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Test - 2 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014

TEST - 2 (Paper-I)

ANSWERS
PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

MATHEMATICS

1.

(1)

31.

(1)

61.

(4)

2.

(4)

32.

(4)

62.

(2)

3.

(2)

33.

(2)

63.

(2)

4.

(2)

34.

(2)

64.

(2)

5.

(2)

35.

(2)

65.

(3)

6.

(1)

36.

(2)

66.

(1)

7.

(1)

37.

(3)

67.

(Deleted)

8.

(3)

38.

(4)

68.

(Deleted)

9.

(2)

39.

(2)

69.

(1)

10.

(1)

40.

(1)

70.

(3)

11.

(2)

41.

(2)

71.

(1)

12.

(2)

42.

(1)

72.

(2)

13.

(2)

43.

(2)

73.

(3)

14.

(3)

44.

(4)

74.

(1)

15.

(1)

45.

(4)

75.

(4)

16.

(3)

46.

(3)

76.

(4)

17.

(4)

47.

(1)

77.

(2)

18.

(2)

48.

(3)

78.

(3)

19.

(3)

49.

(3)

79.

(4)

20.

(1)

50.

(2)

80.

(2)

21.

(3)

51.

(1)

81.

(2)

22.

(1)

52.

(2)

82.

(2)

23.

(3)

53.

(1)

83.

(1)

24.

(1)

54.

(4)

84.

(3)

25.

(2)

55.

(3)

85.

(1)

26.

(3)

56.

(2)

86.

(4)

27.

(4)

57.

(3)

87.

(3)

28.

(4)

58.

(3)

88.

(4)

29.

(2)

59.

(1)

89.

(4)

30.

(1)

60.

(3)

90.

(3)

1/12

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Test - 2 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints)

PART - A (PHYSICS)
1.

4.

Answer (1)

Answer (2)

3mg

T
2 m/s2

20

2 kg

mg
3 kg

(T = 0)

2 m/s

2mg
m

30
a=2

2mg

m/s2

kx = mg

mg

T = 24 N

kx = mg
m

In 2 seconds, block of 3 kg mass will move down by


4 m and block of mass 2 kg will move up by 4 m.
On 2 kg block

On 3 kg block

On system

Wmg = 80 J

Wmg = 120 J

Wmg = 40 J

WT = 96 J

WT = 96 J

WT = 0

Wnet = 16 J

Wnet = 24 J

So, just after cutting the string.


B (m )
a = 2g

Pulley is ideal (massless), so net force on it is


zero.
2.

mg
When string is cut, spring force will not change
immediately.

2mg

5.

Answer (4)

10 m/s

2 kg

Work done by kinetic friction on a system is always


negative.
3.

Answer (2)
30

40 m

Answer (2)

a = g sin

N
m

v = 25 m/s

mg cos

mg sin

Using work-energy theorem,

mg

Wmg + Wair-resistance = K

N = mg cos

800 J + Wair-resistance =

a = g sin (down the incline)

Wair-resistance = 275 J

g sin cos

6.

1
2[625 100]
2

Answer (1)
At t = 5 s,
v

g sin

g sin2

So, (mg N cos = mg sin2)

N sin
N
m
mg

2/12

2 kg
A

F = 10 N

3 kg
20/3 m

w.r.t. A,

20/3 m
2 kg

3 kg
a = 10 m/s2
3
(u = 0)

Test - 2 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014


10. Answer (1)

1 2
at
2

( )

20 1 10 2

t
3
2 3
t=2s

7.

2m

4 m/s2
f=8N
2 kg
2T
3 kg

T
T

11. Answer (2)

8 m/s2

anet

M
mg

At the time of slipping, friction would be maximum.


So, 2T = 5 4 = 20
T = 10 N

at (tangential)
a net is resultant of centripetal and tangential
acceleration.

At origin,

M 2 = 10

U=0

M = 5 kg

K=0

Answer (3)

So, total mechanical energy = zero.

By conservation of mechanical energy, speed of


block at highest point of track is same.

At x = 1, U = 3 and K + U = 0

In first case at highest point,

k=3J
13. Answer (2)

mv 2
N1
mg
1

ac

In second case,
N2

3m

mv 2
mg
2

1 < 2
9.

ac (centripetal)

12. Answer (2)

Now, mg T = M 8

8.

S
Force acting on each block is in the ratio of
masses. No slipping tendency. So, no frictional force
will act.

Answer (1)

( = 0.4)
f=8N

F/2
F

N1 > N2

Answer (2)

acommon =

F
4m

FBD of m w.r.t. 3m,

N
5 kg

N = ma

150 N

50
N = 150 N
fL = N
= 60 N

fmax = ma

fP = ma

For no slipping,
fmax mg

mg

ma mg
a 2g

fL > weight equilibrium

amin = 2g

So, frictional force would be 50 N.

Fmin = 8mg

3/12

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14. Answer (3)

Test - 2 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints)


17. Answer (4)

TA = ?

4 m, 4 kg
A

2 kg

18 N

x3 5 2
x 6x 5
3 2

dU
( x 2 5 x 6) 0
dx

3m
a

x = 2, 3

18
3 m/s 2
6

a
T

3 kg

Positions of equilibrium

3 kg

18 N

d 2U

3 m/s2
3 kg

dU
x2 5x 6
dx
dx 2

d 2U
dx 2

So, T = 9 N
15. Answer (1)
When spring is in natural length normal reaction is
50 N.

T = 20
N

N
5 kg

d 2U
dx 2

Position of unstable equilibrium


1;
x2

x 3

Position of stable equilibrium

18. Answer (2)


y

uy = 30

50
kx = 20

2 kg

2 kg
20

vmax

T + N = 50
N = 50 T
= 30 N

s
m/
50

40
10 N
x

At t = 1 s,

F 10( j )

v 40i 20 j

P F v 200 J/s
19. Answer (3)

and when spring is maximum elongated,


T = 40 N

KE = 2t2

1
mv 2 2t 2
2
v = 2t

So, N = 10 N
16. Answer (3)

mgh mgs

20
t=1

37
(t = 0)
ux = 40

mean position

When 2 kg will have maximum velocity, i.e., at


mean position.

1 2
kx
2 max

200 100

4/12

1;
x2
x 2

5 kg

50

2x 5

1
2
(100) xmax
2

xmax 2 m

(m = 1 kg)

at = 2 m/s2

ac

t 2

v 2 16

2 m/s2
R
8

Power delivered by centripetal force is zero.



(F v 0)

Test - 2 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014

Power delivered by tangential force at t = 2 s

23. Answer (3)

= (mat)v

=24=8W

1 cos

20. Answer (1)

1 sin

1
f

F (N)
10

t (s)

As shown in figure, unit vector in the direction of


friction is sin i cos j .
24. Answer (1)

Area under F-t graph,

20 P

20 Pf Pi

5 kg
10 = kx

kx = 10

k = 100 N/m

v = 10 m/s

Compression x = 0.1 m

1
Wnet = 2 100 0
2

Wnet
t

kx = 10 N
In equilibrium,
T + 20 cos 37 = 50

= 100 J
100
25 W
4

T = 34 N
25. Answer (2)

21. Answer (3)

10 kg

p2
2m

p 2mk

F = 35 N

( s = 0.4,
k = 0.3)
As block starts sliding, friction would be kinetic.
5
0.5 m/s2 .
So, acceleration a
10
26. Answer (3)
Explanation : In absence of pushing force, block
cannot move with constant velocity as frictional force
will retard it.
fk = 30 N

loge p
Y

37 37

50

2v = 20

Pav

1
(loge 2m loge k )
2

1
(constant x )
2

So, slope =

1
2

22. Answer (1)

27. Answer (4)

Impulse = Change in momentum


I = m(3u (u))

Frictional force will not be directed towards the


centre because one component of friction will
provide tangential acceleration.
Centripetal force is always required to revolve in a circle.

I = 4mu
W = K =

A net force is always required to change state of a


body.

1
m(9u2 u2)
2

28. Answer (4)


KE depends upon frame of reference, so for different
observers it may be different.

W = 4mu2

29. Answer (2)

W = Iu

30. Answer (1)

5/12

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Test - 2 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints)

PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
31. Answer (1)
Second ionisation potential of O is higher than that
of F and N because of its stable electronic
configuration.

Volume of O2 =
=

32. Answer (4)


Cs+ ion is least hydrated in aqueous medium due to
its lowest charge density among alkali metal ions.
33. Answer (2)

Period number = principal quantum number of the


outermost shell = 4
34. Answer (2)
As the size of halogen atom increases, bond angle
of PX3 increases.
35. Answer (2)

O
Structure of SO42 ion is

2 0.0821 310
32 1

Volume of CO2 =
=

nCO RT
2

8 0.0821 310
44 1

= 4.62 L
38. Answer (4)
Ionisation potential of an element is high if its atomic
size is small and/or it has stable electronic
configuration.
39. Answer (2)
The maximum difference in ionisation potential
values occurs between IE3 and IE4. Therefore, the
element belongs to group 13 whose general
electronic configuration is ns2np1.
40. Answer (1)

O
cal

Bond order of S O bond is 1.5.

= 1.59 L

Electronic configuration of X (atomic number = 34) is


1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p4
Group number = 10 + number of valence electrons
= 10 + 6 = 16

nO RT

1.6 1019 92 10 12
3.33 10 30

4.42 D; obs 1.98 D

36. Answer (2)


3O2 (g) 2O3 (g)

Vol. (L)

1.8

1.8 x

2
x
3

Volume of the mixture = 1.8 x

More electronegative elements occupy the axial


position in trigonal bipyramid structure. Therefore, F
and Cl occupy axial positions.

2
x 1.6
3

42. Answer (1)


Number of moles of N2 in container 'A' =

2
0.6 0.4 L
3

Mole fraction of O3 =

0.4
0.25
1.6

37. Answer (3)


0.1 L blood has 0.02 g O2 and 0.08 g CO2
10 L blood has 2 g O2 and 8 g CO2

6/12

1.98 100
= 44.8%
4.42

41. Answer (2)

x = 0.6
Volume of O3 =

Percentage of ionic character =

4.2
= 0.15
28

Let number of moles of N2 in container 'B' be x.


Partial pressure of N2 in container 'A' and 'B' must
be equal.

(0.15 x)RT2

xRT2
4

x 0.12

Mass of N2 in container 'B' = 3.36 g

Test - 2 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints)


Entire mass of I2 sublimes in container 'A' and is
collected in container 'B'.

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014


0.75 V = (n1 + n2)R 300
8.25 V = (2n1 + 3n2)R 1200

Total mass of N2 and I2 in container 'B'

n2 3
8.25 (2n1 3n2 )n

0.75
n1 n2
n1 1

= 3.36 + 1.27 = 4.63 g


43. Answer (2)
E1, Total KE of N2 =
E2, Total KE of Ar =

E1
E2

T1
T2

3RT1
2

3RT2

40 5

28 1

2
T1

T2

Percentage of N2H4 in the mixture =

28

40

7
2

49. Answer (3)


The hybridisation state of Cl in ClO3 is sp3. The
P-atom of PO43 also has sp3 hybridisation.
50. Answer (2)
Electronic configurations of the given species are

44. Answer (4)


2NO O2

Moles

3 100
= 75%
4

0.75

3 1.50
= 1.50

2NO2

1.50

Initial moles = 3 + 0.75 = 3.75


Final moles = 1.50 + 1.50 = 3.00
Change in pressure =
=

2 p 2
x
C2 : 1s 2 * 1s 2 2s 2 * 2s 2

2 p 2
y
Diamagnetic (Bond order = 2)

2 p2
x
1
NO : 1s 2 *1s 2 2s 2 *2s 2 2 pz2
*2 px
2 p2
y

nRT
V
0.75 0.082 300
9

Paramagnetic (Bond order = 2.5)


2 p2 *2 p1
x
x
O2 : 1s 2 *1s 2 2s 2 *2s 2 2 pz2

2 p2 *2 p1
y
y

= 2.05 atm

Paramagnetic (Bond order = 2)

45. Answer (4)


Elements of 4d and 5d transition series belonging to
the same group from 4th group onwards have nearly
same atomic radii due to lanthanoid contraction.
46. Answer (3)
Electronic configuration of Al is 1s22s22p63s23px1
Shielding constant () for the outermost electron
= 0.35 2 + 0.85 8 + 1 2 = 9.5
Zeff = Z = 13 9.5 = 3.5
47. Answer (1)
Fact
48. Answer (3)
Let the number of moles of NH3 and N2H4 be n1 and
n2 respectively.
2NH3

N2 3H2

N2H4

N2 2H2

Total number of moles after complete decomposition


= 2n1 + 3n2

N2

2 p 2
x
2
: 1s * 1s 2s * 2s
2 pz
2 p2
y
2

Diamagnetic (Bond order = 3)


NO+ becomes diamagnetic and has bond order = 3.0.
51. Answer (1)
Number of moles of N2 =

720 0.25
0.6

760 R 300 760 R

Number of moles of O2 =

776 0.30
0.8

760 R 291 760 R

Total number of moles of N2 and O2 =


=
Pressure of N2 and O2 =

0.6 0.8
760 R
1.4
760 R

1.4 R 310
atm = 868 torr
760R 0.5

Total pressure = 868 + 42 = 910 torr

7/12

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52. Answer (2)
Z

Test - 2 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints)


54. Answer (4)
Intramolecular H-bond is present in all the given
options.

PV
800 1
; 1.90
nRT
nR 330
1.10

H
O

200 V
nR 570

Cl

Cl

Cl C CH

On solving,

O
O

O
H

1.10 200 V 330

1.90
800 570

O
O
H

55. Answer (3)


Bond angle of NF3 is lower than that of NH3 because
F is more electronegative than N, whereas N is
more electronegative than H. PH3 has lower bond
angle than PF3 due to back bonding in PF3.

V=4L
53. Answer (1)
Methoxy group at the p-position is electron releasing
group due to +R effect and hence enhances the
dipole moment of nitrobenzene to a large extent.
Methyl group releases electron density due to +I
and hyperconjugation. Cl and NO2 are electron with
drawing groups and hence decrease the dipole
moment.

56. Answer (2)


57. Answer (3)
58. Answer (3)
59. Answer (1)
60. Answer (3)

PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
61. Answer (4)
A B = {b, d}

63. Answer (2)


Number of relation from A to B is

A B = {a, b, c, d, e, f}

2mn = 255 = 225

Elements b and d are must in set C, elements a, c,


e and f may or may not be present.

A = {2, 1, 0, 1, 2},

n(A) = 5

Total number of set C possible is 24.

B = {1, 0, 1, 2, 3},

n(B) = 5

62. Answer (2)

64. Answer (2)

cos[ 4]x = cos(97x)


cos[ 4]x = cos(98x)
sin[ 3]x

= sin(31x)

sin[ 3]x = sin(30x)


3
Now, cos (97) 0
2
3

cos 98 1

sin 31
1
2

sin 30 0

8/12

S
B

Q
P

Let a be the length of each side of equilateral


1
ABC. Then, r be the radius of the incircle = AP
3
(the altitude, median and the angle bisector of angle
A).
2

a
1 2 a
a

3
4
2 3

Test - 2 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014

Area of square
=
Area of equilateral triangle

2r

Similarly,

3 2
a
4
2

a
43
3 2
a
4

2
=

=
=

1
3 6
2

3 3

b
c
tan B,
tan C
Y
Z

a b c
= tan A + tan B + tan C
x y z
= tan A tan B tan C

abc
xyz

=
67. Deleted
68. Deleted
69. Answer (1)

65. Answer (3)

A
3

3
B

1
2 3
sin A c b
Area of ARQ =
5 5
2
6

=
25
Similarly, area of BRP = Area of CPQ

25

cF

In a ACF,

D
a

ADE = B
From ABD,
AD = c sin B
BD = c cos B
Area of ABD =

1 2
2
Area of BDE = c cos B sin 2B
4
70. Answer (3)

Eb

Let be the smallest angle, then 2 is largest. So,


from the triangle
sin sin 2

a 1
a1

a1
2 cos
a 1

b cos A
X
X = 2R cos A

Also, cos =

a
tan A
X

ED = c sin B cos B

1 2
2
Area of ADE = c sin B sin 2B
4

In AHF,

So,

1 2
c sin B cos B
2

AF = b cos A

sin B

H
B

c
=
sin 2B
4
AE = AD sin B AE = c sin B sin B

6
Area of PQR = 3

25
Area of PQR
18
7
1

Area of ABC
25 25
66. Answer (1)
A

(a 1) a (a 1)
2a(a 1)

a 4a
2(a 1)a

a 1 a 4

a5
a 1 a 1

9/12

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71. Answer (1)
r r2 = r3 r1

s s b s c sa

b
c a

s(s b) (s c )(s a)

(s a)(s c ) a c

s(s b )
b

B ac
tan

2
b

Test - 2 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints)


74. Answer (1)

AB

A B
A

(A B) (A B)
A

75. Answer (4)


2

Arc(AB) = 3
Arc(AC) = 4

B
,
But,
2 6 4

tan

1 ac
B 1

1
, 1 =
3
b
2 3

b < 3a 3c < 3b
b + 3c < 3a < 3b + 3c

Now, 3 + 4 + 5 = 2r

f(0) = 3

1 2
3
4
5
r sin sin sin
r
r
r
2

1 36

2
5
sin
sin sin

2
2
2
3
6

18
3 1
1

2
2
2

9 3(1 3 )

f(f(f(f(0)))) = f(5) = 3
A = f(2) + f(3) = 2

76. Answer (4)

f(f(0)) = f(3) = 3 2 = 1
f(f(f(0))) = f(1) = 2(1) + 3 = 5

r 6

f(f(3)) = f(3) = 3 + 2 = 1
f(2) = 0

ABC = OAC + OAB + OBC

f(| f(6) |) = f(4) = 4 2 = 2


f(5) = 5 + 2 = 3

3
4
5
r 3 ; ;
r
r
r

f(3) = 3 + 2 = 1
f(6) = 6 + 2 = 4

Arc(BC) = 5

72. Answer (2)


f(2) = 2(2) + 3 = 1

2
1
1
2

2 sin x

/2

B = f(| f(6) |) = 2
7/6

C = f(f(5)) + f(2) = 1
D = f(f(f(f(0)))) = 3
73. Answer (3)
Only option (3) satisfy the condition of a function.

10/12

1
2

/2 5/6

Range = {2, 1, 0, 1}

11/6
2

Test - 2 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014


81. Answer (2)

77. Answer (2)


r1, r2, r3 are in H.P.

a, b, c are in A.P.

c = 16 a

2A

s(s a)(s b )(s c ) 24

a = 6, 10
a = 10 (largest side)

P1Q1
SD

78. Answer (3)


D60 = {1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 12, 15, 30, 60}
f(2, 15, 30) = (2 + 15)(15 + 30)

sin 2 A

So, we have
P1Q1
SD

60

30
= (30)
15

Q1

P1

P2Q2
SE

P3Q3
SF

= sin 2A + sin 2B + sin 2C


= 4 sin A sin B sin C

= (30)(4 + 30)

2
R

= (30)(60)

82. Answer (2)

= GCD(30, 60)

= 30

A
A
DI = r cosec x cosec
2
2

79. Answer (4)

/6
D x

= 2r 2x

Given,
2f(x 3) + f(2 x) = x 2

...(i)

r + x = 2(r x)

...(ii)

3x r

Put, x 3 = t in (i)
2f(t) + f(t 1) = (t + 3)2
Now, put t 1 = u

I
r 1

3 3

83. Answer (1)

2f(1 u) + f(u) = (u + 2)2

...(iii)

i.e., 2f(1 t) + f(t) = (2 t)2

...(iv)

[sin{3x 2}] = [sin(fractional part)]


= [fractional value]

Solving (ii) and (iv) for f(t), we have

=0

t
16t 14
f (t )

3
3
3

84. Answer (3)


The given function can be graphically, represented
as

80. Answer (2)

y = |x|
y=3
4

/4
B

(BD DC ) cot
= DC cot B BD cot C
4

2 = | cot B cot C |

y = 1 |x|
3
Range is , .
4

11/12

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Test - 2 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints)


3x 5 1

85. Answer (1)


Slope AG =

b
2a

3b
2a
So, tan 30 =
2
b
1 2
a

where,

a2

b2

0, b
2

x2

=9

G
30

a, 0
2

x {4, 5, 6, ......}
88. Answer (4)
5
8

2 sin B
3

1
a b
9
ab

3
2
3 3
3 3

16
15
sin B > 1
sin B

86. Answer (4)

Not possible

Maximum value of is when a = b = c.

and s =

3 2
a
4
3a
2

7
2

x N and x

A
(a, 0)

2(a b )
2

3ab
2

6
3

(0, b)

89. Answer (4)


R A A and R is not a relation in A.
90. Answer (3)

2
3 2s 2
s


3 3
4 3

B
6

4
1

87. Answer (3)

25

For 3x5Cx+2 to defined


3x 5 x + 2

n(A B C) = 35

2x 7

Statement 2 is false.

7
x
2

n(A B C) = 60 (4 + 1 + 10)
= 60 (15)

x+2N

= 45

xN

12/12

10