Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
on, Repair,
Maintenance:
1. When Modification, repair carried out by an AMO under supervision of DGCA
2. Only if additional work is carried pout with renewal of C. of A. referred ion
CAR
series F Part IV.
3. 1 & 2 both are correct. 4. None of the above.
13. CAR Sec .II Series F Part. VI deals with:
I. Continuous Airworthiness Maintenance programme.
2. Airworthiness of Ageing Aircraft. 3. Inspection of Wooden aircraft.
4. Rebuilding of Aircraft.
14. The requirement regarding use of materials to be used during manufacturing o
f aircraft
are prescribed in Rule:
1. 50 and 50 A. 2. 51 &51 A.
3. 52and52A. 4. 53&53A.
15. Which Rule empower DGCA to issue/renew or revalidate C of A:
1. 50. 2. 51, 3. 52. 4. 54.
16. CAR Series F Part VI laid down requirements for rebuilding of Aircraft:
1. Which was damaged 2. Purchased as wreckage from Insurance companies.
3. Purchased Parts/Spares from abroad. 4. All the above.
17. What type of aircraft will permit to rebuilt:
I. Which were earlier type certified & flown with C of A.
2. Have sufficient data regarding maintenance, performance standard.
3. 1 & 2 both are correct. 4. Have special permission from DGCA.
18. CAR Series F
1. Unpressurised
2. Unpressurised
3. 1 & 2 both 4.
19. The owner/person apply to DGCA through RAO for registration of Rebuild the a
ircraft
will submit:
1. Survey report indicating detail of parts 2. Fees.
3. Details of source of procurement of parts. 4. All the above.
20. Upon receipt pf application & all documents for registration of Rebuilt the
aircraft.
The RAO will issue a:
1. Certificate of Registration for One year. 2. Temporary C of R. for one year.
3. Special Registration for One year. 4. None of the above.
21. The temporary C. of R. can be extended, in some exceptional cases, for a per
iod of:
1. 18 months. 2. Two years,
3. Three years 4. an not extended.
22. Permanent registration of rebuilt aircraft will allowed only when constructo
r forwards a
certificate duly certified by:
I. AME having licence endorsed in Cat. C.
2. AME having licence endorsed in Cat. D.
3. AME having licence endorsed in Cat. B.
4. AME having licence endorsed in Cat. X.
23. Each rebuilt aircraft will have to be assigned a serial number by Constructo
r which is
normally assigned on:
I. Wings. 2. Fuselage.
3. Identification Plate. 4. None of the above.
24. The constructor, before assembling, the aircraft must ensure that:
I. Parts purchased are genuine 2. Proper history of the parts.
3. The fuselage has dc-registered from the country in which it was previously re
gistered.
4. All the above.
25. The aircraft parts used for rebuilding should be strip inspected/overhauled
which
are stored:
1. More than 5 years. 2. More than 6 years
3. More than 7 years. 4. More than 8 years.
26. The Fuselage imported from outside the country used for rebuilding of aircra
ft should have:
1. Proper history. 2. Export C of A.
3. 1 & 2 both 4. Certificate given by RAO.
27. The Test Flight of Rebuild aircraft carried out b y:
1. Pilot having PPL. 2. Pilot having CPL
3. Pilot in Command 4. Chief Instructor of Flight.
28. In case original aircraft was issued with an approved Flight Manual, the con
structor will produce a copy of the same & procedure evidence of that, it is upd
ated to:
1. DGCA 2. Q.C.M.
3. R A O. 4. Pilot in Command.
29. The DGCA will refuse to issue of C. of A. & C opfR, if owner/constructor not
able to
produce:
1. Sufficient evidence regarding genuineness of Parts.
2. Use of correct assembling Techniques.
3. 1 & 2 both 4. Approved Flight Manual.
30. CAR Series F Part VII deals with:
1. Special Flight Permits. 2. Inspection of wooden Aircraft.
3. Approval of flight Manual & their Amendments
4. Continue Airworthiness Maintenance Programme.
31. No person can not operate the aircraft possessing suspended C. of A., stated
by Rule:
1. 59 Sub Rule 3. 2. 57 Sub Rule 3
3. 56 Sub Rule III 4. 55 Sub Rule III.
32. Issue of a Special Flight permit to an Aircraft with a suspended C. of A. in
light of:
1. Sub Rule IV of 55. 2. Sub Rule 3 of 55
3. Sub Rule II of 55. 4. Sub Rule 1 of 55.
33. Special Flight Permit are given when:
1. It is essential for aircraft top dispatch to base for Mod./Inspection/AD are
to be performed.
2. When aircraft have to flown for experimental/Test Flight.
of
years:
1. One 2. two 3. Five 4. Ten.
104. Damage due to environment in the form of corrosion and stress corrosion is:
1. Environment damage 2. Corrosion damage
3. Fatigue damage 4. Accidental damage.
105. Ageing aircraft are these, which have completed there:
1. Technical life 2. Service life
3. Designed service life 4. Designed economic life.
106. Multiple site damage is:
1. Five or more dents on one site.
2. Five or more crakes on one site which lick up into a longer crack.
3. Fatigue crack at number of fasteners, which stand to link up into longer crac
ks.
4. All are correct.
107. Damage to an aircraft can be termed as accident
to:
1. Environmental factors like corrosion
2. One aircraft hitting another aircraft
3. Wrong handling of ground equipment during routing
4. None of the above.
108. Duplicate inspection when aircraft is away from
1. Any CPL holder
2. Flight engineer whose Licence is endorsed for the
3. Specially authorized person
4. Both l and 2 are correct.
inspection
base is carried out by:
aircraft
109. If control systems are disturbed after the second check, but before first f
light.
I. Disturbed portion should be checked in duplicate again
2. Distorted portion should be checked by second person only
3. Complete portion should be checked by second
4. Complete portion should be checked in duplicate again.
110. Series F Part-XII deals with:
1. Inspection of wooden aircraft
2. Duplicate inspection of flying controls
3. Duplicate inspection of engine controls
4. Both 2 and 3 are correct.
111. Aircraft of composite construction shall be inspected before issue/renewal
or validation
of C of A and thereafter every year
1. One 2. Two 3. Five 4. Ten.
112. Factor causing wood deterioration is:
1. Chemical action of glue due to ageing
2. Mechanical forces mainly due to timber shrinkage
3. Growth of fungus
4. All are correct.
113. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity
are
especially prone to:
1. Timber shrinkage 2. Glue deterioration
3. Both A and B are correct 4. None of the above.
127. RAO can authorized a person to carried out duplicate inspection of aircraft
if a person was at least 3 years general maintenance experience and months expe
rience
on the type of aircraft involved.
I. Three 2. Six
3. Nine 4. None of the above.
128. Duplicate inspection when aircraft is at base, is carried out by:
1. Approved person in an approved organization.
2. Flight engineer
3. Quality control manager
4. Aircraft maintenance engineer.
129. If control system is distributed after the second check, before first fligh
t:
1. Disturbed portion should be checked in duplicate again 2. Disturbed portion s
hould be checked by second person
3. Complete portion should be checked by second person only
4. Complete portion should be checked induplicate again.
130. F-XII deals with:
1. Inspection of wooden aircraft
2. Duplicate inspection of flying controls
3. Duplicate inspection of engine controls
4. None of the above.
131. Factor causing wood deterioration is:
1. Growth of fougue
2. Mechanical forces mainly due to timber shrinkage
3. Chemical action of give due to ageing
4. All are correct.
132. Aircraft of composite construction shall be inspected before issue/renewal
or validation of C of A and the thereafter every years:
1. One 2. Two
3. Five 4. Ten.
133. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity
are
especially prone to:
1. Timber shrinkage 2. Glue deterioration
3. Both 1 and 2. 4. None of the above.
134. Aircraft of composite construction shall be inspected before issue/renewal
or validation of C of A and thereafter every years:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Ten.
3. 70% 4. 60/45%
162. TSO stand for:
1. Time service operation 2. Time since operation
3. Time since overnight
163. TSN stands for:
1. time since navigation 2. Time since new
3. Time since.
164. Un press aircraft not import to India whose age is:
1. More than 15 2. More than 20
3. More than 30 years 4. 70 Years.
165. Sub. OfF XXI:
1. Import / export 2. Renewal /valid
3. First aid kits.
166. DORT stands for:
1. Director general of field trade 2. Director general of foreign trade.
167. Component include accessories or attachment:
1. True 2. False 3. None of the above.
168. For impost of tool firm required:
1. No Licence 2. No recommendation for DGCA. 3. Both.
169. NOC stands for:
1. No objective component 2. No objection certificate
3. Number of operated of component.
170. o export spares, items of equity carry out necessary repair operator may ap
proval:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. QCM 4. DAW.
171. NOC certificate made by:
1. QCM 2. RAO
3. DAW 4. DGCA.
172. CAR issued under rule:
1. 55A 2. 133A
3. 133C 4. 72A.
173. Conversion training conduct by:
1. QCM 2. RAO
3. Instructors.
174. Load / trim sheet get approved from:
1. RAO 2. DGCA
3. QCM.
175. Training program for person engaged in people of load / trim sheet include:
1. Refresher/recurrent training 2. Schedule training
3. Conventional training 4. None of the above.
176. Basic indoctrination ground training for newly hired staff used for prepare
load/trim
sheet is:
1. 45 programmed Hrs. 2. 35 Programmed I-Irs.
203. The registration marks on the un-manned free balloons shall be affixed on:
I. Left side 2. Right side
3. Right and left side 4. Identification plate.
204. On multi vertical tail surfaces aircraft the registration marks shall appea
r on:
1. Both the sides of tail surfaces
2. On inner sides of tail surfaces
3. On the out board sides of the outer surfaces
4. Not required any where as per series .X
PREPRATORY A M E EXAMS
C A R Series H, PART I
III
47. When changing fuel grades, extra precautions are to be observed from:
1. AVGAS to ATF 2. ATF to AVGAS
3. One grade of AVGAS to another 4. None of the above
48. Single tank composite sample means, mixing of fuel in equal quantity from sa
mples taken: 1. During morning, afternoon & evening 2. Upper, Middle & lower lev
el
3. Top & Bottom 4. All are correct
1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
50. The operator shall him self take corrective action by observing:
a) Qualification of AME b) Qualification of mechanics
c) Adverse trends in serviability d) Both A & B.
51. The aircraft rule of aircraft rules 1937 that lays the maintenance and certi
fication standard of civil registered aircraft is:
a) Rule 5 b) Rule 59
c) Rule 50 d) Rule 60
52. The rule that lays that a major defect or major damage to aircraft shall be
reported to
DGCA is:
a) Rule 60 b) Rule 50
c) Rule 59 d) Rule 15.
53. Aircraft component means a part filled on aircraft, the soundness and correc
t functioning of which is essential for:
a) Its continuous airworthiness b) Safety of aircraft
c) Safety of occupants d) All the above.
54. Major defects means defect of such nature that will:
a) Take at least 72 Hrs. for rectification
b) Necessarily involve change of component
c) Result in emergency
d) Reduce the safety of aircraft occupants.
55. CAR section II series C Part I classifies major defects in:
a) One group b) Two group
c) Three group d) Four group.
56. Failure of a component that result in taking emergency action:
a) Defect b) Major defect
c) Minor defect d) Repetitive defect.
57. The aircraft operator that operator it fleet as per published schedule is ca
lled:
a) Normal operator b) Private operator
c) Scheduled operator d) Non-scheduled operator.
58. All major defect will be reported to:
a) DGCA b) RAO
c) DAW d) QCM.
9. All major defect will be reported to RAO concerned:
a) Within 48 Hrs. b) Within 24 Hrs.
c) Within 12 Hrs. d) Immediately on telephone.
60. Investigation of major defect will be completed within:
a) One moths b) two months
c) six months d) three months
61. The final defect investigate report shall be sent to:
a) DGCA in duplicate b) DGCA in triplicate
c) RAO in duplicate d) RAO In triplicate.
62. The main purpose of investigation is to:
a) Find the cause of defect
b) Find the person who caused the defect
c) Avodrecurcuce of defect
d) Both A and C.
63. Mech. Delay is a delay of:
a) 15 Minute or more b) 30 Minute or more
c) 15 Minutes or more to scheduled services
d) 30 Minute or more to scheduled services.
64. for computing static s for the purpose of determining components reliability o
ne has to
take into account:
a) Major defects b) Minor defect
c) Repetitive defect d) all the above.
65. All faults malfunctioning defect or any other occurrence such may cause serv
ice
difficulties or adverse effect on continuing airworthiness shall be reported by
operator/approved maintenance organization with in:
a) 10 days b) 5 days
c) 7 days d) 15 days.
66. Records associated with defect shall be preserved for:
a) Two weeks b) Six weeks
c) One weeks d) Two years.
67. Component associated with major defect will be preserved for a period of:
a) One week b) 15 days
c) 3 Weeks d) 2 weeks)
68. Which of the following is called major defect:
a) Significant fuel contamination
b) Fuel starvation in flight
c) None of the above
d) Both A and B.
69. Operator other than scheduled operator will forward fleet performance:
a) After one months b) After two months
c) After four months d) after three months.
70. Scheduled operator shall forward fleet performance:
a) After two months b) After fifteen months c) After one month d) After six mont
hs.
71. a fleet is constituted by:
a) At least 25 aircraft b) At least 5 aircraft
c) At least 3 aircraft d) None of the above.
72. Minor defects are classified:
a) Group A and B b) Group I and II c) Emergency and Non-Emergency type d) None o
f the above.
73. CAR sec.-II series C part-Il (Recording of in flight instruments is) Applica
ble to:
a) Scheduled operator b) Non-scheduled operator
c) Public transport aircraft d) All the above.
74. Group I type major defect includes:
a) Fires during flight b) false five warning during flight
c) Both A & B d) None of the above.
75. Occurrence of major defect falling into group-I will require:
a) renewal of C of A b) Registration of FRC
c) Both A and B d) None of the above.
76. In flight instrument reading should be recorded:
a) At least once in each of sector
b) At least once in each of sector under stabilized cruise conditions
c) In the even of emergency condition of flight
d) Both B & C.
77. Only those defects must be entered in the relevant colors of flight reports,
that are
observed during:
a) Preflight b) Post flight
c) Course of flight d) all are correct.
78. If no defect is reported by crew during the previous day AME will:
a) release the aircraft for flying
b) Release the aircraft after consulting QCM
c) Release aircraft for flight only when NIL entry has been made by pilot
d) None of the above.
79. Defects observed at a place away from normal base are recorded in:
a) Aircraft log book b) Journey log book couloum XI
c) Job sheet d) Defect register
80. In case performance deterioration and observed in aircraft test flight is ca
rried out to
ascertain increase of drag from the parameter:
a) Fuel flow and airspeed b) Fuel flow and true airspeed
c) Fuel flow and altitude d) None of the above.
81. CAR series C Part-IV relates to:
a) Public transport aircraft
b) Public transport aircraft turbo jet only
c) Aircraft other than public transport
d) None of the above.
82. If detonation is observed of an engine RAO may:
a) Curative measures to be taken
b) Flight test to ascertain increase Indy
c) Replacement of engine
92. Reliability displays for any reported failure or non-routine, removals are t
o be impressed in terms:
a) 1000 Aircraft Hours. b) 1000 Aircraft Hrs. or 100 Landings
c) 1000 aircraft Hrs. or 3 months elapsed time
d) 1000 aircraft hrs. or after appropriate devolutions.
93. Reliability displays for all reported removals are to be preserved for a per
iod:
a) Six months b) One year
c) Two years d) five years.
94. Regarding defects occurring on the aircraft system the role of RAO is to:
a) Carry out speed checks on the records maintained
b) Ensure that defect are classified properly
c) Associate themselves seas to get the defects rectified
d) All the above.
95. CAR series D Part I deals with the reliability of aircraft engine operated by
:
a) Schedule operator b) Unscheduled operator
c) Schedule and un-operator d) All operator
96. The reliability of engines is measured BY:
a) Number of IFSD b) Number of IFSD in relation to engine flight hrs.
c) Number of nature of 112S1) d) No. of nature of IFSD in relation to engine fli
ght hrs.
97. How many categories in flight shut dawns are recognized:
a) 1 Categories b) 2 Categories
c) 3 Categories.
98. Shut downs deals with the aircraft structural damage and adversely affect is
called:
a) Critical shut-down b) Non critical shut down
c) Both d) None of the above.
99. If Cannot be shut down or feathered than it is:
a) Critical shutdowns b) Non critical shutdowns
c) Both.
100. In-flight shutdowns used for computing an operator s shutdown rate include:
a) Critical shutdown
b) Other than critical shutdown
c) Shutdown for testing / training
d) Both A and B are correct.
101. In flight shut down rate, engine hrs. flown and reliability index is to be
sent to RAO
every month by:
a) The 10th day b) The I 5th day
c) The 20th day d) None of the above.
102. 25th day of each month the report sent to RAO is:
a) Total time flown b) Sr. No.
c) Time since overhaul d) all of the above.
103. RAO analyzes the monthly report and forward to:
a) DGCA b) Sub-RAO
c) Operator d) I and III.
104. The function of maintenance is:
a) Reliability b) Disability
c) Flexibility d) I and II.
105. Reliability deals:
a) Basic design b) Personal training
c) Overhaul d) All of the above.
106. During the time the operation in the alert area than who will monitor the c
orrective
program:
a) RAO b) AME
c) QCM d) I and III.
107. A supplementary report containing various information regarding IFSD must b
e sent to:
a) RAO by the 25th of the month.
b) DGCA by the 25th of the month
c) AME d) Pilot
121. The operator shall establish an alert level:
a) In the pressure b) Based on experience
c) With concern to AME.
122. Alert level can be continuously up-dated by means of rolling average either
:
a) Quarterly or 6 monthly b) 8 Monthly
c) 2 year d) 1 year.
123. Corrosion
a) Maintenance
c) Register d)
124. If in any
brought to
the notice of:
a) QCM b) RAO
c) Operator d)
AME.
125. The details of the any programme approved by AWO, it should be reflected in
the:
a) Inspection schedule b) COSL
c) Special inspection schedule d) All of the above.
126. Hidden function components must have some form of:
a) Scheduled maintenance b) Unscheduled maintenance
c) Both d) None of the above.
127. Who maintain a continuous record of the parameters in a graphical form or a
tabulated form:
a) AME b) Every operator
c) QCM d) I and III.
128. It shall be the responsibility to mention the fatigue lives of the componen
ts in the engine log book.
a) By QCM b) By overhauling agency
c) By organization d) All of the above.
129. It shall be the responsibility to report to RAO/sub RAO in writing all life
limiting features:
a) BY QCM b) By overhauling agency
c) By organization d) All of the above.
130. The parameters shall be recorded/plotted after:
a) 24 Hrs. B) 60 Hrs.
c) 5OHrs. d) 12 Hrs.
131. The operators shall inform in writing whenever alert values are reached or
abnormal
conditions.
a) RAO/Sub RAO b) AME
c) QCM d) DGCA.
132. The corrective maintenance action shall be spell out in:
a) Journey logbook b) maintenance system manual
c) CAR d) I and III.
133. Failed engines shall be preserved at least for:
a) 1 Year b) 2 years
c) 5 Years d) All of the above.
149. RAO May require immediate withdrawal of engines from service in case:
a) Parameter monitoring records are not kept.
b) Alert values have been exceeded
c) Both A and B are correct.
d) None of the above.
150. CAR series D Part-V regarding maintenance of fuel oil consumption is applic
able in
respect of:
a) All aircraft engines b) Scheduled aircraft engines
c) Light aircraft engines d) None of the above.
151. Daily uplift of fuel /oil consumption in fuel oil register is signed by:
a) QCM b) Licensed AME
c) DY.QCM d) Authorized person.
152. Average fuel consumption is recorded:
a) In engine logbook b) In airframe log book
c) By an AME.
153. Fuel and oil consumption records in logbooks are to be maintained by:
a) Licensed AME b) Qualified technicians
c) QCM d) A and B are correct.
154. Work performed at predetermined intervals to maintain an aircraft in airwor
thy condition
Scheduled maintenance b) Preventive maintenance
c) Both A and B d) None
155. Any change from one maintenance process to another after getting approval f
rom RAO needs to be documented in:
a) QC manual b) Maintenance system manual
c) BothAandB.
156. On the consideration of operating economy operator can increase the service
life of
components with the approval of:
a) Manufacturer b) QCM
c) DGCA d) Both B and C.
157. Condition monitoring of components follow:
a) Hard time maintenance b) On-condition control
c) Operate to failure philosophy d) A and C are correct.
158. Service life of a component can be reduced by an operator.
a) On his own b) On his own under intimation to DGCA
c) On his own but with DGCA Permission d) At the behest of DGCA.
Series F
1.Procedure relating to registration/dc-registration of a/c are given in
1. F series ,part I 2. F series, part II
3. F series, part III 4. None of the above
2. The rule that requires that no person shall fly or assist in flying any a/c u
nless it has been
registered is
1. Rule 15 2. Rule 50
3. Rule 5 4. None of the above
3. The a/c should bear its nationality and registration marks and the name & the
residence of the
owner affixed or painted in accordance with
1. Rule 5 2. Rule 37
3. Rule 50 4. None of the above
4. An a/c in India is registered in
1. Category A 2. Category B
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
5. An a/c in India is registered in category A when the a/c is widely owned
I. By citizens of India
2. By a company or corporation registered in India and the chairman and atleast
2/3w of the directors of which are citizens of India
3. By central government or any state government
4. All above
6. An a/c owned by a company registered elsewhere than in India provided that co
mpany has given the a/c on lease to any person who is a citizen of India or to a
nother company or to state or central government that that a/c will be registere
d in
I. Cat. A 2. Cat. B
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
7. An ale in India is registered in category B when the ale is wholly owned
I. By persons resident in or carrying on business in India, who are not citizens
of India
2. By a company or corporation registered elsewhere than in India and carrying o
n business in India
3. Both a& b are correct
4. None of the above
8.
1.
2.
3.
4.
13. The registration of an ale registered in India may be cancelled at any time
by DGCA of its
satisfied that
I. The registration has been obtained by furnishing false information
2. The a/c has been destroyed or permanently
3. The lease in respect of the a/c registered has expired
4. All above
14. The nationality mark of all Indian
1. EI 2. JO
3. AVU 4. VT
Registered ale is
DGCA:
1. Test flight report of the aircraft
2. Test flight schedule or scouting and approval 3. Test schedule of scouting an
d approval 4. None of the above.
34. Manuals that should be submitted in respect of a type component/item of equi
pment for
approval are:
1. Type service manual and flight manual
2. Maintenance manual and structural repair manual
3. Both I and 2 are correct
4. None of the above.
35. A minor modification is one which has appreciable effect on:
1. Weight and balance 2. Structural strength
3. Flight characteristics 4. None of the above.
36. A major modification is one that shall be:
1. Classified as minor modification
2. Not classified as minor modification
3. Equal to overhaul
4. None of the above.
37. Design submitted for type approval shall beer:
1. Description title and drawing number
2. As in A plus date of issue
3. As in 13 plus issue number
4. All are correct.
38. If an alteration is made to a drawing then:
1. A new issue number will be issued
2. Date shall be allocated
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
4. None of the above.
39. If at any time the DGCA feds that the safety of aircraft is jeopardized it c
an:
1. Cancel or suspend a type certificate
2. Endorse a type certificate
3. Incorporate a modification in type certificate
4. All above are correct.
40. For incorporating any modification in type certification of aircraft /aircra
ft component:
1. Approval of DGCA is a must
2. Written approval of manufacturer is a must
3. Approval of QCM/CEM is a must
4. All above are correct.
41. A major modification is a one which has:
I. No appreciable effect on the weight and balance.
2. No appreciable effect on the structural strength
3. Appreciable effect on the reliability and operational characteristic effectin
g the airworthiness of the aircraft / aircraft component
4. None of the above.
42. For type certification of aircraft as per CAR Series E Part-Il Annexure I --------------unmounted photograph of the aircraft have to be submitted: size -------------------I. Three, l0 X 15 cm.
2. Three, not less than 10 x 15 cm.
3. Five, 10 X 15cm.
4. Five, not less than 10 X 15 cm.
43. For obtaining type certificate of an aircraft the manufacturer has to submit
the following
dimension to the DGCA.
I. Length of fuselage
2. Length overall, height overall
3. Both I and 2 are correct. 4. None of the above.
44. for obtaining type certificate of a rotorcraft the manufacturer has to submi
t the following
dimension to the DGCA:
1. Length of fuselage
2. Overall length
3. Diameter of main rotor and tail rotor main rotor blade chard.
4. All above are correct.
45. DGCA is empowered to issue/review or revalidate the C of A vide:
1. Aircraft rule 5 2. Aircraft rule 15
3. Aircraft rule 15 4. None of the above.
46. All aircraft registered in India must posses a current and valid C of A befo
re they are flown is
a requirement as per aircraft rule:
1. 50 2. 30
3. 15 4. 50A.
47. The procedure for issuing Indian C of A is given in:
I. F Series Part-I 2. F Series part-Il
3. F Series part-Ill 4. None of the above.
48. For issue of C of A the DGCA has to satisfy itself that the aircraft/rotorcr
aft
manufactured/imported meets the approved airworthiness standards of:
I. BCAR 23 and JAR 25 2. FAR 23 and FAR 25
3. FAR 27and 29 4. All above are correct.
49. C of A for aircraft, which do not fulfill the airworthiness standards as lai
d down by the
DGCA:
I. Cannot be issued/renewed 2. The operator may consult the DGCA ( DAW ) before
buying / importing such aircraft so that acceptance standards are conveyed to hi
m.
3. Both I and 2 are correct.
4. None of the above.
50. Application for obtaining C of A is to he submitted on form:
1. CA 23A 2. CA-25
3. CA-28 4. CA-27.
51 . Before C of A In respect of an imported aircraft is issued, the DGCA satisf
y himself with the:
I. Airworthiness standards of the aircraft
2. Design standards of the aircraft
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above.
52. For aircraft type imported into the country for the first time the documents
accompanying the
export C of A will be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
53. Aircraft with MTOW greater that 5700 Kg. And categorized as passenger/mail /
good shall
have at least engines:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. None of the above.
54. For issuance of C of A for an aircraft type which is imported for the first
time. the
owner/operator shall supply, free of cost to DGCA:
I. Airplane flight manual
2. Type certification
3. MMEL
4. All above are correct.
55. The set of documents that shall be submitted to RAO/Sub-RAO of DGCA where th
e aircraft is bused with up to date amendments will he:
Aircraft maintenance manual, engine maintenance manual
2. Overhaul manual, structural repair manual
3. Service bulletins, SSID, CPCP.
4. All of the above.
56. For issuance of C of A partially filled Indian C of A will be forwarded by t
he DGCA:
1. To the manufacturer for completion
2. To the owner/operator for completion
3. To the RAO/Sub-RAO for completion
4. All above are correct.
57. RAO/Sub-RAO may issue/validate the C of A on the basis of:
1. ExportCofA
2. Physical inspection of the aircraft
3. Scrutiny of other related documents
4. All of the above.
58. The airworthiness officer is required to:
Inspect the aircraft to the extent possible
2. To establish that all instruments and equipment have been installed and are i
n
serviceable condition.
3. Aircraft is airworthy
4. All of the above. a
59. The validity of C of A is:
I. for one year
2. For six months
3. Not exceeding one year
4. 1 and 3 are correct.
74. Class II and class IV aeronautical products for export to India should be ac
companied by:
I. Export C of A
2. Airworthiness approval tag
3. Airworthiness approval tag issued under port 21e of FAA
4. None of the above.
75. Class I aeronautical products for export to India should he accompanied by:
I. Export C of A
2. Airworthiness approval tag
3. Airworthiness approval tag issued under part 21 of FAA
4. None of the above.
76. Complete aircraft comes under class aeronautical product. 1. 1 2. II
3. III 4. IV.
77. An aircraft being exported to India in flyaway condition should:
1. Display Indian nationality and registration marking
2. Display foreign nationality and registration marking
3. Have ferry flight authorized
4. Both I and 2 are correct.
78. Displaying of nationality and registration marking upon the aircraft prior t
o being imported
into India is the responsibility of:
1. Exporter of the aircraft 2. Importer of the aircraft
3. DGCA 4. FAA.
79. Noise standards acceptable in India for issuance of Indian C of A are:
I. Same as required for issuance of C of A in USA.
2. More stringent that in USA
3. Less stringent than in USA
4. It is not a eritereon for issue of C of A.
80. Class II and III aeronautical products imported into India must accompany:
1. Airworthiness approval tag
2. Compliance with FAR 21 (sub Part R)
3. Compliance with FAR 21 (Sub part P)
4. Compliance with FAR 21 (Sub Part L).
81. Engine I propellers imported into India must accompany:
1. Export C of A
2. Airworthiness approval tag
3. Compliance with FAR 21 (sub part C)
4. Both I and 3 are correct.
82. Reconditioned /used /surplus parts must be certified by:
I. FAAIJAA certified repair station
2. Certified aircraft and power plant mechanic a
3. Both I and 2
4. Either I or 2.
83. Requirements for renewal of C of A is contained in:
1. CAR Series Part IV 2. FAR Part 65
3. Aircraft rule 5 4. Both 2 and 3 are correct.
84: The rule that requires that all Indian registered aircraft posses a valid C
of A is:
I. Rule 15 2. Rule 50
mendatory modification are not carried out as and when called for:
C of R will lease to be valid
C of A will lease to be valid
W/T will lease to be valid.
are correct.
99. The AME /approved firm undertaking the C of A renewal work must ensure the a
vailability
of -------------- for the type of aircraft.
1. Up to date technical literature
2. Special tools, SSID CPCP , COSL
3. List of mandatory modification / inspection
4. All are correct.
100. Before the C of A is renewed the operator/owner has to satisfy the airworth
iness officer about the --------------- aspects of aircraft since the C of A of
aircraft was last renewal:
I. All mandatory modification / inspections have been complied with
2. All major repairs and overhauls have been carried out
3. The flight manual is amended and up to date
4. All of the above.
101. At the time of C of A renewal, the operator must submit to airworthiness of
fice:
I. approved test flight report
2. A certificate that the radio, communication navigation and radar equipment on
board have been checked for performance.
3. All documents relating to log book entries
4. All of the above.
102. Aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And above are required to be maintained by:
1. Individual AME s 2. Airlines
3. Approved organizations 4. All are correct.
103. Certificate of maintenance review in cases of aircraft with AUW of 15,000 K
g. And above is
issued by:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. QCM 4. All are correct.
104. Aircraft with AUW more than 15,000 Kg. Can maintained by:
1. Individual AME s 2. Authorized personnel
3. Approved organizations 4. All are correct.
105. Certificate of maintenance review of case of aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg
. And below is
issued by:
1. Individual AME s
2. AME having his Licence endorsed in category B to cover the type of aircraft in
lv ed
3. AME having his Licence endorsed in category D to cover the type of engine invo
lved
4. Both 2 and 3 are correct.
25. The component life list, being a part of maintenance system manual, can be r
evised:
a) On manufacture s recommendation b) As per requirements
c) BY QCM d) With the concurrence of DGCA.
26. Release
a) Category
c) Category
27. Release
a) Approved
c) Named in
organisat
5.
1.
3.
4.
for period of
18. Release Notes and other necessary documents are preserved for a period of:
1. Two years. 2. Five years.
3. Eight years. 4. Ten years.
19. CAR Series E Part VIII deals with:
1. Training Schools 2. Manufacturer
3. None of the above 4. All are correct.
20. Which Rule stipulated the grant of AME Licence to an Applicant, who have cou
rse from
DGCA approved, will be granted one year relaxation in total Aeronautical Mainten
ance
Experience:
1. Rule 61. 2. Rule 62.
3. Rule 16 4. Rule 61 A
21. Which Form shall be submitted to local Airworthiness for Approval of Institu
te:
1. CA182 2. CA182C
3. CA182A 4. CA182D.
22. On receipt of an Application, the Institute will be inspected by:
1. Quality Control Manager 2. R.A.O. and DGCA.
3. Both 1&2 4. None of the above.
23. Chief Instructor shall be nominated by:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. Chairman of an Organisation 4. Any of the above.
24. For AME Chief Instructor,---------------- years of Aeronautical Experience,
out which------------- years in of actual Maintenance of Aircraft is required:
1. 10,3 2. 10,6
3. 5,2 4. 5,4
25. How many Airframe Instructor are required by a Training School:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Four
26. In one year the maximum and minimum no. of hours in a class should be:
1. 30,10 2. 40,20
3. 20,5 4. 50,20.
27. For AME training course, the candidates should have passed 10+2 with minimum
aggregate
PCM:
1. 50% 2. 60%,
3. 33% 4. 70%
28. During any Semester the practical training shall not be less than:
1. 20% 2. 25%
3. 50% 4. 61%
29. Minimum presence during training period shall not be less than:
1. 80% 2. 75%
3. 70% 4. 93%
30. To be declared successful in course, the candidate must obtain minimum of:
1. 33% of marks. 2. 50% of marks
3. 78% of marks. 4. 70% of marks.
31. The application of Students appearing for DGCA AME Exams shall be forwarded
by:
1. Chief Instructor 2. Any Instructor
3. Managing Director 4. None of the above.
32. Question and Answer Paper of each paper shall be preserved by an Institute f
or a period of:
1. Six months 2. Two months
3. One year 4. Two years.
33. The Institute shall carry out an Internal Audit of their facilities & submit
to local Airworthiness
Office:
1. Once in a year. 2. Thrice in a year
3. Twice in a year 4. Both I & 3 are correct.
34. CAR Series E Part IX deals with:
1. Requirements of Infrastructure and station other than parent base.
2. Manufacturers of Aviation Goods/items. 3. Training Schools,
4. None of the above.
35. CAR Series E Part IX Applies to:
1. Organisation approved in Category
3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of the above.
.
in Series E
is to he preserved for:
a) 5 Years b) 2 Years
c) One year d) 1 0 Years
9. The AME of the firm approved in Category C can issue:
a) Certificate of maintenance b) Release note
c) Rejection note d) Both B and C.
10. Test reports issued by organization approved in Category
a) Release note signatory b) Airworthiness officer
c) DGCA Head Qtr. d) QCM
is signed by:
1. Cat. B, 2. Cat. E
3. Cat.F 4. Cat .F
23. AMOs are given approval in:
1. Cat. C 2. Cat. D
3. Cat. F 4. Cat G
24. CAR Series Cat 0 relates with:
1. Test Flight of aircraft. 2. Testing Labs
3. Maintenance of aircraft. 4. Both B & C.
25. Organisation located outside India applies for approval of organisation on f
orm:
on form:
1. CA182C 2. 183C
3. 128C 4. 138C
26. Completed form for Approval of an organisation located outside of India is s
ubmitted:
1. R A W O. 2. Sub R A W O
3. D G C A 4. Both l & 3
27. The scope of approval should be reflected in:
1. Engg. Manual 2. Quality Control Manual
3. Maint. System Manual 4. Organisation Manual
28. Approval of an Organisation is valid for:
1. Five years. 2. One year
3. Ten years. 4. Six months only
29. Serviceable aircraft components are stored in:
1. Bonded Stores 2. Quarantine stores
3. Approved stores 4. Both I & 2
30. Unserviceable aircraft components are stored in:
1. Bonded stores 2. Quarantine stores
3. Both 1 & 2 4. All are correct.
31. Storage and Handling of Electrostatic devices is spelt in:
1. AAC 10 of 2000 2. AAC 8 of 2000
3. AAC 6 of 2000 4. AAC 6 of 2001
32. Nodal Officer for Approval should have Aviation experience of:
1. 5 years 2. Three years
3. Six months 4. All the above.
33. Requirement of Refresher Course of AMEs is in:
1. AAC 8 of 2000 2. AAC 8 of 2001
3. AAC 8 of 2002 4. All the above.
34. Quality assurance unit carries out internal Audit atleast:
1. Twice a year 2. Thrice a year
3. Once a year 4. All are correct.
35. Engineering Organisation Manual is approved by:
1. DGCA Head Quarters 2. R A W 0.
3. Need not to be approved 4. Both I & 2
36. Quality Control Manual of fueling companies is approved by:
1. R A W O. 2. Sub-A W O.
3. DGCA 4. Bothl&@.
1. Pilot in command 2. Co
3. QCM 4. Air Hostess
pilot
powered homs glider at full power in level flight should not be capable of
than
Knots 2. 80 Knots
Knots 4. none of the above
generally be
I. Same as MEL 2. Less than MMEL
3. More restrictive than MMEL 4. none of the above
44. For getting approval for ETOPS operator has to demonstrate to DOCA that flig
ht can
continue to a safe landing under anticipated degraded operating conditions arisi
ng from
I. Total loss of thrust from one engine
2. Total loss of engine generated electric power
3. Either a & b 4. none of the above
45. Operation manual is to prepared by
1. Scheduled/non scheduled operator 2. Private aircraft operators
3. Flying training institute 4. All are correct
46. Operations manual must incorporate
1. Route guide & charts 2. Dangerous goods manual
3. Security aspects 4. All are correct
47. Operations manual consisting of many selections
I. Should be in one volume 2. Can be in more than one volume 3.
Both a & b 4. none of the above
48. The responsibility of ensuring accuracy of the operations manual as well as
that of issuing revisions and amendments rests with
I. Chief operation officer 2. Chief test pilot
3. QCM 4. Designated officer
49. Data regarding take off landing and cruise is included in
1. Performance manual. 2. Flight safety manual S
3. Training manual 4. Operations manual
50. Four copies of operations manual are to be submitted to
I. DGCA for record 2. DGCA FOR REVIEW
3. DOCA for approval 4. none of the above
51. Basic RVSM envelop is with in altitude range of
I. Sea level 1290 2. Fl 290 Fl 410
3. Fl 290 Fl 460 or maximum attainable 4. F14l0 and above
52. In RVSM air space vertical separation is
1. 300 meters 2. 600 meters
3. 6000 meters 4. 1000 meters
53. Aircraft system used to keeping vertical separation should have not on error
exceeding
1. 15m 2. 25m
3. 50m 4.. 80m
54. for RVSM operations , systems requirements is
1. Two indipendent altitute measuring systems 2. Altitude alert system 3. Altitu
de control system 3. All are correct
55. In case of aircraft already in service RVSM airworthiness approval is to be
granted by regularities authority of
1. Country of manufacture /design 2. Country where aircraft are operated
3. Either a & b 4. Both a & b
56. Fill RVSM envelope covers
I. Mach no and altitude range 2. Mach no and gross weight
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
1.
3.
6.
1.
2.
3.
4.
27. Direct reading compass may be certified by person holding any category of AM
E Licence provided the candidates has passed the requisite paper and has number
of installation and experience of compensation:
1. 4 2. 6
3. 8 4. None of the above.
28. Various categories of AME Licence details in aircraft rule:
1. Rule 60 2. Rule 61
3. Ru1e49 4. Rule3O.
29. Who is responsible to conduct exams for issue / extension of AME Licence /BA
MEC:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. Operator 4. CEO.
30. The examination for the purpose of acquiring AME Licence/BAMEC conducting:
I. Once in year 2. Twice a year
3. Thrice a year 4. Once in two year.
31. AME Licence / BAMEC exam are normally conducted in the month of:
1. March and September 2. March and October
3. April and September 4. April and October
32. Application to appear in AME exam is applied on form no.
1. CA-23 2. CA-29
3. CA-9 4. CA-25.
33. Application for exams shall be submitted by of January and July for march an
d
September session:
1. 8th 2. 7th
3. 6th 4. 5th
34. Basic papers are:
I. Paper-I 2. Paper-lI
3. Paper-IV 4. Both I and 2.
35. Specific paper is:
I. Paper-I 2. Paper-lI
3. Paper-Ill 4. Paper-IV.
36. Applicants successfully completing DGCA approved manufacturer s training cours
e qn
particular type of aircraft /engine/system are exempted from:
1. Paper-Il 2. Paper-IV
3. Both 1 and 2 4. None of the above.
37. Who is the chairman in oral-cum practical test:
1. DAW 2. Dy. DAW
3. Controller of airworthiness 4. Any one of the above.
38. The passing %age in examination is:
1. 70% of total marks 2. More than 70%
3. Less than 70% 4. None of the above.
39. Applicant can avail 3 chances of oral cum practical test in the:
1. 6 2. 3
3. 4 4. 5.
40. How many categories of licenses are there:
1. 4 2. 6
A and C :
part_IV:
experience
required is:
1. 18 Months 2. 12 Months
3. 6 Months 4. 24 Months.
82. 6 Months additional experience is required for additional category from:
I. LA to IS 2. PE to JE
3. RA to RN 4. ES to PE
83. CAR Series L part-X deals with:
I. Issue of AME s Basic Licence
2. Issue of authorization to ME/approved person
3. Grant of open ME s Licence
4. None of the above.
84. Special permission for certifying airworthiness of aircraft components is hi
therto termed as:
1. Permit 2. Authorization
3. Approval 4. None of the above.
85. For grant of authorization application of AME will be forwarded to RAO/Sub-R
AO by:
I. QCM 2. Chief ME
3. RAO 4. Executive head of operator s organization
86. In certain cases, when AME even does not fulfill the stipulated experience r
equirements for
authorization may be allowed to undertake examination. In such cases experience
requirements
must be satisfied with in:
1. 3 Months 2. 6 Months
3. 12 Months 4. 18 Months.
87. Validity of authorization is of:
1. 6 Months 2. 12 Months
3. 3 Months 4. Limited period
88. Authorization may be extended up to a maximum period of months by RAO in
circumstances:
1. 3 months 2. 6 Months
3. 2 Months 4. Limited period.
89. Which aircraft Rules states that all work on aircraft is to be certified by
licensed
engineers/authorized person?
1. 61 2. 60
3. 54 4. None of the above.
90. The guideline for refresher course for grant of approval is given in:
I. Series L part-IX 2. Rule 61
3. Rule 54 4. AAC and of 2000.
91. For issue/extension of approvals, the applicant will be examined by a board
consisting of:
1. QCM or DY.QCM
2. Head of particular section/shop
3. Representative of director of airworthiness
4. All of the above.
92. The approval granted will he valid for:
1. 1 Year 2. 2 Year
103. Some of the aircraft requires flight engineer as part of flight crew as lai
d down in:
1. C of A / Aircraft flight manual
2. Aircraft/flight log book
3. Operations manual
4. All of the above.
104. FE shall be licensed in a manner prescribed in of the aircraft rules, 1937:
I. Section Wand X of the schedule III
2. Section W and X of the schedule II
3. Section V and X of the schedule 11
4. Section V and X of the schedule III
105. The requirements in this CAR section II, Series L Part-XV are complimentary to
the provision of:
1. JARJ FAR part-14 2. ICAO Annex lo, Vol-I
3. Rule 61 of aircraft rules 1937 4. ICAO Annex-I.
106. SFE applying for issue of SFE Licence shall have passed ten plus two with:
1. Physics and maths 2. Physics and chemistry
3. Physics or maths 4. Physics or chemistry.
107. SFE ground course of Instructions as per the syllabus shall be approved by:
1. RAO
2. DGCA(Attn.-Director of airworthiness)
3. QCM of the training institute in the organization
4. DGCA.
108. The duration of the courses shall be decided by:
1. RAO 2. DGCA
3. CI 4. QCM
109. Normally the duration of FE course should not be less than for Basic course
and type
course
1. 3 Months each 2. 8 Weeks each
3. 4 Weeks each 4. 1 Month each.
110. At the end of the ground course will conduct the examination to determine t
he
knowledge of applicant applying for SFE Licence:
1, CEO 2. DGCA
3. Operator 4. RAO.
111. SFE written examination, paper-iii is based on the subjects related to:
1. Airline 2. Specific paper for engine or airframe
3. Rules and regulations 4. Definitions and performance-Airplane/Helicopter.
112. An actual route check of aircraft in case the simulator is not there for th
e purpose of renewal of
FE Licence, is valid for the period of:
1. 40Days 2. 45 Days
3. 35 Days 4. 30 Days.
113. A technical and performance refresher course of FE to renew of their Licenc
e is conducted by:
1. Operator 2. RAO
3. DGCA 4. None of the above.
114. For extension of aircraft rating on FE Licence, he should have 50 Hrs. off
lying experience of
which not more than should be on approved simulator with in the proceeding perio
d, from the date of submission of application:
1. 30 Hrs., 6 Months 2. 30 Hrs., l2Months
115. for extension of aircraft rating on FE Licence. FE should have completed th
e skill test (oral
cum practical) within the period of proceeding the date of application:
1. 6 Months 2. 3 Months
3. 12 Months 4. 4 Months.
116. If the FE does not exercise his privilege for more than l year , he has to
undergo-:
1. Extended technical refresher
2. As in (a) plus simulator check by FE
3. As in (b) plus complete simulator approval profiles
4. As in (c) plus 3 route checks (minimum 4 Landings)
117. Application for issue of SFE Licence shall contain:
I. R/T Licence No.
2. As in a plus signature of applicant
3. As in a plus signature of chief of operations
4. All of the above.
118. Validity period of SFE Licence is 12 Months from the date of after it is re
newed by
RAO:
I. Submission of application
2. 3 1 St December of the calendar period
3. Medical examination
4. Issue.
119. For extension of aircraft rating SFE shall have:
1. 3 Months practical experience
2. Completed a FE ground course of instructions
3. Have passed a written examination of paper 1,11, and III
4. Both I and 2
120. The minimum training required for SFE to carry out his privileges on transp
ort aircraft
carlying passengers is:
1. 10 Hrs. 2. 81-Irs.
3. 12 1-Irs. 4. 15 I-Irs.
121. After SFE has got his training on transport aircraft carrying passengers, t
o exercise his
privileges as SFE, he has to be certified fit by:
1. Operator 2. DGCA
3. Examiner 4. QCM.
122. Application for FE Licence must have experience is maintenance and repair o
f the
aircraft he is applying and as minimum of flying experience under the supervisio
n of
person holding FE Licence:
1. 6 Months, 50 Hrs. 2. 6 Months, 100 Hrs.
3. 12 Months, 100 Hrs. 4. 12 Months, 50 I-Irs.
123. Oral cum practical board shall consist of a SAWO or a representative of fli
ght inspection
directorate of DGCA as a:
1. Member 2. External
3. Chairman 4. None of the above.
124. Oral cum practical test in conducted on:
1. Completion of all the trainings
2. During the training
3. Before passing paper-Ill
4. None of the above.
125. For renewal of FE Licence he should have completed not less than of flight
time as a
FE within the period of proceeding from the date of application for renewal:
1. 10 Hrs., 6Months 2. 10 Hrs.,3 Months
3. 20 Hrs., 3 Months 4. 20 Hrs. 6 Months.
126. Each phase of the main course of GET scheme will consist of:
1. ATA chapters 2. Subject approved by DGCA
3. Both I or 2 4. Either I or 2.
127. Operators desirous of conducting GET scheme will submit a comprehensive pro
posal which includes:
1. Biodata of Cl and other instructors
2. As in a plus their responsibilities
3. As in b plus operational manual of the organizations
4. As in a plus maintenance manual.
128. GET is eligible for appearing in paper-I and II of AME/BAMEC after completi
on of:
I. Two years 2. 6 Months
3. One year 4. 1 8 Months.
129. GET is eligible for appearing in paper III after completion of:
1. 18 Months 2. 3 Years
3. 2 Years 4. None of the above.
130. After passing paper I , II and III GET shall be permitted to:
1. Appear for paper IV
2. Eligible for oral cum practical
3. Work on aircraft
4. Take approved course.
131. After the end of 3 year of GET phase wise examination will be conducted by t
raining Schools
under the supervision of:
1. Regional airworthiness officer
2. Chief Instructor
3. Person approved by DGCA in the organization
4. Operator.
132. The request is made by for the oral cum practical of the GET after they had
passed paper 1.11, III and approved course:
1. Licensed AME 2. Chief Instructor/QCM
3. GET Himself 4. All of the above.
133. Candidate should have at least experience, during the GET 3 year training i
n the
respective field he is applying for Licence/approval:
1. Six months 2. 3 Months
3. 4 Months 4. 1 Year.
154. The CG position for take off and landing configuration has to be calculated
before
commencement of flight for:
1. Aerial work aircraft 2. Public transport aircraft
3. Private aircraft 4. All are correct.
155. The second copy of the load sheet shall be preserved for a period of at lea
st:
I. Four months 2. 2 Years
3. 12 Months 4. 5 Years.
156. Standard weight of crew for load calculation is taken as:
1. 65Kg. 2. 75Kg.
3. 85 Kg. 4. 95 Kg..
157. Standard weight for adult passenger for load calculation is taken as:
1. 85Kg. 2. 80Kg.
3. 75Kg. 4. 70Kg.
158. Standard weight for children for load calculation is taken as:
1. 30Kg. 2. 40Kg.
3. 50 Kg. 4. None of the above.
159. Standard weight for children infants for load calculation is taken as:
1. 10Kg. 2. 15Kg.
3. 20Kg. 4. 25Kg.
160. Mark the wrong statement:
1. Load is cabin must be placed behind passengers
2. Load must be lashed properly
3. Lashing roper must have sufficient strength
4. Cabin floor loading limitation should not be exceeded.
161. An aircraft with passenger s carrying capacity of 160 shall be equipped with
first aid
kit:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Four.
162. Physician s kit is a must for all aircraft with a seating capacity of mote th
an:
1. 20 2. 40
3. 100 4. 120.
163. First-aid kit container shall bear a white cross whose size should be at le
ast:
1. 1 Inch X 1 Inch 2. 2 Inch X 2 Inch.
3. 3lnchX3lnch 4. None of the above.
164. The
1. White
2. White
3. Green
4. Green
167. To ensure that the first aid kit seal is in intact condition before every fli
ght is the duty of:
1. QCM 2. AME
3. Pilot-in-command 4. A designated person.
168. The contents of first-aid-kit of an aircraft shall be examined once in mont
hs:
1. 6 2. 12
3. 24 4. None of the above.
169. The contents of first-aid-kit after use are to be replenished by:
1. AN MBBS Doctor 2. An authorized person
3. A medical practitioner 4. Any one of the about.
170. The training of aircrew member of Public transport aircraft in application
of first-aid-is
undertaken by:
I. RAO 2. DGCA
3. Owner/operator 4. All are correct.
171. Details of furnishing material used in aircraft are contained in:
1. Series F Part-IV 2. Series X Part-IV
3. FAR Part
182. Log books shall be kept and maintained is respect of all aircraft registere
d in India in
accordance with:
I. Rule 57 of Aircraft rules 1937 2. Rule 67 of Aircraft rules 1937
3. Rule 68 of Aircraft rules 1937 4. None of the above.
183. Propeller logbook is required for:
1. Variable pitch propeller 2. Fixed pitch propeller
3. Both of the above 4. None of the above.
184. Entries in the logbook shall be completed with in:
1. 24 I-Irs. completion of work 2. 48 I-Irs. of completion of work
3. 72 Hrs.of completion of work 4. With 3 Days of completion of work.
185. Flight report book can be called as:
1. Journey log book 2. Tech. Log
3. Both of the above 4. None of the above.
186. Journey logbook shall he signed by:
1. Pilot in command 2. Person approved by DGC A
3. AME 4. None of the above.
187. Journey logbook shall be in:
1. Duplicate 2. Triplicate
3. Quadruplicate 4. None of the above.
188. Engine and propeller logbook shall be
1. 3 Years after the engine propeller with
2. 1 Years after the engine propeller with
3. 2 Years after the engine propeller with
4. None of the above.
189. Log books other than the engine and propeller shall be preserved for a peri
od of:
1. 3 Years from the date of last entry.
2. 2 Years from the date of last entry.
3. 1 Year from the date of last entry.
4. None of the above.
190. Entries in the log book shall be made in:
I. Ink 2. Indelible pencil
3. Either of the above 4. None of the above.
191. DGCA Mandatory modification statue of the aircraft engine and its component
s shall be
reflected in:
I. Section two of log book
2. Section three of log book
3. Bothland2
4. Either I and 2.
192. In case of approved firms, the responsibility of maintenance of log book is
of :
I. RAO 2. Operator
3. Owner 4. QCM.
193. When a component is replaced not having an individual log book, its entry s
hould he made in:
I. JLB 2. Air craft log book
3. Engine log book 4. Can be made in any log book.
210. QUM shall renew the taxy permit provided the holder of it has:
1. Taxied the aircraft at least thrice during the preceding one year
2. Taxied the aircraft at least twice during the preceding one year
3. Taxied the aircraft at least once during two preceding one year.
4. None of the above.
211. QCM shall renew the taxy permit subject to the following conditions:
I. AME Licence is valid
2. Hold a valid RT Licence if it is held by permit holder
3. Both I and 2.
4. None of the above.
212. The privileges of taxy permit shall be:
1. Restricted to airport specified in permit
2. Valid for all airports
3. Restricted to a particular airport
4. None of the above.
213. Any damage caused to aircraft during taxying operations shall be informed t
o:
1. Regional /sub regional airworthiness office
2. Owner /operator of aircraft
3. Both of the above.
4. None of the above.
214. Procedure for issue of type approval for aircraft components and equipments
is defined in:
1. Ru1e57 2. Rule48
3. Rule 49 4. None of these.
215. application for type approval is to be submitted in:
I. Duplicate 2. Triplicate
3. Quadruplicate 4. None of the above.
216. Type record to ensure compliance of design of aircraft component with the r
elevant
specification and airworthiness requirements is approved by:
1. Chief Inspector 2. AME
3. Chief designer 4. QCM.
217. The inspection records of the type aircraft component or the item of equipm
ent during
construction shall be retained for period of:
1. 10 Years 2. 5 Years
3. 2 Years 4. 8 years.
218. Procedure of issue of type approval of aircraft component and item of equip
ment is in
accordance with:
1. Series X Part-V 2. Series X Part VII
3. Series X Part VIII 4. Series F Part II.
219. The manual in respect of type component/item of equipment that must he subm
itted for
approval
1. Type instruction manual 2. Type service manual
3. Roth I and 2 4. None of the above.
220. The approval for a modification, which has not been previously investigated
and approved,
shall he given by:
I. RAO 2. DGCA
3. Local airworthiness officer 4. All the above.
221. Each design drawing shall hear a:
1. Description title 2. Drawing number
3. Issue number and date of issue 4. All the above.
222. The flight test schedules for flight trial of the equipment to confirm thei
r compliance with the relevant airworthiness requirements is approved by:
I. DGCA 2. RAO
3. QCM 4. Chief Engineer.
223 The manufacture of all aircraft component shall be certified only by approve
d organization, by
licensed engineer or by authorized persons in accordance with rule:
1. Rule 53A 2. Rule 53B
3. Rule 53 Sub rule 2 4. None of these
PREPARATORY A M E EXAMS C A R SERIES R
1.
2.
3.
4.
A/c
A/c
A/c
A/c
shall
shall
shall
shall
fitted
fitted
fitted
fitted
&
&
&
&
equipped
equipped
equipped
equipped
with
with
with
with
Electrical System,
Instruments,
Radio apparatus.
Engine only.
In case aircraft fitted with Radio equipments of foreign made, then it shall
approved by:
R.A.O., 2. Airworthiness Directorate,
Sub R. A. 0., 4. Airworthiness Authority of that country.
S .
C .
49. A beam of Radio frequency range energy is transmitted and received by:
S .
& 3
11. As per CAR Series-L-Part-I, the questions in the written examinations will c
onsist:
I. Multiple choice only, 2. Objective & Subjective, 3. Essay type only, 4. None
of the above.
12. Aircraft Rules and CAR related questions appears in only:
1. Gen. Paper-Il, 2. Gen. Paper-I, 3. Paper-Ill (LA), 4. Paper-III(CP).
13. The hypothecation/Mortgages name from the Certificate of Registration, owner
may apply to:
1. Owner who hypothecation the aircraft, 2. Owner may mortgaged the aircraft,
3. Owner who leased the aircraft, 4. DGCA with sustaining documents,
14. Where the original Certificate of Registration is lost or destroyed, the dup
licate may be
issued on payment of:
1. 100 Rs. of Registration fee, . 2. 50 Rs. of Registration fee,
3. 25Rs. Registration fee, 4. 10Rs. of Registration fee.
15. The applicant shall furnish the following documents for Re-validation of typ
e Certificate;
I. Supplementary type Data sheet, 2. Type design Data Sheet,
3. ETOPS certification Basis, 4. All above.
16. Prior to carry out the test of new type Certificate of Aircraft to substanti
ate the design
construction, shall submit to DGCA:
1. Type certificate, 2, Certificate of Approval,
3. Certificate of Maintenance, 4. Test schedule for approval.
17. A flying club operates a state govt. owned aircraft whose responsibility is
to ensure of the
Aircraft has current C of A:
1. QCM of the Flying club, 2. Secretary of the Deptt.,
3. Both 1 & 2, 4. None of the above.
18. In case of imported Aircraft the validity of C of A shall begin from the dat
e of:
1. Issue of export certificate of Airworthiness, 2. Issue of Indian C of A.
3. Issue of certificate of Registration, . 4. Non above.
19. In case of imported aircraft, validity of C of A shall be restricted, to the
validity as specified ir
1. Log Book, 2. C. of A., 3. Standard C of A., 4. Both I & 2.
20. Aircraft can be imported
1. Under Indian Registration Marking, 2. With Short term C of A.,
3. With limited validity only, 4. All above.
21. For light and heavy helicopters Paper-Ill irrespective of their AUW:
1. Separate paper will conducted, 2. Common paper will be conducted,
3. Bothl&2.
22, Specific type of Aircraft, Engine subjects will come in:
1. Gen. Paper-I, 2. Gen. Paper-II, 3. Paper-III, 4. Paper-IV.
23. For endorsement of Boeing. Airbus applicant is required to:
1. Pass Paper-TV specific, 2. Pass approved Training course,
3. Clear oral-cum-practical along with Paper-IV specific. 4. All the above.
56. To carry the fuel tank dipstick on hoard on light aircraft is the responsibi
lity of:
1. QCM 2. AME
3. Pilot in command 4. All above.
57. When ever funnels are used for refueling the aircraft, they shall be bonded
to the:
1. Nozzle of the hose 2. Nozzle of the can
3. Aircraft 4. All above.
58. Position indicators and ammeters are:
1. Over hauled every two years
2. Overhauled every three years
3. Bench check every two years
4. Bench checks every three years.
59. The self-Life of each type of instrument must be reflected in:
1. quality control manual
2. Maintenance system manual 3. Engineering manual
4. Both l and 2.
60. No person shall operate piston engine aircraft with out GPSW:
1. If AUW is in excess of 5700 Kg.
2. Type certificated to carry less than nine passenger
3. Type certificated to carry mote-than six passenger
4. Both 1 and 2.
SERIES - I
14. Part II, Series I also include minimum instruments & equipment including
Communication & navigation equipment, Which are to be installed on a/c
engaged in
1. Gliders 2. Aerial work operation plus a
3. b) plus Flying club 4. b) plus Private operators
15. CAR is issued under the provision of
1. Rule 133A of A/C rules 1937
2. Rule 57 of A/C rules, 1934
3. Rule 29C of A/C rules, 1934
4. All are correct
1 6. Aerial work A/C excludes operation for services as
1. Agriculture 2. Patrol & Observation
3. Public 4. None of the above
1 7. Commercial air transport operation includes
1. Remuneration 2. Hire
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
18. General aviation operation includes
1. Search & Rescue 2. Observation & patrol
3. Both a & b 4. None above
19. All instruments dial shall have operating range marked as specified by
1. DGCA 2. Operator
3. Manufacturer 4. Both a & c
20
1.
3.
4.
21. The radio equipment shall be installed & operated with a licence issued
under
1 Indian telegraph Act of 1885 2. Indian Telegraph act 1985
3. AAC2 of 1995 4. All are correct
22. For flights on which licenced navigator is required, The instruments /
equipment are
1. Drift indicator 2. Navigator Air speed indicator
3. Both a& b 4. b) plus navigator wrist watch
23. An A/C shall be equipped with instruments which will enable
1. Flight crew to control flight path
2. Carry out required procedural maneuver
3. Observe operating limitations
4. All are correct
24. All A/C on all flights shall be equipped with
1. Safety harness for each flight crew members seat
2. Seat belt for each seat plus a) 3. Physician 4. All are correct
25. All aeroplanes on all flight shall be equipped with a seat / berth for each
passenger over the age of
1. 2 Months 2. 1 Year
3. 2 Years 4. 5 Years
44. The maintenance schedule of the test equipment as and when performed will le
ave to be certified by person approved by the RAO in consultation with
1. QCM 2. DGCA
3. DGCA (attendent)
45. The calibration period of the various instruments / equipment are mentioned
in
I. QCM 2. Inspection manual
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
46. Validation of software of computers used as test equipment is documented in
1. Operation manual 2. QCM
3. Both a & b
47. The requirement of maintenance of A/C instruments and equipment in a
serviceable condition is indicated in
1. CAR series I part 3 2. A/C Rule 57
2. A/C rule 57 (b) 4. None above
48. Contamination can be caused during 1. Dry cleaning process 3. Wet cleaning p
rocess
3. Walking of individuals 4.All are correct
49. Control of contamination is caused by
1. Filtering the air 2. Changing the air
3. Protecting components from impact 4. All are correct
50. Final filter efficiency of class II controlled environment is of the order o
f
1. 99.95/b 2. 99 %
3. 95% 4. 75 %
51. Class 3 clean room permits a specified number of particles per cubic meter
of air of sizes
1. 0.5
10 micron
m 2. 1
25 micron
m
3. 5 25 micron
m 4. None of the above
52. Standards of guidelines for clean rooms are given in
1. BS 5295 2. BS 9255
3. IS 5295 4. None of the above
53. Suitable working temperature in a clean room should be
1. 15 degree C 2. 20 degree C
3. 20+2 degree C 4. 5
25 degree C
54. Air velocity for horizontal flow clean rooms is normally
1. 0.45 + 0.1 rn/s 2. 0.30 + 0.05 m/sec
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
55. Construction of clean rooms should be as per specification laid down in
I. 1S 5295 2. BS 5295
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
56. Garments for clean rooms should be made from materials which possess
1. Non flammability 2. Limited linting
3. Negligible electrostatic generation capability
4. All are correct
57. It is prohibited to use certain items in clean rooms including
1. Conventional paper 2. Pencils & erasers
3. Tools 4. Both a & b
58. Monitoring of clean rooms refers to the procedures adopted for checking the
factors influencing the environment. These are
I. Pressure and Temperature 2. Level of contamination
3. Humidity 4. All are correct
59. Pressure in a clean room , compared to outside surrounding pressure should
always be
I. Equal 2. More
3. Less 4. None of the above
60. Series I part V deals with
1. Maintenance of equipment 2. Flight data recorder
3. Cockpit voice recorder 4. None of the above
61. Every a/c shall be fitted with equipment & Radio apparatus is in light of ru
le
1. 55 2. 56
3. 57 3. 59
62. Series I part V deals with 1. Scheduled airlines 2. Non scheduled
3. Every A/C registered in India 4. None of the above
63. Type I FDR shall record
1. Flight path 2. Speed
3. Attitude 4. All are correct
64. The type of FDR shall not be use
1. Engraving metal foil FDR s 2. Photographic film FDR s
3. Analogue FDR s using frequency modulation (FM)
77. All
5700 Kg
1. Type
3. Type
aeroplanes for which C of A is issued after 1 Jan 2005 with MTOW over
equipped with
I FDR 2. Type IA FDR
IIA FDR 4. None of the above
90. Helicopter imported after and not required to be equipped with shall record
atleast main rotor speed on recording channel of the CVR
1. 1.1.87; CVR ; two 2. 1.1.1997; FDR; three
3. 1.1.87 ; CVR; four 4. 1.1.1997 ; FDR ; one
91. Helicopter of maximum certified take off mass of over are required to be equ
ipped with
I. 5700Kg;FDR 2. 3000KgCVR
3. 7000 Kg; FDR 4. None of the above
92. CVR installed on A/C including helicopter shall have a capability of
retaining the information recorded during atleast the last of their
operation
I , 15 minutes 2. 20 minutes
3. 30 minutes 4. 45 minutes
93. Any a/c including helicopter issued with C of A after 1 July 2000 shall be f
itted with capable of retaining the information recorded during atleast the last
of its operation
1. CVR; 1 hour 2. FDR ; 2 hours
3. CVR; 2 hours 4. FDR; 1 hour
94. CVR shall be of approved type and shall meet the specification
1. Of TSO C-84 2. Acceptable to DGCA
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
95. CVR will be maintained in an approved manner by
1. AME 2. Approved person
3. Appropriately qualified person 4. None of the above
96. CVR shall not be switched off during
1. Taking off 2. Flight time 3. Landing 4. None of the above
97. In order to preserve the recorded information the CVR shall be deactivated
upon completion of flight following an
1. Accident 2. Incedent
3. Accident or incident 4. None of the above
98. CVR shall be capable of recording
1. Voice communication transmitted or received in A/C by Radio
2. Aural environment on the flight deck
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
99. CVR shall be capable of recording communication from
1. Co-Pilot headphones and pilot s headphones
2. Area microphone 3. Both a & b
100 All A/C including helicopters equipped to utilize Digital communication and
required to carry CVR shall record on CVR or FDR the digital communication with
ATC from
1. 1 Jan 1987 2. 1 Jan 1997
3. 1 Jan 2005 4. None of the above
101. All aeroplane of a maximum certified take off mass of over required to be e
quipped with and may alternatively be equipped with two combination recorders (C
VR?FDR)
1. 3000 Kg ; FDR; CVR 2. 2700 Kg; CVR; FDR
3. 7000 Kg ; FDR; CVR 4. 5700 Kg ; FDR ; CVR
102. CVR container shall
1. Be painted bright orange or bright yellow
stands for
proximity warning system
Proxy warning system
& b 4. None of the above
g
1. More than 30 passenger capacity
2. Payload capacity of 5 tonnes
3. Either a & h 4. None of the above
129. Acquisite information about various aspects of ACAS is to be included in
1. Flight manual 2. Operations manual
3. Training manual 4. All are correct
130. ACAS can be maintained by AME licensed in
1. Cat.R 2. Cat.V
3. Either a & b 4. Only trained R/V
131. MEL contains provisions for unserviceability ACAS However in no case shall
the ACAS unserviceable for more than
1. 5days 2. 7days
3. 10 days 4. 15 days
132. Resolution advisory report initiated by a pilot / observer is to be sent to
1. DGCA 2. Airports authority
3. ICAO 4. Both a & b
SERIES-O
1.
by
1.
3.
32. A helicopter with performance such that power unit failure at any point in t
he flight profile demands a forced landing is of performance class
1. 2. 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4
33. A helicopter shall always be equipped with
1. A seat or berth for person over the age of five years
2. Portable fire extinguishers in each compartment
3. Life saving drugs 4. None of the above
34. All helicopter must be equipped with
1. An accurate time piece showing time up to seconds
2. Pilot may use his watch showing time up to seconds
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
35. Helicopter operating in IFR condition shall have (in addition to instrument
in VFR flying)
1. Slip indicator 2. Landing light
3. Position light 4. None of the above
36. Helicopter which is intended to land in IMC shall be provided with radio
equipment capable of receiving signals providing guidance to
1. A point from visual landing can be effected
2. A point from which instrument landing can be effected
3. ATC transponder 4. None of the above
37. All helicopter of class 1 or 2 intended to be flown over water shall be fitt
ed with a permanent or rapidly mean of flotation if distance from I and at norma
l cruise speed corresponds to more than
1. 10 2. 30
3. 20 4. 45
38. Emergency equipment in a helicopter includes
1. A life jacket for each person on board
2. Life saving raft
3. Survival radio equipment 4. All are correct
39. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly under VFR condition is to fly to
helicopter to which the flight is planned
1. Only
2. Plus for an additional 15 mm + 10% of planned flight time
3. Plus for an additional 20 mm + 10% of planned flight time
4. None of the above
40. All helicopter operating at night shall be equipped with
1. Two landing flights
2. three landing lights , one at each wheel
3. Lights which are trainable at least in vertical plane
4. Both a & c