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Excess capacity arises when actual production is less than what is achievable
or optimal for a firm. This often means that the demand in the market for the
product is below what the firm could potentially supply to the market. Excess
capacity is inefficient and will cause manufacturers to incur extra costs or
lose market share. Capacity can be broken down in two categories: Design
Capacity and Effective Capacity: refers to the maximum designed service
capacity or output rate. Effective capacity is design capacity minus personal
and other allowances. Product and service factors effect capacity
tremendously.
Facilities: The size and provision for expansion are key in the design of
facilities. Other facility factors include locational factors (transportation costs,
distance to market, labor supply, energy sources). The layout of the work
area can determine how smoothly work can be performed.
Product and Service Factors: The more uniform the output, the more
opportunities there are for standardization of methods and materials. This
leads to greater capacity.
Process Factors: Quantity capability is an important determinant of capacity,
but so is output quality. If the quality does not meet standards, then output
rate decreases because of need of inspection and rework activities. Process
improvements that increase quality and productivity can result in increased
capacity. Another process factor to consider is the time it takes to change
over equipment settings for different products or services.
Human Factors: the tasks that are needed in certain jobs, the array of
activities involved and the training, skill, and experience required to perform
a job all affect the potential and actual output. Employee motivation,
absenteeism, and labor turnover all affect the output rate as well.
Policy Factors: Management policy can affect capacity by allowing or not
allowing capacity options such as overtime or second or third shifts
Operational Factors: Scheduling problems may occur when an organization
has differences in equipment capabilities among different pieces of
equipment or differences in job requirements. Other areas of impact on
effective capacity include inventory stocking decisions, late deliveries,
purchasing requirements, acceptability of purchased materials and parts, and
quality inspection and control procedures.
Supply Chain Factors: Questions include: What impact will the changes have
on suppliers, warehousing, transportation, and distributors? If capacity will be
increased, will these elements of the supply chain be able to handle the
increase? If capacity is to be decreased, what impact will the loss of business
have on these elements of the supply chain?
External Factors: Minimum quality and performance standards can restrict
management's options for increasing and using capacity.
Inadequate planning can be a major limiting determining of effective
capacity.
The most important parts of effective capacity are process and human
factors. Process factors must be efficient and must operate smoothly, if not
the rate of output will dramatically decrease. Human factors must be trained
well and have experience, they must be motivated and have a low
absenteeism and labor turnover. In resolving constraint issues, all possible
alternative solutions must be evaluated. This is possible by using CVP
analysis and the Break-Even Point formula.
Questions:
1. All of the following factors are part of determining effective capacity
except:
a. Human
b. External
c. Facility
d. Design
e. all of the above are factors
answer:d design factors...page 181
2. The capacity planning process DOES NOT include which of the following?
a. Estimate future requirements
b. Implement selected alternative
c. Access key quantitative issues
d. Identify alternatives
e. Both a & d
answer:c page 183
answer: d
9) What are the major difference between design capacity and effective
capacity?
a. the size of the facility vs the effectiveness of the facility
b. the design and aesthetics of the facility vs. the size of the facility
c. the design and aesthetics of the facility vs. the effectiveness of the facility
d. the actual amount of output vs. the potential maximum amount of output
e. there is no difference
answer: (A) total cost and total revenue are equal (203)
answer: C the output rate is more than the optimal level (200)
16) Reasons for strategic capacity planning include all of the following
except :
a) Changes in the environment
b) Changes in technology
c) Changes in demand
d) Strengths and weaknesses
e) Opportunities and threats
17) Strategic capacity planning for services differs from that for goods due to:
a) The inability to store services in advance
b) Demand volatility
c) Degree of customization
d) The need for customer convenience
e) All of the above
a) Location
b) Quality
c) Current in-house capacity
d) Costs
19) In dis-economies of scale, average unit costs after the optimal level are:
a) Larger
b) Smaller
c) Lowest
d) Constant
e) None of the above
20) Which of the following assumptions must be satisfied in order to use Cost
Volume Analysis?
a) Variable cost per unit is greater than revenue per unit
b) Variable cost per unit is constant
c) More than one product in involved
d) Fixed costs change with volume
e) Revenue per unit changes with volume
d) tracking
e) both b and d
Answer: a, page 191
25) Which of the following are steps in the capacity planning process?
a) estimate future capacity requirements
b) conduct financial analysis
c) monitor results
d) implement the selective alternative
e) all of the above
Answer: e, page 192
29) What is the correct formula for the break even point in units?
a) FC / (Revenue per unit - VC per unit)
b) VC/(FC-Revenue)
c) Revenue/(VC - FC)
d) FC/(VC-Revenue)
e) None of the above
Answer A (page 204)
30) What is the best way to measure capacity for a steel mill?
a) In dollars
b) In number of workers
c) In the size of the mill
d) In tons of steel produced per day
e) In number of resources used
Answer D (page 188)
I. The upper limit or ceiling on the load that an operating unit can handle.
II. The lower limit or bottom on the load that an operating unit can handle.
III. A systems potential for producing goods or delivering services over a
specified time interval.
IV. A ceiling on output and a major determinant of operating costs.
a.) I and II
b.) II and III
c.) I, II, and IV
d.) I, III, and IV
e.) I and IV
a.) Efficiency is the ratio of actual output to effective capacity, while capacity
utilization is the ratio of actual output to design capacity.
b.) Efficiency is expressed as a percentage, while capacity utilization is not.
c.) Efficiency is a measure of system effectiveness, while capacity utilization
measures capacity tailored to a situation.
d.) Utilization is the ratio of actual output to effective capacity, while
efficiency is the ratio of actual output to design capacity.
e.) Utilization is expressed as a percentage, while efficiency is not.
38) Find the design capacity when utilization = 72 and actual output = 36
trucks per day.
x = 50
40) Which of the following is NOT one of the five steps used to resolve
constraint issues:
41. Use the information above to answer this question. If the company uses
Maxi-min Criterion to choose the best alternative, what would be the best
choice for this company?
a) Small Facility
b) Medium Facility
c) Large Facility
d) Do Nothing
e) They are all incorrect answers.
Answer is A found on page 217 (Supplement to Chapter 5)
Total
6,100
43. Use the information in the table to answer this question. Note:
department is working one 8-hour shift 250 days a year. How many machines
would be needed to handle the required volume? (Round your answer to the
whole number)
a) 3 machines
b) 1 machines
c) 5 machines
d) 2 machines
e) 4 machines
Answer is A found on page 194.
a) 1000 cookies/month
b) 1200 cookies/moth
c) 2100 cookies/moth
d) 1100 cookies/moth
e) None of the above.
Answer is A found on page 204. FC=$4,000; VC=$2 per cookie: Rev.=$6 per
cookie; Q=FC/(Rev-VC); Q=$4,000/($6-$2)=1000 cookies/month.
45. What would be the profit (loss) if 900 cookies are made and sold in a
month?
a) 400 profit
b) 400 loss
c) 4000 profit
d) 4000 loss
e) None of the above.
a) 3500 cookies
b) 5300 cookies
c) 3000 cookies
d) 3200 cookies
e) 2300 cookies
47. If 2,500 cookies can be sold, and a profit is $8,000, what price should be
charged per cookie?
a) $7.00
b) $7.50
c) $6.80
d) $6.50
e) $7.80
Number of Machines
$12,00
0 to 300
15,000
301 to 600
24,000
601 to 900
Variable Cots is $12 per unit, and revenue is $42 per unit.
a) 400 units
b) 320 units
c) 420 units
d) 380 units
e) 520 units
49. Determine the break even point for range (301 to 600).
a) 500 units
b) 400 units
c) 320 units
d) 420 units
e) 520 units
50. If projected annual demand is between 580 and 650 units, how many
machines should the manager purchase. If break-even point for
One machine: 400 units Range (0 to 300)
Two machines: 500 units Range (301 to 600)
Three machines: 800 units Range (601 to 900)
a) 2 machines
b) 3 machines
c) 1 machine
d) a&b both are correct
e) None of the above; the manager should do nothing.
51) If the output rate is less than the optimal level, increasing the output rate
results in decreasing average unit costs according to:
a) diseconomies of scale
b) economies of scale
c) capacity cushion
d) efficiency
e) utilization
52) If: Design capacity= 60 trucks per day, effective capacity = 40 trucks per
day, actual output = 36 trucks per day, compute the efficiency:
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 50%
e) 90%
a) demand
b) capacity cushion
c) supply
d) overall level of capacity requirements
e) short term events