Problem of Ages Test

130 TOP MOST ELECTROLYSIS and STORAGE of
BATTERIES Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice

Questions and Answers
1. The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly
proportional to the quantity of electricity.
The above statement is associated with
(a) Newtons law
(b) Faradays law of electromagnetic
(c) Faradays law of electrolysis
(d) Gausss law
Ans: c
2. The charge required to liberate one gram equivalent of
any substance is known as ______ constant
(a) time
(b) Faradays
(c) Boltzman
Ans: b
3. During the charging of a leadacid
cell
(a) its voltage increases
(b) it gives out energy
(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
Ans: a
4. The capacity of a leadacid
cell does not depend on its
(a) temperature
(b) rate of charge
(c) rate of discharge
(d) quantity of active material
Ans: b
5. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of
a leadacid
battery
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) becomes zero
Ans: a
6. The active materials on the positive and negative plates
of a fully charged leadacid
battery are
(a) lead and lead peroxide
(b) lead sulphate and lead
(c) lead peroxide and lead
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
7. When a leadacid
battery is in fully charged condition, the colour of its
positive plate is
(a) dark grey
(b) brown
(c) dark brown
(d) none of above
Ans: c
8. The active materials of a nickeliron
battery are
(a) nickel hydroxide
(6) powdered iron and its oxide
(c) 21% solution of KOH
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
9. The ratio of amperehour

efficiency to watthour
efficiency of a leadacid
cell is
(a) just one
(b) always greater than one
(c) always less than one
(d) none of the above.
Ans: b
10. The best indication about the state of charge on a
leadacid
battery is given by
(a) output voltage
(b) temperature of electrolyte
(c) specific gravity of electrolyte
Ans: c
11. The storage battery generally used in electric power
station is
(a) nickelcadmium
battery
(b) zinccarbon
battery
(c) leadacid
battery
Ans: c
12. The output voltage of a charger is
(a) less than the battery voltage
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STORAGE of BATTERIES Electrical
Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
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(b) higher than the battery voltage
(c) the same as the battery voltage
Ans: b
13. Cells are connected in series in order to
(a) increase the voltage rating
(6) increase the current rating
(c) increase the life of the cells
Ans: a
14. Five 2 V cells are connected in parallel.
The output voltage is
(a) 1 V
(6) 1.5 V
(c) 1.75 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: d
15. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of
(a) current rating
(b) voltage rating
(e) amperehour
rating
Ans: c
16. Duringthe charging and discharging of a nickeliron
cell
(a) corrosive fumes are produced
(b) water is neither formed nor absorbed
(c) nickel hydroxide remains unsplit
(d) its e.m.f. remains constant
Ans: b
17. As compared to constantcurrent
system, the constantvoltage
system of charging a lead acid cell has the advantage of
(a) reducing time of charging
(b) increasing cell capacity
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) avoiding excessive gassing
Ans: c
18. A dead storage battery can be revived by
(a) adding distilled water
(6) adding socalled
battery restorer
(c) a dose of H2SO4
Ans: d
19. As compared to a leadacid
cell, the efficiency of a nickeliron
cell is less due to its
(a) compactness
(b) lower e.m.f.
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(c) small quantity of electrolyte used
(d) higher internal resistance
Ans: d
20. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to
(a) maintain proper electrolyte level
(b) increase its reserve capacity
(c) prevent sulphation
(d) keep it fresh and fully charged
Ans: d
21. Those substances of the cell which take active part in
chemical combination and hence produce electricity during
charging or discharging known as______materials.
(a) passive
(b) active
(c) redundant
(d) inert
Ans: b
22. In a leadacid
cell dilute sulphuric acid (electrolyte) approximately
comprises the following
(a) one part H2O, three parts H2SO4
(b) two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4
(c) three parts H2O, one part H2SO4
(d) all H2S04
Ans: c
23. It is noticed that durum charging
(a) there is a rise in voltage
(6) energy is absorbed by the cell
(c) specific gravity of H2SO4 is increased

(d) the anode becomes chocolate brown in colour (PbCfe)
and cathode becomes grey metallic lead (Pb)
(e) all of the above
Ans: e
24. It is noticed that during discharging the following does
not happen
(a) both anode and cathode become PbS04
(b) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
(c) voltage of the cell decreases
(d) the cell absorbs energy
Ans: d
25. The amperehour
efficiency of a leadacid cell is normally between
(a) 20 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 60 to 70%
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: d
26. The watthour
efficiency of a leadacid
cell varies between
(a) 25 to 35%
(b) 40 to 60%
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(c) 70 to 80%
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: c
cell is measured in
(a) amperes
(b) amperehours
(c) watts
(d) watthours
Ans: b
cell depends on
(a) rate of discharge
(b) temperature
(c) density of electrolyte
(d) quantity of active materials
(e) all above
Ans: e
29. When the leadacid
cell is fully charged, the electrolyte assumes _____
appearance
(a) dull
(b) reddish
(c) bright
(d) milky
Ans: d
30. The e.m.f. of an Edison cell, when fully charged, is
nearly
(a) 1.4 V
(b) 1 V
(c) 0.9 V
(d) 0.8 V
Ans: a
31. The internal resistance of an alkali cell is nearly _____
times that of the leadacid
cell.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Ans: d
32. The average charging voltage for alkali cell is about
(a) 1 V
(b) 1.2 V
(c) 1.7 V
(d) 2.1 V
Ans: c
33. On the average the amperehour
efficiency of an Edison cell is about
(a) 40%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
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(d) 80%
Ans: d
34. The active material of the positive plates of silverzinc
batteries is
(a) silver oxide
(b) lead oxide
(c) lead
(d) zinc powder
Ans: a
35. Leadacid
cell has a life of nearly charges and discharges
(a) 500
(b) 700
(c) 1000
(d) 1250
Ans: d
36. Life of the Edison cell is at least
(a) five years
(b) seven years
(c) eight years
(d) ten years
Ans: a
37. The internal resistance of a leadacid
cell is that of Edison cell
(a) less than
(b) more than
(c) equal to
Ans: a
38. Electrolyte used in an Edison cell is
(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
(c) HC1
(d) HN03
Ans: b
39. Electrolyte used in a leadacid
cell is
(a) NaOH
(b) onlyH2S04
(c) only water
(d) dilute H2SO4
Ans: d
40. Negative plate of an Edison cell is made of
(a) copper
(b) lead
(c) iron
(d) silver oxide
Ans: c
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41. The open circuit voltage of any storage cell depends
wholly upon
(a) its chemical constituents
(b) on the strength of its electrolyte
(c) its temperature
(d) all above
Ans: d
42. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by
(a) manometer
(6) a mechanical gauge
(c) hydrometer
(d) psychrometer
Ans: c
43. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a
leadacid
cell is reduced to 1.1 to 1.15 the cell is in
(a) charged state
(b) discharged state
(d) active state
Ans: b
44. In ______ system the charging current is intermittently
controlled at either a maximum or minimum value
(a) two rate charge control
(b) trickle charge
(c) floating charge
(d) an equalizing charge
Ans: a
45. Over charging
(a) produces excessive gassing
(b) loosens the active material
(e) increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates
(d) all above
Ans: d
46. Undercharging
(a) reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
(b) increases specific gravity of the electrolyte
(c) produces excessive gassing
(d) increases the temperature

Ans: a
47. Internal short circuits are caused by
(a) breakdown of one or more separators
(b) excess accumulation of sediment at the bottom of the
cell
Ans: c
48. The effect of sulphation is that the internal resistance
(a) increases
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(b) decreases
(c) remains same
Ans: a
49. Excessive formation of lead sulphate on the surface of
the plates happens because of
(a) allowing a battery to stand in discharged condition for a
long time
(b) topping up with electrolyte
(c) persistent undercharging
(d) low level of electrolyte
(e) all above
Ans: e
50. The substances which combine together to store
electrical energy during the charge are called ______
materials
(a) active
(b) passive
(c) inert
(d) dielectric
Ans: a
51. In a leadacid
cell, lead is called as
(a) positive active material
(b) negative active material
(c) passive material
Ans: b
52. The leadacid
cell should never be discharged beyond
(a) 1.8 V
(b) 1.9 V
(c) 2 V
(d) 2.1 V
Ans: a
53. On overcharging a battery
(a) it will bring about chemical change in active materials
(b) it will increase the capacity of the battery
(c) it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
(d) none of the above will occur
Ans: d
54. Each cell has a vent cap
(a) to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
(b) to add water to the cell if needed

(c) to check the level of electrolyte
(d) to do all above functions
Ans: d
55. Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls below
plates
(a) capacity of the cell is reduced
(b) life of the cell is reduced
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(c) open plates are converted to lead sulphate
(d) all above
Ans: d
56. In constant voltage charging method, the charging
current from discharged to fully charged condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
Ans: a
57. 48 amperehour
capacity would deliver a current of
(a) 48 amperes for 1 hour
(b) 24 amperes for 2 hours
(c) 8 amperes for 6 hours
(d) 6 amperes for 8 hours
Ans: d
58. In constantcurrent
charging method, the supply voltage from discharged to
fully charged condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
Ans: b
59. Battery charging equipment is generally installed
(a) in well ventilated location
(b) in clean and dry place
(c) as near as practical to the battery being charged
(d) in location having all above features
Ans: d
60. Following will happen if the specific gravity of
electrolyte becomes more than 1.23.
(a) Loss of capacity
(b) Loss of life
(c) Corrosion of the grids of the plate
(d) All above
Ans: d
61. Batteries are charged by
(a) rectifiers
(b) engine generator sets
(c) motor generator sets
(d) any one of the above methods
Ans: d
62. Cell short circuit results in
(a) low sp. gravity electrolyte
(b) abnormal high temperature

(c) reduced gassing on charge
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(d) all above
Ans: d
63. Internal resistance of a cell is reduced by
(a) using vent plug to permit gas formed during discharge
(b) increasing the plate area
(c) putting plates very close together
(d) all above methods
Ans: d
64. Capacity of dry cells is
(a) more when it is supplying current for intermittent
periods
(b) more when it is supplying current for continuous
periods
(c) unaffected by the type of discharge
Ans: a
65. Battery container should be acid resistance, therefore it
is made up of
(a) glass
(b) plastic
(c) wood
(d) all above
Ans: d
66. Sulphated cells are indicated by
(a) the loss of capacity of the cell
(6) the decrease of the specific gravity
(c) the low voltage of the cell on discharge
(d) all above conditions
Ans: d
67. In a leadacid
cell, if the specific gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it will
require following ratio of acid to water to get mixture of
specific gravity
of 1.3
(a) 6 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(b) 4 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(c) 4 parts of acid to 6 parts of water
(d) 4 parts of acid to 8 parts of water
Ans: c
68. Local action in a battery is indicated by
(a) excessive gassing under load conditions
(b) excessive drop in the specific gravity of electrolyte even
when the cell is on open circuit
Ans: d
69. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too
high
(a) excessive gassing will occur
(b) temperature rise will occur
(c) bulging and buckling of plates will occur

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(d) all above will occur
Ans: d
70. Internal resistance of a cell is due to
(a) resistance of electrolyte
(b) electrode resistance
(c) surface contact resistance between electrode and
electrolyte
(d) all above
Ans: d
71. If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following
will happen
(a) current delivered by the battery will be high
(b) current drawing will be nil
(c) current drawing will be very small
(d) current drawing will be very high
Ans: d
72. In order that a hydrometer may float vertically in
electrolyte its C.G. should be
(a) lowered
(b) raised
(c) undisturbed
(d) displaced sideways
Ans: a
73. If a leadacid
cell is discharged below 1.8 V the following will happen.
(a) Capacity of cell will reduce
(b) Sulphation of plates will occur
(c) Internal resistance will increase
(d) All above will occur
Ans: d
74. Life of the batteries is in the following ascending order.
(a) Leadacid
cell, Edison cell, Nickel cadmium cell
(b) Leadacid
cell, Nickelcadmium
cell, Edison cell
(c) Edison cell, Nickelcadmium
cell, leadacid
cell
(d) Nickelcadmium
cell, Edison cell, leadacid
cell
Ans: a
75. Persons preparing electrolyte should wear
(a) goggles or other face shield
(b) rubber
(c) rubber boots and gloves
(d) all above safety devices
Ans: d
76. Excessive charging a battery tends to
(a) produce gassing
(b) increase the internal resistance of the battery
(c) to corrode the positive plates into lead peroxide thereby
weakening them physically
(d) bring about all above changes

Ans: d
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77. Shelf life of a small dry cell is
(a) equal to that of large dry cell
(6) less than that of large dry cell
(c) more than that of large dry cell
Ans: b
78. The current flow through electrolyte is due to the
movement of
(a) ions
(b) holes
(c) electrons
Ans: a
79. Level of electrolyte in a cell should be _____ the level
of plates
(a) below
(b) equal to
(c) above
Ans: c
80. During discharge, the active material of both the
positive and negative plates is changed to
(a) Pb
(b) Pb02
(c) PbO
(d) PbS04
Ans: d
81 _____ of electrolyte indicates the state of charge of the
battery
(a) colour
(b) mass
(c) viscosity
(d) specific gravity
Ans: d
82. The following indicate that battery on charge has
attained full charge
(a) colour of electrode
(b) gassing
(c) specific gravity
(d) all above
Ans: d
83. Dry cell is modification of
(a) Deniell cell
(b) Leclanche cell
(e) Leadacid
cell
(d) Edison cell
Ans: b
84. Capacity of a battery.is expressed in
(a) Ah

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(b) Vh
(c) Wh
(d) kWh
Ans: a
85. In alkaline cell the electrolyte is
(a) dilute sulphuric acid
(b) concentrated sulphuric acid
(c) NaOH
(d) KOH
Ans: d
86. Self charge of a NiFe
cell is _____ Edison cell.
(a) equal to
(b) less than
(c) more than
(d) much more than
Ans: b
87. Ampere hour capacity of an industrial battery is based
on ____ hours discharge rate.
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 24
Ans: a
88. The body of Edison cell is made of
(a) bakelite
(b) rubber
(c) nickel plated steel
(d) aluminium
Ans: c
89. Specific gravity of electrolyte in Edison cell is
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.95
(c) 1.1
(d) 1.21
Ans: d
90. All the electrical connections between the battery and
vehicle should be by
(a) thin aluminium wires
(b) thin copper wires
(c) rigid cables
(d) flexible cables
Ans: d
91. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of _____ volts
from fully charged state to fully discharged state.
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.4
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(d) 2.9
Ans: c
92. During the idle period of the battery, strong electrolyte
tends to change the active material of the cell into
(a) Pb02
(6) PbSC4
(c) PbO
(d) Pb
Ans: b
93. Chargmg of sulphated battery produces ____ heat.
(a) no
(b) very little
(c) less
(d) more
Ans: d
94. Hydrogen evolved during charging produces explosive
mixture when it is more than
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d) 8%
Ans: d
95. Weston standard cell at 20C has voltage of ____ volts.
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.9
(c) 1.0187
(d) 1.5
Ans: c
96. Extent of corrosion in the underground metal work
depends upon
(a) amount of moisture
(b) type of metals
(c) type of soil chemicals
(d) all above factors
Ans: d
97. Mercury cell has which of the following
characteristics ?
(a) Flat discharge currentvoltage
curve
(6) High power to weight ratio
(c) Comparatively longer shelf life under adverse
conditions of high temperature and humidity
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
98. Charging a sulphated battery at high rate results in
(a) boiling of electrolyte due to gassing
(b) warping of plates
(c) damage to separators, cell caps covers and battery case
due to excessive temperature
(d) all above
Ans: d
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99. Short circuiting of a cell may be caused
(a) buckling of plates
(b) faulty separators
(c) lead particles forming circuit between positive and

negative plates
(d) excessive accumulation of sediment
(e) any one of above
Ans: e
100. In a battery cover is placed over the element and
sealed to the top of the battery container. This is done
(a) to reduce evaporation of water from electrolyte
(b) to exclude dirt and foreign matter from the electrolyte
(c) to discharge both of the above functions
(d) to discharge none of the above functions
Ans: c
101. For a cell to work, which of the following condition(s)
become necessary ?
(a) Two electrodes of different metas should be inserted in
the electrolyte, not touching each other
(b) Electrolyte must chemically react with one of the
electrodes
(c) Electrolyte liquid or paste should be conducting
(d) All above three conditions are necessary
Ans: d
102. Which of the following primary cells has the lowest
voltage ?
(a) Lithium
(b) Zincchloride
(c) Mercury
(d) Carbonzinc
Ans: c
103. Which of the following primary cells has the highest
voltage ?
(a) Manganesealkaline
(6) Carbonzinc
(c) Lithium
(d) Mercury
Ans: c
104. While preparing electrolyte for a leadacid
battery
(a) water is poured into acid
(b) acid is poured into water
(c) anyone of the two can be added to other chemical
Ans: b
105. Which of the following battery is used for aircraft
?
(a) Leadacid
battery
(b) Nickeliron
battery
(c) Dry cell battery
(d) Silver oxide battery
Ans: b
106. Which of the following cell has a. reversible chemical
reaction ?
(a) Leadacid
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(b) Mercury oxide
(c) Carbonzinc
(d) Silveroxide
Ans: a
107. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(a) A storage cell has a reversible chemical reaction
(b) A leadacid
cell can be recharged
(c) A carbonzinc
cell has unlimited shelf life
(d) A primary cell has an irreversible chemical reaction
Ans: c
108. Which of the following has lower sp. gravity V
(a) Dilute H2S04
(6) Concentrated H2SO4
(c) Water
(d) Any of the above
Ans: c
109. Under normal charging rate, the charging current
should be
(a) 10% of capacity
(b) 20% of capacity
(c) 30% of capacity
(d) 40% of capacity
Ans: a
110. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should
be ensured that
(a) they have same e.m.f.
(b) they have same make
(c) they have same amperehour
capacity
(d) they have identical internal resistance
Ans: a
111. A typical output of a solar cell is
(a) 0.1V
(b) 0.26 V
(c) 1.1 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: b
112. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections
to the leadacid
battery
(a) prevent local heating
(b) prevent shortcircuiting
(c) reduce path resistance
(d) prevent corrosion
Ans: d
113. When the load resistance equals the generator
resistance which of the following will be maximum ?
(a) Current
(b) Efficiency of the circuit
(c) Power in the load resistance
(d) Voltage across the load resistance
Ans: c
114. The common impurity in the electrolyte of leadacid
battery is
(a) chlorine
(b) dust particles
(c) lead crystals
(d) iron
Ans: d
115. In a leadacid
battery the energy is stored in the form of
(a) charged ions

(b) chemical energy
(c) electrostatic energy
(d) electromagnetic energy
Ans: b
116. Which among the following constitutes the major load
for an automobile battery ?
(a) Brake light
(b) Self starter
(c) Parking lights
(d) Spark plugs
Ans: b
117. Which of the following factors adversely affects the
capacity of the leadacid battery ?
(a) Temperature of surroundings
(b) Specific gravity of electrolyte
(c) Rate of discharge
Ans: d
118. Cells are connected in parallel to
(a) increase the efficiency
(b) increase the current capacity
(c) increase the voltage output
(d) increase the internal resistance
Ans: b
119. A constantvoltage
generator has
(a) minimum efficiency
(b) minimum current capacity
(c) low internal resistance
(d) high internal resistance
Ans: c
120. Satellite power requirement is provided through
(a) solar cells
(b) dry cells
(c) nickelcadmium
cells
(d) leadacid
batteries
Ans: a
120 TOP MOST A.C. Fundamentals, Circuits and Circuit
Theory Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
Latest A.C. Fundamentals, Circuits and Circuit Theory
1. A sine wave has a frequency of 50 Hz. Its angular
frequency is _______ radian/second.
(a) 100 n
(b) 50 jt
(c) 25 JT
(d) 5 n
Ans: a
2. The reactance offered by a capacitor to alternating
current of frequency 50 Hz is 20 Q. If frequency is
increased to 100 Hz, reactance
becomes_____ohms.
(a) 2.5
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 15
Ans: c
3. The period of a wave is

(a) the same as frequency
(6) time required to complete one cycle
(c) expressed in amperes
Ans: b
4. The form factor is the ratio of
(a) peak value to r.m.s. value
(6) r.m.s. value to average value
(c) average value to r.m.s. value1
Ans: b
5. The period of a sine wave is _____ seconds.
Its frequency is
(a) 20 Hz
(b) 30 Hz
(c) 40 Hz
(d) 50 Hz
Ans: d
6. A heater is rated as 230 V, 10 kW, A.C. The value 230 V
refers to
(a) average voltage
(b) r.m.s. voltage
(c) peak voltage
Ans: b
7. If two sinusoids of the same frequency but of different
amplitudes and phase angles are subtracted, the resultant is
(a) a sinusoid of the same frequency
(b) a sinusoid of half the original frequency
(c) a sinusoid of double the frequency
(d) not a sinusoid
Ans: a
8. The peak value of a sine wave is 200 V. Its average value
is
(a) 127.4 V
(b) 141.4 V
(c) 282.8 V
(d)200V
Ans: a
9. If two sine waves of the same frequency have a phase
difference of JT radians, then
(a) both will reach their minimum values at the same
instant
(b) both will reach their maximum values at the same
instant
(c) when one wave reaches its maximum value, the other
will reach its minimum value
Ans: c
10. The voltage of domestic supply is 220V. This figure
represents
(a) mean value
(b) r.m.s. value
(c) peak value
(d) average value
Ans: a
11. Two waves of the same frequency have opposite phase
when the phase angle between them is
(a) 360
(b) 180
(c) 90
(d) 0
Ans: b
12. The power consumed in a circuit element will be least
when the phase difference between the current and
voltage is
(a) 180
(b) 90
(c) 60
(d) 0
Ans: b
13. The r.m.s. value and mean value is the same in the case
of
(a) triangular wave
(6) sine wave
(c) square wave
(d) half wave rectified sine wave
Ans: c
14. For the same peak value which of the following wave
will have the highest r.m.s. value ?
(a) square wave
(b) half wave rectified sine wave
(c) triangular wave
(d) sine wave
Ans: a
15. For the same peak value, which of the following wave
has the least mean value ?
(a) half wave rectified sine wave
(b) triangular wave
(c) sine wave
(d) square wave
Ans: a
16. For a sine wave with peak value Imax the r.m.s. value is
(a) 0.5 Imax
(b) 0.707
(c) 0.9
(d) 1.414 Lmax
Ans: b
17. Form Factor is the ratio of
(a) average value/r.m.s. value
(b) average value/peak value
(e) r.m.s. value/average value
(d) r.m.s. value/peak value
Ans: c
18. Form factor for a sine wave is
(a) 1.414
(b) 0.707
(c) 1.11
(d) 0.637
Ans: c
19. For a sine wave with peak value Emax______8.30. the
average value is
(a) 0.636 Emax
(b) 0.707 Emax
(c) 0.434 EWc
(d) lAUEmax
Ans: a
20. For a frequency of 200 Hz, the time period will be
(a) 0.05 s
(b) 0.005 s
(c) 0.0005 s
(d) 0.5 s
Ans: b
21. The phase difference between voltage and current wave

through a circuit element is given as 30. The essential
condition is that
(a) both waves must have same frequency
(b) both waves must have identical peak values
(c) both waves must have zero value at the same time
Ans: a
22. The r.m.s. value of a sinusoidal A.C. current is equal to
its value at an angle of______degrees.
(a) 90
(b) 60
(c) 45
(d) 30
Ans: c
23. Capacitive reactance is more when
(a) capacitance is less and frequency of supply is less
(b) capacitance is less and frequency of supply is more
(c) capacitance is more and frequency of supply is less
(d) capacitance is more and frequency of supply is more
Ans: a
24. In a series resonant circuit, the impedance of the circuit
is
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
Ans: a
25. Power factor of an electrical circuit is equal to
(a) R/Z
(b) cosine of phase angle difference between
current and voltage
(c) kW/kVA
(d) ratio of useful current to total current Iw/I
(e) all above
Ans: e
26. The best place to install a capacitor is
(a) very near to inductive load
(b) across the terminals of the inductive load
(c) far away from the inductive load
(d) any where
Ans: b
27. Poor power factor
(a) reduces load handling capability of electrical system
(b) results in more power losses in the electrical system
(c) overloads alternators, transformers and distribution lines
(d) results in more voltage drop in the line
(e) results in all above
Ans: e
28. Capacitors for power factor correction are rated in
(a) kW
(b) kVA
(c) kV
(d) kVAR
Ans: d
29. In series resonant circuit, increasing inductance to its
twice value and reducing capacitance to its half value
(a) will change the maximum value of current at resonance
(6) will change the resonance frequency
(c) will change the impedance at resonance frequency
(d) will increase the selectivity of the circuit
Ans: d
30. Pure inductive circuit

(a) consumes some power on average
(b) does not take power at all from a line
(c) takes power from the line during some part of the cycle
and then returns back to it during other part of the cycle
Ans: c
31. Inductance affects the direct current flow
(a) only at the time of turning off
(b) only at the time of turning on
(c) at the time of turning on and off
(d) at all the time of operation
Ans: c
32. Inductance of a coil Varies
(a) directly as the crosssectional
area of magnetic core
(b) directly as square of number of turns
(c) directly as the permeability of the core
(d) inversely as the length of the iron path
(e) as (a) to (d)
Ans: e
33. All the rules and laws of D.C. circuit also apply to A.C.
circuit containing
(a) capacitance only
(b) inductance only
(c) resistance only
(d) all above
Ans: c
34. Time constant of an inductive circuit
(a) increases with increase of inductance and decrease of
resistance
(b) increases with the increase of inductance and the
increase of resistance
(c) increases with decrease of inductance and decrease of
resistance
(d) increases with decrease of inductance and increase of
resistance
Ans: a
35. Power factor of an inductive circuit is usually improved
by connecting capacitor to it in
(a) parallel
(b) series
(c) either (a) or (b)
Ans: a
36. In a highly capacitive circuit the
(a) apparent power is equal to the actual power
(b) reactive power is more than the apparent power
(c) reactive power is more than the actual power
(d) actual power is more than its reactive power
Ans: c
37. Power factor of the following circuit will be zero
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) capacitance
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans: d
38. Power factor of the following circuit will be unity
(a) inductance
(b) capacitance
(c) resistance
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: c
39. Power factor of the system is kept high
(a) to reduce line losses
(b) to maximise the utilization of the capacities of
generators, lines and transformers
(c) to reduce voltage regulation of the line
(d) due to all above reasons
Ans: d
40. The time constant of the capacitance circuit is defined
as the time during which voltage
(a) falls to 36.8% of its final steady value
(b) rises to 38.6% of its final steady value
(c) rises to 63.2% of its final steady value
Ans: c
41. In a lossfree
RLC
circuit the transient current is
(a) oscillating
(b) square wave
(c) sinusoidal
(d) nonoscillating
Ans: c
42. The r.m.s. value of alternating current is given by
steady (D.C.) current which when flowing through a given
circuit for a given time produces
(a) the more heat than produced by A.C. when flowing
through the same circuit
(b) the same heat as produced by A.C. when flowing
through the same circuit
(c) the less heat than produced by A.C. flowing through the
same circuit
Ans: b
43. The square waveform of current has following relation
between r.m.s. value and average value.
(a) r.m.s. value is equal to average value
(b) r.m.s. value of current is greater than average value
(c) r.m.s. value of current is less than average value
Ans: a
44. The double energy transient occur in the
(a) purely inductive circuit
(b) RL
circuit
(c) RC
circuit
(d) RLC
circuit
Ans: d
45. The transient currents are associated with the
(a) changes in the stored energy in the inductors and
capacitors
(b) impedance of the circuit
(c) applied voltage to the circuit
(d) resistance of the circuit
Ans: a
46. The power factor at resonance in RLC
parallel circuit is
(a) zero
(b) 0.08 lagging
(c) 0.8 leading
(d) unity
Ans: d
47. In the case of an unsymmetrical alternating current the
average value must always be taken over
(a) unsymmetrical part of the wave form
(b) the quarter cycle
(c) the half cycle
(d) the whole cycle
Ans: d
48. In a pure resistive circuit
(a) current lags behind the voltage by 90
(b) current leads the voltage by 90
(c) current can lead or lag the voltage by 90
(d) current is in phase with the voltage
Ans: d
49. In a pure inductive circuit
(a) the current is in phase with the voltage
(b) the current lags behind the voltage by 90
(c) the current leads the voltage by 90
(d) the current can lead or lag by 90
Ans: b
50. In a circuit containing R, L and C, power loss can take
place in
(a) C only
(b) L only
(c) R only
(d) all above
Ans: c
51. Inductance of coil
(a) is unaffected by the supply frequency
(b) decreases with the increase in supply frequency
(c) increases with the increase in supply frequency
(d) becomes zero with the increase in supply frequency
Ans: c
52. In any A.C. circuit always
(a) apparent power is more than actual power
(b) reactive power is more than apparent power
(c) actual power is more than reactive power
(d) reactive power is more than actual power
Ans: a
53. Which of the following circuit component opposes the
change in the circuit voltage ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Conductance
(d) Resistance
Ans:
54. In a purely inductive circuit
(a) actual power is zero
(b) reactive power is zero
(c) apparent power is zero
(d) none of above is zero
Ans: a
55. Power factor of electric bulb is
(a) zero
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) unity
Ans: d
56. Pure inductive circuit takes power from the A.C. line
when
(a) applied voltage decreases but current increases
(b) applied voltage increases but current decreases

(c) both applied voltage and current increase
(d) both applied voltage and current decrease
Ans: a
57. Time constant of a circuit is the time in seconds taken
after the application of voltage to each
(a) 25% of maximum value
(b) 50% of maximum value
(c) 63% of maximum value
(d) 90% of the maximum value
Ans: c
58. Time constant of an inductive circuit
(a) increases with increase of inductance and decrease of
resistance
(b) increases with the increase of inductance and the
increase of resistance
(c) increases with the decrease of inductance and decrease
of resistance
(d) increases with decrease of inductance and increase of
resistance
Ans: a
59. Time constant of a capacitive circuit
(a) increases with the decrease of capacitance and decrease
of resistance
(b) increases with the decrease of capacitance and increase
of resistance
(c) increases with the increase of capacitance and decrease
of resistance
(d) increase with increase of capacitance and increase of
resistance
Ans: d
60. Magnitude of current at resonance in RLC
circuit
(a) depends upon the magnitude of R
(b) depends upon the magnitude of L
(c) depends upon the magnitude of C
(d) depends upon the magnitude of R, Land C
Ans: a
61. In a RLC
circuit
(a) power is consumed in resistance and is equal to I R
(b) exchange of power takes place between inductor and
supply line
(c) exchange of power takes place between capacitor and
supply line
(d) exchange of power does not take place between
resistance and the supply line
(e) all above are correct
Ans: e
62. In RLC
series resonant circuit magnitude of resonance frequency
can be changed by changing the value of
(a) R only
(b) L only
(c)C only
(d)LorC
(e) R,LorC
Ans: d
63. In a series LC
circuit at the resonant frequency the
(a) current is maximum
(b) current is minimum
(c) impedance is maximum

(d) voltage across C is minimum
Ans: a
64. The time constant of a series RC
circuit is given by
(a) R/C
(b) RC2
(c) RC
(d) R2C
Ans: c
65. If resistance is 20 Q. and inductance is 27 in a RL
series circuit, then time constant of this circuit will be
(a) 0.001 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 10 s
(d) 100 s
Ans: b
66. Which of the following coil will have large resonant
frequency ?
(a) A coil with large resistance
(b) A coil with low resistance
(c) A coil with large distributed capacitance
(d) A coil with low distributed capacitance
Ans: c
67. If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 Hz with 30 A
r.m.s. current which of the following equation represents
this wave ?
(a) 42.42 sin 3141
(b) 60 sin 25 t
(c) 30 sin 50 t
(d) 84.84 sin 25 t
Ans: a
68. The safest value of current the human body can carry
for more than 3 second is
(a) 4 mA
(b) 9 mA
(c) 15 mA
(d) 25 mA
Ans: b
69. A pure inductance connected across 250 V, 50 Hz
supply consumes 100 W.
This consumption can be attributed to
(a) the big size of the inductor
(b) the reactance of the inductor
(c) the current flowing in the inductor
(d) the statement given is false
Ans: d
70. The input of an A.C. circuit having power factor of 0.8
lagging is 40 kVA
The power drawn by the circuit is
(a) 12 kW
(b) 22 kW
(c) 32 kW
(d) 64 kW
Ans: c
71. The effective resistance of an ironcored
choke working on ordinary supply frequency is more than
its true resistance because of
(a) iron loss in core
(b) skin effect
(c) increase in temperature
(d) capacitive effect between adjacent coil turns
Ans: a
72. In an AC. circuit, a low value of kVAR compared with
kW indicates
(a) low efficiency
(b) high power factor
(c) unity power factor
(d) maximum load current
Ans: b
73. In AC. circuits, laminated iron is invariably used in
order to
(a) reduce eddy current loss
(b) increase heat radiation
(c) make assembly cheap and easier
(d) reduce circuit permeability
Ans: a
74. The ratio of active power to apparent power is known
as factor.
(a) demand
(b) load
(c) power
(d) form
Ans: c
75. All definitions of power factor of a series RLC
circuit are correct except
(a) ratio of net reactance and impedance
(b) ratio of kW and kVA
(c) ratio of J and Z
(d) ratio of W and VA
Ans: a
76. The apparent power drawn by an A.C. circuit is 10 kVA
and active power is 8 kW. The reactive power in the circuit
is
(a) 4 kVAR
(b) 6 kVAR
(c) 8 kVAR
(d) 16 kVAR
Ans: b
77. What will be the phase angle between two alternating
waves of equal frequency, when one wave attains
maximum value the other is at zero
value ?
(a) 0
(b) 45
(c) 90
(d) 180
Ans: c
78. The purpose of a parallel circuit resonance is to
magnify
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) power
(d) frequency
Ans: b
79. In an A.C. circuit power is dissipated in
(a) resistance only
(b) inductance only
(c) capacitance only
Ans: a
80. In a parallel RC
circuit, the current always______the applied voltage
(a) lags
(b) leads
(c) remains in phase with
Ans: b
81. At very low frequencies a series RC
circuit behaves as almost purely
(a) resistive
(b) inductive
(c) capacitive
Ans: c
82. Skin effect occurs when a conductor carries current
at_____ frequencies.
(a) very low
(b) low
(c) medium
(d) high
Ans: d
83. At ______ frequencies the parallel RL
circuit behaves as purely resistive.
(a) low
(b) very low
(c) high
(d) very high
Ans: d
84. In a sine wave the slope is constant
(a) between 0 and 90
(b) between 90 and 180
(c) between 180 and 270
(d) no where
Ans: d
85. The power is measured in terms of decibles in case of
(a) electronic equipment
(b) transformers
(c) current transformers
(d) auto transformers
Ans: a
86. Capacitive susceptance is a measure of
(a) reactive power in a circuit
(b) the extent of neutralisation of reactive power in a circuit
(c) a purely capacitive circuits ability to pass current
(d) a purely capacitive circuits ability to resist the flow of
current
Ans: c
87. Which of the following statements pertains to resistors
only ?
(a) can dissipate considerable amount of power
(6) can act as energy storage devices
(c) connecting them in parallel increases the total value
(d) oppose sudden changes in voltage
Ans: a
88. Which of the following refers to a parallel circuit ?
(a) The current through each element is same
(b) The voltage across element is in proportion to its
resistance value
(c) The equivalent resistance is greater than any one of the
resistors
(d) The current through any one element is less than the
source current
Ans: d
89. Aphasoris
(a) a line which represents the magnitude and phase of an

alternating quantity
(b) a line representing the magnitude and direction of an
alternating quantity
(c) a coloured tag or band for distinction between different
phases of a 3phase
supply
(d) an instrument used for measuring phases of an
unbalanced 3phase
load
Ans: a
89. A parallel AC. circuit in resonance will
(a) have a high voltage developed across each inductive
and capacitive section
(b) have a high impedance
(c) act like a resistor of low value
(d) have current in each section equal to the line current
Ans: b
90. Wirewound
resistors are unsuitable for use at high frequencies because
they
(a) create more electrical noise
(b) are likely to melt under excessive eddy current heat
(c) consume more power
(d) exhibit unwanted inductive and capacitive effects
Ans: d
91. The inductance of a coil can be increased by
(a) increasing core length
(b) decreasing the number of turns
(c) decreasing the diameter of the former
(d) choosing core material having high relative
permeability
Ans: d
92. In a threephase
supply floating neutral is undesirable because it way give
rise to
(a) high voltage across the load
(b) low voltage across the load
(c) unequal line voltages across the load
Ans: c
93. Which of the following waves has the highest value of
peak factor ?
(a) Square wave
(b) Sine wave
(c) Half wave rectified sine wave
(d) Triangular wave
Ans: c
94. The frequency of domestic power supply in India is
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 100 Hz
(c) 60 Hz
(d) 50 Hz
Ans: d
95. The r.m.s. value of half wave rectified sine wave is 200
V. The r.m.s. value of full wave rectified AC. will be
(a) 282.8 V
(b) 141.4 V
(c) 111 V
(d) 100 V
Ans: a
96. The r.m.s. value of pure cosine function is
(a) 0.5 of peak value
(b) 0.707 of peak value

(c) same as peak value
(d) zero
Ans: b
97. Ohm is unit of all of the following except
(a) inductive reactance
(b) capacitive reactance
(c) resistance
(d) capacitance
Ans: d
98. The series and parallel resonance on LC
circuit differs in that
(a) series resistance needs a lowresistance
source for sharp rise in current
(b) series resonance needs a highresistance
source for sharp increase in current
(c) parallel resonance needs a lowresistance
source for a sharp increase in impedance
(d) parallel resonance needs a lowresistance
source for a sharp rise in line current
Ans: a
99. The phosphors for which of the following pair are 180
out of phase for VL, VC and VR?
(a) Vc and VR
(b) VL and VR
(c) Vc and VL
Ans: c
100. The frequency of an alternating current is
(a) the speed with which the alternator runs
(b) the number of cycles generated in one minute
(c) the number of waves passing through a point in one
second
(d) the number of electrons passing through a point in one
second
Ans: c
101. A pure capacitor connected across an A.C. voltage
consumed 50 W. This is due to
(a) the capacitive reactance in ohms
(b) the current flowing in capacitor
(c) the size of the capacitor being quite big
(d) the statement is incorrect
Ans: d
102. The power factor of a D.C. circuit is always
(a) less than unity
(b) unity
(c) greater than unity
(d) zero
Ans: b
103. The product of apparent power and cosine of the phase
angle between circuit voltage and current is
(a) true power
(b) reactive power
(c) voltamperes
(d) instantaneous power
Ans: a
104. The equation of 50 Hz current sine wave having r.m.s.
value of 60 A is
(a) 60 sin 25 t
(b) 60 sin 50 t
(c) 84.84 sin 3141
(d) 42.42 sin 314 t
Ans: c
105. An A.C. voltage is impressed across a pure resistance
of 3.5 ohms in parallel with a pure inductance of
impedance of 3.5 ohms,
(a) the current through the resistance is more
(b) the current through the resistance is less
(c) both resistance and inductance carry equal currents
Ans: c
106. In a pure inductive circuit if the supply frequency is
reduced to 1/2, the current will
(a) be reduced by half
(b) be doubled
(c) be four times as high
(d) be reduced to one fourth
Ans: b
118. In a pure capacitive circuit if the supply frequency is
reduced to 1/2, the current will
(a) be reduced by half
(b) be doubled
(c) be four times at high
(d) be reduced to one fourth
Ans: a
119. When an alternating current passes through an ohmic
resistance the electrical power converted into heat is
(a) apparent power
(b) true power
(c) reactive power
Ans: b
120. In each of the three coils of a three phase generator, an
alternating voltage having an r.m.s. value of 220 V is
induced. Which of the following
values is indicated by the voltmeters ?
(a) 220 V
(b) 220V3V
(c) 220/V3 V
Ans: a
Q.53 answer is B.capacitance
Q.78. Right answer is A. Current..magnifies current
110 TOP MOST Measurement and Instrumentation

Electrical Engineering Objective Type Questions and
Answers
1. The use of _____ instruments is merely confined within
laboratories as standardizing instruments.
(a) absolute
(b) indicating
(c) recording
(d) integrating
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
2. Which of the following instruments indicate the
instantaneous value of the electrical quantity being
measured at the time at which it is being
measured ?
(a) Absolute instruments
(b) Indicating instruments
(c) Recording instruments
(d) Integrating instruments
Ans: b
3. _____ instruments are those which measure the total
quantity of electricity delivered in a particular time.
(a) Absolute
(b) Indicating
(c) Recording
(d) Integrating
Ans: d
4. Which of the following are integrating instruments ?
(a) Ammeters
(b) Voltmeters
(c) Wattmeters
(d) Amperehour
and watthour
meters
Ans: d
5. Resistances can be measured with the help of
(a) wattmeters
(b) voltmeters
(c) ammeters
(d) ohmmeters and resistance bridges
Ans: d
6 According to application, instruments are classified as
(a) switch board
(b) portable
(d) moving coil
(e) moving iron
(f) both (d) and (e)
Ans: c
7. Which of the following essential features is possessed by
an indicating instrument ?
(a) Deflecting device
(b) Controlling device
(c) Damping device
Ans: d
8. A _____ device prevents the oscillation of the moving
system and enables the latter to reach its final position
quickly
(a) deflecting
(b) controlling
(c) damping
(d) any of the above
Ans: c
9. The spring material used in a spring control device
should have the following property.
(a) Should be nonmagnetic
(b) Most be of low temperature coefficient

(c) Should have low specific resistance
(d) Should not be subjected to fatigue
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
10. Which of the following properties a damping oil must
possess ?
(a) Must be a good insulator
(b) Should be nonevaporating
(c) Should not have corrosive action upon the metal of the
vane
(d) The viscosity of the oil should not change with the
temperature
Ans: e
11. A movingcoil
permanentmagnet
instrument can be used as _____ by using a low resistance
shunt.
(a) ammeter
(b) voltmeter
(c) fluxmeter
(d) ballistic galvanometer
Ans: a
12. A movingcoil
permanentmagnet
instrument can be used as fluxmeter
(a) by using a low resistance shunt
(b) by using a high series resistance
(c) by eliminating the control springs
(d) by making control springs of large moment of inertia
Ans: c
13. Which of the following devices may be used for
extending the range of instruments ?
(a) Shunts
(b) Multipliers
(c) Current transformers
(d) Potential transformers
Ans: e
14. An induction meter can handle current up to
(a) 10 A
(b) 30 A
(c) 60 A
(d) 100 A
Ans: d
15. For handling greater currents induction wattmeters are
used in conjunction with
(a) potential transformers
(b) current transformers
(c) power transformers
(d) either of the above
Ans: b
16. Induction type single phase energy meters measure
electric energy in
(a) kW
(b) Wh
(c) kWh
(d) VAR
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
17. Most common form of A.C. meters met with in every

day domestic and industrial installations are
(a) mercury motor meters
(b) commutator motor meters
(c) induction type single phase energy meters
Ans: c
8/28/2016 110 TOP MOST Measurement and
Instrumentation Electrical
Engineering Objective Type Questions and Answers
Electrical Engineering Multiple Choi
http://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/measurementandi
nstrumentationelectricalengineeringobjectivetypequestionsa
ndanswers/
4/20
18. Which of the following meters are not used on D.C.
circuits
(a) Mercury motor meters
(b) Commutator motor meters
(c) Induction meters
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
19. Which of the following is an essential part of a motor
meter ?
(a) An operating torque system
(b) A braking device
(c) Revolution registering device
Ans: d
20. A potentiometer may be used for
(a) measurement of resistance
(b) measurement of current
(c) calibration of ammeter
(d) calibration of voltmeter
Ans: e
21 is an instrument which measures the insulation
resistance of an electric circuit relative to earth and one
another,
(a) Tangent galvanometer
(b) Meggar
(c) Current transformer
Ans: b
22. The household energy meter is
(a) an indicating instrument
(b) a recording instrument
(c) an integrating instrument
Ans: c
23. The pointer of an indicating instrument should be
(a) very light
(b) very heavy
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: a
24. The chemical effect of current is used in
(a) D.C. ammeter hour meter
(b) D.C. ammeter
(c) D.C. energy meter
Ans: a
25. In majority of instruments damping is provided by

(a) fluid friction
(b) spring
(c) eddy currents
Ans: c
26. An ammeter is a
(a) secondary instrument
(b) absolute instrument
(c) recording instrument
(d) integrating instrument
Ans: a
27. In a portable instrument, the controlling torque is
provided by
(a) spring
(b) gravity
(c) eddy currents
Ans: a
28. The disc of an instrument using eddy current damping
should be of
(a) conducting and magnetic material
(b) nonconducting
and magnetic material
(c) conducting and nonmagnetic
material
Ans: c
29. The switch board instruments
(a) should be mounted in vertical position
(6) should be mounted in horizontal position
Ans: a
30. The function of shunt in an ammeter is to
(a) by pass the current
(b) increase the sensitivity of the ammeter
(c) increase the resistance of ammeter
Ans: a
31. The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are in
(a) series
(b) parallel
(c) seriesparallel
Ans: a
32. A moving iron instrument can be used for
(a) D.C. only
(b) A.C. only
(c) both D.C. and A.C.
Ans: c
33. The scale of a rectifier instrument is
(a) linear
(b) nonlinear
Ans: a
34. For measuring current at high frequency we should use
(a) moving iron instrument
(b) electrostatic instrument
(c) thermocouple instrument
Ans: c
35. The resistance in the circuit of the moving coil of a
dynamometer wattmeter should be
(a) almost zero
(b) low
(c) high
Ans: c
36. A dynamometer wattmeter can be used for
(a) both D.C. and A.C.
(b) D.C. only
(c) A.C. only
Ans: a
37. An induction wattmeter can be used for
(a) both D.C. and A.C.
(6) D.C. only
(c) A.C. only
Ans: b
38. The pressure coil of a wattmeter should be connected
on the supply side of the current coil when
(a) load impedance is high
(b) load impedance is low
(c) supply voltage is low
Ans: a
39. In a low power factor wattmeter the pressure coil is
connected
(a) to the supply side of the current coil
(b) to the load side of the current coil
(c) in any of the two meters at connection
Ans: b
40. In a low power factor wattmeter the compensating coil
is connected
(a) in series with current coil
(b) in parallel with current coil
(c) in series with pressure coil
(d) in parallel with pressure coil
Ans: c
41. In a 3phase
power measurement by two wattmeter method, both the
watt meters had identical readings. The
power factor of the load was
(a) unity
(6) 0.8 lagging
(c) 0.8 leading
(d) zero
Ans: a
42. In a 3phase
power measurement by two wattmeter method the reading
of one of the wattmeter was zero. The
power factor of the load must be
(a) unity
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.3
(d) zero
Ans: b
43. The adjustment of position of shading bands, in an
energy meter is done to provide
(a) friction compensation
(b) creep compensation

(c) braking torque
Ans: a
44. An ohmmeter is a
(a) moving iron instrument
(b) moving coil instrument
(c) dynamometer instrument
Ans: b
45. When a capacitor was connected to the terminal of
ohmmeter, the pointer indicated a low resistance initially
and then slowly came to infinity
position. This shows that capacitor is
(a) shortcircuited
(b) all right
(c) faulty
Ans: b
46. For measuring a very high resistance we should use
(a) Kelvins double bridge
(b) Wheat stone bridge
(c) Meggar
Ans: c
47. The electrical power to a meggar is provided by
(a) battery
(b) permanent magnet D.C. generator
(c) AC. generator
Ans: b
48. In a meggar controlling torque is provided by
(a) spring
(b) gravity
(c) coil
(d) eddy current
Ans: c
49. The operating voltage of a meggar is about
(a) 6 V
(b) 12 V
(c) 40 V
(d) 100 V
Ans: d
50. Murray loop test can be used for location of
(a) ground fault on a cable
(b) short circuit fault on a cable
(c) both the ground fault and the shortcircuit
fault
Ans: c
51. Which of the following devices should be used for
accurate measurement of low D.C. voltage ?
(a) Small range moving coil voltmeter
(b) D.C. potentiometer
(c) Small range thermocouple voltmeter
Ans: b
52. It is required to measure the true open circuit e.m.f. of a
battery. The best device is
(a) D.C. voltmeter
(b) Ammeter and a known resistance
(c) D.C. potentiometer
Ans: c
53. A voltage of about 200 V can be measured
(a) directly by a D.C. potentiometer
(b) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a volt ratio
box
(c) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a known
resistance
Ans: b
54. A direct current can be measured by
(a) a D.C. potentiometer directly
(b) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a standard
resistance
(c) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a volt ratio
box
Ans: b
55. To measure a resistance with the help of a
potentiometer it is
(a) necessary to standardise the potentiometer
(b) not necessary to standardise the potentiometer
(c) necessary to use a volt ratio box in conjunction with the
potentiometer
Ans: b
56. A phase shifting transformer is used in conjunction with
(a) D.C. potentiometer
(b) Drysdale potentiometer
(c) A.C. coordinate
potentiometer
(d) Crompton potentiometer
Ans: b
57. Basically a potentiometer is a device for
(a) comparing two voltages
(b) measuring a current
(c) comparing two currents
(d) measuring a voltage
Ans: a
58. In order to achieve high accuracy, the slide wire of a
potentiometer should be
(a) as long as possible
(b) as short as possible
(c) neither too small not too large
(d) very thick
Ans: a
59. To measure an A. C. voltage by using an A.C.
potentiometer, it is desirable that the supply for the
potentiometer in taken
(a) from a source which is not the same as the unknown
voltage
(b) from a battery
(c) from the same source as the unknown voltage
Ans: c
60. The stator of phase shifting transformer for use in
conjunction with an A.C. potentiometer usually has a
(a) singlephase
winding
(b) twophase
winding
(c) threephase
winding
Ans: b
61. In an AC. coordinate
potentiometer, the currents in the phase and quadrature
potentiometer are adjusted to be
(a) out of phase by 90
(6) out of phase by 60
(c) out of phase by 30
(d) out of phase by 0
(e) out of phase by 180
Ans: a
62. A universal RLC bridge uses
(a) Maxwell bridge configuration for measurement of
inductance and De Santas bridge for measurement of
capacitance
(b) Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance
and modified De Santys bridge for measurement of
capacitance
(c) Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance
and Wein bridge for measurement of capacitance
(d) Any of the above.
Ans: b
63. For measurements on high voltage capacitors, the
suitable bridge is
(a) Wein bridge
(b) Modified De Santys bridge
(c) Schering bridge
Ans: c
64. In an Anderson bridge, the unknown inductance is
measured in terms of
(a) known inductance and resistance
(b) known capacitance and resistance
(c) known resistance
(d) known inductance
Ans: b
65. Wagner earthing device is used to eliminate errors due
to
(a) electrostatic coupling
(b) electromagnetic coupling
Ans: a
66. For measurement of mutual inductance we can use
(a) Anderson bridge
(b) Maxwells bridge
(c) Heaviside bridge
Ans: c
67. For measurement of inductance having high value, we
should use
(a) Maxwells bridge
(b) Maxwell Wein bridge
(c) Hays bridge
Ans: c
/11/20
68. If the current in a capacitor leads the voltage by 80, the
loss angle of the capacitor is
(a) 10
(b) 80
(c) 120
(d) 170
Ans: a
69. In a Schering bridge the potential of the detector above
earth potential is
(a) a few volts only
(6) 1 kV
(c) 5 kV
(d) 10 kV
Ans: a
70. To avoid the effect of stray magnetic field in A.C.
bridges we can use
(a) magnetic screening
(b) Wagner earthing device
(c) wave filters
Ans: a
71. If an inductance is connected in one arm of bridge and
resistances in the remaining three arms
(a) the bridge can always be balanced
(b) the bridge cannot be balanced
(c) the bridge can be balanced if the resistances have some
specific values
Ans: b
72. A power factor meter has
(a) one current circuit and two pressure circuits
(b) one current circuit and one pressure circuit
(c) two current circuits and one pressure circuit
Ans: a
73. The two pressure coils of a single phase power factor
meter have
(a) the same dimensions and the same number of turns
(b) the same dimension but different number of turns
(c) the same number of turns but different dimensions
Ans: a
74. In a single phase power factor meter the phase
difference between the currents in the two pressure coils is
(a) exactly 0
(b) approximately 0
(c) exactly 90
(d) approximately 90
Ans: c
75. In a dynamometer 3phase
power factor meter, the planes of the two moving coils are
at
(a) 0
(b) 60
(c) 90
(d) 120
Ans: d
76. In a vibrating reed frequency meter the natural
frequencies of two adjacent reeds have a difference of
(a) 0.1 Hz
(b) 0.25 Hz
(c) 0.5 Hz
(d) 1.5 Hz
Ans: c
77. In a Weston frequency meter, the magnetic axes of the
two fixed coils are
(a) parallel
(b) perpendicular
(c) inclined at 60
(d) inclined at 120
Ans: b
78. A Weston frequency meter is
(a) moving coil instrument
(b) moving iron instrument
Ans: b
79. A Weston synchronoscope is a
(a) moving coil instrument
(b) moving iron instrument
Ans: c
80. In a Weston synchronoscope, the fixed coils are
connected across
(a) busbars
(b) incoming alternator
(c) a lamp
Ans: b
81. In Weston synchronoscope the moving coil is connected
across
(a) busbars
(b) incoming alternator
(c) fixed coils
Ans: a
82. The power factor of a single phase load can be
calculated if the instruments available are
(a) one voltmeter and one ammeter
(b) one voltmeter, one ammeter and one wattmeter
(c) one voltmeter, one ammeter and one energy meter
Ans: b
83. The desirable static characteristics of a measuring
system are
(a) accuracy and reproducibility
(b) accuracy, sensitivity and reproducibility
(c) drift and dead zone
(d) static error
Ans: b
84. The ratio of maximum displacement deviation to full
scale deviation of the instrument is called
(a) static sensitivity
(b) dynamic deviation
(c) linearity
(d) precision or accuracy
Ans: c
85. Systematic errors are
(a) instrumental errors
(b) environmental errors
(c) observational errors
Ans: d
86. Standard resistor is made from
(a) platinum
(b) maganin
(c) silver
(d) nichrome
Ans: b
87. Commonly used standard capacitor is
(a) spherical type
(b) concentric cylindrical type
(c) electrostatic type
(d) multilayer parallel plate type
Ans: b
88. Operating torques in analogue instruments are
(a) deflecting and control
(b) deflecting and damping
(c) deflecting, control and damping
(d) vibration and balancing
Ans: c
89. Commonly used instruments in power system
measurement are
(a) induction
(b) moving coil or iron
(c) rectifier
(d) electrostatic
Ans: a
90. Damping of the Ballistic galvanometer is made small to
(a) get first deflection large
(b) make the system oscillatory
(c) make the system critically damped
(d) get minimum overshoot
Ans: a
91. If an instrument has cramped scale for larger values,
then it follows
(a) square law
(b) logarithmic law
(c) uniform law
Ans: b
92. Volt box is a component to
(a) extend voltage range
(6) measure voltage
(c) compare voltage in a box
Ans: a
93. E.m.f. of a Weston cell is accurately measured by
(a) electrostatic voltmeter
(b) hot wire voltmeter
(c) isothermal voltmeter
(d) electrodynamic voltmeter
Ans: a
94. The gravity controlled instrument has crowded scale
because current is proportional to
(a) balancing weight
(b) deflection angle
(c) sine of deflection angle
Ans: c
95. A sensitive galvanometer produces large deflection for a
(a) small value of current
(b) large value of current
(c) large value of power
(d) large value of voltage
Ans: a
96. A multirangq instrument has
(a) multiple shunt or series resistances inside the meter
(b) multicoii arrangement

(c) variable turns of coil
(d) multi range meters inside the measurement system
(e) any of the above
Ans: a
97. The rectifier instrument is not free from
(a) temperature error
(b) wave shape error
(c) frequency error
Ans: c
98. Alternating current is measured by
(a) induction ammeter
(b) permanent magnet type ammeter
(c) electrostatic ammeter
(d) moving iron repulsion type voltmeter
Ans: a
99. Most sensitive galvanometer is
(a) elastic galvanometer
(b) vibration galvanometer
(c) Duddlb galvanometer
(d) spot ballistic galvanometer
Ans: d
100. Instrument transformers are
(a) potential transformers
(b) current transformers
(d) power transformers
Ans: c
101. An instrument transformer is used to extend the range
of
(a) induction instrument
(b) electrostatic instrument
(c) moving coil instrument
Ans: a
102. Wattmeter cannot be designed on the principle of
(a) electrostatic instrument
(b) thermocouple instrument
(c) moving iron instrument
(d) electrodynamic instrument
Ans: c
103. In an energy meter braking torque is produced to
(a) safe guard it against creep
(b) brake the instrument
(c) bring energy meter to stand still
(d) maintain steady speed and equal to driving torque
Ans: d
104. Various adjustments in an energy meter include
(a) light load or friction
(b) lag and creep
(c) overload and voltage compensation
(d) temperature compensation
Ans: e
105. The power of a nphase
circuit can be measured by using a minimum of
(a) (n 1) wattmeter elements
(b) n wattmeter elements
(c) (n + 1) wattmeter elements
(d) 2n wattmeter elements
Ans: a
106. Two holes in the disc of energy meter are drilled at the
opposite sides of the spindle to
(a) improve its ventilation
(b) eliminate creeping at no load
(c) increase its deflecting torque
(d) increase its braking torque
Ans: b
107. Which of the following is measured by using a vector
voltmeter ?
(a) Amplifier gain and phase shift
(b) Filler transfer functions
(c) Complex insersion loss
Ans: d
108. The principle on which vector voltmeter is based is
(a) that it works on the principle of complex variation
(b) that it measures the response of linear ramp voltage
(c) same as digital meter
(d) that it measures the amplitude of a single at two points
and at the same time measures their phase difference
Ans: d
110. To measure radio frequency, the suitable frequency
meter is
(a) Weston frequency meter
(b) reed vibrator frequency meter
(c) heterodoxy frequency meter
(d) electrical resonance frequency meter
Ans: c
Engineering Electrical Engineering Objective Type
POWER PLANT Engineering MCQS :1.
The commercial sources of energy are
(a) solar, wind and biomass
(b) fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
(c) wood, animal wastes and agriculture wastes
Ans: b
3. In India largest thermal power station is located at
(a) Kota
(b) Sarni
(c) Chandrapur
(d) Neyveli
Ans: c
4. The percentage O2 by Weight in atmospheric air is
(a) 18%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: b
5. The percentage 02 by volume in atmosphere air is
(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: a
6. The proper indication of incomplete combustion is
(a) high CO content in flue gases at exit
(b) high CO2 content in flue gases at exit
(c) high temperature of flue gases
(d) the smoking exhaust from chimney
Ans: a
7. The main source of production of biogas is

(a) human waste
(b) wet cow dung
(c) wet livestock waste
(d) all above
Ans: d
8. Indias first nuclear power plant was installed at
(a) Tarapore
(b) Kota
(c) Kalpakkam
Ans: a
9. In fuel cell, the ______ energy is converted into
electrical energy.
(a) mechanical
(b) chemical
(c) heat
(d) sound
Ans: b
10. Solar thermal power generation can be achieved by
(a) using focusing collector or heliostates
(b) using flat plate collectors
(c) using a solar pond
(d) any of the above system
Ans: d
110 TOP MOST ECONOMICS of POWER
GENERATION Electrical Engineering Objective Type
Questions Answers
Latest Economics of Power Generation Questions and
Answers
1. Load factor of a power station is defined as
(a) maximum demand/average load
(b) average load x maximum demand
(c) average load/maximum demand
(d) (average load x maximum demand)172
Ans: c
2. Load factor of a power station is generally
(a) equal to unity
(b) less than unity
(c) more than unity
(d) equal to zero Diversity factor is always
Ans: b
3. The load factor of domestic load is usually
(a) 10 to 15%
(b) 30 to 40%
(c) 50 to 60%
(d) 60 to 70%
Ans: a
4. Annual depreciation cost is calculated by
(a) sinkingfund method
(b) straight line method
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Ans: c
5. Depreciation charges are high in case of
(a) thermal plant
(b) diesel plant
(c) hydroelectric plant
Ans: a
6. Demand factor is defined as
(a) average load/maximum load
(b) maximum demand/connected load
(c) connected load/maximum demand
(d) average load x maximum load
Ans: b
7. High load factor indicates
(a) cost of generation per unit power is increased
(b) total plant capacity is utilised for most of the time
(c) total plant capacity is not properly utilised for most of
the time
Ans: b
8. A load curve indicates
(a) average power used during the period
(b) average kWh (kW) energy consumption during the
period
(c) either of the above
Ans: b
9. Approximate estimation of power demand can be made
by
(a) load survey method
(b) statistical methods
(c) mathematical method
(d) economic parameters
Ans: e
10. Annual depreciation as per straight line method, is
calculated by
(a) the capital cost divided by number of year of life
(b) the capital cost minus the salvage value, is divided by
the number of years of life
(c) increasing a uniform sum of money per annum at
stipulated rate of interest
Ans: b
11. A consumer has to pay lesser fixed charges in
(a) flat rate tariff
(b) two part tariff
(c) maximum demand tariff
Ans: c
12. In two part tariff, variation in load factor will affect
(a) fixed charges
(b) operating or running charges
(d) either (a) or (b)
Ans: b
13. In Hopknison demand rate or two parttariff the demand
rate or fixed charges are
(a) dependent upon the energy consumed
(b) dependent upon the maximum demand of the consumer
Ans: b
14. Which plant can never have 100 percent load factor ?
(a) Peak load plant
(b) Base load plant
(c) Nuclear power plant
(d) Hydro electric plant
Ans: a
15. The area under a load curve gives
(a) average demand
(b) energy consumed
(c) maximum demand
Ans: b
16. Different generating stations use following prime
movers
(a) diesel engine
(b) hydraulic turbine
(c) gas turbine
(d) steam turbine
Ans: e
17. Diversity factor has direct effect on the
(a) fixed cost of unit generated
(b) running cost of unit generated
Ans: a
18. Following power plant has instant starting
(a) nuclear power plant
(b) hydro power plant
(c) diesel power plant
Ans: d
19. Which of the following generating station has minimum
ruiyiing cost ?
(a) Nuclear
(b) Hydro
(c) Thermal
(d) Diesel
Ans: b
20. Power plant having maximum demand more than the

installed rated capacity will have utilisation factor
(a) equal to unity
(b) less than unity
(c) more than unity
Ans: c
21. Load curve is useful in deciding the
(a) operating schedule of generating units
(b) sizes of generating units
(c) total installed capacity of the plant
Ans: d
22. Load curve of a power plant has always
(a) zero slope
(b) positive slope
(c) negative slope
(d) any combination of (a), (b) and (c)
Ans: e
23. Annual operating expenditure of a power plant consists
of
(a) fixed charges
(b) semifixed
charges
(c) running charges
Ans: d
24. Maximum demand on a power plant is
(a) the greatest of all short time interval averaged
demand during a period
(b) instantaneous maximum value of kVA supplied during a
period
(e) both (a) or (b)
Ans: a
25. Annual instalment towards depreciation reduces as rate
of interest increases with
(a) sinking fund depreciation
(b) straight line depreciation
(c) reducing balances depreciation
Ans: a
26. Annual depreciation of the plant it proportional to the
earning capacity of the plant vide
Ans: c
27. For high value of diversity factor, a power station of
given installed capacity will be in a position to supply
(a) less number of consumers
(b) more number of consumers
(c) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
28. Salvage value of the plant is always
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
Ans: d
29. Load curve helps in deciding

(a) total installed capacity of the plant
(b) sizes of the generating units
(c) operating schedule of generating units
Ans: d
30 can generate power at unpredictable or uncontrolled
times,
(a) Solar power plant
(b) Tidal power plant
(c) Wind power plant
Ans: d
31. Direct conversion of heat into electric power is possible
through
(a) fuel cell
(b) batteries
(c) thermionic converter
Ans: c
32. A low utilization factor for a plant indicates that
(a) plant is used for stand by purpose only
(b) plant is under maintenance
(c) plant is used for base load only
(d) plant is used for peak load as well as base load
Ans: a
33. Which of the following is not a source of power ?
(a) Thermocouple
(b) Photovoltaic cell
(c) Solar cell
(d) Photoelectric cell
Ans: a
34. Which of the following should be used for
extinguishing electrical fires ?
(a) Water
(b) Carbon tetrachloride fire extinguisher
(c) Foam type fire extinguisher
(d) CO2 fire extinguisher
Ans: b
35. Low power factor is usually not due to
(a) arc lamps
(b) induction motors
(c) fluorescent tubes
(d) incandescent lamp
Ans: d
36. Ships are generally powered by
(a) nuclear power plants
(b) hydraulic turbines
(e) diesel engines
(d) steam accumulators
Ans: c
37. Direct conversion of heat into electrical energy is
possible through
(a) fuel cells
(b) solar cells
(c) MHD generators
Ans: c
38. Which of the following place is not associated with
nuclear power plants in India ?
(a) Narora
(b) Tarapur
(c) Kota
(d) Benglore
Ans: d
39. During load shedding
(a) system power factor is changed
(b) some loads are switched off
(c) system voltage is reduced
(d) system frequency is reduced Efficiency is the secondary
consideration in
Ans: b
40. which of the following plants ?
(a) Base load plants
(b) Peak load plants
(c) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: b
41. Air will not be the working substance in which of the
following ?
(a) Closed cycle gas turbine
(b) Open cycle gas turbine
(c) Diesel engine
(d) Petrol engine
Ans: a
42. A nuclear power plant is invariably used as a
(a) peak load plant
(b) base load plant
(c) standby
plant
(d) spinning reserve plant
Ans: b
43. power plant is expected to have the longest life.
(a) Steam
(b) Diesel
(c) Hydroelectric
Ans: c
44. power plant cannot have single unit of 100 MW.
(a) Hydroelectric
(b) Nuclear
(c) Steam
(d) Diesel
(e) Any of the above
Ans: d
45. Which of the following, in a thermal power plant, is not
a fixed cost ?
(a) Fuel cost
(b) Interest on capital
(c) Depreciation
(d) Insurance charges
Ans: a
46. _______ will offer the least load.
(a) Vacuum cleaner
(b) Television
(c) Hair dryer
(d) Electric shaver
Ans: d
47. In ______ fuel transportation cost is least.
(b) diesel generating plants
(c) steam power stations

Ans: a
48. Which of the following equipment provides fluctuating
load ?
(a) Exhaust fan
(b) Lathe machine
(c) Welding transformer
Ans: c
49. The increased load during summer months is due to
(a) increased business activity
(b) increased water supply
(c) increased use of fans and air conditioners
Ans: c
50 is the reserved generating capacity available for service
under emergency conditions which is not kept in operation
but in working order,
(a) Hot reserve
(b) Cold reserve
(c) Spinning reserve
(d) Firm power
Ans: b
51. Generating capacity connected to the bus bars and
ready to take load when switched on is known as
(a) firm power
(b) cold reserve
(c) hot reserve
(d) spinning reserve
Ans: d
52. offers the highest electric load.
(a) Television set
(b) Toaster
(c) Vacuum cleaner
(d) Washing machine
Ans: b
53. _______ industry has the least power consumption per
tonne of product.
(a) Soap
(b) Sugar
(c) Vegetable oil
(d) Caustic soda
Ans: c
54. With reference to a power station which of the
following is not a fixed cost ?
(a) Fuel cost
(c) Insurance charges
(d) Depreciation
Ans: a
55. _______ is invariably used as base load plant.
(a) Diesel engine plant
(b) Nuclear power plant
(c) Gas turbine plant
(d) Pumped storage plant
Ans: b
56. In a power plant if the maximum demand on the plant is
equal to the plant capacity, then
(a) plant reserve capacity will be zero
(b) diversity factor will be unity
(c) load factor will be unity
(d) load factor will be nearly 60%
Ans: a
57. Incase of ______ fuel transportation is the major
problem.
(a) diesel power plants
(b) nuclear power plants
(c) hydroelectric
power plants
(d) thermal power plants
Ans: d
58. Which of the following power plants need the least
period for installation ?
(a) Thermal power plant
(b) Diesel power plant
(d) Hydroelectric
power plant
Ans: b
59. For which of the following power plants highly skilled
engineers are required for running the plants ?
(a) Nuclear power plants
(b) Gas turbine power plants
(c) Solar power plants
(d) Hydroelectric
power plants
Ans: a
60. In whichof the following power plants the maintenance
cost is usually high ?
(a) Nuclear power plant
(b) Hydroelectric
power plants
(c) Thermal power plants
(d) Diesel engine power plants
Ans: c
61. ________ is invariably used for peak load
(b) Steam turbine plant
(c) Pumped storage plant
Ans: c
62. Which of the following is not an operating cost ?
(a) Maintenance cost
(b) Fuel cost
(c) Salaries of high officials
(d) Salaries of operating staff
Ans:
63. Which of the following is the essential requirement of
peak load plant ?
(a) It should run at high speed
(b) It should produce high voltage
(c) It should be small in size
(d) It should be capable of starting quickly
Ans: d
64. Large capacity generators are invariably
(a) water cooled
(b) natural air cooled
(c) forced air cooled
(d) hydrogen cooled
Ans: d
65. By the use of which of the following power factor can
be improved ?
(a) Phase advancers
(b) Synchronous compensators
(c) Static capacitors

Ans: d
66. An induction motor has relatively high power factor at
(a) rated r.p.m.
(b) no load
(c) 20 percent load
(d) near full load
Ans: d
67. Which of the following is the disadvantage due to low
power factor ?
(a) Poor voltage regulation
(b) Increased transmission losses
(c) High cost of equipment for a given load
Ans: d
68. In a distribution system, in order to improve power
factor, the synchronous capacitors are installed
(a) at the receiving end
(b) at the sending end
Ans: a
69. Static capacitors are rated in terms of
(a) kW
(b) kWh
(e) kVAR
Ans: c
70. Which of the following is the disadvantage of a
synchronous condenser ?
(a) High maintenance cost
(b) Continuous losses in motor
(c) Noise
Ans: d
71. For a consumer the most economical power factor is
generally
(a) 0.5 lagging
(b) 0.5 leading
(c) 0.95 lagging
(d) 0.95 leading
Ans: c
72. A synchronous condenser is virtually which of the
following ?
(a) Induction motor
(b) Under excited synchronous motor
(c) Over excited synchronous motor
(d) D.C. generator
Ans: c
73. For a power plant which of the following constitutes
running cost ?
(a) Cost of wages
(b) Cost of fuel
(c) Cost of lubricants
Ans: d
74. In an interconnected system, the diversity factor of the
whole system
(a) remains unchanged
(b) decreases
(c) increases
Ans: c
75. Generators for peak load plants are usually designed for
maximum efficiency at
(a) 25 to 50 percent full load
(b) 50 to 75 percent full load
(c) full load
(d) 25 percent overload
Ans: b
76. ________ will be least affected due to charge in supply
voltage frequency.
(a) Electric clock
(b) Mixer grinder
(c) Ceiling fan
(d) Room heater
Ans: d
77. The connected load of a IVMIM uir consumer is around
(a) 5 kW
(b) 40 kV
(c) 80 kW
(d) 120 kW
Ans: a
78. Which of the following is not necessarily an advantage
of interconnecting various power stations ?
(a) Improved frequency of power supplied
(b) Reduction in total installed capacity
(c) Increased reliability
(d) Economy in operation of plants
Ans: a
79. A power transformer is usually rated in
(a) kW
(b) kVAR
(c) kWh
(d) kVA
Ans: d
80. public sector undertaking is associated with erection
and sometimes running of thermal power plants
(a) NTPC
(b) SAIL
(c) BEL
(d) BHEL
Ans: a
81. Most efficient plants are normally used as
(a) peak load plants
(b) base load plants
Ans:
82. For a diesel generating station the useful life is
expected to be around
(a) 15 to 20 years
(b) 20 to 50 years
(c) 50 to 75 years
(d) 75 to 100 years
Ans: a
83. Which of the following is not a method for estimating
depreciation charges ?
(a) Sinking fund method
(b) Straight line method
(c) Diminishing value method
(d) Halseys 5050 formula

Ans: d
84. The expected useful life of an hydroelectric power
station is around
(a) 15 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 100 years
Ans: d
85. In a load curve the highest point represents
(a) peak demand
(b) average demand
(c) diversified demand
Ans: a
86. Which of the following source of power is least reliable
?
(a) Solar energy
(b) Geothermal power
(c) Wind power
(d) iMHD
Ans:
87. In India production and distribution of electrical energy
is confined to
(a) private sector
(b) public sector
(c) government sectors
(d) joint sector
Ans: b
88. A pilot exciter is provided on generators for which of
the following reasons ?
(a) To excite the poles of main exciter
(b) To provide requisite starting torque to main exciter
(c) To provide requisite starting torque to generator
Ans: a
89. The primary reason for low power factor is supply
system is due to installation of
(a) induction motors
(b) synchronous motors
(c) single phase motors
(d) d.c. motors
Ans: a
90. An over excited synchronous motor on noload is known
as
(a) synchronous condenser
(b) generator
(c) induction motor
(d) alternator
Ans: a
91. Which of the following is an advantage of static
capacitor for power factor improvement ?
(a) Little maintenance cost
(b) Ease in installation
(c) Low losses
Ans: d
92. For any type of consumer the ideal tariff is
(a) two part tariff
(b) three part tariff
(c) block rate tariff

Ans: b
93. The efficiency of a plant is of least concern when it is
selected as
(a) peak load plant
(b) casual run plant
(d) base load plant
Ans: c
94. Which of the following plants is almost inevitably used
as base load plant ?
(b) Gas turbine plant
Ans: c
95. Which of the following component, in a steam power
plant, needs maximum maintenance attention ?
(a) Steam turbine
(b) Condenser
(c) Water treatment plant
(d) Boiler
Ans: d
96. For the same cylinder dimensions and speed, which of
the following engine will produce least power ?
(a) Supercharged engine
(b) Diesel engine
(c) Petrol engine
(d) All of the above engines will equal power
Ans: c
97. The least share of power is provided in India, by which
of the following power plants ?
(a) Diesel power plants
(b) Thermal power plants
(c) Hydroelectric
power plants
(d) Nuclear power plants
Ans: a
98. Submarines for under water movement, are powered by
which of the following ?
(a) Steam accumulators
(b) Air motors
(c) Diesel engines
(d) Batteries
Ans: d
99. An alternator coupled to a _____ runs at slow speed, as
compared to as compared to others.
(a) diesel engine
(6) hydraulic turbine
(c) steam turbine
(d) gas turbine
Ans: b
100. The effect of electric shock on human body depends
on which of the following
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) duration of contact
Ans: d
101. Which lightening stroke is most dangerous ?
(a) Direct stroke on line conductor
(b) Indirect stroke on conductor
(c) Direct stroke on tower top

(d) Direct stroke on ground wire
Ans: a
102. Which of the following devices may be used to
provide protection against lightening over voltages ?
(a) Horn gaps
(b) Rod gaps
(c) Surge absorbers
Ans: d
103. When the demand of consumers is not met by a power
plant, it will resort to which of the following ?
(a) Load shedding
(b) Power factor improvement at the , generators
(c) Penalising high load consumers by increasing the
charges for electricity
(d) Efficient plant operation
Ans: a
104. Load shedding is possible through which of the
following ?
(a) Switching of the loads
(b) Frequency reduction
(c) Voltage reduction
Ans: d
105. In power plants insurance cover is provided for which
of the following ?
(a) Unskilled workers only
(b) Skilled workers only
(c) Equipment only
Ans: d
107 A company can raise funds through
(a) fixed deposits
(b) shares
(c) bonds
Ans: d
108. Which of the following are not repayable after a
stipulated period ?
(a) Shares
(b) Fixed deposits
(c) Cash certificates
(d) Bonds
Ans: a
109. The knowledge of diversity factor helps in
determining
(a) plant capacity
(b) average load
(c) peak load
(d) kWh generated
Ans: a
110. Which of the following is the disadvantage of static
(a) Easily damaged by high voltage
(b) Cannot be repaired
(c) Short service life
Ans: d
8/28/2016 130 TOP MOST D.C. GENERATORS Electrical
Engineering Multiple choice Questions and Answer

Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions
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Home Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions
130 TOP MOST D.C. GENERATORS Electrical
Engineering Multiple choice Questions
and Answer
130 TOP MOST D.C. GENERATORS Electrical
1. Laminations of core are generally made of
(a) case iron
(b) carbon
(c) silicon steel
(d) stainless steel
Ans: c
2. Which of the following could be laminaproximately
the thickness of laminations of a D.C. machine ?
(a) 0.005 mm
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 5 m
Ans: c
3. The armature of D.C. generator is laminated to
(a) reduce the bulk
(b) provide the bulk
(c) insulate the core
(d) reduce eddy current loss
Ans:d
4. The resistance of armature winding depends on
(a) length of conductor
(b) crosssectional
area of the conductor
(c) number of conductors
Ans: d
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5. The field coils of D.C. generator are usually made of
(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: b
6. The commutator segments are connected to the armature
conductors by means of
(a) copper lugs
(b) resistance wires
(c) insulation pads
(d) brazing
Ans: a
7. In a commutator
(a) copper is harder than mica
(b) mica and copper are equally hard
(c) mica is harder than copper
Ans: c
8. In D.C. generators the pole shoes are fastened to the pole
core by
(a) rivets
(b) counter sunk screws
(c) brazing
(d) welding
Ans: b
9. According to Flemings righthand
rule for finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when
middle finger points in the direction of induced e.forefinger
will point in the direction of
(a) motion of conductor
(b) lines of force
Ans: b
10. Flemings righthand
rule regarding direction of induced e.m.f., correlates
(a) magnetic flux, direction of current flow and resultant
force
(b) magnetic flux, direction of motion and the direction of
e.m.f. induced
(c) magnetic field strength, induced voltage and current
(d) magnetic flux, direction of force and direction of
motion of conductor
Ans: b
11. While applying Flemings righthand
rule to And the direction of induced e.m.f., the thumb
points towards
(a) direction of induced e.m.f.
(b) direction of flux
(c) direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points
in the direction of generated e.m.f.
(d) direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points
along the lines of flux
Ans: d
3/21
12. The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are
generally
(a) ball bearings
(b) bush bearings
(c) magnetic bearmgs
(d) needle bearings

Ans: a
13. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may
be
(a) severe sparking
(b) rough commutator surface
(c) imperfect contact
Ans: d
14. In lap winding, the number of brushes is always
(a) double the number of poles
(b) same as the number of poles
(c) half the number of poles
(d) two
Ans: b
15. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the
number of armature conductors is fixed, then which
winding will give the higher ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design
Ans: b
16. In a fourpole
D.C. machine
(a) all the four poles are north poles
(b) alternate poles are north and south
(c) all the four poles are south poles
(d) two north poles follow two south poles
Ans: b
17. Copper brushes in D.C. machine are used
(a) where low voltage and high currents are involved
(b) where high voltage and small currents
are involved
(c) in both of the above cases
(d) in none of the above cases
Ans: a
18. A separately excited generator as compared to a
selfexcited
generator
(a) is amenable to better voltage control
(b) is more stable
(c) has exciting current independent of load current
(d) has all above features
Ans: d
4/21
19. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are
primary function of
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) speed
(d) none of above
Ans: c
20. Iron losses in a D.C. machine are independent of
variations in
(a) speed
(b) load
(c) voltage
(d) speed and voltage
Ans: b
21. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from
armature is given through
(a) commutator
(b) solid connection
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above
Ans: a
23. Brushes of D.C. machines are made of
(a) carbon
(b) soft copper
(c) hard copper
(d) all of above
Ans: a
24. If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor and v
the velocity of conductor, then induced e.m.f. is given by
(a)Blv
(b)Blv2
(c)Bl2v
(d)Bl2v2
Ans: a
25. In case of a 4pole
D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding with
sixteen coils, the pole pitch will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Ans: b
26. The material for commutator brushes is generally
(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: d
27. The insulating material used between the commutator
segments is normally
(a) graphite
5/21
(b) paper
(c) mica
(d) insulating varnish
Ans: c
28. In D.C. generators, the brushes on commutator remain
in contact with conductors which
(a) lie under south pole
(b) lie under north pole
(c) lie under interpolar region
(d) are farthest from the poles
Ans: c
29. If brushes of a D.C. generator are moved in order to
bring these brushes in magnetic neutral axis, there will be
(a) demagnetisation only
(b) cross magnetisation as well as magnetisation
(c) crossmagnetisation as well as demagnetising
(d) cross magnetisation only

Ans: c
30. Armature reaction of an unsaturated D.C. machine is
(a) crossmagnetising
(b) demagnetising
(c) magnetising
(d) none of above
Ans: a
31. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or
disconnected from them only under the floating condition
(a) to avoid sudden loading of the primemover
(b) to avoid mechanicaljerk to the shaft
(c) to avoid burning of switch contacts
(d) all above
Ans: d
32. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C.
machine due to
(a) oscillating magnetic field
(b) pulsating magnetic flux
(c) relative rotation between field and armature
(d) all above
Ans: c
33. In a D.C. machine, shortcircuited
field coil will result in
(a) odour of barning insulation
(b) unbalanced magnetic pull producing vibrations
(c) reduction of generated voltage for which excitation has
to be increased to maintain the voltage
(d) all above
Ans:
34. Equilizer rings are required in case armature is
(a) wave wound
(b) lap wound
(c) delta wound
6/21
(d) duplex wound
Ans: b
35. Welding generator will have
(a) lap winding
(b) wave winding
(c) delta winding
(d) duplex wave winding
Ans: a
36. In case of D.C. machine winding, number of
commutator segments is equal to
(a) number of armature coils
(b) number of armature coil sides
(c) number of armature conductors
(d) number of armature turns
Ans: a
37. For a D.C. machines laboratory following type of D.C.
supply will be suitable
(a) rotary converter
(b) mercury are rectifier
(c) induction motor D.C. generator set
(d) synchronous motor D.C. generator set
Ans: c
38. The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine

is
(a) to reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
(b) to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density
(c) to support the field coil
(d) to discharge all the above functions
Ans: d
39. In the case of lap winding resultant pitch is
(a) multiplication of front and back pitches
(b) division of front pitch by back pitch
(c) sum of front and back pitches
(d) difference of front and back pitches
Ans: d
40. A D.C. welding generator has
(a) lap winding
(b) wave moving
(c) duplex winding
Ans: a
41. Which of the following statement about D.C. generators
is false ?
(a) Compensating winding in a D.C. machine helps in
commutation
(b) In a D. C. generator interpoles winding is connected in
series with the armature winding
(c) Back pitch and front pitch are both odd and
approximately equal to the pole pitch
(d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of
D.C. shunt generators
Ans: d
7/21
42. The demagnetising component of armature reaction in a
D.C. generator
(a) reduces generator e.m.f.
(b) increases armature speed
(c) reduces interpoles flux density
(d) results in sparking trouble
Ans: a
43. Magnetic field in a D.C. generator is produced by
(a) electromagnets
(b) permanent magnets
Ans: a
44. The number of brushes in a commutator depends on
(a) speed of armature
(b) type of winding
(c) voltage
(d) amount of current to be collected
Ans: d
45. Compensating windings are used in D.C. generators
(a) mainly to reduce the eddy currents by providing local
shortcircuits
(b) to provide path for the circulation of cooling air
(c) to neutralise the crossmagnetising
effect of the armature reaction
Ans: c
46. Which of the following components of a D.C, generator
plays vital role for providing direct current of a D.C.
generator ?
(a) Dummy coils
(b) Commutator
(c) Eye bolt
(d) Equilizer rings
Ans: b
47. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f.
generated are reduced by
(a) using conductor of annealed copper
(b) using commutator with large number of segments
(c) using carbon brushes of superior quality
(d) using equiliser rings
Ans: c
48. In D.C. generators, lap winding is used for
(a) high voltage, high current
(b) low voltage, high current
(c) high voltage, low current
(d) low voltage, low current
Ans: b
49. Two generators A and B have 6poles
each. Generator A has wave wound armature while
generator B has lap wound armature. The ratio induced
e.m.f. is generator A and B will be
8/21
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 3
Ans: b
50. The voltage drop for which of the following types of
brush can be expected to be least ?
(a) Graphite brushes
(b) Carbon brushes
(c) Metal graphite brushes
Ans: c
51. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator
isE. Now while pole flux remains constant, if the speed of
the generator is doubled, e.m.f. generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(c) slightly less than E
(d) E
Ans: b
52. In a D.C. generator the actual flux distribution depends
upon
(a) size of air gap
(b) shape of the pole shoe
(c) clearance between tips of the adjacent pole shoes
Ans:
53. The armature core of a D.C. generator is usually made
of
(a) silicon steel
(b) copper
(c) nonferrous
material
(d) castiron
Ans: a
9.63. Satisfactory commutation of D.C. machines requires
(a) brushes should be of proper grade and size
(b) brushes should smoothly run in the holders
(c) smooth, concentric commutator properly undercut
Ans: d
54. Open circuited armature coil of a D.C. machine is
(a) identified by the scarring of the commutator segment to
which open circuited coil is connected
(b) indicated by a spark completely around the commutator
Ans: c
55. In a D.C. machine, fractional pitch winding is used
(a) to increase the generated voltage
9/21
(b) to reduce sparking
(c) to save the copper because of shorter end connections
(d) due to (b) and (c) above
Ans:
56. For the parallel operation of two or more D.C.
compound generators, we should ensure that
(a) voltage of the incoming generator should be same as
that of bus bar
(b) polarity of incoming generator should be same as that of
bus bar
(c) all the series fields should be run in parallel by means of
equilizer connection
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on
positive side or negative side of the armature
(e) all conditions mentioned above should be satisfied
Ans: d
57. D.C. series generator is used
(a) to supply traction load
(b) to supply industrial load at constant voltage
(c) voltage at the toad end of the feeder
(d) for none of the above purpose
Ans: c
58. Following D.C. generator will be in a position to build
up without any residual magnetism in the poles
(a) series generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) compound generator
(d) selfexcited
generator
Ans: d
59. Interpole flux should be sufficient to
(a) neutralise the commutating self induced e.m.f.
(b) neutralise the armature reaction flux
(c) neutralise both the armature reaction flux as well as
commutating e.m.f. induced in the coil
(d) perform none of the above functions
Ans: c
60. D.C. generator generally preferred for charging
automobile batteries is
(a) series generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) long shunt compound generator
(d) any ofthe above
Ans: c
61. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees
and electrical degrees will be the same when
(a) r.p.m. is more than 300
(b) r.p.m. is less than 300
(c) number of poles is 4
(d) number of poles is 2
Ans: d
62. Permeance is the reciprocal of
(a) flux density
(b) reluctance
10/21
(c) ampereturns
(d) resistance
Ans: b
63. In D.C. generators the polarity of the interpoles
(a) is the same as that of the main pole ahead
(b) is the same as that of the immediately preceding pole
(c) is opposite to that of the main pole ahead
(d) is neutral as these poles do not play part in generating
e.m.f.
Ans: a
64. The e.m.f. generated in a D.C. generator is directly
proportional to
(a) flux/pole
(b) speed of armature
(c) number of poles
Ans: b
65. In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides
with the geometrical neutral axis, when
(a) there is no load on|he generator
(b) the generator runs on full load
(c) the generator runs on overload
(d) the generator runs on designed speed
Ans: a
66. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at
brushes, the selfinduced
e.m.f. in the coil is neutralised by all of the following
except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
(c) compensating winding
(d) shifting of axis of brushes
Ans: b
67. In D.C. generators on noload,
the air gap flux distribution in space is
(a) sinusoidal
(b) triangular
(c) pulsating
(d) flat topped

Ans: d
68. A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has generated
e.m.f. as 200 V. If the speed increases to 1200 r.p.m., the
generated e.m.f. will be
nearly
(a) 150 V
(b) 175 V
(c) 240 V
(d) 290 V
Ans: c
69. The purpose of providing dummy coils in a generator is
(a) to reduce eddy current losses
(b) to enhance flux density
(c) to amplify voltage
11/21
(d) to provide mechanical balance for the rotor
Ans: d
70. In a shunt generator the voltage build up is generally
restricted by
(a) speed limitation
(b) armature heating
(c) insulation restrictions
(d) saturation of iron
Ans:
71. If a D.C. generator fails to build up the probable cause
could not be
(a) imperfect brush contact
(b) field resistance less than the critical resistance
(c) no residual magnetism in the generator
(d) faulty shunt connections tending to reduce the residual
magnetism
Ans: b
72. Flashing the field of D.C. generator means
(a) neutralising residual magnetism
(b) creating residual magnetism by a D.C. source
(c) making the magnetic losses of forces parallel
(d) increasing flux density by adding extra turns of
windings on poles
Ans: b
73. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator
is 600 V. The armature resistance is 0.1 ohm. If the
armature current is 200 A, the
terminal voltage will be
(a) 640 V
(b) 620 V
(c) 600 V
(d) 580 V
Ans: d
74. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance refers to the
resistance of
(a) brushes
(b) field
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: b
75. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C.

generator are rockedm ahead so as to bring them
(a) just ahead of magnetic neutral axis
(b) in magnetic neutral axis
(c) just behind the magnetic neutral axis
Ans: a
76. Armature coil is short circuited by brushes when it lies
(a) along neutral axis
(b) along field axis
(c) in any of the above positions
(d) in none of the above positions
Ans: a
12/21
77. A cumulatively compounded long shunt generator when
operating as a motor would be
(a) cumulatively compounded long shunt
(b) differentially compounded long shunt
(c) cumulatively compounded short shunt
(d) differentially compounded short shunt
Ans: b
78. To avoid formation of grooves in the commutator of a
D.C. machine
(a) the brushes of opposite polarity should track each other
(b) the brushes of same polarity should track each other
(c) brush position has no effect on the commutator
grooving
Ans: a
79. The following constitute shortcircuit
in the armature winding.
(a) Insulation failure between two commutator bars
(6) Insulation failure between two turns of a coil
(c) Two of more turns of the same coil getting grounded
Ans: d
80. The rapid wear of brushes takes place due to
(a) abrasion from dust
(b) excessive spring pressure
(c) rough commutator bars
(d) high mica insulation between commutation
bars
(e) all of the above factors
Ans: e
81. Number of tappings for each equilizer ring is equal to
(a) number of pole pairs
(b) number of poles
(c) number of parallel paths
(d) number of commutator segments
Ans: a
82. A D.C. generator can be considered as
(a) rectifier
(b) primemover
(c) rotating amplifier
(d) power pump
Ans: c
83. In any rotating machine that part which houses the
conductors and in which e.m.f. induced is to be utilised is
called
(a) rotor
(b) stator
(c) field
(d) armature
Ans: d
84. In a D.C. machine stray loss is the sum of
(a) total copper loss and mechanical loss
13/21
(b) armature copper loss and iron loss
(c) shunt field copper loss and mechanical loss
(d) iron loss and mechanical loss
Ans: d
85. Lap winding is composed of
(a) any even number of conductors
(b) any odd number of conductors
(c) that even number which is exact multiple of poles + 2
(d) that even number which is exact multiple of poles
Ans: a
86. In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the field
winding is increased, then output voltage will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) fluctuate heavily
Ans: b
87. An exciter for a turbo generator is a
(a) separately excited generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) series generator
(d) compound generator
Ans: b
88. In case of a flat compounded generator
(a) voltage generated is less than the rated voltage
(b) generated voltage is proportional to the load on the
generator
(c) voltage remains constant irrespective of the load
(d) speed varies in proportion to the load on the generator
Ans: c
89. Which of the following generator will have negligible
terminal voltage while running on noload
?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Compound generator
(d) Separately excited generator
Ans: a
90. Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a
position to build up without any residual magnetism in the
poles ?
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Compound generator
Ans: d
91. In over compounded generator, full load terminal
voltage is
(a) almost zero
(b) less than no load terminal voltage

(c) more than no load terminal voltage
14/21
(d) equal to noload
terminal voltage
Ans: c
92. In a level compounded D.C. generator, full load
terminal voltage is
(a) negligibly low
(b) equal to noload
terminal voltage
(c) more than noload
terminal voltage
(d) less than noload
terminal voltage
Ans: b
93. The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator drops on
load because of all of the following reasons except
(a) armature reaction
(b) armature resistance drop
(c) field weakening due to armature reaction and armature
(d) commutation
Ans: d
94. In a D.C. generator
(a) external resistance = internal characteristic
armature reaction
(b) internal characteristic = magnetisation characteristic
ohmic drop
(c) external characteristic = magnetisation characteristic
ohmic drop armature reaction
(d) magnetisation characteristic = external characteristic
Ans: c
95. A sinusoidal voltage of 5 Hz is applied to the field of a
shunt generator. The armature voltage wave
(a) will be zero
(b) will be of 5 Hz
(c) will be of 5 xiVHz
(d) will be of v Hz 5
Ans: b
96. A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed without any
excitation. The open circuit voltage will be
(a) zero
(b) about 2 V
(c) about 50 V
(d) 220 V
Ans: b
97. In a separately excited generator supplying rated load
the armature reaction ,
(a) is always present
(b) is always absent
(c) may be sometimes present
Ans: a
98. If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the
induced e.m.f. at zero speed will be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) the same as rated voltage

(d) high
Ans: a
15/21
99. Armature reaction in a generator results in
(a) demagnetisation of leading pole tip and magnetisation
of trailing pole tip
(b) demagnetisation of trailing pole tip and magnetisation
of leading pole tip
(c) damagnetising the center of all poles
(d) magnetising the center of all poles
Ans: a
100. Following energized winding of a D.C. machine
should not be opened as it would produce high inductive
voltage which may be dangerous personnel and may cause
its own insulation failure.
(a) Series field
(b) Compensating field
(c) Inter pole field
(d) Shunt field
Ans:
101. Wave winding is composed of
(a) any even number of conductors
(b) any odd number of conductors
(c) that even number which is exact multiple of poles + 2
(d) that even number which is exact multiple of poles
Ans: c
102. The critical resistance of the D.C. generator is the
resistance of
(a) field
(b) brushes
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: a
103. When two D.C. series generators are running in
parallel, an equilizer bar is used
(a) to increase the speed and hence generated e.m.f.
(b) to increase the series flux
(c) so that two similar machines will pass approximately
equal currents to the load
(d) to reduce the combined effect of armature
reaction of both machines
Ans: c
104. Which of the following generating machine will offer
constant voltage on all loads ?
(a) Selfexcited
generator
(b) Separately excited generator
(c) Level compounded generator .
Ans: c
105. Which of the following generators will be preferred if
they are required to be run in parallel ?
(a) Shunt generators
(b) Series generators
(c) Compound generators
Ans: a
16/21
106. Two generators are running in parallel. One of the
generators may run as motor for which of the following
reasons ?
(a) The direction of that generator is reversed
(b) The speed of that generator is increased
(c) The field of that generator is weakened
(d) That generator takes large share of loads
Ans: d
107. A D.C. generator works on the principle of
(a) Lenzs law
(b) Ohms law
(c) Faradays law of electromagnetic induction
Ans: c
108. A series generator can selfexcite
(a) only if the load current is zero
(b) only if the load current is not zero
(c) irrespective of the value of load current
Ans: b
109. A shunt generator can selfexcite
(a) only if the resistance of the field circuit is less than
critical value
(b) only if the resistance of the field circuit is greater than
critical value
(c) irrespective of the value of the resistance in the field
circuit
Ans: a
110. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V
when the load current is 5 A. If the load current is increased
to 10 A, the terminal voltage
will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
(c) greater than 150 V
Ans: c
111. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is
250 V. At full load the terminal voltage
(a) will be less than 250 V
(b) will always be 250 V
(c) may be greater or less than 250 V
Ans: c
112. Two D.C. shunt generators, each with armature
resistance of 0.02 ohm and field resistance of 50 ohm run in
parallel and supply a total
current of 1000 amperes to the load circuit. If their e.m.fs.
are 270 V and 265 V, their bus bar voltage will be
(a) 270 V
(b) 267.5 V
(c) 265 V
(d) 257.4 V
Ans: b

17/21
113. The essential condition for parallel operation of two
D.C. generators is that they have
(a) same kW rating
(b) the same operation r.p.m.
(c) the same drooping voltage characteristics
(d) same percentage regulation
Ans: c
114. When two D.C. generators are running in parallel an
equilizer bar is used
(a) to increase the series flux
(b) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(c) to reduce the combined effect of armature
reaction of both the machines
(d) so that the two identical machines will pass
approximately equal currents to the load
Ans: d
115. With a D.C. generator which of the following
regulation is preferred ?
(a) 100% regulation
(b) infinite regulation
(c) 50% regulation
(d) 1% regulation
Ans: d
116. Which generator would you prefer for feeding long
D.C. transmission lines ?
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Over compound generator
(d) Flat compound generator
Ans: c
117. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance can be
increased by
(a) increasing its field resistance
(b) decreasing its field resistance
(c) increasing its speed
(d) decreasing its speed
Ans: c
118. The number of armature parallel paths in a twopole
D.C. generator having duplex lap winding is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: b
119. For both lap and wave windings, there are as many
commutator bars as the number of
(a) slots
(b) armature conductors
(c) winding elements
(d) poles
Ans: c
126. The series field of a shortshunt
D.C. generator is excited by
(a) external current
18/21
(b) armature current
(c) shunt current
(d) load current
Ans: d
127. As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the
total mutual air gap flux in a D.C. generator is
approximately
(a) 40 percent
(b) 25 percent
(c) 10 percent
(d) 5 percent
Ans: d
128. Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel
operation because of their
(a) rising voltage characteristics
(b) identical voltage characteristics
(c) drooping voltage characteristics
(d) linear voltage characteristics
Ans: c
129. The main factor which leads to unstable parallel
operation of flat and over compounded generators is
(a) their rising voltage characteristics
(b) unequal number of turns in their series field windings
(c) unequal speed regulation of their primemovers
(d) unequal series field resistances
Ans: a
130. If a self excited D.C. generator after being installed,
fails to build up on its first trial run, the first thing to do is
to
(a) reverse the field connections
(b) increase the field resistance
(c) increase the speed of primemover
(d) check armature insulation resistance
Ans: a
This entry was posted in Electrical Engineering Multiple
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26 Responses to 130 TOP MOST D.C. GENERATORS
Electrical Engineering Multiple choice Questions and
Answer
Electric Grid Factory
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custommanufactured
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srinnivas reddy says:
June 23, 2016 at 4:31 am
Answer for question no:70
Reply
Sidhu says:
June 17, 2016 at 12:29 pm
Q 64 has a ans d not a b so please update it
Reply
19/21
gowtham says:
June 4, 2016 at 3:31 am

Kindly request issues u to please sent PDF file on my
account sir or mam it is very useful on my carrier
Reply
Harish sriram says:
May 28, 2016 at 3:41 am
Super..and Q no.100 ans????
Reply
shubham kawale says:
May 25, 2016 at 5:13 pm
Que no 116 ans C
Reply
shubham kawale says:
May 25, 2016 at 5:10 pm
Thank for posting this.very helpfull quetion
Reply
Ghanshyam says:
March 22, 2016 at 11:06 am
Q70 ans is missing sir
Reply
Abhijeet says:
March 11, 2016 at 5:04 pm
plz explain Q. 25
Reply
G.S. Choudhary says:
February 26, 2016 at 8:01 pm
In DC generator, the electricity produced in armature is
,ADC,
BAC
Reply
engineer says:
February 27, 2016 at 9:33 am
Ok G.S. Choudhary Thank you
Reply
Henry says:
20/21
Explanation of Q.49 numbr of parallel paths in lap
winding = no. of poles (i.e. 6) whereas for wave wdg its
alwaz 2. So emf induced in wave
wdg will be 3 times the emf induced in lap. So, ratio will be
3:1
Ans of Q.90 (d)
Reply
engineer says:
Thank you Henry
Reply
Henry says:
hi Admin again requesting you for Digtal Electronics and
Analog Electronics mcqs. As evrytime i tried to open these
topics under
ECE section only quiz questions (only 10) appears.
Reply
engineer says:
Ok Henry i will update as soon as possible..keep in touch

Reply
jammy says:
answer is correct because we know emf induced in wave
winding is more as compared to lap winding which has
main consideration current..
Reply
engineer says:
ok jammy
Reply
Sumit says:
Answer of question no. 90
Reply
engineer says:
Answer : d
Reply
Sumit says:
Explain question no. 49
Reply
engineer says:
21/21
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Explanation of Q.49 numbr of parallel paths in lap
winding = no. of poles (i.e. 6) whereas for wave wdg its
alwaz 2. So emf induced wave wdg will be 3 times the emf
induced in lap. So, ratio will be 3:1
please share this
Reply
Sumit says:
Explain question 9
Reply
engineer says:
ok
Reply
Rohit says:
Please answer Q33..
Reply
engineer says:
I will update it Rohit
Reply
Abhijit kumar says:
November 18, 2015 at 1:14 pm
ANS. OF question no. 3 is missing
Reply
engineer says:
Answer: d
Reply
8/28/2016 130 TOP MOST D.C. MOTORS Electrical
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1/7
130 TOP MOST D.C. MOTORS Electrical Engineering
Multiple Choice Questions and
Answers
130 TOP MOST D.C. MOTORS Electrical Engineering
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
D.C. MOTORS Interview Questions and Answers :1.
Noload
speed of which of the following motor will be highest ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differentiate compound motor
Ans: b
2. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be
changed by
(a) interchanging supply terminals
(b) interchanging field terminals
(c) either of (a) and (b) above
Ans: b
3. Which of the following application requires high starting
torque ?
(a) Lathe machine
(b) Centrifugal pump
(c) Locomotive
(d) Air blower
Ans: c
4. If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors, which
rriotor would be preferred ?
(a) Series motor
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(b) Shunt motor
(c) Differentially compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: a
5. Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine tools ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differential compound motor
Ans: b
6. Differentially compound D.C. motors can find
applications requiring
(a) high starting torque
(b) low starting torque
(c) variable speed
(d) frequent onoff
cycles
Ans: b
7. Which D.C. motor is preferred for elevators ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: d
8. According to Flemings lefthand
rule, when the forefinger points in the direction of the field
or flux, the middle finger will point in the
direction of
(a) current in the conductor aovtaat of conductor
(c) resultant force on conductor
Ans: a
9. If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened while
motor is running
(a) the speed of motor will be reduced %
(b) the armature current will reduce
(c) the motor will attain dangerously high speed 1
(d) the motor will continue to nuvat constant speed
Ans: c
10. Starters are used with D.C. motors because
(a) these motors have high starting torque
(b) these motors are not selfstarting
(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is zero initially
(d) to restrict armature current as there is no back e.m.f.
while starting
Ans: d
READ MORE QUESTIONS :>
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35 Responses to 130 TOP MOST D.C. MOTORS
Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and
Answers
DC Electric Motor
Made in Italy Customized
and Standard motors
Deepak Chaudhary says:
July 30, 2016 at 4:03 am
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July 29, 2016 at 2:34 pm
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July 13, 2016 at 10:14 pm
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June 21, 2016 at 2:38 pm
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June 10, 2016 at 2:20 pm
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June 10, 2016 at 2:18 pm
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June 10, 2016 at 3:06 am
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June 5, 2016 at 7:02 pm
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May 26, 2016 at 4:18 am
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May 6, 2016 at 12:05 pm
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May 4, 2016 at 4:09 am
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April 29, 2016 at 5:40 am
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April 15, 2016 at 10:43 am

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April 11, 2016 at 7:02 pm
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April 9, 2016 at 8:17 am
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March 28, 2016 at 11:45 am
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March 21, 2016 at 5:25 am
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March 22, 2016 at 10:26 am
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March 22, 2016 at 10:26 am
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November 18, 2015 at 7:01 am
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Prabhat says:
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engineer says:
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8/28/2016 120 TOP MOST SINGLE PHASE INDUCTION
MOTORSElectrical
Electrical Engineering Multip
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120 TOP MOST SINGLE PHASE INDUCTION
MOTORSElectrical
Engineering Multiple
Choice Questions and Answers
120 TOP MOST SINGLE PHASE INDUCTION
MOTORSElectrical
Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and
Answers
1. In a split phase motor, the running winding should have
(a) high resistance and low inductance
(b) low resistance and high inductance
(c) high resistance as well as high inductance
(d) low resistance as well as low inductiance
Ans: b
2. If the capacitor of a singlephase
motor is shortcircuited
(a) the motor will not start
(b) the motor will run
(c) the motor will run in reverse direction
(d) the motor will run in the same direction at reduced
r.p.m.
Ans: a
3. In capacitor start singlephase
motors
(a) current in the starting winding leads the voltage
(b) current in the starting winding lags the voltage
(c) current in the starting winding is in phase with voltage
in running winding
Ans: a
4. In a capacitor start and run motors the function of the
running capacitor in series with the auxiliary winding is to
(a) improve power factor
(b) increase overload capacity
(c) reduce fluctuations in torque
(d) to improve torque
Ans: a
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5. In a capacitor start motor, the phase displacement
between starting and running winding can be nearly
(a) 10
(b) 30
(c) 60
(d) 90
Ans: d
6. In a split phase motor
(a) the starting winding is connected through a centrifugal
switch
(b) the running winding is connected through a centrifugal
switch
(c) both starting and running windings are connected
through a centrifugal switch
(d) centrifugal switch is used to control supply voltage
Ans: a
7. The rotor developed by a singlephase
motor at starting is
(a) more than i.he rated torque
(b) rated torque
(c) less than the rated torque
(d) zero
Ans: d
8. Which of the following motor will give relatively high
starting torque ?
(a) Capacitor start motor
(b) Capacitor run motor
(c) Split phase motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: a
9. Which of the following motor will have relatively higher
power factor ?
(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(c) Capacitor start motor
(d) Split phase motor
Ans: a
10. In a shaded pole motor, the shading coil usually consist
of
(a) a single turn of heavy wire which is in parallel with
running winding
(b) a single turn of heavy copper wire which is
shortcircuited
and carries only induced current
(c) a multilayer fine gauge copper wire in parallel with
running winding
Ans: b
11. In a shaded pole singlephase
motor, the revolving field is produced by the use of
(a) inductor
(b) capacitor
(c) resistor
(d) shading coils
Ans: d
12. A centrifugal switch is used to disconnect
starting winding when motor has
(a) run for about 1 minute
MOTORSElectrical
answers/
3/17
(b) run for about 5 minutes
(c) picked up about 50 to 70 per cent of rated speed
(d) picked up about 10 to 25 per cent of rated speed
Ans: c
13. If a particular application needs high speed and high
starting torque, then which of the following motor will be
preferred ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Shaded pole type motor
(d) Capacitor start and run motor
Ans: a
14. The value of starting capacitor of a fractional horse
power motor will be
(a) 100 uF
(6) 200 uF
(c) 300 uF
(d) 400 uF
Ans: c
15. In repulsion motor direction of rotation of motor
(a) is opposite to that of brush shift
(b) is the same as that of brush shift
(c) is independent of brush shift
Ans: b
16. In a single phase motor the centrifugal switch
(a) disconnects auxiliary winding of the motor
(b) disconnects main winding of the motor
(c) reconnects the main winding the motor
(d) reconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor
Ans: a
17. The running winding of a single phase motor on testing
with meggar is found to be ground. Most probable location
of the ground will be
(a) at the end connections
(b) at the end terminals
(c) anywhere on the winding inside a slot
(d) at the slot edge where coil enters or comes out of the
slot
Ans: d
18. A capacitorstart
single phase induction motor is switched on to supply with
its capacitor replaced by an inductor of equivalent
reactance
value. It will
(a) start and then stop
(b) start and run slowly
(c) start and run at rated speed
(d) not start at all
Ans: d
19. Which of the following motors is used in mixies ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Reluctance motor
MOTORSElectrical
answers/
4/17
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: d
20. Which of the following motors is inherently self
starting ?
(a) Split motor
(b) Shadedpole
motor
(c) Reluctance motor
(d) None of these
Ans: b
21. The direction of rotation of an hysteresis motor is
determined by
(a) interchanging the supply leads

(b) position of shaded pole with respect to main pole
(c) retentivity of the rotor material
(d) none of these
Ans: b
22. Burning out of windings is due to
(a) short circuited capacitor
(b) capacitor value hiving changed
(c) open circuiting of capacitor
Ans: a
23. Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be
reversed by reversing the connection of
(a) running winding only
(b) starting winding only
Ans: c
24. Shortcircuiter
is used in
(a) repulsion induction motor
(b) repulsion motor
(c) repulsion start induction run motor
Ans: c
25. The range of efficiency for shaded pole motors is
(a) 95% to 99%
(b) 80% to 90%
(c) 50% to 75%
(d) 5% to 35%
Ans: d
26. In a capacitor start singlephase
motor, when capacitor is replaced by a resistance
(a) torque will increase
(b) the motor will consume less power
(c) motor will run in reverse direction
MOTORSElectrical
answers/
5/17
(d) motor will continue to run in same direction
Ans: d
27. The power factor of a singlephase
induction motor is usually
(a) lagging
(b) always leading
(c) unity
(d) unity to 0.8 leading
Ans: a
28. A shaded pole motor can be used for
(a) toys
(b) hair dryers
(c) circulators
Ans: d
29. A hysteresis motor works on the principle of
(a) hysteresis loss
(b) magnetisation of rotor
(c) eddy current loss

(d) electromagnetic induction
Ans: a
30. Which of the following motor will give the highest
starting torque ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Repulsion start and induction run motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: b
31. For which of the applications a reluctance motor is
preferred ?
(a) Electric shavers
(b) Refrigerators
(c) Signalling and timing devices
(d) Lifts and hoists
Ans: c
32. The motor used on small lathes is usually
(a) universal motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) singlephase
capacitor run motor
(d) 3phase
synchronous motor
Ans: c
33. Which of the following motors is preferred for
taperecorders
?
(a) Shaded pole motor
(b) Hysteresis motor
(c) Two value capacitor motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: b
MOTORSElectrical
answers/
6/17
34. A singlephase
induction motor is
(a) inherently selfstarting
with high torque
(b) inherently selfstarting
with low torque
(c) inherently nonselfstarting
with low torque
(d) inherently nonselfstarting
with high torque
Ans: c
35. A schrage motor can run on
(a) zero slip
(b) negative slip
(c) positive slip
Ans: d
36. A universal motor can run on
(a) A.C. only
(6) D.C. only
(c) either A.C. or D.C.

Ans: c
37. Which of the following singlephase
motors is suitable for timing and control purposes ?
(a) Reluctance motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Repulsion motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
38. Single phase induction motor usually operates on
(a) 0.6 power factor lagging
(b) 0.8 power factor lagging
(c) 0.8 power factor leading
(d) unity power factor
Ans: a
39. In splitphase
motor auxiliary winding is of
(a) thick wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(b) thick wire placed at the top of the slots
(c) thin wire placed at the top of the slots
(d) thin wire placed at the bottom of the slots
Ans: c
40. Which of the following motors will operate at high
power factor ?
(a) Shaped pole motor
(b) Split phase motor
(d) Capacitor run motor
Ans: d
41. In a two value capacitor motor, the capacitor used for
running purposes is
(a) air capacitor
MOTORSElectrical
answers/
7/17
(b) paper spaced oil filled type
(c) ceramic type
(d) a.c. electrolytic type
Ans: b
42. Which of the following motors can be run on AC. as
well as D.C. supply ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Repulsion motor
(c) Synchronous motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: a
43. In A.C. series motor compensating winding is
employed to
(a) reduce the effects of armature reaction
(b) increase the torque
(c) reduce sparking at the brushes
Ans: c
induction motors is generally used in time phonographs ?
(a) Resistance start
(b) Capacitor start capacitor run
(c) Shaded pole

(d) Universal
Ans: c
45. Which of the following motors has highest starting
torque ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Shaped pole motor
(c) Capacitorstart
motor
(d) Splitphase
motor
Ans: c
46. The repulsionstart
inductionrun
motor is used because of
(a) good power factor
(b) high efficiency
(c) minimum cost
(d) high starting torque
Ans: d
47. In case of a shaded pole motor the direction of rotation
of the motor is
(a) from main pole to shaded pole
(b) from shaded pole to main pole
(c) either of the above depending on voltage
(d) either of the above depending on power factor
Ans: a
48. In case of high speed universal motor which of the
following needs more attention ?
(a) End play
(b) Air gap
(c) Insulation in rotor
MOTORSElectrical
answers/
8/17
(d) Balancing of rotor
Ans: d
49. The wattage rating for a ceiling fan motor will be in the
range
(a) 200 to 250 W
(b) 250 to 500 W
(c) 50 to 150 W
(d) 10 to 20 W
Ans: c
50. The wattage of motor for driving domestic sewing
machine will be around
(a) 100 to 150 W
(b) 40 to 75 W
(c) 10 to 30 W
(d) 5 to 10 W
Ans: a
motors has relatively poor starting torque ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Repulsion motor
(c) Capacitor motor
(d) All single phase motors have zero starting torque
Ans: c
52. Which type of load is offered by cranes and hoists ?
(a) Gradually varying load
(b) Nonreversing,
noload
start
(c) Reversing, light start
(d) Reversing, heavy start
Ans: d
53. The speed of a universal motor is generally reduced by
using
(a) gear trains
(b) Vbelts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a
54. Which of the following motors can be used for unity
power factor ?
(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(d) Schrage motor
Ans: d
55. When a D.C. series motor is connected to A.C. supply,
the power factor will be low because of
(a) high inductance of field and armature circuits
(b) induced current in rotor due to variations of flux
(c) fine copper wire winding
Ans: a
MOTORSElectrical
answers/
9/17
56. The direction of rotation of universal motor can be
reversed the by reversing the flow of current through
(a) armature winding
(b) field winding
(c) either armature winding or field winding
Ans: c
57. In which singlephase
motor, the rotor has no teeth or winding ?
(a) Split phase motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: c
58. Which motor is normally free from mechanical and
magnetic vibrations ?
(a) Split phase motor
(b) Universal motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: c
59. As hysteresis motors are free from mechanical and
magnetic vibrations therefore these are considered as
suitable for
(a) fans
(b) blowers
(c) sound equipment
(d) mixer grinders
Ans: c
60. A reluctance motor
(a) is selfstarting
(b) is constant speed motor
(c) needs no D.C. excitation
Ans: d
61. In a hysteresis motor, the rotor must have
(a) retentivity
(b) resistivity
(c) susceptibility
Ans: a
62. The rotor of a hysteresis motor is made of
(a) aluminium
(b) cast iron
(c) chrome steel
(d) copper
Ans: c
63. The electric motor used in portable drills is
(a) capacitor run motor
MOTORSElectrical
answers/
10/17
(b) hysteresis motor
(c) universal motor
(d) repulsion motor
Ans: c
64. Which of the following applications always have some
load whenever switched on ?
(a) Vacuum cleaners
(b) Fan motors
(c) Pistol drills
Ans: c
65. The speed control of universal motor used for sewing
machines is by
(a) friction
(b) varying the resistance
(c) tapping the field
(d) centrifugal mechanism
Ans: b
66. Torque developed by a single phase induction motor at
starting is
(a) pulsating
(b) uniform
(c) none of the above
(d) nil
Ans: d
67. In split phase motor main winding is of
(a) thin wire placed at the top of the slots
(b) thin wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(c) thick wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(d) thick wire placed at the top of the slots

Ans: c
68. In repulsion motor, maximum torque is developed when
(a) brush axis is at 45 electrical to the field axis
(b) brush axis coincides with the field axis
(c) brush axis is at 90 electrical to the field axis
Ans: a
69. If the centrifugal switch does not open at 70 to 80
percent of synchronous speed of motor, it would result in
(a) damage to the starting winding
(b) damage to the centrifugal switch
(c) overloading of running winding
Ans: a
70. Speed torque characteristic of a repulsion induction
motor is similar to that of a D.C.
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) compound motor
MOTORSElectrical
answers/
11/17
(d) separately excited motor
Ans: c
71. In a ceilingfan employing capacitor run motor
(a) secondary winding surrounds the primary winding
(b) primary winding surrounds the secondary winding
(c) both are usual arrangements
Ans: a
72. The shaded pole motor is used for
(a) high starting torque
(b) low starting torque
(c) medium starting torque
(d) very high starting torque
Ans: b
73. The rotor slots, in an induction motor, are usually not
quite parallel to the shaft because it
(a) improves the efficiency
(b) helps the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth
(c) helps in reducing the tendency of the rotor teeth to
remain under the stator teeth
(d) improves the power factor
Ans: c
74. The speed/load characteristics of a universal motor is
same as that of
(a) A.C. motor
(c) D.C. series motor
Ans: c
75. The purpose of stator winding in the compensated
repulsion motor is to
(a) provide mechanical balance
(b) improve power factor and provide better speed
regulation
(c) prevent hunting in the motor

(d) eliminate armature reaction
Ans: b
76. Which of the following motors is used for unity power
factor ?
(a) Hysteresis motor
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Universal motor
Ans: b
77. The motor used for the compressors is
(a) d.c. series motor
(b) shaded pole motor
(c) capacitorstart
capacitorrun
motor
(d) reluctance motor
Ans: c
MOTORSElectrical
answers/
12/17
78. Which of the following motors is used in a situation
where load increases with speed ?
(a) Induction motor
(b) Threephase
series motor
(c) Schrage motor
(d) Hysteresis motor
Ans: b
79. In repulsion motor, zero torque is developed when
(a) brush axis is 45 electrical to field axis
(b) brush axis coincides with the field axis
(c) brush axis is 90 electrical to field axis
Ans: d
80. Centrifugal switch disconnects the auxiliary winding of
the motor at about ____ percent of synchronous speed
(a) 30 to 40
(b) 70 to 80
(c) 80 to 90
(d) 100
Ans: b
81. Starting winding of a single phase motor of a
refrigerator is disconnected from the circuit by means of a
(a) magnetic relay
(b) thermal relay
(c) centrifugal switch
Ans: a
82. If a single phase induction motor runs slower than
normal, the most likely defect is
(a) worn bearings
(b) shortcircuit
in the winding
(c) opencircuit
in the winding
Ans: a
83. Which of the following motors is used in taperecorders
?
(a) Hysteresis motor
(c) Capacitorrun
motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
84. Which of the following statements regarding two value
capacitor motor is incorrect ?
(a) It is a reversing motor
(b) It is preferred to permanentsplit
singlevalue
capacitor motor where frequent reversals are required
(c) It has low starting as well as rushing currents
(d) It has high starting torque
Ans: b
85. Twovalue
capacitor motor finds increased application as compressor
motor in small home airconditioners
because
MOTORSElectrical
answers/
13/17
(a) it is comparatively cheaper
(b) it has almost nondestructible
capacitor
(c) it has low starting as well as running currents at
relatively high power factor
(d) it is quiet in operation
Ans: c
86. If the centrifugal switch of a twovalue
capacitor motor using two capacitors fails to open then
(a) motor will not come up to speed
(b) motor will not carry the load
(c) current drawn by the motor will be excessively high
(d) electrolytic capacitor will, in all probability, suffer
break down
Ans: d
87. In a universal motor, the most common cause of brush
sparking is
(a) open armature winding
(b) shorted armature winding
(c) shorted field winding
(d) high commutator mica
Ans: e
88. If starting winding of a singlephase
induction motor is left in the circuit, it will
(a) run faster
(b) spark at light loads
(c) draw excessive current and overheat
(d) run slower
Ans: c
89. Most of the fractional horsepower motors have either
(a) hard and annealed bearings
(b) ball or roller bearings

(c) soft and porous bearings
(d) plain or sleeve bearings
Ans: d
90. Which of the following statements regarding
reluctancestart
motor is incorrect ?
(a) It is similar to reluctance motor
(b) It is basically an induction motor and not a synchronous
one
(c) So far as its basic working principle is concerned, it is
similar to shaded pole motor
(d) the airgap
between rotor and salient poles is nonuniform
Ans: a
91. To reverse the direction of rotation of acapacitor start
motor while it is running we should
(a) disconnect motor from the supply till it stops then
reconnect it to supply with reversed connection of main or
auxiliary winding
(b) disconnect motor from supply and immediately
reconnect it to supply with reversed connections of the
main winding
(c) reverse the direction of connection of the auxiliary
winding and after motor comes to rest then connect
auxiliary winding to the supply
(d) reverse the direction of connections of the auxiliary
winding and immediately connect it to supply
Ans: a
92. In case of a reluctance motor, when the load is
increased so that it cannot maintain synchronous speed the
motor will
(a) become unstable
MOTORSElectrical
answers/
14/17
(b) draw excessive armature current and may burn out
(c) fall out of synchronism and come to stand still
(d) run as induction motor
Ans: d
93. Which of the following motors has two separate
windings on the motor ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Repulsion induction motor
(c) Repulsion start induction run motor
Ans: b
94. A shaded pole motor does not possess
(a) centrifugal switch
(b) capacitor
(c) commutator
Ans: d
95. In a A.C. series motor armature coils are usually
connected to commutator
(a) through resistance
(b) through reactances
(c) through capacitors

(d) solidly
Ans: a
96. Which of the following statements regarding a
reluctance motor is incorrect ?
(a) It cannot be reversed, ordinarily
(b) It requires no D.C. field excitation for its operation
(c) It is nothing else but a singlephase,
salient pole synchronousinduction
motor
(d) Its squirrel cagerotor
is of unsymmetrical
magnetic construction in order to vary reluctance path
between stator and rotor
Ans: a
97. A universal motor is one which
(a) can be operated either on D.C. or A.C. supply at
approximately the same speed and output
(b) can be marketed internationally
(c) runs at dangerously high speed on noload
Ans: a
98. A repulsion motor is equipped with
(a) slip rings
(b) commutator
Ans: b
99. The capacitors used in singlephase
capacitor motors have no
(a) voltage rating
(b) dielectric medium
(c) polarity marking
MOTORSElectrical
answers/
15/17
(d) definite value
Ans: c
100. If a D.C. series motor is operated on A.C. supply, it
will
(a) spark excessively
(b) have poor efficiency
(c) have poor power factor
Ans: d
101. After the starting winding of a single phase induction
motor is disconnected from supply, it continues to run only
on
(a) running winding
(b) rotor winding
(c) field winding
(d) compensating winding
Ans: a
repulsionstart
induction motor is incorrect ?
(a) It requires more maintenance of commutator and other
mechanical devices
(b) It makes quite a bit of noise on starting

(c) In fractional horse power motors, it has replaced the
capacitor motors
(d) It is not easily reversed
Ans: c
103. A.C. series motor as compared to D.C. series motor
has
(a) smaller brush width
(b) less number of field turns
(c) more number of armature turns
(d) less air gap
Ans: e
104. Locked rotor current of a shaded pole motor is
(a) equal to full load current
(b) less than full load current
(c) slightly more than full load current
(d) several times the full load current
Ans: c
105. Speed control of a universal motor is achieved by
(a) varying field flux with tapped field windings
(b) connecting rheostat in series
(c) applying variable voltage by means of silicon controlled
rectifier
(d) applying variable voltage by means of variable
autotransformer
(e) all of the above methods
Ans: e
116. Hysteresis motor is particularly useful for highquality
record players and taperecorders
because
(a) it revolves synchronously
(b) it is not subject to any magnetic or mechanical
vibrations
(c) it can be easily manufactured in extremely small sizes
of up to 1 W output
MOTORSElectrical
answers/
16/17
(d) it develops hysteresis torque which is extremely steady
both in amplitude and phase
Ans: d
hysteresis motor is in incorrect ?
(a) It is extremely sensitive to fluctuations in supply
voltage
(b) Its high starting torque is due to its high rotor hysteresis
loss
(c) It is extremely quiet in operation
(d) It accelerates from rest to fullspeed
almost instantaneously
Ans: a
singlephase
induction motoris correct ?
(a) It requires only one winding
(b) It can rotate in one direction only
(c) It is selfstarting
(d) It is not selfstarting
Ans: d
119. The starting winding of a singlephase
motor is placed in
(a) armature
(b) field
(c) rotor
(d) stator
Ans: d
120. The speed of a universal motor is usually reduced by
using
(a) gearing
(b) belts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a
Choice Questions and tagged SINGLE PHASE
INDUCTION MOTORS Multiple Choice Questions and
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8 Responses to 120 TOP MOST SINGLE PHASE
INDUCTION MOTORSElectrical
Engineering Multiple Choice Questions Answers
Solid State Relay"UNISON"
2 to 200Amp in 45mm,23.6mm,SlimSSR.
3PHAnalog/Digital Power Controller.
mayank says:
August 26, 2016 at 12:11 pm
Can anyone plz send the entire questions pdf file on my
mail id its my humble request plz I have exam of geb on
september 4
Reply
rahul kumar says:
August 15, 2016 at 6:42 pm
Thank you sir..
Can you mail all questions in pdf file to my mail id
rahulnri28@gmail.com
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MANUALSMCQsSEMINAR
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valar says:
July 31, 2016 at 2:58 pm
sir,please send my mailvalarmathi.
ramachandran@gmail.com
Reply
K.BALAKRISHNAN says:
July 28, 2016 at 11:34 pm

Thank u sir sir please send me pdf all electrical questions.
Mail id: baluk16585@gmail.com
Reply
K.BALAKRISHNAN says:
July 28, 2016 at 11:31 pm
Thank u sir sir please send me pdf all electrical questions.
Mail id: baluk16585@gmail.com
Reply
Vivek Ladva says:
July 28, 2016 at 11:33 am
Thank you sir ,
Can you please send me the pdf file of above questions on
this maid id : viv.ladva@gmail.com
Reply
rizvi says:
July 26, 2016 at 8:13 pm
Sir, can you please email them as a pdf to:
rzv_real@hotmail.com this is excellent revision material.
Reply
rajesh chandra says:
April 3, 2016 at 1:33 pm
question 70 ans (B)
Reply
8/28/2016 130 TOP MOST SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS
Electrical
Engineering Interview Questions and Answers Electrical
Engineering Multiple Choice Questions
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130 TOP MOST SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS
Electrical Engineering Interview Questions
and Answers
130 TOP MOST SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS Electrical
Engineering Interview Questions and Answers
SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS Electrical Engineering
Interview Questions and
Answers :1.
Synchronous motors are generally not selfstarting
because
(a) the direction of rotation is not fixed
(b) the direction of instantaneous torque reverses after half
cycle
(c) startes cannot be used on these machines
(d) starting winding is not provided on the machines
Ans: b
2. In case one phase of a threephase
synchronous motor is shortcircuited
the motor will
(a) not start
(b) run at 2/3 of synchronous speed
(c) run with excessive vibrations
(d) take less than the rated load
Ans: a
3. A pony motor is basically a
(a) small induction motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) D.C. shunt motor
(d) double winding A.C./D.C. motor
Ans: a

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4. A synchronous motor can develop synchronous torque
(a) when under loaded
(b) while overexcited
(c) only at synchronous speed
(d) below or above synchronous speed
Ans: c
5. A synchronous motor can be started by
(a) pony motor
(b) D.C. compound motor
(c) providing damper winding
Ans: d
6. A threephase
synchronous motor will have
(a) no sliprings
(b) one slipring
(c) two sliprings
(d) three sliprings
Ans: c
7. Under which of the following conditions hunting of
synchronous motor is likely to occur ?
(a) Periodic variation of load
(b) Overexcitation
(c) Overloading
for long periods
(d) Small and constant load
Ans: a
8. When the excitation of an unloaded salient pole
synchronous motor suddenly gets disconnected
(a) the motor stops
(b) it runs as a reluctance motor at the same speed
(c) it runs as a reluctance motor at a lower speed
Ans: a
9. When V is the applied voltage, then the breakdown
torque of a synchronous motor varies as
(a) V
(b) V312
(c) V2
(d) 1/V
Ans: a
10. The power developed by a synchronous motor will be
maximum when the load angle is
(a) zero
(b) 45
(c) 90
(d) 120
Ans: c
11. A synchronous motor can be used as a synchronous
capacitor when it is
(a) underloaded
Electrical
3/21
(b) overloaded
(c) underexcited
(d) overexcited
Ans: d
12. A synchronous motor is running on a load with normal
excitation. Now if the load on the motor is increased
(a) power factor as well as armature current will decrease
(b) power factor as well as armature current will increase
(c) power factor will increase but armature current will
decrease
(d) power factor will decrease and armature current will
increase
Ans: d
13. Mostly, synchronous motors are of
(a) alternator type machines
(6) induction type machines
(c) salient pole type machines
(d) smooth cylindrical type machines
Ans: c
14. The synchronous motor is not inherently selfstarting
because
(a) the force required to accelerate the rotor to the
synchronous speed in an instant is absent
(b) the starting device to accelerate the rotor to near
synchronous speed is absent
(c) a rotating magnetic field does not have enough poles
(d) the rotating magnetic field is produced by only 50 Hz
frequency currents
Ans: a
15. As the load is applied to a synchronous motor, the
motor takes more armature current because
(a) the increased load has to take more current
(b) the rotor by shifting its phase backward causes motor to
take more current
(c) the back e.m.f. decreases causing an increase in motor
current
(d) the rotor strengthens the rotating field casuing more
motor current
Ans: b
16. Synchronous motor always runs at
(a) the synchronous speed
(b) less than synchronous speed
(c) more than synchronous speed

Ans: a
17. An overexcited
synchronous motor takes
(a) leading current
(b) lagging current
Ans: a
18. The working of a synchronous motor is similar to
(a) gear train arrangement
(b) transmission of mechancial power by shaft
(c) distribution transformer
Electrical
4/21
(d) turbine
Ans: b
19. The minimum armature current of the synchronous
motor corresponds to operation at
(a) zero power factor leading
(b) unity power factor
(c) 0.707 power factor lagging
(d) 0.707 power factor leading
Ans: b
20. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back
e.m.f. & depends on
(a) d.c. excitation only
(b) speed of the motor
(c) load on the motor
(d) both the speed and rotor flux
Ans: a
21. If load (or torque) angle of a 4pole
synchronous motor is 6 electrical, its value in mechanical
degrees is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans: b
22. For Vcurves
for a synchronous motor the graph is drawn between
(a) field current and armature current
(b) terminal voltage and load factor
(c) power factor and field current
(d) armature current and power factor
Ans: a
23. The back e.m.f. of a synchronous motor depends on
(a) speed
(b) load
(c) load angle
Ans: c
24. A synchronous motor can operate at
(a) lagging power factor only
(6) leading power factor only
(c) unity power factor only
(d) lagging, leading and unity power factors

Ans: d
25. In a synchronous motor which loss varies with load ?
(a) Windage loss
(b) Bearing friction loss
(c) Copper loss
Electrical
5/21
(d) Core loss
Ans: c
26. A synchronous motor can be made self starting by
providing
(a) damper winding on rotor poles
(b) damper winding on stator
(c) damper winding on stator as well as rotor poles
Ans: d
27. The oscillations in a synchronous motor can be damped
out by
(a) maintaining constant excitation
(b) running the motor on leading power factors
(c) providing damper bars in the rotor pole faces
(d) oscillations cannot be damped
Ans: c
28. The shaft of synchronous motor is made of
(a) mild steel
(b) chrome steel
(c) alnico
(d) stainless steel
Ans: a
29. When the field of a synchronous motor is underexcited,
the power factor will be
(a) leading
(b) lagging
(c) unity
(d) zero
Ans: b
30. The speed regulation of a synchronous motor is always
(a) 1%
(b) 0.5%
(c) positive
(d) zero
Ans: d
31. The percentage slip in case of a synchronous motor is
(a) 1%
(b) 100%
(c) 0.5%
(d) zero
Ans: d
32. The operating speed of a synchronous motor can be
changed to new fixed value by
(a) changing the load
(b) changing the supply voltage
(c) changing frequency
(d) using brakes
Ans: c

Electrical
6/21
33. A synchronous motor will always stop when
(a) supply voltage fluctuates
(b) load in motor varies
(c) excitation winding gets disconnected
(d) supply voltage frequency changes9885859805
Ans: c
34. riunting in a synchronous motor takes place
(a) when supply voltage fluctuates
(b) when load varies
(c) when power factor is unity
(d) motor is under loaded
Ans: b
35. When load on an overexcited
or under excited synchronous*motor is increased, rate of
change of its armature current as compared with of power
factor is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) twice
Ans: b
36. The rotor copper losses, in a synchronous motor, are
met by
(a) d.c. source
(b) armature input
(c) motor input
(d) supply lines
Ans: a
37. The maximum power developed in a synchronous
motor occurs at a coupling angle of
(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 90
(d) 180
Ans: c
38. When the stator windings are connected in such a
fashion that the number of poles are made half, the speed of
the rotor of a synchronous
motor
(a) remains same as the original value
(b) decreases to half the original value
(c) tends to becomes zero
(d) increases to two times the original value
Ans: d
39. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor
magnetic field rotate at the same speed ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Synchronous motor
(c) Induction motor
Ans: b
Electrical
7/21
40. Synchronsizingpower of a synchronous machine is
(a) direcly proportional to the synchronous reactance
(6) inversely proportional to the synchronous reactance
(a) equal to the synchronous reactance
Ans: b
41. Synchronous motors are
(a) notself
starting
(b) selfstarting
(c) essentially selfstarting
Ans: a
42. The standard fullload
power factor ratings for synchronous motors are
(a) zero or 0.8 leading
(b) unity or 0.8 lagging
(c) unity or 0.8 leading
(d) unity or zero
Ans: c
43. A synchronous motor running with normal excitation
adjusts to load increases essentially by increase in
(a) back e.m.f.
(b) armature current
(c) power factor
(d) torque angle
Ans: b
44. A synchronous motor has better power factor as
compared to that of an equivalent induction motor. This is
mainly because
(a) synchronous motor has no slip
(b) stator supply is not required to produce magnetic field
(c) mechanical load on the rotor remains constant
(d) synchronous motor has large airgap
Ans: b
45. A synchronous motor working at leading power factor
can be used as
(a) voltage booster
(b) phase advancer
(c) noise generator
(d) mechanical synchronizer
Ans: b
46. Slip rings are usually made of
(a) carbon or graphite
(b) brass or steel
(c) silver or gold
(d) copper or aluminium
Ans: b
47. An over excited synchronous motor is used for
(a) fluctuating loads
Electrical
8/21
(b) variable speed loads
(c) low torque loads
(d) power factor corrections

Ans: d
48. When the voltage applied to a synchronous motor is
increased, which of the following will reduce ?
(a) Stator flux
(b) Pull in torque
Ans: d
51. The efficiency of a properly designed synchronous
motor will usually fall in range
(a) 60 to 70%
(6) 75 to 80%
(c) 85 to 95%
(d) 99 to 99.5%
Ans: c
52. To limit the operating temperature an electrical machine
should have proper
(a) voltage rating
(b) current rating
(c) power factor
(d) speed
Ans: b
53. Sliprings
in a synchronous motor carry
(a) direct current
(b) alternating current
(c) no current
Ans: a
54. A synchronous machine with large air gap has
(a) a higher value of stability limit
(6) a small value of inherent regulation
(c) a higher synchronizing power which makes the machine
less sensitive to load variations
Ans: d
55. The armature current of the synchronous motor has
higher values for
(a) high excitation only
(b) low excitation only
Ans: c
56. In a synchronous motor running with fixed excitation,
when the load is increased three times, its torque angle
becomes approximately
(a) onethird
(b) twice
(c) thrice
Electrical
9/21
(d) six times
(e) nine times
Ans: c
57. The angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor
poles is called _____ angle.
(a) torque
(b) obtuse
(c) synchronizing
(d) power factor
Ans: a
58. Which of the following methods is used to start a
synchronous motor ?
(a) Damper winding
(b) Stardelta
starter
(c) Damper winding in conjunction with stardelta
starter
(d) Resistance starter in the armature circuit
Ans: c
59. When the rotor speed, in a synchronous machine,
becomes more than the synchronous speed during hunting,
the damper bars develop
(a) inductor motor torque
(b) induction generator torque
(c) synchronous motor torque
(d) d.c. motor toque
Ans: b
60. An important advantage of a synchronous motor over
wound round induction motor is that
(a) its power factor may be varied at will
(b) its speed is independent of supply frequency
(c) its speed may be controlled more easily
Ans: a
61. The mechanical displacement of the rotor with respect
to the stator, in polyphase multipolar synchronous motors
running at full load, is order of
(a) zero degree
(b) two degrees
(c) five degrees
(d) ten degrees
Ans: c
62. Power factor of a synchronous motor is unity when
(a) the armature current is maximum
(b) the armature current is minimum
(c) the armature current is zero
Ans: b
63. Change of D.C. excitation of a synchronous motor
changes
(a) applied voltage of the motor
(b) motor speed
Electrical
10/21
(c) power factor of power drawn by the motor
Ans: c
64. While starting a synchronous motor by induction motor
action, field winding is usually
(a) connected to D.C. supply
(b) shortcircuited
by low resistance
(c) kept opencircuited
Ans: b
65. Which of the following motors will be used in electric
clocks ?
(c) A.C. induction motor
(d) A.C. synchronous motor
Ans: d
SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS Electrical Engineering
Interview Questions and Answers
66. If in a synchronous motor, driving mechanical load and
drawing current at lagging power factor from constant
voltage supply, its field
excitation is increased, then its power factor
(a) become more
(b) become less
(c) remain constant
Ans: b
67. A synchronous motor installed at the receiving end
substation operates with such an excitation that it takes
power at lagging power factor.
Now if the applied voltage of the synchronous motor goes
down, the power factor of the synchronous motor will
(a) remain same
(b) go down
(c) improve
Ans: c
68. While starting a salient pole synchronous motor by
induction motor action and connecting field discharge
resistance across field, starting accelerting torque is
produced by
(a) induction motor torque in field winding
(b) induction motor torque in damper winding
(c) eddy current and hysteresis torque in pole faces
(d) reHetance motor torque due to saliency of the rotor
(e) all of the above methods
Ans: e
69. Armature of a synchronous machine is
(a) of reducing number of slip rings on the rotor
(b) armature is associated with large power as compared to
the field circuits
(c) of difficulty of providing high voltage insulation on
rotor
Electrical
11/21
(d) all of the above reasons
Ans: d
70. If excitation of a synchronous motor running with a
constant load is decreased from its normal value, ignoring
effects of armature reaction, leads to
(a) increase in both armature current and power factor

angle
(b) increase in back e.m.f. but decrease in armature current
(c) increase in both armature current and power factor
which is lagging
(d) increase in torque angle but decrease in back e.m.f.
Ans: a
71. When a 3phase
synchronous generator is supplying a zero power factor
lagging load, the armature field affects the main field in the
following
way
(a) augments it directly
(b) directly opposes it
(c) crossmagnetises
it
Ans: b
72. Stability of a synchronous machine
(a) decreases with increase in its excitation
(b) increases with increase in its excitation
(c) remains unaffected with increase in excitation
Ans: b
73. The power factor of a synchronous motor is better than
that of induction motor because
(a) stator supply is relieved of responsibility of producing
magnetic field
(b) mechanical load on the motor can be adjusted
(c) synchronous motor runs at synchronous speed
(d) synchronous motor has large air gap
Ans: a
74. If in a synchronous motor, driving a given mechanical
load and drawing current at a leading power factor from
constant voltage supply its
field excitation is increased, its power factor
(a) will become more
(b) will become less
(c) will remain unchanged
(d) none of the above.
Ans: b
75. A synchronous motor is running with normal excitation.
When the load is increased, the armature current drawn by
it increases because
(a) speed of the motor is reduced
(b) power factor is decreased
(c) Eb (back e.m.f.) becomes less than V (applied voltage)
(d) Er (net resultant voltage) in armature is increased
Ans: d
76. If onephase
of a 3phase
synchronous motor is shortcircuited,
motor
(a) will refuse to start
Electrical
12/21
(b) will overheat in spots

(c) will not come upto speed
(d) will fail to pull into step
Ans: a
77. If the field circuit of an unloaded salientpole
synchronous motor gets suddenly opencircuited,
then
(a) it runs at a slower speed
(b) the motor stops
(c) it continues to run at the same speed
(d) it runs at a very high speed
Ans: b
78. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor
fields rotate simultaneously ?
(a) D.C. motor
(c) Universal motor
(d) Synchronous motor
(e) Induction motor
Ans: d
79. The speed of a synchronous motor
(a) increases as the load increases
(b) decreases as the load decreases
(c) always remains constant
Ans: c
80. A rotory converter can also be run as a
(a) d.c. shunt motor
(b) d.c. series motor
(c) d.c. compound motor
(d) induction motor
(e) synchronous motor
Ans: e
81. The maximum speed variation in a 3phase
synchronous motor is
(a) 10 per cent
(b) 6 per cent
(c) 4 per cent
(d) 2. per cent
(e) zero
Ans: e
82. Which of the following resistances can be measured by
conducting insulation resistance test on a synchronous
motor ?
(a) Phase to phase winding resistance
(b) Stator winding to earthed frame
(c) Rotor winding to earthed shaft
Ans: d
Electrical
13/21
83. Due to which of the following reasons a synchronous
motor fails to pull into synchronism after applying D.C.
field current ?
(a) High field current
(b) Low short circuit ratio
(c) High core losses
(d) Low field current

Ans: d
16.84. In a synchronous motor, the maximum power
developed depends on all of the following except
(a) rotor excitation
(b) maximum value of coupling angle
(c) direction of rotation
(d) supply voltage
Ans: c
85. In a 3phase
synchronous motor, the negative phase sequence exists
when the motor is
(a) supplied with unbalanced voltage
(b) underloaded
(c) overloaded
Ans: a
86. In a synchronous motor, damper windings are provided
on
(a) stator frame
(b) rotor shaft
(c) pole faces
Ans: c
87. The induced e.m.f. in a synchronous motor working on
leading power factor will be
(a) more than the supply voltage
(b) less than the supply voltage
(c) equal to the supply voltage
Ans: a
88. The effect of increasing the load on a synchronous
motor running with normal excitation is to
(a) decrease both armature current and power factor
(6) decrease armature current but increase power factor
(c) increase armature current but decrease power factor
(d) increase both its armature current and power factor
Ans: c
89. The net armature voltage of a synchronous motor is
equal to the
(a) vector sum of Eb and V
(b) arithmetic sum of Eb and V
(c) arithmetic difference of Eb and V
(d) vector difference of Eh and V
Ans: d
90. The ratio of starting torque to running torque in a
synchronous motor is
(a) zero
(b) one
Electrical
14/21
(c) two
(d) infinity
Ans: a
91. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back
e.m.f. Eb depends on
(a) load on the motor
(b) d.c. excitation only
(c) both the speed and rotor flux

Ans: b
92. A 3phase
synchronous motor is running clockwise. If the direction of
its field current is reversed
(a) the motor will stop
(b) the motor continue to run in the same direction
(c) the winding of the motor will burn
(d) the motor will run in the reverse direction
Ans: b
93. The magnitude of field flux in a 3phase
synchronous motor
(a) remains constant at all loads
(b) varies with speed
(c) varies with the load
(d) varies with power factor
Ans: a
94. The torque angle, in a synchronous motor, is the angle
between
(a) the supply voltage and the back e.m.f.
(b) magnetising current and back e.m.f.
(c) the rotating stator flux and rotor poles
Ans: c
95. Hunting in a synchronous motor cannot be due to
(a) windage friction
(b) variable load
(c) variable frequency
(d) variable supply voltage
Ans: a
96. By which of the following methods the constant speed
of a synchronous motor can be changed to new fixed
value ?
(a) By changing the supply frequency
(b) By interchanging any two phases
(c) By changing the applied voltage
(d) By changing the load.
Ans: a
97. In a synchronous motor, Vcurves
represent relation between
(a) armature current and field current
(b) power factor and speed
(c) field current and speed
Electrical
15/21
(d) field current and power factor
Ans: a
98. In a 3phase,
4pole,
50 Hz synchronous motor, the frequency, pole number and
load torque all are halved. The motor speed will be
(a) 3000 r.p.m.
(b) 1500 r.p.m.
(c) 750 r.p.m.
Ans: b
99. A synchronous motor connected to infinite busbars
has at constant full load, 100% excitation and unity power
factor. On changing the
excitation only, the armature current will have
(a) no change of power factor
(b) lagging power factor with overexcitation
(c) leading power factor with underexcitation
(d) leading power factor with overexcitation
Ans: d
100. Which of the following motors is nonself
starting ?
(a) D.C. series motor
(b) synchronous motor
(c) Squirrel cage induction motor
(d) Wound round induction motor
Ans: b
101. In a synchronous motor it the back e.m.f. generated in
the armature at noload is approximately equal to the
applied voltage, then
(a) the motor is said to be fully loaded
(b) the torque generated is maximum
(c) the excitation is said to be zero per cent
(d) the excitation is said to be hundred per cent
Ans: d
102. In a synchronous motor, the damping winding is
generally used to
(a) prevent hunting and provide the starting torque
(b) reduce the eddy currents
(c) provide starting torque only
(d) reduce noise level
Ans: a
103. If the field of a synchronous motor is underexcited, the
power factor will be
(a) zero
(b) unity
(c) lagging
(d) leading
Ans: c
104. The back e.m.f. in the stator of a synchronous motor
depends on
(a) number of poles
(b) flux density
(c) rotor speed
Electrical
16/21
(d) rotor excitation
Ans: d
105. The maximum value of torque that a synchronous
motor can develop without losing its synchronism, is
known as
(a) slip torque
(b) pullout
torque
(c) breaking torque
(d) synchronising torque

Ans: d
106. In a synchronous motor, the armature current has large
values for
(a) high excitation only
(b) low excitation only
(c) both high and low excitation
Ans: c
107. Which of the following losses, in a synchronous
motor, does not vary with load?
(a) Windage loss
(b) Copper losses
(c) Any of the above
Ans: a
108. The size of a synchronous motor decreases with the
increase in
(a) flux density
(b) horse power rating
(c) speed
Ans: a
109. Which of the following losses is not dissipated by the
stator core surface in a synchronous motor ?
(a) Eddy current losses in the conductors
(b) Iron losses in the stator
(c) Copper losses in the slot portion of the conductors
(d) Windage losses
Ans: d
110. The duration of sudden snortcircuit
test on a synchronous motor is usually about
(a) one hour
(b) one minute
(c) one second
Ans: c
111. The maximum constant load torque under which a
synchronous motor will pull into synchronism at rated rotor
supply voltage and frequency
is known as
(a) pullup
torque
(b) pullin
torque
Electrical
17/21
(c) pullout
torque
Ans: b
112. A synchronous machine with low value of shortcircuit
ratio has
(a) lower stability limit
(6) high stability limit
(c) good speed regulation
(d) good voltage regulation

Ans: a
113. The construction of a synchronous motor resembles
(a) a series motor
(b) an induction motor
(c) an alternator
(d) a rotary converter
Ans: c
114. If the field winding of an unloaded salient pole
synchronous motor is open circuited, the motor will
(a) stop
(b) run as induction motor
(c) function as static condenser
(d) burn with dense smoke
Ans: a
115. For power factor correction, synchronous motors
operate at
(a) noload
and greatly overexcited
fields
(b) noload
and underexcited
fields
(c) normal load with minimum excitation
(d) normal load with zero excitation
Ans: a
116. The maximum torque which a synchronous motor will
develop at rest for any angular position of the rotor, at rated
stator supply voltage frequency, is known as
(a) lockedrotor
torque
(b) synchronous torque
(c) pull up torque
(d) reluctance torque
Ans: a
117. Exciters of synchronous machines are
(a) d.c. shunt machines
(b) d.c. series machines
(c) d.c. compound machines
Ans: a
118. The coupling angle or load angle of synchronous
motor is defined as the angle between the
(a) rotor and stator teeth
(b) rotor and the stator poles of opposite polarity
Electrical
18/21
(c) rotor and the stator poles of the same polarity
Ans: b
119. If the synchronous motor, properly synchronised to the
supply is running on no load and is having negligible loss
then
(a) the stator current will be zero
(b) the stator current will be very small
(c) the stator current will be very high
(d) the back e.m.f. will be more than the supply voltage
Ans: a
120 The armature current of the synchronous motor
(a) has large values for low excitation i niy
(b) has large values for high excitation only
(c) has large values for low and high excitation
Ans: c
121. The maximum power developed in a synchronous
motor will depend on
(a) the rotor excitation only
(b) the supply voltage only
(c) the rotor excitation and supply voltage
both
(d) the rotor excitation, supply voltage and maximum value
of coupling angle (90)
Ans: d
122. A synchronous motor which works on a leading power
factor and does not drive a mechanical load is called as
(a) static condenser
(b) condenser
(c) synchronous condenser
Ans: c
129. A synchronous motor develops maximum power when
load angle is
(a) 45
(b) 60
(c) 90
(d) 120
Ans: c
130. In a synchronous motor, the breakdown torque is
(a) directly proportional to applied voltage
(b) directly proportional to the square of the applied voltage
(c) inversely proportional to applied voltage
Ans: a
Electrical
19/21
21 Responses to 130 TOP MOST SYNCHRONOUS
MOTORS Electrical Engineering Interview Questions
and Answers
avinashpokale says:
August 24, 2016 at 7:53 am
your website is very beautiful
Reply
sreekanth says:
August 23, 2016 at 11:16 am
thank u very much sir .
it is very useful to everyone
Reply
bimal says:
June 26, 2016 at 9:54 am
Thanks sir . Bim*
Reply
PALAK says:
May 21, 2016 at 5:04 pm
Thank you for uploading these questions. Helped a lot .
Reply
Siva says:
May 4, 2016 at 5:30 am
See the 26th question The answer may by. (a)
Reply
Mani sharma says:
July 8, 2016 at 6:49 am
Right ans for 26 no question is a
Reply
Mani sharma says:
July 8, 2016 at 6:53 am
Yes ans is a fr 26
Reply
Siva says:
May 4, 2016 at 5:28 am
Electrical
20/21
See the 26th question. . The answer may be 1
Reply
yogu says:
May 3, 2016 at 7:42 am
all are most imp and most ask quesions on gov exams..thnk
u sir..
Reply
sanjay raturi says:
April 29, 2016 at 11:39 am
nice very important collection ,sir plz send all electrical
question pdf with answer
Reply
Arvind says:
April 25, 2016 at 11:15 am
Niece collection sir.
Q. A 3 phase Synchronous motor, connected to an infinite
bus, operates at a leading power factor. For constant load
torque, if excitation is
increased then what will be effect on load angle and power
factor angle?
Reply
A.MD ISMAIL says:
August 3, 2016 at 5:53 am
load angle will be reduced
Reply
Jasveer Singh says:
April 14, 2016 at 11:33 am
Nice collection of questions
Reply
rajesh chandra says:
April 2, 2016 at 4:29 pm
nice collection of questions thanks sir
Reply
engineer says:
April 2, 2016 at 5:10 pm
Thank you so much rajesh chandra
Reply
Sonu says:
March 17, 2016 at 11:32 pm
All question are best
Reply
engineer says:
Electrical
21/21
MANUALSMCQsSEMINAR
TOPICSGATECAT
SYLLABUSONLINE
QUIZ TESTOBJECTIVE
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us
March 22, 2016 at 10:29 am
Thank you Sonu
Reply
Akshay says:
January 10, 2016 at 6:24 am
This is the bestRAM BANAMfor all engineers. I also
affected for it
Reply
engineer says:
January 10, 2016 at 11:47 am
Thank you so much Akshaythis is the best compliment
for me and my site also
Reply
piky says:
26th ans is A
Reply
engineer says:
Than q so much Piky.i will Upate it.
Reply
8/28/2016 60 TOP MOST CABLES Electrical
http://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/cableselectricale
ngineeringobjectivetypequestionsandanswers/
1/9
60 TOP MOST CABLES Electrical Engineering
Objective Type Questions and Answers
60 TOP MOST CABLES Electrical Engineering
1. The insulating material for a cable should have
(a) low cost
(b) high dielectric strength
(c) high mechanical strength
Ans: d
2. Which of the following protects a cable against
mechanical injury ?
(a) Bedding
(b) Sheath
(c) Armouring
Ans: c
3. Which of the following insulation is used in cables ?
(a) Varnished cambric
(b) Rubber
(c) Paper
Ans: d
4. Empire tape is
(a) varnished cambric
(b) vulcanised rubber
(c) impregnated paper
Ans: a
5. The thickness of the layer of insulation on the conductor,
in cables, depends upon
(a) reactive power
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(b) power factor
(c) voltage
(d) current carrying capacity
Ans: c
6. The bedding on a cable consists of
(a) hessian cloth
(b) jute
(c) any of the above
Ans: c
7. The insulating material for cables should
(a) be acid proof
(b) be noninflammable
(c) be nonhygroscopic
(d) have all above properties
Ans: d
8. In a cable immediately above metallic sheath _____ is
provided.
(a) earthing connection
(b) bedding
(c) armouring
Ans: b
9. The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is more
thanthat in A.C. mainly due to
(a) absence of harmonics
(b) nonexistence
of any stability limit
(c) smaller dielectric loss
(d) absence of ripples
Ans: c
10. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the
neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) brown
Ans: a
11 cables are used for 132 kV lines.
(a) High tension
(b) Super tension
(c) Extra high tension
(d) Extra super voltage
Ans: d
12. Conduit pipes are normally used to protect _____
cables.
(a) unsheathed cables
(b) armoured
3/9
(c) PVC sheathed cables
Ans: a
13. The minimum dielectric stress in a cable is at
(a) armour
(b) bedding
(c) conductor surface
(d) lead sheath
Ans: d
14. In single core cables armouring is not done to
(a) avoid excessive sheath losses
(b) make it flexible
Ans: a
15. Dielectric strength of rubber is around
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 15 kV/mm
(c) 30 kV/mm
(d) 200 kV/mm
Ans: c
16. Low tension cables are generally used up to
(a) 200 V
(b) 500 V
(c) 700 V
(d) 1000 V
Ans: d
17. In a cable, the maximum stress under operating
conditions is at
(a) insulation layer
(b) sheath
(c) armour
(d) conductor surface
Ans: d
18. High tension cables are generally used up to
(a) 11kV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: a
19. The surge resistance of cable is
(a) 5 ohms
(b) 20 ohms
(c) 50 ohms
4/9
(d) 100 ohms
Ans: c
20. PVC stands for
(a) polyvinyl chloride
(b) post varnish conductor
(c) pressed and varnished cloth
(d) positive voltage conductor
Ans: a
In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by
comparing
(a) the resistance of the conductor
(b) the inductance of conductors
(c) the capacitances of insulated conductors
(d) all above parameters
Ans: c
22. In capacitance grading of cables we use a ______
dielectric.
(a) composite
(b) porous
(c) homogeneous
(d) hygroscopic
Ans: a
23. Pressure cables are generally not used beyond
(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: c
24. The material for armouring on cable is usually
(a) steel tape
(b) galvanised steel wire

Ans: c
25. Cables, generally used beyond 66 kV are
(a) oil filled
(b) S.L. type
(c) belted
(d) armoured
Ans: a
26. The relative permittivity of rubber is
(a) between 2 and 3
(b) between 5 and 6
(c) between 8 and 10
5/9
(d) between 12 and 14
Ans: a
27. Solid type cables are considered unreliable beyond 66
kV because
(a) insulation may melt due to higher temperature
(b) skin effect dominates on the conductor
(c) of corona loss between conductor and sheath material
(d) there is a danger of breakdown of insulation due to the
presence of voids
Ans: d
28. If the length of a cable is doubled, its capacitance
(a) becomes onefourth
(b) becomes onehalf
(c) becomes double
(d) remains unchanged
Ans: c
29. In cables the charging current
(a) lags the voltage by 90
(b) leads the voltage by 90
(c) lags the voltage by 180
(d) leads the voltage by 180
Ans: b
30. A certain cable has an insulation of relative permittivity
4. If the insulation is replaced by one of relative
permittivity 2, the capacitance of cable will become
(a) one half
(6) double
(c) four times
Ans: a
31. If a cable of homogeneous insulation has a maximum
stress of 10 kV/mm, then the dielectric strength of
insulation should be
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 10 kV/mm
(a) 15 kV/mm
(d) 30 kV/mm
Ans: b
32. In the cables, sheaths are used to
(a) prevent the moisture from entering the cable
(b) provide enough strength
(e) provide proper insulation
Ans: a
33. The intersheaths in the cables are used to
(a) minimize the stress
(b) avoid the requirement of good insulation
(c) provide proper stress distribution
6/9
Ans: c
34. The electrostatic stress in underground cables is
(a) same at the conductor and the sheath
(b) minimum at the conductor and maximum at the sheath
(c) maximum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath
(d) zero at the conductor as well as on the sheath
Ans: c
35. The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be
avoided economically by the use of
(a) intersheaths
(b) insulating materials with different dielectric constants
Ans: c
36. The insulation of the cable decreases with
(a) the increase in length of the insulation
(b) the decrease in the length of the insulation
Ans: a
37. A cable carrying alternating current has
(a) hysteresis losses only
(b) hysteresis and leakage losses only
(c) hysteresis, leakage and copper losses only
(d) hysteresis, leakage, copper and friction losses
Ans: b
38. In a cable the voltage stress is maximum at
(a) sheath
(6) insulator
(e) surface of the conductor
(d) core of the conductor
Ans: d
39. Capacitance grading of cable implies
(a) use of dielectrics of different permeabilities
(b) grading according to capacitance of cables per km
length
(c) cables using single dielectric in different concentrations
(d) capacitance required to be introduced at different
lengths to counter the effect of inductance
Ans: a
40. Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth
(a) to minimise temperature stresses
(b) to avoid being unearthed easily due to removal of soil
(c) to minimise the effect of shocks and vibrations due to
gassing vehicles, etc.
7/9
(d) for all of the above reasons
Ans: c
41. The advantage of cables over overhead transmission
lines is
(a) easy maintenance
(b) low cost
(c) can be used in congested areas
(d) can be used in high voltage circuits
Ans: c
42. The thickness of metallic shielding on cables is usually
(a) 0.04 mm
(b) 0.2 to 0.4 mm
(e) 3 to 5 mm
(d) 40 to 60 mm
Ans: a
43. Cables for 220 kV lines are invariably
(a) mica insulated
(b) paper insulated
(c) compressed oil or compressed gas insulated
(d) rubber insulated
Ans: c
44. Is a cable is to be designed for use on 1000 kV, which
insulation would you prefer ?
(a) Polyvinyle chloride
(b) Vulcanised rubber
(c) Impregnated paper
(d) Compressed SFe gas
Ans: d
45. If a power cable and a communication cable are to run
parallel the minimum distance between the two, to avoid
interference, should be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 400 cm
Ans: c
46. Copper as conductor for cables is used as
(a) annealed
(b) hardened and tempered
(c) hard drawn
(d) alloy with chromium
Ans: a
47. The insulating material should have
(a) low permittivity
(b) high resistivity
(c) high dielectric strength
8/9
Ans: d
48. The advantage of oil filled cables is
(a) more perfect impregnation
(b) smaller overall size
(c) no ionisation, oxidation and formation of voids

Ans: d
49. The disadvantage with paper as insulating material is
(a) it is hygroscopic
(6) it has high capacitance
(c) it is an organic material
Ans: a
50. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends on
(a) presence of moisture
(b) working temperature
(c) time of application of the voltage
Ans: d
51. It is difficult to maintain oil filled cables.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
51. In capacitance grading a homogeneous dielectric is
used.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
52. In congested areas where excavation is expensive and
inconvenient draw in system of laying of underground
cables
is often adopted.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
53. Natural rubber is obtained from milky sap of tropical
trees.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
54. Rubber is most commonly used insulation in cables.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
59. Polyethylene has very poor dielectric and ageing
properties.
(a) Yes
9/9
(b) No
Ans: b
60. The metallic sheath may be made of lead or lead alloy
or of aluminium.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
4 Responses to 60 TOP MOST CABLES Electrical

MANUALSMCQsSEMINAR
TOPICSGATECAT
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papu says:
June 30, 2016 at 6:41 am
I think q.no 38 ans is e
Reply
snehalata says:
April 17, 2016 at 2:27 pm
Question no 38,ans is d
Reply
santosh murkut says:
April 9, 2016 at 2:16 am
Please explain Q38.
I think it should be c.
i.e maximum vtg stress on surface of conductor
Reply
Anil Pandey says:
July 21, 2016 at 6:58 am
v/g stress in insulator(around the conductor) is maximum at
the conductor surface but maximum stress in overall cable
is at the center
of the core.
Reply
8/28/2016 100 TOP MOST Electrical Engineering
Materials Objective
Type Questions and Answers Electrical Engineering
http://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/electricalenginee
ringmaterialselectricalengineeringobjectivetypequestionsan
danswers/
1/15
100 TOP MOST Electrical Engineering Materials
100 TOP MOST Electrical Engineering Materials
1. The converse of hardness is known as
(a) malleability
(b) toughness
(c) softness
Ans: c
2. On which of the following factors does the resistivity of
a material depend ?
(a) Resistance of the conductor
(b) Area of the conductor section
(c) Length of the conductor
Ans: d
3. is a negatively charged particle present in an atom.
(a) Proton
(b) Neutron
(c) Electron
Ans: c
4. The formula ____ determines the number of electrons
that can be accommodated in any level.
(a) 2n2
(6) 4n2
(c) 2n3
(d) 4ns
Ans: a
5. The tiny block formed by the arrangement of a small
group of atoms is called the
(a) unit cell
for freshers.
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Materials Objective
danswers/
2/15
(b) space lattice
Ans: a
6. The coordination
number of a simple cubic structure is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: c
7. The covalent bond is formed by
(a) transfer of electrons between atoms
(b) sharing of electrons between atoms
(e) sharing of variable number of electrons by a variable
number of atoms
Ans: b
8. A perfect conductor has
(a) zero conductivity
(b) unity conductivity
(c) infinite conductivity
Ans: c
9. The metal having the lowest temperature coefficient of

resistance is
(a) gold
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) kanthal
Ans: a
10. Commonly used conducting materials are
(a) copper
(b) aluminium
(d) copper and silver
(e) platinum and gold
Ans: c
11. Which of the following materials is preferred for
transmitting electrical energy over long distance ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel reinforced copper
(d) Steel reinforced aluminium
Ans: d
12. The kinetic energy of a bounded electron is
(a) less than that of unbounded electron
(6) greater than that of unbounded electron
Materials Objective
danswers/
3/15
(c) equal to that of unbounded electron
(d) infinite
Ans: a
13. A highly conductive material must have
(a) highest conductivity
(b) lowest temperature coefficient
(c) good mechanical strength
(d) good corrosion resistance
(e) easy solderable and drawable quality
(f) all of the above
Ans: f
14. The conductivity of a conductor can be increased by
(a) decreasing its temperature
(b) increasing its temperature
(c) decreasing its vibration
(d) increasing its vibration
Ans: a
15. Superconductivity is observed for
(a) infrared frequencies
(b) d.c. and low frequency
(c) a.c. and high frequency
(d) frequencies having no effect
Ans: b
16. The superconductivity is due to
(a) the crystal structure having no atomic vibration at 0K
(b) all electrons interact in the superconducting
state
(c) the electrons jump into nucleus at 0K

Ans: a
17. The value of critical field below the transition
temperature will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
Ans: a
18. In a superconductor the value of critical density
depends upon
(a) magnetic field strength
(b) temperature
Ans: d
Materials Objective
danswers/
4/15
19. Superconductors are becoming popular for use in
(a) generating very strong magnetic field
(b) manufacture of bubble memories
(c) generating electrostatic field
(d) generating regions free from magnetic field
Ans: a
20. High resistivity materials are used in
(a) precision instruments
(6) heating elements
(c) motor starters
(d) incandescent lamps
Ans: e
21. Mercury as an electric contact material is
(a) a liquid
(b) a metal
(c) a metal liquid
(d) a gas
Ans: c
22. An H.R.C. fuse is
(a) a ceramic body having metal and caps
(b) a wire of platinum
(c) a heavy crosssection
of copper or aluminium
(d) a ceramic tube having carbon rod inside it
Ans: a
23. Which of the following resistive materials has the
lowest temperature coefficient
of resistance ?
(a) Nichrome
(b) Constantan
(c) Kanthal
(d) Molybdenum
Ans: a
24. The coils of D.C. motor starter are wound with wire of
(a) copper
(b) kanthal
(c) manganin
(d) nichrome
Ans: c
25. The conductors have transport phenomena of electrons
due to
(a) electric field
(b) magnetic field
(c) electromagnetic field
Ans: a
Materials Objective
danswers/
5/15
26. The transition temperature of mercury is
(a) 18.0K
(6) 9.22K
(c) 4.12K
(d) 1.14K
Ans: c
27. By increasing impurity content in the metal alloy the
residual resistivity always
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(d) becomes temperature independent
Ans: b
28. The structure sensitive property of a super conductor is
(a) critical magnetic field
(b) transition temperature
(c) critical current density
Ans: c
29. At transition temperature the value of critical field is
(a) zero
(6) negative real value
(c) positive real value
(d) complex value
Ans: a
30. Which of the following variety of copper has the best
conductivity ?
(a) Induction hardened copper
(b) Hard drawn copper
(c) Pure annealed copper
(d) Copper containing traces of silicon
Ans: c
31. Constantan contains
(a) silver and tin
(b) copper and tungsten
(c) tungsten and silver
(d) copper and nickel
Ans: d
32. Which of the following is the poorest conductor of
electricity ?
(a) Carbon
(b) Steel
(c) Silver
(d) Aluminium
Ans: a
33 ______ has zero temperature coefficient

of resistance.
(a) Aluminium
Materials Objective
danswers/
6/15
(b) Carbon
(c) Porcelain
(d) Manganin
Ans: d
34. Piezoelectric materials serve as a source of _____ .
(a) resonant waves
(b) musical waves
(c) microwaves
(d) ultrasonic waves
Ans: d
35. In thermocouples which of the following pairs is
commonly used ?
(a) Copperconstantan
(b) Aluminiumtin
(c) SilverGerman
silver
(d) Ironsteel
Ans: a
36 is viscoelastic.
(a) Castiron
(6) Graphite
(c) Rubber
(d) Glass
Ans: c
37. Carbon electrodes are not used in
(a) GLS lamps
(b) electric arc furnace
(c) dry cells
(d) cinema projectors
Ans: a
38. Solder is an alloy of
(a) copper and aluminium
(b) tin and lead
(c) nickel, copper and zinc
(d) silver, copper and lead
Ans: b
39 ______ is most commonly used for making magnetic
recording tape
(a) Silver nitrate
(b) Ferric oxide
(c) Small particles of iron
(d) Siliconiron
Ans: b
40. Overhead telephone wires are made of
(a) aluminium
(b) steel
(c) ACSR conductors
Materials Objective
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(d) copper
Ans: b
41. ______ is an example of piezoelectric material.
(a) Glass
(b) Quartz
(c) Corrundum
(d) Neoprene
Ans: b
42. _____ is the main constituent of glass
(a) Fe203
(b) Si02
(c) AI2O3
(d) B2O3
Ans: b
43. A good electric contact material should have all of the
following properties except
(a) high resistivity
(b) high resistance to corrosion
(c) good thermal conductivity
(d) high melting point
Ans: a
44. Most of the common metals have _____ structure.
(a) linear
(b) hexagonal
(c) orthorhombic
(d) cubic
Ans: d
45. Which of the following affect greatly the resistivity of
electrical conductors ?
(a) Composition
(b) Pressure
(c) Size
(d) Temperature
Ans: a
46. Thermonic emission occurs in
(a) vacuum tubes
(b) copper conductors
(c) ferrite cores
(d) transistors
Ans: a
47. _____ is a hard solder.
(a) Tinlead
(6) Tinsilverlead
(c) Copperzinc
Ans: c
Materials Objective
danswers/
8/15
48. Addition of 0.3 to 4.5% silicon to iron _____ the
electrical resistivity of iron.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) does not change

Ans: a
49. Super conductivity can be destroyed by
(a) adding impurities
(b) reducing temperatures
(c) application of magnetic field
Ans: c
50. Nonlinear
resistors
(a) produce harmonic distortion
(b) follows Ohms law at low temperatures only
(c) result in nonuniform
heating
Ans: a
51. A carbon resistor contains
(a) carbon crystals
(b) solid carbon granules
(c) pulverized coal
(d) finely divided carbon black.
Ans: d
52. Which of the following materials does not have
covalent bonds ?
(a) Organic polymers
(b) Silicon
(c) Metals
Ans: c
53. In graphite, bonding is
(a) covalent
(b) metallic
(c) Vander Waals
(d) Vander Waals and covalent
Ans: d
54. Total number of crystal systems is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 12
Ans: c
55. The number of atoms per unit cell in B.C.C. structure is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
Materials Objective
danswers/
9/15
(d) 8
Ans: b
56. The conductivity of a metal is determined by
(a) the electronic concentration and the mobility of the free
electrons
(6) the number of valence electrons per atom
Ans: a
57. The resistivity of a metal is a function of temperature

because
(a) the amplitude of vibration of the atoms varies with
temperature
(b) the electron density varies with temperature
(c) the electron gas density varies with temperature
Ans: a
58. In a crystal, an atom vibrates at a frequency determined
by
(a) the heat content of the crystal
(b) the temperature of the crystal
(c) the stiffness of the bonds it makes with neighbors
Ans: c
59. Due to which of the following reasons aluminium does
not corrode in atmosphere ?
(a) Aluminium is a noble metal
(b) Atmospheric oxygen can only diffuse very slowly
through the oxide layer which is formed on the surface of
aluminium
(c) No reaction with oxygen occurs ft Any of the above
Ans: b
60. The impurity atoms is semiconductors
(a) inject more charge carriers
(6) reduce the energy gap
(c) increase the kinetic energy of valence electrons
Ans: b
61. Which of the following material is not a
semiconductor ?
(a) Silica
(b) Germanium
(c) Selenium
(d) Galliumarsenide
Ans: a
62. Carbon resistors are used extensively because they are
(a) easy to make
(b) compact
(c) inexpensive
(d) all of the above reasons
Ans: d
63. Carbon rods are used in wet and dry cells because
(a) carbon rod serves as conductor
Materials Objective
danswers/
10/15
(b) carbon can resist the attack of battery acid
Ans: c
64. Due to which of the following factors the brush wear
rate is altered ?
(a) Speed of the machine
(b) Contact pressure
(c) Surface conditions of brush and commutator
(d) Excessive sparking
Ans: e
65. Which of the following are nonconductors

of electricity?
(a) Nonmetal
solids except carbon
(b) Air and most other gases
(c) Pure water and liquids in general except mercury
Ans: d
66. Carbon bearings are used under which of the following
conditions ?
(a) Where lubrication is difficult or impossible
(b) Where corrosive chemical action exists
(c) Where high temperature exists
Ans: d
67. Which of the following high resistance materials has
the highest operating temperature ?
(a) Kanthal
(b) Manganin
(c) Nichrome
(d) Eureka
Ans: a
68. Steel wire is used as
(a) overhead telephone wire
(b) earth wire
(c) core wire of ACSR
Ans: d
69. Low resistivity materials are used in
(a) transformer, motor and generator windings
(b) transmission and distribution lines
(c) house wiring
(d) all above applications
Ans: d
70. Platinum is used in
(a) electrical contacts
(b) thermocouple
Materials Objective
danswers/
11/15
(c) heating element in high temperature furnace
(d) grids of special purpose vacuum tubes
Ans: e
71. Which of the following is an advantage of stranded
conductor over equivalent single conductor ?
(a) Less liability to kink
(b) Greater flexibility
(c) Less liability to break
Ans: d
72. Due to which of the following reasons copper and
aluminium are not used for heating elements ?
(a) Both have great tendency for oxidation
(b) Both have low melting point
(c) Very large length of wires will be required
Ans: d
73. Copper, even though costly, finds use in the windings of
electrical machines because
(a) copper points offer low contact resistance
(b) copper can be easily soldered and welded
(e) copper windings are less bulky and the machines
become compact
Ans: d
74. Which of the following materials is used for making
coils of standard resistances ?
(a) Copper
(b) Nichrome
(c) Platinum
(d) Manganin
Ans: d
75. Substances whose specific resistance abruptly decreases
at very low temperature are called
(a) insulators
(b) conductors
(c) semiconductors
(d) superconductors
Ans: d
76. Which of the following materials is the best conductor
of electricity ?
(a) Tungsten
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) Carbon
Ans: c
77. is the property of absorbing moisture from atmosphere.
(a) Solubility
(b) Viscosity
(c) Porosity
Materials Objective
danswers/
12/15
(d) Hygroscopicity
Ans: d
78. Thermocouples are mainly used for the measurement of
(a) temperature
(b) resistance
(c) eddy currents
(d) coupling coefficient
Ans: a
79. Due to which of the following fact, in India, aluminium
is replacing copper ?
(a) Aluminium is more ductile and malleable than copper
(6) Aluminium is available in plenty, cheaper and lighter
than copper
(c) Aluminium has lower resistivity than that of copper
(d) Aluminium has less temperature coefficient
than copper
Ans: b
80. The conduction of electricity, in semiconductors, takes
place due to movement of
(a) positive ions only
(b) negative ions only

(c) positive and negative ions
(d) electrons and holes
Ans: d
81. Which of the following is a semiconductor material ?
(a) Phosphorous
(b) Rubber
(c) Silicon
(d) Aluminium
Ans: c
82. Selenium is _____ semiconductor.
(a) extrnisic
(b) intmisic
(c) Ntype
(d) Ptype
Ans: b
83. ________ has the best damping properties.
(a) Diamond
(b) High speed steel
(c) Mild steel
(d) Cast iron
Ans: d
84. The photoelectric
effect occurs only when the incident light has more than a
certain critical
(a) intensity
(b) speed
(c) frequency
(d) wave length
Ans: c
Materials Objective
danswers/
13/15
85. If the resistance of a conductor does not vary in
accordance with Ohms law it is known as
(a) nonlinear
conductor
(b) reverse conductor
(c) badconductor
(d) nonconductor
Ans: a
86. Spark plug makes use of which of the following
materials for insulation ?
(a) Porcelain
(b) Slate
(c) Asbestos
(d) Glass
Ans: a
87. The forbidden gap in an insulator is
(a) large
(b) small
(c) nil
Ans: a
88. Which of the following factors affect resistivity of
metals ?
(a) Age hardening
(b) Alloying
(c) Temperature
(d) Cold work
Ans: e
89. Effect of moisture on the insulating materials is to
(a) decrease dielectric constant
(b) decrease dielectric strength
(c) decrease insulation resistance
(d) increase dielectric loss
Ans: e
90. Surface resistance of an insulating material is reduced
due to the
(a) smoky and dirty atmosphere
(b) humidity in the atmosphere
Ans: c
91. Superconducting metal in super conducting state has
relative permeability of
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) negative
(d) more than one
Ans: a
Materials Objective
danswers/
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92. In conductors conduction of electricity takes place due
to movement of
(a) electrons only
(b) positive ions only
(c) negative ions only
(d) positive and negative ions
Ans: a
93. The carbon percentage is least in
(a) low carbon steel
(b) wrought iron
(c) cast iron
(d) malleable iron
Ans: b
94. For a particular material the Hall coefficient was found
to be zero. The material is
(a) insulator
(6) metal
(c) intrinsic semiconductor
Ans: b
95. The conductivity of an extrinsic semiconductor with
temperature
(a) decreases
(b) increases
Ans: c
96. The current due to electron flow in conduction band is

the hole current in valence band.
(a) equal to
(b) less than
(c) greater than
Ans: c
97. For a hole which of the following statements is
incorrect ?
(a) Holes can exist in certain semiconductors only
(b) Holes can exist in any material including conductors
(c) Holes may constitute an electric current
(d) Holes can be considered as a net positive charge
Ans: b
98. is an element used in semiconductors whose atoms have
three valence electrons.
(a) An acceptor
(b) A donor
(c) Germanium
(d) Silicon
Ans: a
99. The minority carrier concentration is largely a function
of
(a) forward biasing voltage
Materials Objective
danswers/
15/15
(b) reverse biasing voltage
(c) temperature
(d) the amount of doping
Ans: c
100. For germanium the forbidden energy gap is
(a) 0.15 eV
(b) 0.25 eV
(C) 0.5eV
(d) 0.7eV
Ans: d
2 Responses to 100 TOP MOST Electrical Engineering
Materials Objective Type Questions and Answers
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preetam kumar says:
July 27, 2016 at 11:26 am
very nice collection of questions except some answers are

faulty
Reply
Pramod yadav says:
June 14, 2016 at 4:55 pm
Nice one
Reply
8/28/2016 110 TOP MOST Electrical Machine Design
Electrical
Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Ques
http://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/electricalmachine
designelectricalengineeringobjectivetypequestionsandansw
ers/
1/16
110 TOP MOST Electrical Machine Design Electrical
Engineering Objective Type
110 TOP MOST Electrical Machine Design Electrical
1. Which of the following is the major consideration to
evolve a good design ?
(a) Cost
(b) Durability
(c) Compliance with performance criteria as laid down in
specifications
Ans: d
2 impose limitation on design.
(a) Saturation
(b) Temperature rise
(c) Efficiency
(d) Power factor
(e) All above
Ans: e
3. The efficiency of a machine should be as ______ as
possible to reduce the operating cost.
(a) high
(b) low
Ans: a
4. If an insulating material is operated beyond the
maximum allowable temperature, its life is
(a) drastically increased
(b) drastically reduced
(c) unaffected
Ans: b
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5. The design of mechanical parts is particularly important
in case of _____ speed machines.
(a) low
(b) medium
(c) high
Ans: c
6. In induction motors, the length of air gap in kept as small
as mechanically possible is order to have
(a) low power factor
(b) high power factor
(c) high over load capacity
Ans: b
7. In ______ machines, the size of the shaft is decided by
the critical speed which depends on the deflection of the
shaft.
(a) small
(b) medium
(c) large
(d) any of the above.
Ans: c
8. The length cf air gap to be provided in ______ is
primarily determined by power factor consideration.
(a) d.c. series motor .
(b) d.c. shunt motor
(c) induction motor
(d) synchronous motor
Ans: c
9. Electrical machines having a power output up to about
750 W may be called_______machines.
(a) small size
(b) medium size
(c) large size
Ans: a
10. Electrical machines having power outputs ranging from
a few kW up to approximately 250 kW may be classified as
(a) small size machines
(b) medium size machines
(c) large size machines
Ans: b
11. Commercial available medium size machines have a
speed range of ______ .
(a) 200 to 400 r.p.m.
(b) 600 to 1000 r.p.m.
(c) 1000 to 1500 r.p.m.
(d) 2000 to 2500 r.p.m.
Ans: d
12. The action of electromagnetic machines can be related

to which of the following basic principles ?
(a) Induction
Electrical
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(b) Interaction
(c) Alignment
Ans: d
13. The change in flux linkages can be caused in which of
the following ways ?
(a) The flux is constant with respect to time and is
stationary and the coil moves through it
(b) The coil is stationary with respect to flux and the flux
varies in magnitude with respect to time
(c) Both the changes mentioned above occur together, i.e.,
the coil moves through a time varying field
Ans: d
14 is universally used for windings of electrical machines
because it is easily workable without any possibility of
fracture.
(a) Silver
(b) Steel
(c) Aluminium
(d) Copper
Ans: d
15. Aluminium when adopted as a conductor material in
______ transformers, decreases the overall cost of the
transformer
(a) small size
(b) medium size
(c) large size
(d) any of the above size
Ans: a
16. Which of the following materials is used in the
manufacture of resistance grids to be used in the starters of
large
motors ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel
(d) Castiron
Ans: d
17. Materials exhibiting zero value of resistivity are known
as ______ .
(a) conductors
(b) semiconductors
(c) insulators
(d) superconductors
Ans: d
18. ________ has a lowrelative permeability and is used
principally in field frames when cost is of primary
importance and extra weight is objectionable.
(a) Cast steel
(b) Aluminium
(c) Soft steel

(d) Cast iron
Ans: d
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19 ______is extensively used for those portions of
magnetic circuit which carry steady flux and need superior
mechanical properties ?
(a) Grey castiron
(b) Cast steel
(c) High carbon steel
(d) Stainless steel
Ans: b
20. Hot rolled sheets have ______ value of permeability
(a) zero
(b) low
(c) high
Ans: b
21. The heated parts of an electrical machine dissipate heat
into their surroundings by which of the following
modes of heat dissipation ?
(a) Conduction
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation
Ans: d
22. The heat dissipated by from a surface depends upon its
temperature and its characteristics like colour, roughness
etc.
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
Ans: c
23. The mcrease in heat dissipation by air blasts is due to
increase in
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(e) radiation
(d) any ofthe above
Ans: b
24. On which of the following variables heat convected
depends ?
(a) Power density
(b) Temperature difference between heated surface and
coolant
(c) Thermal resistivity, density, specific heat
(d) Gravitational constant
Ans: e
25. Which of the following methods is used for air cooling
of turboalternators
?
(a) One sided axial ventilation
(b) Two sided axial ventilation
(c) Multiple inlet system

Ans: d
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26. Multiple inlet system of air cooling of turboalternators
can be used for machines of rating upto
(a) 10 MW
(b) 30 MW
(c) 60 MW
(d) 150 MW
Ans: c
27. Which of the following is an advantage of hydrogen
cooling ?
(a) Increase in efficiency
(b) Increase in ratings
(c) Increase in life
(d) Smaller size of coolers
Ans: e
28. The density of hydrogen is _____ times the density of
air.
(a) 0.07
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 3.5
Ans: a
29. Hydrogen has a heat transfer coefficient
_____ times that of air
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.5
(c) 3.5
(d) 4.5
Ans: a
30. The thermal conductivity of hydrogen is ______ times
that of air
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7
Ans: d
31. With conventional hydrogen cooling it is possible to
increase the rating of a single unit to
(a) 50 MW
(b) 100 MW
(c) 200 MW
Ans: c
32. The noise produced by a ______ cooled machine is less
as the rotor moves in a medium of smaller density.
(a) air
(b) hydrogen
Ans: b

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33 cooling is the process of dissipating the armature and
field winding losses to a cooling medium circulating within
the winding insulation (a) Direct
(b) Indirect
(c) Conventional
Ans: a
34. Machines cooled by direct cooling method may be
called
(a) supercharged
(b) inner cooled
(c) conductor cooled
Ans: d
35. In direct cooled system using hydrogen both stator and
rotor conductors are made
(a) solid
(b) hollow
(c) perforated
(d) any ofthe above
Ans: b
36. With direct water cooling it is possible to have ratings
of about
(a) 200 MW
(b) 300 MW
(c) 400 MW
(d) 600 MW
Ans: d
37. The resistivity of water should not be less than
(a) 10 Q m
(b) 100 Q m
(c) 1000 Q m
(d) 2000 Q m
Ans: d
38. Direct water cooling of rotor winding presents
(a) no mechanical difficulties
(b) lesser mechanical difficulties
(c) greater mechanical difficulties
Ans: c
39. The time taken by the machine to attain 0.632 of its
final steady temperature rise is called
(a) heating time constant
(b) cooling time constant
Ans: a
40. In self cooled motors the cooling time constant is about
______ than the heating time constant because cooling
conditions are worse at
standstill.
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(a) 2 to 3 times greater
(b) 3 to 4 times greater
(c) 4 to 5 times greater
Ans: a
41. By which of the following methods motor rating for
variable load drives can be determined ?
(a) Method of average losses
(b) Equivalent current method
(c) Equivalent torque method
(d) Equivalent power method
(e) All of the above.
Ans: e
42. Which of the following methods does not take into
account the maximum temperature rise under variable load
conditions ?
(a) Equivalent power method
(b) Equivalent current method
(c) Method of average losses
(d) Equivalent torque method
Ans: c
43. Which of the following methods is most accurate ?
(a) Equivalent current method
(b) Equivalent power method
(c) Equivalent torque method
(d) Method of average losses
Ans: a
24.44. By which of the following methods the temperature
rise of windings and other parts may be determined ?
(a) Thermometer method
(6) Resistance method
(c) Embedded temperature detector method
Ans: d
24.45. The slot leakage can be calculated by making which
of the following assumptions ?
(a) The current in the slot conductors is uniformly
distributed over their crosssection
(b) The leakage path is straight across the slot and around
the iron at the bottom
(c) The permanence of air paths is only considered. The
reluctance of iron paths is assumed as zero
Ans: d
46. The value of exciting or magnetizing current depends
upon which of the following factors ?
(a) Total m.m.f. required
(b) The number of turns in the exciting winding
(c) The way in which the winding is distributed
Ans: d
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47. Tractive magnets are operated from
(a) a.c. supply
(b) d.c. supply
(c) either a.c. or d.c. supply
Ans: c
48 electromagnets generally function as holding magnets.
(a) Tractive
(b) Portative
(c) Either of the above
Ans: b
49. Which of the following is the commonly used type of
electromagnets ?
(a) Flatfaced
armature type
(b) Horse shoe type
(c) Flatfaced
plunger type
Ans: d
50 are used for construction of core of electromagnets.
(a) Soft magnetic materials
(b) Hard magnetic materials
(c) Either (a) or (b)
Ans: a
51. The design of electromagnets is based upon which of
the following fundamental equations ?
(a) Force equation
(b) Magnetic circuit equation
(c) Heating equation
(d) Voltage equation
Ans: e
52. When the two coil sides forming a coil are spaced
exactly one pole pitch apart they are said to be of
(a) short pitch
(b) full pitch
Ans: b
53 are always double layer type.
(a) Closed windings
(b) Open windings
(c) Either of the above
Ans: a
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54. The distance between the starts of two consecutive coils
measured in terms of coil sides is called
(a) front pitch

(b) winding pitch
(c) commutator pitch
(d) back pitch
Ans: b
55. The winding where dummy coils are used is sometimes
called
(a) duplex winding
(b) triplex winding
(c) forced winding
Ans: c
56. Dummy coil should not be used in
(a) small machines
(b) large machines
Ans: b
57. Power transformers have rating
(a) equal to 50 kVA
(6) equal to 100 kVA
(c) above 200 kVA
Ans: c
58. Power transformers should be designed to have
maximum efficiency
(a) at onefourth
load
(b) at onehalf
load
(c) at or near full load
Ans: c
59. In transformers using hot rolled steel, the crosssection
of the yoke is made about _____ greater than that of the
core
(a) 5 percent
(b) 10 percent
(c) 15 percent
(d) 30 percent
Ans: c
60. Yokes with rectangular crosssection
are used for
(a) small capacity transformers
(b) medium capacity transformers
(c) large capacity transformers
Ans: a
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61. The cold rolled grain oriented steel has ______
permeability in the direction of the grain orientation.
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) nil

Ans: b
62. Cylindrical windings using circular conductors,
employed in transformers, are
(a) single layered
(b) double layered
(c) multilayered
Ans: c
63. Helical windings are used in
(a) distribution transformers
(b) power transformers
(c) shell type transformers
Ans: b
64. Multilayer
helical windings are commonly used in the transformers as
high voltage windings
(a) upto 20 kV
(b) upto 50 kV
(c) upto 80 kV
(d) for 110 kV and above
Ans: d
65. Disc windings are primarily used in
(a) short capacity transformers
(b) medium capacity transformers
(c) high capacity transformers
Ans: c
66. The heat dissipating capability of transformers of
ratings higher than 30 kVA in increased by providing which
of
the following ?
(a) Corrugations
(b) Fins
(c) Tubes
(d) Radiator tanks
Ans: e
67. Transformers with a capacity of up to _____ have a
cooling radiator system with natural cooling
(a) 2 MVA
(b) 5 MVA
(c) 7.5 MVA
(d) 10 MVA
Ans: d
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68. The forced oil and air circulation method is usual one
for transformers of capacities
(a) upto 5 MVA
(b) upto 10 MVA
(c) upto 20 MVA
(d) 30 MVA upwards
Ans: d
69. The flash point of transformer oil should be higher than
(a) 40C
(b) 60C
(c) 80C
(d) 104C
Ans: d
70. The voltage control in electric supply networks in
required on account of which of the following reasons ?
(a) Adjustment of voltage at consumers premises within
statutory limits
(b) Control of active and reactive power
(c) Adjustment of short period daily and seasonal voltage
variations in accordance with variations of load
Ans: d
71. D.C. windings are
(a) sometimes 2layer
type
(b) never 2layer
type
(c) always 2layer
type
Ans: c
72. The usual values of maximum flux densities for
distribution transformers using hot rolled silicon steel are
(a) 0.5 to 0.8 Wb/m2
(b) 0.8 to 1.0 Wb/m2
(c) 1.1 to 1.35 Wb/m2
(d) 1.4 to 1.8 Wb/m2
Ans: c
73. For 275 kV transformers, using cold rolled grain
oriented steel, which of the following values of flux density
may be used?
(a) 1.0 Wb/m2
(b) 1.1 Wb/m2
(c) 1.3 Wb/m2
(d) 1.6 Wb/m2
Ans: d
74. For large power transformers, self oil cooled type or air
blast type which of the following values of current density
may be used ?
(a) 1.0 to 1.2 A/mm2
(b) 1.5 to 2.0 A/mm2
(c) 2.2 to 3.2 A/mm2
(d) 3.2 to 4.2 A/mm2
Ans: c
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75. A current density of _____ is ilsed for large power
transformers with forced circulation of oil or with water
cooling coils
(a) 1.5 to 2.5 A/mm2
(b) 3.5 to 4.5 A/mm2
(c) 4.0 to 5.0 A/mm2
(d) 5.4 to 6.2 A/mm2
Ans: d
76. The high voltage winding is usually which of the
following type ?
(a) Cylindrical winding with circular conductors
(b) Crossover
winding with either circular or small rectangular
conductors
(c) Continuous disc type winding with rectangular
conductors
(d) All of the above types
Ans: d
77. Which of the following is the basic consideration in the
design of insulation ?
(a) Electrical considerations
(b) Mechanical considerations
(c) Thermal considerations
Ans: d
78. A practical formula for determining the thickness of
insulation between low voltage and high voltage windings
is
(a) 1 + 0.2 kVmm
(6) 2 + 0.5 kVmm
(c) 4 + 0.7 kV mm
(d) 5 + 0.9 kV mm
Ans: d
79. The insulation between windings and grounded core
and the insulation between the windings of the same phase
is
called
(a) minor insulation
(b) major insulation
Ans: b
80. The cylindrical windings using circular conductors are
used for current rating of
(a) upto 20 A
(b) upto 40 A
(c) upto 60 A
(d) upto 80 A
Ans: d
81. The surge phenomenon is particularly important in case
of
(a) low voltage transformers
(b) medium voltage transformers
(c) high voltage transformers
Ans: c
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82. Which of the following in an application of D.C.
motors?
(a) Traction
(b) Drives for process industry
(c) Battery driven vehicles
(d) Automatic control

Ans: e
83. D.C. servomotors are used in
(a) purely D.C. control systems
(6) purely AC. control systems
(c) both D.C. and AC. control systems
Ans: a
84. The stator of a D.C. machine comprises of
(a) main poles
(6) interpoles
(c) frame
Ans: d
85. The laminations of the armature of a D.C. machine are
usually _____ thick.
(a) 0.1 to 0.2 mm
(b) 0.2 to 0.3 mm
(c) 0.3 to 0.4 mm
(d) 0.4 to 0.5 mm
Ans: d
86. is usually used for brush rockers
(a) Mild steel
(b) Copper
(c) Aluminium
(d) Castiron
Ans: d
87. ______ brushes are fragile and cause excessive wear of
commutator,
(a) Natural graphite
(b) Hard carbon
(c) Electro graphitic
(d) Metal graphite
Ans: a
88. Which of the following brushes can be used for high
values of current density ?
(a) Metal graphite brushes
(b) Hard carbon brushes
(c) Electrographitic
brushes
(d) Natural graphite brushes
Ans: a
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89 ________ is the common method of applying brushes to
the commntator.
(a) Radial
(b) Trailing
(c) Reaction
Ans: d
90. Which of the following problem arises in D.C. motors
which are fed from thyristor bridge circuits ?
(a) Increased I R losses
(b) Increased core losses
(c) Poor commutation

(d) Change in motor parameters
Ans: e
91. The weight of copper of both armature and field
windings decreases with _____ in number of poles.
(a) increase
(b) decrease
Ans: a
92. In a D.C. machine the number of brush arms is _____
the number of poles.
(a) less than
(b) equal to
(c) greater than
Ans: b
93. In a D.C. machine the current per brush arm should not
be more than
(a) 100 A
(6) 200 A
(e) 300 A
(d) 400 A
Ans: d
94. In a D.C. machine, the value of peripheral speed should
not, normally, exceed
(a) 10 m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 30 m/s
(d) 40 m/s
Ans: c
95. In D.C. machines the width of the duct is usually
(a) 4 mm
(b) 6 mm
(c) 8 mm
(d) 10 mm
Ans: d
96. D.C. machines designed with a large value of air gap
length have
(a) worst, ventilation
(b) poor ventilation
(c) better ventilation
Ans: c
97. In D.C. machines, ir order to prevent excessive
distortion of field form by the armature reaction, the field
mmf must be made
(a) equal to that of armature mmf
(b) less in comparison with the armature mmf
(c) large in comparison with the armature mmf
Ans: c
98. In D.C. machines, the ____ in field mmf results in
increase in size and cost of machines.
(a) increase
(b) decrease
Ans: a
99. The operation of a D.C. machine with large air gap
lengths is comparatively
(a) quiet
(b) noisy
Ans: a
100. Which of the following methods may be adopted to
reduce the effects of armature reaction ?
(a) Increase in length of air gap at pole tips
(b) Increasing reluctance of pole tips
(c) Compensating windings
(d) Interpoles
Ans: e
101. In D.C. machines the usual limit of slot pitch is
(a) between 5 to 10 mm
(b) between 10 to 15 mm
(c) between 15 to 20 mm
(d) between 25 to 35 mm
Ans: d
110. In D.C. machines the number of slots per pole usually
lies
(a) between 2 to 4
(b) between 6 to 8
(c) between 9 to 16
(d) between 20 to 30
Ans: c
CONTROL SYSTEMS Electrical Engineering Objective
Type Questions and
Answers :1.
In an open loop control system
(a) Output is independent of control input
(b) Output is dependent on control input
(c) Only system parameters have effect on the control
output
Ans: a
2. For open control system which of the following
statements is incorrect ?
(a) Less expensive
(b) Recalibration is not required for maintaining the
required quality of the output
(c) Construction is simple and maintenance easy
(d) Errors are caused by disturbances
Ans: b
3. A control system in which the control action is somehow
dependent on the output is known as
(a) Closed loop system
(b) Semiclosed loop system
(c) Open system
Ans: a
4. In closed loop control system, with positive value of
feedback gain the overall gain of the system will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) be unaffected
Ans: a
5. Which of the following is an open loop control system ?
(a) Field controlled D.C. motor
(b) Ward leonard control
(c) Metadyne
(d) Stroboscope
Ans: a
6. Which of the following statements is not necessarily
correct for open control system ?
(a) Input command is the sole factor responsible for
providing the control action
(b) Presence of nonlinearities
causes malfunctioning
(c) Less expensive
(d) Generally free from problems of nonlinearities
Ans: b
7. In open loop system
(a) the control action depends on the size of the system
(b) the control action depends on system variables
(c) the control action depends on the input signal
(d) the control action is independent of the output
Ans: d
8 has tendency to oscillate.
(a) Open loop system
(b) Closed loop system
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
9. A good control system has all the following features
except
(a) good stability
(b) slow response
(c) good accuracy
(d) sufficient power handling capacity
Ans: b
10. A car is raining at a constant speed of 50 km/h, which
of the following is the feedback element for the driver ?
(a) Clutch
(b) Eyes
(c) Needle of the speedometer
(d) Steering wheel
Ans: c
11. The initial response when tne output is not equal to
input is called
(a) Transient response
(b) Error response
(c) Dynamic response
(d) Either of the above
Ans: a
12. A control system working under unknown random
actions is called
(a) computer control system
(b) digital data system
(c) stochastic control system
(d) adaptive control system
Ans: c
13. An automatic toaster is a ______ loop control system.
(a) open
(b) closed
(c) partially closed
Ans: a
14. Any externally introduced signal affecting the
controlled output is called a
(a) feedback
(b) stimulus
(c) signal
(d) gain control
Ans: b
15. A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop
system by which of the following ?
(a) Servomechanism
(b) Feedback
(c) Output pattern
(d) Input pattern
Ans: b
16 is a part of the human temperature control system.
(a) Digestive system
(b) Perspiration system
(c) Ear
(d) Leg movement
Ans: b
17. By which of the following the control action is
determined when a man walks along a path ?
(a) Brain
(b) Hands
(c) Legs
(d) Eyes
Ans: d
18 is a closed loop system.
(a) Autopilot
for an aircraft
(6) Direct current generator
(c) Car starter
(d) Electric switch
Ans: a
19. Which of the following devices are commonly used as
error detectors in instruments ?
(a) Vernistats
(b) Microsyns
(c) Resolvers
Ans: d
20. Which of the following should be done to make an
unstable system stable ?
(a) The gain of the system should be decreased
(b) The gain of the system should be increased
(c) The number of poles to the loop transfer function should
be increased
(d) The number of zeros to the loop transfer function
should be increased
Ans: b
21 increases the steady state accuracy.
(a) Integrator
(b) Differentiator
(c) Phase lead compensator
(d) Phase lag compensator
Ans: a
22. A.C. servomotor resembles
(a) two phase induction motor
(b) Three phase induction motor
(c) direct current series motor
(d) universal motor
Ans: a
23. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which
of the following will not decrease ?
(a) Band width
(b) Overall gain
(c) Distortion
(d) Instability
Ans: a
24. Regenerative feedback implies feedback with
(a) oscillations
(b) step input
(c) negative sign
(d) positive sign
Ans: d
25. The output of a feedback control system must be a
function of
(a) reference and output
(b) reference and input
(e) input and feedback signal
(d) output and feedback signal
Ans: a
26 is an open loop control system.
(a) Ward Leonard control
(b) Field controlled D.C. motor
(c) Stroboscope
(d) Metadyne
Ans: b
27. A control system with excessive noise, is likely to suffer
from
(a) saturation in amplifying stages
(b) loss of gain
(c) vibrations
(d) oscillations
Ans: a
28. Zero initial condition for a system means
(a) input reference signal is zero
(b) zero stored energy
(c) ne initial movement of moving parts
(d) system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its
components
Ans: d
29. Transfer function of a system is used to calculate which
of the following ?
(a) The order of the system
(b) The time constant
(c) The output for any given input
(d) The steady state gain
Ans: c
30. The band width, in a feedback amplifier.
(a) remains unaffected
(b) decreases by the same amount as the gain increase
(c) increases by the sane saaaajajt as the gain decrease
(d) decreases by the same amount as the gain decrease
Ans: c
31. On which of the following factors does the sensitivity
of a closed loop system to gain changes and
load disturbances depend ?
(a) Frequency
(b) Loop gain
(c) Forward gain
Ans: d
32. The transient response, with feedback system,
(a) rises slowly
(b) rises quickly
(c) decays slowly
(d) decays quickly
Ans: d
33. The second derivative input signals modify which of
the following ?
(a) The time constant of the system
(b) Damping of the system
(c) The gain of the system
(d) The time constant and suppress the oscillations
Ans: d
34. Which of the following statements is correct for any
closed loop system ?
(a) All the coefficients
can have zero value
(6) All the coefficients
are always nonzero
(c) Only one of the static error coefficients
has a finite nonzero
value
Ans: c
35. Which of the following statements is correct for a
system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin
close to zero ?
(a) The system is relatively stable
(b) The system is highly stable
(c) The system is highly oscillatory
Ans: c
36. Due to which of the following reasons excessive bond
width in control systems should be avoided ?
(a) It leads to slow speed of response
(b) It leads to low relative stability
(c) Noise is proportional to band width
Ans: c
37. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of
the following ?
(a) Underdamping
(b) Overdamping
(c) Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain
(d) Lowlevel
oscillations
Ans: d
38. In an automatic control system which of the following
elements is not used ?
(a) Error detector
(b) Final control element
(c) Sensor
(d) Oscillator
Ans: d
39. In a control system the output of the controller is given
to
(a) final control element
(b) amplifier
(c) comparator
(d) sensor
Ans: a
40. A controller, essentially, is a
(a) sensor
(b) clipper
(c) comparator
(d) amplifier
Ans: c
41. Which of the following is the input to a controller ?
(a) Servo signal
(b) Desired variable value
(c) Error signal
(d) Sensed signal
Ans:
42. The onoff
controller is a _____ system.
(a) digital
(b) linear
(c) nonlinear
(d) discontinuous
Ans:
43. The capacitance, in forcecurrent
analogy, is analogous to
(a) momentum
(b) velocity
(c) displacement
(d) mass
Ans: d
44. The temperature, under thermal and electrical system
analogy, is considered analogous to
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) capacitance
(d) charge
Ans: a
45. In electricalpneumatic
system analogy the current is considered analogous to
(a) velocity
(b) pressure
(c) air flow
(d) air flow rate
Ans: d
46. In liquid level and electrical system analogy, voltage is
considered analogous to
(a) head
(b) liquid flow
(c) liquid flow rate
Ans: a
47. The viscous friction coefficient,
in forcevoltage
(a) charge
(b) resistance
(c) reciprocal of inductance
(d) reciprocal of conductance
Ans: b
48. In forcevoltage
analogy, velocity is analogous to
(a) current
(b) charge
(c) inductance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
49. In thermalelectrical
analogy charge is considered analogous to
(a) heat flow

(b) reciprocal of heat flow
(c) reciprocal of temperature
(d) temperature
Ans: d
50. Mass, in forcevoltage
(a) charge
(b) current
(c) inductance
(d) resistance
Ans: c
51. The transient response of a system is mainly due to
(a) inertia forces
(b) internal forces
(c) stored energy
(d) friction
Ans: c
52 signal will become zero when the feedback signal and
reference signs are equal.
(a) Input
(b) Actuating
(c) Feedback
(d) Reference
Ans: b
53. A signal other than the reference input that tends to
affect the value of controlled variable is known
as
(a) disturbance
(b) command
(c) control element
(d) reference input
Ans: a
8/28/2016 110 TOP MOST CONTROL SYSTEMS
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54. The transfer function is applicable to which of the
following ?
(a) Linear and timein
variant systems
(b) Linear and timevariant
systems
(c) Linear systems
(d) Nonlinear
systems
Ans: a
55. From which of the following transfer function can be
obtained ?
(a) Signal flow graph
(b) Analogous table
(c) Outputinput
ratio
(d) Standard block system
Ans: a
56 is the reference input minus the primary feedback.
(a) Manipulated variable
(b) Zero sequence

(c) Actuating signal
(d) Primary feedback
Ans: c
57. The term backlash is associated with
(a) servomotors
(b) induction relays
(c) gear trains
Ans:
58. With feedback _____ increases.
(a) system stability
(b) sensitivity
(c) gain
(d) effects of disturbing signals
Ans: a
59. By which of the following the system response can be
tested better ?
(a) Ramp input signal
(b) Sinusoidal input signal
(c) Unit impulse input signal
(d) Exponentially decaying signal
Ans: c
60. In a system zero initial condition means that
(a) The system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of
its components
(b) The system is working with zero stored energy
(c) The system is working with zero reference signal
Ans: a
10/17
61. In a system low friction coefficient
facilitates
(a) reduced velocity lag error
(b) increased velocity lag error
(c) increased speed of response
(d) reduced time constant of the system
Ans: a
62. Hydraulic torque transmission system is analog of
(a) amplidyneset
(b) resistancecapacitance
parallel circuit
(c) motorgenerator
set
Ans:
63. Spring constant in forcevoltage
analogy is analogous to
(a) capacitance
(b) reciprocal of capacitance
(c) current
(d) resistance
Ans: b
64. The frequency and time domain are related through
which of the following?
(a) Laplace Transform and Fourier Integral
(b) Laplace Transform
(c) Fourier Integral
(d) Either (b) or (c)

Ans: a
65. An increase in gain, in most systems, leads to
(a) smaller damping ratio
(b) larger damping ratio
(c) constant damping ratio
Ans: a
66. Static error coefficients are used as a measure of the
effectiveness of closed loop systems for
specified ________ input signal.
(a) acceleration
(b) velocity
(c) position
Ans: d
67. A conditionally stable system exhibits poor stability at
(a) low frequencies
(b) reduced values of open loop gain
(c) increased values of open loop gain
Ans: b
11/17
68. The type 0 system has ______ at the origin.
(a) no pole
(b) net pole
(c) simple pole
(d) two poles
Ans: a
(a) no pole
(b) net pole
(c) simple pole
(d) two poles
Ans: c
(a) no net pole
(b) net pole
(c) simple pole
(d) two poles
Ans: d
71. The position and velocity errors of a type2
system are
(a) constant, constant
(b) constant, infinity
(c) zero, constant
(d) zero, zero
Ans: c
72. Velocity error constant of a system is measured when
the input to the system is unit _______ function.
(a) parabolic
(b) ramp
(c) impulse
(d) step
Ans: b
73. In case of type1
system steady state acceleration is

(a) unity
(b) infinity
(c) zero
(d) 10
Ans: b
74. If a step function is applied to the input of a system and
the output remains below a certain level for all the time, the
system is
(a) not necessarily stable
(b) stable
(c) unstable
(d) always unstable
Ans: a
12/17
75. Which of the following is the best method for
determining the stability and transient response ?
(a) Root locus
(b) Bode plot
(c) Nyquist plot
Ans: a
76. Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of
the following ?
(a) Frequency response
(b) Absolute stability
(c) Relative stability
(d) Time response
Ans: c
77. Addition of zeros in transfer function causes which of
the following ?
(a) Leadcompensation
(b) Lagcompensation
(c) Leadlag
compensation
Ans: b
78. technique is not applicable to nonlinear system ?
(a) Nyquist Criterion
(b) Quasi linearization
(c) Functional analysis
(d) Phaseplane
representation
Ans: a
79. In order to increase the damping of a badly
underdamped system which of following compensators
may be used ?
(a) Phaselead
(b) Phaselag
(d) Either (a) and (b)
Ans: a
80. The phase lag produced by transportation relays
(a) is independent of frequency
(b) is inversehproportional to frequency
(c) increases linearly with frequency

(d) decreases linearly with frequency
Ans: c
81. In a stable control system saturation can cause which of
the following ?
(a) Lowlevel
oscillations
(b) Highlevel
oscillations
(c) Conditional stability
(d) Overdamping
Ans:
13/17
82. Which of the following can be measured by the use of a
tachogenerator ?
(a) Acceleration
(b) Speed
(c) Speed and acceleration
(d) Displacement
Ans: b
83 is not a final control element.
(a) Control valve
(b) Potentiometer
(c) Electropneumatic converter
(d) Servomotor
Ans: b
84. Which of the following is the definition of proportional
band of a controller ?
(a) The range of air output as measured variable varies
from maximum to minimum
(b) The range of measured variables from set value
(c) The range of measured variables through which the air
output changes from maximum to minimum
Ans: c
85. In pneumatic control systems the control valve used as
final control element converts
(a) pressure signal to electric signal
(b) pressure signal to position change
(c) electric signal to pressure signal
(d) position change to pressure signal
Ans: b
86. Pressure error can be measured by which of the
following ?
(a) Differential bellows and straingauge
(b) Selsyn
(c) Strain gauge
(d) Strain gauge and potentiometer
Ans: a
87. Which of the following devices is used for conversion
of coordinates
?
(a) Microsyn
(b) Selsyn
(c) Synchroresolver
(d) Synchrotransformer
Ans: c
88. The effect of error damping is to
(a) provide larger settling lime
(b) delay the response
(c) reduce steady state error
14/17
Ans: c
89 technique gives quick transient and stability response
(a) Root locus
(b) Bode
(c) Nyquist
(d) Nichols
Ans: a
90. A phase lag lead network introduces in the output
(a) lag at all frequencies
(b) lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies
(c) lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies
Ans: c
91. Which of the following is the nonlinearity
caused by servomotor ?
(a) Static friction
(b) Backlash
(c) Saturation
Ans: c
92 can be extended to systems which are timevarying
?
(a) BodeNyquist
stability methods
(b) Transfer functions
(c) Root locus design
(d) State model representatives
Ans: d
93. When the initial conditions of a system are specified to
be zero it implies that the system is
(a) at rest without any energy stored in it
(b) working normally with reference input
(c) working normally with zero reference input
(d) at rest but stores energy
Ans: d
94. Which of the following is an electromagnetically device
?
(a) Induction relay
(b) Thermocouple
(c) LVDT
Ans: c
95. A differentiator is usually not a part of a control system
because it
(a) reduces damping
(b) reduces the gain margin
(c) increases input noise

15/17
(d) increases error
Ans: c
96. If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it
will behave as
(a) oscillatory
(b) critically damped
(c) overdamped
(d) underdamped
Ans: d
97. In a control system integral error compensation
_______ steady state error
(a) increases
(b) minimizes
(c) does not have any effect on
Ans: b
98. With feed back _____ reduces.
(a) system stability
(6) system gain
(c) system stability and gain
Ans: b
99. An amplidyne can give which of the following
characteristics ?
(a) Constant current
(b) Constant voltage
(c) Constant current as well as constant voltage
(d) Constant current, constant voltage and constant power
Ans: d
100. Which of the following can be measured by LVDT?
(a) Displacement
(b) Velocity
(c) Acceleration
Ans: d
101 directly converts temperature into voltage.
(a) Thermocouple
(b) Potentiometer
(c) Gear train
(d) LVDT
Ans: a
102. The transfer function technique is considered as
inadequate under which of the following
conditions ?
(a) Systems having complexities and nonlinearities
16/17
(b) Systems having stability problems
(c) Systems having multiple input disturbances

Ans: d
103. Which of the following is the output of a
thermocouple ?
(a) Alternating current
(b) Direct current
(c) A.C. voltage
(d) D.C. voltage
Ans: d
104. A.C. servomotor is basically a
(a) universal motor
(b) single phase induction motor
(c) two phase induction motor
(d) three phase induction motor
Ans: c
109. The first order control system, which is well designed,
has a
(a) small bandwidth
(b) negative time constant
(c) large negative transfer function pole
Ans: c
110. Which of the following is exhibited by Root locus
diagrams ?
(a) The poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter
values
(b) The bandwidth of the system
(c) The response of a system to a step input
(d) The frequency response of a system
Ans: a
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2 Responses to 110 TOP MOST CONTROL SYSTEMS
Objective Questions and Answers pdf
Temperature Controllers
Azbil Programmable temperature controller with PID
control system
anshul soni says:
August 2, 2016 at 11:57 am
Answer of 71 is option D
Reply
kuldeep says:
May 26, 2016 at 5:15 pm
17/17
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8/28/2016 70 TOP MOST INDUSTRIAL DRIVERS
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70 TOP MOST INDUSTRIAL DRIVERS Electrical
Engineering Objective Type Questions
and Answers
70 TOP MOST INDUSTRIAL DRIVERS Electrical
1. The selection of an electric motor for any application
depends on which of the following factors ?
(a) Electrical characteristics
(b) Mechanical characteristics
(c) Size and rating of motors
(d) Cost
Ans: e
2. For a particular application the type of electricand
control gear are determined by which of the following
considerations ?
(a) Starting torque
(b) Conditions of environment
(c) Limitation on starting current
(d) Speed control range and its nature
Ans: e
3. Which ofthefollowingmotors is preferred for traction
work ?
(a) Universal motor
(d) Threephase
induction motor
Ans:
4 Which of the following motors always starts on load ?
(a) Conveyor motor
(b) Floor mill motor
(c) Fan motor
Ans: d
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5 is preferred for automatic drives.
(a) Squirrel cage induction motor
(b) Synchronous motors
(c) WardLeonard
controlled D.C. motors
Ans: c
6. When the load is above _____ a synchronous motor is
found to be more economical.
(a) 2 kW
(b) 20 kW
(c) 50 kW
(d) 100 kW
Ans: d
7. The load cycle for a motor driving a power press will be
(a) variable load
(b) continuous
(c) continuous but periodical
(d) intermittent and variable load
Ans: d
8. Light duty cranes are used in which of the following ?
(a) Power houses
(b) Pumping stations
(c) Automobile workshops
Ans: d
9. While selecting an electric motor for a floor mill, which
electrical characteristics will be of least significance ?
(a) Running characteristics
(b) Starting characteristics
(c) Efficiency
(d) Braking
Ans: d
10. Which of the following motors are preferred
for overhead travelling cranes ?
(a) Slow speed motors
(b) Continuous duty motors
(c) Short time rated motors
Ans: c
11 is preferred for synthetic fibre mills.
(a) Synchronous motor
(c) Series motor
(d) Shunt motor
Ans: b
12. WardLeonard
controlled D.C. drives are generally used for ______
excavators.
(a) Light duty

Electrical
3/11
(b) Medium duty
(c) Heavy duty
Ans: c
13. Which of the following motors is used for elevators ?
(a) Induction motor
(c) Capacitor start single phase motor
Ans: a
14. Which part of a motor needs maximum attention for
maintenance ?
(a) Frame
(b) Rearing
(c) Stator winding
(d) Rotor winding
Ans: b
15 need frequent starting and stopping of electric motors,
(a) Paper mills
(b) Grinding mills
(c) Airconditioners
(d) Lifts and hoists
Ans: d
16. Which feature, while selecting a.motor for centrifugal
pump, will be of least significance ?
(a) Starting characteristics
(b) Operating speed
(c) Horse power
(d) Speed control
Ans: d
17. _______ motor is a constant speed motor.
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Induction motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
18. The starting torque in case of centrifugal pumps is
generally
(a) less than running torque
(b) same as running torque
(c) slightly more than running torque
(d) double the running torque
Ans: a
19. Which of the following motors are best for the rolling
mills ?
(a) Single phase motors
(b) Squirrel cage induction motors
(c) Slip ring induction motors
Electrical
4/11
(d) D.C. motors

Ans: d
20 is not a part of ball bearing ?
(a) Inner race
(b) Outer race
(c) Cage
(d) Bush
Ans: d
21. The starting torque of a D.C. motor is independent of
which of the following?
(a) Flux
(b) Armature current
(c) Flux and armature current
(d) Speed
Ans: d
22. Rotor of a motor is usually supported on _______
bearings.
(a) ball or roller
(b) needle
(c) bush
(d) thrust
Ans: a
23. For which of the following applications D.C. motors are
still preferred ?
(a) High efficiency operation
(b) Reversibility
(c) Variable speed drive
(d) High starting torque
Ans: c
24. In a paper mill where constant speed is required
(a) synchronous motors are preferred
(b) A.C. motors are preferred
(c) individual drive is preferred
(d) group drive is preferred
Ans: c
25. A reluctance motor
(a) is provided with slip rings
(b) requires starting gear
(c) has high cost
(d) is compact
Ans: d
26. The size of an excavator is usually expressed in terms
of
(a) crowd motion
(b) angle of swing
(c) cubic metres
(d) travel in metres
Ans: c
Electrical
5/11
27. For blowers which of the following motor is preferred ?
(a) D.C. series motor
(d) Wound rotor induction motor
Ans: b
28. Belted slip ring induction motor is almost invariably

used for
(a) water pumps
(b) jaw crushers
(c) centrifugal blowers
Ans: b
29. Which of the following is essentially needed while
selecting a motor ?
(a) Pulley
(b) Starter
(c) Foundation pedal
(d) Bearings
Ans: b
30. Reluctance motor is a
(a) variable torque motor
(b) low torque variable speed motor
(c) self starting type synchronous motor
(d) low noise, slow speed motor
Ans: c
31 method of starting a three phase induction motor needs
six terminals.
(a) Stardelta
(b) Resistance starting
(c) Autotransformer
Ans: a
32. In ______ method of staging three phase induction
motors the starting voltage is not reduced.
(a) autotransformer
(b) stardelta
(c) slip ring
Ans: c
33. In jaw crushers a motor has to often start against
______ load.
(a) heavy
(b) medium
(c) normal
(d) low
Ans: a
34. For a motorgenerator
set which of the following motors will be preferred ?
Electrical
6/11
(b) Slip ring induction motor
(c) Pole changing induction motor
(d) Squirrel cage induction motor
Ans: a
35. Which of the following motors is usually preferred for
kiln drives ?
(a) Cascade controlled A.C. motor
(b) Slip ring induction motor
(c) Three phase shunt wound commutator
motor
Ans: d
36. Heat control switches are used in
(a) transformers
(b) cooling ranges
(c) three phase induction motors
(d) single phase
Ans: b
37 has relatively wider range of speed control.
(6) Ship ring induction motor
(d) D.C. shunt motor
Ans: d
38. In squirrel cage induction motors which of the
following methods of starting cannot be used ?
(a) Resistance in rotor circuit
(b) Resistance in stator circuit
(c) Autotransformer
starting
(d) Stardelta
starting
Ans: a
39. In which of the following applications the load on
motor changes in cyclic order ?
(a) Electric shovels
(b) Cranes
(c) Rolling mills
Ans: d
40. Flame proof motors are used in
(a) paper mills
(b) steel mills
(c) moist atmospheres
(d) explosive atmospheres
Ans: d
41. Which of the following machines has heavy fluctuation
of load ?
(a) Printing machine
(b) Punching machine
(c) Planer
Electrical
7/11
(d) Lathe
Ans: b
42. For derries and winches which of the following drives
can be used ?
(a) Pole changing squirrel cage motors
(b) D.C. motors with Wardleonard
control
(c) A.C. slip ring motors with variable resistance
Ans: d
43. Battery operated scooter for braking uses
(a) plugging
(b) mechanical braking
(c) regenerative braking
(d) rheostatic braking
Ans: b
44 has least range of speed control.
(a) Slip ring induction motor
(c) D.C. shunt motor
(d) Schrage motor
Ans: b
45 has the least value of starting torque to full load torque
ratio.
(d) Slip ring induction motor
Ans: c
46. In case of _______ speed control by injecting e.m.f. in
the rotor circuit is possible,
(a) d.c. shunt motor
(b) schrage motor
(c) synchronous motor
(d) slip ring induction motor
Ans: d
47. A pony motor is used for the starting which of the
following motors ?
(a) Squirel cage induction motor
(b) Schrage motor
Ans: c
48. In ________ the speed can be varied by changing the
position of brushes.
(a) slip ring motor
(b) schrage motor
(c) induction motor
(d) repulsion motor
Ans: b
Electrical
8/11
49. In which of the following applications variable speed
operation is preferred ?
(a) Exhaust fan
(b) Ceiling fan
(c) Refrigerator
(d) Water pump
Ans: b
50. Heavy duty cranes are used in
(a) ore handling plants
(b) steel plants
(c) heavy engineering workshops
Ans: d
51. The travelling speed of cranes varies from
(a) 20 to 30 m/s
(b) 10 to 15 m/s
(c) 5 to 10 m/s
(d) 1 to 2.5 m/s
Ans: d
52. Besides a constant speed a synchronous rotor possesses

which of the following advantages ?
(a) Lower cost
(b) Better efficiency
(c) High power factor
Ans: c
53. By the use of which of the followingm D.C. can be
obtained from AC. ?
(a) Silicon diodes
(b) Mercury arc rectifier
(c) Motor generator set
Ans: d
54. Which of the following motors is preferred when quick
speed reversal is the main consideration ?
(a) Squirrel cage induction motor
(b) Wound rotor induction motor
(e) Synchronous motor
(d) D.C. motor
Ans: d
55. Which ofthefollowing motors is preferred when smooth
and precise speed control over a wide range is desired ?
(a) D.C. motor
(b) Squirrel cage induction motor
(c) Wound rotor induction motor
(d) Synchronous motor
Ans: a
56. For crane travel which of the following motors is
normally used ?
Electrical
9/11
(b) D.C. differentially compound motor
(c) WardLeonard
controlled D.C. shunt motor
(d) AC. slip ring motor
Ans: d
57. The capacity of a crane is expressed in terms of
(a) type of drive
(b) span
(c) tonnes
Ans: c
58. The characteristics of drive for crane hoisting and
lowering are which of the following ?
(a) Precise control
(b) Smooth movement
(c) Fast speed control
Ans: d
59. Which of the following motors is preferred for boom
hoist of a travelling crane ?
(a) Single phase motor
(c) A.C. slip ring motor
(d) WardLeonard
controlled D.C. shunt motor

Ans: c
60. A wound rotor induction motor is preferred, as
compared to squirrel cage induction motor, when major
consideration is
(a) slop speed operation
(b) high starting torque
(c) low windage losses
Ans: b
61. Which of the following motors has series characteristics
?
(a) Shaded pole motor
(b) Repulsion motor
Ans: b
62. Which of the following happens when stardelta
starter is used ?
(a) Starting voltage is reduced
(b) Starting current is reduced
Ans: c
63. For a D.C. shunt motor which of the following is
incorrect 7
(a) Unsuitable for heavy duty starting
(b) Torque varies as armature current
(c) Torquearmature
current is a straight line
Electrical
10/11
(d) Torque is zero for zero armature current
Ans: a
64. For which of the following applications motor has to
start with high acceleration?
(a) Oil expeller
(b) Floor mill
(c) Lifts and hoists
(d) Centrifugal pump
Ans: c
65. Which of the following types of motor enclosure is
safest ?
(a) Totally enclosed
(b) Totally enclosed fan cooled
(c) Open type
(d) Semi closed
Ans: b
66. While selecting motor for an air conditioner which of
the following characteristics is of great importance ?
(a) Type of bearings
(b) Type of enclosure
(c) Noise
(d) Arrangement for power transmission
Ans: c
67. The diameter of the rotor shaft for an electric motor

depends on which of the following ?
(a) r.p.m. only
(b) Horse power only
(c) Horse power and r.p.m.
(d) Horse power, r.p.m. and power factor
Ans: c
68. Which of the following alternatives will be cheaper ?
(a) A 100 H.P. AC. three phase motor
(b) Four motors of 25 H.P. each
(c) Five motors of 20 H.P. each
(d) Ten motors of 10 H.P. each
Ans: a
69. The cost of an induction motor will increase as
(a) horsepower rating increases but r.p.m. decreases
(b) horsepower rating decreases but r.p.m. increases
(c) horsepower rating and operating speed increases
(d) horsepower rating and operating speed decreases
Ans: a
70. In series motor which of the following methods can be
used for changing the flux per pole ?
(a) Tapped field control
(b) Diverter field control
(c) Seriesparallel
control
Electrical
11/11
Ans: d
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OPAMP Circuits Questions and Answers pdf
50 TOP OPAMP Circuits Questions and Answers pdf
OPAMP Circuits Questions and Answers pdf :1.
A non inverting closed loop op amp circuit generally has a
gain factor
A. Less than one
B. Greater than one
C. Of zero
D. Equal to one
Answer :B.
For non inverting amplifier the gain is A = 1 + (Rf/Rin)).
So it will be always more than one
2. If ground is applied to the (+) terminal of an inverting
opamp,
the () terminal will
A. Not need an input resistor
B. Be virtual ground
C. Have high reverse current
D. Not invert the signal
Answer :B.
Other options are not suitable.
3. The closedloop
voltage gain of an inverting amplifier equal to
A. The ratio of the input resistance to feedback resistance
B. The openloop
voltage gain
C. The feedback resistance divided by the input resistance
D. The input resistance
Answer :C
for freshers.
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4. When a number of stages are connected in parallel, the
overall gain is the product of the individual stage gains
A. True
B. False
Answer :B
5. An ideal OPAMP
is an ideal
a) Current controlled Current source
b) Current controlled voltage source

c) Voltage controlled voltage source
d) voltage controlled current source
Answer :C.
The ideal Opamp output voltage is maintained constant. It
is controlled by input voltage.
6. The ideal OPAMP
has the following characteristics.
a) Ri= ,A= ,R0=0
b) Ri=0 ,A= ,R0=0
c) Ri= ,A= ,R0=
d) Ri=0 ,A= ,R0=
Answer :A.
7.Calculate the cutoff frequency of a firstorder
lowpass
filter for R1 = 2.5k and C1 = 0.05F
A. 1.273kHz
B. 12.73kHz
C. 127.3 kHz
D. 127.3 Hz
Answer :A.
Hint: low pass filter cut off frequency f = 1/(2RC)
8. How many opamps
are required to implement this equation
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
Answer :D.
The output voltage of inverting amplifier is Vout = (Rf/
Rin)Vin. By keeping 1 inverting amplifier and three no of
sources (V1, V2, in series corresponding input resistors(R1,
R2, R3), we can get this equation.
9. How many opamps
are required to implement this equation Vo = V1
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer :D.
The voltage follower which has one opamp has the output
of Vo = Vin
3/6
10. An OPAMP has a slew rate of 5 V/ S .The largest sine
wave O/P voltage possible at a frequency of 1 MHZ is
A. 10 volts
B. 5 volts
C. 5/ volts
D. 5/2 volts
Answer :D
Hint: Slew rate is defined as the max. rate of change of
output voltage. Its unit is V/S.
Time period = 1/f = 1/1MHz = 1S
V= Vm. sin(t) = Vm. sin(2f.t)
slew rate = dV/dt = d(Vm. sin(2f.t)/ dt=Vm. 2f. cost
OPAMP Circuits Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
pdf ::
1) An ideal OPAMP
is an ideal
A. Current controlled Current source
B. Current controlled Voltage source
C. Voltage controlled Voltage source
D. Voltage controlled Current source
Answer :C
2) A 741Type
OPAMP
has a gainbandwith
product of 1MHz. A noninverting
amplifier using this opamp & having a voltage gain of 20db
will
exhibit 3db
bandwidth of
A. 50KHz
B. 100KHz
C. 1000/17KHz
D. 1000/7.07KHz
Answer :A
3) An amplifier using an opamp with slew rate SR=1v/sec
has a gain of 40db.If this amplifier has to faithfully amplify
sinusoidal signals from to 20KHz without introducing any
slewrate
induced distortion, then the input signal level exceed
A. 795mV
B. 395mV
C. 795mV
D. 39.5mV
Answer :C
4) The ideal OPAMP
has the following characteristics
A. Ri=,A=,R0=0
B. Ri=0,A=,R0=0
C. Ri=,A=,R0=
D. Ri=0,A=,R0=
Answer :A
5) The approximate input impedance of the opamp circuit
which has Ri=10k, Rf=100k, RL=10k
A.
B. 120k
4/6
C. 110k
D. 10k
Answer :C
6) An opamp has a slew rate of 5V/ S. the largest sine wave
o/p voltage possible at a frequency of 1MHz is
A. 10 V
B. 5 V
C. 5V
D. 5/2 V
Answer :A
7) Assume that the opamp
of the fig. is ideal. If Vi is a triangular wave, then V0 will
be
A. Square wave
B. Triangular wave
C. Parabolic wave
D. Sine wave
Answer :D
8) A differential amplifier is invariably used in the i/p stage
of all opamps.
This is done basically to provide the opamps
with a very high
A. CMMR
B. Bandwidth
C. Slew rate
D. Openloop
gain
Answer :C
9) A differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000.
CMMR=80dB. The common mode gain is given by
A. 2
B. 1
C. 1/2
D. 0
Answer :A
10) In the differential voltage gain & the common mode
voltage gain of a differential amplifier are 48db & 2db
respectively, then its common
mode rejection ratio is
A. 23dB
B. 25dB
C. 46dB
D. 50dB
Answer :C
1) Which of the following amplifier is used in a digital to
analog converter?
(a) Non inverter
(b) Voltage follower
(c) Summer
(d) Difference amplifier
Answer :C
2) Differential amplifiers are used in
(a) Instrumentation amplifiers
(b) Voltage followers
(c) Voltage regulators
(d) Buffers
Answer :A
3) For an ideal opamp,
which of the following is true?
(a) The differential voltage across the input terminals is
zero
(b) The current into the input terminals is zero
(c) The current from output terminal is zero
(d) The output resistance is zero
Answer :C
4) The two input terminals of an opamp are labeled as
a) High and low
b) Positive and negative
c) Inverting and non inverting
d) Differential ans non differential
Answer :C
5) When a stepinput
is given to an opamp
integrator, the output will be
(a) A ramp.
(b) A sinusoidal wave.
(c) A rectangular wave.
(d) A triangular wave with dc bias
Answer :A
6) For an opamp
having differential gain Av and commonmode
gain Ac the CMRR is given by
A. Av + Ac
B. Av / Ac
C. 1 + Av / Ac)
D. Ac / Av
Answer :B
7) Hysteresis is desirable in Schmitttrigger,
because
A. Energy is to be stored/discharged in parasitic
capacitances.
B. Effects of temperature would be compensated.
C. Devices in the circuit should be allowed time for
saturation and desaturation.
D. It would prevent noise from causing false triggering.
Answer :C
8) The output voltage Vo of the above circuit is
(a) 6V
(b) 5V
(c) 1.2V
(d) 0.2V
Answer :B
9) In the above circuit the current ix is
(a) 0.6A
(b) 0.5A
(c) 0.2A
(d) 1/12A
Answer :B
10) Opamp
circuits may be cascaded without changing their input
output relationships
(a) True
(b) False
Answer :A
40 TOP SEMICONDUCTOR THEORY Questions and
Answers pdf | MCQs
A semiconductor is formed by bonds.
A. Covalent
B. Electrovalent
C. Coordinate
D. None of the above
ANS:A
2. A semiconductor has temperature coefficient
of resistance.
Positive
Zero
Negative
None of the above
ANS:C
3. The most commonly used semiconductor is ..
Germanium
Silicon
Carbon
Sulphur
ANS:B
4. A semiconductor has generally valence
electrons.
2
3
6
4
ANS:D
5. The resistivity of pure germanium under standard
conditions is about .
6 x 104
O cm
60
O cm
3 x 106
O cm
6 x 104
O cm
ANS:B
6. The resistivity of a pure silicon is about
100 O cm
6000 O cm
3 x 105 O m
6 x 108
O cm
ANS:B
7. When a pure semiconductor is heated, its resistance
..
Goes up
Goes down
Remains the same
Cant say
ANS:B
8. The strength of a semiconductor crystal comes from
..
Forces between nuclei
Forces between protons
Electronpair
bonds
None of the above
ANS:C
9. When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure
semiconductor, it becomes
An insulator
An intrinsic semiconductor
ptype
semiconductor
ntype
semiconductor
ANS:D
10. Addition of pentavalent impurity to a semiconductor
creates many ..
Free electrons
Holes
Valence electrons
Bound electrons
ANS:A
11. A pentavalent impurity has . Valence electrons
3
5
4
6
ANS:B
12. An ntype
semiconductor is
Positively charged
Negatively charged
Electrically neutral
None of the above
ANS:C
13. A trivalent impurity has .. valence electrons
4
5
6
3
ANS:D
14. Addition of trivalent impurity to a semiconductor
creates many ..
Holes
Free electrons
Valence electrons
Bound electrons
ANS:A
15. A hole in a semiconductor is defined as .
A free electron
The incomplete part of an electron pair bond
A free proton
A free neutron
ANS:B
16. The impurity level in an extrinsic semiconductor is
about .. of pure semiconductor.
10 atoms for 108 atoms
1 atom for 108 atoms
ANS:B
17. As the doping to a pure semiconductor increases, the
bulk resistance of the semiconductor ..
Remains the same
Increases
Decreases
None of the above
ANS:C
18. A hole and electron in close proximity would tend to
.
Repel each other
Attract each other
Have no effect on each other
None of the above
ANS:B
19. In a semiconductor, current conduction is due to ..
Only holes
Only free electrons
Holes and free electrons
None of the above
ANS:C
20. The random motion of holes and free electrons due to
thermal agitation is called .
Diffusion
Pressure
Ionisation
None of the above
ANS:A
21. A forward biased pn junction diode has a resistance of
the order of
O
kO
MO
None of the above
ANS:A
22. The battery connections required to forward bias a pn

junction are
+ve terminal to p and ve terminal to n
ve
terminal to p and +ve terminal to n
ve
terminal to p and ve terminal to n
None of the above
ANS:A
23. The barrier voltage at a pn junction for germanium is
about
5V
3V
Zero
3V
ANS:D
24. In the depletion region of a pn junction, there is a
shortage of ..
Acceptor ions
Holes and electrons
Donor ions
None of the above
ANS:B
25. A reverse bias pn junction has
Very narrow depletion layer
Almost no current
Very low resistance
Large current flow
ANS:B
26. A pn junction acts as a .
Controlled switch
Bidirectional switch
Unidirectional switch
None of the above
ANS:C
27. A reverse biased pn junction has resistance of the order
of
O
kO
MO
28. The leakage current across a pn junction is due to
..
Minority carriers
Majority carriers
Junction capacitance
None of the above
ANS:A
29. When the temperature of an extrinsic semiconductor is
increased, the pronounced effect is on
Junction capacitance
Minority carriers
Majority carriers
None of the above
ANS:B
30. With forward bias to a pn junction , the width of
depletion layer
Decreases
Increases
Remains the same
None of the above
ANS:A
31. The leakage current in a pn junction is of the order of
Aa
mA
kA
A
ANS:D
32. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of free
electrons
Equals the number of holes
Is greater than the number of holes
Is less than the number of holes
None of the above
ANS:A
33. At room temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor has
.
Many holes only
A few free electrons and holes
Many free electrons only
No holes or free electrons
ANS:B
34. At absolute temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor has
.
A few free electrons
Many holes
Many free electrons
No holes or free electrons
ANS:D
35. At room temperature, an intrinsic silicon crystal acts
approximately as
A battery
A conductor
An insulator
A piece of copper wire
ANS:C
::
50 TOP TRANSISTOR BIASING Questions and Answers
pdf | MCQs
TRANSISTOR BIASING Questions and Answers pdf :1.
Transistor biasing represents . conditions
1. a.c.
2. d.c.
3. both a.c. and d.c.
4. none of the above
Ans : 2
2. Transistor biasing is done to keep in the circuit
Proper direct current
Proper alternating current
The base current small
Collector current small
Ans : 1
3. Operating point represents ..
Values of IC and VCE when signal is applied
The magnitude of signal
Zero signal values of IC and VCE
None of the above
Ans : 3
4. If biasing is not done in an amplifier circuit, it results in
Decrease in the base current

Unfaithful amplification
Excessive collector bias
None of the above
Ans : 2
5. Transistor biasing is generally provided by a

.
Biasing circuit
Bias battery
Diode
None of the above
Ans : 1
6. For faithful amplification by a transistor circuit, the
value of VBE should . for a silicon transistor
Be zero
Be 0.01 V
Not fall below 0.7 V
Be between 0 V and 0.1 V
Ans : 3
7. For proper operation of the transistor, its collector should
have
Proper forward bias
Proper reverse bias
Very small size
None of the above
Ans : 2
8. For faithful amplification by a transistor circuit, the
value of VCE should .. for silicon transistor
Not fall below 1 V
Be zero
Be 0.2 V
None of the above
Ans : 1
9. The circuit that provides the best stabilization of
operating point is
Base resistor bias
Collector feedback bias
Potential divider bias
None of the above
Ans : 3
10. The point of intersection of d.c. and a.c. load lines
represents ..
Operating point
Current gain
Voltage gain
None of the above
Ans : 1
11. An ideal value of stability factor is ..
100
200
More than 200
1
Ans : 4
12. The zero signal IC is generally mA in
the initial stages of a transistor amplifier
4
1
3
More than 10
Ans : 2
13. If the maximum collector current due to signal alone is
3 mA, then zero signal collector current should be at least
equal ..
6 mA
mA
3 mA
1 mA
Ans : 3
14. The disadvantage of base resistor method of transistor
biasing is that it
Is complicated
Is sensitive to changes in
Provides high stability
None of the above
Ans : 2
15. The biasing circuit has a stability factor of 50. If due to
temperature change, ICBO changes by 1 A, then IC will
change
100 A
25 A
20 A
50 A
Ans : 4
16. For good stabilsation in voltage divider bias, the current
I1 flowing through R1 and R2 should be equal to or greater
than
10 IB
3 IB
2 IB
4 IB
Ans : 1
17. The leakage current in a silicon transistor is about
the leakage current in a germanium transistor
One hundredth
One tenth
One thousandth
One millionth
Ans : 3
18. The operating point is also called the .
Cut off point
Quiescent point
Saturation point
None of the above
Ans : 2
19. For proper amplification by a transistor circuit, the
operating point should be located at the .. of the
d.c. load The end point
Middle
The maximum current point
None of the above
Ans : 2
20. The operating point on the a.c. load
line
Also line
Does not lie
May or may not lie
Data insufficient
Ans : 1
21. The disadvantage of voltage divider bias is that it has
.
High stability factor
Low base current
Many resistors
None of the above
Ans : 3
22. Thermal runaway occurs when .
Collector is reverse biased
Transistor is not biased
Emitter is forward biased
Junction capacitance is high

Ans : 2
23. The purpose of resistance in the emitter circuit of a
transistor amplifier is to .
Limit the maximum emitter current
Provide baseemitter
bias
Limit the change in emitter current
None of the above
Ans : 3
24. In a transistor amplifier circuit VCE = VCB +
..
VBE
2VBE
5 VBE
None of the above
Ans : 1
25. The base resistor method is generally used in
Amplifier circuits
Switching circuits
Rectifier circuits
None of the above
Ans : 2
26. For germanium transistor amplifier, VCE should
.. for faithful amplification
Be zero
Be 0.2 V
Not fall below 0.7 V
None of the above
Ans : 3
27. In a base resistor method, if the value of changes by
50, then collector current will change by a factor
25
50
100
200
Ans : 2
28. The stability factor of a collector feedback bias circuit
is .. that of base resistor bias.
The same as
More than
Less than
None of the above
Ans : 3
29. In the design of a biasing circuit, the value of collector
load RC is determined by
VCE consideration
VBE consideration
IB consideration
None of the above
Ans : 1
30. If the value of collector current IC increases, then the
value of VCE
Remains the same
Decreases
Increases
None of the above
Ans : 2
31. If the temperature increases, the value of VCE
Remains the same

Is increased
Is decreased
None of the above
Ans : 3
32. The stabilisation of operating point in potential divider
method is provided by .
RE consideration
RC consideration
VCC consideration
None of the above
Answer: 1
33. The value of VBE .
Depends upon IC to moderate extent
Is almost independent of IC
Is strongly dependant on IC
None of the above
Ans : 2
34. When the temperature changes, the operating point is
shifted due to .
Change in ICBO
Change in VCC
Change in the values of circuit resistance
None of the above
Ans : 1
35. The value of stability factor for a base resistor bias is
RB (+1)
(+1)RC
(+1)
1
Ans : 3
36. In a particular biasing circuit, the value of RE is about
10 kO
1 MO
100 kO
800 O
Ans : 4
37. A silicon transistor is biased with base resistor method.
If =100, VBE =0.7 V, zero signal collector current IC = 1
mA VCC = 6V , what is the value of the base resistor RB?
105 kO
530 kO
315 kO
None of the above
Ans : 2
38. In voltage divider bias, VCC = 25 V R1 = 10 kO R2 =
2.2 V RC = 3.6 V and RE =1 kO. What is the emitter
voltage?
7V
3V
V
8V
Ans : 4
39. In the above question (Q38.) , what is the collector
voltage?
3V
8V
6V
7V
Ans : 1
40. In voltage divider bias, operating point is 3 V, 2 mA. If
VCC = 9 V, RC = 2.2 kO, what is the value of RE ?
2000 O
1400 O
800 O
1600 O
Ans : 3
R
50 TOP TRANSISTORS Questions and Answers pdf |
MCQs
A transistor has
1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
4. four pn junctions
ANS : 2
2. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is
four
three
one
two
ANS : 4
3. The base of a transistor is .. doped
heavily
moderately
lightly
none of the above
ANS : 3
4. The element that has the biggest size in a transistor is
..
collector
base
emitter
collectorbasejunction
ANS : 1
5. In a pnp transistor, the current carriers are .
acceptor ions
donor ions
free electrons
holes
ANS : 4
6. The collector of a transistor is . doped
heavily
moderately
lightly
none of the above
ANS : 2
7. A transistor is a operated device
current
voltage
both voltage and current
none of the above
ANS : 1
8. In a npn transistor, . are the minority carriers
free electrons
holes
donor ions
acceptor ions
ANS : 2
9. The emitter of a transistor is doped
8/28/2016 50 TOP TRANSISTORS Questions and Answers
pdf | MCQs TRANSISTORS Questions
http://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/transistorsquestio
nsanswerspdfmcqs/
3/8
lightly
heavily
moderately
none of the above
ANS : 2
10. In a transistor, the base current is about .. of
emitter current
25%
20%
35 %
5%
ANS : 4
11. At the baseemitter
junctions of a transistor, one finds
a reverse bias
a wide depletion layer
low resistance
none of the above
ANS : 3
12. The input impedance of a transistor is .
high
low
very high
almost zero
ANS : 2
13. Most of the majority carriers from the emitter
..
recombine in the base
recombine in the emitter
pass through the base region to the collector
none of the above
ANS :3
14. The current IB is
electron current
hole current
donor ion current
acceptor ion current
ANS : 1
15. In a transistor ..
IC = IE + IB
IB = IC + IE
IE = IC IB
IE = IC + IB
ANS : 4
16. The value of a of a transistor is .
more than 1
less than 1
1
none of the above
ANS : 2
17. IC = aIE + .
IB
ICEO
ICBO
IB
ANS : 3
18. The output impedance of a transistor is ..
high
zero
low
very low
ANS : 1
19. In a tansistor, IC = 100 mA and IE = 100.2 mA. The
value of is
100
50
about 1
200
ANS : 4
20. In a transistor if = 100 and collector current is 10 mA,
then IE is
100 mA
100.1 mA
110 mA
none of the above
ANS : 2
21. The relation between and a is ..
= 1 / (1 a )
= (1 a ) / a
= a / (1 a )
= a / (1 + a )
ANS : 3
nsanswerspdfmcqs/
5/8
22. The value of for a transistor is generally
..
1
less than 1
between 20 and 500
above 500
ANS : 3
23. The most commonly used transistor arrangement is
arrangement
common emitter
common base
common collector
none of the above
ANS : 1
24. The input impedance of a transistor connected in
.. arrangement is the highest
common emitter
common collector
common base
none of the above
ANS : 2
25. The output impedance of a transistor connected in
. arrangement is the highest
common emitter
common collector
common base
none of the above
ANS : 3
26. The phase difference between the input and output
voltages in a common base arrangement is .
180o
90o
270o
0o
ANS : 4
27. The power gain in a transistor connected in
common emitter
common base
common collector
none of the above
ANS : 1
voltages of a transistor connected in common
0o
180o
90o
270o
ANS : 2
29. The voltage gain in a transistor connected in
common base
common collector
common emitter
none of the above
ANS : 3
30. As the temperature of a transistor goes up, the
baseemitter
resistance
decreases
increases
remains the same
none of the above
ANS : 1
31. The voltage gain of a transistor connected in common
collector arrangement is ..
equal to 1
more than 10
more than 100
less than 1
ANS : 4
voltages of a transistor connected in common collector
arrangement
is
180o
0o
90o
270o
ANS : 2
33. IC = IB + ..
ICBO
IC
ICEO
aIE
ANS : 3
34. IC = [a / (1 a )] IB + .
ICEO
ICBO
IC
nsanswerspdfmcqs/
7/8
(1 a ) IB
ANS : 1
35. IC = [a / (1 a )] IB + [.. / (1 a )]
ICBO
ICEO
IC
IE
ANS : 1
36. BC 147 transistor indicates that it is made of
..
germanium
silicon
carbon
none of the above
ANS : 2
37. ICEO = () ICBO
1+a
1+
none of the above
ANS : 3
38. A transistor is connected in CB mode. If it is not
connected in CE mode with same bias voltages, the values
of IE, IB and will ..
remain the same
increase
decrease
none of the above
ANS : 1
39. If the value of a is 0.9, then value of is ..
9
0.9
900
90
ANS : 4
40. In a transistor, signal is transferred from a
circuit
high resistance to low resistance
low resistance to high resistance
high resistance to high resistance
low resistance to low resistance
ANS : 2
41. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the
direction of .
electron current in the emitter
electron current in the collector
hole current in the emitter
donor ion current
ANS : 3
42. The leakage current in CE arrangement is .
that in CB arrangement
more than
less than
the same as
none of the above
ANS : 1
43. A heat sink is generally used with a transistor to
increase the forward current

decrease the forward current
compensate for excessive doping
prevent excessive temperature rise
ANS : 4
44. The most commonly used semiconductor in the

manufacture of a transistor is .
germanium
silicon
carbon
none of the above
ANS : 2
45. The collectorbase
junction in a transistor has ..
forward bias at all times
reverse bias at all times
low resistance
none of the above
ANS : 2
50 TOP SEMICONDUCTOR DIODE Questions and
Answers pdf | MCQs
SEMICONDUCTOR DIODE Questions and Answers pdf :
1.
A crystal diode has
one pn junction
two pn junctions
three pn junctions
none of the above
ANS: 1
2. A crystal diode has forward resistance of the order of
M
none of the above
ANS: 2
3. If the arrow of crystal diode symbol is positive w.r.t. bar,
then diode is .. biased.
forward
reverse
either forward or reverse
none of the above
ANS: 1
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odequestionsanswerspdfmcqs/
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SEMICONDUCTOR DIODE Questions and Answers pdf
4. The reverse current in a diode is of the order of
.
kA
mA
A
A
ANS: 3
5. The forward voltage drop across a silicon diode is about
2.5 V
3V
10 V
0.7 V
ANS: 4
6. A crystal diode is used as
an amplifier
a rectifier
an oscillator
a voltage regulator
ANS: 2
7. The d.c. resistance of a crystal diode is .. its
a.c. resistance
the same as
more than
less than
none of the above
ANS: 3
8. An ideal crystal diode is one which behaves as a perfect
.. when forward biased.
conductor
insulator
resistance material
none of the above
ANS: 1
9. The ratio of reverse resistance and forward resistance of
a germanium crystal diode is about .
1:1
100 : 1
1000 : 1
40,000 : 1
ANS: 4
10. The leakage current in a crystal diode is due to
.
minority carriers
majority carriers
junction capacitance
none of the above
ANS: 1
11. If the temperature of a crystal diode increases, then
leakage current ..
remains the same
decreases
increases
becomes zero
ANS: 3
12. The PIV rating of a crystal diode is .. that of
equivalent vacuum diode
the same as
lower than
more than
none of the above
ANS: 2
13. If the doping level of a crystal diode is increased, the
breakdown voltage.
remains the same
is increased
is decreased
none of the above
ANS: 3
14. The knee voltage of a crystal diode is approximately
equal to .
applied voltage
breakdown voltage
forward voltage
barrier potential
ANS: 4
15. When the graph between current through and voltage
across a device is a straight line, the device is referred to as
.
linear
active
nonlinear
passive
ANS: 1
16. When the crystal current diode current is large, the bias
is
forward
inverse
poor
reverse
ANS: 1
17. A crystal diode is a device
nonlinear
bilateral
linear
none of the above
ANS: 1
18. A crystal diode utilises .. characteristic for
rectification
reverse
forward
forward or reverse
none of the above
ANS: 2
19. When a crystal diode is used as a rectifier, the most
important consideration is ..
forward characteristic
doping level
reverse characteristic
PIC rating
ANS: 4
20. If the doping level in a crystal diode is increased, the
width of depletion layer..
remains the same
is decreased
in increased
none of the above
ANS: 3
21. A zener diode has ..
one pn junction
two pn junctions
three pn junctions
none of the above
ANS: 1
22. A zener diode is used as .
an amplifier
a voltage regulator
a rectifier
a multivibrator
ANS: 2
23. The doping level in a zener diode is that of
a crystal diode
the same as
less than
more than
none of the above
ANS: 3
24. A zener diode is always connected.
reverse
forward
either reverse or forward
none of the above
ANS: 1
25. A zener diode utilizes .. characteristics for its
operation.
forward
reverse
both forward and reverse
none of the above
ANS: 2
26. In the breakdown region, a zener didoe behaves like a
source.
constant voltage
constant current
constant resistance
none of the above
ANS: 1
27. A zener diode is destroyed if it..
is forward biased
is reverse biased
carrier more than rated current
none of the above
ANS: 3
28. A series resistance is connected in the zener circuit
to..
properly reverse bias the zener
protect the zener
properly forward bias the zener
none of the above
ANS: 2
29. A zener diode is . device
a nonlinear
a linear
an amplifying
none of the above
ANS: 1
30. A zener diode has .. breakdown voltage
undefined
sharp
zero
none of the above
ANS: 2
31. . rectifier has the lowest forward resistance
solid state
vacuum tube
gas tube
none of the above
ANS: 1
32. Mains a.c. power is converrted into d.c. power for

..
lighting purposes
heaters
using in electronic equipment
none of the above
ANS: 3
33. The disadvantage of a halfwave
rectifier is that the.
components are expensive
diodes must have a higher power rating
output is difficult to filter
none of the above
ANS: 3
34. If the a.c. input to a halfwave
rectifier is an r.m.s value of 400/2 volts, then diode PIV
rating is .
400/2 V
400 V
400 x 2 V
none of the above
ANS: 2
35. The ripple factor of a halfwave
rectifier is
2
1.21
7/8
2.5
0.48
ANS: 4
36. There is a need of transformer for ..
halfwave
rectifier
centretap
fullwave
rectifier
bridge fullwave
rectifier
none of the above
ANS: 2
37. The PIV rating of each diode in a bridge rectifier is
that of the equivalent centretap
rectifier
onehalf
the same as
twice
four times
ANS: 1
38. For the same secondary voltage, the output voltage
from a centretap
rectifier is than that of bridge rectifier
twice
thrice
four time
onehalf
ANS: 4
39. If the PIV rating of a diode is exceeded,
the diode conducts poorly
the diode is destroyed
the diode behaves like a zener diode
none of the above
ANS: 2
40. A 10 V power supply would use . as

filter capacitor.
paper capacitor
mica capacitor
electrolytic capacitor
air capacitor
ANS: 3
41. A 1,000 V power supply would use .. as a filter
capacitor
paper capacitor
air capacitor
mica capacitor
electrolytic capacitor
ANS: 1
42. The .. filter circuit results in the best
voltage regulation
choke input
capacitor input
resistance input
none of the above
ANS: 1
43. A halfwave
rectifier has an input voltage of 240 V r.m.s. If the
stepdown
transformer has a turns ratio of 8:1, what is peak load
voltage? Ignore diode drop.
27.5 V
86.5 V
30 V
42.5 V
ANS: 4
44. The maximum efficiency of a halfwave
rectifier is ..
40.6 %
81.2 %
50 %
25 %
ANS: 1
45. The most widely used rectifier is .
halfwave
rectifier
centretap
fullwave
rectifier
bridge fullwave
rectifier
none of the above
ANS: 3
Latest Rectifiers and Converters Questions and Answers
List
1. Which of the following are the applications of D.C.
system ?
(a) Battery charging work
(b) Arc welding
(c) Electrolytic and electrochemical
processes
(d) Arc lamps for search lights
Ans: e
2. Which of the following methods may be used to convert
A.C. system to D.C. ?
(a) Rectifiers
(b) Motor converters

(c) Motorgenerator
sets
(d) Rotary converters
Ans: e
3. In a single phase rotary converter the number of slip
rings will be
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) six
(e) none
Ans: a
4. A synchronous converter can be started
(a) by means of a small auxiliary motor
(b) from AC. side as induction motor
(c) from D.C. side as D.C. motor
(d) any of the above methods
(e) none of the above methods
Ans: d
5. A rotary converter is a single machine with
ROHM/ SiC
Schottky Diodes
Extremely low switching
loss 650V(6A to 40A) 1200V(5A to 40A)
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8/28/2016 60 TOP Rectifiers and Converters Electrical
Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers |
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andconverters.
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(a) one armature and one field
(b) two armatures and one field
(c) one armature and two fields
Ans: a
6. A rotary converter combines the function of
(a) an induction motor and a D.C. generator
(b) a synchronous motor and a D.C. generator.

(c) a D.C. series motor and a D.C. generator
Ans: b
7. Which of the following is reversible in action ?
(a) Motor generator set
(b) Motor converter
(c) Rotary converter
Ans: c
8. Which of the following metals is generally manufactured
by electrolysis process ?
(a) Load
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) Zinc
Ans: b
9. With a motor converter it is possible to obtain D.C.
voltage only upto
(a) 200100
V
(6) 600800 V
(c) 10001200 V
(d) 17002000 V
Ans: d
10. Normally, which of the following is used, when a
largescale
conversion from AC. to D.C. power is required ?
(a) Motorgenerator
set
(b) Motor converter
(c) Rotary converter
(d) Mercury arc rectifier
Ans: d
11. A rotary converter in general construction and design, is
more or less like
(a) a transformer
(b) an induction motor
(c) an alternator
(d) any D.C. machine
Ans: d
12. A rotary converter operates at a
(a) low power factor
(6) high power factor
(c) zero power factor
Ans: b
13. In which of the following appUcations, direct current is
absolutely essential ?
(a) Illumination
(b) Electrolysis
(c) Variable speed operation
(d) Traction
Ans: b
14. Which of the following AC. motors is usually used in
large motorgenerator
sets?
(b) Squirrel cage induction motor
(c) Slip ring induction motor

Ans: a
15. In a rotary converter armature currents are
(a) d.c. only
(b) a.c. only
(c) partly a.c. and partly d.c.
Ans: c
16. In which of the following equipment direct current is
needed ?
(a) Telephones
(b) Relays
(c) Time switches
Ans: d
17. In a rotary converter I2R losses as compared to a D.C.
generator of the same size will be
(a) same
(b) less
(c) double
(d) three times
Ans: b
18. In a mercury arc rectifier positive ions are attracted
towards
(a) anode
(b) cathode
(c) shell bottom
(d) mercury pool
Ans: b
19. Mercury, in arc rectifiers, is chosen for cathode because
(a) its ionization potential is relatively low
(b) its atomic weight is quite high
(c) its boiling point and specific heat are low
(d) it remains in liquid state at ordinary temperature
Ans: e
20. The ionization potential of mercury is approximately
(a) 5.4 V
(b) 8.4 V
(c) 10.4 V
(d) 16.4 V
Ans: c
21. The potential drop in the arc, in a mercury arc rectifier,
varies
(a) 0.05 V to 0.2 V per cm length of the arc
(b) 0.5 V to 1.5 V per cm length of the arc
(c) 2 V to 3.5 V per cm length of the arc
Ans: d
22. The voltage drop between the anode and cathode, of a
mercury arc rectifier comprises of the following
(a) anode drop and cathode drop
(b) anode drop and arc drop
(c) cathode drop and arc drop
(d) anode drop, cathode drop and arc drop
Ans: d
23. Glass rectifiers are usually made into units capable of
D.C. output (maximum continuous rating) of
(a) 100 A at 100 V
(b) 200 A at 200 V
(c) 300 A at 300 V
(d) 400 A at 400 V
(e) 500 A at 500 V
Ans: e
24. The voltage drop at anode, in a mercury arc rectifier is
due to
(a) self restoring property of mercury
(b) high ionization potential
(c) energy spent in overcoming the electrostatic field
(d) high temperature inside the rectifier
Ans: c
25. The internal efficiency of a mercury arc rectifier
depends on
(a) voltage only
(b) current only
(c) voltage and current
(d) r.m.s. value of current
Ans: a
26. If cathode and anode connections in a mercury arc
rectifier are inter changed
(a) the rectifier will not operate
(b) internal losses will be reduced
(c) both ion and electron streams will move in the same
direction
(d) the rectifier will operate at reduced efficiency
Ans: a
27. The cathdde voltage drop, in a mercury arc rectifier, is
due to
(a) expenditure of energy in ionization
(b) surface resistance
(c) expenditure of energy in overcoming the electrostatic
field
(d) expenditure of energy in liberating electrons from the
mercury
Ans: d
28. To produce cathode spot in a mercury arc rectifier
(a) anode is heated
(b) tube is evacuated
(c) an auxiliary electrode is used
(d) low mercury vapour pressures are used
Ans: c
29. The advantage of mercury arc rectifier is that
(a) it is light in weight and occupies small floor space
(b) it has high efficiency
(c) it has high overload capacity
(d) it is comparatively noiseless
Ans: e
30. In a mercury pool rectifier, the voltage drop across its
electrodes
(a) is directly proportional to load
(b) is inversely proportional to load
(c) varies exponentially with the load current
(d) is almost independent of load current
Ans: d
31. In a threephase
mercury arc rectifiers each anode conducts for
(a) onethird
of a cycle
(b) onefourth
of a cycle
(c) onehalf
a cycle
(d) twothird
of a cycle
Ans: a
32. In a mercury arc rectifier characteristic blue luminosity
is due to
(a) colour of mercury
(b) ionization
(c) high temperature
(d) electron streams
Ans: b
33. Which of the following mercury arc rectifier will
deliver least undulating current?
(a) Sixphase
(b) Threephase
(c) Twophase
(d) Singlephase
Ans: a
34. In a glass bulb mercury arc rectifier the maximum
current rating is restricted to
(a) 2000 A
(b) 1500 A
(c) 1000 A
(d) 500 A
Ans: d
35. In a mercury arc rectifier______ flow from anode to
cathode
(a) ions
(b) electrons
(c) ions and electrons
Ans: a
36. When a rectifier is loaded which of the following
voltage drops take place ?
(a) Voltage drop in transformer reactance
(6) Voltage drop in resistance of transformer and smoothing
chokes
(c) Arc voltage drop
Ans: d
37. On which of the following factors the number of phases
for which a rectifier should be designed depend ?
(a) The voltage regulation of the rectifier should be low
(b) In the output circuit there should be no harmonics
(c) The power factor of the system should be high
(d) The rectifier supply transformer should be utilized to
the best advantage
Ans: e
38. A mercury arc rectifier possesses ________ regulation
characteristics
(a) straight line
(b) curved line
(c) exponential
Ans: d
39. It is the_______of the transformer on which the
magnitude of angle of overlap depends.
(a) resistance
(b) capacitance
(c) leakage reactance
Ans: c
41. In a grid control of mercury arc rectifiers when the grid

is made positive relative to cathode, then it the electrons on
their may to anode.
(a) accelerates
(b) decelerates
Ans: a
42. In mercury arc rectifiers having grid, the arc can be
struck between anode and cathode only when the grid
attains a
certain potential, this potential being known as
(a) maximum grid voltage
(b) critical grid voltage
Ans: b
43. In phaseshift
control method the control is carried out by varying the of
grid voltage.
(a) magnitude
(b) polarity
(c) phase
Ans: c
16.44. In a phaseshift
control method, the phase shift between anode and grid
voltages can be achieved by means of
(a) shunt motor
(6) synchronous motor
(c) induction regulator
(d) synchronous generator
Ans: c
45. The metal rectifiers are preferred to valve rectifiers due
to which of the following advantages ?
(a) They are mechanically strong
(b) They do not require any voltage for filament heating
Ans: c
46. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(a) Copper oxide rectifier is a linear device
(b) Copper oxide rectifier is not a perfect rectifier
(c) Copper oxide rectifier has a low efficiency
(d) Copper oxide rectifier finds use in control circuits
(e) Copper oxide rectifier is not stable during early life
Ans: a
47. The efficiency of the copper oxide rectifier seldom
exceeds
(a) 90 to 95%
(b) 85 to 90%
(c) 80 to 85%
(d) 65 to 75%
Ans: d
48. Copper oxide rectifier is usually designed not to operate
above
(a) 10C
(b) 20C
(c) 30C
(d) 45C
Ans: d
49. Selenium rectifier can be operated at temperatures as

high as
(a) 25C
(b) 40C
(c) 60C
(d) 75C
Ans: d
50. In selenium rectifiers efficiencies ranging from ______
to ______ percent are attainable
(a) 25, 35
(b) 40, 50
(c) 60, 70
(d) 75, 85
Ans: d
51. Ageing of a selenium rectifier may change the output
voltage by
(a) 5 to 10 per cent
(b) 15 to 20 per cent
(c) 25 to 30 per cent
Ans: a
52. The applications of selenium rectifiers are usually
limited to potential of
(a) 10 V
(b) 30 V
(c) 60 V
(d) 100 V
(e) 200 V
Ans: d
53. Which of the following rectifiers have been used
extensively in supplying direct current for electroplating ?
(a) Copper oxide rectifiers
(b) Selenium rectifiers
(c) Mercury arc rectifiers
(d) Mechanical rectifiers
Ans: b
54. A commutating rectifier consists of commutator driven
by
(a) an induction motor
(b) a synchronous motor
(c) a D.C. series motor
(d) a D.C. shunt motor
Ans: b
55. Which of the following rectifiers are primarily used for
charging of low voltage batteries from AC. supply ?
(a) Mechanical rectifiers
(b) Copper oxide rectifiers
(c) Selenium rectifiers
(d) Electrolytic rectifiers
(e) Mercury arc rectifiers
Ans: d
56. The efficiency of an electrolytic rectifier is nearly
(a) 80%
(b) 70%
(c) 60%
(d) 40%
Ans: c
57. Which of the following is the loss within the mercury
arc rectifier chamber ?
(a) Voltage drop in arc
(6) Voltage drop at the anode
(c) Voltage drop at the cathode

Ans: d
58. The metal rectifiers, as compared to mercury arc
rectifiers
(a) operate on low temperatures
(b) can operate on high voltages
(c) can operate on heavy loads
(d) give poor regulation
Ans: a
59. In a mercury arc rectifier, the anode is usually made of
(a) copper
(b) aluminium
(c) silver
(d) graphite
(e) tungsten
Ans: d
60. The ignited or auxiliary anode in mercury arc rectifier is
made of
(a) graphite
(b) boron carbide
(c) aluminium
(d) copper
Ans: b
Latest Power Plant Engineering Interview Questions and
Answers List
1. The commercial sources of energy are
(a) solar, wind and biomass
(b) fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
(c) wood, animal wastes and agriculture wastes
Ans: b
3. In India largest thermal power station is located at
(a) Kota
(b) Sarni
(c) Chandrapur
(d) Neyveli
Ans: c
4. The percentage O2 by Weight in atmospheric air is
(a) 18%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: b
5. The percentage 02 by volume in atmosphere air is
(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: a
6. The proper indication of incomplete combustion is
(a) high CO content in flue gases at exit
(b) high CO2 content in flue gases at exit
(c) high temperature of flue gases
(d) the smoking exhaust from chimney
Ans: a
7. The main source of production of biogas is
(a) human waste
(b) wet cow dung
(c) wet livestock waste
(d) all above

Ans: d
8. India's first nuclear power plant was installed at
(a) Tarapore
(b) Kota
(c) Kalpakkam
Ans: a
9. In fuel cell, the ______ energy is converted into
electrical energy.
(a) mechanical
(b) chemical
(c) heat
(d) sound
Ans: b
10. Solar thermal power generation can be achieved by
(a) using focusing collector or heliostates
(b) using flat plate collectors
(c) using a solar pond
(d) any of the above system
Ans: d
11. The energy radiated by sun on a bright sunny day is
approximately
(a) 700 W/m2
(b) 800 W/m2
(c) 1 kW/m2
(d) 2 kW/m2
Ans: c
12. Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable for India
because
(a) these develop more power
(b) its technology is simple
(c) abundance of thorium deposits are available in India
(d) these can be easily designed
Ans: c
13. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal
to
(a) Rankine cycle efficiency
(b) Carnot cycle efficiency
(c) Regenerative cycle efficiency
(d) Boiler efficiency x turbine efficiency x generator
efficiency
Ans: c
14. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant
may be in the range of
(a) 15 to 20 per cent
(6) 35 to 45 per cent
(c) 70 to 80 per cent
(d) 90 to 95 per ceut
Ans: b
15. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 an
1 high pressure limit of p2
(a) has higher the renal efficiency than the carnot cycle
operating between same pressure limits
(b) has lower the"nal efficiency than carnot cycle operating
between same pressure limit?
(c) has same thermal efficiency as carnot cycle operating
between same pressure limits
(d) may be more or less depending upon the magnitude of
p1 and p2
Ans: a
16. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant
(a) improves in summer as compared to that in winter

(6) improves in winter as compared to that in summer
(c) is unaffected by climatic conditions
Ans: b
17. Carnot cycle comprises of
(a) two isentropic processes and two constant volume
processes
(b) two isentropic processes and two constant pressure
processes
(e) two isothermal processes and three constant pressure
processes
Ans: b
18. In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is
given by
(a) change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
(b) change of enthaply between inlet and outlet
(c) change of entropy between inlet and outlet
(d) change of temperature between inlet and outlet
Ans: b
19. Regenerative cycle thermal efficiency
(a) is always greater than simple Rankine thermal
efficiency
(b) is greater than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
only when steam is bled at particular pressure
(c) is same as simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
(d) is always less than simple Rankine cycle thermal
efficiency
Ans: a
20. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the optimum value
of the fraction of steam extracted for feed heating
(a) decreases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
(b) increases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
(c) is unaffected by increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
Ans: b
21. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the greatest
economy is affected
(a) when steam is extracted from only one suitable point of
steam turbine
(b) when steam is extracted from several places in different
stages of steam turbine
(c) when steam is extracted only from the last stage of
steam turbine
(d) when steam is extracted only from the first stage of
steam turbine
Ans: b
22. The maximum percentage gain in Regenerative feed
heating cycle thermal efficiency
(a) increases with number of feed heaters increasing
(b) decreases with number of feed heaters increasing
(c) remains same unaffected by number of feed heaters
Ans: a
23. In regenerative cycle feed water is heated by
(a) exhaust gases
(b) heaters
(c) draining steam from the turbine
(d) all above
Ans: c
24. Reheat cycle in steam power plant is used to
(a) utilise heat of flue gases

(b) increase thermal efficiency
(c) improve condenser performance
(d) reduce loss of heat
Ans: b
25. Mercury is a choice with steam in binary vapour cycle
because it has
(a) higher critical temperature and pressure
(b) higher saturation temperature than other fluids
(c) relatively low vapourisation pressure
(d) all above
Ans: d
26. Binary'vapour cycles are used to
(a) increase the performance of the condenser
(b) increase the efficiency of the plant
(c) increase efficiency of the turbine
Ans: b
27. A steam power station requires space
(a) equal to diesel power station
(b) more than diesel power station
(c) less than diesel power station
Ans: b
28. Economiser is used to heat
(a) air
(b) feed water
(c) flue gases
(d) all above
Ans: b
29. The modern steam turbines are
(a) impulse turbines
(b) reaction turbines
(c) impulsereaction
turbines
Ans: c
30. The draught which a chimney produces is called
(a) induced draught
(b) natural draught
(c) forced draught
(d) balanced draught
Ans: b
31. The draught produced by steel chimney as compared to
that produced by brick chimney for the same height is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) may be more or less
Ans: b
32. In a boiler installation the natural draught is produced
(a) due to the fact that furnace gases being light go through
the chimney giving place to cold air from outside to rush in
(b) due to the fact that pressure at the grate due to cold
column is higher than the pressure at the chimney base due
to
hot column
(c) due to the fact that at the chimney top the pressure is
more than its environmental pressure
Ans: b
33. The draught produced, for a given height of the
chimney and given mean temperature of chimney gases
(a) decreases with increase in outside air temperature
(b) increases with increase in outside air temperature

(c) remains the same irrespective of outside air temperature
(d) may increase or decrease with increase in outside air
temperature
Ans: a
34. The draught produced by chimney of given height at
given outside temperature
(a) decreases if the chimney gas temperature increases
(b) increases if the chimney gas temperature increases
(c) remains same irrespective of chimney gas temperature
(d) may increase or decrease
Ans: b
35. For forced draught system, the function of chimney is
mainly
(a) to produce draught to accelerate the combustion of fuel
(b) to discharge gases high up in the atmosphere to avoid
hazard
(c) to reduce the temperature of the hot gases discharged
Ans: b
36. Artificial draught is produced by
(a) induced fan
(b) forced fan
(c) induced and forced fan
Ans: d
37. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by
(a) forced fan
(b) chimney
(c) steam jet
(d) only motion of locomotive
Ans: c
38. For the same draught produced the power of induced
draught fan as compared to forced draught fan is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) not predictable
Ans: b
39. Artificial draught is produced by
(a) air fans
(b) steam jet
(c) fan or steam jet
Ans: d
40. The artificial draught normally is designed to produce
(a) less smoke
(b) more draught
(c) less chimney gas temperature
Ans: d
41. For the induced draught the fan is located
(a) near bottom of chimney
(b) near bottom of furnace
(c) at the top of the chimney
(D) anywhere permissible
Ans: a
42. The pressure at the furnace is minimum in case of
(a) forced draught system
(b) induced draught system
(c) balanced draught system
(d) natural draught system
Ans: c
43. The efficiency of chimney is approximately
(a) 80%
(b) 40%
(c) 20%
(d) 0.25%
Ans: d
44. The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for
the steam initially superheated at inlet is approximated by
equation
(a) pvls=C
(b) pv1126 = C
(c) pv1A = C
(d) pv = C
Ans: a
45. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for maximum
mass flow rate per unit area of steam through a nozzle
when
steam is initially dry saturated is
(a) 0.6
(6) 0.578
(c) 0.555
(d) 0.5457
Ans: b
46. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure of maximum
mass flow rate per area of steam through a nozzle when
steam is initially superheated is
(a) 0.555
(b) 0.578
(c) 0.5457
(d) 0.6
Ans: c
47. The critical pressure ratio of a convergent nozzle is
defined as
(a) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure of nozzle
(b) the ratio of inlet pressure to outlet pressure of nozzle
(c) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when
mass flow rate per unit area is minimum
(d) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when
mass flow rate = c
Ans: d
48. The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for
the steam initially dry saturated at inlet is approximated by
equation.
(a)pv = C
(b)pv1A = C
(c)pv1i = C
(d)pv
Ans: d
49. The effect of considering friction losses in steam nozzle
for the same pressure ratio leads to
(a) increase in exit velocity from the nozzle
(6) decrease in exit velocity from the nozzle
(c) no change in exit velocity from the nozzle
(d) increase or decrease depending upon the exit quality of
steam
Ans: b
50. The effect of considering friction in steam nozzles for
the same pressure ratio leads to
(a) increase in dryness fraction of exit steam
(b) decrease in dryness fraction of exit steam
(c) no change in the quality of exit steam
(d) decrease or increase of dryness fraction of exit steam

depending upon inlet quality
Ans: a
51. In case of impulse steam turbine
(a) there is enthalpy drop in fixed and moving blades
(b) there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
(c) there is enthalpy drop in nozzles
Ans: c
52. The pressure on the two sides of the impulse wheel of a
steam turbine
(a) is same
(b) is different
(c) increases from one side to the other side
(d) decreases from one side to the other side
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Ans: a
53. In De Laval steam turbine
(a) the pressure in the turbine rotor is approximately same
as in condenser
(b) the pressure in the turbine rotor is higher than pressure
in the condenser
(c) the pressure in the turbine rotor gradually decreases
from inlet to exit from condenser
(d) none from the above
Ans: a
54. Incase of reaction steam turbine
(a) there is enthalpy drop both in fixed and moving blades
(b) there is enthalpy drop only in fixed blades
(c) there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
Ans: a
55. Curtis turbine is
(a) reaction steam turbine
(b) pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
(c) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
(d) velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
Ans: b
56. Rateau steam turbine is
(a) reaction steam turbine
(b) velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
(c) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
(d) pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
Ans: c
57. Parson's turbine is
(a) pressure compounded steam turbine
(b) simple single wheel, impulse steam turbine
(c) simple single wheel reaction steam turbine
(d) multi wheel reaction steam turbine
Ans: d
58. For Parson's reaction steam turbine, degree of reaction
is
(a) 75%
(b) 100%
(c) 50%
(d) 60%
Ans: c
59. Reheat factor in steam turbines depends on

(a) exit pressure only
(b) stage efficiency only
(c) initial pressures and temperature only
Ans: c
60. The value of reheat factor normally varies from
(a) 0.5 to 0.6
(b) 0.9 to 0.95
(c) 1.02 to 1.06
(d) 1.2 to 1.6
Ans: c
61. Steam turbines are governed by the following methods
(a) Throttle governing
(b) Nozzle control governing
(c) Bypass
governing
Ans: d
62. In steam turbines the reheat factor
(a) increases with the increase in number of stages
(b) decreases with the increase in number of stages
(c) remains same irrespective of number of stages
Ans: a
63. The thermal efficiency of the engine with condenser as
compared to without condenser, for a given pressure and
temperature of steam, is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same as long as initial pressure and temperature is
unchanged
Ans: a
64. In jet type condensers
(a) cooling water passes through tubes and steam surrounds
them
(b) steam passes through tubes and cooling water surrounds
them
(c) steam and cooling water mix
(d) steam and cooling water do not mix
Ans: c
65. In a shell and tube surface condenser
(a) steam and cooling water mix to give the condensate
(b) cooling water passes through the tubes and steam
surrounds them
(c) steam passes through the cooling tubes and cooling
water surrounds them
(d) all of the above varying with situation
Ans: b
66. In a surface condenser if air is removed, there is
(a) fall in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
(b) rise in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
(c) no change in absolute pressure in the condenser
(d) rise in temperature of condensed steam
Ans: a
67. The cooling section in the surface condenser
(a) increases the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
(b) reduces the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
(c) does not affect vapour quantity extracted but reduces
pump capacity of air extraction pump
Ans: b
68. Edward's air pump
(a) removes air and also vapour from condenser
(b) removes only air from condenser
(c) removes only uncondensed
vapour from condenser
(d) removes air alongwith vapour and also the condensed
water from condenser
Ans: d
69. In a steam power plant, the function of a condenser is
(a) to maintain pressure below atmospheric to increase
work output from the primemover
(b) to receive large volumes of steam exhausted from steam
prime mover
(c) to condense large volumes of steam to water which may
be used again in boiler
Ans: d
70. In a regenerative surface condenser
(a) there is one pump to remove air and condensate
(b) there are two pumps to remove air and condensate
(c) there are three pumps to remove air, vapour and
condensate
(d) there is no pump, the condensate gets removed by
gravity
Ans: b
71. Evaporative type of condenser has
(a) steam in pipes surrounded by water
(b) water in pipes surrounded by steam
Ans: a
72. Pipes carrying steam are generally made up of
(a) steel
(b) cast iron
(c) copper
(d) aluminium
Ans: a
73. For the safety of a steam boiler the number of safety
valves fitted are
(a) four
(b) three
(c) two
(d) one
Ans: c
74. Steam turbines commonly used in steam power station
are
(a) condensing type
(b) noncondensing
type
Ans: a
75. Belt conveyer can be used to transport coal at
inclinations upto
(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 80
(d) 90
Ans: a
76. The maximum length of a screw conveyer is about
(a) 30 metres
(b) 40 metres
(c) 60 metres
(d) 100 metres
Ans: a
77. The efficiency of a modern boiler using coal and heat
recovery equipment is about
(a) 25 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 65 to 70%
(d) 85 to 90%
Ans: d
78. The average ash content in Indian co als is about
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
Ans: d
79. Load center in a power station is
(a) center of coal fields
(b) center of maximum load of equipments
(c) center of gravity of electrical system
Ans: c
80. Steam pressure in a steam power station, which is
usually kept nowadays
is of the order of
(a) 20 kgf/cm2
(b) 50 kgf/cm2
(c) 100 kgf/cm2
(d) 150 kgf/cm2
Ans: d
81. Economisers improve boiler efficiency by
(a) 1 to 5%
(b) 4 to 10%
(c) 10 to 12%
Ans: b
82. The capacity of large turbogenerators
varies from
(a) 20 to 100 MW
(b) 50 to 300 MW
(c) 70 to 400 MW
(d) 100 to 650 MW
Ans: b
83. Caking coals are those which
(a) burn completely
(b) burn freely
(c) do not form ash
(d) form lumps or masses of coke
Ans: d
84. Primary air is that air which is used to
(a) reduce the flame length
(b) increase the flame length
(c) transport and dry the coal
(d) provide air around burners for getting optimum
combustion
Ans: c
85. Secondary air is the air used to
(a) reduce the flame length
(b) increase the flame length
(c) transport and dry the coal
(d) provide air round the burners for getting optimum
combustion
Ans: d
86. In coal preparation plant, magnetic separators are used

to remove
(a) dust
(b) clinkers
(c) iron particles
(d) sand
Ans: c
87. Load carrying capacity of belt conveyor is about
(a) 20 to 40 tonnes/hr
(b) 50 to 100 tonnes/hr
(c) 100 to 150 tonnes/hr
(d) 150 to 200 tonnes/hr
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Ans: b
88. Method which is commonly applied for unloading the
coal for small power plant is
(a) lift trucks
(b) coal accelerators
(c) tower cranes
(d) belt conveyor
Ans: b
89. Bucket elevators are used for
(a) carrying coal in horizontal direction
(b) carrying coal in vertical direction
(c) carrying coal in any direction
Ans: b
90. The amount of air which is supplied for complete
combustion is called
(a) primary air
(b) secondary air
(c) tertiary air
Ans: b
91. In ______ system fuel from a central pulverizing unit is
delivered to a bunker and then to the various burners
(a) unit
(b) central
Ans: b
92. Underfeed
stokers work best for _______ coals high in volatile matter
and with caking tendency
(a) anthracite
(b) lignite
(c) semibituminous and bituminous
Ans: c
93. Example of overfeed type stoker is
(a) chain grate
(b) spreader
(c) travelling grate
Ans: d
94. Where unpulverised coal has to be used and boiler
capacity is large, the stoker which is used is
(a) underfeed stoker
(b) overfeed stoker
(c) any
Ans: b
95. TravelUng grate stoker can burn coals at the rates of

(a) 5075 kg/m per hour
(b) 75100 kg/m per hour
(c) 100150 kg/m per hour
(d) 150200 kg/m2 per hour
Ans: d
96. Blowing down of boiler water is the process
(a) to reduce the boiler pressure
(b) to increase the steam temperature
(c) to control the solid concentration in the boiler water by
removing some of the concentrated saline water
Ans: c
97. Deaerative heating is done to
(a) heat the water
(b) heat the air in the water
(c) remove dissolved gases in the water
Ans: c
98. Reheat factor is the ratio of
(a) isentropic heat drop to useful heat drop
(b) adiabatic heat drop to isentropic heat drop
(c) cumulative actual enthalpy drop for the stages to total is
isentropic enthalpy heat drop
Ans: c
99. The value of the reheat factor is of the order of
(a) 0.8 to 1.0
(b) 1.0 to 1.05
(c) 1.1 to 1.5
(d) above 1.5
Ans: c
100. Compounding of steam turbine is done for
(a) reducing the work done
(b) increasing the rotor speed
(c) reducing the rotor speed
(d) balancing the turbine
Ans: c
T
Latest Economics of Power Generation Questions and
Answers
1. Load factor of a power station is defined as
(a) maximum demand/average load
(b) average load x maximum demand
(c) average load/maximum demand
(d) (average load x maximum demand)172
Ans: c
2. Load factor of a power station is generally
(a) equal to unity
(b) less than unity
(c) more than unity
(d) equal to zero Diversity factor is always
Ans: b
3. The load factor of domestic load is usually
(a) 10 to 15%
(b) 30 to 40%
(c) 50 to 60%
(d) 60 to 70%
Ans: a
4. Annual depreciation cost is calculated by
(a) sinkingfund method
(b) straight line method
Ans: c
5. Depreciation charges are high in case of
(a) thermal plant
(b) diesel plant
(c) hydroelectric plant
Ans: a
6. Demand factor is defined as
(a) average load/maximum load
(b) maximum demand/connected load
(c) connected load/maximum demand
(d) average load x maximum load
Ans: b
7. High load factor indicates
(a) cost of generation per unit power is increased
(b) total plant capacity is utilised for most of the time
(c) total plant capacity is not properly utilised for most of
the time
Ans: b
8. A load curve indicates
(a) average power used during the period
(b) average kWh (kW) energy consumption during the
period
Ans: b
9. Approximate estimation of power demand can be made
by
(a) load survey method
(b) statistical methods
(c) mathematical method
(d) economic parameters
Ans: e
10. Annual depreciation as per straight line method, is
calculated by
(a) the capital cost divided by number of year of life
(b) the capital cost minus the salvage value, is divided by
the number of years of life
(c) increasing a uniform sum of money per annum at
stipulated rate of interest
Ans: b
11. A consumer has to pay lesser fixed charges in
(a) flat rate tariff
(b) two part tariff
(c) maximum demand tariff
Ans: c
12. In two part tariff, variation in load factor will affect
(a) fixed charges
(b) operating or running charges
Ans: b
13. In Hopknison demand rate or two parttariff the demand
rate or fixed charges are
(a) dependent upon the energy consumed
(b) dependent upon the maximum demand of the consumer
Ans: b
14. Which plant can never have 100 percent load factor ?
(a) Peak load plant
(b) Base load plant
(d) Hydro electric plant
Ans: a
15. The area under a load curve gives
(a) average demand
(b) energy consumed
(c) maximum demand
Ans: b
16. Different generating stations use following prime
movers
(a) diesel engine
(b) hydraulic turbine
(c) gas turbine
(d) steam turbine
Ans: e
17. Diversity factor has direct effect on the
(a) fixed cost of unit generated
(b) running cost of unit generated
Ans: a
18. Following power plant has instant starting
(a) nuclear power plant
(b) hydro power plant
(c) diesel power plant
Ans: d
19. Which of the following generating station has minimum
ruiyiing cost ?
(a) Nuclear
(b) Hydro
(c) Thermal
(d) Diesel
Ans: b
20. Power plant having maximum demand more than the
installed rated capacity will have utilisation factor
(a) equal to unity
(b) less than unity
(c) more than unity
Ans: c
21. Load curve is useful in deciding the
(a) operating schedule of generating units
(b) sizes of generating units
(c) total installed capacity of the plant
Ans: d
22. Load curve of a power plant has always
(a) zero slope
(b) positive slope
(c) negative slope
(d) any combination of (a), (b) and (c)
Ans: e
23. Annual operating expenditure of a power plant consists
of
(a) fixed charges
(b) semifixed
charges
(c) running charges
Ans: d
24. Maximum demand on a power plant is
(a) the greatest of all "short time interval averaged" demand
during a period
(b) instantaneous maximum value of kVA supplied during a
period
(e) both (a) or (b)
Ans: a
25. Annual instalment towards depreciation reduces as rate
of interest increases with
Ans: a
26. Annual depreciation of the plant it proportional to the
earning capacity of the plant vide
Ans: c
27. For high value of diversity factor, a power station of
given installed capacity will be in a position to supply
(a) less number of consumers
(b) more number of consumers
(c) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
28. Salvage value of the plant is always
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
Ans: d
29. Load curve helps in deciding
(a) total installed capacity of the plant
(b) sizes of the generating units
(c) operating schedule of generating units
Ans: d
30 can generate power at unpredictable or uncontrolled
times,
(a) Solar power plant
(b) Tidal power plant
(c) Wind power plant
Ans: d
31. Direct conversion of heat into electric power is possible
through
(a) fuel cell
(b) batteries
(c) thermionic converter
Ans: c
32. A low utilization factor for a plant indicates that
(a) plant is used for stand by purpose only
(b) plant is under maintenance

(c) plant is used for base load only
(d) plant is used for peak load as well as base load
Ans: a
33. Which of the following is not a source of power ?
(a) Thermocouple
(b) Photovoltaic cell
(c) Solar cell
(d) Photoelectric cell
Ans: a
34. Which of the following should be used for
extinguishing electrical fires ?
(a) Water
(b) Carbon tetrachloride fire extinguisher
(c) Foam type fire extinguisher
(d) CO2 fire extinguisher
Ans: b
35. Low power factor is usually not due to
(a) arc lamps
(b) induction motors
(c) fluorescent tubes
(d) incandescent lamp
Ans: d
36. Ships are generally powered by
(b) hydraulic turbines
(e) diesel engines
(d) steam accumulators
Ans: c
37. Direct conversion of heat into electrical energy is
possible through
(a) fuel cells
(b) solar cells
(c) MHD generators
Ans: c
38. Which of the following place is not associated with
nuclear power plants in India ?
(a) Narora
(b) Tarapur
(c) Kota
(d) Benglore
Ans: d
39. During load shedding
(a) system power factor is changed
(b) some loads are switched off
(c) system voltage is reduced
(d) system frequency is reduced Efficiency is the secondary
consideration in
Ans: b
40. which of the following plants ?
(a) Base load plants
(b) Peak load plants
Ans: b
41. Air will not be the working substance in which of the
following ?
(a) Closed cycle gas turbine
(b) Open cycle gas turbine
(c) Diesel engine
(d) Petrol engine

Ans: a
42. A nuclear power plant is invariably used as a
(a) peak load plant
(b) base load plant
(c) standby
plant
(d) spinning reserve plant
Ans: b
43. power plant is expected to have the longest life.
(a) Steam
(b) Diesel
(c) Hydroelectric
Ans: c
44. power plant cannot have single unit of 100 MW.
(a) Hydroelectric
(b) Nuclear
(c) Steam
(d) Diesel
(e) Any of the above
Ans: d
45. Which of the following, in a thermal power plant, is not
a fixed cost ?
(a) Fuel cost
(c) Depreciation
(d) Insurance charges
Ans: a
46. _______ will offer the least load.
(a) Vacuum cleaner
(b) Television
(c) Hair dryer
(d) Electric shaver
Ans: d
47. In ______ fuel transportation cost is least.
(b) diesel generating plants
(c) steam power stations
Ans: a
48. Which of the following equipment provides fluctuating
load ?
(a) Exhaust fan
(b) Lathe machine
(c) Welding transformer
Ans: c
49. The increased load during summer months is due to
(a) increased business activity
(b) increased water supply
(c) increased use of fans and air conditioners
Ans: c
50 is the reserved generating capacity available for service
under emergency conditions which is not kept in operation
but in working order,
(a) Hot reserve
(b) Cold reserve
(c) Spinning reserve
(d) Firm power
Ans: b
51. Generating capacity connected to the bus bars and

ready to take load when switched on is known as
(a) firm power
(b) cold reserve
(c) hot reserve
(d) spinning reserve
Ans: d
52. offers the highest electric load.
(a) Television set
(b) Toaster
(c) Vacuum cleaner
(d) Washing machine
Ans: b
53. _______ industry has the least power consumption per
tonne of product.
(a) Soap
(b) Sugar
(c) Vegetable oil
(d) Caustic soda
Ans: c
54. With reference to a power station which of the
following is not a fixed cost ?
(a) Fuel cost
(c) Insurance charges
(d) Depreciation
Ans: a
55. _______ is invariably used as base load plant.
(b) Nuclear power plant
(c) Gas turbine plant
Ans: b
56. In a power plant if the maximum demand on the plant is
equal to the plant capacity, then
(a) plant reserve capacity will be zero
(b) diversity factor will be unity
(c) load factor will be unity
(d) load factor will be nearly 60%
Ans: a
57. Incase of ______ fuel transportation is the major
problem.
(a) diesel power plants
(b) nuclear power plants
(c) hydroelectric
power plants
(d) thermal power plants
Ans: d
58. Which of the following power plants need the least
period for installation ?
(a) Thermal power plant
(b) Diesel power plant
(d) Hydroelectric
power plant
Ans: b
59. For which of the following power plants highly skilled
engineers are required for running the plants ?
(a) Nuclear power plants
(b) Gas turbine power plants
(c) Solar power plants
(d) Hydroelectric
power plants
Ans: a
60. In which'of the following power plants the maintenance
cost is usually high ?
(b) Hydroelectric
power plants
(c) Thermal power plants
(d) Diesel engine power plants
Ans: c
61. ________ is invariably used for peak load
(b) Steam turbine plant
(c) Pumped storage plant
Ans: c
62. Which of the following is not an operating cost ?
(a) Maintenance cost
(b) Fuel cost
(c) Salaries of high officials
(d) Salaries of operating staff
Ans:
Which of the following is the essential requirement of peak
load plant ?
(a) It should run at high speed
(b) It should produce high voltage
(c) It should be small in size
(d) It should be capable of starting quickly
Ans: d
64. Large capacity generators are invariably
(a) water cooled
(b) natural air cooled
(c) forced air cooled
(d) hydrogen cooled
Ans: d
65. By the use of which of the following power factor can
be improved ?
(a) Phase advancers
(b) Synchronous compensators
(c) Static capacitors
Ans: d
66. An induction motor has relatively high power factor at
(a) rated r.p.m.
(b) no load
(c) 20 percent load
(d) near full load
Ans: d
67. Which of the following is the disadvantage due to low
power factor ?
(a) Poor voltage regulation
(b) Increased transmission losses
(c) High cost of equipment for a given load
Ans: d
68. In a distribution system, in order to improve power
factor, the synchronous capacitors are installed
(a) at the receiving end
(b) at the sending end
Ans: a
69. Static capacitors are rated in terms of
(a) kW
(b) kWh
(e) kVAR
Ans: c
70. Which of the following is the disadvantage of a
synchronous condenser ?
(a) High maintenance cost
(b) Continuous losses in motor
(c) Noise
Ans: d
71. For a consumer the most economical power factor is
generally
(a) 0.5 lagging
(b) 0.5 leading
(c) 0.95 lagging
(d) 0.95 leading
Ans: c
72. A synchronous condenser is virtually which of the
following ?
(a) Induction motor
(b) Under excited synchronous motor
(c) Over excited synchronous motor
(d) D.C. generator
Ans: c
73. For a power plant which of the following constitutes
running cost ?
(a) Cost of wages
(b) Cost of fuel
(c) Cost of lubricants
Ans: d
74. In an interconnected system, the diversity factor of the
whole system
(a) remains unchanged
(b) decreases
(c) increases
Ans: c
75. Generators for peak load plants are usually designed for
maximum efficiency at
(a) 25 to 50 percent full load
(b) 50 to 75 percent full load
(c) full load
(d) 25 percent overload
Ans: b
76. ________ will be least affected due to charge in supply
voltage frequency.
(a) Electric clock
(b) Mixer grinder
(c) Ceiling fan
(d) Room heater
Ans: d
77. The connected load of a IVMIM uir consumer is around
(a) 5 kW
(b) 40 k\V
(c) 80 kW
(d) 120 kW
Ans: a
78. Which of the following is not necessarily an advantage
of interconnecting various power stations ?
(a) Improved frequency of power supplied
(b) Reduction in total installed capacity
(c) Increased reliability
(d) Economy in operation of plants
Ans: a
79. A power transformer is usually rated in
(a) kW
(b) kVAR
(c) kWh
(d) kVA
Ans: d
80. public sector undertaking is associated with erection
and sometimes running of thermal power plants
(a) NTPC
(b) SAIL
(c) BEL
(d) BHEL
Ans: a
81. Most efficient plants are normally used as
(a) peak load plants
(b) base load plants
Ans:
82. For a diesel generating station the useful life is
expected to be around
(a) 15 to 20 years
(b) 20 to 50 years
(c) 50 to 75 years
(d) 75 to 100 years
Ans: a
83. Which of the following is not a method for estimating
depreciation charges ?
(a) Sinking fund method
(b) Straight line method
(c) Diminishing value method
(d) Halsey's 5050 formula
Ans: d
84. The expected useful life of an hydroelectric power
station is around
(a) 15 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 100 years
Ans: d
85. In a load curve the highest point represents
(a) peak demand
(b) average demand
(c) diversified demand
Ans: a
86. Which of the following source of power is least reliable
?
(a) Solar energy
(b) Geothermal power
(c) Wind power
(d) iMHD
Ans:
87. In India production and distribution of electrical energy

is confined to
(a) private sector
(b) public sector
(c) government sectors
(d) joint sector
Ans: b
88. A pilot exciter is provided on generators for which of
the following reasons ?
(a) To excite the poles of main exciter
(b) To provide requisite starting torque to main exciter
(c) To provide requisite starting torque to generator
Ans: a
89. The primary reason for low power factor is supply
system is due to installation of
(a) induction motors
(b) synchronous motors
(c) single phase motors
(d) d.c. motors
Ans: a
90. An over excited synchronous motor on noload is known
as
(a) synchronous condenser
(b) generator
(c) induction motor
(d) alternator
Ans: a
91. Which of the following is an advantage of static
(a) Little maintenance cost
(b) Ease in installation
(c) Low losses
Ans: d
92. For any type of consumer the ideal tariff is
(a) two part tariff
(b) three part tariff
(c) block rate tariff
Ans: b
93. The efficiency of a plant is of least concern when it is
selected as
(a) peak load plant
(b) casual run plant
(d) base load plant
Ans: c
94. Which of the following plants is almost inevitably used
as base load plant ?
(b) Gas turbine plant
Ans: c
95. Which of the following component, in a steam power
plant, needs maximum maintenance attention ?
(a) Steam turbine
(b) Condenser
(c) Water treatment plant
(d) Boiler
Ans: d
96. For the same cylinder dimensions and speed, which of
the following engine will produce least power ?
(a) Supercharged engine
(b) Diesel engine
(c) Petrol engine
(d) All of the above engines will equal power
Ans: c
97. The least share of power is provided in India, by which
of the following power plants ? '
(a) Diesel power plants
(b) Thermal power plants
(c) Hydroelectric
power plants
(d) Nuclear power plants
Ans: a
98. Submarines for under water movement, are powered by
which of the following ?
(a) Steam accumulators
(b) Air motors
(c) Diesel engines
(d) Batteries
Ans: d
99. An alternator coupled to a _____ runs at slow speed, as
compared to as compared to others.
(a) diesel engine
(6) hydraulic turbine
(c) steam turbine
(d) gas turbine
Ans: b
100. The effect of electric shock on human body depends
on which of the following
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) duration of contact
Ans: d
101. Which lightening stroke is most dangerous ?
(a) Direct stroke on line conductor
(b) Indirect stroke on conductor
(c) Direct stroke on tower top
(d) Direct stroke on ground wire
Ans: a
102. Which of the following devices may be used to
provide protection against lightening over voltages ?
(a) Horn gaps
(b) Rod gaps
(c) Surge absorbers
Ans: d
103. When the demand of consumers is not met by a power

plant, it will resort to which of the following ?
(a) Load shedding
(b) Power factor improvement at the , generators
(c) Penalising high load consumers by increasing the
charges for electricity
(d) Efficient plant operation
Ans: a
104. Load shedding is possible through which of the
following ?
(a) Switching of the loads
(b) Frequency reduction
(c) Voltage reduction
Ans: d
105. In power plants insurance cover is provided for which
of the following ?
(a) Unskilled workers only
(b) Skilled workers only
(c) Equipment only
Ans: d
106 A company can raise funds through
(a) fixed deposits
(b) shares
(c) bonds
Ans: d
107. Which of the following are not repayable after a
stipulated period ?
(a) Shares
(b) Fixed deposits
(c) Cash certificates
(d) Bonds
Ans: a
108. The knowledge of diversity factor helps in
determining
(a) plant capacity
(b) average load
(c) peak load
(d) kWh generated
Ans: a
109. Which of the following is the disadvantage of static
(a) Easily damaged by high voltage
(b) Cannot be repaired
(c) Short service life
Ans: d
.

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130 TOP MOST ELECTROLYSIS and STORAGE of

BATTERIES Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice

9. The ratio of amperehour

(c) specific gravity of H2SO4 is increased

(d) increases the temperature

(b) to add water to the cell if needed

(b) abnormal high temperature

8/28/2016 130 TOP MOST ELECTROLYSIS and

(d) bring about all above changes

Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

(c) lead particles forming circuit between positive and

(a) charged ions

3. The period of a wave is

21. The phase difference between voltage and current wave

30. Pure inductive circuit

(b) applied voltage increases but current decreases

(c) impedance is maximum

(a) a line which represents the magnitude and phase of an

(b) 0.707 of peak value

110 TOP MOST Measurement and Instrumentation

(b) Most be of low temperature coefficient

17. Most common form of A.C. meters met with in every

25. In majority of instruments damping is provided by

(b) creep compensation

(b) multicoii arrangement

7. The main source of production of biogas is

upvc and cpvc

20. Power plant having maximum demand more than the

29. Load curve helps in deciding

(c) steam power stations

(c) Static capacitors

(d) Halseys 5050 formula

(d) any of the above

(c) Direct stroke on tower top

Engineering Multiple choice Questions and Answer

(d) needle bearings

(d) cross magnetisation only

38. The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine

(d) flat topped

75. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C.

(b) less than no load terminal voltage

(c) the same as rated voltage

Engineering Multiple choice Questions and Answer

June 4, 2016 at 3:31 am

Ok Henry i will update as soon as possible..keep in touch

April 15, 2016 at 10:43 am

(a) interchanging the supply leads

(c) eddy current loss

(d) none of the above

(c) Shaded pole

(d) thick wire placed at the top of the slots

(c) prevent hunting in the motor

(b) ball or roller bearings

(c) through capacitors

(b) It makes quite a bit of noise on starting

July 28, 2016 at 11:34 pm

Engineering Interview Questions.com

(d) none of the above

(d) lagging, leading and unity power factors

8/28/2016 130 TOP MOST SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS

(d) power factor corrections

(a) increase in both armature current and power factor

(b) will overheat in spots

(d) Low field current