Sie sind auf Seite 1von 21

YOUR LBP ASSESSMENT PAPER 5/1

EASA MODULE 5 CATEGORY B1 B2


DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
To be completed after studying the module.
If the module has more than one assessment paper then is to be
completed after studying the appropriate part of the module.
After completion mark your paper using the marking guide attached.
It is recommended that you sit this assessment as
if you are doing an actual CAA examination. After-all,
it is more a learning tool than an examination. In this
way it gets you used to the examination environment
and helps in the learning process.
The CAA allow 1.3 minutes per question so you can gauge the
approximate time in which to complete this paper.

EASA 66 5/1

Licence By Post

MODULE 5 DIGITAL TECHNIQUES & ELECTRONIC SYSTEMS


MULTIPLE CHOICE PAPER
Questions marked * are for B2 students only.

1.

The binary for 27 is:


a)
b)
c)

2.

The decimal equivalent of 1011012 is:


a)
b)
c)

3.

1101100.
0110110.
11010100.

The Octal System has a base of:


a)
b)
c)

6.

1538.
6118.
538.

Convert 3248 to Binary:


a)
b)
c)

5.

42.
45.
43.

* Convert 11010112 to Octal:


a)
b)
c)

4.

11011.
11010.
10101.

12.
8.
16.

* Convert 1110110112 to hexadecimal:


a)
b)
c)

7AD16.
1DB16.
1BD16.

7. * Convert AE16 to binary:


a)
b)
c)

10101110.
11000001.
10101010.
-1-

ISSUE 9

8. * Convert 8710 to BCD:


a)
b)
c)

0001 1110.
0111 1000.
1000 0111.

9. * Convert the BCD number 0110011001 to decimal:


a)
b)
c)
10.

A
0
1
0
1

84410.
17710.
19910.
B
0
0
1
1

S
1
1
1
0

The truth table is for a:


a)
b)
c)
11.

The Boolean expression A B + A B = S represents the output of:


a)
b)
d)

12.

NAND gate.
XOR gate.
NOR gate.

The Boolean expression A + B represents the output of an:


a)
b)
c)

13.

NAND gate.
NOR gate.
XOR gate.

OR gate.
NOR gate.
AND gate.

Two switches in parallel can be represented by an:


a)
b)
c)

OR gate.
AND gate.
XOR gate.

14.

The equivalent of the gate shown is a:


a)
b)
c)

AND gate.
OR gate.
NOR gate.
-2-

15.

* VLSI means that the number of gates in a single I C package is:


a)
b)
c)

16.

Up to 1000.
Up to 100.
Over 1000.

* Fan-in of a gate is the:


a)
b)
c)

Number of outputs from a gate.


Number of inputs to a gate.
The number of inputs and outputs to a gate.

17.

The gates above represent:


a)
b)
c)
18.

* An SR Flip-Flop is set when:


a)
b)
c)

19.

Q = 0 Q = 1.
Q = 1 Q = 1.
Q = 1 Q = 0.

* An encoder is used to:


a)
b)
c)

21.

Q = 1.
Q = 1.
Q = 0.

* In a JK flip flop assuming Q = 0 Q = 1 and logic 1 is applied to J and K


inputs the result will be:
a)
b)
c)

20.

A NOT gate.
An AND gate.
An OR gate.

Convert the output signal from binary to a signal for operation of


component or indicator.
Convert the input signal into binary signal necessary for operation of
the system.
Convert a digital signal to an analogue signal.

* A Multiplexer:
a)
b)
c)

Takes many signals in and puts these signals in a serial transmission


on the output.
Takes one signal in and puts this signal in parallel transmission to a
number of outputs.
Takes many signals in and puts these in a parallel transmission on
the output.
-3-

22.

The software element of a computer is the:


a)
b)
c)

23.

The CPU in a computer system is the:


a)
b)
c)

24.

Operates slower.
Has a smaller storage capacity per chip area.
Is cheaper to manufacture.

The ROM:
a)
b)
c)

28.

Read/write memory.
Read only memory.
Random access microprocessor.

* The advantage of a DRAM over a SRAM is that it:


a)
b)
c)

27.

Register, arithmetic logic unit only.


Arithmetic logic unit, timing and control section, register.
Register, timing and control section only.

A RAM is:
a)
b)
c)

26.

Central Position Unit.


Central Power Unit
Central Processing Unit.

* The CPU consist of:


a)
b)
c)

25.

The CPU.
The programme.
The control bus.

Has no memory.
Is a non-volatile memory.
Is a volatile memory.

A BYTE is usually a:
a)
b)
c)

12 bit word.
8 bit word.
6 bit word.

29. * The highway structure for a computer has the following buses:
a)
b)
c)

Address, data, control.


Control, data, memory.
Memory, address, control.

-4-

30.

The ARINC 429 SYSTEM uses the following system to transfer data:
a)
b)
c)

31.

ARINC 429 system has a:


a)
b)
c)

32.

Bi-polar return to zero.


Manchester bi-phase.
Non return to zero.

The general arrangement of ARINC 629 includes:


a)
b)
c)

37.

Remote Controller.
Synch Controller.
Bus Controller

* Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by using:


a)
b)
c)

36.

429.
629.
573.

In the MIL-STD-1553B standard, transfer of data on the bus is achieved


by a:
a)
b)
c)

35.

Odd parity.
Even parity.
No parity.

Which of the following ARINCs are bi-directional:


a)
b)
c)

34.

26 bit word.
32 bit word.
18 bit word.

ARINC 429 uses:


a)
b)
c)

33.

Non-return to zero.
Harvard bi-phase.
Bipolar return to zero.

Current mode coupler, data bus cable only.


Data bus cable, stub cable, voltage mode coupler.
Data bus cable, current mode coupler, stub cables.

One of the advantages of fibre optic cables compared to twisted pair


cables is that they are:
a)
b)
c)

Slower in operation.
Not suitable for multiplex signals.
Smaller in size and weight.
-5-

38.

* The fibre optic cable can be identified on the aircraft by its jacket colour
of:
a)
b)
c)

39.

If three binary counters are connected in cascade the division is:


a)
b)
c)

40.

Grid.
Anode.
Cathode.

To deflect the beam of a CRT horizontally, coils are placed on the neck of
the tube:
a)
b)
c)

45.

N-P-N junction.
P-N junction.
Zener diode.

Control of brightness on a CRT is achieved by the:


a)
b)
c)

44.

Ensure dust caps are fitted.


Use a wrist strap with a low grounding lead resistance.
Use the extractors provided.

The light emitting diode is basically a:


a)
b)
c)

43.

Ceramic lens type.


Ball lens type.
Butt type.

When removing a printed circuit board from an LRU you would:


a)
b)
c)

42.

9.
8.
3.

For a fibre optic connector that is not regularly connected or disconnected,


the connector to use would be a:
a)
b)
c)

41.

Purple.
Red.
Yellow.

One on the side, one at the bottom.


Each side.
Top and bottom.

The waveform used to scan the screen of a CRT is:


a)
b)
c)

Square waveform.
Sawtooth waveform.
Triangular waveform.
-6-

46.

The timebase in a CRT consists of:


a)
b)
c)

47.

The phosphor dots on the colour CRT screen are coated to individually
produce:
a)
b)
c)

48.

MAP, PLAN, VOR and ILS.


PLAN, MAP only.
VOR, ILS, MAP only.

The colour of failure indications on the EHSI is:


a)
b)
c)

53.

Blanks.
Goes monochromatic.
Raster is removed.

The EHSI has which of the following modes?


a)
b)
c)

52.

Line.
Stroke.
Raster.

If the CRT in an EADI overheated, initially the CRT:


a)
b)
c)

51.

Both crew members systems.


The captains instruments only.
The first officers instruments only.

* The type of scanning used to produce the ground/sky colouring on an


EADI is:
a)
b)
c)

50.

Red, green, yellow.


Blue, green, red.
Green, blue, yellow.

The third symbol generator used in an EFIS is for back-up of:


a)
b)
c)

49.

Amplifier and oscillator.


Oscillator only.
Amplifier only.

Red.
Yellow.
White.

In the layout of a modern aircraft flight-deck display the pilot would have
directly in front of him/her the:
a)
b)
c)

Primary Flight Display and ECAM.


Navigation Display and ECAM.
Primary Flight Display and Navigation Display.
-7-

54.

* An ADIRU is a combination of:


a)
b)
c)

55.

On EICAS the three levels of warning are:


a)
b)
c)

56.

Status page.
Synoptic display of the faulty system.
Secondary engine parameters.

If the lower display unit fails on ECAM it can be transferred to:


a)
b)
c)

61.

Secondary engine parameters.


Flight phase page.
Synoptic display.

Under fault conditions the lower display unit on ECAM shows the:
a)
b)
c)

60.

All messages to be removed.


Advisory messages only are removed.
Advisory and caution messages to be removed.

During flight (non fault conditions) the ECAM system displays on the lower
CRT the:
a)
b)
c)

59.

Red in colour.
Yellow in colour.
Yellow in colour and indented by one space.

Pressing the CANCEL button on EICAS causes:


a)
b)
c)

58.

Level A, B and C
Level 1, 2 and 3.
Level 1, 2, 3 and advisory.

On EICAS, if caution and advisories are displayed advisories are identified


by being:
a)
b)
c)

57.

Inertial Radio Unit and Air Data Computer.


Air Data Computer and Instrument Reference Unit.
Air Data Computer and Inertial Reference Unit.

Primary Flight Display.


Navigation Display.
Cannot be transferred.

The ARINC used in Flight Data Recording is:


a)
b)
c)

537.
429.
573.

-8-

62.

The method of data transfer from the DFDAU to the DFDR (Flight Data
Recording System) is:
a)
b)
c)

63.

What are the resistance values of an ESDS wrist strap?


a)
b)
c)

64.

Altimeter, mach/airspeed, ground proximity computer.


Inertial reference unit, altimeter, EHSI.
EADI, altimeter, mach/airspeed indicator.

Who can sign for a software update?


a)
b)
c)

67.

Busbar is live.
Weight switch is made.
Engine is started.

A modern air data computer will feed information to:


a)
b)
c)

66.

250k to 1.5m.
20M to 50M.
10k to 150k.

The flight data recorder is switched on in a helicopter when the:


a)
b)
c)

65.

Bipolar return to zero.


Harvard bi-phase.
Non return to zero.

An appropriately authorised aircraft engineer.


A category C engineer only.
A CAA surveyor only.

Who can design new software?


a)
b)
c)

A BCAR section A8 approved company.


A BCAR section A1 approved company.
The CAA.

68.

The flight director bars are displayed as shown, to respond the pilot would:
a)
b)
c)

Fly down and right.


Fly up and left.
Fly up and right.

-9-

69.

The glideslope indicator on the ADI is displayed as shown above. To regain


the glidepath the pilot would:
a)
b)
c)
70.

The engine information to the flight data recorder is fed:


a)
b)
c)

71.

EFIS.
FMS.
ECAM.

HIRF protection of LRUs is provided by:


a)
b)
c)

75.

EHSI.
EADI.
VSI.

Which display gives engine indications?


a)
b)
c)

74.

Yes.
No.
Half have the same, the other half have a different gap.

Which display has an extended runway symbol?


a)
b)
c)

73.

From dedicated transmitters.


From normal transmitters with isolation between the transmitters
and FDR.
Direct.

In ARINC 629 is the terminal gap the same for all LRUs:
a)
b)
c)

72.

Fly up.
Fly down.
Stay on course.

Built in filters and over-voltage protection circuits.


Internally shielded cables.
Built in filters only.

If the inputs to a NAND gate are inverted the output will be:
a)
b)
c)

An AND gate.
An OR gate.
A NOR gate.

- 10 -

76.

Using ARINC 429 BCD the data bits are:


a)
b)
c)

77.

Which of the following is an opto-electronic device?


a)
b)
c)

78.

Minor Effect.
Major Effect.
Catastrophic Effect.

What is the maximum bonding resistance for an electro-static device which


has an operating voltage of 50 volts or higher?
a)
b)
c)

83.

Vertical.
Horizontal.
Vertical and horizontal.

What is the meaning of software criticality level A?


a)
b)
c)

82.

E.
F.
G.

In a CRT, if the magnetic field is parallel to the Y plates, what will be the
direction of the electronic beam movement?
a)
b)
c)

81.

Can pass one signal.


Smaller bandwidth.
Larger bandwidth.

15 in hexadecimal is:
a)
b)
c)

80.

A laser diode.
A triac.
A thyristor.

What is the advantage of a single mode fibre optic over ordinary electrical
wire?
a)
b)
c)

79.

11 28.
11 29.
1 8.

500,000 ohms
1 ohm.
0.05 ohm.

HF aerials are protected against lightning strikes by:


a)
b)
c)

Double bonding.
A spark gap.
Screening.
- 11 -

84.

To stop earth-loops forming:


a)
b)
c)

85.

The maximum number of terminals that can be connected to ARINC 629 is:
a)
b)
c)

86.

Triangular.
Sawtooth.
Trapezoid.

What frequency is used to create the raster effect on a CRT?


a)
b)
c)

91.

20.
31.
120.

What is the deflection field on a CRT if electromagnetic deflection is used?


a)
b)
c)

90.

OFST and FAIL.


FAIL and MSG.
MSG, FAIL and OFST.

The maximum number of terminals connected to ARINC 429 is:


a)
b)
c)

89.

BINARY.
BCD.
OCTAL.

FMS alerting modes are:


a)
b)
c)

88.

20.
31.
120.

In ARINC 429 the LABEL is in:


a)
b)
c)

87.

Both ends of the cable screen are earthed.


One end of the cable screen is earthed.
The cable screen is not earthed.

50/60Hz.
20Hz.
120Hz.

Earth rate is approximately:


a)
b)
c)

24/hour.
15/hour.
360/hour.

- 12 -

92.

The IRS computes distance from acceleration by:


a)
b)
c)

93.

Data bus cables are terminated using a:


a)
b)
c)

94.

Requires no cooling.
Takes less power.
Has a narrow viewing angle.

How is software shown in a schematic diagram?


a)
b)
c)

99.

3.
4.
2.

A disadvantage of LCD is that it:


a)
b)
c)

98.

The ELAC.
The ELAC and SEC.
The SEC.

How many satellites are required in the GPS for accurate positioning?
a)
b)
c)

97.

45 to each other.
60 to each other.
90 to each other.

On the fly-by-wire system of the A320, the stabiliser trim is controlled by:
a)
b)
c)

96.

130 resistor.
100 resistor.
25 resistor.

In the IRS the accelerometers are mounted:


a)
b)
c)

95.

Two successive differentiations.


Two successive integrations.
One integration and one differentiation.

Hard lined box.


Dotted lined box.
Circled.

Parallel to series conversion is achieved by a:


a)
b)
c)

Parallel to series converter.


Shift register.
Multiplexer/de-multiplexer.

- 13 -

100. In ARINC 629 an LRU connection to the data bus requires a:


a)
b)
c)

Current mode coupler, serial interface module and terminal


controller.
Current mode coupler, terminal controller and a production break.
Terminal controller and interface module.

101. The CMC (Central Maintenance Computer) is used to:


a)
b)
c)

Perform in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems, ie BITE.


Give red warning and amber cautions to displays IAW system
status.
Perform in-flight BITE only.

102. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent conditions will result in:
a)
b)
c)

Ailerons moving symmetrically upwards.


Ailerons and spoiler moving asymmetrically upwards.
Spoilers moving symmetrically.

103. * What is the function of the status register within a computer?


a)
b)
c)

To indicate the status of the microprocessor.


To store a programme during interrupt.
To synchronise the clock pulse.

104. In a fibre optic system, different light frequencies are separated by:
a)
b)
c)

An active filter.
A passive filter.
A star network.

105. Sensors in a fly-by-light control system:


a)
b)
c)

Require power for processors.


Require no power.
Require processing to give an output.

106. * What type of operational amplifier is used in a decoder?


a)
b)
c)

Integrator.
Comparator.
Differentiator.

- 14 -

107. This circuit is:

a)
b)
c)

A comparator.
A full adder.
A half adder.

108. The dot matrix LED construction is:


a)
b)
c)

4 x 7 or 5 x 9 rolling digit display.


4 x 7 or 9 x 5 rolling digit display.
5 x 9 or 7 x 4 rolling digit display.

109. If a sine wave voltage is applied to a circular time base circuit, the voltages
on the X and Y plates are:
a)
b)
c)

90 out of phase.
180 out of phase.
In phase

110. To allow for high speed signals in a fibre optic data bus system to be
coupled to many fibre stubs a:
a)
b)
c)

Star coupler for each fibre stub is used.


Only one star coupler is required.
Two star couplers are required.

- 15 -

EASA 66 5/1

Licence By Post

MULTI CHOICE ANSWER PAPER


Name ..

ISSUE 9

Student number Date .

Subject Digital Techniques & Electronic Systems


Assessment number 1 of 1 sheet 1 of 2
A

A
61

21

41

22

42

62

82

23

43

63

83

24

44

64

84

25

45

65

85

26

46

66

86

27

47

67

87

28

48

68

88

29

49

69

89

10

30

50

70

90

11

31

51

71

91

12

32

52

72

92

13

33

53

73

93

14

34

54

74

94

15

35

55

75

95

16

36

56

76

96

17

37

57

77

97

18

38

58

78

98

19

39

59

79

99

20

40

60

80

100

81

ON COMPLETION OF THE PAPER CHECK YOUR ANSWERS AGAINST THE MARKING GUIDE ATTACHED.
DOUBLE CHECK ANY CORRECTED ANSWERS. PASS MARK IS 75%.

EASA 66 5/1

Licence By Post

MULTI CHOICE ANSWER PAPER


Name ..

ISSUE 9

Student number Date .

Subject Digital techniques & electronic systems


Assessment number 1 of 1 sheet 2 of 2
A

101

121

141

161

102

122

142

162

182

103

123

143

163

183

104

124

144

164

184

105

125

145

165

185

106

126

146

166

186

107

127

147

167

187

108

128

148

168

188

109

129

149

169

189

110

130

150

170

190

111

131

151

171

191

112

132

152

172

192

113

133

153

173

193

114

134

154

174

194

115

135

155

175

195

116

136

156

176

196

117

137

157

177

197

118

138

158

178

198

119

139

159

179

199

120

140

160

180

200

181

ON COMPLETION OF THE PAPER CHECK YOUR ANSWERS AGAINST THE MARKING GUIDE ATTACHED.
DOUBLE CHECK ANY CORRECTED ANSWERS. PASS MARK IS 75%.

LBP Multiple choice answers (answers should be checked)


EASA Part 66 B1/B2 licence module 5 Digital Techniques Assessment 5/1
Q1
Q2
Q3
Q4
Q5
Q6
Q7
Q8
Q9
Q10
Q11
Q12
Q13
Q14
Q15
Q16
Q17
Q18
Q19
Q20
Q21
Q22
Q23
Q24
Q25
Q26
Q27
Q28
Q29
Q30
Q31
Q32
Q33
Q34
Q35
Q36
Q37
Q38
Q39
Q40
Q41
Q42
Q43
Q44
Q45
Q46
Q47
Q48
Q49
Q50

a
b
a
c
b
b
a
c
c
a
b
a
a
a
c
b
b
a
c
b
a
b
c
b
a
c
b
b
a
c
b
a
b
c
a
c
c
a
b
c
c
b
a
c
b
a
b
a
c
c

Q51
Q52
Q53
Q54
Q55
Q56
Q57
Q58
Q59
Q60
Q61
Q62
Q63
Q64
Q65
Q66
Q67
Q68
Q69
Q70
Q71
Q72
Q73
Q74
Q75
Q76
Q77
Q78
Q79
Q80
Q81
Q82
Q83
Q84
Q85
Q86
Q87
Q88
Q89
Q90
Q91
Q92
Q93
Q94
Q95
Q96
Q97
Q98
Q99
Q100

a
b
c
c
a
c
c
b
b
b
c
b
b
a
a
a
a
b
a
b
b
b
b
a
b
b
a
c
b
a
c
c
b
b
c
c
c
a
c
a
b
b
a
c
b
b
c
b
b
a

Q101
Q102
Q103
Q104
Q105
Q106
Q107
Q108
Q109
Q110

a
b
a
b
b
b
c
b
a
b

Das könnte Ihnen auch gefallen