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9. in what way are the diverse subfields of psychology related?

They ultimately share a common goal


1.Wilhelm Wundt is to_, William james is to_.
Structuralism;functionalism
8.Dr. Ebrahim examines how children's friendships change through elementary and middleschool years. Dr. Ebrahim is a(n) _____ psychologist.
Development
1. cognitive psychology can best be described as the
study of higher mental processes
0.according to a humanistic psychologist, henry punched his little brother because he
wanted to
4.which best depicts B.F skinners belief about studying human behavior?
What we do is most important
2.Early researchers
Structuralism
2. Akira has declared psychology as his major. He will be studying:
behavior and mental processes
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the goals of psychology?
Obfuscation
4. Which of the following statements concerning the representation of racial and ethnic
minorities among American psychologists is TRUE?
The number of minority members entering the fields is higher than it was 10 years ago
5. Recall watsons quote
9 or 10
6. Race is to ethnicity what_is to_.
Biology;culture
7. Which of the following subfields of psychology is INCORRECTLY matched with its
description?
Cognitive: examines how people grow and change from conception through death
8. _____ psychology focuses on higher mental processes, including thinking, memory, reasoning,
problem solving, judging, decision making, and language.
cognitive

9. Jason is struggling
psychodynamic
10. Dr. Chen studies how people grow and change during late adolescence and young adulthood;
Dr. Doherty focuses on several traits that distinguish one person from another. Dr. Chen is a(n)
_____ psychologist; Dr. Doherty is a _____.
developmental psychologist; personality psychologist
11. which of the following would be most interesting to a behavioral psychologist?
The reasons why some peopke fail to stop at a red light
12. the specialist most likely to have a medican degree is a(n)
psychiatrist
13. Fiona helps students with ADHD develop effective study regimens and strategies. Fiona is
most likely a(n) _____ psychologist.
Counseling
15. Dr. Growe is reading about a research in which psychologists investigated the effect of group
size on the conformity of group members. Dr. Growe is most likely reading the Journal of _____
Psychology.
social
16. psychologists concentrate on diverse topics such as human aggression, liking and loving,
persuasion, and conformity
Social
18. In what way, if any, do evolutionary psychologists go beyond Darwin's arguments?
They argue that our genetic heritage determines aspects of our personality and social behavior.
21. Beatriz has just received her doctoral degree in psychology. All else being equal, in which of
the following settings is she most likely to find employment?
A college/university
22. Currently, women earn _____ of new psychology doctorate degrees in the United States.
Three-fourth
28. The field of phrenology is associated with
Gall
30. The formal beginning of psychology is associated with:
Wundt
32. is a procedure used to study the structure of the mind in which subjects are asked to describe
in detail what they are experiencing when they are exposed to a stimulus.
Intropection

33. Lassandra takes a sip of cola. "Sweet...cold, wet, tingly...slightly bitter," she reports.
Lassandra is:
introspecting
34. Which of the following was a disadvantage of introspection?
Introspection was not truly scientific.
35. _____ is an early approach to psychology that concentrated on what the mind does and the
role of behavior in allowing people to adapt to their environments.
Functionalism
36. Which of the following psychologists is associated with functionalism?
William james
37. The Gestalt psychologists made substantial contribution to our understanding of:
Perception
38. The approach that views behavior from the perspective of the brain, the nervous system, and
other biological functions is known as the _____ perspective
Neuroscience
40. Penny is a recovering drug addict. Her treatment program emphasizes the influence of her
environment"people, places, and things"on her use of her drug of choice. Her program
reflects the _____ perspective in psychology.
Behavorial
42. The emphasis of the humanistic perspective is on
Free will
43. Free will stands in contrast to _____.
Determinism
44. Which contemporary perspective is CORRECTLY matched with its description?
Behavioral perspective; emphasizes observable behavior and objectivity
47. _____ is the idea that people's behavior is produced primarily by factors outside of their
willful control.
determinism
49. Strategies aimed at encouraging one to examine assumptions, evaluate assertions, and think
more carefully are specifically called _____ techniques
critical thinkin
50. Dr. Quinones studies the achievement motivation of junior high school students. He asserts
that such motivation mainly reflects the parenting and educational practices the students have

experienced. This statement is most directly related to the _____ issue; Dr. Quinones' position is
toward the _____ end of the continuum.
nature vs. nurture; nurture
51. Many colleges use students' SAT scores to determine whom they will accept into their
programs. Which goal of psychological science are they utilizing?
Predict
52. Behavior is ___________, while mental processes are ___________.
Observable; private
54. Who is demonstrating psychological skepticism?
Lindsey is wondering if you can really improve your memory over night by taking a pill.
55. Who conducted the first psychological experiment in 1879?
Wiliam wundt
56. If you were a psychologist who was labeled a structuralist, you would be interested in the
___________ of the mind, and you would use ___________ as your primary research method.
structures; introspection
60. In psychology, William James was highly influential in developing the school of thought
known as
Functionalism
63. Darwin, when describing the process of natural selection, claimed that
characteristics favored by the environment are more likely to continue.
64. Psychologists who study the role of the brain in psychological processes have adopted the
___________ perspective
Neuroscience
67. Dr. Burrhus's treatment plan for Annette focuses on consistently providing rewards for doing
things she wants to do more often and removing rewards for doing things she wants to do less
often. Dr. Burrhus adheres most closely to the ___________ perspective.
Behavorial
69. Which perspective of psychology most clearly focuses on how we learn observable
responses?
Behavorial
73. Humanism denies the role of determinism but elevates the role of
Free will
77. Evolutionary psychology maintains that
All of these

80. Kara was surprised to learn that certain hand signals which indicate a "job well done" in the
United States are socially unacceptable in other countries. This finding comes from research
completed by a ________ psychologist.
cross-cultural
81. Jean is a psychologist who studies the changes that take place in people over the course of
their life spans. Jean most likely specializes in ________ psychology.
Developmental
85. Which of the following best describes the impact that nature and nurture have on a person's
psychological characteristics?
Genetics has a significant impact
Personality psychology
focuses on the consistency in people's behavior over time and the traits that differentiate one
person from another
According to the ___________ perspective, we are in control of our lives and have the capacity
for positive growth
Humanistic
A pharmaceutical company is conducting an experiment to test the effectiveness of a tricyclic
antidepressant. Which of the following, if true, would indicate that the experimenters used a
placebo?
The participants in both groups did not know if they were getting a real or a false treatment.
Evolutionary psychologists are especially interested in:
how behavior is influenced by our genetic inheritance from our ancestors.
William James, a prominent American psychologist and philosopher, focused on human
interaction and the purpose of thoughts. His view was eventually named
Functionalism
Research has shown human beings to be notoriously bad decision makers in general. Which type
of psychologist was most likely to have carried out this type of research?
Cognitive

-The most common employment sector for students graduating


with a bachelor's degree in psychology is _____.
Social services
45. Psychologists adhering to the _____ perspective are probably the LEAST likely to take a
"nature" stance on the nature vs. nurture issue.
behaviorist

Psychologists rely on ___________ which is the process of thinking


reflectively and actively, and evaluating evidence.
Criticalthinking
"I am not as concerned about what is going on in your life today
as I am with the upbringing you received." Which type of
psychologist is most likely to have uttered these words?
psychodynamic
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the
difference between the PhD and the PsyD degrees?
The PhD requires a dissertation based on an original investigation
If an NFL player wanted to see a psychologist to improve his
game, what type of psychologist is he most likely to consult?
sport
Dr. Ames studies the way groups influence the decisions that
people make. She is a ________ psychologist.
social
in order to study mind and behavior, psychologists
rely on the scientific method
what was innovative about wundts early work?
Mental processes

1. The basic elements of the nervous system are called:


neurons
2. As many as _____ neurons throughout the body are involved in the control of behaviour.
1 trillion
4. A cluster of fibers at one end of a neuron that receives messages from other neurons is called:
Dendrite
5. An axon is a(n):
long, slim, tubelike structure extending from a neuron.

6. Terminal buttons are found at the end of:


Axons
7. Dendrite is to axon what _____ is to _____.
receiving; sending
8. Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the route followed by nerve impulses
when one neuron communicates with another?
Dendrite cell body axon
9. Electrical wires are generally protected by a tube of plastic. A similar insulating function is
performed in the nervous system by the:
myelin sheath.
12. Regarding action potentials, which of the following statements is TRUE?
The action potential moves from one end of the axon to the other like a flame moving along a
fuse.
13. Regarding mirror neurons, which of the following statements is ACCURATE?
Mirror neurons are involved in empathy and language acquisition, but not in face recognition.
14. A synapse is a(n):
Gap
15. Which of the following statements regarding inhibitory messages is TRUE?
Inhibitory messages decrease the likelihood that a receiving neuron will fire.
16. The reabsorption of neurotransmitters by a terminal button is termed as:
reuptake
17. Which neurotransmitter is described INCORRECTLY?
GABAan excitatory neurotransmitter inhibited by alcohol or tranquilizers
18. The neurotransmitter dopamine is involved in:
movement, attention, and learning.
19. The brain's special physical capacity for change is referred to as its
plasticity.
21. Which of the following is a role of the autonomic nervous system?
Monitors essential processes
22. Your brain has instructed your muscles to move so that you avoid an oncoming bicyclist.
Which division of the nervous system carried this information to your muscles?

Somatic Nervous System


24. Which of the following are the two integrated parts of the autonomic nervous system?
Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
27. Which division of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for physiological symptoms
such as increased heart rate and butterflies in the stomach?
Sympathetic
28. Who is relying most heavily on their mirror neurons?
Chie is taking a golf lesson from the local pro.
29. If a doctor told you that insufficient nutrients were being transported from your blood vessels
to your neurons, you might suspect from that the problem was in your ___________ cells.
glial
30. The nucleus of a neuron is located in the
Cell body
31. Which of the following best describes how information is transmitted within a neuron?
dendrite cell body axon
37. The physical space between two neurons is called the
synapse.
38. The neural message being delivered in a synaptic transmission is carried across the synaptic
gap by ___________ substances.
Chemical
40. ___________ is a neurotransmitter that is produced in insufficient amounts in many
Alzheimer's patients.
Acetylcholine
41. A neurotransmitter that plays a role Parkinson's disease is
Dopamine
42. Kenny is taking medication to help control some of the symptoms that he experiences from
Parkinson disease. If he is given too much of the medication, Kenny might start to exhibit
symptoms associated with
schizophrenia.
44. "Running has become an important part of my life. After a good three miles, I begin to feel
euphoric. This positive feeling stays with me most of the day." This runner is describing the
production of endorphins.
45. Which of the following neurotransmitter plays an important role in human bonding?
Oxytocin

46. Based on the research on oxytocin, if Julia finds herself in a stressful situation she is most
likely to
Call a friend
47. The practice of women bringing food to other women during times of crisis may have been
triggered by which neurotransmitter?
Oxytocin
Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of glial cells?
They communicate messages within the nervous system.
You cannot fire a gun softly, or flush a toilet halfway. Like an action potential, gun fire and a
toilet's flush follow the _____ law.
All-or-none
The state in which there is a negative electrical charge of about -70 millivolts within a neuron is
known as the _____ state.
Resting
Walter has a degenerative condition that eats away at his myelin sheath. We can expect that his
cognitive abilities will
decrease in proficiency.
The all-or-nothing principle refers to
Action Potentials
Neurotransmitters are stored in
Terminal Buttons
A neurotransmitter that plays a role Parkinson's disease is
dopamine.
Depression is associated with low levels of what neurotransmitter?
Serotonin

Which division of the nervous system is composed of all the


sensory and motor nerves?
Peripheral nervous system
After finishing a psychology test, you try to relax by engaging in
some meditation techniques. Doing these exercises should
increase the response of the ___________ nervous system and
result in slower heart and respiration rates and less muscular
tension.
Parasympathetic

At a job interview, you broke out into a cold sweat and felt your
heart pounding. These symptoms were most likely produced by
your ___________ nervous system.
sympathetic
_____ is an automatic, involuntary response to an incoming stimulus.
Reflex

_____ are neurons that connect sensory and motor neurons, carrying messages
between the two.
Interneurons

The branch of psychology that seeks to identify behavior patterns that are a result of our
genetic inheritance from our ancestors is known as
Evolutionary Psychology

Evolutionary psychologists have spawned a new and increasingly influential field


Behaviorial Genetics

A key component of the endocrine system is the tiny _____ gland, which is found near
and regulated bythe _____ in the brain.
pituitary; hypothalamus

The hormone oxytocin has been implicated in each of the following behaviors EXCEPT
the
tendency to produce violent, dangerous behavior.

Which brain imaging technique below is CORRECTLY matched with its description?
EEGrecords the brain's electrical activity with electrodes

The hindbrain includes each of the following structures EXCEPT the:


thalamus.

The part of the brain closest to the spinal cord is the _____; it is important for such
functions as _____.
medulla; heart rate and respiration

The part of the brain that controls bodily balance is the _____
cerebellum
The _____ is a tiny part of the brain that maintains homeostasis and produces and
regulates vital behavior, such as eating, drinking, and sexual behavior.
Hypothalamus

Violet's speech is slow and labored; however, she can understand others' speech. Violet
has:
Broca's aphasia.

Trevor is scratching his head, trying desperately to solve a verbal analogy as part of a
standardized entrance examination; Sienna, meanwhile, is giving an oral presentation in

a political science class. Of the brain's hemispheres, Trevor's _____ hemisphere is most
active; Sienna's _____ hemisphere is most active.
left; left

Magnetic resonance imaging is a technique that works by


detecting and interpreting magnetic activity from hydrogen levels in the blood.

Which brain imaging technique allows scientists to actually see what is happening in the
brain while it is working?
fMRI

The iron rod which damaged Phineas Gage's frontal lobe resulted in
changes in personality.

The area of the cerebral cortex that controls voluntary muscle movement is the
motor cortex.

The area of the brain that controls the production of speech is


Broca's area.

The set of glands that regulates the activities of certain organs is called the
___________ system.
Endocrine

The ___________ gland regulates all the other glands.


Pituitary

Which expression below most closely approximates the number of neural connections
in the brain?
10 quadrillion

Which of the following is TRUE of the spinal cord's control of behavior?


The spinal cord can control some simple reflexes without the brain's help.

Somatic is to autonomic what _____ is to _____.


voluntary; involuntary

Darnell underwent surgery to control his severe epilepsy. Now, however, Darnell cannot
form new memories of his experiences, although he does remember events in the past.
Most likely, the surgery destroyed a portion of the _____ in Darnell's brain.
Hippocampus

The visual area in the cortex is located in the _____.


occipital lobe

The _____ areas are considered to be the site of higher mental processes such as
thinking, language, memory, and speech.
Association

Which structure of the brain would be most beneficial to a professional golfer who is
trying to create a repetitive golf swing?
Basal ganglia

Theus is about to take the bar exam. Which lobe of the brain will he be relying on most
to do well?
Frontal

Broca's area is located in the ___________ hemisphere.


Left

The corpus callosum is


a band of nerve fiber connecting the right and left hemispheres.

With respect to its potential basis in nervous system activity, "voodoo death" has been
attributed to:
an overactive sympathetic nervous system.

The thalamus may be likened to a(n):

relay station.

The _____ is referred to as the "new brain."


cerebral cortex

The brain injury suffered by 19th-century railroad worker Phineas Gage allowed
psychologists to learn about the functions of the brain's:
association areas.

The hemispheres of the brain are connected by a bundle of fibers called the:
corpus callosum.

Which of the following generalizations is probably most accurate regarding potential


gender differences in the lateralization of language?
Language is more strongly left-lateralized among males than among females.

Body temperature, emotional states, and coping with stress are functions controlled by
the
hypothalamus.

What is unique about stem cells?


They can develop into most types of human cells.

Sensory is to motor what _____ is to _____.


afferent; efferent

The limbic system contains which of the following structures?


Amygdala

The brain and the spinal cord constitute the _____ nervous system.
Central

The part of the autonomic division of the nervous system that acts to prepare the body
for action in stressful situations, engaging all the organism's resources to respond to a
threat is known as the _____.
sympathetic division

The "fight-or-flight" response is associated with the _____ division.


Sympathetic

The _____ maintains a steady internal environment for the body.


Hypothalamus

In a neurophysiological investigation, a monkey makes an involuntary gesture when a


portion of its brain is electrically stimulated. The area of the brain that was most likely
stimulated is the:
Frontal lobe

Warren suffers from Wernicke's aphasia. Which of the following will he experience in
thought or behavior?
Warren will experience difficulty understanding language.

_____ is the creation of new neurons.


Neurogenesis

The reticular formation is primarily involved in


stereotyped patterns such as walking, sleeping, or turning to attend to a sudden
noise.

If you had damage to your hippocampus, it would most likely impair


Memory formation

Theus is about to take the bar exam. Which lobe of the brain will he be relying on most
to do well?
Frontal

Neurosurgeons can reduce the unbearable seizures some epileptics experience by


severing the
Corpus callosum

What is unique about stem cells?


They can develop into most types of human cells.

The two major divisions of the peripheral nervous system are the _____ and _____
divisions.
somatic; autonomic

The _____ gland is a major component of the endocrine system which secretes
hormones that control growth and other parts of the endocrine system.
Pituitary

Which of the following sequences correctly identifies the orders of the lobes of the cortex, from
anterior to posterior?
Frontal temporal and parietal occipital

The brain injury suffered by 19th-century railroad worker Phineas Gage allowed psychologists to
learn about the functions of the brain's:
association areas.

The process by which the brain reorganizes itself throughout development is termed:
neuroplasticity.

Which of the following generalizations is probably most accurate regarding potential gender
differences in the lateralization of language?
Language is more strongly left-lateralized among males than among females.

If a person's cerebellum were damaged in an accident, you would expect the person to have a
problem with
Balance and muscle coordination

If you had damage to your hippocampus, it would most likely impair


Memory formation

Body temperature, emotional states, and coping with stress are functions controlled by the
Hypothalamus

The area of the cerebral cortex that controls voluntary muscle movement is the
Motor cortex

A split brain occurs due to


a severing of the corpus callosum.

The _____ is the main means for transmitting messages between the brain and the body.
spinal cord

The hormone oxytocin has been implicated in each of the following behaviors EXCEPT the:
tendency to produce violent, dangerous behavior.

The iron rod which damaged Phineas Gage's frontal lobe resulted in
changes in personality.

The part of the brain closest to the spinal cord is the _____; it is important for such functions as
_____.
medulla; heart rate and respiration

After finishing a psychology test, you try to relax by engaging in some meditation techniques.
Doing these exercises should increase the response of the ___________ nervous system and
result in slower heart and respiration rates and less muscular tension.
Parasympathetic

At a job interview, you broke out into a cold sweat and felt your heart pounding. These
symptoms were most likely produced by your ___________ nervous system.
Sympathetic

An fMRI can detect brain activity because


oxygenated blood is more prominent in areas that are active.

The _____ division also directs the body to store energy for use in emergencies.
Parasympathetic

Which division of the nervous system is composed of all the sensory and motor nerves?
Peripheral nervous system

Depolarizing the membrane during an action potential first involves the flow of ___________
ions into the membrane.
Sodium

When you walk to class, you do not have to think consciously about how to walk. When you get
there, you pay attention to the lecture even though it is boring and you are tired. The structure
that plays an important role in these activities by manipulation of various neurotransmitters is the
reticular formation.

With respect to its potential basis in nervous system activity, "voodoo death" has been attributed
to:
an overactive sympathetic nervous system.

The _____ area is the site in the brain of the tissue that corresponds to each of the senses, with
the degree of sensitivity related to the amount of tissue.
Sensory

Which of the following best represents the function of myelin sheath in the brain?
Amber is putting wax on her surfboard so that it will move easily through the water.

Who would benefit the most from a highly efficient cerebellum?


Baseball Payer

Anna is reading her psychology text. The activation of receptors in her retina by a source of
physical energy is called _____.
Sensation

The sorting out, interpretation, analysis, and integration of stimuli by the sense organs and
brain is known as _____.
Perception

Which of the following statements is TRUE of sensation and perception?


Sensation involves the activation of sense receptors; perception involves interpretation.

5. A(n) _____ threshold is the stimulus intensity that is detected 50% of the time.
Absolute
6. One can detect a single drop of perfume diffused in an area the size of a one-bedroom
apartment. This is due to:
absolute threshold.
7. Which of the following most closely approximates the meaning of the term noise as
psychophysicists use it?
Any distraction
8. The smallest level of added or reduced stimulation required to sense that a change in
stimulation has occurred is known as the _____.

difference threshold
9. A snack manufacturer realizes that he must increase the salt content of his company's chips by
3% in order for a sample of consumers to notice that the chips are saltier than they were before.
This example most nearly illustrates the concept of a(n):
difference threshold.
10. Weber's law states that a just noticeable difference is a _____.
constant proportion of the intensity of an initial stimulus
11. Acme Foods wants to make its chips saltier, but it doesn't want to spend more than it has to
on salt. A sample of consumers are asked to compare its current chip (saltiness = 100) with saltier
versions and to say whether the new version is saltier. On average, sample consumers reliably
say the new chip is saltier when its saltiness value is 108, but not when its saltiness value is
below 108. Assuming Acme Foods' sample consumers are representative of people in general,
which of the following best represents the just noticeable difference for saltiness?
8%
12. Which of the following laws would help explain why a person in a quiet room is more
startled by the ringing of a telephone than a person who is already in a noisy room?
Weber's law
13. _____ is an adjustment in sensory capacity after prolonged exposure to unchanging stimuli.
Adaptation
15. Which of the following words is most nearly synonymous with the term refract?
Bend
16. Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the order in which light passes through
the structures of the eye during vision?
Cornea pupil lens retina
17. The part of the eye that converts the electromagnetic energy of light to electrical impulses for
transmission to the brain is known as the _____.
Retina
18. As compared to cones, rods:
are highly sensitive to light.
19. Adelaide notices a flicker of motion out of the corner of her eye as she hurries down a dim
alley late at night. Sydney deciphers a complex wiring diagram under the bright glare of her desk
lamp. Adelaide's vision is driven mainly by her _____. Sydney is mainly using her _____.
rods; cones
20. Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the order in which light stimulates cells
early in the visual processing of an image?

Rods and cones bipolar cells ganglion cells


21. _____ cells receive information directly from the rods and cones and communicate that
information to the _____ cells.
Bipolar; ganglion
22. The point at which the optic nerves meet and then split is termed the optic:
chiasm
23. _____ is the activation of neurons in the cortex by visual stimuli of specific shapes or
patterns.
Feature detection
24. In the most common form of color blindness:
all red and green objects appear yellow.
25. Damon is among the 7% of males with color blindness. He suffers from the most common
form of color blindness. Which of the following statements best illustrates Damon's experience
of color?
Red apples on a tree seem to be yellow.
26. The _____ states that there are three kinds of cones in the retina, each of which responds
primarily to a specific range of wavelengths.
trichromatic theory of color vision
27. The trichromatic theory was first proposed by _____. The opponent-process theory was first
proposed by _____.
Thomas Young; Ewald Hering
28. Which of the following is true of the opponent-process theory?
The opponent-process theory suggests that in addition to black and white, there are four,
rather than three, colors.
29. Suppose you stare at an illustration of the American flag for a while, then glance at a blank
white page. The red stripes look green when you glance at the blank page because:
the receptor cells for the red component of the pairing become fatigued.
30. With respect to the trichromatic and the opponent-process theories of color perception, which
of the following statements is most accurate?
Trichromatic process works within the retina itself; whereas opponent mechanisms operate
both in the retina and at later stages of neuronal processing.
32. Every day, you see, hear, smell, taste, and feel stimuli from the outside world. Collecting this
data about that world is the function of
sensation.

34. ________ processing involves starting with a sense of what is happening and then applying
that framework to information in the world.
Top-down
35. Contestants on the game show Wheel of Fortune are given labels to assist them solving the
puzzles. These labels activate ________ processing.
top-down
36. When you visit a new city for the first time, it often takes a lot of cognitive effort to find your
way around. One explanation lies in the fact that new experiences require us to rely primarily on
________ processing.
bottom-up
37. As young children learn to read, they often have difficulty comprehending what the story is
saying because they are working so hard to decode what the words are. This reflects an overreliance on which type of processing?
Bottom-up
38. You are watching a movie with some scenes set in a noisy bar, some scenes containing
gunfire, and some scenes containing very quiet dialogue. During the quiet scenes, you can hear
most of the dialogue, but find that if the actors drop their volume on certain lines, you cannot
hear what they are saying. This reflects the fact that a message must exceed a(n) ________ in
order to be processed.
Threshold
40. You are studying in your dorm room. You gently request that your neighbor turn the volume
of his television down until you cannot hear it. You are asking your neighbor to find your
absolute threshold.
41. When you are able to taste a quarter teaspoon of salt dissolved in a glass of water five times
out of 10, you have attained your ________ threshold.
absolute
42. If a person hears two tones that differ in intensity just barely enough to be detected, the point
of detection is referred to as the ________ threshold.
Difference
44. You arrive at your friend's apartment for a big party at the end of the semester. When you first
arrive, the music is so loud that it almost hurts your ears. After a couple of hours, even though
the music is still at the same volume, it doesn't bother you anymore, and you like it. This change
over time describes the process of
sensory adaptation.
45. You cannot feel the waistband of your underwear, even though you know it is there. This is
the result of
sensory adaptation.

46. In regards to light, wavelength is the ________ and amplitude is the ________.
hue; brightness
47. You are outside enjoying a beautiful day. The sky is bright blue. When the sun sets, the sky
turns a gorgeous salmon pink. After the sun has set, the sky pales to pink, then lavender; as it
gets dark, the sky becomes a deeper purple, then midnight blue, and finally it looks black. The
color changes you perceive in the sky are due to the ________ of light that it reflects.
Wavelength
48. To read this question, you must look at it. After the light passes into your eyes, the incoming
light waves are recorded by receptor cells located in the
retina.
49. Toward the center of the retina, there is an area that contains only cones. This area is called
the
fovea.
50. You try to note the incredibly fine details of a computer microchip through a magnifying
glass. On which area of the retina are you focusing this image?
Fovea
51. Jane is having trouble sleeping. As she sits in bed looking around the darkened room, she
notices that her peripheral vision seems to be better than her central vision. This is because vision
in low light conditions
depends on the rods.
52. Who is relying most heavily on their rods?
Marcus is trying to find his seat as the movie begins to play.
53. Near the center of the retina there is a spot where there are no rods and no cones. This spot
exists because of
the optic nerve.
54. Hannah, a first-year psychology student, just discovered she has a blind spot in each eye.
Should she be concerned?
No, everyone has blind spots.
55. If a student asks you why we can see colors and you want to provide an answer based on the
opponent-process theory of color vision, you tell the student it is because there are ________
different types of cone receptors.
Four
56. The ________ theory of color vision most accurately describes the process of color vision at
the level of the retina.
Trichromatic

57. Afterimages refer to


the sensation left over after an image is removed.
58. One way to think about how we process color images is that the ________ describes the
events at the first level of neurons in the visual system, while the ________ best describes the
activities of neurons in the rest of the visual system.
trichromatic theory; opponent-process theory
Taste buds are bunched together in
the papillae.
When you see the bright color and round shape of a tomato on the vine in your vegetable garden,
smell its sun-warmed fragrance, hear the buzzing of a nearby bee, feel the velvety texture of its
skin, and taste the flavor as you bite into it, your process of receiving this stimulus energy from
the environment is called
sensation.
Figure is to ground as ________ is to ________.
a white cloud; a blue sky
In regards to what we see in our world, the range of wavelengths that humans are sensitive to is
called the _____.

Visual spectrum
An architect is designing apartments and wants them to be soundproof. She asks a psychologist
what the smallest amount of sound is that can be heard. Her question is most related to the
________ threshold.

Absolute
When you are paid $1 instead of $2, it is a big deal. When you are paid $91 instead of $92, it feels
less painful. This is similar to
Webers law
Dr. Breiland examines the relationship between the physical properties of light, such as its amplitude
and wavelength, and humans' perception of color. Which of the following terms MOST
ACCURATELY describes Dr. Breiland's field of study?
psychophisics

The cochlea is a:
coiled tube in the inner ear filled with fluid that vibrates in response to sound.

The _____ suggests that the entire basilar membrane acts as a microphone, vibrating
as a whole in response to a sound.
frequency theory of hearing

Which of the following statements is true?


Place theory accounts for the perception of high-frequency sounds; frequency
theory explains our perception of low-frequency sounds.

Which of the following statements regarding smell is FALSE?


Men generally have a better sense of smell than women.

How many basic types of taste are there?


4-5

Which of the following is true of "supertasters"?


They find sweets sweeter, cream creamier, and spicy dishes spicier.

How does light therapy work?


It stimulates the production of healing enzymes

The difference in the images seen by the left eye and the right eye is known as _____.
binocular disparity

Which of the following is a monocular cue?


Motion parallax

From the window of an office on a skyscraper's 90 th floor, taxis on the street look tiny. Of
course, you know they are not toy cars; you are just really far up. This example
illustrates the _____ cue of _____.
monocular; relative size

At night, the moon appears smaller when it is overhead than when it is on the horizon.
This is an example of:
perceptual constancy.

Approximately what proportion of the American population believes that extrasensory


perception, or ESP, exists?
50 percent

Why might contemporary, mainstream psychologists reconsider the possibility that ESP
exists?
The topic has been addressed by a credible and prestigious psychological
journal.

________ psychology is the school of thought interested in how people naturally


organize their perceptions into patterns.
Gestalt

At a school social gathering, you hear a professor talking about proximity, continuity,
similarity, and closure. You deduce that he is knowledgeable about
gestalt principles of perception.

The unit of measure for the amplitude of sound is


decibel.

Your mother's and sister's voices have the same pitch and loudness, but you can tell
them apart on the telephone. This is due to the perceptual quality or ___________ of
their voices.
Timbre

When sound waves enter the ear canal, they first


vibrate the eardrum.

According to your text, the main criticism voiced by the deaf community in regards to
cochlear implantation is that it
suggests that being deaf is a problem.

Abel knows that his legs are crossed and that his hands are on top of his head. This is a
demonstration of
proprioceptive feedback

The basilar membrane is a:


vibrating structure that runs through the center of the cochlea, dividing it into an
upper chamber and a lower chamber and containing sense receptors for sound.

Gustation is to olfaction what _____ is to _____.


taste; smell

_____ are chemicals nonhumans secrete into the environment that produce a reaction
in other members of the same species, permitting the transmission of messages such
as sexual availability.
Pheromones

Which of the following treatments for pain is most effective for people who continually
say to themselves, "This pain will never stop," "The pain is ruining my life"?
Cognitive restructuring

Whenever Mr. Redding catches himself saying, "This pain is ruining my life," he is
supposed to immediately tell himself, "STOP! I am in control of my pain." This pain
management technique is known as _____ restructuring.

Cognitive

Perception that consists of the progression of recognizing and processing information


from individual components of a stimuli and moving to the perception of the whole is
known as _____.
bottom-up processing

Mark and a Jacob are driving home on a college break. Mark is in the passenger seat.
Bored, Mark gazes into the middle of an empty field. He notices that distant hilltops
seem to move slowly in the same direction in which their car is moving; by contrast, mile
markers on the side of the highway seem to whiz past them in the opposite direction.
The difference in the apparent speed and direction of objects' motion serves as a depth
cue termed motion:
Parallax

You are sitting in a stationary train at a busy station. Suddenly, you feel like you are
slowly sliding backward as the train next to you begins to pull out. This illusion reflects
the operation of the _____ cue of _____.
monocular; motion parallax

The tendency for perceptions of objects to remain relatively unchanged in spite of


changes in raw sensations is called
perceptual constancy.

Looking at a quarter in your hand casts a different image on your retina compared to
looking at a quarter across the room, yet we know that the quarter is the same and
retains the same dimensions. This phenomenon is known as
size constancy.

Smell can elicit more vivid memories than the other senses. What is the reason for this?
The sense of smell takes a different neural pathway than the other senses.

The eardrum is a:
part of the outer ear that vibrates when sound waves hit it.

Which of the following sequences correctly arranges the structures of the inner ear from
the largest and most inclusive to the smallest and most specific?
Cochlea basilar membrane hair cells

Hair cells for hearing are located in the:


cochlea.

Nerve receptor cells for the skin senses are:


unevenly distributed throughout the skin.

To manage Mrs. Sampson's excruciating pain, a low-voltage electric current is


occasionally passed through her lower back, the affected body part. Which of the
following pain management techniques in Mrs. Sampson using?
Nerve stimulation

Consider the figure within parentheses: (XX XX XX). That we perceive three pairs of Xs
reflects the Gestalt principle(s) of:
proximity.

In a general sense, the overriding Gestalt principle of perceptual organization is:


simplicity.

Perception that is guided by higher-level knowledge, experience, expectations, and


motivations is known as _____.
Top-down processing

Although several bulbs are burned out on the movie theater's sign out front, Caleb can
still read the announcement for the upcoming movie. Which gestalt principle accounts
for this phenomena?
Closure

Shape constancy is our ability to

see an object as being the same shape even though we move closer to it or
farther from it.

The different pitches of the beeps you hear on a touch-tone telephone are due to
differences in the ___________ of the beeps.
Frequency

_____ is the number of wave cycles that occur in a second.


Frequency

The _____ consists of three tubes containing fluid that sloshes through them when the
head moves, signaling rotational or angular movement to the brain.
semicircular canal

_____ are physical stimuli that consistently produce errors in perception.


Visual illusions

Gestalt psychologists emphasize that


the whole is more than the sum of its parts.

The different pitches of the beeps you hear on a touch-tone telephone are due to
differences in the ___________ of the beeps.
Frequency

The human sense of smell permits us to detect _____ separate smells


more than 10,000

You are standing on the beach; the sea is choppy. You observe that the crests of distant
waves appear less distinct than the crests of waves nearer the beach. This example
illustrates a monocular cue known as:
texture gradient.
In depth perception, familiar size, height in field of view, and shading are examples of
monocular cues.

You are standing outside with a friend as an airplane flies over your head. You watch as
the plane appears to get smaller and smaller and is eventually gone from your visual
field. Which aspect of perceptual constancy allows you to understand that the airplane
is not shrinking?
Size constancy

We are able to taste due to approximately ________ taste buds on our tongue.
10,000

Which of the following statements is most accurate with respect to the role of gestalt psychology
in contemporary psychology?

Gestalt psychology no longer plays a prominent role, but the Gestaltists' focus on the
organization of perceptual elements remains influential.

Which of the following statements most accurately expresses the relationship between top-down
and bottom-up processing?
Top-down and bottom-up processes occur simultaneously in the perception of the world
around us.

If we see a German shepherd standing 30 feet from us, we still recognize its size even though the
image on our retina is much smaller than if the dog was directly in front of us. This is primarily
due to
size constancy.

Perceiving three dimensions is called


Depth perception
Which depth cue accounts for why parallel lines appear to grow closer together the farther away
they are?
Linear perspective

The tendency for perceptions of objects to remain relatively unchanged in spite of changes in
raw sensations is called
perceptual constancy.

3. During _____ images sometimes appear, as if we were viewing still photos.


stage 1 sleep
4. _____ is the deepest stage of sleep, during which we are least responsive to outside
stimulation.
Stage 4 sleep
5. In general terms, how do brain waves change as a sleeper progresses from stage 1 sleep to
stage 4 sleep?
The brain waves become slower.
6. Which of the following statements is true of REM sleep and dreaming?
The major muscles of the body appear to be paralyzed during REM sleep.
7. Which of the following statements is true of dreams occurring in REM sleep and NREM
sleep?
Dreams occur in NREM sleep, but less frequently than in REM sleep; NREM dreams are
also less vivid than are dreams in REM sleep.
8. REM sleep is paradoxical because:
the brain is active, but the major skeletal muscles appear to be paralyzed.
9. Anya pulled all-nighters both last night and the night before. Tonight, finally, she anticipates
going to bed at her usual time. Which of the following alternatives MOST accurately describes
and identifies what Anya is likely to experience?
Anya will spend a greater proportion of her sleep time than usual in the REM stage. This
phenomenon is called rebound.
10. Most people today sleep between _____ hours each night.
7-8
11. _____ are unusually frightening dreams, that occur fairly often.
Nightmares
12. Sigmund Freud's theory that dreams represent unconscious desires that dreamers want to see
fulfilled is known as _____.
unconscious wish fulfillment theory
13. According to Freud, the _____ content of dreams is the "disguised" meanings of dreams,
hidden by more obvious subjects.
Latent

14. Which of the following psychologists is correctly matched with a theory of the function of
dreams?
Freud unconscious wish-fulfillment theory
15. According to the _____ dreams permit us to reconsider and reprocess during sleep
information that is critical for our daily survival.
dreams-for-survival theory
17. The _____ focuses on the random electrical energy that the brain produces during REM
sleep, possibly as a result of changes in the production of particular neurotransmitters.
activation-synthesis theory
18. Which figure best approximates the proportion of people afflicted by insomnia?
1/3
19. Which sleep disturbance is correctly matched with its description?
Sleep apnea difficulty breathing during sleep
20. _____ is/are sudden awakenings from non-REM sleep that is accompanied by extreme fear,
panic, and strong physiological arousal.
Night terrors
21. Four-year old DeMarcus falls asleep shortly after his 8:30 p.m. bedtime. At about 9:45, he
suddenly sits up in bed, breathing rapidly and appearing to be in a state of sheer panic. DeMarcus
is experiencing:
Night terrors
23. Which of the following is true of daydreams?
They are under one's control to a greater extent than dreams that occur during sleep.
24. Which of the following solutions will help overcome insomnia?
Exercising during the day
25. Irv can't sleep, so he makes himself a cup of warm milk. Will this work?
Yes. Milk contains tryptophan, which promotes sleep.
26. William James described the human mind as a
stream of consciousness.
27. An individual's awareness of external events and internal sensations under a condition of
arousal is called
Consciousness
28. Thomas seems unaware that his mom has been calling him for the last five minutes. He is
playing his video game and about to move to the last level. What is Thomas demonstrating?
Selective attention

29. The teacher has called on Sarah four times, yet she has not responded or acknowledged the
teacher in anyway. She has a slight smile on her face. What is Sarah demonstrating?
Daydreaming
30. Kathy says that when she meditates, she feels like she becomes one with the universe. Kathy
experiences ________ during her meditative sessions.
an altered state of consciousness
31. What do drugs, trauma, fatigue, hypnosis, and sensory deprivation have in common?
They produce altered states of consciousness.
32. According to Freud, ________ mental processes occur without a person being aware of them.
Unconscious
33. The 24-hour biological cycle that regulates our pattern of sleep is referred to as
circadian rhythm.
34. A class project required a student nurse to make hourly records of her own blood pressure
and body temperature over a 30-day period. When the data were graphed, it became clear that
these readings changed in a predictable way on a daily basis. The reason for this regularity is that
many physiological processes are
governed by circadian rhythms.
35. Your friend Helen works the night shift at the local grocery store every other day. She has
trouble sleeping, which is most likely due to
the fact that her circadian rhythms do not follow a 24-hour cycle.
37. Psychological research on sleep and memory has found that staying up all night to study for
an exam is likely to
decrease memory performance.
38. Which of the following best characterizes a night of sleep?
Our depth of sleep alternates up and down many times.
39. Dreams occurring during ________ sleep are briefer, less vivid, and less emotionally charged
compared to those that occur during ________ sleep.
non-REM; REM
40. Sleepwalking occurs during ________ of the sleep cycle.
stages 3 and 4
41. Night terrors typically occur
during non-REM sleep.

42. Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by


irresistible urges to fall asleep.
43. Narcolepsy is a disorder involving
periodic attacks of uncontrollable sleep attacks.
44. During a heated argument with his teenage daughter, Mr. Reed suddenly lapsed into a stage
of REM sleep. Mr. Reed apparently suffers from
narcolepsy.
45. Grandpa is napping in his recliner and snoring loudly. When he suddenly stops snoring, you
look to see if he is OK. He appears to not be breathing. For a moment you wonder if he's dead,
but suddenly he snorts and resumes snoring. Grandpa appears to suffer from
sleep apnea.
47. Kevin suffers from sleep apnea. With this condition, he reawakens as often as 500 times
during the night due to
a lack of oxygen.
48. According to Sigmund Freud, dreams are
our unconscious desires that we wish to fulfill.
49. Gary turned to his wife when he woke up and said, "You won't believe this dream I had. I
was being chased by men in suits who were riding horses. They had long narrow briefcases and
they were trying to run me down!" If Gary related his dream to a psychodynamic therapist, they
would tell him that what he was really dreaming about not being able to pay his bills. Which
element in this scenario represents the manifest content of the dream?
Gary running for his life
50. According to activation-synthesis theory, dreams
reflect the brain's efforts to make sense out of neural activity that occurs during sleep.
How long is a typical sleep cycle, in which a sleeper progresses through some or all of the sleep
stages?
90 minutes
Mr. Owens always sleeps restlessly, snoring and gasping during the night. It is most likely that
Mr. Owens suffers from
sleep apnea.
Depressants are drugs that:
Slow down nervous system
Which of the following is the first step in the hypnosis process?
A person is made comfortable in a quiet environment.

To which of the following traits does an individual's susceptibility to hypnosis seem


related?
The tendency to become absorbed in one's activities

According to famed hypnosis researcher _____


Hilgard, hypnosis causes a division of consciousness.

Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding potential cross-cultural


variation in the attempt to alter consciousness?
The attempt to alter consciousness appears to be universal, but the particular means to
do so vary from culture to culture.

____ drugs are drugs that influence a person's emotions, perceptions, and behavior.
Psychoactive

Which of the following is not a psychoactive drug?


Antibiotics

According to the text, the DARE program is used in approximately _____ of the school
districts in the U. S.
80%

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the effect of caffeine and
the other stimulants on the nervous system?
They have an arousal effect on the central nervous system.

Caffeine mimics the effects of a natural brain chemical called:


adenosine.

The "date rape" drug is _____; it is a _____.


rohypnol; depressant

MDMA and lysergic acid diethylamide are _____.


Hallucinogens

LSD and Ecstasy influence the operation of the neurotransmitter _____ in the brain.
Serotonin

Drug addiction occurs when a(n)


physical or psychological dependence on taking the drug develops.

Drugs that create a sense of relaxation and lowered inhibitions by reducing the activity
of the central nervous system are called
depressants.

The definition of a binge drinking episode is having more than ___________ drinks in a
row.
5

Jerry who is fairly a conservative person, stopped at a bar on the way home from work
to have a couple of drinks with his friends. On the way home he suddenly pulls into a
retail store and buys a new 60-inch wide-screen TV. What is the most likely explanation
for his behavior?
The alcohol in the drinks reduced his inhibitions and impulse control.

Morphine and heroin are derivatives of


opium.

Your friend reported feeling greater energy and a sense of well-being after taking a
drug.
Medical tests reveal increased activity of her central nervous system. The drug she took
is most likely some type of
stimulant.

Kate, a longtime coffee drinker, complains of pounding headaches and lowered mood
when she skips her coffee in the morning. What is the likely cause of these complaints?
Caffeine withdrawal

The divided consciousness theory of hypnosis is supported by evidence that


hypnotized people can be aware of pain sensation without experiencing emotional
distress.

Which of the following notions regarding hypnosis is false?


People lose all will of their own.

Which of the following is true of altered state of consciousness?


People feel a sense of ineffability.

_____ drugs are drugs that influence a person's emotions, perceptions, and behavior.
Psychoactive

In _____ dependence, people believe that they need the drug to respond to the
stresses of daily living.
Psychological

Assessment of the DARE program has revealed that:


DARE graduates were more likely to use marijuana than was a comparison group of
nongraduates.

Caffeine mimics the effects of a natural brain chemical called:


adenosine.

Nicotine activates neural mechanisms similar to those activated by _____.


Cocaine

Fawn consumed a large amount of the most popular street drug at a party. It gave her a
sense of energy and alertness although she also became anxious and irritable. Which
of the following drugs has she most likely consumed?
Methamphetamine

LSD and Ecstasy influence the operation of the neurotransmitter _____ in the brain.
Serotonin

The need to take increasing amounts of a drug in order to get the same effect is
referred to as
tolerance.

Bethany is experiencing headaches, lethargy, and difficulty concentrating. She most


likely stopped using which drug?
Caffeine

What type of drug is crystal meth?


Amphetamine

Research on the legalization of marijuana in California found


no effect on overall usage.

LSD and marijuana fall into the psychotropic drug category of


hallucinogens.

You decide to undergo hypnosis out of curiosity. You expect that hypnosis will result in a
state of
eightened openness to suggestion.

Approximately what percentage of the population cannot be hypnotized at all? 5%-20%

Stimulants are drugs that


have an arousal effect on the central nervous system, causing a rise in heart rate, blood
pressure, and muscular tension.
Tranquilizers and alcohol belong to a drug category called
depressants.

"Medical marijuana" is known to


All of these

Which of the following notions regarding hypnosis is TRUE?


People cannot be hypnotized against their will.

When traditional practitioners of the ancient Eastern religion of Zen Buddhism want to
achieve greater spiritual insight, they turn to a technique that has been used for
centuries to alter their state of consciousness. This technique is called _____.
Meditation

____ drugs are drugs that produce a biological or psychological dependence in the user
so that withdrawal from them leads to a craving for the drug that, in some cases, may
be nearly irresistible.
Addictive

Which of the following withdrawal symptoms are related to the use of stimulants?
Apathy, general fatigue, prolonged sleep

The use of _____ results in euphoria, relaxed inhibitions, heightened sense of oneself
and insight, and disoriented behavior.
Hallucinogens

Voluntary motor behavior becomes affected when one's blood alcohol content level
reaches:
.10.

Methadone is used to treat addiction to:

heroin.

College students who consume large amounts of alcohol on weekends are abusing
which type(s) of drugs?
Depressants

________ is a psychological state of altered attention and expectation in which an


individual is more open to suggestions.
Hypnosis

The most widely used illegal drug by high school students is


marijuna

1. Learning reflects _____. Maturation reflects _____


nurture; nature
2. _____ is the decrease in response to a stimulus that occurs after repeated presentations of the
same stimulus.
Habituation
3. _____ refers to a decrease in the response to a stimulus when it is presented
repeatedly, whereas _____ refers to the eventual disappearance of a conditioned
response when an unconditioned stimulus is no longer presented.
Habituation; extinction
5. _____ stimulus is a stimulus that does not naturally bring about the response of interest.
Neutral
6. _____ stimulus is a stimulus that naturally brings about a particular response without having
been learned.
Unconditioned

7. In Pavlov's study, the UCS was _____; the neutral stimulus was _____; and, finally, the CS
was _____.
meat; the bell; the bell
8. In classical conditioning, how are the neutral stimulus and the conditioned response related?
The neutral stimulus becomes the conditioned stimulus.
9. Nature is to nurture what _____ is to _____.
unconditioned response; conditioned response
10. Classical conditioning is most successful when the neutral stimulus begins:
just before the unconditioned stimulus begins.
11. Which pair below CORRECTLY identifies a stimulus or response in Watson and Rayner's
"Little Albert" study?
Unconditioned stimulusnoise
12. _____ occurs when a previously conditioned response decreases in frequency and eventually
disappears.
Extinction
13. Which of the following scenarios exemplifies extinction?
Alexis is a former cocaine user. Now that she no longer uses cocaine, her hands no longer shake
and her heart no longer pounds when she hears a car pull into her drive, like her dealer used to do
in his car.
14. Which of the following sequences CORRECTLY arranges the phases of the classical
conditioning process, from first to last?
Acquisition extinction spontaneous recovery
15. Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies spontaneous recovery?
Alexis is a former cocaine user in recovery. After a relapse, though, her hands shake and her
heart pounds when she hears a car pull into her drive, like her dealer used to do in his car.
16. Which of the following is true of stimulus generalization?
The greater the similarity between two stimuli, the greater the likelihood of stimulus
generalization.
17. Which of the following terms best expresses the relationship between stimulus generalization
and stimulus discrimination?
Stimulus discrimination is a type of stimulus generalization.
18. June's cat runs to the kitchen at the sound of the electric can opener, which she has learned is
used to open her food when her dinner is about to be served. The cat does not run when a blender
is used, although it sounds similar. June's cat is demonstrating stimulus:

discrimination.
19. Janine completed several tours of duty in Afghanistan. She suffers from PTSD. Now, back
home in Texas, she is frightened by firecrackers and cars backfiring. The fact that these sounds
scare her reflects a process of stimulus:
generalization.
20. Stimulus _____ provides the ability to differentiate between stimuli.
Discrimination
21. In what way does learned taste aversion seem to contradict the basic principles of classical
conditioning?
Learned taste aversion can occur after only a single CS-UCR pairing.
22. Any situation that involves learning
requires some relatively permanent change to occur.
23. Which of the following behaviors indicate learning?
Simon whines whenever he wants something.
24. In ________ conditioning, organisms learn the association between two stimuli.
Classical
25. Little Julie is watching Dora the Explorer help her mother clean up the kitchen after dinner.
After the show, she walks into the kitchen to help her mommy clean up. Little Julie is
demonstrating
observational learning.
26. In Pavlov's well-known study on classical conditioning, the bell was the ____________
before conditioning and the ____________ after conditioning had occurred.
neutral stimulus; conditioned stimulus
27. Pavlov's dog learned to anticipate food whenever he was presented with stimuli associated
with food. Pavlov knew that his dog associated specific stimuli with food because the
____________ was elicited by the stimuli.
CR
28. Pavlov's dog salivated each time food was presented. Salivation in this situation was the
unconditioned response.
29. In classical conditioning situations, the ____________ connection is innate, while the
____________ connection is learned.
UCS-UCR; CS-CR
30. Which of the following is an example of an innate UCS-UCR connection?
Sneezing in response to pepper

31. Boris is trying to use classical conditioning to teach his goldfish to come to the top of the
tank to eat whenever he turns on the aquarium light. He drops food into the tank and then turns
on the light. After several such trials, the fish show no more inclination to come to the top of the
tank when the light is turned on than they did on the first trial. What would you suggest that
Boris do to improve his training technique?
He should turn on the light before he drops the food into the tank.
32. Dr. Meyer is known for his difficult pop quizzes. Immediately before he springs a pop quiz
on his students, he typically goes to the classroom door and closes it. Students soon learn to
anticipate a pop quiz whenever Dr. Meyer closes the classroom door. Closing the door has
become a(n)
CS.
33. During the winter months, Alfred receives a static shock each time he touches his car door
when exiting his vehicle. Now Alfred flinches right before he touches the door. What represents
the conditioned response?
Flinching before touching the door
34. As Natalie, who has extremely long nails, approaches the chalkboard, many of her classmates
cover their ears. What represents the conditioned stimulus?
Natalie approaching the board
35. Jennifer was stung by a bee several days ago. Now she cries out whenever any flying insect
comes too close. Jennifer is demonstrating
generalization.
36. Bubba, a very smart German shepherd, has learned that if he barks at the neighbors while
they are grilling, they will throw him a treat. However, his owner, Paul, does not want Bubba to
eat "people" food. When Paul is in the yard, Bubba never barks at the neighbors. According to
operant conditioning principles, Bubba is demonstrating that he can
discriminate.
37. Tyler's grandmother used to receive emails from him every day, so she would check her inbox regularly. Since Tyler went off to college, the emails have basically stopped. As a result, she
no longer checks her in-box on a daily basis. If this pattern continues, we can expect
____________ to occur.
Extinction
38. Marcia was romantically involved with John. Unfortunately, Marcia eventually discovered
that John was being a complete jerk, so she ended the relationship. One day in the mall, she
suddenly gets a whiff of the cologne that John always wore. All the former good feelings come
pouring back. This is an example of
spontaneous recovery.
39. Watson and Raynor conditioned fear in Little Albert using a ____________ as a CS.

white rat
40. It should take about 30 minutes for the aspirin Manny just took to relieve his headache, but
Manny feels better within minutes. This is an example of
the placebo effect.
41. John is taking an agent that causes nausea every time he smokes a cigarette. This is a form of
aversive conditioning.
42. Kenny ate several hot dogs at the baseball game. Several hours later he got very nauseous
and spent most of the night being physically sick. We can expect that he will
be unable to eat a hot dog at the next ball game he attends.
43. Some children with seizure problems bang their heads against a wall, causing themselves
serious injury. As a result, a psychologist might administer a brief electric shock to such a child
every time she bangs her head on the wall. This would be an example of
aversive conditioning.
44. In a particular TV add, an attractive model is shown with a red Corvette. Which of the
following statements is correct?
The ad will work best if the Corvette precedes the appearance of the attractive person.
45. Which of the following statements about classical conditioning is accurate?
It is a form of respondent behavior.
The root of operant conditioning may be traced to _____'s early studies of hungry cats
learning to escape from cages.
Thorndike

Which of the following approaches to treating a phobia is/are CORRECTLY matched


with the type of learning it reflects?
Reinforcing client directly by interacting with the feared object - operant conditioning

Reinforcers that satisfy a biological need are called _____ reinforcers.


Primary

Nature is to nurture what _____ reinforcers are to _____ reinforcers.


primary; secondary

Which of the following is an example of a secondary reinforcer?


Money

As part of a behavior modification program, Kendra and her partner each agree to
praise the other if she completes her assigned household chores by the end of the day.
Such praise is an example of:
secondary reinforcement and positive reinforcement.

Which of the following types of consequences is CORRECTLY matched with an


example?
Positive punishment - Laurel's mother yells at her when Laurel takes $20 from her
mom's purse

Typically long pauses in responding are found in _____ schedules.


fixed-interval

A privately funded program pays low-income parents $50 every two months for each
child who attends school regularly during that period. This incentive illustrates a _____
schedule of reinforcement.
fixed-interval

Sheryl makes pleasant small talk and pays her boss a compliment before asking for a
personal day, because such a strategy was successful with a few of her previous
bosses. This example most clearly illustrates:
stimulus generalization.

Recall Tolman's latent learning experiments in which rats learned to run a maze. What
was the critical result?
Rats that began to receive an incentive halfway through the experiment rapidly matched
the performance of rats that had been reinforced from the beginning of the experiment.
A(n) _____ is a mental representation of spatial locations and directions.
cognitive map

Learning by watching the behavior of another person, or model is known as _____.


observational learning

Which of the following is NOT associated with Skinner?


Conditioned stimulus

Melvin is a new fifth-grade teacher. Unfortunately, many of his new students have a
history of failing to complete their assignments. He wants to encourage his students to
complete all of their assignments and to do well on them. From a behavioral
perspective, Melvin should

reinforce gradual approximations to the desired goal of completing 100% of the


assignments.

Gary takes his car to the auto shop for routine maintenance every 3,000 miles. He is
trying to avoid a major repair bill in the future. His behavior demonstrates
negative reinforcement.

Shirley refuses to put her name up for a promotion because she knows she will not get
the job anyway. This is an example of
learned helplessness.

Carol gives her dog, Oscar, a treat each time he sits on command. Carol is using a
________ schedule to train her dog to sit on command.
continuous reinforcement

Josh has a crush on the girl at the movie rental store. He knows that she works every
Thursday afternoon, so he only visits the store on Thursdays. Josh is operating on a
________ schedule.
Fixed interval

What principles of learning do behavior modification programs rely on in order to help


people change?
Operant

"Responses that lead to satisfying consequences are more likely to be repeated." This
is the law of:
effect.

Negative reinforcement:
increases the likelihood that preceding behaviors will be repeated.

Which of the following scenarios exemplifies negative reinforcement?


Vanna fastens her seatbelt as soon as she gets in her car to stop the annoying alert
sound

_____ weakens a response through the application of an unpleasant stimulus.


Positive punishment

Which of the following types of consequences is CORRECTLY matched with an


example?
Negative reinforcement - Jeff puts up his umbrella when it starts to sprinkle so he won't
get wet

A variable-ratio schedule is a schedule:


by which reinforcement occurs after a fluctuating number of responses rather than after
a fixed number.

Which of the following does not accurately reflect a distinction between classical and
operant conditioning?
Classical conditioning applies to voluntary behavior, while operant conditioning applies
to involuntary behavior.

Dr. Simonelli is a practicing behavior analyst. What does she do?


She specializes in behavior modification techniques.

Observational learning is based in part on the activity of _____ neurons in the brain.
Mirror

Mary is a teacher in an inner-city school that is considered "at-risk" because of low


student achievement scores. She notices that most of the students believe that
academic ability or intelligence is a fixed, innate ability. What can Mary expect from
students given this mind-set?
They will exhibit learned helplessness in academically challenging situations.

Fred's parents are very inconsistent. Most of the time Fred climbs on the furniture
without receiving any reprimands; however, sometimes he is punished for this behavior.
Fred's parents cannot understand why he is not a better behaved child. Fred's parents
are reinforcing his negative behaviors on a ________ schedule.
partial reinforcement

Which of the following is an example of positive punishment?


Getting scolded

Which process determines whether or not an imitated or modeled act will be repeated?
Reinforcement

On the way home from work, you decide to explore a side street that you have passed
on several occasions. You are surprised to find that it runs parallel to the expressway.
Several weeks later, there is a major accident on your usual travel route so you take this
alternate route home. This is an example of ________ learning.
Latent

Operant conditioning most importantly involves forming associations between:


behavior and consequences.

The process by which a stimulus increases the likelihood that a preceding behavior will
be repeated is called:
reinforcement.

The term reward is synonymous with:


positive reinforcement only.

A(n) _____ reinforcer refers to the removal of an unpleasant stimulus, putting on a


sweater when your cold for example, which leads to an increase in the probability that a
preceding response will be repeated in the future.
Negative

One reason Carlos continues to work at his job is the check he receives every two
weeks. Carlos' paycheck is a _____ reinforcer.
Secondary

Behavior that is reinforced every time it occurs is said to be on a(n) _____


reinforcement schedule
Continuous

A fixed-ratio schedule is a schedule:


by which reinforcement is given only after a specific number of responses are made.

Typically long pauses in responding are found in _____ schedules.


fixed-interval

The cognitive learning concept of _____ learning is associated most prominently with
_____.
latent; Tolman

Melvin is a new fifth-grade teacher. Unfortunately, many of his new students have a
history of failing to complete their assignments. He wants to encourage his students to
complete all of their assignments and to do well on them. From a behavioral
perspective, Melvin should
reinforce gradual approximations to the desired goal of completing 100% of the
assignments.

If, through experience, you come to the conclusion that all things are beyond your
control and therefore you should not even try, you are exhibiting
learned helplessness.

Which of the following is a primary reinforcer?


Candy

Little Henry knows that when he goes shopping with Mommy and throws a tantrum, he
never gets a treat. However, he also knows that if he throws a tantrum when Dad takes
him, Dad always gives in. Little Henry is demonstrating
discrimination.

For the past month, Larry has been grounded each time he hits his little brother. Lately,
Larry's misbehavior toward his little brother has decreased. Grounding Larry is an
example of
negative punishment.

In Sweden, it is illegal for parents to spank their children. Since the laws were passed,
youth rates of crime have
remained the same.

"Responses that lead to satisfying consequences are more likely to be repeated." This
is the law of:
Effect

A(n) _____ reinforcer refers to the removal of an unpleasant stimulus, putting on a


sweater when your cold for example, which leads to an increase in the probability that a
preceding response will be repeated in the future.
Negative

Which of the following is not a disadvantage of punishment?


It tends to change behavior very slowly.

Which of the following promotions exemplifies the use of a fixed-ratio schedule of


reinforcement?
A caf offers its customers a punch card. Each time a patron purchases a beverage, a
hole is punched; when ten holes are punched, the patron receives a free beverage.

Which of the following is an example of negative punishment?

Informing an employee that he has been demoted because of a poor job evaluation.

A variable-interval schedule is a schedule:


by which reinforcement occurs after a varying number of responses rather than after a
fixed number.

Matt wants to train his dog, Buster, to sit on command. He gives Buster a doggie biscuit
each time Buster sits when commanded, but only for the first 10 trials. He then changes
the rules. Buster now has to sit on command three times before he gets a biscuit. Matt
first used a ________ schedule, and then a ________ schedule to train Buster.
continuous reinforcement schedule; fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement

In operant conditioning
the consequences of behavior produce change in the probability of the occurrence of
the behavior.

Kevin used to cry, whine, throw temper tantrums, and eventually start screaming in the
department store whenever he wanted a toy. His mother would resist initially but when
he would start screaming she would give in. Eventually, Kevin started with the
screaming to get his toy. Kevin is demonstrating
the law of effect.

David earns $1,000 every time his sales reach $100,000. For David, the bonus is an

example of ________ reinforcement.


Positive

_____ punishment consists of the removal of something pleasant.


Negative

_____ learning occurs without reinforcement.


latent

Four-month-old Simon quickly learns that he will be picked up if he cries. From a


behaviorist perspective, picking up Simon whenever he cries is a ________ for the
baby.
positive reinforce

The process of teaching complex behavior by reinforcing ever closer approximations of


the desired behavior is called:
Shaping

Cecil turns off all the lights in his house to avoid a huge electric bill. Cecil's behavior is
an example of

negative reinforcement.

A variable-interval schedule is a schedule:


by which the time between reinforcements fluctuates around some average rather than
being fixed.

Ewan is convinced that a woman across the bar is "sending signals." A learning theorist
would term such signals:
discriminative stimuli.

A worker is paid $25 for every 20 wind chimes that she builds. On which schedule of
reinforcement is she being paid?
Fixed ratio

Kayla is selling her Girl Scout cookies in the neighborhood. She never knows how many
houses she will have to visit before she sells all of her cookies. Kayla is operating on a
________ schedule.
Variable ratio

Which of the following is the response most parents give when asked why they
physically punish their children?
The parent was spanked as a child and his or her child also needs strong discipline.

Some bears kept in captivity allow veterinarians to routinely give them total body
checkups. These bears open their mouths for teeth cleaning and present their paws for
nail clipping. Your friend wonders how anyone could ever get these dangerous animals
to be so cooperative without anesthesia. From your study of psychology, you quickly
surmise that the bears have undergone an extensive ________ program.
Shaping

Which of the following is the response most parents give when asked why they
physically punish their children?
The parent was spanked as a child and his or her child also needs strong discipline.

2. Material in memory storage has to be located and brought into awareness to be useful. This
process is known as _____.
Retrieval
3. Which of the following sequences best reflects the order of stages in the three-stage model of
memory?
Sensory memory short-term memory long-term memory
4. _____ memory refers to the initial, momentary storage of information that lasts only an
instant.
Sensory
5. A research participant is required to report as much of a poem as he can remember
immediately after having read the poem once. We would expect the greatest number of recall
errors in lines:
in the middle of the poem.
6. Which of the following expressions best reflects the capacity of short-term memory?
About seven +/- two chunks
7. Grouping pieces of information together to expand the effective capacity of short-term
memory is termed _____.

Chunking
9. We look up a number in the phone book, push the book away, and then begin to dial the
number. Why do we discourage an interruption during this process?
Information lasts only 15-25 seconds in short-term memory.
10. Rehearsal refers to the:
repetition of information that has entered short-term memory.
11. The conscious repetition of information to ensure its survival in short-term memory is termed
_____ rehearsal.
Elaborative
12. The concept of working memory represents a contemporary conceptualization of _____
memory.
short-term
13. On your computer desktop, you can see all sorts of different files, each immediately
accessible. Because you are actively working on them, and because you can open them whenever
you want, these files are in fact very similar to the kind of information held in:
working memory.
14. Which of the following statements is true of working memory?
Working memory permits us to keep information in an active state briefly so that we can do
something with the information.
15. Which of the following accurately describes the processing of information in working
memory?
Working memory uses cognitive resources during its operation which makes us less aware of our
surroundings.
16. Which of the following best describes the effect of stress on working memory capacity?
Stress can reduce the effectiveness of working memory by reducing its capacity.
17. The primacy effect refers to the fact that:
items presented early in a list are remembered better than items in the middle of the list.
19. The recency effect refers to the fact that:
items presented late in a list are remembered better than items presented in the middle of a list.
20. "Milk, cereal, candy." Your roommate begins reciting items as you get ready to leave to the
store. He continues to list a few more items. Finally, he wraps up: "Spaghetti sauce, dish liquid,
and ice tea mix." You forget a few things, but the spaghetti sauce, dish liquid, and ice tea mix are
in the bag. Your memory for these items reflects the _____ effect.
Recency

21. Which of the following refers to declarative memory?


Memory for names
22. _____ memory is memory for general knowledge and facts about the world, as well as
memory for the rules of logic that are used to deduce other facts.
Semantic
23. Activating one memory triggers the activation of related memories in a process known as:
spreading activation.
24. The hippocampus is located in the _____ lobe.
Temperal
25. Which of the following is true of the neuroscience of memory?
The amygdala is especially involved with memories involving emotion.
26. Long-term potentiation refers to the process whereby:
neural pathways become activated more easily as learning occurs.
27. The term engram is generally discouraged by psychologists studying memory. Why might
this be?
There is probably no single site or process in the brain corresponding to a particular memory.
28. Akira Haraguchi demonstrated amazing memory ability when he recited all 80,000 digits of
pi. What process in the human memory system did he utilize?
Retrieval
29. Which of the following is NOT one of the three main memory processes?
Thinking
30. Which of the following is NOT included in the encoding process?
Testing yourself
34. Your mom is always giving you grief about how you surf the Web and send text messages
while you are studying. You explain that multitasking does not affect your grades. Is your
position supported by the information presented in the textbook?
No; studies have confirmed that individuals do not do well on memory tests of information that
was acquired while performing other tasks.
35. Steve is studying with his friend Mike for their biology test. Mike asks Steve about a
particular concept, and Steve replies, "I know I was in class that day, but I don't even have that in
my notes. Are you sure the professor mentioned it?" Steve is demonstrating a(n) ________
failure.
Encoding

36. Fifteen-year-old Matt and his father are in an electronics store looking at video game
systems. Matt gives his father a complete breakdown of the pros and cons of each of the different
video game systems on display. Matt is able to accurately recall all of these details because he
has
deeply processed this information.
37. According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin theory of memory, memory storage involves which of the
following three systems?
Sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory
38. You most likely store the seven-digit phone number from your previous address in ________
memory.
Long-term
39. You tell your friends about the great time you had at a famous amusement park. Most of the
visual and auditory sensations that you experienced and have now forgotten were initially
processed in your ________ memory.
Sensory
40. You are engrossed in your favorite TV show in the living room. Your roommate yells for you
to bring a flyswatter to the kitchen. Vaguely aware that a request is being made of you, you ask
your roommate to repeat herself. Before she can reply, however, the sound of the words "bring a
flyswatter to the kitchen" play through your mind. This is an example of ________ memory.
Echoic
41. Which of the following is TRUE of short-term memory?
It is a limited-capacity memory system.
42. George Miller's classic paper on the seven plus or minus two phenomenon refers to a person's
________ memory.
short-term
43. Chunking involves
packing together information that exceeds the seven plus or minus two rule.
47. Being able to consciously recall information from the past and recite it, involves what type of
memory?
Declarative
44. When asked to memorize these 15 lettersC I A C B S A B C F B I I R SMary
reorganized them into CIA, CBS, ABC, FBI, and IRS. Mary used the tactic of
chunking.
45. Talking to people about what you have learned is a form of
rehearsal.

46. ________ memory is the conscious recollection of facts and events that you can verbally
communicate.
Declarative
49. You are relaxing beside a water display in the park. The quiet, scenic environment reminds
you of a poem you read in English class last week. This is an example of ________ memory.
Episodic
50. Remembering the name of the author who wrote The Cat in the Hat is referred to as
________ memory.
Semantic
51. If you remember dancing at your high school prom, it is an example of ________ memory; if
you showed me the dance steps you used, it is an example of ________ memory.
episodic; procedural
52. The activation of information that a person already has in storage is referred to as
priming.
53. A preexisting mental concept or framework that helps people organize and interpret
information is referred to as a
schema.
54. Long-term potentiation is a concept that explains
how memory functions at the neuronal level.
55. In John's favorite picture, he is riding with his father on a lawn mower. John also likes the
smell of freshly mowed grass. Which of the following cues do you predict will elicit the
strongest emotional memory in John?
Smell of freshly cut grass
56. Margaret fell down her basement stairs and suffered serious injury to her amygdala. What
memory problems is she most likely to experience?
Difficulty with emotional memories
57. Juanita is an administrative assistant in the human resources department of a local business.
She has noticed that in nearly every case, the last person interviewed for a job gets hired. What
effect of memory may be influencing the hiring practice?
Recency
58. George just graduated from college and is going on his first job interview. He has learned that
there are two other candidates. Because of the information he has learned about the serial
position effect, George asks to be either the first or the last candidate interviewed. Why?
Either the first or the last candidate will be best remembered.

59. According to the serial position effect, if you are a waiter trying to remember all the orders
for a table of seven, you should pay particular attention to the ________ orders.
3rd, 4th, and 5th
60. Your roommate, Rhiana, asks your advice on how to best study for her final exams. Because
of your knowledge of context dependent memory, you recommend that she study
quietly in the classroom in which she is to take her exam.
61. Detectives take advantage of context-dependent memory by
taking witnesses back to the scene of the crime.
62. Kim was telling her friend about her most recent trip to her grandmother's house, but was
having trouble remembering certain details. Later that month she visited her grandmother again
and the details came flooding back. This is an example of
the effects of context on retrieval.
Ralph is preparing a report on his academic field trip to a manufacturing plant. He is
trying to remember each event of the trip in the order in which it occurred to prepare an
accurate report in a presentable form. Which of the following memory tasks is Ralph
using?
Recall

According to the levels-of-processing theory, which of the following students should


retrieve information more successfully on classroom tests?
Irene, who pays close attention to what is taught in class

"I know it! It's um . . . um . . . ," begins a trivia game contestant excitedly. The contestant
is engaged in a test of her _____ memory.
Explicit

Memories of which we are not consciously aware are called _____ memories.

Implicit

_____ is a phenomenon in which exposure to a word or concept later makes it easier to


recall related information, even when there is no conscious memory of the word or
concept.
Priming

Flashbulb memories:
typically concern major, unexpected public or personal events.

Christopher clearly remembers that he was practicing his dialogues for his school play
when he heard that the governor of his state had been assassinated. This is an
example of a(n) _____ memory.
Flashbulb

During a conversation, Jerry told his friend that their favorite rock band was coming to
perform in their city. However, he could not remember the medium through which he got
the information about the show. Jerry was experiencing:
source amnesia.

Loftus and Palmer (1974) conducted an experiment in which participants estimated the
speed of a car described as either contacting or smashing into another. To which of the
following conclusions regarding eyewitness memory is this study most relevant?

Eyewitnesses confidence is only weakly related to eyewitness memory.

The idea that disturbing memories may be repressed derives from:


Freud's psychoanalytic theory.

The first attempts to study forgetting scientifically were made by the German
psychologist:
Hermann Ebbinghaus.

Which of the following statements best describes the fate of the decay theory of
forgetting in psychology?
It is an incomplete theory of forgetting.

In _____ interference, information learned earlier disrupts the recall of information


learned more recently; in _____ interference, recently learned information disrupts the
recall of information learned earlier.
proactive; retroactive

_____, an illness characterized in part by severe memory problems, is the fourth


leading cause of death among adults in the United States.
Alzheimer's disease

In _____ amnesia, memory is lost for events preceding an injury or accident; in _____
amnesia, memory is lost for events following an injury or accident.
retrograde; anterograde

An individual's autobiographical memory forms the core of the individual's


personal identity.

Which of the following is likely to create a flashbulb memory?


All of these

Eyewitness accounts of crimes are


prone to errors.

According to decay theory, memories fade because


a neurochemical "memory trace" disintegrates over time.

In H. M.'s surgery, the part of his brain responsible for laying down new memories was
damaged beyond repair. The result was
amnesia.

_____ is a memory task in which individuals are presented with a stimulus and asked
whether they have been exposed to it in the past or to identify it from a list of
alternatives.

Recognition

The levels-of-processing approach:


suggests that thinking about material leads to better memory than does maintenance
rehearsal.

Some psychologists consider classical conditioning to be a form of implicit memory.


Which of the following is probably the best reason for suggesting that classical
conditioning is a type of implicit memory?
Classical conditioning occurs outside awareness.

Which of the following is true of flashbulb memories?


The details recalled in flashbulb memories are often inaccurate.

____ amnesia occurs when an individual has a memory for some material but cannot
recall where he or she encountered it.
Source

The unconscious process whereby disturbing memories are prevented from entering
awareness is called:
repression.

Which of the following alternatives best expresses psychologist Elizabeth Loftus'


position on the validity of repressed memories?
Repressed memories are often false. They reflect confusion regarding the source of a
memory.

With respect to the potential influence of a written language on the recall ability of a
culture's members, research has:
revealed that a written language probably has little influence on people's memory ability.

Which of the following best describes the results of Ebbinghaus's work on forgetting?
You'll forget most of it right away, and you'll keep on forgetting more of it, though at a
slower rate.

Jerry is at a party. He is introduced to three different people in the span of a moment.


Later, he is approached by the first person he met and cannot remember her name.
Which of the following is most likely the source of Jerry's difficulty?
Jerry failed to encode the woman's name.

Which theory of forgetting is correctly matched with its description?


DecayInformation is lost over time as a result of nonuse.

Pierre has been an alcoholic for several decades. Now in his 50s, his intellectual
abilities are intact, but he suffers from memory deficits and hallucinations. Based on this

information, you suspect that Pierre may be afflicted with:

Korsakoff's syndrome.

Encoding failure occurs when


The information was never entered into long-term memory.

A few years ago, you had a boyfriend named Phil. Now, you have a new boyfriend
named Stephen. Because of ________, you sometimes call Stephen by the wrong
name.
proactive interference

You are taking both Spanish and French this semester. As you study the vocabulary
words for your French test, you realize that the French words are disrupting the memory
of the Spanish vocabulary words you studied last week. This is an example of
proactive interference.

Both of Suzie's parents suffered from Alzheimer's disease before they died. Although
still in her early 40s, Suzie is very concerned about her own cognitive functioning. What
advice can you give her based what you know about the science of memory?
"Engage in challenging cognitive tasks as frequently as you can."

Why is it so difficult to retrieve information from long-term memory?

There is so much information being stored in long-term memory.

Which of the following searches explicit memory?


Trying to remember a name encountered or learned about previously

_____ is a process in which memories are influenced by the meaning we give to events.
Constructive process

Dr. Tranh has given so many lectures that he gives little thought to what he expects
might happen: He assumes students will assemble, take notes, and occasionally ask a
question. That Dr. Tranh finds the process so routine reflects the development of:
a schema.

The idea that disturbing memories may be repressed derives from:


Freud's psychoanalytic theory.

One's culture is most likely to influence:


The strategies one uses to recall information from long-term memory.

Drew is unable to recall whether Lincoln's head faces left or right on the penny. Which of
the following is probably the best explanation for Drew's memory failure?
The information was not encoded, because Drew never really paid attention to Lincoln's
head on the penny.

Repression is
motivated forgetting.

According to Hermann Ebbinghaus,


most forgetting occurs soon after we originally learned something.

A few years ago, you had a boyfriend named Phil. Now, you have a new boyfriend
named Stephen. Because of ________, you sometimes call Stephen by the wrong
name.
proactive interference

Which of the following is true of the levels-of-processing theory?


At an intermediate level of processing, information is translated into meaningful units.

A typical multiple-choice question on a psychology test is an example of both a _____


and a(n) _____ test of memory.
recognition; explicit

Bart remembers the release date of his favorite movie director's upcoming project.
Which of the following forms of memory would have helped Bart?
Explicit memory

A schema is:
a conceptual framework for interpreting a situation.

The unconscious process whereby disturbing memories are prevented from entering
awareness is called:
repression.

In _____ interference, information learned earlier disrupts the recall of information


learned more recently; in _____ interference, recently learned information disrupts the
recall of information learned earlier.
proactive; retroactive

Motivated forgetting is usually associated with what type of memories?


Traumatic

According to Hermann Ebbinghaus,


most forgetting occurs soon after we originally learned something.

Mickey is about to take his psychology final. Just before the exam, the person sitting
next to Mickey asks him the name of the physiologist who worked on classical
conditioning. Mickey suddenly realizes that he cannot quite remember the name, but he
knows that it starts with a P and is two syllables long. Mickey is experiencing:
The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.

A stimulus that facilitates the recall of information from long-term memory is called a:
retrieval cue.

The levels-of-processing approach suggests:


specific information will be retained for longer when the level of information processing
is deeper.

Middle-aged Mrs. Lovett is recalling her first Christmas as a young newlywed at her inlaws' Wyoming ranch. This is a(n) _____ memory.
Autobiographical

Shauna is an excellent student. She rewrites her class notes after each class. Rewriting
her notes is a form of memory
rehearsal.

Which of the following best encapsulates autobiographical memory?


Autobiographical memory is just as inaccurate as other types of memory are. Some
periods of one's life are recalled more easily than are others.

Owen has trouble remembering a friend's new phone number; he keeps recalling the
old number instead. Completing a rental application, Pippa finds she can't recall one of

her previous addresses, as she's had several addresses since. Owen is experiencing
_____ interference; Pippa is experiencing _____.
proactive; retroactive interference

A soap opera character who had a major head trauma cannot remember any post-injury
people or events, but his memory for people and events prior to his injury is perfect. Is
this fictional tale possible in the real world?
Yes; amnesia involving new events is called anterograde amnesia.

Chad is puzzling over a difficult question on a multiple-choice sociology test. He rereads the question, scans the options beneath the question, and glances at other
questions on the test. Most likely, Chad is looking for:
retrieval cues.

1. _____ psychology is the branch of psychology that focuses on the study of higher mental
processes, including thinking, language, memory, problem solving, knowing, reasoning,
and judging.
Cognitive
2. Which of the following is true about mental images?
They are representations in the mind of an object or event.
3. Clint is mentally rehearsing his golf swing in his mind's eye. Based on the text's
discussion of mental imagery, which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
Clint's mental rehearsal should improve his golf swing. Carrying out the task
involves the same network of brain cells as the network used in mentally rehearsing
it.

4. Mental representations of objects are called _____; mental grouping of similar objects,
events, or people are called _____.
images; concepts
5. A prototype is:
the most typical or highly representative example of a concept.
6. Which of the following is MOST likely the prototype of the concept "fruit"?
Apple
7. _____ is the process by which information is used to draw conclusions and make
decisions.
Reasoning
8. Syllogisms are used to study:
reasoning.
9.

Formal reasoning in which people draw a conclusion from a set of assumptions is known
as _____ reasoning.
Syllogistic
10. Consider the following syllogism:
(1) All Houstonians are Texans
(2) Some Houstonians attend church
(3) Some Texans attend church
Which of the following alternatives correctly identifies a statement in this syllogism?
Statement 3conclusion

10. A rule that guarantees the solution to a problem when it is correctly applied is termed as
a(n):
algorithm.
12. Which of the following is true of heuristics?
In cases where algorithms are not available, we may use heuristics.
13. Which of the following terms best captures the meaning of the term heuristic, as
cognitive psychologists use it?
Strategy
14. Which of the following most likely makes use of heuristics?
An article by a Nobel Prize winner titled "How to Succeed in Science"
15. Which of the following is TRUE of heuristics?
Heuristics represent commonly used approaches to the solution of a problem.

16. The _____ is a rule we apply when we judge people by the degree to which they
depict a certain category or group of people.
representativeness heuristic
17. When you use the representativeness heuristic, you are:
assuming that something is typical of its class.
19. Following the September 11, 2001, Twin Towers attacks, many Americans elected to
drive rather than fly. The media coverage of the hijackings caused Americans to
overestimate the danger of flying. As it was an event they remember easily they assumed
it could occur more frequently. This example illustrates the:
availability heuristic.
20. When people are asked which is more common, death by homicide or death by
stroke, they often choose homicide because they simply hear more about murders than
they do about strokes. In this instance, people are led astray in their judgments by:
the availability heuristic.
21. "You always clam up when I ask you what's wrong," Iris tells her boyfriend. Iris is
probably making this frequency judgment because she can remember a few times that her
boyfriend wouldn't tell her what was bothering him. Iris is using the _____ heuristic.
Availability
22. In a _____ heuristic, known items are seen as superior to those that are unknown.
Familiarity
23. When you go to the supermarket, you see the brand of cookies you usually buy, and
settle for it. Usually it's a good rule of thumb, because it saves a lot of time. You do not
ponder over every type of cookie available in the store. This is an example of a(n) _____.
familiarity heuristic
24. _____ intelligence is the field that examines how to use technology to imitate the
outcome of human thinking, problem solving, and creative activities.
Artificial
25. When the field of cognitive psychology first became prominent, it was considered a
revolutionary development because it was a radical departure from
behaviorism.
26. Although used often, the comparison between the computer and human information
processing is oversimplified. Why?
Computer information input is precoded and ambiguities are removed before
processing.

27. Your roommate argues that computers can perform several complex tasks better and
more accurately than humans. You counter her argument with the mention of
___________, a task that only humans can perform.
developing new learning goals
28. Which of the following would NOT be a defining property of the prototype of an
airplane?
It is silver.
29. In everyday situations, finding and framing problems can be difficult because most
real-life problems
are vague and ill-defined.
30. An effective way to strategize your organization of subgoals is to
work backward in your planning.
31. You have to study four chapters of information for your next test. If you decide to use
the problem-solving strategy of using subgoals, you must
breakdown the topics to be studied and focus on each in an organized sequence.
32. You have to cook dinner for 30 people on Saturday of this coming weekend. Your
apartment is a mess, and you have nothing to wear. You decide to do your laundry
Thursday night, buy the groceries on Friday, clean the apartment Saturday morning, and
cook the dinner Saturday evening. This process of defining intermediate problems is
known as
creating subgoals.
33. Who would benefit the most from making subgoals?
Suki has to read a chapter in her sociology textbook.
34. Ivan has misplaced his keys. If he decides to use an algorithmic approach to find
them, he will
start going through each drawer in his house.
35. What is the main difference between an algorithm and a heuristic?
An algorithm always leads to a correct solution, while a heuristic does not.
36. When comparing algorithms and heuristics, what is a potential advantage of using
heuristics for solving real-life problems?
Convenience
37. Cathy just got transferred to a new department. She has long believed that her new
supervisor is a cranky, disagreeable person. According to confirmation bias, what will
Cathy most likely do on her first day in the new supervisor's department?
She will look for negative behaviors on the part of the supervisor.

38. Maria is extremely active in politics. She has strong conservative beliefs about what
is correct and what is not. Each day when she reads the newspaper, she pays close
attention to the editorial section in particular. According to confirmation bias, what will
she do when she reads them?
She will only read the editorials that she agrees with.
39. Many smokers like to point to the late George Burns, a famous actor who smoked
cigars continuously for many years and lived to be nearly 100, as evidence that smoking
is relatively harmless. These individuals tend to ignore the thousands of people who die
every year from lung cancer. They are utilizing
confirmation bias.
40. After the outcome of an election is announced, you state that you knew all along what
the outcome would be. This is a form of
hindsight bias.
42. The fact that we hear about airplane crashes on the news more often than we hear
about automobile crashes may lead us to believe that we are more likely to die in a plane
than a car. This is an example of a(n)
availability heuristic.
43. Samantha's belief that Gabe, who is muscular and wearing gym shorts, is a member
of the football team is an example of
the representativeness heuristic.
44. You would be most likely to seek out information that refutes your hypothesis when
you engage in
Critical thinking
45. Which activity probably requires mindfulness?
Studying psychology
46. Who is LEAST likely to exhibit mindfulness as part of their regular job
responsibilities?
The usher at the movie theater
47. Being receptive to other ways of looking at things is best described as
open-mindedness.
48. ________ thinking is best when a problem has only one right answer.
Convergent
49. Which of the following is NOT a descriptor of creative thinkers?
Externally motivated
50. Creative thinkers are NOT usually

motivated by the feedback of others.


1. Thomas Edison invented the lightbulb only because he experimented with thousands
of different kinds of materials for a filament before he found one that worked (carbon).
This shows that at the most basic level, we can solve problems through _____.
trial and error

2. _____ involves repeated tests for differences between the desired outcome and what
currently exists.
Means-ends analysis

3. According to the text, the most frequently used problem-solving heuristic is:
means-ends analysis.

4. Millie is stumped by a problem in her pre-calculus text. She furtively glances at the
answer provided in the back of the text to get an idea of how the solution should look
before she returns to the problem. Millie's strategy most closely resembles the problemsolving heuristic of:
working backward.

5. The study of insight is associated with the German psychologist _____; he studied
problem solving among _____.
Kohler; chimpanzees

6. _____ is defined as a sudden awareness of the relationship among problem


elements; it is thought to lead rapidly to the problem's solution.
Insight

7. The text's discussion of insight suggests that its key characteristic is its:
suddenness.

8. Which of the following impediments to effective problem solving is INCORRECTLY


matched with an illustrative problem?
Functional fixednesswater jar problem

9. _____ refers to the tendency for old patterns of problem solving to persist.
Mental set

10. A jeweler is unable to fix a particular mounting in a ring because she can imagine
only the conventional uses for her tools. This best demonstrates which of the following?
Functional fixedness

11. _____ is the tendency to seek out and weight


more heavily information that supports one's initial hypothesis and to ignore
contradictory information that supports alternative hypotheses or solutions.
Confirmation bias

12. Nigel often cites newspaper editorials favoring the presidential candidate he
supports; he appears to ignore editorials critical of the candidate. Nigel appears prone
to:
the confirmation bias.

13. The ability to generate original ideas or develop novel solutions to problems is
known as:
creativity.

14. Someone relying on convergent thinking would answer _____ to the query "What
can you do with a toothbrush?"
"You brush your teeth with it"

15. As compared to less creative individuals, creative persons:


prefer more complex stimuli.

16. Which of the following is true of creativity?


Cognitive complexity is an important aspect of creativity.

17. Traditional intelligence tests tend to assess _____ thinking; tests of creativity tap into
_____.
convergent; divergent thinking

18. Phonology is the study of:


speech sounds.

19. Linguists have identified more than _____ different phonemes among all the world's
languages.
more than 800

20. Approximately how many phonemes are found in English?


52

21. In written language, letters most closely represent _____, whereas sentences may
be said to reflect _____.
phonemes; syntax

22. Which of the following sequences correctly orders the components of language, from
the smallest or most specific to the broadest?
Phoneme syntax semantics

23. What is meant by the notion of a critical period for language acquisition?
It is the time in one's childhood in which a child is particularly sensitive to language cues and
24. The text reports the case of a girl named Genie, who was exposed to virtually no
language from the age of 20 months until the age of 13. In what way does Genie's case

offer support for the notion of a critical period in language acquisition?


Even with intensive instruction, Genie acquired only a very small vocabulary after
the age of 13; furthermore, she never mastered the complexities of language.

25. You are creating a language development timeline for a class presentation. Along
the top of a display board, you write the following ages in sequence: 6 months 1 year
2 years 3 years
How should you label these ages, from youngest to oldest?
Babbling first words telegraphic speech overgeneralization

26. Dorian is 2 years old; Constance is 2.5. Dorian's vocabulary probably contains
around _____ words; Constance's, _____ words.
about 50; several hundred

27. Connie is telling her mother a story about a scary dog she encountered in a
neighbor's yard. "Then I runned away," Connie concludes. Which language acquisition
phenomenon is Connie demonstrating? About how old is Connie?
Connie is overgeneralizing. She is probably 3-4 years old.

28. The theory that language acquisition follows the principles of reinforcement and
conditioning is known as the _____ approach.
learning-theory

29. The view that language development is produced through a combination of


genetically determined predispositions and environmental circumstances that help teach
language is known as the _____ approach.
interactionist

30. Theorists taking an interactionist approach to language acquisition:


agree that the brain is hardwired to acquire language.

31. The _____ hypothesis suggests language leads to thought.


linguistic-relativity

32. Which figure best approximates the number of Americans for whom English is a
second language?
47 million

33. In _____, students are educated in their native language and in English
simultaneously; in _____, they are educated only in English.
bilingual education; immersion programs

35. You tell your roommate, "I misplaced my wallet." Your roommate exclaims, "Oh my
goodness, you lost your wallet?" You respond, "No, I didn't lose my wallet, I misplaced
it." This exchange best demonstrates the ________ aspect of language.
semantic

36. The bicycle talked the boy into buying a candy bar. This sentence is
syntactically correct but semantically incorrect.

37. Evidence of the role of language in cognitive activities includes the fact that
memory is stored in the form of words.

38. Critics of the work of Benjamin Whorf maintain that


people's perceptions are independent of the words they know.

39. Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for how parents should talk
to their babies?
Use only words that your infant will be able to understand.

40. The term universal linguist refers to the idea that


infants can distinguish all of the sounds that make up human speech.

1. In the introduction to its discussion of intelligence, your text suggests that conceptions of
intelligence vary cross-culturally. To the Trukese of the South Pacific, for example, intelligence
may mean the ability to navigate on the open water without technological assistance; to an
American high schooler, it may mean the ability to score well on standardized tests of academic
achievement and aptitude. Nevertheless, one element of the understanding of intelligence that is
consistent across culture is:

the ability to use the resources provided by one's environment.


2. Ashley, a psychology major, remarks that she has become interested in the study of
intelligence. In other words, Ashley is interested in:
the capacity to understand the world, think rationally, and use resources effectively.
3. The g-factor is:
a broad factor that supports every aspect of intelligence.
4. Laverne's scores on different parts of an IQ test are very different from one another. Laverne's
profile of scores on the test:
contradicts the view of intelligence offered by early theorists such as Spearman.
5. Early theorists such as Spearman argued that g represented general intelligence. According to
these theorists, individuals high in g:
have an advantage in every intellectual endeavor.
6. Early theorists inferred the existence of a general intelligence g factor from:
the positive correlations among tests of different intellectual skills.
7. In what way do current theories of intelligence differ from those offered earlier in
psychology's history?
Contemporary theories propose that there may be many multiple forms of intelligence, rather
than just one.
8. Intelligence that reflects the ability to reason abstractly is termed _____ intelligence.
Fluid
9. In contrast to _____, _____ is more a reflection of the culture in which a person is raised.
fluid intelligence; crystallized intelligence
10. Jody is completing a test in which she has to name as many state capitals as she can in one
minute; Alex is trying to complete analogies between pairs of abstract diagrams. Jody is taking a
test of _____ intelligence; Alex, a test of _____.
crystallized intelligence; fluid intelligence
11. Studies of changes in intelligence as a function of aging suggest that:
fluid intelligence tends to decline with age in adults.
12. According to the text, a positive feature of Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences is:
that it has led to the development of intelligence tests that allow test takers to be creative.
13. Gardner's theory includes each of the following types of intelligence EXCEPT:
tacit intelligence.
14. Bodily kinesthetic intelligence refers to skills:

in using the whole anatomy or various portions of it in the solution of problems or in the
construction of products or displays.
15. Dancers, athletes, actors, and surgeons display:
bodily kinesthetic intelligence.
16. Logical-mathematical intelligence refers to skills:
in problem solving and scientific thinking.
17. Knowledge of the internal aspects of oneself is termed as _____.
intrapersonal intelligence
18. _____ refers to skills involved in the production and use of language.
Linguistic intelligence
19. Collectivist cultures, such as Taiwan's, place a high priority on how individuals relate to each
other. It might be reasonable to hypothesize that Taiwanese adults might outscore American
adults on a test of Gardner's _____ intelligence.
Interpersonal
20. Etta is taking an intelligence test based on Gardner's multiple intelligences theory. How is
Etta's performance likely to be scored?
She will receive a score for each of eight types of intelligence.
21. The _____ area of the brain is critical to juggling many pieces of information simultaneously
and solving new problems.
lateral prefrontal cortex
22. Higher intelligence is related to the thickness of the _____.
cerebral cortex
23. According to Sternberg, intelligence related to overall success in living is known as _____
intelligence.
Practical
24. Traditional tests were designed to relate to _____.
academic success
25. People who are high in _____ intelligence are able to learn general norms and principles and
apply them appropriately.
Practical
26. Which of the following is true of academic success and career success?
Academic success and career success are based on two different types of intelligence.

27. The three types of intelligence proposed by Sternberg include each of the following except
_____ intelligence.
Logical
28. _____ intelligence is the set of skills that underlie the accurate assessment, evaluation,
expression, and regulation of one's mental state.
Emotional
29. The practical problem Alfred Binet was trying to solve when he developed his intelligence
test was:
identifying slow learners for remedial aid.
30. Imagine that overall, 6-year-olds can complete a particular block design puzzle in 5 minutes.
It takes Bailey almost 8 minutes to complete the task. In Binet's terms, Bailey's _____ age is
_____ than 6.
mental; lower
31. The formula for the intelligence quotient as Binet defined it is:
MA/CA x 100.
32. Approximately _____ of the population have an IQ score between 85 and 115.
68%
33. About 95% of the population have an IQ score between _____ and _____.
70; 130
34. Below are several statements about the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. Which statement is
CORRECTLY identified as false?
The same items are used for test-takers of different ages False
35. The most commonly used IQ test in the United States is the:
Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale-IV.
36. Which of the following best expresses the distinction between the WAIS-IV and WISC-IV?
The WAIS-IV is used to test adult intelligence, whereas the WISC-IV is used to test children's
intelligence.
37. Contemporary tests of intelligence are in widespread use in the United States EXCEPT the:
Spearman G Scale.
38. The property by which tests measure consistently what they are trying to measure is known
as _____.
Reliability
39. Which of the following is true about tests?
Test validity and reliability are prerequisites for accurate assessment of intelligence.

40. An online intelligence test yields a different IQ each time you take it. The test is:
not reliable, and probably not valid either.
41. A researcher develops a questionnaire to assess the personality trait of impulsivity among adults. In a journal
article, she presents evidence that college students tend to get essentially the same score if they take the test twice,
two months apart. She also presents the average score, the highest score, and the lowest score obtained by two large
samples: one of 2,000 college students, and one of 750 community-dwelling noncollege adults. However, when you
look at the sample questionnaire items she included in the article, it seems to you that they relate more to whether a
person is sociable, outgoing, and fun than to whether an individual is impulsive. You are questioning the _____ of
the researcher's questionnaire.

Validity
42. Regarding standardized testing, which piece of advice is least likely to be right?
Guess if you don't know.
Peyton has an IQ score of 60. Although her development was typically slower than that
of her peers, she is now able to hold a job and will soon start a family of her own.
Peyton is most probably:
mildly retarded

In approximately _____ of the cases of mental retardation there is an identifiable


biological cause; the most common of these is _____.
one-third; fetal alcohol syndrome

Which of the following alternatives offers the most accurate assessment of the origin of
familial retardation in nature on the one hand, or nurture on the other?
We do not know the extent to which familial retardation reflects nature and
nurture.

Intellectual disability in which no apparent biological defect exists but there is a history
of it in the kin is known as _____ retardation.

Familial

The inclusive philosophy behind the educational mainstreaming of mentally retarded


individuals reflects federal laws passed in the:
mid-1970s.

Regarding the integration of mentally retarded students into regular classrooms, which
of the following statements is true?
In full inclusion programs, mentally retarded students are integrated into regular
classroom activities to a greater extent than in the case of mainstreaming.

Which of the following is true of full inclusion?


Full inclusion is a controversial practice

The IQ of intellectually gifted individuals is _____.


130 or above

In The Bell Curve, Herrnstein and Murray argued that:


the IQ gap between Caucasian and African Americans reflects genetics.

The term _____ refers to a measure of the degree to which a characteristic can be
attributed to genetic factors.
Heritability

Based on the text's discussion of the Flynn effect, how might the IQ of the average 18year-old today compare with that of his/her counterpart 60 years ago?
The IQ score of the average 18-year-old today is about 15 points higher than that
of his/her counterpart 60 years ago.

If an intelligence test produces the same score over multiple administrations but it does
not accurately measure intelligence, then the test is ___________ but not
___________.
reliable; valid

If an outcome measure is normally distributed, this means that


most scores are around the average with some scores being lower or higher.

Challenges to writing culturally fair test questions include ___________ factors.


All of these.

Dr. Ambrose feels that a particular intelligence test is probably culturally biased. Which
of the following test questions would concern Dr. Ambrose the most?
In which month of the year is the Super Bowl played?

Jorge's parents talked and communicated with him a great deal from the time he was
born. Based on the research in the text, which of the following statements is TRUE in
regards to Jorge's IQ?
The stimulation provided by Jorge's parents will positively affect his IQ.

The batting averages of major league baseball players have shown a steady increase
over the last 30 years. This parallels which observation made from the world of
intelligence testing?
Flynn effect

The new term for "mental retardation" is


intellectual disability.

Which of the following represents a practical skill?


Brushing your teeth

Which theory of intelligence is best suited to explain the abilities of individuals with
savant syndrome, or individuals with extremely high levels of intelligence in one area
and virtually little or none in other areas?
Gardener

Based on the text's discussion, which of the following alternatives best captures the
difference, if any, between the terms mental retardation and intellectual disability?

Intellectual disability is becoming the preferred term, while mental retardation is


the traditional term.

People whose IQ score ranges from 40-54 are most probably:


moderately retarded.

Intellectual disability in which no apparent biological defect exists but there is a history
of it in the kin is known as _____ retardation.
Familial

Terman's long-term study of the intellectually gifted found that they tend to be:
outgoing.

Imagine that American children and African children are asked to memorize the
locations of objects on a chessboard. In one condition, the objects are rocks; in the
other, they are household objects common in the West. What might you predict
regarding the children's performance?
The performance of the African children will exceed that of the American children
when the objects are rocks but not when they are Western household objects.

A psychologist has developed a new test to measure the verbal ability of third graders.
To determine the range of scores (and what is a good and bad score), he gives the test

to 10,000 third graders. In the future, he will compare the performance of others to this
reference group. This process of determining meaningful scores establishes testing
norms.

A 6-year-old child with a mental age of 6 would have a ratio IQ of


100.

You have been asked to review a set of test items that are being considered for a
standardized intelligence test. The test constructors want to eliminate all items that
contain any possible cultural bias. With this task in mind, which of the following
questions would you eliminate first?
What is the name of the main character in The Wizard of Oz?

Most subjects in Terman's study were


doctors, lawyers, and businesspeople.

Which of Gardner's intelligences would be LEAST important for a car salesperson?


Bodily-kinesthetic

A test that does not discriminate against the members of any minority group is termed
as a _____ test.
culture-fair

A high school football coach decides to use the time taken to run up 100 stairs as a test
for running endurance. He tests every team member on three consecutive days and
finds that the times for each person are very much the same on all three trials. His test
for endurance appears to have good
reliability.

Dhiraj has an insightful mind and excels at solving new types of problems with unique
solutions. Which of Sternberg's intelligences would best explain this?
Creative

1. Which figure best approximates the number of people in the United States who are
overweight?
200 million
2. In the U.S., about _____% of the population is overweight; nearly _____% are obese.
65; 25
3. People with a BMI greater than 30 are considered:
Obese
4. Society's view of the ideal body:
varies from one culture to another.
5. _____ leads the body to store excess sugar in the blood as fats and carbohydrates.
Insulin
6. Which of the following biological hunger regulators is CORRECTLY identified and
described?
Ghrelin - communicates hunger to the brain

7. Charlotte meets Will, an old high school friend, at a party and is startled to learn his weight
increased from 150 to 280 pounds in the year since his automobile accident. Damage to which
hypothalamic nucleus might account for his weight gain?
Ventromedial
8. _____ is the rate at which food is converted to energy and expended by the body.
Metabolism
9. When is the set point for weight established during an individual's life?
During the first year of life
10. _____ is a severe eating disorder in which people may refuse to eat while denying that their
behavior and appearancewhich can become skeleton-likeare unusual.
Anorexia nervosa
11. Meghan is bulimic. Which of the following statements is MOST LIKELY to be accurate?
Meghan is neither more nor less likely than other individuals of her age to be overweight.
12. As many as _____ of women suffer from bulimia at some point in their lives.
10%
13. In what way do the results of brain-scanning studies support or discredit biological and
environmental contributions to anorexia nervosa and bulimia?
They support biological contributions to anorexia nervosa because the brains of anorexics
responded differently to food stimuli than did the brains of healthy individuals.
14. How often should you exercise?
At least 30 consecutive minutes, three times each week
15. Each semester, during advising week, Dylan asks his faculty advisor to identify the easiest
courses and teachers that would satisfy his degree requirements. Dylan's need for achievement is
probably:
Low
16. The _____ is an interest in establishing and maintaining relationships with other people.
Need for affiliation
17. Larissa is highly invested in initiating and maintaining relationships. She is high in the need
for:
Affiliation
18. The _____ is a tendency to seek impact, control, or influence over others and to be seen as an
influential individual.
need for power

19. _____ refers to the factors that direct and energize the behavior of humans and other
organisms.
Motivation
20. Declan, a PhD candidate, tells his department's undergraduate student organization that his
dissertation research is in the area of motivation. Declan is investigating:
the factors that direct and energize the behavior of humans and other organisms.
21. When psychologists first tried to explain motivation, they turned to _____.
Instincts
22. Which of the following statements best expresses the fate of instinct approaches to
motivation within mainstream psychology?
Instinct approaches to motivation still play a role in certain theories, especially those based on
evolutionary approaches that focus on our genetic inheritance.
23. The first two theoretical approaches to motivation that attained prominence in the history of
modern psychology were:
the instinct approach, then the drive-reduction approach.
24. Drive-reduction approaches first appeared in the psychology of motivation in the:
1940s
25. Which approach to motivation is CORRECTLY paired with a behavior to which it is
especially appropriate?
Drive-reductioneating
26. Motivational tension that energizes behavior to fulfill a need is termed a(n):
Drive
27. To which of the following behaviors is drive theory LEAST applicable?
Studying long hours
28. Does drive theory offer a comprehensive account of motivation? Why or why not?
No. Drive theory offers a satisfactory explanation of physiological motives, but fails to account
for more psychologically oriented motives.
29. What is homeostasis?
A built-in tendency to regulate bodily conditions
30. The arousal approach to motivation suggests that:
if levels of stimulation and activity are too low, we will try to increase them by seeking
stimulation.
31. How do arousal approaches to motivation differ from drive-reduction approaches?

Arousal approaches suggest that we are sometimes motivated to increase rather than decrease our
level of stimulation.
32. Of the following individuals, whose behavior may most easily be explained using an arousal
approach to motivation?
Artie, who loves to bungee jump
33. Incentive approaches to motivation are:
theories suggesting that motivation stems from the desire to obtain valued external goals.
34. _____ approaches to motivation emphasize the appealing properties of external objects or
goals.
Incentive
35. Cognitive approaches to motivation are:
theories suggesting that motivation is a product of people's thoughts, expectations, and goal.
36. Shellie takes college courses that interest her and enjoys learning for its own sake; Tori takes
courses in which she is fairly certain she'll do well and studies mainly to ensure good grades.
Shellie is _____ motivated; Tori, _____ motivated.
intrinsically; extrinsically
37. "Dance like no one's watching. Work like you don't need the money. Love like you've never
been hurt," exhorts a sign on Dr. Elliott's office door. This sign underscores the importance of
_____ motivation.
Intrinsic
38. Dr. Fiore conducts a study in which two groups of participants work on challenging puzzles:
one group is extrinsically motivated whereas the other is intrinsically motivated. Thus, one group
is paid for its participation, while the other is not. Dr. Fiore records the length of time each
participant spent working on the puzzle and how enjoyable each participant rated the puzzle.
Based on the text's discussion of intrinsic and extrinsic motivation, what might you expect?
The paid group would not work as long on the puzzle and like it less than the unpaid group.
39. Which of the following is true of intrinsic and extrinsic motivation?
In some cases providing rewards for desirable behavior actually may decrease intrinsic
motivation.
40. According to Abraham Maslow, a major prerequisite for becoming self-actualized is having:
all of one's lower-order needs fulfilled.
41. A state of self-fulfillment in which people realize their highest potential in their own unique
way is known as _____ in Maslow's model.
self-actualization
42. According to self-determination theory, _____ is the need to produce desired outcomes.

Competence
43. According to self-determination theory, _____ is the perception that we have control over our
own lives.
Autonomy
44. According to self-determination theory, _____ is the need to be involved in close, warm
relationships with others.
Relatedness
45. After watching an episode of the Dr. Phil TV show, Shanae wonders why anyone would want
to air their interpersonal dirty laundry in front of 70 million viewers. Shanae is most likely
wondering about the ________ of Dr. Phil's guests.
Motivation
46. Dr. Know-It-All hosts a TV talk show. One of his guests, Joe College, complains of his
intense annoyance with people who talk on their cell phones while driving. Joe asks Dr. KnowIt-All to explain why he reacts so strongly to this type of situation. Dr. Know-It-All immediately
pronounces that Joe has an instinct for cell phone irritation. Is Dr. Know-It-All correct to assume
that instinct is the cause of Joe's behavior?
No-most behavior is too complex to be explained on the basis of instinct
47. The act of going to the refrigerator because you are hungry best represents a(n)
Drive
48. You just ran a marathon in very hot weather and perspired heavily. According to drive
reduction theory, your body will have a(n) ________ for water, which will produce a(n)
________ for water, which will lead to a ________ to get water.
need; drive; motivation
49. When you exercise, you begin breathing more rapidly to provide oxygen to your cells. This
increase in breathing is an attempt to restore
homeostasis.
50. You stayed up all night to study for a math exam. After the test, you returned to your dorm
room and slept for seven hours. Your sleeping behavior was regulated by the body's tendency to
maintain
Homeostasis
51. Learning to perform a task so well that it becomes automatic is referred to as
Overlearning
52. Paige is an expert at golf and is bored by the thought of the upcoming tournament. Mary is
pretty good at golf and is somewhat excited but not overly anxious about the tournament. Sara
has only recently learned to play but has very high expectations and is really nervous about the

tournament. Jenna is also a beginner but she does not expect to play well. According to optimum
arousal theory, who will perform the best?
Mary
53. According to the Yerkes-Dodson Law, optimum performance is achieved when one is
Moderately anxious
54. What happens when your blood sugar level gets too low?
You feel hungry.
55. A sprinter would best be served by eating ________ prior to a race.
Chocolate
56. A marathon runner would best be served by eating ________ prior to a race.
Lasagna
57. Gary wants to lose weight by reducing his caloric intake. He eats a candy bar for breakfast
instead of a bowl of cereal because the candy bar has fewer calories. Is Gary doing the right
thing?
Yes, the body needs high sugar intake at breakfast.
58. After being in a car accident, Sally's ventromedial hypothalamus was severely damaged. She
should expect that she will
gain weight rapidly.
59. "I am so tired of dieting. It seems like it controls my life. I wonder what my real weight
would be if I just ate only when I'm hungry." This dieter is curious about her
set point.
60. Danielle is a normal weight female, whereas Ron is an obese male. Whenever Danielle and
Ron go out to dinner together, Ron always eats more food. Ron, a psychology major, correctly
explains this difference in food intake by pointing out that
he has more fat cells than Danielle and he is not satiated until all his fat cells are full.
61. Paris thinks her best friend, Nicole, may be suffering from an undiagnosed case of anorexia
nervosa. She shares her concerns with Nicole, but Nicole insists that anorexia nervosa is "no big
deal." What is the most serious consequence of anorexia nervosa?
It has the highest mortality rate of any psychological disorder
62. Which of the following individuals is most at risk for developing anorexia nervosa?
Jill is 17 and lives in the suburbs.
63. Though her weight is normal, Ashley is terrified of becoming heavy. She knows she should
stick to a healthy diet, but she often consumes huge servings of junk foodup to 5,000 calories
in one sitting. Desperate to keep from gaining weight, she then uses laxatives and diuretics to
purge the calories. Ashley is suffering from

bulimia nervosa.
65. According to Maslow, before you can feel safe, you need to
be satisfied physically.
66. According to Maslow, Kenny probably has trouble committing to a relationship because
his expectations are too high.
67. While free breakfast and lunches provided at school are an attempt to satisfy one of Maslow's
hierarchy of needs, students may still fail to achieve unless they
feel safe at school.
68. According to Maslow, self-actualization is possible
only after all other needs have been fulfilled.
69. If you had to write a research paper on Maslow's hierarchy of motives, which of the
following titles would you choose to capture the essence of Maslow's theory?
"Be all that you can be, from eating right to feeling content."
70. The impact of extrinsic motivation depends on
the behavior being rewarded.
72. Which of the following is most related to extrinsic motivation?
Reward
73. Marsha does a good job because she knows her performance will result in a bonus if she
meets her goals. Dianna does an adequate job but lacks motivation to perform in a timely
manner. Georgia does a good job because she feels a sense of accomplishment when she meets
her goals. All three women do the same kind of work. Who is likely to be the most competent?
Georgia
74. Research on delayed gratification indicates that the best way to resist temptation is to
focus on other activities rather than the forbidden activity.
"Fight-or-flight" responses entail activity of the _____ nervous system.
Sympathetic

According to the text, the functions of emotions include which of the following?
Helping us interact more effectively with others

Hakiro, a Japanese, reports experiencing hagaii. He is experiencing a:


mood of vulnerable heartache colored by frustration.

According to the _____ theory of emotion, emotional experience is a reaction to bodily


events occurring as a result of an external situation.
James-Lange

One of Cannon's major objections to the James-Lange theory of emotion was that:
the sympathetic nervous system was not given a more prominent role.

With respect to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, more recent research:


has disconfirmed the idea that emotional experiences are controlled by the thalamus.

Which alternative below correctly identifies one of the results in Schachter and Singer's
experiment?
The confederate's behavior had the expected effect on participants' emotional state.

In PET scan studies, participants have been asked to recall either very happy or very
sad events. What did the results of such studies show?
The two emotions produced opposite patterns of activation in certain areas of the brain.

Dr. Lynch shows a) members of a preliterate Andean culture and b) American college
students a series of photos of either Andeans or Americans displaying emotional

expressions. She asks Andeans and Americans to identify the emotion displayed in
each photo. Based on previous research, what might Dr. Lynch predict?
Participants should identify emotions accurately both when they are displayed by
members of their own cultural group and when they are displayed by members of the
other group.

Which of the following are included in the definition of emotion?


All of these

The most effective element of the polygraph test lies in the


belief it is accurate in detecting deception.

Polygraph examiners can


record physiological responses.

What is the main problem with using polygraph results as an indication of whether or not
a person is lying?
Different emotions can cause the same physiological changes.

According to the James-Lange theory of emotions, crying over spilled milk will result in
sorrow because you are crying.

"It seemed like the two cars crossed the finish line at exactly the same time," the
commentator yelled. Which theory of emotion most closely resembles this outcome?
Cannon-Bard

According to the two-factor theory, if Shelby wants her boyfriend to find her more
attractive, she should approach him after
bungee jumping.

Which of the following theories is best supported by the facial feedback hypothesis?
James-Lang

A professor conducts an experiment in which she asks her students to either hold a pen
between their teeth or hold a pen between their lips. After five minutes, she finds that
the students who held the pen between their teeth reported being happier than those
who held it between their lips. These results most strongly support the
facial feedback hypothesis.

What effect, if any, does engaging in altruistic behavior have on one's well-being?
Increases happiness

The concept of visceral experience can be attributed to which of the following theories
of emotion? James-Lange

The _____, a limbic system structure, is strongly involved in our experience of emotion.
Amygdala

Which of the following best describes the male participants' thoughts/feelings regarding
the female experimenter in the Capilano River Bridge Experiment? Men found the
experimenter on the high bridge more sexually attractive than the one on the low bridge.

Tim and Margaret are enjoying a picnic on the edge of a large forest. Suddenly, a huge
black bear invades their space and heads for the picnic basket. According to the James
Lange theory of emotions, the couple will
run away and then experience the emotion of fear as a result of the physical changes in
their bodies.

Sarah, from Tahiti, reports experiencing musu. She is experiencing a:


feeling of reluctance to yield to unreasonable demands made by one's parents.

One of Cannon's major objections to the James-Lange theory of emotion was that:
physiological arousal alone leads to the perception of emotion.

According to the facial-feedback hypothesis:


facial expressions can actually determine our emotional experience.

Max, a German, reports experiencing schadenfreude. He is experiencing a:

feeling of pleasure over another person's difficulties.

Sarah, from Tahiti, reports experiencing musu. She is experiencing a:


feeling of reluctance to yield to unreasonable demands made by one's parents.
1. Gender _____ include the set of expectations regarding the appropriate behavior of men,
on the one hand, and women, on the other.
Roles
2. In which part of the world is gender equality the highest?
Iceland
3. On average, in the United States, a woman earns about _____ for every dollar that a man
earns.
$0.80
4. Which of the following is true about differences between men and women?
Men and women are more similar to one another in most respects than dissimilar.
5. When does the male-female difference in the level of aggression become apparent?
By age 2
6. Which of the following is true of potential gender differences in self-esteem?
Men generally have higher self-esteem than do women.
7. Which of the following is true of men's and women's verbal and nonverbal
behavior?
Women's speech is more precise.
8. Identify the accurate statement regarding men's verbal and nonverbal behavior.
In conversations with people of the other sex, men look at their partners about the same
length of time while listening and speaking.
9. Females are often thought to outshine males on verbal tasks. What does
contemporary empirical evidence have to say with respect to this notion?
It's a myththere's basically no difference between men and women in verbal
performance.
10. Hines, Fink, and Alexander studied a group of children whose mothers
accidentally took drugs containing androgen, a hormone, prior to their birth. They
related this concentration of the hormone to the play preferences of the same
children. Which of the following alternatives best expresses the results of the
study?

For both boys and girls, androgen was positively related to male-typical play
preferences.
11. Which of the following statements is true with respect to gender differences in
romantic jealousy?
Men are more likely to become jealous when a female partner is sexually unfaithful than
when she develops a close friendship with another man.
12._____ is the process by which an individual learns the rules and norms of
appropriate behavior.
Socialization
13. The social learning approach argues that gender differences in thought and
behavior reflect the influence of:
parents
14. The female protagonist of a novel is a brave and ferocious woman who fights wars and saves
the people of her motherland. From this information, one can infer that the novel does not
include the stereotypical aspects of _____.
Socialization
15. A movie casts the male lead as a police officer and the female lead as a loving mother who
takes care of the house. This implies that the movie uses the stereotypical aspects of _____.
Socialization
16. The influence of formal education as an agent of gender socialization:
Continues even during the college years
17. A _____ refers to a mental framework that organizes and guides a child's
understanding of information relevant to gender.
Gender schema
18. Ten year old Rowan does not play softball because he thinks it is a girls' sport. Which
of the following would have helped Rowan make this evaluation?
Gender schema
19. Male sex hormones secreted by the testes at puberty are known as _____.
Androgens
20. The male and female sex organs are known as _____.
Genitals
21. Men are capable of sexual activities without any regard to biological cycles because:
the level of androgen production by the testes is fairly constant.
22. Androgen is to estrogen as _____ is to _____.

testes; ovaries
23. The testes produce _____ and the ovaries produce _____.
androgen; estrogen and progesterone
24. Approximately what proportion of men report thinking about sex every day?
Just over half
25. How does human sexual motivation differ from that of other species?
Human sexual motivation varies more dramatically from individual to individual than
does the sexual motivation of other species.
26. The body's erogenous zones:
are especially sensitive to touch.
27. Approximately _____ of people entertain sexual fantasies during intercourse; _____,
these fantasies involve someone other than the current sexual partner.
60%; often
28. Which alternative below best describes the method used in Masters' and Johnson's
pioneering sexual response cycle research?
Controlled laboratory research
29. The period in which an arousing stimulus begins a sequence that prepares the genitals
for sexual intercourse is called the _____ phase.
Excitement
30. During which of the following phases of sexual responsiveness do the penis and
clitoris swell with blood?
Plateau phase
31. Amelia is having a sexual intercourse with her husband; her breasts and vagina are
expanding and her breathing rate has increased. Also, her muscle tension is increasing as
she is preparing for orgasm. Amelia is in the middle which of the following phases of
sexual responsiveness?
Plateau phase
32. Which of the following describes the refractory period?
The interval after orgasm in which the body returns to its unaroused state, reversing the
changes brought about by arousal
33. Female circumcision:
Involves removing the clitoris

34. ________ are glands that produce sex hormones and generate ova in females and
sperm in males.
Gonads
35. In females, the small sensory organ located where the labia meet is called the
Clitoris
36. ________ refers to the social and psychological aspects of being male or female.
Gender
37. The term ________ refers to experiencing one's psychological gender as being
different from one's physical sex.
Transgender
38. In terms of exploring the connection between sex and gender, the biological approach
focuses on
Genes
39. According to Darwin, ________ drives sexual selection.
Competition
40. According to Darwin, Shelly is most likely to go out with Cole if he
can win his tennis match.
41. According to Darwin, sexual selection involves
Competition and choice
42. ________ occurs among members of the same sex as they vie for the opportunity to
mate with members of the opposite sex.
Competition
44. Carolina tells her friends that she helps take care of her little brother because that is
what girls are supposed to do. Carolina's statement describes her
Gender role
45. Any man can be a great leader because men are strong, dominant, and rational. This
statement reflects a gender
Stereotype
46. The difficulty that many divorced fathers experience when trying to gain custody of
their children may be due to
Gender stereotyping
47. The evolutionary perspective predicts that, compared to men, women will be
More selective when choosing a mate
1.

In the year _____, the American Psychiatric Association determined that homosexuality
did not constitute a psychological disorder.
1973

2.
Sexual behavior is abnormal if it is:
Harmful

3
Pioneering investigations of human sexual behavior were conducted beginning in the
1930s by:
Alfred Kinsey

4.
Kinsey's early studies of human sexual behavior exemplify the _____ research
technique.
Survey

5.
Sexual self-stimulation is known as _____.
Masturbation

6.

With respect to premarital sex, to what extent do we find cross-cultural variability in its
incidence on the one hand, and its acceptability on the other?
There is substantial cross-cultural variability in both the incidence and the acceptability
of premarital sex.

7.
Most experts suggest that _____ of both men and women are exclusively gay or lesbian
during extended periods of their lives.
5-10%

8.
According to Alfred Kinsey, heterosexuality and homosexuality are best thought of as:
opposite ends of a continuum.

9.
With respect to the potential genetic basis of homosexuality, studies of identical twins
have revealed that when one twin self-identifies as gay or lesbian:
the other twin is more likely to self-identify as gay or lesbian than is a random member
of the population, even when the twins were raised apart.

10.
The notion that family dynamics and parent-child relationships contribute to
homosexuality is associated with _____; the idea has _____ empirical support.

Freud; little, if any

11.
_____ are people who believe they were born with the body of the other gender.
Transsexuals

12.
Which of the following is true of transsexualism?
A transsexual can seek sex-change operations in which their existing genitals are
surgically removed and the genitals of the desired sex are fashioned.

13.
Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between the terms
hermaphrodite and intersex?
Intersex is a newer term replacing the older term hermaphrodite.

14.
A 2011 survey by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention found that, there is a
_____ chance that a woman will be a victim of a rape within her lifetime; approximately
one _____ of rapes and sexual assaults are reported.
20%; third

15.

Which of the following sequences best reflects the relative frequency with which
American women of different racial or ethnic backgrounds experience rape, from the
most to the least frequent?
Black women non-Latino white women Latino women

16.
Which of the following statements is true of sexual abuse of children?
The abuser is usually about 20 years older than the victim.

17.
In the United States, at least one in _____ individuals will contract a sexually
transmitted infection at some point in their lives; as compared to other industrialized
nations, the rate of sexually transmitted infections in the United States is _____.
four; higher

18.
Which alternative best expresses the proportion of men who experience problems
associated with sexual performance?
One-third

19.
Drug therapy may successfully treat _____; learning or cognitive therapies are useful in
cases of _____.

erectile dysfunction; premature or inhibited ejaculation

20.
Sadie can only achieve an orgasm when she masturbates; she is unable to have an
orgasm when she has sex with her partner. Sadie suffers from:
Anorgasm

21.
Inhibited sexual desire refers to:
sexual dysfunction in which the motivation for sexual activity is restrained or lacking
entirely.

22.
The direction of one's erotic interests refers to a person's
Sexual orientation

23.
Melissa is attracted to members of the opposite sex. She is considered to be
Heterosexual

24.
Geami is attracted to both males and females. Her sexual orientation is best described
as

Bisexual

25.
Donna views herself as a bisexual. Over time, she is most likely to engage in
strictly homosexual behavior or strictly heterosexual behavior.

26.
The occurrence of homosexuality ranges from ________ percent of the population.
2 to 10

27.
Which of the following factors predicts sexual orientation?
None of these

28.
Research on the influence of genes on sexual behavior has revealed that genes
Play a role in determining sexual behavior

29.
According to research, of the boys who engage in extreme gender-nonconforming
activities approximately ________ percent end up being homosexual or bisexual later in
life.

75

30.
The vast majority of "tomboys" turn out to be
Heterosexual

31.
Leslie has two mothers. We can expect that Leslie will
Be relatively unaffected.

32.
In regards to parenting, the best predictor of good psychological adjustment in
adolescence is having
a close relationship with parents.

33.
Which is the correct definition of sexual behavior?
All of these

34.
The ________ phase of human sexual response begins the process of erotic
responsiveness.

Excitement

35.
The most significant difference between males and females regarding the sexual
response pattern occurs at the ________ phase.
Resolution

36.
Patterns for how people should behave sexually are called
Sexual scripts

37.
Kenny believes that sex is mostly about reaching an orgasm. This belief reflects
Kenny's sexual
Script

38.
Based on research, the most effective type of sex education is a(n)
Comprehensive program.

39.
An object or activity that arouses sexual interest and desire is called a
Fetish

1. A _____ reflex prompts babies to clear their throat.


Gag
2. Which infant reflex is CORRECTLY matched with its description?
Babinski reflex; an infant's toes fan out when the edge of the sole of the foot is stroked
3.As psychologists use the term, habituation means:
decrease in the response to a stimulus that occurs after repeated presentations of the same
stimulus.
4. Harry Harlow completed a number of studies in which baby rhesus monkeys were raised with
two artificial mothers. One of the mothers was made of wire and delivered food; the other was
made of cloth and provided no food. Harlow found that when the infant monkeys were startled or
frightened, they:
preferred the cloth surrogate that did not provide food.
5. The "strange situation" experiment is associated with _____; it helps classify the attachment
behavior of _____.
Ainsworth; newborns
6. At twelve months of age, Jordan is classified as a securely attached child by his pediatrician on
the basis of the criteria set by Mary Ainsworth. Which of the following behaviors in the strange
situation would be most consistent with this classification?
Jordan is moderately distressed when mother leaves him alone and pleased when she returns.
7. According to Mary Ainsworth, when a child with avoidant attachment style is exposed to the
strange situation experiment, he/she will:
show no concern when the mother leaves the room.
8. Rebecca takes her 1-year-old son, Adam, to visit an infant-toddler program in which she hopes
to enroll him. Adam appears very anxious and is unwilling to explore and play with the toys,
even though Rebecca is close by. When Rebecca leaves the room to fill out some forms, Adam
becomes extremely upset and remains inconsolable. When Rebecca returns, Adam stays close to
her, holding onto her leg. However, Adam makes it very clear he does not want her to touch him
or pick him up. In fact, he starts kicking and hitting her. In the context of the findings of Mary
Ainsworth, which term best describes Adam's attachment style?
Ambivalent
9. For children from poor, disadvantaged homes, high-quality out-of-home child care is
associated with:
long-term intellectual gains.
10. The study of attachment style is associated with _____ and the study of parenting style is
associated with _____.
Ainsworth; Baumrind

11. Joan's mom and dad believe that parents know best. They expect Joan to obey all parental
rules without uttering a word, and they are quick to impose stern punishments if she does not
comply. In Baumrind's terms, Joan's parents are:
authoritarian.
12. Hailey's parents demand that she follow their instructions without asking any question.
Isabella's parents are firm as well, but are more likely to reason with her and explain the
consequences of her behavior. In Baumrind's terms, Hailey's parents are _____; Isabella's are
_____.
authoritarian; authoritative
13. Walter's parents strongly believe that Walter should make his own decisions, so they set very
few rules regarding homework, bedtime, and household chores. Since they believe that freedom
and responsibility are important, they patiently tolerate all of Walter's behavior, whether childish
or mature. The parenting style adopted by Walter's parents is called:
Permissive
14. According to Erikson, the first stage of a child's psychosocial development is the _____
stage.
trust-versus-mistrust
16. Derwood is 8 years old and he likes to do art projects at school. However, the projects he has
completed so far have not received good grades, and in several instances his friends have made
fun of his work. Based on Erikson's theory, Derwood is most likely to develop:
feelings of inferiority.
17. Which of the following Swiss scholars had suggested in the 1970s that children around the
world proceed through a series of four stages in a fixed order?
Piaget
18. Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the order of Piaget's stages of cognitive
development, from birth through adolescence?
sensorimotor preoperational concrete operational formal operational
19. Which age range below is INCORRECTLY labeled with its Piagetian stage?
12 yearsadulthood; postoperational stage
20. During the sensorimotor period:
understanding is based mainly on basic sensory and motor abilities.
21. According to Piaget, when an infant recognizes that objects continue to exist even when they
are no longer in sight, the infant has understood the principle of:
object permanence.

22. A child demonstrates that she understands the idea of object permanence and egocentrism,
but fails to understand the concept of conservation. In the context of the Piagetian stages, she is
most likely in the _____ stage.
Preoperational
23. According to Piaget, mastery of the principle of conservation marks the beginning of the
_____ stage of development.
concrete operational
24. Preschoolers can hold only two or three chunks of information in short-term memory, 5-yearolds can hold four, and 7-year-olds can hold _____.
Five
25. Two children are participating in a memory research: Heather, a preschooler, and Illeana, a
sixth-grader. When the children fail a recall task, the researcher asks each child what she might
do to succeed at the task the next time. Heather suggests that she would simply try again; Illeana
proposes that she might try to write the items down. The difference in the girls' responses most
clearly illustrates an increase in _____ during childhood.
metacognitive ability
26. As compared to Piaget, Vygotsky placed _____ emphasis on the _____ bases of cognitive
development.
more; social
27. A cross-sectional study is one in which
different age groups are tested at the same time.
28. The nurture side of the nature vs. nurture debate refers to
experience.
29. The majority of children of divorced parents
do not have adjustment problems.
30. The ability to overcome hardship during childhood again and again is referred to as
resilience.
32. Which of the following is an accurate descriptor of an infant reflex?
All of these
33. According to Piaget, accommodation refers to
adjusting current schemas in order to make sense of new experiences.
34. Incorporating new information into existing theories is to ___________ as modifying
existing theories in light of new information is to ___________.

assimilation; accommodation
35. In Piaget's cognitive development theory, the ___________ stage occurs during the period of
infancy.
sensorimotor
36. You tried to play peek-a-boo with your 6-month-old infant, but whenever you hid your face,
he would cry. You try it again three months later, and now he laughs and enjoys the game, trying
to uncover your face with his hands. Your baby has now developed
object permanence.
37. You give your younger brother Joe a big cookie. He accidently drops it, and it breaks into
many smaller parts. Suddenly he gets very excited and says, "Joe, look how many cookies I have
now!" He is most likely in which developmental stage?
Preoperational
38. You arrange two rows of pennies so they are equal in length. A child views the rows and
states that they have the same amount of pennies. You spread out the pennies in the bottom row
so that this row is longer than the top one. The child now states that the bottom row has more
pennies. This child is in Piaget's ___________ stage of development.
Preoperational
39. A wise mother will give both her 3-year-old child and her 4-year-old child identically shaped
glasses of soft drink to avoid conflict over who has the most. The mother is showing her
awareness of her children's difficulty with
conservation.
40. According to Piaget, egocentrism refers to
the difficulty in perceiving things from another person's point of view.
41. Four-year-old Jennifer mistakenly believes that her mother would like to receive a doll for
Christmas. This best illustrates Piaget's concept of
egocentrism.
42. Between ages 7 and 11, children can think in sophisticated ways as long as what they are
thinking about is tangibly represented. Piaget calls this stage
concrete operations.
43. Bob has an unknown liquid and must determine what it is. He decides to systematically use a
number of tests to determine the correct answer. What stage of cognitive development has Bob
reached?
Formal operational
44. The ability to use abstract concepts is a key component of the ___________ stage of Piaget's
theory of cognitive development.
formal operations

45. In Harry and Margaret Harlow's classic attachment study, they found that monkeys
were more attached to the artificial mothers who were warm and soft.
46. Which of the following most accurately describes Ainsworth's strange situation?
Caregiver leaves infant with stranger and returns later.
47. Erikson's theory is based on the assumption that
each person faces a set of predictable life-changing challenges at various stages of life.
48. Mazie's mom is loving and nurturing, sets clear boundaries, and engages in a lot of verbal
give and take. In terms of parenting styles, she would be described as
authoritative.
49. Ian came home late for curfew. Without asking for an explanation, his parents sent him to his
room and informed him that he was grounded for a month. What type of parenting did Ian's
parents demonstrate?
Authoritarian
50. Authoritative parents are likely to have children who
are socially competent and self-reliant.
51. Compared to authoritarian parents, authoritative parents are likely to be
More responsive
52. Richie's parents place no demands on him, and they place no rules or restrictions on his
behavior. They are exhibiting a(n) ___________ parenting style.
permissive
53. Jill's parents set very few limits or boundaries for her. They use a(n) ___________ parenting
style.
permissive

1.
Which of the following primarily studies the patterns of growth and change that occur
throughout life?
Developmental psychology

2. Which of the following is true of cross-sectional research?


It compares people of different ages at the same point in time.

3.
Dr. Edward is testing the same individuals repeatedly over time as part of a research
study, while Dr. Janice is comparing the performance of different people of various ages
at the same time. Dr. Irwin is using a _____ research design; Dr. Jenner is using a
_____ design.
longitudinal; cross-sectional

4.
Cross-sectional research designs provide information about age _____ in development
between different age groups. Longitudinal research designs provide information
concerning _____ in behavior over time.
differences; changes,

5.
Dona is a graduate student investigating the development of fine motor skills. She
selects a group of children and assesses their fine motor skills every six months over a
two-year period. In this example, Dona is using a(n) _____ research design.
Longitudinal

6.
Which of the following statements CORRECTLY identifies an advantage or a
disadvantage of the developmental researchers' research designs?
Longitudinal - indicate changes in behavior over time

7.
The difference between cross-sectional research design and longitudinal research
designs is that:
Longitudinal studies assess change in behavior over time, whereas cross-sectional
studies assess differences among groups of people.

8. A normal fertilized egg, or zygote, contains _____ pairs of chromosomes.


23

9.
Which of the following chromosomal combination is present in a typical female child?
XX

10.
The one-celled entity formed by the union of an egg and sperm is called a:
zygote.

11.

Two weeks after conception, the developing fertilized egg is called a(n) _____.
embryo

12.
The longest part of a pregnancy, from the 8 th week through to birth, is the _____ period.
Fetal

13.
Sensitive or critical periods in development can occur:
either before or after birth.

14.
Clarissa's mother was thirty-eight years old when she gave birth to her. Clarissa suffers
from an intellectual disability and doctors have diagnosed that her condition was due to
the extra chromosome that she had received at the moment of conception. Identify the
condition afflicting Clarissa.
Down syndrome

15.
A teratogen is:
an environmental agent that can produce a birth defect.

16.

Dennis's mother had consumed a substantial amount of alcohol during her pregnancy;
Dominic's intelligence is below normal, his growth is slowed, and his facial features are
slightly deformed. Ellis's mother had also consumed a small amount of alcohol, and Ellis
shows some but not all of the problems Dennis displays. Dennis suffers from _____;
Ellis suffers from _____.
fetal alcohol syndrome; fetal alcohol effects

17.
Girls typically experience the adolescent growth spurt _____ than do boys.
2 years earlier

18.
During the Vietnam War, Michael moved from the United States to Canada to avoid the
draft. He didn't want to go to war because he was afraid he might be killed or seriously
injured. Michael's reasons for not going to war reflect the _____ stage of moral
reasoning established by Kohlberg.
Preconventional

19.
Jack registered as a conscientious objector during the Vietnam War. He believes that it
is wrong to take human life. He is willing to serve time in jail, rather than take part in an
armed conflict. Jack's reasons for not going to war reflect the _____ stage of moral
reasoning established by Kohlberg.

Postconventional

fe
20.
The primary criticism of Kohlberg's theory of moral development is:
its potential lack of generality across cultures

21.
Jacques is thirteen years old. On Monday, Jacques announces to his parents that he
wants to be called "Jack." On Wednesday, he says he wants to drop out of school. On
Friday, he says he wants to get a tattoo and become an architect. In Erikson's terms,
Jacques is most likely experiencing the _____ crisis.
identity-versus-role-confusion

22.
According to Erikson, the psychosocial crisis of intimacy versus isolation occurs:
during the early adult years.

23.
According to Erikson, people enter the generativity-versus-stagnation stage during
_____.
middle adulthood

24.

Which of the following statements reflects a genuine contribution of Erikson's theory of


psychosocial development?
He recognized that psychosocial development is essentially a lifelong process.

25. Which alternative below best approximates the frequency of adolescent suicide?
It is among the top five leading causes of death among teenagers; every 90 minutes, a
teenager commits suicide.

26.
From the late teens into the mid-20s, individuals are in a transitional phase that
developmental psychologists call _____adulthood.
Emerging

27.
The time at which a woman's menstrual cycle slows down and stops is called:
Menopause

28.
Which of the following figures best approximates the percentage of married women with
school-age children who work outside the home?
75%

29.

Which theory of aging suggests that human cells have a built-in time limit to their
reproduction and that they are no longer able to divide after a certain time?
Genetic preprogramming theory

30.
Age-related declines are more apparent in _____ memory than in _____ memory.
episodic; semantic

31.
According to the _____ theory of aging, aging produces a gradual withdrawal from the
world on physical, psychological, and social levels.
Disengagement

32.
Bea is 70 years old and works part-time at a discount store. She has kept herself busy
by engaging in various activities she enjoyed during middle adulthood. She volunteers
occasionally at a local food bank, and enjoys the company of her family and the
members of her bridge club. According to the _____ theory of aging, Bea is aging
successfully.
Activity

33.

According to Elisabeth Kbler-Ross, which of the following is the stage in which a


person aware of his impending death is likely to try to think of ways to postpone death
and dedicate their lives to religion?
Bargaining

34.
At the preconventional level of moral development, individuals decide right and wrong
based on
punishments or rewards.

35.
According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, individuals who are willing to risk
their lives and freedom for a belief operate on the ___________ level of moral
development.
Postconventional

36.
According to Kohlberg, which of the following phrases describes the basis of moral
reasoning in early childhood?
Don't get caught.

37.

The Eisenbergs want to raise their children to be highly moral individuals. They should
provide their children with
Information on expected behaviors.

38.
Recent research on prosocial behavior in children has found that
a supportive parenting style is related to more prosocial behavior in children.

39.
Puberty marks the onset of
adolescence.

40.
Erikson described early adulthood as a period during which the person is building a
network of social relationships and making close contact with potential mates. The crisis
experience at this time is known as
intimacy vs. isolation.

1. _____ refers to the pattern of enduring characteristics that produce consistency and
individuality in a given person.
Personality
2. Dr. Chase believes that one's personality largely reflects inner forces over which one has
no control. Dr. Chase appears to take a(n) _____ approach to personality.
Psychodynamic

3. According to Freud's theory, _____ is only a small part of our psychological makeup and
experience.
conscious experience
4. According to Freud, much of our behavior is motivated by:
the unconscious.
5. Why do dreams, fantasies, and slips of the tongue offer important data, in the view of
psychoanalytic psychologists?
Dreams, fantasies, and slips of the tongue offer clues to the contents of the unconscious
mind.
6.To Freud, much of our personality is determined by our _____.
Unconscious
7. Which of the following alternatives best expresses the relationship between the
preconscious and the unconscious in Freud's theory?
The preconscious is a small portion of the unconscious mind.
8. The _____ provides a "safe haven" for our recollections of threatening events.
Unconscious
9. Which of Freud's personality structures is CORRECTLY described?
Idconsists of primitive, instinctual urges
10. The id operates according to the _____ principle in which the goal is the immediate
reduction of tension and the maximization of satisfaction.
Pleasure
11. The _____ is the part of the personality that provides a buffer between the id and the
outside world.
Ego
12. Which of the following components of personality is related to the reality principle?
Ego
13. Which of the following sequences best reflects the order in which Freud's personality
structures develop during infancy and childhood, from first to last?
Id ego superego
14. The _____ is the final personality structure to develop in childhood, represents the
rights and wrongs of society as taught and modeled by a person's parents, teachers, and
other significant individuals.
Superego
15. What do the id and the superego have in common?

They are both unrealistic.


16. Developmental periods that children pass through during which they encounter
conflicts between the demands of society and their own sexual urges are known as _____
stages.
Psychosexual
17. Which of the following sequences indicates the order of the first three stages in
Freud's theory of psychosexual development, from first to last?
Oral anal phallic
18. According to Freud, the _____ stage is a stage from birth to age 12 to 18 months, in
which an infant's center of pleasure is the mouth.
Oral
19. Which of the following stages of psychosexual development is CORRECTLY
matched with an age range?
Anal - 1-3 years
20. According to Freud, a period beginning around age 3 during which a child's pleasure
focuses on the genitals is known as the _____ stage.
Phallic
21. _____ is the process of wanting to be like another person as much as possible,
imitating that person's behavior and adopting similar beliefs and values.
Identification
22. According to Freud, the _____ stage is the period from puberty until death, marked by
mature sexual behavior (that is, sexual intercourse).
Genital
23. Which component of the personality uses defense mechanisms, and why?
The ego uses defense mechanisms to prevent excessive anxiety.
24. Probably the most primary of the defense mechanisms is that of:
repression.
25. The study of defense mechanisms is associated not only with Sigmund Freud but also
with:
Anna Freud.
26. When regression is used as a defense mechanism people:
behave as if they were at an earlier stage of development.
27. Which defense mechanism is CORRECTLY matched with a definition?

Displacement - an unwanted feeling is redirected from a threatening individual to a less


threatening one
28. Read the following: (1) Liz has become more responsive to her partner's advances
since a real "hottie" moved in next door; (2) unable to accept his desire for other young
men, 15-year-old Juan pours himself into his studies; (3) Shauntel tells people that her
coworker Mary dislikes her; if she were honest, though, Shauntel would realize that it is
actually she who dislikes Mary; (4) "Ben's nasty; he's disgusting," says Renee; really,
Renee secretly finds Ben sexy. Which individual is CORRECTLY matched with the
defense mechanism he or she is using?
Juansublimation
29. How do neo-Freudians' thought differ from Freud's original theory?
The neo-Freudians tended to emphasize the importance of the ego rather than that of the
id.
30. Which of the following is NOT one of the neo-Freudian psychoanalysts?
Cattell
31. According to Jung, _____ are universal symbolic representations of a particular
person, object, or experience (such as good and evil).
Archetypes
32. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is a personality assessment widely used in business,
industry, and education. Ultimately, it stems from _____ theory.
Jung's
33. _____ is often considered the first feminist psychologist.
Karen Horney
34. According to _____, parents can facilitate their children's development by:
Adler; helping them overcome feelings of personal inferiority.
35. Psychologists who study personality focus on the
enduring traits and qualities we demonstrate over time.
36. If Freddie's id was in charge when his boss told him that he was an incompetent fool,
Freddie might
punch his boss in the face.
37.According to Freud, the ego is referred to as a mediator because it
must balance the needs of the id, superego, and reality.
39. Hannah has a substitute teacher today. She has a strong desire to give a false name but
is concerned about how much trouble she might get in. The desire to change her name
stems from the ________, and the concern about the trouble stems from the ________.

Id; ego
40. Michelle was reared in a home where high moral principles dominated. She has
attended Sunday school and church since early childhood. In high school, her boyfriend
tried to talk her into "sleeping" with him, but something from inside her told her not to.
She felt very proud of herself afterward for holding her ground. According to Freud,
which personality structure made Michelle feel proud of her response?
Superego
41. If Marcy is feeling guilty about lying to her mother, Freud would argue that her
________ is making her feel this way.
Superego
43. Which of the following is a defense mechanism?
Reaction formation
42. Cartoons sometimes depict personal conflict by showing an individual with an angel
speaking into one ear and a devil speaking into the other ear. The angel represents Freud's
idea of the ________, and the devil represents Freud's idea of the ________.
Superego; id
44. Jeff experiences a lot of aggressive feelings toward his overprotective stepfather.
Because he is powerless to aggress openly against his stepfather, Jeff becomes a very
aggressive forward on his basketball team. This is an example of
Sublimation
45. Oberon has always been fascinated by fire, but he knows that it can be dangerous and
sometimes lethal. When he finished high school, he decided to become a firefighter. The
job is extremely fulfilling for him. Freud would probably say that Oberon's fascination
with fire
has been sublimated into a socially desirable behavior.
46. Every time Antony, a 30-year-old architect, experiences hardship, he goes home to his
parents to find comfort in his childhood bedroom. What defense mechanism is in play
here?
Regression
47. What defense mechanism is being used when the ego transforms the unacceptable
(e.g., looking at pornography) into the acceptable (e.g., becoming a vocal advocate
against pornography)?
Reaction formation
48. George's cubicle at work is spotless. Everything on his desk is arranged according to
a specific purpose. He gets very agitated if something is moved or rearranged. Freud
might argue that George is fixated at the ________ stage.
Anal

49. With regard to the question of whether personality is innate or learned, which of the
following personality theory orientations places the most emphasis on biology?
Psychodynamic
51. Emotionally laden ideas and images that have rich and symbolic meaning for all
people are
Archetypes
53. Adler focused on ________ psychology.
Individual
54. Adler believed that birth order
was important to personality development.
55. According to Alfred Adler, people are primarily motivated by
their desire to overcome perceived shortcomings.
56. Jamar is 4-foot-8 and drives a very large car. How would Adler explain Jamar's
choice in cars?
Compensation

1. Dr. Montgomery, a personality theorist, seeks to identify the basic traits necessary to
describe personality and consistencies in individuals' behavior. Dr. Montgomery is a(n)
_____ theorist.
Trait

2. Which of the following sequences CORRECTLY arranges Allport's trait categories


from the MOST SPECIFIC to the BROADEST?
Secondary central cardinal

3. In Allport's view, how many central traits do most people possess?


5-10

4. _____ traits are characteristics that affect behavior in fewer situations and are less
influential than other traits.
Secondary

5. A graduate student is using a statistical method of identifying associations among a


large number of variables to reveal more general patterns. She is performing a _____
analysis.
Factor

6. Which of the following is NOT one of Eysenck's major personality dimensions?


Agreeableness

7. Which of the following specific traits is CORRECTLY paired with a description in


terms of the Big Five dimensions?
Imaginative - high openness

8. Garner is imaginative, independent, and prefers variety. Brandy is conventional,


down-to-earth, and has limited interests. It is likely that Garner scores high while Brandy
scores low on the Big Five personality dimension of:
openness.

9. Carlos is emotionally unstable, insecure, anxious, and moody. Quinn is disorganized,


careless, and impulsive. Johann is quiet, serious, and somewhat timid. Finally, Kristy is
imaginative, independent, and fond of variety. Which of these individuals is
CORRECTLY matched with a Big Five personality description?
Quinn - low conscientiousness

10. Dr. Plater believes that personality is simply the sum of learned responses to the
external environment. Dr. Plater endorses the _____ approach to personality.
Learning

11. _____ is the belief that we have the personal capabilities to master a situation and
produce positive outcomes.
Self-efficacy

12. Mrs. Linley is a middle school math teacher. She provides constant, consistent
feedback on her students' math assignments. She wants her students to have faith in
their abilities to produce positive outcomes. Mrs. Linley is trying to develop her students'
self-:
efficacy.

13. _____ is the component of personality that encompasses our positive and negative
self-evaluations.
Self- esteem

14. _____ approaches to personality are theories that suggest that important
components of personality are inherited.
Biological and evolutionary

15. The inborn behavioral style and characteristic way of responding that emerges early
in life is known as:
temperament.

16. According to the text, studies of the potential genetic basis of personality have
identified a gene that may contribute to differences between people in the trait of:
thrill-seeking.

17. The text suggests that the neurotransmitter most closely related to individual
differences in thrill- or sensation-seeking is:
dopamine.

18. _____ approaches to personality emphasize people's inherent goodness and their
tendency to move toward higher levels of functioning.
Humanistic

19. Humanistic psychologists suggests that people are consciously motivated to reach
their maximum potential, each in a unique way; that is, people have a fundamental drive
toward self-:
actualization.

20. Humanistic approaches in psychology have been most influential in:


therapeutic settings.

21. Which of the following approaches to personality is LEAST likely to emphasize the
stability of personality?
Learning

22. Which term indicates the ability of a test to measure what it is actually designed to
measure?
Validity

23. Dr. Cavanaugh examines the relationship between the trait of hardiness and senior
citizens' compliance with medication regimes; however, the hardiness measure he uses
was based on college students. Based on this information, which of the following is the
most apparent weakness of Dr. Cavanaugh's study?
The norming of the resilience measure

24. Because of federal legislation, race norming on tests such as the General Aptitude
Test Battery:
was discontinued in the early 1990s.

25. One of the best examples of a self-report measure, and one of the most frequently
used personality tests, is the:
MMPI-2.

26. Dr. Portillo's research team uses many methods to assess the trait of extraversion.
Dr. Portillo is interpreting participants' responses to TAT pictures. Her postdoctoral
research fellow is recording the number and length of conversations participants initiate
in a laboratory situation. Finally, Dr. Portillo's graduate student is examining her own
extraversion scores on a test of the Big Five dimensions. Which research team member
is CORRECTLY paired with the type of personality assessment he or she is using?
Graduate student - self-report measure

27. A series of symmetrical stimuli is to picture what _____ is to _____.


Rorschach; TAT

28. Behavioral assessment relies most heavily on:


observing people in their own settings.

29. Which of the following is NOT one of the text's recommended strategies for being an
informed consumer of psychological test data?
Keep appraised of data on test popularity.

30. Belinda is in counseling and feels that she is on the brink of bursting through her
psychological cocoon and becoming a butterfly. Belinda's therapist agrees with Belinda
and feels strongly that Belinda has the innate ability to cope with stress and to control
her life. Belinda's therapist is most likely a
humanist.

31. Brittney is a counselor who believes that her clients have the innate ability to make
good choices. She accepts each individual as they are and as a person in the process
of change. It is important to her that her clients learn to evaluate themselves and not
depend on the opinion of others. Brittney is practicing
humanistic counseling.

32. Maslow would argue that Gus went back to school at age 40 because
he chose to fully develop his potential.

33. Which of the following is NOT an element of Carl Rogers' theory?


Defense mechanisms

34. Octavia enjoys being around others and is well known for her social graces. She is
warm and engaging with everyone she meets regardless of whether the setting is the
classroom, her workplace, a restaurant, or her own home. Because Octavia has a fairly
stable way of relating to other people, we can say that her behavior is probably
a manifestation of a personality trait.

35. Which of the following accurately describes how factor analysis is used to identify
personality traits?
Factor analysis identifies which traits go together in terms of how they are rated.

36. Which is not one of the Big Five factors of personality discussed in your text?
Empathy

37. According to the five-factor model of personality, a person who is reserved and quiet
is low on
extraversion.

38. A person who is intellectual, imaginative, and has a broad range of interests would
mostly likely score high on a measure of
Openness

39. ________ theories stress the interaction of thought with social environments.
Social cognitive

40. DeShawn graduated from college with honors and approaches most aspects of life
with the expectation that he will be successful. He expects a great deal of himself and
sets his goals high. After his interview for a job in the most prestigious company in his
state, he was convinced that he would get the job. You could say that he
has high self-efficacy.

41. Walter Mischel's view of situationism infers that


personality varies considerably from one context to another.

42. What is the most important aspect of situationism?


The current environment

43. Self-report tests are most closely associated with which perspective on personality?
Trait

44. Maria claims that she is a mind reader. While she has quite a few believers, you
notice that she seems to use very vague comments during her mind-reading sessions.
Maria is likely using ________ to her advantage.
the Barnum effect

45. Projective tests are most closely aligned with which perspective on personality?
Psychodynamic

46. Dr. Crane is looking for a test that he can use to understand more about his clients'
unconscious motivations. He could use a(n) ________ measure.
projective

1. Dr. Alastair examines the relationship among psychological factors, the immune system,
and the brain. Dr. Alastair is a:
psychoneuroimmunologist.
2. Which of the following sequences best captures the "stress cycle," from the beginning to
the end of one cycle?
Stressor stress coping adaptation
3.Which of the following are strong stressors that occur suddenly and typically affect
many people at once?
Cataclysmic events
4. Which category of stressor is correctly matched with an example?
Personal stressorbeing fired
5. PTSD may result from:
cataclysmic events and severe personal stressors.
6. Which of the following statements best captures the relationship between background
stressors and daily hassles?
Background stressors and daily hassles are the same thing.
8. The number of hassles people experience is _____ correlated with the frequency of
such problems as the flu, a sore throat, and backaches. The number of uplifts people
experience is _____ correlated with the frequency of these sorts of problems.
positively; negatively
9. Which of the following is true of stress?
The greater the number of uplifts we experience, the fewer the psychological symptoms
we report later.
10. Which of the following is true of the consequences of stress?

Stress produces both biological and psychological consequences.


11. Susan has been working tirelessly for the past few weeks due to tight deadlines. She
is also being pressurized by her parents to get married and settle in life. Susan is stressed
and has been detected with high blood pressure, skin rashes, and fatigue. She is in a
helpless state and thinks her life is messed up. Susan is suffering from a(n) _____.
psychophysiological disorder
12. In the psychology of health and stress, Hans Selye is associated with the study of:
the general adaptation syndrome.
14. At which stage of Selye's general adaptation model (GAS) are individuals the most
likely to show negative consequences of stress?.
Exhaustion
15. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome model is correctly matched with an
example?
Exhaustioncoming down with a bad cold the day after you hand in that political
science paper
16. Which of the following is true of the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation
syndrome?
In some cases, exhaustion allows people to escape a stressor.
17. Stress may impair our production of disease-fighting white blood cells called:
Lymphocytes
18. Efforts to control, reduce, or learn to tolerate the threats that lead to stress are termed:
coping.
19. Eve was stressed as she had got transferred to Italy. She decided to look at the
brighter side of her relocation by telling herself that it will be a new experience, that she
will be able to meet different people, and see new places. Eve is observing _____ coping.
emotion-focused
20. Faced with overlapping, unrealistic deadlines at work, Ivan recruits his friends to
perform some of the routine clerical tasks associated with the projects. Ivan is engaged in
_____ coping.
problem-focused
21. Which of the following is true about problem-focused coping?
Problem-focused coping leads to changes in behavior or to the development of a plan of
action to deal with stress.
22. Wishful thinking and the use of drugs exemplify the use of _____ coping.
Avoidant

23. Which of the following is found to be the least successful coping method for dealing
with stress?
Avoidant coping
24. Which of the following refer to unconscious strategies that people use to reduce
anxiety by concealing the source from themselves and others?
Defense mechanisms
25. A study conducted by Lehman and Taylor reports that California students living in
dormitories unlikely to withstand an earthquake were more likely to doubt earthquake
predictions than were students living in safer structures. This example best illustrates:
a defense mechanism.
26. Agreeing with the statement: "Sometimes I feel like I can't do anything about my life"
would reflect which of the following?
Learned helplessness
27. "Don't wait for the storm to passlearn to dance in the rain," exhorts an inspirational
poster you notice in an office. This quote most directly relates to the _____ component of
hardiness.
Challenge
28. Which of the following is true of resilience?
Resilience results in the release of the hormone cortisol which is helpful in responding to
challenges, although too much can produce damage.
29. The strategy of preparing for stress before it happens is termed _____ coping.
Proactive
30. The _____ behavior pattern is a cluster of behaviors involving hostility,
competitiveness, time urgency, and feeling driven.
Type A
31. Vivian always makes sure that he submits his class assignments before anybody else
does. Also, he aims at getting the highest score among his classmates. Vivian has a _____
behavior pattern.
Type A
32. Annie is a Type A individual. She would be characterized by _____ behavior.
Hostile
33. The _____ behavior pattern is characterized by a patient and nonaggressive manner.
Type B
34. Martha has a Type B behavior pattern. Which of the following characteristics would
be observed in Martha?

Cooperation
35. Which of the following behavior types is correctly matched with an adjective?
Type B: cooperative
36. Patrick is a typical Type B personality. Patrick would be characterized by _____
behavior.
Nonaggressive
37. Owen is a Type B personality. Owen would be characterized by _____ behavior.
noncompetitive
38. The Type A and Type B behavior patterns are best seen as:
ends of a continuum.
39. The component of the Type A pattern most strongly linked to coronary heart disease is
that of:
hostility.
40. The key component of the Type A behavior pattern, hostility, is highly toxic because
it:
produces excessive physiological arousal in stressful situations.
41. Smoking is the number _____ preventable cause of death in the United States; one in
_____ deaths in the United States is/are caused by smoking.
one; five
42. Which of the following is supposed to be the most successful method of quitting
smoking?
Attending counseling, along with using nicotine replacement patches or gums
43. In the long term, the most effective means of reducing smoking may be:
changes in societal norms and attitudes toward the habit.
44. According to the World Health Organization, about what percentage of the world's
population will die as a result of smoking?
10%

1. Blythe takes the medication prescribed by her doctor. However, she takes an
increased dose and combines the drug with other medications based on her past
experience. Blythe is practicing:

creative nonadherence.
2. Linda was suffering from an eye infection. Her doctor prescribed her eye drops
that she had to use 4 times a day, and advised her to apply warm compresses 5
times every day. The doctor also asked her to avoid using eye makeup. However,
Linda used the solution only once a day and rarely applied warm compresses to
her eye. She also continued to use eye makeup. Linda is practicing:
creative nonadherence.
3. Which of the following is true of physicians' communication with their patients?
Patients may be reluctant to volunteer information that might cast them in a bad
light.
4. Which of the following statements is true regarding male and female
physicians' communication with their patients?
Female physicians provide more patient-centered communication than do male
physicians.
5. Andrew was told by his physician that he would be able to control his diabetes
if he controls his diet and avoids the use of sugar in his diet. Andrew was given
a(n) _____ framed health message by his physician.
positively
6. Preventive health behavior is best motivated by _____ framed messages;
behavior leading to the detection of a disease is best motivated by _____.
positively; negatively framed messages
7. Which of the following messages is most likely to motivate the maintenance of
an exercise program?
"If you exercise, you'll feel more energetic and look more attractive."
8. Tim was told by his doctor that if he did not stop eating fast foods, he would
turn diabetic and obese. This is an example of a _____ health message.
Negatively

9. Happy people:
hold moderately inflated views of themselves.
10. Identify the correct statement relating to happy people.
Happy people like to be around other people.
11. With respect to gender differences in happiness, which of the following
statements is most accurate?
Men and women are made happy by most of the same things.

12. The level of subjective well-being is very stable because:


people have a general set point for happiness.
14. Overall, the set point for happiness is _____ and it is determined:
relatively high; at least partly by genetics
15. Most individuals in the United States would rate themselves as:
pretty happy
16. Most people think that they are _____ famous people like Oprah Winfrey.
happier than
17. Identify the correct statement with regard to happiness of people.
Few differences exist between members of different demographic groups.
18. Which of the following is true about happiness?
Generally, money does not buy happiness.
19. Lifestyle choices, behaviors, and psychological characteristics are the main
focus of ________ psychology.
Health
20. Shirley is talking to a group of third graders about the importance of drinking
plenty of water every day. She is focused on
health promotion.
21. Who is NOT engaged in what psychologists refer to as health behaviors?
Jim is studying his history notes.

22. According to the text, a key element in predicting whether Barry will change
his drinking behavior is
how ready he is to change the behavior.
23. Who is most likely going to achieve his or her desired weight loss?
Stan wants to make the track team.
24. Jeanne only drinks alcohol when she is playing bridge with her friends. Her
motive for drinking would be characterized as
social.

25. Ryan is sad because his girlfriend just broke up with him. Ryan's father
assures him that he has lots of desirable traits and that he will be OK. Ryan's
father is primarily providing what kind of social support?
Emotional support
26. Who is experiencing the benefits of social support?
Ava joined a weight-watchers club.
27. Maurice is desperately attempting to study for his first test in psychology.
However, the book store has run out of textbooks. He loaned his notes to the
good-looking girl who sits behind him, and she has not returned them. The test is
scheduled for tomorrow morning and he has a headache. Maurice is
experiencing
stress.
28. A situation, circumstance, or event that challenges the individual and requires
some form of coping mechanism best defines the term
stressor.
29. There is a distinct physiological pattern that emerges when people are
exposed to strong and prolonged stress. Hans Selye labeled this response
pattern the

general adaptation syndrome.


30. The general adaptation syndrome refers to the
body's response to stressors.
31. A fundamental premise of the general adaptation syndrome is that
a stressor produces the same physical symptoms in all people.
32. Which of the following accurately describes the sequence of stages in the
general adaptation syndrome?
Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion
33. When a rat is first introduced to an overcrowded cage, it will likely enter the
________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome.
alarm
34. You walk into your biology class and unexpectedly see a quiz waiting for you
on your desk. If you are not prepared for the quiz, you are likely to experience the
________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome.
Alarm
35. Once you get over the initial stress associated with your first exam of finals
week, the fact that you have several more exams will likely lead your body to
enter the ________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome.
Resistance
36. Katie has been diagnosed with breast cancer and is under significant stress.
She is now undergoing a series of chemotherapy treatments to attempt to treat
the cancer. According to Selye, Katie is in the ________ stage of GAS.
Resistance
37. According to the general adaptation syndrome, possible serious biological
damage may occur during the ________ stage.
exhaustion

38. After a long week of final exams is over, many students end up getting sick
the following week. This is most likely an illustration of the ________ stage of the
general adaptation syndrome.
Exhaustion
39. After studying all week for final exams, eating poorly, and not getting enough
sleep, Shelly woke up the day after her last exam with the flu. She is in which
stage of the GAS?
Exhaustion
40. The body system that plays the greatest role in Selye's GAS is called the
hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis.
41. Rosemary is interested in studying the relationships between emotion, the
nervous system, and the immune system. She would be most interested in the
field of
psychoneuroimmunology.
42. Which statement is NOT correct concerning the relationship between the
immune system and stress?
Acute stressors produce enhanced immune system functioning.
43. Which of the following statements is NOT one of the preliminary hypotheses
in regards to the relationship between stress and the immune system?
Stress directly promotes disease-producing processes.
44. A surge in ________ caused by severe emotional distress may contribute to
one's risk of a heart attack.
Adrenaline
45. Based on the text, which of these is an accurate description of the
relationship between stress and the immune system and cancer?
The physiological effects of stress inhibit immune responses to cancer.
46. If Jason decides that the snake he sees is dangerous, he has made a
cognitive appraisal.

47. Josh was just in an automobile accident. The first thing he does is call his
insurance company and begin the claim process. Josh is engaging in ________
coping.
problem-focused
48. In which of the following situations might emotion-focused coping be most
beneficial?
After your dog dies
49. If you are managing your problem as opposed to confronting your problem,
you are engaged in ________ coping.
emotion-focused
50. Which individual will cope most successfully with stress?
Tara exercises regularly.

51. Mark is excited about the big presentation he is going to give the board of
directors this morning. Although he stayed up most of the night perfecting the
presentation, he feels energized and ready to go. Mark is exhibiting
hardiness.
52. Which of the following statements about optimism and coping is FALSE?
Optimists avoid paying attention to news that is negative.
53. A(n) ________ activity is defined as one that increases heart rate and lung
functioning.
Aerobic
54. Researchers have found that the most effective component of weight-loss
programs is
regular exercise.
55. Smoking contributes to all of the following EXCEPT
death from accidents.

56. Macy is about to try to quit smoking. We can predict that she will
relapse several times before successfully quitting.
57. A person who tries to quit smoking "cold turkey" is
trying to stop without making any major lifestyle changes.
58. Yolanda is taking the "cold turkey" approach to stopping her drinking habit.
This means that she is
not taking another drink of alcohol.
59. Twenty-year-old Shynara has been smoking since she was 12 and wants to
quit.While no method is foolproof, the most successful avenue for breaking the
addiction is often
a combination of methods.
60. Jennie's father comes home after a long day of work and has a couple of
strong drinks to help him relax. His motive for drinking would be characterized as
coping.
61. Who is experiencing the benefits of social support?
Ava joined a weight-watchers club.
1. Insanity is a(n) _____ term.
Legal
2. It is best to view abnormal behavior and normal behavior as
marking two ends of a continuum.
3. Researchers have found that several neurotransmitters play a role in depression. This fact
most directly affirms the _____ perspective on mood disorders.
Medical
4. Which perspective on abnormal behavior primarily argues that psychological disorders
stem from childhood conflicts over opposing wishes regarding sex and aggression?
Psychoanalytic perspective
5.Which of the following correctly identifies either a strength or a limitation of the
psychoanalytic perspective on abnormality?
Limitation: There is no conclusive way to link childhood experiences with abnormal
adult behavior.

6.The behavioral perspective asserts that the underlying cause of abnormality is:
faulty learning.
7. The greatest strength of the behavioral perspective is its:
objective approach for examining behavior.
8. According to the cognitive approach, psychological disorders are the result of:
maladaptive thinking patterns.
9. The humanistic perspective in psychology is primarily associated with the work of:
Abraham Maslow.
10. Which of the following supports the sociocultural perspective on abnormality?
African-Americans are more likely than whites to be hospitalized involuntarily for
psychological disorders.
11. Of the following perspectives, which is MOST likely to take a strong "nurture"
position on the origin of psychological abnormality?
Sociocultural
12. The purpose of the DSM-IV-TR is to:
provide descriptions of disorders.
13. On the basis of the results of Rosenhan's study, which of the following is the most
accurate evaluation of the DSM-IV-TR's system of classifying psychological disorders?
Rosenhan's results are worrying, because they suggest that diagnostic labels strongly
affect how behavior is perceived.
14. DSM-IV-TR relies most heavily on the _____ approach to abnormal behavior.
Medical
15. The feeling of apprehension and tension that one feels during stressful situations is
referred to as:
anxiety.
16. Intense, irrational fears of specific objects or situations are referred to as:
Phobias
17. A person with social phobia is typically haunted by the fear of being:
judged or embarrassed by others.
18. Which of the following statements accurately identifies either a similarity or
dissimilarity between social phobia and agoraphobia?
Similarity - Both agoraphobia and social phobia can prevent people from leaving their
homes

19. Phobic disorders differ from generalized anxiety and panic disorders in that:
in phobic disorders there is a specific, identifiable stimulus that sets off the anxiety
reaction.
20. Samantha was out shopping with her friends when she started to feel dizzy. Although
the temperature was quite low, she was sweating heavily and finally fainted. Her friends
took her to a doctor but he could not find any particular cause related to Samantha's
attack. It is most likely that Samantha suffers from:
panic disorder.
21. Which of the following is a core symptom of panic disorder?
Feeling of anxiety
22. Thomas has been suffering from insomnia for the past two years. He has also been
experiencing tension headaches and heart palpitations. His medical reports show that he
is not suffering from any physiological or genetic disorder. Thomas is most likely
suffering from:
generalized anxiety disorder.
23. An irresistible urge to repeatedly carry out some act that seems strange and
unreasonable is referred to as:
compulsion.
24. Sam washes his hands very frequently. In spite of this he feels that his hands are not
clean and that he might acquire some viral disease because of his poor hygiene practices.
On the basis of the given information, we can conclude that Sam has:
obsessive-compulsive disorder.
25. Which of the following major anxiety disorders is CORRECTLY paired with a
description?
Generalized anxiety disorder - Persistent, uncontrollable, free-floating worry
26. Alex has an intense, unwarranted fear of dogs. Bailey feels driven to wash her hands
repeatedly. Callista is plagued by chronic, debilitating worry. Doran sometimes feels
dizzy and short of breath; he feels as if he might die. Which of these individuals is
CORRECTLY matched with the anxiety disorder he or she displays?
Doran - Panic disorder
27. Posttraumatic stress disorder is classified as a(n) _____ disorder.
Anxiety
28. Which of the following potential explanations of anxiety disorders is CORRECTLY
matched with the perspective it reflects?
An overactive autonomic nervous system is at the root of panic attacksmedical
perspective

29. Psychological disorders that take on physical symptoms, but for which there is no
medical cause are called _____ disorders.
somatoform
30. _____ is a disorder in which people have a constant fear of illness and a
preoccupation with their health.
Hypochondriasis
31. Paige has hypochondriasis. This means that:
she misinterprets minor sensations as evidence of a serious disease.
32. _____ is a major somatoform disorder that involves an actual physical disturbance,
such as the inability to use a sensory organ or the complete or partial inability to move an
arm or leg.
Conversion disorder
33. The condition in which an individual's hand become entirely numb, while an area
above the wrist, controlled by the same nerves, remains sensitive to touch is referred to
as:
glove anesthesia.
34. The difference between hypochondriasis and conversion disorder is that:
conversion disorder involves an actual physical disturbance.
35. _____ is a psychological dysfunction characterized by the separation of different
facets of a person's personality that are normally integrated and work together.
Dissociative disorder
36. _____ is a disorder in which a significant, selective memory loss occurs.
Dissociative amnesia
37. Which of the following dissociative disorders is correctly matched with its
description?
Dissociative identity disorderAn individual displays characteristics of two or more
distinct personalities.
38. _____ is a form of amnesia in which the individual leaves home and sometimes
assumes a new identity.
Dissociative fugue
39. How does dissociative amnesia differ from simple amnesia?
Simple amnesia involves an actual loss of memory; dissociative amnesia does not.
40. The common thread among dissociative disorders is that:
they allow people to escape from some anxiety-producing situation.

41. At any given time, _____ of the U.S. population is clinically depressed; about _____
of college students have received a diagnosis of depression.
6-10%; 15%
42. Women are _____ as likely to experience major depression as are men.
Twice
43. Which of the following mood disorders is CORRECTLY matched with its
corresponding example?
Major depression - Bonnie is unable to concentrate and seems to have lost interest in life.
44. _____ is an extended state of intense, wild elation.
Mania
45. Butch alternates between periods of dark despair and times of elation, great energy,
recklessness, and creativity. Butch is most likely suffering from _____ disorder.
Bipolar
46. Which of the following neurotransmitters plays a major role in depression?
Serotonin
47. _____ is a class of disorders in which severe distortion of reality occurs.
Schizophrenia
48. The defining characteristic of schizophrenia is:
a severe distortion of reality.
49. Which of the following major clinical disorders is CORRECTLY matched with its
defining characteristic?
Schizophrenia - Severe distortion of reality
50. Grace has schizophrenia. What is the approximate likelihood that her identical twin
Joy also has schizophrenia?
50%
52. Brain-imaging studies indicate that a person with schizophrenia is most likely to
have:
shrunken hippocampi.
53. Roger is a manipulative, callous individual who has no regard for the moral and
ethical rules of society or the rights of others. It is most likely that he has:
antisocial personality disorder.
54. Which personality disorder below is CORRECTLY matched with its description?
Borderline personalityReliance on relationships to define oneself

55. Carrie is dramatic and emotionally volatile. She rapidly forms intense relationships
that seem to blow up or fall apart just as quickly. Although she tends to distrust others,
she also needs their attention to define her. Carrie is most likely to be diagnosed with
_____ personality disorder.
Borderline
56. Gloria considers herself to be a "diva": She expects special treatment from others as
she thinks that she is the most important person in her neighborhood. Gloria's behavior
indicates that she has _____.
narcissistic personality disorder
57. Lionel is two years old. His communication is severely impaired. He appears
withdrawn and unresponsive to affection. He is most likely to be diagnosed with:
Autism
58. Which of the following is a sexual disorder?
Paraphilias
59. Alzheimer's disease is classified as a(n) _____ disorder.
organic mental
About _____ percentage of the 8000 subjects interviewed in the United States, between
the ages of 15 and 54 reported experiencing a psychological disorder at some point
during their lives.
50
1. Which if the following is NOT considered one of the criteria for defining abnormal
behavior?
Unique behavior
2. Jasmine is an attractive, well-dressed female who appears normal to those
individuals she works with. However, Jasmine may still be considered abnormal if
All of these

3. Jason is very depressed. He has trouble going to work every day and often feels
that life holds few rewards. Which aspect of abnormal behavior applies to Jason?
All of these
4. Martin refuses to leave his house because he believes that his body odor is toxic
to those around him. Martin's behavior is an example of
All of these

5. An implication of the medical model of psychological disorders is that


the individual should not be blamed for the disorder.

6. Marilyn is depressed a great deal of the time so she seeks help from a doctor. She is
diagnosed as having a mental illness caused by a chemical imbalance. Marilyn is most
likely being treated by someone who adheres to the ________ model of psychological
disorders
medical

7. Penny is a single mom who is constantly struggling to make ends meet. As a result,
she is depressed a great deal of the time. Her depression most likely has a ________
basis.
Sociocultural

8. According to the biopsychosocial model of psychological disorders, abnormal


behavior can be influenced by
All of these

9. Of the following factors, ________ is related to the highest rates of mental disorders.
low income

10. Which of the following disorders is associated with a particular culture?

Anorexia nervosa

11. A classification system for psychological disorders allows clinicians to do all of the
following except make predictions about
how other people might react to the diagnosis of a disorder.

12. Robert's teacher has sent several notes home to his family during the past school
year. Robert is inattentive, hyperactive, and impulsive. Robert will most likely be
diagnosed with
attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.

13. Critics of the medical model of abnormal behavior argue that ADHD reflects
a social construct rather than a psychological disorder.

14. Anxiety disorders involve fears that are


All of these

15. Alex is almost always anxious at school, at home, and even when he is with his
friends. Alex is most likely suffering from
generalized anxiety disorder.

16. John has sudden attacks of intense fear in which his heart races, he feels faint, and
he has trouble catching his breath. During these attacks, he worries that he is going to
die. From this description, it sounds like John has
panic disorder.

17. A fear becomes a phobia when a(n)


individual will go to any length to avoid the object of the fear/phobia.

18. Evan decided to take an F in English class rather than have to get up in front of the
class to make an oral presentation. Evan probably suffers from
A Social Phobia

19. A fear of strangers is referred to as


xenophobia.

21. All of the following are common compulsions EXCEPT


repeating phrases.

22. Evette believes that she must touch the door knob seven times before she opens
the door so that her mother will not become deathly ill. What is her compulsion?
Touching the door knob

23. When Sandra was 18 years old, she was in a serious car accident. Although she
made a full recovery from her injuries, she experienced extreme anxiety afterward.
Sandra is now very anxious when driving, will not drive near the site of the accident, has
nightmares about the accident, and flinches when she goes through intersections.
Sandra has symptoms suggestive of
posttraumatic stress disorder.

24. In movies that focus on war, soldiers who have returned from the frontlines often
struggle with overwhelming anxiety, nervousness, depression, and flashbacks. In many
cases, the soldiers have problems with memory and an inability to experience
happiness. These movie characters are most likely experiencing ________ disorder.
posttraumatic stress

25. For a person to have experienced a major depressive episode, he or she must have
had at least five of the nine symptoms for at least
two weeks.

26. Which disorder is associated with having too few serotonin and norepinephrine
receptors?
Major depressive disorder

27. A possible behavioral explanation for depression focuses on


learned helplessness.

28. What cognitive attribution style can serve as a protective factor against depression?
Optimism

29. The tendency to ruminate on negative experiences is most closely associated with
depression

30. Riley routinely blows every little setback out of proportion. For example, when she
forgot to turn in her algebra homework, she was convinced that she would fail the class.
Riley is at risk for developing
depression.

31. Joshua has received low grades in math throughout his school years. In the lower
grades, he would study hard, but the results were always the same. Eventually, he
stopped trying to do better in math because nothing seemed to work. Joshua has
developed
learned helplessness.

32. Which psychological approach would attribute a person's depression to escalating


negative and self-defeating thoughts?
Cognitive

33. The prevalence of major depressive disorder among adolescents ranges from
________ percent.
10 to 20

34. Your roommate is acting very strangely. Although she has not slept much in the past
few days, she says she is on top of the world. She has cleaned and recleaned her
closets several times. She has invested in a questionable financial venture. This period
of nonstop activity has lasted for well over a week and is in sharp contrast to the
depression and fatigue she exhibited in the previous semester. The DSM-IV diagnosis
would most likely be
bipolar disorder.

35. Dora has been up for two straight days remodeling her bathroom. She has not eaten
or taken a break and is still full of energy. Dora may be exhibiting a
manic episode.

36. Last week your roommate Delia would not get out of bed. However, this morning
she rushes into your room and hands you a 300-page paper that she said she started
writing yesterday afternoon. Delia may be suffering from
bipolar disorder.

37. Mrs. Johnson recently returned home after being gone for nearly five months. She
has no memory associated with those five months. She most likely experienced a(n)

dissociative fugue.

38. Amy often offends other people because she does not seem to be able to read their
emotions accurately. She shows little or no emotions herself and maintains an immobile
facial expression when interacting with other people. She does not plan or engage in
goal-directed behaviors and jumps from one low-paying job to another. Her family thinks
she is lazy. Amy is most likely
suffering from schizophrenia.

39. Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that causes many individuals
suffering from schizophrenia to stop taking their medications?
Cost

40. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the following EXCEPT


Social Withdrawals

41. Frank believes that he is the most skilled fisherman and that, when he is out on the
lake, thousands of people with binoculars are watching his every move in the hopes of
discovering his technique. This is an example of ________ in schizophrenia.
a delusion

42. Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?


Flat affect

1. _____ is treatment in which a trained professional a therapistuses psychological


techniques to help someone overcome psychological difficulties and disorders, resolve
problems in living, or bring about personal growth.
Psychotherapy
2. Dr. Andersen attempts to bring about personal growth by using psychological
techniques; Dr. Bradley attempts to improve psychological functioning through the use of
psychotropic medication. Dr. Andersen practices _____; Dr. Bradley, _____.
psychotherapy; biomedical therapy
3.Today therapists use a(n) _____ approach to therapy, which means they use a variety of
methods with an individual patient.
eclectic
4. _____ are professionals with a Ph.D. or Psy.D. who have also completed a
postgraduate internship. They specialize in assessment and treatment of psychological
difficulties, providing psychotherapy and, in some U.S. states, can prescribe drugs.
Clinical psychologists
5. _____ are professionals with a Ph.D. or Ed.D. who typically treat day-to-day
adjustment problems, often in a university mental health clinic.
Counseling psychologists
6. Which of the following mental health professionals is CORRECTLY matched with a
brief description?
Counseling psychologist - treats everyday adjustment problems, often in a university
mental health clinic
7. _____ therapy seeks to bring unresolved past conflicts and unacceptable impulses from
the unconscious into the conscious, where patients may deal with the problems more
effectively.
psychodynamic
8. The surface description of a dream is called the _____ content.
manifest
9. Noah dreams that he suddenly becomes paralyzed as he tries to cross a busy
intersection. In Freudian terms, this is the _____ content of Noah's dream. The underlying
meaning of the dream is the _____ content.
manifest; latent

10. _____ is an inability or unwillingness to discuss or reveal particular memories,


thoughts, or motivations.
resistance
11. _____ is the transmission of feelings to a psychoanalyst of love or anger that had been
originally directed to a patient's parents or other authority figures.
Transference
12. Which of the following is a suitable way of handling transference?
The therapist can take advantage of transference to help the patient "redo" difficult
relationships.
13. How does contemporary psychodynamic therapy differ from classic psychoanalysis?
Contemporary therapist puts less emphasis on a patient's past history and childhood than
classic psychoanalysts.
14. Why has psychodynamic therapy remained a viable approach to psychological
treatment, despite criticism of it?
It facilitates the development of deep insight into one's life.
15. Which of the following approaches to psychotherapy is CORRECTLY matched with
its description?
Behavioral approachClassical and operant conditioning principles are used to change
people's behavior.
16. According to a behavior therapist, how might psychological disorders be treated
MOST EFFECTIVELY?
The client should learn new behaviors to replace the faulty skills.
17. _____ is a form of therapy that reduces the frequency of undesired behavior by
pairing an unpleasant stimulus with undesired behavior.
Aversive conditioning
18. Giovanni abuses cocaine; Hans has a dog phobia. Which alternative below correctly
identifies the behavioral treatment most appropriate for each of these individuals?
Giovanniaversive conditioning; Hanssystematic desensitization
19. A hierarchy of fears may be used in:
Systematic desensitization
20. _____ is a behavioral treatment for anxiety in which people are confronted either
suddenly or gradually with a stimulus that they fear.
Exposure
21. Which of the following operant conditioning techniques is INCORRECTLY paired
with its description?

Token systemThe therapist reduces the frequency of undesired behavior by pairing an


aversive, unpleasant stimulus with undesired behavior.
22. _____ rewards a person for desired behavior with a poker chip or some kind of play
money.
The token system
23. A client with social anxiety watches a film in which an individual greets strangers in a
crowded room, makes small talk, and smiles pleasantly. The individual in the film
appears to gain pleasure from these activities. The behavior therapy technique used in this
scenario is:
Observational learning
24. How might one best respond to the charge that behavior therapy produces only a
superficial change in external behavior?
Neuroscientific evidence shows that behavioral treatments produce actual changes in the
functioning of the brain.
25. _____ treatment approaches teach people to think in more adaptive ways by changing
their dysfunctional notions about the world and themselves.
cognitive
26. _____ is a form of therapy that attempts to restructure a person's belief system into a
more realistic, rational, and logical set of views by challenging dysfunctional beliefs that
maintain irrational behavior.
Rational-emotive behavior therapy
27. Which of the following therapies emphasizes the challenging of irrational, unrealistic
beliefs?
Rational-emotive behavior therapy
28. In _____ appraisal, clients are asked to evaluate situations, themselves, and others in
terms of their memories, values, beliefs, thoughts, and expectations.
Cognitive
29. _____ therapy is therapy in which the underlying rationale is that people have control
of their behavior, can make choices about their lives, and are essentially responsible for
solving their own problems.
Humanistic
30. Therapy in which the goal is to reach one's potential for self-actualization is known as
_____ therapy.
Person-centered
31. How is contemporary person-centered therapy different than it was in Rogers's day?

Therapists are more likely to nudge clients towards insights rather than merely reflecting
back their statements.
32. Therapy in which people meet collectively with a therapist to discuss problems is
specifically known as _____ therapy.
group
33. Regarding group therapy, which of the following statements is TRUE?
Group therapy is generally more economical than individual therapy.
34. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is an example of _____ therapy.
self-help
35. In 1952, noted psychologist _____ published a study challenging the effectiveness of
_____ therapy.
Eysenck; psychodynamic
36. A research technique in which in which data from a large number of studies are
statistically combined is known as:
Meta-analysis
37. According to the text, the effectiveness of various approaches to therapy found that
although success rates vary somewhat by treatment form, most treatments show that
success rates range from about _____% greater success for treated compared with
untreated individuals.
75-80
38. According to the text, research shows that behavioral therapy is roughly _____%
more effective than no treatment at all.
80
39. Which of the following statements is most TRUE?
Different forms of therapy work best in different situations.
41. The newest antipsychotics are called _____ antipsychotics.
atypical
42. Atypical antipsychotics affect both _____ and _____ levels in certain parts of the
brain.
serotonin; dopamine
43. Prozac is an example of a(n) _____.
antipsychotic drug
44. _____ are a class of medications used in cases of severe depression to improve a
patient's mood and feeling of well-being.

Antidepressant drugs
45. Drugs that reduce the level of worry or tension a person experiences essentially by
reducing excitability and increasing feelings of well-being are known as _____.
antianxiety drugs
46. Approximately what percentage of U.S. families includes a member who has taken an
antianxiety drug?
50%
47. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) was introduced in the _____; it is used to treat
severe _____.
1930s; depression
48. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) is used to treat:
Depression
49. In the _____, surgeons performed prefrontal lobotomy on thousands of patients often
with little precision.
1930s and 40s
50. According to the text, which of the following best represents the percentage of
homeless adults who have a major psychological disorder?
15-35%
1. The group of drugs known as SSRIs work primarily by interfering with the
reabsorption of ________ in the brain.
Serotonin
2. The widespread increase in the number of individuals taking SSRIs to combat their
depression is primarily due to the
reduction in side effects as compared to other antidepressants.

3. Lithium is considered an effective ________ drug.


mood-stabilizing

4. Lithium is to ________ as clozapine is to ________.

bipolar disorder; schizophrenia

5. Chaz has been on antipsychotic medication for several weeks now. When he returns
home, he will likely have difficulty
All of these

6. Ivan is very depressed and the danger of suicide is imminent. He is not responding to
the drugs normally employed to treat depression. Which of the following treatments is
most likely to prove helpful in rapidly reducing Ivan's depression and suicidal behavior?
electroconvulsive

7. Sharon is seeing a new doctor after many different medications have failed to help
with her condition. This doctor tells her that many well-designed studies suggest that
electroconvulsive therapy is effective in the treatment of
depression.

8. Who may benefit the most from electroconvulsive therapy?


Brad who is contemplating suicide

9. Which of the following is the LEAST used biomedical intervention?


Psychosurgery

10. From Freud's psychodynamic perspective, what is the best way to gain insight into a
person's core problems?
Bring unconscious conflicts into conscious awareness.

11. "My client must confront the conflicts which are left over from childhood and gain
release from this burdening anxiety." This statement would likely be made by a
psychologist who practices ________ therapy.
Psychodynamic

12. The main goal of psychoanalysis is to


provide clients with insight into their unconscious conflicts.

13. According to the psychoanalytic approach to psychotherapy, which of the following


is an essential part of the job of a psychotherapist?
Interpret the disguised revelations of the unconscious mind.

14. According to Freud, getting people to talk freely


allows their deepest thoughts to emerge.

15. Your psychotherapist asks you to use free association. You are being asked to
just talk in an undirected manner without reflecting on what you are about to say.

16. Catharsis is a term used to describe

a release of emotional tension.

17. Freud argued that the true meaning of dream symbols was
dependent on the individual dreamer.

18. James dreamed that he went to his neighbor's house at midnight and made himself
a sandwich. His psychoanalyst interpreted the dream to mean that James really wanted
to go to bed with his neighbor's wife. Making the sandwich was the ________ content of
the dream.
Manifest

19. In psychoanalytic theory, transference is used to describe


how the client comes to relate to the therapist in ways that resemble his or her other
relationships.

20. Transference is useful in the therapeutic situation because it


provides an opportunity to re-create difficult relationships.

21. Since his father left, Joel has been treating his older brother more like a father. In
terms of psychoanalysis, what may be occurring?
Transference

22. When resistance occurs in therapy, what event is taking place?

The client is using unconscious defense strategies that prevent progress.

23. Which of the following BEST describes the psychoanalytic notion of resistance?
Avoidance

24. Dr. Billings is a therapist who specializes in psychoanalysis. She focuses on


using free association and dream interpretation.

25. You are a humanistic therapist. A potential client is unfamiliar with your school of
therapy and asks you to sum it up for him. You tell him the primary tenet of humanistic
therapy is that
individuals possess self-healing capacities.

26. Dr. Patterson engages in reflective listening with her depressed client. She waits for
him to express his feelings and for him to decide what he wants to do about his
problems. Dr. Patterson is practicing ________ psychotherapy.
client-centered

27. Josie went to a psychoanalyst but found his style too cold and uninvolved. She
wanted a therapist with whom she could have more of a relationship. She switched to a
Rogerian therapist. The therapeutic setting is now one of
warmth and acceptance.

28. Two key assumptions of the ________ approach to therapy are that psychological
disorders are learned in exactly the same way as normal behaviors are and that they
can be treated by applying the basic principles of learning.
behavioral

29. "First, I would like you to get in a comfortable position and begin the breathing
techniques which we have been practicing. When you sense that you have arrived at
complete relaxation, we will proceed." This therapist is initiating
systematic desensitization.

30. The first step in systematic desensitization is


discussing aspects of the feared situation that are most frightening.

31. Frank has been seeing a therapist about his spider phobia. The therapist first asked
Frank to describe what it is about spiders that frightens him, and they then put these
fears in order from least to most frightening. The therapist then taught Frank muscle
relaxation, and finally Frank was exposed to a series of increasingly fearful stimuli.
Frank has been seeing a therapist who uses
systematic desensitization.

32. Jan is afraid of crowds. If her therapist uses the flooding technique, which of the
following will Jan most likely be asked to do?
Attend a sold-out rock concert with no way home until after the concert

33. Who is being treated with the flooding technique?


Dan is being forced to touch a live snake.

34. If a therapist gives Henry, who is suffering from alcoholism, a drink laced with a
nausea-inducing drug so that he will become ill after drinking the alcohol, the therapist is
using
aversive conditioning.

35. The therapy that is based on the assumption that abnormal behavior is due to selfdefeating and irrational beliefs is
cognitive therapy.

36. ________ is an example of a cognitive therapy.


Rational-emotive therapy

37. Judy thinks she is depressed because of her teacher's criticism of her term paper.
Judy's therapist explains to her that Judy's own irrational beliefthat the criticism
means she is stupidis really why she is depressed. Judy is likely to be seeing a
therapist who is providing ________ therapy.
rational-emotive

38. Dr. Tetris is a rational-emotive therapist speaking to a group of introductory


psychology students. Which of the following would likely be his summary statement?
"Our unrealistic beliefs cause many emotional problems."

39. Beck's cognitive therapy focuses on


eliminating illogical and self-defeating thoughts.

40. Luanne is being treated for depression after a breakup with her boyfriend. Her
therapist points out that her thoughts, and not the situation itself, is causing her to be
depressed. This information suggests that Luanne's therapist practices ________
therapy.
Beck's cognitive

41. Cognitive-behavior therapy attempts to produce change by


helping clients to eliminate self-defeating thoughts.

42. A remarkable finding from research on cognitive-remediation therapy is that this


therapy produces changes in the
person's brain functioning.

43. Research on the effectiveness of psychotherapy has found that


All of these.

44. Which of the following is the most important determinant of whether or not therapy is
successful?
Quality of the client's participation

45. Dr. Houltin is a therapist who believes that it is important for clients to share
information and provide feedback to each other. Dr. Houltin is practicing ________
therapy.
group

46. In family therapy, it is assumed that the


problem originates in the interactions among the family members.

47. Deinstitutionalization involves


transferring individuals with mental disorders from mental institutions to communitybased facilities.

48. Which of the following statements accurately describes well-being therapy?


WBT is about learning to notice and savor positive experiences.

1. Social psychologist Leon Festinger is associated with the study of:


Cognitive dissonance

2. Sets of cognitions about people and social experiences are called _____.
Schemas
3. Which of the following is true of schemas?
Schemas help us predict what others are like on the basis of relatively little information.
4. One forms an impression of another individual:
very quickly, within a few seconds.
5. _____ are brought about by something in the environment.
Situational causes
6. Fiona got an e-mail from her manager, Rebecca, asking her to meet to discuss a past
project. Unfortunately, Fiona was struggling to complete a project due that afternoon and
had to reply that she was too busy to meet today. Rebecca was not pleased with Fiona's
refusal to meet and told another coworker that she thought Fiona was "too busy and
important" to meet with her supervisor thus she is an unpleasant snob. Rebecca is making
a ______ attribution of Fiona.
dispositional
7. Perceived causes of behavior that are based on internal traits or personality factors are
called _____ causes.
Dispositional
8. Which of the following attribution biases is correctly matched with its definition?
Halo effectAn initial impression that an individual has some positive (or negative)
traits leads us to infer that they have many other positive (or negative) characteristics as
well.
9. Sharon was made the captain of her softball team due to her excellent playing skills.
However, the fact that she did not display good team management skills and was not very
cooperative with her t
eammates was ignored while making her the captain. Which of the following biases is
illustrated in this instance?
Halo effect
10. Shaun is angry at the way a coworker has treated him. Shaun feels justified in his
anger because "surely, anybody would feel the same way if the same thing happened to
them." This example reveals Shaun's susceptibility to the:
assumed-similarity bias.
11. The tendency to attribute personal success to personal factors (skill, ability, or effort)
and to attribute failure to factors outside oneself is known as the:
self-serving bias

12. If you are exhibiting the self-serving bias, which would be your most likely
explanation for a poor grade on the test?
"The professor doesn't know how to teach."
13. Which of the following is true of the fundamental attribution error?
It is more common in Western than in Eastern cultures.
14. The fundamental attribution error is very common because:
of the nature of information available to the people making an attribution.
15. _____ is the process by which communal groups and individuals exert pressure on an
individual, either deliberately or unintentionally.
Social influence
16. Which of the following is true of a group?
A group consists of people who are interdependent.
17. Classic experimental studies of conformity were conducted in the 1950s by:
Solomon Asch.
18. The social rank held within a group is termed _____.
Status
19. Which of the following was a significant finding in studies conducted by Asch on
conformity?
Conformity is considerably higher when people must respond publicly.
20. Identify the correct statement regarding conformity.
People without a clear answer are more susceptible to conformity.
21. Which of the following is true of the findings made by Asch on conformity?
Groups that unanimously support a position show the most pronounced conformity
pressures.
22. According to Asch's pioneering work on conformity, which of the following
statements is true?
Having just one person present who shares the minority point of view is sufficient to
reduce conformity pressures.
23. Which of the following is true of groupthink?
Under groupthink, members lose the ability to critically evaluate alternative points of
view.
24. Which of the following is true of social roles and social norms?
Social roles are the behaviors that are associated with people in a given position.

25. The influential "prison" study of the power of social roles was conducted by:
Philip Zimbardo.
26. Which alternative below correctly defines a social influence concept?
Compliance - a change in behavior or attitudes in response to direct social pressure
27. In the _____ technique, one asks a person to agree to a small request whichbecause
it is smallthe likelihood that he or she will comply is fairly high.
Foot-in-the-door
28. The foot-in-the-door technique works because:
involvement with the small request leads to an interest in an issue.
29. In the _____ technique, someone makes a large request, expects it to be refused, and
follows it with a smaller one.
door-in-the-face
30. Which of the following compliance techniques is correctly matched with its
description?
That's-not-all techniqueWhen a salesperson offers you a deal at an inflated price,
immediately after the initial offer, the salesperson offers an incentive, discount, or bonus
to clinch the deal.
31. On late-night TV, you see an infomercial claiming that the price of the product has
been slashed for a special offer and now includes a bonus sample size of something that
is in adjunct to the product. This illustrates the _____ compliance technique.
that's-not-all
32. Which of the following sales techniques is based on the "norm of reciprocity"?
Not-so-free-sample technique
33. The classic "shock" study of obedience is associated with:
Stanley Milgram
34. Milgram's participants were told that the study concerned:
learning
35. Which alternative correctly names the psychologist often associated with a given
social influence concept?
Obedience Milgram
36. _____ refers to a negative (or positive) evaluation of a particular group and its
members.
Prejudice
37. Discrimination refers to:

behavior directed toward individuals on the basis of their membership in a particular


group.
38. A(n) _____ is an expectation about the occurrence of a future event or behavior that
acts to increase the likelihood the event or behavior will occur.
Self-fulfilling prophecy
39. In Juanita's community, girls are not expected to enjoy or excel at mathematics.
Juanita's algebra grades drop; by the time she is a high school junior, she is enrolled only
in consumer mathematics courses. Which concept does Juanita's example best illustrate?
Self-fulfilling prophecy
40. Psychologists have found that prejudice and discrimination may be reduced by:
educating people about other groups.
41. Which of the following potential explanations is correctly paired with the process it
reflects?
Awareness of a negative view of ones' group generates anxiety, which impairs
performance - stereotype threat
1. Which of the following is true of the factors that initially attract two people to each
other?
Proximity leads to liking.

2. The reciprocity-of-liking effect means that we like:


people who like us.

3. _____ involves a state of intense absorption in someone that includes intense


physiological arousal, psychological interest, and caring for the needs of another.
Passionate love

4. "But are you in love?" Lynette asks her friend. Lynette is trying to determine whether
her friend is experiencing _____ love.
Passionate

5. Ten year old Joanne expresses her love for her mother every morning before she
leaves to school. This is an example of _____ love.
Companionate

6. Consider the distinction many researchers make between passionate and


companionate love. How do the two types of love differ?
Companionate love does not involve physical intimacy; passionate love does.

7. Which of the following is suggested by Sternberg in his theory on love?


The different combinations of the three components vary over the course of
relationships.

8. According to instinct theories of aggression, which of the following is true?


Aggression is primarily the outcome of innateor inbornurges.

9. According to instinct theories of aggression, which of the following statements is most


likely to be true regarding aggression?
Certain stimuli act as aggressive cues, making aggressive acts much more likely when
the cues are present.

10. The likelihood that an individual will help someone in an emergency situation is
_____ correlated with the number of other people present.

negatively

11. Roger was screaming for help as he was being beaten up by a group of muggers on
a street. There were about 15 people standing nearby. However, none of the bystanders
come forward to help Roger. This scenario representing lack of help illustrates:
diffusion of responsibility.

12. The notion of a diffusion of responsibility is most usually applied to the study of:
prosocial behavior.

13. Behavior that helps others but that involves some self-sacrifice is termed:
altruism.

14. Which of the following strategies did your text offer as effective means of dealing
with anger?
Minimize the importance of the situation.

15. Which of the following faces would be rated as most attractive?


A composite of multiple faces that have been digitally blended to produce an "average"
face

16. The fifth-grade teacher was surprised when her Japanese-American student Hiroko
performed poorly in math. The teacher's reaction was due to

stereotyping.

17. Mr. and Mrs. Lee warn their new babysitter, Alison, that their son, Dennis, is very
aggressive and mischievous. As a result, Alison starts calling the child "Dennis the
Menace," and she behaves in ways that elicit aggressive and mischievous behaviors
from Dennis. This example best demonstrates the phenomenon called
The self-fulfilling prophecy.

18. It appears that many attractive people possess a number of positive characteristics.
This is possibly due to
the self-fulfilling prophecy.

19. A study by Rosenthal and Jacobson found that children who were labeled as "late
bloomers" at the start of the school year showed larger IQ gains than other, non-labeled
students, even though these particular children were chosen randomly. The children's
teachers were informed about these labels, but the students themselves were not. The
results from this study are most relevant to which of the following?
Self-fulfilling prophecy

20. Tommy just hit the game winning home run for his team. He is most likely to attribute
his success to
himself.

21. The light turns green, and Kaylee is about to go. A man driving a red truck goes
speeding through the red light. Mentally, Kaylee calls him a jerk and thinks to herself
that his license should be revoked. Kaylee may be committing the ________ error.
fundamental attribution

22. When you do poorly on a test, you remind yourself of all the distractions you had at
school that week. You are displaying
self-serving bias.

23. In a recent softball game, Cindy misplayed a ground ball for an error. Later in the
same game, she made a great catch on a very difficult play. According to the selfserving bias, she would attribute her error to ________ and her good catch to _______.
a bad bounce; good fielding skills

24. According to research on stereotype threat, we should be especially concerned


about standardized tests if they
ask for race/ethnic information before the test starts.

25. Cognitive dissonance theory states that individuals


try to make attitudes conform to behavior.

26. "Drinking may be harmful to my health, but I'll die having a good time." This
statement illustrates an attempt to reduce

cognitive dissonance.

27. The advertising committee for a politician is going door to door and asking people to
put a big ugly election sign on their lawn. If people refuse, they ask them if they would
consider putting a smaller sign on the lawn. The committee is using
the door-in-the-face strategy.

28. If you were to donate one of your kidneys to whoever might need it, you would be
demonstrating a(n) ________ view of human nature.
Altruistic

29. The idea of "do onto others as you would have them do onto you" best describes
reciprocity.

30. Caroline has volunteered to work with the underprivileged children who are
participants in her professor's literacy project. She is hoping that her professor will take
this into consideration when calculating her grade. Caroline is expecting
reciprocity.

31. ________ is an important element of altruism.


Empathy

32. The bystander effect occurs because

All of these

33. Research findings indicate that frustration


can lead to aggression or passivity.

34. While they are sitting eating their lunch, several of Sheldon's friends suggest that
the new girl in class is very pretty. Sheldon does not think that she is pretty. He will
probably
agree with his friends and say she is very attractive.

35. Conformity is to obedience as


Asch is to Milgram.

36. June is usually a very quiet individual, but she recently discovered a different side of
herself. She was at the Mardi Gras and found herself swept up in the festivities, doing
the things that the other party revelers were doing. These were not behaviors that she
would have ever considered doing on her own. Social psychologists would most likely
attribute June's behavior to
deindividuation.

37. Michael is the new department head. He expects everyone to "get on board" with
his restructuring of the department, and he publicly reprimands anyone who disagrees
with his new policies. On the other hand, Michael praises department members for

unanimity, cohesiveness, and harmony. Michael is creating an atmosphere most


conducive to
groupthink.

38. Which of the following theories explains why we like to think of our group as the ingroup?
Social identity theory

39. Rod and Deandra are intense supporters of their favorite football team, the Dallas
Cowboys. Their self-esteem is strongly affected by the performance of the Cowboys.
Which theory would best explain this effect?
Social identity theory

40. In a study based on Tajfel's theory of social identity, Cathy is randomly assigned as
a member of Group A and Sara is randomly assigned as a member of Group B. When
asked to award money to other study participants, both Cathy and Sara awarded money
only to members of their own respective group. This behavior is predicted by Tajfel's
theory and is an example of
in-group favoritism.

41. Susan drives by a particularly unusual apartment building each day on her way to
and from work. Initially, she does not think much of the structure and actually has a mild
dislike for it. However, after several months of commuting, she starts to like the

apartment building and is even considering trying to rent an apartment there. This
change in Susan's feelings about the building best demonstrates
The mere exposure effect.

42. Affectionate love is also called ________ love.


Companionate

9. in what way are the diverse subfields of psychology related?


They ultimately share a common goal
1.Wilhelm Wundt is to_, William james is to_.
Structuralism;functionalism
8.Dr. Ebrahim examines how children's friendships change through elementary and middleschool years. Dr. Ebrahim is a(n) _____ psychologist.
Development
1. cognitive psychology can best be described as the
study of higher mental processes
0.according to a humanistic psychologist, henry punched his little brother because he
wanted to
4.which best depicts B.F skinners belief about studying human behavior?
What we do is most important
2.Early researchers
Structuralism
2. Akira has declared psychology as his major. He will be studying:
behavior and mental processes
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the goals of psychology?
Obfuscation
4. Which of the following statements concerning the representation of racial and ethnic
minorities among American psychologists is TRUE?

The number of minority members entering the fields is higher than it was 10 years ago
5. Recall watsons quote
9 or 10
6. Race is to ethnicity what_is to_.
Biology;culture
7. Which of the following subfields of psychology is INCORRECTLY matched with its
description?
Cognitive: examines how people grow and change from conception through death
8. _____ psychology focuses on higher mental processes, including thinking, memory, reasoning,
problem solving, judging, decision making, and language.
cognitive
9. Jason is struggling
psychodynamic
10. Dr. Chen studies how people grow and change during late adolescence and young adulthood;
Dr. Doherty focuses on several traits that distinguish one person from another. Dr. Chen is a(n)
_____ psychologist; Dr. Doherty is a _____.
developmental psychologist; personality psychologist
11. which of the following would be most interesting to a behavioral psychologist?
The reasons why some peopke fail to stop at a red light
12. the specialist most likely to have a medican degree is a(n)
psychiatrist
13. Fiona helps students with ADHD develop effective study regimens and strategies. Fiona is
most likely a(n) _____ psychologist.
Counseling
15. Dr. Growe is reading about a research in which psychologists investigated the effect of group
size on the conformity of group members. Dr. Growe is most likely reading the Journal of _____
Psychology.
social
16. psychologists concentrate on diverse topics such as human aggression, liking and loving,
persuasion, and conformity
Social
18. In what way, if any, do evolutionary psychologists go beyond Darwin's arguments?
They argue that our genetic heritage determines aspects of our personality and social behavior.

21. Beatriz has just received her doctoral degree in psychology. All else being equal, in which of
the following settings is she most likely to find employment?
A college/university
22. Currently, women earn _____ of new psychology doctorate degrees in the United States.
Three-fourth
28. The field of phrenology is associated with
Gall
30. The formal beginning of psychology is associated with:
Wundt
32. is a procedure used to study the structure of the mind in which subjects are asked to describe
in detail what they are experiencing when they are exposed to a stimulus.
Intropection
33. Lassandra takes a sip of cola. "Sweet...cold, wet, tingly...slightly bitter," she reports.
Lassandra is:
introspecting
34. Which of the following was a disadvantage of introspection?
Introspection was not truly scientific.
35. _____ is an early approach to psychology that concentrated on what the mind does and the
role of behavior in allowing people to adapt to their environments.
Functionalism
36. Which of the following psychologists is associated with functionalism?
William james
37. The Gestalt psychologists made substantial contribution to our understanding of:
Perception
38. The approach that views behavior from the perspective of the brain, the nervous system, and
other biological functions is known as the _____ perspective
Neuroscience
40. Penny is a recovering drug addict. Her treatment program emphasizes the influence of her
environment"people, places, and things"on her use of her drug of choice. Her program
reflects the _____ perspective in psychology.
Behavorial
42. The emphasis of the humanistic perspective is on
Free will

43. Free will stands in contrast to _____.


Determinism
44. Which contemporary perspective is CORRECTLY matched with its description?
Behavioral perspective; emphasizes observable behavior and objectivity
47. _____ is the idea that people's behavior is produced primarily by factors outside of their
willful control.
determinism
49. Strategies aimed at encouraging one to examine assumptions, evaluate assertions, and think
more carefully are specifically called _____ techniques
critical thinkin
50. Dr. Quinones studies the achievement motivation of junior high school students. He asserts
that such motivation mainly reflects the parenting and educational practices the students have
experienced. This statement is most directly related to the _____ issue; Dr. Quinones' position is
toward the _____ end of the continuum.
nature vs. nurture; nurture
51. Many colleges use students' SAT scores to determine whom they will accept into their
programs. Which goal of psychological science are they utilizing?
Predict
52. Behavior is ___________, while mental processes are ___________.
Observable; private
54. Who is demonstrating psychological skepticism?
Lindsey is wondering if you can really improve your memory over night by taking a pill.
55. Who conducted the first psychological experiment in 1879?
Wiliam wundt
56. If you were a psychologist who was labeled a structuralist, you would be interested in the
___________ of the mind, and you would use ___________ as your primary research method.
structures; introspection
60. In psychology, William James was highly influential in developing the school of thought
known as
Functionalism
63. Darwin, when describing the process of natural selection, claimed that
characteristics favored by the environment are more likely to continue.
64. Psychologists who study the role of the brain in psychological processes have adopted the
___________ perspective

Neuroscience
67. Dr. Burrhus's treatment plan for Annette focuses on consistently providing rewards for doing
things she wants to do more often and removing rewards for doing things she wants to do less
often. Dr. Burrhus adheres most closely to the ___________ perspective.
Behavorial
69. Which perspective of psychology most clearly focuses on how we learn observable
responses?
Behavorial
73. Humanism denies the role of determinism but elevates the role of
Free will
77. Evolutionary psychology maintains that
All of these
80. Kara was surprised to learn that certain hand signals which indicate a "job well done" in the
United States are socially unacceptable in other countries. This finding comes from research
completed by a ________ psychologist.
cross-cultural
81. Jean is a psychologist who studies the changes that take place in people over the course of
their life spans. Jean most likely specializes in ________ psychology.
Developmental
85. Which of the following best describes the impact that nature and nurture have on a person's
psychological characteristics?
Genetics has a significant impact
Personality psychology
focuses on the consistency in people's behavior over time and the traits that differentiate one
person from another
According to the ___________ perspective, we are in control of our lives and have the capacity
for positive growth
Humanistic
A pharmaceutical company is conducting an experiment to test the effectiveness of a tricyclic
antidepressant. Which of the following, if true, would indicate that the experimenters used a
placebo?
The participants in both groups did not know if they were getting a real or a false treatment.
Evolutionary psychologists are especially interested in:
how behavior is influenced by our genetic inheritance from our ancestors.

William James, a prominent American psychologist and philosopher, focused on human


interaction and the purpose of thoughts. His view was eventually named
Functionalism
Research has shown human beings to be notoriously bad decision makers in general. Which type
of psychologist was most likely to have carried out this type of research?
Cognitive

-The most common employment sector for students graduating


with a bachelor's degree in psychology is _____.
Social services
45. Psychologists adhering to the _____ perspective are probably the LEAST likely to take a
"nature" stance on the nature vs. nurture issue.
behaviorist

Psychologists rely on ___________ which is the process of thinking


reflectively and actively, and evaluating evidence.
Criticalthinking
"I am not as concerned about what is going on in your life today
as I am with the upbringing you received." Which type of
psychologist is most likely to have uttered these words?
psychodynamic
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the
difference between the PhD and the PsyD degrees?
The PhD requires a dissertation based on an original investigation
If an NFL player wanted to see a psychologist to improve his
game, what type of psychologist is he most likely to consult?
sport
Dr. Ames studies the way groups influence the decisions that
people make. She is a ________ psychologist.
social
in order to study mind and behavior, psychologists
rely on the scientific method
what was innovative about wundts early work?
Mental processes

1. The basic elements of the nervous system are called:


neurons
2. As many as _____ neurons throughout the body are involved in the control of behaviour.
1 trillion
4. A cluster of fibers at one end of a neuron that receives messages from other neurons is called:
Dendrite
5. An axon is a(n):
long, slim, tubelike structure extending from a neuron.
6. Terminal buttons are found at the end of:
Axons
7. Dendrite is to axon what _____ is to _____.
receiving; sending
8. Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the route followed by nerve impulses
when one neuron communicates with another?
Dendrite cell body axon
9. Electrical wires are generally protected by a tube of plastic. A similar insulating function is
performed in the nervous system by the:
myelin sheath.
12. Regarding action potentials, which of the following statements is TRUE?
The action potential moves from one end of the axon to the other like a flame moving along a
fuse.
13. Regarding mirror neurons, which of the following statements is ACCURATE?
Mirror neurons are involved in empathy and language acquisition, but not in face recognition.
14. A synapse is a(n):
Gap
15. Which of the following statements regarding inhibitory messages is TRUE?
Inhibitory messages decrease the likelihood that a receiving neuron will fire.
16. The reabsorption of neurotransmitters by a terminal button is termed as:
reuptake
17. Which neurotransmitter is described INCORRECTLY?
GABAan excitatory neurotransmitter inhibited by alcohol or tranquilizers

18. The neurotransmitter dopamine is involved in:


movement, attention, and learning.
19. The brain's special physical capacity for change is referred to as its
plasticity.
21. Which of the following is a role of the autonomic nervous system?
Monitors essential processes
22. Your brain has instructed your muscles to move so that you avoid an oncoming bicyclist.
Which division of the nervous system carried this information to your muscles?
Somatic Nervous System
24. Which of the following are the two integrated parts of the autonomic nervous system?
Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
27. Which division of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for physiological symptoms
such as increased heart rate and butterflies in the stomach?
Sympathetic
28. Who is relying most heavily on their mirror neurons?
Chie is taking a golf lesson from the local pro.
29. If a doctor told you that insufficient nutrients were being transported from your blood vessels
to your neurons, you might suspect from that the problem was in your ___________ cells.
glial
30. The nucleus of a neuron is located in the
Cell body
31. Which of the following best describes how information is transmitted within a neuron?
dendrite cell body axon
37. The physical space between two neurons is called the
synapse.
38. The neural message being delivered in a synaptic transmission is carried across the synaptic
gap by ___________ substances.
Chemical
40. ___________ is a neurotransmitter that is produced in insufficient amounts in many
Alzheimer's patients.
Acetylcholine

41. A neurotransmitter that plays a role Parkinson's disease is


Dopamine
42. Kenny is taking medication to help control some of the symptoms that he experiences from
Parkinson disease. If he is given too much of the medication, Kenny might start to exhibit
symptoms associated with
schizophrenia.
44. "Running has become an important part of my life. After a good three miles, I begin to feel
euphoric. This positive feeling stays with me most of the day." This runner is describing the
production of endorphins.
45. Which of the following neurotransmitter plays an important role in human bonding?
Oxytocin
46. Based on the research on oxytocin, if Julia finds herself in a stressful situation she is most
likely to
Call a friend
47. The practice of women bringing food to other women during times of crisis may have been
triggered by which neurotransmitter?
Oxytocin
Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of glial cells?
They communicate messages within the nervous system.
You cannot fire a gun softly, or flush a toilet halfway. Like an action potential, gun fire and a
toilet's flush follow the _____ law.
All-or-none
The state in which there is a negative electrical charge of about -70 millivolts within a neuron is
known as the _____ state.
Resting
Walter has a degenerative condition that eats away at his myelin sheath. We can expect that his
cognitive abilities will
decrease in proficiency.
The all-or-nothing principle refers to
Action Potentials
Neurotransmitters are stored in
Terminal Buttons
A neurotransmitter that plays a role Parkinson's disease is
dopamine.

Depression is associated with low levels of what neurotransmitter?


Serotonin

Which division of the nervous system is composed of all the


sensory and motor nerves?
Peripheral nervous system
After finishing a psychology test, you try to relax by engaging in
some meditation techniques. Doing these exercises should
increase the response of the ___________ nervous system and
result in slower heart and respiration rates and less muscular
tension.
Parasympathetic
At a job interview, you broke out into a cold sweat and felt your
heart pounding. These symptoms were most likely produced by
your ___________ nervous system.
sympathetic
_____ is an automatic, involuntary response to an incoming stimulus.
Reflex

_____ are neurons that connect sensory and motor neurons, carrying messages
between the two.
Interneurons

The branch of psychology that seeks to identify behavior patterns that are a result of our
genetic inheritance from our ancestors is known as
Evolutionary Psychology

Evolutionary psychologists have spawned a new and increasingly influential field


Behaviorial Genetics

A key component of the endocrine system is the tiny _____ gland, which is found near
and regulated bythe _____ in the brain.
pituitary; hypothalamus

The hormone oxytocin has been implicated in each of the following behaviors EXCEPT
the
tendency to produce violent, dangerous behavior.

Which brain imaging technique below is CORRECTLY matched with its description?
EEGrecords the brain's electrical activity with electrodes

The hindbrain includes each of the following structures EXCEPT the:


thalamus.

The part of the brain closest to the spinal cord is the _____; it is important for such
functions as _____.
medulla; heart rate and respiration

The part of the brain that controls bodily balance is the _____
cerebellum
The _____ is a tiny part of the brain that maintains homeostasis and produces and
regulates vital behavior, such as eating, drinking, and sexual behavior.

Hypothalamus

Violet's speech is slow and labored; however, she can understand others' speech. Violet
has:
Broca's aphasia.

Trevor is scratching his head, trying desperately to solve a verbal analogy as part of a
standardized entrance examination; Sienna, meanwhile, is giving an oral presentation in
a political science class. Of the brain's hemispheres, Trevor's _____ hemisphere is most
active; Sienna's _____ hemisphere is most active.
left; left

Magnetic resonance imaging is a technique that works by


detecting and interpreting magnetic activity from hydrogen levels in the blood.

Which brain imaging technique allows scientists to actually see what is happening in the
brain while it is working?
fMRI

The iron rod which damaged Phineas Gage's frontal lobe resulted in
changes in personality.

The area of the cerebral cortex that controls voluntary muscle movement is the

motor cortex.

The area of the brain that controls the production of speech is


Broca's area.

The set of glands that regulates the activities of certain organs is called the
___________ system.
Endocrine

The ___________ gland regulates all the other glands.


Pituitary

Which expression below most closely approximates the number of neural connections
in the brain?
10 quadrillion

Which of the following is TRUE of the spinal cord's control of behavior?


The spinal cord can control some simple reflexes without the brain's help.

Somatic is to autonomic what _____ is to _____.


voluntary; involuntary

Darnell underwent surgery to control his severe epilepsy. Now, however, Darnell cannot
form new memories of his experiences, although he does remember events in the past.
Most likely, the surgery destroyed a portion of the _____ in Darnell's brain.
Hippocampus

The visual area in the cortex is located in the _____.


occipital lobe

The _____ areas are considered to be the site of higher mental processes such as
thinking, language, memory, and speech.
Association

Which structure of the brain would be most beneficial to a professional golfer who is
trying to create a repetitive golf swing?
Basal ganglia

Theus is about to take the bar exam. Which lobe of the brain will he be relying on most
to do well?
Frontal

Broca's area is located in the ___________ hemisphere.


Left

The corpus callosum is


a band of nerve fiber connecting the right and left hemispheres.

With respect to its potential basis in nervous system activity, "voodoo death" has been
attributed to:
an overactive sympathetic nervous system.

The thalamus may be likened to a(n):


relay station.

The _____ is referred to as the "new brain."


cerebral cortex

The brain injury suffered by 19th-century railroad worker Phineas Gage allowed
psychologists to learn about the functions of the brain's:
association areas.

The hemispheres of the brain are connected by a bundle of fibers called the:
corpus callosum.

Which of the following generalizations is probably most accurate regarding potential


gender differences in the lateralization of language?
Language is more strongly left-lateralized among males than among females.

Body temperature, emotional states, and coping with stress are functions controlled by
the
hypothalamus.

What is unique about stem cells?


They can develop into most types of human cells.

Sensory is to motor what _____ is to _____.


afferent; efferent

The limbic system contains which of the following structures?


Amygdala

The brain and the spinal cord constitute the _____ nervous system.
Central

The part of the autonomic division of the nervous system that acts to prepare the body
for action in stressful situations, engaging all the organism's resources to respond to a
threat is known as the _____.
sympathetic division

The "fight-or-flight" response is associated with the _____ division.


Sympathetic

The _____ maintains a steady internal environment for the body.


Hypothalamus

In a neurophysiological investigation, a monkey makes an involuntary gesture when a


portion of its brain is electrically stimulated. The area of the brain that was most likely
stimulated is the:
Frontal lobe

Warren suffers from Wernicke's aphasia. Which of the following will he experience in
thought or behavior?
Warren will experience difficulty understanding language.

_____ is the creation of new neurons.


Neurogenesis

The reticular formation is primarily involved in


stereotyped patterns such as walking, sleeping, or turning to attend to a sudden
noise.

If you had damage to your hippocampus, it would most likely impair

Memory formation

Theus is about to take the bar exam. Which lobe of the brain will he be relying on most
to do well?
Frontal

Neurosurgeons can reduce the unbearable seizures some epileptics experience by


severing the
Corpus callosum

What is unique about stem cells?


They can develop into most types of human cells.

The two major divisions of the peripheral nervous system are the _____ and _____
divisions.
somatic; autonomic

The _____ gland is a major component of the endocrine system which secretes
hormones that control growth and other parts of the endocrine system.
Pituitary

Which of the following sequences correctly identifies the orders of the lobes of the cortex, from
anterior to posterior?
Frontal temporal and parietal occipital

The brain injury suffered by 19th-century railroad worker Phineas Gage allowed psychologists to
learn about the functions of the brain's:
association areas.

The process by which the brain reorganizes itself throughout development is termed:
neuroplasticity.

Which of the following generalizations is probably most accurate regarding potential gender
differences in the lateralization of language?
Language is more strongly left-lateralized among males than among females.

If a person's cerebellum were damaged in an accident, you would expect the person to have a
problem with
Balance and muscle coordination

If you had damage to your hippocampus, it would most likely impair


Memory formation

Body temperature, emotional states, and coping with stress are functions controlled by the

Hypothalamus

The area of the cerebral cortex that controls voluntary muscle movement is the
Motor cortex

A split brain occurs due to


a severing of the corpus callosum.

The _____ is the main means for transmitting messages between the brain and the body.
spinal cord

The hormone oxytocin has been implicated in each of the following behaviors EXCEPT the:
tendency to produce violent, dangerous behavior.

The iron rod which damaged Phineas Gage's frontal lobe resulted in
changes in personality.

The part of the brain closest to the spinal cord is the _____; it is important for such functions as
_____.
medulla; heart rate and respiration

After finishing a psychology test, you try to relax by engaging in some meditation techniques.
Doing these exercises should increase the response of the ___________ nervous system and
result in slower heart and respiration rates and less muscular tension.
Parasympathetic

At a job interview, you broke out into a cold sweat and felt your heart pounding. These
symptoms were most likely produced by your ___________ nervous system.
Sympathetic

An fMRI can detect brain activity because


oxygenated blood is more prominent in areas that are active.

The _____ division also directs the body to store energy for use in emergencies.
Parasympathetic

Which division of the nervous system is composed of all the sensory and motor nerves?
Peripheral nervous system

Depolarizing the membrane during an action potential first involves the flow of ___________
ions into the membrane.
Sodium

When you walk to class, you do not have to think consciously about how to walk. When you get
there, you pay attention to the lecture even though it is boring and you are tired. The structure
that plays an important role in these activities by manipulation of various neurotransmitters is the
reticular formation.

With respect to its potential basis in nervous system activity, "voodoo death" has been attributed
to:
an overactive sympathetic nervous system.

The _____ area is the site in the brain of the tissue that corresponds to each of the senses, with
the degree of sensitivity related to the amount of tissue.
Sensory

Which of the following best represents the function of myelin sheath in the brain?
Amber is putting wax on her surfboard so that it will move easily through the water.

Who would benefit the most from a highly efficient cerebellum?


Baseball Payer

The cochlea is a:
coiled tube in the inner ear filled with fluid that vibrates in response to sound.

The _____ suggests that the entire basilar membrane acts as a microphone, vibrating
as a whole in response to a sound.
frequency theory of hearing

Which of the following statements is true?


Place theory accounts for the perception of high-frequency sounds; frequency
theory explains our perception of low-frequency sounds.

Which of the following statements regarding smell is FALSE?


Men generally have a better sense of smell than women.

How many basic types of taste are there?


4-5

Which of the following is true of "supertasters"?


They find sweets sweeter, cream creamier, and spicy dishes spicier.

How does light therapy work?


It stimulates the production of healing enzymes

The difference in the images seen by the left eye and the right eye is known as _____.
binocular disparity

Which of the following is a monocular cue?


Motion parallax

From the window of an office on a skyscraper's 90 th floor, taxis on the street look tiny. Of
course, you know they are not toy cars; you are just really far up. This example
illustrates the _____ cue of _____.
monocular; relative size

At night, the moon appears smaller when it is overhead than when it is on the horizon.
This is an example of:
perceptual constancy.

Approximately what proportion of the American population believes that extrasensory


perception, or ESP, exists?
50 percent

Why might contemporary, mainstream psychologists reconsider the possibility that ESP
exists?
The topic has been addressed by a credible and prestigious psychological
journal.

________ psychology is the school of thought interested in how people naturally


organize their perceptions into patterns.
Gestalt

At a school social gathering, you hear a professor talking about proximity, continuity,
similarity, and closure. You deduce that he is knowledgeable about
gestalt principles of perception.

The unit of measure for the amplitude of sound is


decibel.

Your mother's and sister's voices have the same pitch and loudness, but you can tell
them apart on the telephone. This is due to the perceptual quality or ___________ of
their voices.
Timbre

When sound waves enter the ear canal, they first


vibrate the eardrum.

According to your text, the main criticism voiced by the deaf community in regards to
cochlear implantation is that it
suggests that being deaf is a problem.

Abel knows that his legs are crossed and that his hands are on top of his head. This is a
demonstration of
proprioceptive feedback

The basilar membrane is a:


vibrating structure that runs through the center of the cochlea, dividing it into an
upper chamber and a lower chamber and containing sense receptors for sound.

Gustation is to olfaction what _____ is to _____.


taste; smell

_____ are chemicals nonhumans secrete into the environment that produce a reaction
in other members of the same species, permitting the transmission of messages such
as sexual availability.
Pheromones

Which of the following treatments for pain is most effective for people who continually
say to themselves, "This pain will never stop," "The pain is ruining my life"?
Cognitive restructuring

Whenever Mr. Redding catches himself saying, "This pain is ruining my life," he is
supposed to immediately tell himself, "STOP! I am in control of my pain." This pain
management technique is known as _____ restructuring.

Cognitive

Perception that consists of the progression of recognizing and processing information


from individual components of a stimuli and moving to the perception of the whole is
known as _____.
bottom-up processing

Mark and a Jacob are driving home on a college break. Mark is in the passenger seat.
Bored, Mark gazes into the middle of an empty field. He notices that distant hilltops
seem to move slowly in the same direction in which their car is moving; by contrast, mile
markers on the side of the highway seem to whiz past them in the opposite direction.
The difference in the apparent speed and direction of objects' motion serves as a depth
cue termed motion:
Parallax

You are sitting in a stationary train at a busy station. Suddenly, you feel like you are
slowly sliding backward as the train next to you begins to pull out. This illusion reflects
the operation of the _____ cue of _____.
monocular; motion parallax

The tendency for perceptions of objects to remain relatively unchanged in spite of


changes in raw sensations is called
perceptual constancy.

Looking at a quarter in your hand casts a different image on your retina compared to
looking at a quarter across the room, yet we know that the quarter is the same and
retains the same dimensions. This phenomenon is known as
size constancy.

Smell can elicit more vivid memories than the other senses. What is the reason for this?
The sense of smell takes a different neural pathway than the other senses.

The eardrum is a:
part of the outer ear that vibrates when sound waves hit it.

Which of the following sequences correctly arranges the structures of the inner ear from
the largest and most inclusive to the smallest and most specific?
Cochlea basilar membrane hair cells

Hair cells for hearing are located in the:


cochlea.

Nerve receptor cells for the skin senses are:


unevenly distributed throughout the skin.

To manage Mrs. Sampson's excruciating pain, a low-voltage electric current is


occasionally passed through her lower back, the affected body part. Which of the
following pain management techniques in Mrs. Sampson using?
Nerve stimulation

Consider the figure within parentheses: (XX XX XX). That we perceive three pairs of Xs
reflects the Gestalt principle(s) of:
proximity.

In a general sense, the overriding Gestalt principle of perceptual organization is:


simplicity.

Perception that is guided by higher-level knowledge, experience, expectations, and


motivations is known as _____.
Top-down processing

Although several bulbs are burned out on the movie theater's sign out front, Caleb can
still read the announcement for the upcoming movie. Which gestalt principle accounts
for this phenomena?
Closure

Shape constancy is our ability to

see an object as being the same shape even though we move closer to it or
farther from it.

The different pitches of the beeps you hear on a touch-tone telephone are due to
differences in the ___________ of the beeps.
Frequency

_____ is the number of wave cycles that occur in a second.


Frequency

The _____ consists of three tubes containing fluid that sloshes through them when the
head moves, signaling rotational or angular movement to the brain.
semicircular canal

_____ are physical stimuli that consistently produce errors in perception.


Visual illusions

Gestalt psychologists emphasize that


the whole is more than the sum of its parts.

The different pitches of the beeps you hear on a touch-tone telephone are due to
differences in the ___________ of the beeps.
Frequency

The human sense of smell permits us to detect _____ separate smells


more than 10,000

You are standing on the beach; the sea is choppy. You observe that the crests of distant
waves appear less distinct than the crests of waves nearer the beach. This example
illustrates a monocular cue known as:
texture gradient.
In depth perception, familiar size, height in field of view, and shading are examples of
monocular cues.

You are standing outside with a friend as an airplane flies over your head. You watch as
the plane appears to get smaller and smaller and is eventually gone from your visual
field. Which aspect of perceptual constancy allows you to understand that the airplane
is not shrinking?
Size constancy

We are able to taste due to approximately ________ taste buds on our tongue.
10,000

Which of the following statements is most accurate with respect to the role of gestalt psychology
in contemporary psychology?

Gestalt psychology no longer plays a prominent role, but the Gestaltists' focus on the
organization of perceptual elements remains influential.

Which of the following statements most accurately expresses the relationship between top-down
and bottom-up processing?
Top-down and bottom-up processes occur simultaneously in the perception of the world
around us.

If we see a German shepherd standing 30 feet from us, we still recognize its size even though the
image on our retina is much smaller than if the dog was directly in front of us. This is primarily
due to
size constancy.

Perceiving three dimensions is called


Depth perception
Which depth cue accounts for why parallel lines appear to grow closer together the farther away
they are?
Linear perspective

The tendency for perceptions of objects to remain relatively unchanged in spite of changes in
raw sensations is called
perceptual constancy.
3. During _____ images sometimes appear, as if we were viewing still photos.
stage 1 sleep

4. _____ is the deepest stage of sleep, during which we are least responsive to outside
stimulation.
Stage 4 sleep
5. In general terms, how do brain waves change as a sleeper progresses from stage 1 sleep to
stage 4 sleep?
The brain waves become slower.
6. Which of the following statements is true of REM sleep and dreaming?
The major muscles of the body appear to be paralyzed during REM sleep.
7. Which of the following statements is true of dreams occurring in REM sleep and NREM
sleep?
Dreams occur in NREM sleep, but less frequently than in REM sleep; NREM dreams are
also less vivid than are dreams in REM sleep.
8. REM sleep is paradoxical because:
the brain is active, but the major skeletal muscles appear to be paralyzed.
9. Anya pulled all-nighters both last night and the night before. Tonight, finally, she anticipates
going to bed at her usual time. Which of the following alternatives MOST accurately describes
and identifies what Anya is likely to experience?
Anya will spend a greater proportion of her sleep time than usual in the REM stage. This
phenomenon is called rebound.
10. Most people today sleep between _____ hours each night.
7-8
11. _____ are unusually frightening dreams, that occur fairly often.
Nightmares
12. Sigmund Freud's theory that dreams represent unconscious desires that dreamers want to see
fulfilled is known as _____.
unconscious wish fulfillment theory
13. According to Freud, the _____ content of dreams is the "disguised" meanings of dreams,
hidden by more obvious subjects.
Latent
14. Which of the following psychologists is correctly matched with a theory of the function of
dreams?
Freud unconscious wish-fulfillment theory
15. According to the _____ dreams permit us to reconsider and reprocess during sleep
information that is critical for our daily survival.

dreams-for-survival theory
17. The _____ focuses on the random electrical energy that the brain produces during REM
sleep, possibly as a result of changes in the production of particular neurotransmitters.
activation-synthesis theory
18. Which figure best approximates the proportion of people afflicted by insomnia?
1/3
19. Which sleep disturbance is correctly matched with its description?
Sleep apnea difficulty breathing during sleep
20. _____ is/are sudden awakenings from non-REM sleep that is accompanied by extreme fear,
panic, and strong physiological arousal.
Night terrors
21. Four-year old DeMarcus falls asleep shortly after his 8:30 p.m. bedtime. At about 9:45, he
suddenly sits up in bed, breathing rapidly and appearing to be in a state of sheer panic. DeMarcus
is experiencing:
Night terrors
23. Which of the following is true of daydreams?
They are under one's control to a greater extent than dreams that occur during sleep.
24. Which of the following solutions will help overcome insomnia?
Exercising during the day
25. Irv can't sleep, so he makes himself a cup of warm milk. Will this work?
Yes. Milk contains tryptophan, which promotes sleep.
26. William James described the human mind as a
stream of consciousness.
27. An individual's awareness of external events and internal sensations under a condition of
arousal is called
Consciousness
28. Thomas seems unaware that his mom has been calling him for the last five minutes. He is
playing his video game and about to move to the last level. What is Thomas demonstrating?
Selective attention
29. The teacher has called on Sarah four times, yet she has not responded or acknowledged the
teacher in anyway. She has a slight smile on her face. What is Sarah demonstrating?
Daydreaming

30. Kathy says that when she meditates, she feels like she becomes one with the universe. Kathy
experiences ________ during her meditative sessions.
an altered state of consciousness
31. What do drugs, trauma, fatigue, hypnosis, and sensory deprivation have in common?
They produce altered states of consciousness.
32. According to Freud, ________ mental processes occur without a person being aware of them.
Unconscious
33. The 24-hour biological cycle that regulates our pattern of sleep is referred to as
circadian rhythm.
34. A class project required a student nurse to make hourly records of her own blood pressure
and body temperature over a 30-day period. When the data were graphed, it became clear that
these readings changed in a predictable way on a daily basis. The reason for this regularity is that
many physiological processes are
governed by circadian rhythms.
35. Your friend Helen works the night shift at the local grocery store every other day. She has
trouble sleeping, which is most likely due to
the fact that her circadian rhythms do not follow a 24-hour cycle.
37. Psychological research on sleep and memory has found that staying up all night to study for
an exam is likely to
decrease memory performance.
38. Which of the following best characterizes a night of sleep?
Our depth of sleep alternates up and down many times.
39. Dreams occurring during ________ sleep are briefer, less vivid, and less emotionally charged
compared to those that occur during ________ sleep.
non-REM; REM
40. Sleepwalking occurs during ________ of the sleep cycle.
stages 3 and 4
41. Night terrors typically occur
during non-REM sleep.
42. Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by
irresistible urges to fall asleep.
43. Narcolepsy is a disorder involving
periodic attacks of uncontrollable sleep attacks.

44. During a heated argument with his teenage daughter, Mr. Reed suddenly lapsed into a stage
of REM sleep. Mr. Reed apparently suffers from
narcolepsy.
45. Grandpa is napping in his recliner and snoring loudly. When he suddenly stops snoring, you
look to see if he is OK. He appears to not be breathing. For a moment you wonder if he's dead,
but suddenly he snorts and resumes snoring. Grandpa appears to suffer from
sleep apnea.
47. Kevin suffers from sleep apnea. With this condition, he reawakens as often as 500 times
during the night due to
a lack of oxygen.
48. According to Sigmund Freud, dreams are
our unconscious desires that we wish to fulfill.
49. Gary turned to his wife when he woke up and said, "You won't believe this dream I had. I
was being chased by men in suits who were riding horses. They had long narrow briefcases and
they were trying to run me down!" If Gary related his dream to a psychodynamic therapist, they
would tell him that what he was really dreaming about not being able to pay his bills. Which
element in this scenario represents the manifest content of the dream?
Gary running for his life
50. According to activation-synthesis theory, dreams
reflect the brain's efforts to make sense out of neural activity that occurs during sleep.
How long is a typical sleep cycle, in which a sleeper progresses through some or all of the sleep
stages?
90 minutes
Mr. Owens always sleeps restlessly, snoring and gasping during the night. It is most likely that
Mr. Owens suffers from
sleep apnea.
Depressants are drugs that:
Slow down nervous system
Which of the following is the first step in the hypnosis process?
A person is made comfortable in a quiet environment.

To which of the following traits does an individual's susceptibility to hypnosis seem


related?

The tendency to become absorbed in one's activities

According to famed hypnosis researcher _____


Hilgard, hypnosis causes a division of consciousness.

Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding potential cross-cultural


variation in the attempt to alter consciousness?
The attempt to alter consciousness appears to be universal, but the particular means to
do so vary from culture to culture.

____ drugs are drugs that influence a person's emotions, perceptions, and behavior.
Psychoactive

Which of the following is not a psychoactive drug?


Antibiotics

According to the text, the DARE program is used in approximately _____ of the school
districts in the U. S.
80%

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the effect of caffeine and
the other stimulants on the nervous system?
They have an arousal effect on the central nervous system.

Caffeine mimics the effects of a natural brain chemical called:


adenosine.

The "date rape" drug is _____; it is a _____.


rohypnol; depressant

MDMA and lysergic acid diethylamide are _____.


Hallucinogens

LSD and Ecstasy influence the operation of the neurotransmitter _____ in the brain.
Serotonin

Drug addiction occurs when a(n)


physical or psychological dependence on taking the drug develops.

Drugs that create a sense of relaxation and lowered inhibitions by reducing the activity
of the central nervous system are called
depressants.

The definition of a binge drinking episode is having more than ___________ drinks in a
row.
5

Jerry who is fairly a conservative person, stopped at a bar on the way home from work
to have a couple of drinks with his friends. On the way home he suddenly pulls into a
retail store and buys a new 60-inch wide-screen TV. What is the most likely explanation
for his behavior?
The alcohol in the drinks reduced his inhibitions and impulse control.

Morphine and heroin are derivatives of


opium.

Your friend reported feeling greater energy and a sense of well-being after taking a
drug.
Medical tests reveal increased activity of her central nervous system. The drug she took
is most likely some type of
stimulant.

Kate, a longtime coffee drinker, complains of pounding headaches and lowered mood
when she skips her coffee in the morning. What is the likely cause of these complaints?
Caffeine withdrawal

The divided consciousness theory of hypnosis is supported by evidence that


hypnotized people can be aware of pain sensation without experiencing emotional
distress.

Which of the following notions regarding hypnosis is false?


People lose all will of their own.

Which of the following is true of altered state of consciousness?


People feel a sense of ineffability.

_____ drugs are drugs that influence a person's emotions, perceptions, and behavior.
Psychoactive

In _____ dependence, people believe that they need the drug to respond to the
stresses of daily living.
Psychological

Assessment of the DARE program has revealed that:


DARE graduates were more likely to use marijuana than was a comparison group of
nongraduates.

Caffeine mimics the effects of a natural brain chemical called:


adenosine.

Nicotine activates neural mechanisms similar to those activated by _____.


Cocaine

Fawn consumed a large amount of the most popular street drug at a party. It gave her a
sense of energy and alertness although she also became anxious and irritable. Which
of the following drugs has she most likely consumed?
Methamphetamine

LSD and Ecstasy influence the operation of the neurotransmitter _____ in the brain.
Serotonin

The need to take increasing amounts of a drug in order to get the same effect is
referred to as
tolerance.

Bethany is experiencing headaches, lethargy, and difficulty concentrating. She most


likely stopped using which drug?
Caffeine

What type of drug is crystal meth?


Amphetamine

Research on the legalization of marijuana in California found


no effect on overall usage.

LSD and marijuana fall into the psychotropic drug category of


hallucinogens.

You decide to undergo hypnosis out of curiosity. You expect that hypnosis will result in a
state of
eightened openness to suggestion.

Approximately what percentage of the population cannot be hypnotized at all? 5%-20%

Stimulants are drugs that


have an arousal effect on the central nervous system, causing a rise in heart rate, blood
pressure, and muscular tension.
Tranquilizers and alcohol belong to a drug category called
depressants.

"Medical marijuana" is known to


All of these

Which of the following notions regarding hypnosis is TRUE?


People cannot be hypnotized against their will.

When traditional practitioners of the ancient Eastern religion of Zen Buddhism want to
achieve greater spiritual insight, they turn to a technique that has been used for
centuries to alter their state of consciousness. This technique is called _____.
Meditation

____ drugs are drugs that produce a biological or psychological dependence in the user
so that withdrawal from them leads to a craving for the drug that, in some cases, may
be nearly irresistible.
Addictive

Which of the following withdrawal symptoms are related to the use of stimulants?
Apathy, general fatigue, prolonged sleep

The use of _____ results in euphoria, relaxed inhibitions, heightened sense of oneself
and insight, and disoriented behavior.
Hallucinogens

Voluntary motor behavior becomes affected when one's blood alcohol content level
reaches:
.10.

Methadone is used to treat addiction to:


heroin.

College students who consume large amounts of alcohol on weekends are abusing
which type(s) of drugs?
Depressants

________ is a psychological state of altered attention and expectation in which an


individual is more open to suggestions.
Hypnosis

The most widely used illegal drug by high school students is


marijuna

2. Learning reflects _____. Maturation reflects _____


nurture; nature
2. _____ is the decrease in response to a stimulus that occurs after repeated presentations of the
same stimulus.
Habituation
4. _____ refers to a decrease in the response to a stimulus when it is presented
repeatedly, whereas _____ refers to the eventual disappearance of a conditioned
response when an unconditioned stimulus is no longer presented.
Habituation; extinction
5. _____ stimulus is a stimulus that does not naturally bring about the response of interest.
Neutral
6. _____ stimulus is a stimulus that naturally brings about a particular response without having
been learned.
Unconditioned

7. In Pavlov's study, the UCS was _____; the neutral stimulus was _____; and, finally, the CS
was _____.
meat; the bell; the bell
8. In classical conditioning, how are the neutral stimulus and the conditioned response related?
The neutral stimulus becomes the conditioned stimulus.
9. Nature is to nurture what _____ is to _____.
unconditioned response; conditioned response
10. Classical conditioning is most successful when the neutral stimulus begins:
just before the unconditioned stimulus begins.
11. Which pair below CORRECTLY identifies a stimulus or response in Watson and Rayner's
"Little Albert" study?
Unconditioned stimulusnoise
12. _____ occurs when a previously conditioned response decreases in frequency and eventually
disappears.
Extinction
13. Which of the following scenarios exemplifies extinction?
Alexis is a former cocaine user. Now that she no longer uses cocaine, her hands no longer shake
and her heart no longer pounds when she hears a car pull into her drive, like her dealer used to do
in his car.
14. Which of the following sequences CORRECTLY arranges the phases of the classical
conditioning process, from first to last?
Acquisition extinction spontaneous recovery
15. Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies spontaneous recovery?
Alexis is a former cocaine user in recovery. After a relapse, though, her hands shake and her
heart pounds when she hears a car pull into her drive, like her dealer used to do in his car.
16. Which of the following is true of stimulus generalization?
The greater the similarity between two stimuli, the greater the likelihood of stimulus
generalization.
17. Which of the following terms best expresses the relationship between stimulus generalization
and stimulus discrimination?
Stimulus discrimination is a type of stimulus generalization.
18. June's cat runs to the kitchen at the sound of the electric can opener, which she has learned is
used to open her food when her dinner is about to be served. The cat does not run when a blender
is used, although it sounds similar. June's cat is demonstrating stimulus:
discrimination.

19. Janine completed several tours of duty in Afghanistan. She suffers from PTSD. Now, back
home in Texas, she is frightened by firecrackers and cars backfiring. The fact that these sounds
scare her reflects a process of stimulus:
generalization.
20. Stimulus _____ provides the ability to differentiate between stimuli.
Discrimination
21. In what way does learned taste aversion seem to contradict the basic principles of classical
conditioning?
Learned taste aversion can occur after only a single CS-UCR pairing.
22. Any situation that involves learning
requires some relatively permanent change to occur.
23. Which of the following behaviors indicate learning?
Simon whines whenever he wants something.
24. In ________ conditioning, organisms learn the association between two stimuli.
Classical
25. Little Julie is watching Dora the Explorer help her mother clean up the kitchen after dinner.
After the show, she walks into the kitchen to help her mommy clean up. Little Julie is
demonstrating
observational learning.
26. In Pavlov's well-known study on classical conditioning, the bell was the ____________
before conditioning and the ____________ after conditioning had occurred.
neutral stimulus; conditioned stimulus
27. Pavlov's dog learned to anticipate food whenever he was presented with stimuli associated
with food. Pavlov knew that his dog associated specific stimuli with food because the
____________ was elicited by the stimuli.
CR
28. Pavlov's dog salivated each time food was presented. Salivation in this situation was the
unconditioned response.
29. In classical conditioning situations, the ____________ connection is innate, while the
____________ connection is learned.
UCS-UCR; CS-CR
30. Which of the following is an example of an innate UCS-UCR connection?
Sneezing in response to pepper

31. Boris is trying to use classical conditioning to teach his goldfish to come to the top of the
tank to eat whenever he turns on the aquarium light. He drops food into the tank and then turns
on the light. After several such trials, the fish show no more inclination to come to the top of the
tank when the light is turned on than they did on the first trial. What would you suggest that
Boris do to improve his training technique?
He should turn on the light before he drops the food into the tank.
32. Dr. Meyer is known for his difficult pop quizzes. Immediately before he springs a pop quiz
on his students, he typically goes to the classroom door and closes it. Students soon learn to
anticipate a pop quiz whenever Dr. Meyer closes the classroom door. Closing the door has
become a(n)
CS.
33. During the winter months, Alfred receives a static shock each time he touches his car door
when exiting his vehicle. Now Alfred flinches right before he touches the door. What represents
the conditioned response?
Flinching before touching the door
34. As Natalie, who has extremely long nails, approaches the chalkboard, many of her classmates
cover their ears. What represents the conditioned stimulus?
Natalie approaching the board
35. Jennifer was stung by a bee several days ago. Now she cries out whenever any flying insect
comes too close. Jennifer is demonstrating
generalization.
36. Bubba, a very smart German shepherd, has learned that if he barks at the neighbors while
they are grilling, they will throw him a treat. However, his owner, Paul, does not want Bubba to
eat "people" food. When Paul is in the yard, Bubba never barks at the neighbors. According to
operant conditioning principles, Bubba is demonstrating that he can
discriminate.
37. Tyler's grandmother used to receive emails from him every day, so she would check her inbox regularly. Since Tyler went off to college, the emails have basically stopped. As a result, she
no longer checks her in-box on a daily basis. If this pattern continues, we can expect
____________ to occur.
Extinction
38. Marcia was romantically involved with John. Unfortunately, Marcia eventually discovered
that John was being a complete jerk, so she ended the relationship. One day in the mall, she
suddenly gets a whiff of the cologne that John always wore. All the former good feelings come
pouring back. This is an example of
spontaneous recovery.
39. Watson and Raynor conditioned fear in Little Albert using a ____________ as a CS.
white rat

40. It should take about 30 minutes for the aspirin Manny just took to relieve his headache, but
Manny feels better within minutes. This is an example of
the placebo effect.
41. John is taking an agent that causes nausea every time he smokes a cigarette. This is a form of
aversive conditioning.
42. Kenny ate several hot dogs at the baseball game. Several hours later he got very nauseous
and spent most of the night being physically sick. We can expect that he will
be unable to eat a hot dog at the next ball game he attends.
43. Some children with seizure problems bang their heads against a wall, causing themselves
serious injury. As a result, a psychologist might administer a brief electric shock to such a child
every time she bangs her head on the wall. This would be an example of
aversive conditioning.
44. In a particular TV add, an attractive model is shown with a red Corvette. Which of the
following statements is correct?
The ad will work best if the Corvette precedes the appearance of the attractive person.
45. Which of the following statements about classical conditioning is accurate?
It is a form of respondent behavior.
The root of operant conditioning may be traced to _____'s early studies of hungry cats
learning to escape from cages.
Thorndike

Which of the following approaches to treating a phobia is/are CORRECTLY matched


with the type of learning it reflects?
Reinforcing client directly by interacting with the feared object - operant conditioning

Reinforcers that satisfy a biological need are called _____ reinforcers.


Primary

Nature is to nurture what _____ reinforcers are to _____ reinforcers.

primary; secondary

Which of the following is an example of a secondary reinforcer?


Money

As part of a behavior modification program, Kendra and her partner each agree to
praise the other if she completes her assigned household chores by the end of the day.
Such praise is an example of:
secondary reinforcement and positive reinforcement.

Which of the following types of consequences is CORRECTLY matched with an


example?
Positive punishment - Laurel's mother yells at her when Laurel takes $20 from her
mom's purse

Typically long pauses in responding are found in _____ schedules.


fixed-interval

A privately funded program pays low-income parents $50 every two months for each
child who attends school regularly during that period. This incentive illustrates a _____
schedule of reinforcement.
fixed-interval

Sheryl makes pleasant small talk and pays her boss a compliment before asking for a
personal day, because such a strategy was successful with a few of her previous
bosses. This example most clearly illustrates:
stimulus generalization.

Recall Tolman's latent learning experiments in which rats learned to run a maze. What
was the critical result?
Rats that began to receive an incentive halfway through the experiment rapidly matched
the performance of rats that had been reinforced from the beginning of the experiment.
A(n) _____ is a mental representation of spatial locations and directions.
cognitive map

Learning by watching the behavior of another person, or model is known as _____.


observational learning

Which of the following is NOT associated with Skinner?


Conditioned stimulus

Melvin is a new fifth-grade teacher. Unfortunately, many of his new students have a
history of failing to complete their assignments. He wants to encourage his students to
complete all of their assignments and to do well on them. From a behavioral
perspective, Melvin should

reinforce gradual approximations to the desired goal of completing 100% of the


assignments.

Gary takes his car to the auto shop for routine maintenance every 3,000 miles. He is
trying to avoid a major repair bill in the future. His behavior demonstrates
negative reinforcement.

Shirley refuses to put her name up for a promotion because she knows she will not get
the job anyway. This is an example of
learned helplessness.

Carol gives her dog, Oscar, a treat each time he sits on command. Carol is using a
________ schedule to train her dog to sit on command.
continuous reinforcement

Josh has a crush on the girl at the movie rental store. He knows that she works every
Thursday afternoon, so he only visits the store on Thursdays. Josh is operating on a
________ schedule.
Fixed interval

What principles of learning do behavior modification programs rely on in order to help


people change?
Operant

"Responses that lead to satisfying consequences are more likely to be repeated." This
is the law of:
effect.

Negative reinforcement:
increases the likelihood that preceding behaviors will be repeated.

Which of the following scenarios exemplifies negative reinforcement?


Vanna fastens her seatbelt as soon as she gets in her car to stop the annoying alert
sound

_____ weakens a response through the application of an unpleasant stimulus.


Positive punishment

Which of the following types of consequences is CORRECTLY matched with an


example?
Negative reinforcement - Jeff puts up his umbrella when it starts to sprinkle so he won't
get wet

A variable-ratio schedule is a schedule:


by which reinforcement occurs after a fluctuating number of responses rather than after
a fixed number.

Which of the following does not accurately reflect a distinction between classical and
operant conditioning?
Classical conditioning applies to voluntary behavior, while operant conditioning applies
to involuntary behavior.

Dr. Simonelli is a practicing behavior analyst. What does she do?


She specializes in behavior modification techniques.

Observational learning is based in part on the activity of _____ neurons in the brain.
Mirror

Mary is a teacher in an inner-city school that is considered "at-risk" because of low


student achievement scores. She notices that most of the students believe that
academic ability or intelligence is a fixed, innate ability. What can Mary expect from
students given this mind-set?
They will exhibit learned helplessness in academically challenging situations.

Fred's parents are very inconsistent. Most of the time Fred climbs on the furniture
without receiving any reprimands; however, sometimes he is punished for this behavior.
Fred's parents cannot understand why he is not a better behaved child. Fred's parents
are reinforcing his negative behaviors on a ________ schedule.
partial reinforcement

Which of the following is an example of positive punishment?


Getting scolded

Which process determines whether or not an imitated or modeled act will be repeated?
Reinforcement

On the way home from work, you decide to explore a side street that you have passed
on several occasions. You are surprised to find that it runs parallel to the expressway.
Several weeks later, there is a major accident on your usual travel route so you take this
alternate route home. This is an example of ________ learning.
Latent

Operant conditioning most importantly involves forming associations between:


behavior and consequences.

The process by which a stimulus increases the likelihood that a preceding behavior will
be repeated is called:
reinforcement.

The term reward is synonymous with:


positive reinforcement only.

A(n) _____ reinforcer refers to the removal of an unpleasant stimulus, putting on a


sweater when your cold for example, which leads to an increase in the probability that a
preceding response will be repeated in the future.
Negative

One reason Carlos continues to work at his job is the check he receives every two
weeks. Carlos' paycheck is a _____ reinforcer.
Secondary

Behavior that is reinforced every time it occurs is said to be on a(n) _____


reinforcement schedule
Continuous

A fixed-ratio schedule is a schedule:


by which reinforcement is given only after a specific number of responses are made.

Typically long pauses in responding are found in _____ schedules.


fixed-interval

The cognitive learning concept of _____ learning is associated most prominently with
_____.
latent; Tolman

Melvin is a new fifth-grade teacher. Unfortunately, many of his new students have a
history of failing to complete their assignments. He wants to encourage his students to
complete all of their assignments and to do well on them. From a behavioral
perspective, Melvin should
reinforce gradual approximations to the desired goal of completing 100% of the
assignments.

If, through experience, you come to the conclusion that all things are beyond your
control and therefore you should not even try, you are exhibiting
learned helplessness.

Which of the following is a primary reinforcer?


Candy

Little Henry knows that when he goes shopping with Mommy and throws a tantrum, he
never gets a treat. However, he also knows that if he throws a tantrum when Dad takes
him, Dad always gives in. Little Henry is demonstrating
discrimination.

For the past month, Larry has been grounded each time he hits his little brother. Lately,
Larry's misbehavior toward his little brother has decreased. Grounding Larry is an
example of
negative punishment.

In Sweden, it is illegal for parents to spank their children. Since the laws were passed,
youth rates of crime have
remained the same.

"Responses that lead to satisfying consequences are more likely to be repeated." This
is the law of:
Effect

A(n) _____ reinforcer refers to the removal of an unpleasant stimulus, putting on a


sweater when your cold for example, which leads to an increase in the probability that a
preceding response will be repeated in the future.
Negative

Which of the following is not a disadvantage of punishment?


It tends to change behavior very slowly.

Which of the following promotions exemplifies the use of a fixed-ratio schedule of


reinforcement?
A caf offers its customers a punch card. Each time a patron purchases a beverage, a
hole is punched; when ten holes are punched, the patron receives a free beverage.

Which of the following is an example of negative punishment?

Informing an employee that he has been demoted because of a poor job evaluation.

A variable-interval schedule is a schedule:


by which reinforcement occurs after a varying number of responses rather than after a
fixed number.

Matt wants to train his dog, Buster, to sit on command. He gives Buster a doggie biscuit
each time Buster sits when commanded, but only for the first 10 trials. He then changes
the rules. Buster now has to sit on command three times before he gets a biscuit. Matt
first used a ________ schedule, and then a ________ schedule to train Buster.
continuous reinforcement schedule; fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement

In operant conditioning
the consequences of behavior produce change in the probability of the occurrence of
the behavior.

Kevin used to cry, whine, throw temper tantrums, and eventually start screaming in the
department store whenever he wanted a toy. His mother would resist initially but when
he would start screaming she would give in. Eventually, Kevin started with the
screaming to get his toy. Kevin is demonstrating
the law of effect.

David earns $1,000 every time his sales reach $100,000. For David, the bonus is an

example of ________ reinforcement.


Positive

_____ punishment consists of the removal of something pleasant.


Negative

_____ learning occurs without reinforcement.


latent

Four-month-old Simon quickly learns that he will be picked up if he cries. From a


behaviorist perspective, picking up Simon whenever he cries is a ________ for the
baby.
positive reinforce

The process of teaching complex behavior by reinforcing ever closer approximations of


the desired behavior is called:
Shaping

Cecil turns off all the lights in his house to avoid a huge electric bill. Cecil's behavior is
an example of

negative reinforcement.

A variable-interval schedule is a schedule:


by which the time between reinforcements fluctuates around some average rather than
being fixed.

Ewan is convinced that a woman across the bar is "sending signals." A learning theorist
would term such signals:
discriminative stimuli.

A worker is paid $25 for every 20 wind chimes that she builds. On which schedule of
reinforcement is she being paid?
Fixed ratio

Kayla is selling her Girl Scout cookies in the neighborhood. She never knows how many
houses she will have to visit before she sells all of her cookies. Kayla is operating on a
________ schedule.
Variable ratio

Which of the following is the response most parents give when asked why they
physically punish their children?
The parent was spanked as a child and his or her child also needs strong discipline.

Some bears kept in captivity allow veterinarians to routinely give them total body
checkups. These bears open their mouths for teeth cleaning and present their paws for
nail clipping. Your friend wonders how anyone could ever get these dangerous animals
to be so cooperative without anesthesia. From your study of psychology, you quickly
surmise that the bears have undergone an extensive ________ program.
Shaping

Which of the following is the response most parents give when asked why they
physically punish their children?
The parent was spanked as a child and his or her child also needs strong discipline.

2. Material in memory storage has to be located and brought into awareness to be useful. This
process is known as _____.
Retrieval
3. Which of the following sequences best reflects the order of stages in the three-stage model of
memory?
Sensory memory short-term memory long-term memory
4. _____ memory refers to the initial, momentary storage of information that lasts only an
instant.
Sensory
5. A research participant is required to report as much of a poem as he can remember
immediately after having read the poem once. We would expect the greatest number of recall
errors in lines:
in the middle of the poem.
6. Which of the following expressions best reflects the capacity of short-term memory?
About seven +/- two chunks
7. Grouping pieces of information together to expand the effective capacity of short-term
memory is termed _____.

Chunking
9. We look up a number in the phone book, push the book away, and then begin to dial the
number. Why do we discourage an interruption during this process?
Information lasts only 15-25 seconds in short-term memory.
10. Rehearsal refers to the:
repetition of information that has entered short-term memory.
11. The conscious repetition of information to ensure its survival in short-term memory is termed
_____ rehearsal.
Elaborative
12. The concept of working memory represents a contemporary conceptualization of _____
memory.
short-term
13. On your computer desktop, you can see all sorts of different files, each immediately
accessible. Because you are actively working on them, and because you can open them whenever
you want, these files are in fact very similar to the kind of information held in:
working memory.
14. Which of the following statements is true of working memory?
Working memory permits us to keep information in an active state briefly so that we can do
something with the information.
15. Which of the following accurately describes the processing of information in working
memory?
Working memory uses cognitive resources during its operation which makes us less aware of our
surroundings.
16. Which of the following best describes the effect of stress on working memory capacity?
Stress can reduce the effectiveness of working memory by reducing its capacity.
17. The primacy effect refers to the fact that:
items presented early in a list are remembered better than items in the middle of the list.
19. The recency effect refers to the fact that:
items presented late in a list are remembered better than items presented in the middle of a list.
20. "Milk, cereal, candy." Your roommate begins reciting items as you get ready to leave to the
store. He continues to list a few more items. Finally, he wraps up: "Spaghetti sauce, dish liquid,
and ice tea mix." You forget a few things, but the spaghetti sauce, dish liquid, and ice tea mix are
in the bag. Your memory for these items reflects the _____ effect.
Recency

21. Which of the following refers to declarative memory?


Memory for names
22. _____ memory is memory for general knowledge and facts about the world, as well as
memory for the rules of logic that are used to deduce other facts.
Semantic
23. Activating one memory triggers the activation of related memories in a process known as:
spreading activation.
24. The hippocampus is located in the _____ lobe.
Temperal
25. Which of the following is true of the neuroscience of memory?
The amygdala is especially involved with memories involving emotion.
26. Long-term potentiation refers to the process whereby:
neural pathways become activated more easily as learning occurs.
27. The term engram is generally discouraged by psychologists studying memory. Why might
this be?
There is probably no single site or process in the brain corresponding to a particular memory.
28. Akira Haraguchi demonstrated amazing memory ability when he recited all 80,000 digits of
pi. What process in the human memory system did he utilize?
Retrieval
29. Which of the following is NOT one of the three main memory processes?
Thinking
30. Which of the following is NOT included in the encoding process?
Testing yourself
34. Your mom is always giving you grief about how you surf the Web and send text messages
while you are studying. You explain that multitasking does not affect your grades. Is your
position supported by the information presented in the textbook?
No; studies have confirmed that individuals do not do well on memory tests of information that
was acquired while performing other tasks.
35. Steve is studying with his friend Mike for their biology test. Mike asks Steve about a
particular concept, and Steve replies, "I know I was in class that day, but I don't even have that in
my notes. Are you sure the professor mentioned it?" Steve is demonstrating a(n) ________
failure.
Encoding

36. Fifteen-year-old Matt and his father are in an electronics store looking at video game
systems. Matt gives his father a complete breakdown of the pros and cons of each of the different
video game systems on display. Matt is able to accurately recall all of these details because he
has
deeply processed this information.
37. According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin theory of memory, memory storage involves which of the
following three systems?
Sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory
38. You most likely store the seven-digit phone number from your previous address in ________
memory.
Long-term
39. You tell your friends about the great time you had at a famous amusement park. Most of the
visual and auditory sensations that you experienced and have now forgotten were initially
processed in your ________ memory.
Sensory
40. You are engrossed in your favorite TV show in the living room. Your roommate yells for you
to bring a flyswatter to the kitchen. Vaguely aware that a request is being made of you, you ask
your roommate to repeat herself. Before she can reply, however, the sound of the words "bring a
flyswatter to the kitchen" play through your mind. This is an example of ________ memory.
Echoic
41. Which of the following is TRUE of short-term memory?
It is a limited-capacity memory system.
42. George Miller's classic paper on the seven plus or minus two phenomenon refers to a person's
________ memory.
short-term
43. Chunking involves
packing together information that exceeds the seven plus or minus two rule.
47. Being able to consciously recall information from the past and recite it, involves what type of
memory?
Declarative
44. When asked to memorize these 15 lettersC I A C B S A B C F B I I R SMary
reorganized them into CIA, CBS, ABC, FBI, and IRS. Mary used the tactic of
chunking.
45. Talking to people about what you have learned is a form of
rehearsal.

46. ________ memory is the conscious recollection of facts and events that you can verbally
communicate.
Declarative
49. You are relaxing beside a water display in the park. The quiet, scenic environment reminds
you of a poem you read in English class last week. This is an example of ________ memory.
Episodic
50. Remembering the name of the author who wrote The Cat in the Hat is referred to as
________ memory.
Semantic
51. If you remember dancing at your high school prom, it is an example of ________ memory; if
you showed me the dance steps you used, it is an example of ________ memory.
episodic; procedural
52. The activation of information that a person already has in storage is referred to as
priming.
53. A preexisting mental concept or framework that helps people organize and interpret
information is referred to as a
schema.
54. Long-term potentiation is a concept that explains
how memory functions at the neuronal level.
55. In John's favorite picture, he is riding with his father on a lawn mower. John also likes the
smell of freshly mowed grass. Which of the following cues do you predict will elicit the
strongest emotional memory in John?
Smell of freshly cut grass
56. Margaret fell down her basement stairs and suffered serious injury to her amygdala. What
memory problems is she most likely to experience?
Difficulty with emotional memories
57. Juanita is an administrative assistant in the human resources department of a local business.
She has noticed that in nearly every case, the last person interviewed for a job gets hired. What
effect of memory may be influencing the hiring practice?
Recency
58. George just graduated from college and is going on his first job interview. He has learned that
there are two other candidates. Because of the information he has learned about the serial
position effect, George asks to be either the first or the last candidate interviewed. Why?
Either the first or the last candidate will be best remembered.

59. According to the serial position effect, if you are a waiter trying to remember all the orders
for a table of seven, you should pay particular attention to the ________ orders.
3rd, 4th, and 5th
60. Your roommate, Rhiana, asks your advice on how to best study for her final exams. Because
of your knowledge of context dependent memory, you recommend that she study
quietly in the classroom in which she is to take her exam.
61. Detectives take advantage of context-dependent memory by
taking witnesses back to the scene of the crime.
62. Kim was telling her friend about her most recent trip to her grandmother's house, but was
having trouble remembering certain details. Later that month she visited her grandmother again
and the details came flooding back. This is an example of
the effects of context on retrieval.
Ralph is preparing a report on his academic field trip to a manufacturing plant. He is
trying to remember each event of the trip in the order in which it occurred to prepare an
accurate report in a presentable form. Which of the following memory tasks is Ralph
using?
Recall

According to the levels-of-processing theory, which of the following students should


retrieve information more successfully on classroom tests?
Irene, who pays close attention to what is taught in class

"I know it! It's um . . . um . . . ," begins a trivia game contestant excitedly. The contestant
is engaged in a test of her _____ memory.
Explicit

Memories of which we are not consciously aware are called _____ memories.

Implicit

_____ is a phenomenon in which exposure to a word or concept later makes it easier to


recall related information, even when there is no conscious memory of the word or
concept.
Priming

Flashbulb memories:
typically concern major, unexpected public or personal events.

Christopher clearly remembers that he was practicing his dialogues for his school play
when he heard that the governor of his state had been assassinated. This is an
example of a(n) _____ memory.
Flashbulb

During a conversation, Jerry told his friend that their favorite rock band was coming to
perform in their city. However, he could not remember the medium through which he got
the information about the show. Jerry was experiencing:
source amnesia.

Loftus and Palmer (1974) conducted an experiment in which participants estimated the
speed of a car described as either contacting or smashing into another. To which of the
following conclusions regarding eyewitness memory is this study most relevant?

Eyewitnesses confidence is only weakly related to eyewitness memory.

The idea that disturbing memories may be repressed derives from:


Freud's psychoanalytic theory.

The first attempts to study forgetting scientifically were made by the German
psychologist:
Hermann Ebbinghaus.

Which of the following statements best describes the fate of the decay theory of
forgetting in psychology?
It is an incomplete theory of forgetting.

In _____ interference, information learned earlier disrupts the recall of information


learned more recently; in _____ interference, recently learned information disrupts the
recall of information learned earlier.
proactive; retroactive

_____, an illness characterized in part by severe memory problems, is the fourth


leading cause of death among adults in the United States.
Alzheimer's disease

In _____ amnesia, memory is lost for events preceding an injury or accident; in _____
amnesia, memory is lost for events following an injury or accident.
retrograde; anterograde

An individual's autobiographical memory forms the core of the individual's


personal identity.

Which of the following is likely to create a flashbulb memory?


All of these

Eyewitness accounts of crimes are


prone to errors.

According to decay theory, memories fade because


a neurochemical "memory trace" disintegrates over time.

In H. M.'s surgery, the part of his brain responsible for laying down new memories was
damaged beyond repair. The result was
amnesia.

_____ is a memory task in which individuals are presented with a stimulus and asked
whether they have been exposed to it in the past or to identify it from a list of
alternatives.

Recognition

The levels-of-processing approach:


suggests that thinking about material leads to better memory than does maintenance
rehearsal.

Some psychologists consider classical conditioning to be a form of implicit memory.


Which of the following is probably the best reason for suggesting that classical
conditioning is a type of implicit memory?
Classical conditioning occurs outside awareness.

Which of the following is true of flashbulb memories?


The details recalled in flashbulb memories are often inaccurate.

____ amnesia occurs when an individual has a memory for some material but cannot
recall where he or she encountered it.
Source

The unconscious process whereby disturbing memories are prevented from entering
awareness is called:
repression.

Which of the following alternatives best expresses psychologist Elizabeth Loftus'


position on the validity of repressed memories?
Repressed memories are often false. They reflect confusion regarding the source of a
memory.

With respect to the potential influence of a written language on the recall ability of a
culture's members, research has:
revealed that a written language probably has little influence on people's memory ability.

Which of the following best describes the results of Ebbinghaus's work on forgetting?
You'll forget most of it right away, and you'll keep on forgetting more of it, though at a
slower rate.

Jerry is at a party. He is introduced to three different people in the span of a moment.


Later, he is approached by the first person he met and cannot remember her name.
Which of the following is most likely the source of Jerry's difficulty?
Jerry failed to encode the woman's name.

Which theory of forgetting is correctly matched with its description?


DecayInformation is lost over time as a result of nonuse.

Pierre has been an alcoholic for several decades. Now in his 50s, his intellectual
abilities are intact, but he suffers from memory deficits and hallucinations. Based on this

information, you suspect that Pierre may be afflicted with:

Korsakoff's syndrome.

Encoding failure occurs when


The information was never entered into long-term memory.

A few years ago, you had a boyfriend named Phil. Now, you have a new boyfriend
named Stephen. Because of ________, you sometimes call Stephen by the wrong
name.
proactive interference

You are taking both Spanish and French this semester. As you study the vocabulary
words for your French test, you realize that the French words are disrupting the memory
of the Spanish vocabulary words you studied last week. This is an example of
proactive interference.

Both of Suzie's parents suffered from Alzheimer's disease before they died. Although
still in her early 40s, Suzie is very concerned about her own cognitive functioning. What
advice can you give her based what you know about the science of memory?
"Engage in challenging cognitive tasks as frequently as you can."

Why is it so difficult to retrieve information from long-term memory?

There is so much information being stored in long-term memory.

Which of the following searches explicit memory?


Trying to remember a name encountered or learned about previously

_____ is a process in which memories are influenced by the meaning we give to events.
Constructive process

Dr. Tranh has given so many lectures that he gives little thought to what he expects
might happen: He assumes students will assemble, take notes, and occasionally ask a
question. That Dr. Tranh finds the process so routine reflects the development of:
a schema.

The idea that disturbing memories may be repressed derives from:


Freud's psychoanalytic theory.

One's culture is most likely to influence:


The strategies one uses to recall information from long-term memory.

Drew is unable to recall whether Lincoln's head faces left or right on the penny. Which of
the following is probably the best explanation for Drew's memory failure?
The information was not encoded, because Drew never really paid attention to Lincoln's
head on the penny.

Repression is
motivated forgetting.

According to Hermann Ebbinghaus,


most forgetting occurs soon after we originally learned something.

A few years ago, you had a boyfriend named Phil. Now, you have a new boyfriend
named Stephen. Because of ________, you sometimes call Stephen by the wrong
name.
proactive interference

Which of the following is true of the levels-of-processing theory?


At an intermediate level of processing, information is translated into meaningful units.

A typical multiple-choice question on a psychology test is an example of both a _____


and a(n) _____ test of memory.
recognition; explicit

Bart remembers the release date of his favorite movie director's upcoming project.
Which of the following forms of memory would have helped Bart?
Explicit memory

A schema is:
a conceptual framework for interpreting a situation.

The unconscious process whereby disturbing memories are prevented from entering
awareness is called:
repression.

In _____ interference, information learned earlier disrupts the recall of information


learned more recently; in _____ interference, recently learned information disrupts the
recall of information learned earlier.
proactive; retroactive

Motivated forgetting is usually associated with what type of memories?


Traumatic

According to Hermann Ebbinghaus,


most forgetting occurs soon after we originally learned something.

Mickey is about to take his psychology final. Just before the exam, the person sitting
next to Mickey asks him the name of the physiologist who worked on classical
conditioning. Mickey suddenly realizes that he cannot quite remember the name, but he
knows that it starts with a P and is two syllables long. Mickey is experiencing:
The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.

A stimulus that facilitates the recall of information from long-term memory is called a:
retrieval cue.

The levels-of-processing approach suggests:


specific information will be retained for longer when the level of information processing
is deeper.

Middle-aged Mrs. Lovett is recalling her first Christmas as a young newlywed at her inlaws' Wyoming ranch. This is a(n) _____ memory.
Autobiographical

Shauna is an excellent student. She rewrites her class notes after each class. Rewriting
her notes is a form of memory
rehearsal.

Which of the following best encapsulates autobiographical memory?


Autobiographical memory is just as inaccurate as other types of memory are. Some
periods of one's life are recalled more easily than are others.

Owen has trouble remembering a friend's new phone number; he keeps recalling the
old number instead. Completing a rental application, Pippa finds she can't recall one of

her previous addresses, as she's had several addresses since. Owen is experiencing
_____ interference; Pippa is experiencing _____.
proactive; retroactive interference

A soap opera character who had a major head trauma cannot remember any post-injury
people or events, but his memory for people and events prior to his injury is perfect. Is
this fictional tale possible in the real world?
Yes; amnesia involving new events is called anterograde amnesia.

Chad is puzzling over a difficult question on a multiple-choice sociology test. He rereads the question, scans the options beneath the question, and glances at other
questions on the test. Most likely, Chad is looking for:
retrieval cues.

1. _____ psychology is the branch of psychology that focuses on the study of higher mental
processes, including thinking, language, memory, problem solving, knowing, reasoning,
and judging.
Cognitive
2. Which of the following is true about mental images?
They are representations in the mind of an object or event.
3. Clint is mentally rehearsing his golf swing in his mind's eye. Based on the text's
discussion of mental imagery, which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
Clint's mental rehearsal should improve his golf swing. Carrying out the task
involves the same network of brain cells as the network used in mentally rehearsing
it.

4. Mental representations of objects are called _____; mental grouping of similar objects,
events, or people are called _____.
images; concepts
5. A prototype is:
the most typical or highly representative example of a concept.
6. Which of the following is MOST likely the prototype of the concept "fruit"?
Apple
7. _____ is the process by which information is used to draw conclusions and make
decisions.
Reasoning
8. Syllogisms are used to study:
reasoning.
9.

Formal reasoning in which people draw a conclusion from a set of assumptions is known
as _____ reasoning.
Syllogistic
10. Consider the following syllogism:
(1) All Houstonians are Texans
(2) Some Houstonians attend church
(3) Some Texans attend church
Which of the following alternatives correctly identifies a statement in this syllogism?
Statement 3conclusion

10. A rule that guarantees the solution to a problem when it is correctly applied is termed as
a(n):
algorithm.
12. Which of the following is true of heuristics?
In cases where algorithms are not available, we may use heuristics.
13. Which of the following terms best captures the meaning of the term heuristic, as
cognitive psychologists use it?
Strategy
14. Which of the following most likely makes use of heuristics?
An article by a Nobel Prize winner titled "How to Succeed in Science"
15. Which of the following is TRUE of heuristics?
Heuristics represent commonly used approaches to the solution of a problem.

16. The _____ is a rule we apply when we judge people by the degree to which they
depict a certain category or group of people.
representativeness heuristic
17. When you use the representativeness heuristic, you are:
assuming that something is typical of its class.
19. Following the September 11, 2001, Twin Towers attacks, many Americans elected to
drive rather than fly. The media coverage of the hijackings caused Americans to
overestimate the danger of flying. As it was an event they remember easily they assumed
it could occur more frequently. This example illustrates the:
availability heuristic.
20. When people are asked which is more common, death by homicide or death by
stroke, they often choose homicide because they simply hear more about murders than
they do about strokes. In this instance, people are led astray in their judgments by:
the availability heuristic.
21. "You always clam up when I ask you what's wrong," Iris tells her boyfriend. Iris is
probably making this frequency judgment because she can remember a few times that her
boyfriend wouldn't tell her what was bothering him. Iris is using the _____ heuristic.
Availability
22. In a _____ heuristic, known items are seen as superior to those that are unknown.
Familiarity
23. When you go to the supermarket, you see the brand of cookies you usually buy, and
settle for it. Usually it's a good rule of thumb, because it saves a lot of time. You do not
ponder over every type of cookie available in the store. This is an example of a(n) _____.
familiarity heuristic
24. _____ intelligence is the field that examines how to use technology to imitate the
outcome of human thinking, problem solving, and creative activities.
Artificial
25. When the field of cognitive psychology first became prominent, it was considered a
revolutionary development because it was a radical departure from
behaviorism.
26. Although used often, the comparison between the computer and human information
processing is oversimplified. Why?
Computer information input is precoded and ambiguities are removed before
processing.

27. Your roommate argues that computers can perform several complex tasks better and
more accurately than humans. You counter her argument with the mention of
___________, a task that only humans can perform.
developing new learning goals
28. Which of the following would NOT be a defining property of the prototype of an
airplane?
It is silver.
29. In everyday situations, finding and framing problems can be difficult because most
real-life problems
are vague and ill-defined.
30. An effective way to strategize your organization of subgoals is to
work backward in your planning.
31. You have to study four chapters of information for your next test. If you decide to use
the problem-solving strategy of using subgoals, you must
breakdown the topics to be studied and focus on each in an organized sequence.
32. You have to cook dinner for 30 people on Saturday of this coming weekend. Your
apartment is a mess, and you have nothing to wear. You decide to do your laundry
Thursday night, buy the groceries on Friday, clean the apartment Saturday morning, and
cook the dinner Saturday evening. This process of defining intermediate problems is
known as
creating subgoals.
33. Who would benefit the most from making subgoals?
Suki has to read a chapter in her sociology textbook.
34. Ivan has misplaced his keys. If he decides to use an algorithmic approach to find
them, he will
start going through each drawer in his house.
35. What is the main difference between an algorithm and a heuristic?
An algorithm always leads to a correct solution, while a heuristic does not.
36. When comparing algorithms and heuristics, what is a potential advantage of using
heuristics for solving real-life problems?
Convenience
37. Cathy just got transferred to a new department. She has long believed that her new
supervisor is a cranky, disagreeable person. According to confirmation bias, what will
Cathy most likely do on her first day in the new supervisor's department?
She will look for negative behaviors on the part of the supervisor.

38. Maria is extremely active in politics. She has strong conservative beliefs about what
is correct and what is not. Each day when she reads the newspaper, she pays close
attention to the editorial section in particular. According to confirmation bias, what will
she do when she reads them?
She will only read the editorials that she agrees with.
39. Many smokers like to point to the late George Burns, a famous actor who smoked
cigars continuously for many years and lived to be nearly 100, as evidence that smoking
is relatively harmless. These individuals tend to ignore the thousands of people who die
every year from lung cancer. They are utilizing
confirmation bias.
40. After the outcome of an election is announced, you state that you knew all along what
the outcome would be. This is a form of
hindsight bias.
42. The fact that we hear about airplane crashes on the news more often than we hear
about automobile crashes may lead us to believe that we are more likely to die in a plane
than a car. This is an example of a(n)
availability heuristic.
43. Samantha's belief that Gabe, who is muscular and wearing gym shorts, is a member
of the football team is an example of
the representativeness heuristic.
44. You would be most likely to seek out information that refutes your hypothesis when
you engage in
Critical thinking
45. Which activity probably requires mindfulness?
Studying psychology
46. Who is LEAST likely to exhibit mindfulness as part of their regular job
responsibilities?
The usher at the movie theater
47. Being receptive to other ways of looking at things is best described as
open-mindedness.
48. ________ thinking is best when a problem has only one right answer.
Convergent
49. Which of the following is NOT a descriptor of creative thinkers?
Externally motivated
50. Creative thinkers are NOT usually

motivated by the feedback of others.


1. Thomas Edison invented the lightbulb only because he experimented with thousands
of different kinds of materials for a filament before he found one that worked (carbon).
This shows that at the most basic level, we can solve problems through _____.
trial and error

2. _____ involves repeated tests for differences between the desired outcome and what
currently exists.
Means-ends analysis

3. According to the text, the most frequently used problem-solving heuristic is:
means-ends analysis.

4. Millie is stumped by a problem in her pre-calculus text. She furtively glances at the
answer provided in the back of the text to get an idea of how the solution should look
before she returns to the problem. Millie's strategy most closely resembles the problemsolving heuristic of:
working backward.

5. The study of insight is associated with the German psychologist _____; he studied
problem solving among _____.
Kohler; chimpanzees

6. _____ is defined as a sudden awareness of the relationship among problem


elements; it is thought to lead rapidly to the problem's solution.
Insight

7. The text's discussion of insight suggests that its key characteristic is its:
suddenness.

8. Which of the following impediments to effective problem solving is INCORRECTLY


matched with an illustrative problem?
Functional fixednesswater jar problem

9. _____ refers to the tendency for old patterns of problem solving to persist.
Mental set

10. A jeweler is unable to fix a particular mounting in a ring because she can imagine
only the conventional uses for her tools. This best demonstrates which of the following?
Functional fixedness

11. _____ is the tendency to seek out and weight


more heavily information that supports one's initial hypothesis and to ignore
contradictory information that supports alternative hypotheses or solutions.
Confirmation bias

12. Nigel often cites newspaper editorials favoring the presidential candidate he
supports; he appears to ignore editorials critical of the candidate. Nigel appears prone
to:
the confirmation bias.

13. The ability to generate original ideas or develop novel solutions to problems is
known as:
creativity.

14. Someone relying on convergent thinking would answer _____ to the query "What
can you do with a toothbrush?"
"You brush your teeth with it"

15. As compared to less creative individuals, creative persons:


prefer more complex stimuli.

16. Which of the following is true of creativity?


Cognitive complexity is an important aspect of creativity.

17. Traditional intelligence tests tend to assess _____ thinking; tests of creativity tap into
_____.
convergent; divergent thinking

18. Phonology is the study of:


speech sounds.

19. Linguists have identified more than _____ different phonemes among all the world's
languages.
more than 800

20. Approximately how many phonemes are found in English?


52

21. In written language, letters most closely represent _____, whereas sentences may
be said to reflect _____.
phonemes; syntax

22. Which of the following sequences correctly orders the components of language, from
the smallest or most specific to the broadest?
Phoneme syntax semantics

23. What is meant by the notion of a critical period for language acquisition?
It is the time in one's childhood in which a child is particularly sensitive to language cues and
24. The text reports the case of a girl named Genie, who was exposed to virtually no
language from the age of 20 months until the age of 13. In what way does Genie's case

offer support for the notion of a critical period in language acquisition?


Even with intensive instruction, Genie acquired only a very small vocabulary after
the age of 13; furthermore, she never mastered the complexities of language.

25. You are creating a language development timeline for a class presentation. Along
the top of a display board, you write the following ages in sequence: 6 months 1 year
2 years 3 years
How should you label these ages, from youngest to oldest?
Babbling first words telegraphic speech overgeneralization

26. Dorian is 2 years old; Constance is 2.5. Dorian's vocabulary probably contains
around _____ words; Constance's, _____ words.
about 50; several hundred

27. Connie is telling her mother a story about a scary dog she encountered in a
neighbor's yard. "Then I runned away," Connie concludes. Which language acquisition
phenomenon is Connie demonstrating? About how old is Connie?
Connie is overgeneralizing. She is probably 3-4 years old.

28. The theory that language acquisition follows the principles of reinforcement and
conditioning is known as the _____ approach.
learning-theory

29. The view that language development is produced through a combination of


genetically determined predispositions and environmental circumstances that help teach
language is known as the _____ approach.
interactionist

30. Theorists taking an interactionist approach to language acquisition:


agree that the brain is hardwired to acquire language.

31. The _____ hypothesis suggests language leads to thought.


linguistic-relativity

32. Which figure best approximates the number of Americans for whom English is a
second language?
47 million

33. In _____, students are educated in their native language and in English
simultaneously; in _____, they are educated only in English.
bilingual education; immersion programs

35. You tell your roommate, "I misplaced my wallet." Your roommate exclaims, "Oh my
goodness, you lost your wallet?" You respond, "No, I didn't lose my wallet, I misplaced
it." This exchange best demonstrates the ________ aspect of language.
semantic

36. The bicycle talked the boy into buying a candy bar. This sentence is
syntactically correct but semantically incorrect.

37. Evidence of the role of language in cognitive activities includes the fact that
memory is stored in the form of words.

38. Critics of the work of Benjamin Whorf maintain that


people's perceptions are independent of the words they know.

39. Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for how parents should talk
to their babies?
Use only words that your infant will be able to understand.

40. The term universal linguist refers to the idea that


infants can distinguish all of the sounds that make up human speech.

1. In the introduction to its discussion of intelligence, your text suggests that conceptions of
intelligence vary cross-culturally. To the Trukese of the South Pacific, for example, intelligence
may mean the ability to navigate on the open water without technological assistance; to an
American high schooler, it may mean the ability to score well on standardized tests of academic
achievement and aptitude. Nevertheless, one element of the understanding of intelligence that is
consistent across culture is:

the ability to use the resources provided by one's environment.


2. Ashley, a psychology major, remarks that she has become interested in the study of
intelligence. In other words, Ashley is interested in:
the capacity to understand the world, think rationally, and use resources effectively.
3. The g-factor is:
a broad factor that supports every aspect of intelligence.
4. Laverne's scores on different parts of an IQ test are very different from one another. Laverne's
profile of scores on the test:
contradicts the view of intelligence offered by early theorists such as Spearman.
5. Early theorists such as Spearman argued that g represented general intelligence. According to
these theorists, individuals high in g:
have an advantage in every intellectual endeavor.
6. Early theorists inferred the existence of a general intelligence g factor from:
the positive correlations among tests of different intellectual skills.
7. In what way do current theories of intelligence differ from those offered earlier in
psychology's history?
Contemporary theories propose that there may be many multiple forms of intelligence, rather
than just one.
8. Intelligence that reflects the ability to reason abstractly is termed _____ intelligence.
Fluid
9. In contrast to _____, _____ is more a reflection of the culture in which a person is raised.
fluid intelligence; crystallized intelligence
10. Jody is completing a test in which she has to name as many state capitals as she can in one
minute; Alex is trying to complete analogies between pairs of abstract diagrams. Jody is taking a
test of _____ intelligence; Alex, a test of _____.
crystallized intelligence; fluid intelligence
11. Studies of changes in intelligence as a function of aging suggest that:
fluid intelligence tends to decline with age in adults.
12. According to the text, a positive feature of Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences is:
that it has led to the development of intelligence tests that allow test takers to be creative.
13. Gardner's theory includes each of the following types of intelligence EXCEPT:
tacit intelligence.
14. Bodily kinesthetic intelligence refers to skills:

in using the whole anatomy or various portions of it in the solution of problems or in the
construction of products or displays.
15. Dancers, athletes, actors, and surgeons display:
bodily kinesthetic intelligence.
16. Logical-mathematical intelligence refers to skills:
in problem solving and scientific thinking.
17. Knowledge of the internal aspects of oneself is termed as _____.
intrapersonal intelligence
18. _____ refers to skills involved in the production and use of language.
Linguistic intelligence
19. Collectivist cultures, such as Taiwan's, place a high priority on how individuals relate to each
other. It might be reasonable to hypothesize that Taiwanese adults might outscore American
adults on a test of Gardner's _____ intelligence.
Interpersonal
20. Etta is taking an intelligence test based on Gardner's multiple intelligences theory. How is
Etta's performance likely to be scored?
She will receive a score for each of eight types of intelligence.
21. The _____ area of the brain is critical to juggling many pieces of information simultaneously
and solving new problems.
lateral prefrontal cortex
22. Higher intelligence is related to the thickness of the _____.
cerebral cortex
23. According to Sternberg, intelligence related to overall success in living is known as _____
intelligence.
Practical
24. Traditional tests were designed to relate to _____.
academic success
25. People who are high in _____ intelligence are able to learn general norms and principles and
apply them appropriately.
Practical
26. Which of the following is true of academic success and career success?
Academic success and career success are based on two different types of intelligence.

27. The three types of intelligence proposed by Sternberg include each of the following except
_____ intelligence.
Logical
28. _____ intelligence is the set of skills that underlie the accurate assessment, evaluation,
expression, and regulation of one's mental state.
Emotional
29. The practical problem Alfred Binet was trying to solve when he developed his intelligence
test was:
identifying slow learners for remedial aid.
30. Imagine that overall, 6-year-olds can complete a particular block design puzzle in 5 minutes.
It takes Bailey almost 8 minutes to complete the task. In Binet's terms, Bailey's _____ age is
_____ than 6.
mental; lower
31. The formula for the intelligence quotient as Binet defined it is:
MA/CA x 100.
32. Approximately _____ of the population have an IQ score between 85 and 115.
68%
33. About 95% of the population have an IQ score between _____ and _____.
70; 130
34. Below are several statements about the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. Which statement is
CORRECTLY identified as false?
The same items are used for test-takers of different ages False
35. The most commonly used IQ test in the United States is the:
Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale-IV.
36. Which of the following best expresses the distinction between the WAIS-IV and WISC-IV?
The WAIS-IV is used to test adult intelligence, whereas the WISC-IV is used to test children's
intelligence.
37. Contemporary tests of intelligence are in widespread use in the United States EXCEPT the:
Spearman G Scale.
38. The property by which tests measure consistently what they are trying to measure is known
as _____.
Reliability
39. Which of the following is true about tests?
Test validity and reliability are prerequisites for accurate assessment of intelligence.

40. An online intelligence test yields a different IQ each time you take it. The test is:
not reliable, and probably not valid either.
41. A researcher develops a questionnaire to assess the personality trait of impulsivity among adults. In a journal
article, she presents evidence that college students tend to get essentially the same score if they take the test twice,
two months apart. She also presents the average score, the highest score, and the lowest score obtained by two large
samples: one of 2,000 college students, and one of 750 community-dwelling noncollege adults. However, when you
look at the sample questionnaire items she included in the article, it seems to you that they relate more to whether a
person is sociable, outgoing, and fun than to whether an individual is impulsive. You are questioning the _____ of
the researcher's questionnaire.

Validity
42. Regarding standardized testing, which piece of advice is least likely to be right?
Guess if you don't know.
Peyton has an IQ score of 60. Although her development was typically slower than that
of her peers, she is now able to hold a job and will soon start a family of her own.
Peyton is most probably:
mildly retarded

In approximately _____ of the cases of mental retardation there is an identifiable


biological cause; the most common of these is _____.
one-third; fetal alcohol syndrome

Which of the following alternatives offers the most accurate assessment of the origin of
familial retardation in nature on the one hand, or nurture on the other?
We do not know the extent to which familial retardation reflects nature and
nurture.

Intellectual disability in which no apparent biological defect exists but there is a history
of it in the kin is known as _____ retardation.

Familial

The inclusive philosophy behind the educational mainstreaming of mentally retarded


individuals reflects federal laws passed in the:
mid-1970s.

Regarding the integration of mentally retarded students into regular classrooms, which
of the following statements is true?
In full inclusion programs, mentally retarded students are integrated into regular
classroom activities to a greater extent than in the case of mainstreaming.

Which of the following is true of full inclusion?


Full inclusion is a controversial practice

The IQ of intellectually gifted individuals is _____.


130 or above

In The Bell Curve, Herrnstein and Murray argued that:


the IQ gap between Caucasian and African Americans reflects genetics.

The term _____ refers to a measure of the degree to which a characteristic can be
attributed to genetic factors.
Heritability

Based on the text's discussion of the Flynn effect, how might the IQ of the average 18year-old today compare with that of his/her counterpart 60 years ago?
The IQ score of the average 18-year-old today is about 15 points higher than that
of his/her counterpart 60 years ago.

If an intelligence test produces the same score over multiple administrations but it does
not accurately measure intelligence, then the test is ___________ but not
___________.
reliable; valid

If an outcome measure is normally distributed, this means that


most scores are around the average with some scores being lower or higher.

Challenges to writing culturally fair test questions include ___________ factors.


All of these.

Dr. Ambrose feels that a particular intelligence test is probably culturally biased. Which
of the following test questions would concern Dr. Ambrose the most?
In which month of the year is the Super Bowl played?

Jorge's parents talked and communicated with him a great deal from the time he was
born. Based on the research in the text, which of the following statements is TRUE in
regards to Jorge's IQ?
The stimulation provided by Jorge's parents will positively affect his IQ.

The batting averages of major league baseball players have shown a steady increase
over the last 30 years. This parallels which observation made from the world of
intelligence testing?
Flynn effect

The new term for "mental retardation" is


intellectual disability.

Which of the following represents a practical skill?


Brushing your teeth

Which theory of intelligence is best suited to explain the abilities of individuals with
savant syndrome, or individuals with extremely high levels of intelligence in one area
and virtually little or none in other areas?
Gardener

Based on the text's discussion, which of the following alternatives best captures the
difference, if any, between the terms mental retardation and intellectual disability?

Intellectual disability is becoming the preferred term, while mental retardation is


the traditional term.

People whose IQ score ranges from 40-54 are most probably:


moderately retarded.

Intellectual disability in which no apparent biological defect exists but there is a history
of it in the kin is known as _____ retardation.
Familial

Terman's long-term study of the intellectually gifted found that they tend to be:
outgoing.

Imagine that American children and African children are asked to memorize the
locations of objects on a chessboard. In one condition, the objects are rocks; in the
other, they are household objects common in the West. What might you predict
regarding the children's performance?
The performance of the African children will exceed that of the American children
when the objects are rocks but not when they are Western household objects.

A psychologist has developed a new test to measure the verbal ability of third graders.
To determine the range of scores (and what is a good and bad score), he gives the test

to 10,000 third graders. In the future, he will compare the performance of others to this
reference group. This process of determining meaningful scores establishes testing
norms.

A 6-year-old child with a mental age of 6 would have a ratio IQ of


100.

You have been asked to review a set of test items that are being considered for a
standardized intelligence test. The test constructors want to eliminate all items that
contain any possible cultural bias. With this task in mind, which of the following
questions would you eliminate first?
What is the name of the main character in The Wizard of Oz?

Most subjects in Terman's study were


doctors, lawyers, and businesspeople.

Which of Gardner's intelligences would be LEAST important for a car salesperson?


Bodily-kinesthetic

A test that does not discriminate against the members of any minority group is termed
as a _____ test.
culture-fair

A high school football coach decides to use the time taken to run up 100 stairs as a test
for running endurance. He tests every team member on three consecutive days and
finds that the times for each person are very much the same on all three trials. His test
for endurance appears to have good
reliability.

Dhiraj has an insightful mind and excels at solving new types of problems with unique
solutions. Which of Sternberg's intelligences would best explain this?
Creative

1. Which figure best approximates the number of people in the United States who are
overweight?
200 million
2. In the U.S., about _____% of the population is overweight; nearly _____% are obese.
65; 25
3. People with a BMI greater than 30 are considered:
Obese
4. Society's view of the ideal body:
varies from one culture to another.
5. _____ leads the body to store excess sugar in the blood as fats and carbohydrates.
Insulin
6. Which of the following biological hunger regulators is CORRECTLY identified and
described?
Ghrelin - communicates hunger to the brain

7. Charlotte meets Will, an old high school friend, at a party and is startled to learn his weight
increased from 150 to 280 pounds in the year since his automobile accident. Damage to which
hypothalamic nucleus might account for his weight gain?
Ventromedial
8. _____ is the rate at which food is converted to energy and expended by the body.
Metabolism
9. When is the set point for weight established during an individual's life?
During the first year of life
10. _____ is a severe eating disorder in which people may refuse to eat while denying that their
behavior and appearancewhich can become skeleton-likeare unusual.
Anorexia nervosa
11. Meghan is bulimic. Which of the following statements is MOST LIKELY to be accurate?
Meghan is neither more nor less likely than other individuals of her age to be overweight.
12. As many as _____ of women suffer from bulimia at some point in their lives.
10%
13. In what way do the results of brain-scanning studies support or discredit biological and
environmental contributions to anorexia nervosa and bulimia?
They support biological contributions to anorexia nervosa because the brains of anorexics
responded differently to food stimuli than did the brains of healthy individuals.
14. How often should you exercise?
At least 30 consecutive minutes, three times each week
15. Each semester, during advising week, Dylan asks his faculty advisor to identify the easiest
courses and teachers that would satisfy his degree requirements. Dylan's need for achievement is
probably:
Low
16. The _____ is an interest in establishing and maintaining relationships with other people.
Need for affiliation
17. Larissa is highly invested in initiating and maintaining relationships. She is high in the need
for:
Affiliation
18. The _____ is a tendency to seek impact, control, or influence over others and to be seen as an
influential individual.
need for power

19. _____ refers to the factors that direct and energize the behavior of humans and other
organisms.
Motivation
20. Declan, a PhD candidate, tells his department's undergraduate student organization that his
dissertation research is in the area of motivation. Declan is investigating:
the factors that direct and energize the behavior of humans and other organisms.
21. When psychologists first tried to explain motivation, they turned to _____.
Instincts
22. Which of the following statements best expresses the fate of instinct approaches to
motivation within mainstream psychology?
Instinct approaches to motivation still play a role in certain theories, especially those based on
evolutionary approaches that focus on our genetic inheritance.
23. The first two theoretical approaches to motivation that attained prominence in the history of
modern psychology were:
the instinct approach, then the drive-reduction approach.
24. Drive-reduction approaches first appeared in the psychology of motivation in the:
1940s
25. Which approach to motivation is CORRECTLY paired with a behavior to which it is
especially appropriate?
Drive-reductioneating
26. Motivational tension that energizes behavior to fulfill a need is termed a(n):
Drive
27. To which of the following behaviors is drive theory LEAST applicable?
Studying long hours
28. Does drive theory offer a comprehensive account of motivation? Why or why not?
No. Drive theory offers a satisfactory explanation of physiological motives, but fails to account
for more psychologically oriented motives.
29. What is homeostasis?
A built-in tendency to regulate bodily conditions
30. The arousal approach to motivation suggests that:
if levels of stimulation and activity are too low, we will try to increase them by seeking
stimulation.
31. How do arousal approaches to motivation differ from drive-reduction approaches?

Arousal approaches suggest that we are sometimes motivated to increase rather than decrease our
level of stimulation.
32. Of the following individuals, whose behavior may most easily be explained using an arousal
approach to motivation?
Artie, who loves to bungee jump
33. Incentive approaches to motivation are:
theories suggesting that motivation stems from the desire to obtain valued external goals.
34. _____ approaches to motivation emphasize the appealing properties of external objects or
goals.
Incentive
35. Cognitive approaches to motivation are:
theories suggesting that motivation is a product of people's thoughts, expectations, and goal.
36. Shellie takes college courses that interest her and enjoys learning for its own sake; Tori takes
courses in which she is fairly certain she'll do well and studies mainly to ensure good grades.
Shellie is _____ motivated; Tori, _____ motivated.
intrinsically; extrinsically
37. "Dance like no one's watching. Work like you don't need the money. Love like you've never
been hurt," exhorts a sign on Dr. Elliott's office door. This sign underscores the importance of
_____ motivation.
Intrinsic
38. Dr. Fiore conducts a study in which two groups of participants work on challenging puzzles:
one group is extrinsically motivated whereas the other is intrinsically motivated. Thus, one group
is paid for its participation, while the other is not. Dr. Fiore records the length of time each
participant spent working on the puzzle and how enjoyable each participant rated the puzzle.
Based on the text's discussion of intrinsic and extrinsic motivation, what might you expect?
The paid group would not work as long on the puzzle and like it less than the unpaid group.
39. Which of the following is true of intrinsic and extrinsic motivation?
In some cases providing rewards for desirable behavior actually may decrease intrinsic
motivation.
40. According to Abraham Maslow, a major prerequisite for becoming self-actualized is having:
all of one's lower-order needs fulfilled.
41. A state of self-fulfillment in which people realize their highest potential in their own unique
way is known as _____ in Maslow's model.
self-actualization
42. According to self-determination theory, _____ is the need to produce desired outcomes.

Competence
43. According to self-determination theory, _____ is the perception that we have control over our
own lives.
Autonomy
44. According to self-determination theory, _____ is the need to be involved in close, warm
relationships with others.
Relatedness
45. After watching an episode of the Dr. Phil TV show, Shanae wonders why anyone would want
to air their interpersonal dirty laundry in front of 70 million viewers. Shanae is most likely
wondering about the ________ of Dr. Phil's guests.
Motivation
46. Dr. Know-It-All hosts a TV talk show. One of his guests, Joe College, complains of his
intense annoyance with people who talk on their cell phones while driving. Joe asks Dr. KnowIt-All to explain why he reacts so strongly to this type of situation. Dr. Know-It-All immediately
pronounces that Joe has an instinct for cell phone irritation. Is Dr. Know-It-All correct to assume
that instinct is the cause of Joe's behavior?
No-most behavior is too complex to be explained on the basis of instinct
47. The act of going to the refrigerator because you are hungry best represents a(n)
Drive
48. You just ran a marathon in very hot weather and perspired heavily. According to drive
reduction theory, your body will have a(n) ________ for water, which will produce a(n)
________ for water, which will lead to a ________ to get water.
need; drive; motivation
49. When you exercise, you begin breathing more rapidly to provide oxygen to your cells. This
increase in breathing is an attempt to restore
homeostasis.
50. You stayed up all night to study for a math exam. After the test, you returned to your dorm
room and slept for seven hours. Your sleeping behavior was regulated by the body's tendency to
maintain
Homeostasis
51. Learning to perform a task so well that it becomes automatic is referred to as
Overlearning
52. Paige is an expert at golf and is bored by the thought of the upcoming tournament. Mary is
pretty good at golf and is somewhat excited but not overly anxious about the tournament. Sara
has only recently learned to play but has very high expectations and is really nervous about the

tournament. Jenna is also a beginner but she does not expect to play well. According to optimum
arousal theory, who will perform the best?
Mary
53. According to the Yerkes-Dodson Law, optimum performance is achieved when one is
Moderately anxious
54. What happens when your blood sugar level gets too low?
You feel hungry.
55. A sprinter would best be served by eating ________ prior to a race.
Chocolate
56. A marathon runner would best be served by eating ________ prior to a race.
Lasagna
57. Gary wants to lose weight by reducing his caloric intake. He eats a candy bar for breakfast
instead of a bowl of cereal because the candy bar has fewer calories. Is Gary doing the right
thing?
Yes, the body needs high sugar intake at breakfast.
58. After being in a car accident, Sally's ventromedial hypothalamus was severely damaged. She
should expect that she will
gain weight rapidly.
59. "I am so tired of dieting. It seems like it controls my life. I wonder what my real weight
would be if I just ate only when I'm hungry." This dieter is curious about her
set point.
60. Danielle is a normal weight female, whereas Ron is an obese male. Whenever Danielle and
Ron go out to dinner together, Ron always eats more food. Ron, a psychology major, correctly
explains this difference in food intake by pointing out that
he has more fat cells than Danielle and he is not satiated until all his fat cells are full.
61. Paris thinks her best friend, Nicole, may be suffering from an undiagnosed case of anorexia
nervosa. She shares her concerns with Nicole, but Nicole insists that anorexia nervosa is "no big
deal." What is the most serious consequence of anorexia nervosa?
It has the highest mortality rate of any psychological disorder
62. Which of the following individuals is most at risk for developing anorexia nervosa?
Jill is 17 and lives in the suburbs.
63. Though her weight is normal, Ashley is terrified of becoming heavy. She knows she should
stick to a healthy diet, but she often consumes huge servings of junk foodup to 5,000 calories
in one sitting. Desperate to keep from gaining weight, she then uses laxatives and diuretics to
purge the calories. Ashley is suffering from

bulimia nervosa.
65. According to Maslow, before you can feel safe, you need to
be satisfied physically.
66. According to Maslow, Kenny probably has trouble committing to a relationship because
his expectations are too high.
67. While free breakfast and lunches provided at school are an attempt to satisfy one of Maslow's
hierarchy of needs, students may still fail to achieve unless they
feel safe at school.
68. According to Maslow, self-actualization is possible
only after all other needs have been fulfilled.
69. If you had to write a research paper on Maslow's hierarchy of motives, which of the
following titles would you choose to capture the essence of Maslow's theory?
"Be all that you can be, from eating right to feeling content."
70. The impact of extrinsic motivation depends on
the behavior being rewarded.
72. Which of the following is most related to extrinsic motivation?
Reward
73. Marsha does a good job because she knows her performance will result in a bonus if she
meets her goals. Dianna does an adequate job but lacks motivation to perform in a timely
manner. Georgia does a good job because she feels a sense of accomplishment when she meets
her goals. All three women do the same kind of work. Who is likely to be the most competent?
Georgia
74. Research on delayed gratification indicates that the best way to resist temptation is to
focus on other activities rather than the forbidden activity.
"Fight-or-flight" responses entail activity of the _____ nervous system.
Sympathetic

According to the text, the functions of emotions include which of the following?
Helping us interact more effectively with others

Hakiro, a Japanese, reports experiencing hagaii. He is experiencing a:


mood of vulnerable heartache colored by frustration.

According to the _____ theory of emotion, emotional experience is a reaction to bodily


events occurring as a result of an external situation.
James-Lange

One of Cannon's major objections to the James-Lange theory of emotion was that:
the sympathetic nervous system was not given a more prominent role.

With respect to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, more recent research:


has disconfirmed the idea that emotional experiences are controlled by the thalamus.

Which alternative below correctly identifies one of the results in Schachter and Singer's
experiment?
The confederate's behavior had the expected effect on participants' emotional state.

In PET scan studies, participants have been asked to recall either very happy or very
sad events. What did the results of such studies show?
The two emotions produced opposite patterns of activation in certain areas of the brain.

Dr. Lynch shows a) members of a preliterate Andean culture and b) American college
students a series of photos of either Andeans or Americans displaying emotional

expressions. She asks Andeans and Americans to identify the emotion displayed in
each photo. Based on previous research, what might Dr. Lynch predict?
Participants should identify emotions accurately both when they are displayed by
members of their own cultural group and when they are displayed by members of the
other group.

Which of the following are included in the definition of emotion?


All of these

The most effective element of the polygraph test lies in the


belief it is accurate in detecting deception.

Polygraph examiners can


record physiological responses.

What is the main problem with using polygraph results as an indication of whether or not
a person is lying?
Different emotions can cause the same physiological changes.

According to the James-Lange theory of emotions, crying over spilled milk will result in
sorrow because you are crying.

"It seemed like the two cars crossed the finish line at exactly the same time," the
commentator yelled. Which theory of emotion most closely resembles this outcome?
Cannon-Bard

According to the two-factor theory, if Shelby wants her boyfriend to find her more
attractive, she should approach him after
bungee jumping.

Which of the following theories is best supported by the facial feedback hypothesis?
James-Lang

A professor conducts an experiment in which she asks her students to either hold a pen
between their teeth or hold a pen between their lips. After five minutes, she finds that
the students who held the pen between their teeth reported being happier than those
who held it between their lips. These results most strongly support the
facial feedback hypothesis.

What effect, if any, does engaging in altruistic behavior have on one's well-being?
Increases happiness

The concept of visceral experience can be attributed to which of the following theories
of emotion? James-Lange

The _____, a limbic system structure, is strongly involved in our experience of emotion.
Amygdala

Which of the following best describes the male participants' thoughts/feelings regarding
the female experimenter in the Capilano River Bridge Experiment? Men found the
experimenter on the high bridge more sexually attractive than the one on the low bridge.

Tim and Margaret are enjoying a picnic on the edge of a large forest. Suddenly, a huge
black bear invades their space and heads for the picnic basket. According to the James
Lange theory of emotions, the couple will
run away and then experience the emotion of fear as a result of the physical changes in
their bodies.

Sarah, from Tahiti, reports experiencing musu. She is experiencing a:


feeling of reluctance to yield to unreasonable demands made by one's parents.

One of Cannon's major objections to the James-Lange theory of emotion was that:
physiological arousal alone leads to the perception of emotion.

According to the facial-feedback hypothesis:


facial expressions can actually determine our emotional experience.

Max, a German, reports experiencing schadenfreude. He is experiencing a:

feeling of pleasure over another person's difficulties.

Sarah, from Tahiti, reports experiencing musu. She is experiencing a:


feeling of reluctance to yield to unreasonable demands made by one's parents.
5. Gender _____ include the set of expectations regarding the appropriate behavior of men,
on the one hand, and women, on the other.
Roles
6. In which part of the world is gender equality the highest?
Iceland
7. On average, in the United States, a woman earns about _____ for every dollar that a man
earns.
$0.80
8. Which of the following is true about differences between men and women?
Men and women are more similar to one another in most respects than dissimilar.
6. When does the male-female difference in the level of aggression become apparent?
By age 2
6. Which of the following is true of potential gender differences in self-esteem?
Men generally have higher self-esteem than do women.
8. Which of the following is true of men's and women's verbal and nonverbal
behavior?
Women's speech is more precise.
8. Identify the accurate statement regarding men's verbal and nonverbal behavior.
In conversations with people of the other sex, men look at their partners about the same
length of time while listening and speaking.
11. Females are often thought to outshine males on verbal tasks. What does
contemporary empirical evidence have to say with respect to this notion?
It's a myththere's basically no difference between men and women in verbal
performance.
12. Hines, Fink, and Alexander studied a group of children whose mothers
accidentally took drugs containing androgen, a hormone, prior to their birth. They
related this concentration of the hormone to the play preferences of the same
children. Which of the following alternatives best expresses the results of the
study?

For both boys and girls, androgen was positively related to male-typical play
preferences.
11. Which of the following statements is true with respect to gender differences in
romantic jealousy?
Men are more likely to become jealous when a female partner is sexually unfaithful than
when she develops a close friendship with another man.
12._____ is the process by which an individual learns the rules and norms of
appropriate behavior.
Socialization
13. The social learning approach argues that gender differences in thought and
behavior reflect the influence of:
parents
14. The female protagonist of a novel is a brave and ferocious woman who fights wars and saves
the people of her motherland. From this information, one can infer that the novel does not
include the stereotypical aspects of _____.
Socialization
15. A movie casts the male lead as a police officer and the female lead as a loving mother who
takes care of the house. This implies that the movie uses the stereotypical aspects of _____.
Socialization
16. The influence of formal education as an agent of gender socialization:
Continues even during the college years
17. A _____ refers to a mental framework that organizes and guides a child's
understanding of information relevant to gender.
Gender schema
18. Ten year old Rowan does not play softball because he thinks it is a girls' sport. Which
of the following would have helped Rowan make this evaluation?
Gender schema
19. Male sex hormones secreted by the testes at puberty are known as _____.
Androgens
20. The male and female sex organs are known as _____.
Genitals
21. Men are capable of sexual activities without any regard to biological cycles because:
the level of androgen production by the testes is fairly constant.
22. Androgen is to estrogen as _____ is to _____.

testes; ovaries
23. The testes produce _____ and the ovaries produce _____.
androgen; estrogen and progesterone
24. Approximately what proportion of men report thinking about sex every day?
Just over half
25. How does human sexual motivation differ from that of other species?
Human sexual motivation varies more dramatically from individual to individual than
does the sexual motivation of other species.
26. The body's erogenous zones:
are especially sensitive to touch.
27. Approximately _____ of people entertain sexual fantasies during intercourse; _____,
these fantasies involve someone other than the current sexual partner.
60%; often
28. Which alternative below best describes the method used in Masters' and Johnson's
pioneering sexual response cycle research?
Controlled laboratory research
29. The period in which an arousing stimulus begins a sequence that prepares the genitals
for sexual intercourse is called the _____ phase.
Excitement
30. During which of the following phases of sexual responsiveness do the penis and
clitoris swell with blood?
Plateau phase
31. Amelia is having a sexual intercourse with her husband; her breasts and vagina are
expanding and her breathing rate has increased. Also, her muscle tension is increasing as
she is preparing for orgasm. Amelia is in the middle which of the following phases of
sexual responsiveness?
Plateau phase
32. Which of the following describes the refractory period?
The interval after orgasm in which the body returns to its unaroused state, reversing the
changes brought about by arousal
33. Female circumcision:
Involves removing the clitoris

34. ________ are glands that produce sex hormones and generate ova in females and
sperm in males.
Gonads
35. In females, the small sensory organ located where the labia meet is called the
Clitoris
36. ________ refers to the social and psychological aspects of being male or female.
Gender
37. The term ________ refers to experiencing one's psychological gender as being
different from one's physical sex.
Transgender
38. In terms of exploring the connection between sex and gender, the biological approach
focuses on
Genes
39. According to Darwin, ________ drives sexual selection.
Competition
40. According to Darwin, Shelly is most likely to go out with Cole if he
can win his tennis match.
41. According to Darwin, sexual selection involves
Competition and choice
42. ________ occurs among members of the same sex as they vie for the opportunity to
mate with members of the opposite sex.
Competition
44. Carolina tells her friends that she helps take care of her little brother because that is
what girls are supposed to do. Carolina's statement describes her
Gender role
45. Any man can be a great leader because men are strong, dominant, and rational. This
statement reflects a gender
Stereotype
46. The difficulty that many divorced fathers experience when trying to gain custody of
their children may be due to
Gender stereotyping
47. The evolutionary perspective predicts that, compared to men, women will be
More selective when choosing a mate
1.

In the year _____, the American Psychiatric Association determined that homosexuality
did not constitute a psychological disorder.
1973

2.
Sexual behavior is abnormal if it is:
Harmful

3
Pioneering investigations of human sexual behavior were conducted beginning in the
1930s by:
Alfred Kinsey

4.
Kinsey's early studies of human sexual behavior exemplify the _____ research
technique.
Survey

5.
Sexual self-stimulation is known as _____.
Masturbation

6.

With respect to premarital sex, to what extent do we find cross-cultural variability in its
incidence on the one hand, and its acceptability on the other?
There is substantial cross-cultural variability in both the incidence and the acceptability
of premarital sex.

7.
Most experts suggest that _____ of both men and women are exclusively gay or lesbian
during extended periods of their lives.
5-10%

8.
According to Alfred Kinsey, heterosexuality and homosexuality are best thought of as:
opposite ends of a continuum.

9.
With respect to the potential genetic basis of homosexuality, studies of identical twins
have revealed that when one twin self-identifies as gay or lesbian:
the other twin is more likely to self-identify as gay or lesbian than is a random member
of the population, even when the twins were raised apart.

10.
The notion that family dynamics and parent-child relationships contribute to
homosexuality is associated with _____; the idea has _____ empirical support.

Freud; little, if any

11.
_____ are people who believe they were born with the body of the other gender.
Transsexuals

12.
Which of the following is true of transsexualism?
A transsexual can seek sex-change operations in which their existing genitals are
surgically removed and the genitals of the desired sex are fashioned.

13.
Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between the terms
hermaphrodite and intersex?
Intersex is a newer term replacing the older term hermaphrodite.

14.
A 2011 survey by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention found that, there is a
_____ chance that a woman will be a victim of a rape within her lifetime; approximately
one _____ of rapes and sexual assaults are reported.
20%; third

15.

Which of the following sequences best reflects the relative frequency with which
American women of different racial or ethnic backgrounds experience rape, from the
most to the least frequent?
Black women non-Latino white women Latino women

16.
Which of the following statements is true of sexual abuse of children?
The abuser is usually about 20 years older than the victim.

17.
In the United States, at least one in _____ individuals will contract a sexually
transmitted infection at some point in their lives; as compared to other industrialized
nations, the rate of sexually transmitted infections in the United States is _____.
four; higher

18.
Which alternative best expresses the proportion of men who experience problems
associated with sexual performance?
One-third

19.
Drug therapy may successfully treat _____; learning or cognitive therapies are useful in
cases of _____.

erectile dysfunction; premature or inhibited ejaculation

20.
Sadie can only achieve an orgasm when she masturbates; she is unable to have an
orgasm when she has sex with her partner. Sadie suffers from:
Anorgasm

21.
Inhibited sexual desire refers to:
sexual dysfunction in which the motivation for sexual activity is restrained or lacking
entirely.

22.
The direction of one's erotic interests refers to a person's
Sexual orientation

23.
Melissa is attracted to members of the opposite sex. She is considered to be
Heterosexual

24.
Geami is attracted to both males and females. Her sexual orientation is best described
as

Bisexual

25.
Donna views herself as a bisexual. Over time, she is most likely to engage in
strictly homosexual behavior or strictly heterosexual behavior.

26.
The occurrence of homosexuality ranges from ________ percent of the population.
2 to 10

27.
Which of the following factors predicts sexual orientation?
None of these

28.
Research on the influence of genes on sexual behavior has revealed that genes
Play a role in determining sexual behavior

29.
According to research, of the boys who engage in extreme gender-nonconforming
activities approximately ________ percent end up being homosexual or bisexual later in
life.

75

30.
The vast majority of "tomboys" turn out to be
Heterosexual

31.
Leslie has two mothers. We can expect that Leslie will
Be relatively unaffected.

32.
In regards to parenting, the best predictor of good psychological adjustment in
adolescence is having
a close relationship with parents.

33.
Which is the correct definition of sexual behavior?
All of these

34.
The ________ phase of human sexual response begins the process of erotic
responsiveness.

Excitement

35.
The most significant difference between males and females regarding the sexual
response pattern occurs at the ________ phase.
Resolution

36.
Patterns for how people should behave sexually are called
Sexual scripts

37.
Kenny believes that sex is mostly about reaching an orgasm. This belief reflects
Kenny's sexual
Script

38.
Based on research, the most effective type of sex education is a(n)
Comprehensive program.

39.
An object or activity that arouses sexual interest and desire is called a
Fetish

1.
Which of the following primarily studies the patterns of growth and change that occur
throughout life?
Developmental psychology

2. Which of the following is true of cross-sectional research?


It compares people of different ages at the same point in time.

3.
Dr. Edward is testing the same individuals repeatedly over time as part of a research
study, while Dr. Janice is comparing the performance of different people of various ages
at the same time. Dr. Irwin is using a _____ research design; Dr. Jenner is using a
_____ design.
longitudinal; cross-sectional

4.
Cross-sectional research designs provide information about age _____ in development
between different age groups. Longitudinal research designs provide information
concerning _____ in behavior over time.
differences; changes,

5.
Dona is a graduate student investigating the development of fine motor skills. She
selects a group of children and assesses their fine motor skills every six months over a
two-year period. In this example, Dona is using a(n) _____ research design.
Longitudinal

6.
Which of the following statements CORRECTLY identifies an advantage or a
disadvantage of the developmental researchers' research designs?
Longitudinal - indicate changes in behavior over time

7.
The difference between cross-sectional research design and longitudinal research
designs is that:
Longitudinal studies assess change in behavior over time, whereas cross-sectional
studies assess differences among groups of people.

8. A normal fertilized egg, or zygote, contains _____ pairs of chromosomes.


23

9.
Which of the following chromosomal combination is present in a typical female child?

XX

10.
The one-celled entity formed by the union of an egg and sperm is called a:
zygote.

11.
Two weeks after conception, the developing fertilized egg is called a(n) _____.
embryo

12.
The longest part of a pregnancy, from the 8 th week through to birth, is the _____ period.
Fetal

13.
Sensitive or critical periods in development can occur:
either before or after birth.

14.
Clarissa's mother was thirty-eight years old when she gave birth to her. Clarissa suffers
from an intellectual disability and doctors have diagnosed that her condition was due to
the extra chromosome that she had received at the moment of conception. Identify the
condition afflicting Clarissa.

Down syndrome

15.
A teratogen is:
an environmental agent that can produce a birth defect.

16.
Dennis's mother had consumed a substantial amount of alcohol during her pregnancy;
Dominic's intelligence is below normal, his growth is slowed, and his facial features are
slightly deformed. Ellis's mother had also consumed a small amount of alcohol, and Ellis
shows some but not all of the problems Dennis displays. Dennis suffers from _____;
Ellis suffers from _____.
fetal alcohol syndrome; fetal alcohol effects

17.
Girls typically experience the adolescent growth spurt _____ than do boys.
2 years earlier

18.
During the Vietnam War, Michael moved from the United States to Canada to avoid the
draft. He didn't want to go to war because he was afraid he might be killed or seriously
injured. Michael's reasons for not going to war reflect the _____ stage of moral
reasoning established by Kohlberg.

Preconventional

19.
Jack registered as a conscientious objector during the Vietnam War. He believes that it
is wrong to take human life. He is willing to serve time in jail, rather than take part in an
armed conflict. Jack's reasons for not going to war reflect the _____ stage of moral
reasoning established by Kohlberg.
Postconventional

fe
20.
The primary criticism of Kohlberg's theory of moral development is:
its potential lack of generality across cultures

21.
Jacques is thirteen years old. On Monday, Jacques announces to his parents that he
wants to be called "Jack." On Wednesday, he says he wants to drop out of school. On
Friday, he says he wants to get a tattoo and become an architect. In Erikson's terms,
Jacques is most likely experiencing the _____ crisis.
identity-versus-role-confusion

22.
According to Erikson, the psychosocial crisis of intimacy versus isolation occurs:
during the early adult years.

23.
According to Erikson, people enter the generativity-versus-stagnation stage during
_____.
middle adulthood

24.
Which of the following statements reflects a genuine contribution of Erikson's theory of
psychosocial development?
He recognized that psychosocial development is essentially a lifelong process.

25. Which alternative below best approximates the frequency of adolescent suicide?
It is among the top five leading causes of death among teenagers; every 90 minutes, a
teenager commits suicide.

26.
From the late teens into the mid-20s, individuals are in a transitional phase that
developmental psychologists call _____adulthood.
Emerging

27.
The time at which a woman's menstrual cycle slows down and stops is called:
Menopause

28.
Which of the following figures best approximates the percentage of married women with
school-age children who work outside the home?
75%

29.
Which theory of aging suggests that human cells have a built-in time limit to their
reproduction and that they are no longer able to divide after a certain time?
Genetic preprogramming theory

30.
Age-related declines are more apparent in _____ memory than in _____ memory.
episodic; semantic

31.
According to the _____ theory of aging, aging produces a gradual withdrawal from the
world on physical, psychological, and social levels.
Disengagement

32.
Bea is 70 years old and works part-time at a discount store. She has kept herself busy
by engaging in various activities she enjoyed during middle adulthood. She volunteers

occasionally at a local food bank, and enjoys the company of her family and the
members of her bridge club. According to the _____ theory of aging, Bea is aging
successfully.
Activity

33.
According to Elisabeth Kbler-Ross, which of the following is the stage in which a
person aware of his impending death is likely to try to think of ways to postpone death
and dedicate their lives to religion?
Bargaining

34.
At the preconventional level of moral development, individuals decide right and wrong
based on
punishments or rewards.

35.
According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, individuals who are willing to risk
their lives and freedom for a belief operate on the ___________ level of moral
development.
Postconventional

36.
According to Kohlberg, which of the following phrases describes the basis of moral
reasoning in early childhood?
Don't get caught.

37.
The Eisenbergs want to raise their children to be highly moral individuals. They should
provide their children with
Information on expected behaviors.

38.
Recent research on prosocial behavior in children has found that
a supportive parenting style is related to more prosocial behavior in children.

39.
Puberty marks the onset of
adolescence.

40.
Erikson described early adulthood as a period during which the person is building a
network of social relationships and making close contact with potential mates. The crisis
experience at this time is known as
intimacy vs. isolation.

1. A _____ reflex prompts babies to clear their throat.


Gag
2. Which infant reflex is CORRECTLY matched with its description?
Babinski reflex; an infant's toes fan out when the edge of the sole of the foot is stroked
3.As psychologists use the term, habituation means:
decrease in the response to a stimulus that occurs after repeated presentations of the same
stimulus.
4. Harry Harlow completed a number of studies in which baby rhesus monkeys were raised with
two artificial mothers. One of the mothers was made of wire and delivered food; the other was
made of cloth and provided no food. Harlow found that when the infant monkeys were startled or
frightened, they:
preferred the cloth surrogate that did not provide food.
5. The "strange situation" experiment is associated with _____; it helps classify the attachment
behavior of _____.
Ainsworth; newborns
6. At twelve months of age, Jordan is classified as a securely attached child by his pediatrician on
the basis of the criteria set by Mary Ainsworth. Which of the following behaviors in the strange
situation would be most consistent with this classification?
Jordan is moderately distressed when mother leaves him alone and pleased when she returns.
7. According to Mary Ainsworth, when a child with avoidant attachment style is exposed to the
strange situation experiment, he/she will:
show no concern when the mother leaves the room.
8. Rebecca takes her 1-year-old son, Adam, to visit an infant-toddler program in which she hopes
to enroll him. Adam appears very anxious and is unwilling to explore and play with the toys,
even though Rebecca is close by. When Rebecca leaves the room to fill out some forms, Adam
becomes extremely upset and remains inconsolable. When Rebecca returns, Adam stays close to
her, holding onto her leg. However, Adam makes it very clear he does not want her to touch him
or pick him up. In fact, he starts kicking and hitting her. In the context of the findings of Mary
Ainsworth, which term best describes Adam's attachment style?
Ambivalent
9. For children from poor, disadvantaged homes, high-quality out-of-home child care is
associated with:
long-term intellectual gains.

10. The study of attachment style is associated with _____ and the study of parenting style is
associated with _____.
Ainsworth; Baumrind
11. Joan's mom and dad believe that parents know best. They expect Joan to obey all parental
rules without uttering a word, and they are quick to impose stern punishments if she does not
comply. In Baumrind's terms, Joan's parents are:
authoritarian.
12. Hailey's parents demand that she follow their instructions without asking any question.
Isabella's parents are firm as well, but are more likely to reason with her and explain the
consequences of her behavior. In Baumrind's terms, Hailey's parents are _____; Isabella's are
_____.
authoritarian; authoritative
13. Walter's parents strongly believe that Walter should make his own decisions, so they set very
few rules regarding homework, bedtime, and household chores. Since they believe that freedom
and responsibility are important, they patiently tolerate all of Walter's behavior, whether childish
or mature. The parenting style adopted by Walter's parents is called:
Permissive
14. According to Erikson, the first stage of a child's psychosocial development is the _____
stage.
trust-versus-mistrust
16. Derwood is 8 years old and he likes to do art projects at school. However, the projects he has
completed so far have not received good grades, and in several instances his friends have made
fun of his work. Based on Erikson's theory, Derwood is most likely to develop:
feelings of inferiority.
17. Which of the following Swiss scholars had suggested in the 1970s that children around the
world proceed through a series of four stages in a fixed order?
Piaget
18. Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the order of Piaget's stages of cognitive
development, from birth through adolescence?
sensorimotor preoperational concrete operational formal operational
19. Which age range below is INCORRECTLY labeled with its Piagetian stage?
12 yearsadulthood; postoperational stage
20. During the sensorimotor period:
understanding is based mainly on basic sensory and motor abilities.
21. According to Piaget, when an infant recognizes that objects continue to exist even when they
are no longer in sight, the infant has understood the principle of:

object permanence.
22. A child demonstrates that she understands the idea of object permanence and egocentrism,
but fails to understand the concept of conservation. In the context of the Piagetian stages, she is
most likely in the _____ stage.
Preoperational
23. According to Piaget, mastery of the principle of conservation marks the beginning of the
_____ stage of development.
concrete operational
24. Preschoolers can hold only two or three chunks of information in short-term memory, 5-yearolds can hold four, and 7-year-olds can hold _____.
Five
25. Two children are participating in a memory research: Heather, a preschooler, and Illeana, a
sixth-grader. When the children fail a recall task, the researcher asks each child what she might
do to succeed at the task the next time. Heather suggests that she would simply try again; Illeana
proposes that she might try to write the items down. The difference in the girls' responses most
clearly illustrates an increase in _____ during childhood.
metacognitive ability
26. As compared to Piaget, Vygotsky placed _____ emphasis on the _____ bases of cognitive
development.
more; social
27. A cross-sectional study is one in which
different age groups are tested at the same time.
28. The nurture side of the nature vs. nurture debate refers to
experience.
29. The majority of children of divorced parents
do not have adjustment problems.
30. The ability to overcome hardship during childhood again and again is referred to as
resilience.
32. Which of the following is an accurate descriptor of an infant reflex?
All of these
33. According to Piaget, accommodation refers to
adjusting current schemas in order to make sense of new experiences.

34. Incorporating new information into existing theories is to ___________ as modifying


existing theories in light of new information is to ___________.
assimilation; accommodation
35. In Piaget's cognitive development theory, the ___________ stage occurs during the period of
infancy.
sensorimotor
36. You tried to play peek-a-boo with your 6-month-old infant, but whenever you hid your face,
he would cry. You try it again three months later, and now he laughs and enjoys the game, trying
to uncover your face with his hands. Your baby has now developed
object permanence.
37. You give your younger brother Joe a big cookie. He accidently drops it, and it breaks into
many smaller parts. Suddenly he gets very excited and says, "Joe, look how many cookies I have
now!" He is most likely in which developmental stage?
Preoperational
38. You arrange two rows of pennies so they are equal in length. A child views the rows and
states that they have the same amount of pennies. You spread out the pennies in the bottom row
so that this row is longer than the top one. The child now states that the bottom row has more
pennies. This child is in Piaget's ___________ stage of development.
Preoperational
39. A wise mother will give both her 3-year-old child and her 4-year-old child identically shaped
glasses of soft drink to avoid conflict over who has the most. The mother is showing her
awareness of her children's difficulty with
conservation.
40. According to Piaget, egocentrism refers to
the difficulty in perceiving things from another person's point of view.
41. Four-year-old Jennifer mistakenly believes that her mother would like to receive a doll for
Christmas. This best illustrates Piaget's concept of
egocentrism.
42. Between ages 7 and 11, children can think in sophisticated ways as long as what they are
thinking about is tangibly represented. Piaget calls this stage
concrete operations.
43. Bob has an unknown liquid and must determine what it is. He decides to systematically use a
number of tests to determine the correct answer. What stage of cognitive development has Bob
reached?
Formal operational
44. The ability to use abstract concepts is a key component of the ___________ stage of Piaget's
theory of cognitive development.

formal operations
45. In Harry and Margaret Harlow's classic attachment study, they found that monkeys
were more attached to the artificial mothers who were warm and soft.
46. Which of the following most accurately describes Ainsworth's strange situation?
Caregiver leaves infant with stranger and returns later.
47. Erikson's theory is based on the assumption that
each person faces a set of predictable life-changing challenges at various stages of life.
48. Mazie's mom is loving and nurturing, sets clear boundaries, and engages in a lot of verbal
give and take. In terms of parenting styles, she would be described as
authoritative.
49. Ian came home late for curfew. Without asking for an explanation, his parents sent him to his
room and informed him that he was grounded for a month. What type of parenting did Ian's
parents demonstrate?
Authoritarian
50. Authoritative parents are likely to have children who
are socially competent and self-reliant.
51. Compared to authoritarian parents, authoritative parents are likely to be
More responsive
52. Richie's parents place no demands on him, and they place no rules or restrictions on his
behavior. They are exhibiting a(n) ___________ parenting style.
permissive
53. Jill's parents set very few limits or boundaries for her. They use a(n) ___________ parenting
style.
permissive
1. _____ refers to the pattern of enduring characteristics that produce consistency and
individuality in a given person.
Personality
2. Dr. Chase believes that one's personality largely reflects inner forces over which one has
no control. Dr. Chase appears to take a(n) _____ approach to personality.
Psychodynamic
3. According to Freud's theory, _____ is only a small part of our psychological makeup and
experience.
conscious experience

4. According to Freud, much of our behavior is motivated by:


the unconscious.
5. Why do dreams, fantasies, and slips of the tongue offer important data, in the view of
psychoanalytic psychologists?
Dreams, fantasies, and slips of the tongue offer clues to the contents of the unconscious
mind.
6.To Freud, much of our personality is determined by our _____.
Unconscious
7. Which of the following alternatives best expresses the relationship between the
preconscious and the unconscious in Freud's theory?
The preconscious is a small portion of the unconscious mind.
8. The _____ provides a "safe haven" for our recollections of threatening events.
Unconscious
9. Which of Freud's personality structures is CORRECTLY described?
Idconsists of primitive, instinctual urges
10. The id operates according to the _____ principle in which the goal is the immediate
reduction of tension and the maximization of satisfaction.
Pleasure
11. The _____ is the part of the personality that provides a buffer between the id and the
outside world.
Ego
12. Which of the following components of personality is related to the reality principle?
Ego
13. Which of the following sequences best reflects the order in which Freud's personality
structures develop during infancy and childhood, from first to last?
Id ego superego
14. The _____ is the final personality structure to develop in childhood, represents the
rights and wrongs of society as taught and modeled by a person's parents, teachers, and
other significant individuals.
Superego
15. What do the id and the superego have in common?
They are both unrealistic.

16. Developmental periods that children pass through during which they encounter
conflicts between the demands of society and their own sexual urges are known as _____
stages.
Psychosexual
17. Which of the following sequences indicates the order of the first three stages in
Freud's theory of psychosexual development, from first to last?
Oral anal phallic
18. According to Freud, the _____ stage is a stage from birth to age 12 to 18 months, in
which an infant's center of pleasure is the mouth.
Oral
19. Which of the following stages of psychosexual development is CORRECTLY
matched with an age range?
Anal - 1-3 years
20. According to Freud, a period beginning around age 3 during which a child's pleasure
focuses on the genitals is known as the _____ stage.
Phallic
21. _____ is the process of wanting to be like another person as much as possible,
imitating that person's behavior and adopting similar beliefs and values.
Identification
22. According to Freud, the _____ stage is the period from puberty until death, marked by
mature sexual behavior (that is, sexual intercourse).
Genital
23. Which component of the personality uses defense mechanisms, and why?
The ego uses defense mechanisms to prevent excessive anxiety.
24. Probably the most primary of the defense mechanisms is that of:
repression.
25. The study of defense mechanisms is associated not only with Sigmund Freud but also
with:
Anna Freud.
26. When regression is used as a defense mechanism people:
behave as if they were at an earlier stage of development.
27. Which defense mechanism is CORRECTLY matched with a definition?
Displacement - an unwanted feeling is redirected from a threatening individual to a less
threatening one

28. Read the following: (1) Liz has become more responsive to her partner's advances
since a real "hottie" moved in next door; (2) unable to accept his desire for other young
men, 15-year-old Juan pours himself into his studies; (3) Shauntel tells people that her
coworker Mary dislikes her; if she were honest, though, Shauntel would realize that it is
actually she who dislikes Mary; (4) "Ben's nasty; he's disgusting," says Renee; really,
Renee secretly finds Ben sexy. Which individual is CORRECTLY matched with the
defense mechanism he or she is using?
Juansublimation
29. How do neo-Freudians' thought differ from Freud's original theory?
The neo-Freudians tended to emphasize the importance of the ego rather than that of the
id.
30. Which of the following is NOT one of the neo-Freudian psychoanalysts?
Cattell
31. According to Jung, _____ are universal symbolic representations of a particular
person, object, or experience (such as good and evil).
Archetypes
32. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is a personality assessment widely used in business,
industry, and education. Ultimately, it stems from _____ theory.
Jung's
33. _____ is often considered the first feminist psychologist.
Karen Horney
34. According to _____, parents can facilitate their children's development by:
Adler; helping them overcome feelings of personal inferiority.
35. Psychologists who study personality focus on the
enduring traits and qualities we demonstrate over time.
36. If Freddie's id was in charge when his boss told him that he was an incompetent fool,
Freddie might
punch his boss in the face.
37.According to Freud, the ego is referred to as a mediator because it
must balance the needs of the id, superego, and reality.
39. Hannah has a substitute teacher today. She has a strong desire to give a false name but
is concerned about how much trouble she might get in. The desire to change her name
stems from the ________, and the concern about the trouble stems from the ________.
Id; ego

40. Michelle was reared in a home where high moral principles dominated. She has
attended Sunday school and church since early childhood. In high school, her boyfriend
tried to talk her into "sleeping" with him, but something from inside her told her not to.
She felt very proud of herself afterward for holding her ground. According to Freud,
which personality structure made Michelle feel proud of her response?
Superego
41. If Marcy is feeling guilty about lying to her mother, Freud would argue that her
________ is making her feel this way.
Superego
43. Which of the following is a defense mechanism?
Reaction formation
42. Cartoons sometimes depict personal conflict by showing an individual with an angel
speaking into one ear and a devil speaking into the other ear. The angel represents Freud's
idea of the ________, and the devil represents Freud's idea of the ________.
Superego; id
44. Jeff experiences a lot of aggressive feelings toward his overprotective stepfather.
Because he is powerless to aggress openly against his stepfather, Jeff becomes a very
aggressive forward on his basketball team. This is an example of
Sublimation
45. Oberon has always been fascinated by fire, but he knows that it can be dangerous and
sometimes lethal. When he finished high school, he decided to become a firefighter. The
job is extremely fulfilling for him. Freud would probably say that Oberon's fascination
with fire
has been sublimated into a socially desirable behavior.
46. Every time Antony, a 30-year-old architect, experiences hardship, he goes home to his
parents to find comfort in his childhood bedroom. What defense mechanism is in play
here?
Regression
47. What defense mechanism is being used when the ego transforms the unacceptable
(e.g., looking at pornography) into the acceptable (e.g., becoming a vocal advocate
against pornography)?
Reaction formation
48. George's cubicle at work is spotless. Everything on his desk is arranged according to
a specific purpose. He gets very agitated if something is moved or rearranged. Freud
might argue that George is fixated at the ________ stage.
Anal

49. With regard to the question of whether personality is innate or learned, which of the
following personality theory orientations places the most emphasis on biology?
Psychodynamic
51. Emotionally laden ideas and images that have rich and symbolic meaning for all
people are
Archetypes
53. Adler focused on ________ psychology.
Individual
54. Adler believed that birth order
was important to personality development.
55. According to Alfred Adler, people are primarily motivated by
their desire to overcome perceived shortcomings.
56. Jamar is 4-foot-8 and drives a very large car. How would Adler explain Jamar's
choice in cars?
Compensation

3. Dr. Alastair examines the relationship among psychological factors, the immune system,
and the brain. Dr. Alastair is a:
psychoneuroimmunologist.
4. Which of the following sequences best captures the "stress cycle," from the beginning to
the end of one cycle?
Stressor stress coping adaptation
3.Which of the following are strong stressors that occur suddenly and typically affect
many people at once?
Cataclysmic events
4. Which category of stressor is correctly matched with an example?
Personal stressorbeing fired
5. PTSD may result from:
cataclysmic events and severe personal stressors.
6. Which of the following statements best captures the relationship between background
stressors and daily hassles?
Background stressors and daily hassles are the same thing.

8. The number of hassles people experience is _____ correlated with the frequency of
such problems as the flu, a sore throat, and backaches. The number of uplifts people
experience is _____ correlated with the frequency of these sorts of problems.
positively; negatively
9. Which of the following is true of stress?
The greater the number of uplifts we experience, the fewer the psychological symptoms
we report later.
10. Which of the following is true of the consequences of stress?
Stress produces both biological and psychological consequences.
11. Susan has been working tirelessly for the past few weeks due to tight deadlines. She
is also being pressurized by her parents to get married and settle in life. Susan is stressed
and has been detected with high blood pressure, skin rashes, and fatigue. She is in a
helpless state and thinks her life is messed up. Susan is suffering from a(n) _____.
psychophysiological disorder
12. In the psychology of health and stress, Hans Selye is associated with the study of:
the general adaptation syndrome.
14. At which stage of Selye's general adaptation model (GAS) are individuals the most
likely to show negative consequences of stress?.
Exhaustion
15. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome model is correctly matched with an
example?
Exhaustioncoming down with a bad cold the day after you hand in that political
science paper
16. Which of the following is true of the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation
syndrome?
In some cases, exhaustion allows people to escape a stressor.
17. Stress may impair our production of disease-fighting white blood cells called:
Lymphocytes
18. Efforts to control, reduce, or learn to tolerate the threats that lead to stress are termed:
coping.
19. Eve was stressed as she had got transferred to Italy. She decided to look at the
brighter side of her relocation by telling herself that it will be a new experience, that she
will be able to meet different people, and see new places. Eve is observing _____ coping.
emotion-focused

20. Faced with overlapping, unrealistic deadlines at work, Ivan recruits his friends to
perform some of the routine clerical tasks associated with the projects. Ivan is engaged in
_____ coping.
problem-focused
21. Which of the following is true about problem-focused coping?
Problem-focused coping leads to changes in behavior or to the development of a plan of
action to deal with stress.
22. Wishful thinking and the use of drugs exemplify the use of _____ coping.
Avoidant
23. Which of the following is found to be the least successful coping method for dealing
with stress?
Avoidant coping
24. Which of the following refer to unconscious strategies that people use to reduce
anxiety by concealing the source from themselves and others?
Defense mechanisms
25. A study conducted by Lehman and Taylor reports that California students living in
dormitories unlikely to withstand an earthquake were more likely to doubt earthquake
predictions than were students living in safer structures. This example best illustrates:
a defense mechanism.
26. Agreeing with the statement: "Sometimes I feel like I can't do anything about my life"
would reflect which of the following?
Learned helplessness
27. "Don't wait for the storm to passlearn to dance in the rain," exhorts an inspirational
poster you notice in an office. This quote most directly relates to the _____ component of
hardiness.
Challenge
28. Which of the following is true of resilience?
Resilience results in the release of the hormone cortisol which is helpful in responding to
challenges, although too much can produce damage.
29. The strategy of preparing for stress before it happens is termed _____ coping.
Proactive
30. The _____ behavior pattern is a cluster of behaviors involving hostility,
competitiveness, time urgency, and feeling driven.
Type A

31. Vivian always makes sure that he submits his class assignments before anybody else
does. Also, he aims at getting the highest score among his classmates. Vivian has a _____
behavior pattern.
Type A
32. Annie is a Type A individual. She would be characterized by _____ behavior.
Hostile
33. The _____ behavior pattern is characterized by a patient and nonaggressive manner.
Type B
34. Martha has a Type B behavior pattern. Which of the following characteristics would
be observed in Martha?
Cooperation
35. Which of the following behavior types is correctly matched with an adjective?
Type B: cooperative
36. Patrick is a typical Type B personality. Patrick would be characterized by _____
behavior.
Nonaggressive
37. Owen is a Type B personality. Owen would be characterized by _____ behavior.
noncompetitive
38. The Type A and Type B behavior patterns are best seen as:
ends of a continuum.
39. The component of the Type A pattern most strongly linked to coronary heart disease is
that of:
hostility.
40. The key component of the Type A behavior pattern, hostility, is highly toxic because
it:
produces excessive physiological arousal in stressful situations.
41. Smoking is the number _____ preventable cause of death in the United States; one in
_____ deaths in the United States is/are caused by smoking.
one; five
42. Which of the following is supposed to be the most successful method of quitting
smoking?
Attending counseling, along with using nicotine replacement patches or gums
43. In the long term, the most effective means of reducing smoking may be:
changes in societal norms and attitudes toward the habit.

44. According to the World Health Organization, about what percentage of the world's
population will die as a result of smoking?
10%

2. Blythe takes the medication prescribed by her doctor. However, she takes an
increased dose and combines the drug with other medications based on her past
experience. Blythe is practicing:
creative nonadherence.
2. Linda was suffering from an eye infection. Her doctor prescribed her eye drops
that she had to use 4 times a day, and advised her to apply warm compresses 5
times every day. The doctor also asked her to avoid using eye makeup. However,
Linda used the solution only once a day and rarely applied warm compresses to
her eye. She also continued to use eye makeup. Linda is practicing:
creative nonadherence.
3. Which of the following is true of physicians' communication with their patients?
Patients may be reluctant to volunteer information that might cast them in a bad
light.
4. Which of the following statements is true regarding male and female
physicians' communication with their patients?
Female physicians provide more patient-centered communication than do male
physicians.
5. Andrew was told by his physician that he would be able to control his diabetes
if he controls his diet and avoids the use of sugar in his diet. Andrew was given
a(n) _____ framed health message by his physician.
positively

6. Preventive health behavior is best motivated by _____ framed messages;


behavior leading to the detection of a disease is best motivated by _____.
positively; negatively framed messages
7. Which of the following messages is most likely to motivate the maintenance of
an exercise program?
"If you exercise, you'll feel more energetic and look more attractive."
8. Tim was told by his doctor that if he did not stop eating fast foods, he would
turn diabetic and obese. This is an example of a _____ health message.
Negatively
9. Happy people:
hold moderately inflated views of themselves.
10. Identify the correct statement relating to happy people.
Happy people like to be around other people.
11. With respect to gender differences in happiness, which of the following
statements is most accurate?
Men and women are made happy by most of the same things.

12. The level of subjective well-being is very stable because:


people have a general set point for happiness.
14. Overall, the set point for happiness is _____ and it is determined:
relatively high; at least partly by genetics
15. Most individuals in the United States would rate themselves as:
pretty happy
16. Most people think that they are _____ famous people like Oprah Winfrey.
happier than
17. Identify the correct statement with regard to happiness of people.
Few differences exist between members of different demographic groups.
18. Which of the following is true about happiness?
Generally, money does not buy happiness.

19. Lifestyle choices, behaviors, and psychological characteristics are the main
focus of ________ psychology.
Health
20. Shirley is talking to a group of third graders about the importance of drinking
plenty of water every day. She is focused on
health promotion.
21. Who is NOT engaged in what psychologists refer to as health behaviors?
Jim is studying his history notes.
22. According to the text, a key element in predicting whether Barry will change
his drinking behavior is
how ready he is to change the behavior.
23. Who is most likely going to achieve his or her desired weight loss?
Stan wants to make the track team.
24. Jeanne only drinks alcohol when she is playing bridge with her friends. Her
motive for drinking would be characterized as
social.

25. Ryan is sad because his girlfriend just broke up with him. Ryan's father
assures him that he has lots of desirable traits and that he will be OK. Ryan's
father is primarily providing what kind of social support?
Emotional support
26. Who is experiencing the benefits of social support?
Ava joined a weight-watchers club.
27. Maurice is desperately attempting to study for his first test in psychology.
However, the book store has run out of textbooks. He loaned his notes to the
good-looking girl who sits behind him, and she has not returned them. The test is

scheduled for tomorrow morning and he has a headache. Maurice is


experiencing
stress.
28. A situation, circumstance, or event that challenges the individual and requires
some form of coping mechanism best defines the term
stressor.
29. There is a distinct physiological pattern that emerges when people are
exposed to strong and prolonged stress. Hans Selye labeled this response
pattern the
general adaptation syndrome.
30. The general adaptation syndrome refers to the
body's response to stressors.
31. A fundamental premise of the general adaptation syndrome is that
a stressor produces the same physical symptoms in all people.
32. Which of the following accurately describes the sequence of stages in the
general adaptation syndrome?
Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion
33. When a rat is first introduced to an overcrowded cage, it will likely enter the
________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome.
alarm
34. You walk into your biology class and unexpectedly see a quiz waiting for you
on your desk. If you are not prepared for the quiz, you are likely to experience the
________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome.
Alarm
35. Once you get over the initial stress associated with your first exam of finals
week, the fact that you have several more exams will likely lead your body to
enter the ________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome.
Resistance

36. Katie has been diagnosed with breast cancer and is under significant stress.
She is now undergoing a series of chemotherapy treatments to attempt to treat
the cancer. According to Selye, Katie is in the ________ stage of GAS.
Resistance
37. According to the general adaptation syndrome, possible serious biological
damage may occur during the ________ stage.
exhaustion
38. After a long week of final exams is over, many students end up getting sick
the following week. This is most likely an illustration of the ________ stage of the
general adaptation syndrome.
Exhaustion
39. After studying all week for final exams, eating poorly, and not getting enough
sleep, Shelly woke up the day after her last exam with the flu. She is in which
stage of the GAS?
Exhaustion
40. The body system that plays the greatest role in Selye's GAS is called the
hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis.
41. Rosemary is interested in studying the relationships between emotion, the
nervous system, and the immune system. She would be most interested in the
field of
psychoneuroimmunology.
42. Which statement is NOT correct concerning the relationship between the
immune system and stress?
Acute stressors produce enhanced immune system functioning.
43. Which of the following statements is NOT one of the preliminary hypotheses
in regards to the relationship between stress and the immune system?
Stress directly promotes disease-producing processes.

44. A surge in ________ caused by severe emotional distress may contribute to


one's risk of a heart attack.
Adrenaline
45. Based on the text, which of these is an accurate description of the
relationship between stress and the immune system and cancer?
The physiological effects of stress inhibit immune responses to cancer.
46. If Jason decides that the snake he sees is dangerous, he has made a
cognitive appraisal.
47. Josh was just in an automobile accident. The first thing he does is call his
insurance company and begin the claim process. Josh is engaging in ________
coping.
problem-focused
48. In which of the following situations might emotion-focused coping be most
beneficial?
After your dog dies
49. If you are managing your problem as opposed to confronting your problem,
you are engaged in ________ coping.
emotion-focused
50. Which individual will cope most successfully with stress?
Tara exercises regularly.

51. Mark is excited about the big presentation he is going to give the board of
directors this morning. Although he stayed up most of the night perfecting the
presentation, he feels energized and ready to go. Mark is exhibiting
hardiness.
52. Which of the following statements about optimism and coping is FALSE?
Optimists avoid paying attention to news that is negative.

53. A(n) ________ activity is defined as one that increases heart rate and lung
functioning.
Aerobic
54. Researchers have found that the most effective component of weight-loss
programs is
regular exercise.
55. Smoking contributes to all of the following EXCEPT
death from accidents.
56. Macy is about to try to quit smoking. We can predict that she will
relapse several times before successfully quitting.
57. A person who tries to quit smoking "cold turkey" is
trying to stop without making any major lifestyle changes.
58. Yolanda is taking the "cold turkey" approach to stopping her drinking habit.
This means that she is
not taking another drink of alcohol.
59. Twenty-year-old Shynara has been smoking since she was 12 and wants to
quit.While no method is foolproof, the most successful avenue for breaking the
addiction is often
a combination of methods.
60. Jennie's father comes home after a long day of work and has a couple of
strong drinks to help him relax. His motive for drinking would be characterized as
coping.
61. Who is experiencing the benefits of social support?
Ava joined a weight-watchers club.
5. Insanity is a(n) _____ term.
Legal
6. It is best to view abnormal behavior and normal behavior as
marking two ends of a continuum.

7. Researchers have found that several neurotransmitters play a role in depression. This fact
most directly affirms the _____ perspective on mood disorders.
Medical
8. Which perspective on abnormal behavior primarily argues that psychological disorders
stem from childhood conflicts over opposing wishes regarding sex and aggression?
Psychoanalytic perspective
5.Which of the following correctly identifies either a strength or a limitation of the
psychoanalytic perspective on abnormality?
Limitation: There is no conclusive way to link childhood experiences with abnormal
adult behavior.
6.The behavioral perspective asserts that the underlying cause of abnormality is:
faulty learning.
7. The greatest strength of the behavioral perspective is its:
objective approach for examining behavior.
8. According to the cognitive approach, psychological disorders are the result of:
maladaptive thinking patterns.
9. The humanistic perspective in psychology is primarily associated with the work of:
Abraham Maslow.
10. Which of the following supports the sociocultural perspective on abnormality?
African-Americans are more likely than whites to be hospitalized involuntarily for
psychological disorders.
11. Of the following perspectives, which is MOST likely to take a strong "nurture"
position on the origin of psychological abnormality?
Sociocultural
12. The purpose of the DSM-IV-TR is to:
provide descriptions of disorders.
13. On the basis of the results of Rosenhan's study, which of the following is the most
accurate evaluation of the DSM-IV-TR's system of classifying psychological disorders?
Rosenhan's results are worrying, because they suggest that diagnostic labels strongly
affect how behavior is perceived.
14. DSM-IV-TR relies most heavily on the _____ approach to abnormal behavior.
Medical
15. The feeling of apprehension and tension that one feels during stressful situations is
referred to as:

anxiety.
16. Intense, irrational fears of specific objects or situations are referred to as:
Phobias
17. A person with social phobia is typically haunted by the fear of being:
judged or embarrassed by others.
18. Which of the following statements accurately identifies either a similarity or
dissimilarity between social phobia and agoraphobia?
Similarity - Both agoraphobia and social phobia can prevent people from leaving their
homes
19. Phobic disorders differ from generalized anxiety and panic disorders in that:
in phobic disorders there is a specific, identifiable stimulus that sets off the anxiety
reaction.
20. Samantha was out shopping with her friends when she started to feel dizzy. Although
the temperature was quite low, she was sweating heavily and finally fainted. Her friends
took her to a doctor but he could not find any particular cause related to Samantha's
attack. It is most likely that Samantha suffers from:
panic disorder.
21. Which of the following is a core symptom of panic disorder?
Feeling of anxiety
22. Thomas has been suffering from insomnia for the past two years. He has also been
experiencing tension headaches and heart palpitations. His medical reports show that he
is not suffering from any physiological or genetic disorder. Thomas is most likely
suffering from:
generalized anxiety disorder.
23. An irresistible urge to repeatedly carry out some act that seems strange and
unreasonable is referred to as:
compulsion.
24. Sam washes his hands very frequently. In spite of this he feels that his hands are not
clean and that he might acquire some viral disease because of his poor hygiene practices.
On the basis of the given information, we can conclude that Sam has:
obsessive-compulsive disorder.
25. Which of the following major anxiety disorders is CORRECTLY paired with a
description?
Generalized anxiety disorder - Persistent, uncontrollable, free-floating worry

26. Alex has an intense, unwarranted fear of dogs. Bailey feels driven to wash her hands
repeatedly. Callista is plagued by chronic, debilitating worry. Doran sometimes feels
dizzy and short of breath; he feels as if he might die. Which of these individuals is
CORRECTLY matched with the anxiety disorder he or she displays?
Doran - Panic disorder
27. Posttraumatic stress disorder is classified as a(n) _____ disorder.
Anxiety
28. Which of the following potential explanations of anxiety disorders is CORRECTLY
matched with the perspective it reflects?
An overactive autonomic nervous system is at the root of panic attacksmedical
perspective
29. Psychological disorders that take on physical symptoms, but for which there is no
medical cause are called _____ disorders.
somatoform
30. _____ is a disorder in which people have a constant fear of illness and a
preoccupation with their health.
Hypochondriasis
31. Paige has hypochondriasis. This means that:
she misinterprets minor sensations as evidence of a serious disease.
32. _____ is a major somatoform disorder that involves an actual physical disturbance,
such as the inability to use a sensory organ or the complete or partial inability to move an
arm or leg.
Conversion disorder
33. The condition in which an individual's hand become entirely numb, while an area
above the wrist, controlled by the same nerves, remains sensitive to touch is referred to
as:
glove anesthesia.
34. The difference between hypochondriasis and conversion disorder is that:
conversion disorder involves an actual physical disturbance.
35. _____ is a psychological dysfunction characterized by the separation of different
facets of a person's personality that are normally integrated and work together.
Dissociative disorder
36. _____ is a disorder in which a significant, selective memory loss occurs.
Dissociative amnesia
37. Which of the following dissociative disorders is correctly matched with its
description?

Dissociative identity disorderAn individual displays characteristics of two or more


distinct personalities.
38. _____ is a form of amnesia in which the individual leaves home and sometimes
assumes a new identity.
Dissociative fugue
39. How does dissociative amnesia differ from simple amnesia?
Simple amnesia involves an actual loss of memory; dissociative amnesia does not.
40. The common thread among dissociative disorders is that:
they allow people to escape from some anxiety-producing situation.
41. At any given time, _____ of the U.S. population is clinically depressed; about _____
of college students have received a diagnosis of depression.
6-10%; 15%
42. Women are _____ as likely to experience major depression as are men.
Twice
43. Which of the following mood disorders is CORRECTLY matched with its
corresponding example?
Major depression - Bonnie is unable to concentrate and seems to have lost interest in life.
44. _____ is an extended state of intense, wild elation.
Mania
45. Butch alternates between periods of dark despair and times of elation, great energy,
recklessness, and creativity. Butch is most likely suffering from _____ disorder.
Bipolar
46. Which of the following neurotransmitters plays a major role in depression?
Serotonin
47. _____ is a class of disorders in which severe distortion of reality occurs.
Schizophrenia
48. The defining characteristic of schizophrenia is:
a severe distortion of reality.
49. Which of the following major clinical disorders is CORRECTLY matched with its
defining characteristic?
Schizophrenia - Severe distortion of reality
50. Grace has schizophrenia. What is the approximate likelihood that her identical twin
Joy also has schizophrenia?

50%
52. Brain-imaging studies indicate that a person with schizophrenia is most likely to
have:
shrunken hippocampi.
53. Roger is a manipulative, callous individual who has no regard for the moral and
ethical rules of society or the rights of others. It is most likely that he has:
antisocial personality disorder.
54. Which personality disorder below is CORRECTLY matched with its description?
Borderline personalityReliance on relationships to define oneself
55. Carrie is dramatic and emotionally volatile. She rapidly forms intense relationships
that seem to blow up or fall apart just as quickly. Although she tends to distrust others,
she also needs their attention to define her. Carrie is most likely to be diagnosed with
_____ personality disorder.
Borderline
56. Gloria considers herself to be a "diva": She expects special treatment from others as
she thinks that she is the most important person in her neighborhood. Gloria's behavior
indicates that she has _____.
narcissistic personality disorder
57. Lionel is two years old. His communication is severely impaired. He appears
withdrawn and unresponsive to affection. He is most likely to be diagnosed with:
Autism
58. Which of the following is a sexual disorder?
Paraphilias
59. Alzheimer's disease is classified as a(n) _____ disorder.
organic mental
About _____ percentage of the 8000 subjects interviewed in the United States, between
the ages of 15 and 54 reported experiencing a psychological disorder at some point
during their lives.
50
2. Which if the following is NOT considered one of the criteria for defining abnormal
behavior?
Unique behavior
2. Jasmine is an attractive, well-dressed female who appears normal to those
individuals she works with. However, Jasmine may still be considered abnormal if

All of these

5. Jason is very depressed. He has trouble going to work every day and often feels
that life holds few rewards. Which aspect of abnormal behavior applies to Jason?
All of these
6. Martin refuses to leave his house because he believes that his body odor is toxic
to those around him. Martin's behavior is an example of
All of these

5. An implication of the medical model of psychological disorders is that


the individual should not be blamed for the disorder.

6. Marilyn is depressed a great deal of the time so she seeks help from a doctor. She is
diagnosed as having a mental illness caused by a chemical imbalance. Marilyn is most
likely being treated by someone who adheres to the ________ model of psychological
disorders
medical

7. Penny is a single mom who is constantly struggling to make ends meet. As a result,
she is depressed a great deal of the time. Her depression most likely has a ________
basis.
Sociocultural

8. According to the biopsychosocial model of psychological disorders, abnormal


behavior can be influenced by

All of these

9. Of the following factors, ________ is related to the highest rates of mental disorders.
low income

10. Which of the following disorders is associated with a particular culture?


Anorexia nervosa

11. A classification system for psychological disorders allows clinicians to do all of the
following except make predictions about
how other people might react to the diagnosis of a disorder.

12. Robert's teacher has sent several notes home to his family during the past school
year. Robert is inattentive, hyperactive, and impulsive. Robert will most likely be
diagnosed with
attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.

13. Critics of the medical model of abnormal behavior argue that ADHD reflects
a social construct rather than a psychological disorder.

14. Anxiety disorders involve fears that are


All of these

15. Alex is almost always anxious at school, at home, and even when he is with his
friends. Alex is most likely suffering from
generalized anxiety disorder.

16. John has sudden attacks of intense fear in which his heart races, he feels faint, and
he has trouble catching his breath. During these attacks, he worries that he is going to
die. From this description, it sounds like John has
panic disorder.

17. A fear becomes a phobia when a(n)


individual will go to any length to avoid the object of the fear/phobia.

18. Evan decided to take an F in English class rather than have to get up in front of the
class to make an oral presentation. Evan probably suffers from
A Social Phobia

19. A fear of strangers is referred to as


xenophobia.

21. All of the following are common compulsions EXCEPT


repeating phrases.

22. Evette believes that she must touch the door knob seven times before she opens
the door so that her mother will not become deathly ill. What is her compulsion?
Touching the door knob

23. When Sandra was 18 years old, she was in a serious car accident. Although she
made a full recovery from her injuries, she experienced extreme anxiety afterward.
Sandra is now very anxious when driving, will not drive near the site of the accident, has
nightmares about the accident, and flinches when she goes through intersections.
Sandra has symptoms suggestive of
posttraumatic stress disorder.

24. In movies that focus on war, soldiers who have returned from the frontlines often
struggle with overwhelming anxiety, nervousness, depression, and flashbacks. In many
cases, the soldiers have problems with memory and an inability to experience
happiness. These movie characters are most likely experiencing ________ disorder.
posttraumatic stress

25. For a person to have experienced a major depressive episode, he or she must have
had at least five of the nine symptoms for at least
two weeks.

26. Which disorder is associated with having too few serotonin and norepinephrine
receptors?

Major depressive disorder

27. A possible behavioral explanation for depression focuses on


learned helplessness.

28. What cognitive attribution style can serve as a protective factor against depression?
Optimism

29. The tendency to ruminate on negative experiences is most closely associated with
depression

30. Riley routinely blows every little setback out of proportion. For example, when she
forgot to turn in her algebra homework, she was convinced that she would fail the class.
Riley is at risk for developing
depression.

31. Joshua has received low grades in math throughout his school years. In the lower
grades, he would study hard, but the results were always the same. Eventually, he
stopped trying to do better in math because nothing seemed to work. Joshua has
developed
learned helplessness.

32. Which psychological approach would attribute a person's depression to escalating


negative and self-defeating thoughts?
Cognitive

33. The prevalence of major depressive disorder among adolescents ranges from
________ percent.
10 to 20

34. Your roommate is acting very strangely. Although she has not slept much in the past
few days, she says she is on top of the world. She has cleaned and recleaned her
closets several times. She has invested in a questionable financial venture. This period
of nonstop activity has lasted for well over a week and is in sharp contrast to the
depression and fatigue she exhibited in the previous semester. The DSM-IV diagnosis
would most likely be
bipolar disorder.

35. Dora has been up for two straight days remodeling her bathroom. She has not eaten
or taken a break and is still full of energy. Dora may be exhibiting a
manic episode.

36. Last week your roommate Delia would not get out of bed. However, this morning
she rushes into your room and hands you a 300-page paper that she said she started
writing yesterday afternoon. Delia may be suffering from

bipolar disorder.

37. Mrs. Johnson recently returned home after being gone for nearly five months. She
has no memory associated with those five months. She most likely experienced a(n)
dissociative fugue.

38. Amy often offends other people because she does not seem to be able to read their
emotions accurately. She shows little or no emotions herself and maintains an immobile
facial expression when interacting with other people. She does not plan or engage in
goal-directed behaviors and jumps from one low-paying job to another. Her family thinks
she is lazy. Amy is most likely
suffering from schizophrenia.

39. Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that causes many individuals
suffering from schizophrenia to stop taking their medications?
Cost

40. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the following EXCEPT


Social Withdrawals

41. Frank believes that he is the most skilled fisherman and that, when he is out on the
lake, thousands of people with binoculars are watching his every move in the hopes of
discovering his technique. This is an example of ________ in schizophrenia.

a delusion

42. Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?


Flat affect

1. _____ is treatment in which a trained professional a therapistuses psychological


techniques to help someone overcome psychological difficulties and disorders, resolve
problems in living, or bring about personal growth.
Psychotherapy
2. Dr. Andersen attempts to bring about personal growth by using psychological
techniques; Dr. Bradley attempts to improve psychological functioning through the use of
psychotropic medication. Dr. Andersen practices _____; Dr. Bradley, _____.
psychotherapy; biomedical therapy
3.Today therapists use a(n) _____ approach to therapy, which means they use a variety of
methods with an individual patient.
eclectic
4. _____ are professionals with a Ph.D. or Psy.D. who have also completed a
postgraduate internship. They specialize in assessment and treatment of psychological
difficulties, providing psychotherapy and, in some U.S. states, can prescribe drugs.
Clinical psychologists
5. _____ are professionals with a Ph.D. or Ed.D. who typically treat day-to-day
adjustment problems, often in a university mental health clinic.
Counseling psychologists
6. Which of the following mental health professionals is CORRECTLY matched with a
brief description?
Counseling psychologist - treats everyday adjustment problems, often in a university
mental health clinic

7. _____ therapy seeks to bring unresolved past conflicts and unacceptable impulses from
the unconscious into the conscious, where patients may deal with the problems more
effectively.
psychodynamic
8. The surface description of a dream is called the _____ content.
manifest
9. Noah dreams that he suddenly becomes paralyzed as he tries to cross a busy
intersection. In Freudian terms, this is the _____ content of Noah's dream. The underlying
meaning of the dream is the _____ content.
manifest; latent
10. _____ is an inability or unwillingness to discuss or reveal particular memories,
thoughts, or motivations.
resistance
11. _____ is the transmission of feelings to a psychoanalyst of love or anger that had been
originally directed to a patient's parents or other authority figures.
Transference
12. Which of the following is a suitable way of handling transference?
The therapist can take advantage of transference to help the patient "redo" difficult
relationships.
13. How does contemporary psychodynamic therapy differ from classic psychoanalysis?
Contemporary therapist puts less emphasis on a patient's past history and childhood than
classic psychoanalysts.
14. Why has psychodynamic therapy remained a viable approach to psychological
treatment, despite criticism of it?
It facilitates the development of deep insight into one's life.
15. Which of the following approaches to psychotherapy is CORRECTLY matched with
its description?
Behavioral approachClassical and operant conditioning principles are used to change
people's behavior.
16. According to a behavior therapist, how might psychological disorders be treated
MOST EFFECTIVELY?
The client should learn new behaviors to replace the faulty skills.
17. _____ is a form of therapy that reduces the frequency of undesired behavior by
pairing an unpleasant stimulus with undesired behavior.
Aversive conditioning

18. Giovanni abuses cocaine; Hans has a dog phobia. Which alternative below correctly
identifies the behavioral treatment most appropriate for each of these individuals?
Giovanniaversive conditioning; Hanssystematic desensitization
19. A hierarchy of fears may be used in:
Systematic desensitization
20. _____ is a behavioral treatment for anxiety in which people are confronted either
suddenly or gradually with a stimulus that they fear.
Exposure
21. Which of the following operant conditioning techniques is INCORRECTLY paired
with its description?
Token systemThe therapist reduces the frequency of undesired behavior by pairing an
aversive, unpleasant stimulus with undesired behavior.
22. _____ rewards a person for desired behavior with a poker chip or some kind of play
money.
The token system
23. A client with social anxiety watches a film in which an individual greets strangers in a
crowded room, makes small talk, and smiles pleasantly. The individual in the film
appears to gain pleasure from these activities. The behavior therapy technique used in this
scenario is:
Observational learning
24. How might one best respond to the charge that behavior therapy produces only a
superficial change in external behavior?
Neuroscientific evidence shows that behavioral treatments produce actual changes in the
functioning of the brain.
25. _____ treatment approaches teach people to think in more adaptive ways by changing
their dysfunctional notions about the world and themselves.
cognitive
26. _____ is a form of therapy that attempts to restructure a person's belief system into a
more realistic, rational, and logical set of views by challenging dysfunctional beliefs that
maintain irrational behavior.
Rational-emotive behavior therapy
27. Which of the following therapies emphasizes the challenging of irrational, unrealistic
beliefs?
Rational-emotive behavior therapy
28. In _____ appraisal, clients are asked to evaluate situations, themselves, and others in
terms of their memories, values, beliefs, thoughts, and expectations.

Cognitive
29. _____ therapy is therapy in which the underlying rationale is that people have control
of their behavior, can make choices about their lives, and are essentially responsible for
solving their own problems.
Humanistic
30. Therapy in which the goal is to reach one's potential for self-actualization is known as
_____ therapy.
Person-centered
31. How is contemporary person-centered therapy different than it was in Rogers's day?
Therapists are more likely to nudge clients towards insights rather than merely reflecting
back their statements.
32. Therapy in which people meet collectively with a therapist to discuss problems is
specifically known as _____ therapy.
group
33. Regarding group therapy, which of the following statements is TRUE?
Group therapy is generally more economical than individual therapy.
34. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is an example of _____ therapy.
self-help
35. In 1952, noted psychologist _____ published a study challenging the effectiveness of
_____ therapy.
Eysenck; psychodynamic
36. A research technique in which in which data from a large number of studies are
statistically combined is known as:
Meta-analysis
37. According to the text, the effectiveness of various approaches to therapy found that
although success rates vary somewhat by treatment form, most treatments show that
success rates range from about _____% greater success for treated compared with
untreated individuals.
75-80
38. According to the text, research shows that behavioral therapy is roughly _____%
more effective than no treatment at all.
80
39. Which of the following statements is most TRUE?
Different forms of therapy work best in different situations.

41. The newest antipsychotics are called _____ antipsychotics.


atypical
42. Atypical antipsychotics affect both _____ and _____ levels in certain parts of the
brain.
serotonin; dopamine
43. Prozac is an example of a(n) _____.
antipsychotic drug
44. _____ are a class of medications used in cases of severe depression to improve a
patient's mood and feeling of well-being.
Antidepressant drugs
45. Drugs that reduce the level of worry or tension a person experiences essentially by
reducing excitability and increasing feelings of well-being are known as _____.
antianxiety drugs
46. Approximately what percentage of U.S. families includes a member who has taken an
antianxiety drug?
50%
47. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) was introduced in the _____; it is used to treat
severe _____.
1930s; depression
48. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) is used to treat:
Depression
49. In the _____, surgeons performed prefrontal lobotomy on thousands of patients often
with little precision.
1930s and 40s
50. According to the text, which of the following best represents the percentage of
homeless adults who have a major psychological disorder?
15-35%
2. The group of drugs known as SSRIs work primarily by interfering with the
reabsorption of ________ in the brain.
Serotonin
2. The widespread increase in the number of individuals taking SSRIs to combat their
depression is primarily due to the

reduction in side effects as compared to other antidepressants.

3. Lithium is considered an effective ________ drug.


mood-stabilizing

4. Lithium is to ________ as clozapine is to ________.


bipolar disorder; schizophrenia

5. Chaz has been on antipsychotic medication for several weeks now. When he returns
home, he will likely have difficulty
All of these

6. Ivan is very depressed and the danger of suicide is imminent. He is not responding to
the drugs normally employed to treat depression. Which of the following treatments is
most likely to prove helpful in rapidly reducing Ivan's depression and suicidal behavior?
electroconvulsive

7. Sharon is seeing a new doctor after many different medications have failed to help
with her condition. This doctor tells her that many well-designed studies suggest that
electroconvulsive therapy is effective in the treatment of
depression.

8. Who may benefit the most from electroconvulsive therapy?

Brad who is contemplating suicide

9. Which of the following is the LEAST used biomedical intervention?


Psychosurgery

10. From Freud's psychodynamic perspective, what is the best way to gain insight into a
person's core problems?
Bring unconscious conflicts into conscious awareness.

11. "My client must confront the conflicts which are left over from childhood and gain
release from this burdening anxiety." This statement would likely be made by a
psychologist who practices ________ therapy.
Psychodynamic

12. The main goal of psychoanalysis is to


provide clients with insight into their unconscious conflicts.

13. According to the psychoanalytic approach to psychotherapy, which of the following


is an essential part of the job of a psychotherapist?
Interpret the disguised revelations of the unconscious mind.

14. According to Freud, getting people to talk freely


allows their deepest thoughts to emerge.

15. Your psychotherapist asks you to use free association. You are being asked to
just talk in an undirected manner without reflecting on what you are about to say.

16. Catharsis is a term used to describe


a release of emotional tension.

17. Freud argued that the true meaning of dream symbols was
dependent on the individual dreamer.

18. James dreamed that he went to his neighbor's house at midnight and made himself
a sandwich. His psychoanalyst interpreted the dream to mean that James really wanted
to go to bed with his neighbor's wife. Making the sandwich was the ________ content of
the dream.
Manifest

19. In psychoanalytic theory, transference is used to describe


how the client comes to relate to the therapist in ways that resemble his or her other
relationships.

20. Transference is useful in the therapeutic situation because it


provides an opportunity to re-create difficult relationships.

21. Since his father left, Joel has been treating his older brother more like a father. In
terms of psychoanalysis, what may be occurring?
Transference

22. When resistance occurs in therapy, what event is taking place?


The client is using unconscious defense strategies that prevent progress.

23. Which of the following BEST describes the psychoanalytic notion of resistance?
Avoidance

24. Dr. Billings is a therapist who specializes in psychoanalysis. She focuses on


using free association and dream interpretation.

25. You are a humanistic therapist. A potential client is unfamiliar with your school of
therapy and asks you to sum it up for him. You tell him the primary tenet of humanistic
therapy is that
individuals possess self-healing capacities.

26. Dr. Patterson engages in reflective listening with her depressed client. She waits for
him to express his feelings and for him to decide what he wants to do about his
problems. Dr. Patterson is practicing ________ psychotherapy.
client-centered

27. Josie went to a psychoanalyst but found his style too cold and uninvolved. She
wanted a therapist with whom she could have more of a relationship. She switched to a
Rogerian therapist. The therapeutic setting is now one of
warmth and acceptance.

28. Two key assumptions of the ________ approach to therapy are that psychological
disorders are learned in exactly the same way as normal behaviors are and that they
can be treated by applying the basic principles of learning.
behavioral

29. "First, I would like you to get in a comfortable position and begin the breathing
techniques which we have been practicing. When you sense that you have arrived at
complete relaxation, we will proceed." This therapist is initiating
systematic desensitization.

30. The first step in systematic desensitization is


discussing aspects of the feared situation that are most frightening.

31. Frank has been seeing a therapist about his spider phobia. The therapist first asked
Frank to describe what it is about spiders that frightens him, and they then put these
fears in order from least to most frightening. The therapist then taught Frank muscle
relaxation, and finally Frank was exposed to a series of increasingly fearful stimuli.
Frank has been seeing a therapist who uses

systematic desensitization.

32. Jan is afraid of crowds. If her therapist uses the flooding technique, which of the
following will Jan most likely be asked to do?
Attend a sold-out rock concert with no way home until after the concert

33. Who is being treated with the flooding technique?


Dan is being forced to touch a live snake.

34. If a therapist gives Henry, who is suffering from alcoholism, a drink laced with a
nausea-inducing drug so that he will become ill after drinking the alcohol, the therapist is
using
aversive conditioning.

35. The therapy that is based on the assumption that abnormal behavior is due to selfdefeating and irrational beliefs is
cognitive therapy.

36. ________ is an example of a cognitive therapy.


Rational-emotive therapy

37. Judy thinks she is depressed because of her teacher's criticism of her term paper.
Judy's therapist explains to her that Judy's own irrational beliefthat the criticism

means she is stupidis really why she is depressed. Judy is likely to be seeing a
therapist who is providing ________ therapy.
rational-emotive

38. Dr. Tetris is a rational-emotive therapist speaking to a group of introductory


psychology students. Which of the following would likely be his summary statement?
"Our unrealistic beliefs cause many emotional problems."

39. Beck's cognitive therapy focuses on


eliminating illogical and self-defeating thoughts.

40. Luanne is being treated for depression after a breakup with her boyfriend. Her
therapist points out that her thoughts, and not the situation itself, is causing her to be
depressed. This information suggests that Luanne's therapist practices ________
therapy.
Beck's cognitive

41. Cognitive-behavior therapy attempts to produce change by


helping clients to eliminate self-defeating thoughts.

42. A remarkable finding from research on cognitive-remediation therapy is that this


therapy produces changes in the

person's brain functioning.

43. Research on the effectiveness of psychotherapy has found that


All of these.

44. Which of the following is the most important determinant of whether or not therapy is
successful?
Quality of the client's participation

45. Dr. Houltin is a therapist who believes that it is important for clients to share
information and provide feedback to each other. Dr. Houltin is practicing ________
therapy.
group

46. In family therapy, it is assumed that the


problem originates in the interactions among the family members.

47. Deinstitutionalization involves


transferring individuals with mental disorders from mental institutions to communitybased facilities.

48. Which of the following statements accurately describes well-being therapy?


WBT is about learning to notice and savor positive experiences.

1. Social psychologist Leon Festinger is associated with the study of:


Cognitive dissonance
2. Sets of cognitions about people and social experiences are called _____.
Schemas
3. Which of the following is true of schemas?
Schemas help us predict what others are like on the basis of relatively little information.
4. One forms an impression of another individual:
very quickly, within a few seconds.
5. _____ are brought about by something in the environment.
Situational causes
6. Fiona got an e-mail from her manager, Rebecca, asking her to meet to discuss a past
project. Unfortunately, Fiona was struggling to complete a project due that afternoon and
had to reply that she was too busy to meet today. Rebecca was not pleased with Fiona's
refusal to meet and told another coworker that she thought Fiona was "too busy and
important" to meet with her supervisor thus she is an unpleasant snob. Rebecca is making
a ______ attribution of Fiona.
dispositional
7. Perceived causes of behavior that are based on internal traits or personality factors are
called _____ causes.
Dispositional
8. Which of the following attribution biases is correctly matched with its definition?
Halo effectAn initial impression that an individual has some positive (or negative)
traits leads us to infer that they have many other positive (or negative) characteristics as
well.
9. Sharon was made the captain of her softball team due to her excellent playing skills.
However, the fact that she did not display good team management skills and was not very
cooperative with her t
eammates was ignored while making her the captain. Which of the following biases is
illustrated in this instance?
Halo effect
10. Shaun is angry at the way a coworker has treated him. Shaun feels justified in his
anger because "surely, anybody would feel the same way if the same thing happened to
them." This example reveals Shaun's susceptibility to the:

assumed-similarity bias.
11. The tendency to attribute personal success to personal factors (skill, ability, or effort)
and to attribute failure to factors outside oneself is known as the:
self-serving bias
12. If you are exhibiting the self-serving bias, which would be your most likely
explanation for a poor grade on the test?
"The professor doesn't know how to teach."
13. Which of the following is true of the fundamental attribution error?
It is more common in Western than in Eastern cultures.
14. The fundamental attribution error is very common because:
of the nature of information available to the people making an attribution.
15. _____ is the process by which communal groups and individuals exert pressure on an
individual, either deliberately or unintentionally.
Social influence
16. Which of the following is true of a group?
A group consists of people who are interdependent.
17. Classic experimental studies of conformity were conducted in the 1950s by:
Solomon Asch.
18. The social rank held within a group is termed _____.
Status
19. Which of the following was a significant finding in studies conducted by Asch on
conformity?
Conformity is considerably higher when people must respond publicly.
20. Identify the correct statement regarding conformity.
People without a clear answer are more susceptible to conformity.
21. Which of the following is true of the findings made by Asch on conformity?
Groups that unanimously support a position show the most pronounced conformity
pressures.
22. According to Asch's pioneering work on conformity, which of the following
statements is true?
Having just one person present who shares the minority point of view is sufficient to
reduce conformity pressures.
23. Which of the following is true of groupthink?

Under groupthink, members lose the ability to critically evaluate alternative points of
view.
24. Which of the following is true of social roles and social norms?
Social roles are the behaviors that are associated with people in a given position.
25. The influential "prison" study of the power of social roles was conducted by:
Philip Zimbardo.
26. Which alternative below correctly defines a social influence concept?
Compliance - a change in behavior or attitudes in response to direct social pressure
27. In the _____ technique, one asks a person to agree to a small request whichbecause
it is smallthe likelihood that he or she will comply is fairly high.
Foot-in-the-door
28. The foot-in-the-door technique works because:
involvement with the small request leads to an interest in an issue.
29. In the _____ technique, someone makes a large request, expects it to be refused, and
follows it with a smaller one.
door-in-the-face
30. Which of the following compliance techniques is correctly matched with its
description?
That's-not-all techniqueWhen a salesperson offers you a deal at an inflated price,
immediately after the initial offer, the salesperson offers an incentive, discount, or bonus
to clinch the deal.
31. On late-night TV, you see an infomercial claiming that the price of the product has
been slashed for a special offer and now includes a bonus sample size of something that
is in adjunct to the product. This illustrates the _____ compliance technique.
that's-not-all
32. Which of the following sales techniques is based on the "norm of reciprocity"?
Not-so-free-sample technique
33. The classic "shock" study of obedience is associated with:
Stanley Milgram
34. Milgram's participants were told that the study concerned:
learning
35. Which alternative correctly names the psychologist often associated with a given
social influence concept?
Obedience Milgram

36. _____ refers to a negative (or positive) evaluation of a particular group and its
members.
Prejudice
37. Discrimination refers to:
behavior directed toward individuals on the basis of their membership in a particular
group.
38. A(n) _____ is an expectation about the occurrence of a future event or behavior that
acts to increase the likelihood the event or behavior will occur.
Self-fulfilling prophecy
39. In Juanita's community, girls are not expected to enjoy or excel at mathematics.
Juanita's algebra grades drop; by the time she is a high school junior, she is enrolled only
in consumer mathematics courses. Which concept does Juanita's example best illustrate?
Self-fulfilling prophecy
40. Psychologists have found that prejudice and discrimination may be reduced by:
educating people about other groups.
41. Which of the following potential explanations is correctly paired with the process it
reflects?
Awareness of a negative view of ones' group generates anxiety, which impairs
performance - stereotype threat
2. Which of the following is true of the factors that initially attract two people to each
other?
Proximity leads to liking.

2. The reciprocity-of-liking effect means that we like:


people who like us.

3. _____ involves a state of intense absorption in someone that includes intense


physiological arousal, psychological interest, and caring for the needs of another.
Passionate love

4. "But are you in love?" Lynette asks her friend. Lynette is trying to determine whether
her friend is experiencing _____ love.
Passionate

5. Ten year old Joanne expresses her love for her mother every morning before she
leaves to school. This is an example of _____ love.
Companionate

6. Consider the distinction many researchers make between passionate and


companionate love. How do the two types of love differ?
Companionate love does not involve physical intimacy; passionate love does.

7. Which of the following is suggested by Sternberg in his theory on love?


The different combinations of the three components vary over the course of
relationships.

8. According to instinct theories of aggression, which of the following is true?


Aggression is primarily the outcome of innateor inbornurges.

9. According to instinct theories of aggression, which of the following statements is most


likely to be true regarding aggression?
Certain stimuli act as aggressive cues, making aggressive acts much more likely when
the cues are present.

10. The likelihood that an individual will help someone in an emergency situation is
_____ correlated with the number of other people present.
negatively

11. Roger was screaming for help as he was being beaten up by a group of muggers on
a street. There were about 15 people standing nearby. However, none of the bystanders
come forward to help Roger. This scenario representing lack of help illustrates:
diffusion of responsibility.

12. The notion of a diffusion of responsibility is most usually applied to the study of:
prosocial behavior.

13. Behavior that helps others but that involves some self-sacrifice is termed:
altruism.

14. Which of the following strategies did your text offer as effective means of dealing
with anger?
Minimize the importance of the situation.

15. Which of the following faces would be rated as most attractive?


A composite of multiple faces that have been digitally blended to produce an "average"
face

16. The fifth-grade teacher was surprised when her Japanese-American student Hiroko
performed poorly in math. The teacher's reaction was due to
stereotyping.

17. Mr. and Mrs. Lee warn their new babysitter, Alison, that their son, Dennis, is very
aggressive and mischievous. As a result, Alison starts calling the child "Dennis the
Menace," and she behaves in ways that elicit aggressive and mischievous behaviors
from Dennis. This example best demonstrates the phenomenon called
The self-fulfilling prophecy.

18. It appears that many attractive people possess a number of positive characteristics.
This is possibly due to
the self-fulfilling prophecy.

19. A study by Rosenthal and Jacobson found that children who were labeled as "late
bloomers" at the start of the school year showed larger IQ gains than other, non-labeled
students, even though these particular children were chosen randomly. The children's
teachers were informed about these labels, but the students themselves were not. The
results from this study are most relevant to which of the following?
Self-fulfilling prophecy

20. Tommy just hit the game winning home run for his team. He is most likely to attribute
his success to
himself.

21. The light turns green, and Kaylee is about to go. A man driving a red truck goes
speeding through the red light. Mentally, Kaylee calls him a jerk and thinks to herself
that his license should be revoked. Kaylee may be committing the ________ error.
fundamental attribution

22. When you do poorly on a test, you remind yourself of all the distractions you had at
school that week. You are displaying
self-serving bias.

23. In a recent softball game, Cindy misplayed a ground ball for an error. Later in the
same game, she made a great catch on a very difficult play. According to the selfserving bias, she would attribute her error to ________ and her good catch to _______.
a bad bounce; good fielding skills

24. According to research on stereotype threat, we should be especially concerned


about standardized tests if they
ask for race/ethnic information before the test starts.

25. Cognitive dissonance theory states that individuals

try to make attitudes conform to behavior.

26. "Drinking may be harmful to my health, but I'll die having a good time." This
statement illustrates an attempt to reduce
cognitive dissonance.

27. The advertising committee for a politician is going door to door and asking people to
put a big ugly election sign on their lawn. If people refuse, they ask them if they would
consider putting a smaller sign on the lawn. The committee is using
the door-in-the-face strategy.

28. If you were to donate one of your kidneys to whoever might need it, you would be
demonstrating a(n) ________ view of human nature.
Altruistic

29. The idea of "do onto others as you would have them do onto you" best describes
reciprocity.

30. Caroline has volunteered to work with the underprivileged children who are
participants in her professor's literacy project. She is hoping that her professor will take
this into consideration when calculating her grade. Caroline is expecting
reciprocity.

31. ________ is an important element of altruism.


Empathy

32. The bystander effect occurs because


All of these

33. Research findings indicate that frustration


can lead to aggression or passivity.

34. While they are sitting eating their lunch, several of Sheldon's friends suggest that
the new girl in class is very pretty. Sheldon does not think that she is pretty. He will
probably
agree with his friends and say she is very attractive.

35. Conformity is to obedience as


Asch is to Milgram.

36. June is usually a very quiet individual, but she recently discovered a different side of
herself. She was at the Mardi Gras and found herself swept up in the festivities, doing
the things that the other party revelers were doing. These were not behaviors that she
would have ever considered doing on her own. Social psychologists would most likely
attribute June's behavior to
deindividuation.

37. Michael is the new department head. He expects everyone to "get on board" with
his restructuring of the department, and he publicly reprimands anyone who disagrees
with his new policies. On the other hand, Michael praises department members for
unanimity, cohesiveness, and harmony. Michael is creating an atmosphere most
conducive to
groupthink.

38. Which of the following theories explains why we like to think of our group as the ingroup?
Social identity theory

39. Rod and Deandra are intense supporters of their favorite football team, the Dallas
Cowboys. Their self-esteem is strongly affected by the performance of the Cowboys.
Which theory would best explain this effect?
Social identity theory

40. In a study based on Tajfel's theory of social identity, Cathy is randomly assigned as
a member of Group A and Sara is randomly assigned as a member of Group B. When
asked to award money to other study participants, both Cathy and Sara awarded money
only to members of their own respective group. This behavior is predicted by Tajfel's
theory and is an example of
in-group favoritism.

41. Susan drives by a particularly unusual apartment building each day on her way to
and from work. Initially, she does not think much of the structure and actually has a mild
dislike for it. However, after several months of commuting, she starts to like the
apartment building and is even considering trying to rent an apartment there. This
change in Susan's feelings about the building best demonstrates
The mere exposure effect.

42. Affectionate love is also called ________ love.


Companionate

In what way are the diverse subfields of psychology related?


They ultimately share a common goal.
Dr. Alvarez studies how the degeneration of certain components of nerve cells in the brain might
contribute to the development of multiple sclerosis. Dr. Alvarez's work BEST exemplifies the
_____ subfield of psychology.
behavioral neuroscience
Which branch of psychology explores the relationship between psychological factors and
physical ailments or disease?
Health psychology
Counseling psychologists are more likely than clinical psychologists to practice in:
Colleges

Evolutionary psychologists are especially interested in:


how behavior is influenced by our genetic inheritance from our ancestors.
The formal beginning of psychology is associated with:
Wundt.
Which of the following locations is associated with the formal beginning of psychology?
Germany
Lassandra takes a sip of cola. "Sweet...cold, wet, tingly...slightly bitter," she reports. Lassandra
is:
introspecting.
The approach that views behavior from the perspective of the brain, the nervous system, and
other biological functions is known as the _____ perspective
Neuroscience
Contributions of the psychodynamic perspective include all of the following EXCEPT
a way to look at behavior in a more concrete, objective fashion.
_____ is the idea that people's behavior is produced primarily by factors outside of their willful
control.
Determinism
Dr. Quinones studies the achievement motivation of junior high school students. He asserts that
such motivation mainly reflects the parenting and educational practices the students have
experienced. This statement is most directly related to the _____ issue; Dr. Quinones' position is
toward the _____ end of the continuum.
nature vs. nurture; nurture
Behavior is ___________, while mental processes are ___________.

observable; private
If you were a psychologist who was labeled a structuralist, you would be interested in the
___________ of the mind, and you would use ___________ as your primary research method.
structures; introspection
Dr. Burrhus's treatment plan for Annette focuses on consistently providing rewards for doing
things she wants to do more often and removing rewards for doing things she wants to do less
often. Dr. Burrhus adheres most closely to the ___________ perspective.
Behavioral
"I am not as concerned about what is going on in your life today as I am with the upbringing you
received." Which type of psychologist is most likely to have uttered these words?
Psychodynamic
According to the ___________ perspective, we are in control of our lives and have the capacity
for positive growth.
Humanistic
The specialist most likely to have a medical degree is a(n)
psychiatrist.
Kara was surprised to learn that certain hand signals which indicate a "job well done" in the
United States are socially unacceptable in other countries. This finding comes from research
completed by a ________ psychologist
cross-cultural
Which of the following best describes the impact that nature and nurture have on a person's
psychological characteristics?
Genetics has a significant impact.

_____ psychology focuses on higher mental processes, including thinking, memory, reasoning,
problem solving, judging, decision making, and language.
Cognitive
Dr. Ebrahim examines how children's friendships change through elementary and middle-school
years. Dr. Ebrahim is a(n) _____ psychologist
Developmental
Fiona helps students with ADHD develop effective study regimens and strategies. Fiona is most
likely a(n) _____ psychologist.
Counseling
Counseling psychologists are more likely than clinical psychologists to practice in:
colleges.
Which of the following statements concerning the representation of racial and ethnic minorities
among American psychologists is TRUE?
The number of minority members entering the field is higher than it was 10 years ago.
Lassandra takes a sip of cola. "Sweet...cold, wet, tingly...slightly bitter," she reports. Lassandra
is:
introspecting.
Which of the following psychologists is associated with functionalism?
William James
The emphasis of the humanistic perspective is on:
free will.
Free will stands in contrast to _____.

Determinism
Which contemporary perspective is CORRECTLY matched with its description?
Behavioral perspective; emphasizes observable behavior and objectivity
Strategies aimed at encouraging one to examine assumptions, evaluate assertions, and think more
carefully are specifically called _____ techniques.
critical thinking
Dr. Quinones studies the achievement motivation of junior high school students. He asserts that
such motivation mainly reflects the parenting and educational practices the students have
experienced. This statement is most directly related to the _____ issue; Dr. Quinones' position is
toward the _____ end of the continuum.
nature vs. nurture; nurture
Who is demonstrating psychological skepticism?
Lindsey is wondering if you can really improve your memory over night by taking a
pill.
What was innovative about Wundt's early work?
He was the first person to introduce the idea of measuring mental processes.
Which of the following would be most interesting to a behavioral psychologist?
The reasons why some people fail to stop at a red light
According to the ___________ perspective, we are in control of our lives and have the capacity
for positive growth.
Humanistic
Evolutionary psychology maintains that
the traits of living members of a species are the result of survival of the fittest.

the traits which one looks for in a potential spouse are based on characteristics which
have

allowed humans to survive.


some behaviors are pre-wired into species as they assist in maintaining the reproductive

ability

of the species.
All of these

Psychiatrists
can prescribe medication.
If an NFL player wanted to see a psychologist to improve his game, what type of psychologist is
he most likely to consult?
Sport psychologist
If an NFL player wanted to see a psychologist to improve his game, what type of psychologist is
he most likely to consult?
Sport psychologist
Which branch of psychology explores the relationship between psychological factors and
physical ailments or disease?
Health psychology
Counseling psychologists are more likely than clinical psychologists to practice in
colleges.
Currently, women earn _____ of new psychology doctorate degrees in the United States.
three-fourth
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the difference between the PhD and the
PsyD degrees?
The PhD requires a dissertation based on an original investigation.

The field of phrenology is associated with:


Gall.
Which of the following was a disadvantage of introspection?
Introspection was not truly scientific.
Penny is a recovering drug addict. Her treatment program emphasizes the influence of her
environment"people, places, and things"on her use of her drug of choice. Her program
reflects the _____ perspective in psychology.
Behavioral
The computer metaphor is at the heart of the _____ perspective.
Cognitive
Free will stands in contrast to _____.
Determinism
Psychologists adhering to the _____ perspective are probably the LEAST likely to take a
"nature" stance on the nature vs. nurture issue
Behaviorist
Race is to ethnicity what _____ is to _____.
biology; culture
Many colleges use students' SAT scores to determine whom they will accept into their programs.
Which goal of psychological science are they utilizing?
Predict
Who is demonstrating psychological skepticism?
Lindsey is wondering if you can really improve your memory over night by taking a pill.

William James, a prominent American psychologist and philosopher, focused on human


interaction and the purpose of thoughts. His view was eventually named
functionalism.
In psychology, William James was highly influential in developing the school of thought known
as
functionalism.
Who highlighted the reproductive advantages of environmentally adaptive traits?
Darwin
Darwin, when describing the process of natural selection, claimed that
characteristics favored by the environment are more likely to continue.
Humanism denies the role of determinism but elevates the role of
free will.
Fiona helps students with ADHD develop effective study regimens and strategies. Fiona is most
likely a(n) _____ psychologist.
Counseling
What might be the most controversial aspect of the evolutionary psychology position?
Evolutionary psychologists minimize the role of environmental and social forces.
The phrase tabula rasa may be translated as:
blank slate.
Psychologists adhering to the _____ perspective are probably the LEAST likely to take a
"nature" stance on the nature vs. nurture issue.
Behaviorist

Strategies aimed at encouraging one to examine assumptions, evaluate assertions, and think more
carefully are specifically called _____ techniques.
critical thinking
Psychologists rely on ___________ which is the process of thinking reflectively and actively,
and evaluating evidence.
critical thinking
Psychologists who study the role of the brain in psychological processes have adopted the
___________ perspective.
Neuroscience
In order to study mind and behavior, psychologists:
rely on the scientific method.
Dr. Ebrahim examines how children's friendships change through elementary and middle-school
years. Dr. Ebrahim is a(n) _____ psychologist.
Developmental
Dr. Growe is reading about a research in which psychologists investigated the effect of group
size on the conformity of group members. Dr. Growe is most likely reading the Journal of _____
Psychology.
Social
Which of the following psychologists is associated with functionalism?
William James
_____ is the idea that people's behavior is produced primarily by factors outside of their willful
control.
Determinism

Wilhelm Wundt is to ___________, as William James is to ___________.


structuralism; functionalism
Psychology is defined as the:
scientific study of behavior and mental processes.

Which of the following individuals is LEAST likely to be a psychologist?


Everett, who has an MD degree
Dr. Quinones studies the achievement motivation of junior high school students. He asserts that
such motivation mainly reflects the parenting and educational practices the students have
experienced. This statement is most directly related to the _____ issue; Dr. Quinones' position is
toward the _____ end of the continuum
nature vs. nurture; nurture
Early researchers from which school of thought asked participants to report sensations they were
experiencing?
Structuralism
According to a humanistic psychologist, Henry punched his little brother because he
wanted to.
The most common employment sector for students graduating with a bachelor's degree in
psychology is _____.
social services
Recall Watson's quote - "Give me a dozen healthy infants, well-formed, and my own specified
world to bring them up in and I'll guarantee to take any one at random and train him to become

any type of specialist I might selectdoctor, lawyer, artist, merchant-chief, and yes, even
beggar-man and thief, regardless of his talents, penchants, tendencies, abilities, vocations and
race of his ancestors." Where 1 = extreme nature and 10 = extreme nurture, where would you
place Watson on the nature vs. nurture issue?
9 or 10
"I am not as concerned about what is going on in your life today as I am with the upbringing you
received." Which type of psychologist is most likely to have uttered these words?
Psychodynamic
Cognitive psychology can best be described as the
study of higher mental processes
Dr. Ames studies the way groups influence the decisions that people make. She is a ________
psychologist.
Social
Which best depicts B. F Skinner's belief about studying human behavior?
What we do is most important.
Dr. Wade uses PET scans to explain that the difference between a male and a female is apparent
in the structure and function of the brain. Dr. Wade's specialty is
neuropsychology.
_____ is an early approach to psychology that concentrated on what the mind does and the role
of behavior in allowing people to adapt to their environments.
Functionalism

is a procedure used to study the structure of the mind in which subjects are asked to describe in detail what they are
experiencing when they are exposed to a stimulus.

Introspection

Who conducted the first psychological experiment in 1879?


Wilhelm Wundt

The Gestalt psychologists made substantial contribution to our understanding of:


Perception

Jason is struggling with feelings of resentment toward his new stepmom. Outwardly she is a
pleasant person, but he just cannot bring himself to accept her. To make matters worse, he is
experiencing unprovoked feelings of aggression towards her as well. His therapist insists that he
has unresolved issues in regards to his biological mother. Which type of therapist is Jason
seeing?
Psychodynamic

Which of the following subfields of psychology is INCORRECTLY matched with its description?
Cognitive: examines how people grow and change from conception through death

Research has shown human beings to be notoriously bad decision makers in general. Which type of psychologist
was most likely to have carried out this type of research?
Cognitive

Jean is a psychologist who studies the changes that take place in people over the course of their life spans. Jean
most likely specializes in ________ psychology
Developmental

Which perspective of psychology most clearly focuses on how we learn observable responses?

Behavioral

In what way, if any, do evolutionary psychologists go beyond Darwin's arguments?


They argue that our genetic heritage determines aspects of our personality and social behavior.

Dr. Chen studies how people grow and change during late adolescence and young adulthood; Dr. Doherty focuses on
several traits that distinguish one person from another. Dr. Chen is a(n) _____ psychologist; Dr. Doherty is a _

Which of the following is NOT one of the goals of psychology?


Obfuscation

1.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
The approach used by psychologists to systematically acquire knowledge and understanding
about behavior and other phenomena of interest is called:

the scientific method.

4.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
Which of the following is the final step in the scientific method?
Communicating the findings

10.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
When asked to define "popularity," Brianna offers, "It's when everyone likes you." Chrissy
suggests, "It's basically the number of friends you have." How do the two girls' definitions
differ?
Chrissy's is an operational definition; Brianna's is not.

Random assignment of participants is important in order to ensure that


groups have equal and balanced composition.

What does the positive or negative sign of a correlation coefficient indicate?


Direction of the relationship

It has been proposed that students have difficultly returning to their academic schedule after a holiday or break.
Specifically, it has been predicted that there will be more student absences on the Monday following spring
break than on the Friday prior to spring break. The first statement describes the ___________, while the
second is the ___________.
theory; hypothesis

12.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between a theory and a
hypothesis?
A theory is broader than a hypothesis.

13.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
Prediction is to explanation what _____ is to _____.
hypothesis; theory

14.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
_____ is defined as the systematic inquiry aimed at the discovery of new knowledge.

Research

16.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
Research in which existing data, such as census documents, college records, and newspaper
clippings, are examined to test a hypothesis is known as _____.
archival research

21.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between a sample and a
population?

A population includes a sample.

Correlation research is:

research in which the relationship between two sets of variables is examined to determine
whether they are associated.

27.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
Irving has noticed a pattern: The more alcohol people drink, the more aggressive they seem to
be. Which research method is aimed at verifying a relationship between two variables?
Correlational research

30.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
The strength and direction of the relationship between the two variables are represented by a
mathematical statistic known as a(n) _____.
correlation

35.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
Experimental research requires that the responses of _____ group(s) be examined.
at least two

51.award:

0 out of
1.00 point

Dr. O'Connor is telling his participants before he begins the experiment that their participation is
completely voluntary and that they can stop taking part at any time. Dr. O'Connor is:
obtaining informed consent.

53.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
Which of the following is not one of the reasons that college students are so often used as
participants in psychological research?
They are representative of the population at large.

59.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
A placebo is intended to minimize _____ expectations; a double-blind procedure minimizes
_____.
participant; experimenter expectations

65.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
Allie has developed a theory concerning test grades. She believes there is a relationship between
her frequency of study and the resulting grade. To test her theory, she has to state a(n)
hypothesis.

Psychology's Scientific Method

69.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
If a psychologist were to study "love," she would need to have a(n) ___________ love. Without
this specific information, the hypothesis could not be tested.

operational definition for


Psychology's Scientific Method

69.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
If a psychologist were to study "love," she would need to have a(n) ___________ love. Without
this specific information, the hypothesis could not be tested.

operational definition for


Psychology's Scientific Method

82.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
Participants in a study listen to a lecture either in a lecture hall filled with natural light or in a
lecture hall with no windows and artificial light. Before leaving the lectures, the participants fill
out a mood survey. What is the independent variable in this study?
Type of light

Types of Psychological Research

91.award:
0 out of
1.00 point
A male experimenter is friendlier toward female participants than he is toward male participants.
This is an example of ________ bias.

experimenter

Types of Psychological Research

1.

The approach used by psychologists to systematically acquire knowledge and understanding about behavior
and other phenomena of interest is called:
the scientific method.

2.

Which of the following is the first step in the scientific method?

Identifying questions of interest

6. Regarding theories, which of the following statements is true?


Theories vary in their breadth

10. When asked to define "popularity," Brianna offers, "It's when everyone likes you." Chrissy suggests, "It's
basically the number of friends you have." How do the two girls' definitions differ?
Chrissy's is an operational definition; Brianna's is not.

12. Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between a theory and a hypothesis? - A
theory is broader than a hypothesis.
22. Wilma is undertaking survey research. Which of the following is she probably doing?
Asking a sample of students a series of questions about their sexual attitudes and behaviors

25. Behaviors, events, or other characteristics that can change in some way are referred to as:
Variables

30. The strength and direction of the relationship between the two variables are represented by a mathematical
statistic known as a(n) _____.
Correlation

32. In a negative correlation:


as the value of one variable increases, the value of the other decreases

35. Experimental research requires that the responses of _____ group(s) be examined
at least two

38. In an experiment, the _____ variable is deliberately manipulated by the researcher

independent

44. Which of the following is a disadvantage of survey research?


The sample may not be representative of the larger population

50. Which of the following is not a component of informed consent?


A detailed explanation of the study and its procedures

51. Dr. O'Connor is telling his participants before he begins the experiment that their participation is completely
voluntary and that they can stop taking part at any time. Dr. O'Connor is:
obtaining informed consent.

52. Which of the following sequences best reflects the order of events in an experiment?
Informed consent experiment debriefing

64. A theory can be defined a


a set of closely related ideas that explains an observation.

75. Which of the following correlation coefficients is indicative of the strongest relationship between two variables?
-0.87

89. Group A received progressive relaxation training prior to test taking, while Group B received no treatment. Group
A is the ________ group, while Group B is the ________ group.
experimental; control

92. The placebo effect refers to the


finding that people feel better simply because they believe they are receiving medication.
97. Researchers who use ___________ attempt to view behavior without disturbing the environment.
naturalistic observation

4. Which of the following is the final step in the scientific method?


Communicating the findings
6. Regarding theories, which of the following statements is true?
Theories vary in their breadth.
7.

As compared to the theories about human behavior we all develop in daily life, those formulated by
psychologists are
more formal.
8.

According to Bibb Latane and John Darley's theory of _____, the greater the number of bystanders or
witnesses to an event that calls for helping behavior, the more the responsibility for helping is perceived to
be shared by all the bystanders.

diffusion of responsibility
9. "People with opposite personality traits are more likely to be attracted to each other." This is a:
Hypothesis

17. Wallace is engaged in archival research. In which of the following projects is he most likely engaged?
Examining the registrar's records at a state university to explore the relationship between SAT scores and freshman
GPA
23. Dr. Gigliotti is conducting an in-depth, intensive investigation of a patient with dissociative identity disorder. He
uses psychological tests and interviews to better understand the patient. Dr. Gigliotti is undertaking:
a case study
30. The strength and direction of the relationship between the two variables are represented by a mathematical
statistic known as a(n)
Correlation
31. Using a sample of young adolescents, Dr. Nguyen finds a correlation of +.55 between scores on a measure of
neglectful or uninvolved parenting and scores on a measure of delinquent behavior. Which of the following might Dr.
Nguyen legitimately conclude?
Parenting that is more neglectful is related to a higher degree of delinquent behavior
37. Why are control groups included in experiments?
To ascertain cause-and-effect relationships
41. In which of the following procedures are participants assigned to different experimental groups on the basis of
chance and chance alone?
Random assignment to condition

49. Kendra is combining the results of a number of experiments to yield an overall conclusion. Kendra is performing a
meta-analysis

50. Which of the following is not a component of informed consent?


A detailed explanation of the study and its procedures.

56. What is a placebo?


A false experimental treatment

58. In an experiment involving a placebo:


all the participants receive a treatment

64. A theory can be defined as


a set of closely related ideas that explains an observation.

66. In surveys of adolescents, many teenagers claim they began smoking cigarettes because of peer pressure. In
observing adolescent groups, however, you rarely see an individual offer another student a cigarette or asking
another student whether they would like to smoke. You predict that peer pressure is NOT the primary reason that
adolescents smoke cigarettes. You have just formulated a(n)
hypothesis.

73. A study indicates a strong positive correlation between two variables. This means that
as one variable increases, the other also increases

75. Which of the following correlation coefficients is indicative of the strongest relationship between two variables?
-0.87

101. What, if anything, is wrong with overgeneralizing the findings of a study that has a very small sample size?
The subjects may share a characteristic that does not occur across the chosen population.

3. Which of the following sequences correctly arranges the steps in the scientific method from first to last?
Identify problem formulate explanation carry out research communicate findings

5. are broad explanations and predictions concerning phenomena of interest.


Theories

Regarding theories, which of the following statements is true?


Theories vary in their breadth

Which of the following descriptive research methods is correctly matched with a description?
Naturalistic observationbehavior is investigated in the environment in which it typically occurs, without intervention
by the researche

Behaviors, events, or other characteristics that can change in some way are referred to as
Variables
Using a sample of young adolescents, Dr. Nguyen finds a correlation of +.55 between scores on a measure of
neglectful or uninvolved parenting and scores on a measure of delinquent behavior. Which of the following might Dr.
Nguyen legitimately conclude?
Parenting that is more neglectful is related to a higher degree of delinquent behavior.

Experimental research requires that the responses of _____ group(s) be examined.


at least two

In an experiment, the _____ variable is deliberately manipulated by the researcher


independent

Doctors Chase and Sanborn are conducting an experiment on the effects of caffeine on memory. Participants are
randomly assigned to a caffeine or a no-caffeine group; their recall of items on a word list is later assessed. Which
pair below correctly names and identifies the variables in this experiment?
Word recalldependent variable; caffeineindependent variable

Which of the following is a disadvantage of survey research?


The sample may not be representative of the larger population
To guard against participant expectations biasing the results of an experiment, the experimenter may
try to disguise the true purpose of the experiment.

A team of researchers conduct an experiment to test the effectiveness of a new drug in treating anxiety disorders.
The participants in the control group receive sugar pills without active ingredients, while those in the experimental
group receive the new, anti-anxiety drug. In this example, the researchers use
a placebo

A pharmaceutical company wishes to test the efficacy of a new antidepressant using a double-blind procedure. Which
alternative correctly describes the procedure the company would use?
The research assistants would not know which participants were receiving the new drug and which were receiving an
inert pill. Also, each patient would not know which type of pill he or she was taking

In surveys of adolescents, many teenagers claim they began smoking cigarettes because of peer pressure. In
observing adolescent groups, however, you rarely see an individual offer another student a cigarette or asking
another student whether they would like to smoke. You predict that peer pressure is NOT the primary reason that
adolescents smoke cigarettes. You have just formulated a(n)
Hypothesis
If Professor Jung wants to be able to draw cause and effect conclusions from her research, which of the following is
the most crucial aspect of her experimental design?
Random assignment
Participants in a study are divided into two groups, with one group receiving an experimental medication and the
second group receiving a pill that looks like the experimental medication but does not actually contain medication.
The group receiving the experimental medication is called the ________ group
Experimental
Group A received progressive relaxation training prior to test taking, while Group B received no treatment. Group A is
the ________ group, while Group B is the ________ group
experimental; control
When using inferential statistics, the researcher learns
whether the data collected support the hypothesis

When asked to define "popularity," Brianna offers, "It's when everyone likes you." Chrissy suggests, "It's basically the
number of friends you have." How do the two girls' definitions differ?

Chrissy's is an operational definition; Brianna's is not.


Regarding operational definitions, which of the following statements is most accurate?
For a given hypothesis, many operational definitions are usually possible
is defined as the systematic inquiry aimed at the discovery of new knowledge.
Research
Wallace is engaged in archival research. In which of the following projects is he most likely engaged?
Examining the registrar's records at a state university to explore the relationship between SAT scores and freshman
GPA
Correlation research is
research in which the relationship between two sets of variables is examined to determine whether they are
associated

The correlation coefficient ranges from _____ to


-1.0 to 1.0

Using a sample of young adolescents, Dr. Nguyen finds a correlation of +.55 between scores on a measure of
neglectful or uninvolved parenting and scores on a measure of delinquent behavior. Which of the following might Dr.
Nguyen legitimately conclude?
Parenting that is more neglectful is related to a higher degree of delinquent behavior.

Why are control groups included in experiments?


To ascertain cause-and-effect relationships

In which of the following procedures are participants assigned to different experimental groups on the basis of chance
and chance alone?
Random assignment to condition

Which of the following is not a component of informed consent?


A detailed explanation of the study and its procedures

Dr. O'Connor is telling his participants before he begins the experiment that their participation is completely voluntary
and that they can stop taking part at any time. Dr. O'Connor is
obtaining informed consent

A pharmaceutical company wishes to test the efficacy of a new antidepressant using a double-blind procedure. Which
alternative correctly describes the procedure the company would use?
The research assistants would not know which participants were receiving the new drug and which were receiving an
inert pill. Also, each patient would not know which type of pill he or she was taking.

Variables are elements of research that


can change

Professor Jacobs believes that sleep deprivation is related to conflicts between roommates.
He collects data on the number of hours of sleep and the number of roommate conflicts for a group of college
students over the course of a month. He obtains a correlation coefficient of +0.75. What can he conclude?
Sleep deprivation is associated with more conflicts.

A researcher tells a group of participants that as part of his experiment they are going to receive "painful" electrical
shocks. He tells a second group that they will receive "mild" electric shock. He asks participants in both groups
whether they prefer to wait alone or with others while he sets up the shock machinery. What is the dependent
variable?
Participants' answers to the question about waiting

An experimenter wants to study the relationship between caffeine and reaction time. She assigns participants as
follows: Group 1 receives 100 mg of caffeine; Group 2 receives 200 mg of caffeine; Group 3 receives 300 mg of
caffeine; and, Group 4 receives no caffeine. Twenty minutes later all participants complete the reaction-time test.
Which group is the control group?
Group 4.

The mode of a distribution of scores refers to the

most common score

The scientific method requires


evaluation of conclusions drawn

A correlational study is used to determine


the relationship between variables

Each of the following is a descriptive research technique except


experimental research

Naturalistic observation entails:


examining behavior in the setting in which it typically occurs

Which of the following researchers is conducting a case study


Dr. Innis, who is investigating in detail the tactile perception of a blind woman

In an experiment, the _____ variable is measured and is expected to change due to the experimenter's manipulation
Dependent

An experimenter flips a coin for each participant and assigns the participant to one group when "heads" came up and
to the other group when "tails" came up. This process is referred to as
random assignment to condition
Which of the following is not one of the reasons that college students are so often used as participants in
psychological research?
They are representative of the population at large.
In an experiment involving a placebo
all the participants receive a treatment.
A study indicates a strong positive correlation between two variables. This means that
as one variable increases, the other also increases

Skinner discovered that a pigeon will peck at a button more often if the pecking is rewarded with a food pellet. In
Skinner's study, the food pellet is the ________ variable
Independent

Although research has shown that it takes approximately 30 minutes for an aspirin to have an effect on the body,
most people report that their headaches begin to fade after only about 10 minutes. What is the best explanation for
this finding?
Placebo effects

The mode of a distribution of scores refers to the


most common score

What, if anything, is wrong with overgeneralizing the findings of a study that has a very small sample size?
The subjects may share a characteristic that does not occur across the chosen population

Which of the following researchers is conducting a case study?


Dr. Innis, who is investigating in detail the tactile perception of a blind woman

Experimental group is to control group what _____ is to


treatment; no treatment

Kendra is combining the results of a number of experiments to yield an overall conclusion. Kendra is performing a
meta-analysis

"This cannot be the real opinion of the entire student body! She didn't ask me to fill out her survey!" Haley
complained. Her psychology teacher explained that
a representative sample of responses can indicate the view of the majority

Deception in research is ethically allowed


if the anticipated benefits outweigh the anticipated costs, and if participants are debriefed.

Which term is most nearly synonymous with the term correlation?


Association
Experimental research is to correlational research what _____ is to
cause; association

When cues are transmitted to participants about how they are expected to behave in particular experimental
conditions, the research results may reflect _____ expectations. When people develop their own ideas about the
topic of the research, the investigation's outcomes may be biased by
experimenter; participant expectations

In a formal experiment, which group is the experimental group?


Group that is subjected to manipulation of the independent variable

In a formal experiment, the group that is NOT subjected to a treatment condition is referred to as the ________ group
Control

In a double-blind experiment,
neither researchers nor participants know who is in the control or experimental group.

Meaningful results that make it possible for researchers to feel confident that they have confirmed their hypotheses is
known as a
significant outcome

The scientific study of behavior and mental processes


psychology

The approach that views behavior from the perspective of the brain, the nervous
system and other biological functions.

Neuroscience Perspective

The approach that suggests that observable, measurable behavior should be the focus
of study.
Behavioral Perspective

The approach that focuses on how people think, understand, and reason about the
world.
Cognitive Perspective

Humanistic Perspective
The approach that suggests that all individuals naturally strive to grow, develop and be
in control of their lives and behavior.

Free Will

The idea that behavior is caused primarily by choices that are made freely by the
individual.

Determinism
The idea that people's behavior is produced primarily by factors outside of their willful
control.

Scientific Method
The approach through which psychologists systematically acquire knowledge and
understanding about behavior and other phenomena of interest.

Theories
Broad explanations and predictions concerning phenomena of interest.

Hypothesis
A prediction stemming from a theory, stated in a way that allows it to be tested.

Operational Definition
The translation of a hypothesis into something observable and measurable.

Archival Research
Research in with existing data, such as census documents, college records, and
newspaper clippings, are examined to test a hypothesis.

Naturalistic Observation
Research in which an investigator simply observes some naturally occurring behavior
and does not make a change in the situation.

Survey Research
Research in which people chosen to represent a larger population are asked a series of
questions about their behavior, thoughts, or attitudes.

Variables
Behaviors, events, or other characteristics that can change, or vary, in some ways.

Correlational Research
Research in which the relationship between two sets of variables is examined to
determine whether they are associated, or "correlated".

Experiment
The investigation of the relationship between two or more variables by deliberately
producing a change in one variable in a situation and observing the effects of that
change on other aspects of the situation.

Experimental Manipulation

The change that an experimenter deliberately produces in a situation.

Treatment
The manipulation implemented by the experimenter.

Experimental Group
Any group participating in an experiment that receives a treatment.

Control Group
A group participating in an experiment that receives no treatment.

Independent Variable
The variable that is manipulated by an experimenter.

Dependent Variable
The variable that is measured and is expected to change as the result of the changes
caused by the experimenter's manipulation of the independent variable.

Random Assignment to Condition


A procedure in which participants are assigned to different experimental groups or
"conditions" on the basis of chance and chance alone.

Significant Outcome
Meaningful results that make it possible for researchers to feel confident that they have
confirmed their hypotheses.

Replication
The repetition of research, sometimes using other procedures, settings, and groups of
participants, to increase confidence in prior finding.

Informed Consent
A document signed by participants affirming that they have been told the basic outlines
of the study and are aware of what their participation will involve.

Experimental Bias
Factors that distort how the independent variable affects the dependent variable in an
experiment.

Placebo
A False treatment, such as a pill, "drug", or other substance, without any significant
chemical properties or active ingredients.

Iyesha reads a journal article reporting a study in which a small sample of women undertook tests of spatial ability at
two points during their menstrual cycle. Iyesha conducts a similar study using not only spatial ability but also verbal
ability tests. In addition, Iyesha tests a larger sample of women. She aims to confirm the findings of the study
mentioned in the journal. Iyesha performs a
replicated research

"The problem with drinking coffee in the evening," complained Saundra, "is that it interferes with my ability to fall
asleep. My mind keeps racing, but my body is so tired!" Saundra is describing the ________ between caffeine intake
and sleep.
negative correlation

Kevin has just completed his first day of naturalistic observation at the local high school, and he is concerned about
the effects his presence in the classrooms is having on adolescent behavior. This is an important issue since, in truly
naturalistic research, researchers cannot
Intervene

Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between a sample and a population?
A population includes a sample

Which of the following researchers is conducting a case study?


Dr. Innis, who is investigating in detail the tactile perception of a blind woman

An experimenter flips a coin for each participant and assigns the participant to one group when "heads" came up and
to the other group when "tails" came up. This process is referred to as:
random assignment to condition

Which of the following is a disadvantage of survey research?


The sample may not be representative of the larger population

Research that is conducted, sometimes using other procedures, settings, and groups of participants, to increase
confidence in prior finding is referred to as
replicated research

When cues are transmitted to participants about how they are expected to behave in particular experimental
conditions, the research results may reflect _____ expectations. When people develop their own ideas about the
topic of the research, the investigation's outcomes may be biased by

experimenter; participant expectations

Surveys, case studies, and interviews are all a part of ________ research
Descriptive

A study indicates a strong positive correlation between two variables. This means that
as one variable increases, the other also increases

When conducting an experiment, Jamie assigns everybody who arrives before noon to the treatment condition and
everybody who arrives after noon to the control group. What is wrong with this experiment?
Jamie has not used true random assignment to conditions

When using inferential statistics, the researcher learns


whether the data collected support the hypothesis

The group of participants observed in a research study are referred to as the


sample

Experimental research is to correlational research what _____ is to


cause; association

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a case study?


Results may not be generalizable beyond the sample.

Mean, median, and standard deviation are examples of ___________ statistics


Descriptive
In an experiment, the _____ variable is measured and is expected to change due to the experimenter's manipulation.
Dependent

We can predict participants' scores on Variable A with perfect accuracy by knowing their scores on Variable B. Higher
scores on Variable A are associated with higher scores on Variable B. What is the correlation coefficient for the
correlation between Variables A and B?
+1.00

The specific description of a behavior to be studied is referred to as the


operational definition

Evolutionary psychology maintains that


All of these

Clinical neuropsychology
Focuses on.biological factors

In what way are the diverse subfields of psychology related?


They ultimately share a common goal.
Dr. Alvarez studies how the degeneration of certain components of nerve cells in the brain might
contribute to the development of multiple sclerosis. Dr. Alvarez's work BEST exemplifies the
_____ subfield of psychology.
behavioral neuroscience
Which branch of psychology explores the relationship between psychological factors and
physical ailments or disease?
Health psychology
Counseling psychologists are more likely than clinical psychologists to practice in:
Colleges
Evolutionary psychologists are especially interested in:
how behavior is influenced by our genetic inheritance from our ancestors.

The formal beginning of psychology is associated with:


Wundt.
Which of the following locations is associated with the formal beginning of psychology?
Germany
Lassandra takes a sip of cola. "Sweet...cold, wet, tingly...slightly bitter," she reports. Lassandra
is:
introspecting.
The approach that views behavior from the perspective of the brain, the nervous system, and
other biological functions is known as the _____ perspective
Neuroscience
Contributions of the psychodynamic perspective include all of the following EXCEPT
a way to look at behavior in a more concrete, objective fashion.
_____ is the idea that people's behavior is produced primarily by factors outside of their willful
control.
Determinism
Dr. Quinones studies the achievement motivation of junior high school students. He asserts that
such motivation mainly reflects the parenting and educational practices the students have
experienced. This statement is most directly related to the _____ issue; Dr. Quinones' position is
toward the _____ end of the continuum.
nature vs. nurture; nurture
Behavior is ___________, while mental processes are ___________.
observable; private

If you were a psychologist who was labeled a structuralist, you would be interested in the
___________ of the mind, and you would use ___________ as your primary research method.
structures; introspection
Dr. Burrhus's treatment plan for Annette focuses on consistently providing rewards for doing
things she wants to do more often and removing rewards for doing things she wants to do less
often. Dr. Burrhus adheres most closely to the ___________ perspective.
Behavioral
"I am not as concerned about what is going on in your life today as I am with the upbringing you
received." Which type of psychologist is most likely to have uttered these words?
Psychodynamic
According to the ___________ perspective, we are in control of our lives and have the capacity
for positive growth.
Humanistic
The specialist most likely to have a medical degree is a(n)
psychiatrist.
Kara was surprised to learn that certain hand signals which indicate a "job well done" in the
United States are socially unacceptable in other countries. This finding comes from research
completed by a ________ psychologist
cross-cultural
Which of the following best describes the impact that nature and nurture have on a person's
psychological characteristics?
Genetics has a significant impact.

_____ psychology focuses on higher mental processes, including thinking, memory, reasoning,
problem solving, judging, decision making, and language.
Cognitive
Dr. Ebrahim examines how children's friendships change through elementary and middle-school
years. Dr. Ebrahim is a(n) _____ psychologist
Developmental
Fiona helps students with ADHD develop effective study regimens and strategies. Fiona is most
likely a(n) _____ psychologist.
Counseling
Counseling psychologists are more likely than clinical psychologists to practice in:
colleges.
Which of the following statements concerning the representation of racial and ethnic minorities
among American psychologists is TRUE?
The number of minority members entering the field is higher than it was 10 years ago.
Lassandra takes a sip of cola. "Sweet...cold, wet, tingly...slightly bitter," she reports. Lassandra
is:
introspecting.
Which of the following psychologists is associated with functionalism?
William James
The emphasis of the humanistic perspective is on:
free will.
Free will stands in contrast to _____.
Determinism

Which contemporary perspective is CORRECTLY matched with its description?


Behavioral perspective; emphasizes observable behavior and objectivity
Strategies aimed at encouraging one to examine assumptions, evaluate assertions, and think more
carefully are specifically called _____ techniques.
critical thinking
Dr. Quinones studies the achievement motivation of junior high school students. He asserts that
such motivation mainly reflects the parenting and educational practices the students have
experienced. This statement is most directly related to the _____ issue; Dr. Quinones' position is
toward the _____ end of the continuum.
nature vs. nurture; nurture
Who is demonstrating psychological skepticism?
Lindsey is wondering if you can really improve your memory over night by taking a
pill.
What was innovative about Wundt's early work?
He was the first person to introduce the idea of measuring mental processes.
Which of the following would be most interesting to a behavioral psychologist?
The reasons why some people fail to stop at a red light
According to the ___________ perspective, we are in control of our lives and have the capacity
for positive growth.
Humanistic
Evolutionary psychology maintains that
the traits of living members of a species are the result of survival of the fittest.

the traits which one looks for in a potential spouse are based on characteristics which
have

allowed humans to survive.


some behaviors are pre-wired into species as they assist in maintaining the reproductive

ability

of the species.
All of these

Psychiatrists
can prescribe medication.
If an NFL player wanted to see a psychologist to improve his game, what type of psychologist is
he most likely to consult?
Sport psychologist
If an NFL player wanted to see a psychologist to improve his game, what type of psychologist is
he most likely to consult?
Sport psychologist
Which branch of psychology explores the relationship between psychological factors and
physical ailments or disease?
Health psychology
Counseling psychologists are more likely than clinical psychologists to practice in
colleges.
Currently, women earn _____ of new psychology doctorate degrees in the United States.
three-fourth
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the difference between the PhD and the
PsyD degrees?
The PhD requires a dissertation based on an original investigation.

The field of phrenology is associated with:


Gall.
Which of the following was a disadvantage of introspection?
Introspection was not truly scientific.
Penny is a recovering drug addict. Her treatment program emphasizes the influence of her
environment"people, places, and things"on her use of her drug of choice. Her program
reflects the _____ perspective in psychology.
Behavioral
The computer metaphor is at the heart of the _____ perspective.
Cognitive
Free will stands in contrast to _____.
Determinism
Psychologists adhering to the _____ perspective are probably the LEAST likely to take a
"nature" stance on the nature vs. nurture issue
Behaviorist
Race is to ethnicity what _____ is to _____.
biology; culture
Many colleges use students' SAT scores to determine whom they will accept into their programs.
Which goal of psychological science are they utilizing?
Predict
Who is demonstrating psychological skepticism?
Lindsey is wondering if you can really improve your memory over night by taking a pill.

William James, a prominent American psychologist and philosopher, focused on human


interaction and the purpose of thoughts. His view was eventually named
functionalism.
In psychology, William James was highly influential in developing the school of thought known
as
functionalism.
Who highlighted the reproductive advantages of environmentally adaptive traits?
Darwin
Darwin, when describing the process of natural selection, claimed that
characteristics favored by the environment are more likely to continue.
Humanism denies the role of determinism but elevates the role of
free will.
Fiona helps students with ADHD develop effective study regimens and strategies. Fiona is most
likely a(n) _____ psychologist.
Counseling
What might be the most controversial aspect of the evolutionary psychology position?
Evolutionary psychologists minimize the role of environmental and social forces.
The phrase tabula rasa may be translated as:
blank slate.
Psychologists adhering to the _____ perspective are probably the LEAST likely to take a
"nature" stance on the nature vs. nurture issue.
Behaviorist

Strategies aimed at encouraging one to examine assumptions, evaluate assertions, and think more
carefully are specifically called _____ techniques.
critical thinking
Psychologists rely on ___________ which is the process of thinking reflectively and actively,
and evaluating evidence.
critical thinking
Psychologists who study the role of the brain in psychological processes have adopted the
___________ perspective.
Neuroscience
In order to study mind and behavior, psychologists:
rely on the scientific method.
Dr. Ebrahim examines how children's friendships change through elementary and middle-school
years. Dr. Ebrahim is a(n) _____ psychologist.
Developmental
Dr. Growe is reading about a research in which psychologists investigated the effect of group
size on the conformity of group members. Dr. Growe is most likely reading the Journal of _____
Psychology.
Social
Which of the following psychologists is associated with functionalism?
William James
_____ is the idea that people's behavior is produced primarily by factors outside of their willful
control.
Determinism

Wilhelm Wundt is to ___________, as William James is to ___________.


structuralism; functionalism
Psychology is defined as the:
scientific study of behavior and mental processes.

Which of the following individuals is LEAST likely to be a psychologist?


Everett, who has an MD degree
Dr. Quinones studies the achievement motivation of junior high school students. He asserts that
such motivation mainly reflects the parenting and educational practices the students have
experienced. This statement is most directly related to the _____ issue; Dr. Quinones' position is
toward the _____ end of the continuum
nature vs. nurture; nurture
Early researchers from which school of thought asked participants to report sensations they were
experiencing?
Structuralism
According to a humanistic psychologist, Henry punched his little brother because he
wanted to.
The most common employment sector for students graduating with a bachelor's degree in
psychology is _____.
social services
Recall Watson's quote - "Give me a dozen healthy infants, well-formed, and my own specified
world to bring them up in and I'll guarantee to take any one at random and train him to become

any type of specialist I might selectdoctor, lawyer, artist, merchant-chief, and yes, even
beggar-man and thief, regardless of his talents, penchants, tendencies, abilities, vocations and
race of his ancestors." Where 1 = extreme nature and 10 = extreme nurture, where would you
place Watson on the nature vs. nurture issue?
9 or 10
"I am not as concerned about what is going on in your life today as I am with the upbringing you
received." Which type of psychologist is most likely to have uttered these words?
Psychodynamic
Cognitive psychology can best be described as the
study of higher mental processes
Dr. Ames studies the way groups influence the decisions that people make. She is a ________
psychologist.
Social
Which best depicts B. F Skinner's belief about studying human behavior?
What we do is most important.
Dr. Wade uses PET scans to explain that the difference between a male and a female is apparent
in the structure and function of the brain. Dr. Wade's specialty is
neuropsychology.
_____ is an early approach to psychology that concentrated on what the mind does and the role
of behavior in allowing people to adapt to their environments.
Functionalism

is a procedure used to study the structure of the mind in which subjects are asked to describe in detail what they are
experiencing when they are exposed to a stimulus.

Introspection

Who conducted the first psychological experiment in 1879?


Wilhelm Wundt

The Gestalt psychologists made substantial contribution to our understanding of:


Perception

Jason is struggling with feelings of resentment toward his new stepmom. Outwardly she is a
pleasant person, but he just cannot bring himself to accept her. To make matters worse, he is
experiencing unprovoked feelings of aggression towards her as well. His therapist insists that he
has unresolved issues in regards to his biological mother. Which type of therapist is Jason
seeing?
Psychodynamic

Which of the following subfields of psychology is INCORRECTLY matched with its description?
Cognitive: examines how people grow and change from conception through death

Research has shown human beings to be notoriously bad decision makers in general. Which type of psychologist
was most likely to have carried out this type of research?
Cognitive

Jean is a psychologist who studies the changes that take place in people over the course of their life spans. Jean
most likely specializes in ________ psychology
Developmental

Which perspective of psychology most clearly focuses on how we learn observable responses?

Behavioral

In what way, if any, do evolutionary psychologists go beyond Darwin's arguments?


They argue that our genetic heritage determines aspects of our personality and social behavior.

Dr. Chen studies how people grow and change during late adolescence and young adulthood; Dr. Doherty focuses on
several traits that distinguish one person from another. Dr. Chen is a(n) _____ psychologist; Dr. Doherty is a _

Which of the following is NOT one of the goals of psychology?


Obfuscation
Anna is reading her psychology text. The activation of receptors in her retina by a source of
physical energy is called
Sensation

Which of the following statements is TRUE of sensation and perception?


Sensation involves the activation of sense receptors; perception involves interpretation

Dr. Breiland examines the relationship between the physical properties of light, such as its
amplitude and wavelength, and humans' perception of color. Which of the following terms
MOST ACCURATELY describes Dr. Breiland's field of study?
Psychophysics

The smallest level of added or reduced stimulation required to sense that a change in stimulation
has occurred is known as the
difference threshold

Weber's law states that a just noticeable difference is a


constant proportion of the intensity of an initial stimulus

Which of the following laws would help explain why a person in a quiet room is more startled by
the ringing of a telephone than a person who is already in a noisy room?
Weber's law

Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the order in which light passes through the
structures of the eye during vision?
Cornea pupil lens retina

cells receive information directly from the rods and cones and communicate that information to
the _____ cells
Bipolar; ganglion

The point at which the optic nerves meet and then split is termed the optic:
Chiasm

In the most common form of color blindness:


all red and green objects appear yellow.

Suppose you stare at an illustration of the American flag for a while, then glance at a blank white
page. The red stripes look green when you glance at the blank page because:
the receptor cells for the red component of the pairing become fatigued

With respect to the trichromatic and the opponent-process theories of color perception, which of
the following statements is most accurate?
Trichromatic process works within the retina itself; whereas opponent mechanisms operate both
in the retina and at later stages of neuronal processing.

When you visit a new city for the first time, it often takes a lot of cognitive effort to find your
way around. One explanation lies in the fact that new experiences require us to rely primarily on
________ processing
bottom-up

If a person hears two tones that differ in intensity just barely enough to be detected, the point of
detection is referred to as the ________ threshold.
Difference

In regards to light, wavelength is the ________ and amplitude is the


hue; brightness

To read this question, you must look at it. After the light passes into your eyes, the incoming
light waves are recorded by receptor cells located in the
Retina

Toward the center of the retina, there is an area that contains only cones. This area is called the
Fovea

You try to note the incredibly fine details of a computer microchip through a magnifying glass.
On which area of the retina are you focusing this image?
Fovea

If a student asks you why we can see colors and you want to provide an answer based on the
opponent-process theory of color vision, you tell the student it is because there are ________
different types of cone receptors.
Four

The ________ theory of color vision most accurately describes the process of color vision at the
level of the retina.
Trichromatic

The sorting out, interpretation, analysis, and integration of stimuli by the sense organs and brain
is known as
Perception

A(n) _____ threshold is the stimulus intensity that is detected 50% of the time
Absolute

One can detect a single drop of perfume diffused in an area the size of a one-bedroom apartment.
This is due to:
absolute threshold

Weber's law states that a just noticeable difference is a


constant proportion of the intensity of an initial stimulus

Which of the following laws would help explain why a person in a quiet room is more startled by
the ringing of a telephone than a person who is already in a noisy room?
Weber's law

Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the order in which light passes through the
structures of the eye during vision?
Cornea pupil lens retina
As compared to cones, rods:
are highly sensitive to light

is the activation of neurons in the cortex by visual stimuli of specific shapes or patterns.
Feature detection

In the most common form of color blindness


all red and green objects appear yellow.

Damon is among the 7% of males with color blindness. He suffers from the most common form
of color blindness. Which of the following statements best illustrates Damon's experience of
color?
Red apples on a tree seem to be yellow.
The trichromatic theory was first proposed by _____. The opponent-process theory was first
proposed by
Thomas Young; Ewald Hering
processing involves starting with a sense of what is happening and then applying that framework
to information in the world.
Top-down

As young children learn to read, they often have difficulty comprehending what the story is
saying because they are working so hard to decode what the words are. This reflects an overreliance on which type of processing?
Bottom-up
You cannot feel the waistband of your underwear, even though you know it is there. This is the
result of

sensory adaptation

To read this question, you must look at it. After the light passes into your eyes, the incoming
light waves are recorded by receptor cells located in the
Retina

Who is relying most heavily on their rods?


Marcus is trying to find his seat as the movie begins to play.
Near the center of the retina there is a spot where there are no rods and no cones. This spot exists
because of
the optic nerve

The ________ theory of color vision most accurately describes the process of color vision at the
level of the retina.
Trichromatic

One way to think about how we process color images is that the ________ describes the events
at the first level of neurons in the visual system, while the ________ best describes the activities
of neurons in the rest of the visual system
trichromatic theory; opponent-process theory
Which of the following statements is TRUE of sensation and perception?

Sensation involves the activation of sense receptors; perception involves


interpretation
One can detect a single drop of perfume diffused in an area the size of a one-bedroom apartment.
This is due to:
absolute threshold

Which of the following most closely approximates the meaning of the term noise as
psychophysicists use it?
Any distraction

Weber's law states that a just noticeable difference is a


constant proportion of the intensity of an initial stimulus

Which of the following laws would help explain why a person in a quiet room is more startled by
the ringing of a telephone than a person who is already in a noisy room?
Weber's law

The part of the eye that converts the electromagnetic energy of light to electrical impulses for
transmission to the brain is known as the
Retina

Adelaide notices a flicker of motion out of the corner of her eye as she hurries down a dim alley
late at night. Sydney deciphers a complex wiring diagram under the bright glare of her desk
lamp. Adelaide's vision is driven mainly by her _____. Sydney is mainly using her
rods; cones

In the most common form of color blindness:


all red and green objects appear yellow

Damon is among the 7% of males with color blindness. He suffers from the most common form
of color blindness. Which of the following statements best illustrates Damon's experience of
color?
Red apples on a tree seem to be yellow.

The trichromatic theory was first proposed by _____. The opponent-process theory was first
proposed by
Thomas Young; Ewald Hering

Which of the following is true of the opponent-process theory?


The opponent-process theory suggests that in addition to black and white, there are
four, rather than three, colors
Contestants on the game show Wheel of Fortune are given labels to assist them solving the
puzzles. These labels activate ________ processing

top-down
When you visit a new city for the first time, it often takes a lot of cognitive effort to find your
way around. One explanation lies in the fact that new experiences require us to rely primarily on
________ processing.
bottom-up

You are watching a movie with some scenes set in a noisy bar, some scenes containing gunfire,
and some scenes containing very quiet dialogue. During the quiet scenes, you can hear most of
the dialogue, but find that if the actors drop their volume on certain lines, you cannot hear what
they are saying. This reflects the fact that a message must exceed a(n) ________ in order to be
processed.
Threshold

When you are paid $1 instead of $2, it is a big deal. When you are paid $91 instead of $92, it
feels less painful. This is similar to
Weber's law

To read this question, you must look at it. After the light passes into your eyes, the incoming
light waves are recorded by receptor cells located in the
retina
Toward the center of the retina, there is an area that contains only cones. This area is called the
fovea

Jane is having trouble sleeping. As she sits in bed looking around the darkened room, she notices
that her peripheral vision seems to be better than her central vision. This is because vision in low
light conditions
depends on the rods
Hannah, a first-year psychology student, just discovered she has a blind spot in each eye. Should
she be concerned?
No, everyone has blind spots
Dr. Breiland examines the relationship between the physical properties of light, such as its
amplitude and wavelength, and humans' perception of color. Which of the following terms
MOST ACCURATELY describes Dr. Breiland's field of study?
Psychophysics

A(n) _____ threshold is the stimulus intensity that is detected 50% of the time
absolute
The smallest level of added or reduced stimulation required to sense that a change in stimulation
has occurred is known as the
difference threshold

Which of the following laws would help explain why a person in a quiet room is more startled by
the ringing of a telephone than a person who is already in a noisy room?
Weber's law

is an adjustment in sensory capacity after prolonged exposure to unchanging stimuli.


Adaptation

In regards to what we see in our world, the range of wavelengths that humans are sensitive to is
called the
visual spectrum
Adelaide notices a flicker of motion out of the corner of her eye as she hurries down a dim alley
late at night. Sydney deciphers a complex wiring diagram under the bright glare of her desk
lamp. Adelaide's vision is driven mainly by her _____. Sydney is mainly using her
rods; cones

Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the order in which light stimulates cells
early in the visual processing of an image?
Rods and cones bipolar cells ganglion cells
cells receive information directly from the rods and cones and communicate that information to
the _____ cells
Bipolar; ganglion

Suppose you stare at an illustration of the American flag for a while, then glance at a blank white
page. The red stripes look green when you glance at the blank page because:
the receptor cells for the red component of the pairing become fatigued

With respect to the trichromatic and the opponent-process theories of color perception, which of
the following statements is most accurate?
Trichromatic process works within the retina itself; whereas opponent mechanisms
operate both in the retina and at later stages of neuronal processing.
An architect is designing apartments and wants them to be soundproof. She asks a psychologist
what the smallest amount of sound is that can be heard. Her question is most related to the
________ threshold
Absolute

You cannot feel the waistband of your underwear, even though you know it is there. This is the
result of
sensory adaptation

In regards to light, wavelength is the ________ and amplitude is the


hue; brightness
Toward the center of the retina, there is an area that contains only cones. This area is called the
fovea
Who is relying most heavily on their rods?
Marcus is trying to find his seat as the movie begins to play.
Near the center of the retina there is a spot where there are no rods and no cones. This spot exists
because of
the optic nerve

Hannah, a first-year psychology student, just discovered she has a blind spot in each eye. Should
she be concerned?
No, everyone has blind spots.
If a student asks you why we can see colors and you want to provide an answer based on the
opponent-process theory of color vision, you tell the student it is because there are ________
different types of cone receptors
four
A snack manufacturer realizes that he must increase the salt content of his company's chips by
3% in order for a sample of consumers to notice that the chips are saltier than they were before.
This example most nearly illustrates the concept of a(n):
difference threshold

When you see the bright color and round shape of a tomato on the vine in your vegetable garden,
smell its sun-warmed fragrance, hear the buzzing of a nearby bee, feel the velvety texture of its
skin, and taste the flavor as you bite into it, your process of receiving this stimulus energy from
the environment is called
sensation
When you are able to taste a quarter teaspoon of salt dissolved in a glass of water five times out
of 10, you have attained your ________ threshold
Absolute

Acme Foods wants to make its chips saltier, but it doesn't want to spend more than it has to on
salt. A sample of consumers are asked to compare its current chip (saltiness = 100) with saltier
versions and to say whether the new version is saltier. On average, sample consumers reliably
say the new chip is saltier when its saltiness value is 108, but not when its saltiness value is
below 108. Assuming Acme Foods' sample consumers are representative of people in general,
which of the following best represents the just noticeable difference for saltiness?
8%

The _____ states that there are three kinds of cones in the retina, each of which responds
primarily to a specific range of wavelengths.
trichromatic theory of color vision
Every day, you see, hear, smell, taste, and feel stimuli from the outside world. Collecting this
data about that world is the function of
Sensation

You are studying in your dorm room. You gently request that your neighbor turn the volume of
his television down until you cannot hear it. You are asking your neighbor to find your
absolute threshold
Afterimages refer to
the sensation left over after an image is removed.
You arrive at your friend's apartment for a big party at the end of the semester. When you first
arrive, the music is so loud that it almost hurts your ears. After a couple of hours, even though

the music is still at the same volume, it doesn't bother you anymore, and you like it. This change
over time describes the process of
sensory adaptation

The cochlea is a
coiled tube in the inner ear filled with fluid that vibrates in response to sound
The _____ states that different areas of the basilar membrane respond to different frequencies
place theory of hearing

How many basic types of taste are there?


4-5

Nerve receptor cells for the skin senses are


unevenly distributed throughout the skin
Which of the following treatments for pain is most effective for people who continually say to
themselves, "This pain will never stop," "The pain is ruining my life"?
Cognitive restructuring

Whenever Mr. Redding catches himself saying, "This pain is ruining my life," he is supposed to
immediately tell himself, "STOP! I am in control of my pain." This pain management technique
is known as _____ restructuring
Cognitive

is a condition in which exposure to one sensation evokes an additional one


Synesthesia
Consider the figure within parentheses: (XX XX XX). That we perceive three pairs of Xs reflects
the Gestalt principle(s) of
proximity.
Which of the following statements is most accurate with respect to the role of gestalt psychology
in contemporary psychology?
Gestalt psychology no longer plays a prominent role, but the Gestaltists' focus on the
organization of perceptual elements remains influential

Perception that consists of the progression of recognizing and processing information from
individual components of a stimuli and moving to the perception of the whole is known as
bottom-up processing
Which of the following statements most accurately expresses the relationship between top-down
and bottom-up processing?
Top-down and bottom-up processes occur simultaneously in the perception of the
world around us
You are sitting in a stationary train at a busy station. Suddenly, you feel like you are slowly
sliding backward as the train next to you begins to pull out. This illusion reflects the operation of
the _____ cue of
monocular; motion parallax

Why might contemporary, mainstream psychologists reconsider the possibility that ESP exists?
The topic has been addressed by a credible and prestigious psychological journal
Perceiving three dimensions is called
depth perception
The tendency for perceptions of objects to remain relatively unchanged in spite of changes in
raw sensations is called
perceptual constancy
Your mother's and sister's voices have the same pitch and loudness, but you can tell them apart
on the telephone. This is due to the perceptual quality or ___________ of their voices
Timbre

According to your text, the main criticism voiced by the deaf community in regards to cochlear
implantation is that it
suggests that being deaf is a problem
Smell can elicit more vivid memories than the other senses. What is the reason for this?
The sense of smell takes a different neural pathway than the other senses

The ________ sense gives you information about balance and movement
vestibular

Abel knows that his legs are crossed and that his hands are on top of his head. This is a
demonstration of
proprioceptive feedback
The cochlea is a:
coiled tube in the inner ear filled with fluid that vibrates in response to sound
The basilar membrane is a
vibrating structure that runs through the center of the cochlea, dividing it into an
upper chamber and a lower chamber and containing sense receptors for sound
The _____ suggests that the entire basilar membrane acts as a microphone, vibrating as a whole
in response to a sound
frequency theory of hearing

Which of the following statements is true?


Place theory accounts for the perception of high-frequency sounds; frequency theory explains
our perception of low-frequency sounds

Gustation is to olfaction what _____ is to


taste; smell
Which of the following statements regarding smell is FALSE?
Men generally have a better sense of smell than women

To manage Mrs. Sampson's excruciating pain, a low-voltage electric current is occasionally


passed through her lower back, the affected body part. Which of the following pain management
techniques in Mrs. Sampson using?
Nerve stimulation
is series of principles that describe how we organize bits and pieces of information into
meaningful wholes
Gestalt laws of organization
Which of the following statements is most accurate with respect to the role of gestalt psychology
in contemporary psychology?
Gestalt psychology no longer plays a prominent role, but the Gestaltists' focus on the
organization of perceptual elements remains influential
Which of the following is a monocular cue?
Motion parallax

You are sitting in a stationary train at a busy station. Suddenly, you feel like you are slowly
sliding backward as the train next to you begins to pull out. This illusion reflects the operation of
the _____ cue of
monocular; motion parallax
From the window of an office on a skyscraper's 90th floor, taxis on the street look tiny. Of course,
you know they are not toy cars; you are just really far up. This example illustrates the _____ cue
of

monocular; relative size


At night, the moon appears smaller when it is overhead than when it is on the horizon. This is an
example of:
perceptual constancy
At a school social gathering, you hear a professor talking about proximity, continuity, similarity,
and closure. You deduce that he is knowledgeable about
gestalt principles of perception
The different pitches of the beeps you hear on a touch-tone telephone are due to differences in
the ___________ of the beeps.
frequency
When sound waves enter the ear canal, they first
vibrate the eardrum

According to your text, the main criticism voiced by the deaf community in regards to cochlear
implantation is that it
suggests that being deaf is a problem
We are able to taste due to approximately ________ taste buds on our tongue
10,000

The ________ sense gives you information about balance and movement.
Vestibular

Abel knows that his legs are crossed and that his hands are on top of his head. This is a
demonstration of
proprioceptive feedback.

The basilar membrane is a:


vibrating structure that runs through the center of the cochlea, dividing it into an upper chamber
and a lower chamber and containing sense receptors for sound

Which of the following sequences correctly arranges the structures of the inner ear from the
largest and most inclusive to the smallest and most specific?
Cochlea basilar membrane hair cells
Which of the following statements is true?
Place theory accounts for the perception of high-frequency sounds; frequency theory
explains our perception of low-frequency sounds.
The human sense of smell permits us to detect _____ separate smells
more than 10,000
Gustation is to olfaction what _____ is to
taste; smell
Nerve receptor cells for the skin senses are:
unevenly distributed throughout the skin

Whenever Mr. Redding catches himself saying, "This pain is ruining my life," he is supposed to
immediately tell himself, "STOP! I am in control of my pain." This pain management technique
is known as _____ restructuring
Cognitive

Consider the figure within parentheses: (XX XX XX). That we perceive three pairs of Xs reflects
the Gestalt principle(s) of
Proximity
In a general sense, the overriding Gestalt principle of perceptual organization is
simplicity
Which of the following is a monocular cue?
Motion parallax

Mark and a Jacob are driving home on a college break. Mark is in the passenger seat. Bored,
Mark gazes into the middle of an empty field. He notices that distant hilltops seem to move
slowly in the same direction in which their car is moving; by contrast, mile markers on the side
of the highway seem to whiz past them in the opposite direction. The difference in the apparent
speed and direction of objects' motion serves as a depth cue termed motion:
Parallax

are physical stimuli that consistently produce errors in perception


Visual illusions

Why might contemporary, mainstream psychologists reconsider the possibility that ESP exists?
The topic has been addressed by a credible and prestigious psychological journal
Figure is to ground as ________ is to
a white cloud; a blue sky
psychology is the school of thought interested in how people naturally organize their perceptions
into patterns
Gestalt
Although several bulbs are burned out on the movie theater's sign out front, Caleb can still read
the announcement for the upcoming movie. Which gestalt principle accounts for this
phenomena?
Closure
At a school social gathering, you hear a professor talking about proximity, continuity, similarity,
and closure. You deduce that he is knowledgeable about
gestalt principles of perception

Which depth cue accounts for why parallel lines appear to grow closer together the farther away
they are?
Linear perspective

You are standing outside with a friend as an airplane flies over your head. You watch as the plane
appears to get smaller and smaller and is eventually gone from your visual field. Which aspect of
perceptual constancy allows you to understand that the airplane is not shrinking?
Size constancy

According to your text, the main criticism voiced by the deaf community in regards to cochlear
implantation is that it
suggests that being deaf is a problem

The cochlea is a
coiled tube in the inner ear filled with fluid that vibrates in response to sound
Hair cells for hearing are located in the
cochlea

The _____ suggests that the entire basilar membrane acts as a microphone, vibrating as a whole
in response to a sound
frequency theory of hearing
The human sense of smell permits us to detect _____ separate smells
more than 10,000
Gustation is to olfaction what _____ is to
taste; smell

are chemicals nonhumans secrete into the environment that produce a reaction in other members
of the same species, permitting the transmission of messages such as sexual availability
Pheromones
Which of the following treatments for pain is most effective for people who continually say to
themselves, "This pain will never stop," "The pain is ruining my life"?
Cognitive restructuring
is series of principles that describe how we organize bits and pieces of information into
meaningful wholes
Gestalt laws of organization

Consider the figure within parentheses: (XX XX XX). That we perceive three pairs of Xs reflects
the Gestalt principle(s) of:
Proximity

Perception that consists of the progression of recognizing and processing information from
individual components of a stimuli and moving to the perception of the whole is known as
bottom-up processing

Which of the following is a monocular cue?


Motion parallax

Mark and a Jacob are driving home on a college break. Mark is in the passenger seat. Bored,
Mark gazes into the middle of an empty field. He notices that distant hilltops seem to move
slowly in the same direction in which their car is moving; by contrast, mile markers on the side
of the highway seem to whiz past them in the opposite direction. The difference in the apparent
speed and direction of objects' motion serves as a depth cue termed motion
parallax
are physical stimuli that consistently produce errors in perception
Visual illusions

Figure is to ground as ________ is to


a white cloud; a blue sky

psychology is the school of thought interested in how people naturally organize their perceptions
into patterns
Gestalt

At a school social gathering, you hear a professor talking about proximity, continuity, similarity,
and closure. You deduce that he is knowledgeable about
gestalt principles of perception
Which depth cue accounts for why parallel lines appear to grow closer together the farther away
they are?
Linear perspective

A door is still perceived as a rectangle even after we view it from different angles. This is due to
shape constancy
The unit of measure for the amplitude of sound is
Decibel
We are able to taste due to approximately ________ taste buds on our tongue
10,000

The eardrum is a
part of the outer ear that vibrates when sound waves hit it
Which of the following sequences correctly arranges the structures of the inner ear from the
largest and most inclusive to the smallest and most specific?
Cochlea basilar membrane hair cells

is the number of wave cycles that occur in a second


Frequency
The _____ states that different areas of the basilar membrane respond to different frequencies
place theory of hearing
The _____ suggests that the entire basilar membrane acts as a microphone, vibrating as a whole
in response to a sound
frequency theory of hearing

Whenever Mr. Redding catches himself saying, "This pain is ruining my life," he is supposed to
immediately tell himself, "STOP! I am in control of my pain." This pain management technique
is known as _____ restructuring
cognitive
To manage Mrs. Sampson's excruciating pain, a low-voltage electric current is occasionally
passed through her lower back, the affected body part. Which of the following pain management
techniques in Mrs. Sampson using?
Nerve stimulation
is series of principles that describe how we organize bits and pieces of information into
meaningful wholes.
Gestalt laws of organization

Consider the figure within parentheses: (XX XX XX). That we perceive three pairs of Xs reflects
the Gestalt principle(s) of:
Proximity

Which of the following statements is most accurate with respect to the role of gestalt psychology
in contemporary psychology?
Gestalt psychology no longer plays a prominent role, but the Gestaltists' focus on the
organization of perceptual elements remains influential
Perception that is guided by higher-level knowledge, experience, expectations, and motivations
is known as

top-down processing
Mark and a Jacob are driving home on a college break. Mark is in the passenger seat. Bored,
Mark gazes into the middle of an empty field. He notices that distant hilltops seem to move
slowly in the same direction in which their car is moving; by contrast, mile markers on the side
of the highway seem to whiz past them in the opposite direction. The difference in the apparent
speed and direction of objects' motion serves as a depth cue termed motion:
parallax
You are sitting in a stationary train at a busy station. Suddenly, you feel like you are slowly
sliding backward as the train next to you begins to pull out. This illusion reflects the operation of
the _____ cue of
monocular; motion parallax
psychology is the school of thought interested in how people naturally organize their perceptions
into patterns
Gestalt
At a school social gathering, you hear a professor talking about proximity, continuity, similarity,
and closure. You deduce that he is knowledgeable about
gestalt principles of perception

Gestalt psychologists emphasize that


the whole is more than the sum of its parts
Perceiving three dimensions is called

depth perception

In depth perception, familiar size, height in field of view, and shading are examples of
monocular cues

Which depth cue accounts for why parallel lines appear to grow closer together the farther away
they are?
Linear perspective
We are able to taste due to approximately ________ taste buds on our tongue
10,000

Hair cells for hearing are located in the


cochlea

is the number of wave cycles that occur in a second


Frequency

The _____ states that different areas of the basilar membrane respond to different frequencies
place theory of hearing
The human sense of smell permits us to detect _____ separate smells
more than 10,000

Nerve receptor cells for the skin senses are


unevenly distributed throughout the skin

Whenever Mr. Redding catches himself saying, "This pain is ruining my life," he is supposed to
immediately tell himself, "STOP! I am in control of my pain." This pain management technique
is known as _____ restructuring.
cognitive
is a condition in which exposure to one sensation evokes an additional one.
Synesthesia

is series of principles that describe how we organize bits and pieces of information into
meaningful wholes
Gestalt laws of organization
Consider the figure within parentheses: (XX XX XX). That we perceive three pairs of Xs reflects
the Gestalt principle(s) of:
Proximity

Which of the following statements most accurately expresses the relationship between top-down
and bottom-up processing?
Top-down and bottom-up processes occur simultaneously in the perception of the world around
us

From the window of an office on a skyscraper's 90th floor, taxis on the street look tiny. Of course,
you know they are not toy cars; you are just really far up. This example illustrates the _____ cue
of
monocular; relative size
Approximately what proportion of the American population believes that extrasensory
perception, or ESP, exists?
50 percent
Why might contemporary, mainstream psychologists reconsider the possibility that ESP exists?
The topic has been addressed by a credible and prestigious psychological journal
Figure is to ground as ________ is to
a white cloud; a blue sky
At a school social gathering, you hear a professor talking about proximity, continuity, similarity,
and closure. You deduce that he is knowledgeable about
gestalt principles of perception
In depth perception, familiar size, height in field of view, and shading are examples of
monocular cues
Which depth cue accounts for why parallel lines appear to grow closer together the farther away
they are?
Linear perspective

A door is still perceived as a rectangle even after we view it from different angles. This is due to
shape constancy

According to your text, the main criticism voiced by the deaf community in regards to cochlear
implantation is that it
suggests that being deaf is a problem
Abel knows that his legs are crossed and that his hands are on top of his head. This is a
demonstration of
proprioceptive feedback
The cochlea is a
coiled tube in the inner ear filled with fluid that vibrates in response to sound

is the number of wave cycles that occur in a second


Frequency

The _____ states that different areas of the basilar membrane respond to different frequencies
place theory of hearing
The _____ suggests that the entire basilar membrane acts as a microphone, vibrating as a whole
in response to a sound

frequency theory of hearing

Which of the following statements is true?


Place theory accounts for the perception of high-frequency sounds; frequency theory
explains our perception of low-frequency sounds
Which of the following treatments for pain is most effective for people who continually say to
themselves, "This pain will never stop," "The pain is ruining my life"?
Cognitive restructuring

is a condition in which exposure to one sensation evokes an additional one


Synesthesia

is series of principles that describe how we organize bits and pieces of information into
meaningful wholes
Gestalt laws of organization
In a general sense, the overriding Gestalt principle of perceptual organization is:
simplicity
Perception that is guided by higher-level knowledge, experience, expectations, and motivations
is known as
top-down processing
The difference in the images seen by the left eye and the right eye is known as

binocular disparity
From the window of an office on a skyscraper's 90th floor, taxis on the street look tiny. Of course,
you know they are not toy cars; you are just really far up. This example illustrates the _____ cue
of
monocular; relative size
Why might contemporary, mainstream psychologists reconsider the possibility that ESP exists?
The topic has been addressed by a credible and prestigious psychological journal

Figure is to ground as ________ is to


a white cloud; a blue sky

Perceiving three dimensions is called


depth perception

Which depth cue accounts for why parallel lines appear to grow closer together the farther away
they are?
Linear perspective
A door is still perceived as a rectangle even after we view it from different angles. This is due to
shape constancy

Your mother's and sister's voices have the same pitch and loudness, but you can tell them apart
on the telephone. This is due to the perceptual quality or ___________ of their voices
timbre
Smell can elicit more vivid memories than the other senses. What is the reason for this?
The sense of smell takes a different neural pathway than the other senses
The ________ sense gives you information about balance and movement
Vestibular

are chemicals nonhumans secrete into the environment that produce a reaction in other members
of the same species, permitting the transmission of messages such as sexual availability
Pheromones

Which of the following is true of "supertasters"?


They find sweets sweeter, cream creamier, and spicy dishes spicier

You are standing on the beach; the sea is choppy. You observe that the crests of distant waves
appear less distinct than the crests of waves nearer the beach. This example illustrates a
monocular cue known as
texture gradient

How does light therapy work?


It stimulates the production of healing enzymes

If we see a German shepherd standing 30 feet from us, we still recognize its size even though the
image on our retina is much smaller than if the dog was directly in front of us. This is primarily
due to
size constancy

psychology is the school of thought interested in how people naturally organize their perceptions
into patterns.
Gestalt

Looking at a quarter in your hand casts a different image on your retina compared to looking at a
quarter across the room, yet we know that the quarter is the same and retains the same
dimensions. This phenomenon is known as
size constancy
Which of the following words is most nearly synonymous with the term refract?
Bend

You are outside enjoying a beautiful day.


Wavelength

Rachel is walking in the woods and feels a sharp prick on her neck. She feels pain and
recognizes that she has been stung by a wasp. Which process allowed her to identify the source
of her pain?

Perception

Taste buds are bunched together in


The Papillae
Shape consistency is our ability to
See an object as being the same shape even though we move move closer to it or farther from it

As many as _____ neurons throughout the body are involved in the control of behaviour.
1 trillion

Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of glial cells?


They communicate messages within the nervous system.

A cluster of fibers at one end of a neuron that receives messages from other neurons is called:
Dendrite

Dendrite is to axon what _____ is to


receiving; sending

The state in which there is a negative electrical charge of about -70 millivolts within a neuron is known as the _____
state
Resting

Regarding mirror neurons, which of the following statements is ACCURATE?


Mirror neurons are involved in empathy and language acquisition, but not in face recognition

A synapse is a(n):
Gap

The reabsorption of neurotransmitters by a terminal button is termed as


reuptake.

Which neurotransmitter is described INCORRECTLY?


GABAan excitatory neurotransmitter inhibited by alcohol or tranquilizers

The neurotransmitter dopamine is involved in

movement, attention, and learning

Which of the following is a role of the autonomic nervous system?


Monitors essential processes

After finishing a psychology test, you try to relax by engaging in some meditation techniques. Doing these exercises
should increase the response of the ___________ nervous system and result in slower heart and respiration rates
and less muscular tension
Parasympathetic

Which division of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for physiological symptoms such as increased heart
rate and butterflies in the stomach?
Sympathetic

Walter has a degenerative condition that eats away at his myelin sheath. We can expect that his cognitive abilities will
decrease in proficiency

Depolarizing the membrane during an action potential first involves the flow of ___________ ions into the membrane.
Sodium

The physical space between two neurons is called the


Synapse

Neurotransmitters are stored in


terminal buttons

Depression is associated with low levels of what neurotransmitter?

Serotonin

Which of the following neurotransmitter plays an important role in human bonding?


Oxytocin

Based on the research on oxytocin, if Julia finds herself in a stressful situation she is most likely to
call a friend.

The basic elements of the nervous system are called:


Neurons

As many as _____ neurons throughout the body are involved in the control of behavior
1 trillion

Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of glial cells?


They communicate messages within the nervous system

A cluster of fibers at one end of a neuron that receives messages from other neurons is called:
Dendrite

An axon is a(n):
long, slim, tubelike structure extending from a neuron.

Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the route followed by nerve impulses when one neuron
communicates with another?
Dendrite cell body axon
The state in which there is a negative electrical charge of about -70 millivolts within a neuron is known as the _____
state.

Resting

Regarding mirror neurons, which of the following statements is ACCURATE?


Mirror neurons are involved in empathy and language acquisition, but not in face recognition.

The reabsorption of neurotransmitters by a terminal button is termed as:


Reuptake

The neurotransmitter dopamine is involved in:


movement, attention, and learning.

Which division of the nervous system is composed of all the sensory and motor nerves?
Peripheral nervous system

You are sitting in a public place next to a new acquaintance to whom you are attracted. You feel this person's hand
touch yours. You move your hand to return the gesture. Your heart beats faster, and you feel "butterflies" in your
stomach. Your hand movement was initiated by your ___________ nervous system, while your increased heart rate
and stomach contractions were initiated by your ___________ nervous system.
somatic; autonomic

After finishing a psychology test, you try to relax by engaging in some meditation techniques. Doing these exercises
should increase the response of the ___________ nervous system and result in slower heart and respiration rates
and less muscular tension.
Parasympathetic

Which of the following best describes how information is transmitted within a neuron?
dendrite cell body axon

Walter has a degenerative condition that eats away at his myelin sheath. We can expect that his cognitive abilities will
decrease in proficiency
The all-or-nothing principle refers to

action potentials

The physical space between two neurons is called the


Synapse

is a neurotransmitter that is produced in insufficient amounts in many Alzheimer's patients


Acetylcholine

Kenny is taking medication to help control some of the symptoms that he experiences from Parkinson disease. If he
is given too much of the medication, Kenny might start to exhibit symptoms associated with
schizophrenia

"Running has become an important part of my life. After a good three miles, I begin to feel euphoric. This positive
feeling stays with me most of the day." This runner is describing the
production of endorphins

As many as _____ neurons throughout the body are involved in the control of behaviour.
1 trillion

Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of glial cells?


They communicate messages within the nervous system.

A cluster of fibers at one end of a neuron that receives messages from other neurons is called:
dendrite

Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the route followed by nerve impulses when one neuron
communicates with another?

Dendrite cell body axon

You cannot fire a gun softly, or flush a toilet halfway. Like an action potential, gun fire and a toilet's flush follow the
_____ law
all-or-none

Regarding action potentials, which of the following statements is TRUE?


The action potential moves from one end of the axon to the other like a flame moving along a fuse.

Regarding mirror neurons, which of the following statements is ACCURATE?


Mirror neurons are involved in empathy and language acquisition, but not in face recognition.

Which of the following statements regarding inhibitory messages is TRUE?


Inhibitory messages decrease the likelihood that a receiving neuron will fire.

Which neurotransmitter is described INCORRECTLY?


GABAan excitatory neurotransmitter inhibited by alcohol or tranquilizers

The neurotransmitter dopamine is involved in:


movement, attention, and learning.

At a job interview, you broke out into a cold sweat and felt your heart pounding. These symptoms were most likely
produced by your ___________ nervous system.
Sympathetic

Which division of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for physiological symptoms such as increased heart
rate and butterflies in the stomach?
Sympathetic

If a doctor told you that insufficient nutrients were being transported from your blood vessels to your neurons, you
might suspect from that the problem was in your ___________ cells
Glial

The nucleus of a neuron is located in the


cell body

Which of the following best represents the function of myelin sheath in the brain?
Amber is putting wax on her surfboard so that it will move easily through the water.

The outer membrane of a neuron is semipermeable. This means that


it allows some substances to pass through the membrane.

The physical space between two neurons is called the


Synapse

The neural message being delivered in a synaptic transmission is carried across the synaptic gap by ___________
substances
Chemical

Depression is associated with low levels of what neurotransmitter?


Serotonin

"Running has become an important part of my life. After a good three miles, I begin to feel euphoric. This positive
feeling stays with me most of the day." This runner is describing the
production of endorphins

The basic elements of the nervous system are called


Neurons

As many as _____ neurons throughout the body are involved in the control of behaviour.
1 trillion

Dendrite is to axon what _____ is to


receiving; sending

Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the route followed by nerve impulses when one neuron
communicates with another?
Dendrite cell body axon

Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the route followed by nerve impulses when one neuron
communicates with another?
Dendrite cell body axon

Electrical wires are generally protected by a tube of plastic. A similar insulating function is performed in the nervous
system by the:
myelin sheath

Regarding mirror neurons, which of the following statements is ACCURATE?


Mirror neurons are involved in empathy and language acquisition, but not in face recognition.

A synapse is a(n):
Gap

Which of the following statements regarding inhibitory messages is TRUE?


Inhibitory messages decrease the likelihood that a receiving neuron will fire.

The reabsorption of neurotransmitters by a terminal button is termed as


Reuptake

Which neurotransmitter is described INCORRECTLY?


GABAan excitatory neurotransmitter inhibited by alcohol or tranquilizers

Which division of the nervous system is composed of all the sensory and motor nerves?
Peripheral nervous system

Your brain has instructed your muscles to move so that you avoid an oncoming bicyclist. Which division of the
nervous system carried this information to your muscles?
Somatic nervous system

You are sitting in a public place next to a new acquaintance to whom you are attracted. You feel this person's hand
touch yours. You move your hand to return the gesture. Your heart beats faster, and you feel "butterflies" in your
stomach. Your hand movement was initiated by your ___________ nervous system, while your increased heart rate
and stomach contractions were initiated by your ___________ nervous system.
somatic; autonomic

Which division of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for physiological symptoms such as increased heart
rate and butterflies in the stomach?
Sympathetic

If a doctor told you that insufficient nutrients were being transported from your blood vessels to your neurons, you
might suspect from that the problem was in your ___________ cells
Glial

Which of the following best describes how information is transmitted within a neuron?
dendrite cell body axon

The all-or-nothing principle refers to


action potentials

A neurotransmitter that plays a role Parkinson's disease is


dopamine

"Running has become an important part of my life. After a good three miles, I begin to feel euphoric. This positive
feeling stays with me most of the day." This runner is describing the
production of endorphins

Which of the following neurotransmitter plays an important role in human bonding?


Oxytocin

Which of the following are the two integrated parts of the autonomic nervous system?
Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

Who is relying most heavily on their mirror neurons?


Chie is taking a golf lesson from the local pro.

The neural message being delivered in a synaptic transmission is carried across the synaptic gap by ___________
substances
Chemical

The practice of women bringing food to other women during times of crisis may have been triggered by which
neurotransmitter?
Oxytocin

You cannot fire a gun softly, or flush a toilet halfway. Like an action potential, gun fire and a toilet's flush follow the
_____ law.
all-or-none

Terminal buttons are found at the end of:


Axons

The brain's special physical capacity for change is referred to as its


Plasticity

Walter has a degenerative condition that eats away at his myelin sheath. We can expect that his cognitive abilities will
decrease in proficiency

The nervous system is divided into the _____ and the _____ nervous systems.
central; peripheral
The _____ is the main means for transmitting messages between the brain and the body.
spinal cord
Somatic is to autonomic what _____ is to _____.
voluntary; involuntary
With respect to its potential basis in nervous system activity, "voodoo death" has been attributed
to:
an overactive sympathetic nervous system.
The branch of psychology that seeks to identify behavior patterns that are a result of our genetic
inheritance from our ancestors is known as _____.
evolutionary psychology
The _____ gland is a major component of the endocrine system which secretes hormones that
control growth and other parts of the endocrine system.
pituitary
The part of the brain closest to the spinal cord is the _____; it is important for such functions as
_____.
medulla; heart rate and respiration
The thalamus may be likened to a(n):
relay station.
In which lobe is the motor area located?
Frontal

The _____ area is the site in the brain of the tissue that corresponds to each of the senses, with
the degree of sensitivity related to the amount of tissue.
sensory
The brain injury suffered by 19th-century railroad worker Phineas Gage allowed psychologists to
learn about the functions of the brain's:
association areas.
The process by which the brain reorganizes itself throughout development is termed:
neuroplasticity.
The hemispheres of the brain are connected by a bundle of fibers called the:
corpus callosum.
Electrical activity in the brain can be captured by placing multiple electrodes on the scalp and
then measuring the underlying electrical activity. This method of studying the brain's activity is
referred to as
an electroencephalogram.
Which brain imaging technique allows scientists to actually see what is happening in the brain
while it is working?
fMRI
If a person's cerebellum were damaged in an accident, you would expect the person to have a
problem with
balance and muscle coordination.
Which structure of the brain would be most beneficial to a professional golfer who is trying to
create a repetitive golf swing?
Basal ganglia

Theus is about to take the bar exam. Which lobe of the brain will he be relying on most to do
well?
Frontal
The area of the cerebral cortex that controls voluntary muscle movement is the
motor cortex.
Neurosurgeons can reduce the unbearable seizures some epileptics experience by severing the
corpus callosum.
Which of the following is TRUE of the spinal cord's control of behavior?
The spinal cord can control some simple reflexes without the brain's help.
Sensory is to motor what _____ is to _____.
afferent; efferent
_____ are neurons that connect sensory and motor neurons, carrying messages between the two.
Interneurons
The "fight-or-flight" response is associated with the _____ division.
sympathetic
Evolutionary psychologists have spawned a new and increasingly influential field:
behavioral genetics.
The hormone oxytocin has been implicated in each of the following behaviors EXCEPT the:
tendency to produce violent, dangerous behavior.
The part of the brain closest to the spinal cord is the _____; it is important for such functions as
_____.
medulla; heart rate and respiration

The _____ is a tiny part of the brain that maintains homeostasis and produces and regulates vital
behavior, such as eating, drinking, and sexual behavior.
hypothalamus
The visual area in the cortex is located in the _____.
occipital lobe
The brain injury suffered by 19th-century railroad worker Phineas Gage allowed psychologists to
learn about the functions of the brain's:
association areas.
The _____ areas are considered to be the site of higher mental processes such as thinking,
language, memory, and speech.
association
Warren suffers from Wernicke's aphasia. Which of the following will he experience in thought or
behavior?
Warren will experience difficulty understanding language.
The hemispheres of the brain are connected by a bundle of fibers called the:
corpus callosum.
An fMRI can detect brain activity because
oxygenated blood is more prominent in areas that are active.
Which brain imaging technique allows scientists to actually see what is happening in the brain
while it is working?
fMRI
If a person's cerebellum were damaged in an accident, you would expect the person to have a
problem with

balance and muscle coordination.


The reticular formation is primarily involved in
stereotyped patterns such as walking, sleeping, or turning to attend to a sudden noise.
Theus is about to take the bar exam. Which lobe of the brain will he be relying on most to do
well?
Frontal
The set of glands that regulates the activities of certain organs is called the ___________ system.
endocrine
The ___________ gland regulates all the other glands.
pituitary
_____ are neurons that connect sensory and motor neurons, carrying messages between the two.
Interneurons
The two major divisions of the peripheral nervous system are the _____ and _____ divisions.
somatic; autonomic
The part of the autonomic division of the nervous system that acts to prepare the body for action
in stressful situations, engaging all the organism's resources to respond to a threat is known as
the _____.
sympathetic division
Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between the nervous system
and the endocrine system?
The endocrine system influences and is influenced by the central nervous system.
The part of the brain closest to the spinal cord is the _____; it is important for such functions as
_____.

medulla; heart rate and respiration


Which expression below most closely approximates the number of neural connections in the
brain?
10 quadrillion
Which of the following sequences correctly identifies the orders of the lobes of the cortex, from
anterior to posterior?
Frontal temporal and parietal occipital
The brain injury suffered by 19th-century railroad worker Phineas Gage allowed psychologists to
learn about the functions of the brain's:
association areas.
Violet's speech is slow and labored; however, she can understand others' speech. Violet has:
Broca's aphasia.
Warren suffers from Wernicke's aphasia. Which of the following will he experience in thought or
behavior?
Warren will experience difficulty understanding language.
Trevor is scratching his head, trying desperately to solve a verbal analogy as part of a
standardized entrance examination; Sienna, meanwhile, is giving an oral presentation in a
political science class. Of the brain's hemispheres, Trevor's _____ hemisphere is most active;
Sienna's _____ hemisphere is most active.
left; left
Which of the following generalizations is probably most accurate regarding potential gender
differences in the lateralization of language?
Language is more strongly left-lateralized among males than among females.

Magnetic resonance imaging is a technique that works by


detecting and interpreting magnetic activity from hydrogen levels in the blood.
When you walk to class, you do not have to think consciously about how to walk. When you get
there, you pay attention to the lecture even though it is boring and you are tired. The structure
that plays an important role in these activities by manipulation of various neurotransmitters is the
reticular formation.
The reticular formation is primarily involved in
stereotyped patterns such as walking, sleeping, or turning to attend to a sudden noise.
The iron rod which damaged Phineas Gage's frontal lobe resulted in
changes in personality.
Broca's area is located in the ___________ hemisphere.
left
Neurosurgeons can reduce the unbearable seizures some epileptics experience by severing the
corpus callosum.
What is unique about stem cells?
They can develop into most types of human cells.
The brain and the spinal cord constitute the _____ nervous system.
central
Which of the following is TRUE of the spinal cord's control of behavior?
The spinal cord can control some simple reflexes without the brain's help.
The two major divisions of the peripheral nervous system are the _____ and _____ divisions.
somatic; autonomic

Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between the nervous system
and the endocrine system?
The endocrine system influences and is influenced by the central nervous system.
A key component of the endocrine system is the tiny _____ gland, which is found nearand
regulated bythe _____ in the brain.
pituitary; hypothalamus
The part of the brain extending from the medulla through the pons and made up of groups of
nerve cells that can immediately activate other parts of the brain to produce general bodily
arousal is known as the _____.
reticular formation
The _____ is a tiny part of the brain that maintains homeostasis and produces and regulates vital
behavior, such as eating, drinking, and sexual behavior.
hypothalamus
The _____ maintains a steady internal environment for the body.
hypothalamus
Darnell underwent surgery to control his severe epilepsy. Now, however, Darnell cannot form
new memories of his experiences, although he does remember events in the past. Most likely, the
surgery destroyed a portion of the _____ in Darnell's brain.
hippocampus
The brain injury suffered by 19th-century railroad worker Phineas Gage allowed psychologists to
learn about the functions of the brain's:
association areas.
Violet's speech is slow and labored; however, she can understand others' speech. Violet has:

Broca's aphasia.
The hemispheres of the brain are connected by a bundle of fibers called the:
corpus callosum.
When you walk to class, you do not have to think consciously about how to walk. When you get
there, you pay attention to the lecture even though it is boring and you are tired. The structure
that plays an important role in these activities by manipulation of various neurotransmitters is the
reticular formation.
If you had damage to your hippocampus, it would most likely impair
memory formation.
Theus is about to take the bar exam. Which lobe of the brain will he be relying on most to do
well?
Frontal
The area of the cerebral cortex that controls voluntary muscle movement is the
motor cortex.
Neurosurgeons can reduce the unbearable seizures some epileptics experience by severing the
corpus callosum.
The ___________ gland regulates all the other glands.
pituitary
What is unique about new brain?
They can develop into most types of human cells.

Sensory is to motor what _____ is to _____.


afferent; efferent

The _____ division also directs the body to store energy for use in emergencies.
parasympathetic
The branch of psychology that seeks to identify behavior patterns that are a result of our genetic
inheritance from our ancestors is known as _____.
evolutionary psychology
The hormone oxytocin has been implicated in each of the following behaviors EXCEPT the:
tendency to produce violent, dangerous behavior.
The part of the brain closest to the spinal cord is the _____; it is important for such functions as
_____.
medulla; heart rate and respiration
The _____ is referred to as the "new brain."
cerebral cortex
The visual area in the cortex is located in the _____.
occipital lobe
The brain injury suffered by 19th-century railroad worker Phineas Gage allowed psychologists to
learn about the functions of the brain's:
association areas.
_____ is the creation of new neurons.
Neurogenesis
Which of the following generalizations is probably most accurate regarding potential gender
differences in the lateralization of language?
Language is more strongly left-lateralized among males than among females.
Magnetic resonance imaging is a technique that works by

detecting and interpreting magnetic activity from hydrogen levels in the blood.
If you had damage to your hippocampus, it would most likely impair
memory formation.
Which structure of the brain would be most beneficial to a professional golfer who is trying to
create a repetitive golf swing?
Basal ganglia
One of the pleasure centers of the brain is found in the
hypothalamus.
Body temperature, emotional states, and coping with stress are functions controlled by the
hypothalamus.
A split brain occurs due to
a severing of the corpus callosum.
The corpus callosum is
a band of nerve fiber connecting the right and left hemispheres.
The _____ is the main means for transmitting messages between the brain and the body.
spinal cord
The part of the brain that controls bodily balance is the _____.
cerebellum
The limbic system contains which of the following structures?
Amygdala
Who would benefit the most from a highly efficient cerebellum?
Baseball player
The reticular formation is primarily involved in

stereotyped patterns such as walking, sleeping, or turning to attend to a sudden noise.


The iron rod which damaged Phineas Gage's frontal lobe resulted in
changes in personality.
Which brain imaging technique below is CORRECTLY matched with its description?
EEGrecords the brain's electrical activity with electrodes
What is unique about stem cells?
They can develop into most types of human cells.
The set of glands that regulates the activities of certain organs is called the ___________ system.
endocrine
Neurosurgeons can reduce the unbearable seizures some epileptics experience by severing the
corpus callosum.
If you had damage to your hippocampus, it would most likely impair
memory formation.
An fMRI can detect brain activity because
oxygenated blood is more prominent in areas that are active.
The process by which the brain reorganizes itself throughout development is termed:
neuroplasticity.
The part of the brain closest to the spinal cord is the _____; it is important for such functions as
_____.
medulla; heart rate and respiration
The hormone oxytocin has been implicated in each of the following behaviors EXCEPT the:
tendency to produce violent, dangerous behavior.

Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between the nervous system
and the endocrine system?
The endocrine system influences and is influenced by the central nervous system.
With respect to its potential basis in nervous system activity, "voodoo death" has been attributed
to:
an overactive sympathetic nervous system.

Approximately what percentage of the population cannot be hypnotized at all?


5%-20%

To which of the following traits does an individual's susceptibility to hypnosis seem related?
The tendency to become absorbed in one's activities

According to famed hypnosis researcher


Hilgard, hypnosis causes a division of consciousness.

When traditional practitioners of the ancient Eastern religion of Zen Buddhism want to achieve
greater spiritual insight, they turn to a technique that has been used for centuries to alter their
state of consciousness. This technique is called
meditation
drugs are drugs that produce a biological or psychological dependence in the user so that
withdrawal from them leads to a craving for the drug that, in some cases, may be nearly
irresistible.
Addictive

According to the text, the DARE program is used in approximately _____ of the school districts
in the U. S.
80%
Assessment of the DARE program has revealed that:
DARE graduates were more likely to use marijuana than was a comparison group of
nongraduates.

Stimulants are drugs that:


have an arousal effect on the central nervous system, causing a rise in heart rate,
blood pressure, and muscular tension.
The use of _____ results in euphoria, relaxed inhibitions, heightened sense of oneself and
insight, and disoriented behavior.
Hallucinogens

The "date rape" drug is _____; it is a


rohypnol; depressant

Methadone is used to treat addiction to


heroin

MDMA and lysergic acid diethylamide are


hallucinogens
The need to take increasing amounts of a drug in order to get the same effect is referred to as
Tolerance

Drug addiction occurs when a(n)


physical or psychological dependence on taking the drug develops

Drugs that create a sense of relaxation and lowered inhibitions by reducing the activity of the
central nervous system are called
depressants
Kate, a longtime coffee drinker, complains of pounding headaches and lowered mood when she
skips her coffee in the morning. What is the likely cause of these complaints?
Caffeine withdrawal

The most widely used stimulants are


caffeine and nicotine
The most widely used illegal drug by high school students is
marijuana
LSD and marijuana fall into the psychotropic drug category of
hallucinogens
You decide to undergo hypnosis out of curiosity. You expect that hypnosis will result in a state of
heightened openness to suggestion

Which of the following notions regarding hypnosis is TRUE?


People cannot be hypnotized against their will
Approximately what percentage of the population cannot be hypnotized at all?
5%-20%
When traditional practitioners of the ancient Eastern religion of Zen Buddhism want to achieve
greater spiritual insight, they turn to a technique that has been used for centuries to alter their
state of consciousness. This technique is called
meditation
Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding potential cross-cultural variation in
the attempt to alter consciousness?

The attempt to alter consciousness appears to be universal, but the particular means to do so vary
from culture to culture

In _____ dependence, people believe that they need the drug to respond to the stresses of daily
living
psychological
According to the text, the DARE program is used in approximately _____ of the school districts
in the U. S.
80%
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the effect of caffeine and the other
stimulants on the nervous system?
They have an arousal effect on the central nervous system.
Which of the following withdrawal symptoms are related to the use of stimulants?
Apathy, general fatigue, prolonged sleep

The use of _____ results in euphoria, relaxed inhibitions, heightened sense of oneself and
insight, and disoriented behavior.
hallucinogens
Depressants are drugs that:
slow down the nervous system

Voluntary motor behavior becomes affected when one's blood alcohol content level reaches:
.10
The "date rape" drug is _____; it is a
rohypnol; depressant
The need to take increasing amounts of a drug in order to get the same effect is referred to as
tolerance
Drug addiction occurs when a(n)
physical or psychological dependence on taking the drug develops
Drugs that create a sense of relaxation and lowered inhibitions by reducing the activity of the
central nervous system are called
depressants
College students who consume large amounts of alcohol on weekends are abusing which type(s)
of drugs?
Depressants
Your friend reported feeling greater energy and a sense of well-being after taking a drug.
Medical tests reveal increased activity of her central nervous system. The drug she took is most
likely some type of
Stimulant

Research on the legalization of marijuana in California found

no effect on overall usage


LSD and marijuana fall into the psychotropic drug category of
Hallucinogens

The divided consciousness theory of hypnosis is supported by evidence that


hypnotized people can be aware of pain sensation without experiencing emotional distress

Which of the following notions regarding hypnosis is false?


People lose all will of their own

Which of the following notions regarding hypnosis is TRUE?


People cannot be hypnotized against their will
To which of the following traits does an individual's susceptibility to hypnosis seem related?
The tendency to become absorbed in one's activities
Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding potential cross-cultural variation in
the attempt to alter consciousness?
The attempt to alter consciousness appears to be universal, but the particular means to
do so vary from culture to culture
Which of the following is not a psychoactive drug?
Antibiotics

In _____ dependence, people believe that they need the drug to respond to the stresses of daily
living.
psychological
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the effect of caffeine and the other
stimulants on the nervous system?
They have an arousal effect on the central nervous system.

Nicotine activates neural mechanisms similar to those activated by


cocaine

Fawn consumed a large amount of the most popular street drug at a party. It gave her a sense of
energy and alertness although she also became anxious and irritable. Which of the following
drugs has she most likely consumed?
Methamphetamine

Which of the following withdrawal symptoms are related to the use of stimulants?
Apathy, general fatigue, prolonged sleep
The use of _____ results in euphoria, relaxed inhibitions, heightened sense of oneself and
insight, and disoriented behavior
hallucinogens
Voluntary motor behavior becomes affected when one's blood alcohol content level reaches:

.10

The need to take increasing amounts of a drug in order to get the same effect is referred to as
Tolerance

Drug addiction occurs when a(n)


physical or psychological dependence on taking the drug develops
Jerry who is fairly a conservative person, stopped at a bar on the way home from work to have a
couple of drinks with his friends. On the way home he suddenly pulls into a retail store and buys
a new 60-inch wide-screen TV. What is the most likely explanation for his behavior?
The alcohol in the drinks reduced his inhibitions and impulse control.
Your friend reported feeling greater energy and a sense of well-being after taking a drug.
Medical tests reveal increased activity of her central nervous system. The drug she took is most
likely some type of
Stimulant

Kate, a longtime coffee drinker, complains of pounding headaches and lowered mood when she
skips her coffee in the morning. What is the likely cause of these complaints?
Caffeine withdrawal
Research on the legalization of marijuana in California found
no effect on overall usage.

"Medical marijuana" is known to

All of these
is a psychological state of altered attention and expectation in which an individual is more open
to suggestions.
Hypnosis
Which of the following is true of altered state of consciousness?
People feel a sense of ineffability.
drugs are drugs that influence a person's emotions, perceptions, and behavior.
Psychoactive
Tranquilizers and alcohol belong to a drug category called
depressants
Morphine and heroin are derivatives of
opium.

Bethany is experiencing headaches, lethargy, and difficulty concentrating. She most likely
stopped using which drug?
Caffeine

What type of drug is crystal meth?


Amphetamine
Caffeine mimics the effects of a natural brain chemical called

adenosine
LSD and Ecstasy influence the operation of the neurotransmitter _____ in the brain
serotonin
Which of the following is the first step in the hypnosis process?
A person is made comfortable in a quiet environment
The definition of a binge drinking episode is having more than ___________ drinks in a row.
5

_____ is the deepest stage of sleep, during which we are least responsive to outside stimulation.
Stage 4 sleep
In general terms, how do brain waves change as a sleeper progresses from stage 1 sleep to stage
4 sleep?
The brain waves become slower.
Which of the following statements is true of REM sleep and dreaming?
The major muscles of the body appear to be paralyzed during REM sleep
Which of the following statements is true of dreams occurring in REM sleep and NREM sleep?
Dreams occur in NREM sleep, but less frequently than in REM sleep; NREM dreams are
also less vivid than are dreams in REM sleep.
Sigmund Freud's theory that dreams represent unconscious desires that dreamers want to see
fulfilled is known as _____.
unconscious wish fulfillment theory
According to Freud, the _____ content of dreams is the "disguised" meanings of dreams, hidden
by more obvious subjects.
Latent
Which figure best approximates the proportion of people afflicted by insomnia?
1/3
_____ is/are sudden awakenings from non-REM sleep that is accompanied by extreme fear,
panic, and strong physiological arousal.
Night terrors

Four-year old DeMarcus falls asleep shortly after his 8:30 p.m. bedtime. At about 9:45, he
suddenly sits up in bed, breathing rapidly and appearing to be in a state of sheer panic. DeMarcus
is experiencing:
night terrors.
Which of the following solutions will help overcome insomnia?
Exercising during the day
An individual's awareness of external events and internal sensations under a condition of arousal
is called
consciousness.
Thomas seems unaware that his mom has been calling him for the last five minutes. He is
playing his video game and about to move to the last level. What is Thomas demonstrating?
Selective attention
According to Freud, ________ mental processes occur without a person being aware of them.
Unconscious
The 24-hour biological cycle that regulates our pattern of sleep is referred to as
circadian rhythm
A class project required a student nurse to make hourly records of her own blood pressure and
body temperature over a 30-day period. When the data were graphed, it became clear that these
readings changed in a predictable way on a daily basis. The reason for this regularity is that
many physiological processes are
governed by circadian rhythms.
Psychological research on sleep and memory has found that staying up all night to study for an
exam is likely to

decrease memory performance.


Which of the following best characterizes a night of sleep?
Our depth of sleep alternates up and down many times.
Sleepwalking occurs during ________ of the sleep cycle.
stages 3 and 4
Kevin suffers from sleep apnea. With this condition, he reawakens as often as 500 times during
the night due to
a lack of oxygen.
Gary turned to his wife when he woke up and said, "You won't believe this dream I had. I was
being chased by men in suits who were riding horses. They had long narrow briefcases and they
were trying to run me down!" If Gary related his dream to a psychodynamic therapist, they
would tell him that what he was really dreaming about not being able to pay his bills. Which
element in this scenario represents the manifest content of the dream?
Gary running for his life
_____ is the awareness of the sensations, thoughts, and feelings we experience at a given
moment.
Consciousness
Which of the following statements is true of dreams occurring in REM sleep and NREM sleep?
Dreams occur in NREM sleep, but less frequently than in REM sleep; NREM dreams are
also less vivid than are dreams in REM sleep.
REM sleep is paradoxical because:
the brain is active, but the major skeletal muscles appear to be paralyzed
Most people today sleep between _____ hours each night.

7-8
Which of the following psychologists is correctly matched with a theory of the function of
dreams?
Freud unconscious wish-fulfillment theory
Biological processes occurring on a cycle of approximately 24 hours are termed as:
circadian rhythms.
Which of the following is true of daydreams?
They are under one's control to a greater extent than dreams that occur during sleep.
The teacher has called on Sarah four times, yet she has not responded or acknowledged the
teacher in anyway. She has a slight smile on her face. What is Sarah demonstrating?
Daydreaming
Your friend Helen works the night shift at the local grocery store every other day. She has trouble
sleeping, which is most likely due to
the fact that her circadian rhythms do not follow a 24-hour cycle.
Jorge has a big history exam tomorrow so he has been studying most of the day. If he wants to
remember most of what he has been studying, he should
go to bed.
Which of the following best characterizes a night of sleep?
Our depth of sleep alternates up and down many times.
Sleepwalking occurs during ________ of the sleep cycle.
stages 3 and 4
Night terrors typically occur
during non-REM sleep.

Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by


irresistible urges to fall asleep.
Narcolepsy is a disorder involving
periodic attacks of uncontrollable sleep attacks.
Kevin suffers from sleep apnea. With this condition, he reawakens as often as 500 times during
the night due to
a lack of oxygen.
According to Sigmund Freud, dreams are
our unconscious desires that we wish to fulfill.
How long is a typical sleep cycle, in which a sleeper progresses through some or all of the sleep
stages?
90 minutes
In general terms, how do brain waves change as a sleeper progresses from stage 1 sleep to stage
4 sleep?
The brain waves become slower.
Which of the following statements is true of REM sleep and dreaming?
The major muscles of the body appear to be paralyzed during REM sleep.
Anya pulled all-nighters both last night and the night before. Tonight, finally, she anticipates
going to bed at her usual time. Which of the following alternatives MOST accurately describes
and identifies what Anya is likely to experience?
Anya will spend a greater proportion of her sleep time than usual in the REM stage. This
phenomenon is called rebound.

Which of the following psychologists is correctly matched with a theory of the function of
dreams?
Freud unconscious wish-fulfillment theory
The _____ focuses on the random electrical energy that the brain produces during REM sleep,
possibly as a result of changes in the production of particular neurotransmitters.
activation-synthesis theory
Which sleep disturbance is correctly matched with its description?
Sleep apnea difficulty breathing during sleep
Which of the following is true of daydreams?
They are under one's control to a greater extent than dreams that occur during sleep.
An individual's awareness of external events and internal sensations under a condition of arousal
is called
consciousness.
Thomas seems unaware that his mom has been calling him for the last five minutes. He is
playing his video game and about to move to the last level. What is Thomas demonstrating?
Selective attention
What do drugs, trauma, fatigue, hypnosis, and sensory deprivation have in common?
They produce altered states of consciousness.
According to Freud, ________ mental processes occur without a person being aware of them.
Unconscious
Psychological research on sleep and memory has found that staying up all night to study for an
exam is likely to
decrease memory performance.

Sleepwalking occurs during ________ of the sleep cycle.


stages 3 and 4
Night terrors typically occur
during non-REM sleep.
During a heated argument with his teenage daughter, Mr. Reed suddenly lapsed into a stage of
REM sleep. Mr. Reed apparently suffers from
narcolepsy.
Kevin suffers from sleep apnea. With this condition, he reawakens as often as 500 times during
the night due to
a lack of oxygen.
According to Sigmund Freud, dreams are
our unconscious desires that we wish to fulfill.
_____ is the awareness of the sensations, thoughts, and feelings we experience at a given
moment.
Consciousness
During _____ images sometimes appear, as if we were viewing still photos.
stage 1 sleep
In general terms, how do brain waves change as a sleeper progresses from stage 1 sleep to stage
4 sleep?
The brain waves become slower
Sigmund Freud's theory that dreams represent unconscious desires that dreamers want to see
fulfilled is known as _____.
unconscious wish fulfillment theory

According to the _____ dreams permit us to reconsider and reprocess during sleep information
that is critical for our daily survival.
dreams-for-survival theory
_____ is/are sudden awakenings from non-REM sleep that is accompanied by extreme fear,
panic, and strong physiological arousal
Night terrors
Biological processes occurring on a cycle of approximately 24 hours are termed as:
circadian rhythms.
Which of the following is true of daydreams?
They are under one's control to a greater extent than dreams that occur during sleep.
Which of the following solutions will help overcome insomnia?
Exercising during the day
William James described the human mind as a
stream of consciousness.
The 24-hour biological cycle that regulates our pattern of sleep is referred to as
circadian rhythm.
A class project required a student nurse to make hourly records of her own blood pressure and
body temperature over a 30-day period. When the data were graphed, it became clear that these
readings changed in a predictable way on a daily basis. The reason for this regularity is that
many physiological processes are
governed by circadian rhythms
Your friend Helen works the night shift at the local grocery store every other day. She has trouble
sleeping, which is most likely due to

the fact that her circadian rhythms do not follow a 24-hour cycle.
Which of the following best characterizes a night of sleep?
Our depth of sleep alternates up and down many times.
Night terrors typically occur
during non-REM sleep.
During a heated argument with his teenage daughter, Mr. Reed suddenly lapsed into a stage of
REM sleep. Mr. Reed apparently suffers from
Narcolepsy
According to Sigmund Freud, dreams are
our unconscious desires that we wish to fulfill.
Gary turned to his wife when he woke up and said, "You won't believe this dream I had. I was
being chased by men in suits who were riding horses. They had long narrow briefcases and they
were trying to run me down!" If Gary related his dream to a psychodynamic therapist, they
would tell him that what he was really dreaming about not being able to pay his bills. Which
element in this scenario represents the manifest content of the dream?
Gary running for his life
According to activation-synthesis theory, dreams
reflect the brain's efforts to make sense out of neural activity that occurs during sleep.
_____ is the awareness of the sensations, thoughts, and feelings we experience at a given
moment.
Consciousness
REM sleep is paradoxical because:
the brain is active, but the major skeletal muscles appear to be paralyzed.

Anya pulled all-nighters both last night and the night before. Tonight, finally, she anticipates
going to bed at her usual time. Which of the following alternatives MOST accurately describes
and identifies what Anya is likely to experience?
Anya will spend a greater proportion of her sleep time than usual in the REM stage. This
phenomenon is called rebound.
Dr. Gremillion argues that dreams function to focus on and consolidate memories. They
represent concerns about our daily lives, illustrating our uncertainties, indecisions, ideas, and
desires. Dr. Gremillion subscribes to the _____ theory of the function of dreams.
dreams-for-survival
_____ is/are sudden awakenings from non-REM sleep that is accompanied by extreme fear,
panic, and strong physiological arousal.
Night terrors
Four-year old DeMarcus falls asleep shortly after his 8:30 p.m. bedtime. At about 9:45, he
suddenly sits up in bed, breathing rapidly and appearing to be in a state of sheer panic. DeMarcus
is experiencing:
night terrors.
Which of the following is true of daydreams?
They are under one's control to a greater extent than dreams that occur during sleep.
Irv can't sleep, so he makes himself a cup of warm milk. Will this work?
Yes. Milk contains tryptophan, which promotes sleep
Thomas seems unaware that his mom has been calling him for the last five minutes. He is
playing his video game and about to move to the last level. What is Thomas demonstrating?
Selective attention

The teacher has called on Sarah four times, yet she has not responded or acknowledged the
teacher in anyway. She has a slight smile on her face. What is Sarah demonstrating?
Daydreaming
Kathy says that when she meditates, she feels like she becomes one with the universe. Kathy
experiences ________ during her meditative sessions.
correct an altered state of consciousness
According to Freud, ________ mental processes occur without a person being aware of them.
Unconscious
The 24-hour biological cycle that regulates our pattern of sleep is referred to as
circadian rhythm.
Dreams occurring during ________ sleep are briefer, less vivid, and less emotionally charged
compared to those that occur during ________ sleep.
non-REM; REM
Night terrors typically occur
during non-REM sleep.
Grandpa is napping in his recliner and snoring loudly. When he suddenly stops snoring, you look
to see if he is OK. He appears to not be breathing. For a moment you wonder if he's dead, but
suddenly he snorts and resumes snoring. Grandpa appears to suffer from
sleep apnea.
Kevin suffers from sleep apnea. With this condition, he reawakens as often as 500 times during
the night due to
a lack of oxygen.

Gary turned to his wife when he woke up and said, "You won't believe this dream I had. I was
being chased by men in suits who were riding horses. They had long narrow briefcases and they
were trying to run me down!" If Gary related his dream to a psychodynamic therapist, they
would tell him that what he was really dreaming about not being able to pay his bills. Which
element in this scenario represents the manifest content of the dream?
Gary running for his life
William James described the human mind as a
stream of consciousness.
Mr. Owens always sleeps restlessly, snoring and gasping during the night. It is most likely that
Mr. Owens suffers from
sleep apnea.

DeAndre is recording instances of physical aggression among children in a schoolyard at recess. DeAndre is
undertaking:
a naturalistic observation.

Which of the following is an advantage of survey research?


A small sample can be used to infer attitudes and behavior of a larger population.

A pharmaceutical company is conducting an experiment to test the effectiveness of a tricyclic antidepressant. Which
of the following, if true, would indicate that the experimenters used a placebo?
The participants in both groups did not know if they were getting a real or a false treatment.

Shape constancy is our ability to


see an object as being the same shape even though we move closer to it or farther from it.

The tendency to provide subtle clues as to the true nature of an experiment is a form of ________
bias.
experimenter

Which of the following is TRUE about the brain?


Specific experience can modify the way in which information is processed.

_____ is an automatic, involuntary response to an incoming stimulus.

Reflex

___________ is a neurotransmitter that is produced in insufficient amounts in many Alzheimer's


patients.
Acetylcholine

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refers to a decrease in the response to a stimulus when it is presented repeatedly, whereas _____
refers to the eventual disappearance of a conditioned response when an unconditioned stimulus is
no longer presented.
Habituation; extinction
stimulus is a stimulus that naturally brings about a particular response without having been
learned.
Unconditioned
In Pavlov's study, the UCS was _____; the neutral stimulus was _____; and, finally, the CS was
meat; the bell; the bell
occurs when a previously conditioned response decreases in frequency and eventually disappears
Extinction
Which of the following sequences CORRECTLY arranges the phases of the classical
conditioning process, from first to last?
Acquisition extinction spontaneous recovery
Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies spontaneous recovery?
Alexis is a former cocaine user in recovery. After a relapse, though, her hands shake
and her heart pounds when she hears a car pull into her drive, like her dealer used to
do in his car.
Which of the following terms best expresses the relationship between stimulus generalization
and stimulus discrimination?

They are opposites.


Janine completed several tours of duty in Afghanistan. She suffers from PTSD. Now, back home
in Texas, she is frightened by firecrackers and cars backfiring. The fact that these sounds scare
her reflects a process of stimulus:
generalization.
Stimulus _____ provides the ability to differentiate between stimuli.
discrimination
is the decrease in response to a stimulus that occurs after repeated presentations of the same
stimulus.
Habituation
In classical conditioning, how are the neutral stimulus and the conditioned response related?
The neutral stimulus becomes the conditioned stimulus.
Classical conditioning is most successful when the neutral stimulus begins:
just before the unconditioned stimulus begins.
Which of the following scenarios exemplifies extinction?
Alexis is a former cocaine user. Now that she no longer uses cocaine, her hands no
longer shake and her heart no longer pounds when she hears a car pull into her drive,
like her dealer used to do in his car.
Which of the following sequences CORRECTLY arranges the phases of the classical
conditioning process, from first to last?

Acquisition extinction spontaneous recovery


Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies spontaneous recovery?
Alexis is a former cocaine user in recovery. After a relapse, though, her hands shake
and her heart pounds when she hears a car pull into her drive, like her dealer used to
do in his car.
Which of the following is true of stimulus generalization?
The greater the similarity between two stimuli, the greater the likelihood of stimulus
generalization.
June's cat runs to the kitchen at the sound of the electric can opener, which she has learned is
used to open her food when her dinner is about to be served. The cat does not run when a blender
is used, although it sounds similar. June's cat is demonstrating stimulus:
discrimination
Janine completed several tours of duty in Afghanistan. She suffers from PTSD. Now, back home
in Texas, she is frightened by firecrackers and cars backfiring. The fact that these sounds scare
her reflects a process of stimulus:
Generalization
Learning reflects _____. Maturation reflects
nurture; nature
refers to a decrease in the response to a stimulus when it is presented repeatedly, whereas _____
refers to the eventual disappearance of a conditioned response when an unconditioned stimulus is
no longer presented.
Habituation; extinction

Nature is to nurture what _____ is to


unconditioned response; conditioned response
Classical conditioning is most successful when the neutral stimulus begins:
just before the unconditioned stimulus begins.
occurs when a previously conditioned response decreases in frequency and eventually disappears
Extinction
Which of the following scenarios exemplifies extinction?
Alexis is a former cocaine user. Now that she no longer uses cocaine, her hands no longer shake
and her heart no longer pounds when she hears a car pull into her drive, like her dealer used to do
in his car

Which of the following sequences CORRECTLY arranges the phases of the classical
conditioning process, from first to last?
Acquisition extinction spontaneous recovery
Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies spontaneous recovery?
Alexis is a former cocaine user in recovery. After a relapse, though, her hands shake and her
heart pounds when she hears a car pull into her drive, like her dealer used to do in his car

Janine completed several tours of duty in Afghanistan. She suffers from PTSD. Now, back home
in Texas, she is frightened by firecrackers and cars backfiring. The fact that these sounds scare
her reflects a process of stimulus
generalization
Stimulus _____ provides the ability to differentiate between stimul
discrimination
stimulus is a stimulus that does not naturally bring about the response of interest
Neutral
Which of the following behaviors indicate learning?
Simon whines whenever he wants something.

In ________ conditioning, organisms learn the association between two stimuli.


classical
In Pavlov's well-known study on classical conditioning, the bell was the ____________ before
conditioning and the ____________ after conditioning had occurred.
neutral stimulus; conditioned stimulus
Pavlov's dog salivated each time food was presented. Salivation in this situation was the
unconditioned response.

During the winter months, Alfred receives a static shock each time he touches his car door when
exiting his vehicle. Now Alfred flinches right before he touches the door. What represents the
conditioned response?
Flinching before touching the door
Jennifer was stung by a bee several days ago. Now she cries out whenever any flying insect
comes too close. Jennifer is demonstrating
generalization
It should take about 30 minutes for the aspirin Manny just took to relieve his headache, but
Manny feels better within minutes. This is an example of
the placebo effect.
John is taking an agent that causes nausea every time he smokes a cigarette. This is a form of
aversive conditioning

Some children with seizure problems bang their heads against a wall, causing themselves serious
injury. As a result, a psychologist might administer a brief electric shock to such a child every
time she bangs her head on the wall. This would be an example of
aversive conditioning
Which of the following statements about classical conditioning is accurate?
It is a form of respondent behavior.
is credited with laying the foundation for the study of classical conditioning in psychology.

Pavlov

Any situation that involves learning


requires some relatively permanent change to occur
Little Julie is watching Dora the Explorer help her mother clean up the kitchen after dinner. After
the show, she walks into the kitchen to help her mommy clean up. Little Julie is demonstrating
observational learning
Which of the following is an example of an innate UCS-UCR connection?
Sneezing in response to pepper
Bubba, a very smart German shepherd, has learned that if he barks at the neighbors while they
are grilling, they will throw him a treat. However, his owner, Paul, does not want Bubba to eat
"people" food. When Paul is in the yard, Bubba never barks at the neighbors. According to
operant conditioning principles, Bubba is demonstrating that he can
discriminate
Kenny ate several hot dogs at the baseball game. Several hours later he got very nauseous and
spent most of the night being physically sick. We can expect that he will
be unable to eat a hot dog at the next ball game he attends
Boris is trying to use classical conditioning to teach his goldfish to come to the top of the tank to
eat whenever he turns on the aquarium light. He drops food into the tank and then turns on the
light. After several such trials, the fish show no more inclination to come to the top of the tank

when the light is turned on than they did on the first trial. What would you suggest that Boris do
to improve his training technique?
He should turn on the light before he drops the food into the tank.

Pavlov's dog learned to anticipate food whenever he was presented with stimuli associated with
food. Pavlov knew that his dog associated specific stimuli with food because the ____________
was elicited by the stimuli.
CR

In classical conditioning situations, the ____________ connection is innate, while the


____________ connection is learned.
UCS-UCR; CS-CR
Watson and Raynor conditioned fear in Little Albert using a ____________ as a CS.
white rat
Which pair below CORRECTLY identifies a stimulus or response in Watson and Rayner's "Little
Albert" study?
Unconditioned stimulusnoise

Tyler's grandmother used to receive emails from him every day, so she would check her in-box
regularly. Since Tyler went off to college, the emails have basically stopped. As a result, she no
longer checks her in-box on a daily basis. If this pattern continues, we can expect ____________
to occur.

extinction
Marcia was romantically involved with John. Unfortunately, Marcia eventually discovered that
John was being a complete jerk, so she ended the relationship. One day in the mall, she suddenly
gets a whiff of the cologne that John always wore. All the former good feelings come pouring
back. This is an example of
spontaneous recovery

In a particular TV add, an attractive model is shown with a red Corvette. Which of the following
statements is correct?
The ad will work best if the Corvette precedes the appearance of the attractive person
occurs when a previously conditioned response decreases in frequency and eventually
disappears.
Extinction
In what way does learned taste aversion seem to contradict the basic principles of classical
conditioning?
Learned taste aversion can occur after only a single CS-UCR pairing.
Dr. Meyer is known for his difficult pop quizzes. Immediately before he springs a pop quiz on
his students, he typically goes to the classroom door and closes it. Students soon learn to
anticipate a pop quiz whenever Dr. Meyer closes the classroom door. Closing the door has
become a(n)
CS

Reinforcers that satisfy a biological need are called _____ reinforcers.


Primary

As part of a behavior modification program, Kendra and her partner each agree to praise the
other if she completes her assigned household chores by the end of the day. Such praise is an
example of:
secondary reinforcement and positive reinforcement.
The term reward is synonymous with:
positive reinforcement only.
One reason Carlos continues to work at his job is the check he receives every two weeks. Carlos'
paycheck is a _____ reinforcer.
Secondary
Which of the following types of consequences is CORRECTLY matched with an example?
Positive punishment - Laurel's mother yells at her when Laurel takes $20 from her mom's purse
Behavior that is reinforced every time it occurs is said to be on a(n) _____ reinforcement
schedule
Continuous
Which of the following promotions exemplifies the use of a fixed-ratio schedule of
reinforcement?
A caf offers its customers a punch card. Each time a patron purchases a beverage, a hole
is punched; when ten holes are punched, the patron receives a free beverage.
Imagine that you graphed the cumulative number of bar-press responses over time of four rats,
each reinforced on a different one of the four schedules of intermittent reinforcement. Each rat's
behavior is graphed on a separate line. The line with the greatest slope should be that displaying
the behavior of the rat reinforced on the _____ schedule.
variable-ratio

A variable-interval schedule is a schedule:


by which the time between reinforcements fluctuates around some average rather than
being fixed.
Sheryl makes pleasant small talk and pays her boss a compliment before asking for a personal
day, because such a strategy was successful with a few of her previous bosses. This example
most clearly illustrates:
stimulus generalization.
Recall Tolman's latent learning experiments in which rats learned to run a maze. What was the
critical result?
Rats that began to receive an incentive halfway through the experiment rapidly matched the
performance of rats that had been reinforced from the beginning of the experiment.
A(n) _____ is a mental representation of spatial locations and directions.
cognitive map
Learning by watching the behavior of another person, or model is known as _____.
observational learning
Kevin used to cry, whine, throw temper tantrums, and eventually start screaming in the
department store whenever he wanted a toy. His mother would resist initially but when he would
start screaming she would give in. Eventually, Kevin started with the screaming to get his toy.
Kevin is demonstrating
the law of effect.
David earns $1,000 every time his sales reach $100,000. For David, the bonus is an example of
________ reinforcement.
Positive

If, through experience, you come to the conclusion that all things are beyond your control and
therefore you should not even try, you are exhibiting
learned helplessness.
Josh has a crush on the girl at the movie rental store. He knows that she works every Thursday
afternoon, so he only visits the store on Thursdays. Josh is operating on a ________ schedule.
fixed interval
What principles of learning do behavior modification programs rely on in order to help people
change?
Operant
On the way home from work, you decide to explore a side street that you have passed on several
occasions. You are surprised to find that it runs parallel to the expressway. Several weeks later,
there is a major accident on your usual travel route so you take this alternate route home. This is
an example of ________ learning.
Latent
Tolman demonstrated that rats can learn to run a maze correctly even though they were never
reinforced for successfully running through it. This demonstrated the phenomenon of
latent learning.
Operant conditioning most importantly involves forming associations between:
behavior and consequences.
The process by which a stimulus increases the likelihood that a preceding behavior will be
repeated is called:
reinforcement.
Negative reinforcement:

increases the likelihood that preceding behaviors will be repeated.


Which of the following types of consequences is CORRECTLY matched with an example?
Positive punishment - Laurel's mother yells at her when Laurel takes $20 from her mom's purse
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of punishment?
It tends to change behavior very slowly.
Imagine that you graphed the cumulative number of bar-press responses over time of four rats,
each reinforced on a different one of the four schedules of intermittent reinforcement. Each rat's
behavior is graphed on a separate line. The line with the greatest slope should be that displaying
the behavior of the rat reinforced on the _____ schedule.
variable-ratio
Typically long pauses in responding are found in _____ schedules.
fixed-interval
A variable-interval schedule is a schedule:
by which the time between reinforcements fluctuates around some average rather than
being fixed.
Ewan is convinced that a woman across the bar is "sending signals." A learning theorist would
term such signals:
discriminative stimuli.
Sheryl makes pleasant small talk and pays her boss a compliment before asking for a personal
day, because such a strategy was successful with a few of her previous bosses. This example
most clearly illustrates:
stimulus generalization.
_____ learning occurs without reinforcement.

Latent
A(n) _____ is a mental representation of spatial locations and directions.
cognitive map
Observational learning is based in part on the activity of _____ neurons in the brain.
Mirror
Which of the following is NOT associated with Skinner?
Conditioned stimulus
Some bears kept in captivity allow veterinarians to routinely give them total body checkups.
These bears open their mouths for teeth cleaning and present their paws for nail clipping. Your
friend wonders how anyone could ever get these dangerous animals to be so cooperative without
anesthesia. From your study of psychology, you quickly surmise that the bears have undergone
an extensive ________ program.
Shaping
Cecil turns off all the lights in his house to avoid a huge electric bill. Cecil's behavior is an
example of
negative reinforcement.
A worker is paid $25 for every 20 wind chimes that she builds. On which schedule of
reinforcement is she being paid?
Fixed ratio
For the past month, Larry has been grounded each time he hits his little brother. Lately, Larry's
misbehavior toward his little brother has decreased. Grounding Larry is an example of
negative punishment.

Which of the following is the response most parents give when asked why they physically punish
their children?
The parent was spanked as a child and his or her child also needs strong discipline.
On the way home from work, you decide to explore a side street that you have passed on several
occasions. You are surprised to find that it runs parallel to the expressway. Several weeks later,
there is a major accident on your usual travel route so you take this alternate route home. This is
an example of ________ learning.
Latent
es are more likely to be repeated." This is the law of:
effect.
As part of a behavior modification program, Kendra and her partner each agree to praise the
other if she completes her assigned household chores by the end of the day. Such praise is an
example of:
secondary reinforcement and positive reinforcement.
One reason Carlos continues to work at his job is the check he receives every two weeks. Carlos'
paycheck is a _____ reinforcer.
Secondary
Which of the following scenarios exemplifies negative reinforcement?
Vanna fastens her seatbelt as soon as she gets in her car to stop the annoying alert sound.
Which of the following types of consequences is CORRECTLY matched with an example?
Positive punishment - Laurel's mother yells at her when Laurel takes $20 from her mom's
purse
Which of the following types of consequences is CORRECTLY matched with an example?

Negative reinforcement - Jeff puts up his umbrella when it starts to sprinkle so he won't
get wet
Which of the following promotions exemplifies the use of a fixed-ratio schedule of
reinforcement?
A caf offers its customers a punch card. Each time a patron purchases a beverage, a hole
is punched; when ten holes are punched, the patron receives a free beverage.
Imagine that you graphed the cumulative number of bar-press responses over time of four rats,
each reinforced on a different one of the four schedules of intermittent reinforcement. Each rat's
behavior is graphed on a separate line. The line with the greatest slope should be that displaying
the behavior of the rat reinforced on the _____ schedule.
variable-ratio
Ewan is convinced that a woman across the bar is "sending signals." A learning theorist would
term such signals:
discriminative stimuli.
Sheryl makes pleasant small talk and pays her boss a compliment before asking for a personal
day, because such a strategy was successful with a few of her previous bosses. This example
most clearly illustrates:
stimulus generalization.
The cognitive learning concept of _____ learning is associated most prominently with _____.
latent; Tolman
Learning by watching the behavior of another person, or model is known as _____.
observational learning
Observational learning is based in part on the activity of _____ neurons in the brain.

Mirror
Which of the following is NOT associated with Skinner?
Conditioned stimulus
Melvin is a new fifth-grade teacher. Unfortunately, many of his new students have a history of
failing to complete their assignments. He wants to encourage his students to complete all of their
assignments and to do well on them. From a behavioral perspective, Melvin should
reinforce gradual approximations to the desired goal of completing 100% of the assignments.
Some bears kept in captivity allow veterinarians to routinely give them total body checkups.
These bears open their mouths for teeth cleaning and present their paws for nail clipping. Your
friend wonders how anyone could ever get these dangerous animals to be so cooperative without
anesthesia. From your study of psychology, you quickly surmise that the bears have undergone
an extensive ________ program.
Shaping
Mary is a teacher in an inner-city school that is considered "at-risk" because of low student
achievement scores. She notices that most of the students believe that academic ability or
intelligence is a fixed, innate ability. What can Mary expect from students given this mind-set?
They will exhibit learned helplessness in academically challenging situations.
Kayla is selling her Girl Scout cookies in the neighborhood. She never knows how many houses
she will have to visit before she sells all of her cookies. Kayla is operating on a ________
schedule.
variable ratio
What principles of learning do behavior modification programs rely on in order to help people
change?

Operant
Tolman demonstrated that rats can learn to run a maze correctly even though they were never
reinforced for successfully running through it. This demonstrated the phenomenon of
latent learning.
The root of operant conditioning may be traced to _____'s early studies of hungry cats learning
to escape from cages.
Thorndike

Nature is to nurture what _____ reinforcers are to _____ reinforcers.


primary; secondary
A fixed-ratio schedule is a schedule:
by which reinforcement is given only after a specific number of responses are made.
A variable-ratio schedule is a schedule:
by which reinforcement occurs after a fluctuating number of responses rather than after a fixed
number.
The process of teaching complex behavior by reinforcing ever closer approximations of the
desired behavior is called:
shaping.
A(n) _____ is a mental representation of spatial locations and directions.
cognitive map
Learning by watching the behavior of another person, or model is known as _____.
observational learning

Some bears kept in captivity allow veterinarians to routinely give them total body checkups.
These bears open their mouths for teeth cleaning and present their paws for nail clipping. Your
friend wonders how anyone could ever get these dangerous animals to be so cooperative without
anesthesia. From your study of psychology, you quickly surmise that the bears have undergone
an extensive ________ program.
Shaping
If, through experience, you come to the conclusion that all things are beyond your control and
therefore you should not even try, you are exhibiting
learned helplessness.
Fred's parents are very inconsistent. Most of the time Fred climbs on the furniture without
receiving any reprimands; however, sometimes he is punished for this behavior. Fred's parents
cannot understand why he is not a better behaved child. Fred's parents are reinforcing his
negative behaviors on a ________ schedule.
partial reinforcement
Which of the following is an example of positive punishment?
Getting scolded
In Sweden, it is illegal for parents to spank their children. Since the laws were passed, youth
rates of crime have
remained the same.
Which of the following is the response most parents give when asked why they physically punish
their children?
The parent was spanked as a child and his or her child also needs strong discipline.

Tolman demonstrated that rats can learn to run a maze correctly even though they were never
reinforced for successfully running through it. This demonstrated the phenomenon of
latent learning.
Which of the following approaches to treating a phobia is/are CORRECTLY matched with the
type of learning it reflects?
Reinforcing client directly by interacting with the feared object - operant conditioning
Which of the following is an example of a secondary reinforcer?
Money
The term reward is synonymous with:
positive reinforcement only
_____ weakens a response through the application of an unpleasant stimulus.
Positive punishment
Which of the following is an example of negative punishment?
Informing an employee that he has been demoted because of a poor job evaluation.
Four-month-old Simon quickly learns that he will be picked up if he cries. From a behaviorist
perspective, picking up Simon whenever he cries is a ________ for the baby.
positive reinforce
Matt wants to train his dog, Buster, to sit on command. He gives Buster a doggie biscuit each
time Buster sits when commanded, but only for the first 10 trials. He then changes the rules.
Buster now has to sit on command three times before he gets a biscuit. Matt first used a
________ schedule, and then a ________ schedule to train Buster.
continuous reinforcement schedule; fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement

Which of the following does not accurately reflect a distinction between classical and operant
conditioning?
Classical conditioning applies to voluntary behavior, while operant conditioning applies
to involuntary behavior.
Little Henry knows that when he goes shopping with Mommy and throws a tantrum, he never
gets a treat. However, he also knows that if he throws a tantrum when Dad takes him, Dad
always gives in. Little Henry is demonstrating
discrimination.
As part of a behavior modification program, Kendra and her partner each agree to praise the
other if she completes her assigned household chores by the end of the day. Such praise is an
example of:
secondary reinforcement and positive reinforcement.
A(n) _____ reinforcer refers to the removal of an unpleasant stimulus, putting on a sweater when
your cold for example, which leads to an increase in the probability that a preceding response
will be repeated in the future.
Negative
In operant conditioning
the consequences of behavior produce change in the probability of the occurrence of the
behavior.
Which of the following is a primary reinforcer?
Candy
Carol gives her dog, Oscar, a treat each time he sits on command. Carol is using a ________
schedule to train her dog to sit on command.

continuous reinforcement
Dr. Simonelli is a practicing behavior analyst. What does she do?
She specializes in behavior modification techniques.
Which of the following is the response most parents give when asked why they physically punish
their children?
The parent was spanked as a child and his or her child also needs strong discipline.
_____ punishment consists of the removal of something pleasant.
Negative
Gary takes his car to the auto shop for routine maintenance every 3,000 miles. He is trying to
avoid a major repair bill in the future. His behavior demonstrates
negative reinforcement.
Shirley refuses to put her name up for a promotion because she knows she will not get the job
anyway. This is an example of
learned helplessness.

As Natalie, who has extremely long nails, approaches the chalkboard, many of her classmates
cover their ears. What represents the conditioned stimulus?
Natalie approaching the board
"Responses that lead to satisfying consequences are more likely to be repeated." This is the law
of:
effect
Which process determines whether or not an imitated or modeled act will be repeated?

Reinforcement

Material in memory storage has to be located and brought into awareness to be useful. This
process is known as
Retrieval
Which of the following expressions best reflects the capacity of short-term memory?
About seven +/- two chunks
Grouping pieces of information together to expand the effective capacity of short-term memory
is termed
Chunking
Rehearsal refers to the:
repetition of information that has entered short-term memory
Which of the following statements is true of working memory?
Working memory permits us to keep information in an active state briefly so that we
can do something with the information
Which of the following best describes the effect of stress on working memory capacity?
Stress can reduce the effectiveness of working memory by reducing its capacity.
"Cat food, cola, toothpaste." Your roommate begins reciting items as you get to ready to leave to
the store. He continues to list a few more items. Finally, he wraps up: "Coffee creamer, spaghetti
sauce, dish liquid, and ice tea mix." You forget a couple of things, but you do manage to get the
cat food, cola, and toothpaste. Your memory for these items reflects the _____ effect.
primacy
Activating one memory triggers the activation of related memories in a process known as
spreading activation
Which of the following is true of the neuroscience of memory?
The amygdala is especially involved with memories involving emotion
Long-term potentiation refers to the process whereby:
neural pathways become activated more easily as learning occurs
Which of the following is NOT one of the three main memory processes?
Thinking

You are amazed at how the server in the fancy restaurant accurately remembered all of the orders
from you and your 11 friends without writing them down. It is likely that while the server was
taking your orders, he
did not notice the woman at the next table who was putting food in her handbag
Steve is studying with his friend Mike for their biology test. Mike asks Steve about a particular
concept, and Steve replies, "I know I was in class that day, but I don't even have that in my notes.
Are you sure the professor mentioned it?" Steve is demonstrating a(n) ________ failure.
Encoding
Fifteen-year-old Matt and his father are in an electronics store looking at video game systems.
Matt gives his father a complete breakdown of the pros and cons of each of the different video
game systems on display. Matt is able to accurately recall all of these details because he has
deeply processed this information
You most likely store the seven-digit phone number from your previous address in ________
memory
long-term
George Miller's classic paper on the seven plus or minus two phenomenon refers to a person's
________ memory.
short-term
When asked to memorize these 15 lettersC I A C B S A B C F B I I R SMary reorganized
them into CIA, CBS, ABC, FBI, and IRS. Mary used the tactic of
chunking
Talking to people about what you have learned is a form of
rehearsal
Remembering the name of the author who wrote The Cat in the Hat is referred to as ________
memory.
semantic
Margaret fell down her basement stairs and suffered serious injury to her amygdala. What
memory problems is she most likely to experience?
Difficulty with emotional memories
The process by which we encode, store, and retrieve information is known as
memory
Material in memory storage has to be located and brought into awareness to be useful. This
process is known as
retrieval

Which of the following sequences best reflects the order of stages in the three-stage model of
memory?
Sensory memory short-term memory long-term memory
Grouping pieces of information together to expand the effective capacity of short-term memory
is termed
chunking
We look up a number in the phone book, push the book away, and then begin to dial the number.
Why do we discourage an interruption during this process?
Information lasts only 15-25 seconds in short-term memory
Rehearsal refers to the:
repetition of information that has entered short-term memory
On your computer desktop, you can see all sorts of different files, each immediately accessible.
Because you are actively working on them, and because you can open them whenever you want,
these files are in fact very similar to the kind of information held in:
working memory
Which of the following accurately describes the processing of information in working memory?
Working memory uses cognitive resources during its operation which makes us less
aware of our surroundings
"Cat food, cola, toothpaste." Your roommate begins reciting items as you get to ready to leave to
the store. He continues to list a few more items. Finally, he wraps up: "Coffee creamer, spaghetti
sauce, dish liquid, and ice tea mix." You forget a couple of things, but you do manage to get the
cat food, cola, and toothpaste. Your memory for these items reflects the _____ effect.
primacy
Which of the following is true of the neuroscience of memory?
The amygdala is especially involved with memories involving emotion
Akira Haraguchi demonstrated amazing memory ability when he recited all 80,000 digits of pi.
What process in the human memory system did he utilize?
Retrieval
What key process is critical when moving new information from sensory memory into short-term
memory?
Attention
Your mom is always giving you grief about how you surf the Web and send text messages while
you are studying. You explain that multitasking does not affect your grades. Is your position
supported by the information presented in the textbook?

No; studies have confirmed that individuals do not do well on memory tests of
information that was acquired while performing other tasks.
According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin theory of memory, memory storage involves which of the
following three systems?
Sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory
Chunking involves
packing together information that exceeds the seven plus or minus two rule.
When asked to memorize these 15 lettersC I A C B S A B C F B I I R SMary reorganized
them into CIA, CBS, ABC, FBI, and IRS. Mary used the tactic of
Chunking
Talking to people about what you have learned is a form of
Rehearsal
A preexisting mental concept or framework that helps people organize and interpret information
is referred to as a
schema
According to the serial position effect, if you are a waiter trying to remember all the orders for a
table of seven, you should pay particular attention to the ________ orders.
3rd, 4th, and 5th
Detectives take advantage of context-dependent memory by
taking witnesses back to the scene of the crime.
Material in memory storage has to be located and brought into awareness to be useful. This
process is known as
retrieval
When you tell an acquaintance your telephone number, you do not recite the digits one by one at
a constant rate, as in "3, 3, 7, 2, 3, 4, 8, 3, 9, 2." Rather, you might say, "3, 3, 7 . . . 2, 3, 4 . . . 83,
92." This exemplifies _____, a strategy to enhance _____ memory.
chunking; short-term
On your computer desktop, you can see all sorts of different files, each immediately accessible.
Because you are actively working on them, and because you can open them whenever you want,
these files are in fact very similar to the kind of information held in:
working memory.
Which of the following statements is true of working memory?

Working memory permits us to keep information in an active state briefly so that we


can do something with the information.
Which of the following best describes the effect of stress on working memory capacity?
Stress can reduce the effectiveness of working memory by reducing its capacity
"Cat food, cola, toothpaste." Your roommate begins reciting items as you get to ready to leave to
the store. He continues to list a few more items. Finally, he wraps up: "Coffee creamer, spaghetti
sauce, dish liquid, and ice tea mix." You forget a couple of things, but you do manage to get the
cat food, cola, and toothpaste. Your memory for these items reflects the _____ effect.
primacy
The recency effect refers to the fact that:
items presented late in a list are remembered better than items presented in the middle
of a list.
"Milk, cereal, candy." Your roommate begins reciting items as you get ready to leave to the store.
He continues to list a few more items. Finally, he wraps up: "Spaghetti sauce, dish liquid, and ice
tea mix." You forget a few things, but the spaghetti sauce, dish liquid, and ice tea mix are in the
bag. Your memory for these items reflects the _____ effect.
recency
Which of the following is true of the neuroscience of memory?
The amygdala is especially involved with memories involving emotion
Akira Haraguchi demonstrated amazing memory ability when he recited all 80,000 digits of pi.
What process in the human memory system did he utilize?
Retrieval
Your mom is always giving you grief about how you surf the Web and send text messages while
you are studying. You explain that multitasking does not affect your grades. Is your position
supported by the information presented in the textbook?
No; studies have confirmed that individuals do not do well on memory tests of
information that was acquired while performing other tasks
Encoding
According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin theory of memory, memory storage involves which of the
following three systems?
Sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory
Which of the following is TRUE of short-term memory?
It is a limited-capacity memory system.

George Miller's classic paper on the seven plus or minus two phenomenon refers to a person's
________ memory.
short-term
When asked to memorize these 15 lettersC I A C B S A B C F B I I R SMary reorganized
them into CIA, CBS, ABC, FBI, and IRS. Mary used the tactic of
chunking
Talking to people about what you have learned is a form of
rehearsal
Remembering the name of the author who wrote The Cat in the Hat is referred to as ________
memory.
semantic
George just graduated from college and is going on his first job interview. He has learned that
there are two other candidates. Because of the information he has learned about the serial
position effect, George asks to be either the first or the last candidate interviewed. Why?
Either the first or the last candidate will be best remembered
The process by which we encode, store, and retrieve information is known as
Memory
Material in memory storage has to be located and brought into awareness to be useful. This
process is known as
retrieval
memory refers to the initial, momentary storage of information that lasts only an instant.
Sensory
A research participant is required to report as much of a poem as he can remember immediately
after having read the poem once. We would expect the greatest number of recall errors in lines:
in the middle of the poem
Which of the following statements is true of working memory?
Working memory permits us to keep information in an active state briefly so that we
can do something with the information
memory is memory for general knowledge and facts about the world, as well as memory for the
rules of logic that are used to deduce other facts
Semantic
Activating one memory triggers the activation of related memories in a process known as
spreading activation

The hippocampus is located in the _____ lobe.


temporal
The term engram is generally discouraged by psychologists studying memory. Why might this
be?
There is probably no single site or process in the brain corresponding to a particular
memory
Which of the following is NOT one of the three main memory processes?
Thinking
What key process is critical when moving new information from sensory memory into short-term
memory?
Attention
Jacob is a server in a fancy restaurant. He takes orders without writing anything down. Which
memory process does he use first?
Selective attention
Chunking involves
packing together information that exceeds the seven plus or minus two rule
Talking to people about what you have learned is a form of
rehearsal.
You decide to go to a hypnotist to try to stop smoking. The hypnotist asks you to remember what
it was like before you started smoking. Which memory system will you use to comply with this
request?
Episodic
The activation of information that a person already has in storage is referred to as
priming
A preexisting mental concept or framework that helps people organize and interpret information
is referred to as a
schema
Long-term potentiation is a concept that explains

how memory functions at the neuronal level.


Margaret fell down her basement stairs and suffered serious injury to her amygdala. What
memory problems is she most likely to experience?
Difficulty with emotional memories
The conscious repetition of information to ensure its survival in short-term memory is termed
_____ rehearsal.
Elaborative
The concept of working memory represents a contemporary conceptualization of _____ memory.
short-term
You are engrossed in your favorite TV show in the living room. Your roommate yells for you to
bring a flyswatter to the kitchen. Vaguely aware that a request is being made of you, you ask
your roommate to repeat herself. Before she can reply, however, the sound of the words "bring a
flyswatter to the kitchen" play through your mind. This is an example of ________ memory.
echoic
Being able to consciously recall information from the past and recite it, involves what type of
memory?
Declarative
You are relaxing beside a water display in the park. The quiet, scenic environment reminds you
of a poem you read in English class last week. This is an example of ________ memory.
episodic

Your roommate, Rhiana, asks your advice on how to best study for her final exams. Because of
your knowledge of context dependent memory, you recommend that she study
quietly in the classroom in which she is to take her exam.

In John's favorite picture, he is riding with his father on a lawn mower. John also likes the smell
of freshly mowed grass. Which of the following cues do you predict will elicit the strongest
emotional memory in John?
Smell of freshly cut grass

1. The process by which we encode, store, and retrieve information is known as


memory.
2. Material in memory storage has to be located and brought into awareness to be
useful. This process is known as retrieval.
3. Which of the following sequences best reflects the order of stages in the three-stage
model of memory? Sensory memory short-term memory long-term memory
4. Sensory memory refers to the initial, momentary storage of information that lasts only
an instant.
5. A research participant is required to report as much of a poem as he can remember
immediately after having read the poem once. We would expect the greatest number of
recall errors in lines: in the middle of the poem.
6. Which of the following expressions best reflects the capacity of short-term memory?
About seven +/- two chunks
7. Grouping pieces of information together to expand the effective capacity of short-term
memory is termed Chunking.
8. When you tell an acquaintance your telephone number, you do not recite the digits
one by one at a constant rate, as in "3, 3, 7, 2, 3, 4, 8, 3, 9, 2." Rather, you might say,
"3, 3, 7 . . . 2, 3, 4 . . . 83, 92." This exemplifies _____, a strategy to enhance _____
memory. chunking; short-term
9. We look up a number in the phone book, push the book away, and then begin to dial
the number. Why do we discourage an interruption during this process? Information
lasts only 15-25 seconds in short-term memory.
10. Rehearsal refers to the repetition of information that has entered short-term
memory.
11. The conscious repetition of information to ensure its survival in short-term memory is
termed elaborative rehearsal.
12. The concept of working memory represents a contemporary conceptualization of
short-term memory.
13. On your computer desktop, you can see all sorts of different files, each immediately
accessible. Because you are actively working on them, and because you can open
them whenever you want, these files are in fact very similar to the kind of information
held in: working memory.

14. Which of the following statements is true of working memory? Working memory
permits us to keep information in an active state briefly so that we can do
something with the information.
15. Which of the following accurately describes the processing of information in working
memory? Working memory uses cognitive resources during its operation which
makes us less aware of our surroundings.
16. Which of the following best describes the effect of stress on working memory
capacity? Stress can reduce the effectiveness of working memory by reducing its
capacity.
17. The primacy effect refers to the fact that: items presented early in a list are
remembered better than items in the middle of the list.
18. "Cat food, cola, toothpaste." Your roommate begins reciting items as you get to
ready to leave to the store. He continues to list a few more items. Finally, he wraps up:
"Coffee creamer, spaghetti sauce, dish liquid, and ice tea mix." You forget a couple of
things, but you do manage to get the cat food, cola, and toothpaste. Your memory for
these items reflects the primacy effect.
19. The recency effect refers to the fact that: items presented late in a list are
remembered better than items presented in the middle of a list.
20. "Milk, cereal, candy." Your roommate begins reciting items as you get ready to leave
to the store. He continues to list a few more items. Finally, he wraps up: "Spaghetti
sauce, dish liquid, and ice tea mix." You forget a few things, but the spaghetti sauce,
dish liquid, and ice tea mix are in the bag. Your memory for these items reflects the
recency effect.
21. Which of the following refers to declarative memory? Memory for names
22. Semantic memory is memory for general knowledge and facts about the world, as
well as memory for the rules of logic that are used to deduce other facts.
23. Activating one memory triggers the activation of related memories in a process
known as: spreading activation.
24. The hippocampus is located in the temporal lobe.
25. Which of the following is true of the neuroscience of memory? The amygdala is
especially involved with memories involving emotion.
26. Long-term potentiation refers to the process whereby: neural pathways become
activated more easily as learning occurs.

27. The term engram is generally discouraged by psychologists studying memory. Why
might this be? There is probably no single site or process in the brain
corresponding to a particular memory.
28. Akira Haraguchi demonstrated amazing memory ability when he recited all 80,000
digits of pi. What process in the human memory system did he utilize? Retrieval
29. Which of the following is NOT one of the three main memory processes? Thinking
30. Which of the following is NOT included in the encoding process? Testing yourself
31. What key process is critical when moving new information from sensory memory into
short-term memory? Attention
32. Jacob is a server in a fancy restaurant. He takes orders without writing anything
down. Which memory process does he use first? Selective attention
33.
34. Your mom is always giving you grief about how you surf the Web and send text
messages while you are studying. You explain that multitasking does not affect your
grades. Is your position supported by the information presented in the textbook? No;
studies have confirmed that individuals do not do well on memory tests of
information that was acquired while performing other tasks.
35. Steve is studying with his friend Mike for their biology test. Mike asks Steve about a
particular concept, and Steve replies, "I know I was in class that day, but I don't even
have that in my notes. Are you sure the professor mentioned it?" Steve is demonstrating
an encoding failure.
36.
37. According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin theory of memory, memory storage involves which
of the following three systems? Sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term
memory
38. You most likely store the seven-digit phone number from your previous address in
long-term memory.
39. You tell your friends about the great time you had at a famous amusement park.
Most of the visual and auditory sensations that you experienced and have now forgotten
were initially processed in your sensory memory.
40. You are engrossed in your favorite TV show in the living room. Your roommate yells
for you to bring a flyswatter to the kitchen. Vaguely aware that a request is being made
of you, you ask your roommate to repeat herself. Before she can reply, however, the

sound of the words "bring a flyswatter to the kitchen" play through your mind. This is an
example of echoic memory.
41. Which of the following is TRUE of short-term memory? It is a limited-capacity
memory system.
42. George Miller's classic paper on the seven plus or minus two phenomenon refers to
a person's short-term memory.
43. Chunking involves packing together information that exceeds the seven plus or
minus two rule.
44. When asked to memorize these 15 lettersC I A C B S A B C F B I I R SMary
reorganized them into CIA, CBS, ABC, FBI, and IRS. Mary used the tactic of chunking.
45. Talking to people about what you have learned is a form of rehearsal.
46. Declarative memory is the conscious recollection of facts and events that you can
verbally communicate.
47. Being able to consciously recall information from the past and recite it, involves what
type of memory? Declarative
48. You decide to go to a hypnotist to try to stop smoking. The hypnotist asks you to
remember what it was like before you started smoking. Which memory system will you
use to comply with this request? Episodic
49. You are relaxing beside a water display in the park. The quiet, scenic environment
reminds you of a poem you read in English class last week. This is an example of
episodic memory.
50. Remembering the name of the author who wrote The Cat in the Hat is referred to as
semantic memory.
51. If you remember dancing at your high school prom, it is an example of ________
memory; if you showed me the dance steps you used, it is an example of ________
memory. episodic; procedural
52. The activation of information that a person already has in storage is referred to as
priming.
53. A preexisting mental concept or framework that helps people organize and interpret
information is referred to as a schema.
54.

55. In John's favorite picture, he is riding with his father on a lawn mower. John also
likes the smell of freshly mowed grass. Which of the following cues do you predict will
elicit the strongest emotional memory in John? Smell of freshly cut grass
56. Margaret fell down her basement stairs and suffered serious injury to her amygdala.
What memory problems is she most likely to experience? Difficulty with emotional
memories
57. Juanita is an administrative assistant in the human resources department of a local
business. She has noticed that in nearly every case, the last person interviewed for a
job gets hired. What effect of memory may be influencing the hiring practice? Recency
58. George just graduated from college and is going on his first job interview. He has
learned that there are two other candidates. Because of the information he has learned
about the serial position effect, George asks to be either the first or the last candidate
interviewed. Why? Either the first or the last candidate will be best remembered.
59. According to the serial position effect, if you are a waiter trying to remember all the
orders for a table of seven, you should pay particular attention to the
3rd, 4th, and 5th
orders.
60. Your roommate, Rhiana, asks your advice on how to best study for her final exams.
Because of your knowledge of context dependent memory, you recommend that she
study quietly in the classroom in which she is to take her exam.
61. Detectives take advantage of context-dependent memory by taking witnesses
back to the scene of the crime.
62. Kim was telling her friend about her most recent trip to her grandmother's house, but
was having trouble remembering certain details. Later that month she visited her
grandmother again and the details came flooding back. This is an example of the
effects of context on retrieval.
1."I know it! It's um . . . um . . . It starts with G'," begins a trivia game contestant
excitedly. The contestant is falling prey to the tip-of-the-tongue effect.
2. Mickey is about to take his psychology final. Just before the exam, the person sitting
next to Mickey asks him the name of the physiologist who worked on classical
conditioning. Mickey suddenly realizes that he cannot quite remember the name, but he
knows that it starts with a P and is two syllables long. Mickey is experiencing: the tip-ofthe-tongue phenomenon.
3. Why is it so difficult to retrieve information from long-term memory? There is so
much information being stored in long-term memory.

4. A stimulus that facilitates the recall of information from long-term memory is called a:
retrieval cue.
5. Chad is puzzling over a difficult question on a multiple-choice sociology test. He rereads the question, scans the options beneath the question, and glances at other
questions on the test. Most likely, Chad is looking for: retrieval cues.
6. Ralph is preparing a report on his academic field trip to a manufacturing plant. He is
trying to remember each event of the trip in the order in which it occurred to prepare an
accurate report in a presentable form. Which of the following memory tasks is Ralph
using? Recall
7. "Discuss several factors that contributed to the economic collapse of late 2008," asks
a question on the midterm in an Economics course. Such a question is a test of recall
memory.
8. _____ is a memory task in which individuals are presented with a stimulus and asked
whether they have been exposed to it in the past or to identify it from a list of
alternatives. Recognition
9. The levels-of-processing approach: suggests that thinking about material leads to
better memory than does maintenance rehearsal.
10. Which of the following is true of the levels-of-processing theory? At an intermediate
level of processing, information is translated into meaningful units.
11. The levels-of-processing approach suggests: specific information will be retained
for longer when the level of information processing is deeper.
12. According to the levels-of-processing theory, which of the following students should
retrieve information more successfully on classroom tests? Irene, who pays close
attention to what is taught in class
13.
14. Which of the following searches explicit memory? Trying to remember a name
encountered or learned about previously
15. "I know it! It's um . . . um . . . ," begins a trivia game contestant excitedly. The
contestant is engaged in a test of her explicit memory.
16. Bart remembers the release date of his favorite movie director's upcoming project.
Which of the following forms of memory would have helped Bart? Explicit memory
17. Memories of which we are not consciously aware are called implicit memories.

18. Priming is a phenomenon in which exposure to a word or concept later makes it


easier to recall related information, even when there is no conscious memory of the
word or concept.
19. Some psychologists consider classical conditioning to be a form of implicit memory.
Which of the following is probably the best reason for suggesting that classical
conditioning is a type of implicit memory? Classical conditioning occurs outside
awareness.
20.
21. Which of the following is true of flashbulb memories? The details recalled in
flashbulb memories are often inaccurate.
22. Christopher clearly remembers that he was practicing his dialogues for his school
play when he heard that the governor of his state had been assassinated. This is an
example of a flashbulb memory.
23.
24. During a conversation, Jerry told his friend that their favorite rock band was coming
to perform in their city. However, he could not remember the medium through which he
got the information about the show. Jerry was experiencing: source amnesia.
25. Constructive process is a process in which memories are influenced by the
meaning we give to events.
26. A schema is: a conceptual framework for interpreting a situation.
27. Dr. Tranh has given so many lectures that he gives little thought to what he expects
might happen: He assumes students will assemble, take notes, and occasionally ask a
question. That Dr. Tranh finds the process so routine reflects the development of: a
schema.
28. Loftus and Palmer (1974) conducted an experiment in which participants estimated
the speed of a car described as either contacting or smashing into another. To which of
the following conclusions regarding eyewitness memory is this study most relevant?
Eyewitnesses confidence is only weakly related to eyewitness memory.
29. The unconscious process whereby disturbing memories are prevented from entering
awareness is called: repression.
30. The idea that disturbing memories may be repressed derives from: Freud's
psychoanalytic theory.

31. Which of the following alternatives best expresses psychologist Elizabeth Loftus'
position on the validity of repressed memories? Repressed memories are often false.
They reflect confusion regarding the source of a memory.
32. Middle-aged Mrs. Lovett is recalling her first Christmas as a young newlywed at her
in-laws' Wyoming ranch. This is a(n) _____ memory. autobiographical
33. Which of the following best encapsulates autobiographical memory?
Autobiographical memory is just as inaccurate as other types of memory are.
Some periods of one's life are recalled more easily than are others.
34. One's culture is most likely to influence: the strategies one uses to recall
information from long-term memory.
35. With respect to the potential influence of a written language on the recall ability of a
culture's members, research has: revealed that a written language probably has
little influence on people's memory ability.
36. The first attempts to study forgetting scientifically were made by the German
psychologist: Hermann Ebbinghaus.
37. Which of the following best describes the results of Ebbinghaus's work on
forgetting? You'll forget most of it right away, and you'll keep on forgetting more of
it, though at a slower rate.
38. Jerry is at a party. He is introduced to three different people in the span of a
moment. Later, he is approached by the first person he met and cannot remember her
name. Which of the following is most likely the source of Jerry's difficulty? Jerry failed
to encode the woman's name
39. Drew is unable to recall whether Lincoln's head faces left or right on the penny.
Which of the following is probably the best explanation for Drew's memory failure? The
information was not encoded, because Drew never really paid attention to
Lincoln's head on the penny.
40. Which theory of forgetting is correctly matched with its description? Decay
Information is lost over time as a result of nonuse.
41. Which of the following statements best describes the fate of the decay theory of
forgetting in psychology? It is an incomplete theory of forgetting.
42. In _____ interference, information learned earlier disrupts the recall of information
learned more recently; in _____ interference, recently learned information disrupts the
recall of information learned earlier. proactive; retroactive

43. Owen has trouble remembering a friend's new phone number; he keeps recalling
the old number instead. Completing a rental application, Pippa finds she can't recall one
of her previous addresses, as she's had several addresses since. Owen is experiencing
_____ interference; Pippa is experiencing _____. proactive; retroactive interference
44. _____, an illness characterized in part by severe memory problems, is the fourth
leading cause of death among adults in the United States. Alzheimer's disease
45. In _____ amnesia, memory is lost for events preceding an injury or accident; in
_____ amnesia, memory is lost for events following an injury or accident. retrograde;
anterograde
46. Pierre has been an alcoholic for several decades. Now in his 50s, his intellectual
abilities are intact, but he suffers from memory deficits and hallucinations. Based on this
information, you suspect that Pierre may be afflicted with: Korsakoff's syndrome.
47.
48. Which of the following is likely to create a flashbulb memory? All of these
49. Repression is motivated forgetting.
50. Motivated forgetting is usually associated with what type of memories? Traumatic
51. Eyewitness accounts of crimes are prone to errors.
52. According to Hermann Ebbinghaus, most forgetting occurs soon after we
originally learned something.
53. Encoding failure occurs when the information was never entered into long-term
memory.
54. A few years ago, you had a boyfriend named Phil. Now, you have a new boyfriend
named Stephen. Because of ________, you sometimes call Stephen by the wrong
name. proactive interference
55. You are taking both Spanish and French this semester. As you study the vocabulary
words for your French test, you realize that the French words are disrupting the memory
of the Spanish vocabulary words you studied last week. This is an example of
proactive interference.
56. According to decay theory, memories fade because a neurochemical "memory
trace" disintegrates over time.
57. In H. M.'s surgery, the part of his brain responsible for laying down new memories
was damaged beyond repair. The result was amnesia.

58. A soap opera character who had a major head trauma cannot remember any postinjury people or events, but his memory for people and events prior to his injury is
perfect. Is this fictional tale possible in the real world? Yes; amnesia involving new
events is called anterograde amnesia.
59. Shauna is an excellent student. She rewrites her class notes after each class.
Rewriting her notes is a form of memory rehearsal.
60. Both of Suzie's parents suffered from Alzheimer's disease before they died.
Although still in her early 40s, Suzie is very concerned about her own cognitive
functioning. What advice can you give her based what you know about the science of
memory? "Engage in challenging cognitive tasks as frequently as you can."

You are amazed at how the server in the fancy restaurant accurately remembered all of
the orders from you and your 11 friends without writing them down. It is likely that while
the server was taking your orders, he did not notice the woman at the next table who
was putting food in her handbag.
An individual's autobiographical memory forms the core of the individual's personal
identity.
_____ amnesia occurs when an individual has a memory for some material but cannot
recall where he or she encountered it. Source
Long-term potentiation is a concept that explains how memory functions at the
neuronal level
Fifteen-year-old Matt and his father are in an electronics store looking at video game
systems. Matt gives his father a complete breakdown of the pros and cons of each of
the different video game systems on display. Matt is able to accurately recall all of these
details because he has deeply processed this information.
Flashbulb memories:
typically concern major, unexpected public or personal events.

Chad is puzzling over a difficult question on a multiple-choice sociology test. He re-reads the
question, scans the options beneath the question, and glances at other questions on the test. Most
likely, Chad is looking for:
retrieval cues.
Ralph is preparing a report on his academic field trip to a manufacturing plant. He is trying to
remember each event of the trip in the order in which it occurred to prepare an accurate report in
a presentable form. Which of the following memory tasks is Ralph using?
Recall
"Discuss several factors that contributed to the economic collapse of late 2008," asks a question
on the midterm in an Economics course. Such a question is a test of _____ memory.
Recall
A typical multiple-choice question on a psychology test is an example of both a _____ and a(n)
_____ test of memory.
recognition; explicit
"I know it! It's um . . . um . . . ," begins a trivia game contestant excitedly. The contestant is
engaged in a test of her _____ memory.
Explicit
Bart remembers the release date of his favorite movie director's upcoming project. Which of the
following forms of memory would have helped Bart?
Explicit memory
Memories of which we are not consciously aware are called _____ memories.
Implicit
A schema is:

a conceptual framework for interpreting a situation.


The idea that disturbing memories may be repressed derives from:
Freud's psychoanalytic theory.
One's culture is most likely to influence:
the strategies one uses to recall information from long-term memory.
Which theory of forgetting is correctly matched with its description?
DecayInformation is lost over time as a result of nonuse.
Which of the following statements best describes the fate of the decay theory of forgetting in
psychology?
It is an incomplete theory of forgetting.
In _____ interference, information learned earlier disrupts the recall of information learned more
recently; in _____ interference, recently learned information disrupts the recall of information
learned earlier.
proactive; retroactive
Owen has trouble remembering a friend's new phone number; he keeps recalling the old number
instead. Completing a rental application, Pippa finds she can't recall one of her previous
addresses, as she's had several addresses since. Owen is experiencing _____ interference; Pippa
is experiencing _____.
proactive; retroactive interference
_____, an illness characterized in part by severe memory problems, is the fourth leading cause of
death among adults in the United States.
Alzheimer's disease
Which of the following is likely to create a flashbulb memory?

The first time you drive a car


Watching live images of 9/11
Finding out that you are pregnant

All of these

Eyewitness accounts of crimes are


prone to errors.
You are taking both Spanish and French this semester. As you study the vocabulary words for
your French test, you realize that the French words are disrupting the memory of the Spanish
vocabulary words you studied last week. This is an example of
proactive interference.
A soap opera character who had a major head trauma cannot remember any post-injury people or
events, but his memory for people and events prior to his injury is perfect. Is this fictional tale
possible in the real world?
Yes; amnesia involving new events is called anterograde amnesia.
Shauna is an excellent student. She rewrites her class notes after each class. Rewriting her notes
is a form of memory
rehearsal.
Mickey is about to take his psychology final. Just before the exam, the person sitting next to
Mickey asks him the name of the physiologist who worked on classical conditioning. Mickey
suddenly realizes that he cannot quite remember the name, but he knows that it starts with a P
and is two syllables long. Mickey is experiencing:
the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.
A stimulus that facilitates the recall of information from long-term memory is called a:

retrieval cue.
_____ is a memory task in which individuals are presented with a stimulus and asked whether
they have been exposed to it in the past or to identify it from a list of alternatives.
Recognition
According to the levels-of-processing theory, which of the following students should retrieve
information more successfully on classroom tests?
Irene, who pays close attention to what is taught in class
A typical multiple-choice question on a psychology test is an example of both a _____ and a(n)
_____ test of memory.
recognition; explicit
"I know it! It's um . . . um . . . ," begins a trivia game contestant excitedly. The contestant is
engaged in a test of her _____ memory.
Explicit
_____ amnesia occurs when an individual has a memory for some material but cannot recall
where he or she encountered it.
Source
The unconscious process whereby disturbing memories are prevented from entering awareness is
called:
repression.
Which of the following alternatives best expresses psychologist Elizabeth Loftus' position on the
validity of repressed memories?
Repressed memories are often false. They reflect confusion regarding the source of a
memory.

One's culture is most likely to influence:


the strategies one uses to recall information from long-term memory.
Which of the following best describes the results of Ebbinghaus's work on forgetting?
You'll forget most of it right away, and you'll keep on forgetting more of it, though at a
slower rate.
Jerry is at a party. He is introduced to three different people in the span of a moment. Later, he is
approached by the first person he met and cannot remember her name. Which of the following is
most likely the source of Jerry's difficulty?
Jerry failed to encode the woman's name.
Drew is unable to recall whether Lincoln's head faces left or right on the penny. Which of the
following is probably the best explanation for Drew's memory failure?
The information was not encoded, because Drew never really paid attention to Lincoln's
head on the penny.
Owen has trouble remembering a friend's new phone number; he keeps recalling the old number
instead. Completing a rental application, Pippa finds she can't recall one of her previous
addresses, as she's had several addresses since. Owen is experiencing _____ interference; Pippa
is experiencing _____.
proactive; retroactive interference
Pierre has been an alcoholic for several decades. Now in his 50s, his intellectual abilities are
intact, but he suffers from memory deficits and hallucinations. Based on this information, you
suspect that Pierre may be afflicted with:
Korsakoff's syndrome.
An individual's autobiographical memory forms the core of the individual's

personal identity.
Eyewitness accounts of crimes are
prone to errors.
According to Hermann Ebbinghaus,
most forgetting occurs soon after we originally learned something.
According to decay theory, memories fade because

a neurochemical "memory trace" disintegrates over time.

A soap opera character who had a major head trauma cannot remember any post-injury people or
events, but his memory for people and events prior to his injury is perfect. Is this fictional tale
possible in the real world?
Yes; amnesia involving new events is called anterograde amnesia.
Why is it so difficult to retrieve information from long-term memory?
There is so much information being stored in long-term memory.
A stimulus that facilitates the recall of information from long-term memory is called a:
retrieval cue.
_____ is a memory task in which individuals are presented with a stimulus and asked whether
they have been exposed to it in the past or to identify it from a list of alternatives.
Recognition
Which of the following is true of the levels-of-processing theory?
At an intermediate level of processing, information is translated into meaningful units.
A typical multiple-choice question on a psychology test is an example of both a _____ and a(n)
_____ test of memory.
recognition; explicit

Loftus and Palmer (1974) conducted an experiment in which participants estimated the speed of
a car described as either contacting or smashing into another. To which of the following
conclusions regarding eyewitness memory is this study most relevant?
Eyewitnesses confidence is only weakly related to eyewitness memory.
The unconscious process whereby disturbing memories are prevented from entering awareness is
called:
repression.
Middle-aged Mrs. Lovett is recalling her first Christmas as a young newlywed at her in-laws'
Wyoming ranch. This is a(n) _____ memory.
Autobiographical
Which of the following best encapsulates autobiographical memory?
Autobiographical memory is just as inaccurate as other types of memory are. Some
periods of one's life are recalled more easily than are others.
With respect to the potential influence of a written language on the recall ability of a culture's
members, research has:
revealed that a written language probably has little influence on people's memory ability.
Jerry is at a party. He is introduced to three different people in the span of a moment. Later, he is
approached by the first person he met and cannot remember her name. Which of the following is
most likely the source of Jerry's difficulty?
Jerry failed to encode the woman's name.
Drew is unable to recall whether Lincoln's head faces left or right on the penny. Which of the
following is probably the best explanation for Drew's memory failure?

The information was not encoded, because Drew never really paid attention to Lincoln's
head on the penny.
Which of the following statements best describes the fate of the decay theory of forgetting in
psychology?
It is an incomplete theory of forgetting.
_____, an illness characterized in part by severe memory problems, is the fourth leading cause of
death among adults in the United States.
Alzheimer's disease
Pierre has been an alcoholic for several decades. Now in his 50s, his intellectual abilities are
intact, but he suffers from memory deficits and hallucinations. Based on this information, you
suspect that Pierre may be afflicted with:
Korsakoff's syndrome.
An individual's autobiographical memory forms the core of the individual's
personal identity.
A few years ago, you had a boyfriend named Phil. Now, you have a new boyfriend named
Stephen. Because of ________, you sometimes call Stephen by the wrong name.
proactive interference
According to decay theory, memories fade because
a neurochemical "memory trace" disintegrates over time.
In H. M.'s surgery, the part of his brain responsible for laying down new memories was damaged
beyond repair. The result was
amnesia.

Both of Suzie's parents suffered from Alzheimer's disease before they died. Although still in her
early 40s, Suzie is very concerned about her own cognitive functioning. What advice can you
give her based what you know about the science of memory?
"Engage in challenging cognitive tasks as frequently as you can."
Chad is puzzling over a difficult question on a multiple-choice sociology test. He re-reads the
question, scans the options beneath the question, and glances at other questions on the test. Most
likely, Chad is looking for:
retrieval cues.
A typical multiple-choice question on a psychology test is an example of both a _____ and a(n)
_____ test of memory.
recognition; explicit
Which of the following searches explicit memory?
Trying to remember a name encountered or learned about previously
Bart remembers the release date of his favorite movie director's upcoming project. Which of the
following forms of memory would have helped Bart?
Explicit memory
Flashbulb memories:
typically concern major, unexpected public or personal events.
_____ is a process in which memories are influenced by the meaning we give to events.
Constructive process

"I know it! It's um . . . um . . . It starts with G'," begins a trivia game contestant excitedly. The
contestant is falling prey to the _____ effect.

tip-of-the-tongue
Repression is
motivated forgetting.
According to Hermann Ebbinghaus,
most forgetting occurs soon after we originally learned something.
Christopher clearly remembers that he was practicing his dialogues for his school play when he
heard that the governor of his state had been assassinated. This is an example of a(n) _____
memory.
Flashbulb
Dr. Tranh has given so many lectures that he gives little thought to what he expects might
happen: He assumes students will assemble, take notes, and occasionally ask a question. That Dr.
Tranh finds the process so routine reflects the development of:
a schema.
In _____ amnesia, memory is lost for events preceding an injury or accident; in _____ amnesia,
memory is lost for events following an injury or accident.
retrograde; anterograde

Which of the following is true about mental images?


They are representations in the mind of an object or event.

Clint is mentally rehearsing his golf swing in his mind's eye. Based on the text's discussion of
mental imagery, which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
Clint's mental rehearsal should improve his golf swing. Carrying out the task involves the
same network of brain cells as the network used in mentally rehearsing it.
A prototype is:
the most typical or highly representative example of a concept.
Which of the following terms best captures the meaning of the term heuristic, as cognitive
psychologists use it?
Strategy
An article by a Nobel Prize winner titled "How to Succeed in Science"
Which of the following is TRUE of heuristics?
Heuristics represent commonly used approaches to the solution of a problem.
When you use the representativeness heuristic, you are:
assuming that something is typical of its class.
When people are asked which is more common, death by homicide or death by stroke, they often
choose homicide because they simply hear more about murders than they do about strokes. In
this instance, people are led astray in their judgments by:
the availability heuristic.
"You always clam up when I ask you what's wrong," Iris tells her boyfriend. Iris is probably
making this frequency judgment because she can remember a few times that her boyfriend
wouldn't tell her what was bothering him. Iris is using the _____ heuristic.
Availability

When you go to the supermarket, you see the brand of cookies you usually buy, and settle for it.
Usually it's a good rule of thumb, because it saves a lot of time. You do not ponder over every
type of cookie available in the store. This is an example of a(n) _____.
familiarity heuristic
Although used often, the comparison between the computer and human information processing is
oversimplified. Why?
Computer information input is precoded and ambiguities are removed before processing.
Your roommate argues that computers can perform several complex tasks better and more
accurately than humans. You counter her argument with the mention of ___________, a task that
only humans can perform.
developing new learning goals
An effective way to strategize your organization of subgoals is to
work backward in your planning.
You have to study four chapters of information for your next test. If you decide to use the
problem-solving strategy of using subgoals, you must
breakdown the topics to be studied and focus on each in an organized sequence.
You have to cook dinner for 30 people on Saturday of this coming weekend. Your apartment is a
mess, and you have nothing to wear. You decide to do your laundry Thursday night, buy the
groceries on Friday, clean the apartment Saturday morning, and cook the dinner Saturday
evening. This process of defining intermediate problems is known as
creating subgoals.
Who would benefit the most from making subgoals?
Suki has to read a chapter in her sociology textbook.

Many smokers like to point to the late George Burns, a famous actor who smoked cigars
continuously for many years and lived to be nearly 100, as evidence that smoking is relatively
harmless. These individuals tend to ignore the thousands of people who die every year from lung
cancer. They are utilizing
confirmation bias.
Samantha's belief that Gabe, who is muscular and wearing gym shorts, is a member of the
football team is an example of
the representativeness heuristic.
________ thinking is best when a problem has only one right answer.
Convergent
Creative thinkers are NOT usually
motivated by the feedback of others.
_____ psychology is the branch of psychology that focuses on the study of higher mental
processes, including thinking, language, memory, problem solving, knowing, reasoning, and
judging.
Cognitive
Which of the following is true about mental images?
They are representations in the mind of an object or event.
Which of the following is MOST likely the prototype of the concept "fruit"?
Apple
Consider the following syllogism:

(1) All Houstonians are Texans

(2) Some Houstonians attend church


(3) Some Texans attend church

Which of the following alternatives correctly identifies a statement in this syllogism?


Statement 3conclusion
Which of the following is true of heuristics?
In cases where algorithms are not available, we may use heuristics.
When you use the representativeness heuristic, you are:
assuming that something is typical of its class.
The _____ heuristic involves judging the probability of an event on the basis of how easily the
event can be recalled from memory.
Availability
"You always clam up when I ask you what's wrong," Iris tells her boyfriend. Iris is probably
making this frequency judgment because she can remember a few times that her boyfriend
wouldn't tell her what was bothering him. Iris is using the _____ heuristic.
Availability
_____ intelligence is the field that examines how to use technology to imitate the outcome of
human thinking, problem solving, and creative activities.
Bodily-kinesthetic
Although used often, the comparison between the computer and human information processing is
oversimplified. Why?
Computer information input is precoded and ambiguities are removed before processing.

Your roommate argues that computers can perform several complex tasks better and more
accurately than humans. You counter her argument with the mention of ___________, a task that
only humans can perform.
developing new learning goals
Which of the following would NOT be a defining property of the prototype of an airplane?
It is silver.
Who would benefit the most from making subgoals?
Suki hIvan has misplaced his keys. If he decides to use an algorithmic approach to find
them, he willas to read a chapter in her sociology textbook.
Ivan has misplaced his keys. If he decides to use an algorithmic approach to find them, he will
start going through each drawer in his house.
What is the main difference between an algorithm and a heuristic?
An algorithm always leads to a correct solution, while a heuristic does not.
When comparing algorithms and heuristics, what is a potential advantage of using heuristics for
solving real-life problems?
Convenience
Cathy just got transferred to a new department. She has long believed that her new supervisor is
a cranky, disagreeable person. According to confirmation bias, what will Cathy most likely do on
her first day in the new supervisor's department?
She will look for negative behaviors on the part of the supervisor.
Who is LEAST likely to exhibit mindfulness as part of their regular job responsibilities?
The usher at the movie theater
________ thinking is best when a problem has only one right answer.

Convergent
Mental representations of objects are called _____; mental grouping of similar objects, events, or
people are called _____.
images; concepts
_____ is the process by which information is used to draw conclusions and make decisions.
Reasoning
Which of the following is TRUE of heuristics?
Heuristics represent commonly used approaches to the solution of a problem.
The _____ is a rule we apply when we judge people by the degree to which they depict a certain
category or group of people.
representativeness heuristic
The _____ heuristic involves judging the probability of an event on the basis of how easily the
event can be recalled from memory.
Availability
Following the September 11, 2001, Twin Towers attacks, many Americans elected to drive rather
than fly. The media coverage of the hijackings caused Americans to overestimate the danger of
flying. As it was an event they remember easily they assumed it could occur more frequently.
This example illustrates the:
availability heuristic.
In a _____ heuristic, known items are seen as superior to those that are unknown.
Familiarity
Although used often, the comparison between the computer and human information processing is
oversimplified. Why?

Computer information input is precoded and ambiguities are removed before processing.
Which of the following would NOT be a defining property of the prototype of an airplane?
It is silver.
In everyday situations, finding and framing problems can be difficult because most real-life
problems
are vague and ill-defined.
An effective way to strategize your organization of subgoals is to
work backward in your planning.
You have to cook dinner for 30 people on Saturday of this coming weekend. Your apartment is a
mess, and you have nothing to wear. You decide to do your laundry Thursday night, buy the
groceries on Friday, clean the apartment Saturday morning, and cook the dinner Saturday
evening. This process of defining intermediate problems is known as
creating subgoals.
What is the main difference between an algorithm and a heuristic?
An algorithm always leads to a correct solution, while a heuristic does not.
Cathy just got transferred to a new department. She has long believed that her new supervisor is
a cranky, disagreeable person. According to confirmation bias, what will Cathy most likely do on
her first day in the new supervisor's department?
She will look for negative behaviors on the part of the supervisor.
Maria is extremely active in politics. She has strong conservative beliefs about what is correct
and what is not. Each day when she reads the newspaper, she pays close attention to the editorial
section in particular. According to confirmation bias, what will she do when she reads them?
She will only read the editorials that she agrees with.

Many smokers like to point to the late George Burns, a famous actor who smoked cigars
continuously for many years and lived to be nearly 100, as evidence that smoking is relatively
harmless. These individuals tend to ignore the thousands of people who die every year from lung
cancer. They are utilizing
confirmation bias.
Samantha's belief that Gabe, who is muscular and wearing gym shorts, is a member of the
football team is an example of
the representativeness heuristic.
_____ is the process by which information is used to draw conclusions and make decisions.
Reasoning
Syllogisms are used to study:
reasoning.
Formal reasoning in which people draw a conclusion from a set of assumptions is known as
_____ reasoning.
Syllogistic
A rule that guarantees the solution to a problem when it is correctly applied is termed as a(n):
algorithm.
Which of the following most likely makes use of heuristics?
An article by a Nobel Prize winner titled "How to Succeed in Science"
When comparing algorithms and heuristics, what is a potential advantage of using heuristics for
solving real-life problems?
Convenience

After the outcome of an election is announced, you state that you knew all along what the
outcome would be. This is a form of
hindsight bias.
_____ intelligence is the field that examines how to use technology to imitate the outcome of
human thinking, problem solving, and creative activities.
Artificial
The fact that we hear about airplane crashes on the news more often than we hear about
automobile crashes may lead us to believe that we are more likely to die in a plane than a car.
This is an example of a(n)
availability heuristic.
Every week during football season, Fred and his friends have fun following the local high school
teams. Before the games, Fred never really talks too much about how the games will turn out. On
Monday, however, it is a different scenario altogether. Fred is more than happy to share with his
friends that the games came out exactly as he thought they would and why. Fred is demonstrating
hindsight bias.
Which of the following is true of heuristics?
In cases where algorithms are not available, we may use heuristics.

According to the text, the most frequently used problem-solving heuristic is:
means-ends analysis.
Millie is stumped by a problem in her pre-calculus text. She furtively glances at the answer
provided in the back of the text to get an idea of how the solution should look before she returns
to the problem. Millie's strategy most closely resembles the problem-solving heuristic of:
working backward.
The study of insight is associated with the German psychologist _____; he studied problem
solving among _____.
Kohler; chimpanzees
Which of the following impediments to effective problem solving is INCORRECTLY matched
with an illustrative problem?
Functional fixednesswater jar problem
A jeweler is unable to fix a particular mounting in a ring because she can imagine only the
conventional uses for her tools. This best demonstrates which of the following?
Functional fixedness
Nigel often cites newspaper editorials favoring the presidential candidate he supports; he appears
to ignore editorials critical of the candidate. Nigel appears prone to:
the confirmation bias.
As compared to less creative individuals, creative persons:
prefer more complex stimuli.
Which of the following is true of creativity?
Cognitive complexity is an important aspect of creativity.

Traditional intelligence tests tend to assess _____ thinking; tests of creativity tap into _____.
convergent; divergent thinking
Approximately how many phonemes are found in English?
52
The text reports the case of a girl named Genie, who was exposed to virtually no language from
the age of 20 months until the age of 13. In what way does Genie's case offer support for the
notion of a critical period in language acquisition?
Even with intensive instruction, Genie acquired only a very small vocabulary after the
age of 13; furthermore, she never mastered the complexities of language.
You are creating a language development timeline for a class presentation. Along the top of a
display board, you write the following ages in sequence: 6 months 1 year 2 years 3 years
How should you label these ages, from youngest to oldest?
Babbling first words telegraphic speech overgeneralization
Dorian is 2 years old; Constance is 2.5. Dorian's vocabulary probably contains around _____
words; Constance's, _____ words.
about 50; several hundred
The theory that language acquisition follows the principles of reinforcement and conditioning is
known as the _____ approach.
learning-theory
The view that language development is produced through a combination of genetically
determined predispositions and environmental circumstances that help teach language is known
as the _____ approach.
Interactionist

The _____ hypothesis suggests language leads to thought.


linguistic-relativity
In _____, students are educated in their native language and in English simultaneously; in _____,
they are educated only in English.
bilingual education; immersion programs
You tell your roommate, "I misplaced my wallet." Your roommate exclaims, "Oh my goodness,
you lost your wallet?" You respond, "No, I didn't lose my wallet, I misplaced it." This exchange
best demonstrates the ________ aspect of language.
Semantic
Evidence of the role of language in cognitive activities includes the fact that
memory is stored in the form of words.
Critics of the work of Benjamin Whorf maintain that
people's perceptions are independent of the words they know.
Thomas Edison invented the lightbulb only because he experimented with thousands of different
kinds of materials for a filament before he found one that worked (carbon). This shows that at the
most basic level, we can solve problems through _____.
trial and error
According to the text, the most frequently used problem-solving heuristic is:
means-ends analysis.
Which of the following impediments to effective problem solving is INCORRECTLY matched
with an illustrative problem?
Functional fixednesswater jar problem
_____ refers to the tendency for old patterns of problem solving to persist.

Mental set
A jeweler is unable to fix a particular mounting in a ring because she can imagine only the
conventional uses for her tools. This best demonstrates which of the following?
Functional fixedness
Nigel often cites newspaper editorials favoring the presidential candidate he supports; he appears
to ignore editorials critical of the candidate. Nigel appears prone to:
the confirmation bias.
The ability to generate original ideas or develop novel solutions to problems is known as:
creativity.
Someone relying on convergent thinking would answer _____ to the query "What can you do
with a toothbrush?"
"You brush your teeth with it"
As compared to less creative individuals, creative persons:
prefer more complex stimuli.
Phonology is the study of:
speech sounds.
Linguists have identified more than _____ different phonemes among all the world's languages.
more than 800
You are creating a language development timeline for a class presentation. Along the top of a
display board, you write the following ages in sequence: 6 months 1 year 2 years 3 years
How should you label these ages, from youngest to oldest?
Babbling first words telegraphic speech overgeneralization

Dorian is 2 years old; Constance is 2.5. Dorian's vocabulary probably contains around _____
words; Constance's, _____ words.
about 50; several hundred
Connie is telling her mother a story about a scary dog she encountered in a neighbor's yard.
"Then I runned away," Connie concludes. Which language acquisition phenomenon is Connie
demonstrating? About how old is Connie?
Connie is overgeneralizing. She is probably 3-4 years old.
Theorists taking an interactionist approach to language acquisition:
agree that the brain is hardwired to acquire language.
The _____ hypothesis suggests language leads to thought.
linguistic-relativity
In _____, students are educated in their native language and in English simultaneously; in _____,
they are educated only in English.
bilingual education; immersion programs
Infinite generativity refers to the ability to
create unlimited numbers of meaningful sentences.
Critics of the work of Benjamin Whorf maintain that
people's perceptions are independent of the words they know.
Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for how parents should talk to their
babies?
Use only words that your infant will be able to understand.
_____ involves repeated tests for differences between the desired outcome and what currently
exists.

Means-ends analysis
_____ is defined as a sudden awareness of the relationship among problem elements; it is
thought to lead rapidly to the problem's solution.
Insight
Which figure best approximates the number of Americans for whom English is a second
language?
47 million
In written language, letters most closely represent _____, whereas sentences may be said to
reflect _____.
phonemes; syntax
Which of the following sequences correctly orders the components of language, from the
smallest or most specific to the broadest?
Phoneme syntax semantics
What is meant by the notion of a critical period for language acquisition?
It is the time in one's childhood in which a child is particularly sensitive to language cues
and most easily acquires language.
The bicycle talked the boy into buying a candy bar. This sentence is
syntactically correct but semantically incorrect.

In the introduction to its discussion of intelligence, your text suggests that conceptions of
intelligence vary cross-culturally. To the Trukese of the South Pacific, for example, intelligence
may mean the ability to navigate on the open water without technological assistance; to an
American high schooler, it may mean the ability to score well on standardized tests of academic

achievement and aptitude. Nevertheless, one element of the understanding of intelligence that is
consistent across culture is:
the ability to use the resources provided by one's environment.
The g-factor is:
a broad factor that supports every aspect of intelligence
Laverne's scores on different parts of an IQ test are very different from one another. Laverne's
profile of scores on the test:
contradicts the view of intelligence offered by early theorists such as Spearman.
Early theorists inferred the existence of a general intelligence g factor from
the positive correlations among tests of different intellectual skills.
Intelligence that reflects the ability to reason abstractly is termed _____ intelligence.
fluid
In contrast to _____, _____ is more a reflection of the culture in which a person is raised.
fluid intelligence; crystallized intelligence
Jody is completing a test in which she has to name as many state capitals as she can in one
minute; Alex is trying to complete analogies between pairs of abstract diagrams. Jody is taking a
test of _____ intelligence; Alex, a test of
crystallized intelligence; fluid intelligence
According to the text, a positive feature of Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences is

that it has led to the development of intelligence tests that allow test takers to be
creative.
Gardner's theory includes each of the following types of intelligence EXCEPT:
tacit intelligence.
Knowledge of the internal aspects of oneself is termed as
intrapersonal intelligence
Collectivist cultures, such as Taiwan's, place a high priority on how individuals relate to each
other. It might be reasonable to hypothesize that Taiwanese adults might outscore American
adults on a test of Gardner's _____ intelligence.
interpersonal
Etta is taking an intelligence test based on Gardner's multiple intelligences theory. How is Etta's
performance likely to be scored?
She will receive a score for each of eight types of intelligence.
According to Sternberg, intelligence related to overall success in living is known as _____
intelligence.
practical
Which of the following is true of academic success and career success?
Academic success and career success are based on two different types of intelligence.
The practical problem Alfred Binet was trying to solve when he developed his intelligence test
was:
identifying slow learners for remedial aid.

The formula for the intelligence quotient as Binet defined it is:


MA/CA x 100.
The most commonly used IQ test in the United States is the:
Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale-IV.
Which of the following best expresses the distinction between the WAIS-IV and WISC-IV?
The WAIS-IV is used to test adult intelligence, whereas the WISC-IV is used to test
children's intelligence.
Contemporary tests of intelligence are in widespread use in the United States EXCEPT the
Spearman G Scale.
An online intelligence test yields a different IQ each time you take it. The test is:
not reliable, and probably not valid either.
In contrast to _____, _____ is more a reflection of the culture in which a person is raised.
fluid intelligence; crystallized intelligence
Jody is completing a test in which she has to name as many state capitals as she can in one
minute; Alex is trying to complete analogies between pairs of abstract diagrams. Jody is taking a
test of _____ intelligence; Alex, a test of _____
crystallized intelligence; fluid intelligence
Studies of changes in intelligence as a function of aging suggest that:
fluid intelligence tends to decline with age in adults.

Gardner's theory includes each of the following types of intelligence EXCEPT:


tacit intelligence.
Logical-mathematical intelligence refers to skills:
in problem solving and scientific thinking.
Etta is taking an intelligence test based on Gardner's multiple intelligences theory. How is Etta's
performance likely to be scored?
She will receive a score for each of eight types of intelligence
Higher intelligence is related to the thickness of the
cerebral cortex
People who are high in _____ intelligence are able to learn general norms and principles and
apply them appropriately.
practical
The practical problem Alfred Binet was trying to solve when he developed his intelligence test
was:
identifying slow learners for remedial aid.
Imagine that overall, 6-year-olds can complete a particular block design puzzle in 5 minutes. It
takes Bailey almost 8 minutes to complete the task. In Binet's terms, Bailey's _____ age is _____
than 6.
mental; lower

The most commonly used IQ test in the United States is the:


Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale-IV.
Which of the following best expresses the distinction between the WAIS-IV and WISC-IV?
The WAIS-IV is used to test adult intelligence, whereas the WISC-IV is used to test
children's intelligence.
Contemporary tests of intelligence are in widespread use in the United States EXCEPT the:
Spearman G Scale.
The property by which tests measure consistently what they are trying to measure is known as
Reliability
An online intelligence test yields a different IQ each time you take it. The test is:
not reliable, and probably not valid either
A researcher develops a questionnaire to assess the personality trait of impulsivity among adults.
In a journal article, she presents evidence that college students tend to get essentially the same
score if they take the test twice, two months apart. She also presents the average score, the
highest score, and the lowest score obtained by two large samples: one of 2,000 college students,
and one of 750 community-dwelling noncollege adults. However, when you look at the sample
questionnaire items she included in the article, it seems to you that they relate more to whether a
person is sociable, outgoing, and fun than to whether an individual is impulsive. You are
questioning the _____ of the researcher's questionnaire.
validity
Regarding standardized testing, which piece of advice is least likely to be right?

Guess if you don't know


Ashley, a psychology major, remarks that she has become interested in the study of intelligence.
In other words, Ashley is interested in:
the capacity to understand the world, think rationally, and use resources effectively.
Early theorists such as Spearman argued that g represented general intelligence. According to
these theorists, individuals high in g:
have an advantage in every intellectual endeavor.
Early theorists inferred the existence of a general intelligence g factor from:
the positive correlations among tests of different intellectual skills
Intelligence that reflects the ability to reason abstractly is termed _____ intelligence.
fluid
According to the text, a positive feature of Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences is:
that it has led to the development of intelligence tests that allow test takers to be
creative.

Gardner's theory includes each of the following types of intelligence EXCEPT:


tacit intelligence
Bodily kinesthetic intelligence refers to skills
in using the whole anatomy or various portions of it in the solution of problems or in the
construction of products or displays.

Dancers, athletes, actors, and surgeons display:


bodily kinesthetic intelligence
Knowledge of the internal aspects of oneself is termed as
intrapersonal intelligence

Collectivist cultures, such as Taiwan's, place a high priority on how individuals relate to each
other. It might be reasonable to hypothesize that Taiwanese adults might outscore American
adults on a test of Gardner's _____ intelligence.
interpersonal
The _____ area of the brain is critical to juggling many pieces of information simultaneously and
solving new problems.
lateral prefrontal cortex
Higher intelligence is related to the thickness of the
cerebral cortex

According to Sternberg, intelligence related to overall success in living is known as _____


intelligence.
practical

Which of the following is true of academic success and career success?

Academic success and career success are based on two different types of intelligence.
intelligence is the set of skills that underlie the accurate assessment, evaluation, expression, and
regulation of one's mental state.
Emotional
The practical problem Alfred Binet was trying to solve when he developed his intelligence test
was:
identifying slow learners for remedial aid.
Below are several statements about the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. Which statement is
CORRECTLY identified as false?
The same items are used for test-takers of different ages - False
Which of the following best expresses the distinction between the WAIS-IV and WISC-IV?
The WAIS-IV is used to test adult intelligence, whereas the WISC-IV is used to test
children's intelligence

In the introduction to its discussion of intelligence, your text suggests that conceptions of
intelligence vary cross-culturally. To the Trukese of the South Pacific, for example, intelligence
may mean the ability to navigate on the open water without technological assistance; to an
American high schooler, it may mean the ability to score well on standardized tests of academic
achievement and aptitude. Nevertheless, one element of the understanding of intelligence that is
consistent across culture is:
the ability to use the resources provided by one's environment

Ashley, a psychology major, remarks that she has become interested in the study of intelligence.
In other words, Ashley is interested in:
the capacity to understand the world, think rationally, and use resources effectively.

Laverne's scores on different parts of an IQ test are very different from one another. Laverne's
profile of scores on the test:
contradicts the view of intelligence offered by early theorists such as Spearman.
Early theorists such as Spearman argued that g represented general intelligence. According to
these theorists, individuals high in g:
have an advantage in every intellectual endeavor
In what way do current theories of intelligence differ from those offered earlier in psychology's
history?
Contemporary theories propose that there may be many multiple forms of intelligence, rather
than just one.

Intelligence that reflects the ability to reason abstractly is termed _____ intelligence.
fluid
Gardner's theory includes each of the following types of intelligence EXCEPT:
tacit intelligence.

Logical-mathematical intelligence refers to skills:


in problem solving and scientific thinking.
Etta is taking an intelligence test based on Gardner's multiple intelligences theory. How is Etta's
performance likely to be scored?
She will receive a score for each of eight types of intelligence

Traditional tests were designed to relate to


academic success

The three types of intelligence proposed by Sternberg include each of the following except
_____ intelligence.
logical
The formula for the intelligence quotient as Binet defined it is:
MA/CA x 100.
Approximately _____ of the population have an IQ score between 85 and 115
68%
About 95% of the population have an IQ score between _____ and
70; 130
Below are several statements about the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. Which statement is
CORRECTLY identified as false?

The same items are used for test-takers of different ages - False
The most commonly used IQ test in the United States is the:
Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale-IV.
The property by which tests measure consistently what they are trying to measure is known as
reliability
Which of the following is true about tests?
Test validity and reliability are prerequisites for accurate assessment of intelligence.
An online intelligence test yields a different IQ each time you take it. The test is:
not reliable, and probably not valid either.
A researcher develops a questionnaire to assess the personality trait of impulsivity among adults.
In a journal article, she presents evidence that college students tend to get essentially the same
score if they take the test twice, two months apart. She also presents the average score, the
highest score, and the lowest score obtained by two large samples: one of 2,000 college students,
and one of 750 community-dwelling noncollege adults. However, when you look at the sample
questionnaire items she included in the article, it seems to you that they relate more to whether a
person is sociable, outgoing, and fun than to whether an individual is impulsive. You are
questioning the _____ of the researcher's questionnaire.
validity
People whose IQ score ranges from 40-54 are most probably:
moderately retarded.

In approximately _____ of the cases of mental retardation there is an identifiable biological


cause; the most common of these is
one-third; fetal alcohol syndrome
Which of the following alternatives offers the most accurate assessment of the origin of familial
retardation in nature on the one hand, or nurture on the other?
We do not know the extent to which familial retardation reflects nature and nurture.
Intellectual disability in which no apparent biological defect exists but there is a history of it in
the kin is known as _____ retardation.
familial
The inclusive philosophy behind the educational mainstreaming of mentally retarded individuals
reflects federal laws passed in the:
mid-1970s

Which of the following is true of full inclusion?


Full inclusion is a controversial practice
The IQ of intellectually gifted individuals is
130 or above
Terman's long-term study of the intellectually gifted found that they tend to be
outgoing

A test that does not discriminate against the members of any minority group is termed as a _____
test.
culture-fair
In The Bell Curve, Herrnstein and Murray argued that:
the IQ gap between Caucasian and African Americans reflects genetics.
The term _____ refers to a measure of the degree to which a characteristic can be attributed to
genetic factors.
heritability
A high school football coach decides to use the time taken to run up 100 stairs as a test for
running endurance. He tests every team member on three consecutive days and finds that the
times for each person are very much the same on all three trials. His test for endurance appears to
have good
reliability.
A psychologist has developed a new test to measure the verbal ability of third graders. To
determine the range of scores (and what is a good and bad score), he gives the test to 10,000
third graders. In the future, he will compare the performance of others to this reference group.
This process of determining meaningful scores establishes testing
norms
Jorge's parents talked and communicated with him a great deal from the time he was born. Based
on the research in the text, which of the following statements is TRUE in regards to Jorge's IQ?

The stimulation provided by Jorge's parents will positively affect his IQ.
Based on the text's discussion, which of the following alternatives best captures the difference, if
any, between the terms mental retardation and intellectual disability?
Intellectual disability is becoming the preferred term, while mental retardation is the
traditional term

Peyton has an IQ score of 60. Although her development was typically slower than that of her
peers, she is now able to hold a job and will soon start a family of her own. Peyton is most
probably:
mildly retarded
In approximately _____ of the cases of mental retardation there is an identifiable biological
cause; the most common of these is
one-third; fetal alcohol syndrome
Which of the following alternatives offers the most accurate assessment of the origin of familial
retardation in nature on the one hand, or nurture on the other?
We do not know the extent to which familial retardation reflects nature and nurture.
The inclusive philosophy behind the educational mainstreaming of mentally retarded individuals
reflects federal laws passed in the:
mid-1970s

Regarding the integration of mentally retarded students into regular classrooms, which of the
following statements is true?
In full inclusion programs, mentally retarded students are integrated into regular
classroom activities to a greater extent than in the case of mainstreaming
The IQ of intellectually gifted individuals is
130 or above

Terman's long-term study of the intellectually gifted found that they tend to be:
Outgoing

A test that does not discriminate against the members of any minority group is termed as a _____
test.
culture-fair
Imagine that American children and African children are asked to memorize the locations of
objects on a chessboard. In one condition, the objects are rocks; in the other, they are household
objects common in the West. What might you predict regarding the children's performance?
The performance of the African children will exceed that of the American children
when the objects are rocks but not when they are Western household objects.
Based on the text's discussion of the Flynn effect, how might the IQ of the average 18-year-old
today compare with that of his/her counterpart 60 years ago?
The IQ score of the average 18-year-old today is about 15 points higher than that of
his/her counterpart 60 years ago

A high school football coach decides to use the time taken to run up 100 stairs as a test for
running endurance. He tests every team member on three consecutive days and finds that the
times for each person are very much the same on all three trials. His test for endurance appears to
have good
reliability.
If an intelligence test produces the same score over multiple administrations but it does not
accurately measure intelligence, then the test is ___________ but not ___________.
reliable; valid
A psychologist has developed a new test to measure the verbal ability of third graders. To
determine the range of scores (and what is a good and bad score), he gives the test to 10,000
third graders. In the future, he will compare the performance of others to this reference group.
This process of determining meaningful scores establishes testing
norms
Dr. Ambrose feels that a particular intelligence test is probably culturally biased. Which of the
following test questions would concern Dr. Ambrose the most?
In which month of the year is the Super Bowl played?
Jorge's parents talked and communicated with him a great deal from the time he was born. Based
on the research in the text, which of the following statements is TRUE in regards to Jorge's IQ?
The stimulation provided by Jorge's parents will positively affect his IQ.

The batting averages of major league baseball players have shown a steady increase over the last
30 years. This parallels which observation made from the world of intelligence testing?
Flynn effect
The new term for "mental retardation" is
intellectual disability.
Which theory of intelligence is best suited to explain the abilities of individuals with savant
syndrome, or individuals with extremely high levels of intelligence in one area and virtually little
or none in other areas?
Gardener
Which of Gardner's intelligences would be LEAST important for a car salesperson?
Bodily-kinesthetic

Based on the text's discussion, which of the following alternatives best captures the difference, if
any, between the terms mental retardation and intellectual disability?
Intellectual disability is becoming the preferred term, while mental retardation is the
traditional term
People whose IQ score ranges from 40-54 are most probably:
moderately retarded
In approximately _____ of the cases of mental retardation there is an identifiable biological
cause; the most common of these is
one-third; fetal alcohol syndrome

Intellectual disability in which no apparent biological defect exists but there is a history of it in
the kin is known as _____ retardation.
familial
Regarding the integration of mentally retarded students into regular classrooms, which of the
following statements is true?
In full inclusion programs, mentally retarded students are integrated into regular
classroom activities to a greater extent than in the case of mainstreaming.
Which of the following is true of full inclusion?
Full inclusion is a controversial practice.
The IQ of intellectually gifted individuals is
130 or above
Terman's long-term study of the intellectually gifted found that they tend to be
outgoing

A test that does not discriminate against the members of any minority group is termed as a _____
test.
culture-fair

The term _____ refers to a measure of the degree to which a characteristic can be attributed to
genetic factors.
heritability

Imagine that American children and African children are asked to memorize the locations of
objects on a chessboard. In one condition, the objects are rocks; in the other, they are household
objects common in the West. What might you predict regarding the children's performance?
The performance of the African children will exceed that of the American children
when the objects are rocks but not when they are Western household objects.

A high school football coach decides to use the time taken to run up 100 stairs as a test for
running endurance. He tests every team member on three consecutive days and finds that the
times for each person are very much the same on all three trials. His test for endurance appears to
have good
reliability.
A psychologist has developed a new test to measure the verbal ability of third graders. To
determine the range of scores (and what is a good and bad score), he gives the test to 10,000
third graders. In the future, he will compare the performance of others to this reference group.
This process of determining meaningful scores establishes testing
norms.
A 6-year-old child with a mental age of 6 would have a ratio IQ of
100

If an outcome measure is normally distributed, this means that

most scores are around the average with some scores being lower or higher.
You have been asked to review a set of test items that are being considered for a standardized
intelligence test. The test constructors want to eliminate all items that contain any possible
cultural bias. With this task in mind, which of the following questions would you eliminate first?
What is the name of the main character in The Wizard of Oz?

Challenges to writing culturally fair test questions include ___________ factors.


All of these.

Jorge's parents talked and communicated with him a great deal from the time he was born. Based
on the research in the text, which of the following statements is TRUE in regards to Jorge's IQ?
The stimulation provided by Jorge's parents will positively affect his IQ.
The batting averages of major league baseball players have shown a steady increase over the last
30 years. This parallels which observation made from the world of intelligence testing?
Flynn effect
The new term for "mental retardation" is
intellectual disability.
Most subjects in Terman's study were
doctors, lawyers, and businesspeople.
Which of the following represents a practical skill?

Brushing your teeth


Dhiraj has an insightful mind and excels at solving new types of problems with unique solutions.
Which of Sternberg's intelligences would best explain this?
Creative
refers to skills involved in the production and use of language.
Linguistic intelligence

According to the text, the functions of emotions include which of the following?
Helping us interact more effectively with others
Hakiro, a Japanese, reports experiencing hagaii. He is experiencing a:
mood of vulnerable heartache colored by frustration.
Sarah, from Tahiti, reports experiencing musu. She is experiencing a:
feeling of reluctance to yield to unreasonable demands made by one's parents
The concept of visceral experience can be attributed to which of the following theories of
emotion?
James-Lange
One of Cannon's major objections to the James-Lange theory of emotion was that:
physiological arousal alone leads to the perception of emotion
Which alternative below correctly identifies one of the results in Schachter and Singer's
experiment?
The confederate's behavior had the expected effect on participants' emotional state.
The _____, a limbic system structure, is strongly involved in our experience of emotion
amygdala
In PET scan studies, participants have been asked to recall either very happy or very sad events.
What did the results of such studies show?

The two emotions produced opposite patterns of activation in certain areas of the
brain

Dr. Lynch shows a) members of a preliterate Andean culture and b) American college students a
series of photos of either Andeans or Americans displaying emotional expressions. She asks
Andeans and Americans to identify the emotion displayed in each photo. Based on previous
research, what might Dr. Lynch predict?
Participants should identify emotions accurately both when they are displayed by
members of their own cultural group and when they are displayed by members of the
other group
According to the facial-feedback hypothesis:
facial expressions can actually determine our emotional experience
Which of the following are included in the definition of emotion?
All of these
The most effective element of the polygraph test lies in the
belief it is accurate in detecting deception
Polygraph examiners can
record physiological responses.
What is the main problem with using polygraph results as an indication of whether or not a
person is lying?
Different emotions can cause the same physiological changes

According to the James-Lange theory of emotions, crying over spilled milk will result in
sorrow because you are crying
Tim and Margaret are enjoying a picnic on the edge of a large forest. Suddenly, a huge black bear
invades their space and heads for the picnic basket. According to the James Lange theory of
emotions, the couple will
run away and then experience the emotion of fear as a result of the physical changes
in their bodies.
"It seemed like the two cars crossed the finish line at exactly the same time," the commentator
yelled. Which theory of emotion most closely resembles this outcome?
Cannon-Bard
Which of the following theories is best supported by the facial feedback hypothesis?
James-Lang

A professor conducts an experiment in which she asks her students to either hold a pen between
their teeth or hold a pen between their lips. After five minutes, she finds that the students who
held the pen between their teeth reported being happier than those who held it between their lips.
These results most strongly support the
facial feedback hypothesis
What effect, if any, does engaging in altruistic behavior have on one's well-being?
Increases happiness

"Fight-or-flight" responses entail activity of the _____ nervous system.


sympathetic
According to the text, the functions of emotions include which of the following?
Helping us interact more effectively with others
Sarah, from Tahiti, reports experiencing musu. She is experiencing a:
feeling of reluctance to yield to unreasonable demands made by one's parents
According to the _____ theory of emotion, emotional experience is a reaction to bodily events
occurring as a result of an external situation.
James-Lange

With respect to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, more recent research:


has disconfirmed the idea that emotional experiences are controlled by the thalamus
Which alternative below correctly identifies one of the results in Schachter and Singer's
experiment?
The confederate's behavior had the expected effect on participants' emotional state
The _____, a limbic system structure, is strongly involved in our experience of emotion.
Amygdala
In PET scan studies, participants have been asked to recall either very happy or very sad events.
What did the results of such studies show?
The two emotions produced opposite patterns of activation in certain areas of the

brain
Dr. Lynch shows a) members of a preliterate Andean culture and b) American college students a
series of photos of either Andeans or Americans displaying emotional expressions. She asks
Andeans and Americans to identify the emotion displayed in each photo. Based on previous
research, what might Dr. Lynch predict?
Participants should identify emotions accurately both when they are displayed by
members of their own cultural group and when they are displayed by members of the
other group
According to the facial-feedback hypothesis:
facial expressions can actually determine our emotional experience
Which of the following are included in the definition of emotion?
All of these
The most effective element of the polygraph test lies in the
belief it is accurate in detecting deception.

Polygraph examiners can


record physiological responses
What is the main problem with using polygraph results as an indication of whether or not a
person is lying?
Different emotions can cause the same physiological changes.

According to the James-Lange theory of emotions, crying over spilled milk will result in
sorrow because you are crying
Tim and Margaret are enjoying a picnic on the edge of a large forest. Suddenly, a huge black bear
invades their space and heads for the picnic basket. According to the James Lange theory of
emotions, the couple will
run away and then experience the emotion of fear as a result of the physical changes
in their bodies
"It seemed like the two cars crossed the finish line at exactly the same time," the commentator
yelled. Which theory of emotion most closely resembles this outcome?
Cannon-Bard

According to the two-factor theory, if Shelby wants her boyfriend to find her more attractive, she
should approach him after
bungee jumping
Which of the following best describes the male participants' thoughts/feelings regarding the
female experimenter in the Capilano River Bridge Experiment?
Men found the experimenter on the high bridge more sexually attractive than the one
on the low bridge

What effect, if any, does engaging in altruistic behavior have on one's well-being?
Increases happiness

"Fight-or-flight" responses entail activity of the _____ nervous system.


sympathetic
According to the text, the functions of emotions include which of the following?
Helping us interact more effectively with others

Max, a German, reports experiencing schadenfreude. He is experiencing a:


feeling of pleasure over another person's difficulties

Hakiro, a Japanese, reports experiencing hagaii. He is experiencing a:


mood of vulnerable heartache colored by frustration
Sarah, from Tahiti, reports experiencing musu. She is experiencing a
feeling of reluctance to yield to unreasonable demands made by one's parents
According to the _____ theory of emotion, emotional experience is a reaction to bodily events
occurring as a result of an external situation.
James-Lange

The concept of visceral experience can be attributed to which of the following theories of
emotion?
James-Lange
One of Cannon's major objections to the James-Lange theory of emotion was that:
physiological arousal alone leads to the perception of emotion

The _____, a limbic system structure, is strongly involved in our experience of emotion
Amygdala
Dr. Lynch shows a) members of a preliterate Andean culture and b) American college students a
series of photos of either Andeans or Americans displaying emotional expressions. She asks
Andeans and Americans to identify the emotion displayed in each photo. Based on previous
research, what might Dr. Lynch predict?
Participants should identify emotions accurately both when they are displayed by
members of their own cultural group and when they are displayed by members of the
other group
The most effective element of the polygraph test lies in the
belief it is accurate in detecting deception
Polygraph examiners can
record physiological responses
What is the main problem with using polygraph results as an indication of whether or not a
person is lying?
Different emotions can cause the same physiological changes
According to the James-Lange theory of emotions, crying over spilled milk will result in
sorrow because you are crying

Tim and Margaret are enjoying a picnic on the edge of a large forest. Suddenly, a huge black bear
invades their space and heads for the picnic basket. According to the James Lange theory of
emotions, the couple will
run away and then experience the emotion of fear as a result of the physical changes in their
bodies

"It seemed like the two cars crossed the finish line at exactly the same time," the commentator
yelled. Which theory of emotion most closely resembles this outcome?
Cannon-Bard

According to the two-factor theory, if Shelby wants her boyfriend to find her more attractive, she
should approach him after
bungee jumping
Which of the following best describes the male participants' thoughts/feelings regarding the
female experimenter in the Capilano River Bridge Experiment?
Men found the experimenter on the high bridge more sexually attractive than the one on the low
bridge

Which of the following theories is best supported by the facial feedback hypothesis?
James-Lang
What effect, if any, does engaging in altruistic behavior have on one's well-being?

Increases happiness
leads the body to store excess sugar in the blood as fats and carbohydrates
Insulin
is a severe eating disorder in which people may refuse to eat while denying that their behavior
and appearancewhich can become skeleton-likeare unusual.
Anorexia nervosa
Meghan is bulimic. Which of the following statements is MOST LIKELY to be accurate?
Meghan is neither more nor less likely than other individuals of her age to be
overweight.

As many as _____ of women suffer from bulimia at some point in their lives
10%
In what way do the results of brain-scanning studies support or discredit biological and
environmental contributions to anorexia nervosa and bulimia?
They support biological contributions to anorexia nervosa because the brains of
anorexics responded differently to food stimuli than did the brains of healthy
individuals
The _____ is a tendency to seek impact, control, or influence over others and to be seen as an
influential individual
need for power

The first two theoretical approaches to motivation that attained prominence in the history of
modern psychology were
the instinct approach, then the drive-reduction approach.
To which of the following behaviors is drive theory LEAST applicable?
Studying long hours
The arousal approach to motivation suggests that:
if levels of stimulation and activity are too low, we will try to increase them by
seeking stimulation.
Incentive approaches to motivation are:
theories suggesting that motivation stems from the desire to obtain valued external
goals
Cognitive approaches to motivation are:
theories suggesting that motivation is a product of people's thoughts, expectations,
and goal
A state of self-fulfillment in which people realize their highest potential in their own unique way
is known as _____ in Maslow's model.
self-actualization
According to self-determination theory, _____ is the perception that we have control over our
own lives
autonomy

Paige is an expert at golf and is bored by the thought of the upcoming tournament. Mary is pretty
good at golf and is somewhat excited but not overly anxious about the tournament. Sara has only
recently learned to play but has very high expectations and is really nervous about the
tournament. Jenna is also a beginner but she does not expect to play well. According to optimum
arousal theory, who will perform the best?
Mary
What happens when your blood sugar level gets too low?
You feel hungry
A marathon runner would best be served by eating ________ prior to a race.
lasagna
Danielle is a normal weight female, whereas Ron is an obese male. Whenever Danielle and Ron
go out to dinner together, Ron always eats more food. Ron, a psychology major, correctly
explains this difference in food intake by pointing out that
he has more fat cells than Danielle and he is not satiated until all his fat cells are full
Which of the following individuals is most at risk for developing anorexia nervosa?
Jill is 17 and lives in the suburbs
According to Maslow, Kenny probably has trouble committing to a relationship because
his expectations are too high
While free breakfast and lunches provided at school are an attempt to satisfy one of Maslow's
hierarchy of needs, students may still fail to achieve unless they

feel safe at school


Each semester, during advising week, Dylan asks his faculty advisor to identify the easiest
courses and teachers that would satisfy his degree requirements. Dylan's need for achievement is
probably:
Low

The _____ is an interest in establishing and maintaining relationships with other people.
need for affiliation
Larissa is highly invested in initiating and maintaining relationships. She is high in the need for:
affiliation
Drive-reduction approaches first appeared in the psychology of motivation in the:
1940s
The arousal approach to motivation suggests that:
if levels of stimulation and activity are too low, we will try to increase them by
seeking stimulation
Cognitive approaches to motivation are:
theories suggesting that motivation is a product of people's thoughts, expectations,
and goal
"Dance like no one's watching. Work like you don't need the money. Love like you've never been
hurt," exhorts a sign on Dr. Elliott's office door. This sign underscores the importance of _____
motivation.

intrinsic

Dr. Fiore conducts a study in which two groups of participants work on challenging puzzles: one
group is extrinsically motivated whereas the other is intrinsically motivated. Thus, one group is
paid for its participation, while the other is not. Dr. Fiore records the length of time each
participant spent working on the puzzle and how enjoyable each participant rated the puzzle.
Based on the text's discussion of intrinsic and extrinsic motivation, what might you expect?
The paid group would not work as long on the puzzle and like it less than the unpaid
group
A state of self-fulfillment in which people realize their highest potential in their own unique way
is known as _____ in Maslow's model.
self-actualization
According to self-determination theory, _____ is the perception that we have control over our
own lives
autonomy
According to the Yerkes-Dodson Law, optimum performance is achieved when one is
moderately anxious

What happens when your blood sugar level gets too low?
You feel hungry
A marathon runner would best be served by eating ________ prior to a race
lasagna

Danielle is a normal weight female, whereas Ron is an obese male. Whenever Danielle and Ron
go out to dinner together, Ron always eats more food. Ron, a psychology major, correctly
explains this difference in food intake by pointing out that
he has more fat cells than Danielle and he is not satiated until all his fat cells are full.
Young women with very high standards but very low confidence are at risk for developing
bulimia
According to Maslow, before you can feel safe, you need to
be satisfied physically
If you had to write a research paper on Maslow's hierarchy of motives, which of the following
titles would you choose to capture the essence of Maslow's theory?
"Be all that you can be, from eating right to feeling content."
People with a BMI greater than 30 are considered
obese
is the rate at which food is converted to energy and expended by the body.
Metabolism
When is the set point for weight established during an individual's life?
During the first year of life

As many as _____ of women suffer from bulimia at some point in their lives.
10%

Each semester, during advising week, Dylan asks his faculty advisor to identify the easiest
courses and teachers that would satisfy his degree requirements. Dylan's need for achievement is
probably:
low
Larissa is highly invested in initiating and maintaining relationships. She is high in the need for:
affiliation
Motivational tension that energizes behavior to fulfill a need is termed a(n):
drive
To which of the following behaviors is drive theory LEAST applicable?
Studying long hours
Does drive theory offer a comprehensive account of motivation? Why or why not?
No. Drive theory offers a satisfactory explanation of physiological motives, but fails
to account for more psychologically oriented motives
What is homeostasis?
A built-in tendency to regulate bodily conditions
approaches to motivation emphasize the appealing properties of external objects or goals
Incentive

Shellie takes college courses that interest her and enjoys learning for its own sake; Tori takes
courses in which she is fairly certain she'll do well and studies mainly to ensure good grades.
Shellie is _____ motivated; Tori, _____ motivated.
intrinsically; extrinsically
Dr. Fiore conducts a study in which two groups of participants work on challenging puzzles: one
group is extrinsically motivated whereas the other is intrinsically motivated. Thus, one group is
paid for its participation, while the other is not. Dr. Fiore records the length of time each
participant spent working on the puzzle and how enjoyable each participant rated the puzzle.
Based on the text's discussion of intrinsic and extrinsic motivation, what might you expect?
The paid group would not work as long on the puzzle and like it less than the unpaid group

The act of going to the refrigerator because you are hungry best represents a(n)
Drive
You just ran a marathon in very hot weather and perspired heavily. According to drive reduction
theory, your body will have a(n) ________ for water, which will produce a(n) ________ for
water, which will lead to a ________ to get water
need; drive; motivation
Learning to perform a task so well that it becomes automatic is referred to as
overlearning
A sprinter would best be served by eating ________ prior to a race.
chocolate
Which of the following individuals is most at risk for developing anorexia nervosa?

Jill is 17 and lives in the suburbs


Though her weight is normal, Ashley is terrified of becoming heavy. She knows she should stick
to a healthy diet, but she often consumes huge servings of junk foodup to 5,000 calories in one
sitting. Desperate to keep from gaining weight, she then uses laxatives and diuretics to purge the
calories. Ashley is suffering from
bulimia nervosa
According to Maslow, before you can feel safe, you need to
be satisfied physically
Which figure best approximates the number of people in the United States who are overweight?
200 million
Society's view of the ideal body
varies from one culture to another
When is the set point for weight established during an individual's life?
During the first year of life
As many as _____ of women suffer from bulimia at some point in their lives
10%

In what way do the results of brain-scanning studies support or discredit biological and
environmental contributions to anorexia nervosa and bulimia?
They support biological contributions to anorexia nervosa because the brains of
anorexics responded differently to food stimuli than did the brains of healthy
individuals
How often should you exercise?
At least 30 consecutive minutes, three times each week
When psychologists first tried to explain motivation, they turned to
instincts
Which approach to motivation is CORRECTLY paired with a behavior to which it is especially
appropriate?
Drive-reductioneating
The arousal approach to motivation suggests that:
if levels of stimulation and activity are too low, we will try to increase them by
seeking stimulation
How do arousal approaches to motivation differ from drive-reduction approaches?
Arousal approaches suggest that we are sometimes motivated to increase rather than decrease our
level of stimulation

Incentive approaches to motivation are:


theories suggesting that motivation stems from the desire to obtain valued external
goals.

Cognitive approaches to motivation are:


theories suggesting that motivation is a product of people's thoughts, expectations,
and goal.
"Dance like no one's watching. Work like you don't need the money. Love like you've never been
hurt," exhorts a sign on Dr. Elliott's office door. This sign underscores the importance of _____
motivation.
intrinsic
When you exercise, you begin breathing more rapidly to provide oxygen to your cells. This
increase in breathing is an attempt to restore
homeostasis
Paige is an expert at golf and is bored by the thought of the upcoming tournament. Mary is pretty
good at golf and is somewhat excited but not overly anxious about the tournament. Sara has only
recently learned to play but has very high expectations and is really nervous about the
tournament. Jenna is also a beginner but she does not expect to play well. According to optimum
arousal theory, who will perform the best?
Mary
According to the Yerkes-Dodson Law, optimum performance is achieved when one is
moderately anxious
"I am so tired of dieting. It seems like it controls my life. I wonder what my real weight would be
if I just ate only when I'm hungry." This dieter is curious about her
set point

Though her weight is normal, Ashley is terrified of becoming heavy. She knows she should stick
to a healthy diet, but she often consumes huge servings of junk foodup to 5,000 calories in one
sitting. Desperate to keep from gaining weight, she then uses laxatives and diuretics to purge the
calories. Ashley is suffering from
bulimia nervosa

According to Maslow, self-actualization is possible


only after all other needs have been fulfilled

Research on delayed gratification indicates that the best way to resist temptation is to
focus on other activities rather than the forbidden activity
Charlotte meets Will, an old high school friend, at a party and is startled to learn his weight
increased from 150 to 280 pounds in the year since his automobile accident. Damage to which
hypothalamic nucleus might account for his weight gain?
Ventromedial

is the rate at which food is converted to energy and expended by the body.
Metabolism
When is the set point for weight established during an individual's life?
During the first year of life
Meghan is bulimic. Which of the following statements is MOST LIKELY to be accurate?
Meghan is neither more nor less likely than other individuals of her age to be overweight

Each semester, during advising week, Dylan asks his faculty advisor to identify the easiest
courses and teachers that would satisfy his degree requirements. Dylan's need for achievement is
probably
low
refers to the factors that direct and energize the behavior of humans and other organisms
Motivation

Declan, a PhD candidate, tells his department's undergraduate student organization that his
dissertation research is in the area of motivation. Declan is investigating:
the factors that direct and energize the behavior of humans and other organisms.

Drive-reduction approaches first appeared in the psychology of motivation in the:


1940s

To which of the following behaviors is drive theory LEAST applicable?


Studying long hours

The arousal approach to motivation suggests that:


if levels of stimulation and activity are too low, we will try to increase them by
seeking stimulation
Which of the following is true of intrinsic and extrinsic motivation?

In some cases providing rewards for desirable behavior actually may decrease
intrinsic motivation.
According to self-determination theory, _____ is the need to produce desired outcomes
competence
Dr. Know-It-All hosts a TV talk show. One of his guests, Joe College, complains of his intense
annoyance with people who talk on their cell phones while driving. Joe asks Dr. Know-It-All to
explain why he reacts so strongly to this type of situation. Dr. Know-It-All immediately
pronounces that Joe has an instinct for cell phone irritation. Is Dr. Know-It-All correct to assume
that instinct is the cause of Joe's behavior?
No-most behavior is too complex to be explained on the basis of instinct.
The act of going to the refrigerator because you are hungry best represents a(n)
drive

You just ran a marathon in very hot weather and perspired heavily. According to drive reduction
theory, your body will have a(n) ________ for water, which will produce a(n) ________ for
water, which will lead to a ________ to get water.
need; drive; motivation
Learning to perform a task so well that it becomes automatic is referred to as
Overlearning
After being in a car accident, Sally's ventromedial hypothalamus was severely damaged. She
should expect that she will
gain weight rapidly

Young women with very high standards but very low confidence are at risk for developing
bulimia
The impact of extrinsic motivation depends on
the behavior being rewarded

Paris thinks her best friend, Nicole, may be suffering from an undiagnosed case of anorexia
nervosa. She shares her concerns with Nicole, but Nicole insists that anorexia nervosa is "no big
deal." What is the most serious consequence of anorexia nervosa?
It has the highest mortality rate of any psychological disorder.

Ray played basketball all of his life because he loved the sport. He became so good that he was
given the opportunity to play professionally and eventually he signed a very lucrative contract.
After that contract ran out, the team offered him slightly more money, but he decided that it was
not enough. Which of the following best explains Ray's behavior from a motivational
perspective?
The extrinsic motivation had replaced Ray's intrinsic motivation to play

Which of the following biological hunger regulators is CORRECTLY identified and described?
Ghrelin - communicates hunger to the brain

According to Abraham Maslow, a major prerequisite for becoming self-actualized is having:


all of one's lower-order needs fulfilled.

You stayed up all night to study for a math exam. After the test, you returned to your dorm room
and slept for seven hours. Your sleeping behavior was regulated by the body's tendency to
maintain
homeostasis
Gary wants to lose weight by reducing his caloric intake. He eats a candy bar for breakfast
instead of a bowl of cereal because the candy bar has fewer calories. Is Gary doing the right
thing?
Yes, the body needs high sugar intake at breakfast
Which of the following is most related to extrinsic motivation?
Reward
Of the following individuals, whose behavior may most easily be explained using an arousal
approach to motivation?
Artie, who loves to bungee jump

According to self-determination theory, _____ is the need to be involved in close, warm


relationships with others.
relatedness
Marsha does a good job because she knows her performance will result in a bonus if she meets
her goals. Dianna does an adequate job but lacks motivation to perform in a timely manner.
Georgia does a good job because she feels a sense of accomplishment when she meets her goals.
All three women do the same kind of work. Who is likely to be the most competent?

Georgia
After watching an episode of the Dr. Phil TV show, Shanae wonders why anyone would want to
air their interpersonal dirty laundry in front of 70 million viewers. Shanae is most likely
wondering about the ________ of Dr. Phil's guests.
motivation

In the U.S., about _____% of the population is overweight; nearly _____% are obese.
65; 25
Which of the following statements best expresses the fate of instinct approaches to motivation
within mainstream psychology?
Instinct approaches to motivation still play a role in certain theories, especially those based on
evolutionary approaches that focus on our genetic inheritance

On average, in the United States, a woman earns about _____ for every dollar that a man earns.
$0.80
Which of the following is true about differences between men and women?
Men and women are more similar to one another in most respects than dissimilar.
Identify the accurate statement regarding men's verbal and nonverbal behavior.
In conversations with people of the other sex, men look at their partners about the same
length of time while listening and speaking.
Females are often thought to outshine males on verbal tasks. What does contemporary empirical
evidence have to say with respect to this notion?
It's a myththere's basically no difference between men and women in verbal
performance.
The social learning approach argues that gender differences in thought and behavior reflect the
influence of:
parents.
The female protagonist of a novel is a brave and ferocious woman who fights wars and saves the
people of her motherland. From this information, one can infer that the novel does not include
the stereotypical aspects of _____.
Socialization
A movie casts the male lead as a police officer and the female lead as a loving mother who takes
care of the house. This implies that the movie uses the stereotypical aspects of _____.
Socialization

Ten year old Rowan does not play softball because he thinks it is a girls' sport. Which of the
following would have helped Rowan make this evaluation?
Gender schema
Male sex hormones secreted by the testes at puberty are known as _____.
Androgens
The testes produce _____ and the ovaries produce _____.
androgen; estrogen and progesterone
How does human sexual motivation differ from that of other species?
Human sexual motivation varies more dramatically from individual to individual than
does the sexual motivation of other species.
The body's erogenous zones:
are especially sensitive to touch.
Approximately _____ of people entertain sexual fantasies during intercourse; _____, these
fantasies involve someone other than the current sexual partner.
60%; often
Which alternative below best describes the method used in Masters' and Johnson's pioneering
sexual response cycle research?
Controlled laboratory research
During which of the following phases of sexual responsiveness do the penis and clitoris swell
with blood?
Plateau phase

Amelia is having a sexual intercourse with her husband; her breasts and vagina are expanding
and her breathing rate has increased. Also, her muscle tension is increasing as she is preparing
for orgasm. Amelia is in the middle which of the following phases of sexual responsiveness?
Plateau phase
In females, the small sensory organ located where the labia meet is called the
clitoris.
In terms of exploring the connection between sex and gender, the biological approach focuses on
genes.
________ occurs among members of the same sex as they vie for the opportunity to mate with
members of the opposite sex.
Competition
Any man can be a great leader because men are strong, dominant, and rational. This statement
reflects a gender
stereotype.
In which part of the world is gender equality the highest?
Iceland
Identify the accurate statement regarding men's verbal and nonverbal behavior.
In conversations with people of the other sex, men look at their partners about the same
length of time while listening and speaking.
Females are often thought to outshine males on verbal tasks. What does contemporary empirical
evidence have to say with respect to this notion?
It's a myththere's basically no difference between men and women in verbal performance.

Hines, Fink, and Alexander studied a group of children whose mothers accidentally took drugs
containing androgen, a hormone, prior to their birth. They related this concentration of the
hormone to the play preferences of the same children. Which of the following alternatives best
expresses the results of the study?
For both boys and girls, androgen was positively related to male-typical play preferences.
_____ is the process by which an individual learns the rules and norms of appropriate behavior.
Socialization
The social learning approach argues that gender differences in thought and behavior reflect the
influence of:
parents.
The female protagonist of a novel is a brave and ferocious woman who fights wars and saves the
people of her motherland. From this information, one can infer that the novel does not include
the stereotypical aspects of _____.
Socialization
Ten year old Rowan does not play softball because he thinks it is a girls' sport. Which of the
following would have helped Rowan make this evaluation?
Gender schema
The male and female sex organs are known as _____.
Genitals
Androgen is to estrogen as _____ is to _____.
testes; ovaries
How does human sexual motivation differ from that of other species?

Human sexual motivation varies more dramatically from individual to individual than
does the sexual motivation of other species.
The body's erogenous zones:
are especially sensitive to touch.
Which alternative below best describes the method used in Masters' and Johnson's pioneering
sexual response cycle research?
Controlled laboratory research
During which of the following phases of sexual responsiveness do the penis and clitoris swell
with blood?
Plateau phase
Amelia is having a sexual intercourse with her husband; her breasts and vagina are expanding
and her breathing rate has increased. Also, her muscle tension is increasing as she is preparing
for orgasm. Amelia is in the middle which of the following phases of sexual responsiveness?
Plateau phase
Female circumcision:
involves removing the clitoris.
In females, the small sensory organ located where the labia meet is called the
clitoris.
________ refers to the social and psychological aspects of being male or female.
Gender
The term ________ refers to experiencing one's psychological gender as being different from
one's physical sex.
Transgender

According to Darwin, Shelly is most likely to go out with Cole if he


can win his tennis match.
Which of the following is true about differences between men and women?
Men and women are more similar to one another in most respects than dissimilar.
Which of the following is true of potential gender differences in self-esteem?
Men generally have higher self-esteem than do women.
Which of the following is true of men's and women's verbal and nonverbal behavior?
Women's speech is more precise.
The female protagonist of a novel is a brave and ferocious woman who fights wars and saves the
people of her motherland. From this information, one can infer that the novel does not include
the stereotypical aspects of _____.
Socialization
A movie casts the male lead as a police officer and the female lead as a loving mother who takes
care of the house. This implies that the movie uses the stereotypical aspects of _____.
Socialization
A _____ refers to a mental framework that organizes and guides a child's understanding of
information relevant to gender.
gender schema
Male sex hormones secreted by the testes at puberty are known as _____.
Androgens

Approximately what proportion of men report thinking about sex every day?
Just over half

How does human sexual motivation differ from that of other species?
Human sexual motivation varies more dramatically from individual to individual than
does the sexual motivation of other species.
Approximately _____ of people entertain sexual fantasies during intercourse; _____, these
fantasies involve someone other than the current sexual partner.
60%; often
Which alternative below best describes the method used in Masters' and Johnson's pioneering
sexual response cycle research?
Controlled laboratory research
During which of the following phases of sexual responsiveness do the penis and clitoris swell
with blood?
Plateau phase

Which of the following describes the refractory period?


correct The interval after orgasm in which the body returns to its unaroused state, reversing the
changes brought about by arousal
Female circumcision:
involves removing the clitoris.
________ refers to the social and psychological aspects of being male or female.

Gender

According to Darwin, ________ drives sexual selection.


Competition
According to Darwin, sexual selection involves

competition and choice.


Having a father who is a nurse should have the greatest impact on Kevin's gender
schema.
When does the male-female difference in the level of aggression become apparent?
By age 2
The influence of formal education as an agent of gender socialization:
continues even during the college years.
Ten year old Rowan does not play softball because he thinks it is a girls' sport. Which of the
following would have helped Rowan make this evaluation?
Gender schema
Men are capable of sexual activities without any regard to biological cycles because:
the level of androgen production by the testes is fairly constant.
Approximately _____ of people entertain sexual fantasies during intercourse; _____, these
fantasies involve someone other than the current sexual partner.
60%; often
Amelia is having a sexual intercourse with her husband; her breasts and vagina are expanding
and her breathing rate has increased. Also, her muscle tension is increasing as she is preparing
for orgasm. Amelia is in the middle which of the following phases of sexual responsiveness?
Plateau phase
________ are glands that produce sex hormones and generate ova in females and sperm in males.
Gonads
The difficulty that many divorced fathers experience when trying to gain custody of their
children may be due to

gender stereotyping.
Carolina tells her friends that she helps take care of her little brother because that is what girls
are supposed to do. Carolina's statement describes her
correct gender role.
Kinsey's early studies of human sexual behavior exemplify the _____ research technique.
survey
Sexual self-stimulation is known as _____.
Masturbation
The notion that family dynamics and parent-child relationships contribute to homosexuality is
associated with _____; the idea has _____ empirical support.
Freud; little, if any
_____ are people who believe they were born with the body of the other gender.
Transsexuals
Which of the following is true of transsexualism?
A transsexual can seek sex-change operations in which their existing genitals are
surgically removed and the genitals of the desired sex are fashioned.
A 2011 survey by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention found that, there is a _____
chance that a woman will be a victim of a rape within her lifetime; approximately one _____ of
rapes and sexual assaults are reported.
10%; third
In the United States, at least one in _____ individuals will contract a sexually transmitted
infection at some point in their lives; as compared to other industrialized nations, the rate of
sexually transmitted infections in the United States is _____.

four; higher
Which alternative best expresses the proportion of men who experience problems associated with
sexual performance?
One-third
Drug therapy may successfully treat _____; learning or cognitive therapies are useful in cases of
_____.
erectile dysfunction; premature or inhibited ejaculation
Sadie can only achieve an orgasm when she masturbates; she is unable to have an orgasm when
she has sex with her partner. Sadie suffers from:
anorgasmia.
Inhibited sexual desire refers to:
sexual dysfunction in which the motivation for sexual activity is restrained or lacking entirely.
The direction of one's erotic interests refers to a person's
sexual orientation.
Donna views herself as a bisexual. Over time, she is most likely to engage in
strictly homosexual behavior or strictly heterosexual behavior.
The occurrence of homosexuality ranges from ________ percent of the population.
2 to 10
Which of the following factors predicts sexual orientation?
None of these
Leslie has two mothers. We can expect that Leslie will
be relatively unaffected.

The most significant difference between males and females regarding the sexual response pattern
occurs at the ________ phase.
Resolution
Kenny believes that sex is mostly about reaching an orgasm. This belief reflects Kenny's sexual
Script
Based on research, the most effective type of sex education is a(n)
comprehensive program.
An object or activity that arouses sexual interest and desire is called a
fetish.
Sexual behavior is abnormal if it is:
harmful.
Pioneering investigations of human sexual behavior were conducted beginning in the 1930s by:
Alfred Kinsey.
With respect to premarital sex, to what extent do we find cross-cultural variability in its
incidence on the one hand, and its acceptability on the other?
There is substantial cross-cultural variability in both the incidence and the acceptability of
premarital sex.
There is substantial cross-cultural variability in both the incidence and the acceptability of
premarital sex.
Most experts suggest that _____ of both men and women are exclusively gay or lesbian during
extended periods of their lives.
5%-10%
Which of the following is true of transsexualism?

A transsexual can seek sex-change operations in which their existing genitals are
surgically removed and the genitals of the desired sex are fashioned.
A 2011 survey by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention found that, there is a _____
chance that a woman will be a victim of a rape within her lifetime; approximately one _____ of
rapes and sexual assaults are reported.
20%; third
Which of the following statements is true of sexual abuse of children?
The abuser is usually about 20 years older than the victim.
Which alternative best expresses the proportion of men who experience problems associated with
sexual performance?
One-third
Drug therapy may successfully treat _____; learning or cognitive therapies are useful in cases of
_____.
erectile dysfunction; premature or inhibited ejaculation
Sadie can only achieve an orgasm when she masturbates; she is unable to have an orgasm when
she has sex with her partner. Sadie suffers from:
anorgasmia.
Inhibited sexual desire refers to:
sexual dysfunction in which the motivation for sexual activity is restrained or lacking
entirely.
The direction of one's erotic interests refers to a person's
sexual orientation.
Geami is attracted to both males and females. Her sexual orientation is best described as

bisexual.
Donna views herself as a bisexual. Over time, she is most likely to engage in
strictly homosexual behavior or strictly heterosexual behavior.
Which of the following factors predicts sexual orientation?
None of these
Research on the influence of genes on sexual behavior has revealed that genes
play a role in determining sexual behavior.
Leslie has two mothers. We can expect that Leslie will
be relatively unaffected.
Which is the correct definition of sexual behavior?
All of these
Patterns for how people should behave sexually are called
sexual scripts.
An object or activity that arouses sexual interest and desire is called a
fetish.
With respect to premarital sex, to what extent do we find cross-cultural variability in its
incidence on the one hand, and its acceptability on the other?
There is substantial cross-cultural variability in both the incidence and the acceptability of
premarital sex.
Most experts suggest that _____ of both men and women are exclusively gay or lesbian during
extended periods of their lives.
5%-10%

The notion that family dynamics and parent-child relationships contribute to homosexuality is
associated with _____; the idea has _____ empirical support.
Freud; little, if any
Which of the following sequences best reflects the relative frequency with which American
women of different racial or ethnic backgrounds experience rape, from the most to the least
frequent?
Black women non-Latino white women Latino women
According to research, of the boys who engage in extreme gender-nonconforming activities
approximately ________ percent end up being homosexual or bisexual later in life.
75
In regards to parenting, the best predictor of good psychological adjustment in adolescence is
having
a close relationship with parents.
The ________ phase of human sexual response begins the process of erotic responsiveness.
Excitement
With respect to the potential genetic basis of homosexuality, studies of identical twins have
revealed that when one twin self-identifies as gay or lesbian:
the other twin is more likely to self-identify as gay or lesbian than is a random member of the
population, even when the twins were raised apart.
In the year _____, the American Psychiatric Association determined that homosexuality did not
constitute a psychological disorder.
1973

Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between the terms
hermaphrodite and intersex?
Intersex is a newer term replacing the older term hermaphrodite.
The vast majority of "tomboys" turn out to be
heterosexual.
According to Alfred Kinsey, heterosexuality and homosexuality are best thought of as:
opposite ends of a continuum.
In the year _____, the American Psychiatric Association determined that homosexuality did not
constitute a psychological disorder.
1973
Sexual behavior is abnormal if it is:

Pioneering investigations of human sexual behavior were conducted beginning in the 1930s by
Alfred Kinsey.
Kinsey's early studies of human sexual behavior exemplify the _____ research technique.
Survey
The notion that family dynamics and parent-child relationships contribute to homosexuality is
associated with _____; the idea has _____ empirical support.
correct Freud; little, if any
_____ are people who believe they were born with the body of the other gender.
Transsexuals

A 2011 survey by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention found that, there is a _____
chance that a woman will be a victim of a rape within her lifetime; approximately one _____ of
rapes and sexual assaults are reported.
20%; third
Which of the following statements is true of sexual abuse of children?
correct The abuser is usually about 20 years older than the victim.
In the United States, at least one in _____ individuals will contract a sexually transmitted
infection at some point in their lives; as compared to other industrialized nations, the rate of
sexually transmitted infections in the United States is _____.
four; higher
Which alternative best expresses the proportion of men who experience problems associated with
sexual performance?
One-third
Inhibited sexual desire refers to:

sexual dysfunction in which the motivation for sexual activity is restrained or lacking entirely.
Melissa is attracted to members of the opposite sex. She is considered to be
heterosexual.
Donna views herself as a bisexual. Over time, she is most likely to engage in
correct strictly homosexual behavior or strictly heterosexual behavior.
The occurrence of homosexuality ranges from ________ percent of the population.
2 to 10
Which of the following factors predicts sexual orientation?

None of these
According to research, of the boys who engage in extreme gender-nonconforming activities
approximately ________ percent end up being homosexual or bisexual later in life.
75
The vast majority of "tomboys" turn out to be
correct heterosexual.
Leslie has two mothers. We can expect that Leslie will
be relatively unaffected.
In regards to parenting, the best predictor of good psychological adjustment in adolescence is
having
a close relationship with parents.
Based on research, the most effective type of sex education is a(n)
correct comprehensive program.

On average, in the United States, a woman earns about _____ for every dollar that a man earns.
$0.80
Which of the following is true about differences between men and women?
Men and women are more similar to one another in most respects than dissimilar.
Identify the accurate statement regarding men's verbal and nonverbal behavior.
In conversations with people of the other sex, men look at their partners about the same
length of time while listening and speaking.
Females are often thought to outshine males on verbal tasks. What does contemporary empirical
evidence have to say with respect to this notion?

It's a myththere's basically no difference between men and women in verbal


performance.
The social learning approach argues that gender differences in thought and behavior reflect the
influence of:
parents.
The female protagonist of a novel is a brave and ferocious woman who fights wars and saves the
people of her motherland. From this information, one can infer that the novel does not include
the stereotypical aspects of _____.
Socialization
A movie casts the male lead as a police officer and the female lead as a loving mother who takes
care of the house. This implies that the movie uses the stereotypical aspects of _____.
Socialization
Ten year old Rowan does not play softball because he thinks it is a girls' sport. Which of the
following would have helped Rowan make this evaluation?
Gender schema
Male sex hormones secreted by the testes at puberty are known as _____.
Androgens
The testes produce _____ and the ovaries produce _____.
androgen; estrogen and progesterone
How does human sexual motivation differ from that of other species?
Human sexual motivation varies more dramatically from individual to individual than
does the sexual motivation of other species.
The body's erogenous zones:

are especially sensitive to touch.


Approximately _____ of people entertain sexual fantasies during intercourse; _____, these
fantasies involve someone other than the current sexual partner.
60%; often
Which alternative below best describes the method used in Masters' and Johnson's pioneering
sexual response cycle research?
Controlled laboratory research
During which of the following phases of sexual responsiveness do the penis and clitoris swell
with blood?
Plateau phase
Amelia is having a sexual intercourse with her husband; her breasts and vagina are expanding
and her breathing rate has increased. Also, her muscle tension is increasing as she is preparing
for orgasm. Amelia is in the middle which of the following phases of sexual responsiveness?
Plateau phase
In females, the small sensory organ located where the labia meet is called the
clitoris.
In terms of exploring the connection between sex and gender, the biological approach focuses on
genes.
________ occurs among members of the same sex as they vie for the opportunity to mate with
members of the opposite sex.
Competition
Any man can be a great leader because men are strong, dominant, and rational. This statement
reflects a gender

stereotype.
In which part of the world is gender equality the highest?
Iceland
Identify the accurate statement regarding men's verbal and nonverbal behavior.
In conversations with people of the other sex, men look at their partners about the same
length of time while listening and speaking.
Females are often thought to outshine males on verbal tasks. What does contemporary empirical
evidence have to say with respect to this notion?
It's a myththere's basically no difference between men and women in verbal performance.
Hines, Fink, and Alexander studied a group of children whose mothers accidentally took drugs
containing androgen, a hormone, prior to their birth. They related this concentration of the
hormone to the play preferences of the same children. Which of the following alternatives best
expresses the results of the study?
For both boys and girls, androgen was positively related to male-typical play preferences.
_____ is the process by which an individual learns the rules and norms of appropriate behavior.
Socialization
The social learning approach argues that gender differences in thought and behavior reflect the
influence of:
parents.
The female protagonist of a novel is a brave and ferocious woman who fights wars and saves the
people of her motherland. From this information, one can infer that the novel does not include
the stereotypical aspects of _____.
Socialization

Ten year old Rowan does not play softball because he thinks it is a girls' sport. Which of the
following would have helped Rowan make this evaluation?
Gender schema
The male and female sex organs are known as _____.
Genitals
Androgen is to estrogen as _____ is to _____.
testes; ovaries
How does human sexual motivation differ from that of other species?
Human sexual motivation varies more dramatically from individual to individual than
does the sexual motivation of other species.
The body's erogenous zones:
are especially sensitive to touch.
Which alternative below best describes the method used in Masters' and Johnson's pioneering
sexual response cycle research?
Controlled laboratory research
During which of the following phases of sexual responsiveness do the penis and clitoris swell
with blood?
Plateau phase
Amelia is having a sexual intercourse with her husband; her breasts and vagina are expanding
and her breathing rate has increased. Also, her muscle tension is increasing as she is preparing
for orgasm. Amelia is in the middle which of the following phases of sexual responsiveness?
Plateau phase
Female circumcision:

involves removing the clitoris.


In females, the small sensory organ located where the labia meet is called the
clitoris.
________ refers to the social and psychological aspects of being male or female.
Gender
The term ________ refers to experiencing one's psychological gender as being different from
one's physical sex.
Transgender
According to Darwin, Shelly is most likely to go out with Cole if he
can win his tennis match.
Which of the following is true about differences between men and women?
Men and women are more similar to one another in most respects than dissimilar.
Which of the following is true of potential gender differences in self-esteem?
Men generally have higher self-esteem than do women.
Which of the following is true of men's and women's verbal and nonverbal behavior?
Women's speech is more precise.
The female protagonist of a novel is a brave and ferocious woman who fights wars and saves the
people of her motherland. From this information, one can infer that the novel does not include
the stereotypical aspects of _____.
Socialization
A movie casts the male lead as a police officer and the female lead as a loving mother who takes
care of the house. This implies that the movie uses the stereotypical aspects of _____.
Socialization

A _____ refers to a mental framework that organizes and guides a child's understanding of
information relevant to gender.
gender schema
Male sex hormones secreted by the testes at puberty are known as _____.
Androgens

Approximately what proportion of men report thinking about sex every day?
Just over half
How does human sexual motivation differ from that of other species?
Human sexual motivation varies more dramatically from individual to individual than
does the sexual motivation of other species.
Approximately _____ of people entertain sexual fantasies during intercourse; _____, these
fantasies involve someone other than the current sexual partner.
60%; often
Which alternative below best describes the method used in Masters' and Johnson's pioneering
sexual response cycle research?
Controlled laboratory research
During which of the following phases of sexual responsiveness do the penis and clitoris swell
with blood?
Plateau phase

Which of the following describes the refractory period?

correct The interval after orgasm in which the body returns to its unaroused state, reversing the
changes brought about by arousal
Female circumcision:
involves removing the clitoris.
________ refers to the social and psychological aspects of being male or female.

Gender

According to Darwin, ________ drives sexual selection.


Competition
According to Darwin, sexual selection involves
competition and choice.
Having a father who is a nurse should have the greatest impact on Kevin's gender
schema.
When does the male-female difference in the level of aggression become apparent?
By age 2
The influence of formal education as an agent of gender socialization:
continues even during the college years.
Ten year old Rowan does not play softball because he thinks it is a girls' sport. Which of the
following would have helped Rowan make this evaluation?
Gender schema
Men are capable of sexual activities without any regard to biological cycles because:
the level of androgen production by the testes is fairly constant.
Approximately _____ of people entertain sexual fantasies during intercourse; _____, these
fantasies involve someone other than the current sexual partner.

60%; often
Amelia is having a sexual intercourse with her husband; her breasts and vagina are expanding
and her breathing rate has increased. Also, her muscle tension is increasing as she is preparing
for orgasm. Amelia is in the middle which of the following phases of sexual responsiveness?
Plateau phase
________ are glands that produce sex hormones and generate ova in females and sperm in males.
Gonads
The difficulty that many divorced fathers experience when trying to gain custody of their
children may be due to
gender stereotyping.
Carolina tells her friends that she helps take care of her little brother because that is what girls
are supposed to do. Carolina's statement describes her
correct gender role.

Kinsey's early studies of human sexual behavior exemplify the _____ research technique.
survey
Sexual self-stimulation is known as _____.
Masturbation
The notion that family dynamics and parent-child relationships contribute to homosexuality is
associated with _____; the idea has _____ empirical support.
Freud; little, if any
_____ are people who believe they were born with the body of the other gender.
Transsexuals

Which of the following is true of transsexualism?


A transsexual can seek sex-change operations in which their existing genitals are
surgically removed and the genitals of the desired sex are fashioned.
A 2011 survey by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention found that, there is a _____
chance that a woman will be a victim of a rape within her lifetime; approximately one _____ of
rapes and sexual assaults are reported.
10%; third
In the United States, at least one in _____ individuals will contract a sexually transmitted
infection at some point in their lives; as compared to other industrialized nations, the rate of
sexually transmitted infections in the United States is _____.
four; higher
Which alternative best expresses the proportion of men who experience problems associated with
sexual performance?
One-third
Drug therapy may successfully treat _____; learning or cognitive therapies are useful in cases of
_____.
erectile dysfunction; premature or inhibited ejaculation
Sadie can only achieve an orgasm when she masturbates; she is unable to have an orgasm when
she has sex with her partner. Sadie suffers from:
anorgasmia.
Inhibited sexual desire refers to:
sexual dysfunction in which the motivation for sexual activity is restrained or lacking entirely.
The direction of one's erotic interests refers to a person's

sexual orientation.
Donna views herself as a bisexual. Over time, she is most likely to engage in
strictly homosexual behavior or strictly heterosexual behavior.
The occurrence of homosexuality ranges from ________ percent of the population.
2 to 10
Which of the following factors predicts sexual orientation?
None of these
Leslie has two mothers. We can expect that Leslie will
be relatively unaffected.
The most significant difference between males and females regarding the sexual response pattern
occurs at the ________ phase.
Resolution
Kenny believes that sex is mostly about reaching an orgasm. This belief reflects Kenny's sexual
Script
Based on research, the most effective type of sex education is a(n)
comprehensive program.
An object or activity that arouses sexual interest and desire is called a
fetish.
Sexual behavior is abnormal if it is:
harmful.
Pioneering investigations of human sexual behavior were conducted beginning in the 1930s by:
Alfred Kinsey.

With respect to premarital sex, to what extent do we find cross-cultural variability in its
incidence on the one hand, and its acceptability on the other?
There is substantial cross-cultural variability in both the incidence and the acceptability of
premarital sex.
There is substantial cross-cultural variability in both the incidence and the acceptability of
premarital sex.
Most experts suggest that _____ of both men and women are exclusively gay or lesbian during
extended periods of their lives.
5%-10%
Which of the following is true of transsexualism?
A transsexual can seek sex-change operations in which their existing genitals are
surgically removed and the genitals of the desired sex are fashioned.
A 2011 survey by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention found that, there is a _____
chance that a woman will be a victim of a rape within her lifetime; approximately one _____ of
rapes and sexual assaults are reported.
20%; third
Which of the following statements is true of sexual abuse of children?
The abuser is usually about 20 years older than the victim.
Which alternative best expresses the proportion of men who experience problems associated with
sexual performance?
One-third
Drug therapy may successfully treat _____; learning or cognitive therapies are useful in cases of
_____.

erectile dysfunction; premature or inhibited ejaculation


Sadie can only achieve an orgasm when she masturbates; she is unable to have an orgasm when
she has sex with her partner. Sadie suffers from:
anorgasmia.
Inhibited sexual desire refers to:
sexual dysfunction in which the motivation for sexual activity is restrained or lacking
entirely.
The direction of one's erotic interests refers to a person's
sexual orientation.
Geami is attracted to both males and females. Her sexual orientation is best described as
bisexual.
Donna views herself as a bisexual. Over time, she is most likely to engage in
strictly homosexual behavior or strictly heterosexual behavior.
Which of the following factors predicts sexual orientation?
None of these
Research on the influence of genes on sexual behavior has revealed that genes
play a role in determining sexual behavior.
Leslie has two mothers. We can expect that Leslie will
be relatively unaffected.
Which is the correct definition of sexual behavior?
All of these
Patterns for how people should behave sexually are called
sexual scripts.

An object or activity that arouses sexual interest and desire is called a


fetish.
With respect to premarital sex, to what extent do we find cross-cultural variability in its
incidence on the one hand, and its acceptability on the other?
There is substantial cross-cultural variability in both the incidence and the acceptability of
premarital sex.
Most experts suggest that _____ of both men and women are exclusively gay or lesbian during
extended periods of their lives.
5%-10%
The notion that family dynamics and parent-child relationships contribute to homosexuality is
associated with _____; the idea has _____ empirical support.
Freud; little, if any
Which of the following sequences best reflects the relative frequency with which American
women of different racial or ethnic backgrounds experience rape, from the most to the least
frequent?
Black women non-Latino white women Latino women
According to research, of the boys who engage in extreme gender-nonconforming activities
approximately ________ percent end up being homosexual or bisexual later in life.
75
In regards to parenting, the best predictor of good psychological adjustment in adolescence is
having
a close relationship with parents.
The ________ phase of human sexual response begins the process of erotic responsiveness.

Excitement
With respect to the potential genetic basis of homosexuality, studies of identical twins have
revealed that when one twin self-identifies as gay or lesbian:
the other twin is more likely to self-identify as gay or lesbian than is a random member of the
population, even when the twins were raised apart.
In the year _____, the American Psychiatric Association determined that homosexuality did not
constitute a psychological disorder.
1973
Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between the terms
hermaphrodite and intersex?
Intersex is a newer term replacing the older term hermaphrodite.
The vast majority of "tomboys" turn out to be
heterosexual.
According to Alfred Kinsey, heterosexuality and homosexuality are best thought of as:
opposite ends of a continuum.

In the year _____, the American Psychiatric Association determined that homosexuality did not
constitute a psychological disorder.
1973
Sexual behavior is abnormal if it is:

Pioneering investigations of human sexual behavior were conducted beginning in the 1930s by
Alfred Kinsey.

Kinsey's early studies of human sexual behavior exemplify the _____ research technique.
Survey
The notion that family dynamics and parent-child relationships contribute to homosexuality is
associated with _____; the idea has _____ empirical support.
correct Freud; little, if any
_____ are people who believe they were born with the body of the other gender.
Transsexuals
A 2011 survey by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention found that, there is a _____
chance that a woman will be a victim of a rape within her lifetime; approximately one _____ of
rapes and sexual assaults are reported.
20%; third
Which of the following statements is true of sexual abuse of children?
correct The abuser is usually about 20 years older than the victim.
In the United States, at least one in _____ individuals will contract a sexually transmitted
infection at some point in their lives; as compared to other industrialized nations, the rate of
sexually transmitted infections in the United States is _____.
four; higher
Which alternative best expresses the proportion of men who experience problems associated with
sexual performance?
One-third
Inhibited sexual desire refers to:

sexual dysfunction in which the motivation for sexual activity is restrained or lacking entirely.

Melissa is attracted to members of the opposite sex. She is considered to be


heterosexual.
Donna views herself as a bisexual. Over time, she is most likely to engage in
correct strictly homosexual behavior or strictly heterosexual behavior.
The occurrence of homosexuality ranges from ________ percent of the population.
2 to 10
Which of the following factors predicts sexual orientation?
None of these
According to research, of the boys who engage in extreme gender-nonconforming activities
approximately ________ percent end up being homosexual or bisexual later in life.
75
The vast majority of "tomboys" turn out to be
correct heterosexual.
Leslie has two mothers. We can expect that Leslie will
be relatively unaffected.
In regards to parenting, the best predictor of good psychological adjustment in adolescence is
having
a close relationship with parents.
Based on research, the most effective type of sex education is a(n)
correct comprehensive program.

A _____ reflex prompts babies to clear their throat.


Gag

Which infant reflex is CORRECTLY matched with its description?


Babinski reflex; an infant's toes fan out when the edge of the sole of the foot is stroked
The "strange situation" experiment is associated with _____; it helps classify the attachment
behavior of _____.
Ainsworth; newborns
At twelve months of age, Jordan is classified as a securely attached child by his pediatrician on
the basis of the criteria set by Mary Ainsworth. Which of the following behaviors in the strange
situation would be most consistent with this classification?
Jordan is moderately distressed when mother leaves him alone and pleased when she
returns
According to Mary Ainsworth, when a child with avoidant attachment style is exposed to the
strange situation experiment, he/she will:
show no concern when the mother leaves the room.
The study of attachment style is associated with _____ and the study of parenting style is
associated with _____.
Ainsworth; Baumrind
According to Erikson, the first stage of a child's psychosocial development is the _____ stage.
trust-versus-mistrust
During the sensorimotor period:
understanding is based mainly on basic sensory and motor abilities.
According to Piaget, when an infant recognizes that objects continue to exist even when they are
no longer in sight, the infant has understood the principle of:
object permanence.

As compared to Piaget, Vygotsky placed _____ emphasis on the _____ bases of cognitive
development.
more; social
A cross-sectional study is one in which
different age groups are tested at the same time.
The ability to overcome hardship during childhood again and again is referred to as
correct resilience.
Mabel is thrilled to find out she has finally become pregnant. She wants to make sure that she
does not jeopardize the health of her baby. She should avoid all of the following EXCEPT

prescription drugs of all types.

Incorporating new information into existing theories is to ___________ as modifying existing


theories in light of new information is to ___________.
assimilation; accommodation
In Piaget's cognitive development theory, the ___________ stage occurs during the period of
infancy.
Sensorimotor
A wise mother will give both her 3-year-old child and her 4-year-old child identically shaped
glasses of soft drink to avoid conflict over who has the most. The mother is showing her
awareness of her children's difficulty with
conservation.
The ability to use abstract concepts is a key component of the ___________ stage of Piaget's
theory of cognitive development.
formal operations

In Harry and Margaret Harlow's classic attachment study, they found that monkeys
were more attached to the artificial mothers who were warm and soft.
Authoritative parents are likely to have children who
are socially competent and self-reliant.
Richie's parents place no demands on him, and they place no rules or restrictions on his behavior.
They are exhibiting a(n) ___________ parenting style.
Permissive
Harry Harlow completed a number of studies in which baby rhesus monkeys were raised with
two artificial mothers. One of the mothers was made of wire and delivered food; the other was
made of cloth and provided no food. Harlow found that when the infant monkeys were startled or
frightened, they:
preferred the cloth surrogate that did not provide food.
The "strange situation" experiment is associated with _____; it helps classify the attachment
behavior of _____.
Ainsworth; newborns
At twelve months of age, Jordan is classified as a securely attached child by his pediatrician on
the basis of the criteria set by Mary Ainsworth. Which of the following behaviors in the strange
situation would be most consistent with this classification?
Jordan is moderately distressed when mother leaves him alone and pleased when she returns.
Rebecca takes her 1-year-old son, Adam, to visit an infant-toddler program in which she hopes to
enroll him. Adam appears very anxious and is unwilling to explore and play with the toys, even
though Rebecca is close by. When Rebecca leaves the room to fill out some forms, Adam
becomes extremely upset and remains inconsolable. When Rebecca returns, Adam stays close to

her, holding onto her leg. However, Adam makes it very clear he does not want her to touch him
or pick him up. In fact, he starts kicking and hitting her. In the context of the findings of Mary
Ainsworth, which term best describes Adam's attachment style?
Ambivalent
For children from poor, disadvantaged homes, high-quality out-of-home child care is associated
with:
long-term intellectual gains.
The study of attachment style is associated with _____ and the study of parenting style is
associated with _____.
Ainsworth; Baumrind
Hailey's parents demand that she follow their instructions without asking any question. Isabella's
parents are firm as well, but are more likely to reason with her and explain the consequences of
her behavior. In Baumrind's terms, Hailey's parents are _____; Isabella's are _____.
authoritarian; authoritative
Walter's parents strongly believe that Walter should make his own decisions, so they set very few
rules regarding homework, bedtime, and household chores. Since they believe that freedom and
responsibility are important, they patiently tolerate all of Walter's behavior, whether childish or
mature. The parenting style adopted by Walter's parents is called:
permissive.
Elizabeth is five years old, and she likes to help her mother in preparing supper. However, at the
end of the day, her mother often loses her temper easily, and ends up scolding Elizabeth. She tells
Elizabeth to stay out of the kitchen as rather than helping her, she makes more of a mess. Based
on Erikson's theory, Elizabeth is most likely to develop:

feelings of guilt.
During the sensorimotor period:
understanding is based mainly on basic sensory and motor abilities.
The nurture side of the nature vs. nurture debate refers to
experience.
Mabel is thrilled to find out she has finally become pregnant. She wants to make sure that she
does not jeopardize the health of her baby. She should avoid all of the following EXCEPT
prescription drugs of all types.
According to Piaget, accommodation refers to
adjusting current schemas in order to make sense of new experiences.
Incorporating new information into existing theories is to ___________ as modifying existing
theories in light of new information is to ___________.
assimilation; accommodation
According to Piaget, egocentrism refers to
the difficulty in perceiving things from another person's point of view.
The ability to use abstract concepts is a key component of the ___________ stage of Piaget's
theory of cognitive development.
formal operations
Which of the following most accurately describes Ainsworth's strange situation?
Caregiver leaves infant with stranger and returns later.
Erikson's theory is based on the assumption that
each person faces a set of predictable life-changing challenges at various stages of life.

Ian came home late for curfew. Without asking for an explanation, his parents sent him to his
room and informed him that he was grounded for a month. What type of parenting did Ian's
parents demonstrate?
Authoritarian
Richie's parents place no demands on him, and they place no rules or restrictions on his behavior.
They are exhibiting a(n) ___________ parenting style.
Permissive
A _____ reflex prompts babies to clear their throat.
gag

The "strange situation" experiment is associated with _____; it helps classify the attachment
behavior of
Ainsworth; newborns

At twelve months of age, Jordan is classified as a securely attached child by his pediatrician on
the basis of the criteria set by Mary Ainsworth. Which of the following behaviors in the strange
situation would be most consistent with this classification?
Jordan is moderately distressed when mother leaves him alone and pleased when she
returns.

According to Mary Ainsworth, when a child with avoidant attachment style is exposed to the
strange situation experiment, he/she will:
show no concern when the mother leaves the room.

Rebecca takes her 1-year-old son, Adam, to visit an infant-toddler program in which she hopes to
enroll him. Adam appears very anxious and is unwilling to explore and play with the toys, even
though Rebecca is close by. When Rebecca leaves the room to fill out some forms, Adam
becomes extremely upset and remains inconsolable. When Rebecca returns, Adam stays close to
her, holding onto her leg. However, Adam makes it very clear he does not want her to touch him
or pick him up. In fact, he starts kicking and hitting her. In the context of the findings of Mary
Ainsworth, which term best describes Adam's attachment style?
Ambivalent

Hailey's parents demand that she follow their instructions without asking any question. Isabella's
parents are firm as well, but are more likely to reason with her and explain the consequences of
her behavior. In Baumrind's terms, Hailey's parents are _____; Isabella's are
authoritarian; authoritative

Derwood is 8 years old and he likes to do art projects at school. However, the projects he has
completed so far have not received good grades, and in several instances his friends have made
fun of his work. Based on Erikson's theory, Derwood is most likely to develop:
feelings of inferiority.

Which of the following Swiss scholars had suggested in the 1970s that children around the world
proceed through a series of four stages in a fixed order?
Piaget

During the sensorimotor period:


understanding is based mainly on basic sensory and motor abilities

A child demonstrates that she understands the idea of object permanence and egocentrism, but
fails to understand the concept of conservation. In the context of the Piagetian stages, she is most
likely in the _____ stage.
preoperational

A cross-sectional study is one in which


different age groups are tested at the same time.

Mabel is thrilled to find out she has finally become pregnant. She wants to make sure that she
does not jeopardize the health of her baby. She should avoid all of the following EXCEPT
prescription drugs of all types

According to Piaget, accommodation refers to


adjusting current schemas in order to make sense of new experiences

In Piaget's cognitive development theory, the ___________ stage occurs during the period of
infancy.
sensorimotor

You arrange two rows of pennies so they are equal in length. A child views the rows and states
that they have the same amount of pennies. You spread out the pennies in the bottom row so that
this row is longer than the top one. The child now states that the bottom row has more pennies.
This child is in Piaget's ___________ stage of development.
Preoperational
In Harry and Margaret Harlow's classic attachment study, they found that monkeys
were more attached to the artificial mothers who were warm and soft.

Mazie's mom is loving and nurturing, sets clear boundaries, and engages in a lot of verbal give
and take. In terms of parenting styles, she would be described as
authoritative

Ian came home late for curfew. Without asking for an explanation, his parents sent him to his
room and informed him that he was grounded for a month. What type of parenting did Ian's
parents demonstrate?
Authoritarian

Authoritative parents are likely to have children who


are socially competent and self-reliant.

Richie's parents place no demands on him, and they place no rules or restrictions on his behavior.
They are exhibiting a(n) ___________ parenting style.
permissive

Which infant reflex is CORRECTLY matched with its description?


Babinski reflex; an infant's toes fan out when the edge of the sole of the foot is stroked

As psychologists use the term, habituation means:


decrease in the response to a stimulus that occurs after repeated presentations of the same
stimulus

The "strange situation" experiment is associated with _____; it helps classify the attachment
behavior of
Ainsworth; newborns

The study of attachment style is associated with _____ and the study of parenting style is
associated with
Ainsworth; Baumrind

According to Erikson, the first stage of a child's psychosocial development is the _____ stage.
trust-versus-mistrust

Which of the following Swiss scholars had suggested in the 1970s that children around the world
proceed through a series of four stages in a fixed order?

Piaget

Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the order of Piaget's stages of cognitive
development, from birth through adolescence?
sensorimotor preoperational concrete operational formal operational

Which age range below is INCORRECTLY labeled with its Piagetian stage?
12 yearsadulthood; postoperational stage

During the sensorimotor period:


understanding is based mainly on basic sensory and motor abilities

According to Piaget, mastery of the principle of conservation marks the beginning of the _____
stage of development
concrete operational

The majority of children of divorced parents


do not have adjustment problems.

The ability to overcome hardship during childhood again and again is referred to as
resilience

Which of the following is an accurate descriptor of an infant reflex?


All of these

According to Piaget, accommodation refers to


adjusting current schemas in order to make sense of new experiences

In Piaget's cognitive development theory, the ___________ stage occurs during the period of
infancy.
sensorimotor

You give your younger brother Joe a big cookie. He accidently drops it, and it breaks into many
smaller
parts. Suddenly he gets very excited and says, "Joe, look how many cookies I have now!" He is
most likely in which developmental stage?
Preoperational

Between ages 7 and 11, children can think in sophisticated ways as long as what they are
thinking about is tangibly represented. Piaget calls this stage
concrete operations

Which of the following most accurately describes Ainsworth's strange situation?


Caregiver leaves infant with stranger and returns later

Mazie's mom is loving and nurturing, sets clear boundaries, and engages in a lot of verbal give
and take. In terms of parenting styles, she would be described as
authoritative

Jill's parents set very few limits or boundaries for her. They use a(n) ___________ parenting
style
permissive

A _____ reflex prompts babies to clear their throat.


gag

Which infant reflex is CORRECTLY matched with its description?


Babinski reflex; an infant's toes fan out when the edge of the sole of the foot is stroked

As psychologists use the term, habituation means:


decrease in the response to a stimulus that occurs after repeated presentations of the same
stimulus

At twelve months of age, Jordan is classified as a securely attached child by his pediatrician on
the basis of the criteria set by Mary Ainsworth. Which of the following behaviors in the strange
situation would be most consistent with this classification?
Jordan is moderately distressed when mother leaves him alone and pleased when she
returns

The study of attachment style is associated with _____ and the study of parenting style is
associated with
Ainsworth; Baumrind

Hailey's parents demand that she follow their instructions without asking any question. Isabella's
parents are firm as well, but are more likely to reason with her and explain the consequences of
her behavior. In Baumrind's terms, Hailey's parents are _____; Isabella's are
authoritarian; authoritative

Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the order of Piaget's stages of cognitive
development, from birth through adolescence?
sensorimotor preoperational concrete operational formal operational

During the sensorimotor period:


understanding is based mainly on basic sensory and motor abilities

A child demonstrates that she understands the idea of object permanence and egocentrism, but
fails to understand the concept of conservation. In the context of the Piagetian stages, she is most
likely in the _____ stage
preoperational

As compared to Piaget, Vygotsky placed _____ emphasis on the _____ bases of cognitive
development.
more; social

The ability to overcome hardship during childhood again and again is referred to as
resilience

You give your younger brother Joe a big cookie. He accidently drops it, and it breaks into many
smaller parts. Suddenly he gets very excited and says, "Joe, look how many cookies I have now!"
He is most likely in which developmental stage?
Preoperational

A wise mother will give both her 3-year-old child and her 4-year-old child identically shaped
glasses of soft drink to avoid conflict over who has the most. The mother is showing her
awareness of her children's difficulty with
conservation

Four-year-old Jennifer mistakenly believes that her mother would like to receive a doll for
Christmas. This best illustrates Piaget's concept of
egocentrism

Between ages 7 and 11, children can think in sophisticated ways as long as what they are
thinking about is tangibly represented. Piaget calls this stage

concrete operations

In Harry and Margaret Harlow's classic attachment study, they found that monkeys
were more attached to the artificial mothers who were warm and soft

Which of the following most accurately describes Ainsworth's strange situation?


Caregiver leaves infant with stranger and returns later

Mazie's mom is loving and nurturing, sets clear boundaries, and engages in a lot of verbal give
and take. In terms of parenting styles, she would be described as
authoritative

Ian came home late for curfew. Without asking for an explanation, his parents sent him to his
room and informed him that he was grounded for a month. What type of parenting did Ian's
parents demonstrate?
Authoritarian

Richie's parents place no demands on him, and they place no rules or restrictions on his behavior.
They are exhibiting a(n) ___________ parenting style
permissive

Joan's mom and dad believe that parents know best. They expect Joan to obey all parental rules
without uttering a word, and they are quick to impose stern punishments if she does not comply.
In Baumrind's terms, Joan's parents are:

authoritarian

Walter's parents strongly believe that Walter should make his own decisions, so they set very few
rules regarding homework, bedtime, and household chores. Since they believe that freedom and
responsibility are important, they patiently tolerate all of Walter's behavior, whether childish or
mature. The parenting style adopted by Walter's parents is called:
permissive

Derwood is 8 years old and he likes to do art projects at school. However, the projects he has
completed so far have not received good grades, and in several instances his friends have made
fun of his work. Based on Erikson's theory, Derwood is most likely to develop:
feelings of inferiority

According to Piaget, mastery of the principle of conservation marks the beginning of the _____
stage of development.
concrete operational

As compared to Piaget, Vygotsky placed _____ emphasis on the _____ bases of cognitive
development
more; social

The majority of children of divorced parents


do not have adjustment problems

You tried to play peek-a-boo with your 6-month-old infant, but whenever you hid your face, he
would cry. You try it again three months later, and now he laughs and enjoys the game, trying to
uncover your face with his hands. Your baby has now developed
object permanence

You give your younger brother Joe a big cookie. He accidently drops it, and it breaks into many
smaller parts. Suddenly he gets very excited and says, "Joe, look how many cookies I have now!"
He is most likely in which developmental stage?
Preoperational

According to Piaget, egocentrism refers to


the difficulty in perceiving things from another person's point of view

The ability to use abstract concepts is a key component of the ___________ stage of Piaget's
theory of cognitive development.
formal operations

Mazie's mom is loving and nurturing, sets clear boundaries, and engages in a lot of verbal give
and take. In terms of parenting styles, she would be described as
authoritative

Authoritative parents are likely to have children who


are socially competent and self-reliant

Compared to authoritarian parents, authoritative parents are likely to be


more responsive
Richie's parents place no demands on him, and they place no rules or restrictions on his behavior.
They are exhibiting a(n) ___________ parenting style
Permissive

Harry Harlow completed a number of studies in which baby rhesus monkeys were raised with
two artificial mothers. One of the mothers was made of wire and delivered food; the other was
made of cloth and provided no food. Harlow found that when the infant monkeys were startled or
frightened, they:
preferred the cloth surrogate that did not provide food

Bob has an unknown liquid and must determine what it is. He decides to systematically use a
number of tests to determine the correct answer. What stage of cognitive development has Bob
reached?

Formal operational

Jill's parents set very few limits or boundaries for her. They use a(n) ___________ parenting
style.
Permissive

According to Piaget, when an infant recognizes that objects continue to exist even when they are
no longer in sight, the infant has understood the principle of:
object permanence

Two children are participating in a memory research: Heather, a preschooler, and Illeana, a sixthgrader. When the children fail a recall task, the researcher asks each child what she might do to
succeed at the task the next time. Heather suggests that she would simply try again; Illeana
proposes that she might try to write the items down. The difference in the girls' responses most
clearly illustrates an increase in _____ during childhood.
metacognitive ability

The nurture side of the nature vs. nurture debate refers to


experience

Incorporating new information into existing theories is to ___________ as modifying existing


theories in light of new information is to

assimilation; accommodation

In Piaget's cognitive development theory, the ___________ stage occurs during the period of
infancy.
sensorimotor

Elizabeth is five years old, and she likes to help her mother in preparing supper. However, at the
end of the day, her mother often loses her temper easily, and ends up scolding Elizabeth. She tells
Elizabeth to stay out of the kitchen as rather than helping her, she makes more of a mess. Based
on Erikson's theory, Elizabeth is most likely to develop:
feelings of guilt

Preschoolers can hold only two or three chunks of information in short-term memory, 5-yearolds can hold four, and 7-year-olds can hold
five
For children from poor, disadvantaged homes, high-quality out-of-home child care is associated
with:
long-term intellectual gains

Erikson's theory is based on the assumption that


each person faces a set of predictable life-changing challenges at various stages of life

A _____ reflex prompts babies to clear their throat.

Gag
Which infant reflex is CORRECTLY matched with its description?
Babinski reflex; an infant's toes fan out when the edge of the sole of the foot is stroked
The "strange situation" experiment is associated with _____; it helps classify the attachment
behavior of _____.
Ainsworth; newborns
At twelve months of age, Jordan is classified as a securely attached child by his pediatrician on
the basis of the criteria set by Mary Ainsworth. Which of the following behaviors in the strange
situation would be most consistent with this classification?
Jordan is moderately distressed when mother leaves him alone and pleased when she
returns
According to Mary Ainsworth, when a child with avoidant attachment style is exposed to the
strange situation experiment, he/she will:
show no concern when the mother leaves the room.
The study of attachment style is associated with _____ and the study of parenting style is
associated with _____.
Ainsworth; Baumrind
According to Erikson, the first stage of a child's psychosocial development is the _____ stage.
trust-versus-mistrust
During the sensorimotor period:
understanding is based mainly on basic sensory and motor abilities.
According to Piaget, when an infant recognizes that objects continue to exist even when they are
no longer in sight, the infant has understood the principle of:

object permanence.
As compared to Piaget, Vygotsky placed _____ emphasis on the _____ bases of cognitive
development.
more; social
A cross-sectional study is one in which
different age groups are tested at the same time.
The ability to overcome hardship during childhood again and again is referred to as
correct resilience.
Mabel is thrilled to find out she has finally become pregnant. She wants to make sure that she
does not jeopardize the health of her baby. She should avoid all of the following EXCEPT

prescription drugs of all types.

Incorporating new information into existing theories is to ___________ as modifying existing


theories in light of new information is to ___________.
assimilation; accommodation
In Piaget's cognitive development theory, the ___________ stage occurs during the period of
infancy.
Sensorimotor
A wise mother will give both her 3-year-old child and her 4-year-old child identically shaped
glasses of soft drink to avoid conflict over who has the most. The mother is showing her
awareness of her children's difficulty with
conservation.
The ability to use abstract concepts is a key component of the ___________ stage of Piaget's
theory of cognitive development.

formal operations
In Harry and Margaret Harlow's classic attachment study, they found that monkeys
were more attached to the artificial mothers who were warm and soft.
Authoritative parents are likely to have children who
are socially competent and self-reliant.
Richie's parents place no demands on him, and they place no rules or restrictions on his behavior.
They are exhibiting a(n) ___________ parenting style.
Permissive
Harry Harlow completed a number of studies in which baby rhesus monkeys were raised with
two artificial mothers. One of the mothers was made of wire and delivered food; the other was
made of cloth and provided no food. Harlow found that when the infant monkeys were startled or
frightened, they:
preferred the cloth surrogate that did not provide food.
The "strange situation" experiment is associated with _____; it helps classify the attachment
behavior of _____.
Ainsworth; newborns
At twelve months of age, Jordan is classified as a securely attached child by his pediatrician on
the basis of the criteria set by Mary Ainsworth. Which of the following behaviors in the strange
situation would be most consistent with this classification?
Jordan is moderately distressed when mother leaves him alone and pleased when she returns.
Rebecca takes her 1-year-old son, Adam, to visit an infant-toddler program in which she hopes to
enroll him. Adam appears very anxious and is unwilling to explore and play with the toys, even
though Rebecca is close by. When Rebecca leaves the room to fill out some forms, Adam

becomes extremely upset and remains inconsolable. When Rebecca returns, Adam stays close to
her, holding onto her leg. However, Adam makes it very clear he does not want her to touch him
or pick him up. In fact, he starts kicking and hitting her. In the context of the findings of Mary
Ainsworth, which term best describes Adam's attachment style?
Ambivalent
For children from poor, disadvantaged homes, high-quality out-of-home child care is associated
with:
long-term intellectual gains.
The study of attachment style is associated with _____ and the study of parenting style is
associated with _____.
Ainsworth; Baumrind
Hailey's parents demand that she follow their instructions without asking any question. Isabella's
parents are firm as well, but are more likely to reason with her and explain the consequences of
her behavior. In Baumrind's terms, Hailey's parents are _____; Isabella's are _____.
authoritarian; authoritative
Walter's parents strongly believe that Walter should make his own decisions, so they set very few
rules regarding homework, bedtime, and household chores. Since they believe that freedom and
responsibility are important, they patiently tolerate all of Walter's behavior, whether childish or
mature. The parenting style adopted by Walter's parents is called:
permissive.
Elizabeth is five years old, and she likes to help her mother in preparing supper. However, at the
end of the day, her mother often loses her temper easily, and ends up scolding Elizabeth. She tells

Elizabeth to stay out of the kitchen as rather than helping her, she makes more of a mess. Based
on Erikson's theory, Elizabeth is most likely to develop:
feelings of guilt.
During the sensorimotor period:
understanding is based mainly on basic sensory and motor abilities.
The nurture side of the nature vs. nurture debate refers to
experience.
Mabel is thrilled to find out she has finally become pregnant. She wants to make sure that she
does not jeopardize the health of her baby. She should avoid all of the following EXCEPT
prescription drugs of all types.
According to Piaget, accommodation refers to
adjusting current schemas in order to make sense of new experiences.
Incorporating new information into existing theories is to ___________ as modifying existing
theories in light of new information is to ___________.
assimilation; accommodation
According to Piaget, egocentrism refers to
the difficulty in perceiving things from another person's point of view.
The ability to use abstract concepts is a key component of the ___________ stage of Piaget's
theory of cognitive development.
formal operations
Which of the following most accurately describes Ainsworth's strange situation?
Caregiver leaves infant with stranger and returns later.
Erikson's theory is based on the assumption that

each person faces a set of predictable life-changing challenges at various stages of life.
Ian came home late for curfew. Without asking for an explanation, his parents sent him to his
room and informed him that he was grounded for a month. What type of parenting did Ian's
parents demonstrate?
Authoritarian
Richie's parents place no demands on him, and they place no rules or restrictions on his behavior.
They are exhibiting a(n) ___________ parenting style.
Permissive
A _____ reflex prompts babies to clear their throat.
gag

The "strange situation" experiment is associated with _____; it helps classify the attachment
behavior of
Ainsworth; newborns

At twelve months of age, Jordan is classified as a securely attached child by his pediatrician on
the basis of the criteria set by Mary Ainsworth. Which of the following behaviors in the strange
situation would be most consistent with this classification?
Jordan is moderately distressed when mother leaves him alone and pleased when she
returns.

According to Mary Ainsworth, when a child with avoidant attachment style is exposed to the
strange situation experiment, he/she will:

show no concern when the mother leaves the room.

Rebecca takes her 1-year-old son, Adam, to visit an infant-toddler program in which she hopes to
enroll him. Adam appears very anxious and is unwilling to explore and play with the toys, even
though Rebecca is close by. When Rebecca leaves the room to fill out some forms, Adam
becomes extremely upset and remains inconsolable. When Rebecca returns, Adam stays close to
her, holding onto her leg. However, Adam makes it very clear he does not want her to touch him
or pick him up. In fact, he starts kicking and hitting her. In the context of the findings of Mary
Ainsworth, which term best describes Adam's attachment style?
Ambivalent

Hailey's parents demand that she follow their instructions without asking any question. Isabella's
parents are firm as well, but are more likely to reason with her and explain the consequences of
her behavior. In Baumrind's terms, Hailey's parents are _____; Isabella's are
authoritarian; authoritative

Derwood is 8 years old and he likes to do art projects at school. However, the projects he has
completed so far have not received good grades, and in several instances his friends have made
fun of his work. Based on Erikson's theory, Derwood is most likely to develop:
feelings of inferiority.

Which of the following Swiss scholars had suggested in the 1970s that children around the world
proceed through a series of four stages in a fixed order?

Piaget

During the sensorimotor period:


understanding is based mainly on basic sensory and motor abilities

A child demonstrates that she understands the idea of object permanence and egocentrism, but
fails to understand the concept of conservation. In the context of the Piagetian stages, she is most
likely in the _____ stage.
preoperational

A cross-sectional study is one in which


different age groups are tested at the same time.

Mabel is thrilled to find out she has finally become pregnant. She wants to make sure that she
does not jeopardize the health of her baby. She should avoid all of the following EXCEPT
prescription drugs of all types

According to Piaget, accommodation refers to


adjusting current schemas in order to make sense of new experiences

In Piaget's cognitive development theory, the ___________ stage occurs during the period of
infancy.
sensorimotor

You arrange two rows of pennies so they are equal in length. A child views the rows and states
that they have the same amount of pennies. You spread out the pennies in the bottom row so that
this row is longer than the top one. The child now states that the bottom row has more pennies.
This child is in Piaget's ___________ stage of development.
Preoperational
In Harry and Margaret Harlow's classic attachment study, they found that monkeys
were more attached to the artificial mothers who were warm and soft.

Mazie's mom is loving and nurturing, sets clear boundaries, and engages in a lot of verbal give
and take. In terms of parenting styles, she would be described as
authoritative

Ian came home late for curfew. Without asking for an explanation, his parents sent him to his
room and informed him that he was grounded for a month. What type of parenting did Ian's
parents demonstrate?
Authoritarian

Authoritative parents are likely to have children who


are socially competent and self-reliant.

Richie's parents place no demands on him, and they place no rules or restrictions on his behavior.
They are exhibiting a(n) ___________ parenting style.

permissive

Which infant reflex is CORRECTLY matched with its description?


Babinski reflex; an infant's toes fan out when the edge of the sole of the foot is stroked

As psychologists use the term, habituation means:


decrease in the response to a stimulus that occurs after repeated presentations of the same
stimulus

The "strange situation" experiment is associated with _____; it helps classify the attachment
behavior of
Ainsworth; newborns

The study of attachment style is associated with _____ and the study of parenting style is
associated with
Ainsworth; Baumrind

According to Erikson, the first stage of a child's psychosocial development is the _____ stage.
trust-versus-mistrust

Which of the following Swiss scholars had suggested in the 1970s that children around the world
proceed through a series of four stages in a fixed order?
Piaget

Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the order of Piaget's stages of cognitive
development, from birth through adolescence?
sensorimotor preoperational concrete operational formal operational

Which age range below is INCORRECTLY labeled with its Piagetian stage?
12 yearsadulthood; postoperational stage

During the sensorimotor period:


understanding is based mainly on basic sensory and motor abilities

According to Piaget, mastery of the principle of conservation marks the beginning of the _____
stage of development
concrete operational

The majority of children of divorced parents


do not have adjustment problems.

The ability to overcome hardship during childhood again and again is referred to as
resilience

Which of the following is an accurate descriptor of an infant reflex?


All of these

According to Piaget, accommodation refers to


adjusting current schemas in order to make sense of new experiences

In Piaget's cognitive development theory, the ___________ stage occurs during the period of
infancy.
sensorimotor

You give your younger brother Joe a b