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Welcome to the class of Yusupha Jammeh

November
20, 2014

Preview Exam

Exam Bank: Aries


Hardware v.11

Exam: Aries

Hardware v.11: Unit 1 # Question : 40


Exam

1 Which of the following is the basic purpose of a computer?


entertainment
processing raw data into useful information
communicating across the globe
academic research
Objective: N/A
2 Choose the list containing a computer's most fundamental operational
components that work together to complete tasks.
system unit, input devices, output devices
keyboard, mouse, monitor
system unit, RAM, mouse
keyboard, monitor, RAM
Objective: N/A
3 Which computer component processes and stores data and controls all
computer functions?
keyboard
monitor
printer
system unit
Objective: N/A
4 The computer's "brain," responsible for analyzing and processing
information and instructions, is the __________.
RAM
system unit
major peripheral device
CPU
Objective: N/A
5 The computer's "short term memory," responsible for remembering
and holding program instructions until they can be processed, is the
__________.

RAM
system unit
major peripheral device
CPU
Objective: N/A
6 Any hardware device connected to and used with a computer is called
a(n) ________ device.
augmentation
output
input
peripheral
Objective: N/A
7 Which of the following is NOT an input device?
analog monitor
optical mouse
capacitive keyboard
scanner
Objective: N/A
8 In terms of operation, the CPU is considered to be part of a computer's
_________.
input devices
output devices
system unit
None of the answers
Objective: N/A
9 A ________ is an input device that reads printed information or
pictures and translates them into digital data the computer can
understand.
scanner
printer
hard drive
floppy drive
Objective: N/A
10 Which peripheral device converts digital data to analog signals and
analog signals to digital data?
Hard drive
Modem
Floppy drive
Speakers

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12

13

14

15

16

17

Objective: N/A
A computer is "programmable" because it can ________________.
receive and process data
calculate mathematical equations
process and output data
follow instructions
Objective: N/A
The earliest electric computers depended on which technology?
microprocessors
integrated circuits
vacuum tubes
transistors
Objective: N/A
Which technology replaced vacuum tubes, making computers faster,
cheaper, more powerful and less heat-producing?
microprocessors
resistors
integrated circuits
transistors
Objective: N/A
The most recent technological advance making today's computers the
fastest and most powerful yet is the _____________.
transistor
microprocessor
integrated circuit
vacuum tube
Objective: N/A
Which of the following statements is true?
Binary is a number system based on three numbers: 0, 1, and 2
Binary is a number system based on two numbers: 1 and 10
Binary is a number system based on two numbers: 1 and 2
Binary is a number system based on two numbers: 1 and 0
Objective: N/A
Which of the following numbers means "electricity off" in binary
code?
10
1
2
0
Objective: N/A
Which of the following numbers means "electricity on" in binary
code?

18

19

20

21

22

23

10
2
0
1
Objective: N/A
Which of the following statements is true?
Eight bits equal one byte
Eight bytes equal one bit
Ten bytes equal one bit
Ten bits equal one byte
Objective: N/A
Which of the following is smallest?
megabyte
terabyte
kilobyte
gigabyte
Objective: N/A
Translating binary numbers into decimal numbers requires knowing
the binary digits' positions and _____________.
the hexadecimal number system
square roots
the power of 2
the octal number system
Objective: N/A
Convert the following binary number to its decimal equivalent:
00101001
14
114
141
41
Objective: N/A
Which term best describes the flow of electrons through a circuit?
conductivity
protons
electricity
neutrons
Objective: N/A
Material treated to slow the progression of electricity through a circuit
without completely inhibiting the electricity is called a(n)
__________________________.
conductor

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25

26

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28

non-conductor
insulator
semiconductor
Objective: N/A
Which of the following is NOT an example of dynamic electricity?
power running to the washing machine
energy required to power light bulbs
electric generator's power
shock when you touch a door knob after crossing a carpeted floor
Objective: N/A
Which measure indicates how much electricity is flowing through a
circuit?
Amperes
Volts
Ohms
Watts
Objective: N/A
Which measure is determined by measuring the difference in electrical
pressure between two points?
Amperes
Ohms
Watts
Volts
Objective: N/A
Which measure is the circuit's resistance to the flow of electricity?
Ampere
Ohms
Volts
Watts
Objective: N/A
Choose the correct statement.
The graphic shows a capacitor used in power supplies and timing
circuits.
The graphic shows a resistor with a specified resistance value.
The graphic shows an integrated circuit chip constructed of semi
conductive material.
The graphic shows an integrated circuit chip constructed of
semiconductive material.
Objective: N/A

29 What is the purpose of a capacitor?


enhancing electrical charges
storing electrical charges
None of the answers
restricting electrical charges
Objective: N/A
30 Which of the following is/are valid safety rules regarding electricity?
Never stand on a damp or wet floor where sources of electricity
could touch the floor
All of the answers
Avoid using old or corroded wires
Never stand on a damp or wet floor where wires are exposed
Objective: N/A
31 Which code is used to match patterns of 1s and 0s with characters so
that computers can "understand" and record keyboard characters.
RAM
ASCII
CPU
RAMDAC
QWERTY
Objective: N/A
32 Which device is measured in ohms?
resistor
None of the answers
capacitor
CPU
Objective: N/A
33 What does the abbreviation RAM stand for?
Random Access Matrix
Resistance Active Memory
Random Area Memory
Random Access Memory
Objective: N/A
34 Which device is composed of millions of transistors?
vacuum tube

35

36

37

38

39

40

microprocessor
integrated circuit
None of the answers
Objective: N/A
Dealing only in 1s and 0s, computers rely on the _______ system.
Hexadecimal
Octal
Binary
Decimal
Objective: N/A
Convert the decimal number 31 to binary.
100000
10011001
00011111
11101101
Objective: N/A
Which analogy best describes the binary system?
changing the TV's brightness
turning the TV volume up and down
changing the TV channel
turning the TV on and off
Objective: N/A
What type of current does a computer use? This type of current can be
stored in a battery.
RC
BC
AC
DC
Objective: N/A
Wattage is equal to ____________.
Voltage x Resistance
Voltage / Resistance
Current x Resistance
Voltage x Current
Voltage / Current
Objective: N/A
What is the purpose of a resistor?
generating the flow of electricity
storing electrical charges
controlling the flow of electricity

resisting illegal attempts to alter data


Objective: N/A

Copyright 1990-2014 Aries Technology, Inc. All Rights Reserved.

Welcome to the class of Yusupha Jammeh

November
20, 2014

Preview Exam

Exam Bank: Aries


Hardware v.11

Exam: Aries

Hardware v.11: Unit 2 # Question : 45


Exam

1 A computer's power supply converts ___________ current to


____________ current.
alternating, indirect
alternating, direct
indirect, alternate
direct, alternating
Objective: N/A
2 In general, the 3.3V and 5V DC currents supplied by the computer's
power supply are used to power ____________.
the monitor
circuitry such as the motherboard, memory, and CPU
various fans and system motors
the printer
Objective: N/A
3 The purpose of a power supplys fan is to _______________.
AC/CD converters
none of the answers
maintain a constant, correct temperature, and keep dust off computer

components
keep dust off computer components
maintain a constant, correct temperature
Objective: N/A
4 Choose the letter sequence that correctly identifies the labeled power
supply components in this order: voltage switch, power on/off switch,
power cord socket, power supply leads

A, C, B, D
A, B, C, D
D, B, C, A
B, A, C, D
Objective: N/A
5 The arrow in the graphic is pointing to a power supply's
___________.

small drive connector


None of the answers
large drive connector
motherboard connector
Objective: N/A
6 The term "_______" indicates the dimensions and types of features
and design. This applies to a computer's power supply, case, and
motherboard.
design type
form factor
size setup
component setup
Objective: N/A
7 The graphic depicts a power supply's ___________.

small and large drive connectors

small drive connectors only


large drive connectors only
None of the answers
Objective: N/A
8 The following graphic depicts ___________.

None of the answers


floppy drive connectors
SATA drive connectors
jumper connectors
Objective: N/A
9 What is the term that describes one material carrying an electrostatic
charge and transferring that charge to another material?

Electrostatic discharge
None of the answers
Electrostatic interference
Transference charge
Objective: N/A
10 When the rocker-type power on/off switch on the back of the
computer is off, which of the following is true?
Only DC power is getting to the power supply
The power supply, but not other computer components, receives AC
power
No AC power is getting to the power supply
None of the answers
Objective: N/A
11 Which form factor type has been the dominant form factor for the last
10+ years?
Slimline
ATX
Baby AT
AT

NLXF
Objective: N/A
12 Which of the following may be attributed to an insufficient or unstable
power supply?

13

14

15

16

long boot-ups
spontaneous re-boots
All of the answers
booting lock-up
Objective: N/A
The range of voltage that a computer's power supply can accept from
an AC power source is called the power supply's________________
specification.
current
total power
frequency
operating range
Objective: N/A
Which power supply specification refers to the Hertz (Hz) range
within which a power supply operates?
frequency
operating range
EMI
current
Objective: N/A
All electrically powered computer components generate heat. In order
to keep a computer at safe operating temperatures, ___________ are
necessary.
cooling racks
cooling fans
temperature modulators
AC coolers
Objective: N/A
Which specification identifies the power supply's percentage ratio of
input power to output power?
Current
Operating range
EMI
Efficiency
Objective: N/A

17 To assure that your power supply provides enough power to run every
device on your computer, you need to check the power supply's
________ specification.
total power
line regulation
load regulation
output
Objective: N/A
18 Which power supply specification indicates the amps available for
each type of DC voltage?
total power
output
Power_Good Delay
operating range
Objective: N/A
19 What conductive substance is used to promote improved heat
conductivity between the CPU and heat sink?
Thermal Compound
Heat Dissipator
WD40
No conductive substance is needed between the CPU and heat sink.
Objective: N/A
20 Choose the group(s) responsible for assuring power supply
compliance with United States power specification standards.
Technical Standards Commission
Underwriters Laboratories
All of the answers
Critical Specifications Association
Objective: N/A
21 A motherboard with the PCI Express interface will require a _______
motherboard power connector.
20+4 pin
20 pin
6 pin PCIe
P8 & P9
Objective: N/A
22 Choose the letter sequence that correctly identifies the outlet
components in this order: neutral wire connection, hot wire
connection, safety ground connection

C, A, B
A, C, B
B, A, C
A, B, C
Objective: N/A
23 A large, unexpected increase in electrical current lasting several
seconds is called a ______________.
high oscillation
power surge
power spike
blackout
Objective: N/A
24 A brief, high-powered electrical impulse that produces a sudden
voltage overload, typically lasting between .5 and 100 microseconds,
is called a ______________.
harmonic distortion
high oscillation
power spike
power surge
Objective: N/A
25 When electrical voltage falls 80 percent below normal capacity, you
are experiencing a ___________.
None of the answers
power sag
power outage
shallow oscillation
Objective: N/A
26 A technician is working on a computer that is giving a display error
after bootup. This started happening after a new high power PCIe
gaming video card was installed. What is the most likely cause of this
problem?
An extra fan needs to be installed due to the heat given off by the
new video card.
The CPU is too old to work with the video card.
The card requires more power from a 6 pin PCIe power connector.
The card requires a lithium ion battery that needs to be installed into

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29

30

31

the card.
Objective: N/A
The small power connector that supplies power to devices such as
floppy drives and logic boards is also known as a __________
connector.
4-hole
Berg
Molex
Standard
Objective: N/A
The large power connector that supplies power to devices such as CD
and DVD drives is also known as a ____________ connector.
Plus-size
Standard
Berg
Molex
Objective: N/A
High end motherboards used by servers and powerful workstations
will require an ________ power connector in order power a second
processor or dual processor.
8 pin PCIe
20+4 pin ATX12V v2.0
4 pin P4 ATX12V
8 pin EPS12V
Objective: N/A
A ____________ is installed into some PC power supplies to draw
power when no actual device is connected to the power supply. This
device allows the power supply to function during tests when not
installed in a computer.
resistance band
load resistor
multimeter
load stator
Objective: N/A
The remote computer activation feature of an ATX power supply is
called ___________.
Tele Power
Remote Power
Soft Power
Power Go
Objective: N/A

32 Not all of the electrical power delivered to the power supply (from the
wall outlet)is converted into useable electricity. The electricity that is
not converted into power is __________________.
stored in the power supply for later use
sent back to the wall socket
converted into heat
converted into electrons
Objective: N/A
33 What type of computer generated interference can interfere with
devices such as televisions and cordless phones?
Radio Frequency Interference
Radio Fluctuation Interference
Electro-Stasis Development
Electro-Static Discharge
Objective: N/A
34 What power event is characterized by a buildup of electrons on a
material, leading to a sudden transfer of those electrons to another
material?
ESD
power surge
RFI
EMI
Objective: N/A
35 What is the potential danger when a computer is connected to an
improperly grounded circuit?
An electromagnetic discharge may occur
A severe electrical shock
Too much EMI may be generated
Too much RFI may be generated
Objective: N/A
36 What device protects against power surges?
surge protector
harmonic dampener
robust hard drive
Power surges are unstoppable and an unavoidable risk of computing
Objective: N/A
37 A customer that runs a radio station is complaining of intermittent
page not found errors when using the Internet, and occasional
problems sending and receiving data across the network. Which of the
following could be causing a problem?
ABS

RFI
RMI
EMI
ESD
Objective: N/A
38 What is the most likely problem that causes a CPU fan to make noise?
Faulty thermostat
Faulty thermal sensor
Worn ball bearings
Bad power supply
Objective: N/A
39 What are the advantages to a liquid cooling system?
CPU temperature maintained at ambient temperature, normal system
and clock speeds, and reduction of noise
More efficient system, higher clock speeds, noise reduction, and
maintains CPU temperature at ambient temperature
Much more efficient system, higher clock speeds, and increased
noise from fan
There are no advantages to a liquid cooling system.
Objective: N/A
40 What are the disadvantages to a liquid cooling system?
Needs little to no space, tubes must be precisely cut and installed, and
no damage to system no matter who does the installing
None of the answers
Needs a large space in the case, must be custom installed, can cause
leaks if improperly installed and injury to installer
Needs the same amount of space as a regular fan, contains no tubes,
and still needs custom installation
Objective: N/A
41 Both the Berg and Molex floppy drive power supply connectors have
a maximum voltage of _______.
16 volts
14 volts
10 volts
12 volts
Objective: N/A
42 Which of the following is TRUE of a PC power supply?

The PC power supply can be turned on by using a simple paperclip to


create a jumper between the correct wires on the power supply plug.
None of the answers are true.
The PC power supply cannot be turned on without using the
motherboard.
The PC power supply can be turned on with the motherboard by
using a simple paperclip to create a jumper between the correct wires
on the power supply plug.
Objective: N/A
43 With 230V internal redundant and 50% of rated load, which of the
following have the highest percentage of energy efficiency?
80 Plus Platinum
80 Plus Bronze
80 Plus Silver
80 Plus Gold
80 Plus Titanium
Objective: N/A
44 The 80 Plus program verifies products that have greater than
________ energy efficiency at 20%, 50% and 100% of rated load and
a power factor of 0.9 or greater at 100% load.
80%
90%
70%
60%
Objective: N/A
45 With 115V internal non-redundant and 20% of rated load, which of
the following have the lowest percentage of energy efficiency?
80 Plus Gold
80 Plus Silver
80 Plus Bronze
80 Plus Platinum
80 Plus Titanium
Objective: N/A

Copyright 1990-2014 Aries Technology, Inc. All Rights Reserved.

Welcome to the class of Yusupha Jammeh

November
20, 2014

Preview Exam

Exam Bank: Aries


Hardware v.11

Exam: Aries

Hardware v.11: Unit 3 # Question : 45


Exam

1 The first measure you should take to help prevent damage against
electrical problems is to _____________ a circuit.
certify
trip
protect
re-wire
Objective: N/A
2 What does this device test?

Circuit's variance
Outlet's surge suppression
Outlet's grounding
Circuit's joule rating
Objective: N/A
3 What does this device test?

Outlet's surge suppression


Circuit's variance
Circuit's joule rating
Outlet's grounding
Objective: N/A
4 Too many devices drawing power from a single circuit may cause
which of the following?
delayed transfer time
blackout
insufficient power supply voltage
surge suppression
Objective: N/A
5 Choose the term that best describes the device.

Uninterruptible power supply


Surge suppressor
Standby power supply
Line conditioner
Objective: N/A

6 Where is the best place to locate a commercial grade surge protector?


Close to the power distribution panel
Between every two computers on a circuit
Next to each computer on a circuit
At each subnetwork access point
Objective: N/A
7 Which of the following certifies that a surge suppressor is officially
rated by a certification agency?
UL 1449
UL 1679
CC 13A
SPS 23
Objective: N/A
8 Which of the following indicates a superior-quality surge protector?
All of the answers
Warranty
Status indicator light
A 1000 or higher joule rating
Objective: N/A
9 Which of the following protects against line noise, sags, and
oscillations?
Sine wave
Circuit breaker
Line conditioner
Surge suppressor
Objective: N/A
10 Which of the following characterizes a standby power supply?
Offline protection and transfer time/switchover delay
Transfer time/switchover delay
Online protection
Online protection and transfer time/switchover delay
Objective: N/A
11 Which of the following characterizes an uninterruptible power
supply?
Online protection and voltage inverter
Offline protection and transfer time/switchover delay
Voltage inverter and transfer time/switchover delay
None of the answers

Objective: N/A
12 To reduce the likelihood of damage from electrostatic discharge, the
computer workspace should have a humidity level of at least
________.
50%
20%
25%
15%
Objective: N/A
13 Which of the following are the four screw types used in the computer
workspace?
Flat-head, Slotted, Phillips-head, and Hexagonal
Flat-head, Phillips-head, Nut, and Hexagonal
Flat-head, Slotted, Phillips-head, and Torx
Flat-head, Phillips-head, Hexagonal, and Torx
Objective: N/A
14 Which is/are true regarding the computer workplace and carpeting?
Plastic anti-static mat can help reduce ESD if the workplace is
carpeted
All of the answers
Carpets facilitate the build-up of electrostatic discharges
Computer workplace should be uncarpeted
Objective: N/A
15 Which of the following is/are demonstrated by the graphic?

A wrist strap is sufficient protection when working on a monitor


Never work on a monitor while wearing a wrist strap because the
strap can ground you, and if the monitor discharges, you can be killed
This monitor does not have a wrist strap interface port
Both A and C are facts demonstrated by the graphic
Objective: N/A
16 Choose the true statement regarding the use of shielded anti-static
bags.
None of the answers are true
Shielded anti-static bags are useful only for mid-sized computer
components

Damaged or cracked shielded anti-static bags may no longer be able


to provide ESD protection
Shielded anti-static bags are recognizable by their opaque, dull
appearance
Objective: N/A
17 Choose the best list of good computer workplace conditions.
Manageable dust level, high temperature, and humid
Dust-free, warm, and very dry
Dust-free, cool, consistent temperature, and humid
Manageable dust level, low temperature, and very dry
Objective: N/A
18 Which computer case form factor does the graphic depict?

19

20

21

22

Desktop
All-in-one
Slimline
Tower
Objective: N/A
Which computer case is the most commonly used?
Tower
Desktop
All-in-one
Slimline
Objective: N/A
A good first hardware troubleshooting step is to check __________.
power and cable connections
the hard drive
the CPU
RAM
Objective: N/A
All case parts are connected to the computer's frame, which is called
the ____________.
Bezel
Mounting point
Cover
Chassis
Objective: N/A
Choose the most correct list of computer case-cable connection points:
Power button, reset button, power light, hard drive light, expansion

adapter, mounting point, LED connection


Power button, reset button, power light, hard drive light, expansion
adapter
Power button, reset button, power light, hard drive light
Power button, reset button, power light, hard drive light, expansion
adapter, mounting point
Objective: N/A
23 When talking to customers and troubleshooting over the phone,
always ask __________ questions.
closed and open ended
positive
multiple answer
technical
Objective: N/A
24 Which of the following is true of a tower case when it is to be
assembled with an ATX power supply and an ATX motherboard?
Tower cases only accept AT style motherboards and power supplies
Tower cases accept only ATX motherboards and ATX power supplies
The tower's holes and ports should be aligned for ATX power supply
and ATX motherboard features
None of the answers are true
Objective: N/A
25 Which of the following is the first step of the Eight-Step
Troubleshooting model that should be taken when a problem occurs?
Determine the most probably cause.
Identify the symptoms.
Identify the affected area.
Recognize the potential effects of the solution.
Establish what changes may have caused the problem.
Objective: N/A
26 Which of the following is a disadvantage of motherboards that have
integrated components?
Limited motherboard selection
Limited component flexibility
All of the answers
Usually expensive due to extra integrated components
Objective: N/A
27 Which computer case form factor contains the monitor, hard drive,

and all major components within a single unit?


Tower
All-in-one
Slimline
Desktop
Objective: N/A
28 What structural units (attached to the rear of the chassis) provide
mounting points for expansion cards?
Adapter plates
None of the answers
Drive brackets
Adapter brackets
Objective: N/A
29 Which statement about motherboard stand-offs is true?
Only a metal motherboard stand-off isolates the motherboard
circuitry from the computer chassis and provides an extra measure of
electrical grounding
None of the answers
Metal and plastic stand-offs provide the same measures of circuitry
protection and electrical grounding
Only a plastic motherboard stand-off isolates the motherboard
circuitry from the computer chassis and provides an extra measure of
electrical grounding
Objective: N/A
30 The computer's power button, reset button, speaker, and LED lights
require _____________ connections.
Motherboard cable
Adapter bracket
Motherboard mounting plate
None of the answers
Objective: N/A
31 How many amps are most electrical circuits rated to provide?
5 amps
100 amps
10 amps
20 amps
Objective: N/A

32 The higher the __________ rating for a line conditioner, the better
protection the line conditioner provides.
Amp
Decibel (dB)
Ohm
Distance
Objective: N/A
33 What is the meaning of the following symbol?

Caution! - Possible injury or death may occur


Warning! - Possible injury or death may occur
Caution! - Equipment damage or data loss is possible
Warning! - Equipment damage or data loss is possible
Objective: N/A
34 What is the meaning of the following symbol?

Warning! - Injury or death is possible


Caution! - Equipment damage or data loss is possible
Warning! - Equipment damage or data loss is possible
Caution! - Injury or death is possible
Objective: N/A
35 What designation of fire extinguishers is designed to put out electrical
fires?
Type A
Type B
Type C
Type D
Objective: N/A
36 Why should you not touch a powered-on monitor when performing
repairs on electronics?
Touching a powered on screen could transfer an electrostatic charge
to your body, which could damage sensitive components.
You may create a rapid dust transfer, forcing you to dust off the
electronics you are repairing.
There is no danger to electronics created by a technician touching a
monitor.
You may create an inverse polarity field, causing the tube to implode.

Objective: N/A
37 What software programs should be on-hand at a technician's
workspace?
Diagnostic software
All of the answers
Operating system boot disk
Anti-virus software
Objective: N/A
38 A computer's case, motherboard, and power supply must all be
_____________ to fit together properly and to allow proper operation.
of the same color
from the same manufacturer
of the same form factor
of the same material
Objective: N/A
39 Which type of form factor is designed to minimize the volume of a
typical tower or desktop computer.
reduced form factor
micro form factor
enhanced form factor
small form factor
Objective: N/A
40 Choose the answer that correctly lists the cases displayed below from
left to right.

Maxi-Tower, Mid-Tower, Mini-Tower


Full-Tower, Mid-Tower, Mini-Tower
Mini-Tower, Mid-Tower, Full-Tower
Full-Tower, Mini-Tower, Micro-Tower
Objective: N/A
41 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a safe working
conditions?
Proper lighting
Clean and free of clutter
Proper organization

Unsecured cables
Objective: N/A
42 _________ is detrimental to almost all electronic equipment,
shortening the life of the components and sometimes causing erratic
equipment behavior.
Low temperature
Low voltage power
High heat
High electrical current
Objective: N/A
43 A workspace should maintain a humidity level of approximately
______ to reduce the likelihood of electrostatic discharge
40%
70%
60%
50%
Objective: N/A
44 Which of the following is NOT a size available for the MacBook Air?
13.3
None of the answers
11.6
15.6
Objective: N/A
45 Which of the following is the most current models for the iPad?
iPad 4
iPad 3
iPad Air
iPad Air 4
Objective: N/A

Copyright 1990-2014 Aries Technology, Inc. All Rights Reserved.

Welcome to the class of Yusupha Jammeh

November
20, 2014

Preview Exam

Exam Bank: Aries


Hardware v.11

Exam: Aries

Hardware v.11: Unit 4 # Question : 45


Exam

1 Which of the following form factors is still current and is not


considered legacy?
LPX
NLX
AT
ATX
Objective: N/A
2 What motherboard component both controls and coordinates access to
a system's RAM, the expansion slots, the hard drive controllers, and
other on-board devices?
CPU
Chipset
USB
PCI slots
Objective: N/A
3 The computers ____________ is a highway that transfers data
between the CPU and other system components.
shuttle circuitry
data circuitry
bus circuitry
Northbridge
Objective: N/A
4 The __________ bus is used to store and retrieve memory location
information for stored data.
data
system
memory
address
local
Objective: N/A
5 What motherboard chip is responsible for keeping track of the current
hardware configuration (such as amount of memory installed and hard
drives)?
CMOS
CPU
SIMM
BIOS
Objective: N/A
6 The _________ bus transfers data to and from the Northbridge and
determines how fast RAM can be accessed.
data

10

11

12

memory
local
PCI
RAMBUS
Objective: N/A
Motherboards can be configured with ______ or _______.
DIP switches, levers
jumpers, dongles
DIP switches, jump buttons
jumpers, DIP switches
Objective: N/A
What does the abbreviation BIOS stand for?
Basic Input/Output Setup
Basic Input/Output System
Basic Interface/Operating system
Basic Input/Operations Setup
Objective: N/A
Which type of ROM is capable of being erased and reprogrammed by
a special software program that is usually obtainable from a Web site?
Flash-Chip
PROM
EEPROM
Flash-RAM
Objective: N/A
Which of the following expansion slots is a currently used modern
expansion slot?
EISA
MCA
VLB
ISA
PCI
Objective: N/A
The fastest version of PCI supports _____-bit transfers and a ____
MHz bus speed.
32 / 32
32 / 66
64 / 32
64 / 66
Objective: N/A
Older motherboards use what type of high-speed bus to support
graphical software?
AGP

PCIe
AMR
USB
CNR
Objective: N/A
13 Which expansion slot has replaced the Accelerated Graphics Port on
all new motherboards?
USB
PCI
AMR
PCIe
MCA
Objective: N/A
14 What is a common name for the motherboard?
Power supply
Main board
Master board
Matrix board
Objective: N/A
15 What benefit came from removing the PCI bus as the link between the
Northbridge and Southbridge in the Hub Architecture chipset design?
The old PCI slots were replaced by high-speed XPCI slots
Computers could now support more than one processor
A dedicated bus was created exclusively for carrying only data
between the Northbridge(GMCH) and Southbridge(ICH)
None of the answers
Objective: N/A
16 Which expansion slot uses inbound and outbound data channels called
lanes?
PCI
USB
MCA
AGP
PCIe
Objective: N/A
17 A PCIe x12 expansion card can fit into what type of PCIe expansion
slot(s)?
PCIe x12 & PCIe x16
PCIe x8

PCIe x16
PCIe x12
Objective: N/A
18 What type of slot is displayed below?

19

20

21

22

23

PCIe
EISA
USB
64-bit PCI
AGP
Objective: N/A
Which of the following buses is a cheap way of adding sound,
modem, and ethernet capabilities to a computer?
MCA
CNR
PCI
ISA
EISA
Objective: N/A
The local bus transfers data between what two components?
Chipset and ISA slots
CPU and ISA slots
CPU and Chipset
Chipset and System RAM
Objective: N/A
The data bus transfers data between what two components?
CPU and Chipset
Chipset and System RAM
CPU and ISA slots
Chipset and ISA slots
Objective: N/A
What is the purpose of the small battery on the motherboard?
Keep the hard drive from losing data
Keep the CMOS chip from losing the system configuration
Prevent the system RAM from losing data
Provide a constant source of power to the CPU
Objective: N/A
What information can the motherboard manual provide?

Information to properly identify motherboard components


Specifications showing supported components
All of the answers
Information to properly configure the board
Objective: N/A
24 The local bus for the AMD Athlon can transfer 64-bits of data at a
time, with a speed of 100MHz. With a double data rate per clock
cycle, what is the local bus's transfer speed? (1,048,576 can be
rounded to 1,000,000 in the equation.)

128,000 MB/s
160 MB/s
1,600 MB/s
1280 MB/s
12,800 MB/s
Objective: N/A
25 The local bus for the AMD Athlon can transfer 32-bits of data at a
time, with a speed of 75MHz. With a double data rate per clock cycle,
what is the local bus's transfer speed? (1,048,576 can be rounded to
1,000,000 in the equation.)

4,800 MB/s
60 MB/s
48,000 MB/s
6,000 MB/s
600 MB/s
Objective: N/A
26 Which expansion bus can be used to add modem, networking, sound,
hard drive, and memory capabilities to portable computers?
PCIe
Docking station
CNR
PC card
MCA card
Objective: N/A
27 Which RAM module type has two rows of pins on each side of the
module, with each pin in each row having it's own circuit path?
NIMM

28

29

30

31

32

LIMM
SIMM
GIMM
DIMM
Objective: N/A
What device is used to connect multiple devices into one USB port?
USB hub
USB multiplexor
USB router
USB switch
USB gateway
Objective: N/A
BIOS settings such as date, time, and drive settings are stored in
_________ memory.
virtual
RAM
cache
CMOS
CPU
Objective: N/A
When booting up, the ________ contains the very first programming
instructions that a CPU processes. These instructions tell a computer
how to interact with basic system components and how to look for an
operating system.
chipset
hard drive
DMA controller
CMOS
Objective: N/A
Which bus runs at 12 megabits per second and can support up to 127
devices?
Serial port
Firewire
COM port
USB
Objective: N/A
_________ have a pre-set priority and are used by devices to inform
the CPU that a task needs to be completed.
DMAs
MCAs
PIDs

IRQs
Objective: N/A
33 Which of the following is/are a common name for the local bus on
which the processor is located?

34

35

36

37

All of the answers


Processor bus
Front-side bus
System bus
Objective: N/A
Which Intel processors used slots instead of sockets?
Pentium III
Pentium II
Pentium II & Pentium III
Pentium I & Pentium II
Pentium I
Objective: N/A
________ connectors are commonly referred to as PS/2 connectors
and can be used for a mouse and keyboard.
Thin-DIN
Serial
Parallel
Mini-DIN
DIN
Objective: N/A
The second IRQ controller is connected to _________ on the first IRQ
controller.
IRQ 2
IRQ 6
IRQ 9
IRQ 10
Objective: N/A
The term ___________ refers to easily replaceable parts that can be
replaced while a technician is at a customer's site. Examples include
RAM, keyboards, mice, power supply units, and expansion cards.
Peripheral Replacement Parts (PRP)
Easily Exchangeable Equipment (EEE)
Easily Replaceable Equipment (ERE)
Field Replaceable Unit (FRU)
Objective: N/A

38 What motherboard jumper setting prevents the BIOS from being


overwritten by accident or by a virus?
BIOS protect
Clear CMOS
CMOS protect
BIOS prevent
CMOS prevent
Objective: N/A
39 Every time a computer starts up, the BIOS performs the __________
in order to verify the system's configuration.
CMOS Test (CT)
BootUp Test (BUT)
Power-On Self Test (POST)
Self Check Test (SCT)
BIOS Configuration Test (BCT)
Objective: N/A
40 If a computer has problems booting, a _________ will clue a
technician in to what is causing the problem.
series of beeps
blinking led pattern
printed report
recorded voice
Objective: N/A
41 _________ is an adaptation of the traditional ATX form factor, though
30% smaller.
FlexATX
microATX
XL-ATX
Mini-ITX
Objective: N/A
42 Which of the following motherboard form factor is very quiet and
useful for home theater PC systems?
Mini-ITX
MircoATX
Thin Mini-ITX
FlexATX
Objective: N/A
43 ___________ contains a 942-pin socket and a pin socket diameter of

0.51 mm in addition to serial link of 3400 kHz from the CPU to the
power controller.
AM2
AM2+
AM3
AM3+
Objective: N/A
44 The ____________ socket supports four DDR3 SDRAM memory
channels alongside one un-buffered DIMM per channel.
Intel LGA 1155
Intel LGA 1150
Intel LGA 2055
Intel LGA 2011
Objective: N/A
45 Which of the following type of expansion slot contains an onboard
ROM chip that enables the identification of the board and contain the
abilities to the host computer as part of the setup process?
ACR
AMR
None of the answers
CNR
Objective: N/A

Copyright 1990-2014 Aries Technology, Inc. All Rights Reserved.

Welcome to the class of Yusupha Jammeh

November
20, 2014

Preview Exam
Exam Bank: Aries
Hardware v.11

Exam: Aries
Hardware v.11: Unit 5

# Question : 45

Exam
1 Which part of the computer holds recently used data and instructions
for quick access by the CPU?
Cache
RAM
ROM
Hard Drive
Objective: N/A
2 The CPU, Data Bus, and Local bus run at the same frequency
(example: 66MHz).
True. The CPU, data bus, and local bus always run at the same
frequency.
False. The CPU and the local bus always run at the same frequency,
but the data bus runs at a slower frequency.
False. The data bus and local bus always run at the same frequency,
but the CPU runs at a higher frequency.
It depends. In older systems the CPU, Data Bus, and Local bus run at
the same frequency. In new computers, the CPU and buses can run at
different frequencies.
Objective: N/A
3 Currently, the average speed of a microprocessor is between
________ and _______.
2.2MHz / 3.5MHz
1.75MHz / 2.5MHz
1.2GHz / 1.6GHz
2.6GHz / 3.8GHz
2.4KHz / 3.5KHz
Objective: N/A
4 Select the incorrect CPU cache type.
L4 Cache
L1 Cache
L2 Cache
None of the answers
L3 Cache
Objective: N/A
5 What does the abbreviation CISC mean?
Commmon Instruction Set Computer
Complex Instruction Set Computer
Complex Instructions Systems Computer

10

Computer Instruction Set Complexity


Objective: N/A
What is another name for memory cache?
CPU cache
Level 1 cache
Main Memory
Dynamic RAM
CPU-RAM
Objective: N/A
Having high levels of cache _________.
reduces CPU wait times
increases PCIe performance
increases RAM memory size
increases CPU speed
increases RAM performance
Objective: N/A
A microprocessor's _________ helps guide and control the data
computing process by sending instructions to the CPU's execution
portions.
Control Unit
ALU
Execution Control
ACU
Registers
Objective: N/A
A microprocessor's ___________ is a high-speed computer circuit that
holds the values of internal commands and instructions.
ACU
Control Unit
ALU
Registers
Execution Control
Objective: N/A
Which portion of the CPU performs addition, subtraction,
multiplication, and division calculations along with comparisons?
Registers
ALU
Execution Control
ACU
Control Unit
Objective: N/A

11 What is used to dissipate the heat that a CPU generates by changing


transistor states millions of times every second?
Heat sink and fan
Transistor Cooling Unit
CPU cooling stack
Dissipator and fan
Objective: N/A
12 A feature that protects CPUs from excessive heat is called
___________.
Thermal Dissipation
Thermal Throttling
Heat Shifting
Heat Dissipator
CPU Dissipator
Objective: N/A
13 What Intel processor was designed for high-end workstations and
servers?
Pentium II
Pentium II Xeon
Celeron
Pentium MMX
Objective: N/A
14 Processors can run at faster clock speeds than their factory rated speed
in order to gain more performance. This process is called __________.
Acceleration
Speedbumping
Overclocking
Bursting
Objective: N/A
15 The CPUs speed at which it executes instructions is called its
___________.
work clock
clock speed
data clock
clock time
Objective: N/A
16 The most common form of multiple CPU usage in PCs is called
___________.
Dual Processor Integration (DPI)
Dual-Pro (DP)

DMA
Multiple Processor Program (MPP)
Symmetric Multiprocessing (SMP)
Objective: N/A
17 RISC processors ______________.
run at lower frequencies and carry out many small instruction sets.
run at lower clock speeds and carry out larger more complex
instruction sets.
run at higher clock speeds and carry out many small instruction sets.
run at higher frequencies and carry out larger more complex
instruction sets.
Objective: N/A
18 What device connects to the CPU to dissipate excess heat?
Spreader
Heatsink
Heatpan
Radiator
Objective: N/A
19 Why is it not possible to upgrade some motherboards?
Proprietary motherboard
All of the answers
Specific chip-family difficulties
Outdated processors
Objective: N/A
20 Choose the device best described by the following sentence: "_______
are very basic on/off switches that make computer devices
configurable. This device consists of a small metal piece covered in
plastic that closes a circuit when pushed onto two pins."
Landers
DIP switches
Jumpers
BIOS programs
Objective: N/A
21 When configuring a CPU's motherboard, which setting should given
priority to avoid possible CPU damage that can result from improper
settings?
multiplier
bus speed
video setting

22

23

24

25

26

voltage
Objective: N/A
In order for dual core processor computers to experience performance
increases ____________.
the P7 jumper must be set to 2,3 instead of 1,2.
programs that are designed to take advantage of the dual core must be
used.
users must go to Device Manager, right click the processor, and
select Dual Processor Mode in the Advanced tab.
nothing needs to be done. Dual core processors automatically run
faster than single core processors.
Objective: N/A
What advantage does the LGA775 socket provide over previous pinbased sockets?
The LGA775 does also use pins, but its design increases heat
dissipation.
The socket can be locked and the processor speed can be increased
using dip switches located on the socket base.
The socket can be locked so that processors are not stolen.
The socket increases heat dissipation and there are no more pins to
get bent and broken.
Objective: N/A
What is the most current Cyrix processor available on the market
today?
K8
MX 2000
Athlon
Pentium EE
Cyrix quit producing processors in 1997.
Objective: N/A
After the PowerPC G5 processor, Apple decided to use _______
processors due to the inability of the G5 to increase it's speed past the
3 GHz range.
Intel
iProcessor
Motorola
Cyrix
Objective: N/A
Processors that feature single-edge connectors similar to those found
on expansion cards instead of the typical socket configuration include
the _________________.
Pentium II and III

27

28

29

30

31

32

Pentium D and E
Motorola G5
AMD K7 and K8
Pentium I and II
Objective: N/A
If the processor's fan and heat sink are not seated properly,
___________.
the processor will not run.
heat will damage the computer.
the processor will run at 1/2 of it's potential speed.
the computer will beep endlessly until it is fixed.
Objective: N/A
New motherboards have jumper options for ____________ settings.
the bus speed and BIOS protect
the core voltage, bus speed, and clock multiplier
BIOS protect and Clear CMOS
the core voltage and clock multiplier
Objective: N/A
Many modern motherboards lock the _____________ so that
processors cannot run faster than their factory preset speed.
Speedbump setting
Bursting setting
Data bus speed
Front side bus speed
Objective: N/A
What is the function of a cache?
To generate more instructions per cycle
To control which parts of the system get more attention
To store frequently used information
To reset the system in the event of a failure
Objective: N/A
How is the speed of a modern CPU measured?
RPM
MegaOhms
Ohms
KHz
GHz
Objective: N/A
What can happen as a result of using incorrect CPU voltage settings?
Damage to the processor

Erratic operation
Damage to the motherboard
All of the answers
Objective: N/A
33 What allows a CPU to perform multiple tasks simultaneously.
Hyper-threading
Hyper-speed
Hyper-core
Hyper-clocking
Objective: N/A
34 Which of the following best describes the control unit of a processor?
Performs addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division
calculations and comparisons
Generates signals that instruct the ALU and register how and what
data to operate
Small data storage area the ALU uses to complete tasks
All of the above
Objective: N/A
35 Which of the following best describes a CPU?
Guides and controls the data computing process with the aid of a
control unit, registers, and an arithmetic logic unit
Utilizes a system's data bus in order to transport information to and
from different components in the system
Electronic circuits acting as the bulk of a computer's computations on
a single wafer-like chip
All of the answers
Objective: N/A
36 CPU architecture is based on instruction sets also known as?
a complex or reduced instruction set computer
L1 and L2 data cache
control unit, registers, ALU
Netburst technology
Objective: N/A
37 Select the correct CPU cache types.
L1 Cache, L2 Cache, L3 Cache, & SuperCache
L1 Cache & L2 Cache
L1 Cache, L2 Cache, & L3 Cache
L1 Cache, L2 Cache, L3 Cache, & L4 Cache

L1 Cache, L2 Cache, & SuperCache


Objective: N/A
38 Which of the following lists a basic microprocessor's components?
L1 and L2 cache, Registers, ALU
Power supply, Motherboard, Hard drive, RAM
BIOS, CMOS, OS, Partition
All of the answers
Objective: N/A
39 What is the function of a variable frequency synthesizer circuit?
It allows a motherboard to control the operational temperature range
at which it will continue to function
It allows a motherboard to support hard drives of different speeds
It allows a motherboard to support CPUs of different speeds
It allows a motherboard to support different form factors
Objective: N/A
40 Which of the following characterizes CISC and RISC processor
architectures?
All of the answers
CISC architecture uses complex instruction sets
RISC processors allow programs to issue smaller instructions and
utilize higher clock speeds
RISC architecture uses simplified instruction sets
CISC processors allow programs to do more work using less
instructions
Objective: N/A
41 True or False: Clock multipliers are typically not fixed and can be
changed.
True
False
Objective: N/A
42 Which of the following is the successor to the X79 LGA2011
motherboards?
X79 LGA 2011
DDR4
DDR3

X80 LGA 1150


Objective: N/A
43 Which of the following will help speed up the APUs that are used in
clients and embedded systems?
Skybridge
Haswell CPUs
Sandy Bridge
The Piledriver
Objective: N/A
44 Which of the following processor runs at lower clock speeds and do
not have Turbo Boost and they do not support Error Correction Code
(ECC) memory?
Core i7
Core i3
Core i9
Core i5
Objective: N/A
45 The fourth and fifth generations of the Athlon were released at
_________.
1.33 GHz
3.10 GHz
1.80 GHz
1.67 GHz
Objective: N/A

Copyright 1990-2014 Aries Technology, Inc. All Rights Reserved.

Welcome to the class of Yusupha Jammeh

November
20, 2014

Preview Exam

Exam Bank: Aries


Hardware v.11

Exam: Aries

Hardware v.11: Unit 6 # Question : 45


Exam

1 What is used by your computer for instant storage and is always


changing based on your latest tasks?
Memory (RAM)
Hard drive
CD-ROM drive
Storage
Objective: N/A
2 __________ media devices generally provide higher speed and better
reliability than removable-media alternatives.

Volatile
Static
Stationary
Fixed
Objective: N/A
Choose the term that properly completes the following sentence:
"RAM memory contents are __________, disappearing when a
computer's power is turned off."
mutable
volatile
non-volatile
non-variable
Objective: N/A
Choose the term that properly completes the following sentence:
"Data held in hard disk storage is __________, remaining intact after
electricity has been turned off."
volatile
variable
non-destructible
non-volatile
Objective: N/A
What does the abbreviation "RAM" stand for?
Random Access Memory
Random Abilities Memory
Random Arrangement Memory
Random Accessories Memory
Objective: N/A
From the list below, select the most accurate description of a computer
system's RAM.
RAM holds program data

10

11

12

RAM determines the number of programs that can be run


simultaneously
All of the answers
RAM holds program instructions
Objective: N/A
What is the proper term for preprogrammed, unchangeable, nonvolatile memory?
Hard drive storage
Reduced Access Memory (RAM)
Read Only Memory (ROM)
Read Optimized Memory (ROM)
Objective: N/A
What is the proper term for the portion of hard disk space configured
as an overflow area when the computer runs out of physical RAM?
Variable Memory
Volatile Memory
Virtual Memory
Overflow Access Memory (OAM)
Objective: N/A
Firmware categories include ROM, PROM, EPROM, and _________.
EEPROM
SDROM
SPROM
RAM
SDRAM
Objective: N/A
Virtual memory's main drawback is that it ________.
takes much longer to access than RAM
overheats much more easily than RAM
is much more expensive compared to RAM
can only provide 64 MB of space maximum
Objective: N/A
Which access time is fastest?
20ns
2ns
5ns
1s
2s
Objective: N/A
___________ is a system of checking for errors in transmitted data or
memory data.
Error correction

Memory correction
Data checking
Parity checking
Objective: N/A
13 _____________ is able to detect data errors but cannot fix them.
Error correcting code
Error correcting
Memory correction
Data checking
Parity checking
Objective: N/A
14 Which of the following describe(s) DIMMs?
Available in 168-pin format
Transfers 64 bits at a time
Available in Small Outline format for laptops
A, B, and C all describe DIMMs
Objective: N/A
15 Which of the following describe(s) RIMMs?
Available in 30-pin format
Smaller highway, faster speed limit
All of the answers
Oldest memory technology available today
Available in 64-bit format
Objective: N/A
16 Identify the device pictured below.

30-pin SO-DIMM
30-pin SIMM
30-pin DIMM
30-pin RIMM
Objective: N/A
17 What device is pictured below?

72-pin SO-DIMM

72-pin SIMM
30-pin SIMM
144-pin SO-DIMM
Objective: N/A
18 ____________ is able to detect data errors and correct 1-bit errors.
Data checking
Parity checking
Error correcting
Error correcting code
Memory correction
Objective: N/A
19 Identify the device below:

20

21

22

23

72-pin SIMM
168-pin DIMM
184-pin RIMM
144-pin SO-DIMM
Objective: N/A
Which of the following is NOT a category of firmware?
EEPROM
ROM
EPROM
SDRAM
Objective: N/A
The two most common types of CD loading mechanisms are:
tray and slot
slot and drawer
tray and caddy
caddy and slot
Objective: N/A
Which memory module type uses both sides of the memory module to
distribute pins more effectively?
SIMMs
NIMMs
DIMMs
WIMMs
Objective: N/A
A feature of CAV (Constant Angular Velocity) is:

CD data transfer rates are constant.


CD disk rotates at an unchanging speed.
CD disk speed depends on type of data read: e.g., faster for text, slow
for video.
CD disk rotates at varying speeds.
Objective: N/A
24 A feature of CLV (Constant Linear Velocity) is:

25

26

27

28

CD disk rotates at an unchanging speed.


CD disk speed depends on type of data read: e.g., faster for text, slow
for video.
CD disk rotates at varying speeds.
CD data transfer rates vary depending on where the data is located on
the disc.
Objective: N/A
240-pin DIMMs are used with ________ SDRAM.
DDR2
DDR
SDR8
DDR8
SDR2
Objective: N/A
When a CD drive is used with a(n) _________ interface, it can be
configured as either a master or slave.
SATA
USB
DMA
SCSI
IDE
Objective: N/A
Which DVD technology is able to store the most amount of data on a
single disc?
High-definition (HD-DVD)
Blue-ray (BD)
Compressed-disc (CD-DVD)
Holographic Versatile (HVD)
Objective: N/A
Identify the following device.

Hard Drive

ZIP drive
Floppy Drive
CD-ROM
Objective: N/A
29 Identify the following device.

CD-ROM
Hard Drive
Floppy Drive
ZIP drive
Objective: N/A
30 What is a type of storage used to deliver online resources on demand?
Smart
Flash
Cloud
Optical
Objective: N/A
31 Choose the answer that properly labels (in order from A to D) the CD
disc components in the diagram below:

Polycarbonate Substrate, Laquer, Aluminum Reflective Layer, Label


Label, Laquer, Aluminum Reflective Layer, Polycarbonate Substrate
Polycarbonate Substrate, Aluminum Reflective Layer, Label, Laquer
Label, Aluminum Reflective Layer, Polycarbonate Substrate, Laquer
Objective: N/A
32 What is the name given to the physical markings that form the stored
data on a CD disc?
Pits and lands
Hills and valleys
1 ups and 0 downs
Bumps and pits
Objective: N/A
33 What device does the CD drive use to read data stored on a disc?
Phaser
Laser
Photostator

34

35

36

37

38

39

Magnetic head
Objective: N/A
The minimum number of 168 or 240 pin memory modules that can be
added to a current motherboard is ____.
1
2
3
4
6
Objective: N/A
What type of memory module is slightly slower but is used to increase
the stability of important systems such as a server?
Unstructured memory modules
Unregistered memory modules
Structured memory modules
Compiled memory modules
Registered memory modules
Objective: N/A
What is the standard amount of data that can be stored on a CD disc?
540MB
700MB
800MB
600MB
640MB
Objective: N/A
What was the transfer rate of the first CD drives?
600KB/s
75KB/s
150KB/s
300KB/s
Objective: N/A
What type of DVD player is generally used for creating master
copies?
DVD-RAM
DVD-Blu
DVD-ROM
DVD+R
Objective: N/A
What does the access time measurement specify?
The average length of time a CD drive needs to transfer a 150KB file
from a disc to the computer

The average length of time a CD drive needs to find a piece of data


on the disc and make it accessible to the computer
The average length of time a CD drive needs to spin the disc through
one complete revolution
The average length of time a CD drive needs to move a stationary
disc to full spinning speed
Objective: N/A
40 How much data can a DVD-5 disc hold?
8.5GB
9.4GB
17GB
4.7GB
Objective: N/A
41 DDR3 memory utilizes _____ less power due to the difference in
supply voltage.
30%
40%
50%
15%
Objective: N/A
42 Hard drives are used for _________________.
Long-term storage
Temporary storage
Short-term storage
Transfer storage
Objective: N/A
43 ___________ has greater data transfer rates and clock frequency
ranges than DDR3 SDRAM.
DRDRAM 3
DRDRAM
DDR4 SDRAM
None of the answers
Objective: N/A
44 A RIMM module can operate at __________.
800 MHz

1200 MHz
400 MHz
1000 MHz
Objective: N/A
45 The BD format provides greater than five times the storage capacity of
DVDs and can store up to ________ on a single-layer disc and
_______on a dual-layer disc.
30 GB, 50 GB
20 GB, 50 GB
25 GB, 50 GB
25 GB, 60 GB
Objective: N/A

Copyright 1990-2014 Aries Technology, Inc. All Rights Reserved.

Welcome to the class of Yusupha Jammeh

November
20, 2014

Preview Exam

Exam Bank: Aries


Hardware v.11

Exam: Aries

Hardware v.11: Unit 7 # Question : 40


Exam

1 Name the device described as a "high-volume, disk storage device


holding fixed, high-density, rigid media."
Hard Drive
ZIP disk
Floppy drive
CD-ROM
Objective: N/A
2 If a new hard drive is added to an older computer but is not
recognized by the BIOS, what can be done to possibly cause the hard
drive to be recognized?
Upgrade the BIOS.
Place a jumper on the hard drive's "IDE-4 compatible" jumper pins.
Place a jumper on the motherboard's "IDE-4 compatible" jumper
pins.
Set the "SATA Hard Drive" option to enable in the BIOS.
Objective: N/A
3 How much data is stored on each side of a platter in a 20GB hard
drive with 4 read/write heads?
4.6GB
10GB
7.43GB
5GB
Objective: N/A
4 With ___________, a failed drive can be removed, and a new one can
be inserted without any loss of data -- all while the system is still
operational.
IDE
RAID
Parallel porting
DMA
Objective: N/A
5 Tracks are divided into 512-byte units called ________.
Rings
Sectors
Clusters
Bytes
Objective: N/A
6 Hard drives usually require between _________ volts for proper
operation.
1 and 5
20 and 40

12 and 20
5 and 12
Objective: N/A
7 What type of power connectors are necessary to allow a hard drive
device to be hot-swappable?
HDA
Molex
Flat ribbon
SATA
Objective: N/A
8 Another name for a hard drive is a ____________.
Solid disk drive
Fixed disk drive
Rigid media assembly
Secured platter drive
Objective: N/A
9 In the picture below, to what component is the arrow labeled "A"
pointing?

Logic board
Hub
None of the answers
Interface
Spindle motor
Objective: N/A
10 ___________ refers to how much data can be packed into one platter
on a hard drive.
Density
Proportion
Thickness
Rotation
Encoding
Objective: N/A
11 The abbreviation IDE stands for ________________.
Integrated Drive Electronics
Interpreted Data Electronics
Integrated Drive Enhancements
Inversed Drive Electronics
Objective: N/A

12 When purchasing a hard drive that must transfer data quickly, it's
_______ needs to be checked.
encoding speed
density
rotation speed
data speed
Objective: N/A
13 A hard drive's _________ provides a secure ground connection
between a hard disk drive and a computer's chassis.

14

15

16

17

Grounding tab
None of the answers
Mounting screw
Metal stand-offs
Power supply cable
Objective: N/A
Which wire cable color always represents ground?
Blue
Black
Orange
Yellow
Red
Objective: N/A
Regular hard drive maintenance involves _________ the hard drive.
Defragging
Cleaning
Particulating
Pulsing
Parsing
Objective: N/A
When a file is deleted from the system, it is __________.
replaced by all 0s
not actually erased off the hard drive
replaced by all 1s
replaced by gibberish
Objective: N/A
Which of the following is the most current type of hard drive
interface?
EIDE
IDE

18

19

20

21

22

SATA
PATA
Objective: N/A
Modern hard drives connect to a controller that is located on
___________.
the internal peripheral expansion card
the hard drive expansion card
the motherboard itself
the motherboard chipset
Objective: N/A
______ modes allow the CPU to issue requests for data to a controller
on the motherboard. The controller can then manage the data transfer
between the hard drive and the system, allowing the CPU to spend its
time performing other tasks.
DNS
PIO
PID
EHCP
DMA
Objective: N/A
________ gives hard drives the ability to log errors that might result
in the drive's malfunctioning.
Smartdrive
D.E.T.E.C.T.
S.M.A.R.T
P.A.R.I.T.Y.
Errorlog
Objective: N/A
___________ cables are much thinner and more flexible. The cables
are easier to manage and do not block the airflow through the case.
IDE
PATA
SATA
ECHS
Objective: N/A
Only one hard drive can be connected to a ________ cable.
PATA
DMA
ECHS
IDE
SATA

23

24

25

26

27

28

Objective: N/A
_________ is easy to configure as the master/slave setup has been
eliminated.
IDE
PATA
SATA
SuperIDE
ECHS
Objective: N/A
Another method of connecting a hard drive is to use a ______ port.
ECHS
serial
USB
parallel
Objective: N/A
The advantage of SCSI, compared to IDE, is that it ___________.
supports up to 5 devices and is cheaper than IDE and SATA
can access multiple devices on the same cable at the same time and
support RAID
has a simple master / slave configuration and supports RAID
is cheap and easy to install and upgrade
Objective: N/A
SCSI also supports multiple fault-tolerant drives called ___________,
ensuring data recovery in the event of hardware or software failure.
RAID
SAFE
MULTIDRIVE
RECOV
DMA
Objective: N/A
SCSI is a widely used hardware interface that permits the
simultaneous connection of up to _______ peripheral devices
(including the adapter), using a single expansion board.
2
4
5
10
16
Objective: N/A
Although SCSI remains popular on high-performance workstations
and servers, desktop computers and laptops have replaced SCSI

interfaces with ___________________ connections for external


devices.
IDE Hubs and IDE Switches
Universal Serial Bus (USB), eSATA, and FireWire
ATA-3, ATA-4, and ATA-5
Parallel and Serial Porting
DMA and IRQ Porting
Objective: N/A
29 What DMA transfer method allows the hard drive controller and PCI
bus to perform DMA directly?
Multiword DMA
Singleword DMA
PCI to IDE DMA
Busmastering DMA
Objective: N/A
30 What is the purpose of Cyclical Redundancy Check?
Greater storage capacities
Allows more hard drives to be installed
Increased transfer speeds
All of the answers
Error checking
Objective: N/A
31 How many wires are needed to support the SATA interface?
40
4
2
8
Objective: N/A
32 When two IDE drives are installed on a single cable, what relationship
is formed to distinguish the first drive from the second drive?
ID1/ID2
IDE_1/IDE_2
Drive A/Drive-B
Master/Slave
Objective: N/A
33 Some Low Voltage Differential SCSI devices are capable of running
on the same cable with Single Ended SCSI devices. These devices are
referred to as ___________ devices. If a ___________ device is
placed on an SE chain, it loses all of the benefits of LVD and behaves
as a SE device.

34

35

36

37

38

39

Duality
SECompatible
Multimode
Switching
Objective: N/A
Which RAID level requires two hard drives and provides fault
tolerance?
RAID 0
RAID 1
RAID 5
RAID 2
Objective: N/A
Connecting a(n) HVD SCSI device to a daisy chain containing LVD
or SE SCSI devices can ________________.
destroy a computer's motherboard
be done with an SECompatible device
be done with a switching device
destroy all of the devices on the chain
Objective: N/A
When installing SCSI devices, what must be done to each device?
They need to be assigned a SCSI ID
They need to be placed in a specific order on the cable, from slowest
to fastest
They need to be master/slaved
They need to be assigned a termination level
Objective: N/A
If a SCSI chain is not ___________, the signal will bounce back at the
end of the cable, creating echoes on the cable.
terminated
crimped
plugged back into the SCSI card
capped with a SCSI controller chip
Objective: N/A
What is the binary sequence for SCSI ID 4?
110
100
101
001
Objective: N/A
What SCSI ID is defined by the binary sequence 101?
6

3
5
4x
7
Objective: N/A
40 What RAID level provides striping with parity fault tolerance?
RAID 0
RAID 1
RAID 3
RAID 4
RAID 5
Objective: N/A

Copyright 1990-2014 Aries Technology, Inc. All Rights Reserved.

Welcome to the class of Yusupha Jammeh

November
20, 2014

Preview Exam

Exam Bank: Aries


Hardware v.11

Exam: Aries

Hardware v.11: Unit 8 # Question : 40


Exam

1 The most common type of video card bus slot that is found today is
____________.
VGA
AGP
PCIe
PCI
Objective: N/A
2 Which modern display technology uses rod-shaped molecules that can
bend light?
Liquid Crystal Displays
Digital Monitors
Super VGA
Analog Monitors
Objective: N/A
3 Some newer USB monitors and keyboards have ________ on them
that allow other USB devices, like mice, to connect to the computer.
USB hubs
USB gateways
port replicators
USB switches
Objective: N/A
4 Available in high end LCD computer monitors, ____________ offers
a display resolution of 1920 x 1200 with a 16:10 aspect ratio.
UXGA
WUXGA
SVGA
XGA
Objective: N/A
5 More recent video cards use the __________ bus slot that has an even
greater bandwidth interface to the motherboard than any other video
card bus slot.
AGP
PCIe
PCI
ISA
VGA
Objective: N/A
6 _____________, an nVidia technology, uses the PCIe architecture to
allow video card and motherboard manufacturers to offer the ability to
add two or four PCIe video cards in parallel in a single motherboard.
Video Accelerator Technology (VAT)

10

11

12

Graphics Interconnect (GI)


Graphics Tandem Technology (GTT)
Scalable Link Interface (SLI)
Objective: N/A
Purchasing a quality graphics card when using graphics intensive
software is essential so that the computer continues to run at optimal
speeds. Support provided by the video card's
___________accomplishes this by reducing the CPU's work load.
Super DMA
CPU accelerator
graphics accelerator
pixelator
Objective: N/A
Wireless keyboards that connect using ________ signals require the
transmitter to be pointed right at the receiver.
Infrared
Radio frequency
Satellite
Microwave
Objective: N/A
Which video card component translates digital signals into analog
signals?
ADC
RAM
RAMDAC
Buffer
Objective: N/A
How many bits per pixel are required for 16,777,216 True Color
display?
24
2
16
8
Objective: N/A
How many colors can be displayed with 16-bits per pixel?
256 - Super VGA
16 - Standard VGA
65,536 - High Color
6,777,216 - True Color
Objective: N/A
What customized operating system software is used for controlling the

13

14

15

16

17

video card's sophisticated capabilities?


Drivers
Hardware Interface
BIOS
Windows
Objective: N/A
A video card's ____________ commonly provides the following basic
support: line draw and pixel block, texture mapping, color space
conversion, and hardware scaling.
BIOS
pixelator
CPU accelerator
graphic accelerator
RAMDAC
Objective: N/A
What term describes SDRAM and SGRAM that can transfer twice per
clock cycle?
Double Output Rate
Dynamic Data Transfer
Multi-transfer
Double Data Rate
Objective: N/A
Identify the type of memory described by the following: "_________
supports dual porting, which permits memory to be written to, and
written from at the same time."
VRAM
FPM DRAM
MDRAM
SDRAM
Objective: N/A
What legacy mouse component produces signals that drive the pointer
on the monitor?
Left button
Right button
Roller Ball
Cable
Objective: N/A
What device(s) connect(s) to the computer using the interface pictured
below?

Speakers
Keyboard and Mouse
Keyboard
Mouse
Objective: N/A
18 Which interface is pictured below?

Serial
USB
AT/DIN
PS/2
Objective: N/A
19 Which interface can be used to connect a mouse to a PC?
VGA
All of the answers
USB
DVI
Objective: N/A
20 What is the standard key layout by which most keyboards follow?
IBM PS/2
Dvorak
QWERTY
IBM XT
Objective: N/A
21 Wireless keyboards that connect using ___________ have a certain
range the keyboard must stay in, but do not need line of sight with the
signal receiver.
Infrared
Microwave
Radio frequency
Satellite
Objective: N/A
22 The "Windows" and "Applications" keys were added to keyboards in

23

24

25

26

1996 to create the ______________ keyboard standard.


104-Key enhanced
Dvorak
101-Key enhanced
Microsoft
Objective: N/A
Which of the following describes the special "F1" to "F12" keys?
Alphanumeric Keys
Function Keys
Application Keys
Special Keys
Objective: N/A
What is the most likely cause of a roller ball mouse becoming
sluggish or less responsive?
Dirt accumulation on the interface
Worn out drivers
Dirt accumulation on the ball and rollers
Water condensation
Objective: N/A
Most video cards use GDDR SDRAM video memory. What is the
latest version?
GDDR-1
GDDR-5
GDDR-2
GDDR-4
GDDR-3
Objective: N/A
What arrow in the graphic below is pointing to the Digital Video
Interface (DVI-I) port?

A
B
C
A DVI-I port is not shown in the picture.
Objective: N/A
27 What computer speaker device is used to produce low-frequency
sound?
Subwoofer

28

29

30

31

32

USB Setup
Bass Box
Tweeter
Objective: N/A
__________ no longer use a roller ball to detect mouse movement.
___________ take pictures of the surface beneath them, and analyze
changes between one frame and the next in order to determine
movement. This means that they are not susceptible to dirt problems
and have a smoother response to movement.
Trackpoint mice
Trackball mice
Glidepoint mice
Intellimouse mice
Optical mice
Objective: N/A
Which technology creates realistic sounding music by using stored
samples of actual instruments?
Digital Synthesis
FM Synthesis
Wavetable Synthesis
Sampled Synthesis
Objective: N/A
Which sound file format uses "lossy" compression by scanning a
WAV file and remove portions of the sound that the human ear is not
likely to hear?
.MP3
.MPA
.MOD
.M4P
.MIDI
Objective: N/A
Which of the following is NOT a type of audio port?
ADC port
S/PDIF port
Microphone port
Game/MIDI port
Objective: N/A
_____________ sound supports additional channels so audio can be
heard from multiple speakers strategically placed around a listener.
Stereo
Mono

Surround
3D
Objective: N/A
33 What video input in the graphic below is pointing to the analog port?

34

35

36

37

A
B
C
The analog port is not shown in the picture.
Objective: N/A
For computers running operating systems that do not have specific
video card drivers, the ___________ provides a set of limited video
functions for software programs to access the video hardware.
video BIOS
video chipset
RAMDAC
DMAC
Objective: N/A
Which of the following is/are true about USB speakers?
USB speakers are a good choice for high-end users.
USB's transfer rate are more than enough to keep up with today's
high quality, 3D sound applications and games.
By moving the sound functions out of the computer and into the
speakers, EMI and RFI problems are removed.
USB speakers have enjoyed widespread popularity.
Objective: N/A
An analog monitor port is called a _____________.
DB-15
DGI-I
DVI-I
LPT5
DB-10
Objective: N/A
___________ is an alternate boot method that makes it easier to
diagnose problems. The only programs loaded in ___________ are the
operating system and drivers for the mouse, keyboard, and a basic
(generic) display.
Diagnosis Mode

Safe Mode
Boot Mode
Basic Mode
Generic Mode
Objective: N/A
38 If a monitor is running at a resolution of 640x480, how many pixels
are being displayed?
16,777,216
307,200
1,222,000
640,480
Objective: N/A
39 The term SVGA is used to refer to a resolution of ______________.
900 x 700
860 x 640
640 x 480
800 x 600
Objective: N/A
40 A __________________ is a vacuum tube used as a display screen in
video monitors or television sets.
Cathode ray tube
Digital ray tube
Liquid crystal display
Crystal ray tube
Cathode ray display
Objective: N/A

Copyright 1990-2014 Aries Technology, Inc. All Rights Reserved.

Welcome to the class of Yusupha Jammeh

November
20, 2014

Preview Exam

Exam Bank: Aries


Hardware v.11

Exam: Aries

Hardware v.11: Unit 9 # Question : 40


Exam

1 Dot matrix printers have one main advantage which makes them
useful today even though they are considered a legacy printer:
A dot matrix printer can print large documents such as oversized
architectural blueprints.
A dot matrix printer provides superior color quality.
A dot matrix printer's impact design allows the machine to print
multi-part forms.
Objective: N/A
2 The component of a laser printer that gains or loses its electrical
charge when exposed to light is the ________.
Fuser
Scanning laser
Photosensitive drum
Transfer corona
Objective: N/A
3 Solid ink printers are also referred to as _________.
Ink jet Printers
Plotters
Phase-change Printers
Impact Printers
Objective: N/A
4 Which stage of the laser printing process uses a positive charge to
transfer toner to the paper?
Cleaning
Transferring
Erasing
Fusing
Objective: N/A

5 Which stage of the laser printing process involves the scanning laser?
Writing
Conditioning
Developing
Lasering
Objective: N/A
6 Which laser printing stage uses a soft blade to remove loose toner
from the drum?
Scraping
Cleaning
Erasing
Wiping
Objective: N/A
7 Which laser printing stage secures the toner to the paper?
Fusing
Finishing
Developing
Melting
Objective: N/A
8 Which type of printer prints whole pages from memory, requiring
large amounts of RAM?
Dot Matrix
Laser
Inkjet
Bubble-jet
Objective: N/A
9 What type of printer is best suited for industrial applications, such as
producing over-sized blueprints and designs?
Dot Matrix
Plotter
Inkjet
Laser
Objective: N/A
10 Most common printers connect to a computer using a _______
connector.
SCSI
USB
LAN
Parallel
Objective: N/A

11 Which laser printer component may need to be replaced if the toner on


a printed page flakes or rubs off of the paper?
Primary corona
Fuser
Transfer corona
Melting array
Objective: N/A
12 What standard was created to allow expansion devices to connect to
laptops?
ISDN
ISA
ExpressCard
PIDE
Objective: N/A
13 Which of the following connector types allows hot-swapping?
USB
Thunderbolt
None of the answers
FireWire
All of the answers
Objective: N/A
14 Recycled ink cartridges for inkjet printers __________.
are never a good idea to use
are a good idea to use if the recycled cartridge is from the same
manufacturer as the inkjet printer manufacturer
work better than new cartridges and are cheaper
are the same quality as new cartridges but are cheaper
Objective: N/A
15 If a laptop doesn't display any image at all, but an external monitor
that is hooked up to the laptop does, what might the problem be?
The video cable
The backlight
The FL inverter
All of the answers
Objective: N/A
16 ___________ batteries are the newest innovation in portable computer
batteries, offering lighter weight, smaller size (1mm thick), and
stronger profiles in recharge ability.
Nickel Cadmium

Lithium-ion polymer
Nickel Metal Hydride
Lithium-ion
Objective: N/A
17 What hot swappable device allows up to 127 connections using only
one IRQ?
Serial port
COM 1
USB
Parallel port
Objective: N/A
18 ________ is/are the physical materials to which a printer applies
images or text.
Toner
Printables
Print consumables
Print Media
Objective: N/A
19 A _________ is a receptacle or socket on the back of a computer that
connects peripheral devices.
port
connector
cable
plug
Objective: N/A
20 Portable computers require a special type of DIMM chip called
____________.
Mini DIMM (M-DIMM)
Micro Mini DIMM (MM-DIMM)
Small Outline DIMM (SO-DIMM)
Laptop Specific DIMM (LS-DIMM)
Objective: N/A
21 Over 50% smaller than standard laptop memory, __________ provide
a 64-bit data path that is installed singly into 64-bit systems. This
memory chip is most commonly used in ultra-slim or subnotebook
computers or other small form devices.
Mini DIMMs
Notebook Specific DIMMs
Micro Mini DIMMs

MicroDIMMs
Objective: N/A
22 IEEE 1394 is a standard outlining specifications for a high speed
external bus that supports up to 63 devices called ________.
FDDI
Serial
USB
FireWire
Parallel
Objective: N/A
23 Start and stop bits are associated with which type of communication?
Bi-directional
All of the answers
Serial
Parallel
Objective: N/A
24 Identify the interface that matches the connector pictured below:

USB
Serial (COM)
Parallel port
Thunderbolt
Objective: N/A
25 ________ is a version of SATA that is designed specifically for
external connectivity.
aSATA
eSATA
cSATA
mSATA
Objective: N/A
26 Which of the following is NOT a type of USB connector?
C-Connector
B-Connector
Mini A-connector
A-connector

Objective: N/A
27 What type of interface offers the fastest transfer speed?
IDE
FireWire
USB-3
Thunderbolt
Objective: N/A
28 Which laptop port can be used to add an external hard drive?
IDE
Parallel
Serial
SCSI
eSATA
Objective: N/A
29 A ____________ offers portable computer users the best of both
worlds: the advantages of portability with the opportunity to use a
portable as a traditional desktop.
port provider
docking station
desktop station
interface station
Objective: N/A
30 Which of the following is/are an advantage of inkjet printers when
compared to other printer technologies?
Impact capabilities for multi-part forms
High speed
Printer price
All of the answers
Cheapest supplies
Objective: N/A
31 The iPad is an example of a ___________.
luggable
tablet
laptop
subnotebook
Objective: N/A
32 ____________ has become the most widely used smartphone platform
on today's market.

None of the answers


Windows Mobile
iPhone
Android
Objective: N/A
33 Which of the following is/are a mobile operating system?
BlackBerryOS
All of the answers
iOS
Android
Windows Phone
Objective: N/A
34 What connection method, using short range radio-based wireless
technology, allows connectivity between other devices enabled with
the same technology?
Cellular
Bluetooth
Blackberry
Cradle
Objective: N/A
35 ___________ is the successor to the Windows Mobile platform.
Windows Android
Windows Phone
Windows MobileOS
Windows OntheGo
Objective: N/A
36 Class 2 Bluetooth technology has a range of:
10 - 25 feet
16 - 30 feet
50 - 100 feet
130 - 330 feet
200 - 500 feet
Objective: N/A
37 Which of the following is not a type of tablet computer?
Notepad
Slate

Convertible
Hybrid
Booklet
Objective: N/A
38 Which OS, created by Research in Motion, was originally developed
for business; and supports specialized input devices including the
trackwheel, trackball, and trackpad?
Bluetooth
Wireless
Blackberry
Cellular
Cradle
Objective: N/A
39 A major difference between a laptop motherboard and a desktop
motherboard is that the laptop typically has key components like the
processor directly integrated into the motherboard rather than as a
separate component with a ZIF socket.
True
False
Objective: N/A
40 Which of the following statement is False?
It is common for the cost to procure replacement parts to be cost
prohibitive compared to replacing the laptop entirely.
All of the answers are true.
Liquid damage is often evident if you can find dried spots along PCB
boards, some manufacturers also utilize water damage indicator
stickers that change color to indicate if moisture is a factor.
Manufacturers typically do not provide serviceable laptop parts such
as system boards (motherboards), trackpads, or LCD screens to the
general public.
Objective: N/A

Copyright 1990-2014 Aries Technology, Inc. All Rights Reserved.

Welcome to the class of Yusupha Jammeh

November
20, 2014

Preview Exam

Exam Bank: Aries


Hardware v.11

Exam: Aries

Hardware v.11: Unit # Question : 40


10 Exam

1 A modem converts _________ signals in the computer into specific


frequencies for transmission across telephone and cable television
lines.
binary
analog
digital
optical
Objective: N/A
2 The process of varying the frequency of electronic waves from digital
to analog is called ________.
Modulation
Valuation
Demodulation
Variation
Objective: N/A
3 The process a modem uses to turn analog signals into digital code is
_______________.
Demodulation
Modulation
Deanalogization
Frequency transformation
Objective: N/A
4 Asynchronous communication requires a ___________ at the
beginning of each data packet and a ___________ at end of each data
packet.
Send bit, Receive bit
Open bit, Close bit
Go bit, Stop bit
Start bit, Stop bit
Objective: N/A
5 The ability to send and receive at the same time is known as
______________.
Full Duplex
S/R Duplex
FM transmission
Fulplex
Objective: N/A
6 Which of the following is NOT a common type of modem?
Wireless
Narrowband

Broadband
Dial-Up
Objective: N/A
7 The ______________ data signal asks a modem if it is free to receive
data from a computer.
Ready To Send
Ready To Receive
Request To Transmit
Request To Send
Objective: N/A
8 A 56K modem communicates at 56 Kbps downstream when
downloading or receiving data, but operates only at ________ Kbps
upstream when uploading or sending data.
53
33.6
45
28.8
Objective: N/A
9 Devices that can send and receive data-- but not simultaneously-- are
known as __________.
S/R duplex
Half-duplex
Full-duplex
FM Transmission
Objective: N/A
10 Identify the cable below:

Shielded Twisted Pair


Unshielded Twisted Pair
Fiber Optic
Coaxial
Objective: N/A
11 Identify the device connecting the computers in the picture below:

Router

Server
Repeater
Bridge
None of the answers
Objective: N/A
12 Which network device determines how data packets are transferred
between networks?
Switch
Hub
Repeater
Router
Objective: N/A
13 Identify the cabling pictured below:

UTP
Fiber Optic
Coaxial
BNC
STP
Objective: N/A
14 To create a 100BaseT network, what type of cabling needs to be used?
Coaxial
CAT3 or better
CAT4
CAT5
Objective: N/A
15 Which hardware component performs all the functions required for a
computer to communicate on a network?
OSI
NIC
Data Link
Hub
USB
Objective: N/A
16 NICs come in many shapes and sizes, and communicate at layers
_________ of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) level.
2 and 4
2 and 3

1 and 3
1 and 4
1 and 2
Objective: N/A
17 To translate between different protocols, a ___________ is needed.
Repeater
Router
Hub
Protocol Switch
Gateway
Objective: N/A
18 Each manufactured Network Interface Card comes with a unique
_____________.
DMA channel
MAC address
IP address
IPX address
IRQ
Objective: N/A
19 Which network topology is displayed below?

Ring
Bus
Star
Mesh
Objective: N/A
20 Identify the network topology displayed below:

Mesh
Star
Bus
Ring
Objective: N/A
21 Identify the network topology below:

Mesh

Ring
Star
Bus
Objective: N/A
22 Which network topology is displayed below?

23

24

25

26

27

Ring
Bus
Star
Mesh
Objective: N/A
Which network resource structure features centralized management
and security information?
Peer-to-Peer
Full/Share
Central/Store
Client/Server
Objective: N/A
Which network resource structure lacks centralized information and
management?
Peer-to-Peer
Server-to-Server
Client-to-Central
Peer-to-Server
Objective: N/A
What is the logical structure of FDDI?
Ring
Dual Rings
Star
Bus
Objective: N/A
At what speed does Fast Ethernet transmit data?
16Mbps
10Mbps
100Mbps
2.5Mbps
1000Mbps (1Gbps)
Objective: N/A
Which of the following is a disadvantage of the star topology?

28

29

30

31

32

All of the answers


If a cable breaks, the entire network fails
Must be terminated on both ends
If the central hub fails, all connected computers will be unable to
access the network
Objective: N/A
In the star topology, all of the computers connect to a _____________.
Central Bus
Central Server
Central Hub or Switch
Central Ring
Objective: N/A
The Internet is essentially the world's largest _________.
MAN
LAN
Token Ring
WAN
Objective: N/A
Which part of the Internet uses HTML, Hypertext, and HTTP?
Email
FTP
Gopher
WWW
Objective: N/A
Which two protocols are used for sending and receiving email?
POP and SMTP
HTTP and FTP
SMTP and HTTP
POP and HTTP
SMTP and FTP
Objective: N/A
Currently the most popular Web browser(s) is/are __________.
Internet Explorer
Mozilla Firefox
Apple Safari
All of the answers

Objective: N/A
33 Which OSI layer converts digital signals into signals appropriate for
the media in use?
Physical
Transport
Data Link
Session
Network
Objective: N/A
34 Rather than an Ethernet based network, a ____________ connects via
radio-based computer networks.
Satellite NIC
Radio NIC
WiMAX
Wireless NIC
Objective: N/A
35 The vast majority of dial-up modems use the ____________
command set.
US Robotics
Microsoft
Intel
Hayes
Objective: N/A
36 Which of the following connection types combine broadband internet
access with wireless connectivity?
Satellite
WiMAX
Wireless
Cellular
Objective: N/A
37 Today, most computers have either Ethernet capabilities integrated
into the __________, or use an inexpensive dedicated Ethernet chip
connected using the PCI or PCIe bus.
CPU
Power supply
Motherboard
RAM

Objective: N/A
38 Which UTP category standard must be used for 10Gbps data transfer
rates?
5
7
6e
5e
6
Objective: N/A
39 Which wireless standard specifies a data transfer rate of up to 600
Mbps and has a range of 230 - 820 feet?
802.11a
802.11b
802.11n
802.11d
802.11g
Objective: N/A
40 Which device is required to connect wireless devices to a wired
network?
Wireless Internet Connector (WIC)
Wireless Connector (WC)
Wireless Access Point (WAP)
Wireless Access Connector (WAC)
Wireless Repeater (WR)
Objective: N/A

Copyright 1990-2014 Aries Technology, Inc. All Rights Reserved.

Welcome to the class of Yusupha Jammeh

November
20, 2014

Preview Exam

Exam Bank: Aries


Hardware v.11

Exam: Aries

Hardware v.11: Unit # Question : 40


11 Exam

1 Which of the following RAM is most preferred when creating a


design workstation?
Fast RAM
Static RAM
Max RAM
Dynamic RAM
Stable RAM
Objective: N/A
2 Which of the following is useful in the monitoring of multiple audio
tracks and video clips?
Specialized audio card
Large hard drive
Dual monitors
Specialized video card
Objective: N/A
3 Which of the following is intended to replace AGP?
PCle
MCA
ISA
PCl
Objective: N/A
4 To avoid errors or missed frames while recoding high-end video,
which of the following is required?
A large and fast hard drive

None of the answers


A specialized video card
A specialized audio card
Objective: N/A
5 Which of the following is NOT needed to run virtual computers?
Dual monitors
None of the answers
Maximum RAM
CPU cores
Objective: N/A
6 Which of the following is NOT true of PCIe?
PCIe contain a more comprehensive error detection and reporting
mechanism along with native hot plug functionality.
PCIe has better performance-scaling for bus devices as well as a
smaller physical footprint.
PCIe has a lower maximum system bus throughput and lower I/O pin
count than AGP.
PCIe operates at a high speed and is based on the PCI system.
Objective: N/A
7 For gaming PC, it is best to purchase which of the following?
5400 RPM
7200 RPM
1000 RPM
6000 RPM
Objective: N/A
8 Which of the following is NOT used to keep CPUs and RAM cool?
Heat sinks
Water cooling devices
Oversized fans
Air conditioner
Objective: N/A
9 A __________________ aids in overall performance improvement by
decreasing the demand off of the processor.
high-end video card

dedicated sound card


dedicated video card
high-end cooling device
Objective: N/A
10 A thick client has hard drives and software installed on it, though it
does not meets the recommended requirements for Windows and runs
desktop applications.
True
False
Objective: N/A
11 Which of the following rely on a central processing server?
Thick client system
Thin client system
Standard computer
None of the answers
Objective: N/A
12 Which of the following places are thin clients most likely to be
founded?
Small enterprises
Private offices
Home
Schools
Objective: N/A
13 The Home Server PC can be accessed by multiple devices at the same
time.
True
False
Objective: N/A
14 To stream data to multiple devices without delays, which of the
following should be installed on a Home Server PC?
A high end video card
A RAID array
A gigabit NIC

A cable card
Objective: N/A
15 The _____________ permits the transmission of high-definition
video, surround sound, and data to media receivers, projectors, and
televisions.
Sound card
HDMI standard
None of the answers
AVI cable
Objective: N/A
16 Todays PC come with which of the following external cache
memory?
Level 1 cache
Level 2 cache
Level 3 cache
Level 4 cache
Objective: N/A
17 Which of the following PCs can acts as a central server for the
network allowing printing and file sharing between all computers in
the home?
Home Theater PC
Home Server PC
Thin Client PC
Standard Thick Client PC
Objective: N/A
18 Which of the following can be utilized to cut the amount of noise
generated by the HTPC?
Dedicated sound card
Specialized hard drive
High-end cooling device
Power supplies without fans
Objective: N/A
19 PCIe has better performance-scaling for bus devices as well as a
______________.

Comprehensive structure
Smaller physical footprint.
Higher I/O pin count
Larger physical footprint
Objective: N/A
20 If using multiple monitors, which of the following is required when
constructing an audio or video workstation?
A specialize cable card
A specialized video card
None of the answers
A dedicated audio card
Objective: N/A
21 Computers can be built to run:
Computer-aided design (CAD) software
Computer-aided manufacturing (CAM) software
All of the answers
Graphics software
None of the answers
Objective: N/A
22 Design workstations should have:
A small amount of RAM
A powerful processor
None of the answers
Low-end video card
All of the answers
Objective: N/A
23 Which of the following statements best describes Hyperthreading?
Allows multithreaded software applications to perform threads in
parallel on a dual multi-core processor for processing threads one at a
time.
Allows multithreaded software applications to perform threads in
parallel on a single multi-core processor rather than processing
threads one at a time.
Allows multithreaded software applications to perform threads in

parallel on a dual multi-core processor rather than processing threads


one at a time.
Allows multithreaded software applications to perform threads in
parallel on a single multi-core processor for processing threads one at
a time.
Objective: N/A
24 Which of the following statements best describes Dual-core
processors?
Utilized for multitasking environments because there are two
complete execution cores rather than one.
Each core has an independent interface to the back-side bus as well
as its own cache
C. Each core has an independent interface to the front-side bus as
well as its own cache
A and B
A and C
Objective: N/A
25 Which of the following statements best describes PCI Express?
Operates at a low speed and is based on the PCI system.
Contains a more comprehensive error detection and reporting
mechanism along with native hot plug functionality.
Has better performance-scaling for bus devices as well as a smaller
physical footprint.
A and B
B and C
Objective: N/A
26 Internal caches are usually referred to as
Level 2 (L2) caches
Level 3 (L3) caches
Level 1 (L1) caches
Level 4 (L4) caches
Objective: N/A
27 External caches sit in the middle of the
CPU and the RAM
All of the answers

CPU and the DRAM


None of the answers
CPU and the SRAM
Objective: N/A
28 L2 caches are made up of
All of the answers
DRAM
SRAM
RAM
None of the answers
Objective: N/A
29 An audio editing workstation can used to:
Produce videos for businesses or the arts
Record music and audio tracks
All of the answers
Create music CDs, and design CD labels
None of the answers
Objective: N/A
30 A video editing workstation can used to:
Record music and audio tracks
Create music CDs, and design CD labels
Produce videos for businesses or the arts
A and C
All of the answers
Objective: N/A
31 Audio software is used to
Mix audio tracks
Publish the finalized piece
All of the answers
None of the answers
Record audio
Objective: N/A
32 Video software is used to
None of the answers

Record video
All of the answers
Publish video clips
Edit video
Objective: N/A
33 The following hardware needs to be considered when using audio
and/or video editing software:
Dual monitors, Small Hard drive
Specialized audio card , Specialized video card
None of the answers
Large, fast hard drive , Single Monitor
All of the answers
Objective: N/A
34 VDI lets users to log in to a:
Switch to get on to their own virtual computers
Router to get on to their own virtual computers
Server to get on to their own virtual computers
Access point to get on to their own virtual computers
Objective: N/A
35 Some of the hardware necessary to run virtual computers include:
CPU cores
A and B
Maximum RAM
Multiple monitors
All of the answers
Objective: N/A
36 Consider the following hardware requirements when building a
gaming computer:
Large amounts of fast RAM, Generic hardware and Multiple
monitors
Large amounts of fast RAM, Generic hardware and Fast storage
Powerful processor, Generic hardware and Multiple monitors
High-end video card, High-end sound card and High-end cooling
components
Objective: N/A

37 The following hardware should be considered when building a Home


Theater PC:
Specialized hard drive
Surround sound audio and HDMI output
TV tuners and cable cards
HTPC Compact Form Factor
All of the answers
Objective: N/A
38 Which of the following statements best describes a thick client?
Has hard drives and does not software installed on it.
A standard computer that can be bought off the shelf.
Relies on a central processing server
Not functional when its not connected to a network.
Objective: N/A
39 Which of the following statements best describes a thin client?
Thin clients contain hard drives, applications, and processing
capabilities.
Can perform difficult calculations
Are not used in public spaces such as airport terminals, malls, hotels,
car rental agencies, schools, hospital waiting rooms, etc
Thin clients are not functional when connected to a network.
Do not use central processing
Objective: N/A
40 When building a Home Server PC:
It is a best practice to install a gigabit NIC
It is not a best practice to install a gigabit NIC
Consider installing a RAID array
A and C
B and C
Objective: N/A

Copyright 1990-2014 Aries Technology, Inc. All Rights Reserved.

Welcome to the class of Yusupha Jammeh

November
20, 2014

Preview Exam

Exam Bank: Aries


Hardware v.11

Exam: Aries

Hardware v.11: Unit # Question : 40


12 Exam

1 What does the BIOS abbreviation stand for?


Basic Initialization Operating System
Basic Input Output System
Bootup Input Output System
Basic Integrated Operating System
Objective: N/A
2 What is the purpose of the AW Single Processor Mode option in the
BIOS main menu?

AW Single Processor Mode must be disabled in order to use a dual


core processor or multiple processors.
AW Single Processor Mode must be disabled so that the system will
increase a regular processor's speed so that it behaves like a dual core
processor.
AW Single Processor Mode must be enabled in order to use a dual
core processor or multiple processors.
AW Single Processor Mode must be enabled so that the system will
increase a regular processor's speed so that it behaves like a dual core
processor.
Objective: N/A
3 What is the purpose of the S.M.A.R.T. technology option found in the
BIOS advanced menu?

It is a technology that enables monitoring of RAM so that potential


data errors can be corrected.
It is a technology that enables the system to predict user programs

that will be opened based on previous user actions and prepare them
for execution.
It is a technology that enables the processor to run slower when not
in use and save energy.
It is a technology that enables monitoring of hard drives so that
potential failures to the hard drive can be reported before they
happen.
Objective: N/A
4 What is the purpose of the USB Legacy option that is found in the
BIOS advanced menu?

This option allows the BIOS to enable the USB ports to interact with
USB version 6.5 devices.
This option allows the BIOS to interact with a USB keyboard and
mouse.
This option allows the BIOS to enable or disable the USB ports.
This option allows the BIOS to enable the USB ports to interact with
USB version 5.0 devices.
Objective: N/A
5 What is the purpose of the XD Technology option found in the BIOS
security menu?

This option stops malicious code that tells the system to shut down
immediately after booting from being added to the BIOS startup
script.
This option protects data pages against attacks by malicious worms
which attempt to execute large amounts of code that can overwhelm
the processor.
This option enables the BIOS to automatically check for BIOS
version update certificates whenever the BIOS is flashed.
This option enables the BIOS to connect to antivirus programs so that
the CMOS can be searched for malware.
Objective: N/A
6 What is the purpose of the Chassis Intrusion option that is found in the
BIOS security menu?

When a system's case is opened, this event is logged in the event log

and the event is posted on the screen during the next POST.
When a system's case is opened, the system issues loud beeps until
the Supervisor password is entered.
When a system's case is opened, this event is emailed to the provided
email.
When a system's hardware configuration is changed, the details of the
changes are logged in the event log.
Objective: N/A
7 What is the purpose of the BIOS Supervisor Password?

Changes made in the BIOS cannot be saved unless the correct


password is entered.
It sets the administrative password for Windows XP.
It does not allow the computer to boot unless the correct password is
entered.
It locks users out of the system BIOS setup screen.
Objective: N/A
8 What is the purpose of the user password setting in the BIOS?

It prevents the user from changing vital Windows XP settings.


It locks users out of the system BIOS setup screen.
The system cannot boot unless the proper password is entered.
It sets the administrative password for Windows XP.
It sets the user's password for Windows XP.
Objective: N/A
9 What purpose does the After Power Failure option that is found in the
BIOS power menu have?

This option tells the system to synch with the UPS, give a warning
when power loss occurs, and send a signal to the UPS to switch to
battery power.
This option tells the system to stay off or turn back on once power is
restored after a power loss occurs.
This option instructs the system to recalibrates all hardware devices
after a power loss occurs.
This option tells the system to perform a quick save of all programs

once power is lost and use the CMOS battery to provide 10 seconds
of power to the motherboard.
Objective: N/A
10 The Command Prompt and Graphical User Interface (GUI) are
classified as what operating system component?
File Management System
Input System
User Interface
Graphics Interface
Kernel
Objective: N/A
11 Which of the following are basic tasks performed by the operating
system?
Keeps track of files on the floppy and hard drives
Controls peripherals such as printers, modems, etc.
Converts digital data into analog signals for displaying images on a
computer monitor
A & C Only
A & B Only
Objective: N/A
12 Which of the following is a major operating system component?
Kernel Interface
None of the answers
File Interface
User Interface
Objective: N/A
13 What is a Command Prompt Interface?
The area in Internet Explorer where a URL is entered.
A setting in the Windows XP Control Panel that lets you change the
colors and fonts of the interface.
An interface that requires a user to interact with the system by typing
commands at a prompt.
An error message prompting a user command to remedy the problem.
Objective: N/A
14 What is the beginning, or highest, directory in a file system's directory
structure called?
Root Directory
Head Directory
Tree Directory

15

16

17

18

19

Start Directory
Objective: N/A
Which freely distributed operating system was developed by Linus
Torvalds?
Debian
UNIX
Linux
OS/X
Objective: N/A
__________ has a reputation for being an enormously powerful,
multi-tasking system that supports several robust file systems.
Variants are produced by SCO, Solaris, and HP-UX.
UNIX
Linux
Windows Vista
OS/X
Objective: N/A
_________ is the oldest of the operating systems. It is a robust, stable
operating system that runs on non-proprietary computer servers and
workstations systems. It has several variants and several different sets
of standards.
Linux
OS/X
Unix
Windows 2000
Objective: N/A
Which operating system uses the Aqua interface, which uses
animation to make it more user friendly?
Windows 95
Mac OS X
Windows 3.0
Unix
Objective: N/A
What software is used to allow both Mac OS X and Microsoft
operating systems to run on the same computer system?
Duality
DualOS
iCompatible
Parallel Desktop
iSystem
Objective: N/A

20 _____________ contains a new visual style called Windows Aero.


Mac OS X
Linux
Windows Vista
OS/X
Windows XP
Objective: N/A
21 Which Windows Vista program protects the system from malware and
spyware?
Windows Defender
Windows Drive Encryption
Windows Security Center
Windows Firewall
Objective: N/A
22 Which Windows Vista program has been improved to filter both
incoming and outgoing data traffic?
Windows Firewall
Windows Defender
Windows Security Center
Windows Drive Encryption
Objective: N/A
23 ____________ adds a phishing filter, more parental controls, and
other security features such as disabling ActiveX controls by default.
Windows Security Center
Internet Explorer 7
Windows Defender
Windows Firewall
Windows Mail
Objective: N/A
24 Is Mac OS X able to run on a PC system?
No, however a hacked and unsupported version of OS X called
OSx86 is able to run on PCs.
Yes, OS X is able to run on all PCs when the BIOS is flashed with a
specific Mac upgrade.
Yes, OS X is able to run on PCs that have a Mac/Microsoft certified
motherboard.
No, OS X isn't able to run on PCs.
Objective: N/A
25 Mac OS X is divided into two main files: ___________ and
____________.
User Interface and Finder

26

27

28

29

30

System File and Finder


System File and Kernel
File Management System and Finder
User Interface and Kernel
Objective: N/A
All Mac systems developed after the PowerPC G5 use the
_____________ processor.
Cyrix
Seagate
Motorola
Intel
Objective: N/A
Which CPU manufacturer made CPUs for Apple computers in all
PowerPC G5 and prior computers?
Motorola
AMD
IBM
Intel
Objective: N/A
___________, which are miniature applications that can be created to
perform searches and lots of other functions, appear on the Mac OS X
desktop with a ripple effect.
Applets
Widgets
Macros
Gadgets
Objective: N/A
What graphical user interface has become the UNIX platform's GUI
standard?
X-Windows
UniWindows
UNIX O/S
WinuX
Objective: N/A
_________ are considered premiere desktop publishing and graphics
design computers.
PCs
TRS-80s
Macs
Commodores
Kaypros

31

32

33

34

Objective: N/A
One disadvantage of __________ is that few off-the-shelf applications
have been written for it.
Windows VIsta
Linux
Windows XP
UNIX
Objective: N/A
There are several different shells (also known as interfaces) that are
used by ________ including Korn, C and Bash.
Microsoft OS/X
Microsoft Vista
UNIX
Mac OS X
Microsoft 2000
Objective: N/A
_________ is distributed by Debian, Red Hat, Caldera, Slackware,
and S.U.S.E.
X Windows
Unix
OS/X
Mac OS X
Linux
Objective: N/A
The minimum hard disk space requirement for Windows 8 IA-32
edition is _______.

24GB
20GB
16GB
8GB
Objective: N/A
35 Which of the following is NOT a function in Windows 8?
A quicker startup through UEFI integration
A new lock screen with a clock and notifications
Support for offline communication
Support for the hard disk 4Kn (4K native mode) Advanced Format
support
Objective: N/A

36 In addition to overcoming the limitations of the traditional BIOS,


UEFI allows for manufacturers and vendors to do all of the following
except?
Quicker time-to-market for their products
Re-use code for modularity
Use only new code for modularity
Allow room for customizations and innovations
Objective: N/A
37 UEFI is an acronym for which of the following?
United Extensible Firewall Interface
Unified Extensible Firewall Interface
Unified Extensible Firmware Interface
Unified Enabled Firmware Interface
Objective: N/A
38 Which of the following is TRUE of UEFI?
UEFI provides an intuitive user interface and enables a simpler dualbooting process.
UEFI leverages modern video cards and monitors but it cannot
access the Internet.
The UEFI runs after the primary OS starts up.
UEFI secure boot has only one option, which is that a user can use
the custom secure boot mode by typing in a signature for the desired
OS loader.
Objective: N/A
39 Which of the following steps can be used to access the App Selector
Bar of Windows 8?
Right click on the Start screen to access the All Apps button on the
App bar.
Right click the mouse on the tile in the bottom left for a popup menu.
Left clicking the mouse in the top left corner gives access to the
desktop or last viewed application running.
Left click the mouse on the tile in the bottom left corner.
Left click the mouse in the top left corner and mouse down the left
side of the screen to access running apps.
Objective: N/A
40 Which of the following Windows 7 edition does not require a WDDM
driver, Pixel Shader 2.0 in hardware, and 32 bits per pixel?

Windows 7 Home Premium


Windows 7 Ultimate
Windows 7 Home Basic
Windows 7 Professional
Objective: N/A

Copyright 1990-2014 Aries Technology, Inc. All Rights Reserved.

Welcome to the class of Yusupha Jammeh

November
20, 2014

Preview Exam

Exam Bank: Aries


Hardware v.11

Exam: Aries

Hardware v.11: Unit # Question : 40


13 Exam

1 Most workplace conflicts occur through __________________.


Miscommunication
Bad leadership
Lack of responsibility
Lack of knowledge
Objective: N/A
2 The first key to active listening is ______________.
You use both ears to listen
All eyes on the speaker
Sincere facial expression
You must actually want to listen
To look interested
Objective: N/A
3 For the working environment to be harmonious and efficient, employees
must possess ________________.

Effective communication skills


Cultural sensitivity
Leadership skills
Organization skills
Objective: N/A
4 Which of the following action should be avoided during work?
Taking personal calls
Interrupting your workday with personal business
Talking to co-workers while interacting with customers
A and B
All of the above
Objective: N/A
5 Never blame the customer for anything. Never blame the problem on the
company.

True
False
Objective: N/A
6 Which of the following is one of the cheapest, quickest, and most

effective methods of dealing with common customer problems?


Information areas
FAQs
None of the answers
Customer surveys
Objective: N/A
7 Which of the following is a TRUE statement?
Customers knows that their information is not confidential and will
be shared for commercial purposes.
If you are accessing a customers network, server, etc. to perform
work for them such as troubleshooting, permission is automatically
granted therefore you do not have to get permission of the customer.
There are no laws law protect the customers confidentiality.
Company can be fined by laws that protects customers
confidentiality.
Objective: N/A
8 Which of the following is NOT an example of prohibited content in a
workplace environment?
Competitor's information
Pornography
Market survey information
Offensive material
Objective: N/A
9 Which of the following is NOT part of the names, purposes and
characteristic wireless security?
Access points such as MAC filtering
Bring firmware up to date
Hardware deconstruction/recycling
Modify SSID from default
Objective: N/A
10 When you have detected prohibited content or activity, which of the
following should be done first?
Report it to the police

Report it to your manager


Consult a lawyer
Report it directly to senior management officials
Objective: N/A
11 All data and hardware involved in the incident must be secured, except for
employees computer.

True
False
Objective: N/A
12 Which of the following is NOT part of the sample IRP?
Compensation fees
Notify proper external agencies
Documentation
Evidence Preservation
Objective: N/A
13 The evidence must always be within your custody, otherwise there
may be a case with tampering which would compromise the case.
True
False
Objective: N/A
14 Which of the following is part of the solution to back pain problem?
Taking a break to look at an object other than your screen
occasionally.
Adjust your chair so your feet are flat in the floor or on a footrest.
Raise or lower your chair so that your elbows form a 90 degree angle
with your hands comfortably on the keyboard.
Keep your computer monitor perpendicular to office windows.
Objective: N/A
15 Which of the following is NOT part of the solution to eyestrain?
Use a copyholder that can hold documents at the same level as the
monitor screen.
Keep your computer monitor perpendicular to office windows.
Place your monitor screen so that it is slightly below eye level.
Adjust your chair so that you are sitting at a 90 degree angle.

Objective: N/A
16 Which of the following is a solution to wrist plain?
Keep your computer monitor perpendicular to office windows.
Hold the mouse gently, and avoid using a tight death grip on it.
Clean the monitor screen frequently to remove accumulated dust.
Your arms should be at a 90-degree angle, so you can work without
hunching your shoulders.
Objective: N/A
17 Which of the following step can be taking to help minimize and cope
with stress?
Place your desk so it faces the door.
Avoid gossips and badmouthing of co-workers and supervisors.
Decorate you workspace to make as pleasing as possible.
B and C
All of the above
Objective: N/A
18 Which of the following is NOT suggested when dealing with conflict?
Listen to all perspectives
Negotiation to compromise
Remain firm on your stance regardless of everything
Countering negatives feelings with positive ones
Objective: N/A
19 When dealing with a stressful situation, redefining the situation can
make it _______.
Fun
Overwhelming
Crazy
More hectic
Objective: N/A
20 Which of the following is implemented to provide workplaces free
from serious recognized hazards?
MSDS
IRP

OSHA
None of the above
Objective: N/A
21 Which of the following communication habits are harmful and should
be avoided at all costs? (Choose all that apply)
Continual complaining soon becomes irritable
Positive listening and sincere communication
Gossip creates mistrust and negativity
Close-minded arguing gets nowhere
Profanity, excessive slang or other crude, derogatory, biased or vulgar
comments
Objective: N/A
22 Which statement best describes Cultural sensitivity?
Cultural sensitivity skills are not essential when dealing customers
and clients that may have diverse backgrounds and heritages.
Employees must possess cultural sensitivity by being respectful and
considerate to each other despite cultural differences.
Examples of culturally sensitive would be to perpetuate stereotypes
and not to make assumptions about people behavior based on country
of origin or religion.
It is not important to maintain a cohesive working environment and
running a successful business.
Objective: N/A
23 Which of the following are required behaviors for active listening?
Non-Verbal acknowledgments
Patience Do not interrupt the customer.
Sincere facial expressions and interested looks
A and B
B and C
Objective: N/A
24 To demonstrate proper communication and professionalism:
Your co-workers or customers should not overhear your personal
problems or arguments with your family or friends.
None of the answers
All of the answers

Limit personal calls during the work day to only those that are
absolutely necessary. Your personal calls with be distracting to your
co-workers and you will appear unprofessional to customers.
You should avoid distractions such as taking personal calls,
interrupting your workday with personal business, and talking to coworkers while interacting with customers.
Objective: N/A
25 When you are interacting with customers whether on the phone or in
person, it is important:
That you do not have a side conversation with a co-worker while
interacting with a customer unless you are asking for the co-workers
help to solve the customers problem
None of the answers
Not to give them your full and undivided attention
To give them all of your attention.
All of the answers
Objective: N/A
26 Signs of a developing conflict include:
Customer is speaking slower and gestures are calm
Customer is using an angry, sarcastic, or negative tone
Customer is using emotional words
None of the answers
Customers speech volume is decreasing
Objective: N/A
27 If the problem concerns non-responsive technical assistance or
ineffective technology, it is important that
All of the answers
None of the answers
You make sure that the customer knows that you will always be
available if they need to contact you again about this problem or any
other problems they may encounter in the future
You show your concern and help them to help lessen their frustration
You explain why you are transferring them to a new technician and
assure the customer that they will receive better help
Objective: N/A
28 Starter phrases include:

None of the answers


If I understand you correctly
What I'm hearing you say is
What you're saying is
Sounds like you're saying
Objective: N/A
29 Reflecting feelings is an honest attempt to mirror back the emotions
you perceive are being expressed. Guidelines for reflecting feelings
include:
Do not Identify and do not state the emotion that is being expressed
Do not make it sound like a question when you are respond
None of the answers
Use the word "you" to identify the speaker and not yourself
All of the answers
Objective: N/A
30 Appropriate Response to feedback is to:
Escalate the situation
None of the answers
All of the answers
Do not accept the praise and do not show appreciation for the
feedback
Say "thank you."
Objective: N/A
31 If the component cannot be repaired,
Do not check with your supervisor before offering a replacement
option if you are unsure of your companys policy
It may be appropriate to offer the customer a replacement
None of the answers
Do not explain the policy in place that explains the options
All of the answers
Objective: N/A
32 The following information should be included in the solution
document:
A description of the conditions surrounding the problem and the
problem symptoms

All of the answers


Describe the possible repairs or replacements options
Whether the problem could be reproduced
Anything that important for the next person who may encounter the
problem. Assume that you will not be available to help solve the
problem the second time around
Objective: N/A
33 Customer satisfaction can be improved by implementing:
Training to ensure that employees have the skills necessary to
provide a specified level of service
None of the answers
Informational resources or FAQs
Customer surveys
Training that will ensure that technicians are able to continually
provide respectful, professional and cheerful assistance
Objective: N/A
34 First Response has the following phases:
Data and Device Preservation
Identifying the prohibited activity
None of the answers
All of the answers
Reporting through proper channel
Objective: N/A
35 Names, purposes, and characteristics of wireless security include:
Firewall and deactivate DHCP/use static IP
Access points such as MAC filtering
All of the answers
Modify default username and password and bring firmware up to
date
Modify SSID from default and deactivate SSID broadcast
Objective: N/A
36 Names, purposes, and characteristics of hardware and software
security include the following:
All of the answers
Malicious software protection such as viruses, adware, grayware

spam, spyware, Trojans and worms


Hardware deconstruction/recycling
Authentication technologies such as username, password, smart cards
and biometrics
Smart cards/biometrics such as chips, scans, key fobs and cards
Objective: N/A
37 When you begin to document evidence:
You must keep track of that evidence at all times and show who has
it, who has seen it, and where it has been.
Lock up the evidence in a safe, locked cabinet, or locked office.
The evidence must always be within your custody, otherwise there
may be a case with tampering which would compromise the case
A and C
All of the answers
Objective: N/A
38 Solutions for solving back pain problems include:
Protect your spine by using a good office chair, one that has lumbar
support and armrests.
Get regular exercise outside of work
Adjust your chair so your feet are not flat in the floor or on a footrest.
Do a few simple stretches during breaks to relieve muscle tension,
such as neck rolls, shoulder squeezes, and spinal twists.
Your arms should be at a 45-degree angle, so you can work without
hunching your shoulders.
Objective: N/A
39 Which of the following steps can be taken in and out of your
workplace to help you minimize and cope with stress?
All of the answers
Remain on good relations with co-workers and supervisors. Resolve
problems and misunderstandings promptly, before they have a chance
to escalate.
Make your physical environment as pleasing as possible.
None of the answers
Place your desk so it does not face the door.
Objective: N/A
40 __________ are now required in Europe, Canada, and Australia.

All of the answers


A. Occupational Health and Safety Administration (OSHA)
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
None of the answers
Objective: N/A

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