CCNA 1 Final Exam Answers

1 Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:

R1#
copy
Address or name of remote host [ ]?

running-config

tftp

When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP
address should the administrator enter at the prompt?
192.168.9.254
192.168.10.1
192.168.10.2
192.168.11.254
192.168.11.252

2 Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose

three.)
TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.

3 What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

to inform routers about network topology changes
to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution
to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions

4 A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician

testing?
connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network
the TCP/IP stack on a network host
connectivity between two PCs on the same network

5 What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a

received frame is not in the MAC table?
It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
It initiates an ARP request.

It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was
received.
It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.

6 What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

It places information in the frame that allows multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the
same network interface and media.
It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the
medium.
It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.
It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.

7
On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so
that the switch can be managed remotely?
VLAN 1
console 0
vty 0
FastEthernet0/1

8
A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits across the company
backbone for a mission critical database application. The engineer notices
that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected.
Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose
three.)
the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone
the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
the type of traffic that is crossing the network

the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data

the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing

9
When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force
password attacks against the router?
service password-encryption
login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60
banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
exec-timeout 30

10
Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its
contents? (Choose two.)
ROM is nonvolatile and contains basic diagnostic software.
FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS.
ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
RAM is volatile and stores the IP routing table.
NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores other system files.

11
Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be installed on a
WLAN? (Choose two.)
custom adapter
wireless bridge
media

wireless NIC
crossover cable
wireless client software

12 Launch PT - Hide and Save PT

Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then fill
in the blank.
The Server0 message is . winner

13
A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions
are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation?
(Choose three.)
applying security settings to control the flow of data
notifying other devices when errors occur
regenerating data signals
acting as a client or a server
serving as the source or destination of the messages
providing a channel over which messages travel

14

15

16
Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is moved to a
different network?
IP address
logical address
MAC address
default gateway address

17
What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a
host?

A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.

18
A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address through
DHCP. Which two messages will the client typically broadcast on the network?
(Choose two.)
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPOFFER
DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPNACK
DHCPACK

19

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand

new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will
display after the command is issued?
Switch#
My(config)#
My Switch(config)#
Switch(config)#

MySwitch(config)#

20
After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy
running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of
issuing this command?
The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.
The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.

21

Refer to the exhibit.A TCP segment from a server has been captured by
Wireshark, which is running on a host. What acknowledgement number will
the host return for the TCP segment that has been received?
2921

250
2
306
21

22
Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing
multiple devices to share one public IP address?
ARP
DNS
SMB
DHCP
HTTP
NAT

23 What is the purpose of the routing process?

to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks
to convert a URL name into an IP address
to provide secure Internet file transfer
to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses

24 Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first
employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read
some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate
database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee
participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate

managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will

be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?
audio conference, financial transactions, web page
financial transactions, audio conference, web page
audio conference, web page, financial transactions
financial transactions, web page, audio conference

25
A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital
transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be
used?
cell modem
dial-up
cable modem
satellite
DSL

26
Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco
switch?
a Telnet connection
an SSH connection
a console connection
an AUX connection

27 What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?

to provide challenge and response questions

to require users to prove who they are

to determine which resources a user can access
to keep track of the actions of a user

28

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to

switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which
password is needed to access user EXEC mode?
lineconin
linevtyin
letmein
secretin

29
Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes, and
technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation details?
IEEE standards
Request for Comments

IRTF research papers

protocol models

30 A PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically from network

192.168.1.0/24. The network administrator issues the arp a command and
notices an entry of 192.168.1.255 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff. Which statement describes this
entry?
This entry refers to the PC itself.
This entry maps to the default gateway.
This is a static map entry.
This is a dynamic map entry.

31 Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host

address?
192.168.1.64/26
192.168.1.32/28
192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.64/29

32
A particular website does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7
computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS
entries for this web page?
ipconfig /all
ipconfig /displaydns
arp -a
nslookup

33 Which type of wireless security generates dynamic encryption keys each

time a client associates with an AP?
WPA
PSK
WEP
EAP

34
A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the
receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?
to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends
to determine the physical address of the sending device
to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device
to check the frame for possible transmission errors
to verify the network layer protocol information

35

Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed?

Site 1
Site 3
Site 4
Site 2

36
What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a
router?
to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group
to permit only unicast packets on the router
to enable the router as an IPv6 router
to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

37
Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)
10.1.1.1
172.16.4.4
224.6.6.6
192.168.5.5
172.32.5.2
192.167.10.10

38

Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1.
What is a description of the default gateway address?

It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.
It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.

39 During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco switches and
routers run the IOS?
flash
RAM
NVRAM
disk drive

40
What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?
It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.
It accepts frames from the physical media.
It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.
It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.

41
Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?
wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
avoiding sharp bends during installation
requiring proper grounding connections
designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together

42
What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation?
(Choose three.)
placement and removal of frames from the media
detection of errors through CRC calculations
conversion of bits into data signals
delimiting groups of bits into frames
data link layer addressing
error correction through a collision detection method
session control using port numbers

43
What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless
network?
token passing
CSMA/CD
CSMA/CA
priority ordering

44
What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is not delivered to
the destination?
A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent.
The transmission continues without the missing portion.
The entire transmission is re-sent.

45
What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical
cable
the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover
Ethernet cable connection
the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected
the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation

46
Which function is provided by TCP?
detection of missing packets
communication session control
path determination for data packets
data encapsulation

47
How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?
A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its ports.
However, a Layer 2 switch does not.
A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table.
A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not.
An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. However, this is
not supported in Layer 2 switches.

48
Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6?
(Choose two.)
/68
/62
/66
/64
/70

49
What is the purpose of having a converged network?
to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure
to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices
to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally
to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices

50

Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC2 in this

exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address
table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?
just the PC0 MAC address
PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
just the PC2 MAC address
just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses
just the PC1 MAC address

51
Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its
transmission?
Packet Length
Destination Address
Flag
Time-to-Live

52
What two preconfigured settings that affect security are found on most new
wireless routers? (Choose two.)
MAC filtering enabled
default administrator password
WEP encryption enabled
PSK authentication required
broadcast SSID

53
Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination
when there are multiple routes available?

the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network
the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network
the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network
the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network

54

Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the asterisk (*) in the exhibited
output?
An asterisk designates that the file system has at least one file that uses that file system.
The asterisk designates which file system is the default file system.
An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable.
The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot the system.

55

56
Fill in the blank.
During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a specific group
of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of a multicast
message.

57
An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after
issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?
to interrupt the ping process
to restart the ping process
to allow the user to complete the command

to exit to a different configuration mode

58

Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an extranet for the
company network that is shown?
area A
area D
area C
area B

59

60

61
In which default order will a router search for startup configuration
information?
setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP
NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode
NVRAM, RAM, TFTP
TFTP, ROM, NVRAM
flash, ROM, setup mode

62

Launch PT - Hide and Save PT

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then
answer
the
question.
Which IPv6 address is assigned to the Serial0/0/0 interface on RT2?
2001:db8:abc:1::1
2001:db8:abc:5::1
2001:db8:abc:5::2
2001:db8:abc:10::15

63
What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?
physical address
data
error detection*
logical address
64

Posted 26th April 2014 by Granit B

.Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used
for specific types of media?
Data link

2.Which statement describes signaling at the physical layer?

Sending the signals asynchronously means that they are transmitted without a clock signal.

3.What are two reasons for physical layer protocols to use frame encoding techniques?
(Choose two.)
1.to distinguish data bits from control bits
2.to identify where the frame starts and ends

4.The throughput of a FastEthernet network is 80 Mb/s. The traffic overhead for

establishing sessions, acknowledgments, and encapsulation is 15 Mb/s for the same time
period. What is the goodput for this network?
65 Mb/s
5.A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying
corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to
fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper
cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)
1.EMI
2.RFI

6.How is the magnetic field cancellation effect enhanced in UTP cables?

by increasing and varying the number of twists in each wire pair

7.Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

The untwisted length of each wire is too long.

8.Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of the switch. All the other
connections are made through FastEthernet links. Which types of UTP cables can be used to
connect the devices?
1 - rollover, 2 - straight-through, 3 - crossover

9.Which statement is correct about multimode fiber?

SC-SC patch cords are used with multimode fiber cables.

10.What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?
It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.

11.Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?

They allow for full-duplex connectivity.

12.A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three
areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)
1.Security
2.Interference
3.Coverage Area

13.A network administrator is required to upgrade wireless access to end users in a building.
To provide data rates up to 1.3 Gb/s and still be backward compatible with older devices,
which wireless standard should be implemented?
802.11ac

14.What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?

It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical medium to be used in
the communication.

15.As data travels on the media in a stream of 1s and 0s how does a receiving node identify
the beginning and end of a frame?
The transmitting node inserts start and stop bits into the frame.
16.What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
Logical topologies determine the media access control method used.
17.What are two characteristics of 802.11 wireless networks? (Choose two.)
1.They use CSMA/CA technology.
2.Collisions can exist in the networks.
18.What is the purpose of the FCS field in a frame?
to determine if errors occurred in the transmission and reception

19.Fill in the blank with a number. 10,000,000,000 b/s can also be written as _____ Gb/s.
10

20.Fill in the blank. The term _______ indicates the capacity of a medium to carry data
and it is typically measured in kilobits per second (kb/s) or megabits per second (Mb/s).
Bandwidth

21.Fill in the blank. What acronym is used to reference the data link sublayer that identifies
the network layer protocol encapsulated in the frame?
LLC (Logical Link Control)

22.The physical layer ______

encodes the frames and creates the signals that represent the bits

23.These signals are then sent on the ________

media one at a time

24.The destination node physical layer ________

retrieves the individual signals from the media, restores them to their bit representations
.Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used
for specific types of media?
Data link

2.Which statement describes signaling at the physical layer?

Sending the signals asynchronously means that they are transmitted without a clock signal.

3.What are two reasons for physical layer protocols to use frame encoding techniques?
(Choose two.)
1.to distinguish data bits from control bits
2.to identify where the frame starts and ends

4.The throughput of a FastEthernet network is 80 Mb/s. The traffic overhead for

establishing sessions, acknowledgments, and encapsulation is 15 Mb/s for the same time
period. What is the goodput for this network?
65 Mb/s
5.A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying
corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to
fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper
cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)
1.EMI
2.RFI

6.How is the magnetic field cancellation effect enhanced in UTP cables?

by increasing and varying the number of twists in each wire pair

7.Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

The untwisted length of each wire is too long.

8.Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of the switch. All the other
connections are made through FastEthernet links. Which types of UTP cables can be used to
connect the devices?
1 - rollover, 2 - straight-through, 3 - crossover

9.Which statement is correct about multimode fiber?

SC-SC patch cords are used with multimode fiber cables.

10.What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?
It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.

11.Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?
They allow for full-duplex connectivity.
12.A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three
areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)
1.Security
2.Interference
3.Coverage Area

13.A network administrator is required to upgrade wireless access to end users in a building.
To provide data rates up to 1.3 Gb/s and still be backward compatible with older devices,
which wireless standard should be implemented?
802.11ac

14.What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?

It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical medium to be used in
the communication.

15.As data travels on the media in a stream of 1s and 0s how does a receiving node identify
the beginning and end of a frame?
The transmitting node inserts start and stop bits into the frame.
16.What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
Logical topologies determine the media access control method used.
17.What are two characteristics of 802.11 wireless networks? (Choose two.)
1.They use CSMA/CA technology.
2.Collisions can exist in the networks.
18.What is the purpose of the FCS field in a frame?
to determine if errors occurred in the transmission and reception

19.Fill in the blank with a number. 10,000,000,000 b/s can also be written as _____ Gb/s.
10

20.Fill in the blank. The term _______ indicates the capacity of a medium to carry data
and it is typically measured in kilobits per second (kb/s) or megabits per second (Mb/s).
Bandwidth

21.Fill in the blank. What acronym is used to reference the data link sublayer that identifies
the network layer protocol encapsulated in the frame?
LLC (Logical Link Control)

22.The physical layer ______

encodes the frames and creates the signals that represent the bits

23.These signals are then sent on the ________

media one at a time

24.The destination node physical layer ________

retrieves the individual signals from the media, restores them to their bit representations

Refer to the exhibit. A switch was configured as shown. A ping to the default gateway
was issued, but the ping was not successful. Other switches in the same network can
ping this gateway. What is a possible reason for this?
The
default
gateway
address
must
be
192.168.10.1.
The ip default-gateway command has to be issued in the VLAN interface configuration
mode.

The VLAN IP address and the default gateway IP address are not in the same network.
The
no
shutdown
command
was
not
issued
for
VLAN
1.
The local DNS server is not functioning correctly.
2.
While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made multiple changes to the
current router configuration file. The changes did not solve the problem and were not
saved. What action can the technician take to discard the changes and work with the
file in NVRAM?
Issue the reload command without saving the running configuration.
Close
and
reopen
the
terminal
emulation
software.
Delete
the
vlan.dat
file
and
reboot
the
device.
Issue the copy startup-config running-config command.
3.
Why is it important to configure a hostname on a device?
to
allow
local
access
to
the
device
through
the
console
port
a Cisco router or switch only begins to operate when its hostname is set
to
identify
the
device
during
remote
access
(SSH
or
telnet)
a hostname must be configured before any other parameters
4.
Which procedure is used to access a Cisco 2960 switch when performing an initial
configuration in a secure environment?
Use the console port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the
PC.
Use Secure Shell to remotely access the switch through the network.
Use
Telnet
to
remotely
access
the
switch
through
the
network.
Use the AUX port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the PC.
5.
What criterion must be followed in the design of an IPv4 addressing scheme for end
devices?
Each local host should be assigned an IP address with a unique network component.
Each IP address must match the address that is assigned to the host by DNS.
Each
IP
address
must
be
unique
within
the
local
network.
Each IP address needs to be compatible with the MAC address.

6.
A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents
private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which
access method should be chosen?
AUX
SSH
Console
Telnet
7.
Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?
the
switch
the
console
the
the first Ethernet port interface

virtual
port
AUX

interface
interface
interface

8.
What is a result of using the service password-encryption command on a Cisco
network device?
All passwords in the configuration are not shown in clear text when viewing the
configuration.
The
command
encrypts
the
banner
message.
The
command
encrypts
the
enable
mode
password.
A network administrator who later logs into the device will be required to enter an
administrator password in order to gain access to the Cisco device.
9.
Match the difinitions to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts.

Tab
-> Completes
abbreviated
commands
and
parameters
Ctrl-R
-> returns
directly
to
the
privileged
EXEC
mode
Up Arrow -> scrolls backwards through previously entered commands
Ctrl-Z -> cancels any command currently being entered and returns directly to
privileged
EXEC
mode
Ctrl-C -> Redisplays, on a new line, the command currently being typed
10.
A network administrator is planning an IOS upgrade on several of the head office
routers and switches. Which three questions must be answered before continuing
with the IOS selection and upgrade? (Choose three.)
What
models
of
routers
and
switches
require
upgrades?
Do the routers and switches have enough RAM and flash memory for the proposed
IOS
versions?
What
ports
are
installed
on
the
routers
and
switches?
Are
the
devices
on
the
same
LAN?
What
features
are
required
for
the
devices?
Do the devices have enough NVRAM to store the IOS image?

11. What benefit does DHCP provide to a network?

Hosts can connect to the network and get an IP address without manual
configuration.
Duplicate addresses cannot occur on a network that issues dynamic addresses using
DHCP
and
has
static
assignments.
DHCP allows users to refer to locations by a name rather than an IP address.
Hosts always have the same IP address and are therefore always reachable.
12.
Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of
the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
providing
an
error
message
when
a
wrong
command
is
submitted
allowing the user to complete the remainder of an abbreviated command with the TAB key
displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode
selecting
the
best
command
to
accomplish
a
task
determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the entered
command
13.
A router has a valid operating system and a configuration stored in NVRAM. When
the router boots up, which mode will display?
global
user
setup
ROM monitor mode

configuration
EXEC

mode
mode
mode

14.
Which two features are characteristics of flash memory? (Choose two.)
Flash receives a copy of the IOS from RAM when a device is powered on.
Flash
provides
nonvolatile
storage.
The
contents
of
flash
may
be
overwritten.
Flash is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.
The contents of flash may be lost during a power cycle.
15.
Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the
modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)

boot
Ethernet
privileged
VTY
console
router configuration mode

IOS
EXEC

mode
interface
mode
interface
interface

16.
Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?
to
enable
the
switch
to
send
broadcast
frames
to
attached
PCs
to
enable
the
switch
to
function
as
a
default
gateway
to
enable
the
switch
to
receive
frames
from
attached
PCs
to enable the switch to be managed remotely
17.
What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a PC?
if
there
is
connectivity
with
the
destination
device
what
type
of
device
is
at
the
destination
if the TCP/IP stack is functioning on the PC without putting traffic on the wire
the path that traffic will take to reach the destination
18.
What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that
computer?
ping
show
interfaces
show
ip
interface
brief
ipconfig
19.
Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?
It
should
be
deleted
using
the
erase
running-config
command.
It
is
automatically
saved
when
the
router
reboots.
It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
It is stored in NVRAM.
20.
Match the description to the common IOS CLI access method.

21.
Which two characters are allowed as part of the hostname of a Cisco device?
(Choose
two.)
tab
space
question
mark
numbers
underline
22.
A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco
device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the
banner
is
properly
configured?
Power
cycle
the
device.
Enter
CTRL-Z
at
the
privileged
mode
prompt.
Exit
global
configuration
mode.
Exit
enable
mode
and
press
Enter.
Reboot the device.
Posted 1st October 2013 by Granit B

Terms

Definitions

What application layer protocol is

FTP

commonly used to support for file transfers b/w a

client & a server?
HTML
HTTP
FTP
Telnet

What are 2 forms of application layer

software? (choose two)
applications
dialogs
requests
services
syntax

A network administrator is designing a network

for a new branch office of 25 users. What are the
advantages of using client-server model? (choose
2)
centralized administration
does not require specialized software
security is easier to enforce
lower cost implementation
provides a single point of failure

1. Applications
2. Services

1. Centralized administration
2. Security is easier to enfore

What 3 protocols operate at the

Application layer of the OSI model? (choose
three)
ARP
DNS
PPP
SMTP
POP

DNS
SMTP
POP

 ICMP

What is the purpose of resource records

in DNS?
temporarily holds resolved entries
used by the server to resolve names
sent by the client to during a query
passes authentication information between the
server and client

What is the automate service that

Used by the server to resolve

names

DNS

matches resource names w/ the required IP

address?
HTTP
SSH
FQDN
DNS
Telnet
SMTP

What are 3 properties of peer-to-peer

application?
acts as both a client and server within the
same communication.
requires centralized account administration.
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of
files.
can be used in client-server networks.
requires a direct physical connection between
devices.
centralized authentication is required.

Which application protocols correctly match a

corresponding function? (choose 2)
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to
hosts
HTTP transfers data from a web server to a
client
POP delivers email from the client to the server
email server
SMTP supports file sharing

1. Acts as both client & server

w/in the same communication
2. Hybrid mode includes a centralized
directory of files.
3. Can be used in client-server
networks

1. HTTP transfer data from a

web server to a client
2. Telnet provides a virtual connection
for remote access

 Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote

access

Which email components are used to

forward mail b/w servers? (choose two)
MDA
IMAP
MTA
POP
SMTP
MUA

As compared to SSH, what is the primary

1. MTA
2. SMTP

does not support encryption

disadvantage of telnet?
not widely available
does not support encryption
consumes more network bandwidth
does not support authentication

Which statements are correct concerning the role

of MTA in handling mail? (choose three)
routes email to the MDA on other servers
receives email from the client's MUA
receives email via the POP3 protocol
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers
delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol

Which 2 protocols are used to control the

transfer of web resources from a web server to a
client browser? (choose two)
ASP
FTP
HTML
HTTP
HTTPS
IP

1. receives email from the

client's MUA
2. passes email to the MDA for final
delivery
3. uses SMTP to route email b/w
servers

1. HTTP
2. HTTPS

A small home network has been installed to

interconnected 3 computers together for gaming
& file sharing. What 2 properties represent this
network type? (choose two)
User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.
Specialized operating system software is
required.
File permissions are controlled by a single
computer.
A computer that responds to a file sharing
request is functioning as a server.

1. Security is difficult to
enforce
2. A computer that responds to a file
sharing request is functioning as a
server

Which layer of the OSI model supplies

Application

services that allow user to interface w/ the

network?
physical
session
network
presentation
application
transport

Refer to the exhibit. What is the

destination port for the communication that is
represented on line 5?
80
1261
15533
3912
65520

What are 2 characteristics of peer-topeer networks? (choose two)

scalable
one way data flow
decentralized resources
centralized user accounts
resource sharing without a dedicated server

80

1. decentralized resources
2. resource sharing w/o a dedicated
server

What application layer protocol describes

SMB

the services that are used file sharing in

Microsoft networks?
DHCP
DNS
SMB
SMTP
Telnet

What are 2 characteristics of clients in

data networks?
use daemons
initiate data exchanges
are repositories of data
may upload data to servers
listen for requests from servers

What is the role of the OSI application layer?

provides segmentation of data
provides encryption and conversion of data
provides the interface between the applications
on either end of the network
provides control of all the data flowing between
the source and destination devices

How does the application layer on a server

usually process multiple client request for
services?
ceases all connections to the service
denies multiple connections to a single daemon
suspends the current connection to allow the
new connection
uses support from lower layer functions to
distinguish between connections to the service

Which 3 layers of the OSI model make up

the Application layer of the TCP/IP model?

1. initiate data exchanges

2. may upload data to servers

provides the interface

between the applications on either end
of the network

uses support from lower

functions to distinguish between
connections to the service

1. Session
2. Presentation
3. Application

What protocol is used to transfer web

HTTP

pages from server to client?

Which protocols use authentication and

encryption to secure data traveling b/w client &
server?

Match the functions into the appropriate

email component.

1. HTTPS
2. SSH

* MTA
- forwards mail b/w servers using SMTP
- receives mail from client
* MDA
- resolves final delivery issues
- performs actual delivery to user's
mailbox
* MUA
- retrieves mail using POP
- client used to access and read mail

Posted 1st October 2013 by Granit B

1
Fill
The
2

decimal

in
equivalent of

the

binary

the
number 10010101

is

blank.
149 .

Place the options in the following order:

[+] 192.168.100.161/25
[+] 203.0.113.100/24
[+] 10.0.50.10/30
[#] 192.168.1.80/29
[#] 172.110.12.64/28
[#] 10.10.10.128/25
[*] 10.0.0.159/27
[*]
[+] Order does not matter within this group.
[#] Order does not matter within this group.
[*] Order does not matter within this group.

192.168.1.191/26

3
What is indicated by a successful ping to the ::1 IPv6 address?
The link-local address is correctly configured.
The default gateway address is correctly configured.
The host is cabled properly.
All hosts on the local link are available.
IP is properly installed on the host.*
4

Launch
PT
- Hide
and
Save
PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer
the question.

Which message is displayed on the web server?

Correct configuration!*
IPv6 address configured!
You did it right!
Successful configuration!
5
Which two ICMP messages are used by both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols? (Choose two.)
router solicitation
protocol unreachable*
neighbor solicitation
route redirection*
router advertisement
6
A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it?
unicast
directed broadcast*
limited broadcast
multicast
7
Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)
the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond
the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to
return to the source*
whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network*
the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
the number of routers between the source and destination device

8
A DHCP server is used to assign IP addresses dynamically to the hosts on a network.
The address pool is configured with 192.168.10.0/24. There are 3 printers on this
network that need to use reserved static IP addresses from the pool. How many IP
addresses in the pool are left to be assigned to other hosts?
253
252
251*
254
9
Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.)
logical portion
network portion*
physical portion
broadcast portion
host portion*
subnet portion
10
Which IPv6 address is most compressed for the full FE80:0:0:0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3
address?
FE80::2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3*
FE80::0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3
FE80:::0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3
FE8::2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3
11

12
What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network*
an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host
a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site*
a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that
has been provided by an ISP*
a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by
a local administrator
13

14
Which network migration technique encapsulates IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets to
carry them over IPv4 network infrastructures?
encapsulation
translation
dual-stack
tunneling*
15
When an IPv6 enabled host needs to discover the MAC address of an intended IPv6

destination, which destination address is used by the source host in the NS

message?
global unicast address of the receiver
solicited-node multicast address*
all-node multicast address
link-local address of the receiver
16
When a Cisco router is being moved from an IPv4 network to a complete IPv6
environment, which series of commands would correctly enable IPv6 forwarding and
interface addressing?
Router#
configure
Router(config)#
interface
Router(config-if)#
ip
address
Router(config-if)#
no
Router(config-if)#
Router(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing

fastethernet
192.168.1.254

terminal
0/0
255.255.255.0
shutdown
exit

Router#
configure
Router(config)#
interface
Router(config-if)#
ipv6
address
Router(config-if)#
no
Router(config-if)#
Router(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing ***********

terminal
fastethernet
0/0
2001:db8:bced:1::9/64
shutdown
exit

Router#
configure
Router(config)#
interface
Router(config-if)#
ipv6
address
Router(config-if)# no shutdown

terminal
fastethernet
0/0
2001:db8:bced:1::9/64

Router#
Router(config)#
Router(config-if)#
Router(config-if)#
Router(config-if)#

ip

configure
terminal
interface
fastethernet
0/0
ip
address
2001:db8:bced:1::9/64
address
192.168.1.254
255.255.255.0
no
shutdown

17
What two statements describe characteristics of Layer 3 broadcasts? (Choose two.)
There is a broadcast domain on each switch interface.
Routers create broadcast domains.*
A router will not forward any type of Layer 3 broadcast packet.
Broadcasts are a threat and users must avoid using protocols that implement them.
A limited broadcast packet has a destination IP address of 255.255.255.255.*
Some IPv6 protocols use broadcasts.
18
Which two statements are correct about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
IPv6 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers.*
IPv6 addresses are 32 bits in length.
IPv4 addresses are 128 bits in length.
IPv4 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers.
IPv4 addresses are 32 bits in length.*
IPv6 addresses are 64 bits in length.
19
What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?
/26
/28
/27*
/25
20
Fill
in
the
What is the decimal equivalent of the hex number
21
What are two types of IPv6 unicast addresses? (Choose two.)
anycast

0x3F?

blank.
63

link-local*
multicast
loopback*
broadcast
22
When will a router drop a traceroute packet?
when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message
when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message
when the value in the TTL field reaches zero*
when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero
when the RTT value reaches zero
23
An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::1.
What is the target of this packet?
all IPv6 configured routers across the network
all IPv6 configured routers on the local link
all IPv6 enabled nodes on the local link*
all IPv6 DHCP servers
24
How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
256
128
64
32*

1
Refer to the exhibit.

How many broadcast domains are there?

1
2
3
4*
2
How many usable host addresses are there in the subnet 192.168.1.32/27?
32
30*
64
16
62
3
How many host addresses are available on the network 172.16.128.0 with a subnet
mask of 255.255.252.0?
510
512
1022*
1024
2046
2048

4
A network administrator is variably subnetting a network. The smallest subnet has a
mask of 255.255.255.248. How many host addresses will this subnet provide?
4
6*
8
10
12
5

Refer to the exhibit.

A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet
mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing
enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128*
255.255.255.192

255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
6
Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of
192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to
accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for
configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies,
the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the
workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should
be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the
Internet?
IP address: 192.168.10.65 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.76
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.33
*IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway:
192.168.10.33*
IP address: 192.168.10.41 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.46
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0, default gateway: 192.168.10.1
7

How many bits must be borrowed from the host portion of an address to
accommodate a router with five connected networks?
two
three*
four
five
8
A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of
255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain
10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that?
(Choose two.)
192.168.1.16/28
192.168.1.64/27*
192.168.1.128/27
192.168.1.96/28*
192.168.1.192/28
9
In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts?
/23
/24
/25*
/26
10
Refer to the exhibit.

Given the network address of 192.168.5.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, how
many addresses are wasted in total by subnetting each network with a subnet mask
of 255.255.255.224?
56
60
64
68
72*
11
When developing an IP addressing scheme for an enterprise network, which devices
are recommended to be grouped into their own subnet or logical addressing group?
end-user
workstation
mobile
and
hosts accessible from the Internet*

laptop

clients
clients
hosts

12
A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a
data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these
devices?
random
static
addresses
to
improve
addresses
from
different
subnets
for
predictable
static
IP
addresses
for
easier
dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses

security
redundancy
identification*

13
Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP
addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)
It
eliminates
most
address
configuration
errors.*
It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.
It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.
It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.
It reduces the burden on network support staff.*
14
Refer to the exhibit.

A computer that is configured with the IPv6 address as shown in the exhibit is unable
to access the internet. What is the problem?

The
DNS
There
should
not
be
The
gateway
address
The settings were not validated.

address
is
an
alternative
DNS
is
in
the
wrong

wrong.
address.
subnet.*

15
When subnetting a /64 IPv6 network prefix, which is the preferred new prefix?
/66
/70
/72*
/74
16
What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?
2001:DB8:BC15::0
2001:DB8:BC15:A::0*
2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1
2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0
17
Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6?
(Choose two.)
/62
/64*
/66
/68*
/70
18
Fill
in
In dotted decimal notation, the IP address
the network 172.25.0.64/26.

the
172.25.0.126

blank.
is the last host address for

The
binary
representation
of
the
network
address
172.25.0.64
is
10101100.00011001.00000000.01000000,
where the last six zeros represent the host part of the address.
The last address on that subnet would have the host part equal to 111111,
and the last host address would end in 111110. This results in a binary
representation
of
the
last
host
of
the
IP
address
as
10101100.00011001.00000000.01111110,

which
translates
in
19
Fill
in
In dotted decimal notation, the subnet mask
hosts per subnet.

decimal

to

the
255.255.254.0

172.25.0.126.
blank.
will accommodate 500

If the network has to accommodate 500 hosts per subnet, then we need 9 host bits
(2^9 2 = 510 hosts). The Class B subnet mask has 16 bits available and if
we use 9 bits for hosts, we will have 7 network bits remaining.The subnet mask
with 9 host bits is 11111111.11111111.11111110.00000000, which corresponds
to 255.255.254.0.
20
Consider
the
following
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::
The prefix for the range of addresses is 60
All
the
addresses
have
in
common.
Each
number
represents
4
bits,
so
21
Fill in the blank.
A nibble consists of

range

addresses:

.
the
or

part
letter
the

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A
in
the
address
prefix
is
/60.

bits.

A nibble is half of a byte or 4 bits.

subnetting in IPv6 is usually done on a nibble boundary.
22
Question as presented:

of

This

is

significant

because

Place
the
192.168.1.64/27
192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.96/27
23
Question as presented:

options
not
not

in

the
scored
scored

following

order:
-

Place
the
Network
Network
Network
Network
24
Open the PT Activity.

options
not
not

in

the
scored
scored

following

order:
C
A
D
B

Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What issue is causing Host A to be unable to communicate with Host B?
The
subnet
mask
of
host
A
is
incorrect.
Host
A
has
an
incorrect
default
gateway.
Host
A
and
host
B
are
on
overlapping
subnets.*
The IP address of host B is not in the same subnet as the default gateway is on.
Posted 26th April 2014 by Granit B

1
Which three layers of the OSI model provide similar network services to those
provided by the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
physical
session
transport
application
presentation
data link layer

layer
layer*
layer
layer*
layer*

2
Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)
compression*
addressing
encryption*
session
authentication

control

3
Select three protocols that operate at the Application Layer of the OSI model.
(Choose three.)
ARP
TCP
DSL
FTP*
POP3*
DHCP*
4
A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from their ISP. The
services required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which
protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.)
FTP*
HTTP*
DNS
SNMP
DHCP
SMTP*

5
What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
scalable
one
way
decentralized
centralized
user
resource sharing without a dedicated server*

data

flow
resources*
accounts

6
What is an example of network communication that uses the client-server model?
A user uses eMule to download a file that is shared by a friend after the file location is
determined.
A workstation initiates an ARP to find the MAC address of a receiving host.
A user prints a document by using a printer that is attached to a workstation of a coworker.
A workstation initiates a DNS request when the user types www.cisco.com in the
address bar of a web browser.*
7
What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?
Messages are kept in the mail servers until the client manually deletes them.*
When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail
server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time.
IMAP
sends
and
retrieves
email,
but
POP
only
retrieves
email.
POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows
distributed storage.
8
Which two actions are taken by SMTP if the destination email server is busy when
email messages are sent? (Choose two.)
SMTP sends an error message back to the sender and closes the connection.
SMTP
tries
to
send
the
messages
at
a
later
time.*
SMTP will discard the message if it is still not delivered after a predetermined expiration
time.
SMTP periodically checks the queue for messages and attempts to send them again.*
SMTP sends the messages to another mail server for delivery.
9
Which application layer protocol uses message types such as GET, PUT, and POST?

DNS
DHCP
SMTP
HTTP*
POP3
10
A DHCP-enabled client PC has just booted. During which two steps will the client PC
use broadcast messages when communicating with a DHCP server? (Choose two.)
DHCPDISCOVER*
DHCPACK
DHCPOFFER
DHCPREQUEST*
DHCPNAK
11
A user accessed the game site www.nogamename.com last week. The night before
the user accesses the game site again, the site administrator changes the site IP
address. What will be the consequence of that action for the user?
The
user
will
not
be
able
to
access
the
site.
The
user
will
access
the
site
without
problems.*
The user will have to modify the DNS server address on the local PC in order to access the
site.
The user will have to issue a ping to this new IP address to be sure that the domain name
remained the same.
12
Which DNS server in the DNS hierarchy would be considered authoritative for the
domain name records of a company named netacad?
.com
netacad.com*
mx.netacad.com
www.netacad.com
13
Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
The
The
The

source
MAC
destination
message
comes

address
IP
from

is
48
address
a
server

ones
is
offering

(FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
255.255.255.255.*
an
IP
address.

The
message
comes
from
a
client
seeking
an
IP
address.
*
All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.*
Only the DHCP server receives the message.
14
Which phrase describes an FTP daemon?
a
diagnostic
FTP
a
program
that
is
running
on
a
program
that
is
running
on
an application that is used to request data from an FTP server

an
an

FTP
FTP

program
server*
client

15
What is true about the Server Message Block protocol?
Different
SMB
message
types
have
a
different
Clients
establish
a
long
term
connection
to
SMB
messages
cannot
authenticate
a
SMB uses the FTP protocol for communication.

format.
servers.*
session.

16
When would it be more efficient to use SMB to transfer files instead of FTP?
when downloading large files with a variety of formats from different servers
when
a
peer-to-peer
application
is
required
when the host devices on the network use the Windows operating system
when downloading large numbers of files from the same server*
when uploading the same file to multiple remote servers
17
Fill
in
the
blank.
What is the acronym for the protocol that is used when securely communicating with a web
server? HTTPS
Hypertext
Transfer
Protocol
Secure
(HTTPS)
is
the
protocol
that
is
used
for
accessing
or
posting web server information using a secure communication channel.
18

Fill
in
the
blank.
Refer to the exhibit. What command was used to resolve a given host name by querying
the name servers? nslookup
A
user
can
manually
query
the
a
given
host
name
using
Nslookup is both a command and a utility.
19
Question as presented:

Place the options in the following order:

end device address
- not scored authoritative name server
canonical name

name
the

servers
nslookup

to

resolve
command.

mail exchange record

20
Question as presented:

Place the options in the following order:

a message that is used to identify the explicit server and lease offer to accept
a message that is used to locate any available DHCP server on a network
- not scored a message that is used to suggest a lease to a client
a message that is used
21
Question as presented:

to

acknowledge

that

the

lease

is

successful

Place the options in the following order:

[+]
no
dedicated
[+]
client
and
server
roles
[#]
requires
a
[#] a background service is required
[+]
Order
does
[#]
Order
does
22
Open the PT Activity.

not
not

server
are
set
on
specific

matter
matter

is
per
user

within
within

required
request
basis
interface

this
this

group.
group.

Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which PC or PCs are sending FTP packets to the server?
PC_3
PC_1
PC_2*
PC_1 and PC_3

1 Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)

responsible for determining the signal strength

used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network
all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID
consists of a 32-character string and is not case sensitive
tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs
2 Which type of network attack involves the disabling or corruption of networks,
systems, or services?
access attacks
denial of service attacks
reconnaissance attacks
malicious code attacks
3 Which command will backup the configuration that is stored in NVRAM to a TFTP
server?
copy tftp running-config
copy startup-config tftp
copy running-config tftp
copy tftp startup-config
4 Open the PT Activity.
How long will a user be blocked if the user exceeds the maximum allowed number of
unsuccessful login attempts?
3 minutes
1 minute
4 minutes
2 minutes
5 Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The show version
command that is issued on a router is used to verify the value of
the software configuration register.

6 What is a security feature of using NAT on a network?

denies all packets that originate from private IP addresses
allows internal IP addresses to be concealed from external users
denies all internal hosts from communicating outside their own network
allows external IP addresses to be concealed from internal users
7 A network administrator has determined that various computers on the network are
infected with a worm. Which sequence of steps should be followed to mitigate the
worm attack?
containment, quarantine, treatment, and inoculation
treatment, quarantine, inoculation, and containment
inoculation, containment, quarantine, and treatment
containment, inoculation, quarantine, and treatment
8 Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client
establishes a connection with the AP?
PSK
WPA
EAP
WEP
9 Refer to the exhibit. Baseline documentation for a small company had ping round
trip time statistics of 36/97/132 between hosts H1 and H3. Today the network
administrator checked connectivity by pinging between hosts H1 and H3 that
resulted in a round trip time of 1458/2390/6066. What does this indicate to the
network administrator?
Something is causing interference between H1 and R1.
H3 is not connected properly to the network.
Performance between the networks is within expected parameters.
Connectivity between H1 and H3 is fine.
Something is causing a time delay between the networks.

10 When should an administrator establish a network baseline?

when the traffic is at peak in the network
when there is a sudden drop in traffic
at the lowest point of traffic in the network
at regular intervals over a period of time
11 A ping fails when performed from router R1 to directly connected router R2. The
network administrator then proceeds to issue the show cdp neighbors command.
Why would the network administrator issue this command if the ping failed between
the two routers?
The network administrator wants to verify the IP address configured on router R2.
The network administrator suspects a virus because the ping command did not work.
The network administrator wants to determine if connectivity can be established from a nondirectly connected network.
The network administrator wants to verify Layer 2 connectivity.
12 Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device?
To disable CDP globally, the no cdp enable command in interface configuration mode must
be used.
The show cdp neighbor detail command will reveal the IP address of a neighbor only if there
is Layer 3 connectivity.
CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface.
Because it runs at the data link layer, the CDP protocol can only be implemented in
switches.
13 What is the purpose of issuing the commands cd nvram: then dir at the privilege
exec mode of a router?
to list the content of the NVRAM
to clear the content of the NVRAM
to copy the directories from the NVRAM
to direct all new files to the NVRAM

14 A network administrator checks the security log and notices there was
unauthorized access to an internal file server over the weekend. Upon further
investigation of the file system log, the administrator notices several important
documents were copied to a host located outside of the company. What kind of threat
is represented in this scenario?
identify theft
data loss
information theft
disruption of service
15 If a configuration file is saved to a USB flash drive attached to a router, what must
be done by the network administrator before the file can be used on the router?
Edit the configuration file with a text editor.
Use the dir command from the router to remove the windows automatic alphabetization of
the files on the flash drive.
Convert the file system from FAT32 to FAT16.
Change the permission on the file from ro to rw.
16 Which network design consideration would be more important to a large
corporation than to a small business?
Internet router
redundancy
firewall
low port density switch
17 Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?
TCP
RTP
SNMP
PoE

18 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to troubleshoot connectivity

between PC1 and PC2 and uses the tracert command from PC1 to do it. Based on the
displayed output, where should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
SW2
R1
R2
PC2
SW1
19 Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack
Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.
Some RF channels provide automatic encryption of wireless data.
With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.
20 Which two actions can be taken to prevent a successful attack on an email server
account? (Choose two.)
Never send the password through the network in a clear text.
Never use passwords that need the Shift key.
Never allow physical access to the server console.
Limit the number of unsuccessful attempts to log in to the server.
Only permit authorized access to the server room.
21 How should traffic flow be captured in order to best understand traffic patterns in
a network?
when it is from a subset of users
during low utilization times
when it is on the main network segment only
during peak utilization times

22 What do WLANs that conform to IEEE 802.11 standards allow wireless user to do?
use wireless mice and keyboards
create a one-to-many local network using infrared technology
use cell phones to access remote services over very large areas
connect wireless hosts to hosts or services on a wired Ethernet network
23 Fill in the blank.
VoIP defines the protocols and technologies that implement the transmission of voice
data over an IP network.
24 Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The show
file systems
command provides information about the amount of
available and free flash memory and its permissions for reading or writing data.
Posted 26th April 2014 by Granit B