Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
Cardiac catheterisation data are shown from a 26-year-old man who was noted
to have finger clubbing.
Oxygen
saturation (%)
Anatomical site
70
66
Right atrium
69
Right ventricle
68
120/15
Pulmonary artery
68
120/95
Left ventricle
88
110/5
Aorta
89
120/70
Oxygen
saturation (%)
58
52
56
10
Right ventricle
55
105/9
Pulmonary artery
16
Pulmonary capillary
Wedge pressure
Left atrium
97
Left ventricle
84
108/10
Aorta
74
110/80
What is the most likely explanation for the step-down in oxygen saturation between
the left ventricle and aorta?
Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
Over-riding aorta
Patent ductus arteriosus
Transposition of the great vessels
Ventricular septal defect
ANS: B
The patient has Fallot's tetralogy.
Fallot's tetralogy consists of:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following agents is most likely the cause of this appearance?
Metoprolol
Furosemide
Isosorbide mononitrate
Lisinopril
Amiodarone
ANS: D
The slide shows gynaecomastia. Drugs that induce gynaecomastia include:
inhibitors of testosterone synthesis (ketoconazole, metronidazole, cimetidine,
etomidate, cisplatin), oestrogens (digitalis, oral contraceptive pill); other drugs in
which the mechanism is not known (isoniazid, diazepam, omeprazole, calciumchannel blockers, ACE inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, busulphan, marijuanha,
heroin, spironolactone).
4. 18. A 54-year-old man was admitted to hospital with acute chest pain. His
electrocardiogram showed inferior ST segment elevation. He was thrombolysed
with t-PA and did not have any pain following thrombolysis. On day 5 after his
admission he became acutely unwell. He complained of sudden onset of severe
central chest pain and dyspnoea. On examination he looked unwell; was pale and
sweating.
Data obtained from urgent cardiac catheterisation are shown below:
Oxygen saturation
(%)
Anatomical site
Right atrium
(mean)
Right ventricle
50/12
Left ventricle
90/12
97
100/50
Femoral artery
Anatomical site
75
71
74
Right ventricle
73
60/7
Pulmonary artery
73
55/44
26
Pulmonary capillary
wedge pressure
Left ventricle
97
110/6
Aorta
98
120/80
Gradient (mmHg)
Mild
1.6 2.0
<5
Moderate
1.0 1.5
5 - 10
Severe
<1.0
>10
6. 28. A 17-year-old woman consulted her General Practitioner because she had
become slightly breathless on exertion over the preceding six months. Examination
was unremarkable apart from a soft systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. An
echocardiogram was requested and she was subsequently referred for a cardiology
opinion. The data obtained from cardiac catheterisation are shown below.
Anatomical site
Oxygen
saturation (%)
Pressure (mmHg)End
systolic/End diastolic
74
70
72
72
80
Right ventricle
79
44/12
Pulmonary artery
81
42/15
Left ventricle
96
125/9
Aorta
97
120/70
Pulmonary capillary
wedge pressure
Oxygen
saturation (%)
74
70
72
7 (mean)
71
7 (mean)
82
7 (mean)
Right ventricle
79
44/12
Pulmonary artery
81
42/15
Left ventricle
96
125/9
Aorta
97
120/70
Pulmonary capillary
wedge pressure
mitral regurgitation. Right ventricular pressures are high; this is more likely to
occur with primum ASDs.
In ostium primum ASDs, the AV node is displaced posteriorly and inferiorly and
atrial and/or AV nodal conduction is often delayed. There is left axis deviation with
Q waves in leads I and aVL. Delayed conduction through the atria or through the AV
node may lead to prolongation of the PR interval (ie first degree heart block). The
QRS pattern typically is either an rSr' or an rsR' resulting from dilation and
hypertrophy of the right ventricular outflow tract caused by volume overload of the
right heart.
Primum ASD LAD & RBBB
Secundum ASD RAD & RBBB
9.A 55-year-old woman is found to have ++ glycosuria and had a maternal history
of Type II diabetes mellitus. She is a smoker of 20 cigarettes per day. Examination
reveals no specific abnormalities apart from a BMI of 30. Blood pressure was
132/88 mmHg.
Investigations reveal:
Serum creatinine
Plasma glucose (fasting)
Total serum cholesterol
HDL cholesterol
80 mol/L (60-110)
11.3 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
5.5 mmol/L (<5.2)
1.4 mmol/L (>1.55)
10. 56. This CT was performed on a 63-year-old male who presents with acute
central chest pain 9 out of 10 in severity. He gave up smoking 10 years ago, has a
past history of hypertension for which he takes amlodipine and has no family
history of heart disease.
On examination, he is sweaty and pale, has a blood pressure of 162/80 mmHg, a
pulse of 108 per minute. Ausculatation of the heart reveals a soft early diastolic
murmur but nothing else.
Investigations show normal FBC, U+Es and a cholesterol of 6 mmol/l. ECG reveals
1mm ST segment elevation of the leads II and III.
have killed this patient! The most appropriate management strategy is to provide
adequate analgesia and urgently reduce the blood pressure with IV
antihypertensives - beta blockers first line and then Nitroprusside. Then contact the
cardiothoracic surgeons.
11. A 20-year-old woman complains of recurrent syncope. Each attack has occurred after
attending an aerobics class. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard which worsens with
the Valsalva manoeuvre and improves on squatting.
What could be the diagnosis?
Epilepsy
Atrial fibrillation
Aortic stenosis
Vasovagal attack
Dyspnoea is usually the most common complaint of patients with hypertrophic obstructive
cardiomyopathy. However, angina or syncope may also occur. A left ventricular apical
impulse, a prominent S4 gallop and a harsh systolic ejection murmur are typical findings
in these cases. Valsalva manoeuvre decreases venous return to the heart, which results in
a smaller ventricular size. This leads to an increase in the murmur. An echocardiogram is
the diagnostic procedure of choice. Most patients with pure or predominant aortic
stenosis have gradually increasing obstruction for years but do not become symptomatic
until their sixth to eighth decades.
12. A 54-year-old man is referred with increased swelling of his ankles and abdomen, and a degree of
shortness of breath on exertion. His jugular venous pressure is elevated with prominent x- and ydescents. Apex beat is normal. ECG shows atrial fibrillation with widespread non-specific ST-segment
abnormalities. Echo reveals preserved left ventricular systolic function with biatrial enlargement and
an estimated pulmonary artery systolic pressure of around 60 mmHg. Chest X-ray shows atrial
enlargement but no other abnormalities.
What is the most likely cardiac diagnosis?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Secundum ASD
Tricuspid regurgitation
Restrictive cardiomyopathy results from fibrosis or infiltration of the endo- or myocardium. The
result is failure of the ventricles to relax, with a subsequent increase in ventricular end-diastolic
pressures leading on to biatrial enlargement. Systolic function is normal. Underlying causes include
amyloidosis, storage disorders, sarcoidosis, haemochromatosis and endomyocardial fibrosis.
Symptoms are usually those of predominant right heart failure and atrial fibrillation is common.
The ECG may be normal but diffuse ST-segment and T-wave changes are commonly seen. Diuretics
are the mainstay of symptomatic treatment. It can be very difficult to differentiate restrictive
cardiomyopathy from constrictive pericarditis. In restriction the pulmonary artery systolic pressure
is usually elevated to > 45 mmHg, while it is lower in constriction. Right and left heart catheter
may aid differentiation.
13. A 30-year-old woman is routinely seen by her GP 24 weeks into her first pregnancy. She is well
without adverse symptoms. Her blood pressure is 150/96 mmHg. Her baseline blood pressure at booking
was 136/84 mmHg. No other abnormalities are found.
What drug therapy would you prescribe?
Bendrofluazide
Moxonidine
Labetalol
Losartan
Ramipril
C
Hypertension in pregnancy is defined as a blood pressure > 140/90 mmHg or a rise of 25 mmHg of
systolic and/or 15 mmHg of diastolic pressure above baseline. It is seen in around 10% of all
pregnancies. Gestational hypertension is more common than pre-eclampsia, which is associated
with maternal organ dysfunction. While the latter is treated by delivery, drug therapy is often
required to treat gestational hypertension. First-line agents, proven to be safe in pregnancy,
include labetalol and methyldopa. Second-line agents include nifedipine, hydralazine and prazosin.
Thiazides, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers are not recommended for use in
pregnancy due to the risk of adverse effects on the developing fetus.
14. What is the most likely lipid abnormality in a 48-year-old Asian man with good
glycaemic control?
Elevated high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
Elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
Elevated LDL/elevated triglycerides
15. A 36-year-old old woman presents with a cerebral infarct following treatment for a deep vein
thrombosis. Cardiovascular examination is entirely normal.
The most likely underlying cardiac abnormality is?
Partial anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
Ostium primum atrial septal defect
Ostium secundum
Common atrium
Patent foramen ovale
E
The incidence and importance of patent foramen ovale (PFO) remain controversial but up
to 25% of people have a PFO which may allow passage of a thrombus from the venous to
systemic circulation when the right heart pressures are increased characteristically with
Valsalva or following a pulmonary embolus. PFOs are not associated with clinical signs and
cannot normally be identified on transthoracic echo. Use of agitated saline contrast during
echo is helpful in identifying PFOs. Other types of ASDs are much less common than PFOs
and abnormal clinical signs are usually present. Partial anomalous pulmonary venous
drainage means that between one and three pulmonary veins open into the right atrium
rather than the left atrium. There is no increased risk of right-to-left shunting.