1 What is the name of the fascia that surrounds an individual muscle fibre called?

a
Epimysium
b
Endomysium
c
Perimysium
d
Myofibril
2 What is the name for a bundle of muscle fibres?
a
Fascicle
b
Perimysium
c
Myofibril
d
Periosteum
3 Which of the following is not a function of muscle tissues?
a
Stabilizing body positions
b
Storing substances within the body
c
Generating heat
d
Protecting the organs
4 What is the smallest contractile unit of a muscle called?
a
Fibre
b
Filament
c
Sarcomere
d
Myofibril
5 What is the thinnest filament in a sarcomere called?
a
Myofibril
b
Actin
c
Myosin
d
Nucleus
6 What is the energy currency for the human body?
a
Glycogen
b
ATP
c
ADP
d
Glucose
7 Which of the following is not a by-product of aerobic respiration?
a
Heat
b
CO2
c
CA
d
H2O
8 Which energy system does not require glycogen to function?
a
Lactic acid system
b
Creatine phosphate system
c
Aerobic system
d
Anearobic system

9 According to the sliding filament theory which ions are required to form
Actin/Myosin crossbridges?
a
Calcium
b
Potassium
c
Hydrogen
d
Oxygen
10 Which of the following would primarily use enery from the PC system?
a
500m run
b
Marathon
c
100m sprint
d
200m swim
11 Body combat fitness classes would primarily use which energy system?
a
PC
b
LA
c
Aerobic
d
Anaerobic
12 Which of the following would mainly use energy from the Lactic Acid system?
a
20 minutes of spinning
b
5 heavy squats
c
25 barbell bicep curls
d
200 bodyweight lunges
13 A motor unit is?
a
A motor neuron plus all the muscle fibres it is attached to
b
A motor neuron
c
A bundle of muscle fibres
d
A single muscle
14 The "all or none" principle means that:
a
All fibres in a muscle must be used or none
b
All fibres in a fascicle must be used or none
c
All the muscle fibres attached to a neuron are all used or none
d
All the neurons in a muscle must be on, or none.
15 The strength of a muscle contraction is controlled by:
a
The strength and frequency of the signal
b
The number of neurons activated and strength of the signal
c
The number of neurons activated
d
The number of neurons activated and the frequency of the signal
16 What type of muscular contraction is the upward movement of a squat?
a
Isotonic
b
Concentric
c
Isometric
d
Eccentric

17 Which valve prevents backflow of blood into the left atrium?

a
Tricuspid valve
b
Pulmonary valve
c
Bicuspid valve
d
Aortic valve
18 Which artery provides blood to the anterior of the left side of the heart?
a
Pulmonary artery
b
Left anterior descending artery
c
Left circumflex artery
d
Right coronary artery
19 Regular exercise reduces working and resting heart rates due to?
a
Increased time in diastole
b
Increased time in systole
c
Increased size of myocardium
d
Increased size of cardiac arteries
20 What heart condition is associated with old age?
a
Coronary heart disease (CHD)
b
Atherosclerosis
c
Angina
d
Arteriosclerosis
21 Which of the following is a non-lifestyle risk factor of CHD?
a
Type 2 diabetes
b
Stress
c
Family history
d
Environment
22 Define blood pressure:
a
Pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of the arteries
b
The pressure exerted by the heart on the blood
c
The amount of blood pumped per second
d
The volume of blood pumped per minute
23 A blood pressure reading of 128/85 would be:
a
Normal
b
Hypertension
c
Hypotension
d
Pre high blood pressure
24 The valsalva effect means?
a
To breath out forcefully while lifting
b
To hold your breath to maintain strong abdominal pressure
c
To inhale while lifting
d
To hold your breath to increase oxygen debt

25 Which of the following is a short term response of blood pressure to exercise?

a
Diastolic pressure is decreased
b
Systolic pressure is decreased
c
Diastolic pressure is increased
d
Systolic pressure is increased
26 Which of the following is a long tern cardiovascular response to exercise?
a
Heart rate increases
b
Blood volume decreases
c
Stroke volume increases
d
Cardiac output decreases
27 Cardiac output is defined as:
a
Volume of blood pumped out in 1 minute
b
How many times the heart beats in 1 minute
c
Volume of blood pumped out in 1 heart beat
d
Pressure the blood exerts on the walls of the arteries
28 The amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in 1 breath is the:
a
Vital capacity
b
Tidal volume
c
Residual volume
d
Stroke volume
29 Which of the following is not a benefit of cardiovascular exercise?
a
Decreased risk of CHD
b
Increased stroke volume
c
Decresed bone density
d
Reduction in body fat
30 Which type of muscle is not involuntary?
a
Skeletal
b
Smooth
c
Cardiac
d
Rough
31 What type of material is muscle fascia made of?
a
Dense, regularly arranged collagen
b
Loose, regularly arranged collagen
c
Loose, irregularly arranged collagen
d
Dense, iIrregularly arranged collagen
32 What type of muscle fibres would mainly be recruited to throw a javellin?
a
Type 1
b
Type 2a
c
Type 2b
d
Slow oxidative

33 What type of muscle fibres have many mitochondria and a low firing threshold?
a
Type 1
b
Type 2a
c
Type 2b
d
Fast twitch
34 What type of muscle fibres will initially be recruited to pick up a box?
a
Type 1
b
Type 2a
c
Type 2b
d
Fast twitch
35 At what point in a resisted movement is muscle force production highest?
a
When it is stretched
b
When it is contracted
c
When it is mid movement
d
Always the same
36 Hypertrophy is the growth of muscle by which means?
a
Growth of the eipmysium
b
Increase in size of muscle fibres
c
Increased glycogen storage
d
Increase in the number of muscle fibres
37 Which of the following is not an adaption to anaerobic resistance training?
a
Atrophy of type 1 muscle fibre
b
Hypertrophy of type 2b fibre
c
Increased force production
d
Better recruitment of type 1 motor units
38 Which of the following is not a feature of muscles?
a
Creat movement across a joint
b
Can only push
c
Work in pairs
d
Contain a mix of aerobic and anaerobic fibres
39 What muscle can elevate, retract and depress the shoulder girdle?
a
Rhomboids
b
Deltoids
c
Trapezius
d
Levator scapulae
40 Which of the following is not an action of the levator scapulae?
a
Protract the scapula
b
Elevate the scapula
c
Assists downward rotation of the scapula
d
Laterally flexes the neck

41 What is the name for a muscle that works in the opposite direction to another?
a
Synergist
b
Agonist
c
Antagonist
d
Stabiliser
42 Which of the following is not an action of the pectoralis major?
a
Medial rotation
b
Shoulder abduction
c
Horizontal flexion
d
Shoulder adduction
43 Which muscle can rotate the arm laterally?
a
Supraspinatus
b
Subscapularis
c
Teres major
d
Infraspinatus
44 Which muscle muscle has origin Superior to spine of scupula, insertion superiorly
on the head of the humerous?
a
Supraspinatus
b
Subscapularis
c
Teres major
d
Infraspinatus
45 What muscle is the antogonist to the bicep brachii?
a
Deltoid
b
Tricep brachii
c
Brachialis
d
Brachioradialis
46 Which of the following muscles does not extend the spine?
a
Iliocostalis group
b
Longuissimus group
c
Quadratus lumborum
d
Multifidus
47 What is the origin of the multifidus?
a
Spinous processes of thoracic, cervical and lumber vertebrae
b
Sacrum and transverse processes of the vertebrae
c
Illiac crest and iliolumber fascia
d
Ribs and iliac crest
48 Which of the following abdominal muscles does not cause flexion of the spine?
a
Rectus abdominis
b
External obliques
c
Internal obliques
d
Transverse abdominis

49 Which of the following abdominal muscles tilts the pelvis backwards?

a
Rectus abdominis
b
External obliques
c
Internal obliques
d
Transverse abdominis
50 The transverse abdominis is the deepest abdominal muscle. Is it:
a
Superficial
b
Unilateral
c
Local
d
Bilateral
51 If the obliques contract unilaterally what action do they perform?
a
Flexion of the vertebral column
b
Compression of the abdominal cavity
c
Tilt the pelvis backwards
d
Rotation and lateral flexion
52 Which of the following muscles does not flex the hip?
a
Iliacus
b
Piriformis
c
Psoas major
d
Tensor fascia latae
53 Which of the the following muscles does not rotate the hip medially?
a
Gluteus maximus
b
Tensor fascia latae
c
Gluteus medius
d
Gluteus minimus
54 Which of the following muscles origin is not on the femur
a
Vastus medialis
b
Vastus lateralis
c
Vastus intermedius
d
Recutus femoris
55 Which of the following does not extend the hip?
a
Bicep femoris
b
Semimembranosus
c
Recutus femoris
d
Seemitenddinosus
56 Which leg muscle is responsible for ankle dorsiflexion?
a
Semimembranosus
b
Tibialis anterior
c
Gastrocnemius
d
Soleus

57 Which of the following exercises is not in the sagital plane?

a
Squats
b
Bicep curl
c
Crunches
d
Shoulder press
58 Which of the following exercises is in the transverse plane?
a
Dumbell flies
b
Lateral raises
c
Lunges
d
Pull ups
59 What is the term tha means towards the midline of the body?
a
Lateral
b
Anterior
c
Medial
d
Posterior
60 A bicep curl is an example of which joint action?
a
Extension
b
Flexion
c
Elevation
d
Adduction
61 What is the joint action of a dumbell fly?
a
Horizontal flexion/extension
b
Lateral flexion/extension
c
Circumduction
d
Protraction/retraction
62 What is the name of the projection of the scapula, above the top of the humerus?
a
Glenoid cavity
b
Acromion process
c
Spine of scapula
d
Inferior angle
63 Which of the following movements is not possible at the glenohumeral joint?
a
Flexion/extension
b
Horizontal flexion/extension
c
Lateral flexion/extension
d
Abduction/adduction
64 When the forearm is pronated which bone is facing outwards?
a
Humerus
b
Radius
c
Tibia
d
Ulna

65 What sort of joint is the knee?

a
Saddle joint
b
Hinge joint
c
Gliding joints
d
Ball and socket joint
66 The core is stabilised by passive control by what?
a
Spinal ligaments and TLF
b
Spinal erectors
c
Proprioceptors
d
Abdominal muscles
67 Which of the following does not heelp tension the TLF (thoracolumbar fascia)
a
Latisimus dorsi
b
Transverse abdominis
c
Internal obliques
d
Gluteus medius
68 Which of the following are used to create intra-abdominal pressure?
a
Pelvic floor muscles and abdominals
b
Abdominals and diaphragm
c
Pelvic floor muscles and diaphragm
d
TLF and abdominals
69 Which exercise would be suitable to help correct a kyphotic posture?
a
Bent row
b
Bench press
c
Cat stretch
d
Crunches
70 Which of the following is not a feature of a lordotic posture?
a
Weak gluteus maximus
b
Backwards tilted pelvis
c
Tight lumbar erectors
d
Overdeveloped hamstrings
71 What type of stretching is suitable for most participants to improve flexibility?
a
Static stretching
b
Ballistic stretching
c
Dynamic stretches
d
PNF stretching
72 What type of nerves are under concious control?
a
Autonomic
b
Sympathetic
c
Somatic
d
Parasympathetic

73 What type of sensory receptor detects changes in body position?

a
Chemoreceptors
b
Thermoreceptors
c
Barioreceptors
d
Proprioreceptors
74 Where are barioreceptors found?
a
In the walls of arteries
b
Throughout the body
c
Muscles and tendons
d
In all tissues
75 What is the action and location of the golgi tendon proprioceptors?
a
Detect excessive lengthening, in tendons
b
Detect excessive lengthening, in muscle belly
c
Detect excessive contraction, in tendons
d
Detect excessive contraction, in muscle belly
76 Which is not an effect of the neurotransmitters adrenaline/noradrenaline?
a
Increased heart rate
b
Vasodilation of arteries
c
Increased breathing rate
d
Increeased release of glycogen stores
77 Through which part of the neuron is information received?
a
Nucleus
b
Axon
c
Node of ranvier
d
Dendrite
78 What happens to a neuron when a nerve impulse arrives?
a
Sodium ions enter
b
Potassium ions leave
c
Potassium ions enter
d
Sodium ions leave
79 What is meant by the "all or none" response of muscle fibre activation?
a
Every muscle fibre in a muscle will contract if it is activated
b
All motor neurons must activate to contact a muscle
c
Every muscle fibre conected to a motor unit will contract if it is activated
d
All nerves connected to a neuron must activate before the nueron fires
80 Which of the following is not controlled by a negative feedback loop?
a
Blood calcium levels
b
Oestogen levels
c
Blood sugar levels
d
Temperature

81 Where is the gland that secretes cortisol located?

a
In the brain
b
In the neck
c
On the kidneys
d
Near the stomach
82 Which hormone controls blood calcium levels?
a
Parathyroid hormone
b
Adrenaline
c
Cortisol
d
Thryroxin
83 What energy system produces the most energy (ATP)?
a
Lactic acid system
b
Anearobic system
c
Phosphocreatine system
d
Aerobic system
84 How long will energy production by the PC system last?
a
3-4 seconds
b
Hours+
c
10 seconds
d
2-3 minutes
85 Which exercise would be most suitable for fat loss?
a
Sprints
b
Running
c
Heavy weight training
d
High intensity interval training

CA 2014