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1. What does a number 4 in the aeroplane referenced field length element of the aerodrome reference code mean?


Landing distance required => 1800m


Take off run required (TORR) =>1800m



off distance required => 1800m


Runway length not less than 1800m

2. In the code element 2 part of the aerodrome reference code the largest aeroplane would be indicated by which letter?









3. Which of the following does TORA include?

a. The stopway

b. The runway strip

c. The runway prior to the displaced threshold

d. The runway end safety area

4. What is ASDA?


Aircraft stop distance available


Asphalt stand and dispersal area


Accelerate stop distance available


A local supermarket

5. Can the landing distance available ever be less than the runway length?

a. Never

b. Yes - if there is a displaced threshold #

c. Yes - if there is a stop way that has the full load classification category of the main runway

d. It depends upon the runway code number



6. Which of the following conditions is to be reported to the AIS?

a. It's snowing!

b. Runway subsidence

c. The ident beacon is being repaired

d. The electricians are testing the lighting

7. It has been raining, but there are no patches of standing water on the runway. How would ATC describe the condition of the runway?

a. Damp

b. Wet

c. Dry

d. Flooded

8. Frozen water on a runway can variously be described as:

a. Snow, sleet or slush

b. Snow, sleet or rain

c. Rime ice, clear ice or snow ice

d. Ice, slush or snow

9. Can ATC close an aerodrome if it is snowing?

a. No - an aerodrome cannot be closed because of weather

b. Yes

c. Yes - but it must be re-opened immediately it stops snowing

d. Yes - but only if the snow freezes as it settles

10. What is added to the end of a METAR if an aerodrome is closed because of snow?





11. How long is a SNOWTAM valid for?

a. 6 hours

b. 12 hours

c. 18 hours

d. 24 hours


12. What does a runway strip include?

a. The runway and cleared zone

b. The runway and stopway

c. The runway and clearway

d. The runway and runway end safety area


13. What are the names of the types of runways used in commercial aviation?

a. Visual; Instrument; Precision and Non-precision

b. Instrument and Non-Instrument

c. Precision and Visual

d. Paved and grass

14. A runway strip is required to be 150m wide if the runway type is what?

a. Code 1 instrument

b. Code 3 non-precision

c. Code 3 precision

d. Code 4 non-instrument

15. When is a runway strip required to be graded?

a. For all instrument runways

b. For all instrument runways and code 3-4 non-instrument runways

c. For all precision runways and code 3-4 non-instrument runways

d. For all non-instrument runways

16. For what runways is a runway end safety are (RESA) a mandatory requirement?

a. None

b. All runways

c. Code 3-4 precision runways

d. All instrument runways

17. What is the width of a stopway?

a. 150 m

b. Not less than 30 m

c. The same as the runways

d. 1.5 times the width of the runway



18. How far from the threshold ofa runway should the Radio Altimeter Operating Area extend?


15 km


3000 m


300 m



19. What must the radius of curvature of a taxi-way tum cater for?

a. All aircraft likely to use the aerodrome

b. Aircraft for which the taxiway is intended

c. The largest aeroplane reference field length code number

d. All aircraft, and widening strips are to be provided is normal width is insufficient

20. How many wind indicators (wind-socks) are required at a code 4 aerodrome?

a. One

b. One at each end of the longest runway

c. One at the threshold of each runway

d. Two (the master indicated by a white circle around the base)

21. What colour re runway markings?

a. Red

b. Green

c. Yellow

d. White

22. What colour are apron safety markings?

a. Yellow

b. White

c. Green/yellow

d. A contrasting colour to the taxiway markings

23. What colour are runway designator markings?

a. Yellow

b. Blue

c. Black on a white background

d. White



24. For which type of runways are centre line markings required?

a. All runways

b. All paved runways

c. All instrument runways

d. All code 3-4 runways

25. For what type of runway are threshold markings required?

a. All runways

b. All paved runways

c. All paved instrument runways

d. All paved runways and non instrument paved runways code 3 or 4

26. How is a displaced threshold indicated?

a. Yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold point

b. Arrows pointing towards the threshold along the runway

c. A white X on the unusable part of the threshold

d. A transverse white stripe added to the threshold marking

27. How would the centre of three parallel runways be designated?

a. By adding M (middle) to the QDM

b. By adding C (centre) to the QDM

c. By leaving the centre QDM without an addition and the others marked L (left) and R (right)

d. By using a different QDM

28. What is the minimum number of stripes that can make up the threshold markings?









29. What is the purpose of aiming point marking?

a. To show where the visual and instrument glide paths coincide

b. To define a safe landing area on a runway

c. It is an alternative method of indicating a displaced threshold

d. To provide additional conspicuity of the aiming point



30. On what type of runways are touchdown zone markings required?

a. All instrument runways

b. All runways code 3 or 4

c. Paved precision runways code 2, 3 or 4

d. All precision runways

31. What do touchdown zone markings look like?

a. Four or more bars side by side across the threshold

b. A line across the runway with arrows point to it from the approach direction

c. Double length centre line markings

d. Pairs of rectangular markings symmetrically disposed about the centreline

32. When are runway side stripe markings required?

a. Where the edge of the runway is lower than the surrounding ground (ie there is a kerb)

b. Where the runway is greater than 30m wide

c. Where the edge of the runway is not well defined

d. When the runway has centreline markings

33. Do all taxiways require centreline markings?

a. Yes, but only where the aerodrome is used at night

b. No, only code 3 or 4 paved taxiways

c. Only if there is no edge lighting

d. Yes, if the runway has centreline markings

34. There are two types of taxiway holding point markings. Which type is always the closest to the runway?

a. Pattern A

b. Pattern B

c. It depends upon the category of Instrument landing operations in progress

d. There is now fixed requirement

35. How is the taxiway holding point marking to be augmented?

a. It is to be marked on the approach plate for the runway

b. A mandatory sign on the left side of the taxiway

c. A mandatory sign and a position information sign on both sides of the taxiway

d. A stop bar



36. At the taxiway holding point for a runway there are two holding points (a pattern A and a pattern B). The aerodrome is closed but you have the owners permission to use the aerodrome out of hours. At which hold do have to stop at prior to taking off?

a. Both

b. The pattern A

c. The pattern B

d. It depends upon the category of instrument landing taking place

37. What is the minimum distance from the runway centreline for a precision approach cat I, II or III combined holding point to be positioned for a runway where all three category of operations are carried out?

a. 75m

b. 90m

c. 60m

d. There is no set distance

38. What is the critical factor affecting the distance of a precision runway taxi holding point from the centre of the runway?

a. The category of landing operations

b. The sensitivity of the ILS/MLS system

c. The size of the aeroplanes using the aerodrome

d. The width of the taxiway

39. Where two taxiways cross, there is a requirement for holding points to be established prior to the intersection so that aeroplanes can cross clear of others waiting to cross. What do the markings look like?

a. Pattern A

b. Pattern B

c. A single broken line

d. A single solid line

40. When are aircraft stand markings required?

a. For designated parking positions on paved aprons

b. For all parking bays without ground movement control systems

c. For all parking locations on a aerodromes of code 3C-E or 4C-E

d. For all parking bays with airbridges




What is the purpose of apron safety lines?

a. To mark the limit of a surface capable of supporting the largest aeroplane for which the apron is designed

b. To mark an area of the apron safe for people to walk in

c. To mark safe areas for the taxiing of aeroplanes

d. To


areas where it is safe to position ground equipment, vehicles etc


What do road holding positions look like?

a. Pattern A holding marks

b. A single solid line across the holding point

c. A single dotted line with traffic lights

d. The same as on the local roads


Where will you NOT find information markings?

a. On a taxiway closer to the runway that the closest holding point

b. On aprons


c. On runways

d. On a rapid exit taxiway


When are information markings used?

a. To supplement information signs

b. To give information where it is not safe to use a sign

c. Where signs can be blown down by jet blast

d. Where the aerodrome authority deems that signs are unsightly


Do information markings require a contrasting background?


Yes, either yellow or black



c. Yes, but only if the surface does not provide sufficient contrast

d. Yes but only on code 3 or 4 aerodromes


What is the required physical property of all elevated runway, stopway and taxiway lights?

a. Where there is insufficient clearance from propellers,jet engine pods

are to frangible


the light posts

b. Lights are not to protrude through the obstacle identification surface (OIS)

c. They are to be frangible

d. All glass is to be contained in plastic enclosures



47. Which of the following defines the characteristics of aerodrome lighting?

a. Colour, direction, intensity, visibility

b. Colour, intensity, visibility

c. Colour, intensity, visibility, mode of operation

d. Colour, intensity, direction

48. Which of the following are aeronautical beacons?

a. All obstacle lights on obstacles over 150m high

b. All obstacle lights and lighthouses

c. Aerodrome beacons and aerodrome identification beacons

d. Any light that aids navigation

49. When is an aerodrome beacon required?

a. Where operationally necessary at an aerodrome used at night

b. At all aerodromes used at night or in poor visibility

c. At aerodromes where only visual approaches are permitted

d. Where cat I or cat II operations are used

50. Which of the following are the characteristics of an aerodrome beacon?

a. Flashing the Morse code ident letters for an aerodrome in either red (military) or green (civil)

b. Flashing white only

c. Flashing white or green, or both

d. White flashes alternating with coloured flashes, or white only

51. What does a simple approach lighting system consist of?

a. Five bar and centre line

b. Centreline and barrettes

c. Single centreline and crossbar

d. Threshold lights and runway edge lights

52. What type(s) of runway can a simple approach system used for?

a. All runways

b. Grass runways

c. Visual and precision runways

d. Non-instrument and non-precision runways



53. Over what distance from the threshold is a cat I lighting system to extend?

a. 300m

b. 600m

c. 900m

d. more than 600m but not more than 900m

54. What does a cat I lighting system consist of?

a. 5 bar and centreline originating from the aiming point

b. 5 bar and centreline with supplemental lighting in the inner segment

c. 5 bar and centreline or barrettes replacing the bars

d. 5 bar and centreline originating from the threshold

55. For a Cat IIIIII lighting system, how far does the centreline extend from the threshold in the approach direction?

a. 900m

b. 900m if Cat I operations are also permitted at the aerodrome

c. Recommended 900m but may be less

d. Not less than 840m

56. "No obstacles are permitted to protrude through the plane of the approach lights." Is this statement true or false?

a. True

b. False

57. For a Cat II/III approach lighting system how many light sources comprise the centreline between 600m and 300m from the threshold?








It is optional

58. What does the abbreviation APAPI stand for?

a. Adjustable PAPI

b. Abbreviated PAPI

c. Attenuated PAPI

d. Airfield PAPI



59. What is required to be added to a PAPI or APAPI system to provide roll guidance?

a. Gyro-stabilised gimbals

b. An additional wing bar on the same side of the runway

c. An additional wing bar on the other side of the runway

d. PAPIs cannot provide roll guidance

60. If you are slightly below the glide slope, what indications would you expect to see from a PAPI system?

a. Three white lights and one red - the red nearest to the runway

b. Three red lights and one white - the white nearest to the runway

c. Three white lights and one red - the red farthest from the runway

d. Three red lights and one white - the white farthest from the runway

61. What doe the abbreviation MEHT mean?

a. Minimum Eye Height

b. Mean Eye Height

c. Maximum Eye Height

d. Manual/Electronic Height Transmission

62. MEHT is quoted for all PAPIIAPAPI installations. What is MEHT referenced to?

a. Eye on glidepath to threshold

b. Eye just above glidepath to threshold

c. Eye just below glidepath to threshold

d. Eye at lowest point on glidepath to threshold

63. If aMEHT of 57' is quoted, what does it mean?

a. With an 'on glidepath' indication there is 57 ft below the aircraft over the threshold

b. With an 'on glidepath' indication there is 57 ft below the pilot's eye over the threshold

c. With an 'on glidepath' indication there is 57 ft from the pilot's eye to the lowest point on the undercarriage over the threshold

d. With an 'on glidepath' indication the aircraft is 57 ft above the threshold

64. What colour are runway edge lights?

a. Blue

b. White

c. Yellow

d. Green


© Oxford Aviation Services Limited



65. What colour are runway edge lights between the end of the runway and a displaced threshold showing in the direction of the approach?

a. White

b. Yellow

c. Green

d. Red

66. You see yellow runway edge lights, what does this mean?

a. They have run out of the normal colour bulbs

b. You are within 600m of the end of the runway or have less than one third of the runway remaInIng

c. You have run into the stopway

d. The ground beyond the edge of the runway is unfit for aeroplane movements

67. Through what angle should runway edge lights be seen?

a. Through all angles of azimuth where the lights are used to provide circling guidance

b. Through all angles of elevation necessary to provide guidance to a pilot landing or taking off in either direction

c. All round always

d. Only through 15° either side of the centre line

68. Where are runway threshold lights provided?

a. On all runways with lights

b. On all Instrument runways

c. On all runways with edge lights but without a displaced threshold

d. On all paved runways with centreline lighting

69. On which runways are runway end lights provided?

a. On all paved runways

b. On all non-instrument runways code 3 and 4

c. On all runways with edge lights

d. On runways where the end of one runway is the threshold of the runway in the opposite direction (lights showing red in one direction and green in the other)

70. What type of runway requires touchdown zone lighting?

a. All instrument runways

b. All instrument runways of code 3 or 4 over 2400m long

c. All Cat II/III precision runways

d. All precision runways


71. Which of the following statements is true?


a. Taxiway centre line lights are green/yellow and only visible when taxiing towards them

b. Taxiway centreline lights are blue and omni-directional

c. Taxiway centre line lights are green and omni-directional

d. Taxiway lights are green/yellow in an ILS sensitive area

72. When are taxiway centreline lights required?

a. In RVR <350m or RVR=>350m at night

b. At night

c. On code 3-4 taxiways

d. On taxiways without edge lights

73. What is the name of the lights spaced at 3m across a taxiway showing red in the direction of taxi?

a. Traffic lights

b. Stop bar

c. End lights

d. Holding lights

74. What colour are runway guard lights?

a. Yellow

b. Green

c. Red

d. Blue

75. What is the background colour of a mandatory sign?

a. White

b. Red

c. Yellow

d. Black

76. Which of the following is NOT a mandatory sign?

a. No entry sign

b. Runway holding point sign

c. Apron sign

d. Runway designation sign



77. What sign must a pattern B holding point marking be supplemented by?

a. A runway designation sign

b. A runway vacated sign

c. A threshold direction sign

d. A cat 11111111 holding sign

78. Where a runway designation sign is provided at a taxiway/runway intersection it should be supplemented by a position sign. Which part of the sign should be closest to the taxiway edge?

a. The runway designation sign

b. The position sign

c. It doesn't matter

d. It depends upon which side of the taxiway it is positioned

79. What must the inscription on a Cat I, Cat II, Cat III or Cat 111111 holding position sign also contain?

a. The runway designator

b. The taxiway designator

c. A no entry sign for vehicles

d. The taxiway designation and number

80. Which of the following are all information signs?

a. Direction signs; location signs; holding signs; runway vacated signs

b. Runway exit signs; destination signs; no entry signs; runway designation signs

c. Location signs; runway vacated signs; direction signs; destination signs

d. Runway exit signs; runway vacated signs; runway designation signs

81. Which of the following is true?

a. Information signs are black on a yellow background

b. Location signs are yellow an a black background

c. All information signs can be co-located with a mandatory sign

d. All location signs are to have a yellow border

82. Which holding point marking pattern is depicted on a runway vacated sign?

a. Pattern A

b. Pattern B

c. It must correspond with the marking on the taxiway

d. What ever is convenient



83. You see a sign on the manoeuvring area consisting of numbers only. To what must it refer?

a. A parking stand designator

b. A taxiway number

c. A runway QDM

d. Elevation

84. What type of sign is a road holding sign?

a. Information sign

b. Mandatory sign

c. Location sign

d. Direction sign

85. What is required if a road holding sign is intended to be seen at night?

a. Contrasting colours

b. Sign to be retroflective or illuminated

c. It must be positioned in an area that is illuminated by stadium lighting

d. It must be lit by lights controlled by ATC such that as a aeroplane approaches it the lights can be switched off

86. Where are unpaved runway edge markers required?

a. At the extremities of all grass runways

b. Where grass runways cross paved runways

c. Only for grass instrument runways

d. Where there is no contrast between the runway and the surrounding ground

87. Where are taxiway edge markers required?

a. On code 1 or 2 taxiways without centreline markers/lights or edge lights

b. Where the authority deems necessary

c. On all taxiways without edge lights

d. On taxiways where the contrast between the taxiway and the surrounding ground is not well defined

88. Which of the following correctly describes a taxiway centreline marker?

a. Retroflective blue only

b. Retroflective green or green yellow

c. Retroflective green only

d. Retroflective yellow only


© Oxford Aviation Services Limited



89. What obstacles (if any) are permitted to protrude through the plane of an approach lighting system?

a. Only an ILS or MLS antenna

b. None

c. Anything provided it is correctly marked

d. Only obstacles less than 150m high within 900m of the threshold

90. If the erection of a temporary obstacle in the approach transition zone is unavoidable which negates the OCL for that approach, what can the aerodrome authority do to allow the runway to continue to be used?

a. Increase the glidepath angle to restore the OCH

b. Light the obstacle with high intensity lights

c. Temporarily displace the threshold to restore the OCH

d. Reduce the speed of aircraft using the runway

91. Where are taxiway centreline markings on paved runways required to be provided?

a. For all code 1 and 2 taxiways on code 3 or 4 runways

b. For all taxiways on runways

c. For taxiways on runways that are part of the standard taxi-route

d. For taxiways on runways without taxiway edge lighting

92. Where would runway lead-in lights be used?

a. Where it is felt necessary to provide visual guidance along a specific approach path

b. Where a portion of taxiway is an extension of the pre-threshold area of a runway

c. Where entrance to a runway can be in the reverse direction of a rapid exit taxiway

d. Where an instrument approach terminates before the threshold of the runway

93. Where are circling guidance lights provided?

a. Where a precision approach leads to a visual circuit join, the lights provide visual guidance to the down-wind position

b. Where the existing approach lights are hot of the required standard for an instrument approach

c. Where the existing approach and runway lights are insufficient to provide guidance during the visual phase of an approach to land

d. At aerodromes where aircraft are required to carry out an orbit in the overhead prior to joining downwind visually



94. Control of lighting intensity is essential, but differing intensities can be confusing and disorientating. How is this prevented?

a. By adjusting the intensity of all aerodrome lights together

b. By ensuring that all runway lighting systems (approach; edge; centre; PAPI; TDZ) are adjusted together

c. By having separate intensity controls for each element of lighting

d. By shading no 'navigation' lights from view

95. Why do longer runways (code 4) have aiming points further down the runway than lesser length runways? (Hint - think logically)

a. If the space is available it should be used.

b. Longer runways can be used by bigger and therefore less manoeuvrable aircraft so it makes sense give more space

c. Its all about making sure that there is adequate clearance below the undercarriage when the aircraft crosses the threshold

d. To counter the visual illusion of reduced runway length in big aeroplanes

96. What defines the 'main runway'?

a. The longest length of concrete

b. The instrument runway on which ILS available

c. The runway that allows compliance with noise abatement procedures

d. The runway most used for take-offs and landings

97. What starts at the threshold of a runway?

a. The portion of the runway suitable for landing

b. The portion of the runway suitable for take off

c. The portion of the runway suitable for take off and landing

d. The portion of the runway suitable for the movement of aeroplanes on the ground

98. Can a 'take-off runway' be used in any weather conditions?

a. Yes

b. No - the weather minima must be specified for that runway

99. According to ICAO, what are the RVR and DH minima for CATIIIB operations on a precision approach runway?

a. RVR not less than 200m; DH not lower than 100 ft

b. RVR not less than 350m; DH not lower than 100 ft

c. RVR not less than 75m; DH below 50 ft

d. RVR not less than 50m; DH below 50 ft


© Oxford Aviation Services Limited


100. What defines 'aerodrome elevation'?



The height (AMSL) of the aerodrome reference point (ARP)


The height (AMSL) of the highest runway threshold


The highest point on the landing area


The highest point on the movement area




1 C




51 C


76 C


2 D




52 D


77 D


3 C




53 C


78 A


4 C




54 A


79 A


5 B




55 B


80 C


6 B




56 B


81 B


7 B




57 B


82 A


8 D




58 B


83 A


9 A




59 C


84 B


10 C




60 D


85 B


11 D




61 A


86 D


12 B




62 D


87 A


13 B




63 B


88 C


14 C




64 B


89 A


15 A




65 D


90 C


16 D




66 B


91 C


17 C




67 A


92 A


18 C




68 C


93 C


19 B




69 C


94 B


20 A




70 C


95 C


21 D




71 D


96 D


22 D




72 A


97 A


23 D




73 B


98 B


24 B




74 A


99 D


25 C




75 B


100 C