Spectrum Biology - August 2016

Dr.
Anamika Tripathi
E
Bryophytes are small, non-vascular land plants encompassing the liverworts, the hornworts and the mosses. They are the most simple
and primitive group of land plants including approximately 25000 species. They are considered as amphibians of plant world.
Bryophytes are non-vascular terrestrial plants of moist
habitats. They possess a multicellular diploid
sporophyte, which lives as a parasite on an
independent multicellular haploid gametophyte. This
gametophyte develops multicellular jacketed sex
organs. These plants are very small and cosmopolitan.
They are classified as Atracheata as they lack a
vascular tissue. They must rely on slow diffusion or
poorly developed conducting tissues to distribute
water and other nutrients. Primarily they are
terrestrial, grow in moist and shady places, such as
damp walls, damp soil, on banks of river and pond, etc.
Fertilisation is zooidogamic and water is necessary
for it.
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General Characteristics
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The bryophytes are a small group of primitive land dwellers. They

possess a leafy or thalloid green plant body.
None of the bryophyte have true
Hydroids Leptoids Parenchyma
vascular (i.e. xylem and phloem)
and lignified tissue. Many
mosses have special water
conducting cells called hydroids
in the centre of the stem and few
have food conducting cells called
leptoids
surrounding
the
hydroids. Most water is absorbed
directly through the surface.
TS of a Moss thallus
The plant body lacks the true roots,

stems and leaves. It grows prostrate
on the ground. It is attached to the
substratum by delicate, unbranched,
unicellular, hair like structures,
called rhizoids. Higher bryophytes
have erect body. It consists of a
central axis which bears leaf-like
expansions. It is attached to the
substratum
by
branched
multicellular rhizoids.
The plants are small. They seldom
attain great length or height. The
maximum height is 60 cm for a
moss species growing in New
Zealand.
Bryophytes : Terrestrial Amphibians

Bryophytes are known as terrestrial amphibians as they require an external layer of water on the soil
surface for their existence. The external water is required for the dehiscence of antheridia and
archegonia. Male gametes swim to archegonia through water. Water protects them from
transpiration and hence desiccation as the plant body is not covered by cuticle. The external water is
necessary for supply of water to all parts through capillarity in the absence of vascular tissues.
Habitat
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Bryophytes grow on moist walls, wet soil, on tree trunks, near river banks, on rocks
and their crevices, etc. Few species like Riccia fluitans, Ricciocarpons natans and
Riella are aquatic.
There are no marine bryophytes, but some such as dune mosses grow near the sea
shore.
Epiphylium or Follicolous
Grow on surface of living
leaves of higher plants
e.g. Ephemeropsis,
Crossomitrium
Why bryophytes do not

attain great heights?
Desert Bryophyte
Able to tolerate great heat
and drought
e.g. Barbula torquata,
Tortula princes
Bryophytes seldom achieve great heights.

They are small sized because they lack a
well developed root system. Further, the
absence of vascular tissue also restricts
their growth. They lack mechanical tissue
and require an external sheet of water for
the transport of male gametes.
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Sexual reproduction is highly

oogamous. Male reproductive
organs are club-shaped antheridia,
while female reproductive organs
are flask-shaped archegonia.
Zygote or oospore starts its
germination immediately after
fertilisation
and
forms
the
sporophyte
generation
called
sporogonium. Sporophyte may be
very simple and represented by a
spore sac only as in Riccia or
differentiated into foot, seta and
capsule as in moss.
The sporophyte of bryophytes
never
separates
from
the
gametophyte. It is more or less
completely dependent on the
gametophyte for nutrition and
water.
The sporogonium is concerned
with the production of wind
disseminated,
non-motile,
cutinised spores which belong to
the category of gonospores or
meiospores.
On falling, each spore germinates
to give rise to the gametophyte
plant either directly or indirectly as
a lateral bud from the protonema.
Terrestrial
Grow on soil surface,
e.g. Riccia discolor,
Riccia billardieri
Aquatic
Grow in water, e.g.
Riccia fluitans, Riella
affinis, Scapania undulata
Bryophytes
Lignicolous
Grow on wood such as
old logs, e.g. Nowillia,
Zoopsis, Cephalozia
Saxicolous or Epilithic
Grow on rock surface.
e.g. Porella thuja,
Bryum capillare
Epiphytic or Corticolous
Grow on other plants
e.g. Tortula laevipila,
Zygodon conoidens
Resemblance between
Bryophytes and Algae
Branchlets
Sex organs
Node
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Internode
Shara (Thallus)
Oogonium (nucule)
Bracteoles
Bracts
Antheridium
(globule)
Chara (Sex organs)
Midrib
Thalloid plant body.

Lack of roots.
Absence of complete vascular
tissues.
Autotrophic mode of nutrition.
Both
need
water
during
fertilisation due to swimming habit
of gametes.
Chlorophyll pigments present.
Reserved food material is true
starch.
Cell wall is consist of cellulose
surrounded by a peptic layer
containing galactouronic acid.
Sporogonium
Riccia (Female plant)
Riccia (Male plant)
Differences between Bryophytes and Algae

Characters
Bryophytes
Habitat
Tissue differentiation
Sexual reproduction
Grow in moist shady places and in water

Well developed
Only oogamous
Sex organs
Female sex organ
Zygote
Dominant
phase
Covered by a sterile jacket

Archegonium
Remains enclosed in the archegonium
Gametophytic phase
Sporophyte is dependent upon
gametophyte
Produced from zygote
Differentiated into foot, seta and capsule
Absent
Embryo
Sporophyte
Mitospores
Algae
Usually aquatic
Found only in higher forms
Isogamous, anisogamous and
oogamous
Not covered by sterile jacket
Oogonium
Liberated from the plant
Sporophytic phase
Sporophyte is independent of
gametophyte
Never produced
No such differentiation
Usually present
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Resemblance in Bryophytes and Pteridophytes

It is often said that bryophytes are probably descendents of pteridophytes.
This statement is based on the certain similari ties between the two groups.
These similarities are as follows :
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The simple, rootless and leafless sporophytes of the primitive pteridophytes

(e.g., Rhynia) can be compared with the sporophytes of bryophytes.
Like bryophytes, the sporophytes of primitive pteridophytes, viz., Rhynia
possesses rhizoids in tufts instead of roots.
The structure of archegonium is fundamentally similar in both the groups.
The antheridium in both the groups consists of androcytes enclosed in a single
layer of sterile jacket.
Antherozoids are flagellated in both the groups.
In both, presence of water is essential for fertilisation.
In both groups, the zygote germinats to give rise to embryo.
Both groups exhibit heteromorphic type of alternation of generations.
Cyanobacteria :
Bryophyte Symbiosis
Only few bryophytes are able to form epiphytic or
endophytic associations with cyanobacteria. In the case
of mosses, the cyanobacteria grow mostly epiphytically.
The exception being two Sphagnum species in which the
cyanobacteria occupy water filled, hyaline cells. They are
thought to provide some protection from the acidic bog
environment. These nitrogen fixing cyanobacterial
associations with mosses often supply most of the
combined N2 to the local ecosystems of the Arctic, the
Antarctic and boreal forest regions. Cyanobacterial
associations with liverworts are rare. By contrast, in the
hornworts, endophytic associations are ubiquitous.
Differences between Bryophytes and Pteridophytes

Character
Dominant phase
Plant body
Ploidy level
Vascular tissue
Sporophytic phase
Bryophytes
Pteridophytes
Gametophytic phase
Usually leafy or thalloid
Main plant body haploid
Xylem-phloem absent
Dependent on gametophytic phase
Sporophytic phase
Usually differentiated into root, stem and leaf
Main plant body diploid
Xylem-phloem present
Independent and autotrophic
Calyptra
Bryokinin
Sporangioferous spike
Capsule
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Bryokinin
is
an
endogenous
cytokinin. It can replace kinetin as a
growth factor in tissue culture of
some plants like Nicotiana tobacum.
In
mosses
bryokinin
is
physiologically active at several
stages of development. At the
caulonema stage it promotes bud
formation.
In the phase immediately before
sexual maturation, it supports
apogamous sporogonium formations
as in Splachnum ovatum.
In the phase of sexual maturation it
promotes archegonium differentiation is Splachnum ovatum.
Seta
Lateral
bigger leaves
Dorsal
small leaves
Leaflets or
pinnules
Leaf
Stem
Stem
A
Rhizophore
Male
branch
Female
branch
B
Rhizoids
Adventitious
roots
Funaria hygrometrica
Selaginella
A. A female branch of leafy gametophore with sprophyte

B. A leafy gametophore with a male branch
and a female branch with young sporophyte
Capsule
Pseudopodium
Commal
tufa
Branch tuft
Sporophyll
Sori
Rachis
New Species of Pit viper discovered

An international team of researchers has announced the
discovery of a new species of venomous pitviper from Costa
Rica. The new species is a small to medium sized pitviper,
measuring 24 inches (61 cm) on average. It inhabits a limited
area in the north of theTalamancan Cordillera, Costa Rica.
The coloring is a characteristic the Talamancan palm-pitviper
shares with its close relative, theblack-speckled
palm-pitviper (Bothriechis nigroviridis).
08
Leaflets or
pinnules
Main axis
Ramenta
Sterile
branches
Circinate leaf
Rhizome
Roots
Sphagnum
Dryopteris
Adaptations in Bryophytes
Bryophytes are the simplest land plants. They grow on
land but water is very important for their survival. They
show adaptations for the terrestrial and water habitats.
Therefore, they are considered as amphibians of plant
kingdom.
Rhizoids for
attachment and
absorption
of water
Compact plant
structure
Adaptation to
Land Conditions
Reproductive
structures
protected by
sterile jacket
Retention of
zygote in the
archegonium
Production of large
number of spores
for increasing
the chances
of survival
Effective wide
dispersal of spores
Development
of embryo
Desiccation Tolerance in Bryophytes

Desiccation tolerance is a primitive trait. They are the
mechanisms by which the first land plants achieved tolerance. It
may be reflected in how extant desiccation - tolerant bryophytes
survive drying. Cellular structures appear intact in the
desiccated state but are disrupted by rapid uptake of water upon
rehydration. However, cellular integrity is rapidly regained.
The photosynthetic machinery appears to be protected such that
photosynthetic activity recovers quickly. Gene expression
responds following rehydration and not during drying. Gene
expression is translationally controlled and results in the
synthesis of a number of proteins, collectively called rehydrins.
The basic mechanisms of tolerance seen in modern day
bryophytes have changed little from the earliest manifestations
of desiccation-tolerance in land plants.
Adaptation to Water
Dependent on water for reproduction because
sperms must swin to archegonia. Adapted to
release their sperms when H2O is available.
No special supportive structures, so the plants
are restricted in upward growth.
Dependent on availability of water and mineral
salts close to or at the surface of the soil,
because they have no roots to penetrate the substrate.
Bryophytes :
The Ignored Medicinal Plants
Bryophytes are source of many incredibly interesting and useful bioactive
compounds. The majority of the compounds reported in bryophytes are lipophilic
terpenoids and fragrant compounds. In the last few decades the medicinal value of
bryophytes has received interest to a great extent.
Many chemicals and secondary metabolites have been isolated from them. The
medicinal uses of bryophytes are mostly explored by Native North Americans
(28%), followed by Chinese (27%). However, in India this figure is not very
encouraging. Three plants are very significant for their medicinal importance viz.
Marchantia polymorpha (pulmonary tuberculosis and liver related ailments), Riccia
(ringworm treatment) and Polytrichum commune (tea prepared by it helps in
liquefying kidney and gall bladder stones).
Reproductive Bodies of Bryophytes

Bryophytes reproduce vegetatively as well as sexually.
Reproduction by vegetative methods is the common mode of
reproduction and propagation in bryophytes.
Air
chamber
Gemma cup
Gemma
cup
Gemma
Gemmae
Air pore
Mucilage
hair
Adventitious
branches
By adventitious
branches
Thallus Scale
Rhizoid
Gemma cup with a part.
of the thallus tissue
By branch tips
By gemma
Vegetative Reproduction
By death
and decay
of older
parts
By bulbil, rhizoids and protonema
By cladia
By tubers
Tubers
Gametophore
Bud
Secondary
protonema
Rhizoids
Bulbil
Alternation of Generation
Bryophytes show alternation of generation. Two types
of organisms, a haploid gametophyte generation and a
diploid sporophyte generation, alternate in the life
cycle. Haploid generation undergoes sexual
reproduction and produces gametes. Therefore, it is
known as gametophyte. Gametes are formed through
mitosis, so they are also haploid. The gametes fuse to
form a diploid zygote which grows into the diploid
sporophyte generation. It is called sporophyte because
it undergoes asexual reproduction to produce spores.
Production of spores involves meiosis, so that there is a
return to the haploid condition. The haploid spores
give rise to the gametophyte generation.
Sexual Reproduction
Bryophytes show oogamous type of sexual reproduction. The
gametes are produced in complex, multicellular, jacketed sex
organs. Each sex organ consists of an outer, protective wall of sterile
cells which surround the gamete producing cells. Male sex organ is
known as antheridium while female sex organ is known as
archegonium.
Antheridium
It is a multicellular ellipsoidal or club-shaped structure. The body of
antheridium is made up of jacket layer. It encloses a central mass of
squarish or cubical cells called androcytes. The androcytes produce
the biflagellate male gemetes, known as antherozoids or sperms.
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Involucral leaves
Fertilisation
Paraphyses
Antheridium
Androgonial
mass
The mature antheridium ruptures at its apex liberating the sperms. At the
same time the axial row of neck canal cells including the venter canal cell in
the mature archegonium disorganise. The tip of archegonium opens and a
narrow canal opening to the exterior is formed.
Cap cells
Body
Androcyte
Jacket
The liberated sperms swimming in a thin film of water reach the archegonia.
They enter through the neck and swin down the canals of the archegonia.
Reaching the venter, one of them penetrates the ovum. It fuses with the
nucleus of the ovum to accomplish fertilisation.
Zygote
The fertilised egg or ovum secrets a cellulose wall around it and is called the
zygote.
Stalk
Stem
LS of an antheridium
(young stage)
Male Sex Organs of Funaria
LS of antheridial head
Economic Importance of Bryophytes

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Archegonium
It is a flask-shaped structure with tubular neck

and a swollen venter. The single layered wall
of neck has 5-6 rows of cells. Internally it
encloses a few sterile neck canal cells. The
wall of venter is 1-2 layered. It encloses a
venter cavity which possesses a sterile venter
canal cell and a fertile egg or oosphere.
Bryophytes in Carbon and Nitrogen Cycling

Bryophytes generally fix C and N from atmospheric pools, reduce N availability for vascular
plants and microbes. They release dissolved compounds that are immobilised by soil microbes
or lost via runoff and transform C and N into recalcitrant organic matter. Bryophytes influence
the apportionment of C and N ecosystem inputs and indirectly influence the rate at which
these elements are lost from ecosystems through litter decay, fire and herbivory.
Paraphyses
Cover cells
Archegonia
Bryophytes, especially mosses, form dense mats over the soil and prevent
soil erosion by running water.
Mosses are an important link in plant succession on rocky areas. They take
part in building soil in rock crevices formed by lichens.
Dry Sphagnum can absorb 18-26 times its weight of water. This
characteristic is employed by gardeners to keep seedlings and cut plants
moist during transportation and propagation.
Some bryophytes are used as fodder for herbivorous animals.
Sphagnum is used as fuel also.

Peat-tar known as sphagnol has been effectively used in the treatment of
skin diseases.
They are used as experimental material, e.g. the mechanism of
sex-determination in plants was discovered for the first time in a liverwort
Sphaerocarpos.
Bryophytes, especially Sphagnum is useful as atmospheric and aquatic
pollution indicator.
Mosses are used as stuffing in furniture, for fuels as an absorbent in oil
spills or for cushioning.
Thus, it can be concluded that bryophytes are very important for the
ecological balance. These tiny plants are important for the evolutionary point
of view as they gave rise to present terrestrial, vascular plants.
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Neck
Venter
canal
cell
Oosphere
Stem
Neck
canal
cells
Venter
LS of archegonial head
An archegonium
Female sex organs of Funaria
Occurrence of the primary cell wall polysaccharide rhamnogalacturonan II in bryophytes :

Implications for the evolution of vascular plants
The first plants that colonised the land approximately 480 million years ago are believed to be related to extant bryophytes. These early land plants
subsequently gave rise to the trachaeophytes that now dominate the terrestrial environment. One of the most important biochemical changes that allowed
plants to adapt to life on land is borate ester cross-linking of the cell wall, pectic polysaccharide rhamnogalacturonan II (RG II). Recent studies have shown
that boron has a major role in maintaining wall structure. Boron requirements of flowering plants are correlated with the amounts of pectin in their primary
walls. Boron exits in primary walls predominantly as 1:2 borate diol ester that covalently cross-links two chains of the pectic polysaccharides RG II. Plants
carrying mutations, result in abnormally low amounts of this cross-link. Such plants are dwarfed or exhibit reduced intercellular attachment. The
gametophytic generation of members of the avascular bryophytes (Bryopsida, Hepaticopsida and Anthocerotopsida) have primary cell walls that contain
small amount of an RG II like polysaccharide. The amount of RG II incorporated into the walls of plants increased during evloution of vascular plants from
their bryophyte like ancestors. Thus, it can be concluded that during evolution bryophytes gave rise to higher plants.
10
Classification of Bryophyta
Classes
Anthocerotopsida
(Hornworts)
Gametophyte
dorsiventral
(never foliose)
Bryopsida
(Mosses)
After short protonema phase, gametophyte
develops erect shoots of radial symmetry with
leafy appendages on a stem-like structure
Gametophytic tissue usually

differentiated and heteromerous
Homogenous
gametophytic tissue
Gametophytic tissue is
differentiated
Gametophytes monomorphic
and monophasic
Gametophytes monomorphic
and monophasic
Gametophytes dimorphic
and diphasic
Sporophyte simple or differentiated

into foot, seta and capsule
Sporophyte differentiated
into foot and capsule
Sporophyte well differentiated

into foot, seta and capsule
Sporogenous cells of endothecial

origin and capsule without any columella
Sporogenous cells of
amphithecial origin
(except Notothylas),
sterile columella
present
Sporogenous cells of endothecial

origin but always surrounding
a sterile columella
Order
Hepaticopsida
(Liverworts)
Usually dorsiventral gametophyte, thallose,
sometime with leaf-like appendages
Sphaerocarples
e.g. Sphaerocarpus
Marchantiales
e.g. Riccia,
Marchantia, Pellia
Jungermanniales
e.g. Porella,
Lejeunea
Calobryales
e.g. Calobryum
Order
Order
Bryales
e.g. Funaria,
Polytrichum
Anthocerotales
e.g. Anthoceros
Riccia (Liverwort)
Sphagnales
e.g. Sphagnum
Hypnum curvifolium (Moss)
Phaeoceros laevis (Hornwort)
Marchantia
It is a small dorsiventral flattened dichotomously branched thalloid plant.
Each lobe has an apical notch, a midrib and a dorsal groove. Ventral surface
bears two types of unicellular rhizoids, i.e. smooth walled and tuberculate.
Vegetative reproduction occurs by fragmentation, progressive death of older
parts, gemmae and adventitious branches. Marchantia is dioecious with sex
organs borne on stalked upright receptacles or gametophores (maleantheridiophore and female-archegoniophore).
Apical
notch
Midrib
Rhizoids
Microscopic view of thallus of
Marchantia
Rays
8 Lobed
receptacle
Stalk
Gemma cup
Thallus
Antheridia
Stalk
Thallus
Apical
notch
Archegoniophore
Thallus
Thallus
Midrib
Antheridiophore
Midrib
Rhizoids
Gemmae
cup
Gemmae
Rhizoids
Thallus Rhizoids
Sex organs of Marchantia
Vegetative thallus of Marchantia

showing gemmae cup
Marchantia A. Vegetative thallus; B. Male thallus; C. Female thallus

Antheridiophore
Archegoniophore
Male
thallus
Female
thallus
Germination of spores and

development of young gametophyte
Spores released
Gemmae
cup
Male and female
gametophyte
plants
Meiosis
Sperm cell
Haploid (n)
gametophyte
generation
Diploid (2n)
sporophyte
Foot generation
Seta
Tissue derives from archegonium
Antheridia with
sperm cells
Capsule
Archegonia
with eggs
Fertilisation
Zygote
Embryo
Sporogenous cells that undergo meiosis
Marchantia in Medicines
Marchantia polymorpha has been used to
cure pulmonary tuberculosis and
affictions of the liver.
The extracts of Marchantia polymorpha
and Marchantia stellata have anti-tumour
properties.
Marchantia polymorpha and Marchantia
palmata are used as medicines for boils
and abscesses by Himalyan Indians.
Marchantin-A, obtained from Marchantia
polymorpha shows anti-leuckemic activity.
Sporophyte
Life cycle of Marchantia
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Funaria
It is a common moss of 3-5 cm in height that forms dense

patches during rainy season. The plant has a radial
symmetry. It possesses a number of spirally arranged
leaves. Rhizoids are multicellular, colourless and possess
oblique septa. Main axis functions as male shoot while its
branch which is extra axillary in origin, is female shoot. It
multiplies vegetatively through fragmentation, formation of
secondary protonema, gemmae and tubers. They are
monoecious and autoecious. Sporophyte has an embedded
foot, an elongated curved seta and a terminal pyriform
asymmetrical capsule.
Haploid (n)
Diploid (2n)
Meiosis
Spores (n)
Mature
sporophyte
(2n)
Funaria
Operculum
Peristome
Annulus
Rim
Columella
Protonema
(young gametophyte) (n)
Outer wall of spore sac

Spores
Male
Female gametophyte
gametophyte
Inner wall of spore sac

Hypodermal layer
Spongy layer
Capsule (sporangium)
Antheridia
Stomata
Sperm (n) Archegonia

Young
sporophyte (2n)
Gametophyte
(n)
Zygote
(2n)
Gametophyte (n)
Air space
Apophysis
Sperm (n)
Conducting strand
Egg (n)
Seta
Life cycle of Funaria
LS of mature capsule (Moss)
Anthoceros
It is terrestrial and grows on moist, shady places. Its thallus is
dorsiventral, green, non-leafy, deeply lobed and dichotomously
branched. Tuberculated rhizoids are absent. Some species of
Anthoceros are monoecious and some are dioecious. Sex
organs are antheridia (male) and archegonia (female). The
antheridia are endogenous in origin, while archegonia are
exogenous. Sporophyte is differentiated into a foot, a constriction
-like intermediate zone and a capsule. There is no seta.
Anthoceros
Spores (1n)
Protonema (1n)
Pseudoelater
Stoma
Sperm (1n)
Antheridium
Within the sporophyte, meiosis produces 1n spores.

Each spore grows into a 1n gametophyte plant
Egg (1n)
Sperm swim into the archegonium
and fertilise the egg, producing
a 2n embryo.
Archegonium
Meristem
Sporophyte
(2n)
Foot
Gametophyte
plant (1n)
The embryo develops into
a slender sporophyte
Thallus
Rhizoids
Life cycle of Anthoceros
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Anthoceros and Cynobacteria

Anthoceros housing nitrogenfixing cynobacteria enable them
to colonise bare rock surfaces.
They are of biological significance
as they show exhibit probable
lines of biological progress.
Smart Practice
1. Choose the correct statement.
Codes
(a) Bryophytes can live in soil, but are dependent on water for
sexual reporduction
(b) The sex organs in bryophytes are unicellular
(c) In bryophyte the main plant body is a gametophyte wihch is
differentiated into true root, stem and leaves
(d) Common example of liverwort is Polytrichum
2. Identify the wrong combination

(a) Dryopteris
(b) Cycas
(c) Volvox
(d) Marchantia
Rhizome
Coralloid roots
Colonial form
Pseudoelaters
3. Bryophytes resemble algae in one of the following

aspect.
(a) Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissue and
autotrophic nutrition
(b) Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves
(c) Thallus-like plant body, presence of root and autotropic
nutrition
(d) Thallus-like plant body, lack of vascular tissue and
autotropic nutrition
4. In bryophytes, the sporophytic phase is represented

by
(a) spores
(c) spore mother cell
(b) antheridium
(d) egg
5. Moss spore germinate to form

(a) sporophyte
(c) seta
(b) protonema
(d) capsule
6. Which of the following statements is incorrect about

bryophytes?
(a) Fertilisation takes place in the presence of water
(b) Gametophytic phase is dominant in life cycle
(c) Sporophyte is physiologically dependent on gametophyte
(d) Zygote undergoes meiosis to produce sporophyte
7. Calyptra develops from

(a) venter wall of archegonium
(b) outgrowth of gametophyte
(c) neck wall of archegonium
(d) paraphysis of the archegonial branch
8. Match the following columns.

Column I
A.
Coleorhiza
B.
Apogamy
C.
Indusium
D.
Caudex
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A
5
4
3
2
B
2
1
5
3
C
4
5
2
1
D
1
3
4
5
9. Choose the wrong pair.

(a) Hepaticopsida
(b) Lycopsida
(c) Bryopsida
(d) Pteropsida
(e) Sphenopsida
Marchantia
Selaginella
Anthoceros
Dryopteris
Equisetum
10. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by

(a) elaters
(c) calyptra
(b) indusium
(d) peristome teeth
11. Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant kingdom

because
(a) their reproductive phase requires water
(b) their sex organs are multicellular and jacketed
(c) they have tracheids
(d) All of the above
12. Chloroplasts, with pyrenoid-like structures are

found in the leaves of
(a) Funaria
(c) Selaginella
(b) Cycas
(d) Zea mays
13. In a moss, the sporophyte

(a) is partially parasitic on the gametophyte
(b) produces gametes that give rise to the gametophyte
(c) arises from a spore produced from the gametophyte
(d) manufactures food for itself, as well as for the gametophyte
14. At the base of seta of capusule of moss, there is a

haploid brownish growth called
(a) calyptra
(c) vaginula
(b) perigonium
(d) perichaetial
15. Which of the following in moss capsule is

haploid/gametophytic tissue?
(a) Annulus and peristome
(c) Columella and theca
(b) Calyptra and spore

(d) Operculum, foot and seta
16. Which of these is mismatched?

Column II
1. Development of sporophyte directly from

gametophyte without intervention of
gametes.
2. Development of gametophyte directly
from sporophyte without the involvement
of reduction division.
3. An unbranched columnar stem with a
crown of leaves
4. Protective covering of radicle.
5. Protective structure of a sorus.
(a) Phaneros
(b) Kryptos
(c) Gymno
(d) Bryon
(e) Trachea
Visible
Concealed
Naked
Liverworts
Windpipe
17. Which type of the rhizoids are present in Riccia?

(a) Unicellular smooth
(b) Multicellular smooth
(c) Unicellular smooth and tuberculated
(d) Multicellular smooth and tuberculated
13
18. Mosses occur in moist place because they

(a) cannot grow on land
(c) lack vascular tissue
(b) gamete fuses in water

(d) lack root and stomata
19. During development of embryo in archegonium of

Bryophyta, its posterior part forms a protective
embryo cover, which is called
(a) calyptra
(b) paraphysis (c) apophysis
(d) hypophysis
20. Which of the following part of Funaria sporophyte is

involved in the dispersal of spores?
(a) Calyptra
(c) Peristome
(b) Operculum
(d) Annulus
21. Number of peristomial teeth in moss is

(a) 16 + 16
(b) 16 + 32
(c) 8 + 16
(d) 32 + 32
22. In Funaria, the stomata are found on

(a) foot
(b) seta
(c) capsule
(b) sporophyte
(d) seta
24. Read
the
following
statements
regarding
bryophytes.
I. Bryophytes possess a multicellular haploid
gametophyte which lives as a parasite on an
independent multicellular diploid sporophyte.
II. They are classified as 'Atracheata as they lack
vascular tissue.
III. Some mosses have food conducting cells,
leptoids in the centre of the stem and water
conducting cells, hydroids surrounding it.
IV. Few species of bryophytes like Riccia fluitens
and Riella are aquatic.
Choose the incorrect statements.
(a) I and IV
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
Statement I Bryophytes are

amphibians of plant kingdom.
considered
as
Statement II They reproduce through gemmae,

secondary protonema, tubers etc.
Choose the correct option from the codes given
below.
(a) Statement I and II both are corrrect and statement II is the
correct explanation of statement I.
(b) Statement I and II both are correct but statement II is not the
correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(d) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
28. Match the classes of bryophytes given in column I

with their examples given in column II and choose
the correct option from the codes given below.
(d) All of these
23. Dominant generation in bryophytes is

(a) capsule
(c) gametophyte
27. Read the two statements regarding bryophytes
Column I
Column II
A. Hepaticopsida
1. Funaria
B. Bryopsida
2. Marchantia
C. Anthocerotopsida
3. Anthoceros
Codes
A
(a) 1
(c) 2
B
2
1
C
3
3
A
(b) 3
(d) 2
B
2
3
C
1
1
29. Refer to the given figure of gemma cup of

Marchantia and choose the correct option for the
parts labelled as A, B, C and D from the codes given
beow.
Gemma cup
B
D
A
C
(d) II and IV
25. Match the column I with column II and choose the

correct option from the codes given below.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Column I
Marchantia
Funaria
Riccia
Anthoceros
1.
2.
3.
4.
Column II
Ringworm treatment
Unicellular rhizoids
The absence of seta
Curved seta
26. Refer to the following table regarding differences in

pteridophytes and bryophytes.
Byophytes
I. Gametophytic phase is
dominant.
II. Sporophyte is independent
and autotrophic.
III. They are classified as
tracheota.
Pteridophytes
Sprophytic phase is
dominant.
Sporophyte is dependent on
gametophyte.
They are classified as
atracheota.
From the codes given below choose the option

stating incorrect differences.
(a) I and II
14
(b) II and III
(c) I and II
(d) Only I
Thallus
A
(a) Thallus
Scale
Rhizoid
Gemmae
Air chamber
Air pore
(b) Mucilage hair Air chamber
Gemmae
Air pore
(c) Gemmae
Air pore
Mucilage hair
Air chamber
(d) Gemmae
Air Chamber
Mucilage hair
Air pore
30. Read the given statement regarding bryophytes and

choose the correct option from the codes given
below.
I. In liverworts the sporogenous cells are of
endothecial origin and capsule lacks columella.
II. In hornworts, the sporophyte remains
differentiated into foot, seta and capsule.
To be Continued at Page 23
EAMCET (AP) 2016

SOLVED PAPER
Medical Entrance Examination
Held on : 29.04.2016
INSTRUCTION
l
All questions are compulsory.

The question paper consists of 80 questions.
There is no overall choice. However, internal choices has been provided. You have to attempt only one of the atternatives in all such
questions.
Use of calculator is not permitted.
EXAM CRUX
2.
In Biology paper, 33 questions were asked from class XII and

48 questions from Class XI.
According to topicwise distribution, the number of questions were
asked from Class XIDiversity in the Living World (11), Structural
Organisation in Plants and Animals (8), Structure and Function (7),
Plant Physiology (8), Human Physiology (14).
As per topicwise distribution in Class XIIReproduction (6),
Genetics and Evolution (11), Biology in Human Welfare (6),
Biotechnology (5), Ecology (5).
As per the difficulty level around 20% questions are easy, 52.5 are
relative moderate and rest 26.25% are tough.
by Arihant Team
List I
List II
Assemblage of
virions
List III
A. Absorption
phase
(i)
(I)
Complementary
receptor sites
B. Lytic phase
(ii) Tail core is driven (II) Eclipse period

in through the
bacterial cell wall
C. Maturation
phase
(iii) Contact between (III) Lysozyme

phase particle
and bacteria
D. Penetration
phase
(iv) Cell wall

dissolution
(IV) Tail sheath
The correct answer is
Botany
1.
Match the following.
A
B
C
D
(a) i,III ii, IV iv, II iii, I
(c) iii, I iv, III i, II ii, IV

List I
3.
List II
A. Climax community (i)
Prolonged periods of drought
A
B
C
D
(b) iii, II i, II ii, III iv, IV
(d) iv, IV, iii, I i, III ii, II

List I
List II
B. Victoria regia
(ii) Photosynthesis by flattened stem
A. Tracheids
C. Opuntia
(iii) Final plants which are near

equilibrium with the environment
(i) Cells possess highly thickened walls

with obliterated central lumen
B. Vessels
D. Casuarina
(iv) Roots fixed to substratum and

epistomatous
(ii) Elongated tube-like cells with thick

lignified walls and tapering ends

A
(a) iii
(c) i
B
iv
ii
C D
ii i
iii iv
A
(b) iii
(d) II
B
iv
I
C
i
iv
D
ii
iii
C. Xylem
(iii) Individual members are
parenchyma
interconnected through perforations in
their common walls
D. Xylem fibres (iv) Cells are living with thin cellulosic cell walls
15

A B C D
(a) ii iii iv i
(c) iii ii iv i
4.
A B C D
(b) ii iv i
iii
(d) ii iii i
iv
6.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
9.
In a series of reactions during carbon fixation,A, a six

carbon (6C) compound reacts with a three carbon (3C)
compound to give rise, B, a four carbon (4C)
compound and C, five carbon (5C) compound B
reacts with a three carbon (3C) compound to form D, a
seven carbon (7C) compound D reacts with a triose to
form two molecules of E, five carbon (5C) compound.
Identify the reactant with B and enzyme involved in
the formation of D respectively.
(a) G-3P; aldolase
(b) DHAP; aldolase
(c) Erythrose; transketolase
(d) Erythrose; aldolase
List I
10.
List II
List III
(i)
Supernatant as
effluent
(I)
Useful aerobic
microbes
B. FLOCS (ii)
Measure of
organic matter
(II)
All settled solids
C. Primary (iii) Masses of

sludge
bacteria
associated with
fungus
(III)
Methane, hydrogen
sulphide and
carbon dioxide
D. Biogas (iv) Anaerobic

sludge digester
(IV) Polluting water has

more BOD
A
B
C
D
(a) ii, IV iii,I i, II iv, III
(b) ii, I i, III iv, II iii, IV
(c) i, IV, iii, II iv, I ii, III
(d) iii, III ii, IV iii, I i, II
Assertion (A) Sugar beet, cabbage, carrot like plants

are monocarpic.
Reason (R) Both vernalisation and photoperiodism are
related to flowering.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
16
Identify the wrong statements.

I. The substrate binds to the active site of
the enzyme and does not fit into the active
site.
II. The binding of the substrate
induces the
enzyme to alter its shape.
III. Chemical bonds of the substrate break
down not to form new enzyme-product
complex.
IV. The enzyme releases the products of the
reaction and runs through the catalytic
cycle once again.
(a) I and III
(c) II and III
A is true and R is the correct explanation of A

A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true, but R is false
A is false, but R is true
(b) II and IV
(d) I and IV
Identify the wrong statements.

I. Genetic modifications in plants help to reduce post
harvest losses.
II. In
tobacco
plants
cry
genes
are
introduced against nematodes.
III. Gene therapy must to be under taken for infectious
diseases, where genes are inserted into
persons cells and tissues to treat diseases.
IV. Injustice, inadequate compensation and benefit
sharing are related to molecular diagnosis.
(a) I, II, III
11.
(b) II, III, IV
(c) I, II, IV
(d) I, III, IV
Assertion (A) Acidic pH of the insect gut converts

inactive Bt toxin into active form.
Reason (R) Most of the Bt toxins are insect group
specific.
7.
A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Match the microbes with the commercial industrial

products.
A. BOD
Assertion (A) Virus free plants can be produced from

virus infected plant by means of meristem culture.
Reason (R) Virus fails to grow during the growth of
host tissue in the artificial medium.
TACAAAGGGTTTCAACCC If it is the sequence of

nucleotides in a DNA strand, then predict the
sequence of amino acids found in a protein formed
from it.
(a) Proline, phenylalanine, lysine, methionine, glycine, valine
(b) Methionine, phenylalanine, glycine, valine, lysine, proline
(c) Valine, glycine, proline, lysine, phenylalanine, methionine
(d) Methionine, phenylalanine, proline, lysine, valine, glycine
5.
8.
(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
12.
The correct sequence in the tissue culture technique is

(a) Inoculation Explant incubation Callus formation
Organogensis Preparation of medium Transferred to
field
(b) Preparation of medium Inoculation Explant incubation
Callus formation Organogenesis Transferred to
field
(c) Explant incubation Preparation of medium Inoculation
Organogenesis Callus formation Transferred to field
(d) Preparation of medium Inoculation Explant incubation
Organogenesis Callus formation Transferred to field
13.
A pea plant with round-shaped seeds with yellow

colour seed (RRYY) was crossed with another pea plant
showing wrinkled shape with green cotyledons (rryy).
The results of progeny in F2 -generation are produced
in the following number.
I. Heterozygous for both shape and colour of seeds
.......... number.
II. Dominant for colour , but recessive for shape ..........
number.
III. Homozygous for both shape and colour of seeds
.......... number.
IV. Heterozygous for seed-shape only .......... number.
I
(a) 2
(c) 3
14.
II
4
4
III IV
3 8
8 2
I
(b) 4
(d) 4
II
2
3
III
3
2
17.
(a) I, III
18.
IV
8
8
List II
List III
(i) Specific base
(I) Taq
sequence
polymerase
B. Downstream (ii) Inheritable gene (II) Ampicillin resisprocessing
tance gene
C. Restriction
(iii) Amplification of (III) E. coli
endonuclease
DNA
D. Selectable
(iv) Transformation
marker
and non(IV) Quality control
transformation
(v) Product
(v) Ori
separation and
purification
19.
15.
A
(b) i, IV
(d) iii, I
(b) II, III and IV (c) III and IV
(d) II and IV
Plasmid can be considered as a suitable cloning vector.

I. It can be readily isolated from bacterial cells.
II. It possesses a single recognition site for one
restriction enzymes.
III. It should have a high molecular weight.
IV. Plasmids and bacteriophages have the ability to
replicate within bacterial cells.
Choose the correct answer.
(a) I, II, IV
(b) I, II, III, IV
(c) II, III, IV
(d) I, II, III
What did Engelmann

experiments?
(d) III, IV
observe
from
his
prism
Pick the reactions from the following where a water

molecule is removed and reduction of NAD+ does not
occur in the reactions of respiration.
I. Succinic acid Fumaric acid
II. Malic acid Oxaloacetic acid
III. 2-phosphoglycerate Phosphoenol pyruvic acid
IV. Pyruvic acid Acetyl Co-A
(a) I, IV
20.
B
C
D
iv, I ii, V iii, I
iv, I i, III ii, V
Which of the following is true with reference to

transformation in bacteria?
I. Transfer of genetic material is mediated by F-factor.
II. Uptake of naked DNA fragments from the
surrounding environment and the expression of
that genetic information in the recipient cell.
III. Transformation experiments were the basis to
propose chromosomal theory of inheritance.
IV. Transformation was discovered by Frederick
Griffith in Streptococcus pneumoniae.
(a) I and IV
16.
D
i, III
iv, II
(c) II, IV

A
B
C
(a) iii, I v, IV ii, V
(c) iii, I v, IV i, III
(b) II, III
(a) Bacteria could not detect the sites of O 2 evolution

(b) Bacteria released excess carbon dioxide in red and blue
light
(c) Bacteria accumulated due to the increase in temperature
caused by increase in oxygen concentration
(d) Bacteria get accumulated towards red and blue light
Identify wrong statements.

List I
A. PCR
Select the correct statements.

I. H1 histone molecule lies inside the nucleosome
core and seals the two turns of DNA.
II. Acrocentric chromosome has one extremely short
and one very long arm.
III. The association between positively charged DNA
and negatively charged histones allows for
meaningful DNA packaging inside the nucleus.
IV. A few chromosomes have non-staining secondary
constrictions at a constant location and give the
appearance of a small fragment called the satellite
(b) I, II
(c) II, III
(d) I, III
Study the following statements.

I. F1 -progeny is the first hybrid generation and
progeny resembles either of the two parents.
II. F2 -progeny is a resultant hybrid generation of cross
pollination among F1 -progeny and progeny shows
retain as such both dwarf and tall plants.
III. F2 -progeny is second hybrid generation, produced
by selfing F1 -hybrids and progeny contained both
dwarf and tall plants.
IV. The proportion of probability of plants that were
dwarf were 1/4th of the F2 -plants while 3/4th of the
F2 -plants were tall.
The correct statements are
(a) I, II, III, IV
(c) I, II, IV
21.
(b) I, III, IV
(d) III, IV
The transcription unit is represented by the following

diagram. Select the correct answer based on this.
A
3
5
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
B
C
A
Promoter
Promoter
Terminator
Promoter
B
Terminator
Coding strand
Coding strand
Structural gene
C
Coding strand
Terminator
Structural gene
Coding strand
5
3
D
Structural gene
Structural gene
Promoter
Terminator
17
22.
23.
Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic hierarchial

arrangement in ascending order of the following.
IV. Aerial roots of Taenliophyllum help in vegetative

propagation.
(a) Spermatophyta, Sapindales, Dicotyledons, Anacardiaceae,

Mangifera
(b) Mangifera, Dicotyledons, Anacardiaceae, Spermatophyta,
Sapindales
(c) Mangifera, Anacardiaceae, Sapindales, Dicotyledons,
Spermatophyta
(d) Dicotyledons, Anacardiaceae, Sapindales, Spermatophyte,
Mangifera
27.
A student observed a water drop under microscope. He

found a photosynthetic organism. Its cell walls form
two thin overlapping shells, which fit together as in a
soap box. Which of the following organism is it?
(a) Euglenoid
(c) Sporozoan
24.
(a) I and IV
(c) III and IV
(b) Dinoflagellate
(d) Diatom
Study the major pigments and storage products in the

following lists and match correctly.
A.
B.
C.
D.
List I
Chlorophylls-a and c, fucoxanthin
and mannitol.
Chlorophylls-a and d,
phycoerythrin and floridian starch.
Chlorophylls-a and b, pyrenoids
with starch and proteins.
Chlorophylls-a and b, carotene and
xanthophylls, leucoplasts store
carbohydrates, fats and proteins
25.
B
iv
i
C
ii
iv
D
iii
v
A
(b) iv
(d) iv
The micropyle of the ovule lies

close to the funiculus as a result
of 180 curvature.
(ii) Volvox
B.
The micropyle, chalaza and

(ii) Loranthus
funiculus of the ovules are on the
same vertical line.
(iii) Hibiscus
(iv) Dictyota
(v) Anabaena
B
i
iii
C
ii
v
D
iii
i
Arachis
Ginkgo
Cycas
Laminaria
26.
18
A
v
ii
iv
iv
B
iv
iv
iii
iii
C
i
i
ii
i
C. The body of the ovule is placed

at right angles to the funiculus
and bends in such a away that
micropyle comes towards the
funiculus.
(iii) Helianthus
D. The ovules are without

integuments
(iv) Polygonum

A
(a) iii
(c) v
29.
B
iv
iv
C D
ii v
iii ii
A
(b) iv
(d) iii
B
v
iv
C
i
i
D
iii
ii
Assertion (A) Tageticula and Amorphophallus cannot

complete their life cycle without each other.
Reason (R) The moth deposits its eggs in the locule of
the ovary and the flowers, which are on a many feet
height inturn gets pollinated by moth. The larvae
comes out of the egg as the seeds start developing.
D
ii
iii
i
ii
Identify the pair of wrong statements from the

following.
I. Branches of limited growth in Asparagus perform
photosynthesis.
II. Petiole of Australian Acacia helps in climbing.
III. Floral bud of Agave stores food materials.
(i) Dolichos
(v) Sphagnum

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
List II
A.
List II
(i) Amphibians of plant kingdom
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Study the types of ovules in list I and match correctly

with their occurrence with list II.
List I
Study the following lists and match correctly.

List I
A. Siphonogamy and
zooidogamy
B. Living fossil
C. Liverworts
D. Double fertilisation
A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A

A and R is true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
List II
(i) Porphyra

A
(a) v
(c) ii
Assertion (A) All the fruits that we eat are not real
fruits.
Reason (R) In few plants floral parts like thalamus or
pedicel also contribute to the fruit formation. Such,
fruits are called false fruits.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
28.
(b) I and II
(d) II and IV
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
of A
30.
A plant produced 50 flowers. Ovary of each flower has

50 ovules. How many fruits and seeds are produced by
that plant, respectively?
(a) 50, 50
(c) 50, 2500
(b) 50, 100

(d) 2500, 2500
31.
Select the correct statement from the following

regarding asexual reproduction.
I. It is slower than sexual reproduction.
II. It involves a single parent.
III. It produces progeny that are genetically identical
with the parent.
IV. Clones are the progeny of asexual reproduction.
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) I, II, IV
(c) I, II, III
(d) II, III, IV
32.
33.
36.
37.
List I (Element)
List II (Deficiency symptom)
A.
Zn
(i)
B.
Cl
(ii) Mottled leaf in citrus
(a) zygomorphic flower, epipetalous, epiphyllous, superior

ovary
(b) actinomorphic flower, epiphyllous, epipetalous, inferior
ovary
(c) zygomorphic flower, epiphyllous, epipetalous, superior
ovary
(d) actinomorphic flower, epipetalous, epiphyllous, superior
ovary
C.
Ni
(iii) Whiptail in cauliflower
D.
Mo
(iv) Mouse ear in pecan
Asseration (A) Eukaryotic cell shows extensive

compartmentalisation of cytoplasm.
Arrange the following compounds in descending order

on the basis of number of carbon atoms present in
them.
(A) Palmitic acid
(B) Serine
(C) Ribose
(D) Arachidonic acid
(E) Glucose
(a) DCABE
(c) DAECB
A
(a) ii
(c) ii
38.
(a) BDCA
(b) ACDB
(c) ADCB
(d) DCBA
B
i
iii
C
iv
iv
D
iii
i
A
(b) iv
(d) i
B
i
ii
C
iii
iii
D
ii
iv
Summarise the differences between a dicot and

monocot root from the following table and pick up the
wrong differences.
No.
Characters
A. Activity of
pericycle
Dicot root
Lateral root
production
Monocot root
Secondary growth
and cambium
B. Vascular bundle Diarch to tetrarch Polyarch

C. Cambium
Later developed
Absent
D. Pith
Well developed
Poorly develped
(a) B, D
(c) A, D
39.
(b) BCEAD
(d) CBADE
Arrange the following in descending order.

(A) Number of bivalents are formed during meiosis of a
spore mother cell of Ophioglossum.
(B) Number of chromatids seen on equatorial at
metaphase-I in pollen mother cell of Haplopappus
gracilis during meiosis.
(C) Number of chromosomes found at one pole after
anaphase-II during meiosis in butterfly.
(D) The total number of chromosomes found in all
daughter cells formed during meiosis from one
megaspore mother cell in potato.
Bronzing in legume
The correct match is
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
35.
The given symbols of floral parts indicate the condition

of % or C A, P A, G
Reason (R) The presence of membrane bound

organelles is an important character in prokaryotes.
34.
Identify the wrong statement.

(a) The degree of decrease of chemical potential of water
depends on concentration of solute
(b) Bacteria and fungal spores are killed when they enter into
pickles and jams due to the plasmolysis
(c) The process of water exudaton is called transpiration
(d) Reverse plasmolysis will occur when flaccid cells are placed
in hypotonic solution
Arrange the following in descending order based on

their numbers.
I. Number of central microtubules in a cilium.
II. Number of radial spokes in a flagellum.
III. Number of nuclei found in a mature sieve tube cell.
IV. Number of peripheral microtubes in a flagellum.
(a) IV, II, III, I
(c) III, I, II, IV
40.
(b) A, C
(d) A, B
(b) IV, II, I, III

(d) I, III, IV, II
Arrange the following compounds formed in

respiration based on their C-atoms in ascending order.
I. Pyruvic acid
II. a-ketoglutaric acid
III. Citric acid
IV. Malic acid
(a) IV, I, II, III
(b) I, IV, II, III
(c) I, II, IV, III
(d) I, IV, III, II
19
Zoology
41.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
for A

List I
Stomochord
Botryoidal tissue
Captacula
Rhabdites
A.
B.
C.
D.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
List II
Hirudinaria
Dentalium
Balanoglossus
Dugesia
44.
The aquatic weed which is popularly called terror of

Bengal is
(a) Erythroxylum
(b) Eichhornia
(c) Echinus
(d) Echidna
(v) Pinctada

A
(a) iii
(c) iii
42.
C D
v i
ii iv
A
(b) i
(d) i
B
ii
iii
C
iv
ii
D
iii
v
45.
The following organs appeared for the first time in

amphibians
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
43.
B
ii
i
syrinx, urinary bladder and cloaca

tympanum, sternum and lacrimal glands
harderian glands, sebaceous glands and lacrimal glands
furcula, four chambered heart and palate
Rhabditiform larva performs extraintestinal migration

through different organs in the body of man. Arrange
them in the correct sequence.
I. Liver
II. Hepatic portal vein
III. Heart
IV. Postcaval vein
V. Lungs
VI. Pulmonary arteries
VII. Alveoli
VIII. Intestine
The correct sequence is
Assertion (A) In sidewise-lash movement, a flagellate

moves forward due to effective stroke of flagellum.
(a) IV, I, II, V, VI, III, VIII, VII

(b) V, VI, I, III, II, IV, VII, VII
(c) I, II, IV, VI, III, VII, V, VIII
(d) II, I, IV, III, VI, V, VII, VIII
Reason (R) Flagellum becomes comparatively soft so as

to offer least resistance to water in propulsive stroke.
46.
Study the following events related to Na and K voltage-gated channels and find the incorrect combination.
S. No Channel
Gate
A.
Na
Activation gate
B.
Na
Inactivation gate
C.
Resting phase
Depolarised
Closed
Open
Open
Closed
Fast
Open
Open
Open
Closed
Slow
Closed
Closed
Open
Open
Slow
Activation gate
Repolarised Hyperpolarised The speed of response
Incorrect combination is
(a) A
47.
(b) B
(c) C
In the female cockroach the anterior wall, roof and floor

of genital pouch are formed respectively by the
following abdominal sterna of
50.
(a) 7th, 8th and 9th segments (b) 8th, 7th and 9th segments
(c) 9th, 8th, 7th and segments (d) 8th, 9th and 7th segments
48.
Chilomicrons are
(a) micelles covered by a protein coat
(b) droplets along with triglycerides
(c) triglycerides along with monosaccharides
(d) glycerol droplets formed in intestine after digestion of fats
49.
Study the following and identify the incorrect statements.

I. Muscles of the iris and ciliary body are the smooth
muscles of mesodermal origin.
II. Slow and sustained involuntary contractions of
smooth muscles are called spasms.
III. Quiescent mononucleate myogenic cells of skeletal
muscles are called pericytes.
IV. The skeletal muscle fibre is multinucleate and is a
synctium.
(a) I, IV
20
(b) II, IV
(c) III, IV
(d) I, III
(d) A, C
Identify the incorrect statements.

I. Members of gastropoda exhibit torsion.
II. Aristotle lantern is present in heart urchins.
III. Anthozoans are polyploid forms.
IV. Diplopoda includes centipedes.
(a) II, III
(c) II, IV
51.
(b) III, IV
(d) I, II
Read the following statements.

I. Adams apple in man is formed by thyroid
cartilage.
II. The maximum volume of air a person can breath in
after forced expiration is vital capacity.
III. About 20-25% of CO2 is transported as
carbaminohaemoglobin.
IV. Pneumotaxic centre lies in pons.
The correct statement(s) is
(a) Only I
(c) I, II, III
(b) I, II
(d) I, II, III, IV
52.
Study the following statements with reference to drugs

and choose the incorrect one.
I. Barbiturates cause sleeplessness.
II. Opioids are obtained from the leaves of
Erythroxylum coca.
III. Morphine is a very effective sedative and pain
killer.
IV. Cocaine is obtained from Indian hemp plant.
(a) I, II, III
53.
(b) II, III, IV
(c) I, III, IV
(d) I, II, IV
Study the following statements with reference to

nervous system in Periplanata.
I. The brain is mainly a sensory and an endocrine
centre.
II. All thoracic ganglia supply nerves to the parts of
their respective segments only.
III. Sixth abdominal ganglion is the largest of all the
abdominal ganglia.
IV. Frontal ganglion is connected to the ingluvial
ganglion by a recurrent nerve.
(a) II, IV
(b) II, III
(c) I, III
Population
Density
Natality
56.
In renal tubules aldosterone increases

(a) Absorption of K + , H+ and elimination of Na + , H 2 O
(b) Absorption of Na + , H 2 O and elimination of K + , PO 24
(c) Absorption of Na + , H 2 O, K + , PO 24
(d) Elimination of Na + , H 2 O , K+ , PO 24
57.
Read the following about pollution and identify the

correct matching combinations.
List I
List II
Chernobyl
Accidental
leakage
Radioactive wastes
II. El nino effect
Global
warming
Causing climatic
changes
III. Chloroflouro
carbons
Ozone
degradation
Fluorine atoms
released
I.
58.
Population +
Density
A
(a) iii
(c) iii
Immigration
59.
Interferons
Paratope
Interleukins
Histamine
Natality
60.
+
Population
Density
Mortality
Emigration
Mortality
(c) Emigration
Population
Density
+
B
i
iv
C D
ii iv
v ii
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Fab
Inflammatory mediators
Antiviral proteins
White blood cells
Anticoagulant
Natality
A
(b) iii
(d) iii
B
i
ii
C
iv
iv
D
ii
v
During fertilisation, zona pellucida is dissolved by

(a) hyaluronidase
(c) renin
Emigration
(d) II, IV
(b) Immigration
(c) I, II, IV

A.
B.
C.
D.
(d) I, IV
(b) I, IV
Mortality
+
List III
IV. Snow blindness UV-B radiation Inflammation of cornea

(a) I, III
Which of the following is correct with reference to

population growth?
(a) Natality
Emigration
From the above identify the correct statements
55.
(d) Mortality
Assertion (A) Monkey acts as a reservoir host for the

parasite that causes African sleeping sickness.
Reason (R) Reservoir host lodges the infective stages of
the parasite, when the primary host is not available.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
for A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
54.
Immigration
(b) hyaluronic acid

(d) acrosin
Choose the correct statements with regard to human

respiration.
I. Inspiration is facilitated by the contraction of
phrenic and internal intercostal muscles.
II. Healthy human can inhale or exhale about 2000 to
3000 mL of air per minute.
III. Functional residual capacity represent the volume
of left out air in lungs after expiration.
IV. Total lung capacity is the total volume of air that
can be accomodated in the lungs after forced
inspiration.
(a) I, III
(c) III, IV
(b) II, IV
(d) I, II
Immigration
21
61.
9% of Hardy-Weinberg population of 800 individual

are recessive. How many of this population are
heterozygous?
(a) 336
62.
(b) 392
(c) 372
Assertion (A) In dialiser, the plasma proteins of the

blood cannot be filtered, but molecules like urea, uric
acid, creatinine and ions can be filtered.
Reason (R) The cellophane membrane, used in the
dialiser is permeable to micromolecules, but
impermeable to macromolecules.
64.
Identify the correct sequence of blood coagulation

I. Activation of prothrombin.
II. Formation of prothrombin activator.
III. Formation of blood clot.
IV. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
(a) II, IV, I, III
65.
(b) II, I, IV, III
(c) I, IV, III, II
(d) I, II, III, IV
Read the following and find the correct statements.

I. Midbrain, pons varoli and medulla oblongata are
together called the brain stem.
II. Paracoels are connected to the diacoel through the
iter.
III. The regulation centres of heartbeat, respiration,
swallowing, cough, etc., are located in medulla
oblongata.
IV. Cerebellum is also called the gyroscope of the body.
(a) I, II, III
66.
(c) II, III, IV
(d) I, II, IV
Choose the correctly paired sets from the following.

I.
II.
III.
IV.
Set I
Sphenoid bone
Acromion process
Xiphoid process
Odontoid process
(a) I, IV
22
(b) I, III, IV
(b) II, IV
Set II
Key-stone bone
Collar bone
Breast bone
Atlas
(c) II, III
Set III
Cranium
Scapula
Thorax
Cervical vertebra
(d) I, III
List II
Myxedema
Addisons disease
(iii) Increased metabolic rate

(iv) Cushings syndrome
Kidney stones

A
(a) iii
(c) i
68.
B
ii
vi
C
i
iii
D
v
ii
A
(b) iii
(d) i
B
iv
ii
C
i
iii
D
ii
v
Study the following with regard to spermatogenesis.

I. Spermatogonia
II. Secondary spermatocyte
III. Spermatogonial stem cells
IV. Primary spermatocyte
V. Spermatid
Arrange them in the correct sequence.
Reason (R) The descending limb of the loop of Henle

water is reabsorbed; the ascending limb is impermeable to water, but salts are absorbed.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation for A
(i)
(ii)
(v)
Assertion (A) The renal fluid becomes increasingly

concentrated when it flows down in the descending
limb of loop of Henle towards inner medulla, but its
concentration decreases in the ascending limb when it
flows towards the cortex.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

List I
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hyposecretion of
glucocorticoids
C. Hypothyroidism-I
D. Hyperparathyroidism
(d) 362
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
for A
63.
67.
(a) III, IV, II, I, V

(c) I, II, III, IV, V
69.
Choose the correct statements regarding genetic

disorders.
I. Turner s female is result of aneuploidy.
II. Tritanopia is a sex-linked recessive disorder.
III. Haemophilia-C follows criss-cross pattern of
inheritance.
IV. Sickle cell anaemia is due to mutation of alleles in
chromosome 11.
(a) I, IV
70.
(b) III, I, IV, II, V

(d) III, IV, I, II, V
(b) II, III
(c) I, III
(d) II, III
Assertion (A) According to Genic Balance Theory, the

karyotype with AA-XO in Drosophila is sterile female.
Reason (R) Y-chromosome in Drosophila lacks male
determining factor.
(a Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
for A
71.
Choose the correct combination among the following.

S.No.
List I
I.
Thomas Malthus
Principles of
populations
Phenomenon of
gradualism
II.
Paul Kammarer
Proteus
anguinus
Inheritance of
somatic character
III.
Hugo de Vries
Oenothera
lamarckiana
Synthetic theory of
evolution
IV.
Bernard Kettlewell Biston betularia Industrial melanism
List II
List III

(a) I and IV
(b) II and IV
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
72.
Assertion (A) The milk of transgenic cow, Rosie, was

nutritionally more balanced than normal cow milk.
76.
Reason (R) a-1 antitrypsin is a biological product

produced by transgenic animals.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
73.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation for A
List I
List II
(Wave/interval of ECG)
(Clinical Interference)
A. Prolonged Q-T interval (i) Fast breathing of the heart
B. Tall T-wave
(ii) Block of conduction through
bundle of His
C. Shortened P-R interval (iii) Hypothyroidism
D. Variation
(iv) Enlarged atria
A
(a) ii
(c) iv
77.
74.
C D
ii i
ii i
A
(b) ii
(d) iii
B
iv
v
C D
v i
i
ii
78.
79.
(d) d -diversity
Assertion (A) In situ conservation is an ideal

conservation strategy for biodiversity.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation to A

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation to A
(d) A is false but R is true
Continued from Page 14

III. In mosses the sporogenous cells of endothecial
origin always surround a sterile columella.
IV. The gametophyte of hornworts is always foliose
while liverworts' gametophyte is thallose.
(a) Statements I and III are correct, but statements II and IV are
incorrect.
(b) Statements I and IV are correct, but statements II and III are
incorrect.
(c) Only statement I is correct and statements II, III and IV are
incorrect.
(d) Only statement IV is correct and statements I, II and III are
incorrect.
1.
11.
21.
31.
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b) Pogonatum (c) Porella

2.
12.
22.
32.
(d)
(a)
(c)
(b)
3.
13.
23.
33.
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)
4.
14.
24.
34.
(d) Sphagnum
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
C D
iv i
ii I
A
(b) v
(d) v
5.
15.
25.
35.
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
B
ii
ii
C
i
iii
D
iv
iv
Both A and R are true and R is the true explanation to A

Both A and R are true, but R is not the true explanation to A
A is not true, but R is true
(b) placoid scales
(d) anadromous migration
Study the following and identify the correct match.

Scientific name
Draco
Bungarus
Ptyas
Vipera russelli
Common name
Flying lizard
Pond snake
Rat snake
Chain viper
Character
Cleidoic egg
Poisonous
Non-poisonous
Non-poisonous
The correct match is

(a) II, III
80.
(b) III, IV
(c) I, III
32.
(d) Nucleolus
(b) it is hygroscopic
(d) it serves as a disinfectant
In capsule of moss, shock absorbers are

(a) trabeculae
(c) seta
34.
(c) Stigma
Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending

flowers and live plants to distant places because
(a) it is easily available
(c) it reduces transpiration
33.
(d) I, IV
The modified cell organelle involved in the formation

of cilia and flagellum is
(a) Golgi complex (b) Centriole
(b) peristome teeth

(d) annulus
Have capacity of absorbing water used to replace

cotton and used as a fuel is
(a) Marchantia
(c) Sphagnum
35.
Retort cells occur in

(a) Funaria
List II
Ruminants
Wrist bone
Intervertebral discs
Larynx
Pinna
Parents of ammocoete larva show
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Reason (R) It maintains recovering populations in the

surrounding where they have developed their
distinctive properties.
31.
B
iii
iii
(a) paired fins

(c) catadromous migration
The number of taxa present within a particular area or

an ecosystem is
(a) a -diversity (b) b -diversity (c) g -diversity
75.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Assertion (A) White adipose tissue is predominant in

infants and has several small lipid droplets and
numerous mitochondria.
Reason (R) White fat is metabolically less active.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(v) Hyperkalemia
B
iv
v
List I
Pisifrom bone
Fibrous cartilage
Hyaline cartilage
OS-cardis
Match the following lists.
A
(a) v
(c) iii
(b) Riccia
(d) Funaria
Elaters are absent in

(a) Funaria
6. (d)
16. (d)
26. (b)
(b) Marchantia (c) Pellia

7. (a)
17. (c)
27. (b)
8. (b)
18. (b)
28. (c)
9. (c)
19. (a)
29. (d)
(d) Porella
10. (a)
20. (c)
30. (c)
23
Answers with Explanation

1. (a) The correct matching is
7. (b) Monocarpic plants flower only once in their life. These plants
Climax community Final plants which are near equilibrium with

the environment
Victoria regia
Roots fixed to substratum and epistomatous
Opuntia
Photosynthesis by flattened stem
Casuarina
Prolonged period of drought
2. (c) The correct matching is

Complementary
receptor sites
Lysozyme
Eclipse period
Tail sheath

Tracheids
Elongated tube-like cells with thick lignified

walls and tapering ends
Vessels
Individual members are interconnected
through perforations in their common walls
Xylem parenchyma Cells are living with thin cellulosic cell walls
Xylem fibres
Cells possess highly thickened walls with
obliterated central lumen
Key Note Tracheids are elongated narrow tube-like cells with
hard thick and lignified walls with large cell cavity with tapering
or pointed ends.
4. (d) Sequence on DNA strand is TAC AAA GGG TTT CAA CCC
Therefore, sequence on mRNA will be AUG UUU CCC AAA GUU
GGG
Sequence of amino acids on protein will be
methionine phenylalanineprolinelysine valineglycine
Methionine always attaches to initiation codon.
5. (d) The reactions given in the question are:

A
B+
3C
(3 carbon
compound)
3C
(4 carbon
(5 carbon
compound) compound)
Aldolase
(4 carbon compound
compounds)[DHAP]
(7C carbon
compound)
D + Glyceraldehyde -3 -phosphate or DHAP (3C)

2 E ( 5 carbon compounds)
B is a 4C compound-Erythrose
Erythrose react with 3-carbon compound DHAP or
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate which is catalysed by aldolase.

BOD
Measure of organic matter Polluting water has more

BOD
FLOCS Masses of bacteria

associated with fungus
Useful aerobic microbes
Primary Supernatant as effluent

sludge
All settled solids
Biogas Anaerobic sludge digester Methane, hydrogen

sulphide and carbon
dioxide
Key Note FLOCS are masses of bacteria associated with fungal
filaments form mesh like structures.
24
Vernalisation is the process of inducing flowering by cold

treatment and photoperiodism is the time period required for
flowering. Thus, both the terms are related to flowering, but do not
explain the assertion.
8. (a) Virus free plants can be grown by means of meristem culture.
Absorption phase Contact between phase

particle and bacteria
Lytic phase
Cell wall dissolution
Maturation phase Assemblage of virions
Penetration phase Tail core is driven in
through bacterial cell wall
(6 carbon
compound)
are generally annual or biennial. They die after flowering and

fruiting, e.g. sugar beet, cabbage, carrot, etc.
The reasons for the escape of the meristem from virus invasion
are
(i) Viruses readily move in a plant body through the vascular
system which is absent in the meristem.
(ii) High metabolic activity in the actively dividing meristem
cells does not allow virus replication.
Microbes such as virus may be present in the medium from
beginning or with cultured tissue. So, instruments as well as
explants are sterilised before culture.
9. (a) I and III are wrong statements. The correct form of these
statements are
(I) Active site of enzyme is not exactly complementary to the
substrate, but it is induced to assume the complementary
shapes as soon as substrate binds to it.
(III) Chemical bonds of substrate breakdown and new
enzyme-product complex is formed
E+S
-ES EP E + P
(Enzyme product
complex)
10. (b) The correct form of II, III and IV are

(II) Tobacco plants are genetically modified to express cry
genes in corn and potato, but not in tobacco.
(III) Gene therapy involves putting engineered genes into people
to cure genetic diseases. Thus, correct form of this statement
is gene therapy is to be under taken for genetic diseases,
where gene are inserted into person cells and tissues to treat
diseases.
(IV) Molecular diagnostics is a collection of techniques. This
technique is used to diagnose and monitor disease, defect
risk.
11. (d) Bt toxin gets dissolved in the high pH of insect gut and
becomes active . It attacks the cells of gut of insects creating a hole
in it which finally leads to death of insects. Bt toxins show insect
growth specificity.
12. (b) The tissue culture technique involves the following steps
(i) Preparation of culture medium containing essential macro
and micronutrients, organic nutrients for energy, growth
hormones (auxins, etc) and agar/gelatin to make the
medium solid.
(ii) Explant is a group of plant cells or plant part selected for
tissue culture. It is inoculated on the sterile medium.
(iii) Next step is incubation, i.e. set up of aseptic conditions with
optimum conditions for growth of explant.
(iv) In the culture medium cells of explant start dividing and form
an unorganised mass of cells, called callus.
(v) Under the influence of various hormones in different
concentrations in medium, the undifferentiated cells of
callus differentiate to form shoots and roots, leading to
organogenesis.
(vi) The miniature plantlets are then transfered to fields.
18. (d) Engelmann prism experiment showed effect of light on
13. (d) Pea plant

Wrinkled and green
coloured seeds
(rryy)
Round and yellow

coloured
seed (RRYY)
RRYY
rryy
RY
ry
Parents
photosynthesis. He illuminated an alga Spirogyra with different

colour of light using a prism. He found that blue and red light is
most effective in the photosynthesis and bacterium
(Rhodospirillum) accumulate on alga in red and blue light.
19. (d) I and III reactions in which water is removed, but NAD+ is not
Gametes
reduced. The II and IV reaction occur the following way

(II) Malic acid Oxaloacetic acid + H2O + NADH
+
NAD +
(IV) Pyruvic acid Acetyl Co -A

+
Gametes will be of four types RY, Ry, rY and ry

RY
Ry
rY
ry Female
RY RRYY
RRYy
RrYY
RrYy
Ry RRYy
RRyy
RrYy
Rryy
rY
RrYY
RrYy
rrYY
rrYy
ry
RrYy
Rryy
rrYy
rryy
FAD +
20. (b) The correct form of III statement is

In F2-generation self-pollination is done, not the cross pollination
between F1-hybrids.
Tt F1-generation
Self-pollination
T t
T t
Taq polymerase
Quality control
TT
Tt
(Tall plants)
E. coli
Tt
tt
F2-generation
(Dwarf plant)
21. (d)
Ampicillin resistance
gene
Key Note Restriction endonucleases are one of the essential

tools for genetic engineering which recognise and cleave off (cut
open) specific sequences of nucleotide bases in DNA molecule.
They are also called molecular scissors.
15. (d) II, IV are true statements, correct form of I and III are as follows
16.
tt
(Dwarf)
TT
(Tall)

Amplification of DNA
Product separation and
purification
Specific base
sequences
Transformation and
non-transformation
FADH + H 2O
(III) 2 phosphoglycerate 2 phosphoenol pyruvic acid +H2O
(I) Heterozygous for both shape and colour of seed

...4... number.
(II) Dominant for colour but recessive for shape
..3.. number.
(III) Homozygous for both shape and colour of seeds
..2.. number.
(IV) Heterozygous for seed shape only ..8.. in number.
PCR
Downstream
processing
Restriction
endonuclease
Selectable
marker
NAD + + CO 2 + H 2
I and III reaction occur as follows:

(I) Succinic acid Fumaric acid
Selfing
Male
NAD +
F1-generation
RrYy
Located upstream of initiation codon of

structural gene. TATA box in prokaryotes and
pribnonow box in eukaryotes. Highly conserved
sequences.
Structural gene Sequences involved in actual protein synthesis
and are the functional unit of inheritance.
Coding strand 5 - 3 polarity, sequence same as in mRNA
except thymine.
Terminator
This region is downstream of structural gene at
the 3-end of coding strand. It defines end of
transcription process.
22. (a) The correct sequence of taxonomic hierarchial arrangement

in ascending order is
Mangifera > Anacardiaceae > Sapindales
(Genus)
(Family)
Dicotyledons
(Class)
17. (c) II and IV are correct statements, correct form of I and III are as follows
(I) H1 is a histone protein which is called linker histone or
plugging and act as marker proteins. Nucleosome core is
made up of H2A, H2 B, H3 and H4 in pair thus forming an
octamer called Nu-body or proteosome. The nucleosomes are
linked together by linker DNA.
(III) The association between negatively charged phosphate
groups of DNA and positively charged histones allow for
meaningfully DNA packaging inside the nucleus providing
stability and flexibility to DNA.
(Order)
>
(I) Transfer of genetic material is through small part of DNA not

by F-factor. F-factor is involved in conjugation in bacteria.
(III) Transformation experiments were the basis to propose that
DNA is a genetic material.
(a) Plasmids and bacteriophage act as vectors for cloning DNA.
Plasmid should have low molecular weight so, that it can easily
enter into bacterial cell. Plasmid replicates autonomously along
with the foreign DNA having some marker gene.
Key Note Plasmids are small DNA molecules within a cell that
are physically separated from the cheomosomal DNA and can
replicate independently.
Promoter
Spermatophyta
(Division)
The above classification is of mango or Mangifera indica.
23. (d) Diatoms belong to classBacillariophyceae of phylumAlgae.

Their cell wall is made up of silica. They are non-motile. Two thin
overlapping shells are formed by cell wall. They also carryout
photosynthesis and take part in the formation of diatomous earth.
25
24. (b) The correct matching is
34. (c) Number of atoms in the given compounds are
Chlorophyll-a and c, fucoxanthin and mannitol.
Dictyota
Chlorophyll-a and d, phycoerythrin and floridian starch. Porphyra

Chlorophyll-a and b, pyrenoids with starch and proteins. Volvox
Chlorophyll-a and b, carotene and xanthophylls,
leucoplasts store carbohydrates, fat and proteins.
Hibiscus
Living fossil
Ginkgo
Liverworts
Amphibians of plant kingdom
Double fertilisation
Arachis
26. (a) (I) In Asparagus leaves are modified into cladode and flat
green stems are found.
(IV) Aerial roots of Taenliophyllum help in photosynthesis
because they are green and adventitious, so called as
photosynthetic or assimilatory root.
27. (a) True fruits are developed from ovary, but false fruits develop
from other parts of flower except ovary. In apple and pear fleshy
thalamus is eaten. These fruits are not real fruits.
28. (d) The correct matching is

The micropyle of the ovule lies close to funiculus Helianthus
as a result of 180 curvature.
The micropyle, chalaza and funiculus of the
ovules are on some vertical line.
Polygonum
The ovules are without integuments.
(A) Number of chromosomes in Ophioglossum is 1260 (2n).

(B) Number of chromosomes in Haplopappus gracilis is = 2 (2n).
(C) Number of chromosomes in butterfly = 380.
(D) Total number of chromosomes in potato = 48.
So, correct descending order is A > C > D > B.
36. (c) Guttation is the process of excudation of xylem sap on the edges
of leaves. Hydathodes are structures by which this process occur.
Whereas transpiration is the process of loss of water vapours
from plant body surface.

Zn
Cl
Ni
Mo
Mottled leaves of cirtus

Bronzing in legumes
Mouse ear in pecan
Whiptail in cauliflower
38. (c) Answer A and D. In monocot root no secondary growth occurs

and cambium is absent. In monocot roots pith is well developed,
but in dicots roots is absent.
39. (b) The correct descending order is as given below IV > II > I > III
The body of the ovule is placed at a right angle to Dolichos

the funiculus and bends in such a way that
micropyle comes towards funiculus.
Loranthus
29. (a) Flower of Amorphophallus is 6 feet tall. There is process of

coevolution in them. Tageticula and Amorphophallus can not
complete life cycle without each other. So, both of them depend on
each other.
30. (a) 50 flowers have 50 ovules. 50 fruits from 50 ovaries will be

obtained and 50 seeds from 50 ovules will be obtained.
So, 50 fruits and 50 seeds will be produced by 50 flowers.
31. (d) II, III and IV statements are correct. Asexual reproduction is a
rapid mode of reproduction involving single parent. Since, no
meiosis and gametic fusion occur, genetic variation is not
observed in offspring. These are clones of their parent and are
genetically identical.
Key note Asexual reproduction is a uniparental phenomenon.
The organisms increase their mass and maturity until at a critical
point.
They reproduce by simple division of their substance. Each
successive organism has the same physico-chemical constitution
as the parent.
Zygomorphic flower (cant cut into two equal parts)
Epipetalous condition androecium attached to corolla
Epiphyllous condition
Superior ovary
33. (c) In eukaryotes cytoplasm is divided into many compartments

by formation of membrane found organelles such as
mitochondria and chloroplast, which are specialised for various
functions of the cell. In prokaryotes membrane bound organelles
are not present and only ribosomes of (70 S) type are present.
26
16 C
3C
5C
20 C
6C
35. (b)
Siphonogamy and zooidogamy Cycas
%
CA
PA
G
Palmitic acid
Serine
Ribose
Arachidonic acid
Glucose
So, correct descending order is D > A > E > C > B.
32. (a)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
In (IV) Number of peripheral microtubules in a flagellum is18.

(II) Number of radial spokes in a flagellum9.
(I) Number of central microtubules in a cilium2.
(III) Number of nuclei found in a mature sieve tube cell iszero
40. (b) I.
II.
III.
IV.
Pyruvic acid
a- ketoglutaric acid
Citric acid
Malic acid
3C
5C
6C
4C
I < IV < II < III.

Pyruvic acid (3C) < Malic acid (4C) < a-ketoglutaric acid (5C) <
6C (citric acid).
41. (c) The correct matching of list I with list II are

Stomochord
Botryoidal tissue
Captacula
Rhabdites
Balanoglossus
Hirudinaria
Dentalium
Dugesia
Key Note Rhabdites are rod-like structures in the cells of the epidermis or underlying parenchyma in certain turbellarians and in the
epidermis of nemerteans. They are discharged in mucous secretion.
42. (b) Tympanum, sternum and lacrimal glands first appeared in

amphibians.
43. (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false because, the flagellar
movement of many organisms is a sidewise- lash, which consists
of two strokes namely the effective or propulsive stroke and the
recovery stroke.
(i) In effective stroke, flagellum becomes rigid and starts
binding to one side beating against the water. This beating
against water is at right angles to the body axis and the
organisms move forward.
(ii) Recovery stroke, flagellum becomes comparatively soft as to
offer least resistance to water and moves backwards to its
original position. It is called recovery stroke.
44. (b) Eichhornia is an aquatic weed, which is known as terror of
52. (d) Only statement III is correct as morphine is a very effective
Bengal. It is a fast growing weed in rivers and lakes. It is also known

as water hyacinth. It takes up O 2 rapidly making the, aquatic life
deprived of oxygen, which eventually causes death of river
organisms by a phenomenon known as eutrophication.
sedative and pain killer useful in patients who have undergone

surgery.
Other statements can be corrected as
II. Opioids are obtained from dried latex of unripe capsular
fruits of poppy plant, (Papaver somniferum).
IV. Cocaine is obtained from (Erythroxylon coca).
I. Barbiturates reduce anxiety and causes sleep.
45. (d) The correct path of migration of Rhabdiform larva of Ascaris

through different parts of body is
II I IV III VI V VII VIII
Hepatic portal vein Liver Post caval vein
Lungs Pulmonary arteries Heart
Alveoli Intestine
53. (a) When primary host is not available then reservoir host
perpetuates the infective stages of parasite. In case of African
sleeping sickness, which spreads by Glossine palpalis, monkey
acts as reservoir host.
54. (b) The statements II and III are correct. Other statements can be
corrected as
I. The brain is the chief sensory organ in Periplanata.
IV. A frontal ganglion on the dorsal wall of the pharynx is
present, which is connected to the hypocerebral ganglion
by a recurrent nerve.
46. (d) The incorrect combination is B.

The correct sequence of events in action potential taking place
in Na-K voltage gated channels is:
(i) Resting state all voltage gated Na + and K + channels are
closed.
(ii) Depolarising phase depolarisation to threshold open Na +
channel activation gates. Na + inflow further depolarises the
membrane, opening more Na + channel activation gates.
(iii) Repolarising phase Na + channel inactivation causes K +
channel to open.
(iv) Hyperpolarisation gated Na + channels are reset to close
and membrane remains hyperpolarised until K + channels
close, causing the relative refractory period.
The speed of response of Na + channel is faster than K +
channels.
55. (d) Population density is increased by immigration and natality

(maximum birth rate) and decreased by mortality (death rate) and
emigration (outward migration) of organisms.
56. (b) Aldosterone acts mainly at renal tubule, it stimulates
reabsorption of Na + and water and excretion of K + and PO 24 ions.

Thus, aldosterone helps in maintenance of electrolytes balance,
body fluid volume, osmotic pressure and blood pressure.
57. (c) I, II and IV are correct. III is incorrect because

Chloroflourocarbon (CFC) causes ozone degradation with
release of chlorine atoms. Even one molecule can degrade
10000 molecules of O 3 .
Cl + O 3 ClO + O 2
ClO + O 3 Cl + O 2
CFC molecules move to stratosphere and release chlorine atom
which it can react again with another ozone molecule creating
huge destruction of O 3 layer by a very low concentration of CFC.
47. (a) In female cockroach 7th sternum is boat-shaped. It becomes

fused with 8th and 9th segments and forms broad genital pouch
whose anterior part contains female gonophore, spermathecal
pores and collateral glands.
48. (b) Chilomicrons are lipoprotein droplets that consist of

triglycerides, phospholipids, cholesterol and proteins.
Key note Chylomicrons are lipoprotein molecules/particles that
consist of triglycerides (85-92%), phospholipids (6-12%),
cholesterol (1-3%) and proteins (1-2%). They transport dietary
lipids from the intestines to other locations in the body.
58. (b) The correct matching is

A.
B.
C.
D.
49. (d) Statement I, II and III are incorrect. (But this is not given in
50.
51.
option).
These statements can be corrected as
(I) Muscles of the iris and ciliary body are ectodermal in origin.
(II) A sudden involuntary contraction of muscle is called spasm.
Slow, involuntary and sustained muscle contraction of hand,
toes and feet is called dystonia.
(III) Pericytes are contractile cells surrounding endothelial cells of
capillaries also known as mural cells or rouget cells.
(c) Statement II and IV are incorrect.
(II) Aristotle lantern is a complex arrangement of muscles and
calcareous teeth forming a eversible organ in most
echinoderms, functioning in mastication.
(IV) ClassDiplopoda includes millipedes
(d) All statements are correct.
Adams apple is a projection in front of neck formed by thyroid
cartilage of the larynx, more prominent in man. Vital capacity is
the maximum volume of air that person breathes out after
forceful inspiration.
VC =ERV + TV + IRV
CO 2 is carried by haemoglobin in the form of carbamino
haemoglobin, partial pressure of O 2 affects this binding. Pons
varolli of brain act as a pneumotaxic centre which regulates
rhythm of breathing mechanism.
59.
60.
61.
Interferon
Paratope
Interleukins
Histamine
(iii)
(i)
(iv)
(ii)
Antiviral proteins
Fab
White blood cells
Inflammatory mediators
Key Note Interlecekins are a subset of a large group of cellular

messenger molecules called cytokines which are modulators of
cellular behaviour. Like other cytokines, interleukins are not stored
with cells but are secreted rapidly and briefly in response to a
stimulus, such as an infectious agent.
(d) Acrosin digests the zona pellucida and the membrane of the
oocyte.
(c) III and IV are correct. The correct forms of I and II are:
I. Inspiration is facilitated by the contraction of diaphragm and
contraction of external intercostal muscles.
II. Healthy humans can inhale 6000 to 8000 ml of air per
minute.
(a) Hardy-Weinberg equation is
[where, p + q = 1 ]
p2 + 2 pq + q 2 = 1
out of 800 individuals, 9% are recessive thus q 2 = 0.9.
So, 72 individuals are recessive
If q 2 = 0.9, then q = 0.3
If p + q = 1 then p + 0.3 = 1, leaves p = 1 - 0.3 = 0.7
So, p2 = 0.49, so 49% organisms are dominant, that is = 392.
2 pq leaves the heterozygotes, so 2 ( 0.3 )( 0.7 ) = 42% are
heterozygous or 336 individuals are heterozygous.
27
62. (c) The cellophane tube is surrounded by a fluid having same
63.
composition as plasma except nitrogenous wastes. The porous

cellophane membrane of the tube allows the passage of molecule
based on concentration gradient. It is impermeable to large
molecule but permeable to micromolecules.
(a) Descending loop of Henle is permeable to water but
impermeable to electrolytes whereas ascending limb is
impermeable to water, but allows transport of electrolyte. In
descending limb of Henle concentration is increased because of
reabsorption of water but in ascending limb concentration of filrate
is decreased due to reabsorption of electrolytes.
64. (b) Steps of blood coagulation
65.
66. (d) The correct pair are
67.
List I
List II
List III
Sphenoid bone
Acromion process
Xiphoid process
Odontoid process
Key-stone bone
Shoulder joint
Breast bone
Axis
Cranium
Scapula
Thorax
Second cervical vertebra
(a) The correct matching is

A.
B.
C.
D.
Hyperthyroidism
Hyposecretion of glucocorticoids
Hypothyroidism- I
Hyperparathyroidism
(iii)
(ii)
(i)
(v)
Increased metabolic rate

Addisons disease
Myxedema
Kidney stones
Key Note Hyperparathyroidism is caused due to the overactivity

of the parathyroid glands resulting in parathyroid hormone (PTH)
levels in the blood which are in excess of what a normally
functioning plasma ionized calcium regulators as homeostat or
negative feedback mechanism would produce.
68. (b) The correct sequence is

Spermatogonial stem cells (III)
Spermatogonia (I)
Primary spermatocytes (IV)
Secondary spermatocytes (II)
Spermatids (V)
Finally spermatozoa develop by spermiogenesis.
69. (a) I and IV are correct. Other statements are corrected as :

(III) Haemophilia-C is a mild form of haemophilia affecting both
sexes.
(II) Tritanopia is a colour blindness for blue-yellow colour. It is a
rare colour vision disturbance. It is caused by heterozygous
mutation.
Key Note Haemophilia-C (also known as plasma thromboplastin
antecedent (PTA) deficiency). Rosenthal syndrome is a mild form
of haemophilia affecting both sexes, due to factor XI deficiency. It
is the fourth most common coagulation disorder after Von
Willebiards disease and heaemophilia A and B.
28
According to Genic Balance theory karyotype with AA-XO is

male in Drosophila. It is the ratio of X-chromosome and somatic
chromosome which decides sex of chromosome.
71. (b) II and IV are correct.

Correct I and III combinations are
(I) Thomas Malthus Principles of population
Evolution theory
(III) Hugo de Vries Oenothera lamarckiana
Mutation theory
72. (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
Step
Formation of prothrombin activation (II)
Activation of prothrombin into thrombin (I)
Thrombin convert fibrinogen protein into fibrin (IV)
Formation of blood clot occur (III)

(b) Only statement II is incorrect, because cavity of diencephalon
or diocoel or 3rd ventricle is connected to the 4th ventricle through
a narrow passage called the iter. Paracoel is called the 2nd
ventricle or lateral ventricle.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
70. (a) A is false but R is true.
explanation of assertion.
In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie, who had been injected
with a human milk protein gene, (a)- lactalbumin was produced.
a-lactalbumin is an important nutritional protein. It is produced in
human breast milk at a much higher concentration than in cows
milk. Thus, the milk of Rosie was more nutritionally balanced.
a-I-antitrypsin is a human protein produced by transgenic
animals to treat emphysema.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Prolonged Q-T interval

Tall T-wave
Shortened P-R interval
Variation
(iii)
(v)
(i)
(ii)
Hypothyroidism
Hyperkalemia
Fast breathing of the heart
Blockage of conduction
through bundle of His
74. (a) The number of taxa present within a particular area or an

ecosystem is a-diversity.
75. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion. In situ conservation is a type of
conservation strategy for biodiversity in the natural habitat.
National parks, sanctuaries and biosphere reserves are means
of in situ conservation.
76. (a) The correct match are

A.
B.
C.
D.
Pisiform bone
Fibrous cartilage
Hyaline cartilage
OS-cardis
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i)
Wrist bone
Intervertebral discs
Larynx
Ruminants
77. (d) Assertion is incorrect, but reason is correct. Brown Adipose

Tissue (BAT) or brown fat makes up the adipose organ in
newborns and in hibernating mammals. It is metabolically more
active than white adipose tissue. Its primary function is
thermoregulation.
BAT adipocytes contain numerous smaller droplets and a much
higher number of iron containing mitochondria which give BAT its
brown appearance.
78. (c) Ammocaete larva belongs to Petromyzon. It shows movement

from ocean to freshwater and vice-versa for feeding and
reproduction.
Petromyzon is also known as sea lamprey. It shows
catadromous migration. Its reproductive phase occurs in
freshwater and vegetative phase occurs in ocean.
79. (c) I and III are correctly matched.

The correct combination for II and IV are
(II) Bungarus
Banded krait
(IV) Vipera russelli
Russells viper
Poisonous
Poisonous
80. (b) Centriole is a modified cell organelles which forms basal body
of flagella and cilia. Thus, centriole is required for cilia and flagella
formation.
GENETIC CLASSROOM
Exception to
LAW OF DOMINANCE
In this section, we will try to infer and apply
some Laws of Genetics. Here, we will be
discussing Exception to Law of
Dominance. There are some exceptions to
the law of dominance. These are
Connectivity with the Laws
(i) Incomplete Dominance

(Intermediate Inheritance)
It is the phenomenon where none of the
two contrasting alleles or factors is
dominant. The expression of the character
in a hybrid individual is intermediate or a
fine mixture of the expression of the two
factors.
F1 -progeny
BW (Blue)
When F1 -progeny fowls were self crossed,
species with
RR
(Red flower)
WW
(White flower)
F1 -progeny
RW
(Pink flower)
The F1 -progeny plants when crossed

among
themselves,
produces
offsprings (F2 -generation) represented
by the following cross.
ParentsRW RW
Gametes
RR (Red)
RW (Pink)
RW (Pink)
WW (White)
Phenotypic
ratio
1: 2 : 1
Red : Pink : White
32 AUGUST 2016
BIOLOGY SPECTRUM
Gametes
WW (White)
WR (Roan)
WR (Roan)
RR (Red)
Phenotypic ratio
1 : 2 : 1
White : Roan : Red

On cross-breeding the individuals of
F1 -generation are found to have roan
colour. The effect is produced due to
juxtaposition of small patches of red and
white colour. It is known as mosaic
inheritance. As both the alleles form small
patches side by side, they are codominant.
ParentsBW BW
Problems
Sol. If we consider a cross between plant
When Andalusian fowls of two pure

forms, i.e., black and white are crossed,
they show deviation from the law of
dominance. Give explanation and
predict phenotypic ratio as well as
genotypic ratio of F2 -progeny.
Andalusian fowls, i.e., black and white
can be shown as follows:
BB
WW
(Black)
(White)
The phenomenon of expression of both

the alleles in a heterozygote is called
codominance.
The
heterozygous
condition has a phenotype different from
either of homozygous genotypes.
Mirabilis jalapa has two types of flower

colour in pure state, red and white.
When the two types of plants were
crossed they showed deviation from the
Mendels law of dominance and in
F1-generation pink coloured flowers
were obtained instead of red flowers.
In F2 -generation again Red and white
coloured flowers were observed with pink
flowers in 1 : 2 : 1 (red : pink : white)
ratio. How would you justify the
disappearance of red flowers in
F1 -generation and its reappearance in
F2 -generation?
Parents WR WR
Sol. The cross between two pure forms of
(ii) Codominance
The proportion of F2 -progeny can be

explained as follows :
The absence of red colour flower in

F1 -generation and its reappearance in
F2 -generation can be explained on the
basis of law of incomplete dominance.
Gametes
BB (Black)
BW (Blue)
BW (Blue)
WW (White)
Phenotypic ratio
Genotypic ratio
1 : 2 : 1
1 : 2 : 1
Black : Blue : White

In F1-generation, blue coloured fowls
were obtained. Thus, an intermediate or a
fine mixture of the expression of the two
factors was observed. However, in
F2-generation black and white colours
reappeared with blue colour. It can be
explained on the basis of law of
incomplete dominance.
n
There are two types of pure short horned

cattle, red and white. On cross-breeding,
the individuals of the F1 -generation are
found to have roan colour. Explain and
also predict the phenotype of F2 -progeny
and their ratios with the help of Punnett
square.
Sol. If we consider a cross between pure

short horned cattle with red and white
hair colour, i.e.,
WW
RR
(White)
(Red)
F1 - progeny
WR (Roan)
A homozygous man of A blood group

marries with the homozygous women of
B blood group. What would be the
blood group of their progeny and why?
Explain with the help of Punnett square.
Sol. From the facts given in the problem, we

can conclude following result
Genotype of homozygous man of A
blood group I AI A
Genotype of homozygous woman of B
blood group IB IB
Parents I A I A IB IB
Gametes
IA
IA
IB
I A IB
(AB blood
group)
I A IB
(AB blood
group)
IB
I A IB
(AB blood
group)
I A IB
(AB blood
group)
Thus, they will give birth to the child of

AB blood group.

It can be explained with the help of law of
incomplete dominance. Alleles for blood
group A (I A ) and blood group B (I B) are
codominant, so that when they come
together in an individual they produce
blood group AB.
Anatomy of
Flowering Plants
Chapterwise Collection of Best Assertion-Reason
Problems for AIIMS
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-50) These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(e) Assertion is false, but Reason is True.
1. Assertion Quiescent centre is found in the centre
of root apex.
Reason It consists of actively dividing cells.
2. Assertion Intercalary meristem increases length

of the plant like apical meristems.
Reason Intercalary meristem originates from the
apical meristems.
3. Assertion Sclerenchyma cells do not have

plasmodesmata.
Reason The cell walls of some permanent tissues
are heavily lignified.
4. Assertion All tissues lying inside vascular

cambium are called as bark.
Reason Bark is made up of phellogen, phellem
and phelloderm lying inside secondary phloem.
5. Assertion In collateral vascular bundles, phloem

is situated towards innerside.
Reason In monocot stem, cambium is present.
6. Assertion Apical and intercalary meristems

contribute to the growth in length, while the
lateral meristems bring increase in girth in maize.
Reason Apical and intercalary meristems always
increase the height of plants.
7. Assertion Stomata are absent in submerged

hydrophytes.
34
Reason Respiration occurs by means of air

chambers in submerged plants.
8. Assertion Higher plants have meristematic

regions for indefinite growth.
Reason Higher plants have root and shoot apices.
9. Assertion Cambium is a lateral meristem and

causes growth in width.
Reason Cambium is made up of fusiform and ray
initials in stem.
10. Assertion Xylem and phloem are also called as

leptome and hadrome, respectively.
Reason Xylem and phloem form conducting tissue
of the plant.
11. Assertion Thick cuticle is mostly present in

disease resistant plants.
Reason Disease causing agents cannot grow on
cuticle and cannot invade the cuticle.
12. Assertion The upper surface of leaf is darker than

the lower surface.
Reason Spongy mesophyll cells contain less
chloroplasts than palisade mesophyll cells.
13. Assertion Idioblasts are derived from parenchyma.

Reason Secretory cells are modified parenchyma.
14. Assertion Tyloses plug the tracheids and vessels.

Reason Tyloses are ingrowth of xylem cells.
15. Assertion In grasses intercalary meristems are not
28. Assertion Loosely arranged areas in periderm are
present.
Reason Intercalary meristems form permanent
tissues.
called lenticels.
Reason Lenticels are characteristic of woody
stems.
16. Assertion Bulliform cells are useful in the
29. Assertion Apical meristem is responsible for
unrolling of leaf.
Reason Bulliform cells store water.
17. Assertion Sapwood is less durable than the

heartwood.
Reason Hollow tree trunks are due to the
disappearance of sapwood.
18. Assertion Growth rings are also called as annual

rings.
Reason Generally a single growth ring is formed in
a year.
19. Assertion Cuticle is also present in lower

epidermal region of leaf.
Reason The lower epidermis contains a large
number of stomata.
20. Assertion Xerophytic leaves may contain stomatal

crypts or sunken stomata.
Reason Spongy parenchyma is more in xerophytic
leaves.
21. Assertion Tunica and corpus are two portions in

the shoot apex.
Reason Tunica divides only anticlinally while
corpus divides both anticlinally as well as
periclinally.
22. Assertion Fusiform initials are elongated cells with

pointed ends.
Reason Fusiform initials are made up of ray
initials.
23. Assertion In dicot stem, the vascular bundles are

open.
Reason Cambium is present between xylem and
phloem of vascular bundle in dicot stem.
24. Assertion Cork cells are dead and buoyant.

Reason Cork cells are suberised.
25. Assertion Xylem is a complex permanent tissue.

Reason Four types of cellsvessels, tracheids,
xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres form xylem.
26. Assertion Collenchyma is a thick walled dead

tissue.
Reason Collenchyma is thickened
deposition of cellulose and pectin.
due to the
27. Assertion Group of continuously dividing cells is

called meristem.
Reason Cells of meristem are isodiametric and
thin walled.
increase in length.
Reason Vascular cambium and cork cambium
are examples of apical meristem.
30. Assertion When phloem and xylem lie together

on the same radius with phloem towards the
innerside and xylem towards the outerside, the
vascular bundle is said to be collateral.
Reason Collateral vascular bundles characteristically occur in monocot roots.
31. Assertion The extensions of peripheral layers of

the pith to the pericycle between the vascular
bundles are called pith rays or medullary rays.
Reason Pith rays or medullary rays occur in most
of the dicots and in some gymnosperms.
32. Assertion In a tetracytic stoma, mature stoma is

surrounded by four subsidiary cells.
Reason These four subsidiary cells are arranged
in a narrow ring around the stoma.
33. Assertion Sieve tubes continue to live even in the

absence of nuclei.
Reason Nucleus of companion cell associated
with sieve tube helps in this matter.
34. Assertion Xylem vesseles are much elongated

tubes.
Reason Xylem vesseles are formed by the union
of several short, wide and thickened cells called
vessel elements.
35. Assertion Secondary thickenings are absent in

protoxylem while they are present in metaxylem
and secondary xylem.
Reason Secondary wall thickenings of metaxylem
and secondary xylem are known as scalariform
and reticulate.
36. Assertion In mass meristem, cell division takes

place in all planes resulting in the formation of a
massive plant body or organ.
Reason Plate meristem occurs in leaves and
increases surface area without an increase in the
number of mesophyll layers.
37. Assertion Apical meristems of both root and

shoot are terminal in position.
Reason Root cap cells covering the root apex are
meristematic in nature.
38. Assertion Each stoma may be interpreted as an

intercellular space between two highly
specialised epidermal cells called guard cells.
35
Reason Guard cells are living and possess

chloroplasts.
39. Assertion Lateral meristems are responsible for

increase in diameter of plant.
Reason Lateral meristems are only primary
meristem.
40. Assertion The irregularly arranged collenchyma

cells are present with thickenings at angles in
Vitis.
Reason It provides mechanical support to plant.
41. Assertion
Cotton is obtained from long

unicellular, epidermal hairs present on
Gossypium seeds.
Reason These hairs are called lint.
45. Assertion All cells of endodermis bear Casparian

strips to control the movement of substances in the
root.
Reason It is a characteristic feature of dicot roots
only.
46. Assertion Only secondary xylem consists of wood

parenchyma.
Reason Wood parenchyma consists of lignified
dead cells.
47. Assertion The histogen theory is applicable only

for roots.
Reason In dicot roots, the median initial forms
periblem and innermost one forms plerome.
48. Assertion
Reason Stone cells are present in seed coats of

some fruits.
Tamarix aphylla possesses dead

sclerenchymatous fibres.
Reason Fibres are usually dead with thick lignified
secondary walls.
43. Assertion Prickles are outgrowths of epidermal
49. Assertion Exudation of water takes place through
42. Assertion Endocarp of coconut is hard in texture.
tissues.
Reason They lack vascular supply.
44. Assertion Parenchyma cells become long and

tapering at both ends in pericycle of some plants.
Reason The main function of parenchyma is
storage of food.
hydathodes.
Reason Hydathodes are enlarged stomata whose
guard cells have lost the ability to control the
opening and closing.
50. Assertion Endoxylic vascular bundles are found in
some aquatic angiospermic plants.
Reason Ectoxylic vascular bundles are found in
monocots like Yucca.
Answers with Explanation

1. (c) Quiescent centre is found in the centre of the root apex. Cell
divisions are very few in the quiescent centre as there is very
little synthesis of new proteins, RNAs and DNA. Quiescent
centre functions as reserve meristem and may supply the
active initials when the former active cells are damaged.
2. (a) Intercalary meristems are intercalated in between the

permanent tissues.The activities of these meristems also add
to the length of the plant or its organs. They originate from
apical meristems when their portions get detached due to the
growth of organs. Some cells at the base of nodes or above the
nodes retain their meristematic activity and function as
intercalary meristems.
3. (a) Sclerenchyma is a widely distributed mechanical tissue

composed of dead cells which are highly thickened and have
lignified cell walls. As a result there are no intercellular spaces
between them. Since, they are purely mechanical in function
there is no connection between cytoplasm of adjacent cells
(dead) and so they do not have plasmodesmata.
4. (d) All tissues present outside the vascular cambium

constitute the bark. Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm
constitute periderm.
5. (d) In collateral vascular bundles phloem is situated towards

outerside and xylem towards innerside and both are found on
36
same radius. In monocot stem vascular bundles are closed

which indicates absence of cambium.
6. (e) Apical and intercalary meristems always increase the height

of plants, while lateral meristem is responsible for secondary
growth (increase in girth), but secondary growth doesnt occur in
monocots. Therefore, lateral meristems cannot contribute to
increase in girth in maize, a monocot plant.
7. (b) Both the statements are correct, but the reason does not
explain the assertion statement. Stomata are absent in
submerged hydrophytes as there is no need for transpiration. Air
chambers help in gaseous exchange. The oxygen liberated
during photosynthesis is stored in these chambers and used in
respiration. CO 2 released during respiration also remain in these
chambers, which is utilised in the process of photosynthesis.
8. (a) Higher plants have root and shoot apices where cells are in
continuous state of division, i.e. meristematic regions. Due to
this meristematic activity these regions can grow indefinitely
contributing to the height of the plant. Such regions are absent in
lower plant groups and even in animals.
9. (b) Both the statements are correct, but reason does not provide
an explanation for the assertion. Cambium is a lateral meristem,
whose activity causes increase in width. It is composed of
fusiform and ray initials.
10. (e) Haberlandt used the term leptome for phloem and hadrome
20. (c) Spongy parenchyma is reduced in xerophytic leaves.
for xylem. Phloem transports the food synthesised in leaves to

the rest parts of plant while xylem transports water and minerals
or sap in upward direction to plant parts. Thus, they form the
conducting tissues of the plant.
Palisade parenchyma may occur on both upper and lower

sides with spongy parenchyma sandwiched between the two.
The lower surface bears deep depressions called crypts
(stomatal crypts). The crypts possess a number of cutinised
hair and stomata. In some xerophytic plants, stomata are
sunken below the surface.
11. (a) Disease resistant plants possess thick cuticle. Infectious

organisms cannot grow or invade cuticle and therefore are
unable to cause disease or infection in the plant.
12. (a) The palisade mesophyll lies below the upper epidermis. The
spongy parenchyma or spongy mesophyll lies between the
lower epidermis and the palisade parenchyma. The spongy
mesophyll cells have fewer chloroplasts in comparison to
palisade parenchyma cells. The presence of abundant
chloroplasts in compactly arranged palisade mesophyll cells,
imparts a deep green colour to the upper surface. Lower surface
is of light colour owing to few chloroplasts in loosely arranged
mesophyll cells.
13. (b) Both the statements are correct, but reason does not explain
21. (b) The tunica-corpus concept of shoot organisation was given

by Schmidt (1924). According to him the shoot apex is divided
into two portions-tunica and corpus. The outer single layer is
tunica which divides only anticlinally while inner mass of cells is
called corpus. It divides both periclinally as well as anticlinally.
22. (c) Fusiform initials are elongated cells which give rise to
vertical elements, e.g., vessels, tracheids, etc. These fusiform
initials arise from cambial cells. These meristematic cambial
cells also give rise to ray initials. Ray initials are horizontal in
position and give rise to radial system of secondary vascular
tissue.
the assertion. The secretory cells are specialised parenchyma

cells that produce nectar, oil, etc. Idioblasts are specialised
non-green large sized parenchyma cells, which possess
inclusions or ingredients like tannins, oils, crystals, etc.
23. (a) When cambium is present between xylem and phloem, the
14. (a) The tracheids and vessels of the heartwood get plugged by
fatty substance. This makes the cork cells impervious to water

and thus they float. So, the cork cells are dead and buoyant.
ingrowth of adjacent parenchymatous cells into their cavities

through the pits. Such, ingrowths are called tyloses. These
parenchyma cells are dead and lignified.
15. (e) Intercalary meristems are intercalated in between the

permanent tissues and unlike other meristems they ultimately
get fully used up in the formation of permanent tissues. In
grasses they are present above the nodes of the stems. They
may also be present at the base of leaf as in Pinus or at the base
of node, e.g., mint.
16. (b) The upper epidermis of isobilateral leaves contains
vascular bundles are said to be open. In dicot stem, the

vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and open.
24. (a) The cork cells or phellem have depositions of suberin, a
25. (a) Complex tissues are formed from a group of different types
of cells that perform common function. Since, xylem is
composed of four types of cells or elementstracheids,
vessels, xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres that together help
in the conduction of water, it is a complex permanent tissue.
26. (e) Collenchyma is made up of thick walled and living cells.

The cells have thickenings due to the deposition of cellulose
and pectin. Intercellular spaces are therefore absent in
collenchymatous tissues.
specialised cells, i.e., bulliform or motor cells, which are highly

vacuolate and can store water. During water scarcity, these cells
lose water and become flaccid . Due to this, the leaf gets rolled
up to reduce the exposed surface. These bulliform cells are also
useful in the unrolling of leaf during its development.
27. (b) In plants, some regions have capacity to grow and divide
17. (c) The secondary wood in old trees is differentiated into a
28. (b) Lenticels are loosely arranged areas in periderm, formed
darker and harder wood called heartwood or duramen which is

physiologically inactive and dead. The outer lighter zone is
called sapwood. The latter is physiologically active, but less
durable as it is susceptible to infections by pathogens and
insects. On the other hand, heartwood cells and cavities have
depositions of tannins, resins, gums, essential oils, etc.
Therefore, it is much stronger and durable. However it is
susceptible to wood rotting fungi which attacks on it and makes
the tree trunk hollow.
due to more activity of certain phellogen cells. As a result, the

phellem cells are cutoff very rapidly and hence are loosely
arranged with large intercellular spaces. These are
characteristic of woody stems. The lenticels help in gaseous
exchange and transpiration.
18. (a) The activity of cambium is not uniform in plants growing in

temperate regions. They become more active and form greater
number of vessels with wider cavities. The activity of cambium is
periodic and thus produces a growth layer. Since, it forms
autumn wood and spring wood in distinct concentric circles,
they are known as annual rings.
19. (b) A distinct layer of cuticle is present in lower epidermis, but it
is less developed as compared to upper epidermis. The lower
epidermis contains a large number of stomata which lead
internally to substomatal cavities.
indefinitely. This is due to the presence of group of continuously

dividing cells called meristem. These cells are isodiametric,
have thin cellulosic walls and have no intercellular spaces and
reserve food.
29. (c) Apical meristems are present at apices of root and shoot.
These cells divide in various planes and are responsible for
increase in length. Lateral meristems are present on lateral
sides of plant axis and are responsible for increase in girth or
diameter, e.g., vascular cambium and cork cambium.
30. (d) When the phloem and xylem are present on the same
radius, such vascular bundles are known as conjoint. When
phloem is present on the outer side of xylem, the vascular
bundle is called collateral. However, radial vascular bundles in
which xylem and phloem are present at different radii are
characteristic feature of roots.
31. (b) In most of the dicotyledonous plants, the peripheral layers

of the pith extend between the vascular bundles and make
37
contact with pericycle. Such extensions are known as medullary

rays or pith rays. The cells of medullary rays are smaller, densely
packed parenchyma. It is also found in some gymnosperms.
41. (b) Long unicellular hairs present on Gossypium seeds are
32. (c) In tetracytic stomata, the opening is guarded by four
42. (a) Stone cells or sclereids are isodiametric cells with extremely
subsidiary cells, e.g., tomato. Of these four guard cells, two are
parallel and two are at right angles to the long axis of guard cells.
thick wall of lignin. It is present in seed coats of some fruits like

endocarp of coconut or pulp of fruits like pear. The hardness of
seed coat is thus due to stone cells.
33. (a) Sieve tubes are formed by the fusion of sieve cells. Though
the younger sieve tubes have nucleus, it disappears in mature
ones. They are associated with the companion cells through pits
both of them being related ontogenetically. The companion
cells are living and posses distinct nucleus and cytoplasmic
contents. Hence, the nucleus of companion cell helps in the
transport of food along the sieve tubes.
34. (a) Vesseles are formed by the union of several short, wide and
thickened cells called vessel elements or members. Therefore,
they are much elongated. They take part in the conduction of
water or sap and provide mechanical support.
35. (e) The xylem that develops first and is derived from procambial
strand is called protoxylem. While the xylem that develops in
later stage and is derived from vascular cambium is called
secondary xylem and metaxylem. Metaxylem consists of bigger
tracheids and vessels possessing scalariform, reticulate or
pitted thickenings. The wall thickenings of the protoxylem are of
simple and primitive type (annular or spiral).
36. (b) On the basis of plane of cell division, three types of

meristems, i.e., rib, plate and mass meristems are recognised.
In mass meristems, cell division takes place in all planes
resulting information of massive plant body or organ. It is
involved in early development of embryo, endosperm, etc. Plate
meristem consists of parallel layers of cells which divide
anticlinally and bring about intercalary growth resulting in an
increase in the area of the organ like a plate. It occurs in leaves
and increases the surface area without an increase in number of
mesophyll cells.
37. (d) Shoot apical meristems are terminal in position as present at
elongation of epidermal cells. These hairs in cotton seeds are

referred to as lint.
43. (a) Prickles are examples of emergences, i.e., multicellular

outgrowths comprising of epidermal and subepidermal
tissues.
They are sharp, complex in structure and lack vascular supply.
They protect the plant from grazing animals, help plant in
climbing and even check excessive transpiration in some
plants.
44. (b) Parenchyma cells are thin walled with well developed
intercellular spaces. In pericycle of some plants these cells
become long and tapering at both ends, known as
prosenchyma. However, the main function of parenchyma is
storage of food. Such cells develop thick walls and provide
rigidity and strength.
45. (d) The radial and transverse walls of endodermal cells

become thick walled due to deposition of lignin and suberin,
which is called Casparian strip. It controls the movement of
substances in the roots.
But, certain endodermal cells, present opposite to protoxylem
remain thin walled and are devoid of Casparian strips. These
cells are called passage cells as they indirectly allow water and
dissolved salts to move from cortex to xylem. This anatomical
feature is a characteristic of both dicot and monocot roots.
46. (d) The parenchyma associated with xylem is called wood

parenchyma. These are thick lignified secondary cells but
living cells. They form the only living component of xylem
tissues. Both protoxylem a primary xylem and secondary xylem
consists of wood parenchyma. It helps in storage of food and
lateral conduction.
apices but root apical meristems are subterminal in position due

to the presence of root cap. The root apical meristem is partly
enclosed within a fully differentiated mature root cap. Thus, root
cap is is not meristematic.
47. (b) The histogen theory is applicable only for root meristems.
38. (b) Stomata are minute openings or apertures in the epidermis
48. (e) Fibres are usually dead and empty cells with narrow lumen
of leaves or aerial parts of plants. The opening is guarded by

highly specialised bean-shaped guard cells (dumbbell shaped
in monocots). The guard cells are living, have chloroplast and
expand or contract in response to turgidity. Thus, they open or
close the stomatal aperture.
49. (a) Exudation of water takes place through hydathodes. These
39. (c) Lateral meristems are present along the side of stem and are
called so due to their lateral position. These are responsible for
increase in diameter of plant. Since, these meristems are formed
after some growth in primary permanent tissues and give rise to
secondary permanent tissues, they are referred to as secondary
meristems, e.g., cambium.
40. (b) When the collenchyma cells are irregularly arranged and
thickenings are present at angles, it is of angular type. It is the
most common type of collenchyma found in plants, e.g, Vitis,
Ficus, Polygonum, etc., It provides mechanical support to plant
and its organs.
38
According to this theory, the dicotyledonous plants possess

three groups of initials, of which the outer forms the cap, the
median forms periblem and innermost forms plerome.
and thick lignified secondary walls at maturity. But the fibres in
Tamarix aphylla possess nucleated protoplasts, hence are living.
are internal glands that are considered to be permanently open
enlarged stomata.
It consists of an epithem, chamber and a pore that opens to
outside. The pore is lined by guard cells that have lost the
power of controlling the size of pore, hence water is
discharged through the pore.
50. (b) Endoxylic or ectophloic or amphicribal vascular bundles

consisting of phloem surrounding the xylem, which forms a
central core. It is found in ferns, leaves of dicots and some
aquatic angiosperms.
Endophloic or ectoxylic or amphivasal type of vascular bundle
comprises of xylem completely surrounding the phloem that
forms a core. It is found in some monocot plants like Yucca and
Draceana.
Usually bacteria show harmful effects and cause many diseases.

However, some bacteria are beneficial also, like colon bacilli.
They are present even normally in the absorbing colon. They are
capable of digesting small amounts of cellulose. In this way,
they provide a few calories of extra nutrition for the body.
In herbivorous animals, this source of energy is significant,
although it is of negligible importance in human beings. Other
substances formed as a result of bacterial activity are vitamin-K,
vitamin-B12 , thiamine, riboflavin and various gases. The
bacteria-formed vitamin-K is especially important because the
amount of this vitamin in the daily ingested foods is normally
insufficient to maintain adequate blood coagulation.
Do you known, where do proteins go to die?

Nothing in nature is permanent. Just as cells and organisms
eventually die, proteins stop functioning. In most cases, a cell outlives
its proteins. So, when the proteins stop functioning, the cell can
recycle many of the amino acids in the polypeptide(s) making up the
protein. Proteins stop functioning often by folding into one or more
stable, but useless shapes. An important method for recycling
misfolded or unused proteins, called protein degradation, reduces
proteins to individual amino acids for use in building new proteins.
Cells use three different mechanisms to degrade proteins, each
confined to a specific compartment of the cell. Proteosomes degrade
proteins in the cytoplasm and in the nucleus. These proteins are
tagged for destruction by the covalent attachment of many copies of
a small protein called ubiquitin. Lysosomes degrade proteins in the
endomembrane system, including those captured by endocytosis.
Metalloproteinases degrade proteins in the extracellular space,
allowing remodelling of this space in multicellular organisms.
Do you know, during World War II, urine of some patients

was used to isolate penicillin?
In 1928, Alexander Fleming discovered a substance in the
bread mold Penicillium that retarded the growth of bacteria.
However, the antibiotic was difficult to isolate. So, it did not
become available for clinical use until the late 1930s. During
World War II, penicillin made a major difference in the number of
deaths and amputations caused by infected wounds. The only
means of producing penicillin, was to isolate it from bread mold
and supplies were limited. Demand for the drug was heightened
by the fact that kidney tubules secrete penicillin. Renal secretion
is so efficient at clearing foreign molecules from the blood that
within 3-4 hrs after a dose of penicillin has been administered,
about 80% has been excreted in urine. During the war, the drug
was in such short supply that it was common procedure to collect
the urine from patients being treated with penicillin, so that the
antibiotic could be isolated and reused. However, this solution
was not satisfactory, so researches looked for a way to slow
penicillin secretion. They find a synthetic molecule probenecid,
that competes with penicillin for the organic anion transporter
Do you know, why all living cells are enclosed by at least one
membrane?
Membranes are essential to all living cells because they create the
boundary that permits cells to establish chemical equilibrium and
thereby store energy. Life is not possible without this energy.
Cytosolic structures that are surrounded by at least one distinct
membrane are called organelles. The presence of these membranes
allows the cell to create specialised compartments in the cytosol that
are devoted to perform a subset of cellular tasks under optimised
conditions. These membranes are selectively permeable. They help
to create a unique internal environment optinally suited to the
molecules contained inside.
Do you know, a virus can infect another virus also?

A new type of virus, a mimivirus (mimicking microbe virus),
that infects amoebae was discovered in 2003 and named
Acanthamoeba polyphaga Mimivirus (APMV). It is the largest
virus known and has the largest viral genome known (900 protein
coding genes). A second small virus with 21 genes is associated
with the mimivirus in the amoebae, but it infects the mimivirus, not
the Amoeba. Although APMV is the only known such virus till
date. A virus infecting a virus opens up a new window on the link
between life and non-life.
responsible for secretion. When probenecid is administered

concurrently with penicillin, the transporter removes probenecid
preferentially, prolonging the activity of penicillin in the body. Once
mass-produced synthetic penicillin became available and supply
was no longer a problem, the medical use of probenecid declined.
Do you know, some bacteria present in our absorbing

colon provide a few calories of extra nutrition to the body?
Do you know, our stomach and intestine can sense the

composition of a meal?
Our stomach and intestine have the ability to sense the composition
of a meal and secrete appropriate hormones and enzymes. Gut
chemoreception is mediated by the same receptors and signal
transduction mechanisms that occur in taste buds on the tongue.
Studies have proved the presence of T1R receptor proteins for sweet
and umami tastes as well as the G-protein, gustducin in various cells
of rodent and human intestine.
BIOLOGY SPECTRUM
AUGUST 2016
39
Animals which lack backbone or vertebral column are referred to as invertebrates. All such animals are
included in a groupInvertebrata. The invertebrates represent a heterogenous assemblage which
includes such diverse forms as sponges, corals, worms and butterflies. Here we will discuss about lower
invertebrates.
u PHYLUMPORIFERA
THE SPONGES (PORE BEARING ANIMALS)

(Gk. Poruspore; ferre to bear)
A HABITAT
All the sponges are aquatic, mostly marine, rarely

freshwater (e.g., Spongilla), solitary or colonial,
sessile. They like warm water.
B GENERAL CHARACTERISTICS
The body of sponges is provided with pores :

inhalent pores, ostia and exhalent pores, oscula.
Most of the sponges are asymmetrial. However,
some show radial symmetry.
The sponges are first multicellular diploblastic
animals. They are derived from two embryonic
germ layers, viz., ectoderm and endoderm.
The sponges have cellular level of organisation.
Its body wall consists following layers:
a Pinacoderm (Dermal Layer)
Outer cellular layer contains (i) flattened

pinacocytes and (ii) oval porocytes. Flagellum
Inner cellular layer

consists of highly
specialised,
flagellated
choanocytes
(collar cells).
Both pinacoderm
and choanoderm
lack basement
membrane.
Sycon, Euplectella (The Venus flower basket), Hyalonema

(The glass rope sponge), Euspongia (The bath sponge),
Spongilla (freshwater sponge), Cliona (The boring sponge),
Chalina (The deadmans fingers or the Mermaids gloves).
To outside
Incurrent
canals
Osculum
Ad
Come out of snail
Excretory
Cercariae (4th larva b
Many cnidarians show polymorphism like Obelia is

trimorphic. It has three kinds of zooidspolyps,
blastostyles and medusae.
Cnidarians show radial symmetry.

They are diploblastic animals, derived from two
embryonic germ layers, viz., ectoderm and endoderm.
These are the first multicellular animals which show tissue
level of organisation.
Body wall consists of outer epidermis and inner
gastrodermis. A non-cellular gelatinous layer, mesogloea
is found between epidermis and gastrodermis.
Operculum
Stylet
Spines
Life cycle of Tapewor

Develops into young
tapeworm in human gut
Reaches to human gut
Develops into
cysticerci (larvae)
Adult tapeworm
Scolex
Neck
Blade
Mature
proglottides
In muscles of pig Immature

proglottides
Gravid
proglottides
Excurrent
canals
The central cavity of sponge is called spongocoel or

paragastric cavity.
Most of the sponges possess an internal skeleton of

calcareous or siliceous spicules or fine spongin
fibres or both. Digestion is intracellular.
Hexacanths
penetrate the
gut of pig
Each onchosphere con

Young worms
Cytoplasm
Nucleus
Lasso
Nucleus
A
B
Cnidoblasts : A. Undischarged, B. Discharged
Flagellated
chamber
Apopyle
Thread
tube
Operculum
Supporting
fibrils
Cell
membrane
Spongocoel
Prosopyles
Spines
Stylet
Shaft
Refractile
rods
Thread
tube
Radial
canals
Apopyles
Shaft Cnidocil
Capsule
Cnidocil
To outside
Leucon Type Canal System

Dermal
ostia
Metacercariae (5th larvae)
All are aquatic and are mostly marine, except a few like
Hydra , are freshwater.
Choanocyte
Sycon Type Canal System

Dermal
Prosopyles
Ingressing
Incurrent
ostia
water
canals
Ingressing
water
Or
Go
Aceta
In blood of pig
Ascon Type Canal System

Through
Through
Ingressing
Spongocoel
ostia
osculum
water
To outside
Oral cone
Gonopore
Acetabulum
Weeds with metacercariae

are eaten by sheep or goat
Get attached to water weeds
A HABITAT
A non-cellular layer found in between pinacoderm

and choanoderm.
Three types of canal systems are found in sponges :
(i) Asconoid canal system (simplest type, e.g.,
Leucosolenia), (ii) Syconoid canal system (relatively
more complex system, e.g., Sycon), (iii) Leuconoid
canal system (most complex system, e.g., Spongilla).
Osculum
Oral or ante
Mouth
Gk. Knidenettle or sting cells
Connections
c Mesenchyme (Mesohyl Layer)
Life Cycle of Liver fluke

Young fluke
Ora
COELENTERATA
Basal granule
Rhizoplast
Blepharoplast
Nucleus
Cytoplasm
Protoplasmic
processes
INVERTEBR
v PHYLUMCNIDARIA OR
Collar
your Revi
EXAMPLES
b Choanoderm (Gastral Layer)
During respiration, exchange of gases occurs by

diffusion through the plasma membrane of the cells.
Both asexual and sexual reproduction (by budding and
gemmules) occur. Sponges are hermaphrodite and
fertilisation is internal.
Zygote undergoes holoblastic cleavage. The development
includes a free swimming larva, the amphiblastula (in
Sycon) or parenchymula (in Leucosolenia).
CONCEP
Life cycle of
Intestine (4th mould)

Stomach
Oesophagus
Cnidoblasts (stinging cells) present in epidermis are their

characteristic feature. A cnidoblast has a nematocyst
(stinging organ) which consists of capsule, shaft and
thread tube.
They have an incomplete digestive tract. They possess a
central gastrovascular cavity (coelenteron) with a mouth,
which also acts as anus.
Digestion is of both, intracellular and extracellular type.
Respiration and excretion are carried out through body
surface by diffusion. Ammonia is chief excretory waste.
They have a primitive nervous system. Statocyst is a sense
organ for balance.
Reproduction is both by asexual and sexual methods. The
power of regeneration is also developed.
Bronchioles (4th stage

juvenile)
The cleavage is holoblastic. Direct or indirect

development (Obeliaplanula larva and Aurelia
planula, scyphistoma and ephyra larvae) occurs.
Obelia shows metagenesis (polyps reproduce medusae
asexually and medusae form the polyps sexually).
Lung capillaries
Pharynx
Trachea
Bronchi
4th stage juvenile in lung

alveoli
Mouth
Mouth
Amphid
Lateral
Excretory papilla
pore
Female
genital
Lateral
aperture
line
cloacal
aperture
Lip
(3rd mould)
3rd stage juvenile in
lung alveoli
(2nd mould)
Lung alveoli
Pineal setae
(spicules)
Male
Female
Pha
Ascaris
Pulmonary artery
Heart
PT MAP
ision Tool
RATE WORLD
(Fasciola hepatica)
EXAMPLES
Hydra, Obelia (the sea fur), Physalia (The Portugeseman of war), Velella (the soil by the wind), Aurelia (the
jelly fish), Adamsia (the sea anemone), Astraea (the star
coral), Meandrina sinuosa (the brain coral), Pennatula
(the sea pen or sea feather), Gorgonia (the sea fan).
w PHYLUMCTENOPHORA
A HABITAT
m or posterior sucker
al sucker
Mouth
Miracidium (1st larva)
ral cone
onopore
abulum
Snail
dult fluck
Sporocyst (2nd larva)
pore
rm (Taenia solium)
Zygotes in mature
proglottides
Handle
guard
Capsule containing zygotes

in gravid proglottides
Hook
Rostellum
Redial (3rd larva by

pedogenesis)
by pedogenesis)
Hooks in
two rows
Onchospheres (larvae)
Suckers (4)
Outside the body

through faeces
Scolex
Faeces with onchospheres

is eaten by pig
Proglottides
budding off
ntains a hexacanth
Out with host faeces
tio
za
tili
Sperms
Ova
Fertilised eggs
r
Fe
Ascaris
1st stage juvenile in eggalso

called Rhabditiform larva
(1st mould)
Dorsal lip
2nd stage juvenilealso called
embryonated egg
Double papilla
(infective juvenile in egg)
Denticulate
margin of lips
Embryonated egg swallowed
Double papilla
by man with food
Ventro lateral lip
ps
Tail
asmids
2nd stage juvenile free in

human intestine
Gland of
phasmid
Duct of
phasmid
They show power of regeneration.

Bioluminescence is their characteristic feature.
They show biradial (radial + bilateral) symmetry.
They are diploblastic with ectoderm and endoderm.
They show tissue level of organisation.
Body wall consists of outer epidermis, inner
gastrodermis and middle mesogloea. Special
adhevise cells, colloblasts (lasso cells), present in
epidermis of tentacles, help in food capture.
The cilia present on the comb-like eight ciliary plates,
called comb plates, help in swimming.
Digestive tract is complete with mouth, pharynx or
stomodaeum, stomach, (infundibulum), anal canals
and two anal pores. Digestion is both extracellular
and intracellular.
Anal pore
The arboral end bears a
Lateral pit
sense
organ,
called
Ciliated
statocyst for equilibrium.
comb
plates
They are monoecious
Mouth
(bisexual). Fertilisations is
usually external. Asexual
reproduction is lacking.
Tentacles
Paedogenesis is common.
Egg is lecithal. Development
is indirect with a ciliated
Pleurobrachia
spherical cydippid larva.
EXAMPLES
Neck
2nd stage juvenile bores through

intestinal wall into blood capillaries
Hormiphora (the sea walnut), Pleurobrachia

(the sea gooseberry), Cestum (The Venus girdle).
THE FLATWORMS
(GK. Platysbroad or flat; helminworm)
Planaria, Fasciola (the lever fluke), Schistostoma (blood

fluke), Taenia solium (the pork tapeworm), Taenia
saginata (beef tapeworm), Echinococcus granulosus
(the dog tapeworm).
y PHYLUMASCHELMINTHES
OR NEMATHELMINTHES
THE ROUNDWORM
(GK. Nemathread, helminworm)
A HABITAT
Many roundworms live as parasites in plants and
animals. Some are free-living and occur in freshwater,
sea water and soil.
A HABITAT
The body is dorsoventrally flattened and is without

true segments.
They show bilateral symmetry.
The flatworms have organ level of organisation.
The body covering is soft, may or may not be ciliated.
Rod-shaped bodies, the rhabdites, present in epidermal cells, are protective and used in food capture.
Flatworms are acoelomates. The space between the
body wall and organs is filled with a peculiar
connective tissue, parenchyma.
The digestive tract, if present, is incomplete. In
tapeworms, digestive tract is absent.
Skeletal, respiratory and circulatory systems are absent.
The hydroskeleton maintains, the body shape. Gaseous
exchange occurs by diffusion through body surface.
Excretory system consists of peculiar flame cells

(solenocytes/protonephridia) for excretion and
osmoregulation. Ammonia is chief excretory waste.
The nervous system is ladder-like. It consists of the
brain and two longitudinal nerve cords connected at
intervals by transverse commisure.
They are hermaphrodite and fertilisation is cross
and internal. Tapeworms show self-fertilisation.
Development is indirect with one or more larval
stages, (liverflukemiracidium, sporocyst, redia,
cercaria and metacercaria larvae and tapewormonchosphere, hexacanth and cysticercus larvae).
Regeneration is well marked in some flatworms like
Planaria.
EXAMPLES
The flatworms are mostly parasite but some are free

living (terrestrial, freshwater or marine).
Liver
Posterior vena-cava
x PHYLUMPLATYHELMINTHES
Hepatic portal vein
Hepatic vein
All ctenophores are exclusively marine.
Capsules containing zygotes
THE COMB JELLIES OR SEA WALNUTS

(Gk. Ktenecomb, phorsto bearing)
erior sucker
They are called roundworms because they appear

circular in cross-reactions . They are unsegmented.
Body wall consists of cuticle, syncytial epidermis
and muscle layer.
They are pseudocoelomates. Mesoderm is found
scattared as pouches in between the ectoderm and
endoderm.
Digestive tract is complete with muscular pharynx.
Skeletal, respiratory and circulatory systems are
absent. Pseudocoelomic fluid maintains body
shape and forms hydroskeleton.
The excretory system consists of gland cells or of
canals or of both. In Ascaris H-shaped system of
canals and complicated giant cells, called renette
cells are present. Ammonia is main excretory
matter (Ascaris excretes urea).
Nervous system consists of a circumpharyngeal ring.
Sense Organs (i) papillae (raised structures) on
lips, side of anterior end of both male and female as
well as in front and behind the cloacal apperture,
tactile (ii) amphids (pits) on the lips and are
chemoreceptors (iii) phasmids unicellular glands
on lateral sides of posterior end are glandulosensory.
They usually show sexual dimorphism. Often
females are longer than males. Fertilisation is
internal. Asexual reproduction is absent.
Development may be direct or indirect.
Ancyclostoma (filariform larva), Wuchereria
(microfilaria larva), Ascaris and Enterobius
(rhabditiform larva).
EXAMPLES
Ascaris lumbricoides (the giant intestinal roundworm,

causes ascariasis disease), Ancylostoma duodenale (the
hook worm, causes ancylostomiasis disease), Wuchereria
bancrofti (the filarial worm, causes filariasis, viviparous,
digentic life cycle in man and Culex mosquito), Enterobius
vermicularis (the pin worm), Trichinella medinensis (the
Trichina worm, causes trichinellosis disease), Loa-loa
(the eye worm, causes laiosis disease).
REPRODUCTIVE
STRUCTURES
OF MAMMALS :
MATCHLESS MODELS
Reproduction is one of the fundamental characteristics of living organisms. It involves the transmission of genetic material from
one generation to the next, ensuring that the species survives over long periods of time. Thus, it is necessary for the
continuity of life. Maintenance of the self and perpetuation of the species are the two cardinal concerns of organisms.
However, since the self is mortal, perpetuation of the species qualifies as the very essence (sin qua non)of life. It
occurs through reproduction. It is a biological process in which an organism produces young ones of the same species.
Purpose of Reproduction
Purpose of reproduction are as follows:
Continuity of species
Variations
Population organisation
Life
Mammals show sexual dimorphism. It is the phenomenon in

which male and female individuals are differentiated externally.
Insemination
Transfer of sperms
by male into the
genital tract
of the female
Fertilisation
Fusion of male
and female
gametes to
form zygote
Types of Reproduction
Asexual Reproduction
(Offspring is produced by
a single parent with or
without the involvement
of gamete formation)
l
Sexual Reproduction
(It occurs through the
formation and fusion of
male and female gametes)
Asexual reproduction occurs in lower

organisms. Mammals usually show sexual
reproduction.
42 AUGUST 2016
BIOLOGY SPECTRUM
Gametogenesis
Formation of
gametes
Parturition
Expelling of baby
from the
mothers womb
Major
Reproductive
Events
Organogenesis
Formation of specific
tissues, organs and
organ-systems from
three primary germ
layers
Cleavage
Rapid mitotic division
of zygote to form a
multicellular blastocyst
Implantation
Attachment of blastocyst
to the uterine wall
Placentation
Formation of placenta
Gastrulation
The process by
which blastocyst is
changed into
gastrula with three
primary germ layers
METICULOUS ANALYSIS
Pubic symphysis
Mammals are the most highly evolved and the most important
group in the animal kingdom. They belong to
classMammalia (L., mammabreast). It includes all the
forms in which the female possesses mammary glands for the
production of milk with which they nourish their young. They
are worm blooded and possess a hairy covering on their body.
Sexual precocity is generally defined by the appearance of secondary sexual

characteristics in females before eight years of age and in males before nine
years of age. Precocious puberty might occur as a result of premature
activation of the hypothalamic- pituitary-gonadal axis or more rarely because
of inappropriate androgen or oestrogen exposure. Most cases of central
precocious puberty are reported in females, the majority of which have no
identifiable cause (termed idiopathic central precocious puberty). Few cases
are due to a variety of cerebral lesions. The major clinical concerns related to
premature puberty are the psycho-social environment of early maturation in
relation to peers. It is also responsible for reduced final height due to earlier
fusion of the epiphyses.
Bulbourethral gland
Urethra
Prostate gland
Urinary bladder
Glans penis
Rectum
Inguinal gland
Ureter
Anus
Vas deferens
Rectal gland
Here we will discuss about reproductive structures of

placental mammals (man and rabbit) in detail, followed by
the differences among egg-laying mammals, pouched
mammals and placental mammals.
Precocious and Early Onset Puberty
Penis
Corpus
cavernosa
Gubernaculum
Cauda epididymis
Testis
B
Corpus
epididymis
Uterus masculinus
Caput epididymis
Urinogenital System of Rabbit A. Ventral dissection, B. Side view
Scrotum
A pouch of deeply pigmented skin divided into two
separate sacs. Each sac contains one testis.
Temperature of testes in the scrotum is 2-2.5C lower
than the internal body temperature which is ideal for
developing sperms.
n
In mammals with relatively a lower body temperature (e.g.

Insectivora, Tubulidentata, Chiroptera, most Rodentia), formation of
scrotal sacs and descent of testes are seasonal activities and occur
during breeding season.
Mammals with still lower body temperature (e.g., Monotremata,
Proboscidea, Hyracoidea, Sirenia and Cetacea), testes do not need
cooling, hence always remain in abdominal cavity.
Testes
Male Reproductive System
These are primary sex organs. During foetal life the

testes develop in the abdominal cavity then they
descend into the scrotum. It performs two functions
production of sperms and secretion of male sex hormones.
It consits of following parts:
Histology of Mammalian Testis

Tunica albuginea
Tunica vaginalis
Tunica vasculosa
Dorsal blood
vessels
Corpora cavernosa
Central artery
Corpus
spongiosum
Urethra
Reproductive anatomy of the human male
Tunicae (Protective coverings)

Testis is surrounded by three layers
Head of epididymis
Vasa efferentia
Capillary
Rete testis
Sertoli cell
Seminiferous tubule
Leydig
celll
Epididymis
Vas deferens
Spermatogonium
Scrotal cavity
Left kidney
Right kidney
Lumen of
seminiferous
tubule
Each testis has about

250 testicular lobules
(a)
Spermatids
Ureter
Spermatic cord
Vas deferens
Urinary bladder
Uterus masculinus
Prostate glands
Urethra
Bulbourethral or
Cowpers glands
Caput epididymis
Corpus epididymis
Testis
Inguinal or
perineal gland
Scrotal sac
Cauda epididymis
Penis
Glans penis
Perineal pouch
Prepuce
A
Gubernaculum
Secondary spermatocyte
Primary spermatocyte
Spermatogonium
Tight junction between
Sertoli cells
Fibroblast
(b)
Spermatozoa
Basal lamina
Capillary
Leydig cells
(c)
Interstitial cells or Leydigs cells

present in between the seminiferous tubules, secrete androgens.
Sertoli cells or sustentacular cells
Support developing germ cells and provide them nutrition,
secrete Androgen Binding Protein (ABP) and inhibin
(which suppresses FSH synthesis)
Anatomy of Human Testis (a) LS of a portion of testis
(b) A part of transverse section (c) A part of seminiferous
tubule showing Sertoli cell and stages of spermatogenesis
BIOLOGY SPECTRUM
AUGUST 2016
43
METICULOUS ANALYSIS
In rabbit, rat and other rodents, testes descend into the scrotum during
breeding season.
Epididymis
It is a mass of long narrow closely coiled tubule which lies
along the innerside of each testis. It stores sperms and
secrete a fluid to nourish them. It consists of three parts
Caput epididymis Anterior end in which the vasa
efferentia open.
Corpus epididymis Middle part of epididymis.
Cauda epididymis Posterior end of epididymis.
Prostate Gland
It produces a milky, slightly alkaline secretion which
forms 25% of the volume of semen. This secretion contains
citric acid (a sperm nutrient) and enzymes (acid
phosphates, amylase, pepsinogen).
Perineal Gland
It is a pair of dark elongated scent glands lying behind

Cowpers glands. Their odorus secretion gives the rabbit
its characteristic smell.
Rectal Gland
Vasa Deferentia
It emerges from cauda epididymis on each side. The vas
deferens loops over urinary bladder. Here, it is joined by
duct from seminal vesicle to form ejaculatory duct. It
carries sperms.
Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vasa
differentia are called male sex accessory ducts. These
ducts store and transport the sperms to the outside
through urethra.
A pair of rectal glands of unknown function are situated

dorsally on the rectum.
Hormonal Control of Male

Reproductive System
l
Ejaculatory Ducts
There are two short tubes, formed by the union of the duct
from a seminal vesicle and a vas deferens. They carry
sperms and secretions of seminal vesicles.
Urethra
It is the common passage for both urine and semen. It is
called as urinogenital duct.
The growth, maintenance and functions of male

reproductive organs are under the hormonal control.
GnRH, secreted by the hypothalamus, stimulates the
anterior lobe of pituitary gland to secrete LH and FSH.
LH (ICSH) stimulates interstitial cells (Leydigs cells)
to secrete androgens.
FSH stimulates Sertoli cells to secrete an Androgen
Binding Protein (ABP). They also secrete inhibin
which suppresses FSH synthesis.
Stimulates anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to secrete LH and FSH.
It stimulates Sertoli cells of testes to secrete androgen-binding
protein (ABP). It concentrates testosterone in the seminiferous tubules.
Penis
It is the copulatory organ. It contains three cylindrical
masses of erectile tissue-two dorsal, corpora cavernosa
and one ventral, corpus spongiosum. It remains enclosed
in a sheath of skin which hangs loosely as a fold over its
cap-like tip or glans penis as prepuce. It transmits sperms
into the vagina of the female during sexual intercourse.
Hypothalamus
GnRH
Anterior
pituitary
FSH
Male Reproductive Glands

Seminal Vesicles
Fructose, produced by the seminal vesicle, is not present anywhere else in

body, provides a forensic test for rape. The presence of fructose in female
genital tract confirms sexual intercourse.
Bulbourethral Glands or Cowpers Glands

They contribute mucus for lubrication and buffers to
neutralise the usually acidic environment of the vagina.
Thus, the secretion of these glands protect spermatozoa.
44
AUGUST 2016
Inhibin
Testes
They contribute prostaglandins that influence sperm

motality and transport in both male and female
reproductive tract. Its secretion contains fructose, clotting
proteins.
BIOLOGY SPECTRUM
It is called Interstitial Cell

Stimulating Hormone (ICSH).
It stimulates Leydigs cells
to secrete androgens
Sertoli
cell
LH
Spermatogonium
Leydig
cells
Spermatocyte
Second
messenger
Sertoli
cell
Cell
products
Androgen-binding
protein (ABP)
ABP T
Sertoli cells secrete inhibin (protein hormone)

which suppresses FSH synthesis. FSH acts directly
on spermatogonia to stimulate sperm production.
Hormonal control of male reproductive system
Testosterone (T)
To body
for secondary
effects
Female Reproductive System
Ovaries
The female reproductive system consists of the

ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, vagina and the external
genitalia.
Ovaries are primary sex organs. The ovarian ligament

attaches the ovary to the uterus. The broad ligament of uterus
attaches to the ovary by a double layered fold of peritoneum
called the mesovarium.
Fallopian tube
Uterine Uterine Uterine part
Broad
Infundibulum
Isthmus
ligament Ovarian fundus cavity
Ampulla
ligament
Fine Structure of Ovary

Surface epithelium
Theca
Basal lamina
Uterine
body
Fimbriae
Perimetrium
Myometrium
Endometrium
Ovary
Wall of
uterus
Granulosa cells (nourish the developing

oocyte and secrete oestrogens)
Antral fluid (contains hormones and
enzymes needed for ovulation)
Cervix of uterus
Internal OS
Cervical canal
External OS
Mature follicle or
Graafian follicle
Secondary
follicle
changes into
Graafian follicle
It contains an
oocyte
Vagina
Vaginal opening
Hymen
Female reproductive system of human
Mesovarium
Kidney
Ruptured follicle Storma

Graafian follicle
ruptures to release
egg, i.e., ovulation
Fimbriated
funnel
Ureter
Vagina
Urinary
bladder
Fine structure of ovary of human (female)
Rectal
gland
Vulva
Perineal
Reproductive
system
of
gland
female (Ventral
rabbit
Vein
Primary follicles Oogonia or egg mother cells undergo mitosis to

form primary oocyte. Each primary oocyte gets surrounded by a
layer of granulosa cells called primary follicle.
Urethra
Urinogenital
sinus
Regressing Artery
corpus luteum
Corpus luteum After ovulation collapsed follicle fills with a partially

clotted fluid. The follicular cells enlarge and fill with a yellow pigment
lutein. They secrete relaxin, estradiol and progesterone.
Uterus
Bartholins
gland
Secondary follicle Primary follicles

surrounded by more layers of
granulosa cells are called
secondary follicle
Ovulated
oocyte
Ovary
Fallopian
tube
Oocyte
view)
Cryptorchidism
The failure of one or both testes to descend is known
as cryptorchidism [Cryptohidden; orchistesticle]. It
occurs in 1-3% of newborn males. About 80% of
crytorchid testes spontaneously descend later. Those
that remain in the abdomen through puberty become
sterile and are unable to produce sperm. Although
cryptorchid testes lose their sperm producing potential,
they can produce androgens. It indicates that hormone
production is not as temperature sensitive as sperm
production. Undescended testes are prone to become
cancerous. It is recommended that they should be
moved to the scrotum with testosterone treatment or
surgically.
Oviduct
In humans it consists of four partsinfundibulum, ampulla,
isthmus and uterine part. Oviducts convey the ovum from the
ovary to the uterus. It is done by peristalsis.
In rabbit, ovary opens into Fallopian or oviducal funnel. Funnel leads into a short,
narrow, coiled and internally ciliated duct called Fallopian tube. It opens into uterus.
Uterus
It is a hollow, muscular and inverted pear-shaped structure.
Its lower part is known as cervix. The walls of the uterus are
composed of three layers of tissuesperimetrium, myometrium
and endometrium. Endometrium undergoes cyclical changes
during menstrual cycle. In rabbit, two utri are found.
Fertilised ova or zygotes get implanted on the uterine wall to
develop into embryos. Each attached to the placenta by an
umbilical cord.
Uterine Types of Eutherian Mammals

Basically four uterine types occur on the basis of the
relationship of the uterine horns. These are as follows:
1. Duplex uterus It is characterised by two uteri, each with
a cervix opening into the vagina, e.g., rodents,
lagomorphs.
45
2. Bipartite uterus The horns of uterus are

separate but they enter the vagina by a single
cervix. e.g., whales, most carnivores.
3. Bicornuate uterus The uterine horns are
Y-shaped, being separated medially but fused
distally, where they form a common chamber,
the body. It opens into the vagina through a
single cervix. e.g., elephants, most bats.
4. Simplex uterus They lack all separation
between the uterine horns. The single uterus
opens into the vagina through one cervix. e.g.,
higher primates.
Oviduct
Ovary
Uterus
Uterus horn
Uterus body
Cervix
Vagina
Urethra
Urogenital sinus
Duplex uterus
Bipartite uterus
Oviduct
Ovary
Uterus
Uterus horn
Uterus body
Cervix
Vagina
Urethra
Urogenital sinus
Bicornuate uterus
Simplex uterus
Types of uterus
Vagina
It is a tube-like structure which extends from the
cervix to the outside of the body. It serves as the
receptacle for sperm during intercourse and forms
part of the birth canal during labour.
In rabbit the uteri of both sides meet into a long wide, median duct,
the vagina. It opens posteriorly into the neck of bladder to join the
urethra forming a short narrow common urinogenital canal or
vulva.
External Genitalia (Vulva)

It consists of mons pubis, clitoris, labia majora,
labia minora and perineum. Clitoris is
homologous to glans penis of the male.
Accessory Sex Glands

Two glandsparaurethral gland (homologous to
the male prostate and secrete mucus) and
Bartholins glands (homologous to Cowpers
glands of male and secrete viscid fluid that
supplements lubrication during sexual intercourse).
In female rabbit Bartholins glands are either reduced in size or
absent. The perineal and rectal glands are also found as in the
male.
46
Cyclical Changes during Reproductive Phase

In females of placental mammals, there are cyclical changes in
ovaries, accessory reproductive ducts and hormones during the
reproductive phase.
Cyclical Changes
Menstrual cycle
(It occurs in primates,
e.g., monkeys,
apes and humans)
Oestrous cycle
(It occurs in non-primate
mammals, e.g. cows, sheep,
rats, due, dogs, tiger, etc.)
Menstrual Cycle
1. It occurs in primates (monkeys, apes and human beings)
only.
2. This cycle consists of menstrual
phase, proliferative phase and
the secretory phase.
3. Blood flows in the last few days
of this cycle.
4. The broken endometrium is
passed out during menstruation.
5. Sex urge is not increased during
menstruation.
6. Female does not permit copulation during menstrual phase
of the cycle.
Oestrous Cycle
1. It occurs in non-primates such as cows, dogs,
etc.
2. It consists of a short period of oestrous or heat
(e.g. 12-24 hours in cow) followed by
anoestrous or passive period.
3. Blood does not flow in this cycle.
4. The broken endometrium is reabsorbed.
5. Sex urge is increased during oestrous period.
6. Female permits copulation only during oestrous period.
Phases of Menstrual Cycle

The menstrual cycle consists of following four phases:
1. Menstrual Phase (Bleeding phase or Menses) In a 28 day
menstrual cycle, it takes place on cycle days 3-5. During this
phase, the production of LH is considerable reduced causing
degeneration of the corpus luteum. Therefore, progesterone
and oestrogens production also decreases. The endometrium
of the uterus breaks down and menstruation beings.
2. Follicular Phase (Proliferation phase) This phase usually
includes cycle days 6-13 or 14 in a 28 day cycle. The FSH
stimulates the ovarian follicles to secrete oestrogens which in
turn stimulate the proliferation of the uterine wall. The
endometrium becomes thicker. This is accompanied by an
increase of uterine glands and blood vessels.
CHROMATIC PROBES
Molecular Basis
of Inheritance
Figure Based Learning Boosters
1. Carefully observe the structure of given compounds
and consider the statements following it
O
NH2
CH3
C
HN 3
NH2
C
N1 6 5C
5C
C 2 1 6 CH
N
H
A
HC
3 4C
CH
O
A, B and C.
B
C 2 1 6 CH
N
H
C
Statements
I. A and C are purines containing single carbon
ring.
II. B is a pyrimidine containing two
carbon-nitrogen rings.
III. B is present only in RNA.
IV. A and B bases are joined through two hydrogen
bonds in the structure of DNA/RNA to provide
stability.
Choose the incorrect pair of statements.
(a) I, III and IV (b) II and IV
3. From the given diagram, identify the structures
N 3 4 5 CH
N
H
(a) A0.34 , B20 , C3.4 (b) A3.4 , B20 , C 34

(c) A34 , B20 , C3.4 (d) A34 , B20 , C0.34
(c) I, II and III
(d) All of these
Core of histone molecules
(a) ADNA, BH1, histone, CHistone octamer

(b) ARNA, BH1, histone, CHistone octamer
(c) ADNA, BH1, histone CHistone tetramer
(d) ARNA, BH1, histone, CHistone tetramer
4. In the given diagram of chemical structure of DNA,

identify the type of bonding shown by A, B and C.
H O
H
2. Consider the given diagram showing Watson and

Crick model of DNA structure. Identify the correct
values for A, B and C.
B
Guanine
HO
3 3
Cytosine
Thymine
F
Adenine
T
C
H2C
G
T
A
O
H2C
C
T
54 AUGUST 2016
1N
O
Cytosine
O
CH2
5
H
Deoxyribose
C
H
N1
HOP== O
8
Guanine
CH2
HO
Deoxyribose
O== POH
H
A
Hydrogen bonds
5'
N
Adenine
A
G
N1
NH
O== POH
N
O
Thymine
H 3C
HOP== O
3'
BIOLOGY SPECTRUM
(a) AN-glycosidic bonding, BPhosphodiester bonding,

CHydrogen bonding
(b) AN-glycosidic bonding, BPhosphodiester bonding,
CCovalent bonding
(c) AN-glycosidic bonding, BPhosphodiester bonding,

CCoordinate bonding
(d) AN-glycosidic bonding, BHydrogen bonding,
CPhosphodiester bonding
8. Consider the given diagrammatic representation of

transcription unit and identify the following
enlisted sites.
Transcription start site
5. Consider the given diagram depicting the
replication of strands of DNA. Identify the strands

A, B and C.
5 3
5
B
3 5
B. Structural gene
D. Template strand
A
(a) 5
(c) 5
B
1
4
C
4
1
D
2
2
E
3
3
A B
(b) 5 1
(d) 5 4
A
F
B
Transcription of
lac mRNA
C
A U G
U A E
Translation
enzymes
A
7. Consider
the
given
diagrammatic representation of a single nucleotide.
Suppose two nucleotides
are joined together, than
the diagram would look like.
10. Consider the given diagram of protein synthesising

machinery and identify the suitable correct options
for A, B, C and D.
Phosphate
Sugar
Gly Leu Tyr

Ser
Growing
Leu
polypeptide chain
Base
Asn
Gly
tRNA
tRNA
Ser
(b)
O
Choose the appropriate structure from given

options.
(a)
D
E mRNA
3
(a) AVariable arm, BD-loop, CT-loop, DAnticodon arm,

ECodon on mRNA, FVariable arm
(b) AAmino acid arm BT-loop, CVariable arm, DAnticodon
Arm, ECodon on mRNA, FD-loop
(c) AAmino acid arm, BT-loop, CAnticodon loop,
DAnticodon, ECodon on mRNA, FD-loop
(d) AAmino acid arm, BT-loop, CAnticodon loop,
DAnticodon, ECodon on mRNA, FVariable arm
(a) AGalactosidase, BPermease, CTransacetylase,

DRepressor protein, EInducer (lactose)
(b) AGalactosidase, BPermease, CTransacetylase,
DInducer (lactose), ERepressor protein
(c) AGalactosidase, BTransacetylase, CPermease
D-Repressor protein, EInducer (lactose)
(d) APermease, BTransacetylase, CGalactosidase,
DRepressor protein, EInducer (lactose)
E
2
2
Tyr
mRNA
D
3
3
marked as AF.
identify its components and enzymes AE.

o
C
4
1
9. From the given figure of tRNA, identify the labels
6. Consider the given diagram of lac operan and

p
Choose the correct option from codes given below.
(a) AContinuous strand, BDiscontinuous strand,

CTemplates strand
(b) ALeading strand, BLagging strand, CParental strand
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
A. Promoter site
C. Terminator site
E. Coding strand
Ala
Vla
tRNA
tRNA
CGU
CAA
C U C U U G G G U C C G C A G U U A A U U U C U A U C
(c)
mRNA
Ribosome
(d)
O
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
AUncharged t RNA, BCharged t RNA C5-end D3-end

ACharged t RNA, BUncharged t RNA C3-end, D5 -end
ACharged t RNA, BUncharged t RNA C5-end, D3-end
ACharged t RNA, BUncharged t RNA C5 -end C 3-end
55
11. Observe the given unit of lac operon and identify its
components.
A
Repressor
RNA
polymerase operator
complex
mRNA
central dogma of molecular biology.

Identify the labellings marked in the
diagram and choose the correct
alternative.
C
z
14. The given diagram represents the
Repressor
(a) ARegulatory gene, BPromoter, COperator, DStructural

gene
(b) ARegulatory gene, BPromoter, CStructural gene,
DOperator
(c) ARegulatory gene, BStructural gene, CPromoter,
DOperator
(d) ARegulatory gene, BStructural gene, COperator gene,
DPromoter gene
20
12. Carefully
observe the
given diagram of double
helical structure of DNA.
(a) AProtein, BRNA, CDNA, DTranslation,

ETranscription
(b) ARNA, BDNA, CProtein,
DTranscription, ETranslation
(c) ATranscription, BTranslation,
CTranslation, DDNA, ERNA
(d) ADNA, BmRNA, CProtein,
DTranscription, ETranslation
DNA
DNA
polymerase I
polymerase III
(removing RNA primer
and filling gap)
I. A is responsible for synthesis of DNA strands.

II. B are topoisomerases that help stabilise the
single stranded DNA.
III. D are helicases that reduce the tension caused
by unwinding of strand.
IV. E are ligases that join and seal DNA fragments.
Choose the option with correct statements.
(a) I and IV
(b) II and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) Only IV
16. Carefully observe the given diagram of tRNA and

consider the statements following it.
3
A-DNA
B-DNA
40 min
C-DNA
D-DNA
14
Base
pairs
A
C
C
A
B
Variable arm
Generation II
15N-DNA
20 min
RNA primer
3
5
Stahls experiment wherein they grew E. coli in N

medium initially and then transferred it to growth
medium containing normal nitrogen 14 N. After
40 minutes, what combinations of isotopic DNA will
be obtained in generation-II offsprings.
Generation I
15N-DNA
14N-DNA
5
3
Okazaki
fragment
15
56
13. Given below is a representation of Meselson and
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
the action of various enzymes involved. Read the

statements describing the function of these
enzymes or proteins involved and identify them
correct option.
(b) Only III

(d) None of these
15
15. Consider the given replication machinery showing
Choose the correct pair of statements.
14
3
5
Now read the statements

describing the above
diagram.
I. The above structure 3.4
shows that DNA
comprises of a sugar
34
phosphate backbone
10
on the inside and
paired bases on the
outside.
II. The planes of sugars Minor
Major groove
groove
are right angle to the
bases.
III. The DNA is a double
helical structure running antiparallel.
IV. The helix is not regular and forms major and
minor grooves.
(a) II and III
(c) III and IV
15
A N-DNA, B N-DNA, C N-DNA, D N-DNA

A14 N-DNA, B15 N-DNA, C14 N-DNA, D14 N-DNA
I. A is the point of attachment of amino acid.

II. C recognises and binds to codons in mRNA.
III. B contains a sequence of TC .
IV. D is binding site for aminoacyl synthetase.
Choose the incorrect pair not identifying the
appropriate function for each of the labels AD.
(a) I and II
(c) Only III
(b) III and IV

(d) None of these
17. Identify the nitrogenous base found in nucleotides,
(a) I and III

(c) I and IV
from the structures given below

O
C
HN
CH
CH
HC
NH
C
NH
C
C
N
NH
mRNA
CH
C
O
Initiation site
C
CH
N
CH
C
NH2
process of transcription and carefully read the

statements describing it.
CH
C
C
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
NH
HN
CCH3
HN
(b) II and III

(d) I, III and IV
19. Consider the given diagrammatic representation of
N
CH
H2N
NH2
Which of the following statements are incorrect?
NH
E
AUracil, BAdenine, CThymine, DGuanine, ECytosine

AUracil, BGuanine, CCytosine, DAdenine, EThymine
AThymine, BAdenine, CCytosine, DGuanine, EUracil
AUracil, BGuanine, CUracil, DAdenine, ECytosine
18. Given below is diagrammatic representation of

Hershey and Chase experiment, in which he
cultured bacteriophages in two different mediums
as shown below
Bacteriophage
Radioactive ( 35S)
labelled
Protein capsule
Radioactive ( 32P)
labelled DNA
I. A is formed by joining of core enzyme and

sigma factor.
II. Sigma factor remain associated with RNA
polymerase throughout the process of
transcription of DNA.
III. A can start transcription by attaching itself to
any site on DNA strand.
IV. As the RNA chain grows towards completion,
the B dissociates from C to bring about
termination.
Choose the incorrect statements regarding the
process described.
(a) I and II
(c) II, III and IV
(b) II and III

(d) I and IV
20. Carefully observe the following diagram and

consider the statements in reference to the process
depicted through it.
Infection
Amino
acid
P A
P
P A
AMP
AMP
Blending
tRNA
Amino acid t RNA complex
Centrifugation
No radioactive ( 35S)
detected in cells
+
Radioactive ( 35S)
detected in supernatant
( 35P)
Radioactive
detected in cells
+
No radioactivity
detected in supernatant
The conclusions derived from this experiment are

I. Only protein coat and not DNA entered the
bacterial cell.
II. DNA is the genetic material, which is passed
from virus to bacteria and not protein.
III. DNA is structurally more stable than RNA.
IV. The first genetic material on earth was DNA not
RNA.
Statements
I. The process describes the activation of amino
acids during translation.
II. A high energy ester bond is formed between
carboxyl group of amino acid and 3 hydroxy
group of terminal adenosine of tRNA.
III. Amino acyl tRNA synthetase has two separate
active sites for recognising both tRNA and
specific amino acid.
IV. As a result of binding, the amino acid tRNA
complex is formed.
Choose the correct statements.
(a) Only I
(c) II, III and IV
(b) I and II
(d) All of these
Answers
1. (c)
11. (a)
2. (c)
12. (c)
3. (a)
13. (b)
4. (d)
14. (d)
5. (c)
15. (a)
6. (a)
16. (d)
7. (d)
17. (a)
8. (c)
18. (d)
9. (c)
19. (c)
10. (c)
20. (c)
57
EARTHW RM
1. Consider the following statements regarding
earthworm and choose the option with all correct
statements.
I. Earthworm is a reddish brown terrestrial
invertebrate that inhabits the upper layer of the
moist soil.
II. They make burrows in the soil by boring and
swallowing the soil and live in them.
III. They are traced by their faecal deposits that are
known as earthworm tracings.
IV. Pheretima is the only Indian earthworm.
Codes
(a) I, II, III
(b) II and III
(c) Only IV
(d) I and II
2. The structure in earthworm that serves as a wedge

to force open cracks in the soil is
(a) peristomium (b) prostomium (c) clitellum (d) typhlosole
3. Consider the following statements regarding the

morphology of earthworm and choose the incorrect
statement.
(a) The ventral surface of the body is distinguished by the
presence of a dark median mid ventral line
(b) Prostomium is a lobe present at the anterior end and serves
as a covering for the mouth
(c) The body of earthworm is divisible into three prominent
regions, i.e. preclitellar, clitellar, postclitellar segments
(d) The first body segment of earthworm is called the buccal
segment
4. Consider the following structure-location match

pairs and choose the incorrect pairs.
(a) Spermathecal apertures Ventrolateral sides of
intersegmental grooves,
i.e, 5-9th segments
(b) Female genital pore
Midventral line of 14th segment
(c) Nephridiopores
Surface of the body
(d) Buccal segment
First body segment at the
posterior-end
68
AUGUST 2016
BIOLOGY SPECTRUM
5. Consider the figure given below which depicts the

lateral view of anterior end of Pheretima.
E
B
D
A
C
Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D and E.

A
(a) Prosto Clitellum

mium
Metameres Mouth
opening
Peristo
mium
(b) Peristo Ring of setae

mium
Metameres Mouth
opening
Prosto
mium
(c) Annuli
Nephridiopore Metameres Genital

opening
Prosto
mium
(d) Annuli
Female genital Clitellum

aperture
Transverse Peristo
groove
mium
6. In earthworm setae are present in all segments

except
(a) Only first segment
(c) First, last and clitellum
(b) Only last segment

(d) 15th and 16th segment
7. The body of earthworm is divided into 100-120

similar short segments. Match the segments of
earthworms body given by Column I with their
respective structures given in Column II.
Column I
A.
B.
C.
D.
Segment 5-9th
Segment 14th
Segment 14-16
Segment 18th
Codes
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(c) 2 4 3 1
Column II
1.
2.
3.
4.
Spermathecal aperturs
Male genital pore
Clitellum
Female genital pore
A B C
(b) 4 3 2
(d) 1 2 3
D
1
4
Codes
A B C D E
(a) 4 3 2 1 5
(c) 6 5 4 3 2
8. In each body segment of earthworm except the first,

last and clitellum, locomotive structure is present,
which is called as
(a) nephridiopores
(c) annuli
(b) setae
(d) prostomium
15. The structures present on the 4th, 5th and 6th

segments of earthworm which are responsible for
the production of blood cells and haemoglobin that
remains dissolved in blood plasma, are known as
single layer known as

(b) columnar epithelium
(d) compound epithelium
(a) blood glands

(c) haeme cavities
11. In earthworm, after the 26th segment, there present
(a) Grinding of soil particles and decaying leaves

(b) Storing fats
(c) Neutralisation of humic acid present in humus
(d) Increasing the effective area of absorption
Codes
(a) I and II
(c) II and IV
(b) haemopores
(d) lymph glands
16. Blood cells of earthworm are

(a) exocytic
(b) endocytic
(c) phagocytic
(d) osmotic
17. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect in

reference to the blood vascular system of the
earthworm?
I. Blood vascular system is of open type.
II. Smaller blood vessels supply the gut, nerve cord
and the body wall.
III. Blood glands are present on 6th, 7th and 8th
segments.
IV. Blood cells are phagocytic.
12. Consider the following statements regarding the

alimentary canal of Pheretima and choose the
option with all incorrect statements.
I. The alimentary canal is a straight tube which
runs between 1st to 15th segment of the body.
II. A terminal mouth opens into a small narrow tube
oesophagus (1-3 segments).
III. On the 15th segment, a pair of short and conical
intestinal caecae project from the intestine.
IV. The stomach extends from 9-14 segments.
F
6
6
Codes
(a) Statement I is true and statement II is false.
(b) Statement II is true and statement I is false.
(c) Both the statements are false.
(d) Both the statements are true.
10. Epidermis of the earthworms body is made up of a
an internal median fold of dorsal wall called

typhlosole. Which among the following alternatives
represents the function of typhlosole?
D E
4 5
4 1
process of respiration in earthworm. Select the

correct alternative.
I. Respiratory exchange in earthworm occurs
through the moist body surface into their blood
stream.
II. Earthworms lack specialised breathing devices.
composed of five layers of cells. Which of the

following alternatives represents the correct
sequence of layers of body wall in earthworm?
(a) cuboidal epithelium

(c) squamous epithelium
A B C
(b) 1 2 3
(d) 5 3 2
14. Two statements are given below regarding the
9. The body wall of the earthworm is muscular and
(a) Cuticle Epidermis Coelomic epithelium Circular

muscle layer Longitudinal muscle layer
(b) Cuticle Epidermis Endodermis Columnar epithelium
Coelomic Epithelium
(c) Cuticle Epidermis Circular muscle layer Longitudinal
muscle layer Coelomic epithelium
(d) Cuticle Epidermis Mesodermis Endodermis
Epithelium
F
6
1
(a) Only I
(b) I and IV
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
18. Observe the given figure of closed circulatory

system of earthworm and identify A, B, C and D.
Lateral oesophageal hearts
Lateral hearts
A
5
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
(b) I and IV
(d) I, II and III
13. Match the following columns.

Column I
Column II
A.
Buccal cavity
1.
9-14th segments
B.
Oesophagus
2.
8-9th segments
C. Gizzard
3.
5-7th segments
D. Stomach
4.
1-3rd segments
E.
Intestine
5.
15th-last segment
F.
Typhlosole
6.
26th segment to 23-25

segments in front of anus
Lateral oesophageal vessel D
Anterior loops
(a) AVentral vessel, BSubneural vessel, CCommissural

vessel, DDorsal vessel
(b) ASubneural vessel, BVentral vessel, CDorsal vessel,
DCommissural vessel
(c) ADorsal vessel, BCommissural vessel, CSubneural
vessel, DVentral vessel
(d) ACommissural vessel, BDorsal vessel, CVentral vessel,
DSubneural vessel
69
19. The excretory organs of earthworm occur as

segmentally arranged coiled tubules called
nephridia. Which of the following statements
regarding nephridia is correct?
(a) Septal nephridia are present on both the sides of
intersegmental septa of segment 15 to the last that open into
intestine.
(b) Pharyngeal nephridia are found as three paired tufts in 7th,
8th and 9th segments.
(c) Integumentary nephridia remain attached to the lining of the
body wall of segment 16-26.
(d) The structure of all three types of nephridia differs from each
other markedly.
20. In earthworm, nephridium collects the excess of

fluid from the
(a) septal chamber
(b) nephridial chamber
(c) coelomic chamber
(d) gizzard chamber
24. The cocoons which are produced by gland cells of

clitellum are a site for
(a) the production of eggs by a female
(b) the deposition of mature sperms, egg cells and nutritive fluid
(c) the process of copulation
(d) the production of factors/chemical responsible for the
maturation of gonads
25. The process of fertilisation and development of

earthworm occurs within the cocoons. Which of the
following statements is false regarding cocoon?
(a) Development of Pheretima within cocoon is direct,
i.e., there is no formation of larva.
(b) Cocoons are produced by the gland cells of glandular tissue
present in segments 14-16th.
(c) After about 3 weeks of fertilisation, each cocoon produces
2-20 body worms.
(d) Cocoons are retained by the earthworm for self-fertilisation.
26. Go through the given figure of reproductive system

of earthworm and label A to G.
21. Nervous system of earthworm is represented by

ganglia arranged on the ventral nerve cord.
Consider the following events and choose the
option that states all incorrect events in the
formation of a nerve ring.
I. Bifurcation of nerve cord in the posterior region
(30th and 31st segment).
II. Pharynx is encircled by the nerve cord laterally.
III. Nerve cord gets itself attached to the
subpharyngeal ganglia.
IV. Nerve cord joins the cerebral ganglia dorsally.
Codes
(a) I and II
(c) I, II and IV
(b) I and III

(d) None of these
22. Match the columns.

Column I
(Reproductive part)
Column II
(Relative location)
A.
Testes
1. 12-18th segment
B.
Vasa deferentia
2. 10-11th segment
C. Accessory glands
3. 12-13th segment
D. Ovary
4. 17-19th segment
Codes
A
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 3
6
7
8
9
B
Testes sac
with testes
10
11
12
13
14
15
Vasa differentia
16
17
Common prostatic
and spermatic duct
18
19
20
B
1
3
1
1
C D
4 3
2 4
2 3
4 2
23. The function of four pairs of spermathecae that are

located in 6-9th segments is
(a) storage of spermatozoa during copulation
(b) providing a site for fertilisation
(c) production of spermatozoa
(d) to synthesise factors responsible for the maturation of
spermatocytes into spermatozoa
70
2
3
(a) AOvary, BSpermathecae, CSpermiducal funnels,

DProstate gland, EAccessory gland, FOvarian funnel
GSeminal vesicles
(b) ASpermathecae, BSpermiducal funnels, CSeminal
vesicles, DOvary, EOvarian funnel, FAccessory gland
GProstate gland
(c) AOvarian funnel, BOvary, CSpermathecae, DSeminal
vesicles, EProstate gland, FSpermiducal funnel
GAccessory gland
(d) ASeminal vesicles, BOvarian funnel, COvaries,
DAccessory gland, ESpermiducal funnels, FProstate
gland, GSpermathecae
27. Consider the two statements given below
30. Consider the following structures (Column I) found
regarding the economic importance of Pheretima

posthuma and choose the most correct option.
in Pheretima and match them to their respective

descriptions (Column II).
Statement I Earthworms increase the fertility of

soil. This is called vermicomposting.
Column I
(Structures)
Column II
(Description)
Statement II Earthworms make burrows in the soil

and make it porous which helps in penetration of
developing plant roots.
A.
Chemoreceptors 1. Regulation of volume and

and receptor cells
composition of body fluids
B.
Ovarian funnels
Codes
(a) Statement I is true and statement II is false.
(b) Statement II is true and statement I is false.
(c) Both the statements are true.
(d) Both the statements are false.
C. Spermatophores
3. Present at intersegmental
septum of 13th and 14th
segment
D. Gizzard
4. Sensory cells
E.
5. Pouch of sperms exchanged

during mating
28. Earthworm is an economically important animal

and called as farmers friend. Go through the
statements given below regarding the morphology
and anatomy of earthworm and choose the option
that correctly depicts these as true (T) and false (F)
statements.
I. The blood vascular system of Pheretima
consists of blood vessels, capillaries and heart.
II. The sensory system of earthworm has two
distinctly marked eyes but does not have touch
sensitive organs.
III. Epidermis consists of columnar epithelial cells
which contain secretory gland cells.
IV. Development of earthworm embryos proceeds
as Egg Larva Young worm Adult worm.
Codes
I
(a) T
(b) F
(c) F
(d) T
II
F
F
T
T
III
T
F
F
T
IV
F
T
T
F
29. Consider the following statements related to

Pheretima and select the correct option stating
which ones are true and which are false?
I. It exhibits open type of vascular system.
II. It lacks speacialised breathing device.
III. Typhlosole is responsible for the regulation of
volume and composition of body fluids.
IV. Earthworms show sexual dimorphism, i.e.,
male and female animal can be distinguished
morphologically.
Codes
I
(a) F
(b) T
(c) F
(d) F
II
T
T
T
T
III
F
F
T
F
IV
T
F
T
F
Nephridia
Codes
A B C D
(a) 4 3 5 2
(c) 4 2 1 3
E
1
5
2. 8-9th segments
A B C D E
(b) 1 2 3 5 4
(d) 5 1 3 2 4
Correct Answers along with NCERT

Textbook Reference
1. (d) Key-page-106
2. (b) Key-page-106
3. (a) Key-page-106, 107
4. (d) Key-page-106, 107
5. (b) Key-page-107
6. (c) Key-page-107
7. (a) Key-page-107
8. (b) Key-Page-107
9. (c) Key-page-107
10. (b) Key-page-108
11. (d) Key-page-108
13. (a) Key-page-110
16. (c) Key-page-108
28. (a) Key-page-108-110
29. (d) Key-page-108-110
30. (a) Key-page-108-110
Topic-Morphology of Earthworm
Topic-Anatomy of Earthworm
71
PRODUCTIVE FACT BITES
MYCOTOXINS
Mycotoxins are non-volatile, relatively low-molecular weight,

secondary metabolic products of some filamentous fungi or molds.
They may affect exposed persons in a variety of ways.
Fungi that produce mycotoxins are referred to as toxigenic fungi.
Most of the mycotoxins are produced by species of Aspergillus,
Fusarium, Myothecium, Penicillium and Stachybotrys.
The kind and amount of toxin produced depend on the fungal strain,
the growing conditions and the presence or absence of other
organisms.
The functions of mycotoxins are
To eliminate other microorganisms
To help plant parasitic fungi invade the host tissues
To contaminate crop in the field, after harvest or during storage.
To cause health effects in human and livestock populations.
To show insecticidal, antimicrobial and phytotoxic effects.
Over 300 mycotoxins have been identified, produced by some
350 fungal species. The agriculturally most important ones are
aflatoxins, fumonisins, patulin, ochratoxins, sporidesmins,
trichothecenes, zearalenone.
The principle mycotoxins that have been shown to occur naturally are
tenuazonic acid, alternariol monomethyl ether, alternariol,
altenuene and altertoxin I.
The study of mycotoxins known as mycotoxicology originated with
the discovery of the aflatoxins in the early 1960s after outbreaks of
Turkey-x-disease.
Trichothecenes have been implicated in several
natural
intoxications, e.g., alimentary toxic aleukia in human beings and a
variety of mouldy corn toxicoses of domesticated animals.
Aflatoxins are the most biologically potent, economically important
and scientifically understood mycotoxins. Aflatoxin B is one of the
most potent carcinogens. It is produced by Aspergillus flavus and
Apergillus parasiticus.
The four major aflatoxins are called B1 , B2 , G1 and G2 based on their
fluorescence under UV light (blue or green) and relative
chromatographic mobility during thin layer chromatography.
Aflatoxins are difuranacoumarin derivatives produced by a
polyketide pathway by many strains of Aspergillus flavus and
Arpergillus parasiticus.
The aflatoxins can damage liver, decrease milk and egg production
and suppress immunity in animals consuming low dietary
concentrations.
The young ones of many species are usually most susceptible to these
mycotoxins.
Citrinin is obtained by Penicillium citrinum and several species of
Aspergillus and Penicillium. It causes yellow rice disease in humans.
Ergotamine is produced by Claviceps purpurea and related fungi.
It causes vasoconstriction, gangrenous necrosis. It is neurotoxic.
The ergot alkaloids are among the most fascinating of fungal
metabolites. They are classified as indole alkaloids and are derived
from a tetracyclic ergoline ring system.
Fumonisins are produced by Fusarium moniliforme and

F. proliferatum. It causes oesophageal cancer and
encephalopathy (in horse).
Aspergillus ochraceus and several other species of
Aspergillus and Penicillium produce ochratoxins. They
are responsible for kidney damage neuropathy in pigs and
poultry.
Patulin is obtained from Penicillium patulum, Penicillium
expansum and Aspergillus clavatus. It causes contact
edema and haemorrhage.
Sterigmatocystin is produced by Aspergillus versicolor
and several other species of Apergillus. It is a
hepatocarcinogen.
Sporidesmin is obtained from Pithomyces chartarum.
It causes facial eczema in sheep and cattle.
Penicillium cyclopium produces tremorogens. It causes
tremors.
Zearalenone is produced by Fusarium graminearum and
several Fusarium species. It is responsible for
gynaecological disturbances.
Alternaria is a common genus with a number of species
that can invade crops at the pre and post-harvest stage.
They cause considerable loss due to rotting of fruits and
vegetables.
A. alternata is the most important mycotoxin producing
species and occurs on cereals, sunflower seeds, oilseed
rape, olives, various fruits, etc.
The trichothecene mycotoxin are a large group of
mycotoxins that suppress the immunity.
Three mycotoxins, i.e., aflatoxins, ochratoxins and
sterigmatocystin are known to induce tumours. These may
show carcinogenic effects on liver, kidney, urinary system,
digestive tract and lungs.
Fusarium species grow on the grains of standing cereal
crops in wet weather and can lead to the formation of
mycotoxins before the grains are harvested.
It is estimated that one quarter of the worlds food crops
are affected by mycotoxins annually.
Mycotoxin production is highly dependent on both natural
environmental conditions such as rainfall, ambient
temperature, soil type, etc., and human agricultural
practices; tillage method, irrigation, level of
mechanisation, use of insecticides, etc.
A few mycotoxins such as those associated with ergotism
are produced exclusively in the field.
Aflatoxins can be found in the field before harvest and
under certain circumstances the cotamination may
progressively increase during post-harvest activities, such
as crop drying or in stroage.

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Dr.

The bryophytes are a small group of primitive land dwellers. They

The plant body lacks the true roots,

Bryophytes : Terrestrial Amphibians

Why bryophytes do not

Bryophytes seldom achieve great heights.

Sexual reproduction is highly

Chara (Sex organs)

Thalloid plant body.

Riccia (Female plant)

Riccia (Male plant)

Differences between Bryophytes and Algae

Grow in moist shady places and in water

Covered by a sterile jacket

Resemblance in Bryophytes and Pteridophytes

The simple, rootless and leafless sporophytes of the primitive pteridophytes

Differences between Bryophytes and Pteridophytes

A. A female branch of leafy gametophore with sprophyte

New Species of Pit viper discovered

Desiccation Tolerance in Bryophytes

Reproductive Bodies of Bryophytes

By bulbil, rhizoids and protonema

Economic Importance of Bryophytes

It is a flask-shaped structure with tubular neck

Bryophytes in Carbon and Nitrogen Cycling

Sphagnum is used as fuel also.

Female sex organs of Funaria

Occurrence of the primary cell wall polysaccharide rhamnogalacturonan II in bryophytes :

Gametophytic tissue usually

Sporophyte simple or differentiated

Sporophyte well differentiated

Sporogenous cells of endothecial

Sporogenous cells of endothecial

Hypnum curvifolium (Moss)

Phaeoceros laevis (Hornwort)

Sex organs of Marchantia

Vegetative thallus of Marchantia

Marchantia A. Vegetative thallus; B. Male thallus; C. Female thallus

Germination of spores and

Sporogenous cells that undergo meiosis

Life cycle of Marchantia

It is a common moss of 3-5 cm in height that forms dense

Outer wall of spore sac

Inner wall of spore sac

Sperm (n) Archegonia

Life cycle of Funaria

LS of mature capsule (Moss)

Within the sporophyte, meiosis produces 1n spores.

Life cycle of Anthoceros

Anthoceros and Cynobacteria

2. Identify the wrong combination

3. Bryophytes resemble algae in one of the following

4. In bryophytes, the sporophytic phase is represented

5. Moss spore germinate to form

6. Which of the following statements is incorrect about

7. Calyptra develops from

8. Match the following columns.

9. Choose the wrong pair.

10. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by

11. Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant kingdom

12. Chloroplasts, with pyrenoid-like structures are

13. In a moss, the sporophyte

14. At the base of seta of capusule of moss, there is a

15. Which of the following in moss capsule is