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CHAPTER 5
72. (p. 132) Motivating employees is more challenging today than two decades ago because:
A. employers have difficulty understanding the different needs and expectations that younger generation
employees bring to the workplace.
B. there is more layers of management today, which makes it more difficult to motivate everyone in
management positions.
C. corporate downsizing and reduced job security have damaged the levels of trust employees need to
work beyond minimum levels.
D. All of the answers are correct.
E. employers have difficulty understanding the different needs and expectations that younger generation
employees bring to the workplace, and corporate downsizing and reduced job security have damaged the
levels of trust employees need to work beyond minimum levels.
73. (p. 133) Expectations of new workforce entrants has:
A. made employee motivation less relevant as an influence on job performance.
B. made it less difficult to motivate employees using financial rewards.
C. made it more difficult to identify what motivates employees.
D. made it impossible to use any form of goal setting.
E. had no effect on employee motivation.
74. (p. 133) All of the following are reasons given for why some employees are "disengaged"
EXCEPT:
A. Companies have not adjusted to the changing needs and expectations of the new workforce.
B. Corporate restructuring (downsizing) has undermined commitment and trust among employees.
C. Pressures from globalization and information technology make it harder to motivate employees beyond
minimum standards.
D. Employees aged 25 to 34 sometimes or frequently feel demotivated.
E. Basic needs have already been provided and satisfied. Therefore higher-level needs are harder for
employers to anticipate and offer.
75. (p. 134) _________ produce emotions, whereas _________ represent the motivational force of those
emotions which are channeled toward particular goals.
A. Drives, needs
B. Needs, drives
C. Thinking, doing
D. Planning, projecting
E. None of the above is correct.
76. (p. 134) Which of the following statements about drives is FALSE?
A. They are also called primary needs.
B. They activate emotions, which put us in a state of readiness to act.
C. They include only basic physiological essentials, such as hunger and thirst.
D. Drives and emotions represent the primary sources of motivation.
E. All of the above are correct.
77. (p. 134-135) Self-concept, social norms, and past experiences help us:
A. adjust our level of drive-based emotions.
B. regulate our decisions and behaviors.
C. adjust our drive-based emotions, but not our behaviors.
D. make unemotional decisions based on reason and logic.
E. adjust our level of drive-based needs, and regulate our decisions and behaviors.

78. (p. 136) Needs Hierarchy Theory includes all of the following concepts EXCEPT:
A. self-actualization.
B. frustration-regression.

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C. esteem.
D. belongingness.
E. physiological needs.
79. (p. 135) Which of these is the most widely known theory of human motivation?
A. Maslow's Needs Hierarchy Theory
B. Expectancy Theory
C. Goal Setting Theory
D. Equity Theory
E. Learned Needs Theory
80. (p. 135) The highest level need in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is:
A. esteem.
B. safety.
C. power.
D. belongingness.
E. self-actualization.
81. (p. 136) In Maslow's needs hierarchy, the bottom four levels are collectively known as
___________ needs, whereas self-actualization is called a ______________ need.
A. belongingness, infinite
B. fictitious, factual
C. deficiency, growth
D. subordinate, superordinate
E. safety, reward
82. (p. 136) Which of these theories states that we are motivated by several needs, but the strongest
source is the lowest unsatisfied need?
A. Four-drive Theory
B. Needs Hierarchy Theory
C. Equity Theory
D. Distributive Justice Theory
E. Learned Needs Theory
83. (p. 138) If individuals are unable to satisfy a particular need, the ERG theory states that they:
A. keep trying to fulfill this need until it is satisfied.
B. redirect their efforts towards fulfilling a higher need in the hierarchy.
C. permanently remove the blocked need from their list of needs to satisfy.
D. redirect their efforts towards fulfilling a lower need in the hierarchy.
E. any one of the four options above might occur depending on the individual.
84. (p. 138) Which of these motivation theories arranges employee needs in a hierarchy ofimportance?
A. ERG Theory
B. Four-drive Theory
C. Expectancy Theory
D. McClelland's Learned Needs Theory
E. ERG Theory and McClelland's Learned Needs Theory
85. (p. 139) McClelland's Learned Needs Theory does NOT include which of these needs?
A. Safety need
B. Achievement need
C. Socialized power need
D. Personalized power need
E. Affiliation need
86. (p. 139) The desire to seek approval from others, conform to their wishes and expectations, and avoid
conflict and confrontations is called:
A. Need for affiliation
B. Need for power
C. Need for achievement

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D. Need for safety

E. Need for existence
87. (p. 140) According to the Four-drive Theory, which of the following is the foundation of competition and
the basis of our need for esteem?
A. Drive to acquire
B. Physiological needs
C. Drive to defend
D. Drive to bond
E. Drive to learn
88. (p. 140) In the Four-drive Theory, the drive ______ is most closely associated with the need for relative
status and recognition.
A. to bond
B. for fairness
C. to achieve goals
D. to acquire
E. for feedback
89. (p. 140) In the Four-drive Theory, the drive ______ is the drive to form social relationships and develop
mutual caring commitments with others.
A. to bond
B. for fairness
C. to defend
D. to acquire
E. to achieve goals
90. (p. 140-141) The Four-drive Theory is based on the idea that:
A. needs can be learned.
B. needs form a permanent hierarchy.
C. employee motivation is based on expectations.
D. the sources of employee needs are hard-wired through evolution.
E. people do not really have any needs.
91. (p. 141) According to Four-drive Theory, ______ are the conscious sources of human motivation.
A. co-workers
B. food and drink
C. emotional markers
D. drives
E. justice and equity
92. (p. 140) Which drive in the Four-drive Theory is reactive rather than proactive?
A. Drive to acquire
B. Drive to learn
C. Drive to defend
D. Drive to bond
E. Drive for power

93. (p. 141) One of the main implications of drives/needs-based theories of motivation is that:
A. employers should offer employees a choice of rewards.
B. employees should be given specific goals with plenty of feedback.
C. employers should give all employees the same employee benefits.
D. employers should select people with the best qualifications for the job.
E. drives/needs-based theories have no relevance for managing people in organizational settings.
94. (p. 142) Four-drive Theory recommends:
A. that companies should encourage employees to fulfill one drive at a time.

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B. that companies should provide sufficient rewards, learning opportunities, and social interaction at the
same time.
C. that companies should only hire people with a strong drive to defend.
D. that companies should create a work environment that routinely triggers the employee's drive to
defend.
E. None of the answers apply.
95. (p. 142) One of the main implications of Four-drive Theory is that:
A. employers should offer employees enough opportunity to keep all four drives in balance.
B. employees should be given specific goals with plenty of feedback.
C. employers should give all employees the same employee benefits.
D. employers should select people with the best qualifications for the job.
E. needs-based theories have no relevance for managing people in organizational settings.
96. (p. 143) Which motivation theory is based on the idea that work effort is directed toward behaviors that
people believe will lead to desired outcomes?
A. Equity Theory
B. ERG Theory
C. Goal Setting Theory
D. The Four-drive Theory
E. Expectancy Theory
97. (p. 143) Expectancy Theory mainly helps us to predict an individual's:
A. effort.
B. need for achievement.
C. distributive justice.
D. job satisfaction.
E. rewards.
98. (p. 143) An individual's perceived probability that a particular level of effort will result in a particular
level of performance refers to the:
A. E-to-P valance.
B. EP-to-PO outcome.
C. E-to-V expectancy.
D. E-to-P expectancy.
E. EV-to-PE outcome.
99. (p. 144) Which of the following statements about Expectancy Theory is FALSE?
A. Expectancy Theory is a needs-based theory of motivation.
B. E-to-P expectancies are influenced by the individual's beliefs that he or she can successfully complete
the task.
C. The process of employee motivation is explained reasonably well by Expectancy Theory.
D. One way to increase the P-to-O expectancy in the Expectancy Theory model is to accurately measure
job performance.
E. Expectancy Theory has three main components relating to effort, performance and performance
outcomes.

100. (p. 143) Which of these is found in the Expectancy Theory model?
A. P-to-O expectancy
B. E-to-O expectancy
C. V-to-E expectancy
D. P-to-E expectancy
E. O-to-P expectancy
101. (p. 143) Expectancy Theory mainly explains how employees:
A. have different needs at different times.
B. can use personal expectations to reduce work-related stress.

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C. can motivate themselves through power.

D. have different levels of work effort based on their expectations of performance and reward outcomes.
E. compare their inputs and outcomes to other people.
102. (p. 143) Employees who believe that accomplishing a particular task will almost certainly result in a
day off with pay would have:
A. an E-to-P expectancy above 100.
B. a P-to-O expectancy close to 1.
C. an outcome valence above 0.
D. an E-to-P expectancy close to minus 100.
E. a P-to-O expectancy close to 100.
103. (p. 144) According to Expectancy Theory, a reward that is not wanted has:
A. a high E-to-P expectancy.
B. an inappropriate comparison other.
C. a negative outcome valence.
D. a low P-to-O expectancy.
E. a low need for socialized power.
104. (p. 144) In Expectancy Theory, valence refers to the:
A. amount of effort a person puts towards a known goal.
B. individual's perceived probability of performing the task at a particular level.
C. anticipated satisfaction or dissatisfaction that an individual feels towards an outcome.
D. individual's perceived probability that his or her performance will lead to specific outcomes.
E. feelings that result from a comparison of the individual's outcome/input ratio with the outcome/input
ratio of a comparison other.
105. (p. 144) According to Expectancy Theory, providing counseling and coaching to an employee who
lacks self-confidence is most likely to increase the employee's:
A. V-to-O expectancy.
B. E-to-P expectancy.
C. P-to-E expectancy.
D. O-to-P expectancy.
E. P-to-O expectancy.
106. (p. 145) Employee motivation tends to increase when people are assigned to jobs for which they are
qualified and they receive coaching to improve their self-confidence. Both of these practices improve
employee motivation by:
A. reducing feelings of inequity.
B. increasing outcome valences.
C. satisfying existence needs.
D. increasing P-to-O expectancies.
E. increasing E-to-P expectancies.

107. (p. 145) According to Expectancy Theory, a skill-development training program would:
A. have no effect on employee motivation.
B. mainly increase the effort-to-performance expectancy.
C. mainly increase the performance-to-outcome expectancy.
D. mainly increase the valence of pay increases and other organizational outcomes.
E. mainly alter the comparison other.
108. (p. 145) Which of the following actions would increase employee motivation mainly by enhancing
their effort-to-performance expectancy?
A. Convince employees that poor performance will not be rewarded.
B. Reward employees with things that they value.
C. Measure valance more accurately.
D. Let employees know that their chances of performing successfully are good.

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E. All of the above.

109. (p. 145) One way to increase employee motivation by improving the P-to-O expectancies is to:
A. measure employee performance accurately.
B. convince employees that they are able to accomplish the task.
C. select employees with the required skills and knowledge.
D. provide sufficient time and resources to perform the task.
E. give everyone the same reward.
110. (p. 145) ABC Corp. introduced a training program that ensured everyone had the required knowledge
and skills to perform the work. The company also brought in a performance-based reward system that
accurately identified employees who performed better than others. These practices improve employee
motivation by:
A. increasing employee needs.
B. reducing feelings of inequity.
C. improving E-to-P expectancies.
D. improving P-to-O expectancies.
E. both 'C' and 'D'.
111. (p. 145) According to Expectancy Theory, which of the following actions would NOT alter outcome
valences?
A. Show employees how their skills can accomplish the task.
B. Give employees a choice of rewards.
C. Minimize the presence of countervalent outcomes.
D. Distribute rewards that employees want.
E. Adapt the type of rewards offered to each employee's dominant needs.
112. (p. 145) According to Expectancy Theory, giving more valued rewards to employees with higher job
performance mainly increases motivation by:
A. strengthening the E-to-P expectancy.
B. increasing the valence of a $1,000 bonus.
C. weakening the E-to-P expectancy.
D. strengthening both the E-to-P and P-to-O expectancies.
E. strengthening the P-to-O expectancy.
113. (p. 145) Individualizing rewards enhances which Expectancy Theory component?
A. Performance expectancy
B. E-to-O expectancy
C. Valences of outcomes
D. E-to-P expectancy
E. V-to-E outcomes.

114. (p. 146) Goal setting influences employee behavior and performance mainly by improving:
A. situational contingencies and learned abilities.
B. aptitudes and learned abilities.
C. motivation and role perceptions.
D. role perceptions and learned abilities.
E. motivation and aptitudes.
115. (p. 147) Goal setting is most effective when:
A. the supervisor sets the goals before discussing them with the employee.
B. the goals stretch the employee's abilities and motivation.
C. the goal statements are general rather than specific.
D. all of the above.
E. both 'A' and 'B'.
116. (p. 147) Goal setting requires all of these conditions EXCEPT:
A. challenging goals.

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B. relevant goals.
C. goal feedback.
D. goal commitment.
E. goal timeliness.
117. (p. 147) The optimal level of goal difficulty:
A. occurs where the goal is challenging but not impossible.
B. is the most challenging goal that the company can possibly imagine.
C. occurs only when employees set their own goal.
D. is the point at which the employee does not yet think the goal will 'stretch' them at all.
E. occurs only when both 'A' and 'C' exist.
118. (p. 147) To increase goal performance, employees should participate in the goal-setting process:
A. when employees would otherwise lack commitment to those goals.
B. whenever supervisors have any control over setting goals.
C. when employees possess knowledge that would improve goal quality.
D. Never - participation weakens the effectiveness of goal setting.
E. 'A' and 'C' only.
119. (p. 148) Feedback affects behavior and job performance by improving which of the following?
A. Motivation
B. Role perceptions
C. Learned ability
D. All of the above
E. Only 'B' and 'C'
120. (p. 148) Effective feedback is all of the following EXCEPT:
A. sufficiently frequent.
B. timely.
C. general.
D. credible.
E. relevant.
121. (p. 148) Effective feedback:
A. is general enough that it applies to any employee.
B. is provided only through social sources.
C. is provided no more frequently than once every three months.
D. all of the above.
E. none of the above.
122. (p. 149) Which of the following statements about performance feedback is FALSE?
A. The optimal frequency of feedback depends on the type of job.
B. Feedback is more valuable when it comes from a credible source.
C. Feedback is more useful when it consists of general phrases, such as "Your sales are going well!" rather
than specific phrases.
D. Feedback should be available to employees as soon as possible.
E. Feedback is relevant when it is linked to goals.
123. (p. 152) Employees who experience feelings of inequity tend to change their comparison other:
A. never; people do not change their comparison other to reduce inequity feelings.
B. every three or four months.
C. as the first strategy to correct feelings of inequity.
D. as the main way to alter their inputs.
E. if they can't alter the outcome/input ratio through other means.
124. (p. 152) Which of the following theories suggests that employee motivation is influenced by what
other people contribute to and receive from the organization?
A. Expectancy Theory
B. Equity Theory

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C. Needs-based Theory
D. Need Theory
E. Goal Setting Theory
125. (p. 152) Inputs, outcomes, and comparison other are elements of:
A. Innate Drives Theory.
B. Maslow's Needs Hierarchy.
C. Equity Theory.
D. Expectancy Theory.
E. Goal Setting Theory.
126. (p. 153) Susan and Courtney have been in the same job for about the same length of time and
perform very similar tasks. Susan's bonus for her performance over the past year was higher than
Courtney's bonus. Susan believes that Courtney's job performance was lower than her job performance.
Based on this information:
A. Susan would definitely have feelings of underreward inequity.
B. Susan would definitely have feelings of overreward inequity.
C. Susan would definitely feel that she is rewarded equitably.
D. Susan would never have Courtney as a comparison other.
E. we cannot determine Susan's feelings of equity or inequity.
127. (p. 153) Employees who receive a fixed amount of pay each week and who feel underrewarded are
most likely to:
A. reduce their work effort.
B. increase their work effort.
C. change their comparison other.
D. encourage the comparison other to reduce his or her work effort.
E. do none of the above.
128. (p. 153) According to Equity Theory:
A. we compare ourselves with a comparison other only when we are certain that inequity exists.
B. our comparison other never exists in real life.
C. our comparison other is always someone in another organization.
D. we choose people as comparison others only when we know that they receive fewer outcomes than we
do.
E. none of these statements are true.

129. (p. 151) The distributive justice rule applies the concept of:
A. motivation.
B. individual needs.
C. equity.
D. goal setting.
E. None of the answers apply.
130. (p. 152) According to Equity Theory:
A. everyone has the same needs over their working life.
B. money should never be used to motivate employees.
C. employees must set their own goals.
D. the importance of inputs and outcomes varies from one person to the next.
E. improving job security and working conditions will improve job satisfaction and, consequently, employee
motivation.
131. (p. 152) People who are 'equity sensitive' tend to:
A. avoid having a comparison other.
B. be tolerant of situations where they are underrewarded.
C. have a low E-to-P expectancy.
D. feel more comfortable in situations where they receive proportionately more than others.
E. want their outcome/input ratio to be equal to the outcome/input ratio of the comparison other.

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132. (p. 154) In the equity sensitivity literature, 'entitleds':

A. feel uncomfortable when they receive more rewards than they should receive.
B. feel that everyone is entitled to receive the same outcomes no matter what position they hold in the
organization or how hard they work.
C. feel best when they receive proportionately more than others.
D. frequently experience overreward inequity but rarely experience underreward inequity.
E. lack any sensitivity to feelings of inequity.
133. (p. 154) It is often difficult to maintain feelings of equity among employees because:
A. most employees feel inequitably treated no matter how much they receive for their work effort.
B. the Equity Theory model does not apply to non-management employees.
C. most employees don't know about feelings of equity.
D. each employee has different opinions regarding which inputs should be rewarded and which outcomes
are more valuable than others.
E. All of the answers are correct.
134. (p. 155) Perceptions of procedural justice are influenced by both ____ rules and _____ rules.
A. conceptual, applied
B. innate, learned
C. structural, social
D. relatedness, growth
E. specific, general
135. (p. 155) Voice and the right to appeal are two important practices that influence:
A. the size of outcome valences.
B. a person's innate drives.
C. a person's location in maslow's needs hierarchy.
D. perceptions of procedural justice.
E. whether companies should use 360-degree feedback or just supervisor feedback.

136. (p. 155) With respect to procedural justice, the "value-expressive" function which "voice" provides
refers to:
A. the feeling employees get when they feel valued at work.
B. the way employees feel after voicing their opinions.
C. the cathartic benefits of shouting at each other.
D. the sense of pride employees derive when they are eloquent during presentations.
E. None of the answers are correct.
137. (p. 156) When people experience procedural injustice, they tend to:
A. engage in more organizational citizenship behaviors.
B. engage in counterproductive work behaviors.
C. be more likely to comply with higher authorities in the future.
D. change comparison others.
E. All of the answers are correct.
CHAPTER 8
78. (p. 234) Teams have which of the following features?
A. Two or more people
B. Perceive themselves as a social entity
C. Exist to fulfill some purpose
D. All of the above
E. Only 'A' and 'C'
79. (p. 235) Which of the following statements about teams and groups is FALSE?

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A. Some teams exist without any goal or purpose.

B. A team can have dozens of members.
C. Departments are teams when employees interact with each other.
D. All members of a work group have influence, although some may have more influence than others.
E. A group always requires some form of communication among its members.
80. (p. 234) Departments are considered teams only when:
A. they operate without any supervisor.
B. everyone in the department has the same set of skills.
C. employees directly interact with each other and coordinate work activities.
D. all employees are located in the same physical area.
E. all of the above conditions exist.
81. (p. 235) Some ______ are just people assembled together without any necessary ________.
A. groups, interdependence
B. skunkworks, norms
C. teams, cohesiveness
D. task forces, goals
E. teams, norms
82. (p. 236) Which of these statements is TRUE?
A. All groups are teams.
B. Groups are teams with a high level of task interdependence.
C. Unlike teams, groups are associated with an organizational objective.
D. Some groups are just people assembled together in the same physical area.
E. Groups are teams without a unifying relationship.
83. (p. 235) A task force refers to:
A. any informal group that has the same members as the permanent task-oriented group.
B. any formal group whose members work permanently and most of their time in that team.
C. any formal group whose members must be able to perform all tasks on the team.
D. any temporary team that investigates a particular problem and typically disbands when the decision is
made.
E. both 'B' and 'C'.
84. (p. 235) Royal Dutch/Shell Group formed a team to improve revenues for its service stations along
major highways in Malaysia. This team, which included a service station dealer, a union truck driver and
four or five marketing executives, disbanded after it had reviewed the Malaysian service stations and
submitted a business plan. This team is called:
A. a skunkwork.
B. a bootleg group.
C. an informal group.
D. a community of practice.
E. a task force.
85. (p. 235) Which type of team or group is best known for having a champion who bootlegs people and
resources to develop new products, services, or procedures?
A. Skunkworks
B. Communities of practice
C. Task force
D. Informal groups
E. Team-oriented departments
86. (p. 235) Which of the following can be either a formal or informal group?
A. A task force
B. A team-oriented department
C. A management team
D. A self-directed work team
E. A community of practice
87. (p. 235) Skunkworks teams typically have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

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A. they borrow members from several areas in the organization.

B. they are formed when top management decides where employees should be reassigned in the
organization.
C. they are isolated from the rest of the organization.
D. they borrow resources from elsewhere in the organization.
E. they are able to ignore the more bureaucratic rules governing other organizational units.
88. (p. 235) Informal groups:
A. are not initiated by the organization.
B. exist primarily for the benefit of their members.
C. usually do not perform organizational goals.
D. All of the above.
E. Only 'A' and 'B'.
89. (p. 235) ______ is one explanation of why people belong to informal groups.
A. Rewards
B. Social identity theory
C. Stages of team development
D. Social loafing
E. None of these factors explains why people belong to informal groups.
90. (p. 235) According to social identity theory:
A. teams are never as productive as individuals working alone.
B. the most effective teams have as many members as the organization can afford.
C. the team development process occurs more rapidly for heterogeneous teams than for homogeneous
teams.
D. people define themselves by their group affiliations.
E. team members identify with their team only when they are publicly recognized as members of that
team.

91. (p. 235) The drive to bond and the dynamics of social identity theory both explain why people:
A. join informal groups.
B. tend to ignore team norms whenever possible.
C. have difficulty feeling cohesiveness in teams.
D. engage in social loafing.
E. work better alone than in teams.
92. (p. 237) In team dynamics, process losses are best described as:
A. productivity losses that occur when team members need to learn a new task.
B. information lost due to imperfect communication.
C. resources expended towards team development and maintenance.
D. knowledge lost when a team member leaves the organization.
E. None of these statements describe process losses.
93. (p. 237) Brooks's Law says that adding more people to a late software project only makes it later. This
law is mainly referring to:
A. team cohesiveness.
B. process losses.
C. team norms.
D. team environment.
E. informal teams.
94. (p. 238) Social loafing is more likely to occur:
A. in smaller rather than larger teams.
B. when the task is boring.
C. in tasks with high interdependence.
D. when employees believe the team's objective is important.
E. among employees with collectivist rather than individualistic values.

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95. (p. 238) Keeping the team size sufficiently small and designing tasks such that each team member's
performance is measurable are two ways to:
A. minimize team cohesiveness.
B. add more roles to the team.
C. increase the risk of forming dysfunctional norms.
D. minimize social loafing.
E. do all of these things to the team.
96. (p. 238) Which of the following does NOT minimize social loafing?
A. Forming larger work teams.
B. Specialized tasks.
C. Measuring individual performance.
D. Making the work more interesting to the social loafer and other team members.
E. Selecting team members with a collectivist value orientation.
97. (p. 238) The phenomenon where people exert less effort when working in groups than when working
alone is called:
A. team cohesiveness.
B. social identity.
C. pooled interdependence.
D. team conformity.
E. social loafing.

98. (p. 238) A team that achieves its organizational goals, satisfies member needs, and survives in its
environment:
A. has a strong communication system but inappropriate reward system.
B. is called a skunkworks.
C. has not yet reached its highest level of team development.
D. is an effective team.
E. has too many members for the required task.
99. (p. 239) All of the following organizational environment features potentially affects team effectiveness
EXCEPT which one?
A. Reward systems
B. Communication systems
C. Organizational leadership
D. Team size
E. Physical space
100. (p. 239) Organizational leadership, organizational structure, and reward systems are:
A. three of the main sources of team cohesiveness.
B. three team design features.
C. three elements of the organizational and team environment.
D. three of the main causes of social loafing.
E. three ways to minimize teambuilding.
101. (p. 241) Of what importance is task interdependence to teams or team dynamics?
A. Task interdependence is not important for teams or team dynamics.
B. Low task interdependence motivates employees to work together as a team.
C. Jobs with high task interdependence are usually completed more effectively by teams than
by individuals working alone.
D. Low task interdependence is necessary to prevent the team from breaking apart.
E. High task interdependence weakens team cohesiveness.

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102. (p. 242) In most situations, larger teams:

A. are more effective than smaller teams on any task.
B. consume more time coordinating their roles than do smaller teams.
C. have team members who feel more involved in the team's success than do members of smaller teams.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
103. (p. 242) In terms of team size, the general rule is that teams:
A. cannot have more than seven or possibly eight members.
B. should have the fewest number of people possible to perform the work.
C. can be large or small without any influence on the team's effectiveness.
D. cannot have fewer than five members.
E. should be as large as possible, but smaller than the entire organization.
104. (p. 241) Production employees working on an assembly line usually have which of the following types
of task interdependence?
A. Sequential interdependence
B. Total independence
C. Reciprocal interdependence
D. Pooled interdependence
E. None of these represents the interdependence of an assembly line.

105. (p. 241) Two company divisions produce completely different products but must seek funding from
head office for a capital expansion project. The relationship between these two divisions would be best
described as:
A. total independence.
B. pooled interdependence.
C. reciprocal interdependence.
D. anticipatory interdependence.
E. sequential interdependence.
106. (p. 241) Pooled interdependence is:
A. essential for team effectiveness.
B. the same as reciprocal interdependence.
C. the weakest form of interdependence other than complete independence.
D. the best way to avoid social loafing.
E. None of these statements represent pooled interdependence.
107. (p. 241) Employees should almost always be organized into teams when they have:
A. pooled interdependence.
B. a very high level of heterogeneity.
C. counterproductive norms.
D. high levels of social loafing.
E. reciprocal interdependence.
108. (p. 245) "Faultlines" are more likely to occur when teams:
A. have very few members.
B. have developed through to the performing stage.
C. are heterogeneous.
D. are highly interdependent.
E. have none of these features.
109. (p. 244) An effective team member __________ and manages the team's work so it is performed
efficiently and harmoniously.
A. cooperates
B. communicates

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C. coordinates
D. delegates
E. comforts
110. (p. 245) Teams with strong faultlines:
A. experience more dysfunctional conflict within the team.
B. proceed more quickly through the team development process.
C. have team members with similar demographic and professional backgrounds.
D. tend to have very few members on the team.
E. have better interpersonal relations.
111. (p. 245) A diverse team is better than a homogeneous team:
A. on complex projects and tasks requiring innovative solutions.
B. on tasks requiring a high degree of cooperation.
C. in situations where the team must reach the performing stage of team development quickly.
D. in every organizational activity.
E. Never; heterogeneous teams are always less effective than homogeneous teams.
112. (p. 246) The first three stages of team development in sequential order are:
A. storming, norming, performing.
B. adjourning, conforming, performing.
C. forming, storming, norming.
D. forming, norming, performing.
E. forming, conforming, reforming.
113. (p. 246) Conforming, performing, and reforming are all:
A. stages of team development.
B. types of team norms.
C. reasons why teams disband.
D. factors that improve team cohesiveness.
E. None of the above.
114. (p. 246-247) What generally occurs during the 'storming' stage of team development?
A. Members learn about each other and evaluate the benefits and costs of continued membership.
B. Members shift their attention away from task orientation to a socioemotional focus as they realize their
relationship is coming to an end.
C. Members have learned to coordinate their actions and now become more task-oriented.
D. Members develop their first real sense of cohesion and, through disclosure and feedback, make an effort
to understand and accept each other.
E. Members try to assume specific responsibilities and influence the team's goals and means of goal
attainment.
115. (p. 248) Which of these statements about team roles is FALSE?
A. Some team roles are formally prescribed with the job.
B. Team members often negotiate the preferred roles in the team during the team development process.
C. Some team roles support task completion, whereas other roles support the team's maintenance.
D. Some team roles are informally fulfilled by various team members.
E. A team role is almost always assigned to the same person for the life of the team.
116. (p. 248) The primary objective of team building is to:
A. accelerate the team development process.
B. encourage all team members to experience lower cohesiveness.
C. help the team discover and remove members guilty of social loafing.
D. help the team move from a homogeneous to a more heterogeneous composition.
E. determine whether the team should accept more tasks.
117. (p. 248) Which type of common team building activity aims to improve relations among team
members?
A. Group therapy.
B. Role definition.
C. Personal testimonials.

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D. Problem solving.
E. Paintball wars.
118. (p. 248) Team building should be viewed as:
A. a medical inoculation.
B. a quick jump-start to the team's development.
C. a necessary practice for selecting team leaders.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
119. (p. 249) How do norms affect the behavior of team members?
A. Norms encourage members to try new behaviors not previously sanctioned by the team.
B. Norms represent the glue or esprit de corps that holds the team together.
C. Norms help the team regulate and guide the behaviors of its members.
D. Norms help the team move from the forming to storming stages of team development.
E. Norms apply to the attitudes and beliefs, but not the behaviors of team members.

120. (p. 249) Which of these statements about team norms is FALSE?
A. Norms apply only to thoughts or feelings, not behaviors.
B. Team members often conform to prevailing norms without direct reinforcement or punishment from
other team members.
C. Some norms develop from a critical event in the team's history.
D. Team norms are most strongly influenced by events soon after the team is formed.
E. Some norms develop from the beliefs and values that members bring to the team.
121. (p. 250) If a dysfunctional norm is very deeply ingrained, the best strategy is probably to:
A. tell the group that corporate leaders are willing to tolerate the dysfunctional norm.
B. disband the group and replace it with people having more favorable norms.
C. supplement the existing group with one or two people having more favorable norms.
D. introduce rewards that further support the dysfunctional norm.
E. do nothing - let the team work it out on its own.
122. (p. 250) Team cohesiveness tends to be higher:
A. in smaller teams.
B. when entry into the team becomes extremely difficult and humiliating.
C. when the team has distinct faultlines.
D. when members have limited interaction.
E. when all of these conditions occur.
123. (p. 250) Team success, team size, and member similarity are three:
A. of the main factors influencing team cohesiveness.
B. ways to change team norms.
C. elements of the organizational and team environment.
D. of the main causes of social loafing.
E. ways to minimize teambuilding.
124. (p. 251) Which of the following does NOT occur as team cohesiveness increases?
A. Team members are more motivated to maintain their membership in the team.
B. Team members spend more time together.
C. Team members experience more dysfunctional conflict among themselves.
D. Team members experience less stress.
E. Team members provide more social support to each other.
125. (p. 251) Compared to people in low-cohesion teams, members of high-cohesion teams:
A. are less motivated to maintain their membership.

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B. are more likely to resolve conflicts swiftly and effectively.

C. are less sensitive to each other's needs.
D. are less likely to share information with each other.
E. tend to experience all of these results.
126. (p. 252) Calculus, knowledge and identification are:
A. the three stages of team development.
B. three ways to improve team cohesiveness.
C. three foundations of trust in teams.
D. three types of psychological contract.
E. the three stages of conflict among team members.
127. (p. 252) Calculus-based trust:
A. no longer exists in American companies.
B. is the minimum level of trust to hold a relationship together.
C. is mainly based on the other party's predictability.
D. occurs when one party thinks, feels, and responds like the other party.
E. None of the above.
128. (p. 252) Which foundation of trust is determined mainly by the other party's predictability?
A. Calculus-based
B. Identification-based
C. Knowledge-based
D. Relational
E. Transactional
129. (p. 252) Liam works with four other accounting professionals as a team within one company. Liam
doesn't particularly agree with many of his teammates' ideas, such as leaving work early and failing to
double-check some account entries. However, he works comfortably with the group because their behavior
and decisions are predictable. What foundation of trust does Liam have in this team?
A. Calculus-based
B. Identification-based
C. Knowledge-based
D. Evaluation-based
E. Liam has no trust at all in this team
130. (p. 253) Employees tend to join a virtual or conventional team with:
A. a moderate or high level of trust in their new team members.
B. serious doubts about the willingness of other team members to welcome them to the team.
C. complete identification with the values of other team members.
D. no trust in their new team members.
E. mainly calculus-based trust.
131. (p. 253) Self-directed teams:
A. are informal groups.
B. usually exist as communities of practice.
C. have substantial autonomy over the execution of a complete task.
D. consist of a group of employees led by their immediate supervisor.
E. are common in Europe but rarely found in North America.
132. (p. 253) Which of the following allows employees to collectively plan, organize, and control work
activities with little or no direct involvement of a higher-status supervisor?
A. Gainsharing teams
B. Production teams
C. Joint health and safety committees
D. Self-directed teams
E. Quality circles
133. (p. 253-254) Members of self-directed teams have jobs that are:
A. typically in services rather than production.

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B. enlarged but not enriched.

C. enriched but not enlarged.
D. specialized with a high division of labor.
E. both enlarged and enriched.
134. (p. 255) Self-directed teams are best suited to situations where:
A. employees perform highly interdependent tasks.
B. management wants to closely monitor employee performance.
C. employees perform identical tasks.
D. employees do not get along with each other.
E. All of the above.

135. (p. 255) Virtual teams are best described as:

A. groups of employees who are almost (virtually) identical to each other in skills and values.
B. cross-functional groups of employees that operate across space, time and organizational boundaries.
C. formal work teams in which most members do not feel that they are really part of the team.
D. informal groups that meet only in cyberspace.
E. groups of employees from different departments who are located near each other.
136. (p. 255) Two features that distinguish virtual teams from conventional teams are:
A. size and heterogeneity.
B. lack of co-location and dependence on information technology.
C. joint optimization and primary work unit.
D. norms and trust.
E. None of the above distinguishes virtual teams from conventional teams.
137. (p. 255) Globalization and knowledge management have made __________ necessary for organizations
to remain competitive.
A. groupthink
B. virtual teams
C. command-and-control management
D. Delphi method
E. None of these are necessary as a result of globalization and knowledge management.
138. (p. 257) Production blocking and evaluation apprehension:
A. improve the creative process.
B. help teams to avoid groupthink.
C. are two ways to overcome group polarization.
D. do all of these.
E. do none of these.
139. (p. 257) Which of the following statements about evaluation apprehension in team settings is TRUE?
A. Evaluation apprehension increases with the individual's motivation to share his or her ideas.
B. Evaluation apprehension is more likely to occur when team members formally evaluate each other's
performance throughout the year.
C. Evaluation apprehension motivates team members to generate creative solutions, no matter how silly
they may sound.
D. Evaluation apprehension does not apply to team settings.
E. None of these statements is true.
140. (p. 257) Groupthink is caused by:
A. team cohesiveness.
B. an opinionated team leader.
C. isolation of the team from outsiders.
D. stress due to an external threat.
E. All of these factors cause groupthink.

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141. (p. 258) Groupthink characteristics cause team members to be ___________ their decisions.
A. uncomfortable with
B. confused about
C. hesitant and doubtful about
D. more aware of the characteristics of
E. highly confident in

142. (p. 258) Teams tend to make better decisions when:

A. team members have similar backgrounds and characteristics.
B. the team leader is able to sway the group towards one preference over others.
C. team norms encourage consensus rather than disagreement.
D. all of these conditions exist.
E. none of these conditions exist.
143. (p. 258) The main advantage of constructive conflict is that it:
A. minimizes dysfunctional conflict among team members.
B. increases the level of group polarization.
C. removes production blocking.
D. encourages team members to re-examine the assumptions and logic of their preferences in the
decision.
E. helps the team to make decisions more quickly.
144. (p. 258-259) Brainstorming requires team members to:
A. openly criticize each other's ideas.
B. avoid mentioning ideas that seem silly.
C. present ideas only when they are certain that the ideas are feasible.
D. do all of these.
E. do none of these.
145. (p. 260) Which of the following explicitly encourages team members to 'piggyback' or 'hitchhike' on
the ideas presented by other team members?
A. Brainstorming.
B. Group polarization.
C. Constructive conflict.
D. Groupthink.
E. Nominal group technique.
146. (p. 260) Which of these team decision-making structures explicitly discourages criticism and debate?
A. Nominal group technique.
B. Delphi method.
C. Brainstorming.
D. All three - brainstorming, Delphi method, and nominal group technique explicitly discourage criticism
and debate.
E. Both brainstorming and nominal group technique explicitly discourages criticism and debate.
147. (p. 260) Which of the following is NOT a feature of nominal group technique?
A. Participants openly debate and criticize ideas constructively.
B. After the problem is described, team members silently and independently write down as many solutions
as they can.
C. Nominal group technique discourages criticism or debate.
D. After ideas have been presented, participants silently and independently rank order or vote on each
proposed solution.
E. Nominal group technique follows an individual, then team, then individual process.

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148. (p. 260) In which decision-making structure do participants typically meet, but only interact with each
other for part of the meeting?
A. Delphi method.
B. Nominal group technique.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Constructive conflict.
E. None of these team decision making structures prevents participants from interacting with each other
for part of the meeting.