PLAN-n-PLAY

NEET 2016
NEET phase 1 is over and most of you will be preparing for the next phase. The approach towards this gateway demands similar or different strategy, this will be
the point of concern for most of you. The analysis given in this article will help you in cracking this toughest and highly organised examination. Let us begin our
journey with a quick recap of examination format, i.e. objective type. The especiality of this kind of format is the huge syllabus with no possibility of revision. The
time frame of preparation is sufficient enough, only for a single proper reading of content pertaining to the syllabus. This format is more scientific as compared to the
subjective one, provided you have the temperament and confidence regarding your preparations.
The question part also has a uniqueness in this kind of format, i.e. questions can
be framed on each and every line of the syllabus content with infinite patterns and
number. Thats why a proper reading of each and every line of the syllabus is
essential and it is the reason only, why a small prescribed syllabus appears very
huge to the aspirant in this format. Thus, the contrasting features of an objective
examination format includes
Huge syllabus
Questions with 4 or 5 appropriate options as answers
Unlimited number of question framing possible
Unlimited type of question framing possible
No pattern fixation
Always with surprises for the students
Characteristically seen in competitive examinations
However, due to its more scientific nature, this format appeals more to
aspirants. It is my personal experience that if someone has done a proper
reading of concerned topics, then he/she can easily segregate the correct answer
in first go, in this type of format. Cramming or mugging of content part is
strictly prohibited while the role of long-term memory and a different set
of problem-solving skills is very crucial to succeed in this format.
As we all know the question paper of NEET contains 180 questions in total, out
of which 45 each belongs to Physics and Chemistry and 90 belongs to Biology.
The table given below depicts the number of questions asked from various
chapters in NEET (phase1) and both the papers of AIPMT 2015. A careful
comparison between the questions asked in paper 1 and paper 2 of AIPMT 2015
can be very fruitful.

PHYSICS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.

9.
10.
11
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.

Chapters
Oscillation
Waves
Electrostatics
Current Electricity
Thermal and Chemical Effect of Current
Magnetic Effect of Current
Magnetism
Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating
Current
Electromagnetic Waves (Qualitative Treatment)
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
Electrons and Photons
Atoms, Molecules and Nuclei
Solids and Semi-conductor Devices
General Properties of Matter
Wave Optics

16

15(2)

15(1)

1
3
2
4
1
2
1
-

1
3
2
3
2
2

1
2
3
2
1
1
1
-

1
3
1
2
2
2
3

5
2
2
2
-

2
2
2
2
3
1
5

CONCLUSION

THE ANALYSIS

S.No.

S.No.

Chapters
Physical World and Measurement
Motion in One Dimension
Motion in Two and Three Dimension
Laws of Motion
Work, Energy and Power
Rotational Motion
Gravitation
Heat and Thermodynamics

16
0
2
2
2
1
3
2
5

15(2) 15(1)
1
2
2
3
3
2
6

1
1
3
2
2
3
5

The class coveragewise analysis of 2015 AIPMT (both the exams) and NEET phase
1 suggests 48% questions from class 11th syllabus and 52% questions from class
12th syllabus.
The difficulty level wise analysis of 2015 AIPMT(both the exams) and NEET phase
1 suggests the presence of 26% easy questions, 16% tough questions and 58%
medium level questions.

MENTORS ADVICE
1. Repetitive readings of Frame of Refrence are required to develop the logic, its
application is seen in numericals.
2. Relative Velocity and Projectile Motion, Relative Motion in Two Dimensions,
Idea of Relative Motion are very important especially for bullet, rain drop,
swimmer and boat type problems.
3. Vector related problems can be framed in any topic hence, Knowledge of Vectors
is essential for applications in numericals.
4. Bending of cycle, Banked road, Racing track problems, circular path of any vehicle
etc. are important problems related to Centripetal and Centrifugal Forces.
5. Inertia and Impulse are very important for direct questions while Concept of
Forces is required for basic applications.

FROM THE EDITOR'S DESK

6. In NEET direct questions are expected from Collisions, Gravitation, Centre
of Mass and Rotation.
7. All Topics-Waves, Combinations of Springs, Heat and Thermodynamics
related laws are required for basic applications.
8. Dopplers Effect, Kinematics of SHM, Simple and Spring Pendulum,
Oscillations and Resonance, Heat and Thermodynamics are very
important for direct questions. Especially look for direct questions involving
streamline flow, interference of waves, nodes and antinodes, Dopplers effect,
Mechanical spring ball model, compressing the cylinder, Heat pump and
greenhouse effect etc., in these topics.
9. Class 12th syllabus from Electrostat to EMI and Transformers require
vector applications as well time to time. From this part problems related to
superposition and quantization of charges, thin and thick plane sheets,
dielectric, mobility of charged particles, field potential and its calculation
power dissipated by cells important to be asked as direct questions.
10. In NEET and other competitions direct questions may also be seen from topics
like KE of cyclotron, conversion of galvanometer into ammeter and voltmeter,
neural point , angle dip, hysteresis curve, dynamo, induced emf and
transformers based questions.
11. Electromagnetic Spectrum, Optics and Modern Physics are very-very
important units as considerable numbers of questions are asked from these
units. These topics, on the contrary, are easy to revise and prepare as well
because a major portion of Modern Physics show overlapping with chemistry
syllabus.
12. In Optics, it is suggestive to give special emphasis on problems involving lens
maker formula, angular dispersion and dispersive power, YDSE and Polaroid.
13. In the Modern Physics, most of the portion is overlapped with chemistry
syllabus. Give special emphasis on photo-electric effect, stopping potential,
radioactivity, carbon dating, every transition, time line diagrams of logic
gates, mobile telephony and GPS communication.

CHEMISTRY
S. No

Chapters

16

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22

Basic Concepts of Chemistry

Structure of Atom
Chemical Bonding
Solutions
States of Matter
Nuclear Chemistry
Chemical Equilibrium
Ionic Equilibrium
Thermochemistry and Thermodynamics
Chemical Kinetics
Electrochemistry
Surface Chemistry: Colloids and Catalysis
Principle of Metallurgical Operations
Chemical Periodicity
Comparative Study of Elements
Transition Metals and f-Block Elements
Coordination Compound
Chemical Analysis
General Organic Chemistry
Hydrocarbons
Halogen Compounds and Alcohols
Ether, Aldehydes, Ketones, Acids and
Nitrogen Compounds
Polymers
Biomolecules and Chemistry in Everyday Life
Environmental Chemistry

1
2
3
2
1
1
4
2
1
1
1
1
4
1
1
6
9

2
3
2
2
1
1
2
2
1
1
1
1
3
6
2
1
4
2
1
5

1
1
2
1
3
1
2
2
1
1
1
2
4
3
1
2
5
3
3
4

1
3
-

1
1
-

1
1

23
24
25

15(2) 15 (1)

CONCLUSION

The class coveragewise analysis of 2015 AIPMT (both the exams) and NEET
phase 1 suggests 53% questions from class 11th syllabus and 47% questions
from class 12th syllabus.
The difficulty levelwise analysis of 2015 AIPMT(both the exams) and NEET
phase 1 suggests the presence of 43% easy questions, 17% tough questions
and 40% medium level questions.

MENTORS ADVICE
1. All the topics of General Chemistry are very important to build the foundation
of chemistry. As most of the chapters of general chemistry involve numericals
thats why it is also important to have a good practice of Numericals. For this
sake it is advisable to devote a separate one day for problem practice.
2. Stoichiometry, Photo-electric Effect, Bohrs Model, Hydrogen Spectrum,
Quantum Numbers, Periodic Properties, Hybridisation, VSEPR Theory,
Dipole Moment, Resonance and MOT are the concepts of importance as
most of the direct questions in NEET are asked from these concepts
frequently. Remember, all of these topics belong to class 11th syllabus and the
approximate coverage of this portion in NEET reaches to approximately 15%.
3. For stoichiometric calculations develop your own short cuts and it is also
suggestive to use approximation technique in calculations to save time. Atomic
structure has overlapping with the Modern Physics portion of physics, so in
depth study of this portion will prove very helpful in gripping the Modern
physics portion as well.
4. The topics of interest in physical chemistry are Gas Laws and Gas Equation
especially van der Waals modification, Concept of Entropy, Gibbs Free
Energy, various enthalpy related problems in connection with chemical
equations, Le Chatelier Principle, Solubility Product, Common Ion Effect,
pH, Buffers, Salt Hydrolysis and its Applications, Electrochemical Series
and its Applications, Electrochemical Cells, Nernst Equation and
Batteries (especially corrosion).
5. Direct questions can be easily framed on these topics. Some questions of
mixed nature are also seen. The topics mentioned above for learning with
direct solved examples will be beneficial.
6. It is advisable to take electrochemistry with redox as latter is helpful in
understanding the former. Try to develop direct formulas for solubility
product, pH, and salt hydrolysis to save time.
7. Inorganic chemistry is very vast and requires picturisation technique to
capture, i.e. repeated readings (without memorisation) are required to
capture the topics.
8. The topics of special interest are H 2 O 2 , s-block Elements (especially Li, Na,
K, Be, Mg and Ca) and their compounds, among p-block B, C, N, O, F, P, S, Cl
and Xe with especial reference to oxy acids of N, P, S, Inter-halogen
compounds and compounds of Xe.
9. The emphasis must be laid on the structures in case of oxy acids and
compounds of Xe.
10. The study about compounds like NH 3 , HNO 3 , H 2 SO 4 , H 3 PO 4 from
properties point of view is very important.
11. In case of HNO 3 emphasise more on type of nitrogen oxide or related product
formed during the reaction rather than the oxidation product.
12. Elements of 2nd period are called naughty elements as all of these show
different properties than the fellow members of their group due to their small
size. Most of the questions framed and asked on these elements only.
13. Questions on Boron are very frequent.
14. The other topics of special interest in physical and inorganic chemistry are
Solid State, Colligative Properties, Chemical Kinetics with special
emphasis on Order and Molecularity of Reactions, Pseudounimolecular
Reactions, Radioactivity in Relation to Chemical Kinetics, Catalysis in
General, Colloidal State, Lanthanide Contraction, Variable Oxidation
States in Transition Elements, Nomenclature and Isomerism in
Coordination Compounds, VBT and CFT in Coordination Compounds.
15. Organic chemistry, which is also called conceptual chemistry demands correct
orientation to be captured.
16. Initial chapters are the fundamental chapters of this segment. IUPAC
Nomenclature and Electron Displacement in a Molecule gives idea of
structures of organic compounds, while Isomerism indicates the relationship
between the structure and the reactions of organic compounds. The exposure
to type of organic reactions is required then to develop the complete logic.
17. The chapters of utmost importance are Hydrocarbons and Aldehydes and
Ketones.
18. The chapters of moderate importance are Halogen Compounds, Alcohol,
Phenols and Ethers, Carboxylic Acids and their Derivatives and Nitrogen
Compounds. Questions on trends in the acidic and basic strength are
frequently asked.
19. Chapters like Biomolecules, Polymers and Chemistry in everyday life although
look unimportant but every year 1-2 questions each from these chapters are
visible in NEET and other competitions. Hence a proper capturing of these
chapters is also essential.

BIOLOGY
S.No. Chapters
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17

16

Living World
Diversity of Life
Cell and Cell Division
Genetics
Morphology of Plants
Morphology of Animals
Physiology of Plants
Physiology of Animals
Reproduction, Development and Growth in
Plants
Reproduction, Development and Growth in
Animals
Ecology and Environment
Biology and Human Welfare
Biotechnology
Biomolecules
Human health and Disease
Evolution
Agriculture

15(2) 15(1)

1
11
9
10
5
2
7
11
6

1
9
7
11
6
3
2
12
10

3
3
7
13
5
6
7
10
8

9
1
3
3
2
3
1

11
9
-

10
10
-

CONCLUSION

The class coveragewise analysis of 2015 AIPMT (both the exams) and NEET
phase 1 suggests 53% questions from class 11th syllabus and 47% questions
from class 12th syllabus.
The difficulty levelwise analysis of 2015 AIPMT(both the exams) and NEET
phase 1 suggests the presence of 36% easy questions, 16% tough questions and
48% medium level questions.
The last 2 year analysis of AIPMT and NEET 2016 papers also suggests
maximum patch up of question paper with NCERT in Chemistry
(approximately 90%) and minimum in the case of Biology (45%).
Specific problems from last 5 topics were also the characteristic feature of
NEET 2016.

MENTORS ADVICE
1. The Topics related to classification in general and animal classification are
less described in NCERT and have moderate importance in AIMPT/NEET
however, their importance is elevated in regional PMTs.
2. Inspite of the fact that these are less described in NCERT, their importance for
application based questions cannot be neglected, i.e. it is advisable to go
through each and every line of NCERT for revision purposes. Each of these
lines is the summary of a major description regarding the individuals.
3. The topics of importance are Virus, Bacteria, Plantae and Animalia.
4. Cytology serves as the basis for the study of plants as well animals. Grip this
particular unit with the help of randomised testing as it is the key to study
other connected topics like Histology, Anatomy, Physiology and Genetics.
Direct solo questions from this portion are of lesser occurrence nowadays,
however, mixed type questions of cytogenetics are more frequent.
5. Secondary Growth in Anatomy along with the Structures and Functions of
Conducting Tissues are of greater importance as compared to the other
portions of this unit. Try to grip this portion with the help of flow charts and
diagrams.
6. Morphology of Plants is of moderate importance in most of the PMTs
now-a-days. In regional exams like JIPMER, AMU more questions from this
portion are expected. However, this portion is also very important for
understanding the basics of anatomy and physiology.
7. Photosynthesis is the most important topic among all the topics of plant
physiology. The key to capture this chapter along with Cellular Respiration is
to amalgamate their flow charts with organic chemistry and repetitive
readings of the flow charts.
8. Among Animals Tissues most of the direct questions are asked upon
destination of various type of epithelia. Among the connective tissues blood
and bone require special attention.
9. After NEET 2013, the morphology of earthworm and cockroach gained more
importance and you may find direct questions from these two. Flow charts
and diagrams both play crucial role in revisions of morphologies of plants as
well as animals.

10. Animal Anatomy and Physiology is a portion of moderate value but it has a
different role also for medical aspirant. Chapters of this portion play a vital
role in the studies of Medical College too. So here, one must take these chapters
as the foundation for their 1st semester in Medical College. You may found
direct as well as indirect (applied) both type of questions from this portion. All
the topics in this portion have almost equally importance, however, Neural
and Chemical Coordination has certain edge.
11. In Genetics, the Molecular basis of inheritance (Including mutations) and
genetic disorders are of more role value as compared to Mendelian Genetics
portion. Direct questions are usually asked from this portion only.
12. The Mendelian genetics and other portions like multiple alleles, sex
determinations, sex linked inheritance, crossing over, linkage and cytoplasmic
inheritance etc., however play a vital role in developing the foundation
regarding Genetics. Questions from these portions can be asked as fillers.
13. Evolution is important as its scope is very vast. One can felt its presence
through NEET (Phase 1) 2016. It begins from the origin of Earth and reaches
up to Human Evolution. Most of the questions from these chapters are of
generalised type with involvement of application as well. Now-a-days direct
question from this unit are mostly discarded, instead in serve direct applied
questions with self-approach are given importance.
14. As mutation and genes serve as the basis of evolution also, so from both of
these units direct and indirect questions can be framed easily.
15. The applied biology segment of your study requires maximum effort as it
contains all the portions of highest importance and current relevance. Most of
the questions in various examinations are asked from these chapters and are
of applied type. All of these have connectivity with your previous portions too
e.g. biotechnology requires proper touch of molecular genetics, likewise
ecology has genetics, morphology, anatomy etc in its basis.

EXAM TACTICS
How to act inside the examination hall? This question is of least importance for an
aspirant, but still I want to say a few words here. The approach finalisation depends
upon your will. The requirement of Practice and Patience is the main thing after the
selection of approach. I personally prefer the 3 Round approach to solve this kind of
question paper, i.e.

Round 1 15-20 mts (1st to last question) For easiest questions, gives a settling
time to our brain for the Mammoth task ahead. Questions attempted 15-30.

Round 2 2-2.15 hrs (last to first question) For moderate level questions, gives
best results. Allot 2 -3 mts for a question otherwise move to next question.
Questions attempted 120-125.

Round 3 last 25-30 mts (First to last question) Bonus round for most difficult
questions. Works to come out with most hidden facts of the mind. For the rest
15-25 questions.
Hence, it is advised to practice the 3 round approach at home through model or
sample papers to take out maximum benefit from it. The reason is simple, this is the
only scientific approach for solving an objective type paper.
Special Mantra for Problem Solving : The Elimination Technique or
Intelligent Guessing While facing an objective type question paper the
problems can be solved in two ways:
1. You know the correct answer through either proper knowledge of the
concept involved or through numerical solving technique.
2. You dont know the correct answer, but you can eliminate those options to
which you are sure that these cant be the correct answer.
It is of normal perception that out of 4 options given in a problem 50%, i.e. 2
options are more or less irrelevant. Thus, these can be eliminated easily. Now,
the correct answer lies in rest of the two options. This in turn increases the
probabilities of correct and incorrect answer to 50% from the previous 25% and
75% respectively.
At this stage, you can use your intelligence to get the correct answer. Thus, this
technique is in fact an intelligent guessing and must be used in all those cases
where negative marking is there in the question paper.
Last but not the least Try to stay positive and never let negative thoughts influence
you at all. Negative result may create some panic, but always think that you might
not have the aptitude to be fit in the requirements. Failures are the best teachers.
Remember these beautiful lines of Winston S. Churchill.

Success is not final, failure is not fatal: it is the courage to continue that counts.

BIO LOGICS

Prokaryotic Organisms
THE WORLD OF SURPRISING LIFE
Prokaryotes are the oldest, smallest and the most diverse group of organisms inhabiting the planet. They are ubiquitous and
greatly outnumber the eukaryotes. They can survive even without eukaryotes. Despite representing the simplest forms, the
advancements in prokaryotic complexity have led to the juncture where they are now identifiable as two separate
domains-Archaea and the Eubacteria.
Early biologists and natural philosophers concluded that earth is
fundamentally dichotomous, i.e. living things are either plants
or animals. The large and motile organisms were grouped under
animals while ones those do not move or did not appear to move
as bacteria, were included under plants. With the advancement
in understanding of microscopic world, it gradually realised the
drawback of two kingdom classification. Thus, additional
categories were introduced as fungi, Protozoa and bacteria.
Organisms were simplified at preliminary level based on the
structural complexity of living cell. Acellular organisms with
absence of defined nucleus were grouped as prokaryotes while
all the multicellular organisms with well defined nucleus were
grouped as eukaryotes.

The most prevalent phylogenetic classification till date,

RH Whittakers five kingdom classification, divided the
organisms into five separate kingdoms. It was based on
certain criterias, i.e. complexity of cell structure
(prokaryotic and eukaryotic)and organisation (unicellular
and multicellular) etc.
These kingdoms are Monera, Protista (all unicellular
eukaryotic
organisms),
fungi
(all
multicellular
decomposers) plants and animals. Of these, kingdom
Monera exclusively belongs to prokaryotes including
mycoplasma, bacteria, actinomycetes and cyanobacteria
as well.

05

Owing to diverse range of members, the Monerans were again

divided into two major groupsArchaebacteria and Eubacteria. The
latter was again divided into bacteria and cyanobacteria.
However, the discovery of an entirely different group of organisms
by Carl Woese in late 1970s, led to the introduction of a new domain
due to the vast genetic differences. They emphasised on the
separation of prokaryotic forms into Archaea and Bacteria. Woese
insisted that both of them have evolved separately from an ancestor,
termed as progenote. Thus, this three domain system actually
morphed into a six kingdom classification, with domains Archaea,
Eubacteria and domain Eukarya with kingdomsProtista, Fungi,
Plantae and Animalia.

Most of the Archaeans include inhabitants of some of

the most extreme environments on the planet where
only few organisms dare to survive, e.g. salt marshes,
hot springs, deep sea vents with temperature above
100C, extremely alkaline or acidic conditions etc.

Unusual Molecules, i.e. Lipids

and RNAs of Archaea
The membrane lipids of Archaea, the extreme halophiles and
thermophiles is quite different from that of eubacteria and
eukarya which consist of straight chain fatty acids bound to a
glycerol molecule through an ester linkage. The lipids of Archaea
also comprise of two long hydrocarbon chains but the two chains
are bound to glycerol via ether linkage, rather than ester linkage.
Also, the hydrocarbon chains are branched, with every fourth
carbon atom in chain bearing a methyl (CH3 ) group.
Thus, the basic archaebacterial lipid is diether composed of
glycerol and two molecules of phytanol, a type of alcohol.
Similarly, the ribosomal RNA studies also reveals an unexpected
property of Archaea. The tRNA, plays a central role in translation
by recognising codon in mRNA, particular for a amino acid. The
tRNA comprises of a number of nucleotides that are modified,
after they have been incorporated into a molecule. In almost all
organisms, the base Uracil is methylated to form thymine in tRNA.
But the tRNAs of all archaebacteria lack this thymine unit, instead
the uracil is modified to form or yield a pseudouridine or an
unidentified molecule.

Irrespective of the controversies about the domains and division of

kingdomMonera, as per Whittakers five kingdom classification, it is
quite evident that both Archaea and Eubacteria are prokaryotic
organisms. Lets have a general look towards attributes of
prokaryotes.
Characteristics Concluding Prokaryotic Organisms
(i) The organisms are unicellular and include primitive forms.
(ii) Cells are microscopic varying from 0.1 to few m in length.
(iii) Cell wall is usually present.
(iv) Entire cell is enveloped by plasma membrane but do not show
internal compartmentalisation, i.e. absence of membrane
bound organelles.
(v) Genetic material, i.e. DNA is not organised into a defined
nucleus but lies naked and coiled into a mass or region in
cytoplasm called nucleoid.

Landmarks in History of Bacteria

n

In 1683, Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek, a Dutch scientist, observed bacteria

in human saliva using a single lens microscope. He termed them
animalcules
The term bacterium was first used by Ehrenberg in 1829.
In 1854, French chemist and microbiologist, Louis Pasteur made extensive
studies regarding the role of bacteria in fermentation.
In 1857, a Swiss botanist, Carl Von Nageli suggested that bacteria have a
class of their own within the plant kingdom.
Ferdinand Julius Cohn, a German botanist, became increasingly interested
in bacteria and in 1872 published three volumes in which, he placed bacteria
under plant kingdom because of the presence of cell wall. He was credited
for coining the term bacterium from the Latin meaning little rod .
In 1884, a discovery by Danish bacteriologist Hans Christian Gram further
advanced the study of bacteria by classifying them as Gram-positive and
Gram-negative bacteria.

Archaebacteria
This includes the most unique and primitive prokaryotic organisms.
They were first discovered by Carl R Woese, in 1977. They are placed
in a separate DomainArchaea because of the range of differences
exhibited by Archaebacteria and true bacteria (the most common
one). Structurally they are much alike bacteria, hence remained
unrecognised for long to be placed separately. But they are
biochemically and genetically different from bacteria, hence the term
bacteria has been abandoned from them and presently they are
called as Archaea.

06

Some Important Features of

Archaea Include
l

The absence of peptidoglycan in cell wall.

The cell wall contains protein and non-cellulosic
polysaccharides.
Some
show
presence
of
pseudomurein, e.g. methanogens.
Cell or plasma membrane are characterised by
presence of a monolayer of branched chain lipids.
They possess different 16S rRNA nucleotides.
Their translation process is sensitive to diptheria
toxin and not to chloramphenicol.
They also possess some introns in their genome.

How Archaea survives in deep

hydrothermal vents?
Thermoacidophiles are comfortable and easily grow in water with
temperatures as high as 110C and still able to carry out their
metabolic processes. It is because they are found in deep vents, at
great depths. At this depth, the pressure stops the water from
boiling and keeps it in liquid form. Further, the presence of
branched lipids in cell membrane and resistant enzymes also
allows them to escape high temperature and acidic conditions.
Thus, the bacteria is able to carry on its processes and survive
successfully.
Halophiles also possess special lipids in their cell membrane as
well as a mucilage covering. They lack sap vacuole and hence
plasmolysis.

Major Categories of Archaebacteria

On the basis of their habitats, they are categorised into three major
types.

Three Categories of Archaebacteria

Methanogens
They are mostly
Gram-negative and
some are
Gram-positive.
They are strict
anaerobes.
They occur in marshy
areas where they
convert formic acid and
CO 2 into methane.
Some of them live as
symbionts in the rumen
of the ruminants
stomach and help in
fermentation of
cellulose.

Halophiles

Thermoacidophiles

They are Gram-negative

They are Gram-negative.

They are mainly aerobic. They are mainly aerobic.

They occur in salt rich
substrates like salt pans,
great salt lake, dead sea
and salt marshes.

They occur in hot sulphur

springs where the temperature may be 80C or more and
pH as low as 2.

They can trap solar

energy and utilises it in
manufacturing organic
food due to the presence
of a red carotenoid
pigment in membrane.

Under aerobic conditions, they

oxidise sulphur to sulphuric
acid and when the conditions
are anaerobic, they reduce
sulphur to H2S.

e.g. Halococcus,
e.g. Sulfolobus, Thermoproteus
e.g. Methanothrix,
Methanogenium and
Haloferax and
and Desulfurococcus.
Methanoplanus.
Haloarchaea.
* Methanogens and halophiles are placed in division euryarchaeota while
thermoacidophiles are placed in division crenarchaeota.

Halobacterium, A Well known Archaea

Because of the extreme life style, Archaea do not have much history of scientific
investigation. One such extensively studied Archaea includes Halobacterium. It has a
light sensitive pigment bacteriorhodopsin, which gives bacterium its unique-lovely
purple colour as well as provide chemical energy by pumping protons to the outside of
membrane. When these protons flow back, they synthesise ATP, the energy currency of
cell. This pigment is very similar to vertebrate pigment rhodopsin, found in retina of eye.
Archaebacteria-Living Fossils Archaebacteria represent one of the most primitive
form of life on Earth, which experimented on the absorption of solor radiations for the
first time. They lived comfortably under anaerobic conditions and in the presence of
oxygen, developed techniques to utilise it. Therefore, they are considered as living fossils.

Mycoplasma : The Simplest and Smallest Organism

Mycoplasma is the simplest and smallest prokaryotes with a size of 0.1-0.15 m.
These are obligatory parasites that are strictly anaerobic. They lack a cell wall and are
enclosed only by plasma membrane. Absence of cell wall allows them to assume and
change their shapes, hence are pleomorphic. Rest of the cellular structures are similar
to those of other prokaryotes.
Replicating disc (assist in replication
Though most of them are
and separation of genetic material)
heterotrophic, but due to their
Plasma membrane
inability to synthesise certain growth
Ribosomes (70S)
factors, they may adopt parasitism
DNA (coiled
e.g. Mycoplasma gallisepticum, M.
throughout the
laidlawii. They cause
cytoplasm)
pleuropneumonia, rheumatism,
RNA
Protein particle
inflammation in humans and
domestic animals, while diseases
Enzymes
like maize stunt, potatos witches
broom, little leaf in brinjal among
Granule
plants. Since they were discovered
Magnified structure of PPLO
in pleural fluid of cattle, suffering
from pleuropneumonia, they are also called Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organisms
(PPLO).

Crabgrass of Cell Culture

Mycoplasmas have been nick named as the crabgrass of
cell cultures because their infections are persistent,
frequently difficult to detect, diagnose and cure.
Contamination of cell cultures by mycoplasmas presents
serious problems in research laboratories and in
biotechnological industries using cell cultures. The origin of
contaminating mycoplasmas in components of the culture
medium, particularly serum is the flora of the technicians
mouth, spread by droplet infection.

Eubacteria
These are called as true bacteria or just bacteria.
Like other prokaryotes, they are unicellular and
devoid of nucleus and other membrane bound
organelles. They are the most common and
abundant microorganisms found in a very diverse
range of habitats, hence are ubiquitous. And also
because they are known to multiply rapidly, they
outgrow in number than any other organism.

Exploring Diverse Bacterial Habitats

Bacteria are found almost everywhere from the top of
highest peak of mountains to the bottom of deepest oceans.
Some of the explored habitats where bacteria are found,
are
Rock Certain bacteria like species of Chemolithotrophic
bacteria are found underground in solid rocks of basalt
deposits (4700 ft underground).
Air The air you breathe in, is full of bacteria but we dont
realise as they are not visible with naked eye. Many
bacteria grow and complete their life cycle in atmosphere,
producing clouds of bacteria above our heads.
Ice Though they are not as common in extreme cold as
other environments but they still are present. They are
present in snows of North and South Poles. Recently
biologists revived a 8-million year old bacterium that was
extracted from the Antarctic ice.
Hot water Some bacteria like species of Aquifex
inhabits water as hot as 95C, just near to boiling
temperature of water. Hey, this is not Arachea species,
which can inhabit high temperature as 106C.
n

Mode of Communication
in Bacteria
Like living organisms bacteria too communicate with each
other. Instead of language, they use signalling molecules,
which are released in the environment. They are also able
to measure the concentration of molecules in a population.
The phenomenon of accumulation of signalling molecules
enabling a single cell to sense the cell density is termed as
Quorum Sensing. This enables them to coordinate their
behaviour in different environmental conditions. Also for a
pathogenic bacteria, this mechanism helps in keeping
coordination with their virulence, in order to escape the
immune response of the host so as to establish a successful
infection.

07

Bacteria as Ice Nucleators

Size and Shapes of Bacteria

Recent research by scientists, Christner et al shows that microbes are found in rain,
snow and hail all over the world. These microbes also termed as ice nucleators live in
cloud and have evolved themselves to spur shower as a means to disperse
themselves. When present in high concentrations, they are able to form ice in clouds,
an initial step towards formation of snow. These ice nucleators are also found along
with aerosols, the tiny particles suspended in air, which indicates that bacteria forms
a link between ecosystem and clouds. These nucleators are suggested to come
mostly from soil and plant ecosystems.

As mentioned earlier, bacteria are microscopic. So

obviously they are the smallest organisms ranging
from a diameter of 0.5 to 2.0 microns. The smallest
bacterium may vary between 0.1-0.2 m while the
giant bacterium Epulopiscium fishelsoni is about 0.5
mm long. It is found in Sturgeon fish.

Comparison of Sizes of Few Bacteria

Species

Size in Microns

Epulopiscium fishelsoni

600 50

Bacillus megterium

4 1.5

Escherichia coli

3 1

Streptococcus pneumoniae

0.8 0.8

Haemophilus influenzae

12
. 0.25

Rhodospirillum photometricum

30 3

Chromatium buderi

74

Cellular Characteristics of Bacteria

A typical bacterial cell comprises of a cell envelope, cytoplasm,
nucleoid, plasmids, flagella, pili and fimbriae.
Cell envelope Comprises of outer covering enclosing cytoplasm of
cell. It is divided into three layers.
(i) Glycocalyx Outer gelatinous layer consisting of non-cellulosic
polysaccharides. It may be present as :
Slime layer When loose sheath encloses the cell.
Capsule When the covering is thick and tough.
Function This layer prevents the cell from dessication and
protects it from phagocytes, viruses, toxic chemicals and drugs.

World of Shapes of Bacteria

Glycogen
RNA

Bacterial cells occur in various interesting shapes as

Coccus Spherical or ovoid. They may be

LIpid
Cell wall
globule
Mesosome

Respiratory
enzymes
Pilus
(Fimbrial)
Filament
Hook

Monococcus
(Singly)

Diplococcus
(Pair of two)

Tetracoccus
(Tetrads)

Basal
body

Ribosome
Polyribosome
Streptococcus
(Chains of cocci)

Staphylococcus
(Clusters of cocci)

Sarcina
(3-D geometrical
forms)

Bacillus Straight cylindrical, rod-like structure with a flat or

rounded ends.

Bacillus
Diplobacillus
Palisade bacillus
Streptobaillus
(Occurring singly) (Occurs in pairs) (Stacks of bacillus) (Chains of bacillus)

Other Forms

Flagellum
Cytoplasm

Ultrastructure of bacteria

08

Mucilage
Plasma
membrane

(ii) Cell wall It is the strong and rigid covering due to presence of
murein. It provides shape and structural support to the cell.
Murein or peptidoglycan forms the structural network of cell wall.
It comprises of repeating units of N-Acetyl Glucosamine (NAG)
and N-Acetyl Muramic Acid (NAM) cross linked by small peptide
chains.
(iii) Plasma membrane It is similar to typical semipermeable
membrane made up of phospholipid bilayer with various kinds of
proteins. It holds receptor molecules for detection and is
metabolically active as takes part in respiration, synthesis of
lipids and cell wall components.
Cytoplasm Contains 80% water, proteins, carbohydrates, lipids
and inorganic ions etc. It is thick, aqueous, semi-transparent and
elastic.
Nucleoid Bacteria lack well defined nucleus. It contains
amorphous lobular mass of fibrillar chromatin type material called
genophore.
Genetic material Single circular molecule of ~5 millions bp and
several thousand genes constitute the genetic material.
Plasmids Small, self-replicating, circular, extrachromosomal DNA
that possess few genes and give extra-survival advantage. It may
confer resistance to antibiotics.

Vibrio (Comma Mycelial

Spirillum
Stalked
Budded
or curved
(Coiled like
(Posses a stalk) (Bacteria is
shaped e.g.
a cork screw
e.g.
Caulobacter
swollen at
Vibrio
cholerae)
e.g. Spirochaete)
places) e.g.
Rhodomicrobium

Nuclear body
(Nucleoid)

Colicogenic
factor

Plasmids
(in bacteria)

Fertility
factor

Colicin secreting
capacity to bacteria

Resistance
factor

Promote sexual
conjugation in bacteria
(E.coli, Shigella)

Forms of Flagellation in Bacteria

On the basis of absence or presence of flagella and their numbers
and arrangement, bacteria show various types of flagellation.
A flagellum at both
the ends

Offer resistance against

drugs to bacteria
l

Ribosomes Bacteria possess 70S ribosome (30S + 50S)

containing r-RNA and protein.
Mesosomes They are much coiled invaginations in the
outer membrane of cytoplasm. It possess many respiratory
enzymes and are more prominent in Gram-positive bacteria.
Inclusions Reserve deposits containing metachromatic
granules, lipid inclusions, sulphur granules, carboxysomes
and vacuoles.
Flagella It is single stranded and similar to microtubular
fibre with about 20 nm in diameter and 1-7 m in length. It
originates from a granular structure and protrudes out
through cell wall. Bacterial flagella performs rotation
movement (backward pushing of medium) hence moves
forward.

Group of
flagella
found at
one end
Monotrichous
(Single flagellum
at one end of cell)

Amphitrichous

Basal body
(Rod-like) Hook
Wall

Thickest part of flagellum curved

tubular structure that connects
filament with basal body

Atrichous

Numerous
flagella
distributed
all over the
surface
Peritrichous

Differentiate Bacteria

Filament (flagellin)
Long tubular structure
Sleeve causes turbulence in
fluid medium. Made up
of globular protein.

Outer membrane

Basal body
Rod-like inserted in cell
envelope, bears ring-like
swellings in membrane
and cell wall.

Rod
Peptidoglycan portion
of cell wall
Plasma membrane
Outer protein ring
Inner protein ring

H+

Cephalotrichous
(Tuft of flagella
at both the ends)

Gram Staining : A Diagnostic Tool to

Hook

Plasmalemma

H+

The technique called Gram staining has now become the

basic step in preliminary identification of bacteria. It is a
valuable diagnostic test in both clinical and research
experiments. This Gram staining method differentiates
bacterial species into two large groups (Gram (+)ve and Gram
()ve) on the basis of physical and chemical properties of cell
walls, i.e. high ratio of peptidoglycan and techoic acid.
Gram Staining Process
Bacterial smear

Structure of flagella

Air drying

Filament
Hook

Stained with crystal violet/Gentian

violet (30 seconds)
Bacteria get stained (Bluish purple)

L-ring

Washed with water

P-ring

Iodine staining (0.5% solution)

(Iodine works as mordant)

Cell wall
Basal
corpuscle
Cell
membrane

C-ring
S-ring
M-ring

Pili and Fimbriae Pili are longer, fewer and thicker tubular outgrowths
which develop in response of F + or fertility factor in gram negative bacteria.
They are made up of protein pilin. Fimbriae are small bristle like fibres
sprouting from cell surface in large number. They are helpful in attaching
bacteria to solid surfaces or host tissues.
Basal Body Structure of Gram (+ ) ve Vs Gram () ve Bacteria
Gram-positive
Only single pair of rings. Rings
in cell wall are absent.
S and M rings in cell
membrane only.

Absence
of flagella

Forms of
Flagellation

It comprises of three parts, i.e. basal body, hook and filament.

Filament

Lophotrichous

Gram-negative
Two pairs of rings, i.e. P and L rings
in cell wall.
S and M rings embedded in cell
membrane.

Formation of crystal violet Iodine

(CVI) complex
Treatment with alcohol
Bacteria retain stain
Gram-positive
Bacillus, Clostridium,
Corynebacterium,
Pneumococcus,
Streptococcus,
Mycobacterium,
Enterococcus

Destained bacteria
Counter staining
with Safranin
Pink colour appears

Gram-negative
Acetobacter, Escherichia,
Haemophilus, Neisseria,
Nitrobacter, Vibrio,
Salmonella
Procedure of Gram staining

Bacteria prefer
cosy home like us
You know bacteria do not
always prefer the extreme
environment, rather are
abundantly found in
environment where living is
easy and comfortable. Such
environments, i.e. warm and
moist with plenty of
available nutrients, e.g.
anything dead and decaying
is an excellent home for
bacteria. They also inhabit
living organisms as plants
and animals. You wont
believe every human being
had a particular flora of
bacteria inhabiting the
entire surface of our body
including skin, mouth,
stomach, intestine,
genitalia, etc.

09

Structural Differences Leading to Differentiation of

Gram-positive and Gram-negative Bacteria
Gram-positive

Gram-negative

Retain Gram stain.

Does not retain Gram stain.

Rigid cell wall due to the

presence of high proportion
of peptidoglycan (~ 80%)

Less rigid and more elastic cell wall.

Peptidoglycans account only about
3-12%.

Single layered thick cell wall

(100-200 ) containing
techoic acid.

Triple layered thin cell wall (70-120 )

with absence of techoic acid. The
outer layer that surrounds the cell wall
is made of Lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

Basal body of flagellum has

two rings of swellings.

Four rings of swellings occur in basal

body of flagellum.
G

Cell wall of Gram (+) ive bacteria

B
Cell wall of Gram () ive bacteria

Do you think bacteria can move very fast?

Bacteria does not move by flexing their flagella but by rotating them like
a propeller. This type of movement enables them to obtain speeds upto
0.00017 km/hr. Though it may not seem very fast to you as compared to
your vehicle, but turning to other side, i.e. considering its size, they are
reasonably very fast. They travel about 50-60 body lengths per second,
which is equivalent to 6 ft man running at 100 m/s. Some bacteria do not
move, they glide across surface and are even able to control their
buoyancy and depth in water by means of internal gas vesicles.

Evolution of Nutrition in
Prokaryotes
Nutrition in the entire domain of prokaryotes shows a
wide range of differences. Based on the studies of
Archaebacteria, scientists assume that these earliest
prokaryotes absorbed energy from extracellular reactions to
support the formation of ATP inside the cell. These first
(primitive) chemoautotrophic cells probably used CO2 as
carbon source and the ATP to construct larger and more
complex molecules. The nutrition in bacteria perhaps must
have evolved as in the sequence.

Autotrophic Nutrition
Photoautotrophic Bacteria
These are anaerobic bacteria and do not release oxygen
during photosynthesis, i.e. anoxygenic photosynthesis.
These bacteria possess two photosynthetic pigmentsbacteriochlorophyll in purple bacteria, e.g. Thiopedia rosea
and bacteriophaeophytin, in green sulphur bacteria, e.g.
Chlorobium limicola.

10

These bacteria use H2 as reducing source, instead of water.

Based on the type of bacteria, it is either obtained directly
(purple bacteria) or from inorganic and organic compounds
(green bacteria) or aliphatic compounds (purple non-sulphur
bacteria).
Light energy
Enzymes

6CO2 +12H2
C6H12O6 + 6H2O

Chemoautotrophic Bacteria
They also manufacture their own food with the help of energy
derived from exergonic chemical reactions involving oxidation
of inorganic substances. This chemical energy obtained is
trapped in ATP molecules which is further utilised in carbon
assimilation. Based on the oxidising substances there are
several types of chemoautotrophic bacteria.

Nitrifying Bacteria
Such type of bacteria obtain energy by oxidising ammonia to
nitrite, e.g. Nitrosomonas, Nitrosococcus.
NH+4 + 2O2 NO2 + 2H2O + Energy

Sulphur Oxidising Bacteria

These bacteria oxidises H2S to sulphur, e.g. Beggiatoa.
2H2S + O2 2S + 2H2O + Energy
Sulphur to sulphuric acid, e.g.
Thiobacillus

thioxidans
2S + H2O + 3O2
2H2SO4 + Energy

Iron Bacteria
These bacteria obtain energy by oxidising ferous compounds to
ferric forms, e.g. Ferrobacillus ferro-oxidans.
4FeCO3 + 6H2O + O2 4Fe(OH)3 + 4CO2 + Energy

Hydrogen Bacteria
These bacteria oxidise hydrogen to obtain energy, e.g.
Thiothrix.
2H2 + O2 2H2O + Energy
4H2 + H2SO4 H2S + 4H2O + Energy

Carbon Monoxide Bacterium

These bacteria oxidises CO to CO2 to obtain energy, e.g.
carboxydomonas.
2CO + O2 2CO2 + Energy

Photosynthetic Bacteria
In the evolutionary sequence, this seems to have originated
later, only after the appearance of intriguing organisms, e.g.
Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae). Since, they are the only
group of bacteria with photosynthetic pigments and
capabilities. They are thought to be responsible for changing
the prehistoric (anaerobic) environment to an (aerobic) oxygen
atmosphere. Their oxygen production is supposed to have built
the protective ozone layer in atmosphere.
Microfossil cyanobacteria estimated to be 3.5 billion years old
were discovered in Australia.

Heterotrophic Nutrition

Saprophytic Bacteria

According to the heterotroph hypothesis, the environment

would have been full of organic molecules and ATP. So
these first heterotrophs may have survived on this soup of
organic molecules, produced by autotrophic organisms.
On the basis of three modes of nutrition, bacteria may be as
follows:

These free living bacteria obtain their nutrition from organic

remains, e.g. fallen leaves, vegetables, fruits, meat, jams, animal
excreta and corpses etc. They obtain energy by anaerobic
breakdown of carbohydrates (fermentation) and proteins
(putrefaction), a process known as decay. Therefore, these group
of prokaryotes act as natures scavengers as helps in
decomposition of organic remains, disposal of sewage etc.

Few Major Groups of Bacteria

Major Group

Typical Examples

Key Characteristics

Anabaena and
Nostoc

A form of photosynthetic bacteria [Gram ( ) negative] common in

both marine and freshwater environment. Deeply pigmented, often
responsible for blooms in polluted water.

Actinomycetes

Streptomyces and
Actinomyces

Gram-positive bacteria form branching filaments and produce

spores; often mistaken for fungi. Produce many commonly used
antibiotics, including streptomycin and tetracycline. One of the
most common type of soil bacteria; also a common cause of
dental plaque.

Chemoautotrophs

Sulphur bacteria,
Nitrobacter and
Nitrosomonas

These bacteria are able to obtain their energy from inorganic

chemicals. Most of them extract chemical energy from reduced
gases, such as H2S (hydrogen sulphide), NH3 (ammonia) CH4
(methane). Play key role in the nitrogen cycle.

Enterobacteria

Escherichia coli,
Salmonella and
Vibrio

Gram- negative, rod-shaped bacteria do not form spores, usually

aerobic heterotrophs; cause many important diseases, including
bubonic plague and cholera.

Gliding and budding

bacteria

Myxobacteria and
Chondromyces

Gram-negative bacteria explain gliding motility by secreting slimy

polysaccharides over which masses of cells glide, some groups
form upright multicellular structures carrying spores called fruiting
bodies.

Pseudomonas

Pseudomonas

Gram-negative heterotrophic rod shaped bacteria with polar

flagella. They are a common form of soil bacteria, also contain
many important plant pathogens.

Rickettsias and
chlamydias

Rickettsia and
Chlamydia

Small, Gram-negative intracellular parasites. Rickettsia life cycle

involves both mammals and arthropods, such as fleas and ticks;
Rickettsia are responsible for many fatal human diseases including
typhus (Rickettsia prowazekii) and Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
Chlamydial infections are one of the most common cause of
sexually transmitted diseases like epididymitis.

Spirochaetes

Treponema

Long, coil-shaped cells. Common in aquatic environments;

parasitic form is responsible for the disease syphilis.

Cyanobacteria

Eubacteria

11

Magnetospirillium magneticum
Magnetic Tracer
Salvatore of the University of Pavia first described magnetotactic
bacteria in 1963. He identified that this bacteria has unique motility
and orientation in the aquatic environment, which appeared to follow
magnetic field lines. It is an aquatic, motile, Gram-negative bacteria
that usually resides in chemically stratified water columns. It contains
magnetite filled magnetosomes, uses flagella for motility and
grows most efficiently between aerobic upper waters and anaerobic
lower regions of most water bodies. Inside water, it migrates along the
geomagnetic field lines, swimming parallel or antiparallel to them in
search of its optimum living environment.

Symbiotic Bacteria
Such bacteria live in mutually beneficial association with
other organisms, such as E.coli in human intestine. The
bacteria feeds on undigested food matter and checks the
growth of saprophytic bacteria as well as produces large
quantities of vitamin-B6 , B12 and K.
Another useful symbiotic bacteria is Rhizobium that occurs
in association with root nodules of leguminous plants. It
obtains shelter and food from plant while performs nitrogen
fixation for the plant.

Parasitic Bacteria
These bacteria live in other living organisms to obtain
nutrition. They may or may not be harmful. Disease causing
bacteria are called pathogenic bacteria. They are
responsible for 90% of human diseases.

Antibiotics : The Bacterial Killers

Bacterial growth is either inhibited (bacteriostatic) or totally stopped
(bactericidal) by antibacterial antibiotics. They normally act by inhibiting
cell wall synthesis, bacterial protein synthesis via altering bacterial
ribosome, m-RNA synthesis on DNA template.
Penicillin
Inhibits cell wall synthesis
in bacteria. Cell continuously
grow without protection
and finally undergoes
cell lysis
Streptomycin
Inhibits protein synthesis
by altering 30S subunit
leading to mis-reading
of mRNA code.
A rapid bactericidal drug

Actinomycin-D
Binds to ds DNA and inhibits
m-RNA synthesis. High
concentration blocks
Chloramphenicol
DNA replication also
Inhibits protein synthesis
by interacting
with 50S subunit

Antibiotics

Pauromycin
Block protein synthesis
by acting as analogue
to adenosine terminal
phe-tRNA

Tetracyclin
Inhibits protein synthesis
by causing interference
in the binding of t-RNA
with ribosome

Bdezllovibrio as Therapeutic Agents

Bdellovibrio are predatory bacteria that invade the periplasm of other
Gram-negative bacteria where they undergo a complex development cycle
that culminates in killing of the prey cell. Their intercellular niche allows
Bdellovibrio to feed without competition and their lytic action can rapidly
reduce bacterial populations, including pathogens, making these predatory
bacteria an interesting potential candidates for therapeutic applications.

Some Bacterial Pathogens of Human Diseases

Name of disease

Causative agent

Type of bacteria

Tuberculosis

Mycobacterium
tuberculosis

Simple Actinomycetes

Leprosy

Mycobacterium leprae Simple Actinomycetes

Bubonic plague

Pasteurella pestis

Bacillus bacteria

Tetanus (lock jaw)

Clostridium tetani

Bacillus bacteria

Bacterial influenza

Haemophilus
influenzae

Bacillus bacteria

Whooping cough

Haemophilus or
Bordetella pertusis

Bacillus bacteria

Cholera

Vibrio cholerae

Vibrio bacteria

Syphilis

Treponema pallidum

Spirochaete

Gonorrhoea

Neisseria gonorrhoeae Spirochaete

Diphtheria

Corynebacterium
diphtheriae

Simple Actinomycetes

Pneumonia

Diplococcus
pneumoniae

Coccus

Typhoid

Salmonella typhi
(S.typhosa)

Bacillus bacteria

12

Anolis landestoyi New Species of Chameleon-Like

Lizard Found

Scientists from Canada and the United States have discovered a

new species of Greater Antillean anole lizard in the Dominican
Republic, on the Caribbean island of Hispaniola, strengthening a
theory that communities of lizards can evolve almost identically on
separate islands.
Members of Genus Anolis are text book examples of replicated
adaptive radiation, i.e. the phenomenon in which related species
evolving on different islands diversify into similar sets of species
that occupy the same ecological niches. Other Examples of this
could be long-tailed grass dwellers, bright green canopy lizards,
and stocky brown species that perch low on tree trunks, each living
in similar environments on more than one island.

Modes of Reproduction in Bacteria

Bacteria reproduce by three methods-vegetative, asexual and sexual.

Budding A small protuberance

called bud arises from parental cell
and enlarges to form a daughter
cell, capable of independent living.

Fragmentation Under unfavourable

conditions, protoplasm forms minute
bodies called gonidia, which grows
into a new bacterium on arrival of
favourable conditions.

3. Gonidia
In a few bacteria, the protoplast
divides into many flagellated
zoospores so as to rapidly
multiply and allow dispersal
e.g. Rhizobium, Azotobacter.
4. Cysts
In some bacteria likeAzotobacter,
thick walled spores called cyst
are formed. Each cyst germinate
to form new bacterial cells.

Vegetative
Reproduction
Binary Fission
Most common mode of reproduction in bacteria.
Takes place in following steps:
Cell replicates its DNA
Nucleoid

Cell wall
Cytoplasmic
membrane
Replicated
DNA

The cytoplasmic
membrane elongates,
separating DNA
molecules.

Cell wall

Daughter cells
separate

1. Arthrospores
Filamentous bacteira undergo
fragmentation to produce small
coccoid cells called
arthrospores, each of which
give rise to new bacterium.
e.g. Nocardia, Actinomyces.

Asexual Reproduction
(By various kinds of spores)
Endospores
Most resistant spores formed in
response to adverse conditions
They can resist a temperature
of ~100C and toxic chemicals.

5. Conidia
Like sporangiospores, conidia
are also produced by
developing cross walls at tips
of branches but they are open
(not enclosed in sac) and
arranged in chains.
Each conidia germinates
to form new bacterium.

Cytoplasmic membrane

Cortex

A cortex of calcium
and dipicolinic acid
is deposited
between the
DNA membranes

DNA is replicated

Vegetative cell
Spore coat
Spore coat forms
around endospore.

DNA aligns along

the cells long axis.

Cross wall forms,

membrane
invaginates

Cross wall forms

completely

2. Sporangiospores
Some bacteria produce spores
by developing cross walls at
tips of branches. All these
spores are enclosed in an
sac called sporangium.
Each spore gives rise
to new bacterium.

Forespore
Cytoplasmic
membrane
invaginates to
form forespore.

Cytoplasmic
membrane grows
and engulfs
forespore within a
second membrane.
Vegetative cells
DNA disintegrates.

First
membrane

Outer
spore coat

Maturation of
endospore,
completion of spore
coat and increase in
resistance to heat
and chemicals by
unknown process.

Endospore

Endospore released
from original cell

Second
membrane

Outer
spore
coat
Sexual
Reproduction

Germinates to form new bacterium.

Formation of endospore

Sexual Reproduction
Usually absent in bacteria as meiosis is not
observed but gene recombination occurs.

Step I

A phage infects the donor

bacterial cell

Phage protein coat

Bacterial chromosome

Transduction
Process of genetic recombination between
bacteria by means of bacteriophages. It was first
discovered by Zinder and Lederberg in
Salmonella typhimurium. It may be.
Restricted
transduction This
process
involves
recombination
between
chromosomes of host and bacteriophage
resulting in formation of viral chromosome
with a bacterial DNA segment. Such phages
are called transducing.
Generalised transduction transports any
gene of donor cell to recepient cell. It may
occur as.

Phage DNA

Step II

Phage DNA and proteins are

made and the bacterial
chromosome is broken down
into pieces.

Step III

Occasionally during phage

assembly, pieces of bacterial
DNA are packaged in a phage
capsid. Then the donor cell
lyses and releases phage
particles containing bacterial
DNA.

Donor cell

Bacterial DNA
Phage DNA

13

Step IV

Actinomyces Imparts that

Pleasant Earthy Smell

A phage carrying bacterial

DNA infects a new host cell, the
recipient cell.

Recipient cell

Step V

Recombination can occur,

producing recombinant cell
with a genotype different from
both donor and recipient cells.

Donor
Recipient
bacterial DNA bacterial DNA

Recombinant cell

Generalised Transduction by Bacteriophage

Clostridium tetani and Bacillus anthracis as

Bioweapons
Both Bacillus anthracis or anthrax and Clostridium are cheap and easy to cultivate
and forms endospores. These endospores are highly resistant spores and can
easily tolerate temperatures upto 100C and secrete deadly chemicals. This
resistance is due to its thick wall, poor water content and presence of dipicolinic
acid, an anticoagulant. These spores can remain active as well as lethal, for at
least 40 years. They can be easily handled and are effective in small amounts.
Hence, are preferred to be used as bioweapons.

Transformation
It is absorption of DNA segment from surrounding medium by living
bacterial cell. It was observed by Griffith (1927) in Diplococcus
pneumoniae. The process depends on high temperature, UV
radiations, chemicals etc.

Conjugation
It is process of genetic transfer involving cell to cell contact. It occurs
between two sexually different strains of bacteria, one acts as donor
(male) and other as recipient (female).
(Factor codes for
protein to form pili)
F+

Fimbriae
Pilus

F-plasmid

Conjugation bridge (Formed by pili)

F Plasmid
F

Nucleoid
(Bacterial
chromosome)
Donor or
F+/Male cell

Recepient or
Female/F cell

Conjugation

F+/Donor Female cell

becomes F+
cell

It may occur by two methods

Sterile male method (F+ F F becomes F + ) Plasmid with
F-factor replicates and transfers its one copy to recipient via
conjugation tube, thus converting recipient to donor. The
phenomenon of reversibility of sex is called seduction.
Fertile male method The fertility factor of donor cell gets integrated
to bacterial chromosome, which is called Hfr (high frequency of
recombination). The integrated factor F + breaks the chromosome at
the end of its attachment, which thereafter undergoes replication. A
copy of this DNA passes into recipient cell through conjugation
tube. Usually whole of bacterial chromosome does not pass into
recipient cell and F + factor is rarely transferred, as conjugation takes
place for a very brief period.
l

14

The smell of the earth after rain is due to a soil bacteria

called Actinomyces. This bacteria produces a compound
known as geosmin which is released into the air, after rain
falls on earth. Human nose is extremely sensitive to geosmin
and is able to detect it at concentrations as low as 5 parts
per trillion, and thus we detect that earthy smell immediately
after rains.
Prokaryotes form a major component of the invisible
world of microorganisms, which play a decisive role
in the maintenance of life on this planet. They
display an impressive range of biochemical
diversity, nutritional diversity, shapes and its vivid
members are present in almost every habitat of
earth.
Bacteria and other microorganisms act as
decomposers and recycles to such an extent that the
resources locked up in things like dead trees are
made available again to other living organisms.
Prokaryotes also play a pivotal role in fixation of
atmospheric nitrogen into organic molecules and as
well as carbon and sulphur cycling. Besides, some
also contribute in trapping solar energy. They
maintain the flow of energy and nutrients
throughout the planet. Almost every cycle or system
on earth has bacteria with a crucial supporting role
in it. Some are also responsible for many plant and
human diseases but at the same time also help in
maintaining health. Without the prokaryotic
organisms, the eukaryotes will not be able to survive
and the whole ecosystem would collapse.

BIOLOGY
Color detecting cone cells
are the parents of rod cells
Early mammals evolved in a burst during the
Jurassic period, adapting a nocturnal lifestyle
when dinosaurs were the dominant daytime
predator. How these early mammals evolved night
vision to find food and survive has been a mystery,
but a new study suggests that rods in the
mammalian eye, extremely sensitive to light,
developed from color-detecting cone cells during
this time to give mammals an edge in low-light
conditions. Cone cells are specialized for certain
wavelengths of light to help animals detect color,
while rods can detect even a single photon and are
specialized for low-light vision.
A majority of Mammalian eyes are rod dominated
while the eyes of lower and other chordates like
fishes, amphibians, birds etc are cone dominated.
Scientists found a transcription factor called NRL
pushes cells in the retina toward maturing into
rods by suppressing genes involved in cone
development.

Smart Practice
1. A bacterium is capable of withstanding extreme
heat, dryness and toxic chemicals. This indicates
that it is probably about to form
(a) a thick peptidoglycan wall (b) endospores
(c) endotoxins
(d) endogenous buds

2. In the recent classification of living organisms into

3 domains of life (bacteria, archaea and eukarya),
which one of the following statement(s) is/are true
about archaea?
(a) Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects.
(b) Archaea have some noble features that are absent in other
prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(c) Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and
eukaryotes
(d) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes

3. Teichoic acid is present in

(a) cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria
(b) cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria
(c) capsid of virus
(d) protoplasm of mycoplasma

4. Consider the following statements and choose the

correct ones
I. Amphitrichous
flagella
is
found
in
Nitrosomonas.
II. Lophotrichous flagella is found in Pseudomonas.
III. Red colour and red sea is due to presence of
Trichodesmium erythraeum.
IV. DNA of bacteria is known as gonophore.
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(c) III and IV

(b) II and III

(d) All of these

5. Bacterium, which reduces nitrates in soil to

nitrogen is
(a) Nitrosomonas
(c) Rhizobium

(b) Pseudomonas
(d) Clostridium

6. Pigment containing membranous extensions in

some cyanobacteria are
(a) heterocysts
(c) pneumatophores

(b) basal bodies

(d) chromatophores

7. A peculiar odour that prevails in marshy areas and

cowsheds is an account of gas produced by
(a) mycoplasma
(c) slime moulds

(b) archaebacteria
(d) cyanobacteria

8. Select the correct pair

I. MethanogenMethanogenium, Methanothrix
II. HalophilesHalococcus, Haloarchaea
III. ThermoacidophilesSulfolobus,
Desulphurococcus
Choose the correct pair
(a) I and II
(c) I and III

(b) II and III

(d) All of these

9. Bacteria that fix CO2 by using chemical energy as

source are
(a) photoautotrophs
(b) photoheterotrophs
(c) chemoautotrophs
(d) chemoheterotrophs

10. Which of the following is not characteristic of

Gram-positive bacteria?
(a) Cell wall is smooth
(b) Mesosomes are distinctive prominent
(c) Basal body of flagellum contains two rings
(d) None of the above

11. Match the following column I with column II

Column I

Column II

A. Mycoplasma

1. Ether linked lipids

B. Transduction

2. Sex pili

C. Conjugation

3. Requires virus

D. Thermophiles

4. Cell wall less bacteria

Codes
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

A
4
1
2
3

B
3
2
3
4

C
2
3
4
1

D
1
4
1
2

12. Halophilic archaebacterium, e.g. Halobacterium

salinarum found in great salt lake and dead sea,
cannot live in
(a) less than 3 M NaCl concentration
(b) less than 5 M NaCl concentration
(c) more than 4 M NaCl concentration
(d) more than 3 M NaCl concentration

13. Select the correct pair

I. Atrichous
Nitrosomonas
II. Monotrichous Lactobacillus
III. Amphitrichous Vibrio
IV. Peritrichous Spirillum
Choose the correct option
(a) I and III
(b) II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) All are incorrect

14. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and

Methanobacterium exemplify
(a) archaebacteria that contain protein homologus to
eukaryotic core histones
(b) archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those
found in eukaryotes, but whose DNA is negatively
supercoiled.
(c) bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but
which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
(d) bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes.

15

15. Select the correct pairs

I. Glycocalyx
II. Cell wall
III. Mesosomes
IV. Ribosomes

18. Match the following column I with column II

Polypeptide
Pseudomurein
Gram positive bacteria
70S type

Column I

Column II

A. Actinomycin-D

1. Inhibits m-RNA synthesis

B. Tetracycline

2. Inhibits 50S subunits of ribosomes

C. Streptomycin

3. Inhibits binding of t-RNA with

ribosomes

D. Chloramphenicol

4. Alters 30S subunits of ribosome

Choose the correct option

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) I and IV

(d) All of these

16. Certain bacteria living in the soil poor in oxygen,

Codes

convert nitrates into nitrites and then to free

nitrogen. Such bacteria are termed as
(a) nitrogen fixing bacteria
(c) ammonifying bacteria

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(b) denitrifying bacteria

(d) saprophytic bacteria

17. The Desulfovibrio bacteria breaks down organic

matter and uses sulphate (not oxygen) as an
electron acceptor. As a result, it produces hydrogen
sulphide accounting for rotten egg smell of swamp
mud. Oxygen is a deadly poison to Desulfovibrio.
What would you consider this bacteria to be?

A
1
3
1
1

B
2
4
3
3

C
3
2
2
4

D
4
1
4
2

19. Which one of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen

fixer?
(a) Glomus
(c) Frankia

(b) Azotobacter
(d) Azolla

20. The autonomously independent self replicating

(a) Facultative aerobic chemoheterotroph

(b) Obligate anaerobic chemoheterotroph
(c) Facultative anaerobic chemoautotroph
(d) Obligate anaerobic chemoautotroph

extra nuclear DNA imparting certain factors to

some bacterium is called
(a) plastid
(c) phagemid

(b) plasmid
(d) cosmid

Answers

16

1. (b)

2. (b)

3. (a)

4. (d)

11. (a)

12. (a)

13. (d)

14. (a)

5. (b)
15. (d

6. (d)

7. (b)

8. (d)

9. (c)

10. (d)

16. (b)

17. (b)

18. (d)

19. (c)

20. (b)

EAMCET 2016
MEDICAL ENTRANCE EXAM

(PHASE I)

SOLVED PAPER
INSTRUCTIONS
l

Each question carries one mark.

Choose the correct or most appropriate answer from the given options to the following questions and darken,
with blue/black ball point pen the correspondingdigit a, b, c or d in the circle pertaining to the question
number concerned in the OMR Answer Sheet, separately supplied to you.

1. Identify the family belonging to the order Sapindales.

(a) Poaceae
(c) Solanaceae

(b) Anacardiaceae
(d) Convolvulaceae

2. The

marine organisms showing spinning

movements and responsible for killing fishes by
producing toxins belong to the following kingdom
in Whittaker's classification.

(a) Monera
(c) Fungi

(a) Sphagnum, Selaginella, Psilotum, Ginkgo

(b) Funaria, Gnetum, Dryopteris, Sequoia
(c) Anthoceros, Marchantia, Pteris, Ginkgo
(d) Polytrichum, Lycopodium, Equisetum, Cedrus

5. Study the following lists.

(b) Protista
(d) Animalia

List I

3. Study the following lists.

List I

List II

A. Takhtajan

1.

Five kingdom classification

B. Linnaeus

2.

Phylogenetic classification

C. Warming

3.

Artificial classification

D. Carl Woese

II. Gemmae cup on the thallus

III. Sorus covered by false indusium
IV. Embryophytic, trachaeophytic, archegoniate

4.

Classification of communities based

on relation of water

5.

Six kingdom classification

The correct match is

A
B
C
D
(a) 2
3
4
5
(c) 5
2
1
4

A
(b) 4
(d) 5

B
1
4

C
5
2

D
3
3

4. Identify the correct sequence of plants in the order

of characters given below
I. Sporophyte with foot, intercalary meristems and
capsule

List II

A. Solitary cyme

1.

Solanum

B. Monochasial cyme

2.

Ipomea

C. Cymule

3.

Datura

D. Polychasial cyme

4.

Jasmine

5.

Nerium

The correct match is

A
B
C
D
(a) 3
4
5
2
(b) 3
1
4
5
(c) 1
3
5
4
(d) 3
1
5
2

6. Ratio between number of stamens in nine male

flowers and number of carpels in three female
flowers in Euphorbia is
(a) 1 : 1
(c) 2 : 1

(b) 1 : 3
(d) 2 : 3

17

7. Arrange the following plants in descending order

based on the number of locules in their ovaries
I. Anacardium
II. Citrus
III. Asparagus
IV. Solanum
(a) II, III, IV, I
(c) IV, III, I, II

(b) III, I, IV, II

(d) I, IV, III, II

(a) Hetrogametes
(b) Oogamy
(c) Non-flagellated male gametes
(d) Holdfast

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

A
(b) 3
(d) 3

B
2
1

C
4
5

D
5
4

I. White kernel of coconut is a free nuclear

endosperm.
II. In dioecious plants, autogamy is prevented but
geitonogamy occurs.
III. Cleistogamous flowers are always self-pollinated
IV. Castor is an endospermic seed.
(b) II, III

(c) I, II

(d) III, IV

11. Study the following combinations

I. Cymose infloresence Epipetalous Solanum
II. Homochlamydeous Polyandrous Allium
III. Axile placentation Radical leaves Smilax
IV. Zygomorphic Diadelphous Butea
The correct combination is
(a) I, II

(b) II, IV

15. Exchange of gentic material between two homo(b) pachytene

(d) anaphase I

on their chromosome number

I. Primary endosperm cell of Maize
II. Meristematic cell of Apple
III. Xylem parenchyma cell of Potato
IV. Aleurone layer cell of Rice

10. Identify the correct pair of statements.

(a) II, IV

(c) I, IV

(d) III, IV

(a) I, II, IV, III

(c) IV, I, II, III

(b) II, III, I, IV

(d) III, IV, I, II

17. Which of the following contributes to the formation

of the primary plant body?
(a) Intrafascicular cambium
(b) Interfascicular cambium
(c) Cork cambium
(d) Intercalary meristem

18. In grasses, the type of cells which help in

transpiration and rolling of leaves respectively are
(a) normal epidermal cells and guard cells
(b) bulliform cells and bean shaped cells
(c) dumble shaped cells and empty colourless cells
(d) lenticels and mesophyll cells

19. Study the following lists.

List I

List II

A. Phytoplanktons

1.

Pioneers of succession

B. Lichens

2.

Grow in shady places

C. Sciophytes

3.

Abandoned grass lands

12. A plant with bulb, trimerous flowers, 6 stamens in

D. Secondary succession 4.

two whorls belongs to a specific class in Bentham

and Hooker's classification. The number of natural
orders present in that class is

5.

(a) 3

(b) 34

(c) 165

(d) 202

13. Study the following lists.

List I
B. N-glycosidic linkage

2.

Glucose-Fructose

C. Phosphodiester bond 3.

Leucine-Glycine

D. Peptide bond

4.

Nucleotide-Nucleotide
in polynucleotide chain

5.

Guanine-cytosine on
opposite strands of DNA

The correct match is

18

D
3
2

A
(b) 2
(d) 1

A
(b) 2
(d) 2

B
3
1

C
5
5

D
1
3

production of 3 grams of dry organic matter is

Adenine - Deoxyribose

C
4
4

Bare rock

20. The amount of carbon dioxide required for the

1.

B
1
3

The correct match is

A
B
C
D
(a) 4
1
2
3
(c) 4
1
3
5

Lungs of the world

List II

A. Hydrogen bond

A
(a) 5
(c) 5

(d) I, III

16. Arrange the following in the ascending order based

Tiger claw plant

Century plant
Neelakuranji
Common pansy
Double coconut

The correct match is

A
B
C
D
(a) 2
3
1
5
(c) 2
1
3
5

(c) II, IV

(a) zygotene
(c) diakinesis

List II

Strobilanthus
Martynia
Lodoecia
Viola

(b) III, IV

logous chromosomes occurs in

9. Study the following lists.

A.
B.
C.
D.

I. Schwann Omnis cellula-e-cellula

II. Ochoa Polynucleotide phosphorylase
III. Taylor Semi-conservative replication of DNA
IV. Flemming Ribosomes
(a) II, III

8. Identify the character which is absent in Fucus

List I

14. Identify the correct pair of combinations.

B
1
4

C
5
5

D
3
2

(a) 1.63 g
(c) 180 g

(b) 4.89 g
(d) 264 g

21. Find the correct pair of statements

I. The influx of Cl into guard cells during
stomatal opening is active
II. The entry of sucrose from companion
cells into sieve tubes at source involves
expenditure of energy
III. At the sink, sucrose moves out of the
phloem sap by passive transport

IV. The efflux of K + from guard cells during

stomatal closure does not involve energy
expenditure
(a) I, III

(b) III, IV

(c) II, IV

(d) II, III

22. Study the following table.

Water Potential
(kPa)

Pressure Potential
(kPa)

590

320

368

623

292

412

481

146

Cell

List I

List II

A.

Tuberculosis

1.

Polyhedral

B.

Pneumonia

2.

Filamentous branched

C.

Cholera

3.

Round cells

D.

Polio

4.

Comma shaped

5.

Helical form

The correct match is

A
(a) 2
(c) 5

Arrange the four cells in ascending order based on

their solute concentration
(a) A, C, B, D
(c) C, A, D, B

29. Study the following lists.

B
4
4

C
3
3

D
1
2

B
3
2

C
4
5

D
1
4

30. Nucleic acid having 5-methyl uracil is the genetic

material in
(a) TMV
(c) HIV

(b) B, A, C, D
(d) D, C, A, B

A
(b) 2
(d) 1

(b) T4 -Phage
(d) QB bacteriophage

23. The enzyme, which catalyses the formation of

31. A pure pea plant with round seeds having large

glutamine from its substrate, belongs to this

category of enzymes

starch grains is crossed with another pure pea plant

with wrinkled seeds having small starch grains. The
F1 heterozygotes formed are self pollinated. What is
the phenotypic ratio of plants with round seeds and
intermediate starch grains to plants with wrinkled
seeds and larger starch grains expected in the F2
generation ?

(a) ligases
(c) hydrolases

(b) lyases
(d) transferases

24. How many NADPH and ATP molecules are utilised

in Calvin cycle for the production of trioses required
for the synthesis of 6 sucrose molecules ?
(a) 144 NADPH, 288 ATP
(c) 144 NADPH, 216 ATP

(b) 72 NADPH, 108 ATP

(d) 288 NADPH, 432 ATP

25. Which of the following two enzymes catalyses the

release of CO2 from the substrate ?
I. - Ketoglutaric dehydrogenase
II. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
III. Succinic thiokinase
IV. Enolase
(a) I, IV

(b) II, III

(d) III, IV

(c) four

(d) eight

27. Study the following lists

List II

A. 2, 4-D

1.

Promotion of lateral shoot growth

B. GA

2.

Thinning in cotton

C. Ethephon

3.

Stress tolerance

D. ABA

4.

Brewing industry

5.

Weed free lawns

B
4
1

C
1
5

D
2
3

B
2
4

C
1
2

D
4
3

28. The nitrogen fixed in the root nodules of Glycine

max is exported to other parts of the plant as
(a) nitrates
(c) ureides

on

the

(b) Allele frequency

(d) Recombination frequency

List II
1.

tRNA, 5 srRNA, snRNA

B. RNA Polymerase- II

2.

Transcribes all types of RNAs

C. RNA Polymerase-III

3.

28S, 18S and 5.85 RNAs

D. Bacterial RNA Polymerase 4.

5.

The correct match is

A
B
C
D
(a) 3
1
5
4
(c) 3
4
1
2

Precursor of mRNA
Synthesis of DNA

A
(b) 2
(d) 1

B
5
3

C
3
5

D
1
2

34. Escherichia coli, in which both the strands of DNA

(a) One
A
(b) 3
(d) 5

(d) 2 : 3

are labelled with 15 N, is transferred to 14 N medium

and allowed to replicate for two generations. Find
out the number of hybrid DNA molecules in the
second generation.

The correct match is

A
(a) 5
(c) 2

(c) 5 : 6

List I

glucose molecules yield 8 molecules of lactic acid

through glycolysis and subsequent fermentation is

List I

(a) Pleiotrophy
(c) Codominance

A. RNA Polymerase- I

(c) I, II

(b) two

(b) 6 : 1

distance between the genes

chromosomes is measured by using

33. Study the following lists.

26. The net production of NADH molecules when 4

(a) zero

(a) 3 : 4

32. The

(b) ammonia
(d) aspargine

(b) Two

(c) Four

(d) Eight

35. What is the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide

segment translated from mRNA strand with base
sequence of UCU-UGG-UGC-UGU-GGU?
(a) Arg-Phe-Tyr-Gly-Gly
(b) Trp-Ser-Tyr-Cys-Gly
(c) Tyr-Cys-Ser-Gly-Cys
(d) Ser-Trp-Cys-Cys-Gly

19

36. The restriction sites for Pvu I and Pvu II, respectively

rays.

(a) rop, ori

(c) rop, ampR

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(b) ori, rop

(d) ampR , rop

37. After insertion of a DNA segment within the

sequence of z-gene of bacteria, they are grown on
chromogenic substrate. After the growth of bacterial
colonies, they are identified as
I. Recombinants, if colonies are blue coloured
II. Recombinants, if colonies are white coloured
III. Non-recombinants, if colonies are blue coloured
IV. Non-recombinants, if colonies are white coloured
Identify the correct pair
(a) I, II
(c) III, IV

(b) II, III

(d) I, IV

38. Identify the correct sequence of steps in RNA

interference (RNAi) process to develop nematode
resistant plants
I. Silencing of specific mRNA of the nematode
II. Formation of sense and antisense RNA
III. ds RNA formation
IV. Introducing nematode specific genes into the
plant
(a) IV, II, III, I
(c) I, II, IV, III

(b) IV, I, II, III

(d) III, II, I, IV

39. Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in the

treatment of sewage.
I. Growth of aerobic microbes to reduce BOD
II. Sequential filtration to remove floating debris
III. Production of inflammable gas
IV. Growth of anaerobic microbes for digestion of
bacteria
(a) II, I, IV, III
(c) I, IV, II, III

(b) IV, II, III, I

(d) II, IV, I, III

40. One of the following diseases is not caused by

heterotrophic eukaryotic organism.
(a) Brown rust of wheat
(b) Late blight of potato
(c) Black rot of crucifers
(d) Red rot of sugarcane

41. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the

structure of human insulin
(a) Human insulin is made up of 51 amino acids arranged in two
polypeptide chains
(b) In these chain A is made up of 30 amino acids and chain B is
made up of 21 amino acids
(c) Insulin is synthesised as a pro-hormone which contains an
extra stretch called c peptide
(d) A and B chains are combined by disulfide bonds to form
humulin

42. The hormone that stimulates the secretion of

pancreatic enzymes is
(a) secretin
(c) enterocrinin

20

43. Identify the wrong statement with reference to UV

are in which genes in pBR 322?

(b) enterogastrone
(d) cholecystokinin

UV radiation is classified into 3 categories

UV radiation kills microorganisms
UV-A is more harmful to animals than UV-B
UV radiation falls in the range between 100 nm 380 nm
(wavelength)

44. Which one of the following methods does not fall

under Ex-situ conservation of biodiversity?
(a) Cryopreservation
(c) Gene Bank

(b) In-vitro culture

(d) Biosphere reserves

45. Allopatric speciation is

(a) Appearance of a new species in the same area as the
parent population
(b) Initiated by the appearance of a geographical isolation
(c) The emergence of many species from a single ancestor
(d) Seen only in species exhibiting sexual dimorphism

46. Match the following lists.

List I

List II

A.

Po 2 of alveoli lungs

1.

40 mm Hg

B.

Po 2 of atmospheric air

2.

95 mm Hg

C.

Po 2 of deoxygenated blood

3.

104 mm Hg

D.

Po 2 of oxygenated blood

4.

159 mm Hg

The correct match is

A
B
C
D
(a) 2
4
1
3
(c) 3
2
1
4

A
(b) 3
(d) 2

B
4
4

C
1
3

D
2
1

47. Match the following lists.

List I
A. Sleep wake cycle

List II
1.

Cortisol

B. Induce smooth muscles of uterus during 2.

child birth

Aldosterone

C. Stimulate the process of erythropoiesis 3.

Melatonin

D. Regulate the balance of water and 4.

electrolytes in the body

Oxytocin

Anti-inflammatory reactions

Thyroxine

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

A
3
5
2
3

B
4
4
3
2

C
5
3
5
5

D
2
2
4
4

5.

E
1
1
1
1

48. Statement (S) Stem cells are undifferentiated cells

found in multicellular organisms that have the
ability to undergo numerous mitotic cycles.
Reason (R) Stem cells are self-renewal and do not
exhibit cellular potency.
(a) Both (S) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation to (S)
(b) Both (S) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
explanation to (S)
(c) (S) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (S) is wrong but (R) is correct

49. The atria and ventricles are separated by a deep

56. Match the following lists.

transverse groove called

(a) auricular appendix
(c) patent foramen ovale

(b) coronary sulcus

(d) mediastinum

50. Which one of the following is not included under

Schizocoelomata ?
(a) Nematoda
(c) Annelida

(b) Mollusca
(d) Arthropoda

51. Which pair of the following Molluscs possess

captacula ?

52. Choose the correct statements with reference to the

flagellum in Protozoa.
I. Nexins are linkers that interconnect peripheral
doublets
II. The B tubule of each peripheral doublet bears
dynein arms
III. Axoneme is the central microtubular structure
of flagellum.
IV. There are two central and nine peripheral
triplets in the basal granule
(b) II and IV
(d) II and III

origin and evolution of Homo sapiens

I. Australopithecus
II. Ramapithecus
III. Dryopithecus
IV. Homo erectus
V. Homo neanderthalensis
VI. Homo habilis

54. The hydrostatic pressure of the blood while flowing

in the glomerulus of nephron is
(b) 60 mm Hg
(d) 18 mm Hg

A.

Pantonematic

1.

Urovolus

Acronematic

2.

Monas

C.

Pantacromatic

3.

Chlamydomonas

D.

Stichonematic

4.

Astasia

5.

Cryptomonas

C
2
5

D
3
2

2.

Pisiform bone of the wrist

C. Sesamoid bones

3.

Girdle bones

D. Visceral bones

4.

Bones of cranium

A
(a) 2
(c) 1

B
3
3

C
1
2

D
4
4

A
(b) 3
(d) 2

B
4
1

C
2
3

D
1
4

A
(b) 3
(d) 2

B
2
3

(a) Ranikhet and Marek's

(b) Ranikhet and Fowl Cholera
(c) Fowl cholera and infectious coryza
(d) Aflatoxicosis and Trush

58. Statement (S) Fishes belonging to Chondrichthyes

have heterocercal caudal fin.
Reason (R) These fishes have an air bladder that
acts as a hydrostatic organ.
(a) Both (S) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation to (S)
(b) Both (S) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
explanation to (S)
(c) (S) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (S) is wrong but (R) is correct

C
1
1

of the Muscular and Skeletal system

List II

A. Muscular
dystrophy

1.

Inflammation of joints due

accumulation of uric acid crystals

B. Tetany

2.

Progressive degeneration of skeletal

muscle due to certain genetic disorders

C. Myesthenia
gravis

3.

An autoimmune disorder affecting the

neuro-muscular junctions

D. Gout

4.

A state of prolonged contraction of

muscles

Codes
A
(a) 2
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 2

B
3
4
2
3

C
4
3
1
1

to

D
1
1
4
4

allelic frequencies in a population will remain

constant from generation to generation under
which of these two conditions?
I. Large population size
II. Non-random mating
III. There should be differential success
among the organisms of the population

List II
(Examples)

B.

B
1
3

B. Dermal bones

60. According to Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium the

55. Match the following lists.

A
(a) 4
(c) 1

Oscordis

List I

(a) II III I IV VI V
(b) III I II IV VI V
(c) II III I IV V VI
(d) III II I VI IV V

List I
(Types of flagella)

1.

59. Match the following lists with reference to disorders

53. Identify the correct sequence with regard to the

(a) 32 mm Hg
(c) 10 mm Hg

List II

Replacing bone

57. Choose the set of bacterial diseases in Poultry

(a) Unio and Mytilus

(b) Sepia and Octopus
(c) Dentalium and Pulselium
(d) Neomenia and Neopilina

(a) I and III

(c) I and IV

List I
A.

D
5
4

IV. There should be no mutations or large

scale migrations
(a) I and III
(c) I and II

(b) I and IV
(d) II and III

21

61. Choose the correct statements with reference to

Hyaline Cartilage.
I. It is bluish-white translucent and glass-like
cartilage
II. Matrix shows collagen fibres and elastic fibers
III. It
forms
embryonic
endoskeleton
in
cyclostomes and adult cartilage fishes
IV. It is the strongest cartilage without
perichondrium
(a) I, II and IV
(c) II, III and IV

(b) II and III

(d) I and III

62. Fish selected for culture practices must possess

some features to make culture profitable. Identify
the wrong one.
(a) Fast growth rate
(c) Disease resistance

(b) Late maturity

(d) High nutritious value

63. Arrange in a sequence, the given protocol for DNA

fingerprinting
1. Denaturing DNA
2. Blotting
3. Extraction of DNA
4. Fragmenting DNA
5. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis
6. Hybridisation with probe
7. Exposure on film to make a DNA fingerprint
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7
(c) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2, 6, 7

(b) 3, 5, 4, 2, 1, 6, 7
(d) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2, 6, 7

64. In the life cycle of Plasmodium vivax, Schizogony

occurs in these cells of man
I. Hepatocytes
II. Adipocytes
III. Erythrocytes
IV. Reticulocytes
(a) I and III
(c) II and IV

(b) I and II
(d) III and IV

65. Identify the pair having amphicoelous vertebrae

(a) Scoliodon and Ichthyophis
(b) Crocodylus and Hemidactylus
(c) Ornithorhynchus and Macropus
(d) Ophiophagus and Tropidonotus

66. Choose the wrong statements with reference to

human inner ear.
I. Bony labyrinth divides into two areas, namely
cochlea and vestibule
II. The scala vestibuli and scala media are
separated by a membrane called Reissners
membrane
III. Scala media and scala tympani are separated by
basilar membrane
IV. Scala vestibuli and scala tympani are filled with
endolymph
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I and IV

22

67. Match the following lists with reference to corpora

adiposa of Periplaneta
List I

List II

A.

Trophocytes

1. Contain symbiotic bacteria

B.

Mycetocytes

2. Store food

C.

Oenocytes

3. Store uric acid

D.

Urate cells

4. Synthesise and store lipids

A
(a) 2
(c) 1

B
1
2

C
3
3

D
4
4

A
(b) 2
(d) 2

B
1
3

C
4
4

D
3
1

68. Which of the following male accessory genital

glands produce citric acid and prostaglandins?
(a) Prostate gland
(c) Seminal vesicles

(b) Bulbourethral glands

(d) Cowpers gland

69. Match the following lists with reference to larval

forms.
List I

List II

A.

Cydippid larva

1.

Schistosoma

B.

Mullers larva

2.

Balanoglossus

C.

Trilobite larva

3.

Hormiphora

D.

Miracidium larva

4.

Dugesia

5.

Limulus

A
(a) 3
(c) 2

B
4
1

C
5
5

D
1
3

A
(b) 3
(d) 2

B
4
3

C
2
1

D
5
4

70. Which of the following have heterogametic

females?
I. Grasshopper
II. Bird
III. Drosophila
IV. Moth
(a) I and III

(b) II and IV

(c) IV and III

(d) I and II

71. The pair that exhibits hyperplasia and hypertrophy

is
(a) Fasciola hepatica Plasmodium vivax
(b) Sacculina Carcinus maenas
(c) Leishmania tropica Wuchereria bancrofti
(d) Nosema notabilis Sphaerospora polymorpha

72. Which one of the following is not an example of

secondary lymphoid organ?
(a) Tonsils
(b) Peyers patches of small intestine
(c) Appendix
(d) Thymus gland

73. With reference to competitive exclusion, which one

of the following became extinct when browsing
goats were introduced in Galapagos Islands?
(a) Darwins finches
(c) Abingdon tortoise

(b) Chathamalus
(d) Warblers

74. The total number of genes present on human

Y-chromosome is
(a) 292

(b) 682

(c) 321

(d) 231

(c) (S) is correct but (R) is wrong

(d) (S) is wrong but (R) is correct

75. Match the following.

List I
(Drugs)

List II
(Disease)

A. Methotrexate

1. Filariasis

B. Diethylcarbamazine

2. Tuberculosis

C. Aureomycin

3. Cancer

D. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide

4. Cholera
5. Malaria

A
(a) 2
(c) 1

B
4
2

C
1
3

D
3
5

A
(b) 3
(d) 3

B
5
1

C
2
4

D
1
2

76. With regard to Birth control methods in humans,

DMPA stands for
(a) Contraceptive injection
(b) Surgical procedure
(c) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
(d) Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)

77. Statement (S) Respiratory system of Periplaneta is

Polypneustic type.
Reason (R) In Periplaneta thoracic spiracles help in
expiration and abdominal spiracles help in
inspiration.
(a) Both (S) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct the
explanation to (S)
(b) Both (S) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
explanation to (S)

78. Which one of the following statements is wrong

with reference to Barr Bodies?
(a) The heterochromatinised X-chromosome is
called Barr Body
(b) The inactivation of X-chromosome is called
Lyonisation
(c) The extra X-chromosome undergoes
heterochromatinisation and becomes active
during early embryonic development
(d) The heterochromatinised X-Chromosome
remains attached to the nuclear membrane

79. Apposition image is formed in the eye of this insect

(a) Musca
(c) Aedes

(b) Periplaneta
(d) Culex

80. Statement (S) According to Vant Hoffs rule,

metabolic activity doubles with every 10 C
increase in temperature.
Reason (R) Reaction rate is not affected with every
10 C decrease in temperature.
(a) Both (S) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation to (S)
(b) Both (S) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
explanation to (S)
(c) (S) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (S) is wrong but (R) is correct

Answers with Explanation

1. (b) Anacardiaceae belongs to the order Sapindales. Other members
of this order are Rutaceae and Meliaceae. This family consists of 83
genera and 860 species. The well known plants belong to this family
are Anacardium (cashew), mango and mastic tree.

2. (b) Protists are dinoflagellates, show spinning movement and

responsible for killing fishes by producing toxins. The most
common dinoflagellate toxin is saxitoxin, which acts on nervous
system. Dinoflagellates are responsible for red tides also.

3. (a) The correct matchings are as follows :

List I

List II

Takhtajan

Phylogenetic classification

Linnaeus

Artificial classification

Warming

Classification of communities based on

relation of water

Carl Woese

Six kingdom classification

4. (c) The correct sequence of plants is as follows :

Plant

Character

Anthoceros

Sporophyte with foot, intercalary meristem

and capsule

Marchantia

Gemmae cup on the thallus

Pteris

Sorus covered by false indusium

Ginkgo

Embryophytic, trachaeophytic, archegoniate.

5. (d) The correct matching are as follows :

List I
Solitary cyme
Monochasial cyme
Cymule
Polychasial cyme

List II
Datura
Solanum
Nerium
Ipomea

6. (a) 1 : 1.
One male flower is represented by a single stalked stamen.
So, nine male flower will have nine stamens.
Number of carpels in one female flower is 3.
So, in three female flowers number of carpels = 3 3 = 9
9 1
Ratio of 9 male flower stamen
So,
= =
Number of carpels of 3 female flower 9 1

7. (a) Number of locules in

(I) Anacardium
One
(II) Citrus
8
(III) Asparagus
3
(IV) Solanum
2
So, correct sequence in descending order is
II > III > IV > I, 8 > 3 > 2 > 1

8. (c) In Fucus, biflagellated male gametes are present and rest

three characters are present in Fucus as given in option.
Sporophyte is the dominant phase in this plant. They are
heteromorphs.

23

9. (d) The correct matching are as follows :

List I

18. (c) In grasses and other monocots dumble shaped cells are
responsible for transpiration process. These cells are guard cells
and empty colourless cells are responsible for rolling of leaves.
Bulliform cells are large bubble shaped epidermal cells occur on
upper surface of many grasses. Loss of turgor pressure in these
cells causes leaves to roll up during water stress, which is
responsible for rolling of leaves in grasses. These are empty
colourless cells.

List II

Strobilanthus

Neelakuranji

Martynia

Tiger claw plant

Lodoecia

Double coconut

Viola

Common pansy

10. (d) (III) Cleistogamous flowers never open, so there occur only
self-pollination.
(IV) In castor endospermic seeds are present. These seeds are
also known as albuminous seeds. In this type of seed endosperm
grows vigorously and is not completely exhausted by the
developing embryo. Cotyledons in this plant are thin.

11. (c) The combinations of I and IV are correct. Rest can be

corrected as Allium shows monochlamydae and polyandrous
condition while Smilax shows cauline leaves and axile
placentation.

19. (a) The correct matchings are as follows:

List I

List II

Phytopankton
Lichens
Sciophytes
Secondary succession

20. (a) Since 1.9 gm organic matter is produced by 1 gm CO 2.

That is why, 1 gm organic matter =

12. (b) A plant with bulb, trimerous flowers, 6 stamens in two whorls
belongs to class-Monocotyledonae and number of orders present
in that class is 34. Liliopsidae is considered homologous with
the name monocotyledons. A plant with bulb, trimerous flowers
and 6 stamens belong to family-Liliaceae and order-Liliopsida.
Monocotyledons are herbaceous with scattered, closed vascular
bundles.

13. (a) Correct matching are as follows.

List I

List II

Hydrogen bond

Guanine-cytosine on opposite
strands of DNA

N-glycosidic linkage

Adenine-Deoxyribose

Phosphodiester bond

Nucleotide - Nucleotide
polynucleotide chain

Peptide bond

Leucine-Glycine

in

14. (a) The correct pairs of combination are

(II) Ochoa - Polynucleotide phosphorylase
(III) Taylor - Semiconservative replication of DNA.
The correct form of I and IV are as follows:
(I) Schwann - Cell theory
(IV) Flemming - Discovery of penicilin

15. (b) Exchange of genetic material between two homologous

chromosomes occurs in pachytene stage of prophase-I in
meiosis. Exchange of genetic material is known as crossing over.

16. (a) The correct ascending order is

Primary endosperm cell of maize ( 3 n = 30 )

Meristimatic cell of apple (2 n = 34 )

Aleurone layer cell of rice ( 3 n = 36 )

Xylem parenchyma cell of potato (2 n = 48 )

17. (d) Intrafascicular cambium is present between xylem and

phloem, which is responsible for growth of width of plant body.
Interfasicular cambium is developed between vascular bundle at
the time of formation of cambium ring.
Intercalary meristem is region of rapid cell division present at the
base of meristem. This type of meristem is only found in
monocots.

24

Lungs of the world

Pioneers of succession
Grow in shady places
Abandoned grass lands

3 gm organic matter =

1
1.9

1
3 = 1.63 gm
1.9

21. (d) II and III are correct statements.

Stomatal closure involves influx of K + ion. Translocation in plant is
bidirectional. In the sink nutrients are always in low concentration
either due to consumption or conversion into insoluble state.
Organic substances, such as sucrose are passed into sieve tube
by active transport. Influx of K + ions is also associated with Cl
during stomatal opening. Closing of stomata do not involve
energy.

22. (a) Water potential when higher, then the solute concentration of
cells will be low. Hence correct ascending order will be
A C B D
590

292

368

481

23. (a) Glutamine synthetase is a ligase that plays essential role in

metabolism of N2 by catalysing the condensation of glutamate
and ammonia to form glutamine.

24. (c) 144 NADPH and 216 ATP molecules are required for the
synthesis of 6 sucrose molecules.
Sucrose is made up of glucose and fructose units. Hence,
6 sucrose molecules will be made up of 6 glucose and 6 fructose
molecules, Therefore a total of 12 monosaccharide (6C)
molecules are required to produce 6 sucrose molecules.
The overall reaction of Calvin cycle is
6RuBP + 6CO 2 + 18ATP + 12NADPH

6 RuBP + Glucose + 18 ADP + 18P + 12 NADP +

Since, 1 glucose molecule require 18 ATP and 12 NADPH,
Hence, 12 molecules will require 216 ATP and 144 NADPH.

25. (c) (I) -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase and (II) Pyruvate dehydrogenase are two enzymes, which catalyse release of CO 2 i.e.
dicarboxylation from substrate.
The reactions catalysed by these enzymes are given below
keto glutaric
dehydrogenase

(I) -ketpoglutarate + CO -A + NAD+ Succinyl

Mg2 +

Co -A + NADH+ H+ + CO 2
(II) ( 3 C )Pyruvic acid
+
NAD +

Pyruvate
dehydrogenase

Mg 2 +

Acetyl Co -A(2C )
+ CO 2 + NADH2

26. (d) 4 glucose molecules will give 8 NADH molecules. Since,

1 glucose molecule gives 2 NADH molecules during glycolysis,
that is why, 4 glucose molecules will give 8 NADH molecules.
1 Glucose 2 Pyruvic acid + 2NADH + 2ATP
Muscles
Pyruvic acid Lactic acid
Production of lactic acid lead the fatigue of muscles.

The recombination frequency can be measured by following

formula
Recombination frequency
Total number of recombinants
=
Total number of progenies

33. (c) Correct matching of list I with list II are as follows:

27. (d) The correct matching are as follows:

List I

List I
RNA polymerase I
RNA polymerase II
RNA polymerase III
Bacterial RNA polymerase

List II

2, 4-D
GA
Ethephon
ABA

Weed free lawns

Brewing industry
Thinning in cotton
Stress tolerance

34. (b)

DNA molecules with N15 are

transferred to N14 medium

28. (b) The nitrogen-fixation takes place in the root nodules of Glycine
max (Soyabean) and exported to other parts of the plants in the
form of ammonia. In this plant symbiotic N2-fixation takes place
with the help of Bradyrhizobium japonicum bacteria.

15

14

Transferred to N medium

List II

Tuberculosis
Pneumonia
Cholera
Polio

Filamentous branched
Round cells
Comma shaped
Polyhedral

I generation
2 hybrid
DNA

30. (b) 5-methyl uracil is also known as thymine.

In T4 phage 5-methyl uracil (thymine) is genetic material because
it is a DNA virus.
TMV is RNA virus. It affects tobacco leaves. HIV virus is also a
retrovirus responsible for AIDS. QB bacteriophage is also with
RNA genetic material.

31. (b)

15

N N

29. (b) The correct matching are as follows:

List I

List II
28S, 18S and 5.8S RNA
precursor of mRNA
tRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNA
Transcribes all kinds of RNA

Large starch grain

Round seed
LL RR

Small starch grain

Wrinkled seed
llrr

LR
Ll Rr

lr
(F1 generation)

After self crossing of F2-generation, results obtained are

Gametes

LR

Lr

lR

lr

LR

LLRR

LLRr

LlRR
Round I

LlRr
Round I

Lr

LLRr

LLrr Wrinkled
and large

llRr

Llrr

lR

LlRR

LlRr

llRR

llRr

lr

lLRr

Llrr

llrR

llrr

Wrinkled and larger starch grains = 1

Round and Intermediate starch grains = 6
so ratio will be 6 : 1
Size of starch grains characters show incomplete dominance.

32. (d) The distance between two genes on the chromosomes is

measured by using recombination frequency.
Morgan and Sturtevant stated that frequency of recombination
between two linked gene is directly proportional to the distance
between them.

15

15

N 14N

14

II generation
2 hybrid
DNA
15 14
N N

14

N 14N

15

N 14N

14

N 14N

After two generations 4 hybrid DNA will be obtained.

35. (d) UCU - Serine UGG - Tryptophan

UGC - Cystine UGU - Cystine
GGU - Glycine
So correct sequence for UCGUGGUGCUGUGGU will be
SerTrpCysCysGly.

36. (d) Restriction sites in pBR 322 for Pvu I and Pvu II are found in
genes in rop and ampR respectively.
pBR 322 is an artificially created vector, which is used in gene
cloning. This vector have many restriction sites.

37. (b) After insertion of a DNA segment within the sequence of

z-gene of bacteria they were allowed to grow on a chromogenic
substrate (e.g. X-gal). The bacterial colony will be identified as
recombinant as cells transformed with vector containing
recombinant DNA will produce white colonies and cells
transformed with non-recombinant plasmids will grow into blue
colonies.

38. (d) The correct sequence of steps in RNA interferance (RNAi)

process in order to develop a nematode resistant plant is as
follows:
(III) (ds) RNA formation

(II) Formation of sense and antisense RNA

(I) Silencing of specific mRNA of the nematode

(IV) Introducing nematode specific genes into plants.

25

50. (a) In Nematoda, true body cavity is absent. In this phylum

39. (a) II I IV III

Sequential filtration is done to remove floating debris. Then
growth of aerobic microbes occur to reduce BOD. After that
growth of anaerobic microbes is done for digestion of bacteria.
This process produce biogas which generates heat and can be
used for the production of electricity.

pseudocoelom is present, which is not a true cavity. In Annelida,

Mollusca and Arthropoda, body cavity is formed by splitting of
mesoderm. This type of coelom is called schizocoelom and when
coelom is formed by outpushing of enteron, it is called
enterocoelom, it is found in echinoderms and chordates.

40. (c) Black rot of crucifers is not caused by heterotrophic eukaryotic

51. (c) Captacula is present in scaphopods, such as Dentalium and

organism. It is caused by a prokaryotic bacteria Xanthomonas

compestris. Black rust of wheat is caused by Puccinia graminis
fungus. Late blight of potato is caused by Phytophthora
infestans fungus. Red rot of sugarcane disease is caused by
Pyrilla fungus.

Pulselium.
It is a highly retractile and slender structure. It picks up food and
transfer to the mouth of Dentalium.

41. (b) In human insulin chain A is made up of 21 amino acid and B

chain is made up of 30 amino acids.
Humulin is artificially created insulin. Deficiency of insulin causes
excess of glucose in blood leading to diabetes.

42. (a) Secretin hormone stimulates the secretion of pancreatic

enzyme. Enterogastrone hormone checks the movement of
stomach and enterocrinin promotes production of mucus,
whereas cholecystokinin stimulates secretion of bile juice from
gall bladder.

43. (d) UV radiation fall in the range between 10nm-380 nm shorter

than visible light but longer than X-rays. It is a electromagnetic
radiation. Harmful UV radiation causes skin cancer.

44. (d) Biosphere reserves fall under in-situ conservation of

biodiversity. In this type of conservation, whole ecosystem is
protected. Cryopreservation, in-vitro culture and gene bank are
ex-situ mode of conservations.

45. (b) Allopatric speciation is initiated by the appearance of a

geographical isolation. When two populations are geographically
separated then two different species will be formed after long time.
When species formation takes place in same habitat then this
mode of speciation is known as sympatric speciation. Parapatric
speciation occurs in geographically adjacent areas.

53. (d) III II I VI IV V

Dryopithecus Ramapithecus Australopithecus Homo
habilis Homo erectus Homo neanderthalensis

54. (a) Hydrostatic pressure of blood while passing through

glomerulus of nephron is 32 mm Hg. The rate at which blood is
filtered through glomerulus is a measure of total renal function
and called Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
In human body blood is filtered total 50 times in a day.

55. (d) The correct matching of list I with list II are as follows:
List I
(Types of flagella)

List II
(Examples)

Pantonematic

Monas

Acronematic

Chlamydomonas

Pantachromatic

Urovolus

Stichonematic

Astasia

List I

List II

List II

Po 2 of alveoli lungs

104 mm Hg

Replacing bone

Girdle bones

Po 2 of atmospheric air

95 mm Hg

Dermal bone

Bones of cranium

Po 2 of deoxygenated blood 40 mm Hg

Sesamoid bone

Pisiform bone of wrist

Po 2 of oxygenated blood

Visceral bone

Oscordis

159 mm Hg

47. (a) The correct matching of list I with list II are as follows:
List I
Sleep wake cycle

List II
Melatonin

Induce smooth muscles of uterus during Oxytocin

child birth
Stimulate the process of erythropoiesis

Thyroxine

Regulate the balance of water and Aldosterone

electrolytes in the body
Anti-inflammatory reaction

Cortisol

48. (c) Stem cells are undifferentiated cells having ability to devolop
into other types of cells. These cells show cellular potency that is
cells have ability to differentiate into other cell types. Bone marrow
cells and umblical cord cells are examples of stem cells in humans.

49. (b) The atria and ventricles are separated by a deep transverse
groove called coronary sulcus. Auricular appendix is a pouch like
projection from top front of atrium of heart.

26

peripheral doublet bear dynein arms.

The corrent form of IV is that flagella is thread like structure, which
enables protozoans, bacteria, spermatozoa to swim, capture
food and helps in reproduction. 9 + 2 arrangement is present.
Nexin is attached to A tubules. The core of flagellum is known as
axoneme. Radial spokes are present on axoneme.

56. (b) The correct matching of list I with list II are as follows:

46. (c) The correct matching are as follows:

List I

52. (a) I and III. The correct form of II is that the A tubule of each

57. (c) Fowl cholera and infectious coryza are bacterial disease of
poultry. Ranikhet is a viral disease. Aflatoxicosis is a fungal disease.
Mareks disease, coccidiosis and scaly legs are other diseases
found in poultry.

58. (c) Chondrichthyes or cartilaginous fishes do not have air bladder

but it is present in bony fishes.
In cartilaginous fishes heterocercal caudal fin is present. Air
bladder organ helps in floating and maintaining balance.

59. (b) The correct matching of list I with list II are as follows.
List I

List II

Muscular
dystrophy

Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles

due to certain genetic disorder

Tetany

A state of prolonged contractions of muscles.

Myesthenia
gravis

An
autoimmune
disorder
neuro-muscular juctions

Gout

Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of

uric acid crystals.

affecting

60. (b) I and IV. According to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium allele

frequency in a population will remain constant from generation to
generation if the population size is large, random mating occurs
and selection, mutation and migration do not occur.

61. (b) II and III are correct statements. Hyaline cartilage is

transparent and glass like and it forms strongest cartilage with
perichondrium.
Hyaline cartilage is present in joints, ribs and in larynx.

62. (b) Fish selected for culture practices must possess some
features to make culture profitable. Late maturity is not favourable
feature in fishes used for culture. Fishes can be obtained through
many culture techniques, such as composite fish culture and
induced breeding technique.

63. (c) 3 4 5 1 2 6 7

69. (a) The correct matching of list I with list II are as follows:
List I
Cydippid larva
Mullers larva
Trilobile larva
Miracidium larva

List II
Hormiphora
Dugesia
Limulus
Schistosorma

70. (b) In birds and moth females are heterogametic. This system is
called ZW sex determination system. Males are homogametic sex
(ZZ) while females are the heterogametic sex (ZW).

71. (a) Hypertrophy is shown by Plasmodium, which results in increase

in cell size. Hyperplasia is the process in increase of organic
tissue, reported in snails infected by larval stages of Fasciola.

72. (d) Thymus gland is primary lymphatic organ whereas all others

3 Extraction of DNA

4 Fragmentation of DNA

5 Separation of DNA by electrophoresis

1 Denaturing DNA

2 Boltting

6 Hybridisation with probe

7 Exposure on film to make a DNA fragment.

64. (a) I and III. In the life cycle of Plasmodium vivax, schizogony
occurs in RBC or red blood cells and hepatocytes or liver cells. It
is a type of multiple division
In Plasmodium RBC feeding stage schizont, feed on
haemoglobin, releasing haemozoin toxin.

65. (a) Scoliodons and Ichthyophis will have amphicoelous vertebae.

This type of vertebrae is concave at both ends and present in
fishes, apoda and cropoda members. It is also present in
Fuatena.

66. (a) Bony labyrinth is divided into three regions vestibule,

semicircular canal and cochlea. Reissners membrane is present
between cochlea duct and vestibular duct.

67. (b) Correct matching of list I with list II are as follows:

are secondary lymphatic organs. Red bone marrow also acts as

primary lymphatic organ.

73. (c) Browsing goats when introduced in Galapagos island, then

Abingdon tortoise became extinct because these goats destroyed
their food and territory. Galapagos island is also famous for
adaptive radiation phenomenon in Darwin finches.

74. (d) Total 231 genes are present on human Y-chromosome.

75. (b) The correct matching of list I with list II are as follows:
List I

List II

Methotrexate

Cancer

Diethyl carbamazine

Malaria

Aureomycin

Tuburculosis

Isonicotinic acid

Filariasis

76. (a) DMPA is a contraceptive injection. Its full form is Depot

Medroxyprogesterone Acetate. It is
progesterone (produced by ovaries).

a chemical similar to

77. (c) In cockroach (Periplaneta), respiratory system is polyneustic

type and also holopneustic type. Total 10 pairs of spiracles are
present, first two pairs are thoracic spiracles and other 8 pairs of
spiracles are abdominal spiracles. During inspiration, the
thoracic spiracles are kept open and abdominal muscle closed.
This is a passive process. In expiration thoracic spiracles are
closed and abdominal spiracles are kept open.

78. (c) The extra X-chromosome although change into barr body in

Trophocytes

Store food

Mycetocytes

Contain symbiotic bacteria

somatic cells but it becomes active in later stages of life. Genetic

balance between male and female is maintained by inactivation of
X-chromosome. This one chromosome undergo heterochromatisation in all somatic cells. But it becomes active in germ
cells producing female gemetes.

Oenocytes

Synthesise and store lipids

79. (b) Apposition image is formed in the eye of Periplaneta in bright

Urate cells

Store uric acid

List I

List II

68. (a) Prostate gland produces citric acid and prostaglandin. It is

secretion forms 20% of the volume of semen. Its secretion also
contains albumin (responsible for sperm mobality) and proteolytic
enzymes, such as fibrinolysin and fibrinogenase.

light. A compound image is formed of whole object. Such image

is called apposition image. Since small images together form a
compound image hence vision in Periplaneta is mosaic vision.

80. (c) According to Vont Hoffs rule, metabolic activities double with
every 10 C increase in temperature. Reaction rate also decreases
two or three times with every 10 C decrease in temperature.

Bumble bees Use their Vibrating Hairs to

Detect Floral Electric Fields

27

Edward Jenner, an English scientist known as the Father of

Immunology , is famous for his discovery of smallpox vaccine
which was an enormous medical breakthrough that saved
countless lives.

EDWARD

JENNER
Edward Anthony Jenner was born on 17 May, 1749,
in Berkeley, Gloucestershire. He went to school in Wotton
and Cirencester. At the age of 14, he was apprenticed for
seven years to Mr Daniel Ludlow, a surgeon of Chipping
Sodbury, South Gloucestershire, where he gained most of the
experience needed to become a surgeon himself. During his
training, an interesting thing happened that led to his famous
discovery in the later years. He overheard a girl say that she
could not get the dreaded smallpox disease because she
already had another disease known as cowpox. This evoked a
desire inside Jenner to carry out a research on this
information. In 1770, after completing his training he went to
St Georges Hospital, London to study anatomy and surgery.
After finishing his studies, he returned to Berkeley to set up a
medical practice where he stayed until his death. He earned
his MD from the University of St. Andrews in 1792.
Jenner was found in a state of apoplexy on 25 January, 1823,
with his right side paralysed. He never fully recovered and
eventually died of an apparent stroke, (his second), on 26
January, 1823 at the age of 73.

CONTRIBUTIONS IN BIOLOGY
Jenner is well known around the world for his innovative
contribution to immunization and the ultimate
eradication of smallpox. Jenners work is widely regarded
as the foundation of immunologydespite the fact that
he was neither the first to suggest that infection with
cowpox conferred specific immunity to smallpox nor the
first to attempt cowpox inoculation for this purpose.
He also published papers on angina, ophthalmia, and
cardiac valvular disease and commented on cowpox.
He was the first to describe brood parasitism. In 1788, he
published a careful study of the previously misunderstood
life of the nested cuckoo, a study that combined
observation, experiment, and dissection.

In 1803 in London, he became president of

the Jennerian Society, concerned with promoting
vaccination to eradicate smallpox.
Jenner became a member of the Medical and
Chirurgical Society on its founding in 1805 and
presented a number of papers there. The society is now
called the Royal Society of Medicine. He was elected as
a foreign honorary member of the American Academy
of Arts and Sciences in 1802. In 1806, Jenner was
elected as a foreign member of the Royal Swedish
Academy of Sciences.

DEVELOPMENT OF SMALLPOX VACCINE

In the 18th century, smallpox was considered to be

the most deadly and persistent human pathogenic
disease. Jenner observed that those of his patients
who worked with cattle and had come in contact with
the much milder disease called cowpox never came
down with smallpox. In 1796, Jenner conducted an
experiment on one of his patients called James
Phipps, an eight year old boy. After making two cuts
in his arm, Jenner inoculated into them a small
amount of cowpox pus. Although the boy had normal
reaction including a slight fever, but after several
days, he soon was in good health. He called this
procedure as vaccination. When a few weeks later,
Jenner repeated the vaccination, using smallpox
matter, the boy remained healthy. This is how
Jenners vaccination treatment was born, named after
the medical name for cowpox, vaccinia. In 1798, after
carrying out more successful tests, he published his
findings: An Inquiry into the Causes and Effects of the
Variolae Vaccinae, a Disease Known by the Name of
Cowpox. In 1980, the World Health Organization
declared smallpox an eradicated disease.

NEET 2016
(PHASE II)

PRACTICE PAPER
INSTRUCTIONS
l

This test consists of 90 questions and each question is allotted 4 marks for correct response.
Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above for correct response of each question. 1/4 mark will be
deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made,
if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will
be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted according as per instruction.

1. 4 molecules of glucose undergo anaerobic

respiration in plants. Find out net gain of ATP in this
process by choosing correct option.
(a) 16 ATP
(c) 8 ATP

(b) 144 ATP

(d) 24 ATP

2. Which one of the following is correct matching pair

of phylum with two characteristic features?
Phylum
(a)

Mollusca

Characteristic features
Oviparous and indirect development
through trochophore.

(b) Arthropoda

Unjointed legs and closed circulatory

system present.

(c)

Echinodermata

Bilateral symmetry and water canal

system present.

(d)

Chordata

Cloaca, Cnidocil and flame cells

present.

3. Restriction endonucleases hydrolyzes

polynucleotides from
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

30

only the S-end

either terminal
at an internal phosphodiester bond
a phosphodiester bond within a specific sequence

4. Nawaschin discovered double fertilization in

[I]
Mangifera
Citrus
Lilium
Brassica

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

[II]
Prunus
Triticum
Fritillaria
Iberis

5. The citric acid cycle and terminal electron transport

takes place
(a) within karyon
(b) within cytoplasm but outside mitochondria
(c) on the dictyosome
(d) within mitochondrial matrix

6. Match the Column I with Column II with respect to

organs and their related function.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Column I
(Organs)
Columella
Gemma
Marsupium
Elaters

1.
2.
3.
4.

Column II
(Function)
Protection
Conduction tissue
Dispersal
Reproductive bodies

Codes
A

C D

(a) 1
(c) 4

2
3

3
1

4
2

A B
(b) 2
(d) 1

4
4

1
2

3
3

7. Wavelength of light shorter than 680 nm affect both

PS-I and II, whereas wavelength longer than
680 nm affect
(a) PS II
(c) Both (a) and (b)

14. Study the below given figure carefully and identify

the structures A-E.

(b) PS I
(d) None of these

8. Consider the given events occurring in filamentous

Rhizopus.
I. Secretion of trisporic acid.
II. Formation of warty wall layer of zygospore.
III. Formation of zygospore.
IV. Formation of germ tube.
Arrange the above mentioned phenomenon with
reference to sexual reproduction in Rhizopus.
Codes
(a) I, III, II and IV
(c) II, III, IV and I

(b) III, II, I and IV

(d) III, IV, II and I

9. The natural cycle that exist in the nature

for circulation of elements between earth and
environment is called
(a) biogeochemical cycle
(c) citric acid cycle

(b) chemical cycle

(d) krebs cycle

angiospermic plant is 36. Number of chromosomes

in
(a) megaspore mother cell will be 18
(b) embryo will be 24
(c) microspores will be 24
(d) adult plant will be 36

Column II

A. Adrenallin

1.

Salt retaining hormone

B. Epinephrine

2.

Virilism

C. Aldosterone

3.

Piloerection

D. Sexcorticoids

4.

Inhibition of blood flow to the

nephron

C D

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

A B

15. Which one of the following options correctly states

(a) Evolution never occur in reverse direction
(b) Extremities, such as tail, legs and horns are shorter in colder
climates
(c) Natural selection operates in nature
(d) None of the above

(a) The protoxin activation requires temperature above human

body temperature
(b) The Bt-toxin recognises only insect specific targets
(c) The Bt-toxin formation from pre Bt-toxin required pH lower
than that present in human stomach
(d) conversion of pro Bt-toxin to Bt-toxin takes place only in
highly alkaline conditions

gymnosperms a
(b) fibres
(d) trachiedes

eukaryotes, DNA is wrapped

nucleosome. Its core is made of

O2 experimentally prove that O2 evolved during

photosynthesis comes from water?
(a) Mayer
(b) Kelvin
(c) Ruben and Kamen
(d) Emerson

18. In angiospermic plants, pollination in flowers take

12. Chief water conducting elements of xylem in

(a) H1, H 2 A,H 2 B and H 3

(c) H1, H 2 A, H 3 and H 4

(a) A Spermatogonia, B Seminiferous tubules,

C Spermatozoa, D Interstitial cells, E Sertoli cells
(b) A Interstitial cells, B Spermatogonia, C Spermatozoa,
D Sertoli cells, E Seminiferous tubules
(c) A Spermatozoa, B Spermatogonia, C Sertoli cells,
D Seminiferous tubules, E Interstitial cells
(d) A Sertoli cells, B Seminiferous tubules,
C Spermatozoa, D Spermatogonia, E Interstitial cells

17. Which of the scientist used to radioactive labelling of

Codes

13. In

16. The Bt-toxin is not toxic to human beings because

11. Match the Column I with Column II.

(a) vessels
(c) transfusion tissue

the rule of Allen?

10. The number of chromosomes in endosperm of a

Column I

around

(b) H 2 A, H 2 B, H 3 and H 4
(d) H1 ,H 2 A, H 2 B and H 4

place via various pollinating agents. Consider the

given table enlisting pollinators, the plant and the
type of pollination carried out by them.
Choose the incorrect option regarding pollination.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

A
Bat
Birds
Wind
Water

B
Kigelia
Adansonia
Cannabis
Zoostera

C
Chiropterophily
Ornithophily
Anemophily
Hydrophily

31

19. Deuterostomic condition and indeterminate radial

cleavages are characteristic features of

26. The diagrams given below show the position of

gynoeciuim with respect to other parts of flower.

(a) chordates + echinoderms

(b) arthropods + hemichordates
(c) protochordates + molluscs
(d) annelids + arthropods + cnidarians

20. What is the correct option with respect to

characteristics of myxomycetes?
(a) Eukaryotes, one celled or filamentous, saprotrophs or
autotrophs
(b) Prokaryotes, parasitic, binary fission takes place
(c) Slimy multinucleated protoplasm, pseudopodia present,
reproduction by fragmentation and binary fission
(d) Mycelia present, akinetes and zoospores are modes of
reproduction

21. Which among the following statements are

incorrect regarding vascular tissue of plants?
I. In protoxylem, lignification begins before the
completion of elongation.
II. In exarch condition, development of xylem is
centrifugal.
III. Metaphloem is a part of secondary phloem that
does not undergo further differentiation.
IV. Protophloem consists of broader, nucleated
companion cells.
Codes
(a) Only I

(b) I and IV

(c) II, III and IV (d) All of these

22. Meiotic prophase is the longest phase of cell

division. List of sub-stages of meiotic prophase are
given below
I. Diplotene
II. Diakinesis
III. Leptotene
IV. Zygotene
V. Pachytene
What is the correct sequence of these stages?
(a) I II IV III V
(c) III II IV V I

(b) III IV V I II
(d) IV V III II I

23. Crus commune is the part of which organ in

mammals?
(a) Eye

(b) Ear

(c) Brain

(d) Heart

24. Following are the two statements regarding the C4

plants.
I. RuBP is the first acceptor of CO2 .
II. These plants show kranz anatomy.
From the above statements which one of the
following option is correct?
(a) II is correct but I is false
(c) Both I and II are false

(b) Both I and II are correct

(d) I is correct but II is false

25. Which one of the following does not act as an air

pollutant?
(a) SO 2

32

(b) NO x

(c) Hydrocarbon

(d) CO 2

Identify A to D
A

(a) Hypogynous Perigynous

Perigynous

Epigynous

(b) Epigynous

Perigynous

Perigynous

Hypogynous

(c) Perigynous

Hypogynous

Epigynous

Perigynous

(d) Perigynous

Perigynous

Epigynous

Hypogynous

27. Males are produced parthenogenetically in which

of the following group of arthropods?
(a) Butterfly
(b) Silk moth
(c) Honeybee
(d) Lac insect

28. Which of the following is not a characteristic of

Cycas?
(a) Immotile sperm
(c) Circinate venation

(b) No fruit formation

(d) Vessels present

29. In operon concept, the operator gene combines with

(a) regulator gene to switch-off structural gene transcription
(b) regulator protein to switch-on structural gene transcription
(c) inducer to switch-off structural gene transcription
(d) regulator protein to switch-off structural gene transcription

30. Consider the following statements regarding sexual

reproduction in flowering plants and choose the
option that represents correct statements.
I. A mature male gametophyte is a 3-celled but
2-nucleated structure.
II. Hibiscus bears fused carpels.
III. The first cell of female gametophyte undergoes
three free nuclear mitotic division.

IV. In some hydrophilous flowers, such as

Ceratophyllum, anthers burst suddenly to
throw the pollen grains.
Codes
(a) II and III
(b) I, II and III
(c) Only IV
(d) All the statements are correct

37. The foremost attempt to test the theory that

precursors of biomolecules were synthesised
abiotically in primitive earth, was done by
(a) Stanley Miller
(b) Darwin
(c) Huxley
(d) Reddy

31. With the help of codes given below, find out correct

38. Concentration gradient in resting phase of a nerve

sequence of pathway of light from outer to inner

side of human eye.
Codes are given as follows :

(a) High K+ ion concentration and low Na + ion concentration in

I.
II.
III.
IV.

Lens
Vitreous humour
Cornea
Aqueous humour

Codes
(a) III IV I II
(c) II IV I III

39. Match the Column I with Column II.

(b) II III IV I
(d) I II III IV

genetic disorder. It is caused by the inhibition of

enzyme
(a) glucocerebrosidase
(b) tyrosinase
(c) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
(d) amyloid-B-peptide

course of evolution?
(b) Middle pleistocene
(d) Palaeocene

34. Foldings present on plasmalemma in fungal cells

below cell wall, are called
(b) mesosomes
(d) microsomes

35. Select the correct option in reference with the

statements given below
I. Aquaporins are also known as channel protein.
II. Diffusion process occurs in solid, liquid and
gas.
III. Transport
of
inorganic
substances
is
bidirectional in plants.
IV. Diffusion is an active process and need
involvement of energy.
(a) III and IV
(c) III and II

Column I
A.

Protozoa

Column II
1.

Physalia

B. Porifera

2.

Beroe

C. Cnidaria

3.

Radiolarians

D. Ctenophora

4.

Cliona

Codes

33. Cromagnon man appeared in which period in

(a) endocytic vesicles

(c) lomasomes

the axon
(b) High Na + ion concentration and low K + ion concentration in
the cyton
(c) High K + concentration outside the axon
(d) High Na + concentration outside the axon

32. Gouchers disease is an autosomal, recessive

(a) Lower pleistocene

(c) Upper pleistocene

cell is generated due to

(b) I and II
(d) I and IV

36. Which of the following is incorrect?

(a) Indian Botanical Garden, Kolkata
(b) Lloyd Botanical Garden, Darjeeling
(c) Royal Botanical Garden, Kew
(d) Kamla Nehru Zoological Garden, Chennai

C D

A B

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 2

40. The most significant genetic value of vegetative

propagation is that
(a) it enables the rapid production of genetically variable plants
(b) it is a means of producing a large population of individuals
genetically identical to the parent
(c) it ensures that the progenies are safe from disease and
pests attacks
(d) it is an ancient practice

41. Which of the following statements are correct with

respect to conservation of biodiversity.
I. Ailurus fulgens is an endangered species in
India
II. Major ex-situ conservation of biodiversity are
managed by ICRISAT.
III. In situ
conservation
methods
protects
endangered species from all adverse factors.
IV. Cultivation, grazing and private ownership are
allowed in national parks.
Codes
(a) I and II
(b) II and IV
(c) Only I
(d) Only III

33

42. Which of the following is the incorrect option

for curing night blindness in the third world

countries is

regarding menstrual cycle?

Phase

Days

Events

(a) Menstrual 15
phase

Breakdown of endometrium,
progesterone level reduces.

(b) Follicular
phase

Reconstruction of endometrium and

growth of follicle.

613

(c) Ovulatory 1418 LH and FSH secretions from ovary

phase
are at minimum level, level of
estrogen is low and development of
ovum starts.
(d) Luteal
phase

1528 Development of corpus luteum,

endometrium and uterine glands.

43. Erythropoietin hormone is associated with

production of RBC. This hormone is secreted by
(a) bone marrow
(b) spleen
(c) kidney
(d) RBC

44. Select the correct order according to increase in

complexity.
(a) Lactose, Glucose, Maltose, Starch
(b) Arabinose, Galactose, Glycogen, Lactose
(c) Fructose, Maltose, Raffinose, Stachyose, Starch
(d) Maltose, Fructose, Oligosaccharide, Starch

45. Which of the following statements is false?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

47. A crop plant, which is genetically engineered, is used

Hormone produced by ovary affects uterine contraction.

Hormone produced by small intestine stimulates heart
Hormone produced by adrenal cortex stimulate heart beat
Hormone produced by thyroid regulate general
metabolism

(a) Golden rice

(c) Bacillus thuringiensis

(b) Bt soyabean
(d) Flavr savr

48. Which one of the following is wrongly matched pair?

(a) In situ conservation
(b) Jim Corbett National park
(c) Endemism

(d) Foreigen species

Biosphere reserve
First national park of India
Species confined to one
region and not found in
other regions of earth
Clarios gariepinus

49. Which of the following sequences along a double

stranded DNA molecule may be recognised as a
cutting site for a particular restriction enzyme
(a) AAGG
TTCC
(c) GGCC
CCGG

(b) AGTC
TCAG
(d) ACCA
TGGT

50. The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian

Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females
(a) who cant produce an ovum
(b) who cant retain the foetus inside uterus
(c) whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the
sperms
(d) who cant provide suitable environment for fertilisation

51. During respiration in the presence of O2 , what is the

function associated with Co-A?
(a) Isomerisation of pyruvic acid
(b) Isomerisation of NAD +
(c) Activation of acetyl group
(d) Facilitation of oxidative phosphorylation

46. In the figure given below, different types of

52. Which is the correct matching pair with respect to

placentation are depicted in angiospermic plants.

group of animals and their related morphological

features?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Star fish, Aurelia

Sea urchin, Balanoglossus
Scorpion, earthworm, prawn
Liverfluke, sea anemone,
sea cucumbur

Post-anal tail
The presence of haemocoel
Solid ventral nerve cord
Bilateral symmetry

53. The phenomenon of delay in senescence by

cytokinin is also known as
(a) Richmond Lang effect
(c) Loomis and Toory effect

(b) Senescence effect

(d) Sorokin etal effect : 1962

54. Mark the correct statement given below, which

D

Identify correct type being depicted in A to E from

the options given below.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

34

AAxile, BMarginal, CParietal, DFree-central, EBasal

AParietal, BAxile, CMarginal, DFree-central, EBasal
AMarginal, BAxile, CParietal, DFree-central, EBasal
AFree-central, BBasal, CAxile, DMarginal, EBasal

depicts the characteristic anatomy of monocot stem.

(a) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous, vascular
closed, phloem parenchyma is present
(b) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous, vascular
closed, phloem parenchyma is absent
(c) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous, vascular
open, phloem parenchyma is absent
(d) Hypodermis is collenchymatous vascular
closed, phloem parenchyma is present

bundles are
bundles are
bundles are
bundles are

55. Analogous organs are produced as a result of

convergent evolution. Which among the following
pair of structures does not represent analogous
organ?
(a) Pectoral fins of shark and flippers of Dolphins
(b) Stings of honeybee and scorpion
(c) Stem tendril of Passiflora and leaf tendril of Pisum
(d) Mouth parts of honeybee and cockroach

56. Match the Column I with Column II

Column I
A. Symbiotic N 2 fixing bacteria
B. Most active N 2 fixer of rice fields
C. Increased phosphate absorption
in roots
D. Free-living N 2 fixing cyanobacteria

Columnt II
Azotobacter
Cylindropermum
Aulosira
fertilissima
Frankia
VAM

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Codes
A

C D

A B

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 1

(d) 2

57. Which of the following is correctly matched in the

table given below?
Cranial Nerve Number
(a) Vagus
X (mixed)

(b) Hypoglossal
(c) Trigeminal
(d) Optic

III
IX
III

Function
Speech, swallowing and
deals with pharynx, larynx and
visceral organ of thorax and
abdomen
Smell
Equilibrium
Vision

61. Match the Column I with Column II.

Column I

Column II

A. Piamater

1. Storage of memory and information

B. Cerebellum

2. Speech centre

C. Brocas area

3. Maintains muscular activities

D. Cerebrum

4. Inner covering of brain

Codes
A

C D

(a) 1

(b) 4

A B
3

(c) 3

(d) 4

62. Which one of the following is the causative agent of

pollorum disease of poultry?
(a) Haemophilus
(c) Clostridium

(b) Bacillus
(d) Salmonella

63. Which of the following is true regarding the

presence of type of muscles in the particular organ?
(a) Intestine

(b) Urinary bladder

(c) Heart

(d) Uterine myometrium

Syncytial voluntary and

stripped muscles.
Unstripped and voluntary
muscles.
Involuntary but stripped muscles
Voluntary muscle

64. A population is showing polygenic inheritance. The

individuals of this population will show
(a) different karyotype
(c) graded phenotype

(b) different genotype

(d) similar karyotype

65. Observe the diagram given below

A
C

58. Wonder wheat is a newly developed variety. Which

institute developed this variety?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

African Crop Improvement Centre

Central Rice Research Institute, Shimla
IARI, Delhi
Mexicos International Wheat and Maize Improvement
Centre

59. Which one of the following statement is incorrect

regarding transport of gases in the blood?
(a) Deoxygenation of oxyhaemoglobin is inversely proportional
to partial pressure of CO 2 in blood.
(b) Electrostatic neutrality of plasma is maintained by diffusion
of chloride ions from plasma into RBC
(c) Oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is sigmoid
(d) The limit to which gaseous exchange takes place between
alveoli and pulmonary blood, is called diffusing capacity

60. Collagen is the major protein in which one of

following tissue?
(a) Nerve tissue
(c) Muscular tissue

Name of the components of plasma membrane are

given below.
I. Integral protein
II. Transmembrane protein
III. Glycolipid
IV. Lipid bilayer
V. Oligosaccharide
Identify the option, which correctly match the label
with the list of structures given above.
A

(b) Connective tissue

(d) Epithelial tissue

C D

(a) I

II

(c) II

III I

A B

II

(b) V II

IV I

IV

(d) IV III

II

35

66. In female cockroach, outer covering of the egg is

respect to drug and its related category?

(a) corpora allata

(c) conglobate gland

(a) Alcohol
(b) Dipsomania
(c) Heroin
(d) Benzodiazepine

(b) musroom gland

(d) colleterial gland

67. Synthesis of gamma globulins takes place in which

of the following in humans?
(a) Blood

(b) Kidney

(c) Spleen

(d) Liver

68. A botanist was growing two set of plants. One set of

these plants were, provided with 12 hrs of light
period and 12 hours of dark period and they
flowered. While in the another set of plants, dark
period was interfered with a flash of light and he
found that this set did not flowered. These plants
will be catagerised into which category by botanist?
(a) Long day
(c) Short day

(b) Darkness neutral

(d) Day neutral

69. One strand of DNA act as non-coding strand and

sequence of nitrogenous bases is found to be GACG
GTATC. What will be the sequence of nitrogenous
bases on mRNA.?
(a) C T G C C A U A G
(c) C U G C C A U A G

(b) G A U U C C G C C
(d) C C U C C A U A G

70. Choose the incorrect option from the following

statements given below.
(a) 5 codons do not code for any amino acid
(b) In mitochondria different genetic codons are present
(c) AUG which codes for methionine is known as universal
initiation codon
(d) Codons read on mRNA from 5 to 3 always

71. Match the Column I with Column II with respect to

disease and their causative agents.
Column I
(Disease)
A.

Elephantiasis

1. Trypanosoma gambiens

B.

Kala-azar

2. Leishmania donovani

C.

Malaria

3. Wuchereria bancrofti

D.

Sleeping sickness

4. Plasmodium vivax
A B

Cirrhosis
Insanity due to psychosis
Psychotropic
Pain killer

74. The energy sources for omnivorous animals are

(a) primary consumers and secondary consumers
(b) primary producers and primary consumers
(c) Primary producers, consumers and carnivores
(d) Primary producers, carnivores and decomposers.

75. A plant species, which has been exploited for

extraction of an anticoagulant i.e. hirudin
(a) Triticum
(b) Oryza
(c) Azardirachta
(d) Brassica napus

76. Find out the length of DNA having 23 base pairs by

choosing correct option.
(a) 78.2
(c) 78

(b) 78.4
(d) 68

77. The teacher asked a student to study different

aspects of a population of rats. He found that
I. Average natality = 300
II. Average mortality = 250
III. Immigration = 25
IV. Emigration = 75
The net population growth rate of rats will be
(a) 10
(c) 0

(b) 20
(d) 40

78. Read the following statements carefully and find out

Column II
(Causative agent)

Codes
A

C D

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 1

72. DDT had been widely used in many parts of the

world. It is found that population of the birds
decreased down significantly in the areas, where
DDT had been applied because
(a) birds laid egg but did not hatch
(b) birds food was destroyed
(c) cobras were feeding on the birds
(d) loss of fertility leads to absence egg laying in them

36

73. Which of the following is correct matching pair with

formed by the secretion of

incorrect statement.
(a) The electron carriers present on the thylakoid membrane,
helps in photophosphorylation
(b) Photosynthesis process involves both oxidation as well as
reduction reactions.
(c) The enzymes, which are involved in fixation of carbon are
located in the grana of chloroplasts
(d) Formation of NADPH requires both photosystem-I as well
as photosystem-II

79. The stain used for staining of DNA is

(a) Jenus green B
(b) Basic fuchsin
(c) Crystal violet
(d) Methylene blue

80. Choose the incorrect statement regarding AIDS.

(a) This disease is caused by retrovirus, which replicate via
DNA intermediate
(b) HIV virus attack on CD 4 T-helper cells
(c) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection
(d) It is an immunodeficiency disease

81. Which one of the following is incorrect statement?

(a) Some bacteria, such as Anabaena and Nostoc are capable
of N 2 fixation in free state
(b) Rhizobium leguminosarum are capable of fixing N 2 in
aerobic condition in free state
(c) Calcium is an important component of cell wall
(d) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are chemoautotrophs

82. Which one of the following is an example of feed

back inhibition?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by melonate

Allosteric inhibition of hexokinase by Glucose-6-phosphate
Action of cyanide on cytochrome
Action of sulpha drug on folic acid synthesizing bacteria

83. In human being, at the site of burning or infection

redness, swelling and pain are very common. These
symptoms appear due to
(a) release of histamine
(b) release of prostaglandins
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) release of cerumen

I. Ostrich eggs
II. RBC (humans)
III. Bacteria
IV. Mycoplasma
What will be the correct ascending order of these
cells according to their size?
(b) I II III IV
(d) IV III II I

85. Identify the correct match-pairs from the following

I.
II.
III.
IV.

Type of fruit in mango

Synandrous condition
Hypanthodium
Cymose infloresence

(a) III and IV

(c) I and II

12 molecules of NADPH are required for the

synthesis of
(a) one molecules of pyruvic acid
(b) one molecule of glucose
(c) one molecule of phosphoenol pyruvate
(d) one molecule of oxalic acid

87. During test tuby formation by invitro fertilisation,

the implantation of zygote in females takes place at
which stage?
(a) 164 celled stage
(b) 132 celled stage
(c) 32 celled state
(d) 164 celled stage

88. When a very little amount of gene is available, then

a complete gene library is maintained, which
represent the entire set of genome of an organism.
The method of cloning applied will be

84. Few cells are listed below.

(a) III II I IV
(c) II III IV I

86. 6 molecules of CO2 , 18 molecules of ATP and

Hespiridium
Calotropis
Ficus bengalensis
Hibiscus

(b) II, III and IV

(d) Only I

(a) cloning
(b) shotgun cloning
(c) gene synthesis cloning
(d) polymerase chain reaction

89. Cholegogues stimulate the secretion of

(a) bile
(b) saliva
(c) intestinal juice
(d) gastric juice

90. Parasympathetic nerve is also called the nerve of

micturition. Stimulation of this nerve causes
(a) contraction of muscle and relaxation of the internal
sphincter
(b) contraction of external muscle fibres forming external
sphincter
(c) relaxation of detrusor muscle and constriction of internal
sphincter
(d) inhibition of release of renin from JGA

Answers
1. (c)

2. (a)

3. (d)

4. (c)

5. (d)

6. (b)

7. (b)

8. (a)

9. (a)

10. (b)

11. (c)

12. (d)

13. (b)

14. (d)

15. (b)

16. (d)

17. (c)

18. (b)

19. (a)

20. (c)

21. (c)

22. (b)

23. (b)

24. (a)

25. (d)

26. (a)

27. (c)

28. (d)

29. (d)

30. (a)

31. (a)

32. (a)

33. (c)

34. (c)

35. (b)

36. (d)

37. (a)

38. (a)

39. (b)

40. (b)

41. (c)

42. (c)

43. (c)

44. (c)

45. (b)

46. (c)

47. (a)

48. (d)

49. (c)

50. (a)

51. (c)

52. (c)

53. (a)

54. (b)

55. (d)

56. (b)

57. (a)

58. (d)

59. (a)

60. (b)

61. (b)

62. (d)

63. (c)

64. (c)

65. (b)

66. (d)

67. (a)

68. (c)

69. (c)

70. (a)

71. (c)

72. (a)

73. (a)

74. (c)

75. (d)

76. (a)

77. (c)

78. (c)

79. (b)

80. (c)

81. (b)

82. (b)

83. (c)

84. (d)

85. (a)

86. (b)

87. (c)

88. (b)

89. (a)

90. (a)

37

BIOGRAPHIC

SOUTHERN BLOTTING
Southern hybridisation or blotting is a technique to transfer DNA from gel to nitrocellulose
filter, the process being similar to blotting. It is named after its inventor, EM Southern and due
to DNA-DNA hybridisation that forms the basis of this technique. This technique is
particularly useful to detect specific DNA sequences in a genome or DNA sample, e.g. to
study and detect RFLP. It is used in DNA fingerprinting, demonstrating the presence of gene,
restriction sites around a single copy gene sequence.
Electrophoresis

Steps in Southern Blotting Technique

The fragments are separated according to

size by gel electrophoresis.

Restriction Fragment Preparation

DNA containing the gene of interest is extracted from human
cells and cut into fragments by restriction enzymes.

Gel

A
Restriction
enzyme
Larger
I
II
Entire genome DNA+
Restriction
extracted
enzyme
from cell

Smaller

III
Restriction
fragments

Gene of interest

Human
DNA
fragments

I
II

Autoradiography

III

The filter is then exposed to X-ray film. The fragment containing

the gene of interest is identified by a band on the developed film.

Each band consists of many copies of a

particular DNA fragment. These bands
can be made visible by staining

Film

Blotting
The DNA bands are transferred to nitrocellulose
filter by blotting. The solution passes through
the gel and filter to the paper towels.

Unattached probes are rinsed off

Paper towels

Hybridisation with radioactive probe

The filter is exposed to a radioactively labelled
probe for a specific gene. The probe pairs
(hybridise) with a short sequence present on the gene.
Paper blot
peeled off

Radioactively
labelled probes

Salt solution

Replica of gel
This produces a nitrocellulose filter
with DNA fragments positioned
exactly as on the gel

Gel
Nitrocellulose
filter

Nitrocellulose filter

Sealable plastic bag

Gel

38 JULY 2016

BIOLOGY SPECTRUM

Sponge

DNA transferred
to filter

Best Resource to
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Master The NCERT

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Available in
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KINGDOMFUNGI

The reserve food is either glycogen or oil.

Plasma membrane
Lipid globule

Fungi constitute a unique kingdom of heterotrophic

organisms with a great diversity in both morphology and
habitat. They are achlorophyllous, non-vascular
thallophytic and spore forming eukaryotic organisms.
Fungi are most adaptable living organisms and form
decomposers of dead organisms. Hence, helps in
sustaining ecosystem.

Vacuole
Dictyosome
Glycogen particle
Hyphal wall
Nucleus
Endoplasmic
reticulum

1 HABITAT

Fungi are ubiquitous in occurrence with ability to

grow in diverse habitats.
Terrestrial forms occur in soil with dead decaying
organic materials and some live inside tissues of plants
and animals while others are aquatic.
They are also found on dung, wood or even on hairs or
horns.

Ribosome
Mitochondrion
Cytoplasmic
matrix
Structure of a fungal hyphal cell

2 GENERAL CHARACTERISTICS

Fungi have filamentous structure called hyphae.

The hyphae is usually a branched tube-like structure
having protoplasm with reserve food and bounded by
a wall of chitin.
The mass of connected hyphae is called mycelium,
which grows through and penetrates the substrate and
establishes its relationship.
The protoplasm of the hypha may be continuous
without cross walls called aseptate hypha. Septa is
formed when reproductive structures are produced.
The multinucleate condition in it is called coenocyte.
The hyphae may be with transverse partitions or septa
(septate hypha). It has central pore and thus also
called perforated or porous septa.

Nutrition in fungi is heterotrophic. Most of the fungi are

saprophytic, i.e. feed upon the organic products or remains
of plants and animals, while some are parasitic i.e. depend
on living plants and animals.
Parasitic fungi may be ectoparasites (ectophytic) growing
on the surface of host cells and absorb food through
haustoria or endoparasites (endophytic) enter into the
tissues of host.
Some fungi are predatory, i.e. derive their food from
protozoans, eelworms, rotifers etc., e.g. Arthrobotrys.
Fungi also live in symbiotic association with algae known as
lichens, while some live symbiotically with roots of higher
plants, called mycorrhiza.

3 CLASSIFICATION OF FUNGI
Depending upon the various criterias as morphology of
vegetative and reproductive structures, types of spores, life
cycle etc. Eumycetes (Fungi) is divided into 4 classes.

A PHYCOMYCETES (ALGAL FUNGI)

This is the lower group of fungi characterised by aseptate,
coenocytic hyphae.
Asexual reproduction by zoospores or aplanospores
produced exogenously inside sporangia.
Sexual reproduction may be isogamous or heterogamous.
This
class
is
further
divided
into
two
sub-groupsOomycetes and Zygomycetes.
(a) OOMYCETES
Oogamous fungi have cellulose and other glycans as main
component of cell wall in many members.
In aquatic oocytic fungi, the asexual reproduction takes
place by biflagellate zoospores.
In terrestrial oocytic fungi, it takes place by conidia.
Sexual reproduction takes place by gametangial contact
resulting in oospore formation. Gametes are usually
nonflagellate, e.g. Phytophthora, Albugo, Pythium etc.

Aseptate

Septate
Fungal Hyphae

Fungal mycelium may develop as following false tissue

for the formation of fruiting bodies in certain fungi.
(a) Plectenchyma When hyphae of a mycelium grow
together and interwine with one another forming a
thick woven tissue, called plectenchyma. It may be
of following two types:
(i) Prosenchyma These are loosely interwoven
tissue with hyphal components lying more or
less parallel to each other and are recognisable.
(ii) Pseudoparenchyma In this hyphae are
compactly arranged and loose their identity.
Thus appear isodiametric resembling
parenchyma, therefore named so.
(b) Sclerotia Sometimes mycelium pass into a
dormant or resting stage by formation of hard
resting bodies during unfavourable conditions. It
is composed of central prosenchymatous and
peripheral pseudoparenchymatous tissue.
(c) Rhizomorph The fungal hyphae aggregate
together to form a root-like strand with a thick
hard cortex and a growing tip. Since it resembles
root tip and helps in absorption, it is called
rhizomorph.
Hyphal cell wall contains chitin along with other
polysaccharides, proteins, lipids and other
substances.
The cells are eukaryotic comprising of membranous
vesicle called lomasome, attached to plasma
membrane. The cell organelles, i.e. ER, vacuoles,
mitochondria, microbodies, ribosomes are present,
except plastids. Dictyosomes are unicisternal. Nuclei
are small.

ECONOMIC IMPORTANCE

Late blight of Potato is caused by Phytophthora infestans.

Blight refers to appearance of brownish to black dead areas
formed first on the margins and tips of leaflets and later on
the entire foliage.
White rust of crucifers is characterised by appearance of
irregular white blisters containing conidiosporangia on the
leaves and stems. It is caused by Albugo candida.
(b) Zygomycetes
It includes terrestrial and saprophytic fungi whose hyphal
wall is made up of chitin.
Asexual reproduction by sporangiospores, Motile spores
absent.
Sexual reproduction by gametangial copulation resulting in
diploid zygospore (hence called zygomycetes).
It germinates indirectly by producing germ sporangium,
which produces germ spores or meiospores, e.g. Rhizopus,
Mucor.

CONCEP

your Revi

DIVERSITY

PT MAP

ision Tool

Y IN FUNGI

ECONOMIC IMPORTANCE

Both Rhizopus and Mucor species are used in alcoholic

fermentation to produce a number of organic acids like
citric acid, lactic acid and fumaric acid. Both of these are
known to attack a variety of food stuffs.
Rhizopus is also known as bread mould, causes black
spores on it. It also causes soft rot or leak disease of
strawberry, apple etc.

They may or may not form fructifications called

basidiocarps. Some of them form large structures upto
50 cm in diameter, e.g. puff balls and bracket fungi
(forms fructifications that appear as brackets or shelves
on trunks, logs etc).
Pileus

Tree trunk

Gills

B ASCOMYCETESTHE SAC FUNGI

This is the most diverse class of fungi including mainly

saprophytic forms such as pigmented moulds, yeasts,
morels and truffles. They consists of septate mycelium
hyphae and are multicellular except yeast (unicellular).
Most of them shows asexual reproduction through conidia,
which are coloured variously and impart colours to fungus.
Sexual reproduction takes place through gametangial
contact between antheridium and ascogonium.
Fertilisation occurs as plasmogamy and karyogamy. The
latter is delayed and a new phase called dikaryotic phase
appears due to presence of two nuclei.
Some dikaryotic cells function as ascus mother cells,
which produce asci, each of which produces haploid
ascospores.
The asci may get aggregated with dikaryotic mycelium to
form fructifications called ascocarps. It may be cup-like
(apothecium e.g. Peziza) flask shaped (perithecium e.g.
Neurospora), elongated with slit (hysterothecium) or
closed (cleistothecium, e.g. Penicillium).
Some of the fructifications are edible, e.g. morels, truffles.

ECONOMIC IMPORTANCE

Various forms of yeast, e.g. Saccharomyces are extensively

employed in brewing, baking industry to form alcoholic
beverages, bread etc.
Most of the fungi from this class causes several plant
disease, i.e. Powdery mildew by Erysiphe, Ergot of rye by
Claviceps, brown rot by Sclerotina.
Aspergillus is known to contaminate cultures in laboratory
as well as food stuffs and even human disease, e.g.
pulmonary aspergillosis.
Penicillium, a blue green mould, is employed in ripening of
cheese varieties, production of organic acids, antibiotic
penicillin by P.chrysogenum and an antifungal drug
griseofulvin by P.notatum, P.griseofulvum.
Neurospora, a pink mould is employed in study of
biochemical genetics during experiment because of its
simple structure and short life cycle. It is often known as
Drosophila of Plant Kingdom.

C BASIDIOMYCETESCLUB FUNGI
They are large and have conspicuous fructifications, e.g.
toadstools, puff balls etc.
Their mycelia is of two types - Primary consisting of
monokaryotic cells (haploid nuclei) which multiply by
oidia or pycniospores and secondary which is produced
after sexual reproduction.
Sexual reproduction takes place by plasmogamy between
basidiospores and monokaryotic spores or between spore
and hypha. While delayed Karyogamy produces a new
Secondary mycelium.
It is dikaryotic, long lived, profusely branched and septate
possessing dolipores and capable of forming clamp
connections, a characteristic feature of club fungi.
Secondary mycelium can perennate in soil or wood by
sclerotia or rhizomorphs.
It multiplies by various kinds of spores as aecidiospores,
uredospores, telelutospores etc. Karyogamy and meiosis
takes place inside basidia, the club shaped structures,
hence named so. Each basidium produces four
basidiospores, exogenously at tip of sterigmata.

Annulus
Stalk (Stipe)

Bracket fungus
(Polyporus)

Puff Ball
Toadstool
(Lycoperdon) (Amanita)

Agaricus

Some examples of Basidiomycetes

ECONOMIC IMPORTANCE

They produce two types of diseases, i.e. Rusts and smuts.

Rusts are characterised by formation of rusty pustules
containing the spores. They require two hosts to
complete their life cycle, i.e. heteroecious. Rusts are
pleomorphicals as these produce different spore types to
complete their life cycle, e.g. Pycniospores, Aeciospores,
Uredospores, Teleospores and Basidiospores. Some
common rust diseases are black rusts of wheat by Puccinia
graminis tritici, yellow rust of wheat by Puccinia glumarum.
Smuts are common and serious diseases of various
crops. Here, black coloured thick walled resting spores
are produced called smuts, i.e. teleutospores. i.e. loose
and covered, e.g. loose smut of wheat by Ustilago tritici.
smut of corn by U.maydis, Bunt smut of wheat by Tilletia
tritici.
Many fungi of these class are edible such as puffballs,
which are edible in young stage having a stalked rounded
basidiocarp, e.g. Lycoperdon.
Mushrooms which are edible usually possess coloured
basidiospores in their umbrella shaped basidiocarp, e.g.
Agaricus campesteris, Volvariella volvacea, Lentinus
edodes.
Toadstools are non-edible poisonous mushrooms having
white spores, e.g. Amanita phalloides (death cap),
A.muscaria etc.
Basidiomycetes are best decomposers of wood as they
secrete both cellulose and lignin digesting enzymes.
These enzymes are able to create spaces in wood and
therefore sometimes toad stools and mushrooms are
spotted emerging out of woods.

D DEUTEROMYCETES (FUNGI IMPERFECTI)

This is an artificial class of fungi which includes those fungi
in which sexual stages are absent, hence called imperfect.
They are mostly unicellular like yeast.
Mycelium is septate and coenocytic, clamp connections
are absent.
Reproduces asexually by conidia along with some other
types of spores.
Some common fungi from this group includeColletotrichum, Alternaria, Fusarium, Trichoderma etc.
ECONOMIC IMPORTANCE

A soil fungus Trichoderma helps in biological control of

other fungi as it produces allelochemicals against them.
Certain fungi species of Fusarium cause wilting in
economically important plants as potato, tomato etc. due
to blockage of tracheary elements by growth of fungus.
Red rot of sugarcane is caused by Colletotrichum
falcatum, It reduces the juice content and brings about
withering of leaves.
Early blight of potato and tomato is caused by
Alternaria solani. In this disease, leaves develop small
oval brown spots with concentric rings and the leaves as
well as branches wither and fall down.

The response to pathogens is mediated by complex interactions and activities of the large number of diverse cell types.
All these cells involved form the immune response or immunity. Immunity is the ability of body to protect against
all types of foreign bodies like bacteria, virus, toxic substances, etc. that enter the body.
Barriers to Invasion
Barriers for pathogens or foreign particles entering our body
can be grouped into two major categories:

Immunity is of two typesa less

specific innate and more specific
adaptive. The components of
Non-specific
innate immunity are inborn and
Specific
(Innate immunity)
(Specific immunity)
constant. Its cells and molecules
(Third line of defence)
acts as a barrier to prevent entry of
External defence
Internal defence
foreign molecules or pathogens. If
(First line of defence)
(Second line of
defence)
Humoral
Cellular the barriers are unable to prevent
(Antibodies)
T-cells
their entry into the tissues or
Physical
Physiological
B-lymphocytes mediated
Cellular barriers
Cytokine
barriers
barriers
blood, mechanical and chemical
barriers
mediated
immunity
(Chemical messengers
Cellular
signals are sent to other
of immune cells),
Skin
immunity
Gastric acid
components
e.g. Interleukines,
(Its outer layer
in stomach
components.
Together,
they
Lymphokines, Tumour
stratum corneum
like leucocytes,
steadily and effectively work
Necrosis Factor (TNF)
prevents entry of
Bile
macrophages
Interferons (IFNs), etc.
microorganisms)
Lysozyme in
towards elimination of infectious
tissue fluids
NK cell, complement
Mucus membrane
agent. The latter is referred to as
system, inflammation,
(Secrete mucus,
Sebum
adaptive immunity, known for its
etc.
which traps and
Urine etc.
immobilises
specificity and memory.
microorganisms)

42

HSC cells differentiate along one of the two pathways.

Bone marrow

Hematopoietic
cells

Hematopoietic stem cell

Myeloid
progenitor cell

Lymphoid
progenitor cell

RBC
Platelet
Neutrophil

Basophil

lam
m

Monocyte

at
ion

Macrophage

Innate

Comparison of Innate and Adaptive

Immune Response

B
T
Lymphocytes Lymphocyte
Helper cells
Regulatory cells
Dendritic Cytotoxic cells
cell
Plasma
cell

Natural
killer cell

Eosinophil
Inf

The immune system thus, comprises of two separate but

interacting and overlapping defensive systems that provide an
additional array of defensive weapons. Both these systems get
activated by recognising particular foreign substances entering
our body. Such substances like bacteria, viruses, etc., have
glycoproteins and glycolipids on their surface that have
distinctive shapes referred to as Pathogen Associated Molecular
PatternsPAMPS. These enable them to be recognised in a
non-specific way by innate immune system cells e.g.
macrophages, natural killer cells, leucocytes, etc., collectively
called sentinel cells.
On the other hand, cells of adaptive immune system are highly
specific in recognising and protecting against specific foreign
agents using both cellular weapons (T-lymphocytes) and
humoral weapons (antibodies from plasma cells). In both the
cases, cellular components of immune system act as real defence
soldiers in the battle against foreign agents.

Adaptive

Antibodies

All these cells pass into bone marrow channels

and eventually into circulatory pathway

Both the systems or immune response differ in several ways

Innate Immune Response
1. Many cells present react
quickly to foreign agents, as
they are widely circulating in
blood and tissues.
2. Recognition is non-specific
on the basis of Pathogen
Associated Molecular
Patterns or PAMPS.
3. It responds promptly and to
same extent, each time a
pathogen invades the skin
or mucosal barriers.

Adaptive Immune Response

Stromal Cells

Slow to respond as they are present in lymphatic

organs. Requires a sequence of steps in order
to create highly specific clones to combat
foreign agent.
Highly specific in recognising foreign shapes on
a particular pathogen.

Develops immunologic memory once exposed

to specific pathogen, which enables it to
respond to subsequent infections much more
rapidly and vigorously.

Non-hematopoietic cells that support growth and differentiation

of hematopoietic cells are called stromal cells. These are
present as meshwork in bone marrow and include fat cells,
endothelial cells, fibroblasts and macrophages. They provide a
hematopoietic inducing microenvironment comprising of cellular
matrix and membrane bound or diffusible growth factors.

Lymphoid Cells (Lymphocytes)

l

Innate immunity
(Rapid response)
Adaptive immunity
(Slow response)

They constitute about 20-40% of blood and 99% of

lymph.
These are small round cells with large nucleus, thin
cytoplasm with few ribosomes and mitochondria.
They continuously circulate in the blood and lymph
and are capable of migrating into the tissue spaces and
lymphoid organs.
These are broadly subdivided into three
sub-populations B-cells (20-30)%, T-cells (65-75)%
and null cells (< 5%).

Naive Cells
CD8+T cell

Comparison of cells involved in innate and adaptive immunity

Cells of Immune System

The cells of immune system originate from pluripotent
hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. These Hematopoietic
Stem Cells (HSC) are the cells from which every functionally
specialised mature blood cells is derived.
These HSC cells are able to differentiate in various ways and
thereby generate various cells aserythrocytes, granulocytes. etc.

These cells include those B and T lymphocytes that have

not yet interacted with antigen. These cells rest in G0
phase of cell cycle and have short lifespan.
They are small i.e. 6 m in diameter, have few
mitochondria and a poorly developed ER and Golgi
apparatus.

Interaction of Naive Cells With Antigen

After antigen activation, the naive cells in the presence of
cytokines progress from G0 into G1 , S, G2 and M. They
proliferate, differentiate and enlarge into 15 m diameter
cells called lymphoblasts. They have higher cytoplasmic
to nucleus ratio and more organellar complexity.

43

Lymphoblasts proliferate and differentiate eventually into

Sub-population of T-cells
T-Helper Cells ( TH )

Memory cells
Effector cells
(Distinguished from naive
(Function in various
ways to eliminate antigen) cells by the presence or absence
of certain membrane molecules)

CD Markers
Each class of lymphocytes displays unique surface molecules or
receptors called CD markers and other proteins on their membrane.
Based on such molecules, lymphocytes are grouped as a particular type
with particular function. These surface markers are called Cluster
Designation (CD). As the cells mature, CD surface molecules also
change. Till now, more than 200 CD markers have been identified on
T and B-cells.

Some CD Markers and Their Respective Functions

CD
CD1

MHC class I like molecule

CD2

Adhesion molecule, signal transduction

CD3

Signal transduction element of TCR

CD4

Adhesion molecule binds to MHC class II molecule;

Signal transduction

CD5

Unknown

CD8

Adhesion molecule binds to class II MHC molecule;

Signal transduction

CD16

Low affinity receptor for Fc region of IgG

CD21

Receptor for complement and EB virus

CD28

Receptor for co-stimulatory B7 molecules of APC

T-lymphocytes
The T in name is derived from its site of maturation in
thymus. 65%-85% of lymphnode cells and 35-50% of spleen
cells are T-cells. The prothymocytes just entering thymus
from bone marrow have few markers. As they differentiate
and mature in the thymus, they gain more surface markers.
T-lymphocytes cannot bind directly with the antigen, but
have T-Cell Receptors (TCR) which distinguishes them from
other lymphocytes. These receptors can recognise antigen,
only when it is bound to cell membrane proteins called
MHC molecules. This is called antigen presentation
recognition event.

Various T-cell Receptors

CD4 receptor
IL-2 receptor
CD2 marker
T-cell receptor

CD28 (Interacts with B7)

Histamine receptor

Fc receptor for IgM

Complement receptor

Fc receptor for IgM

44

Functions
l

l
l

Recognises antigen presented within class II MHC

complex.
Promotes differentiation of B cells and cytotoxic T-cells.
Activates macrophages, TC and B cells by secreting
cytokines.

T-Cytotoxic Cells (TC )

Functions

CD8 receptor

These are most numerous of all T-cells. There are two kinds of
TH cells-TH 1 and TH 2. TH 1 cells produce number of cytokines
[IL 2, IFN - and TNF - ] and activate mainly TC, TDTH cells,
NK cells, macrophages related to cellular immunity. On the
other hand, TH 2 activates B cells, involved in humoral
immunity and are associated with allergic reactions. TH cells
display CD4 membrane glycoproteins on their surface.

These are cells capable of killing microorganisms and even

some of the bodys own cells directly, hence are also called
killer cells. They display CD8 membrane glycoproteins.
The antigen receptors on the surface of TC cells cause specific
binding with antigens present on the surface of foreign cell.
After binding, TC cells secrete perforins. These are hole
forming proteins that punch holes in the membrane of foreign
cell, thereby releasing cytotoxic substances into the foreign
cells. The cells, thus gets swollen and dissolves thereafter.
Cytotoxic T-cells
(killer cells)

Cytotoxic
and
digestive
enzymes
being
released

Antigen
receptors

Antigens
Specific binding
Foreign cell
Killing of a foreign cell by cytotoxic TC -cells

Activation of CD8 TC Cells by

Endogenous Antigens
Virus and bacterial pathogens reproduce inside living cells, where
circulating antibodies cannot reach them. The cytokines from TH cell
activates TC cells, which are transformed into Cytotoxic T-Lymphocytes
(CTLs). These cells have ability to recognise and kill target cells carrying
fragments of endogenous antigens e.g. viral infected or cancerous cell. The
CD8 TC cells recognises antigen presented in association with MHC class-I
molecules. It then induces destruction of virus infected cell by apoptosis.

T-Regulatory (TR ) Cells

These are natural regulatory or suppressor cells
capable of suppressing the functions of cytotoxic
and helper T-cells and maintain immunological
tolerance. They stop the immune response when
an antigen is no longer present. They may be of
two types
l

Natural Treg cells arise in thymus.

Adaptive Treg cells arise during a normal
immune response.

T-Memory Cells
These are formed from T-lymphocytes as a result
of exposure to antigen and remain in the
lymphatic tissue. They recognise the invading
antigens even after many years from first
encounter and attack immediately on second
exposure of that same antigen. They remain in
peripheral tissues and circulate for long time.

Functions of T-Cells
l

Recognise the antigenic peptide presented in

MHC Class-I and Class-II antigen and provide
signal to antigen recognised B-cells.
They help B-cells to produce specific antibody.
TC cells involved in cell mediated immunity
remove viral, intracellular bacterial and fungal
infected cells, cancer cells and cells of
transplanted organs.
They are also responsible for transfusion
reaction, allergies, delayed type hypersensitivity response and rejection of transplanted
organs.

The Complement System

It is a defensive system involving
Inrushing fluids
enzyme cascade that helps to defend
against infections. It involves a group of
30 proteins, most of which occur in
serum as inactive precursors called
Pore
zymogens.
These
complement
proteins are found circulating in blood
Complement
plasma and within tissues throughout
proteins
the body. The zymogens are activated
locally at the sites of infection, where
they trigger a series of potent
inflammatory events. The term
complement was coined by Ehrlich to
Plasma
membrane
denote its activity of complementing
the action of antibdy on antigen.
Complement proteins act by creating
Cytoplasm
pores in plasma membrane of microbes.
Through this pore, water rushes in and
Formation of pores in microbial
the cell bursts and die off. Besides, they cells by complement protein
also prevent excessive damage of host
tissues.
Other functions include
Lysis

Complement

Activation of Inflammatory
Response

Opsonisation

Clearance of Immune
Complexes

Complement
receptor

Bacteria

Extravasation

Ag-Ab
complex

Degranulation
Tissue
Blood

Target cell

Bacteria
Phagocyte

Activities of complement system

B-Lymphocytes

New Species of Rain Frog

Discovered in Peru
A new species of the
genus Pristimantis (rain
frogs)
has
been
discovered. Pristimantis
is the most species-rich
genus of frogs and
among the largest vertebrate genera.
The newfound frog, named Pristimantis pluvialis,
lives in the humid sub-montane forest of the
Peruvian region Cusco. Similar to other species
within its genus, Pristimantis pluvialis exhibits
direct development. This means that it is capable of
undergoing its entire life cycle without a free-living
tadpole stage.

Certain cells produce and mature in bone marrow, hence named

B-lymphocytes. These cells produce antibodies that regulate humoral
immunity. CD 20 is a signature molecule of mature B-cell. As B-cells
mature, they express both IgD and IgM on their surface and function as
signalling molecules along with other membrane bound polypeptides.
Fc receptor for IgM
IL-4 receptor

IL-2 receptor

MHC molecules
CD23 to IgE
Fc receptor for IgG
CD40 L
CD40

B-cell receptor
Receptor for IL-5
Receptor for C3bi

Complement receptor
Surface receptors of B-cells

Sub-population of B-Cells
Under the influence of various signals from receptors, the immature
B-cells are converted to transitional B-cells. When encountered with
antigen, they convert to plasma cells and memory cells.

45

Plasma Cells

Antibodies
Antibodies are protein molecules called immunoglobulins, produced by plasma
cells against an antigenic stimulation.

Structure of Antibody
The basic unit of all antibodies consists of four polypeptide chains, i.e. has two
light and two heavy chains linked by disulphide bonds. Hence, antibody is also
called H2L 2 molecule.

CL
SS

(Amino NH2
terminus)

CH3

B1-Cells
They appear in early ontogeny and express CD5, an
adhesion and signalling cell surface molecule. They
are self-renewing and produce high levels of low
affinity, polyreactive and natural antibodies (IgM).
They are activated by carbohydrate antigens.

B2-Cells

IgE

Responsible for humoral immunity.

Each cell recognise specific antigen with their
surface Ig.
Act as APC (Antigen Present Cell) in engulfing,
processing and presenting antigen.
They get activated by antigenic signal and from
antigen of activated TH cells.
Clone of plasma cells produce same type of
antibody specific to a particular antigen.
Involved in destroying bacteria and inactivating
their toxin.

46

VL = Variable domain of
light chain
CL = Constant domain of
light chain
VH = Variable domain of
heavy chain
CH = Constant domain of
heavy chain
SS = Disulphide bond

Types of Antibodies
Class
IgG

NH2

COO
COO
(Carboxyterminus)
Structure of antibody

They are non-circulating mature B-cells found in

marginal zone of spleen and express high levels of
IgM, CD1, CD5, CD9, etc., markers. They form the
components of first line of defence against antigens.
They convert to plasma cells and secrete IgM.

Functions of B-Cells

SS
SS

NH2

Heavy chain
hypervariable
region

SS

CH2

Hinge region
= Pepsin/papain
cleavage sites.

After the primary interaction with antigen molecules,

some of the B-cells do not differentiate into plasma
cells, rather differentiate to form memory B-cells. They
have longer span of life and circulate in dormant stage
until they encounter the same antigen again.

They differentiate later in the ontogeny and

differentiate from stem cells of bone marrow. CD5
marker is absent and they possess IgD along with IgM
surface molecules. They form the majority of B-cells
and get activated by protein antigens and secrete
highly specific IgG.

SS

SS

VH

Memory Cells

Marginal Zone B-Cells

Light chain
hypervariable
region

(MW = 23000)
Light chain
(MW = 53000
NH2
75000 d)
Heavy chain
VL

1
CH

These are large B-cells and have greatly expanded

basophilic cytoplasm, extensive Golgi bodies, RER,
ribosomes, etc. They show relatively few B-cell
markers, even the signature marker CD 20 is lost.
Some of the activated B-cells (by cytokines) enlarge,
divide and differentiate into a clone of plasma cells.
Though they live for only a few days, they secrete
enormous amounts of antibody during this period.
After exposure to an antigen, a plasma cell is capable
of secreting hundreds of millions of antibodies daily
and secretion occurs for about 4-5 days until the
plasma cell dies. These cells cannot switch antibody
classes. The cytokine signals control the lifespan,
class of antibodies and movement of plasma cell to
particular location.

IgA

IgM
IgD

Description
Main antibody type in circulation, attacks microorganisms and their
toxins.
MW 150000-160000 Da. It protects body fluids.
Main antibody type in secretions such as saliva and milk, attacks
microorganisms and their toxins.
MW = 180 400K Da. It protects body surface.
Antibody responsible for allergic reactions.
MW = 190000 Da.
Antibody found in circulation. Largest antibody with 5 subunits.
MW = 950000 Da.
Antibody found primarily as a membrane bound immunoglobulin.
MW = 180 K Da.

Null Cells
These constitute 5% of all lymphocytes. These cells include those
lymphocytes that does not express surface markers typical of B or
T-cells and therefore called null. As they differentiate, they acquire
macrophage markers and become large granulocytes having
FC receptors and develop into effector cells.

Natural Killer (NK) Cells

They constitute 5-10% of peripheral blood. They are non-adherent,
non-phagocytic, large granular lymphocytes. These are present in
spleen, lymphnodes and red bone marrow. These do not have
antigen receptors like T-cells and B-cells.

Functions

Myeloid Cells

NK cells form part of innate immune system as cause

non-specific elimination of target cells. The cellular
destruction is carried out in two ways.
The killing activity of NK cells depend on the presence of
class-I MHC molecules. Normal cells are not destroyed as
they constitutively express MHC class-I molecules on their
surface and thus killing is inhibited. But it displays
cytotoxic activity against abnormal cells like virus infected
or tumour cells, by recognising them with the help of NK
receptors.
They express CD-16 membrane receptor for C-terminus
end of IgG molecules, therefore, are able to attach these
antibodies and subsequently destroy target cells. Such
process is known as Antibody Dependent Cell Mediated
Cytotoxicity.
l

Natural killer cell

Natural killer cell

Killerinhibitory
receptor
No attack
MHC class I
molecule

Killeractivating
receptor
Ubiquitous
molecule

Myeloid cells differentiate into a variety of cells participating

in innate immune response. These include :

Mononuclear Cells
These are agranular leukocytes that originate from myeloid
progenitor cells derived from pluripotent HSC cells in bone
marrow. They are of two types :

1. Monocytes
The granulocyte-monocyte progenitor cell differentiates into
promonocytes, which leave bone marrow and enter into
blood. They further differentiate into mature monocytes with
bean-shaped nucleus and granules of lysosome in their
cytoplasm. They circulate in blood stream for about 8 hours
and convert into macrophages, after entering tissue spaces.
They are motile and phagocytic in nature as engulf cellular
debris and bacteria.
Lysosome

Kill

Clear
cytoplasm
Nucleus
pushed to
one side

Perforin
and
granzyme
Normal cell

Abnormal cell lacking

MHC class-I molecules
Action of NK-cells

Another way of destroying (infected) cells is by apoptosis.

It occurs naturally as part of the normal development,
maintenance and renewal of cells, tissues and organs.
They may also destroy target cells by cytolysis i.e. break
down of cells and creating pores in membrane, which
allows entry of water, resulting in swelling and eventually
burst. The cellular remains are digested by phagocytes.

Programmed Cell Death : Apoptosis

Apoptosis is an induced and orderly process in which cell actively
brings its own demise. Cells undergoing this process exhibit
morphological changes collectively called as apoptosis.
Changes include :
pronounced decrease in cell volume
modification of cytoskeleton to result in membrane blebbing
condensation of chromatin
degradation of DNA into smaller fragments.
The process takes place as :
Apoptotic cell sheds tiny membrane bound apoptotic bodies
containing intact organelles.

Macrophages quickly phagocytose apoptotic bodies and cells in

advanced stages, ensuring that intracellular contents and oxidising
molecules, enzymes, etc., are not released into surrounding tissue.

Therefore it does not induce a local inflammatory response.

Phagosome

Monocyte cell

2. Macrophages
During circulation, monocytes enlarge 5-10 fold, its
organelles increase in number, lysosomal enzymes increase
and start secreting cytokines. They acquire increased
phagocytic ability and thus are converted to macrophages
while migrating to tissues. They are dispersed throughout
the body.

Pseudopodia

Lysosomes

Phagosome
Phagolysosome
Macrophage

Some macrophages are motile and keep on migrating and

wandering by amoeboid movements throughout the tissues
and are called wandering macrophages. A few macrophages
reside in particular tissues and become fixed, hence are
called fixed macrophages. Both these fixed and wandering
macrophages together form the Reticulo Endothelial System
(RES).

47

Types of Macrophages
Fixed macrophages serve different functions in different tissues
and are named accordingly to reflect their tissue location.
Pulmonary alveolar macrophages in lungs
Histiocytes in connective tissues
Kupffer cells in liver
Glomerular mesangial cells in kidney
Microglial cells in brain
Osteoclasts in bone.
Langerhans cell in skin.
n

Phagocytosis
It refers to ingestion and digestion of exogenous antigens,
endogenous matter, such as injured or dead host cells, debris and
activated clotting factors.
Presentation
of peptides
on MHC

Monocytes
and macrophage
from blood

3. Phagocytosis
Formation of
phagosome and
phagolysosome

Phagolysosome
5. Digestion by
exocytosis

Antigen processing

Monoblast

Blood

Promonocyte

Monocyte

2. Adherence
of antigen
induces
Phagosome
membrane
protrusion

1. Chemotaxis
Macrophages
attract towards
various substances
generated in immune
response

Tissues
Macrophage

Kupffer Microglial Mesangial Dendritic

cell
cell
cell
cell

Other Functions of Macrophages

Langerhans Osteoclast
cell

Maturation of macrophage and its types

Phagocytosis and
destruction of bacteria

Induces increased
expression of both
class-II MHC
molecules and thus
more effective in
activating TH cells

Soldiers and Scavengers of Body

The tissue macrophages become differentiated to various types of
specific macrophages and dendritic cells. They become activated
by inflammatory and immune stimuli and performs cleaning activity
in removing cellular debris, hence are called soldiers and
scavengers of body. They may get activated either :
Classically which elicit chronic inflammation and tissue injury.
Alternatively which resolve inflammation and facilitate wound
healing.

Oxygen dependent
killing mechanism
Produce a number of reactive
oxygen intermediates and
reactive nitrogen
intermediates having
potent antimicrobial activity

Macrophage
Tissue reorganisation
and wound healing

Secretion of

Enzymes
Cytokines

Resting macrophage/monocytes

Oxygen independent
killing mechanism
Activated macrophages
synthesise lysozyme and
various hydrolytic enzymes
showing degradative activties.
Tumour cell destruction
By secretion of INF- and
its cytotoxicity
Like
Other factors complementary
protein

Like tumour necrosis factor , IL-1, IL-6

which promotes inflammatory response.

Inflammatory stimuli
Inflammatory macrophages
increased : lysosomal enzymes
phagocytosis
Expression of membrane receptors
Neutral protease secretion
Interferons
bacterial product
other stimulators
Activated macrophages increased :
size, movement, lysosomal enzymes
phagocytosis bactericidal activity
MHC class-II expression
Steps in activation of macrophages

Functions
Macrophages are non-specific and primarily performs
phagocytosis. Besides, it also performs several other
functions as well.

48

Lysosome

Bacteria
Steps in phagocytosis

Antigen processing
and presentation
Histiocyte

4. Fusion with
lysosome

Dendritic Cells
These cells are descendants
of HSC cells through myeloid
Protoplasmic
processes
lineage. These cells are
characterised
by
long
cytoplasmic processes or
Nucleus
membrane
extensions
resembling
dendrites
of
Cytoplasm
nerve cells, hence named so.
They are the main cells to
recognise the pathogen and
Dendritic cell
initiate the immune response
by passing on the message to the lymphocytes. They are
non-phagocytic in nature and are found in lymph nodes, spleen,
thymus and skin.

Based on the location, dendritic cells may be of following

types:
Langerhans cells These cells are found in epidermis of
skin and mucus membranes.
Interstitial dendritic cells These cells are found in
most of the organsheart, lung, liver, kidney, GI tract.
Interdigitating dendritic cells These cells are T-cell
areas of secondary lymphoid tissue and thymic
medulla.
Circulating dendritic cells These cells are found in
blood and lymph.
l

Granulocytes
These are sub-group of white blood corpuscles or leukocytes
characterised by the presence of cytoplasmic granules. They are
formed in bone marrow from myeloid progenitor cells. They are
classified on the basis of cellular morphology and distinct
staining characteristics.

Functions
l

Highly effective and potent antigen-trapping and

antigen presenting cells.
Capture antigen in tissues by endocytosis.
Constitutively express high levels of both class-II MHC
molecules and members of co-stimulatory B7 family.
They present antigen to T-lymphocytes and
B-lymphocytes and trigger immune response.

Basophils
They constitute less than 1% of WBC. They are non-phagocytic
granulocytes about 12-15 m in diameter. The nucleus of these
cells is bilobed and covered by granules. They circulate for 8-12
hours and enter the tissues where they wait to carry out their
functions for 8-12 days.

Functions
They function by releasing pharmacologically active substances
from their cytoplasmic granules.
Each cell contains prominent basophilic granules, containing
vasoactive amines like histamine and serotonin and other
active mediators.
They function as APC and induce TH 2 differentiation,
inflammation and allergic responses.
l

Inflammation
Inflammation involves a complex sequence of events induced as a
result of tissue damage caused either by wound or by invading
pathogens. The events can be summarised as:

Basophilic granules

Vasodilation
It is increase in diameter of blood vessels, carrying blood
away from the affected area resulting in engorgement of
capillary network.

Nucleus
Basophil cell
(Stains with basic methylene blue-dye)

Erythema
This leads to tissue redness and rise in temperature.

Edema
Increased capillary permeability facilitates influx of fluid and cells
from engorged capillaries into tissue, referred to as exudate.
Accumulation of exudate contributes
to tissue swelling known as edema.

Margination
It is adherence of cells to endothelial wall of blood vesseles due to
influx of phagocytes from capillaries. Emigration between capillary
and endothelial cells into tissue leads
to diapedesis or extravasation.

Chemotaxis
Migration through the tissue to the site of inflammatory
response is called chemotaxis.

Pus
As phagocytic cells accumulate at the site and begin to
phagocytose bacteria, they release lytic enzymes damaging nearby
healthy cells. This accumulation of dead cells, digested material
and fluid forms a substance called pus.

Mast Cells
Basophil cells when enter into tissues, after leaving blood
differentiate into mast cells. These are found in wide variety of
tissues, e.g. skin, connective tissues, mucosal epithelial cells of
digestive, respiratory and urinogenital tract, etc.
These cells like basophils, possess two kinds of mediators :

Performed Mediators
Such type of mediators are synthesised and stored in secretory
granules. It includehistamine, heparin, proteoglycans,
chondroitin sulphates, proteases and antimicrobial peptides.
Degranulation takes place within 1-5 minutes and is rapidly
metabolised extracelluarly.

Newly Generated Mediators

These are absent in resting mast cells and are produced only
after activation. The degranulation takes place within
30 seconds and cytokines like TNF-, IL-4, I-5, etc., are
synthesised and released within minutes and hours. These
mediators are responsible for inflammation, anaphylataxis and
cytokine dependent immunity.

The stomachs digestive acids are strong enough to dissolve metals like zinc.
49

Mitochondrion
Multilobed
nucleus
Cytoplasmic
fine granules

Degranulation
It is extracellular release of mediators from mast cells. It may be
induced by various stimuli obtained from thermolysis of tissues,
mechanical trauma, exposure to ionising radiations, venoms, toxins,
tissue proteases, antigens, cytokines, antigen-antibody complexes, etc.

Phagosome
Glycogen
Small
Golgi apparatus

Mast cell
Neutrophil
1-5 minutes
Preformed mediators

Newly generated mediators

5-30 minutes
Histamine
Heparin
Tryptase
Chymase
Carboxy peptidase
Cathepsin

minutes to
hours

They consist of two distinct types of granules in their

cytoplasm :
Primary electron dense granules containing several
enzymes and acid hydrolases.
Secondary less dense granules containing alkaline
phosphatases, lysozyme and aminopeptidases.
l

Lipid mediators

Cytokines

Leukotrenes
Prostaglandin

TNF-
IL-4, IL-6
IL-5, IL-13

Various mediators degranulating from mast cells

Both the granules help in killing microbes. They do not divide

like macrophages and live for a short span (few days), thus
needs to be constantly replaced. After a period of 12 hours
circulation, PMN enter the tissues to complete their lifespan
i.e. against a microbial invasion.
Neutrophil

Eosinophils
These are polymorphonuclear granulocytes containing large
acidophilic granules. Eosinophils constitute 1-3% of WBCs.
They are motile phagocytic cells that migrate from blood into
tissues, but are less significant.

Primary granules

The nucleus has often 2-3

lobes connected by thin or
thick strand, cytoplasm is
Eosinophilic
granules
granular due to abundant
Nucleus
ribosomes, mitochondria
and eosinophillic granules
with lysozyme and EBP
Eosinophil cell
(Eosinophil Basic Protein). (Stains with
acidic Eosin red dye)

Myeloperoxidase
Acid
hydrolysis

Respiratory
burst

Functions
l

These cells exhibit chemotaxis, phagocytosis, allergies and

inflammation.
They engulf immune complexes by phagocytosis.
They degranulate on activation, releasing basic proteins,
Eosinophils Cationic Proteins (ECP), Eosinophil Peroxidase
(EPO) and neurotoxin. These toxic proteins induce tissue
damage by necrosis and apoptosis.
During parasitic infections and allergies, their numbers in
blood increases, leading to condition called eosinophilia.

Neutrophils

Lysozyme
Cationic
proteins

Collagenase
Lactoferrin

Degrades
Binds iron connective
Destroy
prevents
tissue
Kill germ
bacterial
Degrade + bacteria bacterial
growth
cell wall
bacterial
proteins
Targets of secretions of primary and secondary
dense granules in neutrophils

Martyrs of Immune System

Neutrophils reach and attack foreign material non-specifically and even
while dying release elastase, collagenase and various other chemotactic
factors, which send forces, i.e. macrophages to site of infection. They form
the main component of white pus. Therefore neutrophils are referred to as
martyrs of immune system.

Functions
l

They are the most abundant cells constituting about 40-75%

of blood leukocytes and are produced in bone marrow. Since,
these cells have multilobed nucleus, they are normally called
Polymorphonuclear
Leucocytes
(PMNL-Neutrophils).
Younger neutrophils are referred to as bands owing to their
rod-shaped nucleus, while mature ones with 3-5 lobed
nucleus are called segmented PMNs.

Secondary
granules

Neutrophils being the most mobile cells of blood, are the

first cells to reach the site of inflammation. The neutrophils
leave the blood vessels by capturing themselves in
endothelium and squeese out by tethering to integrin and
migrate between the cells. This process of extravasation is
called diapedesis. They reach the site as they are attracted
by chemotactic substances, released from damaged tissues
to the area of infection.

If all the capillaries of our lungs are taken together and joined end to end, then they would
stretch to 2400 kms or 1500 miles.
50

Megakaryocytes

Blood

Neutrophil
squeezing
and
adhesion
Bacterium
Phagocytosis
Diapedesis

Degranulation

Blood
flow

Neutrophil activation
and chemotaxis
Diapedesis
l

They eat and destroy foreign particles through

phagocytosis, so also called as microphage. The colony
stimulating factor enhances phagocytic activity of nucleus.
They show oxygen dependent killing mechanism by
producing reactive oxygen intermediates and defensin to
kill microbes.
Unique NET Neutrophils show web like extending fibres
with DNA and serine proteases forming a Nuclear
Extracellular Trap (NET). This form a unique mechanism
to kill pathogens without phagocytosis. It also prevents the
spread of microbes in body.

These are large polyploid cells residing in bone marrow,

originating from myeloid progenitor. In response to
Thrombopoietin Receptor signalling, megakaryocytes differ
from precursor cells, grow in size and release platelets by
budding mechanism.

Platelets
These are produced in bone marrow by budding off from
megakaryocytes. They are also known as thrombocytes,
which play a critical role in hemostasis (the formation of
blood clot) to prevent excessive blood loss. They become
activated and promote coagulation in response to collagen
released from damaged endothelial cells, lining the surface of
blood vessels. They also secrete a number of growth factors,
such as Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF) and
Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF), which let them
contribute to wound healing. Decrease in number of platelets
increase vulnerability to bleeding.
All the cells described above have their own significance and
functions in the war against pathogens and infections. Each
of the cell acts as soldier of defence system, fighting against
the entry of pathogens or prevent them from further invading
our system.

Smart Practice
1. Which blood cells can engulf bacteria by
phagocytosis?
(a) Eosinophil and basophil (b) Basophil and lymphocyte
(c) Neutrophil and monocyte (d) Neutrophil and lymphocyte

2. The secondary stem cells that produce neutrophils

is
(a) granulocyte monocyte progenitor
(b) B-cell committed progenitor
(c) megakaryoblast
(d) erythrocyte committed progenitor

7. Humoral immunity is mediated by

(a) cytotoxic T-cell
(c) eosinophil

8. The adaptive immune system is made up of

(a) humoral system
(b) humoral and cell mediated system
(c) humoral and fibrous system
(d) antigen induced antibodies

9. In which one of the following options, the two

3. Which of the following is related to humoral

examples are correctly matched with their particular

type of immunity?

immunity?
(a) T-lymphocyte
(c) I-lymphocyte

(b) B-lymphocyte
(d) Interferons

4. Which is called graveyard of RBCs?

(a) Spleen

(b) Liver

(c) Kidney

is carried out by
(b) B-lymphocytes
(d) erythrocytes

6. Which one of the following acts as physiological

barrier to the entry of microorganisms in human
body?
(a) Tears
(c) Skin

Examples

(b) Monocytes
(d) Epithelium of urogenital tract

Type of immunity

(a)

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and

monocytes

Cellular barriers

(b)

Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite

injection

Active immunity

(c)

Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes

Physical barriers

(d)

Mucus lining of epithelium lining the Physiological barriers

urinogenital tract and HCl in stomach

(d) Heart

5. The cell mediated immunity inside the human body

(a) T-lymphocytes
(c) thrombocytes

(b) plasma cell

(d) neutrophil

10. What is the name of complex formed at the time of

action of T-cells?
(a) HLA
(b) STD antigen complex
(c) HLA antigen complex
(d) MHC antigen complex

51

11. Globulins contained in human blood plasma are

primarily involved in

16. Interferons are

(a) antibacterial drugs
(b) antiviral drugs
(c) antibiotic drugs
(d) immuno-vaccines

(a) defence mechanisms of body

(b) osmotic balance of body fluids
(c) oxygen transport in blood
(d) clotting of blood.

12. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick

relief from

17. An insect bite may result in inflammation of that

spot. That is triggered by alarm chemicals, such as
(a) histamine and dopamine
(b) histamine and kinins
(c) interferons and opsonin
(d) interferons and histones.

(a) allergy
(b) nausea
(c) cough
(d) headache

18. An example of innate immunity is

13. In the cell mediated immune response,

(a) PMNL-neutrophils
(b) T-lymphocytes
(c) B-lymphocytes
(d) TH -cells

T-lymphocytes divide and secrete

(a) antigens
(b) plasmogens
(c) collagens
(d) cytokines

19. The complexes formed during immune complex

mediated hypersensitivity are removed by

14. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to

(a) eosinophils and basophils

(b) monocytes and B-lymphocytes
(c) eosinophils and monocytes
(d) eosinophils and TC cells

(a) loss of cell mediated immunity

(b) a reduction in haemoglobin content in blood
(c) a reduction in amount of plasma proteins
(d) loss of antibody-mediated immunity

15. In the immune system, interferons are a part of

20. Interferon is also termed as

(a) immune interferon
(b) fibroblast interferon
(c) leukocyte interferon
(d) anti-immune interferon

(a) physiological barriers

(b) cellular barriers
(c) physical barriers
(d) cytokine barriers

Answers
1. (c)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (a)

5. (a)

6. (a)

7. (b)

8. (b)

9. (a)

10. (d)

11. (a)

12. (a)

13. (d)

14. (a)

15. (d)

16. (b)

17. (b)

18. (a)

19. (d)

20. (b)

BIOLOGY
Cathepsin B : The molecular Memory Enhancer
The reason why treadmill training can boost memory recall remains an active area of investigation. A
couple of proteins have been shown to fuel exercise-induced neuron growth, but a new candidate,
cathepsin B is recently discovered as the one that can be directly traced from the muscles to the brain in
mice. Also, after a run, protein levels increased in blood of mice, monkeys, and humans. These increased
levels were first detected in muscles after the run which later on show their passage towards brain via
blood.
This previously unrecognized function of cathepsin B may be controversial. The protein is known to be
secreted by tumors and has been implicated in cell death and amyloid plaque formation in the brain.
Other studies have found that cathepsin B is neuroprotective and can clear amyloid plaques. Going
forward, the researchers want to better understand how cathepsin B is crossing the blood-brain barrier
and how it is activating neuronal signalling, growth, and connections. There are also questions around
whether the protein behaves the same in different species, and how production of cathepsin B changes
with age.
52

CHROMATIC PROBES

Diversity in
Plant Kingdom
Figure Based Learning Boosters
1. Identify the given figures of algae and select the

3. From the given groups of algae, identify which of

them belongs to classPheophyceae.

correct option.
Flagella
Daughter
colony

Branches
Axis

Parent
colony
A

(a) A Chlamydomonas, B Chara,

C Volvox
(b) A Volvox,
B Chlamydomonas, C Chara
(c) A Chara,
B Laminaria,
C Marchantia
(d) A Porphyra,
B Polysiphonia,
C Equisetum

2. Identify the filament given below and consider the

(a) A, B, C and E
(c) D and E

(b) B and C
(d) A, C and D

4. Consider the given diagrammatic representation of

types of sexual reproduction in plants.
n

statements following it.

Isogametes
n

n +
n

2n

A
Heterogametes
n
n

n
n

2n

2n

B
Egg
n
Sperm

Choose the statements correctly describing the

above figure.
I. The above filament is of green algae, Spirogyra.
II. The cell wall comprises of two concentric
layers-inner of pectose and outer layer of
cellulose, which gives it a slippery touch.
III. Each cell of filament contains ribbon-shaped
chloroplast.
IV. Many small nuclei are suspended in the cell by
cytoplasmic strands.
The correct pair of statements are
(a) I and III
(c) I, III and IV

56

(b) I and IV
(d) All of these

From the given column, match the correct pair

representing A, B and C and choose the correct
option.
Column I

Column II

A.

Isogamous

B.

Anisogamous 2. Both gametes are dissimilar in size

C.

Oogamous

Codes
A
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

B
2
2
1
1

C
1
3
3
2

1. Fusion between male (small) and female

gamete (large)
3. Both gametes are similar in size and
motile

5. Consider the given algal life cycle and choose the

Choose the correct option.

option correctly describing its process.

Flagellum
Protoplast
Nucleus
Pyrenoid

(a)

Receptacle Stalk Rays

(b) Sphagnum

Peristome

Seta

Female shoot Male shoot

(c) Funaria

Capsule

Seta

Female
receptacle

(d) Lycopodium Strobilus

(f)

(a) Marchantia

Midrib

Stem Leaves

Male
receptacle
Sporophylls

F
(b)

8. From the given options, choose the correct ploidy

level of labelled parts of plant shown below.

Sporophyte
(e)
(c)
Antheridia
Rhizoids

(d)

(a) Asexual reproduction in Volvox by coenobium

(b) Sexual reproduction by isogamy in Chlamydomonas
(c) Asexual reproduction by zoospores in Chlamydomonas
(d) Akinete formation in Chlamydomonas

6. Identify the plant from which economically

important Agar is extracted.

(a) Sporophyte
(b) Antheridia

(c) Rhizoids

(d) All of the above

Diploid (2 n)
Haploid ( n)
Haploid ( n)

9. Carefully observe the given diagram and identify

the labels marked A-F.
B

C
Outer spore sac
C

Choose the correct option correctly identifying its

source.
(a) B Gelidium,
(b) A Laminaria,
(c) B Polysiphonia,
(d) B Gracilaria,

D
Spongy layer

Hypodermal layers
E

C Gracilaria
C Fucus
D Sphagnum
D Lycopodium

7. Carefully observe the given diagram and identify

the plant. Also identify the labels marked A, B, C
and D.
A

F
Conducting strand
Seta

A
(a) Annulus

phy
sis

Apo

Epidermis Operculum Spore Air

Inner spore
sac
space sac

(b) Trabeculae Operculum Peristome Colu- Air

Stomata
mella space
C

(c) Operculum Peristome Air sac

Colu- Trabec- Epidermis

mella ulae

(d) Trabeculae Epidermis Stomata

Air
Colum- Spore sac
space ella

10. Identify the structure of Funaria shown below in

given diagram. Choose the correct option matching
with its parts labelled A-D.

57

Cover cell

B
A

(a) A Antheridiophore, B Archegoniophore, C Endospore,

(b) A Archegoniophore, B Antheridiophore, C Gemma cup,
(c) A Antheridiophore, B Archegoniophore, C Gemma cup,
(d) A Archegoniophore, B Antheridiophore, C Seta cup,

13. From the given diagram, identify the A and B

structures.
D

A
B
C
(a) Antheridium Operculum Antheridial Sperms
wall
(b) Capsule
Peristome Annulus Columella

Branches

D
Stalk
Strand

(c) Archegonia Neckcanal Ventral

Egg
Stalk
cells
canal cell
(d) Thallus
Secondary Bulbil
Gametophore Rhizoids
protonema
B

11. Identify the given filament of algae and its labels

marked as A, B, C and D.
D

(a) A Gametophyte branch,

(b) A Antheridial branch,
(c) A Archegonial branch,
(d) A Sporophyte branch,

B Sporophyte branch
B Archegonial branch
B Antheridial branch
B Gametophyte branch

14. Consider the given diagram of cross section of a

plant part. Identify the part and the plant to which it

belongs to
Rhizoid
Epidermis

Choose the correct option

Cortex

(a) Polysiphonia Holdfast

Conceptacles Cystocarp

(b) Ectocarpus

Plurilocular
sporangium
Air bladders
Oogonium

(c) Laminaria
(d) Chara

Long
branch
Prostrate Erect
system
system
Basal cell Stipe
Nodes
Internodes

Unilocular
sporangium
Conceptacles
Antheridum

12. Carefully observe the given diagram and choose the

option correctly identifying the structures marked
A, B and C.

58

Central
stand

(a) stem of Funaria

(b) root of Sphagnum
(c) leaf of Funaria
(d) stem of Equisetum

15. Consider the given group of plants shown below.

Identify them and choose the correct option.

Choose the correct option.

(a) Porphyra
(b) Polysiphonia
(c) Dictyota
(d) Chara

A Carpospores,
A Carposporophyte,
A Antheridium,
A Globule,

B Neutral spores
B Trichoblasts
B Oogonium
B Nucule

18. Identify the given thallus from diagram and

Gemma cup

consider the statements describing it.

Gemma cup

Gemma cup

Apical
notch

Midrib

Rhizoids

Rhizoids

B.

Branches

Choose the statements correctly describing the

above figure.
I. Thallus is dorsiventral, flattened and
dichotomously branched.
II. Each lobe comprises of an apical notch, a
midrib and a dorsal groove.
III. The ventral surface of thallus bears unicellular
rhizoids which are of two typessmooth walled
and tuberculate.
IV. The above thallus is identified to be that of
Riccia.

Seta
Leaves

Main axis
Rhizoids
D

Thallus

Rhizoids

(a) A Marchantia (female thallus),

B Marchantia (male thallus),
C Funaria
D Sphagnum
(b) A Riccia (male thallus),
B Marchantia (female thallus,
C Equisetum
D Funaria.
(c) A Marchantia (male thallus),
B Marchantia (female thallus),
C Polytrichum
D Equisetum
(d) A Marchantia (female thallus),
B Marchantia (male thallus),
C Selaginella,
D Salvinia

Codes
(a) I, II and III

(b) II, III and IV (c) I, II and IV (d) All of these

19. Consider the given diagram and identify the

components marked A, B, C and D.
A
C
B
Leaves

16. Which of the following algae do not belong to

classRhodophyceae?

Main axis
Rhizoids

(a) AApophysis, BCapsule, CSporophyte, DGametophyte

(b) ACapsule, BSeta,
CSporophyte, DGametophyte
(c) AApophysis, BSeta,
CGametophyte, DSporophyte
(d) ACapsule, BSeta,
CGametophyte, DSporophyte

20. Identify the plants A - D, from given figure of plants.

A

(a) B and D
(c) C and E

Strobilus

(b) B and C
(d) None of these

Node
Internode

17. Identify the given algal thallus and structures

marked A and B.
Leaves

Branch
Stem
Bracteoles

Roots
Rhizome

A
A

59

23. Study the diagrammatic representation of life cycle

given below
Gametophyte
plant
(n)
Germination

Meiospores
(n)

Gametes
(n) (n)

Zygotic
meiosis

Syngamy

Choose the correct option

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

A Equisetum, B Selaginella, C Fern,

A Selaginella,B Equisetum, C Fern,
A Fern,
B Salvinia, C Equisetum,
A Salvinia, B Equisetum, C Fern,

D Salvinia
D Salvinia
D Selaginella
D Selaginella

21. Which of the following plants are homosporous, i.e.

Gametangia
(n)

Zygote
(2n)

Identify the type of life cycle and the organism in

which it is found.
(a) Diplontic Polysiphonia
(c) Haplontic Spirogyra

(b) Haplodiplontic Fucus

(d) Diplohaplontic Ectocarpus

24. Given below are diagrammatic representation of

bear similar spores.

few types of stele. Identify them and choose the

correct option accordingly.

Strobilus

Protoxylem
Phloem
Phloem
Metaxylem
Protoxylem

Cortex
Endodermis
Pericycle

Leaves
Leaves
Rhizome

Stem

Roots
A

Meristele
Pericycle
Endodermis

Stem
Root

Phloem

Metaxylem

Choose the correct option.

(a) A and D
(c) B and D

(b) A and C
(d) B and C

22. Consider the given diagram and read the

statements following it.

Pith
Protoxylem
C

A
(a) Plectostele

B
Actinostele

C
Protostele

D
Dictyostele

(b) Haplostele

Siphonostele

Eustele

Solenostele

(c) Protostele

Plectostele

(d) Haplostele

Actinostele

Ectophloic
siphonostele
Solenostele

Amphiphloic
siphonostele
Dictyostele

25. From the given figure of a pteridophyte plant,

identify the labels A, B and C.
A

I. The stem shows monopodial growth where

main axis of trunk arises straight from base.
II. Leaves are of two types-large green foliage and
small brownish scale leaves.
III. Roots are often associated with mycorrhizae.
IV. The above plant is identified as Cycas which is
monoecious.
Choose the incorrect statements related to above
figure.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, III and IV
(c) II and III
(d) I and IV

60

Rhizome

(a) A Strobilus,
(b) A Strobilus,
(c) A Sporophyll,
(d) A Sporophyll,

B Node,
B Node,
B Node,
B Internode,

C Leaves
C Branch
C Internode
CNode

26. From the given figures of algae, identify the ones

rich in iodine and potash.

29.

Sporophyll

Ovary

Seed
Gymnosperm

Choose the correct option.

Iodine
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Potash

A Nereocystis,
B Fucus,
B Sargassum,
D Porphyra,

C Macrocystis
C Laminaria
D Laminaria
A Dictyota

B Fucus
A Macrocystis
A Nereocystis
C Laminaria

27. Consider the given algal filament. Identify its

correct name and structures marked.
A
C
B

Seed

Angiosperm

Refer to the above figures showing differences

between sexual organs of gymnosperms and
angiosperms. Consider the given statements and
identify, which statement(s) is/are not showing
correct difference(s) between reproduction in
gymnosperms and angiosperms?
I. In gymnosperms, sporophylls are aggregated to
form cones, while in angiosperms, they produce
flowers.
II. In gymnosperms as well as in angiosperms
endosperm is a triploid structure.
III. In gymnosperms, seeds are exposed on
sporophyll and in angiosperms they develop
inside the ovary.
IV. Gymnospermic embryo may contain one to
several
cotyledons
while
angiospermic
cotyledon contains one or two cotyledons.
(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) Only IV

(d) I and III

30. Consider the diagram of a plant given below.

D
Disc

Choose the correct option

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Spirogyra
Laminaria
Ulothrix
Batracho
spermum

A
Mucilage
Stipe
Terminal cell
Beaded cell

B
Pyrenoid
Lamina
Chloroplast
Spermatangia

C
D
Chloroplast Basal cell
Nucleus
Basal cell
Pyrenoid
Holdfast
Carpogonia Glomerule

Dwarf
shoot
Long
shoot

28. Carefully observe the cells of given filament of

Spirogyra. Recognise the process being depicted
and pick up the correct option accordingly.

% Gamete
& Gamete
(a) Asexual reproduction by akinetes
(b) Direct lateral conjugation
(c) Scalariform conjugation
(d) Indirect lateral conjugation
1. (b)
11. (b)
21. (d)

2. (a)
12. (b)
22. (b)

3. (d)
13. (b)
23. (c)

Seed

Now read the statements describing the above

figure and choose the codes with correct pair of
statements.
I. The above plant represents Ginkgo biloba, a
living fossil.
II. It bears two types of leaves - deeply bilobed on
long shoots and sinuate on dwarf shoots.
III. Long shoots bear distinct megasporangiate
structures.
IV. The plant is immune to several plant diseases.
Codes
(a) I, II and III
(c) I, II and IV

4. (a)
14. (a)
24. (c)

5. (c)
15. (a)
25. (b)

6. (a)
16. (b)
26. (b)

7. (c)
17. (d)
27. (c)

(b) III and IV

(d) All of these
8. (d)
18. (a)
28. (c)

9. (b)
19. (b)
29. (b)

10. (c)
20. (b)
30. (c)

61

GENETIC CLASSROOM

Mendel Laws Through Problems

In this section, we will try to infer and apply
Mendels laws through problems.
Here, we will be discussing Mendels first
two laws of Inheritance, which are
Law of Dominance

alleles. What would be the results of

F1 - generation and F2 - generation?
How would you justify the absence
of one flower colour in F1 - generation
and its reappearance in F2 - generation
progenies.
assumed that the parents with different
pairs of alleles, are supposed to be
homozygous.
If we consider a cross between plant
species with
RR (dominant) rr (recessive)
Red flower
Yellow flower
F1 progeny
Rr
(Red flower)
The F1 -progeny plants when crossed
among themselves, produces offsprings
(F2 -generation) represented by a monohybrid cross
Parents Rr Rr

Law of Segregation
This law states that the traits of a
particular character are segregated at the
time of gametogenesis. In other words, we
can say that gametes of an individual are
always pure for a particular trait.
Both the above written laws are justified
through Monohybrid crosses. Let us understand them through following problems.

Problems
If flies with straight wings are
crossed with flies with wrinkled
wings, all the F1 -progeny have
straight wings. Which trait do you
think is dominant among the two?
Also predict the phenotype of F2
progeny and their ratios with the
help of Punnett square.

Parents SS (Straight) ss (Wrinkled)

F1 progeny
Ss (Straight wings)
The proportion of F2 -progeny can be
explained as follows:
Parents Ss (straight) Ss (straight)
Gametes
S
s

SS (Straight wing)
Ss
Ss (Straight wing) ss (Wrinkled)

Connectivity with the Laws

As the S is dominant over s, the
genotypes having S will have all straight
wings while those ss, have wrinkled
wings. Therefore, the F2 progeny shows a
typical Mendelian dominant recessive
relationship ratio of 3 : 1. Hence, follows
the Mendels Law of Dominance.
2. Consider a cross between two plants
for a trait, such as the colour of the
flower (red dominant/yellow recessive)
conditioned by a pair of different

62 JULY 2016

BIOLOGY SPECTRUM

RR (Red)

Rr (Red)

Rr (Red)

rr (Yellow)

3.

In garden peas, an allele T for axial

flowers (positioned along the stem)
is dominant to an allele t for
terminal flowers (positioned at the
tips of the branches).

(a) In the F2 -generation of a monohybrid cross, what is the expected

ratio of axial : terminal?
(b) Among the F2 -progeny, what
proportion are heterozygous?
(c) Among the F2 -progeny with axial
flowers, what
proportion
are
heterozygous?
(d) In a test cross of the F1 progeny of a
monohybrid cross, what is the
expected ratio of axial : terminal?
Sol. (a) The monohybrid cross is between
the genotypes TT tt, which yields F1
plants with genotype Tt. Crossing
these among themselves (Tt Tt)
yields F2 -plants given by the
accompanying
Punnett
square.
Therefore, the expected ratio of
axial (TT or Tt) to terminal (tt) is 1/4
+ 1/2 = 3/4 to 1/4 or 3 : 1.

Tt
1/4

Tt
1/4

tt
1/4

(b) The proportion of heterozygous Tt

progeny in the F2 -generation is
evident from the above Punnett
square as 1/4 + 1/4 = 1/2.
(c) The critical phrase in this question
is with axial flowers, because it
means that in considering the
Punnett square, we are supposed
to disregard the tt plants with
terminal flowers. When these are
disregarded, there remain 1/3 TT
plants and 2/3 Tt plants, so the
proportion of F2 plants with axial
flowers that are heterozygous is 2/3.
(d) By definition, the test cross is with a
homozygous recessive parent, so
the parents in the test cross are
Tt tt. The Punnett square is
indicated and it shows that the
expected ratio of axial (genotype Tt)
to terminal (genotype tt) plants is
1/2 : 1/2 or 1 : 1.

Connectivity with the Laws

The absence of one flower colour in
F1 -generation can be explained on the
basis of Mendels law of Dominance.
Likewise, the reappearance of yellow
colour in F2 -generation can be easily
explained on the basis of law of
segregation or law of purity of gametes.

Sol. From the facts given in the problem, we

can conclude following result
F1 -progeny had flies with only straight
wings, so it is assumed that straight
wings is dominant over wrinkled wings.

Gametes

1/4

TT

T
Ovules
t

Sol. From the fact given in problem it is

It states that when a Monohybrid cross is

made between two homozygous (pure
line) individuals, then the trait that appear
in F1 -generation is called Dominant.

1.

Pollen
T t

4.

In a genetics experiment, considering the plant height, of the three

fourth of the dominant tall plants,
some were homozygous dominant
(TT) while others were heterozygous dominant (Tt). How would it
be possible to show which individuals were TT and which were Tt?
Explain with the help of a cross.

Sol. If the F1 or F2 progenies showing dominant

character (T) is crossed with its recessive
parent (tt), it would be easy to distinguish
the heterozygous from the homozygous.
Such a cross performed to determine
alleles is called test cross. Suppose a
heterozygous tall plant (Tt), is crossed
with recessive parent plant (tt) then
Tt tt
Gametes
t
T

T
tt
Tt

T
tt
Tt

Tt : tt : 1 : 1
(Heterozygous :
Homozygous)

Connectivity with the Laws

When individuals with genotype TT will
be test crossed, then all the progenies in
F1 -generation will be tall while when
individuals with genotype Tt will be test
crossed, then both the traits will appear
in progenies. So the first test cross can
be explained with law of Dominance and
the second one with law of Segregation.

Do you know why sex reversal occurs in human?

Mutation in gene SRY (sex determining region on Y-chromosome)
provides a model for change of genetic switch during
organogenesis, thus leading to somatic sex reversal. The gene SRY
is critical for male development. As we know that the sex of a person
is usually ascertained by factors like gonads (testis/ovaries),
hormones and chromosomes (X, Y). The chromosome XY
configuration determine males and XX females. But in sex reversal
syndrome due to mutation in SRY gene, the XY male may develop
female sex organs (gonads) or a XX women configuration may
develop male characteristics. This condition when individual are
chromosomal males (XY) or females (XX) but develop into vice versa
is called sex reversal syndrome. In most such cases, the condition
is not evident until puberty, as though they have gonads but are not
fertile, i.e. XY female will not ovulate.
This SRY gene found on Y-chromosome is responsible for producing
protein (sex determining region Y-protein). This protein acts as a
transcription factor by attaching to specific regions of DNA and
controls the activity of particular genes. It regulates the developmental
processes in foetus to develop male gonads and prevent the
development of female reproductive structures (ovaries, uterus and
fallopian tubes). Any gene mutations in SRY thus impair the function
of sex determining protein. Complete sex reversal occurs in about
one in 5,000 people, while partial reversal (a hermaphrodite with both
testis and ovaries) happens in about one in 1,000 individuals.

Bamboo is the fastest growing plant. Do you know?

Bamboo is one of the very fast growing plant reported so far. It
comprises of stem, which are usually hollow and have a unique
rhizome dependent system. The stem of bamboo is a small
cone-shaped bud seen around the base of plant in young stages. It
grows by elongation of cells and not by mitotic division. This stem of
bamboo can grow at a phenomenal rate of 0.3 m/day under optimal
conditions. Certain species of bamboo can grow upto 3ft within
24 hrs, at a rate of almost 4 cm in an hour.

Why high fever is dangerous?

Normal body temperature is 37C (98.6F) and all the reactions including
respiration, digestion and the synthesis of various compounds take place
at that temperature. If an increase of 1C, causes the rate of most reactions
to approximately double, then an increase of few C makes them go
significantly faster than normal. Fever is a protective mechanism, and a
small increase in temperature allows the body to kill germs faster by
mobilising the immune defense mechanism, however this increase must
be small. A rise of 1C brings the temperature to 38C (100.4F) an
increase of 3C brings it to 40C (104F). A temperature higher than 104F
increases reaction rates to the danger point.
One can easily detect the increase in reaction rates when a patient has a
high fever. The pulse rate increases and breathing becomes faster as the
body attempts to supply increased amount of oxygen for the accelerated
reactions. A marathon runner, e.g. may become overheated on a hot and
humid day. After a time, perspiration can no longer cool his or her body
effectively and the runner may suffer hyperthermia or heat stroke, which if
not treated properly, can even cause brain damage.

Do you know the plant Venus fly trap is known as power plant?
Venus fly trap (Dionaea muscipula) is known as power plant for its amazing
speed, an unique characteristic of plants. The plants has leaves in the
form of jaws with two lobes having sensory hairs on them that act as
mechano-motion detectors. Whenever an insect visits the plant or sit on its
attractive leaves, the pressure of insect against these hairs converts the
mechanical energy into electrical one. So, the plant in the absence of
nervous and muscular system relies on electrical signalling, caused as a
result of rapid pumping of ions across membranes. This rapid pumping
generates an action potential and electrical charge is delivered and
accumulated in trap. The H+ ions move into the cell of outer layers and
lowers its pH and the cells swell up due to osmosis, thereby changing the
shape of leaf lobe. On the other hand, the cells of inner layers of lobes
secrete other ions and collapse, thus shutting the trap, in less than one
tenth of a second. The speed of closing the trap may vary depending on
the conditions of humidity, light, size of prey and nutrient conditions in
which it is growing.

Do you know why glucose is not stored in its monomeric form

but as glycogen in liver?
We all know that in animals, carbohydrates, i.e. glucose is stored in
the form of glycogen reserves in liver cells called hepatocytes.
Hepatocytes of liver store glycogen equivalent to a glucose
concentration of 0.4 M. The actual concentration of glycogen is
insoluble and contributes little to osmolarity of cytosol, i.e. 0.01 M.
If the cytosol contained 0.4 M glucose, the osmolarity would be
threatingly elevated leading to osmotic entry of water and eventually
rupturing the cell.
Further more, with an intracellular glucose concentration of 0.4 M and
an external concentration of about 5 mM, the free energy change for
glucose uptake into cells against this very high concentration
gradient would be prohibitively large. Therefore, the glucose is stored
in the form of glycogen and not in its monomeric form.

Do you know why tea or coffee helps to keep us awake?

You might have often observed that people take tea or coffee to remain
attentive and awake, especially while working late. Tea and coffee consists
of caffeine and other methylxanthine compounds, such as theobromine,
theophylline, etc. Also these are the widely used psychoactive drugs that
lead to increase in cerebral functional activity and release of dopamine
neurotransmitters in prefrontal cortex region of brain. It acts as a system for
reward, motivation as well as addiction. Caffeine acts as a stimulant
mainly because of its receptors, antagonists for adenosine. Adenosine
acts as an important neuromodulator in central nervous system. Its
accumulation during waking hours leads to tiredness and sleepness. The
blockage of adenosine receptors in brain suppress its activity and
increase wakefulness and attention, thereby increasing energy
metabolism throughout the brain. Thus, taking tea reduces fatigue and
prevent drowsiness. Besides, it also helps in improving concentration and
body coordination in sleep deprived persons.

BIOLOGY SPECTRUM JULY 2016

63

AIIMS CAPSULE

Muscular and
Nervous Tissues
Chapterwise Collection of Best Assertion-Reason
Problems for AIIMS
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-30) These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(e) Assertion is false but Reason is True.
1. Assertion Muscle cells are also called myofibrils.
Reason Muscle cells are very thin and elongated.

2. Assertion Non-striated muscles are said to be

voluntary in nature.
Reason Non-striated muscles can be moved
according to will.

3. Assertion The thigh muscles do get tired but not

the muscles of ventricle of heart.
Reason Muscles of thigh are voluntary whereas
that of heart are involuntary muscles.

4. Assertion Non-myelinated nerve fibres do not

possess nodes of Ranvier.
Reason This is due to the absence of Nissls
bodies in nodes of Ranvier.

5. Assertion Intercalated discs are important

regions of cardiac muscle cells.
Reason Intercalated discs function as boosters for
muscle contraction waves.

6. Assertion Fatigue is the inability of a muscle to

relax.
Reason It is due to lactic acid accumulation by
repeated contractions.

7. Assertion Unit of nervous tissue is neuron.

Reason Nerve tissue developes from ectoderm.

64

8. Assertion The soma of neuron contains abundant

granular neuroplasm.
Reason Neuroplasm consists of trigoid granules
formed of aggregations of RER, rich in RNA and
are concerned with protein synthesis.

9. Assertion Muscle fibres are formed from epiblast.

Reason The nucleus of muscle cell forms
syncytium.

10. Assertion The muscles with appearance of

prominent cross striations are called striated
muscles.
Reason These are the voluntary muscles most
widely distributed in the body.

11. Assertion Myosin filaments are thick and located

inside A bands.
Reason Myosin filaments are bundles of myosin
molecules.

12. Assertion The chemical energy for muscle

contraction is obtained from ATP.
Reason During muscle contraction, the chemical
energy is changed into mechanical energy.

13. Assertion The fibrous connective tissue surrounding

individual muscle fibre is called perimysium.
Reason The entire muscle is surrounded by
endomysium.

14. Assertion Neuroglial cells are non-excitable

connective
system.

tissue

supporting

central

nervous

Reason Like other nerve cells, neuroglial cells also

do not replicate.

15. Assertion Smooth muscles never connect with

skeleton.
Reason Smooth muscle fibre is spindle shaped
with only a single central nucleus.

16. Assertion The strength of cardiac muscles are due

22. Assertion Axons and dendrites form grey matter

of nervous system.
Reason Axons are myelinated.

23. Assertion Single unit smooth muscles are found

in gastro-intestinal tract.
Reason Multi-unit smooth muscles are found in
urinary bladder.

24. Assertion Irritability is the ability to transmit

impulse.
Reason Conductivity is the ability to initiate
nerve impulse.

to specialised intercellular junctions called

intercalated discs.
Reason Intercalated discs provide strong
mechanical adhesions between adjacent cells.

25. Assertion Neurons show the least capability to

17. Assertion A skeletal muscle fibre has a repeating

26. Assertion Rigor mortis is stiffening of muscles,

series of dark A and light I bands.

Reason At the centre of A band is present a thin
line called Z-line.

18. Assertion Muscular tissues are endodermal in

origin.
Reason Muscles are responsible for movements
and hence are under voluntary control.

19. Assertion Actin filaments consists of two chains of

actin monomers.
Reason Troponin binds actin, tropomyosin and
Ca2 + .

20. Assertion Isometric contraction occurs when

tension of a muscle remains constant but the
length increases sharply.
Reason Isotonic contraction occurs when length of
a muscle remains constant but tension increases.

21. Assertion Failure of muscle contraction after

prolonged stimulation is known as fatigue.
Reason The accumulated lactic acid is converted to
glycogen.

regenerate.
Reason After birth, neurons do not divide.
particularly after death.
Reason It is due to permanent irreversible
contraction.

27. Assertion Cardiac muscles are striated, involuntary, contract rapidly and do not get fatigued.
Reason Cardiac muscles show properties of both
striated and non-striated muscles.

28. Assertion Twitch is a sustained contraction by a

wave of stimuli.
Reason Tetanus is rapid jerky response to a
stimulus.

29. Assertion The outermost layer of axon is called

neurilemma.
Reason The
axoplasm.

membrane

of

axon

encloses

30. Assertion Myelin sheath is produced by flattened

cells called Schwann cells.
Reason Myelin sheath serves as an insulating
material.

Answers with Explanation

1. (e) Muscle cells are also referred to as muscle fibres since they

4. (c) Myelin sheath is a lipid rich, insulating layer that covers

are thin and elongated. They are not called myofibrils but are
composed of myofibrils. It is the unit of striated muscle fibre. A
striated muscle fibre is composed of many myofibrils arranged
along the long axis of fibre.
2. (d) Non-striated or smooth muscles are involuntary in nature
because they do not move or contract according to our will.
Rather striated or skeletal muscles are voluntary in nature as we
can willingly move them.
3. (b) Thigh muscles are striated muscles, which soon get tired due
to overwork. These muscles show rapid contractions and then
get tired immediately due to accumulation of lactic acid. On the
contrary, muscles of heart wall, i.e. cardiac muscles show
rhythmic and automatic contractions and do not get fatigued.

some of the nerve fibres. Such fibres are called myelinated

nerve fibres. Each such fibre shows constrictions at regular
intervals called nodes of Ranvier, which is due to interruption in
myelin sheath at those places. In non-myelinated nerve fibres
myelin sheath is absent and therefore nodes of Ranvier are
also absent.
5. (a) Cardiac muscles are short cylindrical cells joined end to
end and by side branching to form a network. Intercalated
discs are dense junctions formed in between cardiac muscle
cells where they meet each other and function as boosters for
muscle contraction wave. Cardiac muscles exhibit
considerable rhythmicity and generates its own wave of
excitation.

65

6. (e) Fatigue refers to the inability of a muscle to contract. It

18. (d) Muscular tissues are mesodermal in origin and not derived

usually occurs due to accumulation of lactic acid and depletion

of ATP due to repeated contractions.

from endoderm. Though muscular tissues are responsible for

various movements in higher organisms but all of them are not
voluntary. Only skeletal muscles are under voluntary control
while smooth muscles are involuntary in nature.

7. (b) The nervous tissue or cells originate from embryonic

ectoderm. The neurons are unit of nervous tissue as well as the
longest cells in human body.

8. (b) The cell body of neuron is called cyton or soma which

contains abundant granular neuroplasm and a large nucleus.
Nissl bodies or trigoid granules are present in neuroplasm, a
characteristic feature of neurons. These are aggregations of
RER rich in RNA and are concerned with protein synthesis.

9. (e) The muscles fibres are formed from myoblast. The nucleus
of muscle cell undergoes repeated divisions to form sanctum.

10. (c) Striated muscles are named so because of the presence or

appearance of prominent cross-striations. It arises due to
arrangement of contractile proteins in them.
These are voluntary in nature and are responsible for the
movement of skeleton and organs, such as eye and tongue.
They are not the most widely distributed muscles.
Smooth muscles are widely distributed muscles in human
body, forming the muscular component of all visceral organs.

11. (b) Both the statements are correct but the reason do not
explain the assertion statement. Myosin filaments are thick
and located inside A bands. These myosin filaments are
bundles of myosin molecules with globular heads and
polypeptide tails.
12. (b) The energy for muscle contraction is derived from ATP, the
cellular energy store. Movements occur as a result of mechanical
contraction, hence the chemical energy is utilised and converted
into mechanical energy to carry out work or locomotion.

13. (d) The individual muscle fibres are surrounded by delicate

19. (b) Actin filaments consists of two chains of actin monomers

bound together by polypeptide chains of tropomyosin.
The three subunits of protein troponin bind actin, tropomyosin
and Ca 2 + .

20. (d) Isometric contraction occurs when length of a muscle

remains constant but tension increases sharply, whereas
isotonic con traction is the one where ten sion of a muscle
remains constant but length increases sharply.

21. (b) Both the statements are correct but do not explain each
other. Failure to contract due to drop in a force of contraction
after prolonged stimulation is called fatigue. Muscle fatigue
occurs due to excessive work resulting in accumulation of lactic
acid. This accumulated lactic acid is transported to liver via
blood and converted to glycogen by Coris cycle.

22. (d) Axons and dendrites are extensions of cell bodies that form
white matter of nervous system. Axons can be both of
myelinated and non-myelinated types.

23. (c) Single unit smooth muscles are composed of muscle fibres
closely joined together that contract as a single unit, e.g. in
gastro-intestinal tract, urinary bladder. Multi-unit smooth
muscles are composed of more independent muscle fibres that
contract as separate units, e.g. large blood vessels, hair root
muscles etc.

24. (d) Irritability and conductivity are the characteristic features of

neurons or nervous tissue. Irritability refers to ability to initiate
nerve impulse, while conductivity refers to ability to transmit
impulse.

fibrous connective tissue called endomysium. But the entire

muscle is surrounded or embedded in a dense collagenous
sheath called epimysium.

25. (b) Neurons do not divide after birth, due to the absence of

14. (c) Neuroglial cells are non-excitable connective tissue

26. (a) Rigor mortis is the condition wherein muscles stiffen after

supporting central nervous system. Unlike other nerve cells

neuroglial cells are capable of replicating and continue to grow
throughout life.

death. It occurs due to permanent irreversible contraction,

establishment of permanent link between actin and myosin as
well as drastic fall in concentration of ATP molecules.

15. (b) Smooth muscles are under autonomic and hormonal

27. (b) Both the statements are correct but reason is not the correct

control and are never connected to skeleton, as it needs to be

moved as per will. The smooth muscle fibre is spindle shaped
with only a single central nucleus. There is indistinct
sarcolemma but a fine membrane surrounding each fibre is
present.

explanation of assertion. Cardiac muscles are striated,

involuntary, contract rapidly and yet do not get fatigued. They
show a mixture of properties of both striated and non-striated
muscles.

16. (a) The potency and strength of cardiac muscles is due to the

centrosome, hence show least power of regeneration.

28. (d) Twitch is a rapid jerky response to a stimulus while tetanus is

a sustained contraction by a wave of stimuli.

specialised intercellular junctions known as intercalated discs

that provide strong mechanical adhesions between adjacent
cells.

29. (e) The outermost layer or membrane of axon is called

17. (c) The skeletal muscle fibre has a repeating series of dark A

30. (b) Both the statements are correct but reason is not a proper

and light I bands. At the centre is found H zone while at the

centre of I band is present fine dense line called Z-line on
Krauses membrane.

axolemma. The axolemma encloses axoplasm within it. Nissl

bodies are absent in axon and axon hillock.
explanation of assertion. Myelin sheath is produced by flattened
cells called Schwann cells. It serves as an insulating material
and causes saltatory conduction of impulses.

The archer fish (Toxotes chatareus), a species of freshwater tropical fish, can recognise
individual peoples faces. The archer fishes are well known for their ability to spit jets of water
to knock down their aerial prey.
66

EXTRA DOSE

EXEMPLAR
I
I
S MPL F ED
I

EXTRACT OF EXTRA-ORDINARY EXEMPLAR PROBLEMS

REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
1. A few statements describing certain features of
reproduction are given below
1. gametic fusion takes place.
2. transfer of genetic material takes place.
3. reduction division takes place.
4. progeny have some resemblance with parents.
Select the options that are true for both asexual and
sexual reproduction from the options given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 3

2. The term clone cannot be applied to offspring

formed by sexual reproduction because
(a) offspring do not possess exact copies of parental DNA
(b) DNA of only one parent is copied and passed on to the
offspring
(c) offspring are formed at different times
(d) DNA of parent and offspring are completely different

3. A multicellular, filamentous alga exhibits a type of

sexual life cycle in which the meiotic division
occurs after the formation of zygote. The adult
filament of this alga has
(a) haploid vegetative cells and diploid gametangia
(b) diploid vegetative cells and diploid gametangia
(c) diploid vegetative cells and haploid gametangia
(d) haploid vegetative cells and haploid gametangia

4. The male gametes of rice plant have 12 chromosomes

in their nucleus. The chromosome number in the
female gamete, zygote and the cells of the seedling
will be, respectively.
(a) 12, 24, 12
(b) 24, 12, 12
(c) 12, 24, 24
(d) 24, 12, 24

5. Appearance of vegetative propagules from the

nodes of plants, such as sugarcane and ginger is
mainly because
(a) nodes are shorter than internodes
(b) nodes have meristematic cells
(c) nodes are located near the soil
(d) nodes have non-photosynthetic cells

6. Which of the following situations correctly describe

the similarity between an angiospermic egg and a
human egg?
1. Eggs of both are formed only once in a lifetime.
2. Both, the angiospermic egg and human egg are
stationary.
3. Both, the angiospermic egg and human egg are
motile transported.
4. Syngamy in both results in the formation of
zygote.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(a) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4

(b) only 4
(d) 1 and 4

73

7. The number of chromosomes in the shoot tip cells of

18. Is there a relationship between the size of an

a maize plant is 20. The number of chromosomes in

the microspore mother cells of the same plant shall
be

organism and its lifespan? Give two examples in

support of your answer.

(a) 20

(b) 10

(c) 40

(d) 15

8. Choose the correct statement from amongst the

following
(a) Dioecious (hermaphrodite) organisms are seen only in
animals
(b) Dioecious organisms are seen only in plants
(c) Dioecious organisms are seen in both plants and animals
(d) Dioecious organisms are seen only in vertebrates

9. There is no natural death in single celled organisms

like Amoeba and bacteria because
(a) they can not reproduce sexually
(b) they reproduce by binary fission
(c) parental body is distributed among the offspring
(d) they are microscopic

10. There are various types of reproduction. The type of

reproduction adopted by an organism depends on
(a) the habitat and morphology of the organism
(b) morphology of the organism
(c) morphology and physiology of the organism
(d) the organisms habitat, physiology and genetic makeup

11. Identify the incorrect statement

(a) In asexual reproduction, the offspring produced are
morphologically and genetically identical to the parent
(b) Zoospores are sexual reproductive structures
(c) In asexual reproduction, a single parent produces offspring
with or without the formation of gametes
(d) Conidia are asexual structures in Penicillium

Very Short Answer Type Questions

12. Why do we refer to offspring formed by asexual
method of reproduction as clones?

13. Although potato tuber is an underground part, it is

considered as a stem. Give two reasons.

14. Between an annual and a perennial plant, which

one has a shorter juvenile phase? Give one reason.

15. Rearrange

the following events of sexual

reproduction in the sequence in which they occur in
a flowering plant embryogenesis, fertilisation,
gametogenesis, pollination.

16. The probability of fruit set in a self-pollinated

bisexual flower of a plant is far greater than a
dioecious plant. Explain.

17. Is the presence of large number of chromosomes in

an organism, a hindrance to sexual reproduction?
Justify your answer by giving suitable reasons.

74

19. Give reasons as to why cell division cannot be a type

of reproduction in multicellular organism?

20. Why do gametes produced in large numbers in

organisms, exhibit external fertilisation?

Short Answer Type Questions

21. Justify the statement vegetative reproduction is
also a type of asexual reproduction.

22. Suggest a possible explanation, why the seeds in a

pea pod are arranged in a row, whereas those in
tomato are scattered in the juicy pulp.

23. Fertilisation is not an obligatory event for fruit

production in certain plants. Explain the statement.

24. With which type of reproduction do we associate the

reduction division? Analyse the reasons for it.

25. Honeybees produce their young ones only by sexual

reproduction. Inspite of this, in a colony of bees we
find both haploid and diploid individuals. Name the
haploid and diploid individuals in the colony and
analyse the reasons behind their formation.

26. The number of taxa exhibiting asexual reproduction

is
drastically
reduced
in
higher
plants
(angiosperms) and higher animals (vertebrates) as
compared with lower groups of plants and animals.
Analyse the possible reasons for this situation.

Long Answer Type Questions

27. Differentiate between
(a) Oestrus and menstrual cycles; (b) Ovipary and
vivipary. Give an example for each type.

28. Do all the gametes formed from a parent organism,

have the same genetic composition (identical DNA
copies of the parental genome)? Analyse the
situation with the background of gametogenesis
and provide or give suitable explanation.

29. Although sexual reproduction is a long drawn,

energy-intensive complex form of reproduction,
many groups of organisms in kingdomAnimalia
and Plantae prefer this mode of reproduction. Give
atleast three reasons for this.

30. Rose plants produce large, attractive bisexual

flowers, but they seldom produce fruits. On the
other hand, a tomato plant produces plenty of fruits
though they have small flowers. Analyse the reasons
for failure of fruit formation in rose.

Answers with Explanation

1. (c) In both types of reproduction (asexual and sexual) there is
transfer of genetic material from parent(s) to their young ones
which have some resemblances with their parents.
Reduction division (meiosis) occurs if a diploid body has to
produce haploid gametes, i.e. in case of sexual reproduction
only.
Gametic fusion As a result of meiosis, formation of haploid
male and female gametes takes place and they fuse together
to form the diploid (2 n) zygote. This process takes place only
in the sexual reproduction.

2. (a) When the offsprings produced, are genetically similar to

each other, as well as to the parent, as in the case of asexual
reproduction, they are not only identical to one another but
are also exact copies of their parent. Such individuals are
called clones. While, in the case of sexual reproduction, DNA
of both parents (i.e. male and female gametes) is copied and
passed on to the offspring after fusion of gametes. Since,
genetic material of such offspring are mixture of male and
female parent, they do not possess exact copies of parental
DNA and so are not called clones.

3. (d) In a filamentous algae, such as Spirogyra, meiotic division

occurs in zygote (2 n), thus haploid vegetative cells are
produced. That is why Spirogyra filament is a gametophyte.
The Spirogyra produces gametes by mitosis only and gametic
fusion results into diploid zygospore or zygote.
Haploid vegetative cell (n)
Spirogyra plant

These cells are responsible for the growth and development

of new tissues and organs in plants. Nodes (present in the
modified stems) when come in contact with damp soil or
water, produce roots and gives rise to new plants.

6. (b) In case of both angiosperms and humans, which exhibit

internal fertilisation, syngamy or fusion of gametes occurs
inside the body of the organism to form zygote.
Both, the angiosperms and humans remains reproductively
active throughout their reproductive phase. It means the
formation of egg takes place not only once but many times in
a lifetime.
In humans, once an egg has been released from ovary, the
beating of cilia in the Fallopian tube moves the egg from the
ovary to the uterus. So, the egg is considered as motile not
stationary.
In flowering plants (angiosperms), the gametes are
non-motile cells within gametophytes, but to allow fusion, the
non-motile male gametes are carried to female gamete by
pollen tubes.

7. (a) The whole plant body of maize plant including shoot tip
cells are in diploid (2 n). As the microspore mother cell is a part
of reproductive organ, the chromosome number in these cells
will remain same as the plant body, i.e. 2 n = 20.
These diploid (2n) microspore mother cell are further
responsible for producing male gametes, i.e. haploid ( n) by
reduction division or meiosis. From one microspore mother
cell, 4 haploid microspores are formed.

8. (c) Dioecious is the term used to describe unisexual condition.

Sexual
reproduction
Germination (n)

Gamete (n)
Gamete (n)

9. (c) There is no natural death in single celled organisms like

Haplophase (n)
Male gamete
Female gamete

am
yng

Dip

a
loph

2n)
se (

Dioecious organisms are seen in both plants and animals.

Dioecious plant, e.g. Marchantia.
Dioecious animal e.g. cockroach (invertebrate).

is
ios
Me n)
(

Zygospore
(zygote 2n)

Life cycle of a filamentous algae

(e.g. Spirogyra)

4. (c) In female gamete, the chromosome number will be the

same (haploid n) as that of the male gamete (12). A zygote is
a fertilised egg, which means, gametes from both parents
have fused (diploid) and thus, the chromosome number will
be 24 (2 n).
A seedling is a young plant sporophyte developing out of a
plant embryo from a seed (from zygote). So, the chromosome
number in the cells of the seedlings will be 24 (2 n), which will
further give rise to new diploid individual.

5. (b) Appearance of vegetative propagules from the nodes of

plants, such as sugarcane and ginger is mainly because of
meristematic cells present in nodes.

Amoeba and bacteria because parental body is distributed

among the offspring. In such organisms, reproduction occur
by cell division where a cell (parent) divides into two halves
and each rapidly grows into an adult (offspring). That is why
Amoeba and bacteria are considered as immortal.

10. (d) There is a large diversity in the biological world and each
organism has evolved its own mechanism to multiply and
produce offspring. The type of reproduction adopted by an
organism depends on the organisms habitat, its internal
physiology genetic make up and several other factors.

11. (b) Asexual reproduction occurs usually in unicellular

organisms by various ways like binary fission, budding,
sporulation, etc. In this method, a single parent produces
offspring with or without the involvement of gametes.
Members of the kingdom fungi and simple organisms and
plants reproduce through special asexual reproductive
structures like conidia (Penicillium), buds (Hydra) etc. The
most common of these structures are zoospores that are
microscopic motile structures present commonly in algae.
All other options are correct.

75

12. The mode of reproduction is called asexual, when offspring is

produced by a single parent with or without the involvement of
gamete formation.
As a result, the offspring that are produced are not only
genotypically and phenotypically similar to one another, but
are also exact copies of their parent. Such a group of
morphologically and genetically similar individuals is referred
to as clone.

13. Potato tuber gets swollen due to deposition of starch and it is

considered as a stem because of the following reasons.
Eyes
Germinating
eye buds

Potato tuber

(i) The tuber shows presence of nodes and internodes.

(ii) Leafy shoots appear from the nodes.

14. Lifespan of an organism comprises of juvenile phase (young

growing stage). After this stage, organism matures sexually
and enter into the reproductive phase, before it undergoes
senescence followed by death.
Since, the entire life cycle of an annual plant is shorter and has
to be completed in one growing season, its juvenile phase is
shorter than that of a perennial plant.

15. The correct sequence of events of sexual reproduction in a

flowering plant are as follows:
gametogenesis, pollination, fertilisation, embryogenesis.
Gametogenesis involves formation of haploid gametes
whereas pollination is the process of reaching of pollen grains
upto stigma of female flower part. Union of male and female
gamete is called fertilisation, thus zygote is formed. Zygote
(2 n) develops into embryo by the process of embryogenesis.

16. The probability of fruit set in a self-pollinated bisexual flower of

a plant is far greater than a dioecious plant, because in
self-pollinated bisexual plants transfer of pollen to stigma of
flowers is easier and assured as compared to the dioecious
plants. Since in this case, the anther and stigma lie close to
each other and pollination is not affected even in the absence
of pollinator. But in dioecious plants, pollinator is necessary to
bring about effective pollination as the anther and stigma are
placed away from each other.

e.g.
(i) The mango tree has a shorter lifespan as compared to a
peepal tree though both are of the same size.
(ii) The size of crow and parrot is almost same but the life
span is 15 years and 150 years respectively.

19. In unicellular animals, cell division is the means of

reproduction to increase their number or progenies while, in
case of multicellular organisms, they have well developed
reproductive organs which assist in reproduction.
Also, there are thousands to millions of cells in a multicellular
organism which contributes to its body. Division of a single or
few cells remains insignificant as compared to its body size.
In such organisms, the whole body does not contribute or
participate in reproduction, rather some specialised cells, i.e.
germ cells present in reproductive organs assist in
reproduction by producing gametes. These gametes take
part in sexual reproduction.

20. Organisms that show external fertilisation produce large

number of gametes, because
(i) In external fertilisation, there is a great chance that the
sperm and the eggs released by the organisms can be
affected by factors present in the environment like
dessication, predators, etc. So, to make up for the high
fatality rate of the gametes, the organism produces a
large number of gametes.
(ii) Producing large number of gametes also increases the
chance or probability of atleast some eggs and sperms
to meet in the external environment. This ensures
production of atleast a stable number of offspring that
are able to survive.

21. In flowering plants, the units of vegetative reproduction, such

as runners, stolons, suckers, offsets, rhizome, corm, tuber,
etc., are capable of giving rise to new offsprings. These
structures are called vegetative propagules. They give rise to
identical offsprings.
In all these plants, the formation of these structures does not
involve union of two parents, hence the process involved is
asexual. In other words, we can say, only single parent is
involved in this process and genetically identical plants are
produced. So, it can be said that vegetative reproduction is
also a type of asexual reproduction.
Base of
scape

Tunic
Bulb

17. No the presence of large number of chromosomes in an

organism is not a hindrance to sexual reproduction.
Ophioglossum (a fern) has chromosome number 1260, still it
can successfully reproduce sexually.
In higher organisms, the chromosomes are present in a cell
organelle called nucleus, within the cell. Whether the number
is small or large, the chromosomes are duplicated and then
segregated inside this structure, during meiosis. The basis of
sexual reproduction is generation of haploid gametes which
results into diploid zygote.

18. There is no relationship between the size and lifespan of an

organism as it solely depends upon its metabolic rate, growth
and senescence period that determines the lifespan or age.

76

Adventitious
roots
Bulb of onion

Scale
Stolon of strawberry

22. In pea, fruit is legume. The pea pod develops from

monocarpellary, unilocular and superior ovary. At maturity,
the fruit splits along the dorsal and ventral sutures and
discharge its seeds.
In gynoecium with single carpel, ovules are always attached
to the ventral suture. This results in the fruit with marginal
placentation. Thus, the seeds are arranged in a row in
legume (pea) pod.

Seeds
Ovule
Placenta
Pericarp

Marginal placentation in pea

Seeds
Placenta
Locule
Axial placentation in tomato

Whereas in tomato, the fruit is berry. It is a fleshy fruit that

develops from superior or inferior ovary. In this fruit, the
margins of the carpels grow inward to the centre of the ovary
dividing the central chamber into compartments called
locules.
So that, the ovules are arranged radially on the axis, attached
by placenta that is called axial placentation. Thats the reason
the seeds are embedded in the juicy pulp.

23. Fertilisation is not an obligatory event for fruit production in

certain plants, as some fruits even develop from unfertilised
ovary and are called parthenocarpic fruits.
These are seedless fruits, such as pomegranate, grapes, etc.
Flowers of these plants are sprayed by a growth hormone that
induces fruit development even in the absence of fertilisation.
The ovules of such fruits, however, fail to develop into seeds.
Thus, these fruits are seedless.

24. Reduction division (meiosis) is associated with sexual

reproduction. The reasons being:
(i) Since, sexual reproduction involves the fusion of two
types of gametes (male and female), they must have
haploid number of chromosomes, so as to maintain the
diploidy in new generation.
(ii) The cell (meiocyte) which gives rise to gametes often
has diploid number of chromosomes and it is only by
reduction division that we get haploid gametes.
(iii) Reduction division also ensures maintenance of
constant chromosome number as well as introduction of
new characters by recombination to further generations.

25. The colony of honeybee comprises of

(i) Sterile diploid females as workers.
(ii) One fertile diploid female as queen.
(iii) Fertile haploid males as drones.
In case of honeybees, both haploid and diploid individuals are
formed as a result of incomplete (cyclic) parthenogenesis,
i.e. both sexual reproduction and parthenogenesis. This
mechanism of sex determination is also known as
haplo-diploidy. Fertilised eggs (zygote) give rise to queen and
workers (both females) by the process of sexual reproduction
and unfertilised eggs (ova) develop into drones (males) by the
process of parthenogenesis.

26. Higher

plants (angiosperms) and higher animals

(vertebrates) have a more complex structural organisation as
compared to the lower groups of plants and animals. They
have evolved every efficient mechanism of sexual
reproduction because of production of new variations among
offsprings. These groups have resorted to reproduction by
the sexual method for the following reasons:

(i) To ensure healthy progeny.

(ii) To produce genetically varied offsprings that easily
adapt to changes in environment and survive in all
climatic conditions.
(iii) It ensures the genetic recombination that results in
variation which gives rise to production of new species
by speciation process.

27. The differences between oestrus and menstrual cycle are as

follows:
Oestrus Cycle

Menstrual Cycle

The cyclic changes in the

activities of ovaries and
accessory ducts as well as
hormones during the
reproductive phase of
non-primate mammals is
called oestrus cycle.

The cyclic changes in the

activities of ovaries and
accessory ducts as well as
hormones during the
reproductive phase of
primate mammals is called
menstrual cycle.

Females show strong

irresistible sexual urge.

Females do not show

irresistible sexual urge.

There is estrus/heat
production at the time of
ovulation and copulation
occurs only at that period.

There is no heat period and

copulation simultaneously
occurs during any time of the
cycle.

The shedding of
endometrium and bleeding
do not occur, e.g. cows,
sheep, rats, deers, dogs
and tigers, etc.

The shedding of
endometrium and bleeding
occurs, e.g. monkeys, apes
and humans.

(b) The differences between ovipary and vivipary are as

follows:
Ovipary

Vivipary

In ovipary, animals lay

eggs.

In vivipary, animals give birth

to young ones.

The eggs are covered by

hard calcareous shell.

Ovum is not covered by

calcareous shell.

The development of zygote

takes place outside the
females body.

The development of zygote

takes place inside the
females body.

Females lay eggs in a safe

place in the environment,
but the chances of survival
are less, e.g. all birds, most
of reptiles are egg laying.

Females deliver young ones

and the chances of survival
are more, e.g. mammals
except monotremes (egg
laying mammals).

28. No, all the gametes formed from a parent organism, do not
have the same genetic composition. It can be better
understood with the help of the explanation given below :
Sexual reproduction in organisms generally involves the
fusion of gametes from two different individuals. These
gametes form by process of gametogenesis. In the
heterogametic species, gametes are of two types namely
male and female. Gametes are haploid though the parent
body from which they arise may be either haploid or diploid.
(a) A haploid parent like Monera, fungi, algae and
bryophytes produce gametes by mitotic division. The
number of chromosomes, i.e. the genetic composition

77

remains same after such type of division during

gametogenesis. This process does not involve meiosis.
(b) The diploid parents like pteridophytes, gymnosperms,
angiosperms and most of the animals including human
beings produce gametes by meiosis. In such organisms
(diploid), specialised cells called meiocytes (gamete
mother cell) undergo mitosis as well as meiosis.
At the end of meiosis only one set of chromosomes gets
incorporated into each gamete. It means the gametes
formed contain a haploid number of chromosomes in
contrast to the number of chromosomes in mother cells.
During meiosis crossing over process takes place which
involves recombination of characters.
Thus, all gametes formed do not have same genetic
composition or identical DNA.

29. Gametogenesis is an important step of sexual reproduction. In

females, this process starts at very early stage but eggs remain
in diplotene stage till puberty. This process occurs by both
mitotic and meiotic type of cell division in both sexes. This
process as well as mating process requires energy. That is why
sexual reproduction is referred to as an energy intensive
process.
Despite being energy-intensive process, this type of
reproduction is very common in higher groups of Animalia and
Plantae because of three reasons given below :

(i) Gametes are haploid and segregation of characters,

i.e. alleles is observed during gametogenesis process.
Thus, chances of appearance of recessive characters
for certain diseases are eliminated.
(ii) Union of haploid male and female gametes results into
diploid zygote which presents a combination of
maternal and paternal characters along with some new
characters due to crossing over process. Thus,
variation in characters is observed.
(iii) New variations act as raw material for evolution. Thus,
chances of speciation and adaptation to newer
environment is improved.

30. Rose plants produce large, attractive bisexual flowers, but

they seldom produce fruits. The reasons for failure of fruit
formation in rose are as follows:
(i) Rose plants may not produce viable pollens, hence, no
fertilisation takes place.
(ii) Rose plants may not have functional eggs.
(iii) Rose plants may have defective and non-functional
ovule, which is the female gametophyte generator.
(iv) There may be self-incompatibility.
(v) There may be internal barriers for pollen tube growth or
fertilisation.
(vi) As rose plants are hybrids and reproduce vegetatively,
there are chances for them to be sterile.

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78

QUIZZER (NO. 20)

1. Which of the following statements regarding the

supercoiling of duplex DNA is correct?
(a) DNA replication promotes positive supercoiling
downstream from replication fork
(b) DNA polymerase II can replicate positively supercoiled
duplex DNA
(c) DNA topoisomerases unwind duplex DNA into single
stranded DNA chains
(d) DNA topoisomerases unwind positively supercoiled duplex
DNA without cutting the sugar phosphate backbone

2. Meristematic portions in plant body are able to

escape virus invasion because
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

vascular system is absent in meristem

of low metabolic activity in meristem
virus inactivating system has low activity in the meristem
low endogenous auxin level

3. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Electron transport generates the proton motive
force.
II. Peroxisomal oxidation of fatty acids generates no
ATP.
III. Proton motive force in mitochondria is largely
due to voltage gradient across the membrane.
IV. Total of 10 H + are translocated from the matrix
across the inner membrane per electron pair
moving from NADH to O2 .
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) All of the above

4. After a meal of greasy french fries, which hormones

and enzymes would you expect to be most active?
(a) Salivary, pancreatic amylase and disaccharides
(b) Bile salts, lipase and enterogestrone
(c) Pepsin, trypsin, chymotrypsin, amino carboxypeptidases,
dipeptidases and CCK
(d) Both (a) and (b)

5. Hydrogen bonds in -helices of proteins are

(a) more than Van der Waals interactions
(b) not present at phenylalanine residues
(c) analogous to steps in a spiral structure
(d) roughly parallel to helix axis

6. In genetics, suppression of a mutation refers to

(a) restoration of original phenotype due to second mutation
(b) restoration of original DNA sequence by mutation
(c) prevention of expression of mutant gene by metabolic
regulation
(d) appearance of recessive phenotype in a heterozygous
diploid

7. In an ecosystem
(a) energy is recycled through the trophic structure
(b) energy is usually captured from sunlight by primary
producers, passed to secondary producers in the form of
organic compounds and lost to decomposers in the form of
heat
(c) chemicals are recycled between the biotic and abiotic
sectors whereas energy makes a one way trip through the
food web
(d) there is a continuous process by which energy is lost as
heat and chemical elements leave the ecosystem through
run-off

8. There are only a few species of cartilaginous fishes

as compared to the bony fishes. Cartilaginous fishes
are mostly limited to a lifestyle of swimming fast in
open water. Bony fishes have adapted to many
different lifestyles-clinging to seaweed, hiding in
crevices, even burrowing in the bottom. This could
probably be attributed to the fact that bony fishes
(a) have more rigid skeletons
(b) are smaller in size than cartilaginous fishes
(c) have operculums and swim bladders
(d) have lateral line system and paired fins

BIOLOGY SPECTRUM

JULY 2016

79

QUIZZER
9. Which of the following is not a similarity between
open and closed circulatory system?
(a) Some sort of pumping device helps to move blood through
the body
(b) Some of the circulation of blood is a result of movements of
the body
(c) The blood and interstitial fluid are distinguishable from each
other
(d) All tissues come into close contact with the circulating body
fluid so that the exchange of nutrients and waste can take
place

10. A cell biologist carefully measured the quantity of

DNA in grasshopper cells growing in cell culture.
Cells examined during the G2 -phase of cell cycle
contained 200 units of DNA. What would be the
amount of DNA in one of the grasshopper daughter
cells seen in telophase of mitosis?
(a) 50 units
(b) 100 units
(c) Between 50 and 100 units
(d) 200 units

KNOWLEDGE
Coefficient
Quizzer (No. 20)

Winner of Knowledge Coefficient

Quizzer (No. 19) (June Issue)
Akash Goyal (Roorkee)

Biology Spectrum
Arihant Media Promoters
C/O Arihant Prakashan
Kalindi, TP Nagar, Meerut (UP)-250002

Parasitic Wasp Named after Brad Pitt

An international team of scientists has described a previously unknown species of wasp from South Africa and has
named it Conobregma bradpitti, after the American actor and producer Brad Pitt.

Conobregma bradpitti belongs to a widespread group of wasps parasitizing moth and butterfly caterpillars.
80

JULY 2016

BIOLOGY SPECTRUM