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Professional Review Strategies for Nurses

MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING I


JUNE 2007 MOCK EXAMINATION
1. Which of the following group of hormones are released by the medulla of the adrenal gland?
a. epinephrine and norepinehrine
b. glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens
c. thyroxine, tridothyronine, and calcitonin
d. insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin
2. When a client is scheduled for a thyroid test, the nurse must determine if the client has taken
any medication containing iodine, which would alter the test results. Which of the ff. medications
contain iodine?
a. acetaminophen and aspirin
b. estrogen and amphetamines
c. insulin and oral antidiabetic agents
d. contrast media, topical antiseptics, and multivitamins
3. Which of the ff. disorders can cause a client to retain fluid and develop hyponatremia secondary
to the inability to excrete dilute urine?
a. thyrotoxic crisis
b. diabetes insipidus
c. primary adrenocortical insufficiency
d. syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
4. A client with muscle weakness, anorexia, dark pigmentation of the skin, and laboratory findings
of low serum sodium and high potassium levels may be presenting with which of the ff.
conditions?
a. Addisons disease
c. diabetes insipidus
b. Cushings syndrome
d. thyrotoxic crisis
5. Head trauma, brain tumor, or surgical ablation of the pituitary gland can lead to which of the ff.
conditions?
a. Addisons disease
c. diabetes insipidus
b. Cushings syndrome
d. hypothyroidism
6. Hydrocortisone given I.V. is the proper treatment for which of the ff. disease?
a. Addisons disease
c. Hyperthyroidism
b. Cushings syndrome
d. Hypoparathyroidism
7. To obtain an accurate CVP reading, you should:
a. Avoid taking a reading if the fluid in the manometer fluctuates with respiration
b. Place the zero level of the manometer at the level of the patients anterior chest
c. Place the patient in flat position
d. Change the patients position with each reading
8. Which of the following assessment findings would be a cause for alarm in a client taking
finasteride (Proscar)?
a. azotemia
c. decrease prostate size
b. breast enlargement
d. flushing
9. Which of the ff. interventions would not be correct for a woman having intracavitary radiation for
cancer of the cervix?
a. low-residue diet
b. Fowlers position when in bed
c. Indwelling urinary catheter to gravity drainage
d. Diphenoxylate hydrochloride and atropine (Lomotil) 2 mg four times daily
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10. Which of the ff. pieces of information should be given to a client taking metronidazole (Flagyl)?
a. breathlessness and cough are common adverse effects
b. urine may develop a greenish tingle while the client is taking his drug
c. mixing this drug with alcohol causes severe nausea and vomiting
d. heart palpitations may occur and should be immediately reported
11. A client found unconscious at home is brought to the emergency department. Physician
examination shows cherry-red mucous membranes, nail beds, and skin. Which of the ff. factors
is the most likely cause of his condition?
a. spider bite
c. hydrocarbon ingestion
b. aspirin ingestion
d. carbon monoxide
12. Full-thickness, circumferential burns to the chest cause difficulty breathing. Which of the ff.
surgical interventions is needed to correct this condition?
a. intubation
c. needle thoracentesis
b. escharotomy
d. insertion of a chest tube
13. A client has just arrived at the emergency department after sustaining a major burn injury.
Which of the ff. metabolic alterations is expected during the first 8 hours postburn?
a. hyponatremia and hypokalemia
c. hypernatremia and hypokalemia
b. hyponatremia and hyperkalemia
d. hypernatremia and hyperkalemia
14. A client has partial-thickness burns to lower extremities and portions of the trunk. Which of the
ff. I.V. fluids is given first?
a. albumin
b. dextrose 5% in water
c. lactated ringers solution
d. normal saline solution with 2mEq of potassium/100ml
15. Which of the ff. nursing diagnoses is correct for a client with reddened sacrum unrelieved by a
position change?
a. risk for pressure ulcer
b. risk for impaired skin integrity
c. impaired skin integrity related to infrequent turning and positioning
d. impaired skin integrity related to the effects of pressure and shearing force
16. A surgical client has just been admitted to a unit from the recovery room. When should the
nurse change the dressing for the first time?
a. 2 hours after admission
b. when it becomes saturated
c. based on written orders for dressing changes
d. the surgeon changes the first dressing, the follow written orders
17. Which of the ff. characteristics of an abdominal incision would indicate a potential for delayed
wound healing?
a. sutures dry and intact
b. wound edges in close approximation
c. purulent drainage on soiled wound dressing
d. sanguineous drainage in wound collection drainage bag
18. Which of the ff. interventions is most appropriate for preventing pressure ulcers in a bedridden
elderly client?
a. slide instead of lift the client when turning
b. turn and reposition the client at least every 8 hours
c. apply lotion after bathing the client and vigorously massage the skin
d. post a turning schedule at the clients bedside and adapt position changes to the clients
situation
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19. Which of the ff. instructions is the most important to give a client who has recently had a skin
graft?
a. continue physical therapy
b. protect the graft from direct sunlight
c. use cosmetic camouflage to techniques
d. apply lubricating lotion to the graft site
20. Which of the following statements is correct regarding skin turgor?
a. overhydration causes skin to tent
b. normal skin turgor is moist and boggy
c. inelastic skin turgor is normal part of aging
d. dehydration causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy
21. Which is the most relevant knowledge about oxygen administration to a client with COPD?
a. Oxygen at 1-2L/min is given to maintain hypoxic stimulus for breathing
b. Hypoxia stimulates the central chemoreceptors in the medulla that makes the client
breathe
c. Oxygen is best administered best using a non rebreathing mask
d. Blood gases are monitored using a pulse oximeter
22. Which of the ff. water temperatures is correct for a bed bath?
a. 97 to 100 F

c. 110 to 115 F

b. 100 to 110 F

d. 115 to 120 F

23. A client received burns to his entire back and left arm. Using the Rules of Nines, the nurse
calculates that he has sustained burns to which of the ff. percentages of his body?
a. 9%
b. 18%
c. 27%
d. 36%
24. Which of the ff. techniques will maintain surgical asepsis?
a. change the sterile field after sterile water is spilled on it
b. put on sterile gloves, then open a container of sterile saline
c. place a sterile dressing (1.25 cm) from the edge of the sterile field
d. clean the wound with a circular motion, moving from outer circles toward the center
25. The patient in CRF is placed on low CHON, low Na & K diet. Which of the ff. food is not included
in the prohibited list?
a. salted fish
b. steamed fish
c. corned beef
d. fresh grapes, apples and bananas
26. The management of client with glaucoma aims to:
a. Prevent increase in intraocular pressure
b. Dilate pupils
c. Promote drainage through vasoconstriction
d. Prevent secondary infection
27. Which of the ff. interventions is performed first when changing a dressing or giving wound
care?
a. put on gloves
b. wash hands thoroughly
c. slowly remove the soiled dressing
d. observe the dressing for the amount, type, and odor of drainage
28. Which of the following symptoms usually signifies rapid expansion and impending rupture of an
abdominal aortic aneurysm?
a. abdominal pain
c. angina
b. absent pedal pulses
d. lower back pain
29. A client is scheduled to receive a heart valve replacement with a porcine valve. Which of the ff.
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types of transplant is this?
a. allogeneic
b. autologous

c. syngeneic
d. xenogeneic

30. Which of the ff. clients is most risk for developing malignant lymphoma?
a. a 22-year-old man with a history of mononucleosis
b. a 25-year-old man who smokes a pack of cigarettes a day
c. a 33-year-old man with a sister with Hodgkins lymphoma
d. a 40-year-old woman with a history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
31. A client with emphysema should receive only 1 to 3 I/minute of oxygen, if needed, or he may
lose his hypoxix drive. Which of the ff. statements is correct about hypoxix drive?
a. the client doesnt notice he needs to breathe
b. the client breathes only when his oxygen levels climbs above a certain point
c. the client breathes only when his oxygen levels dip below a certain point
d. the client breathes only when his carbon dioxide levels dip below a certain point
32. Teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease should include which of the ff.
topics?
a. how to listen to his own lungs
b. how to improve his oxygenation
c. how to treat respiratory infections without going to the physician
d. how to recognize the signs of an impending respiratory infection
33. Which of the ff. respiratory disorder is most common in the first 24 to 48 hours after surgery?
a. atelectasis
c. oneumonia
b. bronchitis
d. pnemothorax
34. Which of the ff. measures can prevent or reduce the incidence of atelectasis in a postoperative
client?
a. chest physiotherapy
c. reducing oxygen requirements
b. mechanical ventilation
d. use of an incentive spirometer
35. The nurse observes constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber of a closes chest drainage
system. What should the nurse conclude?
a. The system is functioning normally
b. The client has a pneumothorax
c. The system has an air leak
d. The chest tube is obstructed
36. A client reports substernal chest pain. Test results show electrocardiographic changes and an
elevated cardiac troponin level. What should be the focus of nursing care?
a. improving myocardial oxygenation and reducing cardiac workload
b. confirming a suspected diagnosis and preventing complications
c. reducing anxiety and relieving pain
d. eliminating stressors and providing a nondemanding environment
37. The nurse should protect the clients skin surrounding a colostomy opening by using:
a. alcohol
c. skin barriers
b. mineral oil
d. tincture of benzoin
38. A client with unstable angina receives routine applications of nitroglycerin ointment. The nurse
should delay the next dose if the client has?
a. atrial fibrillation
b. systolic blood pressure below 90 mm Hg
c. a headache
d. skin redness at the current site
39. A client experiences acute myocardial ischemia. The nurse administers oxygen and sublingual
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nitroglycerin. When assessing an electrocardiogram (ECG) for evidence that blood flow to the
myocardium has improved, the nurse should focus on the:
a. widening of the QRS complex
b. frequency of ectopic beats
c. return of the ST segment from baseline
d. presence of a significant Q wave
40. The nurse administers warfarin (Coumadin) to a client with deep vein thrombophlebitis. Which of
the ff. laboratory values indicates that the client has a therapeutic level of warfarin?
a. partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 1 to 2 times the control
b. prothrombin time (PT) 1 to 2 times the control
c. international normalized ratio (INR) of 3 to 4
d. hematocrit of 32%
41. During insertion of a right scope for bronchoscopy, a client experiences a vasovagal response.
The nurse should expect:
a. the clients pupils to become dilated
b. the client to experience bronchodilation
c. a decrease in gastric secretions
d. a drop in the clients heart rate
42. A client with right lower lobe pneumonia is prescribed percussion and postural drainage. When
performing percussion and postural drainage, the nurse should position the client:
a. in semi-Fowlers position with the knees bent
b. right-side-lying with the foot of the bed elevated
c. prone or supine with the foot of the bed elevated higher than the head
d. bent at the waist leaning slightly forward
43. A client experiencing acute respiratory failure will most likely demonstrate:
a. hypocapnia, hypoventilation, hyperoxemia
b. hypocapnia, hyperventilation, hyperoxemia
c. hypercapnia, hyperventilation, hypoxemia
d. hypercapnia, hypoventilation, hypoxemia
44. Following a pneumothorax, a client receives a chest tube attached to a three-chamber chest
drainage system. During the night, the client becomes disoriented, gets out of bed, and steps on
the drainage device, causing it to crack open and lose its seal. The nurse should immediately:
a. clamp the chest tube close to the clients thorax
b. attach the chest tube directly to low wall suction
c. place the device on a sterile field and call the physician
d. place the end of the chest tube in a container of sterile water
45. A client with major abdominal trauma needs an emergency blood transfusion. The clients blood
type is AB negative. Of the blood type available, the safest type for the nurse to administer is:
a. AB positive
c. B negative
b. A positive
d. O positive
46. The nurse is preparing the client with systemic lupus erythematosus for discharge. Which
instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
a. exposure to sunlight will help control skin rashes
b. there are no activity limitation between flare-ups
c. monitor body temperature
d. corticosteroids may be stopped when the symptoms are relieved
47. The nurse is administering cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) to a client with pernicuous anemia,
secondary to gastrectomy. Which route should the nurse use to most effectively administer the
vitamin?
a. topical route
c. transdermal route
b. enteral route
d. parenteral route

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48. The nurse is teaching a client and his family about dietary practices related to Parkinsons
disease. A priority for the nurse to address is risk of:
a. fluid overload and drooling
b. aspiration and anorexia
c. choking and diarrhea
d. dysphagia and constipation
49. The nurse is providing care for a client ff. right cataract removal surgery. In which position
should the nurse place the client?
a. right-side lying
c. supine
b. prone
d. trendelenburgs
50. A client in balance suspension traction for a fractured femur needs to be repositioned toward the
head of the bed. During repositioning,the nurse should:
a. place slight additional tension on the traction cords
b. release the weights and replace immediately after positioning
c. lift the traction and the client during repositioning
d. maintain the same degree of traction and tension
51. A client undergoes cast placement for a fractured left radius. The nurse should suspect
compartment syndrome if the client experiences pain that:
a. intensifies with elevation of the left arm
b. disappears with left arm flexion
c. increases with the arm in a dependent position
d. radiates up to the arm to the left scapula
52. A client with a history of hiatal hernia reports to the nurse that he has trouble sleeping because
of abdominal pain. It would be most beneficial to the client if the nurse instructed him to sleep;
a. with his upper body elevated
b. in the prone position
c. flat or in a side-lying position
d. with his lower body slightly elevated
53. After an upper GI series, which of the following should the patient receive?
a. A laxative
c. an enema
b. A clear liquid diet
d. an intravenous infusion
54. Daily abdominal girth measurements are prescribed for a client with liver dysfunction and
ascites. To increase accuracy, the nurse should use which landmark?
a. xiphoid process
c. iliac crest
b. umbilicus
d. symphysis pubis
55. A client with a parathormone (PTH) deficiency would most likely experience abnormal serum
level of?
a. sodium and chloride
c. urea and uric acid
b. potassium and glucose
d. calcium and phosporus
56. A client with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes mellitus is learning about diabetic foot care. The
nurse should instruct the client to avoid;
a. lotions
c. foot soaks
b. antiperspirants
d. nail files
57. A client with fever and urinary urgency is asked to provide a urine specimen for culture and
sensitivity. The nurse should instruct the client to collect the specimen from the ;
a. first stream of urine from the bladder
b. middle stream of urine from the bladder
c. final stream of urine from the bladder
d. full volume of urine from the bladder
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58. A client is diagnosed with cystitis. The nurse recommends the client drink cranberry juice. What
assessment parameter should the nurse consider to determine if this recommendation has been
effective?
a. urine specific gravity
c. pH
b. white cell count
d. protein
59. A client with dysuria is prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium). The nurse should teach the client
expect urine to be:
a. greater in volume
c. pungent in odor
b. orange in color
d. concentrated in consistency
60. A client is scheduled for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL). In teaching the client
about ESWL, the nurse should inform the client that the stones will be:
a. dissolved
c. radiated
b. shattered
d. suctioned]
61. A client with acute renal failure is being assessed to determine if the cause is prerenal,renal,or
postrenal.If the cause is prerenal,which condition most likely causedi it?
a. heart failure
c. ureterolithiasis
b. glomerular nephritis
d. aminoglycoside toxicity
62. A client in acute renal failure becomes severely anemic and the physician prescribes two units
of packed red blood cells (RBCs). The nurse should plan to administer each unit:
a. as quickly as the client can tolerate the infusions
b. over 30 minutes to an hour
c. between 1 and 3 hours
d. up to 4 hours but no longer
63. The nurse is teaching a client with chronic renal failure about foods to avoid. It would be most
accurate for the nurse to teach the client to avoid foods high in:
a. monosaccharides
c. iron
b. disaccharides
d. protein
64. Following a diagnosis of bladder cancer, a client receives local radiation therapy and
experiences a dry skin reaction. In recommending care of the skin, the nurse should instruct the
client to avoid;
a. lubrication
c. cold packs
b. cleansers
d. cotton garments
65. A client undergoes hypersensitivity testing with the intradermal technique. When the nurse
administers the allergen, what should the angle of the needle be?
a. 0 degrees
c. 45 degrees
b. 15 degrees
d. 90 degrees
66. A client is admitted to a burn intensive care unit with extensive full-thickness burns. The nurse
is most concerned about the clients:
a. fluid status
c. body image
b. risk for infection
d. level of pain
67. Deep partial-thickness burn wounds are characterized by:
a. erythema
c. eschar
b. blanching
d. fluid-filled vesicles
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68. The nurse is providing patient teaching for a client with hiatal hernia. The nurse asks the client
which foods he regularly consumes. What answer would indicate the need for more teaching on
this topic?
a. milk products
c. fatty foods
b. small meals
d. soft drinks
69. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with pancreatitis. The nurse and client are
discussing hyperglycemia. Which of the ff. symptoms is the nurse most likely to bring up in her
discussion?
a. thirst
c. weight gain
b. oliguria
d. loss of appetite
70. A client develops recurrent urolithiasis. What mineral will most likely be restricted in the clients
diet?
a. phosporus
c. magnesium
b. calcium
d. sodium
71. A client diagnosed with cardiogenic shock in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. What
laboratory test findings should the nurse anticipate?
a. low blood urea nitrogen (BUN), low creatinine, and high potassium
b. high BUN, high creatinine, and low potassium
c. high BUN, high creatinine, and high potassium
d. low BUN, low creatinine, and low potassium
72. A client experiences urinary retention from benign prostatic hyperplasia and undergoes a
transurethral resection of the prostate. Following the procedure, the client receives continuous
bladder irrigation. The nurse notices that the drainage from the catheter has stopped. How
should the nurse respond?
a. replace existing catheter
b. increase infusion rate
c. attempt to dislodge the clot
d. notify the urologist
73. A client is scheduled to perform a 24-hour urine test beginning at 8:00 a.m. on the first day and
ending at 8:00 a.m. on the second day. The nurse should instruct the client:
a. discard the second-day 8:00 a.m. sample
b. discard the first and last samples
c. discard the first-day 8:00 a.m. sample
d. retain all samples collected
74. A client is in the first postoperative day following a right total hip replacement. To prevent
dislocation,the nurse should avoid positioning the client;
a. with the right leg externally rotated
b. in the left lateral decubitus position
c. with the legs adducted
d. in semi-Fowlers position
75. Exceeding which of the ff. serum cholesterol levels significantly increases the risk of coronary
artery disease?
a. 100 mg/dl
c. 175 mg/dl
b. 150 mg/dl
d. 200 mg/dl
76. Which of the ff. landmarks is the correct one for obtaining an apical pulse?
a. left fifth intercostal space, midaxillary line
b. left fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line
c. left second intercostal space, midclavicular line
d. left seventh intercostal space, midclavicular line
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77. A murmur is heard in the second left intercostal space along the left sternal border. Which valve
area is this?
a. aortic
c. pulmonic
b. mitral
d. tricuspid
78. Which of the ff. medications would be prescribed first for a client with rheumatoid arthritis?
a. aspirin
c. ferrous sulfate
b. cytoxan
d. prednisone
79. Sucralfate should be given:
a. only at night
b. 1 hr before meals

c. 1 hr after meals
d. with meals

80. A heparin transfusion at 1,500 units/hour is ordered to a 65-year-old client with a stroke
evolution. The infusion contains 25,000 units of heparin in 500 ml of saline solution. How many
milliliters per hour should be given?
a. 15 ml/hour
c. 45 ml/hour
b. 30 ml/hour
d. 50 ml/hour
81. Which of the ff. medications may be prescribed to prevent a thromboembolic cerebrovascular
accident (CVA)?
a. acetaminophen
c. ticlopidine
b. streptokinase
d. methylprednisolone
82. To maintain airway patency during stroke in evolution, which of the ff. nursing interventions is
appropriate?
a. thicken all dietary liquids
b. restrict dietary and parenteral fluids
c. place the client in the supine position
d. have tracheal suction available at all times
83. For a client with cerebrovascular accident, which of the ff. criteria must be fulfilled before the
client is fed?
a. the gag reflex returns
b. speech returns to normal
c. cranial nerves III, IV, and VI are intact
d. the client swallows small sips of water without coughing
84. A client who had a cataract surgery should be told to call his physician if he has which of the ff.
conditions?
a. blurred vision
b. eye pain
c. glare
d. itching
85. Clear fluid is draining from the nose of a client who had a head trauma 3 hours ago. This may
indicate which of the ff. conditions?
a. basilar skull fracture
c. cerebral palsy
b. cerebral concussion
d. sinus infection
86. Which of the ff. conditions can cause hiatal hernia?
a. increased intrathoracic pressure
b. weakness of the esophageal muscle
c. increased esophageal muscle pressure
d. weakness of the diaphragmatic muscle
87. Which of the ff. substances is most likely to cause gastritis?
a. milk
b. bicarbonate of soda, or baking soda
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c. enteric-coated aspirin
d. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
88. Which of the following risk factors can lead to chronic gastritis?
a. young age
c. gallbladder disease
b. antibiotic usage
d. helicobacter pylori infection
89. Which of the ff. types of diabetes is controlled primarily through diet, exercise, and oral
antidiabetic agents?
a. diabetes insipidus
c. type 1 diabetes mellitus
b. diabetes ketoacidosis
d. type 2 diabetes mellitus
90. Which of the ff. nursing interventions should be taken for a client who complains of nausea and
vomits 1 hour after taking his morning glyburide (DiaBeta)?
a. give glyburide again
b. give subcutaneous insulin, and monitor blood glucose
c. monitor blood glucose closely, and look for signs of hypoglycemia
d. monitor blood glucose, and assess for symptoms of hyperglycemia
91. Which of the ff. chronic complications is associated with diabetes mellitus?
a. dizziness, dyspnea on exertion, and angina
b. retinopathy, neuropathy, and coronary artery disease
c. leg ulcers, cerebral ischemic events, and pulmonary infarcts
d. fatigue, nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, and cardiac arrythmias
92. Which of the ff. tests allows a rapid measurement of glucose in whole blood?
a. capillary blood glucose test
b. serum ketone test
c. serum T4 test
d. urine glucose test
93. How long does the peak effect last for Novolin NPH, an intermediate-acting insulin?
a. 15 minutes to 1 hour
c. 6 to 16 hours
b. 2 to 6 hours
d. 14 to 26 hours
94. In which of the ff. groups is it most important for the client to understand the importance of an
annual Papanicolaou test?
a. clients with a history of recurrent candidiasis
b. clients with a pregnancy before age 20
c. clients infected with human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. clients with a long history of oral contraceptive use
95. A nurse enters the room of a client who had a left modified mastectomy 8 hours earlier. Which of
the following observations indicates that the nursing assistant assigned to the client needs
further instruction and guidance?
a. the client is squeezing a ball in her left hand
b. the client is wearing a robe with elastic cuffs
c. the clients affected arm is elevated on a pillow
d. a blood pressure cuff is on the clients right arm
96. A client is having a seizure. During the active phase, the nurse should:
a. Place the client on his back, remove dangerous objects, and insert a bite block
b. Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and insert a bite block
c. Place the client on his back, remove dangerous objects and hold down his arm
d. Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects and protect his head
97. A clients blood glucose level is 45 mg/dl. The nurse should be alert for which signs and
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symptoms?
a. Coma, anxiety, headache, and cool moist skin
b. Kussmauls respirations, dry skin, hypotension and bradycardia
c. Polyuria, polydipsia, hypotension and hypernatremia
d. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia and weight loss
98. An adult clients vital signs are: temperature, 98.9F (37.2C), heart rate 102 beats per minute,
respirations 12 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 95/60 mm/Hg. The nurse should assess
these findings as:
a. Febrile, tachycardia, normal respiratory rate and normotension
b. Afebrile, tachycardia, normal respiratory rate and normotension
c. Afebrile, tachycardia, normal respiratory rate and hypotension
d. Febrile, tachycardia, normal respiratory rate and hypotension
99. The nurse is caring for a client who was given pain medication before leaving the recovery
room. Upon entering the room, the client complains of pain and requests more pain medication.
Which is best action for the nurse to take?
a. Tell the client that she must wait for 4 hours for more pain medication
b. Give half of the ordered as-needed dose
c. Document the clients complaint
d. Notify the physician that the client is continuing to complain of pain
100.
The nurse is caring for a client with history of falls. The first priority when caring for a
client at risk for falls is:
a. Placing the call light for easy access
b. Keeping the bed in the lowest possible position
c. Instructing the client not to get out of bed without assistance
d. Keeping the bedpan available so the client doesnt have to get out of bed

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