Wre-1 Ro5 2

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Set No. 1
Code No: R0104/R05
III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2010

WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING-I
(Civil Engineering)
Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
?????
1. (a) Hydrology is a highly inter-disciplinary science, Justify. List out various practical applications of Hydrology.
(b) A basin has the area in the form of a pentagon with each side of length 20 Km.
The five raingauges located at the corners A, B, C, D and E have recorded
60, 81, 73, 59 and 45 mm of rainfall respectively. Compute average depth of
rainfall over the basin using arithmetic mean and Theissen polygon methods.
[8+8]
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2. (a) Distinguish between:

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
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-index and W-index

Infiltration capacity and Infiltration rate
Evaporation and Transpiration
Phytometer and Lysimeter
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(b) How is the average velocity over a vertical plane determined using single point,
two point and three point methods.
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3. (a) How can IUH be derived from S-curve
(b) The ordinates of 6-hour UH are given below. Derive the ordinates of 12-hour
UH without resorting to the S-curve technique.
[8+8]
Time (hr):
0 6 12 18 24 30 36 42 48 54 60
12-hr UGO(cumec) 0 5 13 30 35 32 20 14 8 4 0
4. (a) What are the methods of estimating design flood. What are their limitations.
Explain the method of design flood estimation using the rational method.
(b) The annual flood peak of a stream is estimated to have 50 year and 100 year
floods of 2400 m3 /s and 2730 m3 /s respectively. What is 200 year flood for
the same stream.
[8+8]
5. (a) Explain the following terms:
Vadose water, Pellicular water, artificial recharge, non-equilibrium equation
(b) A 30 cm diameter well penetrates 20 m below the static water table. After 24
hours of pumping at 5000 liters/minute, the water level in a test well at 100
m away is lowered by 0.50 m, and in a well 30 m away the drawdown is 1.0m.
What is the transmissibility of the aquifer?
[8+8]
6. (a) Explain the various types of filters used in drip irrigation?. Explain various
disadvantages of drip irrigation?
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Set No. 1
Code No: R0104/R05
(b) Explain zig-zag method of irrigation along with a neat sketch
[10+6]
7. (a) What is meant by duty and delta of canal water. Derive a relation between
duty and delta for a given base period.
(b) Find the delta for sugarcane when its duty is 730 hecatares/cumecs on the
field and the base period of the crop is being 110 days.
[8+8]
8. (a) What is meant by regime ? Differentiate between regime in natural rivers
and in artificial channels.
(b) Design an irrigation channel section for the following data.
Discharge= 40 cumecs,
Silt factor=1.0,
Side slopes= 12 :1,
Determine the longitudinal slope also.
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Set No. 2
Code No: R0104/R05

(Civil Engineering)
Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. (a) Hydrology is a highly inter-disciplinary science, Justify. List out various practical applications of Hydrology.
(b) A basin has the area in the form of a pentagon with each side of length 20 Km.
The five raingauges located at the corners A, B, C, D and E have recorded
60, 81, 73, 59 and 45 mm of rainfall respectively. Compute average depth of
rainfall over the basin using arithmetic mean and Theissen polygon methods.
[8+8]
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2. (a) Differentiate between: infiltration rate and infiltration capacity.

(b) Write short notes on:
i. Isochrones
ii. Time of concentration
iii. Valley storage & Bank storage.
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[8+8]
3. (a) How can the linear reservoir storage coefficient K in the Clark IUH be determined from runoff data.
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(b) A drainage basin has an area of 160 sq. km, storage constant is 6.0 hr. The
inter isochronal areas are given below. Obtain an UH for the basin using clark
model.
[8+8]
Time (hr)
0-1 1-2 2-3 3-4 4-5 5-6
40 23 47 30 12
Isochrone area (km2 ) 8
4. (a) Distinguish between

i. Maximum probable flood and Design flood
ii. Annual series and partial series
iii. Return period and exceedence probability
(b) For a river reach K is 28 h and X is 0.25.
drograph. Take O1 = I1 for the beginning
attenuation and translation of the peak.
Time (h)
0 0
6
12 18
Inflow (m3 /sec) 30 62 242 170 114
Route the following inflow hystep. Determine the values of

[8+8]
24 30 36 42 48 54
78 56 44 38 34 30
5. The following observations were recorded during a pumping out test on a tube
well Penetrating fully in a aquifer. Well diameter=25cm, Discharge from the
well=300m3 /hr,
R.L. of original water surface, before pumping started = 122.0m
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Set No. 2
Code No: R0104/R05
R.L. of water in the well at constant pumping= 117.1m

R.L. of water in the observation well = 121.30m
R.L. of impervious layer = 92.0m
Radial distance of observation well from the tube well = 50m
Determine
(a) the field permeability coefficient of the free aquifer and
(b) radius of zero drawdown.
[16]
6. (a) Write down the differences between perennial irrigation and flood irrigation.
(b) Explain the concept of sub-irrigation. Explain natural sub irrigation and artificial sub irrigation.
[8+8]
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7. (a) Explain soil fertility and how is it maintained?
(b) The depths of penetrations along the length of a boarder strip at points 30meters apart were probed. Their observed values are 2.0, 1.9, 1.8, 1.6 and 1.5
meters. Compute the water distribution efficiency.
[8+8]
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8. (a) Explain the procedure of designing a channel with Kennedys theory.

(b) Using Laceys theory, design an irrigation channel for the following data.
Discharge Q=50cumecs,
Silt factor f=1.0,
Side slopes:1/2:1
[8+8]
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Set No. 3
Code No: R0104/R05

(Civil Engineering)
Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. (a) What are the basic data required for hydrological studies. Name the agencies
from which the data can be obtained.
(b) The hyetograph of a storm of 6hr duration is constructed with varying time
intervals at 20 minutes intervals for the first one hour, at 40 minutes interval
for the next two hours and at one hour interval for the last three hours. The
successive ordinates of the hyetograph in mm/hr are 66, 75, 54, 48, 69, 51, 38,
47 and 25. Determine the total rainfall depth produced by the storm. [8+8]
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2. (a) Define pan coefficient. Discuss the relative merits and demerits of sunken,
floating and land pans.
(b) The average rainfall over 45 ha of watershed for a particular storm was as
follows:
Time(hr)
0 1
2
3
4
5
6 7
Rainfall(cm) 0 0.5 1.0 3.25 2.5 1.5 0.5 0
The volume of runoff from this storm was determined as 2.25 ha-m. Establish
the -index.
[8+8]
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3. (a) What does the word unit refer to in the unit hydrograph. Explain with
sketches, what do you understand by the principle of linearity and principle
of time invariance in the unit hydrograph theory.
(b) The peak discharge and time to peak in a 3 h unit hydrograph derived for
a basin of area 250 km2 with L = 30 km and Lc = 14 km are 50 m3 /s and
9 h respectively. Assuming that Snyders synthetic unit hydrograph applies,
determine the coefficient Ct and Cp .
[8+8]
4. (a) Distinguish between
i. Maximum probable flood and Design flood
ii. Annual series and partial series
iii. Return period and exceedence probability
(b) For a river reach K is 28 h and X is 0.25.
drograph. Take O1 = I1 for the beginning
attenuation and translation of the peak.
Time (h)
0 0
6
12 18
Inflow (m3 /sec) 30 62 242 170 114
Route the following inflow hystep. Determine the values of

[8+8]
24 30 36 42 48 54
78 56 44 38 34 30
5. (a) Derive an expression for a discharge from a well fully penetrating a confined
aquifer.
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Set No. 3
Code No: R0104/R05
(b) A well penetrates into an unconfined aquifer having a saturated depth of

100 metres. The discharge is 250 liters per minute at 12 meters drawdown.
Assuming equilibrium flow conditions and a homogeneous aquifer, estimate
the discharge at 18 meters drawdown. The distance from the well where the
drawdown influences are not appreciable may be taken equal for both the
cases.
[8+8]
6. (a) Write down the differences between perennial irrigation and flood irrigation.
(b) Explain the concept of sub-irrigation. Explain natural sub irrigation and artificial sub irrigation.
[8+8]
7. (a) Define the following terms:
i. Gross Command Area,
ii. Kor period,
iii. Outlet factor,
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(b) Find the capacity of a soil for the following data.

Root zone depth: 2m,
Existing water content: 5%,
Dry density of soil:1.5g/cm3 ,
Water applied to the soil:500m3 ,
Water loss due to evaporation: 10%,
Area of plot: 1000sq.meters
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[6+10]
8. (a) What are the differences between suspended load and bed load. Explain how
you would estimate the life of a reservoir.
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(b) Compare and contrast the differences between Lacey?s theory and Kennedys
theory.
[8+8]
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Set No. 4
Code No: R0104/R05

(Civil Engineering)
Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. (a) What are the different types of precipitations. Explain them.
(b) During a month, a raingauge went out of order while the other three gauges
in the basin reported rainfalls of 107, 89 and 120mm. If the normal annual
rainfalls for these three gauges are 1120, 935 and 1200mm respectively and
the normal annual rainfall of the broken gauge is 978mm, estimate the missing monthly rainfall by the Arithmetic average method and the normal ratio
method.
[8+8]
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2. (a) Explain the balanced equation for precipitation and describe the terms.
i. Interception and
ii. Depression storage.
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(b) Describe with the help of neat sketches any three methods of separation of base
flow from the hydrograph of runoff (i.e. stream flow hydrograph) indicating
the situations under which you advocate them.
[8+8]
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3. (a) Define the following terms:

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Isochrone
Linear channel
Linear reservoir
Time of concentration
(b) Consider a 3-h UH to be a triangle whose base is 8 h and the peak of 4 m3 /sec
occurs at 3-h from the origin of the time. If rainfall of intensity 25 mm/h
occurred for 3-h, compute the DRH and peak discharge.
[8+8]
4. (a) What are the methods of estimating design flood. What are their limitations.
Explain the method of design flood estimation using the rational method.
(b) The annual flood peak of a stream is estimated to have 50 year and 100 year
floods of 2400 m3 /s and 2730 m3 /s respectively. What is 200 year flood for
the same stream.
[8+8]
5. (a) State Dupuits assumptions for obtaining the general equation governing ground
water flow. Derive an expression for the confined aquifer. How the expression
can be used to evaluate aquifer permeability.
(b) Write short notes on the following:
i. Infiltration wells and infiltration galleries,
ii. measuring the yield of under ground water sources.
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Set No. 4
Code No: R0104/R05

6. (a) Explain in detail about Alluvial soils.
(b) Describe Border strip method of irrigation?. Derive the expression for the time
required to cover a given area by this method, for a given rate of discharge
and the rate of infiltration of water in the soil.
[4+12]
7. (a) What do you understand by crop rotation? What are its advantages?
(b) The left branch canal carrying a discharge of 20 cumecs has Culturable command area of 20,000ha. The intensity of Rabi crop is 80 % and the base period
is 120 days. The right branch canal carrying discharge of 8 cumecs has Culturable command area of 12,000ha, intensity of irrigation of Rabi crop is 50
% and the base period is 120 days. Compare the efficiencies of the two canal
systems.
[8+8]
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8. (a) Explain the measures adopted to remove silt from the canal
(b) Enumerate the various types of linings practiced in our state and explain any
one of the predominantly used lining.
[8+8]
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Set No. 1
Code No: R0204/R05

ELECTRICAL MACHINES-III
(Electrical & Electronic Engineering)
Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. (a) Derive the expression for the EMF induced in a 3- alternator?
(b) Calculate the no load terminal voltage of a 3-, 8 pole, star connected alternator running at 750 rpm having the following data:
Sinusoidaly distributed flux per pole = 55 mwb, total number of slots on the
armature = 72, conductors per slot = 10, distribution factor = 0.96. Assume
full pitch coils.
[8+8]
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2. (a) Explain the factors affecting synchronous reactance of alternator.
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(b) The SC, OC & DC test data for a star connected 25 kVA, 240 V, 60 Hz,
alternator are (between two terminals):
VOC = 240 V, ISC = 60.2 A - - - - For same field current
VDC = 120.6 V, IDC = 50.4 A
Determine: Synchronous reactance.
[8+8]
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3. (a) Explain the various tests conducted on an alternator to find the voltage regulation of an alternator by MMF method.
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(b) A 1 MVA, 11 kV, 3-, star connected synchronous machine has following OCC
test data:
If
50 110
140 180
EOL -kV 7 12.5 13.75 15
(where EOL is the line voltage at no load)
The short circuit test yielded full load current at a field current of 65 A, the
armature resistance is negligible. Calculate the voltage regulation at full load
0.866 pf lagging by MMF method.
[8+8]
4. (a) Explain the various methods of synchronization of alternators.
(b) Two similar 4 MVA alternators operate in parallel. The governor of first
machine is such that frequency drops from 50 Hz at no load to 47.5 Hz at full
load. The corresponding drop for second machine is 50 Hz to 48 Hz. [8+8]
i. How will they share a load of 6 MW?
ii. What is the maximum load they can share at UPF without over loading
any generator?
5. (a) An industrial load of 200 kW is supplied at 11 kV, the power factor being 0.8
lagging. A synchronous motor is required to meet an additional load of 50
kW and at the same time to raise the resultant power factor to 0.9 lagging.
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Set No. 1
Code No: R0204/R05
Determine the kVA capacity of the motor and the power factor at which it
must operate. The efficiency of motor is 90 %.
(b) With neat vector diagrams explain, how the power factor of synchronous motor
varies as its excitation is varied.
[8+8]
6. (a) What is hunting? Why it is essential to suppress the hunting?
(b) Explain the various staring methods of synchronous motor.
[8+8]
7. (a) Explain the construction & operation of repulsion motor.

(b) List the applications of single phase Induction motor. What are the limitations
of single phase Induction motor?
[8+8]
8. (a) Compare AC series motor & Universal motor.
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(b) Compare variable reluctance stepper motor & permanent magnet stepper motor.
[8+8]
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Set No. 2
Code No: R0204/R05

Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. (a) Explain the following terms related to armature winding:
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Double layer
Single Layer
Short pitch
Distributed.
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(b) Give the winding calculation for a 3- armature winding with following details:
Pole = 8, Number of slots = 54, Double layer winding.
[8+8]
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2. (a) Discuss the nature of armature reaction in salient pole alternators in following
cases:
i. Armature current lagging excitation EMF by 90o
ii. Armature current in phase with excitation EMF.
iii. Armature current leading excitation EMF by 90o
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(b) A 1200 kVA, 6600 V, 3-, star connected alternator with a resistance of 0.4
/ph and reactance of 6 /ph delivers full load current at power factor of 0.8
lagging at rated voltage. Estimate the terminal voltage for the same excitation
and load current for a power factor of 0.8 leading.
[8+8]
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3. (a) Explain the voltage regulation method of an alternator by which the armature
reaction & leakage reactance can be separated.
(b) A 3-, star connected salient pole synchronous generator is driven at a speed
near synchronous with the field circuit open and the stator is supplied from
a balanced 3- supply. Voltmeter connected across the line gave minimum
and maximum readings of 1196 V & 1217 Volts. The line current fluctuated
between 120 & 225 Amp. Find the direct and quadrature axis reactances per
phase. Neglect armature resistances.
[8+8]
4. (a) Explain all the necessary conditions for successful parallel operation of alternators.
(b) A 2 MVA, 3-, star connected, 4 pole, 750 RPM alternator is operating on
6000 V bus bars, s is 6 /ph. Find synchronizing power and torque for full
load 0.8 power factor lagging.
[8+8]
5. (a) An industrial load of 200 kW is supplied at 11 kV, the power factor being 0.8
lagging. A synchronous motor is required to meet an additional load of 50
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Set No. 2
Code No: R0204/R05
kW and at the same time to raise the resultant power factor to 0.9 lagging.
Determine the kVA capacity of the motor and the power factor at which it
must operate. The efficiency of motor is 90 %.
(b) With neat vector diagrams explain, how the power factor of synchronous motor
varies as its excitation is varied.
[8+8]
6. (a) With neat diagram explain how damper winding helps in starting of synchronous motor. Explain any other uses/benefits of using damper winding.
(b) A 5.5 MVA, 50 Hz, 3- synchronous generator having a synchronous reactance
of 0.3 pu is running at 1500 RPM and is excited to give 11 kV. If the rotor
deviated 1o mechanical from its equilibrium position, what is synchronizing
torque?
[8+8]
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7. (a) Why single phase motors are not self starting?
(b) Explain the necessary arrangements made to make single phase Induction
motor self starting & with neat diagram explain the operations of same. [8+8]
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8. (a) Explain the role & importance of commutation in Universal motor.

(b) Prove that the speed of Universal motor, when operated on DC is more than
when operated on AC.
[8+8]
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Set No. 3
Code No: R0204/R05

Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. (a) Explain the following terms related to armature winding:
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Double layer
Single Layer
Short pitch
Distributed.
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(b) Give the winding calculation for a 3- armature winding with following details:
Pole = 8, Number of slots = 54, Double layer winding.
[8+8]
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2. (a) Explain the factors affecting synchronous reactance of alternator.
(b) The SC, OC & DC test data for a star connected 25 kVA, 240 V, 60 Hz,
alternator are (between two terminals):
VOC = 240 V, ISC = 60.2 A - - - - For same field current
VDC = 120.6 V, IDC = 50.4 A
Determine: Synchronous reactance.
[8+8]
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3. (a) Explain the Potier triangle method of finding the voltage regulation of an
alternator.
(b) The no load excitation of an alternator required to give rated voltage is 160 A.
In a short circuit test with full current flowing in the armature, the field excitation was 135 A. Determine the approximate excitation that will be required
to give full load current at 0.8 PF leading at the rated terminal voltage. [8+8]
4. A 5 MVA, 10 kV, 1500 RPM, 3-, 50 Hz alternator is running in parallel with
other machines. Its synchronous reactance is 20 %.Find synchronizing power &
synchronizing torque per degree mechanical displacement, for no load & full load,
0.8 pf lagging.
[16]
5. (a) Explain the V-curves & inverted V curves of synchronous motor.
(b) A 75 kW, 400 V, 4 pole, star connected synchronous motor has an effective
per phase armature resistance & reactance of 0.04 & 0.4 respectively.
Compute the open circuit voltage/ph and mechanical power developed for full
load at 0.8 pf leading. Assume an efficiency of 92.5 %.
[6+10]
6. (a) Explain the operation of synchronous induction motor.
(b) A 2 pole, 50 Hz, 3- turbo alternator is expected to generate the bus bar
voltage of 11 kV on no load. Calculate the synchronizing power per mechanical
displacement of the rotor and the corresponding synchronizing torque. The
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Set No. 3
Code No: R0204/R05
machine is star connected and short circuit current for this excitation is 1200
A.
[8+8]
8. (a) Compare AC series motor & DC series motor. What are the operational
difficulties of each?
(b) Explain the variable reluctance motor principle.
[8+8]
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Set No. 4
Code No: R0204/R05

Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. (a) What are the various terms related with windings? Explain each of them with
their importance.
(b) A star connected 3-, 6 pole synchronous generator has a stator with 90 slots
& 8 conductors per slot. The rotor revolves at 1000 rpm. The flux per pole
is 40 mWb. Calculate the EMF generated, if all the conductors in each phase
are in series. Assume sinusoidal flux distribution & full pitched coil.
[8+8]
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2. (a) Explain the operation and effect of load power factor on the performance of
alternator.
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(b) The effective resistance of a 2200 V, 50 Hz, 440 kVA, single phase alternator is
0.5 . On short circuit, a field current of 4 A gives the full load current. The
EMF on open circuit for the same field current is 1160 V. Find Synchronous
impedance, Synchronous reactance and % regulation of 0.6p.f lagging.. [8+8]
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3. (a) Explain the concept and analysis of quadrature axis & direct axis reactances.
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(b) A 3-, star connected salient pole synchronous generator is driven at a speed
near synchronous with the field circuit open and the stator is supplied from
a balanced 3- supply. Voltmeter connected across the line gave minimum
and maximum readings of 2800 V & 2820 Volts. The line current fluctuated
between 360 & 275 Amp. Find the direct and quadrature axis reactances per
phase. Neglect armature resistances.
[8+8]
4. (a) A 2 pole, 50 Hz, 3-, turbo alternator is excited to generate bus bar voltage
of 11 kV at no load. Calculate the synchronizing power per degree mechanical
displacement of the rotor and the corresponding synchronizing torque. The
machine is star connected & the SC current of this excitation is 1200 Amp.
Neglect armature resistance.
(b) With neat phasor explain the operation of an alternator on infinite bus bars
with varying excitation.
[8+8]
5. (a) A 3-, synchronous motor observing 60 kW is connected in parallel with a
factory load of 240 kW having lagging pf of 0.8. If the combined load has a
pf of 0.9 lagging, what is the value of leading kVAR supplied by the motor &
at what power factor it is working?
(b) Explain the power f actor v/s f ield current & armature current v/s f ield
current characteristics of synchronous motor.
[8+8]
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Set No. 4
Code No: R0204/R05
6. (a) Explain the procedure to plot V curves & inverted V curves for a given
synchronous machine with help of its circles diagrams.
(b) A 2 pole, 50 Hz, 3- turbo alternator is excited to generate a bus-bar voltage of
11 kV on no load. The machine is star connected and the short circuit current
for this excitation is 1000 A. Calculate the synchronizing power per degree
of mechanical displacement of the rotor and the corresponding synchronizing
torque.
[8+8]
8. (a) Explain the torque-speed characteristics of reluctance motor.
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(b) Explain the dynamic characteristic of stepper motor.
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Set No. 1
Code No: S0304/R05

KINEMATICS OF MACHINERY
( Common to Mechanical Engineering, Mechatronics, Production
Engineering and Automobile Engineering)
Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
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1. (a) Define Kinematic pair. What is the difference between lower pair and higher
pair? Give examples for each type.
(b) Describe the three inversions of Double slider crank chain with neat sketches.
[7+9]
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2. In a grasshopper mechanism shown in figure 2, OA=80mm, AQ=120mm, PQ=300mm.

Determine the vertical force at P necessary to resist a torque of 100N.m applied to
the crank OA when it makes angles of zero and 15 degrees with the horizontal.
[16]
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Figure 2
3. In the mechanism shown in Figure 3. The crank OA rotates at 50 rpm and the
lengths of the links are OA= 125 mm, AC= 600 mm, QC= 150 mm, QD= 150
mm, CD= 130 mm, BD= 550 mm and OQ= 625 mm. When the angle AOQ= 45
degrees, determine,
(a) The linear acceleration of the slider at B.
(b) The angular acceleration of the links AC, CQD and BD.
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Set No. 1
Code No: S0304/R05
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Figure 3
4. (a) Explain the construction and working of Davis steering gear with a neat sketch.
(b) A Hookes joint is used to connect two shafts whose axes are inclined at 20o .
The driving shaft rotates uniformly at 6,000rpm. What are the extreme angular velocities of the driven shaft? Find the maximum value of retardation
or acceleration and state the angle where both will occur.
[6+10]
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5. (a) Discuss various types of followers.
(b) A cam profile consists of two circular arcs of radii 30mm and 15 mm, joined by
straight lines giving the follower a lift of 15mm. The follower is roller of 25mm
radius and its line of action is a straight line passing through the cam shaft
axis. When the cam shaft has a uniform speed of 600rpm, find the maximum
velocity and acceleration of the follower while in contact with the straight
flank of the cam.
[16]
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6. (a) What is standard system of gears? How does it ensure interchangeability of

gears?
(b) Two 200 involute spur gears have a module of 10mm. The addendum is one
module. The larger gear has 50 teeth and the pinion 13 teeth. Does the
interference occur? If it occurs, to what value should the pressure angle be
changed to eliminate interference?
[16]
7. In a belt drive, the mass of the belt is 1 kg/m length and its speed is 12m/s. The
drive transmits 19.2kW of power. Determine the initial tension in the belt and the
strength of the belt. Coefficient of friction is 0.25 and the angle of lap on smaller
pulley is 2200 .
[16]
8. The epicyclic gear train known as Fergusons paradox is shown in figure 8. Gear 1
is fixed to the frame. The arm A and gears 2 and 3 are free to rotate on the shaft
S. Gears 1, 2 and 3 have 100, 101, and 99 teeth respectively. The planet gear has
20 teeth. The pitch circle diameter of all the gears is the same so that the plant
gear P meshes with all of them. Determine the revolutions of gears 2 and 3 for one
revolution of the arm A.
[16]
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Set No. 1
Code No: S0304/R05
Figure 8
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Set No. 2
Code No: S0304/R05

Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. (a) Two parallel shafts, with the distance between their axes being 20mm, are
connected by an Oldham coupling. If the speed of the shafts is 400rpm, find
the maximum speed of sliding of each tongue of the intermediate piece along
its groove.
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(b) Find the distance between the fixed centers of a whit worth quick return
motion mechanism if the length of driving link is 35mm, return stroke is
125mm and time ratio of cutting to return stroke is 1.75.
[8+8]
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2. In figure 2 shown, the dimensions of the various links are such that
OA
AC
= OE
= BD
= FEC
. Show that if C traces any path, then D will describe a
OB
OF
D
similar path and vice-versa.
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Figure 2
3. In a crank slotted-lever quick-return mechanism shown in figure 3 the distance

between the fixed centers O and A is 250 mm. Other lengths are: OP = 100mm,
AR = 400mm, RS=250mm and angle AOP =1200 Uniform speed of the crank is
50 rpm clockwise. Line of stroke of the ram is perpendicular to OA and is 450 mm
from A. Calculate the velocity and the acceleration of the ram S.
[16]
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Set No. 2
Code No: S0304/R05
Figure 3
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4. (a) Differentiate between Davis and Ackermann steering gears.

(b) In a Davis steering gear, the length of the car between axles is 2.6 m and the
steering pivots are 1.45 m apart. Determine the inclination of the track arms
to the longitudinal axis of the car when it moves in a straight path.
(c) Sketch polar velocity diagram of a Hookes joint and mark its salient features.
[6+4+6]
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5. (a) Draw a figure of a radial cam with reciprocating roller follower and represent
the nomenclature of cam.
(b) The following particulars relate to a symmetrical tangent cam having a roller
follower.
Minimum radius of the cam = 40mm, Lift = 20mm, Speed = 360 rpm, Roller
diameter = 44mm, Angle of ascent = 600 .
Calculate the acceleration of follower at the beginning of lift. Also find its
values when the roller just touches the nose and is at the apex of the circular
nose. Sketch the variation of displacement, velocity and acceleration during
ascent.
[16]
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6. (a) Make a comparison of cycloidal and involute teeth forms.

(b) Two 200 involute spur gears have a module of 10mm. The addendum is equal
to one module. The larger gear has 40 teeth while the pinion has 20 teeth.
Will the gear interfere with the pinion?
[16]
7. A motor shaft drives a main shaft of workshop by means of a flat belt, the diameters
of the pulleys being 500mm and 800mm respectively. Another pulley of diameter
600mm on the main shaft drives counter-shaft having a 750mm diameter pulley. If
the speed of the motor is 1600rpm, find the speed of the counter shaft neglecting
the thickness of the belt and considering a slip of 4% on each drive.
[16]
8. An epicyclic gear train consists of a compound gear wheel CD which gears with
two internal wheels A and B. Gear wheel C has 30 teeth and meshes with internal
wheel A while D gears with internal wheel B having 85 teeth. Internal wheel B is
keyed to a shaft L. The compound wheel revolves freely on a pin which projects
from a disc keyed to a shaft coaxial with L.
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Set No. 2
Code No: S0304/R05
(a) What is the speed of shaft L if shaft M makes 1000rpm and all the wheels
have the same pitch?
(b) What is the load torque on the shaft L and holding torque on wheel A if input
torque to shaft M is 80kN.m.
[16]
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Set No. 3
Code No: S0304/R05

Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. (a) What is a Kinematic pair? Explain different types of Kinematic pairs as
classified by relative motion.
(b) The distance between the axes of two parallel shafts is 1cm. The shafts are
connected by Oldham coupling. Find the maximum Kinetic energy of the
intermediate piece of mass 5 kg when the shafts revolve at 300rpm. [10+6]
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2. (a) A coupler AB to form a simple Watt mechanism joins two bars OA and O1 B.
When the mechanism is in its mean position, the lines OA and O1 B are perpendicular to AB. If OA=12cm, O1 B=18cm and AB=9cm, find the position
of point P on connecting link which gives the best straight line motion
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(b) Sketch and Describe the Peaucellier and Hart straight-line motion mechanisms.
[8+8]
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3. One cylinder of rotary engine is shown in Figure 3b. OA is the fixed crank and 200
mm long. OP is the connecting rod and is 520 mm long. The line of stroke is along
AR and at the instant is inclined at 30o to the vertical. The body of the engine
consisting of cylinders rotates at a uniform speed of 500 rpm about the fixed center
A. Determine,
(a) Acceleration of piston (slider) inside the cylinder

(b) Angular acceleration of the connecting rod.
Figure 3b
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Set No. 3
Code No: S0304/R05
4. The distance between the pivots of the front stub axles of a car is 130 cm, the length
of track rod is 120 cm, the wheel track is 145 cm and the wheelbase is 280cm. What
should be the length of track arm if the Ackermann steering gear is to be given a
correct steering, when rounding a corner of 6-meter radius?
[16]
5. (a) Define cam. What are the uses of cam & follower?
(b) Construct the profile of a disk cam with translating flat follower with the
following data: Rise 3 cm with harmonic motion in 1800 of cam rotation,
return with parabolic motion in 1500 of cam rotation and then dwell. The
base circle diameter is 15 cm. Determine the width of follower face allowing
0.75 cm clearance. The cam rotates in a counterclockwise direction. Check
the possibility for a cusp on the cam.
[16]
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6. (a) Explain phenomena of interference of gears.
(b) Two 200 involute spur gears mesh externally and give velocity ratio of 3.
Module is 3mm and the addendum is equal to 1.1 module. If the pinion
rotates at 120rpm, determine
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i. The minimum number of teeth on each wheel to avoid interference.

ii. The number of pairs of teeth in contact.
[16]
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7. (a) Discuss about selection of belt drive.
(b) A shaft runs at 80 rpm and drives another shaft at 150rpm through belt drive.
The Diameter of the driving pulley is 600mm. Determine the diameter of the
driven pulley in the following cases:
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
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Neglecting belt thickness.

Taking belt thickness as 5mm.
Assuming for case (ii) a total slip of 4% and
Assuming for case (ii) a slip of 2% on each pulley.
[16]
8. An epicyclic gear in figure 8, consists of two sun wheels, S1 and S2 with 24 and
26 teeth respectively, engaged with a compound planet wheel with 26 and 29 teeth
S1 is keyed to the driving shaft which is co-axial with the driven shaft. Find the
velocity ratio of the gear. If 7.5kW is transmitted at the input speed of 1000 rpm
[16]
what torque is required to hold S2 ?
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Set No. 3
Code No: S0304/R05
Figure 8
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Set No. 4
Code No: S0304/R05

Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. (a) Define Kinematic pair. What is the difference between lower pair and higher
pair? Give examples for each type.
(b) Describe the three inversions of Double slider crank chain with neat sketches.
[7+9]
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2. (a) What is pantograph? What are its uses?
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(b) Show that the pantograph can produce paths exactly similar to the ones traced
out by a point on a link on an enlarged or a reduced scale.
[6+10]
3. In the Whitworth quick-return mechanism shown in figure 3., the dimensions of the
links are: OP (crank) =240 mm, OA =150 mm, AR =165 mm and RS 450mm.
The crank rotates at an angular velocity of 3 rad/s. At the moment when the crank
makes an angle of 600 with the vertical, calculate
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(a) the velocity of the ram S
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(b) the velocity of the slider P on the slotted lever

(c) the angular velocity of the link RS.
Figure 3
4. (a) With a neat sketch explain the construction and working of a Davis steering
gear.
(b) The driving shaft of Hookes joint runs at a uniform speed of 280rpm and the
angle ? between the shaft axes is 20o , the driven shaft with attached masses
has a mass of 60 kg at a radius of gyration of 15 cm, If a steady torque of
200 N-m resists rotation of the driven shaft, find the torque required at the
driving shaft, when = 450 ; g=981 cm/sec2 . At what value of will the total
fluctuation of speed of the driven shaft be limited to 28 rpm.
[6+10]
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Set No. 4
Code No: S0304/R05

5. (a) Define cam. What are the uses of cam & follower?
(b) Construct the profile of a disk cam with translating flat follower with the
following data: Rise 3 cm with harmonic motion in 1800 of cam rotation,
return with parabolic motion in 1500 of cam rotation and then dwell. The
base circle diameter is 15 cm. Determine the width of follower face allowing
0.75 cm clearance. The cam rotates in a counterclockwise direction. Check
the possibility for a cusp on the cam.
[16]
6. (a) State and explain ?law of gearing?.
(b) An internal spur gear having 200 teeth meshes with a pinion having 40 teeth
and a module of 2.5mm. Determine
i. the velocity ratio if the pinion is the driver
ii. the centre distance, and
iii. if the centre distance is increased by 3mm, find the resulting pressure
angle.
[16]
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7. (a) Classify the belt drives.
(b) Two parallel shafts, connected by a crossed-belt, are provided with pulleys
480mm and 640mm in diameters. The distance between the centre lines of
the shafts in 3m. Find by how much the length of the belt should be changed
if it is desired to alter the direction of rotation of the driven shaft.
[16]
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8. (a) Explain about Epicyclic gear train.
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(b) In the epicyclic gear train shown in figure 8b, a gear C which has teeth cut
internally and externally is free to rotate on an arm driven by shaft S1 . It
meshes externally with the casting D and internally with the pinion B. The
gears have the following number of teeth:
TB = 24, TC = 32 and 40, TD = 48
Find the velocity ratio between
i. S1 and S2 when D is fixed.

ii. S1 and D when S2 is fixed.
[16]
Figure 8b
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Set No. 4
Code No: S0304/R05

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Set No. 1
Code No: S0402/R05

ANTENNAS AND WAVE PROPAGATION
( Common to Electronics & Communication Engineering and Electronics &
Telematics)
Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. (a) Discuss the current distribution on a thin wire antenna.
(b) Define the following parameters related to antenna
i. Main and Side lobe
ii. Beam Area
iii. Gain and Directivity.
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[8+8]
2. (a) Show that the radiation resistance of a small loop is equal to 320 4(A/2 )
ohms where A is loop area.
(b) What is Folded Dipole ? Find its Radiation Resistance.
[8+8]
3. (a) Derive the expressions for width of principal beam for
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i. broadside array
ii. end fire array of n isotropic elements of spacing distance d between successive elements.
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(b) Describe Binomial array and state its merits and demerits.
[10+6]
4. (a) Explain the difference between traveling and standing wave antennas and give
one example of each type.
(b) Explain the significance of the following terms in Rhombic Antenna:

i. leg length and tilt angle
ii. effect of earth on its pattern.
[12+4]
5. (a) Describe the following reflectors :

i. Truncated Paraboloid
ii. Offset Paraboloid.
(b) Find the gain, BWFN, HPBW of a paraboloid of 2m diameter operating at 5
GHz when half wave dipole is used.
[8+8]
6. (a) Explain the need for flaring in conventional rectangular waveguides. Hence
explain the geometry of a pyramidal horn with separate sketches in E and H
plane cross sections.
(b) Distinguish between Natural Dielectric and Artificial Dielectric Lens. Discuss
their characteristics, merits and demerits.
[8+8]
7. (a) Discuss the characteristics of
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Set No. 1
Code No: S0402/R05

i. Normal E-Region.
ii. Appleton Region.
(b) Explain the mechanism of radio wave bending by the ionosphere.
[8+8]
8. (a) A police radio transmitter operating at a frequency 1.69GHz is required to

provide a ground wave having a strength of 0.5mv/m at a distance of 16km.
The transmitter antenna, having an efficiency of 50% produces a radiating
field proportional of cos. The ground wave has = 5 105 mho/cm and r
= 15. Calculate the power transmitted.
(b) Derive the fundamental equation for free space propagation.
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Set No. 2
Code No: S0402/R05

Telematics)
Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. (a) Define the terms Radiation Resistance, effective current in case of short current
element.
(b) Derive an expression for radiation resistance of short antenna with linear current distribution.
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(c) Define Hertzian dipole and its characteristics.
[4+8+4]
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2. (a) Derive the expressions for electric field in case of short current element and
hence obtain the conditions for the field to be in Franhofer region.
(b) Find the distance from a radiating element with 60Hz current such that radiation and induction fields are equal.
[10+6]
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3. (a) Design a 4 element BSA of /2 spacing between point source element.The side
lobe level is 26 dB to have optimum pattern.
(b) Explain and compare different types of antenna arrays.
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[10+6]
4. (a) Explain how does a Log Periodic Antenna provides a large bandwidth of operation.
(b) Design a Rhombic Antenna to operate at a frequency of 30MHz with an angle

[8+8]
of deviation = 300 with respect to ground.
5. (a) How folded dipole and parasitic elements are used for TV receiption.
(b) Explain the principle of formation of images in an active corner reflector antenna. Hence sketch the image formation for a 450 corner reflector.
[8+8]
6. (a) What is Zoning? What are its advantages?
(b) Discuss the applications of Horn Antenna. Sketch the sectoral horns.
[8+8]
7. (a) Discuss the factors involved in the propagation of radio waves.

(b) Define Wave Tilt. Mention its salient features.
[8+8]
8. (a) Write short notes on Tropospheric Wave.

(b) Discuss the main effects of earths curvature on field strength of space wave.
[8+8]
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Set No. 3
Code No: S0402/R05

Telematics)
Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. (a) As related to Antennas, define and explain the following terms:
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Radiation Resistance
Effective Area
Effective Length
Efficiency.
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(b) Find the Effective aperture of an isotropic antenna operating at a wavelength

[8+8]
of 102 m, deriving its directivity.
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2. (a) State the Reciprocity Theorem for Antennas? Prove that the Self Impedance
of an Antenna in transmitting and receiving mode is same.
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(b) Define Directivity. Obtain the Directivity of an Isotropic Antenna, Short

Dipole and Half-Wave Dipole.
[8+8]
3. (a) Four isotropic antennas are spaced /5 apart, carry equal currents with progressive phase difference of . Find
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i. the broadside pattern

ii. such that principal minima can be at 600 to the line of array.
(b) Write short notes on Arrays of Point Sources.
[8+8]
4. (a) Using the principle of pattern multiplications, obtain the resultant pattern of
a long wire antenna and sketch the same.
(b) Mention the advantages of Rhombic Antenna over Single Wire Antenna. [8+8]
5. (a) Derive an expression for the gain of a 900 corner reflector.
(b) Explain the principle and working of Yagi Antenna.
[8+8]
6. (a) Describe the method of measuring the gain and radiation pattern of an antenna.
(b) A standard gain horn antenna with a power gain of 12.5, is used to measure the
gain of a large directional antenna by comparison method. The test antenna
is connected to the receiver and an attenuator adjusted to 23dB in order to
have the same receiver output. Find out the gain of the large antenna. [8+8]
7. (a) Write short notes on Ground wave propagation and effect of earth.
(b) In case of ionosphere,explain D, E & F layers.
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Set No. 3
Code No: S0402/R05
8. (a) Write short notes on M Curves and their characteristics.

(b) Show that the radius of curvature of ray path is given by 2/(dr /dh) for
tropospheric waves.
[8+8]
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Set No. 4
Code No: S0402/R05

Telematics)
Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. (a) Derive an expression for electric field of a uniform current element and hence
explain its directional pattern.
(b) If maximum current in the antenna is 20amps, find the field intensity at a
distance of 2kms along the axis perpendicular and at an angle 300 from the
antenna.
[8+8]
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2. (a) Explain how loop aerial is used for Direction Finding? Derive the relevant
expression for electric field intensity for loop aerial.
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(b) Derive an expression for radiation resistance of half wave length slot aerial
using babinets principle. Sketch the field pattern.
[8+8]
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3. (a) Derive the expressions for width of principal beam for
i. broadside array
ii. end fire array of n isotropic elements of spacing distance d between successive elements.
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(b) Describe Binomial array and state its merits and demerits.
[10+6]
4. (a) Mention the requirements to design a circularly polarized efficient helical antenna.
(b) Write short notes on Inverted V Antenna.
[8+8]
5. (a) Write short notes on Yagi Aerial.

(b) What is Corner Reflector Antenna? Derive the expression for the group pat[8+8]
tern of system of images due to a 600 corner reflector.
6. Describe the methods for measuring
(a) Gain
(b) Directivity with a neat block diagram.
[16]
7. (a) Explain the following:

i. Ray Path
ii. Skip Distance
iii. MUF.
(b) What is meant by critical frequency? Describe a method to measure critical
frequency.
[8+8]
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Set No. 4
Code No: S0402/R05
8. (a) Discuss Duct Propagation dwell on causes and effects.

(b) Explain the bending of signaling due to earths curvature. How is it useful for
propagation?
[8+8]
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Set No. 1
Code No: S0502/R05

OPERATING SYSTEMS
( Common to Computer Science & Engineering, Electronics &
Instrumentation Engineering, Information Technology, Electronics &
Control Engineering, Computer Science & Systems Engineering and
Electronics & Computer Engineering)
Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. Some CPUs provide for more than two modes of operation. What are two possible
uses of these multiple modes? Explain.
[16]
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2. What are the elements of process image? Explain them in detail.
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3. Give short note about the following :

(a) Binary Semaphores.
(b) Bounded Waiting.
[16]
[8+8]
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4. Explain about the Resource Allocation Denial with reference to Safe-state and
Unsafe-state.
[16]
5. Explain contiguous memory allocation scheme for memory management. What are
its advantages and disadvantages?
[16]
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6. What is the purpose of processor scheduling? Explain various types of scheduling

for uniprocessor system.
[16]
7. (a) Compare the bitmap and hole list method of keeping track of free space on a
disk with 800 cylinders, each having 5 tracks of 32 sectors. How many holes it
takes before the hole list would be larger than the bitmap? Assume that the
allocation unit is the sector, and that a hole requires a 32-bit word
(b) Make comparision of three allocation methods.
[8+8]
8. (a) Explain generic decryption technology.

(b) List the typical steps in digital immune system operation.
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Set No. 2
Code No: S0502/R05

OPERATING SYSTEMS
Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of multiprocessor systems.
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2. Draw and explain about five-state process model.

3. What are the requirements of mutual exclusion?
Event Object
Mutex Object
Semaphore Object
Waitable timer Object.
[16]
[16]
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4. (a) Explain the uses of the following:

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
[16]
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(b) Describe about mechanism used by Windows to implement Synchronization

of Critical Section objects.
[8+8]
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5. Write a note on:
(a) compaction
(b) External fragmentation

(c) Internal fragmentation
(d) 50- percent rule oh fragmentation
[4+4+4+4]
6. (a) Explain about the key scheduling criteria.

(b) Give a detail note on short-term scheduling.
[8+8]
7. (a) Bitmaps are not often used for main memory allocation. They are commonly
used for disk space allocation. Speculate on why this is so.
(b) Give an example of an application that could benefit from operating system
support for random access to indexed files.
[8+8]
8. (a) What is a capability ticket? Explain with an example.
(b) Explain traffic analysis.
[8+8]
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Set No. 3
Code No: S0502/R05

OPERATING SYSTEMS
Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. What are the major activities of an operating system with regard to process management?
[16]
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2. Draw the Queuing model for five-state process model.

3. (a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
What
What
What
What
is
is
is
is
the need for mutual exclusion?

a critical resource?
a critical section?
starvation?
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[44]
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4. What is Resource-Allocation graph? Explain about various situations by drawing

resource allocation Graph .
[16]
5. Explain paging scheme for memory management, discuss the paging hardware and
paging model.
[16]
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6. Suppose the head of a moving- head disk with 200 tracks, numbered 0 to 199, is
currently serving a request at track 143 and has just finished a request at track 125.
If the queue of requests is kept in FIFO order: 86, 147, 91, 177, 94, 150, 102, 175,
130. What is the total head movement to satisfy these requests for the following
disk scheduling algorithms.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
FCFS
Random
PRI
SCAN
SSTF
C- SCAN
[16]
7. (a) Explain the file operations.

(b) Discuss the usage information elements of a file directory.
[8+8]
8. (a) Explain generic decryption technology.

(b) List the typical steps in digital immune system operation.
[8+8]
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Set No. 4
Code No: S0502/R05

OPERATING SYSTEMS
Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. What are the various classes of interrupts? Explain.
[16]
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2. What is a process? Explain different process states.
[16]
3. Explain how process synchronization is helpful required for executing programs?

[16]
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4. What is a deadlock? What are the necessary conditions for a deadlock occurrence?
[16]
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5. (a) Explain forward- mapped page table scheme for structuring the page table.
(b) What is an inverted page table? How is it useful in structuring the page table?
[8+8]
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6. (a) Describe the logical structure of the I/O function for a local peripheral device
that communicate in a simple fashion, such as a stream of bytes.
(b) Discuss about the buffer swapping techniques in detail.
[8+8]
7. (a) Discuss the objectives for file management systems.

(b) Explain the file system Architecture.
[8+8]
8. Give a note on the following terms.

(a) Misfeasor
(b) Masquerader
(c) Interception
(d) Fabrication
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Set No. 1
Code No: R0805/R05

MASS TRANSFER OPERATIONS-I
(Chemical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. (a) What are various separation techniques that can be used for N2 -O2 Separation
and explain briefly.
(b) Define stage and cascade.
(c) Differentiate between Distillation and Evaporation.
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[8+4+4]
2. Ammonia is being cracked on a solid catalyst according to the reaction

2NH3 N2 +3H2 . At one place in the apparatus, where the pressure is 1 std
atm abs and the temperature 200 0 C. The analysis of the bulk gas is 33.33% NH3
(A), 16.67% N2 (B) 50% H2 (C) by volume. The circumstances are such that NH3
diffuses from the bulk gas stream to the catalyst surface and the products of the
reaction diffuse back, as if by molecular diffusion through a gas film in a laminar
flow 1 mm thick. Estimate the local rate of cracking in kg of NH3 per sq.m catalyst
surface sec. which might be considered to occur if the reaction is diffusion controlled
with the concentration of NH3 at the catalyst surface equal to zero: Diffusivity of
NH3 in N2 at 298 K = 2.30105 m2 /sec Diffusivity of NH3 in H2 at 473 K =
18.6105 m2 /sec.
[16]
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3. (a) Describe the basic differences between Film Theory, Penetration Theory and
Film-surface renewal theory.
(b) Write short notes on analogies between heat and mass transfer.
[10+6]
4. At a particular section of an equipment for absorption of the solute A in a liquid,

the bulk gas phase contains 9.5 mol% A and the liquid contains 2 mol% of it.
The gas-film coefficient is ky = 10 kmol / (h) (m2 ) (y) and 60% of the mass
transfer resistance occurs in the liquid-film. The Henrys law applies. YA =0.85xA .
Calculate:
(a) The overall mass transfer coefficient, Kx
(b) The molar flux of A and
(c) The interfacial concentrations of the solute, xAi and yAi .
[5+5+6]
5. Write short note on the following:

(a) Bubble Cap plate
(b) Design features of tray tower.
[8+8]
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Set No. 1
Code No: R0805/R05
6. A mixture of acetone and phenol (40 mass% acetone) is flashed consecutively in

a cascade consisting two flash drums at 1 atm. The feed enters at a rate of 3000
kg/h and half of it is flashed in the first flash drum. The liquid from the first drum
is heated and flashed again in the second drum. What fraction of the feed entering
the second drum should be vaporized so that the residue contains not more than 1
mass% acetone? The vapour-liquid equilibrium data of the acetone-phenol system
are given below.
[16]
X
Y
0.01 0.04 0.10 0.20 0.30 0.40 0.50 0.60 0.70 0.80 0.90 0.96 0.99
0.67 0.776 0.852 0.91 0.94 0.962 0.98 0.99 0.991 0.994 0.997 0.999 0.9996
7. A mixture of benzene and toluene containing 40 mole percent of benzene is to be

separated to give a product of 90 mole percent of benzene at top and a bottom
product with not more than 10 mole percent. Using an average value of 2.4 for
the volatility of benzene relative to toluene. Calculate the number of theoretical
plates required at total reflux. Also calculate the minimum reflux ratio if the feed
is liquid and at its boiling point.
[16]
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8. (a) Explain briefly how to estimate minimum reflux ratio using Ponchon-Savarit
method.
(b) Write short notes on optimal reflux ratio.
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Set No. 2
Code No: R0805/R05

Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. Explain in detail the classification of mass transfer operations based on the phases
involved.
[16]
2. (a) Consider loss of ethanol vapour by diffusion from a half-filled open test tube.
At what point in the diffusion path will the contribution of the bulk flow term
to the molar flux be maximum?
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(b) Oxygen (A) is diffusing through carbon monoxide (B) under steady state
conditions, with the carbon monoxide non-diffusing and the total pressure
is 1105 N/m2 and the temperature is 0 0 C. The partial pressure of oxygen at
two planes 2 mm apart is, respectively, 13,000 and 6,500 N/m2 . The diffusivity
for the mixtures is 1.87105 m2 /s. Calculate the rate of diffusion of oxygen
in k mol/s through each square meter of two planes.
[6+10]
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[10+6]
4. The overall gas-phase mass transfer coefficient in an absorption tower is Ky = 5.35

kmol / (h) (m2 ) (y) and 70% of the total mass transfer resistance is known to be
in the gas-phase. The equilibrium relation is given by
Y = 3.2x
The total pressure in 760 mm Hg. Calculate:
(a) The individual gas-phase and liquid-phase mass transfer coefficients.

(b) the overall liquid-phase mass transfer coefficient, Kx.: and
(c) the overall mass transfer coefficients, KG and KY . The total molar concentration of the gas is 0.041 kmol/m3 ; the bulk liquid is essentially water. [5+5+6]
5. Explain in detail gas liquid contact in mechanically agitated vessels.
[16]
6. The molar enthalpies of saturated liquid and vapour mixtures of A and B at 1 atm
total pressure (reference temperature = 5 0 C) may be expressed as HL = 9000 +
1000 x kJ/kmol; HV = 35,000 + 8000 y kJ / kmol. The relative volatility AB =
1.8.
(a) calculate the molar heats of condensation of saturated pure vapours of compounds A and B at 1 atm.
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Set No. 2
Code No: R0805/R05
(b) we have one kmol of a liquid (x = 0.3, HL = 8500 kJ/kmol), and one kmol
of a vapour ( y=0.5. HV = 40000 kJ/kmol), what is the condition of the
liquid (sub cooled, saturated or super heated) and the condition of the vapour
(saturated or super heated)?
[8+8]
7. (a) Derive the relationship for the intersection of the operating lines corresponding to the rectifying and stripping sections of distillation column for various
thermal conditions of the feed.
(b) Write short notes on condensers and its location.
[10+6]
8. (a) Write short notes on external reboilers.

(b) Write advantages and disadvantages of jacketed kettle reboilers.
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Set No. 3
Code No: R0805/R05

Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. (a) Differentiate between the seperation process for homogeneous mixtures and
the seperation process for the heterogeneous mixtures with suitable examples.
(b) Write short notes on the selection of separation process taking a particular
example.
[8+8]
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2. (a) How does the binary gas-phase diffusivity depend upon the total pressure and
temperature? Can you give qualitative explanations?
(b) In a laboratory 3104 m3 of toluene was accidentally spilled over and has
quickly spread over an area of 0.85 m2 . If the diffusion is talking place through
a stagnant air of 1 mm thick, calculate the time required for the toluene to be
evaporate completely at 298 K and 1.013105 N/m2 for toluene, at prevailing
conditions, density = 866 kg/m3 ,diffusivity in air = 8.4106 m2 /sec and
vapor pressure = 3.99966103 N/m2 .
[8+8]
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[10+6]
4. Describe the diffusion between phases and show how the equilibrium distribution
curve varies as a function of temperature and pressure taking a system of liquid
water and gaseous mixture ammonia and air.
[16]
5. (a) State the various characteristics of tower packings.

(b) What are the two major types of packings? Explain each with neat diagram.
[8+8]
6. 100 Moles of an acetonitrile-nitromethane is differentially distilled in a batch still
at a pressure of 70kPa. The feed contains 74mole% acetonitrile. Distillation is
continued till the liquid left behind in the still contains 32 mole% acetonitrile. The
vapor-liquid equilibrium for the system at this pressure is correlated as follows:
Y =1.05x+0.13 for 0.3<x<0.52 and Y =0.77x+0.28 for 0.52<x<0.80
Where x and y refer to the mole fraction of acetonitrile in the liquid and equilibrium
vapor respectively. Find the average composition of the distillate collected and also
calculate quantities of distillate and residue product.
[16]
7. A packed distillation column for separation of Benzene and Toulene is operated at
total reflux. The benzene concentration in the distillate is 97 mol% and that in
the bottoms is 2 mol%. If the Relative Volatility of benzene in the mixture is =
2.51, calculate the number of overall gas-phase transfer units.
[16]
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Set No. 3
Code No: R0805/R05
8. (a) How is the Murphree vapor efficiency defined for a tray in a distillation column?
(b) What is the difference between homogeneous and heterogeneous azeotropic
distillation?
(c) What is the most common sequence for the use of heterogeneous azeotropic
distillation?
(d) For what conditions should the Fenske equation be used with caution?[4+4+4+4]
?????
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Set No. 4
Code No: R0805/R05

Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. Explain in details about the classification of mass transfer operations based on
direct and indirect operations.
[16]
2. (a) For a binary mixture of A and B show that DAB = DBA for equimolar counter
diffusion.
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(b) A mixture of He and N2 gas contained in a pipe at 298 K and 1.01325105

N/m2 total pressure, which is constant through out. At one end of the pipe
at point 1 the partial pressure pA1 of He is 0.60795105 N/m2 and other end
0.2 m, pA2 = 0.20265105 N/m2 . Calculate the flux of He at steady state if
[8+8]
DAB of He-N2 mixture is 0.687104 m2 /sec.
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3. Naphthalene is sublimed from a cylinder of naphthalene of 0.075 m diameter and

0.60 m long into stream of pure CO2 flowing at a velocity of 6 m/sec and 1 std atm
and 100 0 C. Calculate the mass transfer coefficient. Vapor pressure of Naphthalene
at 1000 C is 1330 N/m2 .
Viscosity of gas = 0.017103 kg/m.s.
Density = 1.437 kg/m3 .
Diffusivity = 0.0822104 m2 /sec.
JD =334.64104 ( Rel )0.2 .
[16]
Where Rel is Reynolds number based on cylinder length.
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4. In the desorption of component A from an a aqueous solution into air stream at a

particular point in the equipment, the bulk concentrations of the two streams were
analyzed to be PAg = 10 mm Hg and CAL =18 kg mole/ m3 . The overall gas coefficient Kg was equal to 0.3gmmoleA/ sec .m2 .atm. 57% of the total mass transfer
resistance was encountered in the gas film and 43% in the liquid film. Henrys law
constant was equal to 0.0072 atm/(moles of A/m3 of solution). Determine:
(a) The gas film coefficient
(b) The liquid film coefficient and
(c) The mass flux of A.
[16]
5. Define / explain the terms:

(a) Downcomer seal
(b) Downcomer apron
(c) Weeping
(d) Dumping
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Set No. 4
Code No: R0805/R05

(e) Active tray area
(f) Seal pot and
(g) Downcomer back up.
[16]
6. (a) A given mixture of n-pentane and n-octane is heated and flashed when one
mole liquid having a mole fraction x= 0.15 of n-pentane and two moles of
vapour are generated. At the temperature of the flash drum, the relative
volatility of n-octane with respect to n-pentane is 0.216. The solution is ideal.
Calculate the composition of the original mixture.
(b) What are the important factors that determine the selection of a batch distillation column for the separation of a liquid mixture?
(c) Explain P-x-y diagram.
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[6+6+4]
7. An equimolar mixture of A and B is to be prepared in a tray tower. A top product

having 95 mol% A is acceptable. However, a very pure bottom product having not
more then 0.1 mol% A is required. The feed is liquid at its bubble point. A reflux
ratio of 2.0 is suggested. The relative volatility of A with respect to B is AB =
2.2. Determine the number of ideal stages.
[16]
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8. Discuss the principles of extractive and azeotropic distillation and their relative
scope. Indicate the flow diagram for typical industrial applications of either type.
What is the basis for selection of separating agents used?
[16]
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Set No. 1
Code No: R2104/R05

AEROSPACE VEHICLE STRUCTURES-I
(Aeronautical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. A beam is supported and loaded as shown in figure 1 Determine the value of l1
in terms of l so that the largest deflection in the beam has the smallest possible
magnitude. Use Macaulays method for you answer.
[16]
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Figure 1
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2. (a) Explain clearly the difference between statically determinate and statically
indeterminate structure and how is order of redundancy determined?
(b) A 6 m long beam of I-section is fixed at both ends and is subjected to a u.d.l.,
which produces a maximum stress of 100 M Pa in it. Determine the value of
u.d.l. The depth of the beam section is 440 mm and value of I is 4104 m4 .
[6+10]
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3. A bending moment of 250 N.m is applied to a beam of rectangular section 50 mm

100 mm in a plane making an angle of 600 with the horizontal. Determine the
maximum stress produced in the beam section.
[16]
4. A bar of rectangular section 40 mm 50 mm and hinged at both ends is subjected
to axial compressive force. For the material of the bar , E = 200 G Pa and limit
of proportionality 250 M Pa. Calculate the minimum length of the bar for which
Eulers theory may be used.
[16]
5. A horizontal strut 3 m long, pin-jointed at its ends is of rectangular cross-section
4 cm 6 cm. It carries an axial load of 10 kN in compression together with a
concentrated load of 12 kN at the mid span. Determine the maximum stress in the
strut. E= 200 G Pa.
[16]
6. For a cantilever of length L and loaded with a point load P at its free end as shown
in figure 6, the deflection equation (with x=0 at the free end) is given as
y = -(P/6EI)(2L3 - 3L2 x+ x3 ). Use the Maxwell reciprocal theorm to determine
the deflection of free end of the cantilever when a load W is applied at a distance
a from the free end.
[16]
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Set No. 1
Code No: R2104/R05
Figure 6
7. A mass is suspended from a spring system as shown in figure 7 Determine the
natural frequency of the system. Take k1 = 5000N/m, k2 = k3 = 8000 N/m, m =
25 kg.
[16]
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Figure 7
8. Figure 8 shows a 3-DOF system. Determine the stiffness matrix and write the
equation of motion.
[16]
Figure 8
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Set No. 2
Code No: R2104/R05

Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. A 12 m long beam is simply supported at ends and subjected to two concentrated
loads 12 kN each at 3 m from each end. Determine the ratio of the deflection under
any load to the central deflection.
[16]
2. Find the expression for deflection of the indeterminate beam with u.d.l. over the
entire span as shown in the figure2.
[16]
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Figure 2
3. Figure 3 shows a rolled steel beam of an unsymmetrical I-section. If the maximum

bending stress in the beam section is not to exceed 40 M Pa, find the moment
which the beam can resist.
[16]
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Figure 3
4. Find the safe axial load on a steel section of 8 m height having one end fixed and
the other hinged which is built up of two 250 mm 100 mm standard channels
placed 10 cm apart back to back with two 300 mm 10 mm plates riveted to each
flange. For individual channel section, IXX = 3687.9 cm4 ; IY Y = 298.4 cm4 ; A =
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Set No. 2
Code No: R2104/R05
35.65 cm2 ; distance of C.G. from base = 2.70 cm. Adopt factor of safety = 4. Use
Rankines formula.
[16]
5. The coupling rod of a locomotive 2.5 m long is 4 cm broad and 10 cm deep and
of rectangular section. The maximum direct thrust in the rod is 150 kN applied
axially. Self weight etc. give the rod a uniform lateral load of 4500 N/m length.
Find the maximum bending moment and fibre stress at the centre. E= 210 G Pa.
[16]
6. (a) State the first Castiglianos theorem and derive the appropriate expression
which represents the theorm.
(b) Prove the Castiglanos first theorem by using concept of strain energy and
complementary energy of a member subjected to simple tension.
[6+10]
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7. A transmission shaft is composed of straight section of diameter 30 mm and a

section that tapers to a diameter of 50 mm as shown in figure 7 The input torque
at point C is 50 kN.m. Determine the reactions by Rayleigh Ritz Method. Use
G=50 G Pa.
[16]
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Figure 7
8. (a) Name the two methods based on matrix method which are used for structural
analysis and explain them briefly.
(b) Determine the stiffness matrix for the system shown in figure 8b
Figure 8b
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Set No. 3
Code No: R2104/R05

Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. A timber beam of rectangular section 100 mm deep by 50 mm wide is to be reinforced by steel strips 10 mm thick on both sides. The composite beam is simply
supported on a span of 3 m and a load of 8 kN is applied at the mid span. Calculate
the depth of steel plates if the maximum stress in timber is not to exceed 12 Mpa.
Determine also the maximum stress developed in steel. Esteel =200G Pa and Etimber
=15 G Pa.
[16]
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2. A beam AB of length 10 m is fixed at both ends and carries a U.D.L. of intensity

10 kN/m. calculate the fixing moments if the end B sinks by 1 cm. Take I = 14,500
cm4 , E= 2.1 105 N/mm2 .
[16]
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3. A horizontal cantilever 3 m long is of rectangular cross-section 60 mm wide throughout its length, and depth varying uniformly from 60 mm at the free end to 180 mm
at the fixed end. A load of 4 kN acts at the free end as shown in figure 3. Find
the position of the highest stressed section and the value of the maximum bending
stress induced. Neglect weight of the cantilever itself.
[16]
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Figure 3
[16]
strut. E= 200 G Pa.
[16]
6. Compare the strain energy of a beam, simply supported at its ends and loaded with
U.D.L., with that of the same beam centrally loaded and having the same value of
maximum bending stress.
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Set No. 3
Code No: R2104/R05

G=50 G Pa.
[16]
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Figure 7
8. (a) Name the two methods based on matrix method which are used for structural
analysis and explain them briefly.
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(b) Determine the stiffness matrix for the system shown in figure 8b
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Figure 8b
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Set No. 4
Code No: R2104/R05

Time: 3 hours
Max Marks: 80
?????
1. A 12 m long beam is simply supported at ends and subjected to two concentrated
loads 12 kN each at 3 m from each end. Determine the ratio of the deflection under
any load to the central deflection.
[16]
2. A 4 m long built - in beam is of T- section 300 mm deep by 150 mm wide with
thickness of the web and flange 30 mm. It is subjected to 3 loads of 10 kN each at
1,2,3 m from one end. Determine the maximum tensile and compressive stresses in
the beam.
[16]
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3. Locate principal axis for unsymmetrical sections by using

(a) Mohr-circle method.
(b) Circle of inertia method.
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strut. E= 200 G Pa.
[16]
6. For a cantilever of length L and loaded with a point load P at its free end as shown
in figure 6, the deflection equation (with x=0 at the free end) is given as
y = -(P/6EI)(2L3 - 3L2 x+ x3 ). Use the Maxwell reciprocal theorm to determine
the deflection of free end of the cantilever when a load W is applied at a distance
a from the free end.
[16]
Figure 6
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Set No. 4
Code No: R2104/R05

G=50 G Pa.
[16]
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Figure 7
8. Determine the stiffness matrix for the uniform cantilever beam as shown in figure
8.
[16]
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Figure 8
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Code No: R0104/R05

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2010

2. (a) Distinguish between:

-index and W-index

3. (a) How can IUH be derived from S-curve

Code No: R0104/R05

(b) Explain zig-zag method of irrigation along with a neat sketch

Code No: R0104/R05

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2010

2. (a) Differentiate between: infiltration rate and infiltration capacity.

4. (a) Distinguish between

Route the following inflow hystep. Determine the values of

Code No: R0104/R05

R.L. of water in the well at constant pumping= 117.1m

7. (a) Explain soil fertility and how is it maintained?

8. (a) Explain the procedure of designing a channel with Kennedys theory.

Code No: R0104/R05

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2010

Route the following inflow hystep. Determine the values of

Code No: R0104/R05

(b) A well penetrates into an unconfined aquifer having a saturated depth of

(b) Find the capacity of a soil for the following data.

Code No: R0104/R05

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2010

3. (a) Define the following terms:

Code No: R0104/R05

Code No: R0204/R05

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2010

2. (a) Explain the factors affecting synchronous reactance of alternator.

Code No: R0204/R05

7. (a) Explain the construction & operation of repulsion motor.

Code No: R0204/R05

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2010

Code No: R0204/R05

7. (a) Why single phase motors are not self starting?

8. (a) Explain the role & importance of commutation in Universal motor.

Code No: R0204/R05

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2010

2. (a) Explain the factors affecting synchronous reactance of alternator.

Code No: R0204/R05

Code No: R0204/R05

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2010

Code No: R0204/R05

(b) Explain the dynamic characteristic of stepper motor.

Code No: S0304/R05

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2010

2. In a grasshopper mechanism shown in figure 2, OA=80mm, AQ=120mm, PQ=300mm.

Code No: S0304/R05

5. (a) Discuss various types of followers.

6. (a) What is standard system of gears? How does it ensure interchangeability of

Code No: S0304/R05

Code No: S0304/R05

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2010

3. In a crank slotted-lever quick-return mechanism shown in figure 3 the distance

Code No: S0304/R05

4. (a) Differentiate between Davis and Ackermann steering gears.

6. (a) Make a comparison of cycloidal and involute teeth forms.

Code No: S0304/R05

Code No: S0304/R05

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2010

(a) Acceleration of piston (slider) inside the cylinder

Code No: S0304/R05