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unit of power is
(a) Henry
(b) coulomb
(c) watt
(d) watt-hour
Ans: c
2. Electric pressure is also called
(a) resistance
(b) power
(c) voltage
(d) energy
Ans: c
3. The substances which have a large number of free electrons and
offer a low resistance are called
(a) insulators
(b) inductors
(c) semi-conductors
(d) conductors
Ans: d
4. Out of the following which is not a poor conductor ?
(a) Cast iron
(b) Copper
(c) Carbon
(d) Tungsten
Ans: b
5. Out of the following which is an insulating material ?
(a) Copper
(b) Gold
(c) Silver
(d) Paper
Ans: d
6. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is
called
(a) resistance
(b) reluctance
(c) conductance
(d) inductance
Ans: c
(c) temperature
(d) resistivity
Ans: b
9. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Ans: a
10. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-conductors
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Ans: a
11. The resistance of a copper wire 200 m long is 21 Q. If its
thickness (diameter) is 0.44 mm, its specific resistance is around
(a) 1.2 x 10~8 Q-m
(b) 1.4 x 10~8 Q-m
(c) 1.6 x 108 Q-m
(d) 1.8 x 108 Q-m
Ans: c
12. Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are
connected in parallel.
The total resistance of the combination is
(a) 5 ohms
(b) 10 ohms
(c) 15 ohms
(d) 55 ohms
Ans:
13. An instrument which detects electric current is known as
(a) voltmeter
(b) rheostat
(c) wattmeter
(d) galvanometer
Ans: d
7. Conductance is reciprocal of
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) reluctance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
15. A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage across it is 240 V.
The resistance of the light bulb is
(a) 400 Q
(b) 600 Q
(c) 800 Q
(d) 1000 Q
Ans: c
16. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two branches is
12 ohms. If the resistance of one branch is 18 ohms, what is the
resistance of the other ?
(a) 18 Q
(b) 36 Q
(c) 48 Q
(d) 64 Q
Ans: b
17. Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional area and
the same length when connected in parallel give a resistance of 0.25
Q. If the same four wires are connected is series the effective
resistance will be
(a) 1 Q
(b) 2 Q
(c) 3 Q
(d) 4 Q
Ans: d
18. A current of 16 amperes divides between two branches in parallel
of resistances 8 ohms and 12 ohms
respectively. The current in each branch is
(a) 6.4 A, 6.9 A
(b) 6.4 A, 9.6 A
(c) 4.6 A, 6.9 A
(d) 4.6 A, 9.6 A
Ans: b
19. Current velocity through a copper conductor is
(a) the same as propagation velocity of electric energy
(b) independent of current strength
(c) of the order of a few ^.s/m
(d) nearly 3 x 108 m/s
Ans: c
20. Which of the following material has nearly zero temperature coefficient of resistance?
(a) Manganin
(b) Porcelain
(c) Carbon
(d) Copper
Ans: a
21. You have to replace 1500 Q resistor in radio. You have no 1500 Q
resistor but have several 1000 Q ones which you would connect
(a) two in parallel
(b) two in parallel and one in series
(c) three in parallel
(d) three in series
Ans: b
(a) Rl
(b) Ri
(c) either Rl or Ri
(d) none of them
Ans: a
(a) Voltage
(b) Current
(c) Power
(d) Resistance
Ans: b
45. What will be energy used by the battery if the battery has to drive
6.28 x 1018 electrons with potential difference of 20 V across the
terminal ?
(a) 5 joules
(b) 10 joules
(c) 15 joules
(d) 20 joules
Ans:
47. The hot resistance of the bulbs filament is higher than its cold
80. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then
in series.
The resultant resistance of the first combination to the second will
be
(a) 9 times
(b) 1/9 times
(c) 1/3 times
(d) 3 times
Ans: b
91. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of
resistances ?
(a) Lorentz method
(b) Releigh method
(c) Ohms law method
(d) Wheatstone bridge method
Ans: d
92. Three 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is
the resistance between any two corners ?
(a) 3/2 Q
(b 6 Q
(c) 4 Q
(d) 8/3 Q
Ans: c
93. Ohms law is not applicable to
(a) semi-conductors
(b) D.C. circuits
(c) small resistors
(d) high currents
Ans: a
94. Two copper conductors have equal length. The cross-sectional
area of one conductor is four times that of the other. If the conductor
having smaller cross-sectional area has a resistance of 40 ohms the
resistance of other conductor will be
(a) 160 ohms
(b) 80 ohms
(c) 20 ohms
(d) 10 ohms
Ans: d
95. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil has the resistance of 2
2/m. For a heater of 1 kW at 200 V, the length of wire required will
be
(a) 80 m
(b) 60 m
(c) 40 m
(d) 20 m
Ans: a
96. Temperature co-efficient of resistance is expressed in terms of
(a) ohms/C
(b) mhos/ohmC
(e) ohms/ohmC
(d) mhos/C
Ans: c
97. Which of the following materials has the least resistivity ?
(a) Zinc
(b) Lead
(c) Mercury
(d) Copper
Ans:
98. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply
wiring does not glow because
(a) current through supply line flows at slower speed
(b) supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
(c) resistance of heater coil is more than the supply wires
(d) supply wires are made of superior material
Ans: c
99. The condition for the validity under Ohms law is that
(a) resistance must be uniform
(b) current should be proportional to the size of the resistance
(c) resistance must be wire wound type
(d) temperature at positive end should be more than the
temperature at negative end
Ans: a
100. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) A semi-conductor is a material whose conductivity is same as
between that of a conductor and an insulator
(b) A semi-conductor is a material which has conductivity having
average value of conductivity of metal and insulator
(c) A semi-conductor is one which conducts only half of the applied
voltage
(d) A semi-conductor is a material made of alternate layers of
conducting material and insulator
Ans: a
101. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it
(a) has lower wattage rating
(b) has higher wattage rating
(c) has large number of turns
(d) offers large number of tapping
Ans: b
102. The weight of an aluminium conductor as compared to a copper
conductor of identical cross-section, for the same electrical
resistance, is
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 100%
(d) 150%
Ans: a
(c) 40 W
(d) 60 W
Ans: d
111. A thermistor has
(a) positive temperature coefficient
(b) negative temperature coefficient
(c) zero temperature coefficient
(d) variable temperature coefficient
Ans: c
112. If/, R and t are the current, resistance and time respectively,
then according to Joules law heat produced will be proportional to
(a) I2Rt
(b) I2Rf
(c) I2R2t
(d) I2R2t*
Ans: a
113. Nichrome wire is an alloy of
(a) lead and zinc
(b) chromium and vanadium
(c) nickel and chromium
(d) copper and silver
Ans: c
114. When a voltage of one volt is applied, a circuit allows one micro
ampere current to flow through it. The conductance of the circuit is
(a) 1 n-mho
(b) 106 mho
(c) 1 milli-mho
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
115. Which of the following can have negative temperature
coefficient ?
(a) Compounds of silver
(6) Liquid metals
(c) Metallic alloys
(d) Electrolytes
Ans: d
a.c circuits
1. A sine wave has a frequency of 50 Hz. Its angular frequency is
_______ radian/second.
(a) 100 n
(b) 50 jt
(c) 25 JT
(d) 5 n
Ans: a
2. The reactance offered by a capacitor to alternating current of
frequency 50 Hz is 20 Q. If frequency is increased to 100 Hz,
reactance becomes_____ohms.
(a) 2.5
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 15
Ans: c
3. The period of a wave is
(a) the same as frequency
(6) time required to complete one cycle
(c) expressed in amperes
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
4. The form factor is the ratio of
(a) peak value to r.m.s. value
(6) r.m.s. value to average value
(c) average value to r.m.s. value
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
14. For the same peak value which of the following wave will have
the highest r.m.s. value ?
(a) square wave
(b) half wave rectified sine wave
(c) triangular wave
(d) sine wave
Ans: a
15. For the same peak value, which of the following wave has the
least mean value ?
(a) half wave rectified sine wave
(b) triangular wave
(c) sine wave
(d) square wave
Ans: a
16. For a sine wave with peak value Imax the r.m.s. value is
(a) 0.5 Imax
(b) 0.707
(c) 0.9
(d) 1.414 Lmax
Ans: b
17. Form Factor is the ratio of
(a) average value/r.m.s. value
(b) average value/peak value
(e) r.m.s. value/average value
(d) r.m.s. value/peak value
Ans: c
18. Form factor for a sine wave is
(a) 1.414
(b) 0.707
(c) 1.11
(d) 0.637
Ans: c
19. For a sine wave with peak value Emax______8.30. the average
value is
(a) 0.636 Emax
(b) 0.707 Emax
(c) 0.434 EWc
(d) lAUEmax
Ans: a
20. For a frequency of 200 Hz, the time period will be
(a) 0.05 s
(b) 0.005 s
(c) 0.0005 s
(d) 0.5 s
Ans: b
21. The phase difference between voltage and current wave through
a circuit element is given as 30. The essential condition is that
(a) both waves must have same frequency
(d) kVAR
Ans: d
29. In series resonant circuit, increasing inductance to its twice value
and reducing capacitance to its half value
(a) will change the maximum value of current at resonance
(6) will change the resonance frequency
(c) will change the impedance at resonance frequency
(d) will increase the selectivity of the circuit
Ans: d
30. Pure inductive circuit
(a) consumes some power on average
(b) does not take power at all from a line
(c) takes power from the line during some part of the cycle and then
returns back to it during other part of the cycle
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
31. Inductance affects the direct current flow
(a) only at the time of turning off
(b) only at the time of turning on
(c) at the time of turning on and off
(d) at all the time of operation
Ans: c
32. Inductance of a coil Varies
(a) directly as the cross-sectional area of magnetic core
(b) directly as square of number of turns
(c) directly as the permeability of the core
(d) inversely as the length of the iron path
(e) as (a) to (d)
Ans: e
33. All the rules and laws of D.C. circuit also apply to A.C. circuit
containing
(a) capacitance only
(b) inductance only
(c) resistance only
(d) all above
Ans: c
circuit
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
43. The square waveform of current has following relation between
r.m.s. value and average value.
(a) r.m.s. value is equal to average value
(b) r.m.s. value of current is greater than average value
(c) r.m.s. value of current is less than average value
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
44. The double energy transient occur in the
(a) purely inductive circuit
(b) R-L circuit
(c) R-C circuit
(d) R-L-C circuit
Ans: d
45. The transient currents are associated with the
(a) changes in the stored energy in the inductors and capacitors
(b) impedance of the circuit
(c) applied voltage to the circuit
(d) resistance of the circuit
Ans: a
46. The power factor at resonance in R-L- C parallel circuit is
(a) zero
(b) 0.08 lagging
(c) 0.8 leading
(d) unity
Ans: d
47. In the case of an unsymmetrical alternating current the average
value must always be taken over
(a) unsymmetrical part of the wave form
(b) the quarter cycle
(c) the half cycle
(d) the whole cycle
Ans: d
48. In a pure resistive circuit
(a) current lags behind the voltage by 90
(b) current leads the voltage by 90
(c) current can lead or lag the voltage by 90
(d) current is in phase with the voltage
Ans: d
49. In a pure inductive circuit
(a) the current is in phase with the voltage
(b) the current lags behind the voltage by 90
(c) the current leads the voltage by 90
(d) the current can lead or lag by 90
Ans: b
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Conductance
(d) Resistance
Ans:
68. The safest value of current the human body can carry for more
than 3 second is
(a) 4 mA
(b) 9 mA
(c) 15 mA
(d) 25 mA
Ans: b
75. All definitions of power factor of a series R-L-C circuit are correct
except
(a) ratio of net reactance and impedance
(b) ratio of kW and kVA
(c) ratio of J and Z
(d) ratio of W and VA
Ans: a
70. The input of an A.C. circuit having power factor of 0.8 lagging is
40 kVA
The power drawn by the circuit is
(a) 12 kW
(b) 22 kW
(c) 32 kW
(d) 64 kW
Ans: c
77. What will be the phase angle between two alternating waves of
equal frequency, when one wave attains maximum value the other is
at zero value ?
(a) 0
(b) 45
(c) 90
(d) 180
Ans: c
(b) transformers
(c) current transformers
(d) auto transformers
Ans: a
86. Capacitive susceptance is a measure of
(a) reactive power in a circuit
(b) the extent of neutralisation of reactive power in a circuit
(c) a purely capacitive circuits ability to pass current
(d) a purely capacitive circuits ability to resist the flow of current
Ans: c
87. Which of the following statements pertains to resistors only ?
(a) can dissipate considerable amount of power
(6) can act as energy storage devices
(c) connecting them in parallel increases the total value
(d) oppose sudden changes in voltage
Ans: a
88. Which of the following refers to a parallel circuit ?
(a) The current through each element is same
(b) The voltage across element is in proportion to its resistance
value
(c) The equivalent resistance is greater than any one of the resistors
(d) The current through any one element is less than the source
current
Ans: d
89. Aphasoris
(a) a line which represents the magnitude and phase of an
alternating quantity
(b) a line representing the magnitude and direction of an alternating
quantity
(c) a coloured tag or band for distinction between different phases of
a 3-phase supply
(d) an instrument used for measuring phases of an unbalanced 3phase load
Ans: a
89. A parallel AC. circuit in resonance will
(a) have a high voltage developed across each inductive and
capacitive section
(b) have a high impedance
(c) act like a resistor of low value
(d) have current in each section equal to the line current
Ans: b
90. Wire-wound resistors are unsuitable for use at high frequencies
because they
(a) create more electrical noise
(b) are likely to melt under excessive eddy current heat
(c) consume more power
(d) exhibit unwanted inductive and capacitive effects
Ans: d
increase in current
(c) parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp
increase in impedance
(d) parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp rise
in line current
Ans: a
99. The phosphors for which of the following pair are 180 out of
phase for VL, VC and VR?
(a) Vc and VR
(b) VL and VR
(c) Vc and VL
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
93. Which of the following waves has the highest value of peak factor
?
(a) Square wave
(b) Sine wave
(c) Half wave rectified sine wave
(d) Triangular wave
Ans: c
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 100 Hz
(c) 60 Hz
(d) 50 Hz
Ans: d
W. This is due to
(a) the capacitive reactance in ohms
(b) the current flowing in capacitor
(c) the size of the capacitor being quite big
(d) the statement is incorrect
Ans: d
95. The r.m.s. value of half wave rectified sine wave is 200 V. The
r.m.s. value of full wave rectified AC. will be
(a) 282.8 V
(b) 141.4 V
(c) 111 V
(d) 100 V
Ans: a
96. The r.m.s. value of pure cosine function is
(a) 0.5 of peak value
(b) 0.707 of peak value
(c) same as peak value
(d) zero
Ans: b
97. Ohm is unit of all of the following except
(a) inductive reactance
(b) capacitive reactance
(c) resistance
(d) capacitance
Ans: d
98. The series and parallel resonance on L-C circuit differs in that
(a) series resistance needs a low-resistance source for sharp rise in
current
(b) series resonance needs a high-resistance source for sharp
(d) 5 m
Ans: c
3. The armature of D.C. generator is laminated to
(a) reduce the bulk
(b) provide the bulk
(c) insulate the core
(d) reduce eddy current loss
Ans:d
4. The resistance of armature winding depends on
(a) length of conductor
(b) cross-sectional area of the conductor
(c) number of conductors
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
5. The field coils of D.C. generator are usually made of
(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: b
6. The commutator segments are connected to the armature
conductors by means of
(a) copper lugs
(b) resistance wires
(c) insulation pads
(d) brazing
Ans: a
7. In a commutator
(a) copper is harder than mica
(b) mica and copper are equally hard
(c) mica is harder than copper
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
8. In D.C. generators the pole shoes are fastened to the pole core by
(a) rivets
(b) counter sunk screws
(c) brazing
(d) welding
Ans: b
9. According to Flemings right-hand rule for finding the direction of
induced e.m.f., when middle finger points in the direction of induced
e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction of
(a) motion of conductor
(b) lines of force
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
12. The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are generally
(a) ball bearings
(b) bush bearings
(c) magnetic bearmgs
(d) needle bearings
Ans: a
13. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be
(a) severe sparking
(b) rough commutator surface
(c) imperfect contact
(d) any of the above
Ans: d
14. In lap winding, the number of brushes is always
(a) double the number of poles
(b) same as the number of poles
(c) half the number of poles
(d) two
Ans: b
15. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number
of armature conductors is fixed, then which winding will give the
higher e.m.f. ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design
Ans: b
16. In a four-pole D.C. machine
(a) all the four poles are north poles
(b) alternate poles are north and south
(c) all the four poles are south poles
25. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap
winding with sixteen coils, the pole pitch will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Ans: b
32. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine
due to
(a) oscillating magnetic field
(b) pulsating magnetic flux
(c) relative rotation between field and armature
(d) all above
Ans: c
generator
(a) reduces generator e.m.f.
(b) increases armature speed
(c) reduces interpoles flux density
(d) results in sparking trouble
Ans: a
50. The voltage drop for which of the following types of brush can be
expected to be least ?
(a) Graphite brushes
(b) Carbon brushes
(c) Metal graphite brushes
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
51. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now
while pole flux remains constant, if the speed of the generator is
doubled, the e.m.f. generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(c) slightly less than E
(d) E
Ans: b
52. In a D.C. generator the actual flux distribution depends upon
(a) size of air gap
(b) shape of the pole shoe
(c) clearance between tips of the adjacent pole shoes
(d) all of the above
Ans:
poles
Ans: b
73. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600 V.
The armature resistance is 0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200
A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 640 V
(b) 620 V
(c) 600 V
(d) 580 V
Ans: d
74. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance refers to the resistance
of
(a) brushes
(b) field
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: b
75. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C. generator
are rockedm ahead so as to bring them
(a) just ahead of magnetic neutral axis
(b) in magnetic neutral axis
(c) just behind the magnetic neutral axis
Ans: a
76. Armature coil is short circuited by brushes when it lies
(a) along neutral axis
(b) along field axis
(c) in any of the above positions
(d) in none of the above positions
Ans: a
77. A cumulatively compounded long shunt generator when
operating as a motor would be
(a) cumulatively compounded long shunt
(b) differentially compounded long shunt
(c) cumulatively compounded short shunt
(d) differentially compounded short shunt
Ans: b
78. To avoid formation of grooves in the commutator of a D.C.
machine
(a) the brushes of opposite polarity should track each other
(b) the brushes of same polarity should track each other
(c) brush position has no effect on the commutator grooving
Ans: a
79. The following constitute short-circuit in the armature winding.
(a) Insulation failure between two commutator bars
(6) Insulation failure between two turns of a coil
(c) Two of more turns of the same coil getting grounded
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
(d) so that the two identical machines will pass approximately equal
currents to the load
Ans: d
115. With a D.C. generator which of the following regulation is
preferred ?
(a) 100% regulation
(b) infinite regulation
(c) 50% regulation
(d) 1% regulation
Ans: d
116. Which generator would you prefer for feeding long D.C.
transmission lines ?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Over compound generator
(d) Flat compound generator
Ans: c
117. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance can be increased by
(a) increasing its field resistance
(b) decreasing its field resistance
(c) increasing its speed
(d) decreasing its speed
Ans: c
118. The number of armature parallel paths in a two-pole D.C.
generator having duplex lap winding is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: b
119. For both lap and wave windings, there are as many commutator
bars as the number of
(a) slots
(b) armature conductors
(c) winding elements
(d) poles
Ans: c
126. The series field of a short-shunt D.C. generator is excited by
(a) external current
(b) armature current
(c) shunt current
(d) load current
Ans: d
127. As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the total
mutual air gap flux in a D.C. generator is approximately
(a) 40 percent
(b) 25 percent
(c) 10 percent
(d) 5 percent
Ans: d
128. Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation
because of their
(a) rising voltage characteristics
(b) identical voltage characteristics
(c) drooping voltage characteristics
(d) linear voltage characteristics
Ans: c
D,c motors
1. No-load speed of which of the following motor will be highest ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differentiate compound motor
Ans: b
2. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be changed by
(a) interchanging supply terminals
(b) interchanging field terminals
(c) either of (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
3. Which of the following application requires high starting torque ?
(a) Lathe machine
(b) Centrifugal pump
(c) Locomotive
(d) Air blower
Ans: c
4. If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors, which rriotor would
be preferred ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
29. In case-the conditions for maximum power for a D.C. motor are
established, the efficiency of the motor will be
(a) 100%
31. In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain the maximum
temperature rise?
(a) Slip rings
(b) Commutator
(c) Field winding
(d) Armature winding
Ans: c
40. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading property?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: d
34. Which of the following load normally needs starting torque more
than the rated torque?
(a) Blowers
(b) Conveyors
41. Which D.C. motor will be suitable along with flywheel for
intermittent light and heavy loads?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
49. Which one of the following is not the function of pole shoes in a
D.C. machine ?
(a) To reduce eddy current loss
(b) To support the field coils
(c) To spread out flux for better uniformity
(d) To reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
Ans: a
I. REA
51. The condition for maximum power in case of D.C. motor is
(a) back e.m.f. = 2 x supply voltage
(b) back e.m.f. = | x supply voltage
(c) supply voltage = | x back e.m.f.
(d) supply voltage = back e.m.f.
Ans: b
52. For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred
over an A.C. motor ?
(a) Low speed operation
(b) High speed operation
(c) Variable speed operation
(d) Fixed speed operation
Ans: c
53. In D.C. machines the residual magnetism is of the order of
(a) 2 to 3 per cent
(6) 10 to 15 per cent
(c) 20 to 25 per cent
(d) 50 to 75 per cent
Ans: a
54. Which D.C. motor is generally preferred for cranes and hoists ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: a
55. Three point starter can be used for
(a) series motor only
(b) shunt motor only
(c) compound motor only
58. Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to reduce the peak
demand by the motor, compound motor will have
to be
(a) level compounded
(b) under compounded
59. Following motor is used where high starting torque and wide
speed range control is required.
(a) Single phase capacitor start
(b) Induction motor
(c) Synchronous motor
(d) D.C. motor
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
60. In a differentially compounded D.C. motor, if shunt field
suddenly opens
(a) the motor will first stop and then run in opposite direction as
series motor
(b) the motor will work as series motor and run at slow speed in the
same direction
(c) the motor will work as series motor and run at high speed in the
same direction
(d) the motor will not work and come to stop
Ans: a
transformer
(b) odour
(c) gases
(d) moisture
Ans: d
54. A Buchholz relay can be installed on
(a) auto-transformers
(b) air-cooled transformers
(c) welding transformers
(d) oil cooled transformers
Ans: d
55. Gas is usually not liberated due to dissociation of transformer oil
unless the oil temperature exceeds
(a) 50C
(b) 80C
(c) 100C
(d) 150C
Ans: d
56. The main reason for generation of harmonics in a transformer
could be
(a) fluctuating load
(b) poor insulation
(c) mechanical vibrations
(d) saturation of core
Ans: d
57. Distribution transformers are generally designed for maximum
efficiency around
(a) 90% load
(b) zero load
(c) 25% load
(d) 50% load
Ans: d
58. Which of the following property is not necessarily desirable in
the material for transformer core ?
(a) Mechanical strength
(6) Low hysteresis loss
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) High permeability
Ans: c
59. Star/star transformers work satisfactorily when
(a) load is unbalanced only
(b) load is balanced only
(c) on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
60. Delta/star transformer works satisfactorily when
(a) load is balanced only
(b) load is unbalanced only
(c) on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
(a) hot because of heavy iron losses taking place in it due to high flux
density
(b) hot because primary will carry heavy current
(c) cool as there is no secondary current
(d) none of above will happen
Ans: a
90. The transformer laminations are insulated from each other by
(a) mica strip
(6) thin coat of varnish
(c) paper
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
(d) high,low
Ans: a
97. The function of breather in a transformer is
(a) to provide oxygen inside the tank
(b) to cool the coils during reduced load
(c) to cool the transformer oil
(d) to arrest flow of moisture when outside air enters the
transformer
Ans: d
98. The secondary winding of which of the following transformers is
always kept closed ?
(a) Step-up transformer
(b) Step-down transformer
(c) Potential transformer
(d) Current transformer
Ans: d
99. The size of a transformer core will depend on
(a) frequency
(b) area of the core
(c) flux density of the core material
(d) (a) and (b) both
Ans: d
100. N atural air coo ling is generally restricted for transformers up
to
(a) 1.5 MVA
(b) 5 MVA
(c) 15 MVA
(d) 50 MVA
Ans: a
101. A shell-type transformer has
(a) high eddy current losses
(b) reduced magnetic leakage
(c) negligibly hysteresis losses
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
102. A transformer can have regulation closer to zero
(a) on full-load
(b) on overload
(c) on leading power factor
(d) on zero power factor
Ans: c
103. A transformer transforms
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) current and voltage
(d) power
Ans: d
104. Which of the following is not the standard voltage for power
supply in India ?
(a) llkV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 122 kV
Ans: d
105. Reduction in core losses and increase in permeability are
obtained with transformer employing
(a) core built-up of laminations of cold rolled grain oriented steel
(b) core built-up of laminations of hot rolled sheet
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
106. In a power or distribution transformer about 10 per cent end
turns are heavily insulated
(a) to withstand the high voltage drop due to line surge produced by
the shunting capacitance of the end turns
(b) to absorb the line surge voltage and save the winding of
transformer from damage
(c) to reflect the line surge and save the winding of a transformer
from damage
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
107. For given applied voltage, with the increase in frequency of the
applied voltage
(a) eddy current loss will decrease
(b) eddy current loss will increase
(c) eddy current loss will remain unchanged
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
108. Losses which occur in rotating electric machines and do not
occur in trans formers are
(a) friction and windage losses
(b) magnetic losses
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(d) copper losses
Ans: a
109. In a given transformer for a given applied voltage, losses which
remain constant irrespective of load changes are
(a) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(b) friction and windage losses
(c) copper losses
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
110. Which of the following statements regarding an idel singlephase transformer having a turn ratio of 1 : 2 and
drawing a current of 10 A from 200 V A.C. supply is incorrect ?
(a) Its secondary current is 5 A
(a) zoom
(b) hum
(c) ringing
(d) buzz
Ans: b
(d) the motor will run in the same direction at reduced r.p.m.
Ans: a
(b) V-belts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a
54. Which of the following motors can be used for unity power factor
?
(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Schrage motor
Ans: d
55. When a D.C. series motor is connected to A.C. supply, the power
factor will be low because of
(a) high inductance of field and armature circuits
(b) induced current in rotor due to variations of flux
(c) fine copper wire winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
56. The direction of rotation of universal motor can be reversed the
by reversing the flow of current through
(a) armature winding
(b) field winding
(c) either armature winding or field winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
57. In which single-phase motor, the rotor has no teeth or winding ?
(a) Split phase motor
(b) Reluctance motor
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: c
58. Which motor is normally free from mechanical and magnetic
vibrations ?
(a) Split phase motor
(b) Universal motor
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: c
59. As hysteresis motors are free from mechanical and magnetic
vibrations therefore these are considered as suitable for
(a) fans
(b) blowers
(c) sound equipment
(d) mixer grinders
Ans: c
60. A reluctance motor
(a) is self-starting
(b) is constant speed motor
(c) It is self-starting
(d) It is not self-starting
Ans: d
119. The starting winding of a single-phase motor is placed in
(a) armature
(b) field
(c) rotor
(d) stator
Ans: d
120. The speed of a universal motor is usually reduced by using
(a) gearing
(b) belts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a
Synchronous motors
1. Synchronous motors are generally not self-starting because
(a) the direction of rotation is not fixed
(b) the direction of instantaneous torque reverses after half cycle
(c) startes cannot be used on these machines
(d) starting winding is not provided on the machines
Ans: b
2. In case one phase of a three-phase synchronous motor is shortcircuited the motor will
(a) not start
(b) run at 2/3 of synchronous speed
(c) run with excessive vibrations
(d) take less than the rated load
Ans: a
3. A pony motor is basically a
(a) small induction motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) D.C. shunt motor
(d) double winding A.C./D.C. motor
Ans: a
4. A synchronous motor can develop synchronous torque
(a) when under loaded
(b) while over-excited
(c) only at synchronous speed
(d) below or above synchronous speed
Ans: c
5. A synchronous motor can be started by
(a) pony motor
(b) D.C. compound motor
(c) providing damper winding
(d) any of the above
Ans: d
(c) 90
(d) 180
Ans: c
38. When the stator windings are connected in such a fashion that
the number of poles are made half, the speed of the rotor of a
synchronous motor
(a) remains same as the original value
(b) decreases to half the original value
(c) tends to becomes zero
(d) increases to two times the original value
Ans: d
39. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor magnetic
field rotate at the same speed ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Synchronous motor
(c) Induction motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: b
40. Synchronsizingpower of a synchronous machine is
(a) direcly proportional to the synchronous reactance
(6) inversely proportional to the synchronous reactance
(a) equal to the synchronous reactance
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
41. Synchronous motors are
(a) not-self starting
(b) self-starting
(c) essentially self-starting
(b) obtuse
(c) synchronizing
(d) power factor
Ans: a
58. Which of the following methods is used to start a synchronous
motor ?
(a) Damper winding
(b) Star-delta starter
(c) Damper winding in conjunction with star-delta starter
(d) Resistance starter in the armature circuit
Ans: c
59. When the rotor speed, in a synchronous machine, becomes more
than the synchronous speed during hunting, the damper bars
develop
(a) inductor motor torque
(b) induction generator torque
(c) synchronous motor torque
(d) d.c. motor toque
(e) none of the above
Ans: b
60. An important advantage of a synchronous motor over wound
round induction motor is that
(a) its power factor may be varied at will
(b) its speed is independent of supply frequency
(c) its speed may be controlled more easily
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
61. The mechanical displacement of the rotor with respect to the
stator, in polyphase multipolar synchronous motors running at full
load, is of the order of
(a) zero degree
(b) two degrees
(c) five degrees
(d) ten degrees
Ans: c
62. Power factor of a synchronous motor is unity when
(a) the armature current is maximum
(b) the armature current is minimum
(c) the armature current is zero
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
63. Change of D.C. excitation of a synchronous motor changes
(a) applied voltage of the motor
(b) motor speed
(c) power factor of power drawn by the motor
(d) any of the above
(e) all of the above
Ans: c
1) SYNCHRONOUS
MOTORS
Electrical
Ans: b
93. The magnitude of field flux in a 3-phase synchronous motor
(a) remains constant at all loads
(b) varies with speed
(c) varies with the load
(d) varies with power factor
Ans: a
94. The torque angle, in a synchronous motor, is the angle between
(a) the supply voltage and the back e.m.f.
(b) magnetising current and back e.m.f.
(c) the rotating stator flux and rotor poles
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
95. Hunting in a synchronous motor cannot be due to
(a) windage friction
(b) variable load
(c) variable frequency
(d) variable supply voltage
Ans: a
96. By which of the following methods the constant speed of a
synchronous motor can be changed to new fixed value ?
(a) By changing the supply frequency
(b) By interchanging any two phases
(c) By changing the applied voltage
(d) By changing the load.
Ans: a
(d) leading
Ans: c
104. The back e.m.f. in the stator of a synchronous motor depends
on
(a) number of poles
(b) flux density
(c) rotor speed
(d) rotor excitation
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
105. The maximum value of torque that a synchronous motor can
develop without losing its synchronism, is known as
(a) slip torque
(b) pull-out torque
(c) breaking torque
(d) synchronising torque
Ans: d
106. In a synchronous motor, the armature current has large values
for
(a) high excitation only
(b) low excitation only
(c) both high and low excitation
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
107. Which of the following losses, in a synchronous motor, does not
vary with load?
(a) Windage loss
(b) Copper losses
(c) Any of the above
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
108. The size of a synchronous motor decreases with the increase in
(a) flux density
(b) horse power rating
(c) speed
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
109. Which of the following losses is not dissipated by the stator core
surface in a synchronous motor ?
(a) Eddy current losses in the conductors
(b) Iron losses in the stator
(c) Copper losses in the slot portion of the conductors
(d) Windage losses
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
110. The duration of sudden snort-circuit test on a synchronous
motor is usually about
(a) one hour
(b) Nuclear
(c) Steam
(d) Diesel
(e) Any of the above
Ans: d
45. Which of the following, in a thermal power plant, is not a fixed
cost ?
(a) Fuel cost
(b) Interest on capital
(c) Depreciation
(d) Insurance charges
Ans: a
46. _______ will offer the least load.
(a) Vacuum cleaner
(b) Television
(c) Hair dryer
(d) Electric shaver
Ans: d
47. In ______ fuel transportation cost is least.
(a) nuclear power plants
(b) diesel generating plants
(c) steam power stations
Ans: a
48. Which of the following equipment provides fluctuating load ?
(a) Exhaust fan
(b) Lathe machine
(c) Welding transformer
(d) All of the above
Ans: c
49. The increased load during summer months is due to
(a) increased business activity
(b) increased water supply
(c) increased use of fans and air conditioners
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
50 is the reserved generating capacity available for service under
emergency conditions which is not kept in operation but in working
order,
(a) Hot reserve
(b) Cold reserve
(c) Spinning reserve
(d) Firm power
Ans: b
51. Generating capacity connected to the bus bars and ready to take
load when switched on is known as
(a) firm power
(b) cold reserve
(c) hot reserve
59. For which of the following power plants highly skilled engineers
are required for running the plants ?
(a) Nuclear power plants
(b) Gas turbine power plants
(c) Solar power plants
(d) Hydro-electric power plants
Ans: a
60. In whichof the following power plants the maintenance cost is
usually high ?
(a) Nuclear power plant
(b) Hydro-electric power plants
(c) Thermal power plants
(d) Diesel engine power plants
Ans: c
61. ________ is invariably used for peak load
(a) Nuclear power plant
(b) Steam turbine plant
(c) Pumped storage plant
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
62. Which of the following is not an operating cost ?
(a) Maintenance cost
(b) Fuel cost
(c) Salaries of high officials
(d) Salaries of operating staff
Ans:
63. Which of the following is the essential requirement of peak load
plant ?
(a) It should run at high speed
(b) It should produce high voltage
(c) It should be small in size
(d) It should be capable of starting quickly
Ans: d
64. Large capacity generators are invariably
(a) water cooled
(b) natural air cooled
(c) forced air cooled
(d) hydrogen cooled
Ans: d
65. By the use of which of the following power factor can be
improved ?
(a) Phase advancers
(b) Synchronous compensators
(c) Static capacitors
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d
66. An induction motor has relatively high power factor at
(a) rated r.p.m.
(b) no load
(c) 20 percent load
(d) near full load
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
67. Which of the following is the disadvantage due to low power
factor ?
(a) Poor voltage regulation
(b) Increased transmission losses
(c) High cost of equipment for a given load
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
68. In a distribution system, in order to improve power factor, the
synchronous capacitors are installed
(a) at the receiving end
(b) at the sending end
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
(a) kW
(b) kWh
(e) kVAR
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
(c) BEL
(d) BHEL
Ans: a
89. The primary reason for low power factor is supply system is due
to installation of
(a) induction motors
(b) synchronous motors
(c) single phase motors
(d) d.c. motors
Ans: a
(d) alternator
Ans: a
96. For the same cylinder dimensions and speed, which of the
following engine will produce least power ?
(a) Supercharged engine
(b) Diesel engine
(c) Petrol engine
(d) All of the above engines will equal power
Ans: c
(b) 10 to 15 years
(c) 25 to 30 years
(d) 60 to 70 years
Ans: c
7. Which of the following materials is not used for transmission and
distribution of electrical power ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel
(d) Tungsten
Ans: d
8. Galvanised steel wire is generally used as
(a) stay wire
(b) earth wire
(c) structural components
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
9. The usual spans with R.C.C. poles are
(a) 4050 meters
(b) 60100 meters
(c) 80100 meters
(d) 300500 meters
Ans: c
10. The corona is considerably affected by which of the following ?
(a) Size of the conductor
(b) Shape of the conductor
(c) Surface condition of the conductor
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
11. Which of the following are the constants of the transmission lines
?
(a) Resistance
(b) Inductance
(c) Capacitance
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
12. 310 km line is considered as
(a) a long line
(b) a medium line
(c) a short line
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
13. The phenomenon qf rise in voltage at the receiving end of the
open-circuited or lightly loaded line is called the
(a) Seeback effect
(b) Ferranti effect
(c) Raman effect
(b) Draw-in-system
(c) Solid system
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
21. Which of the following is the source of heat generation in the
cables ?
(a) Dielectric losses in cable insulation
(b) losses in the conductor
(c) Losses in the metallic sheathings and armourings
(d) All of the above
Ans:
22. Due to which of the following reasons the cables should not be
operated too hot ?
(a) The oil may loose its viscosity and it may start drawing off from
higher levels
(b) Expansion of the oil may cause the sheath to burst
(c) Unequal expansion may create voids in the insulation which will
lead to ionization
(d) The thermal instability may rise due to the rapid increase of
dielectric losses with temperature
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
23. Which of the following D.C. distribution system is the simplest
and lowest in first cost ?
(a) Radial system
(b) Ring system
(c) Inter-connected system
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
24. A booster is a
(a) series wound generator
(b) shunt wound generator
(c) synchronous generator
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
25. Besides a method of trial and error, which of the following
methods is employed for solution of network problems in
interconnected system ?
(a) Circulating current method
(b) Thevenins theorem
(c) Superposition of currents
(d) Direct application of Kirehhoffs laws
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
26. Which of the following faults is most likely to occur in cables ?
(a) Cross or short-circuit fault
(b) Open circuit fault
(c) Breakdown of cable insulation
(d) P.V.C.
Ans:
43. The minimum clearance between the ground and a 220 kV line is
about
(a) 4.3 m
(b) 5.5 m
(c) 7.0 m
(d) 10.5 m
Ans: c
44. The spacing between phase conductors of a 220 kV line is
approximately equal to
(a) 2 m
(b) 3.5 m
(c) 6 m
(d) 8.5 m
Ans: c
45. Large industrial consumers are supplied electrical energy at
(a) 400 V
(b) 11 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 400 kV
Ans: c
46. In a D.C. 3-wire distribution system, balancer fields are crossconnected in order to
(a) boost the generated voltage
(b) balance loads on both sides of the neutral
(c) make both machine^ run as unloaded motors
(d) equalize voltages on the positive and negative outers
Ans:
47. In a D.C. 3-wire distributor using balancers and having unequal
loads on the two sides
(a) both balancers run as generators
(b) both balancers run as motors
(c) balancer connected to lightly- loaded side runs as a motor
(d) balancer connected to heavily- loaded side runs as a motor
Ans:
48. Transmitted power remaining the same, if supply voltage of a
D.C. 2-wire feeder is increased 100 percent, saving in copper is
(a) 25 percent
(b) 50 percent
(c) 75 percent
(d) Silica
Ans: d
Ans: d
77. jCorona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in air around
the conductor exceeds
(a) 6.6 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(b) 11 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(c) 22 kV (maximum value)/cm
(d) 30 kV (maximum value)/cm
Ans: d
78. The voltage drop, for constant voltage transmission is
compensated by installing
(a) inductors
(b) capacitors
(c) synchronous motors
(d) all of above
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
79. The use of strain type insulators is made where the conductors
are
(a) dead ended
(b) at intermediate anchor towers
(c) any of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
80. The current drawn by the line due to corona losses is
(a) non-sinusoidal
(b) sinusoidal
(c) triangular
(d) square
Ans: a
81. Pin type insulators are generally not used for voltages beyond
(a) 1 kV
(b) 11 kV
(c) 22 kV
(d) 33 kV
Ans: d
82. Aluminium has a specific gravity of
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.7
(c) 4.2
(d) 7.8
Ans: b
83. For transmission of power over a distance of 200 km, the
transmission voltage should be
(a) 132 kV
(b) 66 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 11 kV
Ans: a
Cables
1. The insulating material for a cable should have
(a) low cost
(b) high dielectric strength
(c) high mechanical strength
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
2. Which of the following protects a cable against mechanical
injury ?
(a) Bedding
(b) Sheath
(c) Armouring
10. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) brown
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
(d) armoured
Ans: a
Electric traction
(a) 50 to 200
(b) 500 to 1000
(c) 1500 to 2500
(d) 3000 to 5000
Ans: c
(a) 2 percent
(b) 10 percent
(c) 20 percent
(d) 40 percent
Ans: a
34. Speed-time curve of main line service differs from those of urban
and suburban services on following account
(a) it has longer free running period
(b) it has longer coasting period
(c) accelerating and braking periods are comparatively smaller
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
35. The rate of acceleration on suburban orurban services is
restricted by the consideration of
(a) Engine power
(b) Track curves
(c) Passenger Discomfort
(d) Track size
Ans: c
36. The specific energy consumption of a train depends on which of
the following ?
(a) Acceleration and retardation
(b) Gradient
(c) Distance covered
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
37. The friction at the track is proportional to
(a) 1/speed
(b) l/(speed)2
(c) speed
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
38. The air resistance to the movement of the train is proportional to
(a) speed
(b) (speed)
(c) (speed)
(d) 1/speed
Ans: b
39. The normal value of adhesion friction is
(a) 0.12
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.75
Ans: b
40. The pulsating torque exerted by steam locomotives causes which
of the following?
(a) Jolting and skidding
(b) Hammer blow
(c) Pitching
(d) All of the above
Ans: a
41. Which of the following braking systems is used on steam
locomotives ?
Industrial drives
23. For which of the following applications D.C. motors are still
preferred ?
(a) High efficiency operation
(b) Reversibility
(c) Variable speed drive
(d) High starting torque
Ans: c
24. In a paper mill where constant speed is required
(a) synchronous motors are preferred
(b) A.C. motors are preferred
(c) individual drive is preferred
(d) group drive is preferred
Ans: c
25. A reluctance motor
(a) is provided with slip rings
(b) requires starting gear
(c) has high cost
(d) is compact
Ans: d
26. The size of an excavator is usually expressed in terms of
(a) crowd motion
(b) angle of swing
(c) cubic metres
(d) travel in metres
Ans: c
27. For blowers which of the following motor is preferred ?
(a) D.C. series motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) Squirrel cage induction motor
(d) Wound rotor induction motor
Ans: b
28. Belted slip ring induction motor is almost invariably used for
(a) water pumps
(b) jaw crushers
(c) centrifugal blowers
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
29. Which of the following is essentially needed while selecting a
motor ?
(a) Pulley
(b) Starter
(c) Foundation pedal
(d) Bearings
Ans: b
30. Reluctance motor is a
(a) variable torque motor
(b) low torque variable speed motor
(c) self starting type synchronous motor
(c) normal
(d) low
Ans: a
45 has the least value of starting torque to full load torque ratio.
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) Squirrel cage induction motor
(d) Slip ring induction motor
Ans: c
46. In case of _______ speed control by injecting e.m.f. in the
rotor circuit is possible,
(a) d.c. shunt motor
(b) schrage motor
(c) synchronous motor
(d) slip ring induction motor
Ans: d
47. A pony motor is used for the starting which of the following
motors ?
(a) Squirel cage induction motor
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Synchronous motor
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
58. The characteristics of drive for crane hoisting and lowering are
which of the following ?
(a) Precise control
(b) Smooth movement
(c) Fast speed control
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
(c) Noise
(d) Arrangement for power transmission
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
67. The diameter of the rotor shaft for an electric motor depends
on which of the following ?
(a) r.p.m. only
(b) Horse power only
(c) Horse power and r.p.m.
(d) Horse power, r.p.m. and power factor
Ans: c
68. Which of the following alternatives will be cheaper ?
(a) A 100 H.P. AC. three phase motor
(b) Four motors of 25 H.P. each
(c) Five motors of 20 H.P. each
(d) Ten motors of 10 H.P. each
Ans: a
69. The cost of an induction motor will increase as
(a) horsepower rating increases but r.p.m. decreases
(b) horsepower rating decreases but r.p.m. increases
(c) horsepower rating and operating speed increases
(d) horsepower rating and operating speed decreases
Ans: a
70. In series motor which of the following methods can be used for
changing the flux per pole ?
(a) Tapped field control
(b) Diverter field control
(c) Series-parallel control
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d
(c) is nontoxic
(d) has pungent small
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
4. The arcing contacts in a circuit breaker are made of
(a) copper tungsten alloy
(b) porcelain
(c) electrolytic copper
(d) aluminium alloy
Ans: a
5. Which of the following medium is employed for extinction of arc
in air circuit breaker ?
(a) Water
(b) Oil
(c) Air
(d) SF6
Ans: c
6. With which of the following, a circuit breaker must be equipped
for remote operation ?
(a) Inverse time trip
(b) Time-delay trip
(c) Shunt trip
(d) None of the above
(e) All of the above
Ans: c
7. Fault diverters are basically
(a) fuses
(b) relays
(c) fast switches
(d) circuit breakers
Ans: c
8. A thermal protection switch can protect against
(a) short-circuit
(b) temperature
(c) overload
(d) over voltage
Ans: c
9. Arc in a circuit behaves as
(a) a capackive reactance
(b) an inductive reactance
(c) a resistance increasing with voltage rise across the arc
(d) a resistance decreasing with voltage rise across the arc
Ans: d
10. Thermal circuit breaker has
(a) delayed trip action
(b) instantaneous trip action
(c) both of the above
30. The voltage appearing across the contacts after opening of the
circuit breaker is called______voltage.
(a) recovery
(b) surge
(c) operating
(d) arc
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
40. The ground wire should not be smaller than No ______ copper.
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 10
Ans: d
41. The delay fuses are used for the protection of ________ .
(a) motors
(b) power outlet circuits
(c) fluorescent lamps
(d) light circuits
Ans: a
42. Which of the following is the least expensive protection for
overcurrent is low voltage system ?
(a) Rewireable fuse
(b) Isolator
(c) Oil circuit breaker
(d) Air break circuit breaker
(e) None of the above
Ans: a
43. Resistance grounding is used for voltage between
(a) 33kVto66kV
(b) HkVto33kV
(c) 3.3kVandllkV
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
44. The contacts of high voltage switches used in power system are
submerged in oil. The main purpose of the oil is to
(a) lubricate the contacts
(b) insulate the contacts from switch body
(c) extinguish the arc
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
45. In Railway applications ______ circuit breaker is used.
(a) SFe
(b) bulk oil
(c) minimum oil
(d) air break
Ans:
46. To protect most of the electrical equipment handling low power,
the types of relays used are
(a) thermocouple
(b) electronic and bimetallic
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
82. Air blast circuit breakers for 400 kV power system are designed
to operate in
(a) 100 microsecond
(b) 50 millisecond
(c) 0.5 sec
(d) 0.1 sec
Ans: b
76. Which of the following circuit breakers has high reliability and
minimum maintenance ?
(a) Air blast circuit breakers
(b) Circuit breaker with SF6 gas
(c) Vacuum circuit breakers
(d) Oil circuit breakers
Ans: b
(a) impedance
(b) directional
(c) non-directional
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
80. The inverse definite mean time relays are used for over current
and earth fault protection of transformer against
(a) heavy loads
(b) internal short-circuits
(c) external short-circuits
(d) all of the above
Ans: b
81. Over voltage protection is recommended for
(a) hydro-electric generators
(b) steam turbine generators
(c) gas turbine generators
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
87. If the fault occurs near the impedance relay, the VII ratio will be
(a) constant for all distances
(b) lower than that of if fault occurs away from the relay
(c) higher than that of if fault occurs away from the relay
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
88. The torque produced in induction type relay (shaded pole
structure) is
(a) inversely proportional to the current
(b) inversely proportional to the square of the current
(c) proportional to the current
(d) proportional to square of the current
Ans: b
89. The steady state stability of the power system can be increased
by
(a) connecting lines in parallel
(b) connecting lines in series
Ans: a
Ans: e
13. Which of the following devices may be used for extending the range
of instruments ?
(a)
Shunts
(b)
Multipliers
(c) Current transformers
(d) Potential transformers
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
17. Most common form of A.C. meters met with in every day domestic
and industrial installations are
(a)
mercury motor meters
(b)
commutator motor meters
(c) induction type single phase energy meters
(d) all of the above
Ans: c
18. Which of the following meters are not used on D.C. circuits
(a) Mercury motor meters
(b) Commutator motor meters
(c) Induction meters
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
60. The stator of phase shifting transformer for use in conjunction with
an A.C. potentiometer usually has a
(a)
single-phase winding
(b)
two-phase winding
(c) three-phase winding
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
61. In an AC. co-ordinate potentiometer, the currents in the phase and
quadrature potentiometer are adjusted to be
(a)
out of phase by 90
(6)
out of phase by 60
(c) out of phase by 30
(d) out of phase by 0
(e) out of phase by 180
Ans: a
62. A universal RLC bridge uses
(a) Maxwell bridge configuration for measurement of inductance and De
Santas bridge for measurement of capacitance
(b) Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance and modified De
Santy's bridge for measurement of capacitance
(c) Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance and Wein bridge
for measurement of capacitance
(d) Any of the above.
Ans: b
63. For measurements on high voltage capacitors, the suitable bridge is
(a)
Wein bridge
(b)
Modified De Santy's bridge
(c)
Schering bridge
(d)
Any of the above
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
64. In an Anderson bridge, the unknown inductance is measured in terms
of
(a)
known inductance and resistance
(b)
known capacitance and resistance
(c) known resistance
(d) known inductance
Ans: b
65. Wagner earthing device is used to eliminate errors due to
(a)
electrostatic coupling
(b)
electromagnetic coupling
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
66. For measurement of mutual inductance we can use
(a)
Anderson bridge
(b)
Maxwell's bridge
(c) Heaviside bridge
(d) Any of the above
Ans: c
68. If the current in a capacitor leads the voltage by 80, the loss angle
of the capacitor is
(a)
10
(b)
80
(c)
120
(d)
170
Ans: a
(b)
moving iron instrument
(c) dynamometer instrument
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
79. A Weston synchronoscope is a
(a)
moving coil instrument
(b)
moving iron instrument
(c) dynamometer instrument
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
80. In a Weston synchronoscope, the fixed coils are connected across
(a)
bus-bars
(b)
incoming alternator
(c)
a lamp
(d)
none of the above
Ans: b
81. In Weston synchronoscope the moving coil is connected across
(a)
bus-bars
(b)
incoming alternator
(c) fixed coils
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
82. The power factor of a single phase load can be calculated if the
instruments available are
(a) one voltmeter and one ammeter
(b) one voltmeter, one ammeter and one wattmeter
(c) one voltmeter, one ammeter and one energy meter
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
83. The desirable static characteristics of a measuring system are
(a)
accuracy and reproducibility
(b)
accuracy, sensitivity and reproducibility
(c) drift and dead zone
(d) static error
Ans: b
84. The ratio of maximum displacement deviation to full scale deviation
of the instrument is called
(a)
static sensitivity
(b)
dynamic deviation
(c) linearity
(d) precision or accuracy
Ans: c
85. Systematic errors are
(a)
instrumental errors
(b)
environmental errors
(c) observational errors
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
86. Standard resistor is made from
(a)
platinum
(b)
maganin
(c)
silver
(d)
nichrome
Ans: b
77. In a Weston frequency meter, the magnetic axes of the two fixed coils
are
(a)
parallel
(b)
perpendicular
(c)
inclined at 60
(d)
inclined at 120
Ans: b
(b)
deflecting and damping
(c) deflecting, control and damping
(d) vibration and balancing
Ans: c
(b)
permanent magnet type ammeter
(c) electrostatic ammeter
(d) moving iron repulsion type voltmeter
Ans: a
91. If an instrument has cramped scale for larger values, then it follows
(a)
square law
(b)
logarithmic law
(c)
uniform law
(d)
none of the above
Ans: b
94. The gravity controlled instrument has crowded scale because current
is proportional to
(a)
balancing weight
(b)
deflection angle
(c)
sine of deflection angle
Ans: c
Control system
control action
(b)
Ans: a
Ans: b
9.
incorrect ?
(a)
good stability
(a)
Less expensive
(b)
slow response
(b)
the output
Ans: b
(a)
Clutch
(b)
Eyes
(a)
(b)
(c)
Open system
(d)
Ans: c
Ans: a
11. The initial response when tne output is not equal to input is called
4. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the
(a)
(b)
Error response
(a) decrease
(c)
Dynamic response
(b)
increase
(d)
(c)
be unaffected
Ans: a
(d)
Ans: a
Transient response
(b)
(a)
(c) Metadyne
Ans: c
(d)
Stroboscope
Ans: a
open
(b)
closed
control system ?
(a)
Ans: a
21 increases the steady state accuracy.
14. Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is
(a)
called a
(b)
Differentiator
(a)
feedback
(c)
(b)
stimulus
(d)
(c)
signal
Ans: a
(d)
gain control
Ans: b
22.
Integrator
(a)
Servomechanism
(b)
Feedback
Ans: a
Ans: b
Band width
(b)
Overall gain
(c)
Distortion
(d)
Instability
(c) Ear
Ans: a
(d)
Leg movement
Ans: b
17.
(a)
oscillations
(b)
step input
(a)
Brain
(d)
(b)
Hands
Ans: d
(c)
Legs
(d)
Eyes
Ans: d
positive sign
(a)
(6)
Ans: a
Ans: a
19. Which of the following devices are commonly used as error detectors
(c) Stroboscope
in instruments ?
(d) Metadyne
(a)
Vernistats
Ans: b
(b)
Microsyns
(c)
Resolvers
(d)
Ans: d
(d)
stable ?
Ans: a
(a)
(b)
oscillations
(c) The number of poles to the loop transfer function should be increased
(d) The number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be increased
Ans: b
Ans: d
Ans: c
36. Due to which of the following reasons excessive bond width in control
following ?
Ans: c
Ans: c
37. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following ?
(a)
Underdamping
(b)
Overdamping
(c)
(d)
Ans: c
Ans: d
31. On which of the following factors does the sensitivity of a closed loop
used ?
(a)
(a) Frequency
(b)
(c)
Sensor
(d)
Oscillator
Ans: d
Error detector
Ans: d
39. In a control system the output of the controller is given to
32. The transient response, with feedback system,
(a)
(b)
(c)
comparator
(d)
sensor
Ans: d
Ans: a
33. The second derivative input signals modify which of the following ?
(a)
(b)
clipper
(c)
comparator
(d)
amplifier
Ans: c
sensor
Ans: d
41. Which of the following is the input to a controller ?
34. Which of the following statements is correct for any closed loop
system ?
(c) Only one of the static error co-efficients has a finite non-zero value
Ans:
digital
35. Which of the following statements is correct for a system with gain
(b)
linear
(c)
non-linear
(d)
discontinuous
Ans:
momentum
(b)
velocity
(a) charge
(c)
displacement
(b) current
(d)
mass
(c) inductance
Ans: d
(d) resistance
Ans: c
(a)
voltage
(b)
current
(c)
capacitance
(d)
charge
(d) friction
Ans: c
Ans: a
52 signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signs
45. In electrical-pneumatic system analogy the current is considered
are equal.
analogous to
(a) Input
(a)
velocity
(b) Actuating
(b)
pressure
(c) Feedback
(c)
air flow
(d) Reference
(d)
Ans: b
Ans: d
53. A signal other than the reference input that tends to affect the value
46. In liquid level and electrical system analogy, voltage is considered
analogous to
as
(a)
head
(a) disturbance
(b)
liquid flow
(b) command
Ans: a
Ans: a
to
(a)
charge
(b)
resistance
Ans: a
Ans: b
55. From which of the following transfer function can be obtained ?
48. In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to
(a)
(a)
current
(b)
(b)
charge
(c)
Output-input ratio
(c)
inductance
(d)
capacitance
Ans: a
Ans: a
(d) temperature
Ans: c
Ans: d
servomotors
(b)
induction relays
Ans: a
65. An increase in gain, in most systems, leads to
Ans:
system stability
(b)
sensitivity
Ans: a
66. Static error coefficients are used as a measure of the effectiveness of
(c) gain
Ans: a
(a) acceleration
(b) velocity
59. By which of the following the system response can be tested better ?
(c) position
(a)
(b)
Ans: d
Ans: c
(a)
components
(b)
(c)
Ans: a
Ans: b
68. The type 0 system has ______ at the origin.
(a) no pole
(b) net pole
Ans: a
(a) amplidyneset
Ans: c
(a) capacitance
(c) current
Ans: d
(d) resistance
Ans: b
64. The frequency and time domain are related through which of the
following?
Ans: c
72. Velocity error constant of a system is measured when the input to the
(b)
Phase-lag
(a) parabolic
(c)
(b) ramp
(d)
(c) impulse
(e)
(d) step
Ans: a
Ans: b
80. The phase lag produced by transportation relays
73. In case of type-1 system steady state acceleration is
(a)
(a) unity
(b)
is independent of frequency
is inverseh'proportional to frequency
(b) infinity
(c)
(c) zero
(d)
(d) 10
Ans: c
Ans: b
81. In a stable control system saturation can cause which of the following
74. If a step function is applied to the input of a system and the output
remains below a certain level for all the time, the system is
(a)
(b)
High-level oscillations
(b) stable
(c)
Conditional stability
(c) unstable
(d)
Overdamping
Ans:
Low-level oscillations
75. Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability
(a)
Acceleration
(b)
Speed
(d) Displacement
Ans: b
Ans: a
83 is not a final control element.
76. Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of the following ?
(a)
Control valve
(b)
Potentiometer
(d) Servomotor
Ans: b
Ans: c
84. Which of the following is the definition of proportional band of a
77. Addition of zeros in transfer function causes which of the following ?
controller ?
(a)
Lead-compensation
(a)
(b)
Lag-compensation
maximum to minimum
(c)
Lead-lag compensation
(b)
(d)
(c) The range of measured variables through which the air output
Ans: b
(a)
Nyquist Criterion
Ans: c
(b)
Quasi linearization
(c)
Functional analysis
85. In pneumatic control systems the control valve used as final control
(d)
Phase-plane representation
element converts
Ans: a
(a)
Phase-lead
Ans: b
(a)
Ans: d
(b)
Selsyn
(c)
Strain gauge
(d)
(a)
Induction relay
(b)
Thermocouple
Ans: a
(c) LVDT
87. Which of the following devices is used for conversion of co-ordinates ?
(a)
Microsyn
(b)
Selsyn
Ans: c
(c) Synchro-resolver
(d) Synchro-transformer
Ans: c
88.
Ans: c
96. If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as
(a)
Ans: c
(b)
critically damped
(c)
overdamped
oscillatory
(d)
underdamped
(a)
Root locus
(e)
(b)
Bode
Ans: d
(c)
Nyquist
(d)
Nichols
Ans: a
increases
(b)
minimizes
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(c)
Ans: b
(d)
Ans: c
system stability
91.
(6)
system gain
(a)
Static friction
(c)
(b)
Backlash
(d)
(c)
Saturation
Ans: b
(d)
Ans: c
Constant current
(b)
Constant voltage
(a)
(b)
Transfer functions
(e)
Ans: d
Ans: d
100.
(a)
Displacement
(b)
Velocity
(c)
Acceleration
(d)
Ans: d
(e)
Ans: d
(a)
Thermocouple
(b)
Potentiometer
(c)
Gear train
(d)
LVDT
(e)
Ans: c
Ans: a
105. The first order control system, which is well designed, has a
102.
(a)
small bandwidth
(b)
conditions ?
(a)
(d)
(b)
Ans: c
Ans: d
(a)
(b)
(a)
Alternating current
(b)
Direct current
(c)
A.C. voltage
Ans: a
(d)
D.C. voltage