect
carefully.
10
Question 2
Question 5
Sketch out a design for the most economical water delivery system in a
brewery which produces one million hectolitres of beer, all packaged into
500ml cans. Mains water is available in unlimited volume at $2.00 per
cubic metre; borehole water is limited to a daily abstraction of 1,000
cubic metres and costs $0.01 per cubic metre to abstract. Usage rate is
five litres of water used for every one litre of beer packaged. Overall beer
losses through the production process are 7.0%. The specifications for
the three types of water are shown in the table.
Water
source
Chlorine
Calcium
Carbonate
Nitrate
Borehole
30 mg/l
24 mg/l
48 mg/l
nil
Mains
10 mg/l
8 mg/l
10 mg/l
<1.0 mg/l
Brewing
water
specification
10 mg/l
8 mg/l
<20 mg/l
nil
(free or combined)
Describe how best brewing practices, can influence wort quality and
financial performance.
This question was answered by 28 candidates (65%) with 19 achieving a
pass mark (68%). This question elicited an equal-first pass rate, with
question four, though there were fewer high-scoring scripts. Practical
aspects of best practices were well described in many answers as were the
influences on wort quality. Financial performance was less well
elaborated. Few scripts defined the term best practice or introduced
other concepts such as world class manufacturing which would have set
the context of the answer better, as would mention of some of the
methodologies using to achieve it, such as Six Sigma or Total Quality
Management.
Bob Illingworth
Question 3
Explore the general trends in the worldwide hop market that have been
evident over the last two or three years. Describe the factors that have
lead to a decline in the overall amount of -acid being produced globally.
This question was answered by 32 candidates (74%) with 21 achieving a
pass mark (66%). The improvement in candidates knowledge of the hop
market over the last few years has been remarkable, no doubt driven
partially by this question appearing as a regular fixture in this exam paper
as well as the resurgence of interest in hops, especially aroma varieties,
inspired by the renaissance of craft brewing. The contraction in the
demand and production of -acid is influenced largely by global brands,
which in a broadly static beer market have been able to use hops and hop
products more efficiently to achieve adequate bittering. This aspect of the
question received scant attention in the answers and, as a result, useful
marks were lost.
Question 4
Mashing is best seen as an extension of malting. Discuss this statement
and describe the different ways in which the maltster and the brewer
control their parts of this process. Highlight the key control parameters
that each has available.
This question was answered by 34 candidates (79%) and of those 23 (68%)
passed. This was the most popular question with a high pass rate and
there were several scripts that gained high marks. Inadequate answers
were full of motherhood and apple pie, with abundant use of superlatives
and generalities. For example, using only the best quality malt or
ensure the temperature is correct without specifying the what and the
how implicit in those statements.
11
Question 1
With the aid of clearly labelled diagrams, describe in detail the design of
a cylindro-conical fermentation vessel suitable for fermenting 2000 hl of
wort. Include in the answer details of how the operation of the vessel
can be automated to minimise manual input during the complete cycle of
use.
12
Question 4
Question 6
The best answer used a full page, well annotated diagram, and recognised
the implications of the requirement for three simultaneous cleans (three
delivery and three scavenge systems, with different fluid pressures and
flow rates for different cleaning tasks).
The better answers got the brewers and operators out of the control room
and onto the plant, with due consideration of the importance of both
planned and reactive maintenance.
Jeremy Stead
The second part of the question was answered a little better, but with
insufficient detail; at this level it is important that micro checks be
understood thoroughly in terms of where they should be carried out and
for what reason.
Question 5
Describe in detail, with the aid of suitable diagrams, the complete cycle
of operation of a nominated kieselguhr filtration plant and associated
equipment. What instrumentation and procedures may be installed in
this operation to assure reliable physical/chemical quality and maximise
the right first time achievement in bright beer tank?
14 candidates attempted this question, with only 3 satisfactory, and 2
good answers. The better answers presented a simple, but accurate layout
of the nominated plant AND the associated equipment. This provided a
good basis for the written description.
Few candidates were able to demonstrate a thorough knowledge of the
complete cycle of operation at the level of detail required and expected.
A good knowledge of filter aids, how they are used, and at what rate was
shown in the better answers. However, in others, with regard to plant,
critical items of associated equipment, such as buffer tanks, chillers and
trap filters, were omitted.
Setting up a problem-solving team is NOT a procedure to ensure quality; it
is one of the means by which quality issues can be explored, and it is
necessary to know what quality parameters need to be controlled and the
procedures that can be employed to do so.
13
14
Question 3
Describe in detail the design of a complete cellar dispense system
suitable for multi brand draught lager beers to a variety of bars in one
establishment. List and justify your choice of materials and overall design
for all components and give details of operating procedures to ensure
the system continues to operate optimally.
This question was answered by 59% of the candidates (with a
disappointing overall pass rate of 46%) This key to this question is a good
diagram illustrating the fundamentals of a dispense system and
demonstrating the challenges of a multisite multilevel operation against a
single point installation. A diagram can really emphasis the differences
between dispense at its most simple level versus a complex solution
suitable for multiple dispense points. The poorer answers basically
included a keg line cool and font in a simplistic diagram, whereas the
better answers increased complexity in stages and illustrated the
challenges through added solutions such as pumped systems, non-return
set ups extra coolers along with quoting sensible dispense pressures, gas
solutions, delivery speeds and showed a good grasp of values in respect of
cleaning temperatures and materials The second part of the question was
poorly answered with little reference to food safety, material transmission
characteristics and risks, understanding of modern bar font technology and
only the very best answers reference sensible procedural requirements. In
respect to hygiene temperatures, times, flow rates and cleaning material
examples are required; a simple statement that all pipework must be clean
and hygienic is insufficient.
Question 4
List the utilities required to operate either a keg racking line or a cask
racking line. For each utility, describe how variation in the supply could
impact on product quality, overall efficiency and environmental
performance.
This question was answered by 82% of the candidates (with a
disappointing overall pass rate of 28%) There is a basic relationship
between utilities relating to line efficiency, product quality, environmental
performance and overall running costs. The better answers demonstrated
an understanding of this and illustrated this through examples such as the
effects of low steam consumption versus high steam consumption and its
impact on the other areas. As with most relationships an optimum is
required and that can be defined through a set of values. The fact that
more steam gives a better sterility at greater cost is insufficient; the detail
required was the optimum use of saturated steam to optimise
performance. The better answers demonstrated this through giving
example temperature, time and pressure targets and a thorough
explanation justifying the optimum value. A similar level of detail was
needed for the other main utilities. In general the environmental relation
was poorly demonstrated with little demonstrated understanding of noise,
heat, refrigerants, and power control, which were covered by very few
answers.
Question 5
Following a step change improvement in changeover times, haze and
taste complaints have increased substantially in canned beer products.
List the likely root causes and describe an investigation process which
would identify the cause of this increase. Then detail what corrective and
preventative actions could be taken throughout the supply chain to
remedy the problem.
This question was answered by 41% of the candidates (with an overall pass
rate of 55%) The best answers approached this problem systematically,
considering a range of reasons that would contribute to specific types of
taste and haze complaints. Examples of potential root causes were
suggested and justified. For each example consideration was then given to
the likely relationship between improved changeover times and the
identified root causes. There was no right or wrong answer, the good
answers considered a range of options in the relationship, justified them
and then offered a solution to prevent reoccurrence. Poor answers
majored on problem solving techniques in general such as setting up a
team based approach but could not focus on specific examples, values or
techniques related to a canning production unit.
Question 6
For a non-returnable bottling line operation, describe the policies
procedures and processes that would be subject to inspection during a
third party customer food safety audit. Describe how product risks to the
consumer, customers and plant personnel are assessed and controlled.
This question was answered by 73% of the candidates (with a
disappointing overall pass rate of 45%) The best answers covered the
following detail and demonstrated involvement in customer specific audits
regards procedural and process third party audit requirements to ensure
food safety. They clearly demonstrated an understanding of the purpose
and the importance of certain prerequisite programs e.g. HACCP, Risk
analysis, product recall traceability and the requirements and duty of care.
Operational hygiene requirements were understood by most however
control of Food contact materials, Supplier Approval process and specific
customer requirement were less well understood. The second part of the
question was best answered by illustrating with sensible knowledge based
practical examples relating risks to the customer and consumer. Poorer
answers focus mainly on the general principles of HACCP but failed to
demonstrate this in practice in relation to bottling operations.
Michael Partridge
15 candidates sat the exam, achieving an average score of 68, with the
scores ranging from 50 to 80.
Once again the pattern of recent years was repeated with questions on the
environment, health and safety, quality assurance and resource planning
being answered more strongly than finance and supply chain. However, as
can be seen from the average score, the overall standard was good.
There was a great deal of confusion (as in previous years) over categories
of cost. For Q24 (fixed and variable overheads), salaries can only be
considered a fixed overhead if they are not a direct labour cost. So finance
team, human resources, IT services would be allowed. Similarly materials
can only be considered a variable cost if they are not a direct material cost.
So laboratory chemicals, general cleaning materials would be allowed.
Candidates are encouraged to remember that Manufacturing Cost =
Direct materials + Direct Labour + Manufacturing Overhead where
Manufacturing Overhead has Fixed and Variable components.
For Q27 (events which can reduce the available running time of a bottling
line) CIP, changeovers etc only count if they exceed the planned time.
With Q32 (constraints on maximising a brewerys output) many candidates
failed to appreciate that the capacity, and therefore theoretical maximum
output, was fixed. Thereafter, the variation and failure to maximise the
output will be from, for example, breakdowns, utility failures / variations,
bottlenecks, seasonality, raw material supplies, product mix, slow
fermentations etc.
Paper 2: Long Answer Questions
Question 1
15
The examiner asked for a list in the first part of the question, strongly
implying that the majority of marks would be allocated to the second part.
The key to the second part of this question was the word ongoing. This
should have made it clear that a one-off exercise was wholly insufficient.
A structure to the plan was sought initially with the roles and
responsibilities of key players (perhaps including a champion),
communication, motivation, measurement (including benchmarking),
target setting, reporting and review meetings. The better answers stressed
the importance of commitment of senior management.
The best answer included all of the above points and more. Importantly,
he/she also explained the purpose of retaining sample packaged goods
from each CT/BBT for the duration of product shelf life as a reference
during the life cycle of the batch. Some answers were more technically
detailed and lacked the emphasis on management procedures.
The list of uses of thermal energy was fairly well covered with the better
answers having 8 to 10 uses. Several candidates had not read the question
accurately and included uses of thermal energy in bottling!
2.
3.
16
Question 4
Describe the content and purpose of the three major financial
statements in a companys accounts. Explain depreciation, its purpose
and impact in the companys accounts. Although depreciation is not
normally considered as part of the decision to approve capital
expenditure, when could it become a significant factor? Suggest suitable
rates of depreciation for a can line, lauter tun, brewhouse building,
desktop computer, delivery vehicle.
Sadly the finance question was attempted by just 4 candidates. Marks
ranged from 7 to a creditable 21 with an average of 12. Depreciation was
generally well understood as a concept and most candidates suggested
sensible depreciation rates for the items requested.
In order to manage a business effectively from the financial perspective, it
is important to measure: (a) how many assets there are; (b) how much
profit is being generated; (c) when the cash is coming in and (d) how it is
being spent. Assets are measured by the (1) Balance Sheet, whilst profit
and cash are measured by the (2) Income Statement / Profit and Loss
Account and the (3) Cash Flow Statement respectively. These are the three
major financial statements in a companys accounts.
The balance sheet shows the position that the business is in at the end of
the relevant time period. It shows the assets the business has, its liabilities,
and the amount of equity belonging to the shareholders.
The liabilities and equity section shows where the business gets its funds
and the assets section shows how those funds have been used. Examples
of long term or fixed assets include: property, plant and machinery,
financial investments that are to be held for the long term, patents and
licenses. Short term assets include: inventories or stock, account
receivables / debtors, cash and financial investments that are to be held
for the short term only (i.e. less than 1 year). Short term liabilities include:
accounts payable / creditors, income taxes payable and short term
borrowings (where the repayment date is within 1 year). Long term
liabilities include borrowings where the repayment date is longer than 1
year from the balance sheet date.
Shareholders equity is made up of 2 key parts. The capital part represents
the shares bought by the investors when the business was set up i.e. the
cash that was physically given to the business by the investors, i.e.
shareholders. The second part is retained earnings / profit and loss
reserve. This is the cumulative profit earned that has not been paid to the
owners in dividends but has been re-invested in the future growth of the
business instead. The income statement / profit and loss account
measures the sales made and the costs incurred over a particular time
period. For external reporting this is usually for a year but internally most
businesses will prepare their income statement / profit and loss account
on a monthly basis.
The income statement / profit and loss account captures a sale when the
product or service is delivered to the customer. Costs are recorded in the
income statement / profit and loss account to reflect the costs of making
the sales during that time period. The costs are always deducted from
sales in order of how closely they relate to the sale itself. After costs are
deducted from sales, the figure that remains is the bottom line profit (also
known as the net income or profit after tax) which belongs to the
shareholders, and consequently is reflected as part of shareholders equity
on the balance sheet. The cash flow statement shows how cash has been
generated and used over the relevant time period. Most cash flow
statement styles will present the flows of cash using 3 main categories:
operating cash flows; investing cash flows; financing cash flows.
Operating cash flows will include the flows from the core operations of the
business and are driven by trading. Investing cash flows deal with any
investments in the future of the business. Any new plant and equipment
would be included in this section. The financing section deals with any
investments made by shareholders and any dividends paid to them. Any
new borrowings or any repayments of existing loans would also be shown
in this section.
The second part of the question concerned depreciation which can be
described as the gradual conversion of the cost of a tangible capital asset
or fixed asset into an operational expense which then normally appears in
the fixed cost budget. The objectives of depreciation are to: (a) reflect
reduction in the book value of the asset due to obsolescence or wear and
tear; (b) spread a large expenditure (purchase price of the asset)
proportionately over a fixed period to match revenue received from it; (c)
reduce the taxable income by charging the amount of depreciation against
the company's total income. In effect, charging of depreciation means the
recovery of invested capital, by gradual sale of the asset over the years
during which output or services are received from it. Depreciation is
computed at the end of an accounting period (usually a year), using a
method best suited to the particular asset.
Depreciation can be a significant factor where, in some countries, capital
allowances are available. The difference between depreciation and capital
allowance is subtle. Depreciation takes account of the cost of an asset in
any given year in the company accounts. Capital allowances takes account
of the costs of the same assets in any given year for the purposes of
corporation tax.
The design of capital allowances seeks to encourage investment. It does
this by increasing the cost declared in the early years of an asset. Higher
cost in the early years reduces corporate tax in the early years. Hence, by
reducing corporation tax in the early years, it ought to help cash flow the
purchase of the asset.
Suitable rates of depreciation for the specified items would typically be:
can line 10years, lauter tun 20 years, brewhouse building 50 years,
desktop computer 3 years and delivery vehicle 7 years. In marking the
question the examiner made appropriate allowances on these rates as
they can vary within different codes of accounting rules. As ever, the
finance question was straightforward and it remains disappointing that
more candidates do not attempt this section as it represents a very
important aspect of brewery management and with some knowledge is
not difficult to answer.
For the first part of the question, the associated costs the examiner was
seeking should have included as a minimum: transport, warehousing,
possible additional raw material (and delivery) costs, extra kegs to allow
adequate supply for the desired stock levels, additional time in the supply
chain and mistakes in process / deliveries.
For the second part of the question, the factors which would need to be
considered to ensure the arrangement works well for both parties should
have included: extensive technical evaluation or audit of the plant and
processes, a clear contract identifying roles and responsibilities including
lead times and possibilities for emergency changes, excellent
communication and co-operation to place orders and understand stocks
held between the two locations, realistic sales forecasts for converting into
demand on the supplier brewery which may not be able to react to
changes quickly. The poorer answers did not cover the importance of
defining the roles and responsibilities or the communication systems
required to ensure the arrangement continued to work.
Factors that would influence flavour matching might include: the water
supply and the potential need to dose additions to achieve matching, age
of plant, extract performance for malt / hops in particular, style of vessels
(all of which should be understood at technical evaluation stage). Many
candidates failed to mention water quality and composition which is
always the first thing to concern consumers.
Question 6
List the range of managerial competences exhibited by a world class
production team leader. For three of these competences, describe
behaviours which demonstrate their use in everyday brewery operations.
For the same three competences, explain what training might be given to
aspiring team leaders and managers to assist them in gaining these
competences.
Eight candidates submitted answers to this question with marks ranging
from 10 to a very satisfactory 18 with an average of 14. The examiner was
seeking managerial competences such as:
Question 5
2.
To increase profitability, the brewery has decided to consider
outsourcing some brewing and packaging to a competitor brewery at a
favourable cost. One beer brewed and bottled and a second beer
brewed, bottled and kegged are to be considered. If the direct
comparison of production costs offers a potential saving of 25%, what
other associated costs will reduce that value? Identify the factors which
would need to be considered to ensure the arrangement works well for
both parties. Describe three factors that would influence flavour
matching.
Ten candidates attempted this question with marks ranging from 9 to an
excellent 23 with an average of 15. The top mark represented a near
model answer. Some answers adequately covered technicalities but
lacked a clear idea of the implication for the various cost factors.
3.
17
18
Examination team Robert McCaig, Ian Smith, David Cook, Marc Schmitt, Alastair Pringle, Tobin Eppard,
George Ritchie, Yahia Chabane, Jean Michel Gualano, Gary Freeman, Phil Worsley and Andrew Barker
Question 1
Define and briefly discuss the relevance to malting of the following:
a) Aleurone
b) Endosperm
c)
Scutellum
d) Husk
e) Embryo
f)
Germination energy
g) Germination capacity
h) Water Sensitivity
i)
Chitting
j) Acrospire
(2 marks each) (20)
This question was attempted by 307 candidates (97%) with 83% achieving
the pass mark. The candidates should have realized how much was
required for each answer in that 2 marks were allocated per item. Several
candidates wrote pages for 2 marks, which would have impacted their
time management for other questions. Again reading the question is
important in that several candidates gave the relevance of the item to
brewing while the question quite clearly indicated malting.
Full marks were given to those candidates that indicated that the aleurone
was a living tissue that lies under the testa and above the endosperm and
is important in water transportation and enzyme production in the
growing barley.
The Endosperm was identified as the food storehouse for the growing
barley and consisted of a matrix of starch embedded in a protein matrix.
The best answers talked about the difference between stealy and mealy.
The required answers could be quite short to achieve full marks.
The scutellum is the other living tissue in the barley kernel that separates
the embryo from the endosperm and is involved in generation of plant
regulatory hormones.
The husk is the hard outer layer of the kernel, made up of lignin silica nad
cellulosic material. Its purpose is to protect the barley kernel as well as
inhibit dehydration.
The embryo is the living part of the kernel, consisting of the coleoptile and
the coleorhiza. It produces plant growth regulators such as gibberilic acid.
Germination energy is the ability of barley top germinate and hence malt.
Full marks were given to those candidates that detailed the 4 ml test and
explained how it was measured.
Germination capacity is the measurement of the potential of barley to
germinate and is conducted using hydrogen peroxide. It is a useful test to
determine dormancy versus dead kernels.
Water sensitivity is a method to determine the capacity of barley to
germinate in the presence of excess water. It is related to growing
conditions.
Chitting is the appearance of white nubs at the distal end of barley which
will eventually become the rootlets. The presence of chitting is an
indication that hydration has occurred and that the barley is ready to move
into germination.
The acrospires is the development from the embryo of the coleoptile
which becomes the green part of the barley plant. The length of it is an
indication of modification in germination.
19
Question 2
Outline the operational stages involved in processing barley into malt
from receipt to malt dispatch. Explain the main aims of each stage and
how these aims are achieved. (20)
This question was attempted by 302 candidates (95%), with 68% achieving
the pass mark. This was well answered, but for full marks candidates had
to remember that there are five stages, storage, grading, steeping,
germination and kilning and dispatch. In storage the main points included
control of temperature and moisture as well as bin hygiene and aeration.
In grading and cleaning items of importance to note were the use of
magnets, air jet and vibrating screens, grading cylinders and size
classifications for uniformity in processing. In steeping the best answers
included details on the purpose of steeping, to clean and hydrate the grain
from storage moisture to 40 to 45%. Points to include were a number of
wet and dry steeps, aeration was applied during wet steeps, CO2 removal
during dry steeps as well as temperature control.. Also noted was that the
signal for steeping to end and germination to begin was chitting. In
germination the purpose is to allow the grain to modify, along with a very
brief description of what modification is. Key parts of the process include
supply of fully humidified fresh air, temperature control and turning to
prevent rootlet tangling and hot spots in the bed. In kilning the purpose is
to fix the grain, to stop the biological process and make it ready for storage
as well as to develop the characteristic colour and aroma. The best
answers included a description of the three phases of kilning as well as the
process of deculming and storage.
Question 3
List the most important inorganic components of brewing water and
discuss their relevance to the brewing process and final beer quality. (20)
This question, attempted by 241 candidates (76%) with 69% achieving the
pass mark, was generally answered well. Many candidates however did
provide wonderful answers on organic components of water, again a
failure to read the question. Others missed providing the relevance of the
inorganic components to either the brewing process of final beer quality.
The key inorganic components include calcium, magnesium, sodium,
potassium, iron, copper, zinc, chloride, sulphates and manganese. Most
important is calcium which reduces pH in mashing, boiling and
fermentation which increases wort fermentability, extract recovery, and
FAN, improves protein precipitation enhancing final beer clarity, improves
yeast flocculation and beer stability and protects alpha amylase from
thermal denaturing. Magnesium is similar to calcium and is a co-factor in
many yeast reactions and can cause flatulence in final beer. Sodium
imparts a sour salty flavour, potassium can have a laxative effect, copper is
toxic to yeast above 10 ppm, suphate imparts a dry more bitter flavour to
beer, manganese is a co-factor for yeast but a higher levels in inhibitory.
Iron prevents saccharification, promotes beer oxidation and permanent
hazes and imparts a flavour of metallic or blood to beer.
Question 4
With the aid of a flow-diagram detail the equipment which should be
installed between the malt silos and the mill. (8) Explain the design and
operation of the milling equipment normally used with a lauter tun and a
mash filter. Include a typical grist specification for each application. (12)
This question was attempted by 264 candidates (83%) with 62% achieving
a pass mark. The first part of the question had not been asked before
recently and the quality of the answers was very variable with many
candidates ignoring it entirely or simply showing a conveyor or auger. Even
if a candidate works in a micro brewery they must be able to describe the
type of equipment to be found in larger breweries. There were however a
few excellent answers demonstrating a working knowledge of this part of
the brewery. A good answer to part one would have included a clear
flowsheet typically showing the following equipment: Malt screen,
destoner, magnets, weighing system, aspiration system with dust
collection, explosion flaps with safe discharge including sensors, conveyors
and elevators.
20
The second part of the answers was much better answered with many
candidates showing a good knowledge of the way the grist fractions flow
through the screens on a six roller mill. The knowledge of the hammer mill
was much sketchier and a common mistake was missing out the sieves on
the hammer mill.
For the grist specification what was required were the percentage
fractions of the grist such as husks, coarse grits, fine grits and flour. It was
notable that relatively poor candidates tended to write answers to the
question they wished had been asked, with all sorts of detail about mash
separation processes. This simply wastes valuable time and does not earn
any marks. They should stick to answering the question (!) which is about
the design and operation of milling equipment.
Question 5
Demonstrate with the aid of diagrams two types of modern (new
generation) wort boiling systems, including the advantages and
disadvantages for each system. (8) List the various hop products available
to the brewer, describe their advantages and disadvantages and how
they are used in the brewery. (The manufacturing processes for the hop
products are not required.) (12)
This question was attempted by 285 candidates (90%) with 57% achieving
a pass mark. The first part of the question was answered either very well
or very badly depending upon whether the candidate had up to date
knowledge of modern boiling systems. A similar question had been asked a
few years ago and in the question it is clear that modern (new generation)
systems were what the examiners was looking for. Despite this there was
still an issue with candidates reproducing simple and old-fashioned wort
kettle designs (steam jacketed or internal calandria) for which they got
no credit. The type of systems the examiner was looking for include:
Symphony, Jetstar, Stromboli, Triton, Merlin, Ziemann vacuum and PDX.
The second part on Hop Products was generally well answered and
showed that this was a question the spotters had prepared for. This
question lends itself to a tabular answer and a rambling essay with
information on products scattered around in the text, wastes time for both
the candidate and the examiner. The list of products is long and includes:
whole/leaf hops, type 90 and type 45 pellets, type 100 pellets, stabilised
pellets, isomerised pellets, extracts both ethanol and hexane, CO2
extracts, IKE, PIKE, IHE, reduced hops of RHO, TETRA and HEXA, PHA
flavours, Hop Aid antifoam, essential oils and hop emulsion. Fresh hops
were also mentioned in several answers and this was given credit.
Question 6
What is the purpose of wort clarification prior to cooling? (4) Explain the
mechanism of trub formation and the role of trub precipitation aids.
Describe the different ways that trub can be separated from boiled wort.
(6) For each system include a diagram and explain the mechanisms
employed. (10)
This question was answered by 245 (77%) of candidates with 62%
achieving a pass mark. This question discriminated well between good and
poor candidates with many candidates demonstrating a worrying lack of
knowledge of this key area of the process. This may well be that this is an
area not examined in this depth in recent times and it was also obvious
that some of the candidates were answering as a question of last resort.
The first part of the question was particularly patchy with many candidates
simply talking about removing the trub rather than addressing the reasons
why. These include : the metabolism of the proteinaceous material by
yeast and infecting organisms can cause H2S formation, flavour defects
due to the premature development of aged flavours by the metabolism of
fatty acids, blinding of the cell wall inhibiting the yeast metabolism leading
to slow fermentations and high PG, encouraging infection by adding
nutrients such as amino acids, blinding downstream filters and affecting
fining performance, increasing downstream process losses, reducing shelf
life and increasing stabilising costs.
In the second part there was for many a limited understanding of the
mechanism of trub formation and rather than the physico-chemical
answer we were looking for candidates started to write about flocs
forming in the boil and how these were separated using a whirlpool, which
then pre-empted their answer to part iii). A few candidates overemphasized the protein-polyphenol nature of trub and started writing
about aspects strictly more related to chill-haze than trub (the Siebert
model etc.).
A lot of candidates were very vague about the role of trub precipitation
aids and mixed up carrageenan with collagen and isinglass. Many thought
carrageenan was a protein rather than a sulphated polysaccharide and also
mixed up the charges involved or sidestepped them.
The answers to the third part of the question were also variable with many
candidates simply describing a whirlpool rather than covering the many
other methods employed around the world. The question specifically
asked for a diagram but many candidates neglected to include one with a
consequent loss of marks.
Question 7
The composition of effluent is normally characterised using which
parameters and how are they measured? (7) List the sources of effluent
from a brewhouse including typical values for the parameters set about
above. (7) Explain a typical method of calculating brewhouse effluent
costs. (6)
This was by far the least popular question and was only attempted by 55
(17%) of candidates but with 71% achieving a pass mark. Of those electing
to answer it, part i) was generally well attempted with several copybook
answers which achieved full marks. Answers to parts ii) and iii) (effluent
streams from the brewhouse and formulae for calculating effluent costs,
respectively,) were of much more variable quality. It was clear that several
candidates had prepared an answer to a similar question asked a few years
previously but other candidates were using this as a question of last resort
and presented vague rambling answers.
In part two many candidates included effluent streams from the entire
brewery despite the question clearly stating the brewhouse. A lot of
candidates did not include values to the parameters or simply said high or
low. The last part of the question was deliberately kept open and although
the Mogden formula or something similar is used in much of the world any
valid and justified method was given full credit. For example methods used
in New Zealand and parts of North America were described and given good
marks.
Question 8
With the aid of a diagram describe the difference between accuracy and
precision in laboratory analysis. (4) Define the difference between
repeatability and reproducibility in analysis. (4) List the two main
brewing organizations and their reference publications for defining
worldwide beer analytical methods. (2) Define HACCP and the steps
involved in setting up a successful HACCP program in a brewery. Briefly
describe a typical CCP in a brewery. (10)
This question was answered by 186 candidates (59%) with 58% achieving a
passing mark. This question has appeared a number of times in past
papers and yet is still not attempted by large numbers of candidates, or
are passing marks high. In part I, a simple diagram was the best way to
explain, although many candidates did provide very good descriptions for
full marks. An example of the diagram is below:
Precise and Accurate
21
Question 1
Define yeast viability and outline the principle and procedure for three
different methods that can be used in a brewery to determine the
viability of pitching yeast. (14) Outline three different methods for
determining the cell concentration of pitching yeast. (6)
Give the right number of examples. When asked for two examples
they provided two mainstream examples. They did not try to include
three, as the examiners only give marks for the first two.
Give precise and to the point answers. They gave clear descriptions
of processes and operations that provided direction and magnitude
for the effect of variables.
They avoided non-quantitative
descriptions such as massive issues, huge problems, poor quality
flocculation, or poor attenuation. They also resisted dumping
information from the same section of the revision notes into their
answer, when it was not relevant to the question.
22
Question 4
Outline the steps required to develop a quality assurance plan for a beer
brand. (8) Outline the ten steps required to develop a HACCP program in
a brewery. (12)
This question probed two different aspects of quality. It was only
attempted by about 35% of the candidates and was the least attempted
question by far. In part one, marks were awarded for the steps that
includes definitions of requirements and responsibilities in developing a
brand, definition of beer properties, definition of materials, analysis of
sources of faults, definition of actions etc. Discussion of GMP or HACCP in
this part did not gain the candidate addition marks.
Part 2 required the standard ten steps in developing a plan be outlined.
These included defining the process, identifying hazards, assessing risks,
identifying CCPs, reviewing the HACCP system, in addition to establishing
critical limits, monitoring procedures, corrective actions, record keeping
and audit procedure. One mark was awarded for each step with the extra
ones being given for detail on some of the steps. Variations in the 10 steps
were recognized and points awarded. Candidates who were familiar with
HACCP were able to easily capture a large majority of the points. No marks
were awarded for long explanations of the philosophy or history of HACCP.
Question 5
Outline the formation of foam when beer is poured into a glass. (2)
Describe how foam destabilises and breaks (collapses). Describe how
foam positive and negative compounds interact within the foam matrix,
and how they can be controlled in the brewing process. (18)
The first part of this question was answered well by most candidates. Good
answers focused upon the need to provide disruption or turbulence
usually provided by the pouring action itself. Importantly and surprisingly
some candidates failed to mention the requirement of a dissolved gas to
enhance this process, in combination with adequate nucleation and the
resulting interaction with foam positive materials demonstrating
understanding.
The second part of this question required the candidates to provide the
detail of foaming mechanisms relative to formation, and thus eventual
breakage. A single mark was given for a complete description of the what
and how for each relevant description. Good answers outlined the
physical interactions within the foam destabilising processes such as
disproportionation and coalescence in combination with the influence of
provided by drainage of foam active compounds. Many candidates
provided a thorough list of foam active materials normally found in
many beers, and as well listed some foam enhancers which may be
employed such as PGA. The important point was to demonstrate not only
the what, but to describe the how for each, including processing steps
which provide optimal enhancement of these compounds. For example,
including wheat malt in the grist bill of materials, and thus the resulting
increase in glycoprotein normally associated with this material, which in
turn would increase the substrate level of high molecular weight protein
(glycoprotein) which interacts with divalent cations, and iso-alpha acid in
order that a stable foam is then created. Good answers described the
specific role which the material or process (positive or negative) would
influence foam stability.
Question 6
Briefly describe two analytical techniques used for measuring each of the
following: (12)
a) Bitterness
b) Beer and wort colour
c) Foam stability
Write brief notes on the following:
a) Sampling error (2)
b) Accuracy and precision (2)
c) Repeatability and reproducibility (4)
23
The second part of this question focused upon the result of poor yeast
brink management. Good answers noted poor viability at less than 90%,
extended attenuation processes in subsequent pitches and as well eluded
to yeast vitality in terms of poor replication which will be followed by high
SO2 production, sulphur excretion as H2S, poor biological performance
and off-flavours in the final beer product. Our suggestion is that future
candidates study and understand the mechanism of stress, as related to
poor yeast growth and the resulting production of SO2, which is a
regulated metabolite in most beer markets. It is essential to understand
how to control this excreted compound through effective yeast
management and product design.
Question 8
Construct a labelled diagram outlining the significant cellular features of
a brewing yeast cell. (10) Briefly describe the function of each of these
structures during the logarithmic growth phase of fermentation. (10)
This question was the second most answered question where 86% of all
candidates elected to write responses. The key statement was to draw a
completed, labelled diagram and secondly, provide the function for each
associated structural component. Up to ten full marks were awarded for
accurate depictions a single mark for each. Better answers, and was
expected, that candidates would select a species of yeast, and thereby
label appropriately the genus and species strikingly this was not done
with nearly all responses. Many candidates chose to provide in addition, a
bud which was not required. Good answers combining both the
diagram, and secondly a description of function included: 1) effective
representations of the cell wall where macromolecular sieving occurs,
and structure and protection is provided to the yeast cell, 2) the periplasm
where extracellular enzymes are concentrated notably invertase, and 3)
the plasmalemma including a description of the structure of the
phosphlipid bilayer, including some expanded views of imbedded proteins
for the purpose of cellular transport, and 4) the nucleus being identified,
which showed an accurate depiction of the nuclear pores, and bi-layer
nature, including a notation on the location of the cellular DNA and
importance/relation to replication and cellular control and, 5) an accurate
representation for the mitochondrion which would show the elongated
cylindrical morphology, complete with the internal membrane which
shows invaginated structure known as cristae - it is important to note in
depicting mitochondria in yeast, that their size is somewhat small, due to
the lack of full function during the fermentation process the function
being principally provide surface and substrate for oxidative
phosphorylation, which is again subdued in actively fermenting yeast and,
6) ribosomes for the purpose of creating functional proteins from amino
acids and the 7) associated system of membranes known as the
endoplasmic reticulum providing transport and surface area for enzymic
reactions, and 8) liposomes for the storage and transport of lipid, 9) the
golgi apparatus (or body) which is involved in protein transport and, 10)
the large internal vacuole would be included which is generally a storage
or excretion organelle and 11) a representation of the bud, and birth scar
should also be shown noting their origin during replication. Extra points at
a half mark each, were awarded up to the maximum where accurate
dimensions were provided.
24
Apart from the perennial reminder to read and only answer the
question candidates should be advised to ensure:a.
Effective exam technique.
b. Importance of reasonably legible hand writing and
grammar.
c.
Start a new question on a new page.
d. Not to leave bank pages between questions.
e. Answers written in Ink only. Pencil is NOT acceptable.
f.
Mark front page of answer script booklet with question
number in the order answered.
g.
Adequately equipped with appropriate writing and the
recommended drawing aids.
Question 1
i)
Describe in detail and with use of diagrams the method by
which bottle filling is achieved for a rotary filler equipped
with each of the following :a) Short tube.
b) Long tube.
Briefly list by comparison, the advantages and disadvantages
of each method.
(10)
ii) For either (a) or (b) describe, with the assistance of diagrams,
each stage of the filling cycle from filler star wheel entry to
precrowner. Identify the features that control fill levels and
minimise dissolved oxygen pick-up. (10)
i)
ii)
Question 2
For a multi-lane walking/reciprocating beam stainless steel keg filler
describe:i)
With the aid of annotated process flow and equipment
diagram(s) the typical cleaning and sterilising stages and
operating parameters from in-feed to before the filling
position, including detergents, steam condition, temperatures
and process times. (10)
ii) Process flow and equipment diagrams with typical operating
conditions for the CIP delivery station and describe best
practice with respect to energy optimisation, water and
effluent minimisation. (10)
i)
ii)
Question 3
i)
How is oxygen pickup minimised when preparing filtered beer
for packaging? Start your answer at maturation tank and
include the steps required following CIP and beer change over.
(8)
ii) Draw a typical equipment flow-diagram for the above,
identifying the individual plant components. (3)
iii) Identify the typical operating parameters (oxygen content,
pressure, temperature and flow rate) through this process and
describe their significance in relation to achieving the correct
product specification in the pre-filler tank. (9)
i)
ii)
iii)
25
Question 4
i)
For a beer flash pasteuriser,
a) Draw a diagram of the product and services flow and
describe features in the design of the equipment
(including instrumentation) and its operation that
assures a microbiologically stable product. (6)
b) Identify and describe the process, both during normal
operation and between different beer brands that
ensures product quality.
(4)
c)
Define the term pasteurisation and lethal kill. For a
typical flash pasteuriser, calculate the PUs applied to the
product in a holding tube by subjecting it to 20 seconds
at 73 C. (5)
ii) Explain why the operating conditions in a tunnel pasteuriser
differ from those in a flash pasteuriser in order to achieve
pasteurisation of the product. (5)
A popular question amongst candidates reflecting that pasteurisation is a
key element of plant and familiar topic in the brewing industry, and the
most well answered question in this section.
i)
The answers varied from comprehensive to weak and it was
unfortunate to see some candidates choose to respond with
answer(s) with respect to a tunnel rather than flash pasteuriser
(please double check the question you are answering).
a)
b)
c)
ii)
Question 5
i)
Define the following terms and their role in packaging
operations.
a) Quality Assurance (QA)
b) Quality Control (QC)
c)
Total Quality Management (TQM).
Discuss in detail the roles and responsibilities of line
operatives in implementing each of the above procedures.
(12)
ii) Identify two QA activities and one QC activity for each of the
following canning line equipment items.
a) Filler
b) Can seamer
c)
Pasteuriser
d) Can ink jet coding
Briefly describe process control actions for managing nonconformance events and the required corrective steps for
each. (8)
i)
ii)
26
friction factor for the flow through the pipe assuming that the pipe
has a smooth internal surface. (1) The pipe contains three 90 degree
bends of standard radius. The 90 degree bends each have an
equivalent length of 35 diameters.
iv) Calculate the total pressure loss through the pipework given that:
4 . . . . 2
=
This question was relatively popular with the candidates but achieved a
poor pass rate of 33%. Some candidates scored well on the calculations
based on the pressure-enthalpy diagram. Future candidates should
certainly familiarise themselves with the diagram since its use enables
elegant calculations of refrigeration cycles. The mass flow of refrigerant is
calculated from the heat adsorbed divided by the refrigerant enthalpy
change at the evaporator. The answer was approximately 0.115 kg/s.
Compressor power is calculated similarly with the change in enthalpy at
compression multiplied by the flow rate with an allowance for efficiency.
The answer was 43.3 kW. The COP is the removed heat at the evaporator
divided by the compressor power, and in this case it is revealed to be low
(ideally it should exceed 4).
Reducing the condenser pressure or increasing evaporator pressure
demonstrably increases COP by reference to the pressure-enthalpy
diagram. Refrigeration effect is increased and compressor power reduced.
Diagrams of the water-cooled shell-and-tube condenser were very variable
in quality. However many candidates scored well because marks were
readily available for the design features requested in the question. Marks
were available in the final part of the question for any valid comment on
health and safety (particularly legionnaires disease), the relative high
capital cost of air-cooled systems and the higher efficiency of watercooled.
Question 9
i)
This question was the most popular and achieved the second highest pass
rate. Most candidates were able to describe the system diagrammatically,
which is an essential part of the logical process to answering these
questions. Most candidates scored well on Reynolds Number, but the
majority failed to correctly read the friction factor chart. Examinees are
reminded to remain cautious when reading values from charts with
logarithmic scales.
The calculations for parts (iv) to (vi) were very poorly answered in general.
It was particularly disappointing to note that most candidates laid out the
Bernoulli equation with only kinetic, pressure and liquid head terms;
ignoring the pump power and frictional terms. This same comment had
arisen the previous year. Only a few candidates scored well and achieved
the answer of approximately 8.9 kW. The drawings for the centrifugal
pump were in general very poor. The examiner was hoping to see a
credible design, approximately, of the impeller and volute. Marks were
gained by the majority of candidates for the pump types employed when
centrifugal is unsuitable.
ii)
Question 8
A brewery operates a closed circuit vapour compression refrigeration
system using ammonia as the refrigerant. The process heat to be
removed at the evaporator is 120 kW. The vapour enters the compressor
at 300 kPa with 5C of superheat. It is compressed isentropically to a
pressure of 1100 kPa, condensed at constant pressure and sub-cooled by
3C. Finally, it is expanded at constant enthalpy to 300 kPa at which
pressure evaporation occurs. Using the pressure-enthalpy diagram
attached, calculate:
During operation the flow into the vessel increases by 20% in a step
change. Explain with the aid of graphical illustrations the system
response characteristics for the following control. Include example(s) for
which incorrect gain setting can cause control problems:
a) Proportional control (P)
b) Proportional and Integral Control (PI)
c)
Proportional, Integral and Derivative Control (PID) (9)
iii) The output from the level sensor is required to be displayed
on a SCADA (supervisory control and data acquisition) screen.
Explain briefly how this might be provided to the humanmachine interface computer if the output from the level
sensor is:
Digital (1)
Analogue (1)
iv) For a differential level sensor describe how it may be
calibrated, stating factors that affect the calibration. (2)
27
This was the least popular question that was also the second most poorly
answered with a pass rate of just 35%. Most candidates scored reasonable
marks on the definitions in parts (a) to (e). There was some confusion
between response time (interval between readings by the controller) and
rise time (time to return process variable to set point).
The graphical illustrations requested in part (ii) were again supplied with
very variable quality. If the examinee heeded the request to show
graphically the effect of incorrect gain settings leading to slow or no return
to the set point for the process variable, then high marks were readily
achievable.
A rudimentary understanding of transmission of control signals was
required for part (iii) but this was not achieved by most candidates. Digital
protocols employ remote terminal units (RTU) and analogue signals
typically require a PLC. Candidates should note that such control and data
acquisition systems are an increasingly important part of a brewers life
and facilities.
Part (iv) again required an answer that coherently described a basic
method to calibrate the sensor, and how the calibration would be affected
by beer density and depth.
Question 10
A lager beer is matured for several weeks in a cylindrical, horizontal
lagering vessel at 5C. The vessel has a diameter of 5 metres. During
maturation a top pressure of 0.1 bar gauge carbon dioxide is maintained.
The fill level in the vessel may be taken as 100%.
i)
Calculate the equilibrium value after maturation for the
average carbonation level in the beer in grams per litre stating
any assumptions made. (8)
Data:
Atmospheric pressure = 101.3 kPa
Henrys constant for carbon dioxide in beer at 5C = 15.75 atm
litre mol-1
Acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m s-2
Beer density at 5C = 1010 kg m-3
Molecular mass of carbon dioxide = 44 g mol-1
ii)
=
( )
Where:
C = concentration of carbon dioxide in solution
t = time after gas addition
kL = liquid film mass transfer coefficient between gas and beer
at time t
A = total interfacial area between gas bubbles and the beer at
time t
V = total volume of gas bubbles at time t
Ce = equilibrium carbon dioxide concentration in the liquid
phase at the prevailing temperature and pressure conditions
Ct = concentration of carbon dioxide in the beer at time t
By direct reference to the terms in the equation describe how the
process and product conditions affect the speed and completeness of gas
dissolution to the required specification. (6) Describe options for how the
brewer achieves these conditions in practice with reference to practical
technologies and diagrams. (6)
28
This question was attempted by just over half the candidates with a pass
rate of 56%. The calculation for the carbon dioxide concentration was
quite well answered with most candidates achieving pass grades. Top
marks could be achieved by the realisation that the average carbon
dioxide concentration would occur 2.5 metres up the vessel, and also that
equilibrium had to be assumed. The calculation was complicated
somewhat by the need to convert kPa to atmospheres to apply Henrys
Law as given, but very few marks were deducted for arithmetical errors.
Few candidates scored well in the second part. The terms in the equation
imply the benefits of dissolution time (for example holding tubes), beer
turbulence to increase mass transfer, small bubbles to increase mass
transfer area and reduced beer temperature to increase driving forces.
Candidates would have done better in the final part of the question with
improved diagrams for the described technologies. Despite this a
significant number of candidates exhibited good overall knowledge of
technology options, for example carbonation stones, Venturis and static
mixers.
Examination team George Bathgate, Graeme Walker Douglas Murray, Jeremy Stephens, Michelle Pizzi, Iain
Campbell and Alan Wolstenholme
Performance by question
Question
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
Answered by
40
48
32
42
39
39
13
Passed by
25
31
27
33
24
25
8
Passed %
63
65
84
79
62
64
62
No
2
11
15
13
4
22
29
25
4
5
1
8
10
2
29
This question was taken straight from the notes, and those that had
revised got a very good mark. Candidates with good scores covered as a
base the main elements of water uptake, GA synthesis, enzymes & their
release, synthesis, action and order of involvement in endosperm
breakdown in a logical and structured way, how the modification process
is halted etc and provided a number of drawings to illustrate the sequence
of events and progress of modification within a barley grain.
Question 5
Question 3
Outline the characteristics of barley varieties which impact on distillery
performance. (10) Describe how new barley varieties are developed. (10)
This question was chosen by 63% of candidates with 84% passing. The
majority of candidates were able to pass or do well in the second half of
this question as it is in the notes (eg a typical breeding programme, gene
mapping techniques for parental selection, etc). Where some struggled
was in the first part of the question, which would have required additional
reading or thought to answer well.
Excellent candidates also provided examples of approved varieties for both
malt and grain and differentiated characteristics between the two.
Unfortunately a few candidates provided different elements of a malt spec
rather than characteristics of a barley variety. We also had one candidate
write pages on different types of dormancy alone. Please take time to read
and understand the question upfront.
Question 4
Compare typical malted barley specifications, including target values, for
both malt and grain distilling. (14) Discuss why the differences between
these specifications are important. (6)
The majority of candidates answered this question (82%) with 79% passing
and the average pass mark being 61%. This question spanned across both
malt and grain distilling and those that were able to provide all the
necessary answers and understood the reasoning and differences between
the two really stood out.
The first part of this question was taken straight from the notes. Those
candidates that were able to remember the table that had been provided,
and were then also able to explain the main differences and why they
were important and related them back to both grain and malt distilling
processes, got close to full marks. Indeed the highest score for this
question was 98%.
Remember to read the question. Some stated the differences but then did
not go on to explain why these were important. On the other side of the
spectrum, we unfortunately had examples of candidates that were
determined to write what they had studied in detail, whether it had
anything to do with the question or not (eg several pages on milling
including drawings of different mills and examples of various grist ratios).
Another got confused and went into to great detail for moisture levels at
each step of the maltings process (the question was about a malted barley,
ie grain that has finished going through the malting process).
At this level it also isnt sufficient to only provide 3 parameters and to just
say one is greater than the other, or even to provide no values for these at
all.
Michelle Pizzi
30
Question 3
In relation to the interpretation of analytical data in a distillery, define
the terms and give an application of each:
Variance
(4)
Discuss the basic concept of repeatability (r) and reproducibility (R). (8)
5 candidates attempted this question. Marks ranged from 0 to 18.5.
This type of question has been asked periodically over the last 5 years and
the syllabus structure gives a high level of certainty that a question on
laboratory / statistical analysis will appear. It is therefore surprising that
some candidates were not even able to give a definition of these terms.
There were some good answers that gained high marks and these not only
defined the terms but gave practical examples of why they are useful
techniques for a distiller to use.
The second part was again answered well by some candidates but I was
disappointed that several candidates did not know what the question was
asking and were unable to define the difference.
Question 4
With the aid of a flow diagram show the key steps in the production of
Blackstrap and High test sugar cane molasses. (8) For each step describe
the need and purpose along with a comment on any impact the step may
have on the quality of the molasses produced. (12)
7 candidates attempted this question. Marks ranged from 6 to 16. This
question was similar to that asked in 2014 and it was disappointing that
candidates had not taken on board the comments given in the examiners
feedback.
The question asked for a flow diagram and the best answered used
annotation of this diagram rather than lengthy textual descriptions. Marks
were lost by not clearly showing the different points that both Blackstrap
and High test are produced. The question did not mention only the sugar
refining process so candidates needed to mention any steps prior to arrival
at the refinery to gain full marks.
The need and purpose of each step required to be stated along with the
key impacts on quality. Most marks were lost by not mentioning the
impact on quality for all of the steps. The division of marks showed a high
level of detail was required.
Question 5
The question required the candidate to describe all yeast types used in
Rum production not just one or two. The question also required
candidates to provide information on the different sources. Good answers
included purchased and self-propagated pure strains as well as the locally
produced yeasts. Some candidates showed high level of knowledge by
giving the names of typical pure yeast strains used in making Rum.
The second part was a question that diploma level candidates need to
know as its critical to the quality of the Rum being produced and it was
disappointing that this part of the question was poorly answered. Again
the main cause of loss of marks was not providing depth of knowledge by
only discussing one or two yeasts. The question also asked for the method
of addition and most candidates failed to gain these marks by omitting to
include this in their answer.
31
Question 6
Question 7
Discuss the types of microbial spoilage of sugar cane molasses. For each
indicate the cause, impact on the process and measures to reduce the
contamination. (20)
Perhaps some grade E failures were due to poor study preparation, but all
lost marks at some point by writing about some irrelevant topic, or not
answering part of a question. Many successful candidates also lost marks in
these ways, and they might have reached a higher grade by writing about,
and earning marks for, what was actually required. Without other answers
of grade A or B standard to compensate, even one such mistake could bring
the final mark below 45%. So, before re-sitting the examination, please
practice with previous papers, particularly in writing answers without zeromarked irrelevance. I suggest you do not read the examiner's comments
until you have finished, to make sure you can decide what is required
without the guidance of the report.
Number of candidates
% of total
(Pass) A
31
(Fail) E
14
21
21
32
Douglas Murray
Pass rate
%
Average mark
(pass = 9.0/20)
28
12
43
6.7
22
11
50
7.5
28
14
50
9.1
24
11
46
7.8
24
16
67
9.7
29
21
6.1
13
54
9.1
Question 1
Question 4
Explain the importance of one inorganic anion and one inorganic cation
for yeast activity during fermentation. Only one candidate attempted
this question. (20)
Did nobody else realise that it just meant to choose any two ions, one ve
and one +ve, and write about their biological importance? It would be
unfair to discuss the actual answer so the following comments summarise
the expected information. The requirement for a reasonable amount of
information would probably limit the choice of anion to phosphate or
sulphate. For the former, adenosine phosphates and energy management,
and organic phosphate compounds (e.g. triglycerides) were certainly an
important part of the answer. Or, S-amino acids and other S compounds
(especially sulphydryl) have important biological roles; in a fermentation
context all are normally derived from SO42- in the wort. For cation, my own
choice would be Mg2+ as a cofactor in various biochemical reactions, to
make use of information from recent research papers. Ca2+ and Zn2+ were
other possible cofactors, but perhaps with less source material specifically
related to distilling fermenattions. Fe-containing compounds (particularly
cytochromes), or the role of K+ or Na+ in trans-membrane transport were
other possibilities. Even NH4+, as a supplementary nutrient in brandy or
rum fermentations, could be the basis of a good answer.
Question 2
Name the fermentable sugars of the worts for malt whisky and rum
production, and explain how these sugars are incorporated into the
metabolic activity of the yeast. (20)
All but one candidate answered this question, but with widely variable
results.. Some did not notice that both cereal and molasses sugars, i.e. no
fewer than fructose, glucose, maltose, sucrose, raffinose, malto-triose and
-tetraose, had to be named. These sugars collectively involved three
transport mechanisms into the cell. So a substantial part of a good answer
had to explain (a) fructose and glucose (enzyme-facilitated diffusion), (b)
sucrose and raffinose (enzymic hydrolysis within the cell wall, with
subsequent enzyme-mediated transport of the monosaccharides) and (c)
maltose saccharides (active transport across the cytoplasmic membrane).
Also the sequence of utilisation of the maltose di-, tri- and tetrasaccharidess was appreciated. Many answers gave little of this
information, or none at all, hence the poor pass rate of only 43%. . For
incorporated into the metabolic activity of the yeast I was particularly
interested in how the different sugars enter the first steps of the metabolic
pathway. Since fermentative metabolism was implied by the question,
Embden-Meyerhof would have been sufficient, and was all that was
offered if this part was actually answered. So isomerisation and
phosphorylation of galactose (from raffinose) and glucose to fructose-6phosphate had to be explained, but additional information in the better
scripts on subsequent stages of that pathway was welcome.
Question 3
Give a chemical explanation of the detergent and antimicrobial activities
of sodium hydroxide. (6) Discuss, with respect to both manual and
automated cleaning and sanitisation, the advantages and disadvantages
of NaOH for distillery fermentation equipment. (14)
Answers to part (a) were disappointing. Few gave an adequate chemical
explanation of dispersion of inorganic deposits, solubilisation of fatty acids
and proteins of inert organic soil, and lethal damage to fatty acids,
phospholipids, etc of microbial cell membranes. Even fewer gave the
expected chemical equations. For (b), the question specified discussion, so
a simple table of advantages and disadvantages was insufficient for a high
mark by itself. However, a tabular overview from which to develop
discussion was very effective in some of the better answers.
Disadvantages which I particularly wanted to see discussed were the
corrosive properties of NaOH (particularly important with manual
operation), incompatibility with CO2, and the requirement for
supplementary chemicals for optimal detergent effect. The second part,
with most of the marks, was more competently answered, but even so,
only 11 of the 22 answers came into the pass range, Despite the 50% pass
rate, the average mark 7.5/20 was only just in grade E.
33
Question 6
Starting from the fermented beer (wash), give an account of the
production of spirit of the quality specification for vodka. (10) What is
the preferred stage in that sequence for obtaining spirit for production of
gin? Continuing from that point, describe one method for production of
a London-style distilled gin. (10)
With only 15 min to score 10 marks for each part, careful time
management was essential. Part (a) includes all of the continuous
distillations. A simple drawing of the series of columns, stating the
purpose of each and showing the routes of process fluids, followed by an
explanation of carbon filtration or some equivalent final stage.was all that
could be expected in the time available. So, with a neat drawing and
correct information, that scored 10 marks. For part (b) I expected the
general principles (not company secrets) of batch distillation of diluted
spirit and botanicals, including typical cut points of heads, gin spirit and
feints/ tails. Only one method was requested, therefore the descriptions of
other ways of adding the botanicals were (literally) pointless. Brief
mention of the fate of the non-spirit fractions was also expected, since
they can not be recycled to the next distillation. A high-quality feedstock is
required for distilled London gin, but the final (de-methylation) distillation
of vodka purification is normally unnecessary since any traces of methanol
are removed in the heads fraction of the gin distillation itself. Marks
ranged over virtually the whole 0 20 scale. With six grade A answers to
counterbalance those showing little knowledge of gin and vodka
production, this proved to be the most successful question of
the module with respect to both pass rate and average mark.
Question 7
Discuss how the choice of wood and the preparation of a new cask can
influence the maturation of distilled spirit. (20)
By chance, an article on maturation was published in the May 2015 issue
of Brewer & Distiller International with all the information for a perfect
answer. With that fresh in candidates' minds, I expected excellent
answers. Most showed a good recollection of facts about maturation, but
the pass rate and average mark were by far the worst of the module since
so many were unable to select the required information. The question
tested ability to use knowledge of maturation, not to repeat revision
notes. Although it specified a new cask, some answers even discussed the
re-use of Bourbon and sherry casks, and rejuvenation! How does the way
you construct a cask influence maturation? may be best answered by
explaining, with emphasis on their influence on maturation, the stages
from selecting a particular tree to the finished cask ready for its first fill. In
that context (but not as part of general discussion of maturation
chemistry), two important topics were the choice of type of oak, and heat
treatments of the wood during and after building the cask. But in order to
earn marks, the information had to relate to the question, and explain
what was the maturation effect from each point mentioned. Other
aspects of wood preparation or cooperage also scored valuable marks.
Three examples from the best answers were natural seasoning of the
wood (better development of flavour congeners than artificial drying),
direction of sawing (to prevent leakage along the grain) and construction
of the cask without glue or nails (to avoid solvent or metal taints).
Everyone attempted question 7, but many answers scored only a few
marks where I could find information which they identified as related to
cask construction, hence the disappointing grade F average mark.
Question 8
Briefly explain the principles of Gas-Liquid Chromatography (GLC) and
High-Pressure (or High-Performance) Liquid Chromatography (HPLC). (10)
For each, describe one analysis in the production or quality assurance of
potable spirits which is carried out by these instruments: why is it
necessary, and how is it performed? (10)
Again it seemed that some candidates did not fully understand what was
required, but the situation was not as bad as with the preceding question.
Essentially it was to explain (a) how the instruments work and (b) why the
chosen analyses are necessary, and how to carry them out.
34
Iain Campbell
Question 1
Discuss, with the aid of drawings and diagrams as necessary, how the
design, construction and operation of a pot spirit still distillation system
influences reflux and hence varies spirit quality.
(15)
Assuming an average still temperature of 90oC how much radiant heat
will a copper still of 15 m2 surface area emit over a 5 hour run? (5)
Assume
an
ambient
stillhouse
temperature
of
20oC.
-8
Assume emissivity is 0.5 Stefan-Boltzmann constant: 5.67 x 10 W. m-2K-4
Number of candidates
% of total
(Pass) A
8.7
17.39
17.39
17.39
(Fail) E
21.74
Question 2
8.7
8.7
Draw, and briefly explain the function of, the principal features of the
equipment for pressure-cooking unmalted cereal for grain whisky
production, and for energy recovery from the cooked cereal. (8)
From the data below, calculate:
a) the initial temperature of the water/grain slurry; (3)
b) the weight of steam required to heat a batch of 15 tonnes of
wheat to 140oC, assuming a perfectly insulated cooker vessel; (4)
c)
After the specified holding time at 140oC, the slurry is cooled to
100oC by flashing off steam. Calculate the weight of steam
flashed off. (5)
Data:
Water charge to cooker = 37 tonnes
Temperature of water = 80oC
Specific heat of water = 4.2 kJ kg-1K-1
Initial temperature of wheat = 12oC
Specific heat of wheat = 1.5 kJ kg-1K-1
Latent heat of condensation/evaporation of steam at average
temperature of slurry over the heating and cooling programme = 2256 kJ
kg-1
Answered by
22
8
21
19
13
12
17
19
Passed by
19
3
11
15
3
7
6
9
Passed %
86.4
37.5
52.4
78.9
23.0
58.3
35.3
47.4
As mentioned already not a popular question and not well done. The
responses suggest a general lack of engagement with processing which
doesnt solely focus on malted barley. The first part yielded mainly very
poor cooker diagrams, whether batch or continuous, and there was little
evidence of knowledge about atmospheric exhausting of cooked slurry, let
alone vacuum exhausting equipment. Two candidates avoided the first
part altogether and only attempted the calculations!
For the calculations, most candidates remembered about the importance
of using degrees Kelvin.
a) This part could be tackled in two possible ways. i) Postulating
the temperature as an unknown where Q would be the same
for water and grain or ii) Calculating an average specific heat for
the slurry.
b) This part involved calculating the heat input required to raise
the temperature once the slurry is mixed in the cooker which is
straightforward.
c)
This required a calculation of the vapour generation once
depressurisation occurs. As I had not specified that the steam
had been directly injected (though that is the norm) I allowed
either assumption (injection or heat exchange) when marking.
35
Question 3
Question 5
Explain the basic principles of a plate heat exchanger and describe the
heat-transfer implications of operation with co-current and countercurrent flow. (10) Hot condensate is collected from four points in a
distillery and combined for use in a heat exchanger. Calculate the
temperature and flow rate of the combined stream if the flow rates of
the individual water streams are as follows:
(a) 0.5 kg s-1 at 72oC
(b) 1.2 kg s-1 at 82oC
(c)1.4 kg s-1 at 90oC
(d) 0.8 kg s-1 at 68oC
The combined hot stream feeds a counter-current heat exchanger to heat
fresh water from 8oC to 70oC. What is the flow rate of cold water if the
heat exchanger is operated to cool the hot stream to 20oC? (6)
What is the total plate area of the heat exchanger? (4)
Specific heat of water = 4.2 kJ kg-1K-1
Overall heat transfer coefficient of the heat exchanger = 850 W m-2K-1
Describe, with the aid of diagrams, how a still is protected from damage
in the event of exceptional pressure conditions for both
a) a wash pot still and its shell and tube condenser and
b) a continuous still system processing high solids wash.
For each, give a brief description of these safety devices and their
operations and discuss the likely causes of such pressure variations. (10
marks each)
A very straightforward question, not generally well answered and not
popular. The average mark was the second worst at 7.69 This is rather
concerning not least when one considers the recent fatality due to a still
explosion in the USA. Wash Pot Still. I expected a drawing showing either
separate or combined auto PRV/VRV anti collapse fitments. Also a seal pot
and a condenser siphon device and indeed the manual valve on the still
body shoulder and the still access door itself. Steam coils and supply
system could also be mentioned. A detailed diagram of a PRV etc. and a
discussion on its operation would gain marks. Also a discussion of potential
issues, such as chokages, filling an unvented still, adding cold cleaning fluid
to a hot stilll, etc. Continuous still. Various of the above apply equally to
the continuous situation and this could be so stated. I was, however,
looking additionally for discussions on bubble caps, perforated plates,
weirs and downcomers, clapper valves and sealpots. I hoped for insights
about operational malfunctions due to progressive choking of
perforations, wash build up on plates, back pressure due to pump failure
and liquid build ups at the base of a column. I received very little on the
above and lack of familiarity with continuous systems is, I suspect, why
many avoided this question.
This question was attempted by all but two candidates but with a very
wide range of outcomes and an average mark of 10.71.
To gain good marks in the first part, diagrams of a plate heat exchanger
(with plate detail) and graphs relating to co and counter current
situations were necessary to illustrate written text.
Discussion on surface area, material of construction, turbulence, cleaning,
heat transfer efficiency etc. should all have been included. In the first
calculation, two options were possible. The elegant one is to calculate the
heat content of each flow, add them all together and divide the total by
the combined weight in kg.
Most, however, opted to use a simple weighted average of the flows.
This gives the correct answer for the combined temperature. With this it is
straightforward to calculate the cooling water flow required.
The second calculation requires the LMTD to be calculated and used in the
equation q=uAT. Even amongst the acceptable answers marks were lost
due to carelessness in the calculations including, but not limited to,
missing a decimal point (value* 10); using 800W instead of the given
850W; giving the answer as plates instead of plate area, using unweighted
averages; etc.
Question 4
On the assumption that three of the factors for regulatory charging for
effluent treatment are within the control of the distillery, describe briefly
one possible way to reduce the contribution of each factor to the total
cost. (4 marks each) (12) Give a brief account of two methods for
removal of copper from still effluent. (8)
A popular question and generally high scoring with the second highest
average mark at 12.0. It should be straightforward for candidates to earn
marks by sharing knowledge of effluent charging schemes. Most started
off by showing and explaining the Mogden formula which was most
acceptable, though not insisted upon as it is not universally used
internationally. What was expected was the listing of volume, COD/BOD
and suspended solids as chargeable components. Whilst pH and
temperature commonly form part of a consent, they do not usually count
towards a normal charging scheme. In extremis, fines may be levied but
these are not ongoing charges.
A very wide selection of processes were acceptable, including some which
reduced more than one element of charging. Cooling towers, CIP, AD,
biotowers, sludge tanks were all offered as appropriate technologies. Pot
Ale evaporation reduces COD/BOD discharges but there is still the issue of
condensate volume to be addressed. On copper treatment, the main
offerings were reed/willow beds, electrolysis and membrane filtration. To
achieve full marks a reasonable description and perhaps an illustration was
expected, demonstrating understanding. Some candidates erred on the
side of brevity, losing easy marks.
36
Question 6
Describe, with diagrams, two of the following processes. (10 marks each)
(20)
Question 8
Explain Reynolds Number in terms of properties of a fluid, and its
relevance in calculating fluid flow regimes. (4) Draw diagrams of typical
flow regimes in a pipe of circular cross section showing their velocity
profiles, stating the relationship between the centre line velocity to
average velocity in each case. Give an example of where each flow
regime may typically be encountered in a distillery. (8) A fermenter
(washback) of 3 m diameter contains fermented beer/wash to a height of
5 m at atmospheric pressure. A discharge valve of 75 mm in its base is
fully opened and the contents of the fermenter are allowed to discharge
under gravity to an adequately sized still which has its hatch open.
Estimate the time which will be taken to empty the fermenter assuming
a linear relationship between volume flow and the height of the wash in
it. (8)
Data:
Density of the wash = 997 kg m-3
Acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m s-2
Alan Wolstenholme
DIPLOMA IN PACKAGING EXAMINATION 2015
Examiners - Ruth Bromley, Tracy Adie, Gavin Duffy, Robin Cooper, Zane Barnes,
Angus Steven, Dick Charlton, Derek Mckernan and Thomas Shellhammer
Module 1:
General comments and overview
In all there were 56 submitted scripts with 31 candidates achieving a pass
grade to give a pass rate of 50.8%. This is significantly lower than last year
(59.7%) and is the lowest pass rate to date in this exam. Similar to last year
8% of candidates withdrew during the year (after submitting at least the
first assignment) and the decline in marks especially in the long answer
questions does raise the question as to whether candidates who have
previous sat the General Certificate exams are stepping up to the Diploma
level without the full understanding and training required for this level. It
was disappointing to see that only 7% of candidates achieved either an A
or B grade pass compared to 12% last year. 1 candidate script is currently
under review with the Examinations board and so is excluded from the
scoring table below.
Overall pass/fail rates and grades
Passed
Grade
A
B
C
D
No
0
4
14
13
0
7
23
21
Failed
24
39
Withdrawn
Assignment Performance
Grade
No
A
3
B
4
C
12
D
18
E
17
F
4
G
4
%
4.8
6.5
19.4
29.0
27.4
6.5
6.5
The first section of this assignment was generally well answered with
candidates being able to use their local production facility to match the
theoretical description of primary, secondary and tertiary materials with
the actual small pack production and its components. Complete answers
included well structured photographs showing all of the component
materials alongside their technical functional group, as well as an overall
pack photograph.
For the second section the Examiners were looking for the candidate to
explain how the specifications of the material helped it meet the
functional requirements. Good answers explained this in terms of the
different requirements of each grouping, e.g. for a bottle or a can this
would be identified as a primary packaging material which provides a
variety of requirements such as product containment, measuring,
protection & reservation to name just a few.
This structure could then be used to follow the same profile for both
secondary and tertiary materials. In general here as long as candidates
correctly identified the materials correctly (primary, secondary and
tertiary) then they generally were able to link to the correct functional
requirements however a number of candidates then failed to make the
link back to the specifications of the material that helped it to provide that
property.
The final section worth 8 marks was generally where a lot of candidates
lost significant marks. Many named only a couple of the marketing
functions and most candidates failed completely to link this to the impact
of the brand in the market place. This was disappointing, as it showed a
disconnection between the production operation and the impact that this
can have in the actual sales of the business.
37
Passed by
17
3
Passed %
35%
43%
Question 1
List the raw materials used in the manufacture of a glass bottle, along
with the normal proportion of each ingredient used in the final mix. (10)
Explain which materials are added to produce bottles of different
colours, and which materials are added to remove colour. (5) Sketch a
diagram of a bottle furnace and clearly label it with all four process
stages, giving a brief explanation of what is happening at each stage. (10)
Using a table, compare and contrast the three main methods of glass
bottle manufacture and include examples of reasons for using each type
of manufacturing process. (10)
This question was designed to test the candidates knowledge an
understanding of the glass bottle production methodology and it was a
clear question of choice within this years candidates.
The first two parts of the question were designed to look at the ingredients
used within the manufacturing process. The majority of candidates
managed to identify the main raw materials, but there was a wide
variation in the proportions of each of these that were suggested by
candidates and only the better answers looked to explain the variation in
volume of the addition of cullet as part of the process. The knowledge of
the colouring ingredients was surprisingly poorly answered, often with
only the amber ingredient correctly identified.
The sketches of the bottle furnace were generally poor the better ones
allowed clear identification of each of the sections and were accompanied
by clear labelling of the four stages, leading on to clear and accurate
descriptions of what was happening at each stage from the kiln charging,
on to the melting and refining stages before reaching the cooling and
conditioning stages in order to produce a homogeneous mix, ready to be
fed into the feeder prior to gob formation.
In the last section many candidates failed to use the table format which
was requested. This would have simplified the comparison between the
different bottle production methods. This meant that answers were very
repetitive and often far too wordy leading to candidate confusion about
which method they were actually writing about.
Question 2
Define the key properties which make PET bottles a suitable alternative
for glass bottles. (5) List five advantages and five disadvantages of using
PET bottles for beer when compared with glass bottles. (10) Explain why
multi-layer PET bottles are used, and the different types of materials
used. Sketch a diagram showing how the multi-layer PET bottle preforms
are manufactured, labelling each of the key points on the system. (10)
Using a flow diagram describe each of the key points of the stretch blow
moulding process used to convert the preform into an empty PET bottle
ready for filling. (10)
38
Passed by
8
6
Passed %
21
40
Question 1
What is the purpose of beer filtration? (5) Name three types of filtration
and describe the principles of each. (15) Give an example of a type of
powder filter which is commonly used and explain how it is designed and
operated. (15)
As you can see from the table above, question 1 was answered by the
majority of the candidates, however it was very poorly answered.
Part one of the question was answered fairly well and in most cases almost
full marks were achieved. Part two of the question is the main reason most
candidates did not score well on question one. Many candidates confused
types of filtration with principles of filtration, i.e. the correct answer
addressed rough, sheet, membrane or cross-flow filtration NOT surface,
depth, absorption etc. The latter could have been used an explanations of
the principles behind each of the named filter types. However, more detail
was also required in describing briefly how the filters work as detailed in
the revision notes.
The third part of the question was more adequately answered, and the
best scoring candidates included a labelled diagram and fully covered both
design and operation principles. Unfortunately a handful of candidates
miss-read powder filter as filter powder and therefore incorrectly
answered the question, i.e. the answer should have described either a
plate and frame, leaf or candle filter, NOT kieselguhr.
Question 2
When transferring beer post fermentation through to bright beer tank,
describe in detail which quality parameters need to be controlled, and
how. (25) Explain which factors need to be considered when designing a
bright beer tank. (10)
Only 28% of the candidates answered question two. There was a higher
pass rate on this question, but in general most answers lacked enough
detail.
In part one, not all candidates were able to correctly name which quality
parameters need controlling during beer transfer post fermentation to
bright beer tank. These are clearly called out in the revision notes as
dissolved oxygen, microbial contamination, carbonation and fobbing. A lot
of marks were not accounted for when it came to describing HOW these
quality parameters can be controlled. A good answer would have listed the
correct quality parameters, explained why these are important to have
controlled during transfer at this stage of the process (i.e. impact on final
product and consumer), and it would have given examples of how they can
be controlled (i.e. operational practices, quality control checks and any
necessary corrections)
Part two of the question was more strongly answered and the better
candidates included a labelled diagram of a bright beer tank, which
detailed good design features. The best answers went into detail about the
importance of good drainage and ease of clean, pressure and vacuum
relief systems and construction materials.
Module 1:
Unit 3 Planning and Line Design
Assignment
This assignment was designed to show that the candidate understands
how the key principles of line design are integrated and applied when
undertaking a major change/modification to an existing packaging line.
Due to an increase in market demand and competitor activity you have
been tasked with developing a project brief to procure, install and
commission a multipack machine on your 50000 BPH NR bottling line.
(The current line only runs one pack format). You are required to outline
and dimension the key requirements for the machine under the
following headings :a) Size of machine, number of pack formats - how positioned in the
line with profile requirements, and, rationale for these.
b) Key operational requirements projected efficiencies, capacity,
and down time requirements for cleaning and maintenance, pack
format changes and frequencies, and summarised weekly
capacity projections versus projected increase in sales/demand.
c)
Materials supply and removal logistics requirements to and from
the machine; and key waste/usage targets by pack
material/format.
d) Manning requirements for the machine including level of
skills/competence requirements to operate and maintain the
machine.
e) Summary of key performance requirements, overall weekly line
capacity implications and supporting commentary/reasons for
the changes as a result of the machine introduction.
Assignment Performance
Grade
No
A
4
B
5
C
8
D
5
E
11
F
12
G
8
%
8
9.5
15
9.5
21
22
15
39
Passed by
21
7
Passed %
53
47
Question 1
Draw a flow diagram of a can or NR bottle line and indicate the manned
positions on the line. (10) Using a tabular format summarize the duties
carried out at each position with brief supporting explanation of reasons
for these. (15) Briefly explain how the operational effectiveness of these
positions could be measured. (10)
39 candidates chose to answer this question, with marks ranging between
2 and 29, with an average score of 17.5 out of 35 marks (50%). This
question focused on determining the candidates understanding of
manning requirements and practices used and applied on a modern
packaging line.
In the weaker submissions the schematic line layouts provided had little to
no indicative manning requirements, and the description of the duties of
the manned positions tabled were generic descriptions of the process
functions of the respective machines filler fills and crowns the
container, and, the operator starts, operates and shuts down the machine
with no elaboration on specific duties. Operational effectiveness
measures and indicators were hardly covered, and if they were, these
were very generic, with no specific elaboration on key KPIs by key
position/process area.
In the higher scoring submissions the respective sub questions were
comprehensively covered with well labelled schematic line layouts,
manned positions identified, key duties and reasons for these, with
comprehensive coverage of how operational effectiveness of the
nominated positions/process areas could be, or are measured.
Question 2
List the six major loss categories found on a packaging line. (6) Using a
tabular format, outline and discuss two key contributor examples by loss
factor including possible reasons/causes for/of these. (15) Identify and
list a possible set of preventative actions by respective
contributor/reasoning in above. (12) Define the formula to calculate
O.E.E. (2)
15 candidates chose to answer this question, with marks ranging between
10 and 28, with an average score of 18.7 out of 35 (53%). This question
focused on determining the candidates understanding of the six major
loss categories found on a pack line, what these are, how they are
categorized, and what are the contributing factors and possible
causes/reasons for these.
In the higher scoring responses the candidates clearly demonstrated how
they would analyze and dimension the key contributors by loss factor, and
provided plausible causes and reasons for these, with supporting potential
corrective action proposals.
The weaker responses tabled the loss factors with generic one liner
comments, and very little substantiation or elaboration on key contributor
examples, and, possible causes/reasons for these. Of concern here is the
regurgitation of the learning material theory with little clear
demonstration of understanding of how applied on a pack line.
40
Module 1:
Unit 4 Small Pack Operations
Assignment
This assignment was designed to show that the candidate understood the
working principles of a bottle crowner or can seamer and how the
functionality of the equipment ensured product and package integrity.
For a bottle or can line of your choice describe in detail the working
principles of the crowner or seamer. Identify the key parameter settings
and the impact on package Integrity if there is deviation from these
settings. For the period of the assignment include actual results for each
piece of equipment and from these show the level of control achieved.
Explain how the crowner or seamer is managed, maintained and
calibrated and the procedure for changeover between different package
types.
Assignment Performance
Grade
No
A
7
B
6
C
9
D
6
E
13
F
6
G
1
%
14
12
18
12
27
12
2
Passed by
22
6
Passed %
61
35
Question 1
Explain the operation of one type of bottle labeller using a sketch or flow
diagram. (20) Describe the benefits and constraints of wet glue labelling
versus PSL ( Pressure Sensitive Labelling ). (10) List the main factors
which impact on bottle label presentation for a wet labelled bottle and
the reasons why these factors are important. (5)
The first part of the answer attracted the most marks and the best answers
had a detailed sketch or diagram of the labeller with all the important
parts highlighted and an explanation of the operation of each of these
parts. Marks were also awarded to candidates who explained which parts
were most important and included actual settings. This part of the
question was fairly well answered.
The second part was not so well answered. The best way to answer this
was by using a table which highlighted the benefits and constraints of PSL
labelling eg cost, presentation, efficiency, ease of application, cleanliness
etc. The third part required a list of factors that affect glueing a label to a
bottle and how they can affect the final presentation eg glue type,
amount, temperature, effect of brushes, pallets, grippers, bottle condition
etc, label condition etc. The question was answered by 36 candidates with
an average score of 18 . Candidates must ensure all parts of the question
are answered and not just simply draw a sketch of a labeller.
Question 2
Describe the can filling operation using a sketch or diagram highlighting
the reason for each part of the operation. (20) For cans which have been
produced with leaking seams list the reasons why this may have
occurred and what actions would need to be put in place to ensure this
process was brought back under control. (15)
Only 35% of candidates passed this question. The main reasons for such a
low score were that it was insufficient to just draw a diagram of a can filler
operation and not put in any detail on the operating principles of each
stage or an explanation of what was happening at each stage.
The better answers had this detail and also included real settings and
parameters from their operation. The second part of the question was best
answered by listing how a can may end up with a leaking seam and for
each possibility highlighting the probable cause and the remedy. There
were some really good answers covering flange damage, pin height
settings, chuck / roll settings etc which then discussed management and
maintenance of the seamer and how this my affect the integrity of the
seam. Although the average score was 17 there was a striking difference
between those candidates who obviously know how a filler / seamer works
and those who only knew some of the theory.
Module 2:
General comments and overview
In all there were 37 submitted scripts with 24 candidates achieving a pass
grade to give a pass rate of 64.9%, which is identical to last year. Similar to
last year a much lower proportion of candidates withdrew during the year
(after submitting at least the first assignment) which is often as a result of
the candidate already having successfully completed Module One and
therefore being more used to what is expected from them. It was also
interesting to note that the grade breakdown percentages were also very
similar to last year, and very pleasing to note that the proportion of
candidates sitting the Soft Drinks elective also remained at just over 20%
of the candidates.
Overall pass/fail rates and grades
Passed
Grade
A
B
C
D
No
0
4
9
11
0
10
23
28
Failed
13
33
Withdrawn
Unit 1 Quality
Assignment
This assignment was designed to show that the candidate understands the
key quality and analytical measures used on a can or NRB line; and how
these are monitored and managed to ensure consistently high packaged
product quality.
For a packaging N.R.B. or can line of your choice, outline FIVE key
quality/analytical measures applied in filling and seaming / filling and
crowning with respective key performance indicators/targets. For the
FIVE measures identified, conduct a full review and evaluation of these
on your line, and dimension both the key deviations and good
performance
areas
against
these
with
your
supporting
comments/reasoning. Select TWO of those measures/analysis which
have the highest impact on Quality, provide a detailed recommendation
of an improvement plan for each of these with your projected
performance improvement results. You are encouraged to provide and
include diagrams, checks, analysis samples and tools/techniques that you
have used in your evaluation as part of your submission.
Assignment Performance
Grade
No
A
5
B
4
C
4
D
6
E
12
F
6
G
1
%
13
10.5
10.5
16
31.5
16
2
41
Assignment Performance
Grade
No
A
3
B
6
C
10
D
6
E
8
F
2
G
0
%
8.5
17
28.5
17
23
6
0
Two candidates scored 24 and one 23 with all three producing near model
submissions. The better candidates had a good structure with very helpful
use of screen dumps and tables together with photographs of dashboards,
display boards etc.
In too many cases not all aspects of the assignment were answered,
especially the year-end forecast position in the first part. For those who
did answer, a number of candidates simply proportioned the full-year with
the 9 months year to date performance for both fixed and variable costs.
For most operations this will not be accurate enough and a more in-depth
analysis will be required superbly demonstrated in the near model
submissions.
Explanations on how the significant positive and negative variances came
about and what measures were put in place to maintain the year-end
budget position were very variable and generally lacking necessary detail.
The final part was characterised by some very sound suggestions on raising
financial awareness team briefings, notice boards, electronic dashboards
etc as well as being part of incentive schemes perhaps. Too many
candidates failed to suggest financial KPIs for a dashboard which they and
their colleagues could directly influence on a day to day basis preferring to
cite KPIs on overall company profitability, sales etc. Relevant KPI examples
might include (with appropriate targets): beer loss ($/hl), bottle or can loss
($/hl), cost of downtime ($/minute), packaging cost ($/hl), maintenance
cost ($/hl). The very best answers included energy consumptions ($/hl or
MJ/hl) and water ($/hl or hl/hl).
Short Answer
36 candidates sat the exam, and achieved an average score of 20, with the
scores ranging from 10 to a very good 33. Once again, the questions on
line operations and world class manufacturing were answered better than
those on finance and purchasing. For Q1, 2 marks were to be awarded.
This did not mean [2x1] and so more than two advantages for having
annualized hours were expected. This principle also applied elsewhere in
the paper and so candidates are reminded that if a specific number of
answers are required, the examiner will set the question accordingly for
example Q4 List the six key influences with [6x1/2] marks. For Q4
several candidates listed measures of performance rather than influences
on performance.
The missing component of the three that make up manufacturing cost
(Q10) should have been straightforward but too many candidates
answered Indirect Materials and several Utilities rather than the
correct answer of Direct Labour.
The majority of candidates were unclear on indirect material and indirect
labour costs (Q11 and Q12) whilst most had a better understanding of
variable costs (Q13). In the middle of the examination papers section on
finance, the examiner was entitled to expect a financial explanation of
depreciation (Q15)! One brief explanation might be the gradual
conversion of the cost of an asset into an operational expense which then
normally appears in the fixed cost budget.
Surprisingly, a number of candidates made no attempt to answer which
three items should match exactly to allow automatic payment to a
supplier? (Q19). The straightforward answer was purchase order, goods
received note and invoice (or, where appropriate, the up to date electronic
equivalents). Too many candidates, in answering on key aspects of a
service level agreement (Q20), provided aspects more in line with
traditional contracts. Importantly those that made a good attempt often
missed out performance pricing.
42
Long Answer
Performance by question
Question
Answered by
1
34
2
2
Passed by
16
1
Passed %
47
50
Question 1
Explain the typical composition of an autonomous canning line team
having responsibility for all tasks from operating (including on-line
quality checks), size changing, cleaning and maintenance. (15) Describe
the competences of the various team members and outline how these
competences can be gained and maintained. (20)
This was clearly the most popular of the long answer questions with marks
ranging between a poor 9 to a good 27, with an average score of 17. Too
many candidates clearly failed to exercise good time management and
allowed insufficient time for their answers.
The first part of the question specifically asked for an explanation not
simply a list. A list could have been supplemented with an explanation but
was not sufficient in itself to achieve good marks. In addition to the roles
and locations of team members the examiner was seeking explanations of
how planned and unplanned absences are covered, how specialist skills
are accessed for major maintenance / overhaul tasks and how interfaces
with the bright beer and warehouse are managed.
The second part of the question commanded the majority of the marks
and therefore demanded rather more than half the time available. The
examiner was expecting descriptions of competences, not brief job
descriptions. Better answers included managerial as well as technical
competences for the team leader and, for an autonomous team, a
development of multi-skilling.
In describing how competences can be gained and maintained, the better
answers covered training needs analysis, on-the-job and off-the-job
training and, importantly, the role of original equipment manufacturers
(OEM) in delivering training and supporting personnel using their
equipment subsequently. The best answers also indicated how, when
necessary, personnel could be released from their normal duties for offline training and how competence is monitored (and recorded) and
periodically re-evaluated. The examiner was particularly pleased to see
several candidates describe the buddy system for on-the-job training.
Question 2
Describe the process for the selection of a new supplier in an area of
competitive supply markets, in this case specifically CIP materials. (20)
What would be the benefits of having an ongoing partnering
arrangement with the new supplier of CIP materials and outline how
these would be achieved? (15)
The 2 candidates who chose to answer this question scored marks of 11
and 22. For the first part, the examiner was seeking a description (not
simply a list!) of the process stages for selecting a new supplier specifically
in an area of competitive supply markets with up to seven stages
representing a good answer. In addition, two very important aspects are
(a) establishing the financial health of potential supplier together with
past, present and future financial performance and analysis of the
suppliers financial accounts and (b) finding a means of establishing the
potential suppliers actual quality and delivery performance (and
reputation) with existing customers.
For the second part of the question, in addition to the well-known general
benefits of having an ongoing partnering arrangement, there can be
specific benefits in the case of a CIP chemical supplier. These might
include: the potential for holding consignment stock (only paying when
consumed), the use of supplier owned and maintained CIP plant and
equipment (e.g. bulk tanks, dosing pumps etc), the remote monitoring of
chemical stocks with automatic replenishment, the optimisation of CIP
regimes (including potential incentivisation of the supplier within the
contract) and the potential to extend the supply of chemicals to other
areas perhaps (e.g. boiler treatment chemicals, pasteurizer treatment
chemicals etc).
Module 2:
Unit 3 Large Pack Operations Keg
Assignment
This assignment was designed to show that you understood the process of
keg filling and how keg contents are controlled through the filling process.
For a keg filler of your choice, explain the theory and practice of keg
filling. This should include details of keg preparation stages prior to filling
to ensure beer quality is maintained. The assignment must show detail of
cycle times, filler settings and the factors which may affect beer quality.
Assess and discuss how keg contents are controlled by the filling process
showing all factors which may affect this control. Show your
understanding of Contents Legislation in your region and how this is
adhered to in practice. Analyse the actual contents results for the period
of the assignment and show the level of control achieved.
Assignment Performance
Grade
No
A
4
B
1
C
7
D
6
E
11
F
2
G
1
%
13
3
22
19
34
6
3
43
Long Answer
Performance by question
Question
Answered by
1
32
2
4
Passed by
21
1
Passed %
67
25
Question 1
Draw a typical keg line layout highlighting the function of each piece of
equipment. (10) On the pre-fill side of the keg line choose two pieces of
equipment and describe in detail the purpose of each piece of
equipment, how it operates, how it is maintained and any process
parameters associated with the equipment running speeds for each piece
of equipment. (20) Draw a V Graph of this keg line highlighting the
potential running speeds for each piece of equipment. (5)
The answer to first part of this question was a straightforward drawing of a
keg line layout with explanation of each piece of equipment to show what
it was and what its function is. The second part of the question required
the candidate to choose 2 pieces of equipment and describe in detail its
purpose, operation, maintenance regime and any process parameters
associated with it. The better answers covered each one of these in detail
and described working principles, any maintenance plan in place and how
the keg operation was impacted by the machine. Candidates should
carefully select which machine they describe as some machines allow this
to be more fully answered than others. The last section of the question
required a V graph of the line. Marks were awarded for drawing a V graph
containing all the important pieces of equipment and for marking each
with a theoretical running speed based on the principle of the filler usually
being the slowest with a 5 to 10% increase for each machine from the
filler. I would have expected more candidates to have passed this question
as each section was asking for basic principles of a kegging operation. For
many candidates there was not enough detail in the answers.
Question 2
List the key design and operational features of a keg and extractor (
spear) which determine the dispense characteristics of beer . This may be
represented using diagrams of beer dispense from a keg. Include the
impact of keg and extractor design on dispense yield. (15)
Describe how beer quality during dispense may be affected by each of
the following parameters. (20)
Temperature
Hygiene
Gas Pressure
44
No
2
7
6
5
2
0
0
%
9
32
27
23
9
0
0
Much better effort was made this year to describe the candidates own
operation rather than presenting a textbook description. Recognition was
given for this but more marks would have been gained by better
highlighting of photographs to identify the exact feature being referred to
in the text.
Most candidates were well aware of the need for dust extraction and iron
and stone removal to minimise the risk of dust explosions, but there was
very little mention on the need for ignition proof rated equipment or the
need for earthing to prevent static build up.
Conveyor design in some cases was very well covered, but there was little
mention of the need for rotation sensors to detect any abnormal speeds of
idler sprockets/rollers of chain conveyors/elevator belts, nor of the need
for choke switches at conveyor discharges to detect blockages The
description and importance of milling control for the performance of
mashing and mash separation was well covered. Suggestions for
improvement, which included changes to operational procedures as well
as plant modifications were generally valid and technically feasible.
However, with a few notable exceptions , there was insufficient
consideration of an outline cost/benefit analysis as requested and one
candidate offered no suggestions at all (32% of marks available)
Short Answer
The scores within this section ranged from 13(32%) to 36(90%), with 84%
of candidates scoring greater than 50% . An adjunct is a source of extract
other than malt. If added to the kettle it must have no requirement for
enzymic conversion which rules out cereal adjuncts as kettle additions
Some poor understanding of protein breakdown to polypeptides and
amino acids some candidates offering alpha acids and amylose. The
alpha acids naturally present in hops are not isomerised. Several
candidates identified good conditions for yeast growth such as pH and
temperature instead of providing nutrients as asked for in the question.
Methods for assessing a batch of yeasts suitability for pitching must be
immediate and practical such as methylene blue staining for viability. Light
during storage does not accelerate haze formation (but can lead to
skunky/sunstruck flavours).
Long Answer
Performance by question
Question
Answered by
1
19
2
6
Passed by
5
3
Passed %
26
50
Question 1
Describe the enzymic degradation of starch during the mashing process.
Clearly identify starch structure, enzymes and their mode of action, and
resultant breakdown products. (23) Discuss how mashing conditions
affect these enzymic reactions and how this will affect wort composition.
(12)
The answer would have required more widespread reading than the
learning notes and some of the poor marks (37% at grade G) suggests this
had not been the case.
Many candidates offered lines and dots as starch structure with no
explanation e.g. that the dots were glucose units Few mentioned the two
forms of starch, namely the linear polymer amylose (circa 25%) and the
branched polymer amylopectin (circa 75%). Even where both structures
were described no indication was given of the size of the molecule
(amylose a linear polymer of 200 400 glucose units, amylopectin a
branched polymer of circa 6000 glucose units with branches every 15-30
glucose units). Starch is a polymer of glucose units and therefore its
breakdown cannot contain fructose and sucrose (although these will be
present in the mash)
The temperature optima for alpha and beta amylase were frequently
reversed and there was a common incorrect perception that alpha
amylase was most active in the range 45-55C. Some candidates spent time
describing the enzymic degradation of beta glucan and protein which was
not asked for. The role of Calcium to adjust mash pH for optimum amylase
activity was generally understood, but nothing was mentioned about its
role to help stabilise alpha amylase during mashing. The impact on wort
fermentability was reasonably well covered by the better candidates.
Question 2
Draw a clearly labelled diagram showing the six major features of a yeast
cell. (12) Briefly describe the function of these features. Indicate the size
of the cell Provide a clearly labelled time based diagram showing the
progression of a fermentation, detailing the quantitative changes in yeast
count, specific gravity, pH, and ethanol. (9) In addition to ethanol and
carbon dioxide produced by the yeast during fermentation identify seven
other types of flavour active compounds that can occur. List each type of
compound and briefly describe the taste/aroma it can impart to the
beer. (14)
The diagrams of the yeast cell were generally poor and two candidates
appeared to be representing the cross section of a barley seed. Little
understanding of the role of each of the cell features was demonstrated
For the fermentation profiles offered, the timescale was generally correct,
but the pattern for each parameter was not e.g. the timing of maximum
ethanol needs to coincide with minimum specific gravity. Also the ethanol
concentration needs to reflect the degrees of gravity fermented.
One candidate provided a good description of the different phases of yeast
growth but this was not part of the question. Generally answers displayed
poor knowledge of the compounds that can be produced during
fermentation and their possible affect when present above flavour
thresholds. Correct answers would have included higher alcohols, fatty
acids, organic acids, esters, aldehydes, Diacetyl/VDK, sulphurs, phenols.
Module 2:
Unit 6 Carbonated Soft Drinks
Assignment
Using examples of filling machines in your own plant or company,
describe and explain, in your own words, the function of two different
types of filling machine, for example a counter-pressure filler and either
a vacuum or volumetric filler. On a filling line of your choice, investigate
and explain fully in your own words, how, under the following scenarios,
product is kept stable and under control in the filler bowl, following
carbonation or pasteurization and then how it is transferred into the
container, detailing gas pressure (CO2 or sterile air) and product
temperature data in order to maintain final product specification: at
production start-up or product changeover, and after a line stoppage in
excess of one hour. Use diagrams & photographs of filling valves, where
appropriate and reference any source material used eg supplier diagrams
or photographs from manuals. Provide a review of the filling process on
your line, highlighting the quality, hygiene, maintenance and operational
performance criteria and identify key aspects for improvement. Give
examples of two specific recommendations that have been, or could be
made to enhance the overall operation of the filling process.
Assignment Performance
Grade
No.
A
3
B
0
C
1
D
2
E
0
F
2
G
0
%
38
0
13
25
0
25
0
Passed by
3
4
Passed %
75
100
Question 1
Consider a 2 litre PET bottling line with an empty bottle depalletiser, a
40-head bottle rinser, a 100-head filler, capper and wraparound labeller.
During the filling operation, intermittent underfills are being rejected at a
rate of approximately up to 10 bottles per filler revolution at a time. Give
three different operational reasons as to why this may be occurring. For
each reason, give specific recommendations for immediately curing the
issue of underfilling, and then detail a performance improvement
proposal which will outline monitoring checks to prevent re-occurence of
the issue. (3x10) Give one important reason why underfilled containers
of product must not be emptied and re-fed into the rinser/filler for refilling. (2) Fully explain the implication if this is ignored, and provide a
brief description of what preventative measure can be put in place. (3)
Good answers to Part a) focussed quite simply on exactly what the
question asked for three different operational reasons with specific
recommendations as to how the issues can be rectified. It is always a good
indication of how well a candidate understands the practical implications
of the process of filling a soft drink and the principles of problem-solving.
Part B of the question was looking for evidence that the candidate
understood the implications of hygiene and the avoidance of microbial
contamination, whilst Part C examined the candidates knowledge of the
risk implications which relate to the importance and understanding of food
safety and hygiene. Question 1 was answered by only 50% of the
candidates (with an encouraging pass rate of 75%).
Question 2
Describe, with the aid of diagrams, the features of each of the following
three labelling types used in PET soft drinks manufacturing, including an
outline of the application/operation of the equipment involved: (3x5)
45
Patch labelling
Wraparound labelling
Sleeve wrapping
Provide a short explanation of five key advantages of ACL labelling over
the use of paper/plastic labels, which encompass each of the following
parameters financial, design and quality and detail the benefits. (5x4)
The four candidates who attempted this question gave, in the main, model
answers to both parts and there was 100% pass rate. There was no
reproduction of training notes for Part a) and the answers demonstrated a
good to high level of practical understanding. In general, it should be noted
that, where a specific number of examples is asked for in a question, the
candidate should adhere to the instruction and avoid listing as many
examples as he/she can recollect from their notes. Careful reading of exam
questions is paramount so that candidates can clearly understand that
which is being asked. The clue is given in the marks allocated column as a
guide for the candidate, and this is noted in the instruction and
information at the front of the exam question pack.
Module 3:
General Comments
In all there were only 19 submitted scripts with 14 candidates achieving a
pass grade to give a pass rate of 73.7%, which is lower than last year
(82.1%). It was also interesting to note that the grade breakdown
percentages were also very similar to last year, but disappointing to see 3
candidates withdraw during the exam year something which is quite
unusual within Module Three history, as normally candidates have already
passed the two preceding Modules and are aiming for completion of their
Diploma by the time they are sitting this Module.
Overall pass/fail rates and grades
Passed
No
Grade
A
0
B
4
C
4
D
6
Failed
5
Withdrawn
4
%
0
17
17
26
22
17
%
24
14
10
29
4.5
14
4.5
46
For the first part of the assignment the best answer had a brief scene
setting introduction moving smoothly to an excellent table clearly showing
a six stage process in assessing the risks associated with the labelling
process. The table showed how risk scores were compiled from probability
of occurence, severity and exposure leading to an overall zone rating. The
table compared the current to the previous risk assessment together with
mitigating measures.
The second part of the assignment was, in general, not answered well and
a number of candidates chose not to answer it at all! For the issues and
concerns which may arise when carrying out health and safety risk
assessments the examiner was seeking examples such as:
Passed by
3
7
Passed %
38
70
Question 1
Discuss the pressures to reduce the materials used for the packaging of
bottle and can products in the last 20 to 25 years explaining in detail
where these pressures have come from. Use examples to illustrate the
answer. (35)
Marks for this question ranged between a very poor 5 and a good 25, with
an average score of 14. The examiner was looking for a well planned and
structured essay with an introduction which might have included
governments objectives to minimize packaging and packaging waste,
promote re-use of packaging materials and encourage recovery and recycling of packaging materials.
The sources of pressure should have included as a minimum: legislation,
market forces, the consumer and cost. The examiner expected these areas
to be developed for example packaging waste regulations, landfill tax,
sustainability, corporate social responsibility, environmental awareness,
recycling, competition, a whole range of cost pressures etc. Clearly these
areas will differ for different countries and different stages in supply chain
development across the world.
Examples of changes in packaging materials that could have illustrated
candidates answers include: can light weighting (bodies and ends), glass
light weighting, card and cardboard reduction, the rise of PET and
laminates, reductions in the thicknesses and uses of films, stretch and
shrinkwraps, Hi-cone etc. Several of the better answers pleasingly included
water as a packaging material and measures to reduce consumption.
Question 2
Explain the water treatments that may be necessary (and why) to meet
the requirements of a stand-alone small packaging operation. (20) The
packaging operation includes a tunnel pasteuriser. How may these
treatments be achieved? (15)
The 10 candidates who chose to answer this question, were awarded
marks ranging between 16 and a very good 28 with an average score of 20.
For the first part of the question the examiner was seeking a very broad
range of water treatments for the differing requirements of product water
(de-aerated for packaging), process water and service water. An
explanation of which types of water are used at different points in
packaging was expected. At the outset of course, a brief description of the
source of water was important as this generally dictates some of the
treatment(s).
The better answers went beyond basic treatments and included corrosion
prevention, scale inhibition, and biocide addition (to prevent the growth of
slime bacteria and Legionella). One of the best answers excited the
examiner with the inclusion of waste water treatment and water recycling.
For the second part of the question, having explained which water
treatments may be necessary, describing how they may be achieved was
relatively straight forward for most candidates some of whom chose to
include helpful simple sketches.
A number of candidates used a comprehensive table to lay out the
requirements for differing water specifications, treatments and how they
may be achieved. The very best answers included quantitative information
to support their explanations.
Unit 2 Fluid Mechanics
Assignment
This assignment is designed to show the candidates understanding of beer
carbonation.
Using diagrams and/or photographs describe in detail how the
carbonation level in beer is achieved or adjusted at your facility and
explain how this process is controlled. Describe how carbonation is
measured in the final product (both on-line and off-line), including typical
specifications and control limits. Explain the principle of operation for
each measurement technique. Provide clear recommendations of how
the carbonating and measuring processes can be improved or provide a
rationale justifying the current approach.
Assignment Performance
Grade
No.
19
19
13
19
19
Passed by
Passed %
11
45
17
Question 1
Compare and contrast the operation and features of centrifugal and
positive displacement pumps including advantages and disadvantages of
each. (20) Calculate the pump size required for a pump operating at 60%
efficiency to deliver 15 m of pump head at 5 L s-1. Data: Acceleration due
to gravity is 9.81 m s-2. (15)
Eleven candidates chose this question and five passed with an average
score of 78%. The five that did not perform well were not close to passing,
averaging only 36%.
The first part of the question asked the candidate to briefly compare and
contrast the operation of centrifugal versus positive displacement pumps.
Concise answers of the basic operation were all that was required.
Drawing diagrams of the two types of pumps while somewhat help was
unnecessary, particularly in place of a compare and contrast list. The best
answers laid out a clean table with advantages in one column and
disadvantages in the other. The examiner was looking at features such as
delivery head pressure, flow rates (capacity), cost of purchase and
operation, metering capabilities, types of fluids to be pumped.
47
The second part of the question involved three steps and an understanding
of how to calculate pressure given density, gravitational constant and
pump head plus calculating pump power from flowrate and pump
pressure. Candidates needed to make an assumption about a fluid density
(all assumed water, which worked well). While in some cases there were
errors associated with units, this did not results in significant downgrading
provided the overall approach was correct.
Question 2
Name three factors that affect the equilibrium concentration of carbon
dioxide in beer. Examining each factor individually, discuss what happens
to the carbon dioxide concentration in beer when each of these factors
increases in magnitude, given all other chemical and physical properties
of the system are held constant. (15) Given beer with 2.4 volumes of CO2
in solution, calculate the mass of carbon dioxide dissolved in 1000 hL of
beer. (5) Assume that this beer (with 2.4 volumes of CO2) is being
packaged in aluminium cans with a target fill volume of 500 ml. One
standard practice for measuring the fill volume of cans is to measure the
weight of beer in the packaged can. Estimate the target weight of 500 ml
of fully carbonated beer. What percentage of this total weight is
contributed by the carbon dioxide? (15) Data: One mole of an ideal gas
occupies 22.4 L at STP. Atomic weights (g mol-1): CO2 = 44, H2O = 18. Beer
density (fully degassed, measured at 20C) = 1.0085 kg L-1
Six candidates chose this question but only one passed with average score
of 77%. The five remaining did poorly with an average of 23%.
The first part of the question involved describing the three main factors
that affect carbonation levels in beer, namely temperature, pressure and
beer composition (i.e. dissolved solids). As temperature increases, the
equilibrium CO2 concentration decreases (gases are less soluble at higher
temperatures). As pressure increases, the equilibrium CO2 concentration
increases. As beers residual extract increases the equilibrium CO2
concentration decreases (dissolved solutes reduce CO2 solubility). Many
candidates focused on the volume of beer as a factor, but this does not
influence the final carbonation level in the beer. It can affect how fast the
beer will come to equilibrium but that was not the focus of this question.
The second and third parts to this question proved very difficult for all but
one candidate. The second part involved converting 2.4 volumes of CO2
into 4.71 g/L, which meant 1000 hL would hold 47.1 kg of CO2. The third
part utilized the same 4.71 g/L CO2 concentration to estimate 2.357 g CO2
in a 500 ml can, which was approximately 0.465% of the total contents
weight.
Assignment Performance
Grade
No.
11
61
22
17
Eighteen candidates attempted this section and all passed with an average
passing score of 80% correct. The examiner was looking for the candidate
to present a detailed schematic as a key part of this assignment and
associated with it the identification of and description of pipe runs,
isolating valves, pressure reduction valves, blow down valves, pressure
relief valves, strainer/filters, pressure gauges, flow meter, expansion
joints/bellows, condensate traps, condensate pumps and return lines
along with piping insulation requirements. Energy losses often occur due
to missing pipe insulation, steam leaks and failing condensate traps. The
examiner was looking to see a discussion of these plus some rough
estimates of the amount of energy lost and conversion of these figures
into potential financial savings as determined by the amount of steam
saved.
Short Answer
Seventeen candidates attempted this section and fourteen passed with an
average passing score of 68% correct. Candidates in general did well the
basic concepts of latent vs sensible heats, convective vs conductive heat
transfer, and the factors that affect heat transfer. Many did not correctly
identify the temperature dependency of beer density on temperature and
that a maximum (not a minimum) density occurs around 3 4 C. All
candidates were able to correctly identify the components of a steam
pressure reducing station. Interestingly, very few candidates could
correctly draw the temperature profile across two materials over differing
thermal conductivities bonded together (i.e. an insulated wall). The largest
temperate drop across the material will occur in the insulation and not the
conductor. Working with steam tables gave some candidates trouble and
many were unable to calculate a specific enthalpy for wet steam using the
table.
Long Answer
Performance by question
Question
Answered by
Passed by
Passed %
10
70
29
Question 1
Refrigeration systems rely on primary and in most cases secondary
refrigerants. Explain the difference between the two by describing how
the two types function, explaining practical considerations for using
each, naming two different types of each, and providing a separate
example (one for each type) of where you would find them being used in
a packaging plant. (15) Using the R717 pressure enthalpy diagram on
the following page, draw the primary refrigerant flow path (directly on
the diagram) for a system operating with the condenser at 20 bar and the
evaporator at 3 bar. On or below the x-axis (enthalpy) write out or circle
the values for the specific enthalpy of the refrigerant when it is leaving
the condenser, leaving the evaporator and leaving the compressor. (15)
What is the coefficient of performance (COP) of this refrigeration
system? What does the COP describe? (5)
Ten candidates chose this question and seven passed with an average
score of 77%. The three that did not perform well were not close to
passing, averaging only 28%.
48
The first part of this question asked the candidate to define primary and
secondary refrigerants, that is those that involve a phase change and those
that dont. While the differences seem obvious some candidates had
difficulty accurately and completely describing and defining the two. Many
candidates failed to offer two examples of each. The points of use of each
type were handled with a broad range of detail from vague statements
about refrigerants being used to cool stuff to specific answer of glycol
systems being used to extract heat from heat exchangers or cooling
vacuum pump water.
The second part of the question asked the candidates to draw out the
refrigerant path on a P-H diagram, which most were able to do accurately.
The final part on COP was a mixed bag. While some answers were
thorough and included an accurate calculation others simple stated that
COP is a measure of efficiency, which in and of itself is not thorough
enough for full marks.
Question 2
Explain why steam is a useful heating medium in the packaging hall. (5)
Define steam quality, explain why wet steam is not desired, and describe
different means for ensuring dry steam is available at the point of use.
(15) Water at 60C is flowing at 0.001 m3 s-1 and being heated to 86C in a
steam-jacketed heat exchanger prior to receipt in a hot water tank.
Calculate the steam flow rate (kg s-1) in the heat exchanger if the steam
arrives at 300 kPa with a 95% dryness fraction. Steam table data are
provided below. (15)
Seven candidates chose this question and only two passed but they did
outstanding with an average score of 96%. The five nonpassing candidates
averaged 40%.
The description of why steam is an effective heating medium was correctly
answered by nearly all candidates, but things began to fall apart when
steam quality was addressed. Steam quality can be defined by how much
condensate has been formed in transit from the boiler to the point of use,
for instance as a measure of dryness or wetness. The dryness fraction is
the ratio of useable energy from the phase change at the point of use
relative to the total potential amount of energy capable of being released
(at a constant pressure) if the steam were 100% dry. Another way to
explain this is the portion of available latent heat at the point of use. Wet
steam is not desired because it is inefficienthot condensate is simply
being pumped around the system. If significant condensate forms then it
can damage pipes and fittings as it gets blown through the system.
There are several ways to ensure dry steam at the point of use. One is to
superheat the steam in the boiler and another is to discharge the steam
from the boiler at a higher pressure than is needed and step it down to the
desired pressure at the point of use. Yet another approach is to simply
remove the condensate via a trap prior to the point of use. The heat
balance calculation was difficult for many despite the fact that it was a
rather straightforward task of balancing the heating required by the water
being heated versus the energy released by the steam. Specific enthalpy
values were given in the steam table for all streams making the calculation
quick and simple.
Unit 4 Unit Control
Assignment
Part 1 How process control is applied on a packaging line and is able to
identify the types of devices on the line and their principle of operation.
Part 2 Using part 1 as the base, this question was designed to probe if
the system described was an open or closed loop system and why it was
chosen. Part 3 using an existing control system, critically analyse it and
make recommendations to improve in terms of reliability, control
accuracy and integration.
19 of the 23 registered candidates submitted the assignment. The average
mark was 16 out of 25. Part 1 was well answered with some excellent
examples of the application with good views on the types of devices in use.
Part 2 showed that some of the candidates had difficulty identifying a feed
forward control loop in operation. However the open loop was much
easier to identify and describe.
Long Answer
Question 1
Describe with the aid of a diagram how the necessary components of a
flash pasteurizer control the temperature of beer at the discharge of the
heating section of the heat exchanger. (15) Using the basic elements of
control theory, describe what type of controlling algorithm might be
used to control the beer temperature as it enters the holding tube.
Explain, with another diagram, how the various temperature and control
signals move throughout the control loop to achieve control, identifying
the nature of the signal joining each component. (15) What type of
control loop is being used in this example, feed forward or feed back, and
why is this type of control employed? (5)
Platinum Resistance Temperature Detector
Acceptable answers should include:
Resistance thermometers, also called resistance temperature detectors
(RTDs), are sensors used to measure temperature by correlating the
resistance of the RTD element with temperature. Most RTD elements
consist of a length of fine coiled wire wrapped around a ceramic or glass
core. The element is usually quite fragile, so it is often placed inside a
sheathed probe to protect it. The RTD element is made from a pure
material, typically platinum, nickel or copper. The material has a
predictable change in resistance as the temperature changes and it is this
predictable change that is used to determine temperature.
The advantages of platinum resistance thermometers include:
High accuracy
Low drift
49
50
Question 2
Describe the principle of operation for the following sensors. Include in
your answers diagrams which identify the important components. (20)
Thermocouple
They are capable of dealing with most kinds of acids and bases,
as well as water and water-based solutions, due to lining
materials that are both insulators and have corrosion
resistance.
They can measure both very low flows and very high volume
flow rates, with a minimum diameter of roughly 0.125 inches
and a maximum volume of up to 10 cubic feet.
The number of candidates sitting the IBDs entry level brewing and
packaging examination, the Fundamentals of Brewing and Packaging of
Beer, was 106 for the period November 2014 to May 2015. The pass rate
of 82% compares just less favourably to the pass rate of 83% from the
same period last time. 37 credit passes and 11 demonstrates the
commitment of the candidates to studying the Learning Material.
Fail
Pass
Credit
Distinction
Total
FBPB CF
16
35
37
11
99
FBPB CASK
FBPB Total
19
38
38
11
106
Fail
Pass
Credit
Distinction
Total
GCP CAN
25
16
49
GCP KEG
17
GCP NRB
32
19
10
63
GCP RB
47
26
31
15
119
GCP All
10
21
119
79
54
17
269
GCP Total
Fundamentals of Distilling
FD Nov 2014- May 2015
A total of 172 candidates sat the General Certificate in Distilling across all
three formats in the period November 2014 to May 2015. The pass rate of
51% was slightly lower than the 54% from the equivalent period 2013-14.
GCD Nov 2014- May 2015
FD
Fail
Pass
Credit
Distinction
Total
19
18
10
50
Fail
Pass
Credit
Distinction
Total
70
65
15
150
GCD Grape
GCD Molasses
15
22
GCD Total
85
72
15
172
GCD Cereal
The Learning Material from both the FBPB and the FD qualifications can be
purchased in book form from the IBDs bookshop at
http://www.lulu.com/spotlight/IBD
560 candidates sat the General Certificate in Brewing across all formats in
the period November 2014 to May 2015, up from 493 candidates for the
equivalent period 2013-14. The pass rate of 56% was also up on 55% last
time.
GCB Mainstream
Fail
Pass
Credit
Distinction
Total
188
149
44
389
GCB Craft
58
91
20
171
GCB Total
246
240
64
10
560
GCP(S)
Fail
Pass
Credit
Distinction
Total
13
13
32
GCM
Fail
Pass
Credit
Distinction
Total
18
26
50
51
Diploma of Distilling
Crystal
Fraley
International
Elaine
Cassidy
UK Scottish
Stephen
Frazier
International
Rebecca
Eccles
UK Scottish
Keith
Garson
UK Scottish
Pauric
Ennis
Irish
Fiona
Gogo
Africa
Aidan
Finnegan
Irish
Aaron
Golston
International
Nickolas
Franchino
UK Southern
Adam
Goodall
UK Midland
Calum
Fraser
UK Scottish
Jocelyn
Havel
International
Jennifer
Graham
UK Scottish
Michael
Heinrich
International
John
McGhee Doyle
UK Scottish
Matthew
Hill
Africa
Sam
Slaney
Asia Pacific
Jennifer
House
International
Diane
Stuart
UK Scottish
Rodney
Hughes
International
Roselyn
Thomson
UK Scottish
Sarah
Hughes
UK Southern
Alan
Wardlaw
UK Scottish
Paul
Johns
Asia Pacific
Silas
Kaale
International
Paul
Kaposela
Africa
Zikhona
Kondze
Africa
Jason
Lappe
Asia Pacific
Rory
Main
Asia Pacific
Guylain
Mantezolo
Africa
Nadeau
Aaron
Gordon
Marc-Andre
McClure
McKenzie
International
UK Southern
UK Southern
Herman
Moloto
Africa
Agnieszka
Morgan
UK Midland
Mpelegeng
Kyle
Dominic
Moshidi
Moskovitz
Mutiso
Africa
Africa
Africa
Diploma of Packaging
Chee Hoong
Chim
Asia Pacific
Ikechukwu
Ekeleme
Africa
Piotr
Janas
UK Scottish
Tichafara
Jaya
Africa
Peter
Mushonga
Africa
Joseph
Mwaikasu
Africa
Ashley
Ndaba
Africa
Emmanuel
Onabanjo
Africa
Mthulisi
Nyoni
Africa
Patrick
Ongom
Africa
Minh
Peart-Tang
Asia Pacific
Sreenath
S.R.
Asia Pacific
Zibusiso
Siziba
Africa
Ronald
Timbigamba
Africa
Nicolas
Muzzin
International
Tapiwa
Mwazha
Africa
Robert
Obree
Africa
Nicholas
O'Donnell
Asia Pacific
Matthew
Ojo
Irish
Miles
Chesterman
UK Southern
Gabriel
Olatoye
Africa
Lisa Marie
Marlow
Irish
Rabinarayan
Pradhan
Asia Pacific
Wade Paul
McCann
Africa
Chen Liang
Qian
Asia Pacific
Patrick
McGinty
UK Midland
Andre
International
Richard
Moxom
Irish
Winston
Reddy
Africa
Luis
Ortega
Irish
Aleksandr
Sanin
International
Genevieve
Upton
UK Midland
Diana
Santana
International
Chris
Willcock
Asia Pacific
Anil Kumar
Sharma
Asia Pacific
Tshifhiwa
Sidogi
Africa
Brett
Sinclair
Asia Pacific
Darren
Tan
Asia Pacific
Samuel
Tourle
Asia Pacific
Bruce
Turner
UK Southern
Michael
Wootton
UK Midland
Wenyan
Zhang
International
52
Master Brewer
53