Practice Questions

EXAM 1 MATERIAL
1) Which of the following is NOT a property of ALL living systems as
defined by the textbook?
A) the ability to compensate for changes in the external environment
B) the ability to engage in metabolic activities
C) the possession of chemical instructions that govern their structure and
function
D) the ability to gain energy through consumption of other living things
2) Which of the following details the typical path taken by a protein that is
going to be secreted?
A) cytoplasm secretory vesicle golgi cell surface
B) cytoplasm lysosome secretory vesicle cell surface
C) ER secretory vesicle golgi cell surface
D) ER golgi secretory vesicle cell surface
3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of prokaryotes?
A) cell wall
B) cell membrane
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) DNA
4) What is the difference in the functioning between rough ER and smooth
ER?
A) Rough ER makes proteins for use inside the cell, while smooth ER makes
proteins for use outside.
B) Rough ER makes proteins for use outside of the cell, while smooth ER makes
lipids and carbohydrates.
C) Rough ER detoxifies poisons, while smooth ER creates new cell organelles.
D) Rough ER is used by animal cells, while smooth ER is only used by plant
cells.
5) Eukaryotic cells contain the following:
A) a nucleus that is not surrounded by a membrane
B) structures that specialize in energy production
C) all of these answers
D) circular chromosomal structures within a membrane-bound nucleus
6) Which of the following is found both in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
A) ribosomes
B) mitochondrion
C) vacuoles
D) nucleus

7) A key role of peroxisomes includes:

A) the ability to produce ATP using oxygen-dependent metabolism.
B) the ability to congregate in large amounts within cancer cells to neutralize
them.
C) the ability to perform lipid metabolism and chemically neutralize free radicals.
D) the ability to transport cargo from the ER to the Golgi.
8) Rank the following bonds in order of increasing strength: A) ionic bonds
B) covalent bonds C) hydrogen bonds
A) C < B< A
B) B < A < C
C) A < B < C
D) B < C < A
9) Which of the following statements correctly describes the relative
masses of the three subatomic particles?
A) Protons and neutrons weigh the same, electrons weigh much less.
B) Neutrons and electrons weigh the same, protons weigh much less.
C) Protons and electrons weigh the same, neutrons weigh much less.
D) Protons, neutrons and electrons all weight the same.
10) Which of the following statements correctly describes the relative
charges of the three subatomic particles?
A) Protons and neutrons have a charge of +1, while electrons have a much
smaller charge.
B) Neutrons are positive, electrons are neutral, protons are negative.
C) Electrons are positive, protons are neutral, neutrons are negative.
D) Protons are positive, neutrons are neutral, electrons are negative.
11) Which of the following statements accurately describes the locations of
the three subatomic particles that make up an atom?
A) The protons and electrons are in the nucleus, while the neutrons orbit the
nucleus.
B) The protons, neutrons and electrons are all in the nucleus.
C) The neutrons and electrons are in the nucleus, while the protons orbit the
nucleus.
D) The protons and neutrons are in the nucleus, while the electrons orbit the
nucleus.

12) Which is not a characteristic of hydrogen bonds?

A) The hydrogen atom participating in the hydrogen bond must be covalently
bounded to a very electronegative atom
B) The hydrogen bonding results in higher boiling point, higher melting point, and
higher heat of vaporization.
C) The hydrogen attaches to the other atom through Van der Waals forces.
D) The other atom involved in the hydrogen bond (not the hydrogen) must have
at least one lone pair of electrons
13) Dehydration synthesis leads to the formation of which of the following?
A) water and monomers
B) water and polymers
C) water and a hydroxyl group
D) water and amino acids
14) During the breakdown of polymers, which of the following reactions
takes place?
A) covalent bond
B) dehydration
C) condensation
D) hydrolysis
15) Which of the following includes all others?
A) Carbohydrate
B) Monosaccharide
C) Glucose
D) Polysaccharide
16) Which of the following describe disaccharides?
A) Cellulose is the result of two monosaccharides that have undergone a
condensation reaction.
B) Glucose, galactose, and fructose are isomers with more than one asymmetric
carbon.
C) Lactose, maltose, and sucrose are the result of bonded monosaccharides
after a dehydration reaction.
D) They are a long chain of monosaccharides linked by glycosidic bonds.
17) In terms of their chemical properties, steroids are most similar to:
A) Phospholipids
B) Polypeptides
C) Disaccharides
D) Pyrimidines

18) Which of the following is false?

A) Starch, glycogen and cellulose are all made of glucose monomers.
B) Whether carbon 1 makes an alpha bond or a beta bond depends on the
position of the OH group.
C) Chitin and cellulose both have monomers connected by a -1-to-4 bond
D) In starch, Amylose differs from Amylopectin in that Amylose is highly
branched and Amylopectin is linear.

19) What is the relationship between a domain and a motif?

A) Domain is a structure in a protein with a specific function while a motif is a
structural component that makes up the domain
B) A motif is the part of the protein with a specific function and a domain is a
structural component that makes up the motif
C) A motif and a domain both represent structural components of a protein
D) A motif and a domain both represent the part of a protein with a specific
function
20) Which of the following best describes the phospholipid bilayer?
A) The hydrophilic heads are attracted to the intracellular and extracellular fluid
of the cell.
B) The hydrophobic tails give it a rigid structure to keep it locked in place.
C) The hydrophobic tails are positive, and the hydrophilic heads are negative.
D) The hydrophilic heads meet in the inner region of the membrane.
21) Which of the following protein structures forms primarily because of
hydrogen bonds?
A) The tertiary structure
B) -helices and -pleated sheets
C) The primary structure
D) The combination of multiple polypeptide subunits
22) When a protein denatures, which of the following protein structures is
unaffected?
A) Secondary structure
B) Tertiary structure
C) Primary structure
D) Quaternary structure
23) The amino acid Lysine belongs to what group of amino acids?
A) nonpolar
B) uncharged polar
C) negatively charged (acidic) polar
D) positively charged (basic) polar

24) Which of the following regarding DNA structure is TRUE?

A) A purine must bind with a pyrimidine to ensure a uniform diameter
B) DNA does not have a uniform diameter
C) A pyrimidine must bind with a pyrimidine to ensure a uniform diameter
D) A purine must bind with a purine to ensure a uniform diameter
25) Which method of replication would result in a DNA strand that
contained fragments from both the parent strand and newly-synthesized
portions?
A) Conservative replication
B) Semi-conservative replication
C) Dispersive replication
D) Interspersed replication
26) Which key factors were utilized by Meselson and Stahl to show DNA
replication followed a semi-conservative method?
A) Nitrogen isotopes
B) Radiolabeled deoxyribose
C) Phosphorus isotopes
D) Radiolabeled phosphate groups
27) Which of the following events is matched correctly to its corresponding
stage?
A) elongation: replication forks are formed in the DNA helix
B) initiation: nucleotides are added to the DNA backbone
C) all of these answers
D) termination: RNA primer is replaced by DNA nucleotides
28) In the absence of telomerase, which of the following is likely to result?
A) Telomeres elongate since DNA replication can finally take place.
B) DNA replication and repair continues normally.
C) Telomeres continue to shorten since 5 end DNA cannot be replicated.
D) DNA polymerase takes over replicating and repairing the telomeres.
29) The first mechanism of examining DNA for nucleotide errors is:
A) nucleotide excision repair
B) DNA polymerase proofreading
C) UV exposure
D) mismatch repair

30) Labeling of viral coats and genetic material in the Hershey-Chase

experiment took advantage of the fact that ________ groups are found in
nucleic acids, but not in amino acids, and that _______ groups are found in
amino acids, but not in nucleic acids.
A) Carbonyl; amino
B) Phosphate; sulfhydryl
C) Carbonyl; sulfhydryl
D) Phosphate; amino
31) The Central Dogma of Molecular Biology states that genetic information
flows in which of the following sequences?
A) DNA to RNA to protein.
B) Protein to DNA to RNA.
C) Protein to RNA to DNA.
D) RNA to DNA to protein.
32) How many nucleotides are in 12 mRNA codons?
A) 24
B) 36
C) 48
D) 12
33) Where is a promoter located relative to the initiation site?
A) Downstream of the initiation site
B) Upwind of the initiation site
C) Downwind of the initiation site
D) Upstream of the initiation site
34) What are the three major steps of transcription?
A) Nucleus, Endoplasmic Reticulum, Ribosome
B) Initiation, Elongation, Termination
C) RNA Polymerase I, RNA Polymerase II, RNA Polymerase III
D) DNA, mRNA, protein
35) Which of the following accurately outlines the order of mRNA
processing following transcription?
A) The poly(A) tail is added first, followed by adding the 5' cap, and finally the
pre-mRNA is spliced.
B) The 5' cap is added first, followed by splicing the pre-mRNA, and finally the
poly(A) tail is added.
C) The 5' cap is added first, followed by the poly(A) tail, and finally the premRNA is spliced.
D) The pre-mRNA is spliced first, followed by adding the 5' cap, and finally the
poly(A) tail is added.

36) During translation, the completed peptide chain exits the ribosome
from the
A) E site.
B) P site.
C) small subunit.
D) A site.
37) Which of the following statements accurately describes the role
ribosomes play in protein synthesis?
A) Ribosomes read mRNA and use tRNAs to produce peptides and proteins.
B) Ribosomes carry individual amino acids and load them onto growing peptide
chains.
C) Ribosomes transport mRNA chains from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
D) Ribosomes load amino acids onto tRNAs.
38) Which of the following about tRNAs is true?
A) Each organism only expresses one tRNA molecule for translation.
B) Elongation factors charge tRNAs with amino acids at the 3' end.
C) tRNA molecules can be charged with any amino acid.
D) Charged tRNAs bind to mRNA through three nucleotide base pairings.
39) Many antibiotics inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. For example,
chloramphenicol blocks peptidyl transfer. What specific effect would you
expect this antibiotic to have on protein synthesis?
A) Chloramphenicol would directly affect tRNA binding to the ribosome.
B) Chloramphenicol would directly affect growth of the protein chain.
C) All of these answers.
D) Chloramphenicol would directly affect ribosome assembly.
40) All of the following post-translational events are critical for proper
protein function EXCEPT:
A) chemical modification of amino acid residues
B) targeting of the protein to a subcellular location
C) denaturation of the protein to disconnect it from the ribosome
D) folding of the protein into the proper three-dimensional structure
41) During which process is a new copy of DNA is synthesized?
A) Translation
B) Transcription
C) Translocation
D) Replication

42) Proofreading activity in DNA synthesis:

A) occurs after the synthesis is complete
B) is a function of the 3'-5' exonuclease activity of DNA Polymerase
C) requires a separate enzyme from DNA polymerase
D) occurs only in the DNA synthesis from the lagging strand
43) Which enzyme unwinds short stretches of DNA helix ahead of the
replication fork?
A) DNA Polymerase
B) Helicase
C) Single-stranded binding proteins
D) Topoisomerase
44) Which of the following is NOT a factor in the formation of an initiation
complex for eukaryotic translation?
A) ATP
B) initiator tRNA
C) GTP
D) IF
45) Based on what you know about the pH scale, a weakly acidic apple
would likely have a value of:
A) 0
B) 2
C) 4
D) 9
46) Which of the following structures is formed from the interactions of the
amino acid R groups?
A) Secondary structure
B) Tertiary structure
C) Quaternary structure
D) Primary structure
47) Which of the following best describes why humans have a similar gene
number as do nematodes despite being a more complex organism?
A) Splicing removes introns from the human genes to efficiently produce
proteins.
B) Nematodes have an excess of exons that are not used to produce proteins.
C) Splicing removes introns from the nematode genes to efficiently produce
proteins.
D) Alternative splicing occurs in almost all human genes to produce multiple
proteins.

48) Which chemical interactions are most responsible for the secondary
structure of proteins?
A) Covalent bonds
B) Hydrogen bonds
C) Van der Waals forces
D) All of the above
49) What was the main conclusion of the Hershey and Chase experiment
using phage T2?
A) Proteins and DNA can be distinguished because proteins have sulfur and DNA
has phosphorus
B) Cells can uptake a transforming principle released by the breakdown of other
cells, known as transformation.
C) DNA is the hereditary molecule
D) Protein is the hereditary molecule
50. Which of the following is FALSE about the genetic code?
A) The genetic code is degenerate but not ambiguous
B) The start codon always codes for methionine
C) 1 amino acid can be coded by more than 1 codon
D) 1 codon can code more than 1 amino acid