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Cost of retained earnings (ks) is the return stockholders require on the company’s
common stock.
There are three methods one can use to derive the cost of retained earnings:
a) Capital-asset-pricing-model (CAPM) approach
b) Bond-yield-plus-premium approach
c) Discounted cash flow approach
a) CAPM Approach
To calculate the cost of capital using the CAPM approach, you must first estimate
the risk-free rate (rf), which is typically the U.S. Treasury bond rate or the 30-day
Treasury-bill rate as well as the expected rate of return on the market (rm).
The next step is to estimate the company’s beta (b i), which is an estimate of the
stock’s risk. Inputting these assumptions into the CAPM equation, you can then
calculate the cost of retained earnings.
b) Bond-Yield-Plus-Premium Approach
This is a simple, ad hoc approach to estimating the cost of retained earnings.
Simply take the interest rate of the firm’s long-term debt and add a risk premium
(typically three to five percentage points):
c) Discounted Cash Flow Approach: Also known as the “dividend yield plus
growth approach”. Using the dividend-growth model, you can rearrange the
terms as follows to determine ks.
ks = D1 + g;
P0
where:
(F+P)/2
Where kd is post tax cost of debenture capital,
I is the annual interest payment per unit of debenture,
T is the corporate tax rate,
F is the redemption price per debenture,
P is the net amount realized per debenture,
N is maturity period
13.5(0.52) + (1.8)/ 13.5*.48+2/7
6.51
(2+1.8)/2 1.9
=3.43
(b) 13.5(1-.52) + (2-2.2)/4 13.5*.48-.2/4
(2+2.2)/2 2.1
=6.43/.21=3.06
2. Volga is a large manufacturing company in the private sector. In 2007 the
company had a gross sale of Rs.980.2 crore. The other financial data for
the company are given below: (10 Marks)
Answer:
Now EBIT=Q(S-V)-F
So Q(S-V) =EBIT+F
= 43.17+118.23
=161.47
So DOL=161.47/43.17=3.74
The Modigliani-Miller theorem (of Franco Modigliani, Merton Miller) forms the
basis for modern thinking on capital structure. The basic theorem states that, in
the absence of taxes, bankruptcy costs, and asymmetric information, and in an
efficient market, the value of a firm is unaffected by how that firm is financed. It
does not matter if the firm's capital is raised by issuing stock or selling debt. It
does not matter what the firm's dividend policy is. Therefore, the Modigliani-Miller
theorem is also often called the capital structure irrelevance
Principle
Modigliani was awarded the 1985 Nobel Prize in Economics for this and other
contributions. Miller was awarded the 1990 Nobel Prize in Economics, along with
Harry Markowitz and William Sharpe, for their "work in the theory of financial
economics," with Miller specifically cited for "fundamental contributions to the
theory of corporate finance."
Historical background
Miller and Modigliani derived the theorem and wrote their path breaking article
when they were both professors at the Graduate School of Industrial
Administration (GSIA) of Carnegie Mellon University. In contrast to most other
business schools, GSIA put an emphasis on an academic approach to business
questions. The story goes that Miller and Modigliani were set to teach corporate
finance for business students despite the fact that they had no prior experience in
corpora the finance. When they read the material that existed they found it
inconsistent so they sat down together to try to figure it out. The result of this was
the article in the American Economic Review and what has later been known as
the MM theorem.
Propositions
The theorem was originally proved under the assumption of no taxes. It is made
up of two propositions which can also b e extended to a situation with taxes.
Consider two firms which are identical except for their financial structures. The
first (Firm U) is unlevered: that is, it is financed by equity only. The other (Firm
L) is levered: it is financed partly by equity, and partly by debt. The Modigliani-
Miller theorem states that the value of the two firms is the same.
Without taxes
Proposition I: where VU is the value of an unlevered firm = price of buying a firm
composed only of equity, and VL is the value of a levered firm = price of buying a
firm that is composed of some mix of debt and equity.
To see why this should be true, suppose an investor is considering buying one of
the two firms U or L. Instead of purchasing the shares of the levered firm L, he
could purchase the shares of firm U and borrow the same amount of money B
that firm L does. The eventual returns to either of these i investments would be
the same. Therefore the price of L must be the same as the price of U minus the
money borrowed B, which is the value of L's debt. This discussion also clarifies
the role of some of the theorem's assumptions. We have implicitly assumed that
the investor's cost of borrowing money is the same as that of the firm, which
need not be true in the presence of asymmetric information or in the absence of
efficient markets.
Q4. How to estimate cash flows? What are the components of incremental
cash flows?
Cash flow estimation is a must for assessing the investment decisions of any
kind. To evaluate these investment decisions there are some principles of cash
flow estimation. In any kind of project, planning the outputs properly is an
important task. At the same time, the profits from the project should also be very
clear to arrange finances in a proper way. These forecasting are some of the
most difficult steps involved in the capital budgeting. These are very important in
the major projects because any kind of fault in the calculations would result in
huge problems. The project cash flows consider almost every kind of inflows of
cash. The capital budgeting is done through the coordination of a wide range of
professionals who are going to be involved in the project. The engineering
departments are responsible for the forecasting of the capital outlays. On the
other hand, there are the people from the production team who are responsible
for calculating the operational cost. The marketing team is also involved in the
process and they are responsible for forecasting the revenue.
Next comes the financial manager who is responsible to collect all the data from
the related departments. On the other hand, the finance manager has the
responsibility of using the set of norms for better estimation. One of these norms
uses the principles of cash flow estimation for the process.
There are a number of principles of cash flow estimation. These are the
consistency principle, separation principle, post-tax principle and incremental
principle. The separation principle holds that the project cash flows can be
divided in two types named as financing side and investment side. On the other
hand, there is the consistency principle. According to this principle, some kind
consistency is necessary to be maintained between the flow of cash in a project
and the rates of discount that are applicable on the cash flows. At the same time,
there is the post-tax principle that holds that the forecast of cash flows for any
project should be done through the after-tax method.
Incremental Principle
Incidental Effects: Any kind of project taken by a company remains related to the
other activities of the firm. Because of this, the particular project influences all the
other activities carried out, either negatively or positively. It can increase the
profits for the firm or it may cause losses. These incidental effects must be
considered.
Sunk Costs: These costs should not be considered. Sunk costs represent an
expenditure done by the firm in the past. These expenditures are not related with
any particular project. These costs denote all those expenditures that are done
for the preliminary work related to the project, unrecoverable in any case.
Overhead Cost: All the costs that are not related directly with a service but have
indirect influences are considered as overhead charges. There are the legal and
administrative expenses, rentals and many more. Whenever a company takes a
new project, these costs are assigned.
Working Capital: Proper estimation is essential and should be considered at the
time when the budget for the project's profit potential is prepared.
5. What are the steps involved in capital rationing?
Answer: Generally, firms fix maximum amount that can be invested in capital
projects, during a given period of time, say a year. The firm then attempts to
select a combination of investment proposals, that will be within the specific limits
providing maximum profitability, and rank them in descending order according to
their rate of return, such a situation is of capital rationing.
A firm should accept all investment project with positive NPV, with an objective to
maximize the wealth of shareholders. However, there may be resource
constraints due to which a firm may have to select from among various projects.
Thus there may arise a situation of capital rationing where there may be internal
or external constraints on procurement of necessary funds to invest in all
investment proposals with positive NPVs.
There are various ways of resorting to capital rationing. For instance, a firm may
effect capital rationing through budgets. It may also put up a ceiling when it has
been financing investment proposals only by way of retained earnings (ploughing
back of profits). Since the amount of capital expenditure in that situation cannot
exceed the amount of retained earnings, it is said to be an example of capital
rationing.
(i) To identify the projects which can be accepted by using the technique of
evaluation discussed above.
In other words:
Example:
Cash inflows
PV cash flow for Project A with PV factor at 15% for 3 years is 1, 16,320/-
So if the firm has sufficient funds & no capital rationing restriction, then all the
projects can be accepted for the + NPV
On the other hand on the basis of profitability index, project B & C can be
executed than project A.
The objective is to maximize the NPV per rupee of capital & projects should be
ranked on the basis of the profitability index. Funds should be allocated on the
basis ranks assigned by profitability index.
6. Equipment A has a cost of Rs.75,000 and net cash flow of Rs.20000 per
year for six years. A substitute equipment B would cost Rs.50,000 and
generate net cash flow of Rs.14,000 per year for six years. The required rate
of return of both equipments is 11 per cent. Calculate the IRR and NPV for
the equipments. Which equipment should be accepted and why?
Answer:
=3.75
From the PVIFA table for 6 years annuity factor vary near 3.75 is 16%
=16.34%
=3.57
From the PVIFA table for 6 years annuity factor vary near 3.75 is 18%
=18.2%
Now NPV of equipment A = PV of net cash flow – initial cost
=9610/-
=9227/-