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Geotechnical (160 of 198 qs)

1. What type of down-hole soil sampler is preferred for obtaining a relatively


undisturbed sample of clay?
Push-tube (other choices were split spoon sampler, std penetration test, & field vane
shear)
2. A tube-shaped device with a drill bit on the end is used for advancing a hole into the
ground. The tube may either be hollow or solid and is usually manufactured in 5-foot
lengths or flights. What is the term for this piece of equipment?
Auger stem
3. A drilling contractor is having difficulty advancing a solid-stem auger in gravel &
cobble. What type of drilling equipment should have been used?
Percussion
4. What type of in situ tests are field results expressed in blows per foot?
Std penetration test
5. What piece of hand-operated equipment is used to measure in situ undrained shear
strength?
Relatively undisturbed samples (this q stinks)
6. In what soil classification method are coarse-grained soils categorized as gravel or
sand by whether 50% of the coarse fraction passes through a #4 sieve?
Unified Soil Classification System
7. In the AASHTO soil classification system, which of these group classifications
designates silt-clay materials?
A-4, A-5, A-6, & A-7
8. In the Unified Soil Classification System, if the percentage of a soil sample that passes
through a #200 sieve is between 5 12%, how is the soil classified?
In this situation, the soil is a borderline case. The atterberg limits must be plotted to
classify the soil further and a dual system is used.
9. A soil is to be tested to determine its Atterberg limits. First it must be pulverized in a
mortar and pestle by hand and then passed through a
No. 40 sieve.
10. The plasticity chart aids in the classification of fine-grained soils. Which 2
properties does it plot?
Plasticity index vs. liquid limit

11. A soil is classified using the AASHTO system. Its group index is greater than 20.
This suggests that the soil
Is probably not suitable for use as roadway subgrade.
The group index is a means of comparing soils within a group, not between groups. If its
group index is greater than 20, it is probably not going to be a good subgrade choice,
while a soil with a group index of less than 20 (especially zero), is a good subgrade
choice.
12. The Hazen uniformity coefficient, Cu, and the coefficient of curvature, Cz, are
calculated for a soil sample. This is in order to
Separate well-drained soils from poorly-graded soil characteristics
In USCS, soil can be classified as well-drained or poorly-drained only when these
supplementary requirements are met. Cu must be greater than 4 and Cz must be 1 and 3
for the well-graded criteria to be acceptable. Otherwise, if either coefficient fails, the soil
could be poorly graded but still subject to the requirements for the plasticity index.
13. What does the value D60 indicate?
The particle size diameter that corresponds to 60% passing
14. Both the USCS & the AASHTO soil classification methods separate silt-clay
materials from granular materials by the percentage of soil matter that passes through a
no. 200 sieve. What percentage is used in the AASHTO method?
Less than 35%
15. The record of soil type descriptions, graphical methodology and location information
for subsurface conditions is called
Boring log or test boring record
16. A set of data is presented in 6 in increments per sampling depth under a column
labeled N-value. In some cases, there are only two values presented and in some cases
only a single value presented. What type of data is being shown?
Standard penetration test results
17. A triangle pointing downward at a particular elevation typically represents
Location of the groundwater table (it is usually white at the time of drilling and black 24
hrs after drilling)
18. How is the thickness of a particular soil layer typically shown on a boring log?
A pattern representing the soil type is drawn from the top of the layer of interest to a
distance equal to the thickness of the base
19. A field exploration indicates the presence of a layer of dense sand and gravel beneath
a layer of clay. The SPT values will probably
Increase as depth increases (the SPT values in blows per foot should start low and
increase with depth; at the dense sand and gravel layer, the values should be very high)

20. The results of a field exploration are studied in order to determine the feasibility of
constructing a large mat foundation. In the subgrade immediately below the proposed
mat foundation is a layer of dry silty sand of high resistivity. Beneath that is a thick layer
of submerged, normally consolidated clay. What conditions govern the placement of the
foundation at this location?
Settlement (more info in answer)
21. A site in a large wetlands area is being considered for a bridge. The soil profile
indicates a very soft clay and fine sand high in organics to a depth of 60 foot. What type
of a foundation would be most appropriate for this site?
Deep foundation (more info in answer)
22. A construction project is frequently flooded by off-site stormwater drainage because
the location is near the bottom of a regionally depressed area. A retaining basin to divert
the stormwater is desired. What type of soil would make such a basin most feasible?
Poorly graded gravel of appreciable depth (help with infiltration is desirable)
23.During a field exploration, a hollow-stem auger is used to observe subsurface granular
soils and obtain samples. After removing the auger string, the driller measures the depth
of the borehole and determines that it has collapsed near the bottom to approximately 1/3
of the original depth. This suggests that
Constructing a belled drilled pier here will be difficult.
24. What is the primary method for determining the index properties of a soil?
Atterberg limits test
25. The portion of the soil mass that is water, calculated as the ratio of mass of water to
mass of solids and expressed as a percentage, is called the soils
Moisture content or water content
26. A soil is mixed with water, placed in a large Casagrande cup, and grooved down the
center with a standardized tool. Then, the cup is tapped on a hard rubber base until the
groove closes, imitating a miniature slope failure. The soil at the groove closure is
sampled for moisture content, and the number of taps is recorded. The results are plotted
on a logarithmic chart for later evaluation. The tests will be for the soils
Liquid limit (the liquid limit is the moisture content at which the rejoins at exactly 25
taps)
27. The plasticity index is defined as
The difference between the liquid limit and the plastic limit and represents the range of
water content where the soil is plastic.
28. What is the target diameter for a thread of soil being rolled as part of the plastic limit
test?

1/8 inch diameter


29. The natural water content of a soil is determined along with the plastic index and the
plastic limit. What index property can be determined by this information?
Liquidity index (more info in answer)
30. A phase diagram shows the relationship between mass and volume properties of soil.
What three physical aspects of soil are typically shown?
Air, water, and solids
31. The ratio of mass or weight to volume is called
Density or unit weight
32. A unit weight is given for a soil located beneath the water table. But neither the type
of unit weight (dry or moist)nor a value for the water content is given. In this case, its
safe to assume that the type of unit weight meant is
Saturated unit weight (more info in answer)
33. A percentage is given for the porosity of a soil. What phase relationship does this
value represent?
Ratio of volume of voids to total volume
34. Given the degree of saturation for a soil, what can be said about its voids?
The voids are filled with a known volume of water.
35. How much settlement a soil can undergo depends on how much the voids can shrink
or the soils itself can consolidate. However, the volume of solids is assumed not to
change. What phase relationship is used to quantify the initial volume of the voids in
relationship to the volume of the solids?
Void ratio
36. A granular soils relative density is its density in relation to the minimum and
maximum density values obtained in laboratory testing. What other property of the soil
is required to find the relative density?
Void ratio (more info in answer)
37. For a highway embankment, compacted soil must meet a specification such that the
density of the embankment fill will be higher than the borrow source.If the mass of the
solids remains the same as the during the phase analysis for both the borrow and the fill
soils, what other corresponding property must change?
Total volume
38. Darcys law is used to describe the flow of water through a permeable aquifer or soil.
What is meant by permeable here?
Continuously connected by voids or pores

39. The constant relationship for a particular soil between the velocity of fluid flow and
the hydraulic gradient is called the coefficient of permeability. What is the hydraulic
gradient?
The change in total head per change in length of soil
40. The cross-sectional area of flow through a permeable soil sample can be found by
multiplying together the total volume and the
porosity (by defn, porosity is percentage of pore space within a total volume of soil)
41. What laboratory test for permeability measures the change in head on the entrance
side of the soil sample over time?
Falling head test (other answers were: pressure head test, velocity head test, and augerhole method)
42. A percolation test is required for design of a septic pit disposal system. What type of
permeability test might be used in the field to find the coefficient of permeability?
Auger hole method
43. In the constant head permeability test, the level of head above the sample is kept
constant. What quantity is typically measured over time to keep the head at a constant
value?
The volume of water flowing from the sample during the test
44. A normal load is applied to a soil sample. The quantity of stress that is needed to
cut the sample in a perpendicular direction is called the
Shear stress
(the shear strength is the resistance of a specimen to failure when stress is applied)
45. A graphic representation of shear stress and the normal stress properties of a
representative element of material is called
Mohr circle of stress (could also be used for determination of failure planes and planes of
zero shear stress)
46. In a drained triaxial test, a specimen is confined under pressure and axially loaded
until failure. The failure conditions for the specimen are analyzed for shear strength.
What is the value of the minor principle stress?
The same as the confining pressure (in a drained triaxial test, the confining pressure is
usually the same as the minor principal stress when plotted as a Mohr circle. If the test is
unconfined, then the minor principal stress is zero.)
47. In an unconfined compressive strength test, what is the value of the shear strength for
the specimen at failure?
Half the value of the major principle stress
(more info in answer)

48. A square dwg of a footing is superimposed over a square grid and the number of
squares covered by the dwg is counted. This is called the?
Using a Newmark chart
49. A Newmark chart is a graphical solution to the pressure distribution methodology
called
Boussinesq theory
50. In what method does pressure from an applied area dissipate in a zone of influence
corresponding to a 2:1 influence cone?
The 60deg method
51. The Rankine earth pressure theory assumes the friction between soil and retaining
wall is negligible. What other physical aspect of the wall is assumed in the Rankine
theory?
The backfill side of the wall is vertical
52. What is the term for earth pressure that occurs when a retaining wall moves away
from the backfill soil?
Active earth pressure
53. The backfill face of a retaining wall is designed to be very rough and the designer
wants to consider the roughness in evaluating the earth pressure conditions. What theory
must be used?
Coulomb earth pressure theory
54. In the Coulomb earth pressure theory, what property is represented by the angle phi?
The coefficient of external friction. Its value depends on the soil-structure contact
properties of the material. Roughness of texture can result in higher or larger angles of
external friction.
55. When passive earth pressure conditions exist in a backfill, the wall is said to move
toward the soil. In passive conditions, the horizontal pressure of the soil
Increases if the wall moves toward the backfill. This is because the soil is compressed
and the top of the backfill could budge as a result.
56. The lateral earth pressure distribution behind a retaining wall is typically assumed to
be
Triangular.
57. A saturated soil has undergone a total stress increase. The water pressure that
develops in the voids in known as
Pore pressure. Its also known as neutral stress since fluids are incompressible.
Therefore, pore pressure is a mechanical pressure that can dissipate slowly by flow of
fluids from the pores.

58. During a drained triaxial strength test, what pressure is allowed to dissipate with
time?
Pore pressure. If the test is run while the specimen is allowed to drain, the pore pressure
within the voids is permitted to dissipate, because the voids are not blocked and water is
allowed to permeate out of the sample.
59. During pore pressure dissipation, water is squeezed from the soil voids. This causes
the volume of the voids to
Decrease.
60. The grain-to-grain contact within the soil matrix is called
Effective stress. It can be determined indirectly by measuring the pore pressure.
61. If the void ratio of a soil decreases during consolidation, an increase in shear strength
typically occurs. What other soil property typically increases?
Effective stress.
62. The total stress of a soil is the sum of
Effective stress and pore pressure. If the soil is not submerged, then the effective stress
and total stress are equal.
63. Before there could be an effective stress development in a soil apart from the total
stress, the soil must be
Submerged. (The soil must be submerged under a positive head of pressure before
effective stress can develop apart of total stress. However, the submerged conditions can
be steady-state seepage or hydrostatic.)
64. A submerged clay layer is located within 15 ft of the ground surface. A fill of large
extent is placed on the ground surface. It can be assumed the total stress beneath the fill
will increase uniformly through the entire thickness of the clay layer. The most efficient
way to calculate the average effective stress for the clay layer is to calculate the
difference between the new total stress and pore pressure at
The midpoint of the clay layer.
65. The general process in which the void spaces of a saturated soil matrix are reduced in
volume, with the dissipation of excess pore pressure over time is called
Consolidation.
66. The rate and magnitude of what kind of consolidation is of greatest concern to
engineers planning construction at a site?
Primary consolidation.
67. For which of the following soil profiles will consolidation occur at the fastest rate?
A clay layer between two poorly graded gravel layers
Other choices were:
A clay layer between two well-graded sand layers

A clay layer below a permeable clay layer and underlain by a rock mass
A clay layer between two rock masses
68. The magnitude of consolidation depends on a change in
Void ratio.
69. What increased stress condition typically accompanies a reduction in void ratio?
Effective stress. As the void ratio decreases, the effective stress increases as excess pre
pressure dissipates from the soil voids. Although individual pre pressure temporarily
increases, the hydrostatic pressure remains the same unless the water table elevation is
also changed.
70. A consolidation test curve for clay plots
Void ratio against the logarithm of effective stress. Its also known as an e log P plot; the
void ratio is placed on the y-axis and effective stress is placed on the x-axis of a semilog
graph.
71. A compaction test is performed using a 10lbf hammer falling a distance of 18 inches.
What kind of proctor test is being performed?
Modified Proctor test.
72. In a standard proctor test, how far does a 5.5 lbf hammer fall?
12 inches
73. As a proctor test is performed, what occurs in the soil?
The voids become saturated with water.
74. What is the value of the moisture content at the point where the zero air voids curve
meets the dry density axis of a Proctor curve?
The theoretical value is zero. At that point, the solids density is the same as the dry
density so the volume of the voids is essentially zero.
75. In a slope stability analysis for saturated clay, (phi = 0 degrees), a Taylor slope
stability chart is used. If the shear strength is consistent with depth, what type of slope
failure typically occurs if no firm base is present?
Base circle.
Other choices were: toe circle, Mohr circle, and slope circle
76. A slope stability analysis is to be performed on saturated clay (phi = 0 degrees) using
a Taylor slope stability chart. What value should be used for total unit weight?
Saturated unit weight. The effective unit weight only applies if the clay is also
submerged.
77. A flow net is constructed of
Streamlines and equipotential lines. Equipotential lines represent levels of constant
hydraulic head and streamlines represent paths of actual seepage flow.

78. The lines in a flow net intersect to form a pattern of


Curvilinear squares.
79. What engineering quantity is calculated using the Terzaghi-Meyerhof equation?
Bearing capacity.
80. Bearing capacity values are calculated using bearing capacity factors. What must
be known in order to determine these factors?
Angle of internal friction.
81. For what type of footing can the Terzaghi-Meyerhof bearing-capacity equation be
applied without modifying factors?
Continuous.
82. In order to calculate the bearing capacities of footings that are not continuous, the
Terzaghi-Meyerhof equation must be modified by
Shape factors.
83. Other than Terzaghi and Meyerhof, what researcher built a separate set of factors for
N v?
Vesic
84. Net bearing capacity can be calculated by correcting the ultimate bearing capacity
with respect to
Overburden pressure.
85. A surface surcharge is to be considered in determining ultimate bearing capacity.
The bearing capacity factor used in the same term is
Nq.
86. Bearing capacity on rock can be calculated from two values: one, a factor of safety,
and the other, the result of a test for
Unconfined compressive strength.
87. What value separates the allowable bearing capacity from the net bearing capacity?
Factor of safety
88. The undrained shear strength of clay, Su, is commonly used in determining allowable
bearing capacity. Su is equivalent to the cohesion and is typically determined by taking
one-half of the
Unconfined compressive strength.
89. To determine the allowable bearing capacity of sand, the angle of internal friction
can be correlated with the result of
A standard penetration test.

90. When using n-values to determine the allowable bearing capacity of sand, the
overburden pressure is assumed to be
1 ton/ft^2
91. When calculating the allowable bearing capacity of clay, the internal angle of friction
is typically considered to be zero. What bearing capacity factor is also considered to be
zero?
Nv.
92. If the internal angle of friction and surface surcharge are both considered to be
negligible, then net bearing capacity can be calculated just from the termc*Nc. (the
product of cohesion & bearing capacity factor)
93. If the water table is at the base of a footing on sand, which term in the TerzaghiMeyerhof general bearing capacity equation should be adjusted for buoyancy?
The term containing Nv. The term containing Nc is zero for sand and the term containing
Nq is for the embedment soils and surcharge pressure.
94. If the structural load on a footing is given along with the dimensions of the footing,
what value can be determined?
Actual bearing pressure.
Ultimate bearing capacity is obtained from a predictive calculation based on soil
properties, while the net and allowable bearing capacities are subsequently determined
from corrections or factors of safety.
95. The actual factor of safety incorporated into a footings design can be determined by
comparing
The actual bearing pressure and the allowable bearing capacity.
96. The size of a footing is to be designed based on a given structural load, engineering
parameters for the soil and footing, embedment depth, and an assumed factor of safety.
What value is left unknown and typically determined by simultaneous solution of two
calculations?
Footing dimensions
97. The structural load placed on raft foundation is equivalent to the weight of soil that
was excavated for the construction of the raft. Therefore, this foundation is known to
be
Fully compensated. (actual soil contact pressure due to structural loading is equivalent to
the amount of overburden pressure removed)
98. In most cases, the design of a raft foundation in sand is governed not by allowable
bearing capacity but by
Settlement. (shear strength is usually adequate)

99. In determining the compression index, two test results are typically plotted.
Void ratio and effective stress (on a consolidation curve)
100. The two quantities associated with settlement that are of primary concern to
designers are
Magnitude and rate
101. What kind of clay is the compression index associated with?
Normally consolidated (virgin compressed portion of the curve)
102. Overconsolidated clay conditions are represented by the test results plotted in the
recompression zone of a consolidation curve. What other consolidation test parameters
can show overconsolidation conditions?
Rebound due to removal of pressure
103. How is the difference between two effective stress values calculated on a
consolidation curve?
The lower value is divided by the greater value and the log (base-10) is taken.
104. To find how long a certain part of the consolidation process will take, its first
necessary to know
The degree of consolidation (is the fraction of total consolidation that corresponds to the
amount of pore pressure dissipation that has already occurred)
105. The real time needed for a particular fraction of the total consolidation is required.
What value is needed that corresponds with that particular fraction of the total
consolidation?
Time factor
106. What are the units of the coefficient of consolidation?
Area over time
107. What is the name of the annual percentage rate that represents an increase in traffic
quantity during the design period for a roadway?
Growth factor
108. The structural number is the sum of the AASHTO layer-thickness equations for
each layer in a pavement component system. The AASHTO layer-thickness equation for
each layer is the product for that layers
Thickness, layer coefficient, and drainage coefficient
109. What method is acceptable for determining the effective roadbed soil resilient
modulus?
Correlation with the Califonia bearing ratio (CBR) or Hveems soil resistance value (Rvalue)

110. A site investigation is used to determine the type of foundation required to support a
proposed structure. What type of soil sample or test is typically obtained to determine in
situ moisture content and density?
Relatively undisturbed samples
111. What other graphical methods exist along with the Newmark chart for evaluating
the pressure distribution at depth by means of Boussinesq theory?
Stress contour charts
112. Rock-filled wire cages or baskets placed along waterways or spillways are also
known as
Gabions
113. A stem is the portion of a retaining wall that extends upward from the base. The
stem is sometimes a constant thickness or may be tapered to increase strength. What is
another name for a tapered retaining wall?
Batter (other choices were: gabion, buttressing, angle)
114. What is constructed on the underside of a retaining wall base to resist sliding and
increase passive pressure resistance?
Key (typically rectangular and may be cast monolithically with the base)
115. What is the name of the part of the retaining wall located at the underside edge of
the base on the excavation side?
Toe
116. What is the name of the part of the retaining wall located at the underside edge of
the base on the backfill side?
Heel
117. When using the dynamic pile-driving equation developed by Engineering News
Record for a double-acting hammer, what term replaces the weight and fall-distance
values?
Energy transferred to the pile per blow
118. A vertical pile load test is commonly conducted using two adjacent piles as anchors
for the required downward reactions, with a cross-beam structure that is adequate to resist
deflection during the loading. What basic measurement is also recorded in addition to the
load application?
Vertical pile displacement
119. Choosing the correct dynamic pile-driving equation developed by Engineering
News Record depends on several parameters including the hammer type, fall distance,
weight, average penetration distance per blow, and whether the application is single or
double acting. If a single-acting steam hammer is used, what additional knowledge is
required?

Driven weight (including pile weight) as compared to the striking weight of the hammer
120. To design the allowable tensile force for a reinforcing strip based on the active
pressure conditions on the wall, what property of the strip should first be estimated?
Vertical and horizontal strip spacing
121. Below the point of a pile group at which the settlement is calculated, the pressure
distribution dissipates at what vertical to horizontal rate?
Settlement is determined by assuming a pressure distribution of a vertical to horizontal
rate of 2:1 or at an angle of 60 degrees from the horizontal.
122. Beyond what region or zone of the backfill soils must a reinforcing strip extend to
gain proper pull-out resistance?
Active pressure zone or Rankine wedge
123. Above what fraction of a pile groups length is settlement considered to be
negligible?
Settlement is considered negligible for a pile group above the depth of 2/3L where the
support block ends.
124. What state of stress should exist for a properly functioning reinforcing strip or rod?
Tension
125. A retaining wall that uses metal strips extending into the backfill to help provide
stabilization against overturning and sliding is
A mechanically reinforced retaining wall can use metal strips, rods, geotextiles, sheets,
thin cables, or wire grids to obtain support for resistance to active pressure conditions
present from the backfill solids.
126. Gravity walls typically have very high self-weight to resist overturning. What other
failure mode are they also required to resist?
Sliding (other choices were: twisting, buckling, and creep)
127. When piles are constructed in permafrost locations, an upward force can occur
during the freezing of the adjoining soils. This is called
Adfeeze forcecase in which the surrounding soil creates an upward force on the pile as
it freezes (other choices were: seasonal variation, ice heave, and frost jacking)
128. A pile is constructed in a permafrost location. What condition can result when
frozen ground moves upward?
Frost jackingfrozen soils can heave upward against the pile, dragging it upwards as
well.
129. A wall that primarily uses self-weight to resist overturning is a
Gravity wall

130. When piles are installed through a layer of soil that is undergoing consolidation, the
resulting condition is called
Downdrag or negative skin friction. This condition is caused by the settlement of the
surrounding soil in relation to the pile itself.
131. The distance from the location of the vertical force component to the center of the
wall base is known as the eccentricity. If the eccentricity is less than one-sixth of the
base wall width, or the location of the vertical force component is within the middle third
of the base width, what stress condition exists at the base of the footing?
Partial compression
132. Individual piles typically experience the greatest amount of settling when
constructed in
Piles that are constructed in clay can experience significant settlement and such
movement or soil mobilization develops side friction capacity. (other options were sand,
silt, and rock)
133. During analysis for resistance to overturning moment, the total moment at the pivot
point is divided by the sum of the wall and soil self-weights, as well as a vertical active
resultant (if any). The value obtained in this calculation is a horizontal distance from the
pivot point to the resultant vertical force. What is this distance?
The location of the vertical force component
134. Piles typically experience a small but generally insignificant of settlement when
constructed in
Sand. Piles in rock experience no settlement at all. Piles in silt and clay may settle
significantly.
135. What location on a cantilever wall is most commonly used as a pivot point in
summing moments?
Toe
136. A common material used to construct a permanent cantilever wall is steelreinforced cast-in-place concrete. What internal structural loading condition must the
stem-to-base connection be able to support?
Moment (other options were deflection, creep, and bearing)
137. A type of wall that resists overturning through soil weight and base pressure is
called a
Designed to resist overturning, a cantilever wall relies on soil weight over the heel to
maintain its position.
138. If water is permitted to collect behind a retaining wall in the backfill soils, the
likelihood of overturning moment can increase due to the increase in
The development of hydrostatic pressure increases the magnitude of the active resultant
above that of dry backfill, causing an increased tendency for overturning. A retaining

wall intending to resist overturning due to hydrostatic pressure usually has to be designed
with additional anchors or tiebacks.
139. In addition to overturning moment resistance, what other potential failure condition
must be resisted by the base of the retaining wall?
The base of a retaining wall can also slide or translate from heel to toe, resulting from
active forces acting on the wall from the backfill soils.
140. A wall that uses tension ribs or members extending from the heel to the stem to
resist flexure and overturning is called a
Counterfort walls use tension members placed from the heel to the stem to provide
overturning and flexure resistance.
141. A wall that uses compression ribs or members extending from the toe to the stem is
called a
Buttresses are placed from the toe to the stem on a buttress wall to provide overturning
resistance.
142. A particular load-transfer structure, commonly constructed of concrete, is used at
the top of a group of piles. This structure is a
Pile capPile groups are commonly connected by a pile cap so that the piles provide a
uniform structural support.
143. A p-y curve is generated for a pile during a testing program and follow-up
evaluation for a particular depth. What property is plotted against p?
A p-y curve is developed by plotting the value of p versus lateral deflection, y, for a
certain depth.
144. What pile property is multiplied by the modulus of subgrade reaction to obtain the
pressure (per unit length of the pile) at a particular depth?
The pressure, p, is obtained by multiplying the modulus of subgrade reaction, k, by the
pile width.
145. A deep foundation can consist of long slender elements that extend relatively far
beneath the ground surface. These foundation elements are known as
Piles
146. Piles that resist wind, water, or slope soils from a general horizontal direction are
known as
Lateral resistant piles
147. Piles that are installed to provide pull-out capacity for resistance to overturning
moments are called
Anchor piles. The design of tension piles is based on the vertical capacity less the tip
capacity. The amount of pullout resistance includes the weight of the pile and the skin
friction.

148. Obtaining the friction capacity of a pile from the fraction of the average vertical
effective stress for a layer of soil is known as the
Beta methodestablishes the friction capacity of a pile by correlating the average
vertical effective stress for a layer of soil with the length of pile that passes through that
layer.
149. Which perimeter is the friction capacity of an H-pile based on?
The average of the total and block perimeter lengthsblock perimeter length is found by
assuming that the soil fills the area between the flanges and the soils in that area moves
with the pile.
150. The effective length of a pile does not include
The effective pile length is an estimate based on the overall pile length less the depth of
season variation influence.
151. Calculating the ratio of the skin friction factor to the undrained shear strength is
used in the
The adhesion factor, alpha, is used to correlate values of undrained shear strength to skin
friction. The alpha method allows calculation of the skin friction factor from the
undrained shear strength (cohesion) for a particular soil.
152. One factor used in determining the friction capacity of a pile that includes both
cohesive and adhesive components is the
Skin or side friction factorit can be determined through evaluation of the undrained
shear strength of the soil, external friction angle of the pile material and associated soilstructure interaction.
153. In cohesionless soils, the depth at which the point bearing of a pile reaches a
constant value is called a
Critical depthfor loose sands is taken as an installation depth of ten times the diameter
of the pile. For dense sands, the critical depth is taken as 20X the diameter of the pile.
154. The allowable vertical capacity of an individual pile is obtained from the static
ultimate capacity by application of a factor of safety. What other controlling factor can
have an effect on the available vertical capacity of a pile?
Settlement. (other choices were lateral deflection, bending moment, and cap thickness)
155. In the majority of cases, design of a raft foundation in sand is not governed by
allowable bearing capacity. What engineering consideration usually governs?
By definition, a raft foundation should be the same size as the building itself. Therefore,
the size is usually known to be quite large and results in good protection from bearing
capacity. Settlement is the typical governing factor as shear strength is usually adequate.
(other choices were: size, concrete unit weight, and shear strength of the sand)

156. Drilled piles or piers can derive some vertical capacity from side friction. But such
capacity is typically ignored when considering another kind of support. Which one?
Point bearing capacity.
Drilled piles or piers are usually installed to a depth where very dense or hard soils are
encountered. An underlying dense layer of soil can provide support at the pile tip,
thereby transferring vertical capacity. Depending on the soil stability at depth, and on
installation techniques, drilled piles or piers may be enlarged to maximize the support
provided by a dense soil existing at an end-bearing level.
157. A pile that obtains its main support capacity from shear resistance along the side is
known as a
Friction pile.
158. An engineering value commonly used to evaluate the relationship between soil
pressure and lateral deflection in piles is known as
Modulus of subgrade rxn.
(other choices were: Youngs modulus, modulus of elasticity, resilient modulus)
159. If the circumference of two piles as a group is larger than the total circumference of
the piles acting individually, which of these will be true?
The piles will act in an individual capacity. When the group circumference is larger than
the sum of the individual circumferences, there is more soil to mobilize in the group
condition. Therefore, the sum of the individual capacities will govern.
160. Lateral loads are to be resisted by a group of piles. What else can be done to resist
the lateral loads?
Use batter piles. Batter piles are commonly used in pile groups to provide increased
resistance to large laterally applied loads.
161. If the pile cap is structurally adequate to carry applied moments, the moment
capacity of a pile group is then limited by
The tension capacity of the piles because the quantity of rotation of the pile cap will be
limited due to pile resistance of the piles to pull out.
162. The ratio of the group capacity to the sum of the individual capacities of the pile
group is called the
Pile group capacity.
163. The condition in which a group of piles acts like a large pier or unit and mobilizes
the soil between individual piles is known as
Block or group action
164. To determine the amount of friction resistance needed by a reinforcing strip within
a particular contributory area, the distance that the strip extends beyond the Rankine
wedge must be known, as well as the
Length of the strip to determine the bond length for development of friction resistance.

165. Within the effective length of a conventional reinforcing strip, what portion cannot
contribute to the frictional resistance?
The end of a reinforcing strip cannot provide frictional resistance.
166. For a water pipeline, a trench must be constructed in which opposing excavation
walls are supported against each other using struts. This type of excavation is called
Braced excavations are commonly used for temporary trench cuts where struts or boxes
can be used to counter-support each wall.
167. The use of steel H-piles and sheets of vertically oriented timber spans wedged
between the H-piles is a common method for bracing a deep or large excavation. This is
called
Using soldier piles and pilings. The steel H-piles are considered soldier piles, timber
sheets are considered pilings.
168. Horizontal struts are placed on a constant vertical spacing during the construction of
a braced excavation in sand as the digging proceeds downward. If an analysis of the
pressure distribution is performed, what shape would the distribution assume in
comparison to a typical cantilever wall pressure distribution?
Rectangular or constant as each strut balances the active pressure consistently.
169. A pressure distribution commonly used for drained sand is known as the
Tchebotarioff pressure distribution. What is the characteristic shape of the pressure
distribution for this methodology?
Trapezoidal
170. For clayey soils, the quantity obtained when the product unit weight and height of
excavation is divided by the cohesion is known as the
Stability number.
171. If the stability number of clay is less than or equal to four, the clay is considered to
be of stiff consistency. What shape is the pressure distribution?
Trapezoidal
172. If the stability number of clay is greater than eight, simple braced excavations are
considered to be
The clay is considered too soft and unsafe for the use of simple braced cuffs.
173. An anchored bulkhead is typically supported by an embedded base with a tieback
near the top. Sheeting can be used to span the distance between the embedded piles. The
least commonly observed failure is typically
Failure of the sheeting (The highest failure occurrence is usually in the base heave of
soils followed by anchorage pull-out. Other options were soil heave of the base layer and
embedment at the base such as toe kick-out.)

174. For an anchored bulkhead, what structural condition occurs at the hinge point where
moments are typically summed?
Zero shear. The hinge point is where the active pressure transitions through zero net
pressure to passive pressure.
175. Excavations made in soft clay can result in soil heave at the bottom of the cut. The
depth of excavation can be readily evaluated for safety against heaving failure using
the
Critical height of excavation. (Other choices were: Coulomb failure criteria, stability
criteria, and soil heave value)
176. When energy is released from fault rupture, waves are generate that propagate
through the earths crust. These are called
Seismic waves
177. The location in the earths crust where a fault rupture causes a large release in
energy is known as the hypocenter or focus of an earthquake. The location on the earths
surface directly above the hypocenter is known as the epicenter. The distance from the
hypocenter to the epicenter is called the
Focal depth or the perpendicular distance from the Earths surface downward to the point
of the earthquake.
178. Fragmentation of the earths outer shell or lithosphere has resulted in plates of
various sizes. The study of the movement of these plates is known as plate tectonics.
What type of zone is created by the convergence of the west end of the North American
plate and the east edge of the Pacific plate?
Subduction zone. The subduction zone can occur along the edge of two convergent
plates resulting in areas of high volcanic activity and intense faulting.
179. The energy associated with a sudden displacement or slip along a fault rupture has
significant influence on building design and construction as evidenced by adoption
building codes. What parameter is commonly reported in a geotech report for a site
proposed for building construction in an area of known seismic activity?
Distance to nearest active fault
180. Seismic waves are made up of shear, surface, and compression waves. Of the three
types, the ones called P-waves travel at the highest velocity. These are
Also known as longitudinal waves, compression waves usually reach the Earths surface
before other wave types.
181. A seismometer is designed to detect seismic waves and groups of seismometer
stations are typically used to find the distance to the epicenter of an earthquake. The
distance to the epicenter is found from the difference in arrival between
Compression waves and shear waves

182. In relation to their overall direction of travel, how do shear waves displace
material?
Shear waves move from side to side and potentially can cause damage at right angles to
the direction of their travel.
183. On what concept is the difference between an earthquakes intensity and magnitude
based?
The intensity scale of an earthquake is based on the damaging effect it causes on people
and buildings. The scale is not related to the size of the earthquake, but on the amount of
damage that occurs to populated areas.
184. Earthquake magnitude is determined by taking the logarithm of the amplitude
recorded by a seismometer. The increase from an earthquake of magnitude 5 to one of
magnitude 6 is equal to an increase in amplitude of
Ten times
185. In addition to duration and frequency content, there is another important
engineering characteristic of an earthquake which is typically reported in fractions of
gravity or gs. What is this characteristic?
Ground acceleration
186. As the distance from the epicenter increases, the ground acceleration in rock
decreases. What is the term given to the reduction in acceleration as seismic waves go
through rock?
Seismic waves typically attenuate, or lose energy, as they propagate through certain rock
and soil media. A loss in energy due to propagation typically results in a reduction in
ground acceleration.
187. Mathematically, a waves period is the inverse of its frequency. The soil at a
particular site has a certain frequency and corresponding period when subject to
vibration. An earthquake occurs at the site, causing ground vibrations to significantly
magnify and increase. This occurrence is called
Resonance. (more info in answer)
188. Earthquake motion can be characterized by its frequency content, its duration, and
its
Amplitude
189. The number of independent coordinates needed to describe the motion of a system
is called the degree of freedom of the system. When a simple harmonic oscillator is
allowed to vibrate in one dimension, one linear or angular variable can describe the
position of that system. The oscillator is then called a
Single degree of freedom system
190. When a certain input motion is applied to a single degree of freedom system as a
function of the natural period or frequency and damping ratio, the maximum magnitude

of the response is called the response spectra. What spectra does the response
specifically consist of?
Displacement, velocity, and acceleration
191. One form of seismic hazard analysis is aimed at characterizing and identifying
potential sources of earthquakes that could significantly affect a particular site. This
analysis typically includes a definition of the geometry and maximum potential
magnitude of these potential sources. From this information, a controlling earthquake is
chosen, one which can be expected to produce the greatest amount of shaking at the site.
This type of analysis can be described as
Deterministic. (other choices were: pseudo-deterministic, hybrid, and probabilistic)
192. What is the name of the design lateral force at the base of a structure where the total
dead weight (for most buildings) and spectral acceleration are known?
Base shear
193. Granular soils tend to densify and consolidate if subjected to vibrations and seismic
shaking. When saturated granular soils undergo seismic vibrations, they become subject
to cyclic shear deformation, which causes an increase in pore water pressure. The result
is usually a severe reduction in effective stress. This hazardous soil condition is called
Liquefaction
194. Liquefaction potential can be evaluated by the correlation between in-situ
measurements and the presence of certain parameters that indicate a resistance to
liquefaction by the soil. What in-situ testing methodology obtains tip penetration data
and can be used as an alternative to a std penetration test in a liquefaction study?
Cone penetration (other choices were: shear wave velocity, wave equation analysis, and
vane shear)
195. Case histories for the occurrence of liquefaction have been documented using a
combination of std penetration test (SPT) data and earthquake-induced loading known as
the cyclic stress ratio (CSR). For Pan-American, Chinese, and Japanese data, a third
property of the soil is also plotted, with an indication whether or not liquefaction was
observed. What is this third soil property?
Percent fines
196. Liquefaction resistance, also known as the cyclic resistance ratio (CRR), can be
measured using std penetration test data for a magnitude 7.5 earthquake. However, field
SPT blow count data must be corrected for effective overburden pressure before using the
CRR equation. The CRR equation is considered valid up to a corrected SPT value of
Soils with corrected SPT values greater or equal to 30 are considered too dense to
liquefy.
197. Two separate equations for the cyclic resistance ratio (CRR) are used, based on the
field cone penetration resistance data that has been corrected for overburden pressure
(qC1N)CS. One of these equations is used for corrected (qC1N)CS values ranging from

The range for one of the CRR equations using CPT data is 50 to 159. The other equation
is for a range of values up to 49.
198. To determine a factor of safety against liquefaction, the cyclic resistance ratio
(CRR) for a magnitude 7.5 earthquake is divided by the cyclic stress ratio (CSR). An
adjustment must also be made for an earthquake of a magnitude other than 7.5. This
adjustment is called the
Normalizing factor

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