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Section I
Directions for 3 Questions: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
PASSAGE
For as long as we have been impressed by our understanding and control of the material
world, scientists and philosophers of science have tried to specify just what distinguishes
successful modern science from such dead ends as trying to produce gold from stone or
reading our future in the stars. Unfortunately all such attempts have failed to produce
unambiguous lines of demarcation, and, when we have looked closely at what real scientists
actually do, we often find that the working life of science fails to match the picture painted by
the philosophers. Nonetheless, we can list a series of characteristics that are more likely to be
found in astronomy than astrology, for example. While we cannot with absolute certainty divide
ideas about the material world into science and pseudoscience, we can still profitably talk
about things being 'more or less' scientific.
A good starting point is to assert that any good scientific theory should be internally consistent.
This immediately separates it from much of what passes for lay reasoning. My mother
contradicted herself more often than not. That something she said one moment was
incompatible with her next pronouncement hardly ever troubled her. She once criticized a
roadside café by asserting that the food was vile and the portions were too small!
A good scientific theory should accord with the evidence. This may seem obvious, but what
the scientist should demand in this respect is considerably more rigorous than that which the
lay person habitually accepts. Very different standards operate, for example, in conventional
and in alternative medicine. Although driven by commercial imperatives to get their new
wonder drugs to the market before those of their rivals, pharmaceutical companies subject
their products to lengthy and extensive trials. In 'doubleblind' testing, large numbers of
patients are divided into test and control groups. One group is given the new drug; the other a
harmless and inert 'placebo'. Until the allocations are revealed at the end of the trials, neither
patients nor doctors know who is getting the real drug and who the placebo. Only if the test
sample shows a marked improvement over the placebo group is the trial accepted as good
evidence of the effectiveness of the drug. In contrast, alternative therapies such as faith
healing, acupuncture or magnetotherapy are rarely tested; the personal experience of the
practitioner, supported by a few anecdotes of miracle cures, is taken to be sufficient to
establish effectiveness. Such testing as takes place is never doubleblind, and thus the
possibility that any perceived benefits result from a placebo effect is never eliminated.
Thirdly, science constantly changes. Its findings are never 'true' in an absolute nowand
forever sense; they are always provisional and can always be improved. The convincing
orthodoxy of one century becomes the historical curiosity of the next. It is a little awkward to
say that science makes progress, because we do not know where we are going, but we
certainly know where we have been and can thus talk about science gradually moving away
from error. Again we can see the point if we contrast the reliance of medical science on
experimental proof with the reliance of alternative therapies on tradition. In the world of
Bachian flower remedies, Feng Sui, and Shiatsu massage, that something has been done for
centuries (preferably in a culture untainted by modernity) establishes its validity. Given that
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such fundamentals of medical science as the body's circulatory system are relatively recent
discoveries, the scientist is rightly not impressed by the age of an idea.
1. According to the passage, which one of the following is true?
(Q. code 102202001)
(1) One can only say that the more we follow science, the more we move away from
errors.
(2) One can state that the more we move away from errors, the more we follow science.
(3) Science looks for errors in the established understanding of the common man.
(4) The age of an idea alone is the characteristic that determines the value of it in the
scientist's mind.
(5) The age of an idea alone is the characteristic that does not determine the value of it in
the scientist's mind.
2. "The convincing orthodoxy of one century becomes the historical curiosity of the next."
What does the author mean by this line? (Q. code 102202002)
(1) What is new today will be stale tomorrow.
(2) With time, even the most rigid ideas lose their strength.
(3) Thoughts have a strange way of dying. Actually, they don't die.
(4) The more fixated a thought, the faster it will lose its sway.
(5) The importance of a thought is determined not by its popularity, but only by its
popularity.
3. Why does the author call his mother as indulging in lay reasoning?
(Q. code 102202003)
(1) His mother contradicted herself more often than not.
(2) His mother's reasoning was similar to a layman's reasoning.
(3) When she criticized food from a diner, she didn't sound convincing.
(4) Her reasoning wasn't consistent throughout.
(5) She gave the most irrelevant reasons for her conclusions.
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Directions for 3 Questions: In each question, there are five sentences or parts of sentences
that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in
terms of grammar and usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.
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Directions for 3 Questions: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
PASSAGE
1794here at last was a year which I felt was going to compensate me by some diverting
activities, some inspiration, pleasure, for much that I had missed and suffered in the preceding
years; and goodness knows I was badly in need of it.' This is how Goethe, in his Annals,
begins his report on the year 1794. The modern reader can hardly fail to respond to Goethe's
catalogue of grievances: the agitated restlessness of Europe; rumours of the approach of the
enemy and of fussy aunts evacuated from more directly disturbed areas; the hasty selling of
houses, the loss of friends through political partisanship; the clandestine distribution of French
revolutionary manifestoes'they even found their way to me,' Goethe exclaims, 'and this
through people whom one would never have suspected'; and above all the rule of
Robespierre, 'the terrors of which had so deprived the world of any sense of joy that nobody
felt like rejoicing even at the downfall of the tyrant. And in addition, the distressing chaos, the
obstreperous hollowness of the German literary scene! Goethe had returned from Italy with
that vision of serenity and equipoise with which he hoped he would conquer the national
imagination which he had previously done so much to fill with unruly enthusiasm for suicidal
lovers and rebellious knights with fists of iron. But, alas, while the Master recuperated sun of
the South, the infection, the cold and the fever, were spread by his disciples in the
unregenerate nordic climate. There was, for instance, that man Schiller, this 'vigorous but
immature talent', as Goethe calls him, whose drama Die Räuber, 'disgusted me in the
extreme', because he poured out over the country, in a gushing, irresistible torrent, precisely
those moral and theatrical paradoxes which I had striven to eradicate from my own work'. And
there were more such offenders: Heinse, for instance, whose Ardinghello was hateful to
Goethe because its author used his art for the purpose of 'giving affected glamour to crass
sensuality and abstruse modes of thought. 'I was terrified,' Goethe continues, 'by the hubbub
they caused in the country, and by the applause with which the monstrous creations of their
fancy were received by wild undergraduates and genteel ladies of the court alike.' 'Imagine the
state I was in! I had hoped to cultivate and to communicate the purest ideas; and now I found
myself squeezed tight between Ardinghello and Franz Moor.' 'It seemed as though all my
labours would be lost, all the things towards which, and all the ways in which, I had educated
myself would be abolished and frustrated.' Goethe's intense dissatisfaction, his conviction of
futility, culminates in the wish to abandon 'the contemplation of the arts and the practice of
poetry altogether' and we know that this was more than the fleeting whim of a disgruntled
Olympian'for there appeared to be no chance whatsoever to compete with those wild
productions of disorganized genius'.
Yet Goethe's desolation was caused not merely by the unseemly behaviour of the world
around him; there was an inner uncertainty tooan uncertainty which, in one form or another,
was to provide the rest of his life with a deep dilemma, a source of inspiration as well as
confusion, now raising his poetry and thought to those heights to which only the force of
tension could carry them, now again trapping his genius in a tangle of insoluble contradictions.
His doubts about the worthwhileness, indeed the possibility, of continuing his work as a poet
will recur, and the blame will not always fall on the Robespierres of this world and other poets'
successful Robbers. Now, in the year 1794, the dilemma took this form: 'The conflict which my
scientific efforts had brought into my life was as yet by no means resolved; for my dealings
with nature began to make claims on all my inner faculties'.
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7. What were the reasons for Goethe's desolation? (Q. code 102202007)
(1) The unfailing attempts of the German literary amateurs at that time to faze out
Goethe's achievements.
(2) The quandary of his times that caught him in its fullest viz. the political turmoil and the
uneasiness spread throughout the land.
(3) The desperation that was caused due to his inability to change the literary scene
which at one time he had so magnificently ruled.
(4) The hopeless situation of being trapped in a literary scenario that he was totally
uncomfortable with and also his own qualms about the importance of his poetry.
(5) The internal rifts that were causing him to doubt his success after returning from a far
off land.
8. What were the objections that Goethe had against Schiller and Heinse?
(Q. code 102202008)
(1) The works created by them were a disgrace to the development of the society as they
overdid the play on emotions.
(2) They were spreading ideas that weren't of the purest nature and this was something
that Goethe didn't esteem highly.
(3) He was astounded by the popularity achieved in all sections of the society by these
poets.
(4) The use of literary styles of exemplifying sensuality, abstruse modes of thinking was
something that he couldn't keep pace with.
(5) He didn't value their works because of the amoral conduct of the protagonists that was
liked by all parts of the society.
9. 'for there appeared to be … of disorganized genius'. What does the author mean here?
(Q. code 102202009)
(1) In no way could Goethe counter the works of the people who were unmindful of their
own actions.
(2) Goethe's thoughts about discontinuing his work had a strong reason that he couldn't
have countered the unruly works with his lofty ideals.
(3) The manner in which the poets created verse was an unorganized one and had the
failings of a sinister nature.
(4) Goethe was hard put against the different styles of his contemporaries and seemed to
be fighting a lost case.
(5) The poets like Schiller were unaware that what they produced created competition of
such an immense magnitude.
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Directions for 3 Questions: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the
last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes
the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
10. Yet Mr. Kundera's title (Testaments Betrayed) also refers to the many diverse things that
can betray art as a testament. He includes, for instance, the translators who have failed to
respect Kafka's use of word repetition and who insist on showing off their skills by
exercising "the synonymizing reflex a reflex of nearly all translators." He includes critics
who in reading works of literature drag in irrelevant judgments of their authors. He means
readers in general "who look for a position (political, philosophical, religious, whatever) in a
work of art rather than searching it for an effort to know, to understand, to grasp this or that
aspect of reality." (Q. code 102202010)
(1) Anything that violates the autonomy of art.
(2) If not for this habit of his, the essay would have been a success.
(3) Yet his concern is not so much with the freedom of artists as with the autonomy of
what they create.
(4) So long as we don't betray it.
(5) As Mr. Kundera sees it, shameful objectification is what threatens all of us in the near
future.
11. It is understandable why so many have been so jealous of the image's influence. Sight is
our most powerful sense, much more dominant in translating influence than taste, touch or
hearing. And images appeal to emotions often viscerally so. They claim our attention
without uttering a word. They can persuade, repel or charm us. They can be absorbed
instantly and easily by anyone who can see. (Q. code 102202011)
(1) They are much better than text and that requires no proof.
(2) They seem to speak for themselves.
(3) Mind you, not only the individual, but the world too seems to justify that.
(4) Their sense of appraisal leads to diminished expectations.
(5) Anyone who says no to this reasoning has a flawed understanding of the world.
12.The plan calls for a green light on the tower to tell visitors when the windmill is producing
power, and a red light that will indicate that power is being purchased from the grid. If there
is a power outage in the utility's network, the windmill shuts down automatically.
(Q. code 102202012)
(1) A manual operation of the windmill is therefore undesirable.
(2) "Better this than the plan you spoke of." told Emily.
(3) "We don't want to electrocute people working on the lines." explains Finlayson.
(4) To begin the system, you need to allow manipulations.
(5) The outage may be indicative of a situation where one may think it likely to shut down
the network.
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Directions for 3 Questions: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
PASSAGE
Despite the conjectures of Descartes and LeMettrie, the phenomenon of life seemed for a long
time to deny the dispiriting ramifications of Newtonian determinism and reductionism. The
incredible order and complexity of life seemed incompatible with the simple deterministic laws
of physics: from whence this complexity? The processes of biology are so finely coordinated,
so tightly coupled, that it seemed in the 17th century (and still seems to many to this day) that
life must be designed and orchestrated by some superior outside intelligence. Furthermore,
the growth and spontaneous movement of living beings does not in any obvious way reflect
simple, mechanical laws like the conservation of momentum. We do not behave as mere
masses subject to forces, but initiate action on our own. Intuition tells us that this animation,
this spontaneous movement and growth, is a key feature of life. Thales recognized as much in
the 7th century BCE when he said, "The lodestone has life, or soul, as it is able to move iron",
as did Aristotle in associating life with movement ("The soul creates movement"). As recently
as the 19th century, the Vitalists articulated the same intuition, that only some elan vital could
produce life's spontaneity in a universe of dead matter.
To make the Newtonian world view work, some explanation was necessary of how purposeful,
animated, complex life forms could emerge from dead chemicals.
The original mechanical conception of lifeheart as pump, lungs as bellowswas spectacularly
unsuccessful in explaining much more than the circulation of the blood (and actually, not even
that). It was only in the 19th century, with the work of Mendel and Darwin, that there was any
real progress reconciling the simplicity of physics and chemistry with the seeming animation
and purpose of Nature. By the end of the 20th century the sciences of molecular biology and
genetics purported to provide, if not a solution, at least the outline of a solution to all the
fundamental mysteries of life, from its origin, to its evolution, to its present behavior. Not
coincidentally, the Grand Synthesis of Darwinian evolution and Mendelian genetics solved
these problems in a way that reinforced the defining ideologies of our civilization: the discrete
and separate self, the program to control the world, the primacy of competition as an agent of
progress, and the destiny of humankind to eventually transcend nature through technology.
At present, the dominant understanding of change in nature is Neodarwinism, which Lynn
Margulis has summarized as "an attempt to reconcile Mendelian genetics, which says that
organisms do not change with time, with Darwinism, which claims they do." In Mendelian
genetics, variation within a species comes only from recombination of existing DNA, which
denies the possibility of genuinely new traits ever emerging. However, overwhelming evidence
from paleontology, embryology, genetics, and other fields make it clear that life indeed evolves
over time, and that genuinely new features arise repeatedly across the eons.
Neodarwinism ascribes the source of this change to random mutation, and its direction to
natural selection: the competition for the resources to survive and reproduce. Biological
evolution is supposed to happen through a gradual accumulation of random point mutations,
frameshift errors, accidental deletions and insertions, and other chance alterations to DNA,
which are then "tried out" (expressed in actual organisms) in various combinations. Most
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mutations are either deadly or harmless, but occasionally one of them will create some new
characteristic which confers a competitive advantage, enabling the new organism and its
descendants to dominate the old in its ecological niche, or to occupy a new niche altogether.
Over time, the accumulation of these new characteristics comes to define a new species.
The traditional view of biology is that the self is the "expression of the genes", which comprise
the blueprint for morphology and the underlying determinant of behavior. Only in humans, it is
thought, does the countervailing determinant of culture (sometimes) override or at least modify
genetic "programming". This is an old idea in new garbin an earlier age it was not "genetic
programming" but rather our "bestial nature", "original sin", or "the temptations of the flesh".
Either way, the conclusion is the same that we are, with the rise of culture, transcending
nature. We are transcending our biology and rising to a new state, a uniquely human realm. To
engineer an organism, then, is really just a matter of engineering its genes, whose properties
are fundamentally isolable from the environment. The conception of the genes as the blueprint
and program for the organism therefore abets the program of control as well as identifying
them as the kernel of the biological self.
13. With which of the following statements would Newton agree the most?
(Q. code 102202013)
(1) We can understand the world, even all of nature, by examining smaller and smaller
pieces of it. When these smaller pieces are assembled, it would explain the whole
picture.
(2) Only simple mechanical laws can help us comprehend our human biology.
(3) An unbroken chain of prior occurrences casually determines human cognition,
behavior, decision and action.
(4) Life processes arise from or contain a nonmaterial vital principle and cannot be
explained entirely as a physical or chemical phenomenon.
(5) There is indeed a superior intelligence like god, who is the creator of all the things and
his manifestations can be understood with due diligence.
14. Which of the following statements concur with NeoDarwinism? (Q. code 102202014)
(1) Organisms never change with time, it is only their perception of the environment that
makes them feel the mutations.
(2) As humans know that change is the only constant in this world, so the various
alterations in the DNA sequence are in accordance to the rule.
(3) With time, to better the existing milieu, various permutations and combinations
between the existing DNA sequence lead to the evolution of human species.
(4) Culture and the everchanging human psychology leads to the changes in genetic
programming of humans.
(5) Fields like paleontology, embryology, genetics are posited on random mutation and
natural selection.
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15. Identify how many false statements are there among the following?
(Q. code 102202015)
A. NeoDarwinism assumes that the properties of the genes can be isolated from the
environment in which the organism dwells.
B. All but few mutations are innocuous and lead to the development of new traits in
organisms.
C. Newton's world view is espoused by the evidences from paleontology, embryology,
genetics.
D. According to the vitalists, intuition is the vital impetus to sustaining the growth of
human beings.
(1) Only one (2) Only two
(3) Only three (4) All are false
(5) All are true
Directions for 3 Questions: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
The decision point is whether we will have a much more radically distributed capacity to create
knowledge, information and culture, and participate in the creation of knowledge, information
and culture, or whether we will have a replicated and only slightly different industrial structure
to information and knowledge production. So that late 19th and throughout the 20th century
model, we very much follow an industrial model, relatively highly capitalized in contractual and
hierarchical relationships within firms, be it the big five accounting firms, be it the old IBM, be it
AT&T, be it the Hollywood movie studios, based very much on the sale of information and
culture as goods, with a relatively concentrated industry and a small number of players
controlling a relatively limited set of creators. A very stark separation between producers and
consumers, with consumers conceived as relatively passive and watching culture.
Where we are now, and we already know that we are there, is in a much more permeable and
fluid society and a much more permeable cultural environment where the difference between
producers and consumers is blurred. This category of users has become absolutely central to
everything we do. So when we talk about newspapers, we have to think about the users who
communicate with a commercial organization like TPM, the users who basically get together
and make their own new party presses, like DailyKos or Townhall, like the users who make up
YouTube, like the users who make up Wikipedia. Suddenly you have radically decentralized
practical capacity to act. And what do people do? They act.
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They use chunks of time, particularly chunks of time that they used to spend watching
passively finished goods as entertainment, in an activity that's a social activity and a creative
activity and an expressive activity on a very large scale. This is tilting all of our information,
knowledge and cultural industries something between a quarter and twothirds of the way
around. Because in addition, government will continue to fund some science, some arts, et
cetera. Commercial organizations will continue to do the same thing. Individual selling in
markets will, but also social production now comes in as a major force. And that realigns in
different industries more, in different industries less.
But the decision point is essentially which of these worlds we go. And it's a decision point
we're making through law. The copyright wars are a classic instance of trying to set up the
technology and the legal environment in such a way that you can keep the horse in the barn,
and rent it out for rides, as opposed to having all the horses out. Situations where you get
digital rights management and criminalization of breaking or distributing things that overcome
digital rights management. That's a place where you see law playing catchup against the
technology that doesn't want to be there, or that isn't going there in any particular way.
16. According to the author, what has changed in the user's viewing of entertainment?
(Q. code 102202016)
(1) The passiveness has been destroyed and the users everywhere are participating in
the creation of art.
(2) The interactive use of medium like the Internet has provided users the privilege to
break away from the passiveness and contribute in the development of art.
(3) Internet activities have liberated users and more crosscultural activities allow for the
growth of an allencompassing ideology.
(4) Wherever the problems are, they are being turned on their heads by the use of
medium like Internet.
(5) Users are making decisions that are affecting the sales and production of forms of art.
17. What is meant by the blurring of the difference between consumer and producer?
(Q. code 102202017)
(1) The market has been opened up to allow seamless distribution of ideas.
(2) The works of one person have become the property of everyone.
(3) Intellectual property rights have loopholes that allow for free consumption of otherwise
copyrighted products.
(4) The consumer is the producer now and viceversa.
(5) The producer allows for free as well as closetofree products that delineate the
market factors.
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18. How has community work fared on the business front? (Q. code 102202018)
(1) It has surpassed individual accomplishments and alongwith corporation spending is
the most important way of generating ideas.
(2) Along with corporation spending, community efforts have striven to give better results
as the Government spendings have flown in.
(3) It has become a major factor for growth of the market, stepping alongside government
spendings, corporation business as well as individual efforts.
(4) It has come headtohead with IPR issues and thus has become a bottleneck for the
growth of innovative ideas.
(5) It is brilliant in its approach towards societal inclusiveness, but has lost on the front
that it is unreliable.
Directions for 3 Questions: Each question is a logical sequence of statements with a missing
link, the location of which is shown parenthetically [(....)]. From the five options available,
choose the one that best fits into the sequence.
19. From time to time, we passed solitary women trudging through the water near the
shoreline, pulling nets behind them as they trawled for prawn seed. This practice,
introduced in the past twenty years or so, has disastrously reduced prawn and other fish
populations, and the constant pacing along the fragile shore by the women and children
who drag the nets has contributed to erosion. [........] As many as ten fatal crocodile
attacks are documented each year, and, I was told, too many shark attacks to report. The
most common are by dog sharks, which take a bite of soft tissuea leg or buttockbut do
not kill. "They are considered minor hazards," Dr. Sanyal said, with a sympathetic grimace.
The Sundarbans' occupational hazardscrocodiles, sharks, cobras, kraits, swimming tigers,
and cyclonesmake it one of the most dangerous places in the world.
(Q. code 102202019)
(1) In their flowing saris, the women presented picturesque silhouettes that belied the
danger of their work, up to ten hours a day waist high in the murky water.
(2) No one stops them as the people themselves are forced to do the dirty work to earn a
daily livelihood.
(3) "If the Sundarbans goes under, the tiger episode on earth is over," Kushal said, a
belief shared by many authorities.
(4) In recent years, the tides have become more menacing, as the sea levels have
climbed inexorably.
(5) The hazards notwithstanding, the work has to be accomplished.
20. Walter Benjamin once said that every great work dissolves a genre or founds a new one.
[……..] What if a writer had written several works that rose to Benjamin's high definition,
not all great, perhaps, but so different from one another, so peculiar to their author, and so
inimitable that each founded its own, immediately selfdissolving genre?
(Q. code 102202020)
(1) This is the opportunity that every innovation awaits.
(2) The magnum opus of every artist has to await its saviour.
(3) But is it only masterpieces that have a monopoly on novelty?
(4) But what if the world knew the thing beforehand?
(5) Thus, the opportune moment lies in wait of the artist's signal.
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21. Curbing the excesses of wealth, then, will be a side effect of regulations designed to make
capitalism work better. Such measures will not provide the lyrics to revolutionary anthems,
but they are going to be better than going after the wealthy. [……..] But when you try to
bash them, you usually end up punching yourself in the nose. (Q. code 102202021)
(1) The rich are certainly not the only targets in the current populist backlash.
(2) The market's selfcorrection will not be enough, however.
(3) Indeed, the system is already beginning to correct itself.
(4) The rich are an easy target.
(5) Inequality will decline.
Directions for 4 Questions: In each question, there are five sentences. The sentences need
to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose
the most appropriate option.
22. A. A second feature that we believe must be part of any ultimate theory is Einstein's idea
that the gravitational field is represented by curved spacetime.
B. Particles try to follow the nearest thing to a straight path in a curved space but
because spacetime is not flat, their paths appear to be bent as if by a gravitational
field.
C. When we apply Feynman's sum over histories to Einstein's view of gravity, the
analogue of the history of a particle is now a complete curve spacetime that
represents the history of the whole universe.
D. To avoid the technical difficulties in actually performing the sum over histories, these
curved spacetime must be taken to be Euclidean.
E. That is, time is imaginary, and is indistinguishable from directionspace.
(Q. code 102202022)
(1) BACDE (2) DBECA
(3) BDCAE (4) CAEBD
(5) EDCAB
23. A. Yet, just as the banking system created a market for capital and the insurance
industry created a market for risk, the growth of patent system maybe creating a
market for innovation.
B. As the patent system has matured and licensing has become much more widespread,
these transfers are turning business relationships on their heads.
C. The creation of any market takes time and trouble and when such an institution
develops, those outside the system feel threatened by it and condemn it.
D. Semiconductors, the silicon chips that power digital devices, are typically designed by
specialist firms that are good at engineering but physically produced by other firms
whose expertise lies in manufacturing.
E. Some economists argue that the growth of patent transactions is establishing a proper
"market by technology". (Q. code 102202023)
(1) BADEC (2) CABDE
(3) CEBAD (4) DBECA
(5) BCADE
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24. A. But a study of the tribes of ISAF, the NATOled force in Afghanistan, might be just as
important to win the war.
B. Western soldiers in Afghanistan are by necessity becoming amateur anthropologists.
C. What would it conclude?
D. The Americans, in fact, have even hired a few of the professional sort to help them
understand tribal dynamics in the wild provinces of Afghanistan.
E. The different shades and patterns of fatigues, headwear and eating habits in the
Kabul headquarters suggest complex intermixing.
(Q. code 102202024)
(1) ECBDA (2) ABDCE
(3) BDACE (4) DABCE
(5) EDBCA
25. A. The Whitechapel Anarchist Group, whom we had emailed about interviewing, fail to
answer their phone (too busy preparing to spread mayhem if other press reports are
to be believed, though their blog huffily decries these accounts).
B. Frustrated, we head toward London Bridge where one of the marches is due to start.
C. HBOS and Halifax both sport locked doors, but security guards prevent us from
filming.
D. At 7 am, the City is quiet. Work traffic is light for a weekday, and my camerawielding
colleague and I are keen to get shots of the City prepared for protests, so set off
looking for banks and offices that have shut for the day.
E. Our day of covering the protests starts with a failure. (Q. code 102202025)
(1) EDACB (2) ADBEC
(3) EADCB (4) ECBDA
(5) AEBCD
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Section II
Directions for 2 Questions: For the following questions, five options are given. Choose the
correct option.
26. R is a rectangular floor completely covered with square tiles of identical size. The tiles are
of 2 colours: Red and Blue. The tiles on the edge of the floor are red and those in the
interior are blue. There are twice as many blue tiles as red tiles. What is the number of tiles
on any one of the edges of R? (Q. code 102202026)
(1) 30 (2) 18
(3) 27 (4) 28
(5) More than one of the above values
27. Given: a, b and c are integers such that 4 < a < 6, 6 < b < 15 and 16 < c < 20.
ab + c 2
What can be the largest integral value of b ? (Q. code 102202027)
(1) 40 (2) 36
(3) 71 (4) 41
(5) 70
Directions for 2 Questions: For an integer y, a function f(y) is defined as the sum of (n+1)
terms, as given below, where n is a positive integer greater than 4.
f(y) = |y| + |y + 10| + |y + 20| + .................... + |y + 10(n 1)| + |y + 10n|
28. If n = 8, what is the minimum value of f(y)? (Q. code 102202028)
(1) 260 (2) 250
(3) 220 (4) 210
(5) 200
29. For a given odd value of n, for how many values of y is f(y) = minimum?
(Q. code 102202029)
(1) 11 (2) 15
(3) 08 (4) 16
(5) 14
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Directions for 3 Questions: For the following questions, five options are given. Choose the
correct option.
30. Let a1, a2, …, a7 and N be integers such that a1 + a2 × 10 + a3 × 102+…+ a7 × 106 = N
and a1 × 106 + a2 × 105 +…+ a7 = 3N.
Which of the following can be the sum of digit of N? (Q. code 102202030)
(1) 9 (2) 11
(3) 5 (4) 7
(5) Cannot be determined
31. A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 32, 36 and 40 days respectively. A and B
started the work but after two days, A left the job and C joined B and both of them
continued the job for next 4 days when C left the job. Now A again joined B and they
continued to do the work together but B left the job just 2 days before the actual
completion of the job. In how many days the work was completed?(Note: A and B like
each other, so whenever they work together, B’s efficiency increases by 20%)
(Q. code 102202031)
23 23
15 16
(1) 95 (2) 31
23 23
17 18
(3) 93 (4) 94
1
17
(5) 2
Directions for 2 Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.
In the rectangle ABCD, BD is a diagonal. AE and CF are the shortest possible
distance of the diagonal from the vertices A and C respectively. Areas of triangle
2
33. What is the perimeter of the rectangle ABCD? (Q. code 102202033)
(1)
e
20 7 + 2 j (2)
e
10 7 + 2 j
20 e 7 - 2 j e
10 7 - 2 j
(3) (4)
(5) None of these
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34. Find the length AF (Q. code 102202034)
(1)
e 10 39 j (2)
e 5 39 j
(3)
e 20 39 j (4)
e 10 39 j / 3
(5)
e 15 39 j / 4
Directions: For the following questions, five options are given. Choose the correct option.
log a X
35. The solution to the equation 3 + 3 X log 3 = 2 is given by (Q. code 102202035)
a
log a log 3
(1) 3 (2) -2
2 a
(4) a - log 2 3
- log a
(3) -2
3
(5) None of these
36. The ratio of the marked price to the cost price of a mobile is 5 : 4 .The discount percentage
offered before it was sold and the profit /loss percentage made on it were in the ratio 3 : 4.
Find the profit/loss percentage. (Q. code 102202036)
(1) 14.48% (2) 12.90%
(3) 13.8% (4) 17.65%
(5) Cannot be determined
37. Given that a, b, c are in continued proportion; b, c, d are in continued proportion; and c, d,
e are also in continued proportion. If b : c = 3 : 4 and all the five n umbers are positive
integers, what is the minimum possible value of (a + b + e)? (Q. code 102202037)
(1) 444 (2) 445
(3) 592 (4) 492
(5) Cannot be possible
38. Let a : b = 1 : 2; c : d = 3 : 4; e : f = 3 : 8; g : h = 5 : 7 and i : j = 7 : 8 Given that all ratios
are unequal, then the value of (a + c + e + g + i)/ (b + d + f + h + j) can be between?
(Q. code 102202038)
(1) 0.4 to 0.9 (2) 0.35 to 0.85
(3) 0.375 to 0.875 (4) 0.33 to 0.74
(5) 0.95 to 0.75
39. There are 16 intermediate stations between two junctions A and B .In how many different
ways can a metro train have stoppages at 3 different stations between A and B such that
no two stations are consecutive (including the junctions A and B) ? (Q. code 102202039)
(1) 220 (2) 330
(3) 240 (4) 190
(5) 440
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40. X 1 , X 2 , X 3 , X 4 are real numbers where X 1 and X 2 are the roots of x 2 – kx + 60 = 0 and
X 3 and X 4 are the roots of the equation x 2 – 9x + k = 0, which of the following can be the
value of k? (Q. code 102202040)
(1) 19.4
(2) 14.9
(3) 12
(4) All of the values of (1), (2) and (3)
(5) Any two values of (1), (2) or (3)
41. PQRS is a parallelogram and X is its center. A line AB passes through X such that A and B
lie on the sides PQ and RS. L and M are the midpoints of the sides AQ and BR. Find the
ratio of the areas of quadrilaterals LQRM and PQRS.
(1) ¼ (2) ½
(3) 1/6 (4) 1/8
(5) Cannot be determined
Directions for the Questions 43 and 44: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.
There are three places in Mumbai: Andheri, Bandra and Kurla, not on the same
straight track. Two local trains A and B start simultaneously from Andheri and
Bandra respectively towards Kurla. By the time B reaches Kurla, A is exactly
halfway to Kurla. Immediately after B reaches Kurla, it starts traveling towards
Andheri and it crosses A at a point 33 km from Andheri. The ratio of the speeds of A
and B is 3:5. Assume that the track joining Andheri to Kurla, Bandra to Kurla and
Bandra to Andheri are all straight tracks.
43. If initially, instead of moving towards Kurla, A and B start moving towards each other,
which of the following cannot be a possible distance (in km) from Andheri at which they will
cross each other? (Q. code 102202043)
(1) 4 (2) 9
(3) 24 (4) 36
(5) None of these
2
2
44. If Bandra is twice as far from Andheri as it is from Kurla, and A takes 3 hours to cover
the distance from Andheri to Bandra ,how much time(in hours) would B take to cover the
distance from Kurla to Andheri? (Q. code 102202044)
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(1) 1.92 (2) 0.96
(3) 3.4 (4) 0.75
(5) 1.70
45. What is the value of (666666………n digits) 2 +(88888888………n digits)?
(Q. code 102202045)
(1)
b g
4 / 9 10 2 n - 1
(2)
b g
8 / 9 10 2 n - 1
(3)
b + 1 g
3 / 4 10 2 n
(4)
b + 1 g
4 / 3 10 3 n
(5) None of these
46. S = {19, 30, 41, 52………….657, 668}. Set A is defined as all terms in S, which are co
prime with 60. Find m, where m = number of terms in A. (Q. code 102202046)
(1) 21 (2) 20
(3) 17 (4) 18
(5) 16
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using the statement 1 alone but not by
using the statement 2 alone.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using the statement 2 alone but not by
using the statement 1 alone.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but
not by either of the statements alone.
Mark (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
47. If x and y are singledigit natural numbers, then what is the greatest common divisor of x
and y? (Q. code 102202047)
(1) x is odd and y is even
(2) 15(2x 2 –y 2 ) =7xy
48. Given, x, y and z are natural numbers such that 2x + 5y + 10z = 50. What is the value of
y? (Q. code 102202048)
(1) The value of y is not more than the value of z.
(2) The value of z is two.
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49. Is c an even prime number?(It is known that a,b,c and d are distinct prime numbers)
(Q. code 102202049)
(1) 7a+4b–5c is an odd integer.
(2) 4d+13a+5b–4c is an even integer.
50. Five countries India, Pakistan, New Zealand, Australia and England participated in the
Women’s World Cup2009. They were ranked based on their previous performances.
Australia got a higher rank as compared to England while Pakistan got a higher rank as
compared to New Zealand. New Zealand's rank was lower than the median. Who among
the five got the highest rank?
(Q. code 102202050)
(1) India was the last rank holder.
(2) Pakistan was not among the top two rank holders.
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Section III
Directions for 4 Questions: Read the information given below and answer the questions that
follow. Data given in one question can be used as additional information in all subsequent
questions.
During the CSR initiative week in the company, each of the seven teams decided to
donate some points everyday for the whole working week (Monday to Friday). They
also decided to create some basic rules (companies have rules for everything, most
of them absolutely absurd, but still you have to go about playing "by the rules").
They are as under:
(1) Every Team Lead can donate only 2 or 3 points everyday.
(2) Every Analyst can donate only 1 or 2 points everyday.
(3) All individuals across all projects have to donate everyday.
(4) Out of the five days, on exactly two days, all members of the team must donate
only 2 points each, and these two days (pair) must be different for all teams.
(5) On the other three days, the combination of the contribution of the Team
Lead(s) and Analyst(s) in every team must be different as compared to other
two days.
As a beginning, the Ace project Team decided to use Monday and Tuesday to
implement Rule 4, Ranbaxy project Team decided to use Tuesday and Wednesday
to implement the same. And SeeShaw project Team decided to use Tuesday and
Thursday to implement rule 4.
The week as it went is shown under:
Number of
Teams Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Total Points
members
Ace 10
Ranbaxy 3 32
Day Time 6 8 8
Kanbay 12 7 10 9
Sameera 44
SeeShaw 12 60
LabShow 12 56
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51. If the maximum points that are contributed by the Ace project Team on any day of the
week is 14 on Friday, what is the minimum number of points they collected?
(Q. code 102202051)
(1) 10 (2) 11
(3) 9 (4) 13
(5) 8
52. Find the number of members in the Kanbay project Team? (Q. code 102202052)
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) Option (2) and (3) both are possible
(5) None of the above
53. How much did the Day Time project team collect in the week? (Q. code 102202053)
(1) 40 (2) 46
(3) 32 (4) 36
(5) 42
54. What is the minimum amount that SeeShaw team contributes on any day of the week?
(Q. code 102202054)
(1) 7 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 10
(5) 11
Directions for 4 Questions: Read the information given below and answer the questions that
follow:
There are 4 players: Shalini, Sneha, Rumi, & Ritu.
Seating arrangement: There is a round table in a room and Ritu is sitting facing north.
Shalini is sitting west of Ritu and Sneha is sitting west of Shalini. On the remaining seat
Rumi is sitting.
Dealing rule: Firstly, we have to distribute 1 card to each player starting from Shalini in the
clockwise direction. Then 2 cards to each, then 3 cards to each, then 4 to each and then
again 3 cards to each.
Partner: the person sitting opposite to each other are partners. To determine the "card
value", the players follow the following suit values:
SPADE 4 CLUB 3
DIAMOND 2 HEART 1
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To get the "card value", add the "suit value" with the "face value" of the card, wherein the
face value of King = 13, QUEEN = 12, JACK = 11, and so on till ACE = 1. For example,
the card value of 10 of club is = suit value of club + face value of 10 = 3 + 10 = 13
Passing rule {clockwise direction until otherwise mentioned}:
t The person who has most number of kings {called player number 1} passes the card
that has the highest "card value" to the person sitting next to him {called player
number 2}.
t Player number 2 passes the card with the minimum card value to the person sitting
next to him (called player 3).
t Player number 3 passes the card with maximum card value to the person sitting next
to him (called player 4).
t Player number 4 passes the card which has minimum card value to the person sitting
next to him (player number 1) and the round goes on in similar fashion.
t If Rumi receives the king of spades in any round, the mode of transfer changes from
clockwise to counterclockwise or vice versa thereafter that round.
t If in any round the players get equal number of kings, then the game gets over.
If there are two/more cards with equal "card value" then we pass the card with the highest
face value.
55. After which round, does the game gets over? (Q. code 102202055)
(1) 2nd (2) 3rd
(3) 5th (4) 10th
(5) Never
56. When the game gets over; the partners add the face value of card and if the sum of face
value of spade cards of a team is greater than 50, then that team is the winner of the
game. So which team wins? (Q. code 102202056)
(1) Shalini & Sneha (2) Shalini & Rumi
(3) Sneha & Ritu (4) Sneha & Rumi
(5) This condition is not possible as game never ends.
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58. What is the value of X – Y?
Where, X = Total sum of the card value of all the cards of Sneha after 2nd round
Y = Total sum of the face value of all the cards of Rumi after 3rd round
(Q. code 102202058)
(1) 78 (2) 53
(3) 87 (4) 79
(5) 83
Directions for 4 Questions: Read the information given below and answer the questions that
follow:
There is a Domestic meet of representatives of all the mobile companies present in
New Delhi, India. 5 representatives surnamed Ghosh, Soni, Nambodari, Adawalkar,
and Sarang are attending the Meet. The ratio of Male: Female in the Meet is 3:2. The
representatives hail from 5 different cities viz. Kolkata, Jabalpur, Lucknow,
Kozhikode & Pune. Each representative is from a different company, 4 people are
wearing different accessories, while one is without any. While deciding who is who
following conditions have to be kept in mind
1. Mrs. Ghosh does not like Bracelet or Watch, hails from Kolkata & does not
represent Amsung or Otorola.
2. LEG is represented by Soni.
3. Mokia is represented by a person who is wearing shoes.
4. Blacknberry is represented by a person who is from Pune & is a male.
5. Adawalkar is from Kozhikode and is wearing slippers.
6. Amsung is represented by a female wearing bracelet and with 9 alphabets in her
surname.
59. Who wears the watch? (Q. code 102202059)
(1) Soni (2) Sarang
(3) Either 1 or 2 (4) Person from Otorola
(5) A female
60. The representative of Amsung Company is from which city? (Q. code 102202060)
(1) Jabalpur (2) Lucknow
(3) Kozhikode (4) Kolkata
(5) Cannot be determined
61. Which is the option that gives the correct ordering? (Q. code 102202061)
(1) Shoes Mokia Male
(2) Male Otorola Adawalkar
(3) Jabalpur Soni Female
(4) Sarang Pune Blacknberry Female
(5) Bracelet Amsung Female Adawalkar
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62. If Sarang wears the watch & the person from Lucknow is a female, then the person who is
not with any accessory is from which city? (Q. code 102202062)
(1) Lucknow (2) Jabalpur
(3) Either 1 or 2 (4) Pune
(5) Cannot be determined
Directions for 4 Questions: Read the information given below and answer the questions that
follow:
The top four consultancy firms in the world have their business spread across a very
diverse field. But this entails certain recurrent expenditure which is common to all of them.
This is usually handled by the Facility and Services Department (F&S) of that company.
The common expenditure by the F&S is:
(1) Expenditure on electricity units consumed.
(2) Expenses on the telephones and other communication devices used.
(3) Expenses entailed on subsidies given on food to employees.
(4) Other Generic expenditure.
The table under, gives us an idea of this:
For Questions 63 and 64, the questions need to be answered keeping the following
specifications in mind:
In both the questions, some conditions A, B ... etc. are provided.
Mark (1) if there is no solution possible even after using all possible combinations
of the conditions.
Mark (2) if there is only one possible solution using all possible combinations of the
conditions.
Mark (3) if there are only two possible solutions using all possible combinations of
the conditions.
Mark (4) if there are only three possible solutions using all possible combinations of
the conditions.
Mark (5) if there are more than three possible solutions using all possible
combinations of the conditions.
63. Among the four companies which company spends more on power?
(Q. code 102202063)
A. The total F&S expenditure of PD is greater than expenditure of each company taken
separately.
B. F&S expenditure of PD is larger than that of AT by 20%.
C. F&S expenditure of EY is larger than that of AT by 35%.
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64. Among the following which company has the minimum F&S expenditure?
(Q. code 102202064)
A. The expenditure on Subsidies by AT and that of DT on power consumption is the
same.
B. F&S expenditure of PD is greater than that of AT by 20%.
C. F&S expenditure of DT on other expenses is less than that of EY.
D. F&S expenditure of DT on Subsidies is smaller than that of EY by 25%.
65. If the weighted F&S expenses of EY, PD, DT and AT is in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4, then what
is the ratio of their expenses on Communication? (Q. code 102202065)
(1) 2 : 5 : 3 : 4 (2) 4 : 3 : 6 : 3
(3) 2 : 3 : 9 : 6 (4) 3 : 7 : 16 : 19
(5) 1 : 3 : 9 : 27
66. How many (minimum) of the following conditions will be sufficient to find out the exact
order of expenditure on F&S by the companies? (Q. code 102202066)
A. The expenditure on Subsidies by AT and that of DT on power consumption is the
same.
B. F&S expenditure of PD is greater than that of AT by 20%.
C. F&S expenditure of DT on other expenses is less than that of EY.
D. F&S expenditure of DT on Subsidies is smaller than that of EY by 33.5%.
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) All
(5) The questions cannot be answered even by using all the 4 statements.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using the statement 1 alone but not by
using the statement 2 alone.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using the statement 2 alone but not by
using the statement 1 alone.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but
not by either of the statements alone.
Mark (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
67. I purchased an article for Rs C, marked it at Rs M and sold it at Rs S, which is more than
C. Is the profit more than the discount? (Q. code 102202067)
(1) C,S,M are in AP (2) C,S,M are in GP
68. a, b, c and d are the only four factors of a number such that a<b<c<d. What is the nature
of all the four numbers (even or odd)? (Q. code 102202068)
(1) (b + a) is prime (2) (b + c ) is prime
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69. In a bag there are 26 balls of three colors such that the two colors that have the greatest
and the second most number of balls differ only by 1, what is the minimum number of balls
that when selected from the bag gives us at least 6 balls of one kind?
(Q. code 102202069)
(1) The bag contains 5 Red balls
(2) The bag contains 12 Green balls
70. Does y lie between 1 and 2? (Q. code 102202070)
(1) y 2 is greater than y and less than 2y.
(2) y 2 is greater than 1 and less than 4.
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Directions for 5 Questions: Read the information given below and answer the questions that
follow:
A new electric machine is invented by the great scientists of CHINDIA. In this electric
machine there is an electric source called as EBAT. There is a wire system connecting all
the electrical equipments Bulb, Tube, Fan, CFL, AC, Cooler, Heater, Iron, VCR and TV,
in which current flows. This wire system works on a new methodology in which all the
equipments consume the current according to their respective requirements and pass the
rest of the current to other equipments.
Iron
450
AC 300
450 Bulb Co
ol
er
Fan TV
150
Tube
300
750
EBAT
1200
450
750
He at er
CFL VCR
900
The value given in the area of any electrical equipment represents the requirement of
current (in amperes) by that equipment. For example, Tube requires 750 amperes of
current to work.
N1: The connecting wires are represented by arrows in the figure and current can flow only
in the directions shown by the arrows.
N2: The slack (in the table) of any wire is the extra current that can flow through it to bring
the wire to its maximum capacity.
N3: The requirements of all the equipments are exactly met.
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Except the wire connecting EBAT and the Bulb, the maximum capacity of every other wire
is 1500 amperes.
The slack and current flow details in some of the wires are given in the table below as a
percentage of maximum capacity that can flow in the respective wire.
(Example: BulbTube represents the connecting wire between equipments Bulb and Tube)
71. What is the slack of the wire connecting the Bulb and the Heater?
(Q. code 102202071)
(1) 300 amperes (2) 450 amperes
(3) 600 amperes (4) 750 amperes
(5) Cannot be determined
72. If the slack of a wire that connects EBAT to the Bulb is 600 amperes, then what is the
capacity of this wire? (assume that it is the only wire that connects EBAT to the Bulb)
(Q. code 102202072)
(1) 5400 ampere (2) 6300 amperes
(3) 6900 amperes (4) 6600 amperes
(5) 4200 amperes
73. What is the difference between the slacks of the wire connecting the Bulb and the Heater
and the wire connecting the Cooler and the VCR? (Q. code 102202073)
(1) 1050 amperes (2) 900 amperes
(3) 600 amperes (4) 450 amperes
(5) Cannot be determined
74. If the current flow in the wire connecting the VCR and the TV is 450 amperes, then what is
the slack of the wire connecting the Bulb and the AC? (Q. code 102202074)
(1) 450 amperes (2) 350 amperes
(3) 1050 amperes (4) 900 amperes
(5) 550 amperes
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75. What is the flow of current in the wire connecting the Fan and the Heater?
(Q. code 102202075)
(1) 150 amperes (2) 600 amperes
(3) 1050 amperes (4) 450 amperes
(5) Cannot be determined
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